OXFORD EXAMINATION DATABASE BY LESSON SUBJECT: GEN NAV

OXFORD EXAMINATION DATABASE BY LESSON SUBJECT: GEN NAV
001: FORM OF THE EARTH (5 Questions)
Given that the value of ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297 and that the semi-major axis of the Earth
measured at the axis of the Equator is 6378.4 km. What is the semi-major axis of the Earth
measured at the axis of the Poles?
a) 6,367.0 km
b) 6,378.4 km
c) 6,356.9 km
d) 6,399.9 km
The circumference of the Earth is approximately:

a) 5,400 nm
b) 21,600 nm
c) 10,800 nm
d) 43,200 nm
The diameter of the Earth is approximately:

a) 18,500 km
b) 6,350 km
c) 12,700 km
d) 40,000 km
The polar diameter of the earth is how much different to the equatorial diameter?
a) greater by 27 nautical miles
b) less by 27 statute miles
c) greater by 27 statute miles
d) less by 40 km
The radius of the Earth at the Equator is approximately?

a) 24,800 sm
b) 6,875 km
c) 6,370 km
d) 5,400 nm
002: LINES ON THE EARTH
In order to fly from position A (10°00'N 030°00'W) to position B (30°00'N 050°00'W) maintaining
a constant true course it is necessary to fly:
a) the constant average drift route
b) a straight line plotted on a Lambert chart
c) the great-circle route
d) a rhumb line track
Parallels of latitude except the Equator are:

a) both Rhumb Lines and Great Circles
b) Great Circles
c) Rhumb Lines
d) are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles
A Rhumb line is:

a) any straight line on a Lambert projection
b) a line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection
c) the shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projection
d) a line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle
003: LATITUDE AND LONGITUDE
A great circle crosses the Equator on a true track of 062°T. What latitude is the northern vertex?
a) 28°S
b) 62°N
c) 31°N
d) 28°N
The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux are N48°50' E002°16.5'. What are the
coordinates of the position directly on the opposite side of the earth?
a) S41°10' E177°43.5'
b) S41°10' W177°43.5'
c) S48°50' W177°43.5'
d) S48°50' E177°43.5'
The maximum difference between the geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about:
a) 45° North and South
b) 60° North and South
c) 0° North and South (Equator)
d) 90° North and South
004: POSITION ON THE EARTH
Position A is located on the Equator at 130°00E. Position B is 100 nm from A on a bearing of

225°(T). The coordinates of position B are:
a) 01°11'N 131°11'E
b) 01°11'S 131°11'E
c) 01°11'S 128°49'E
d) 01°11'N 128°49'E
005: DISTANCE
A flight is to be made from 'A' 49°S 180°E/W to 'B' 58°S 180°E/W. The distance in kilometers
from 'A' to 'B' is approximately:
a) 804 km
b) 1,000 km
c) 1,222 km
d) 540 km
An ICAO nautical mile is:

a) 1,609 metres
b) 1,012 metres
c) 1,500 metres
d) 1,852 metres
An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180°(T) for 685 km. On completion of the flight the latitude
will be:
a) 04°10'S
b) 04°30'S
c) 03°50'S
d) 09°05'S
An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 62° N 110° E. The total distance
traveled is?
a) 5,420 nm
b) 2,040 nm
c) 3,720 nm
d) 1,788 nm
The great circle distance between position A (59°34.1'N 008°08.4'E) and B (30°25.9'N
171°51.6'W) is:
a) 5 400 nm
b) 2,700 nm
c) 10,800 nm
d) 10,800 km
The length of a nautical mile is:

a) maximum at 45°N/S
b) maximum at the Equator
c) consistent
d) maximum at the Poles
What is the shortest distance in kilometres between Cairo (30°17N 030°10E) and Durban
(29°48S 030° 10E)?
a) 3,605 km
b) 6,676 km
c) 4,146 km
d) 4,209 km
What is the shortest distance in kilometres between San Francisco (38°N 123°W) and Dubai
(25°N 057°E)?
a) 7,020 km
b) 8,073 km
c) 13,001 km
d) 11,250 km
An aircraft at position 00°00N/S 163°27W flies a track of 225°T for 70 nm.

What is its new position?
a) 00°49N 164°16W
b) 00°49S 162°38W
c) 00°49N 162°38W
d) 00°49S 164°16W
006: DEPARTURE
Given:
Position 'A' 60°N 020°W
Position 'B' 60°N 021°W
Position 'C' 59°N 020°W
What are respectively the distances from A to B and from A to C?
a) 60 nm and 30 nm
b) 30 nm and 60 nm
c) 60 nm and 52 nm
d) 52 nm and 60 nm
The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 60°N is approximately:

a) 10,800 nm
b) 20,000 nm
c) 34,641 nm
d) 18,706 nm
Aircraft at position 60°N 013°E flies 350 km due West. What is the new longitude?
a) 008°20'E
b) 006°40'W
c) 002°24'W
d) 006°42'E
An aircraft at position 27°N 170°W travels 3,000 km on a track of 180°T, then 3,000 km on a
track of 090°T, then 3,000 km on a track of 000°T, then 3,000 km on a track of 270°T. What is
its final position?
a) 27°00'N 143°00'W
b) 27°00'N 170°00'W
c) 00°00'N/S 170°00'W
d) 27°00'N 173°18'W
An aircraft at position 60°00'N 005°22'W flies 165 km due East. What is the new position?
a) 60°00'N 002°24'W
b) 60°00N 008°20'E
c) 60°00'N 001°08'E
d) 60°00'N 001°08'W
An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°T for 315 km. On completion of the flight the
longitude will be:
a) 000°15'E
b) 002°10'W
c) 000°40'E
d) 005°15'E
An aircraft departs a point 04°00'N 170°00'W and flies 600 nm South followed by 600 nm East
then 600 nm North then 600 nm West. What is its final position?
a) 04°00N 170°002'W
b) 04°00'N 170°00'W
c) 04°00'N 169°058'W
d) 06°00'S 170°00'W
An aircraft departs from position A (04°10'S 178°22'W) and flies northward following the
meridian for 2,950 nm. It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for 382 nm to position
B. What are the coordinates of position B?
a) 45°00'N 169°22W
b) 45°00'N 172°38'E
c) 53°20'N 169°22W
d) 53°20'N 172°38'E
An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances from position 04°00'N
030°00'W: 600 nm South, then 600 nm East, then 600 nm North, then 600 nm West. The final
position of the aircraft is:
a) 03°58'N 030°02'W
b) 04°00'N 030°00'W
c) 04°00'N 030°02'W
d) 04°00'N 029°58'W
An aircraft leaves position Q (20°S 010°E) and flies 090°T for 600 nm, then 180°T for 600 nm,
then 270°T for 600 nm then 360°T for 600 nm. At the end of this flight the aircraft will be:
a) South of position Q
b) Overhead position Q
c) Due west of position Q
d) Due east of position Q
061-006-011
An aircraft starts at position 04°10'S 178°22'W and flies 360°T for 2,950 nm then turns 90° left
and maintains a rhumb line track for 314 kilometers. What is its final position?
a) 45°00'N 177°38'E
b) 45°00'N 174°22'W
c) 55°00'N 177°38'E
d) 55°00'N 174°22'W
061-006-012
Given: Position A 60°N 020°W; position B 60°N 021°W; position C 59°N 020°W.
What are respectively the distances from A to B and from A to C?
a) 52 nm and 60 nm
b) 60 nm and 30 nm
c) 60 nm and 52 nm
d) 30 nm and 60 nm
061-006-013
Given: Position A 45°N ?°E; position B 45°N 45°15'E; distance A - B 280 nm. B is to the East of
A. What is the longitude of A?
a) 40°33'E
b) 38°39'E
c) 49°57'E
d) 51°51'E
061-006-014
The rhumb line distance between A (43°00'N 170°17'W) and B (43°00'N 175°43'E) is:
a) 800 nm
b) 566 nm
c) 614 nm
d) 579 nm
016-006-015
ME2 The rhumb-line distance between A (60°00'N 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N 007°30'W) is:
a) 450 nm
b) 150 nm
c) 300 nm
d) 600 nm
061-006-016
What is the longitude of a position 6 nm to the east of 58°42'N 094°00'W?
a) 093°48.5'W
b) 093°53.1'W
c) 094°12.0'W
d) 093°54.0'W
061-006-017
You fly from 49°N to 58°N along the 180° E/W meridian. What is the distance in kilometres?
a) 804 km
b) 540 km
c) 1,222 km
d) 1,000 km
061-006-018
Your position is 58°33'N 174°00'W. You fly exactly 6 nm eastwards. What is your new position?
a) 58°33'N 173°48’W
b) 58°33'N 180°00'E/W
c) 58°33'N 174°11'W
d) 58°33'N 173°40'W
061-006-019
The departure between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N x°E is 900 nm. What is the longitude of
x?
a) 145°E
b) 140°W
c) 170°W
d) 175°E
007: EARTH MAGNETISM & DIRECTION
061-007-001
ME2 A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero
is called an:
a) aclinic line
b) isogonal
c) agonic line
d) isotach
061-007-002
A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that:
a) True North is East of Magnetic North
b) True North is West of Magnetic North
c) Compass North is East of Magnetic North
d) Compass North is West of Magnetic North
061-007-003
At a specific location the value of magnetic variation:
a) depends on the magnetic heading
b) depends on the type of compass installed
c) varies slowly over time
d) depends on the value of true heading
061-007-004
ME2 At the magnetic equator:
a) Deviation is zero
b) Dip is zero
c) The isogonal is an agonic line
d) Variation is zero
061-007-005
Compass deviation is defined as the angle between:
a) the horizontal and the total intensity of the earth's magnetic field
b) True North and Compass North
c) True North and Magnetic North
d) Magnetic North and Compass North
061-007-006
Complete the following statement regarding magnetic variation:
The charted values of magnetic variation on earth normally change annually due to:
a) magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase
b) magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase or
decrease
c) a reducing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to decrease
d) an increasing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to increase
061-007-007
Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:
a) magnetic track
b) compass heading
c) magnetic course
d) true heading
061-007-008
Isogonal lines converge as follows:
a) At the North and South Magnetic and Geographical Poles
b) At the North and South Magnetic Poles
c) At the Magnetic Equator
d) At the North Magnetic Pole
061-007-009
Isogonals are lines of equal:
a) compass deviation
b) magnetic variation
c) pressure
d) wind velocity
061-007-010
The agonic line:
a) Follows separate paths out of the North polar regions one currently running through
Western Europe and the other through the USA
b) is the shorter distance between the respective True and Magnetic North and South poles
c) is midway between the magnetic North and South poles
d) follows the geographic Equator
061-007-011
The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called:
a) drift
b) deviation
c) variation
d) compass error
061-007-012
The horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field:
a) weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole
b) is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60°
c) is stronger closer to the magnetic equator
d) weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles
061-007-013
The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal magnetic variation are called:
a) isotachs
b) Isogrivs
c) Isoclines
d) Isogonals
061-007-014
The magnetic direction from the north magnetic pole to the north geographic pole is:
a) 090°
b) 180°
c) 000°
d) 360°
061-007-015
The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth's surface where:
a) a position where the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field is a maximum
b) a freely suspended compass needle will stand horizontal
c) a freely suspended compass needle would stand vertical
d) the value of magnetic variation equals 90°
061-007-016
The value of magnetic variation:
a) has a maximum of 180°
b) varies between a maximum of 45° East and 45° West
c) cannot exceed 90°
d) must be 0° at the magnetic Equator
061-007-017
What is the definition of magnetic variation?
a) The angle between Magnetic North and True North
b) The angle between the direction indicated by a compass and Magnetic North
c) The angle between True North and Compass North
d) The angle between Magnetic Heading and Magnetic North
061-007-018
What is the dip angle at the South Magnetic Pole?
a) 64°
b) 90°
c) 0°
d) 180°
061-007-019
What is the maximum possible value of Dip Angle?
a) 66°
b) 90°
c) 45°
d) 180°
061-007-020
Where is a compass most effective?
a) In the region of the magnetic South pole
b) In the region of the magnetic North pole
c) On the geographic Equator
d) About midway between the earth's magnetic poles
061-007-021
ME2 Which of the following conversions from True to Compass is the correct one?
............ T.....……V....……M...……D.. .……C
a) 130……..2W…....132…….+1……..131
b) 130……..2E……..132……..-1…….131
c) 130……..2W…....132……..-1……..131
d) 130……..2E……..132……..-1…….133
061-007-022
Which of the following statements concerning earth magnetism is completely correct?
a) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the agonic
line is the line of zero magnetic dip
b) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic
is the line of zero magnetic dip
c) An isogonal is a line which connects places of equal dip; the aclinic is the line of zero
magnetic dip
d) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic
connects places with the same magnetic field strength
061-007-023
Which of these is a correct statement about the Earth's magnetic field?
a) It may be temporary transient or permanent
b) It acts as though there is a large blue pole in Northern Canada
c) The angle of dip is the angle between the vertical and the total magnetic force
d) It has no effect on aircraft deviation
061-007-024
Position B is 240°T and 200 nm from A. If the position of A is 00°N/S 100°E, what is the position
of B?
a) 01°40'S 097°07'E
b) 01°40'S 101°40'E
c) 01°40'N 097°07'E
d) 01°40'N 101°40'E
061-007-025
The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North is called:
a) compass error
b) magnetic variation
c) compass deviation
d) alignment error
061-007-026
The force acting on the needle of a direct reading compass varies:
a) inversely with both vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field
b) directly with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
c) directly with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
d) inversely with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
061-007-027
ME2 Given: TRK 180°T; drift 8S; HDG 195°C; DEV -2. What is the variation?
a) 25W
b) 5W
c) 21W
d) 9W
061-007-028
Given: TRK 348°T; drift 17P; VAR 32W; DEV 4E. What is the compass heading?
a) 033°
b) 359°
c) 007°
d) 337°
061-007-029
Route 'A' (44°N 026°E) to 'B' (46°N 024°E) forms an angle of 35° with longitude 026°E. Variation
at A is 3°E. What is the initial magnetic track from A to B?
a) 328°
b) 032°
c) 038°
d) 322°
061-007-030
Given: TRK 300°T; Drift 8S; VAR 10W; DEV -4. What is the compass heading?
a) 322°
b) 306°
c) 294°
d) 278°
061-007-031
Given: TRK 070°T; VAR 30W; DEV +1; drift 10S. What is the compass heading?
a) 091°
b) 089°
c) 100°
d) 101°
061-007-032
Given: TRK 352°T; VAR 11W; DEV -5; drift 10S. What is the compass heading?
a) 018°
b) 025°
c) 346°
d) 358°
009: DIRECT READING COMPASS (4 Questions)
061-009-001
An aircraft's compass must be swung:
a) Every maintenance inspection
b) After a change of theatre of operations at the same magnetic latitude
c) If the aircraft has been subjected to hammering
d) If the aircraft has been in the hangar for a long time and has been moved several times
061-009-002
Magnetic compass calibration is carried out to reduce:
a) acceleration errors
b) parallax error
c) deviation
d) variation
061-009-003
One purpose of a compass calibration is to reduce the difference if any between:
a) true north and magnetic north
b) compass north and the lubber line
c) compass north and true north
d) compass north and magnetic north
061-009-004
Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a Direct Reading
Compass?
a) After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to unserviceability
b) After an aircraft has passed through a severe electrical storm or has been struck by
lightning
c) Before an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large change of magnetic latitude
d) Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its content
010: CONVERGENCY (2 Questions)
061-010-001
A great circle track joins position A (59°S 141°W) and B (61°S 148°W). What is the difference
between the great circle track at A and B?
a) It decreases by 3°
b) It increases by 6°
c) It decreases by 6°
d) It increases by 3°
061-010-002
An aircraft is over position A (55°30'N 060°15'W) where BBB VOR (53°30'N 060°15'W) can be
received. The magnetic variation is 31W at A and 28W at BBB. What is the radial from BBB?
a) 031°
b) 208°
c) 028°
d) 332°
011: CONVERSION ANGLE (8 Questions)
061-011-001
ME2 An aircraft passes A (60°00'N 120°00'W) on route to B (60°00'N 140°30'W). What is the
great circle track on departure from A?
a) 261°
b) 270°
c) 279°
d) 288°
061-011-002
An aircraft flies from A (45°S 010°W) to B (45°S 030°W). The true course of the aircraft on its
arrival at B, to the nearest degree is:
a) 277°
b) 263°
c) 270°
d) 284°
061-011-003
Given: A is at 55°N 000°E/W, B is at 54°N 010°E; the average course of the great circle is
100°T. The course of the rhumb line at point A is:
a) 096°
b) 107°
c) 100°
d) 104°
061-011-004
Given: A is at 55°N 030°W; B is at 54°N 020°W; the Great Circle track from A to B measured at
A is 100°T. What is the Rhumb line bearing from A to B?
a) 090°T
b) 284°T
c) 100°T
d) 104°T
061-011-005
Position A is at 70°S 030°W, position B is at 70°S 060°E. What is the Great Circle track of A to
B, measured at A?
a) 048°T
b) 228°T
c) 090°T
d) 132°T
061-011-006
The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following
points: A (60° S 165° W) and B (60° S 177° E) at the place of departure A is:
a) 9°
b) 15.6°
c) 5.2°
d) 7.8°
061-011-007
The Great Circle bearing from A (70°S 030°W) to B (70°S 060°E) is approximately:
a) 132°
b) 312°
c) 048°
d) 090°
015: CONVERSIONS
265 US-gal equals? (Specific gravity 0.80)

a) 862 kg
b) 803 kg
c) 940 kg
d) 895 kg
730 ft/min equals:

a) 3.7 m/sec
b) 1.6 m/sec
c) 5.2 m/sec
d) 2.2 m/sec
Convert 70 metres/sec into knots.

a) 54 kts
b) 146 kts
c) 136 kts
d) 36 kts
What is the weight in kilogrammes of 380 US Gallons at a Specific Gravity of 0.78?

a) 1,123 kgs
b) 543 kgs
c) 2,470 kgs
d) 5,434 kgs
016: ALTITUDE, SPEED, TEMPERATURE & FUEL
An aircraft is climbing at a constant CAS in ISA conditions. What will be the effect on TAS and
Mach No?
a) Both decrease
b) Both increase
c) TAS increases and Mach No decreases
d) TAS decreases and Mach No increases
Fuel flow per hr is 22 US-gal total fuel on board is 83 imp gal. What is the endurance?
a) 3 hr 53 min
b) 4 hr 32 min
c) 2 hr 15 min
d) 3 hr 12 min
Given: IAS 120 kts; FL 80; OAT +20°C. What is the TAS?

a) 102 kts
b) 120 kts
c) 132 kts
d) 141 kts
Given: FL 350; Mach 0.80; OAT -55°C. What are the values for TAS and local speed of sound
(LSS)?
a) 237 kts - 296 kts
b) 461 kts - 296 kts
c) 490 kts - 461 kts
d) 461 kts - 576 kts
Given: Pressure Altitude 29,000 ft; OAT -55°C. What is the Density Altitude?
a) 33,500 ft
b) 31,000 ft
c) 26,000 ft
d) 27,500 ft
Given: Pressure altitude 9,000 ft; OAT -25°C; CAS 200 kts. What is the TAS?
a) 219 kts
b) 211 kts
c) 200 kts
d) 215 kts
Given: Airfield elevation 1,000 ft; QNH 988 mb. (Use 27 ft per mb) What is the pressure
altitude?
a) 825 ft
b) 325 ft
c) 1691 ft
d) 675 ft
An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE (altitude 1,483 ft; QFE 963 hPa;
temperature 32°C).
Five minutes later passing 5,000 ft on QFE the second altimeter set on 1013 hPa will indicate
approximately:
a) 6,800 ft
b) 6,500 ft
c) 6,300 ft
d) 4,000 ft
Given: FL 150; QNH 1003; OAT at FL150 -5°C. What is the true altitude of the aircraft?
(Assume 27 ft / mb)
a) 14,720 ft
b) 15,330 ft
c) 14,160 ft
d) 15,840 ft
Given: Airport elevation 1,000 ft; QNH 988. What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
(Assume 27 ft / mb)
a) 1,680 ft
b) 680 ft
c) - 320 ft
d) 320 ft
You are at FL 150; SAT -5°C. You are over an airport with an elevation of 720 ft.
The QNH is 1003. (Assume 27 ft / mb). What is your true height?
a) 15,300 ft
b) 14.610 ft
c) 15,600 ft
d) 14,300 ft
018: SPEED, DISTANCE & TIME
An aircraft departing A(40°N 080°E) flies a constant track of 270°T at a ground speed of 120
kts. What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6 hours?
a) 40°00'N 060°00'E
b) 40°00'N 070°30'E
c) 40°00'N 068°10'E
d) 40°00'N 064°20'E
An aircraft is at 10°N and is flying South at 444 km/hour. After 3 hours the latitude is:
a) 02°N
b) 10°S
c) 0°N/S
d) 02°S
An aircraft is flying around the Earth eastwards along the 60N parallel of latitude at a
groundspeed of 240 knots. At what groundspeed would another aircraft have to fly eastwards
along the Equator to fly once round the Earth in the same journey time?
a) 240 kts
b) 480 kts
c) 600 kts
d) 120 kts
If an aircraft was to circle around the Earth following parallel 60°N at a ground speed of 480
kts. In order to circle around the Earth along the equator in the same amount of time it should fly
at a ground speed of:
a) 240 kts
b) 960 kts
c) 480 kts
d) 550 kts
What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60°N between meridians 010°E
and 030°W at a groundspeed of 480 kts?
a) 5 hr 00 min
b) 1 hr 45 min
c) 2 hr 30 min
d) 1 hr 15 min
An aircraft at latitude 10° South flies north at a GS of 890 km/hr. What will its latitude be after
1.5 hr?
a) 03°50N
b) 02°00N
c) 22°00N
d) 12°15N
An aircraft at latitude 10°N flies south at a groundspeed of 445 km/hr. What will be its latitude
after 3 hrs?
a) 22°00S
b) 02°00S
c) 12°15S
d) 03°50S
An aircraft is flying at FL120 IAS 200kt temperature -5°C with a wind component of +30 kts. At a
position 100nm from the next WP the aircraft is ordered to delay its arrival by 5 minutes. The
revised IAS to comply with the delay is:
a) 192 kt
b) 154 kt
c) 161 kt
d) 158 kt
An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its groundspeed?

a) 183 kt
b) 131 kt
c) 209 kt
d) 160 kt
Given: G/S 240 kts; distance to go 500 nm. What is the time to go?
a) 20 min
b) 2 hr 12 min
c) 29 min
d) 2 hr 05 min
Given: GS 122 kts; Distance from A to B 985 nm. What is the time from A to B?
a) 7 hr 49 min
b) 8 hr 10 min
c) 7 hr 48 min
d) 8 hr 04 min
Given: GS 510 kts; Distance A to B 43 nm. What is the time from A to B?

a) 5 min
b) 6 min
c) 7 min
d) 4 min
An aircraft at FL 140; TAS 210 kts; OAT -5°C; and wind component of -35 knots is required to
reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 minutes later than planned.
Assuming that flight conditions do not change when the aircraft is 150 nm from the reporting
point what reduction in TAS is needed?
a) 20 kts
b) 15 kts
c) 30 kts
d) 25 kts
An aircraft at FL120; IAS 200kt; OAT -5° and wind component +30kt is required to reduce speed
in order to cross a reporting point 5 min later than planned.
Assuming flight conditions do not change when 100 nm from the reporting point the IAS should
be reduced to:
a) 169 kts
b) 159 kts
c) 174 kts
d) 165 kts
An aircraft at FL310; M0.83; OAT -30°C is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting
point five minutes later than planned.
Assuming that a zero wind component remains unchanged when 360 nm from the reporting
point Mach Number should be reduced to:
a) M0.76
b) M0.74
c) M0.80
d) M0.78
An aircraft at FL370; M0.86; OAT -44°C; and headwind component 110 kts is required to reduce
speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 min later than planned.
If the speed reduction were to be made 420 nm from the reporting point, what Mach Number is
required?
a) M0.75
b) M0.81
c) M0.79
d) M0.73
An aircraft is at FL140; IAS 210 kts; OAT -5°C; wind component -35 kts.
When the aircraft is at 150 nm from a reporting point ATC request the crew to lose 5 minutes by
the time they get to the beacon.
How much do they need to reduce the IAS?
a) 20 kts
b) 15 kts
c) 25 kts
d) 30 kts
An aircraft is flying at FL120; IAS 200 kts; OAT 5°C; wind component of +30 kts.
At a position 100nm from the next WP the aircraft is ordered to delay its arrival by 5 minutes.
The revised IAS to comply with the delay is:
a) 158 kts
b) 161 kts
c) 154 kts
d) 192 kts
An aircraft is planned to fly from A to B; distance 480 nm; average GS 240 kts.
It departs A at 1000 UTC. After flying 150 nm along track from A the aircraft is 2 min behind
planned time.
Using the actual GS experienced what is the revised ETA at B?
a) 1206
b) 1157
c) 1153
d) 1203
An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 min. How long does it take to travel 215 nm?
a) 90 min
b) 80 min
c) 50 min
d) 100 min
An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its groundspeed?
a) 13 kts
b) 160 kts
c) 209 kts
d) 183 kts
Given: Distance A-B 325 nm; GS 315 kts; ATD 1130 UTC. At 1205 UTC a fix is obtained 165
nm along track.
What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at B?
a) 335 kts
b) 375 kts
c) 355 kts
d) 395 kts
Given: Distance A-B 475 nm; GS 315 kts; ATD 1000 UTC. At 1040 UTC a fix is obtained 190
nm along track.
What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at B?
a) 300 kts
b) 360 kts
c) 340 kts
d) 320 kts
Given: ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTC; GS 441 kts. At 2010 UTC ATC requests a speed
reduction to cross the meridian at 2105 UTC.
The reduction to TAS will be approximately:
a) 90 kts
b) 75 kts
c) 60 kts
d) 40 kts
How far would an aircraft travel in 1 min 45 sec if GS is 135 kts?

a) 3.25 nm
b) 3.94 nm
c) 2.36 nm
d) 39 nm
Refer to Annex D (Diagram)

Given: TAS 20 kts; ATA X 1232 UTC; ETA Y 1247 UTC; ATA Y 1250 UTC. What is the ETA Z?
a) 1303 UTC
b) 1257 UTC
c) 1302 UTC
d) 1300 UTC
019: TRIANGLE OF VELOCITIES
Given: TRK 352°T; Variation 11W; Deviation - 5; Drift 10°S. What is the HDG?
a) 025°C
b) 346°C
c) 078°C
d) 358°C
The flight log gives the following data: "True track, Drift, True heading, Magnetic variation,
Magnetic heading, Compass deviation, Compass heading". The right solution, in the same
order, is:
a) 117°, 4P, 121°, 1E, 122°, -3, 119°
b) 115°, 5S, 120°, 3W, 123°, +2, 121°
c) 119°, 3P, 122°, 2E, 120°, +4, 116°
d) 125°, 2S, 123°, 2W, 121°, -4, 117°
You are flying a compass heading of 135°C. DEV +3; VAR 5W. If your drift is 5P what is your
track?
a) 132°T
b) 128°T
c) 138°T
d) 148°T
You plan to fly a track of 002°T; drift is 14S; VAR 37°E; DEV -3°. What compass heading should
you fly?
a) 033°C
b) 314°C
c) 041°C
d) 016°C
You plan to fly a track of 348°T; drift is 17P; VAR 32°W; DEV 4°E. What compass heading
should you fly?
a) 033°C
b) 016°C
c) 359°C
d) 041°C
020: HEADING, TRACK & GROUNDSPEED
Given: TAS 270 kts; HDG 145°T; W/V 205/30. What is the drift angle and GS?
a) 8°R - 261 kts
b) 6°R - 259 kts
c) 6°L - 256 kts
d) 6°R - 251 kts
Given: HDG 060°M; VAR 8°W; Drift 4°S. What is the track?

a) 056°T
b) 072°T
c) 064°T
d) 048°T
Half way between two reporting points the navigation log gives the following information: TAS
360 kts; W/V 330°/80; HDG 237°C; DEV -5°; VAR 19°W. What is the average ground speed for
this leg?
a) 354 kts
b) 360 kts
c) 403 kts
d) 373 kts
Given: HDG 156°T; TAS 320 kts; W/V 130/45. What is the track?

a) 160°T
b) 104°T
c) 222°T
d) 152°T
Given: HDG 255°M; VAR 40°W; GS 375 kts; W/V 235/120. What is the drift?
a) 3°P
b) 6°S
c) 6°P
d) 9°P
Given: TAS 132 kts; HDG 257°T; W/V 095/35. What is the drift and GS?
a) 4°P - 167 kts
b) 2°S - 166 kts
c) 4°S - 165 kts
d) 3°P - 166 kts
Given: TAS 135 kts; HDG 278°T; W/V 140/20. What is the Track (°T) and GS?
a) 272°T - 121 kts
b) 283°T - 150 kts
c) 275°T - 150 kts
d) 279°T - 152 kts
a) 11°S - 140 kts
b) 11°S - 142 kts
c) 9°S - 140 kts
d) 10°S - 146 kts
Given: TAS 140 kts; HDG 302°T; W/V 045)/45. What is the drift and GS?
a) 9P - 146 kts
b) 16P - 156 kts
c) 9S - 143 kts
d) 18S - 146 kts
a) 1S – 175 kts
b) 1P – 215 kts
c) 1P – 225 kts
d) 1S – 165 kts
a) 4P – 145 kts
b) 7P – 156 kts
c) 8P – 146 kts
d) 4P – 168 kts
Given: TAS 198 kt; HDG 180°T; W/V 359/25. What is the TRK and GS?
a) 181°T – 180 kts
b) 108°T – 223 kts
c) 180°T – 183 kts
d) 179°T – 220 kts
a) 6P – 194 kts
b) 4P – 195 kts
c) 7P – 192 kts
d) 3P – 190 kts
Given: TAS 225 kts; HDG 123°T; W/V 090/60. What is the TRK and GS?
a) 134°T – 178 kts
b) 134°T – 188 kts
c) 120°T – 190 kts
d) 128°T – 180 kts
a) 2S – 223 kts
b) 1P – 225 kts
c) 1S – 221 kts
d) 2P – 224 kts
a) 1S – 295 kts
b) 1P – 205 kts
c) 1P – 265 kts
d) 1S – 205 kts
a) 6P – 256 kts
b) 6S – 259 kts
c) 6S – 251 kts
d) 8S – 259 kts
a) 4S – 310 kts
b) 4P – 314 kts
c) 4P – 310 kts
d) 4S – 314 kts
a) 3S – 470 kts
b) 5P – 475 kts
c) 5S – 475 kts
d) 5P – 470 kts
a) 9S – 533 kts
b) 8P – 435 kts
c) 7S – 531 kts
d) 9S – 433 kts
a) 9P – 105 kts
b) 10P – 104 kts
c) 9S – 108 kts
d) 8S – 104 kts
Given: TAS 210 kts; TRK 048°T; W/V 350/30. What is the drift and GS?
a) 7P – 225 kts
b) 7S – 192 kts
c) 7P – 192 kts
d) 3.5S – 200 kts
Given: An aircraft is on final approach to RW 32R (322°); the wind velocity reported by the tower
is 350/20; TAS on approach is 95 kts. In order to maintain the centre line the aircraft's heading
should be:
a) 328° M
b) 316°M
c) 322°M
d) 326°M
Given: TRK 085°T; forecast W/V 030/100; TAS 470 kts; distance 265 nm. What is the hdg and
flight time?
a) 075°T - 39 min
b) 076°T - 34 min
c) 095°T - 31 min
d) 096°T - 29 min
Given: TRK 045°M; VAR 15E; W/V 190/30; CAS is 120 kts at FL 55 in standard atmosphere.
What is the HDG and GS?
a) 052°M - 154 kts
b) 036°M - 151 kts
c) 056°M - 137 kts
d) 055°M - 147 kts
Given: TAS 130 kts; TRK 003°T; W/V 190/40. What is the HDG and GS?
a) 357°T - 168 kts
b) 001°T - 170 kts
c) 359°T - 166 kts
d) 002°T - 173 kts
Given: TAS 155 kts; TRK 305°T; W/V 160/18 kts. What is the HDG and GS?
a) 309°T - 141 kts
b) 305°T - 169 kts
c) 309°T - 170 kts
d) 301°T - 169 kts
a) 077°T - 214 kts
b) 079°T - 211 kts
c) 077°T - 210 kts
d) 075°T - 213 kts
a) 097°T – 201 kts
b) 121°T – 199 kts
c) 099°T – 199 kts
d) 121°T – 207 kts
a) 311°T – 230 kts
b) 310°T – 233 kts
c) 312°T – 232 kts
d) 313°T – 235 kts
a) 264°T – 237 kts
b) 262°T – 241 kts
c) 264°T – 241 kts
d) 262°T – 237 kts
a) 017°T – 490 kts
b) 358°T – 428 kts
c) 357°T – 502 kts
d) 001°T – 435 kts
a) 097°T – 201 kts
b) 121°T – 207 kts
c) 121°T – 199 kts
d) 099°T – 199 kts
Given: Course A – B 250°T; distance A – B 315 nm; TAS 450 kts; W/V 200/60; ATD from A
0650 UTC. What is the ETA at B?
a) 0736 UTC
b) 0730 UTC
c) 0716 UTC
d) 0810 UTC
Given: Course from A – B 090°T; TAS 460 kts; W/V 360/100; average VAR 10E; DEV -2. What
is the HDG and GS?
a) 070°C - 453 kts
b) 078°C - 450 kts
c) 069°C - 448 kts
d) 068°C - 460 kts
Given: TRK 300°T; drift 8S; VAR 10W; DEV -4. What is the HDG?
a) 278°C
b) 294°C
c) 322°C
d) 306°C
Given: TRK 192°T; VAR 7°E; drift 5P. What is the magnetic heading required to maintain the
given track?
a) 204°
b) 180°
c) 190°
d) 194°
Given: HDG 060°M; VAR 8W; drift 4S. What is the true track?
a) 056°
b) 048°
c) 072°
d) 064°
021: WIND VELOCITY
Given: TAS 120 kts; TRK 040°T; wind speed 30 kts. From which direction will the wind give the
greatest drift?
a) 215°T
b) 235°T
c) 230°T
d) 240°T
Given: TAS 120 kts; TRK 040°T; wind speed 30 kts. Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a
wind direction of:
a) 145°T
b) 130°T
c) 120°T
d) 115°T
Given: HDG 233°T; TAS 480 kts; TRK 240°T; GS 523 kts. What is the W/V?
a) 115/70
b) 110/75
c) 110/80
d) 105/75
a) 260/30
b) 265/30
c) 255/25
d) 257/35
Given: HDG 090°C; DEV 2W; VAR 12E; TAS 160 kts. Whilst maintaining a radial 070° from a
VOR station the aircraft flies a ground distance of 14 nm in 6 min. What is the W/V (°T)?
a) 340/25
b) 160/50
c) 340/98
d) 155/25
Given: FL120; OAT is ISA standard; CAS 200 kts; TRK 222°M; HDG 215°M; VAR 15W; time to
fly 105 nm is 21 min. What is the W/V (°T)?
a) 040/105
b) 065/70
c) 050/70
d) 055/105
Given: M 0.80; OAT -50°C; FL 330; GS 490 kts; VAR 20W; HDG 140°M; drift 11S. What is the
W/V (°T)?
a) 025/47
b) 020/95
c) 025/45
d) 200/95
Given: TRK 075°M; HDG 066°M; VAR 11E; TAS 275 kts; the aircraft flies 48 nm in 10
min. What is the W/V (°T)?
a) 180/45
b) 340/45
c) 320/50
d) 210/15
Given: TRK 210°M; HDG 215°M; VAR 15E; TAS 360 kts; the aircraft flies 64 nm in 12
min. What is the W/V (°T)?
a) 300/30
b) 195/50
c) 235/50
d) 265/50
Given: TRK 315°M; HDG 301°M; VAR 5W; TAS 225 kts; the aircraft flies 50 nm in 12 min. What
is the W/V (°T)?
a) 190/63
b) 195/61
c) 195/63
d) 355/15
a) 095/25
b) 095/20
c) 090/15
d) 090/20
a) 180/30
b) 180/35
c) 185/35
d) 180/40
a) 360/35
b) 180/35
c) 115/35
d) 295/35
a) 000/10
b) 180/05
c) 000/05
d) 180/01
a) 180/35
b) 295/35
c) 115/35
d) 360/35
Given: HDG 090°T; TAS 180 kts; GS 180 kts; Drift 5S. What is the W/V?
a) 190/15
b) 185/15
c) 005/15
d) 355/15
Given: HDG 310°T; TAS 200 kts; GS 176 kts; Drift 7S. What is the W/V?
a) 090/33
b) 180/33
c) 270/33
d) 360/33
Given: HDG 090°C; DEV 2W; VAR 12E; TAS 160 kts. You are flying the 070° radial outbound
from a VOR and you have gone 14 nm in 6 minutes. What is the W/V (°T)?
a) 060/50
b) 340/25
c) 158/51
d) 055/25
Given: FL 120; OAT is ISA; CAS 200 kts; TRK 222°M; HDG 215°M; VAR 15W. If the time to fly
105 nm is 21 minutes, what is the W/V (°T)?
a) 065/70
b) 050/70
c) 040/105
d) 055/105
022: WIND COMPONENTS
A heavy aircraft needs a 10 kts headwind to achieve a safe take-off but has a crosswind limit of
30 kts. RW 23 is in use and ATC report the wind direction as steady at 280.
Variation is 25E. What are the minimum and maximum windspeeds acceptable for take off?
a) 16 kts – 31 kts
b) 12 kts – 33 kts
c) 16 kts – 39 kts
d) 12 kts – 39 kts
For a landing on RW 23 (227°M) the surface W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30. VAR is 13E.
What is the cross wind component?
a) 23 kts
b) 26 kts
c) 20 kts
d) 15 kts
For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component of at least 10 kts and has a cross-wind
limitation of 35 kts. The angle between the wind direction and the runway is 60°. What are the
minimum and maximum allowable wind speeds?
a) 12 kts – 38 kts
b) 15 kts – 43 kts
c) 18 kts – 50 kts
d) 20 kts – 40 kts
Given: RW 08 (083°M); surface W/V 035/35. What is the effective headwind component?
a) 24 kts
b) 27 kts
c) 34 kts
d) 31 kts
Given: RW21 (210°M); surface W/V 230/30. What is the cross-wind component?
a) 13 kts
b) 10 kts
c) 16 kts
d) 19 kts
Given: Runway direction 230°T; surface W/V 280°T/40. What is the effective cross-wind
component?
a) 26 kts
b) 36 kts
c) 21 kts
d) 31 kts
Given: Runway direction 305°M; Surface W/V 260°M/30. What is the cross-wind component?
a) 24 kts
b) 21 kts
c) 18 kts
d) 27 kts
The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 240/35; RW 30 (300°M). What is the cross-
wind component?
a) 24 kts
b) 30 kts
c) 21 kts
d) 27 kts
You plan to land on RW 14; the met forecast W/V is 110/30; VAR 30W. What crosswind do you
expect?
a) 0 kts
b) 15 kts
c) 30 kts
d) 26 kts
024: SOLAR SYSTEM (7 Questions)
061-024-001
Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50°N/S), at which time of year is the relationship between the
length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the
greatest rate?
a) Winter solstice and autumn equinox
b) Spring equinox and autumn equinox
c) Summer solstice and winter solstice
d) Summer solstice and spring equinox
061-024-002
ME2 At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)?
a) Beginning of January
b) End of September
c) Beginning of July
d) End of December
061-024-003
Seasons are due to the:
a) Earth's elliptical orbit around the Sun
b) inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane
c) Earth's rotation on its polar axis
d) variable distance between Earth and Sun
061-024-004
The angle between the plane of the Ecliptic and the plane of the Equator is approximately:
a) 25.3°
b) 66.5
c) 27.5°
d) 23.5°
061-024-005
ME2 What is the highest latitude on the Earth at which the Sun can be vertically overhead?
a) 23°
b) 45°
c) 0°
d) 66°
061-024-006
What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate?
a) Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar Year
b) Because the Earth's spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the Sun
c) Because the Earth's orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the time of the year
d) Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year
061-024-007
Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set
every day?
a) 72°
b) 68°
c) 62°
d) 66°
025: DAYS, YEARS & HOUR ANGLE (6 Questions)
061-025-001
At Greenwich the maximum time difference between the occurrence of mean noon and
apparent noon is approximately:
a) 1 min
b) 10 min
c) 5 min
d) 16 min
061-025-002
If the Greenwich hour angle is 240°, what longitude is this corresponding to?
a) 120°E
b) 110°W
c) 080°W
d) 160°E
061-025-003
In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the Apparent Sun and
Mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest?
a) February and November
b) April and August
c) March and September
d) June and December
061-025-004
The length of a sidereal year is:
a) 365 days
b) 365 days 5 hrs 48.75 mins
c) 366 days
d) 365 days 6 hrs
061-025-005
The length of day/night varies with the declination of the Sun and the latitude of the observer. In
mid-latitudes (40°/50° N/S) the rate of change of the length of daylight is greatest at:
a) The Equinoxes
b) The Solstices
c) Aphelion
d) Perihelion
061-025-006
The main reason that day and night throughout the year have different durations is due to the:
a) relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
b) gravitational effect of the Sun and the Moon on the speed of rotation of the Earth
c) Earth's rotation
d) inclination of the Ecliptic to the Equator
026: LOCAL MEAN TIME (4 Questions)
061-026-001
ME2 Refer to Annex E
5 hours, 20 minutes and 20 seconds hours time difference is equivalent to which change of
longitude?
a) 80°05'
b) 78°15'
c) 81°30'
d) 79°10'
061-026-002
Refer to Annex E
The Local Mean Time at longitude 095°20'W at 0000 UTC is:
a) 1738:40 same day
b) 0621:20 previous day
c) 1738:40 previous day
d) 0621:20 same day
061-026-003
Refer to Annex E
What is the LMT and date at A (131°E) when it is 1620 LMT on 5 Aug at B (009°W):
a) 1040 on 06 Aug
b) 1340 on 05 Aug
c) 0700 on 05 Aug
d) 0140 on 06 Aug
061-026-004
Refer to Annex E
What is the LMT at position 65°25'N 123°45'W at 2200 UTC?
a) 0815
b) 0615
c) 2200
d) 1345
027: STANDARD TIME (9 Questions)
061-027-001
Refer to Annex E
An aircraft takes off from Guam at 2300 ST on 30 Apr. After a flight of 11 hrs 15 mins it lands at
Los Angeles (California). What is the ST and date of arrival (assume summer time rules apply)?
a) 1315 on 01 May
b) 1615 on 30 Apr
c) 1715 on 30 Apr
d) 1215 on 01 May
061-027-002
Refer to Annex E
When it is 0600 ST in Queensland, Australia, the ST in Hawaii, USA is:
a) 0600
b) 0200
c) 1200
d) 1000
061-027-003
When it is 1000 ST in Kuwait the ST in Algeria is:
a) 1300
b) 0800
c) 0700
d) 1200
061-027-004
Refer to Annex E
At 0750 ST on 15 Dec an aircraft departs Rome (41°49'N 012°15'E) for Johannesburg (26°08'S
028°15'E). The flight time is 9hr 30 min. What is the LMT of arrival?
a) 1620
b) 2013
c) 1427
d) 1813
061-027-005
Refer to Annex E
At 1200 ST on 10th Jul in Queensland, Australia what is the ST in Hawaii, USA?
a) 0200 on 10 Jul
b) 1600 on 09 Jul
c) 1200 on 10 Jul
d) 1000 on 10 Jul
061-027-006
Refer to Annex E
If it is 0700 hours ST in Kuwait what is the ST in Algeria?
a) 1200
b) 0500
c) 0900
d) 0300
061-027-007
Refer to Annex E
If the ST in Port of Spain, Trinidad (11°N 066°W) is 2215 on 07 Feb, what is the ST and date in
Vientiane, Laos (18°N 103°E)?
a) 0815 on 07 Feb
b) 1115 on 07 Feb
c) 1115 on 08 Feb
d) 0915 on 08 Feb
061-027-008
ME2 What is the meaning of the term “Standard Time”?
a) It is an expression for local mean time
b) It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA
c) It is another term for UTC
d) It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country
061-027-009
Refer to Annex E
What is the Standard Time in Hawaii when it is 0600 ST on the 16th July in Queensland
Australia? (Include Daylight Saving Time)
a) 1100 on 15 Jul
b) 2000 on 15 Jul
c) 1000 on 17 Jul
d) 1100 on 16 Jul
028: SUNRISE, SUNSET & TWILIGHT (7 Questions)
061-028-001
Refer to Annex E
The UTC of sunrise on 6 Dec at WINNIPEG (Canada) (49°50'N 097°30'W) is:
a) 0113
b) 0930
c) 1413
d) 2230
061-028-002
At the Equator the minimum period of civil twilight is approximately:
a) 0 min
b) 30 min
c) 21 min
d) 16 min
061-028-003
Civil Twilight occurs between:
a) 12° and 18° below the horizon
b) Sunrise and sunset
c) Sunset and 6° below the horizon
d) 6° and 12° below the horizon
061-028-004
ME2 Morning Civil Twilight begins when:
a) the sun's upper edge is tangential to the celestial horizon
b) the centre of the sun is 6° below the celestial horizon
c) the centre of the sun is 18° below the celestial horizon
d) the centre of the sun is 12° below the celestial horizon
061-028-005
Refer to Annex E
On 27 Feb at 52°S 040°E the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the same day at 52°S 035°W, sunrise
is at:
a) 0243 UTC
b) 0743 UTC
c) 2143 UTC
d) 0523 UTC
061-028-006
What is the duration of evening civil twilight at Karachi (24°54'N 067°10'E) Pakistan on 18th
Aug?
a) 30 min
b) 24 min
c) 34 min
d) 20 min
061-028-007
Refer to Annex E
What is the UTC time of sunrise in Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada (49°N 123°30'W) on
06 Dec?
a) 1552
b) 0724
c) 2324
d) 0738
033: CHARTS GENERAL (6 Questions)
061-033-001 3A
An Azimuthal or Plane projection:
a) is used for Lambert charts
b) is used for Polar Stereographic charts
c) is used for Oblique Mercator charts
d) is used for Direct Mercator charts
061-033-002
ME2 Cylindrical projections:
a) form the basis of Lambert charts
b) form the basis of Mercator charts
c) form the basis of Polar Stereographic charts
d) cannot form the basis of any chart used for navigation
061-033-003
It is essential that any chart used for navigation has the following property:
a) Bearings must be correctly represented
b) Shapes must be correctly represented
c) Areas must be correctly represented
d) Scale must be constant and correct
061-033-004
The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a:
a) Gnomonic projection
b) Lambert conformal projection
c) Direct Mercator projection
d) Stereographical projection
061-033-005 3b
Which are the 2 fundamental conditions for a chart to be orthomorphic?
a) Scale must be constant all over the chart. Scale must be correct all over the chart
b) Meridians must be shown as straight lines. Parallels must be shown as straight lines
c) A Great Circle must be a complex curve. A Rhumb line must be a straight line
d) Meridians and parallels must intersect at right angles. Scale should be the same (or
should change at the same rate) in all directions
061-033-006
In which of the following projections does a plane surface touch the Reduced Earth at one of the
Poles?
a) Lambert's
b) Direct Mercator
c) Gnomic
d) Stereographic
034: SCALE (12 Questions)
061-034-001 3A
A chart has the scale 1: 1,000,000. From A to B on the chart measures 1.5 inches (one inch
equals 2.54 centimetres). The distance from A to B in nm is:
a) 44.5 nm
b) 54.2 nm
c) 38.1 nm
d) 20.6 nm
061-034-002 3a
ME2 A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 nm.
The chart scale is:
a) 1: 5,000,000
b) 1: 1,000,000
c) 1: 6,000,000
d) 1: 3,000,000
061-034-003 3b
A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 nm. The scale of this chart is
approximately:
a) 1: 6,000,000
b) 1: 7,000,000
c) 1: 5,000,000
d) 1: 3,500,000
061-034-004
Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 12 cm on a map with a scale of 1:
2,000,000?
a) 43 nm
b) 150 nm
c) 329 nm
d) 130 nm
061-034-005 3a
At 47°N the chart distance between meridians 10° apart on a chart is 5 inches.
The scale of the chart at that latitude is approximately:
a) 1: 8,000,000
b) 1: 3,000,000
c) 1: 6,000,000
d) 1: 2 500,000
061-034-006
ME2 Given: Chart scale 1: 1,850,000; chart distance between two points is 4 cm. Earth
distance is approximately:
a) 100 nm
b) 74 nm
c) 40 nm
d) 4 nm
061-034-007
Given: A chart with a scale of 1: 200,000; chart length from A to B 11 cm. What is the
approximate distance from A to B?
a) 21 nm
b) 22 nm
c) 14 nm
d) 12 nm
061-034-008
On a navigation chart a distance of 49 nm is equal to 7 cm. The scale of the chart is
approximately:
a) 1: 700,000
b) 1: 130,000
c) 1: 1,300,000
d) 1: 7,000,000
061-034-009 3b
On a chart meridians at 43°N are shown every 10 degrees apart. This is shown on the chart by
a distance of 14 cm. What is the scale?
a) 1: 2,000,000
b) 1: 6,000,000
c) 1: 4,000,000
d) 1: 5,000,000
061-034-010
On a chart the distance along a meridian between latitudes 45°N and 46°N is 6 cm. The scale of
the chart is approximately:
a) 1: 18,500,000
b) 1: 1,000,000
c) 1: 1,850,000
d) 1: 185,000
061-034-011
The chart distance between meridians 10° apart at latitude 65°N is 3.75 inches. The chart scale
at this latitude approximates:
a) 1: 3,000,000
b) 1: 2,500,000
c) 1: 5,000,000
d) 1: 6,000,000
061-034-012
The distance measured between two points on a chart is 42 mm; the scale of the chart is 1:
1,600,000. The actual distance between these two points is approximately:
a) 370 nm
b) 63 nm
c) 36 nm
d) 67 nm
035: MERCATOR CHARTS (21 Questions)
061-035-001 3a
On a Mercator chart the 180°W to 180°E parallel of latitude at 53°N is 133 cm long. What is the
scale of the chart at 30°S?
a) 1: 21,000,000
b) 1: 3,000,000
c) 1: 27,000,000
d) 1: 1,800,000
061-035-002 3a
A direct Mercator graticule is based on a projection that is:
a) concentric
b) spherical
c) conical
d) cylindrical
061-035-003 3b, ME2

A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator 1: 3,704,000. What is the scale at 60°S?
a) 1: 7,408,000
b) 1: 3,208,000
c) 1: 185,200
d) 1: 1,852,000
061-035-004
Assume a Mercator chart. The distance between positions A and B located on the same parallel
and 10° longitude apart is 6 cm. The scale at the parallel is 1: 9,260,000. What is the latitude of
A and B?
a) 60°N or S
b) 45°N or S
c) 30°N or S
d) 0° N/S
061-035-005 3a, 3b
At 60°N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1: 3,000,000. What is the scale at the Equator?
a) 1: 3,500,000
b) 1: 1,500,000
c) 1: 6,000,000
d) 1: 3,000,000
061-035-006
At latitude 60°N the scale of a Mercator projection is 1: 5,000,000. The length on the chart
between C N60° E008° and D N60° W008° is:
a) 35.6 cm
b) 17.8 cm
c) 19.2 cm
d) 16.2 cm
061-035-007 3a
How does scale change on a normal Mercator chart?
a) Expands as the secant² x (½ co-latitude)
b) Expands directly with the secant of the latitude
c) Correct on the standard parallels expands outside them contracts within them
d) Expands as the secant of the E/W great circle distance
061-035-008 3b, ME2

On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a:
a) complex curve
b) straight line
c) curve concave to the equator
d) curve convex to the equator
061-035-009 3a
On a Direct Mercator chart a rhumb line appears as a:
a) spiral curve
b) straight line
c) small circle concave to the nearer pole
d) curve convex to the nearer pole
061-035-010
On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S a certain length represents a distance of 120 nm on
the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth at latitude 10°N a distance
of:
a) 118.2 nm
b) 117.7 nm
c) 122.3 nm
d) 124.2 nm
061-035-011 3b
On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N a certain length represents a distance of 90 nm on
the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth at latitude 30°N a distance
of:
a) 45 nm
b) 78 nm
c) 110 nm
d) 73 nm
061-035-012 3b
On a Direct Mercator chart meridians are:
a) parallel unequally spaced vertical straight lines
b) parallel equally spaced vertical straight lines
c) inclined equally spaced straight lines that meet at the nearer pole
d) inclined unequally spaced curved lines that meet at the nearer pole
061-035-013
On a direct Mercator projection at latitude 45°N a certain length represents 70 nm. At latitude
30°N the same length represents approximately:
a) 70 nm
b) 86 nm
c) 57 nm
d) 81 nm
061-035-014
On a direct Mercator projection the distance measured between two meridians spaced 5° apart
at latitude 60°N is 8 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
a) 1: 6,000,000
b) 1: 3,500,000
c) 1: 4,750,000
d) 1: 7,000,000
061-035-015
On a Mercator chart at latitude 60°N the distance measured between 002°W and 008°E is 20
cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
a) 1: 278,000
b) 1: 5,560,000
c) 1: 2,780,000
d) 1: 556,000
061-035-016
On which chart projection is it not possible to show the North Pole?
a) Transverse Mercator
b) Direct Mercator
c) Lamberts
d) Polar Stereographic
061-035-017 3a, ME2

Parallels of latitude on a Direct Mercator chart are:
a) parallel straight lines unequally spaced
b) arcs of concentric circles equally spaced
c) straight lines converging above the pole
d) parallel straight lines equally spaced
061-035-018
The scale of a Mercator chart is 1: 6,250,000 at 34°N. The scale at 54°S is:
a) 1: 8,880,000
b) 1: 4,320,000
c) 1: 9,040,000
d) 1: 4,430,000
061-035-019
The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 cm. What is the
approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S?
a) 1: 30,000,000
b) 1: 18,000,000
c) 1: 25,000,000
d) 1: 21,000,000
061-035-020
What is the chart distance between longitudes 179°E and 175°W on a direct Mercator chart with
a scale of 1: 5,000,000 at the equator?
a) 10.6 cm
b) 7.2 cm
c) 16.7 cm
d) 13.3 cm
061-035-021
Which one of the following, concerning great circles on a Direct Mercator chart is correct?
a) They are all curves concave to the Equator
b) With the exception of meridians and the equator they are curves concave to the Equator
c) They approximate to straight lines between the standard parallels
d) They are all curves convex to the Equator
037: LAMBERTS CHARTS (21 Questions)
061-037-001 3a, ME2

The Lamberts projection:
a) is a simple cylindrical
b) is a modified conical
c) is a modified cylindrical
d) is a simple conical
061-037-002
A course of 120°T is drawn between X (61°30'N) and Y (58°30'N) on a Lambert Conformal
conic chart with a scale of 1: 1,000,000 at 60°N. The chart distance between X and Y is:
a) 66.7 cm
b) 33.4 cm
c) 36.0 cm
d) 38.5 cm
061-037-003 3b
A Lambert Conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75. The initial course of a
straight line track drawn on this chart from A (40°N 050°W) to B is 043°T, at A.
The course at B is 055°T. What is the longitude of B?
a) 41°W
b) 36°W
c) 38°W
d) 34°W
061-037-004
A Lambert Conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80. A straight line course
drawn on this chart from A (53°N 004°W) to B is 080°T at A. The course at B is 092°T. What is
the longitude of B?
a) 011°E
b) 019°E
c) 008°E
d) 013°E
061-037-005 3a
A Lambert Conformal conic projection with two standard parallels:
a) the scale is only correct along the standard parallels
b) shows all great circles as straight lines
c) the scale is only correct at parallel of origin
d) shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines
061-037-006 3a
A Lambert Conformal conic chart has standard parallels at 63°N and 41°N. What is the constant
of the cone?
a) 0.656
b) 0.891
c) 0.788
d) 0.707
061-037-007
A straight line is drawn on a Lambert Conformal conic chart between two positions of different
longitude. The angular difference between the initial true track and the final true track of the line
is equal to:
a) difference in longitude
b) chart convergency
c) earth convergency
d) conversion angle
061-037-008 3b
A straight line on a Lambert Conformal projection chart for normal flight planning purposes:
a) is a Loxodromic line
b) is a Rhumb line
c) can only be a parallel of latitude
d) is approximately a Great Circle
061-037-009
On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37°N and 65°N) with respect to the straight line drawn
on the map between A ( N49° W030°) and B (N48° W040°) the:
a) rhumb line is to the north the great circle is to the south
b) great circle is to the north the rhumb line is to the south
c) great circle and rhumb line are to the south
d) great circle and rhumb line are to the north
061-037-010
On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5° apart along latitude 37° North
is 9 cm. The scale of the chart at that parallel approximates:
a) 1: 6,000,000
b) 1: 2,000,000
c) 1: 3 750,000
d) 1: 5,000,000
061-037-011 3b
On a Lambert Conformal conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the:
a) parallel of origin
b) Equator
c) north and south limits of the chart
d) standard parallels
061-037-012
On a Lambert Conformal conic chart great circles that are not meridians are:
a) straight lines regardless of distance
b) curves concave to the pole of projection
c) curves concave to the parallel of origin
d) straight lines within the standard parallels
061-037-013 3b
On a Lambert Conformal conic chart the distance between parallels of latitude spaced the same
number of degrees apart:
a) expands between and reduces outside the standard parallels
b) reduces between and expands outside the standard parallels
c) is constant throughout the chart
d) is constant between and expands outside the standard parallels
061-037-014 3b
Scale on a Lambert Conformal conical chart:
a) varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude
b) is constant
c) is constant along a parallel of latitude
d) is constant along a meridian of longitude
061-037-015
The constant of cone of a Lambert Conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.3955. At what latitude
on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented?
a) 23°18'
b) 68°25'
c) 21°35'
d) 66°42'
061-037-016
The constant of the cone on a Lambert chart, where the convergence angle between longitudes
010°E and 030°W is 30°, will be:
a) 0.75
b) 0.40
c) 0.64
d) 0.40
061-037-017
The convergence factor of a Lambert Conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.78535. At what
latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented?
a) 51°45'
b) 38°15'
c) 52°05'
d) 80°39'
061-037-018
The nominal scale of a Lambert Conformal conic chart is the:
a) scale at the standard parallels
b) mean scale between the parallels of the secant cone
c) scale at the Equator
d) mean scale between pole and Equator
061-037-019
Parallels of Latitude on a Lambert Conformal conic chart are represented by:
a) arcs of concentric circles
b) hyperbolic lines
c) straight lines
d) parabolic lines
061-037-020 3a
The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical orthomorphic projection are 07°40'N and 38°20'
N. The constant of the cone for this chart is:
a) 0.60
b) 0.92
c) 0.39
d) 0.42
061-037-021 3b
The two standard parallels of a conical Lambert projection are at N10°40'N and N41°20'. The
constant of the chart is approximately:
a) 0.66
b) 0.44
c) 0,18
d) 0,90
039: POLAR STEREOGRAPHIC CHARTS (12 Questions)
061-039-001 3a
A straight line is drawn on a Polar Stereographic chart joining A (70°N 060°W) to B (70°N
060°E). What is the initial track direction (going eastwards) of the line at A?
a) 090°T
b) 120°T
c) 030°T
d) 330°T
061-039-002 3a, ME2

How do Rhumb lines (with the exception of meridians) appear on a Polar Stereographic chart?
a) Concave to the nearer pole
b) Straight lines
c) An ellipse round the pole
d) Convex to the nearer pole
061-039-003
On a Polar Stereographic chart a straight line joins A (70°N 40°W) to B (70°N 80°E). The
direction at A of the straight line track from A to B is:
a) 060°T
b) 069°T
c) 030°T
d) 033°T
061-039-004
On a Polar Stereographic chart a straight line joins A (70°N 40°W) to B (70°N 80°E). The
longitude of the most northerly point on the straight-line track from A to B is:
a) 40°W
b) 20°E
c) 80°E
d) 20°W
061-039-005
On a Polar Stereographic map a straight line joins A (70°N 102°W) to B (80°N 006°E). The point
of highest latitude along this line occurs at longitude 035°W. What is the initial straight-line track
angle from A to B, measured at A?
a) 023°T
b) 077°T
c) 229°T
d) 049°T
061-039-006
On a Polar Stereographic chart the scale:
a) is constant throughout the chart
b) varies as the sin of the latitude
c) varies as the square of the secant of half the co lat
d) varies as the secant of the latitude
061-039-007 3b
On a Polar Stereographic chart great circles which are not meridians are:
a) complex curves
b) straight lines
c) straight lines within the standard parallels
d) curves concave to the pole of projection
061-039-008 3b, ME2

On a Polar Stereographic chart showing the South Pole, a straight line joins position A (70°S
065°E) to position B (70°S 025°W). The course on departure from position A is approximately:
a) 250°T
b) 225°T
c) 135°T
d) 315°T
061-039-009 3b
Two positions plotted on a Polar Stereographic chart; A (80°N 000°) and B (70°N 102°W). They
are joined by a straight line whose highest latitude is reached at 035°W. At point B the course is:
a) 023°
b) 305°
c) 203°
d) 247°
061-039-010 3a
What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart?
a) 1.0
b) 0.866
c) 0.5
d) 0.0
061-039-011
Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines except meridians on a
Polar Stereographic chart?
a) Straight lines
b) Curves concave to the pole
c) Curves convex to the pole
d) Ellipses around the pole
061-039-012
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great circles with
the exception of meridians on a Polar Stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole?
a) They are curves convex to the pole
b) They are complex curves that can be convex and/or concave to the pole
c) Any straight line is a great circle
d) The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line
040: GRID NAVIGATION (1 Question)
061-040-001 3a
Isogrivs are lines that connect positions that have:
a) the same grivation
b) the same horizontal magnetic field strength
c) the same variation
d) 0° magnetic dip
045: TOPOGRAPHICAL MAPS & CHART SYMBOLS (38 Questions)
061-045-001
ME2 Refer to Annex B (Jeppesen Chart E(LO)1)
What are the symbols at Galway Carnmore (53°18N 008°56W)?
a) Civil airport; VOR; DME; non-compulsory reporting point
b) VOR; NDB; DME; compulsory reporting point
c) VOR; NDB; DME; non-compulsory reporting point
d) Civil airport; NDB; DME; non-compulsory reporting point
061-045-002
Refer to Annex A (Chart Symbols)
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR/DME?
a) 7
b) 4
c) 13
d) 14
061-045-003
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a basic non-specified navigation aid?
a) 13
b) 4
c) 2
d) 1
061-045-004
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a DME?
a) 4
b) 7
c) 5
d) 13
061-045-005
ME2 Refer to Annex A (Chart Symbols)
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a TACAN?
a) 14
b) 5
c) 2
d) 7
061-045-006
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR?
a) 7
b) 4
c) 14
d) 13
061-045-007
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VORTAC?
a) 13
b) 14
c) 19
d) 4
061-045-008
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates an NDB?
a) 13
b) 4
c) 1
d) 2
061-045-009
What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No.3?
a) Lighthouse
b) Aeronautical ground light
c) Visual reference point
d) Hazard to aerial navigation
016-045-010
What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No.8?
a) Off-shore helicopter landing platform
b) Lightship
c) Shipwreck showing above the surface at low tide
d) Off-shore lighthouse
061-045-011
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a compulsory reporting point?
a) 17
b) 16
c) 18
d) 3
061-045-012
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Control Zone boundary?
a) 23
b) 20
c) 22
d) 21
061-045-013
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Flight Information Region (FIR) boundary?
a) 20
b) 22
c) 21
d) 24
061-045-014
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of lighted obstacles?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 12
d) 11
061-045-015
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of unlighted obstacles?
a) 11
b) 10
c) 12
d) 15
061-045-016
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lighted obstacle?
a) 15
b) 9
c) 18
d) 17
061-045-017
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a non-compulsory reporting point?
a) 17
b) 3
c) 18
d) 16
061-045-018
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Way-point?
a) 13
b) 4
c) 17
d) 19
061-045-019
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an exceptionally high lighted obstacle?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) 11
061-045-020
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an exceptionally high unlighted obstacle?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 6
d) 11
061-045-021
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an uncontrolled route?
a) 23
b) 21
c) 24
d) 22
061-045-022
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an unlighted obstacle?
a) 11
b) 15
c) 12
d) 10
061-045-023
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates the boundary of advisory airspace?
a) 21
b) 23
c) 20
d) 22
061-045-024
What does symbol 3 represent?
a) Lighthouse
b) Aeronautical ground light
c) VRP
d) Lit obstacle
061-045-025
What is the chart symbol for a lightship?
a) 6
b) 12
c) 9
d) 8
061-045-026
Refer to Annex B (Jeppesen Chart E(LO)1)
At position 52°11N 009°31W, which of the following denotes all the symbols?
a) Military airport, ILS, NDB
b) Civil airport, ILS, NDB
c) Military airport, VOR, ILS
d) Civil airport, VOR, ILS
061-045-027
The airport at 52°11N 009°32W is called:
a) Shannon
b) Kerry
c) Waterford
d) Cork
061-045-028
What feature is shown on the chart at position 52°11N 009°31W?
a) Waterford NDB
b) Connemara aerodrome
c) Punchestown aerodrome
d) KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
061-045-029
a) KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
b) TUSKAR ROCK LT.H. NDB
c) WTD NDB
d) Clonbullogue aerodrome
061-045-030
a) Clonbullogue aerodrome
b) Connemara aerodrome
c) Punchestown aerodrome
d) KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
061-045-031
a) Connaught aerodrome
b) Castlebar aerodrome
c) Brittas Bay aerodrome
d) Connemara aerodrome
061-045-032
a) Carnmore aerodrome
b) Clonbullogue aerodrome
c) Belmullet aerodrome
d) EAGLE ISLAND LT.H. NDB
061-045-033
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position 51°50N
008°30W?
a) Civil airport, VOR, DME, compulsory reporting point
b) VOR, DME, NDB, ILS
c) Civil airport, VOR, non-compulsory reporting point
d) VOR, DME, NDB, compulsory reporting point
061-045-034
007°05W?
a) VOR, NDB
b) Civil airport, NDB, ILS
c) Civil airport, ILS
d) NDB, ILS
061-045-035
006°27W?
a) Military airport, VOR, DME
b) Military airport, VOR, NDB
c) VOR, DME, danger area
d) Civil airport, VOR, DME
061-045-036
008°56W?
a) Civil airport, NDB:, DME, non-compulsory reporting point
b) VOR, DME, NDB, compulsory reporting point
c) Civil airport, VOR, DME, non-compulsory reporting point
d) VOR, DME, NDB, compulsory reporting point
061-045-037
008°36W?
a) VOR, DME, NDB, compulsory reporting point
b) Civil airport, NDB, DME, compulsory reporting point
c) Civil airport, VOR, DME, non-compulsory reporting point
d) VOR, DME, NDB, non-compulsory reporting point
061-045-038
Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect points:
a) having the same longitude
b) of equal latitude
c) having the same elevation above sea level
d) with the same variation
047: VISUAL NAVIGATION (2 Questions)
061-047-001
You are flying a VFR route and have become uncertain of your position. Which is the best
course of action?
a) Fly a series of ever-expanding circles from your present position till you find your next
check point
b) Turn round and fly your flight plan in reverse back to base
c) Set heading towards a line feature – coastline, river, or motorway
d) Turn round and fly your flight plan tracks in reverse until you see something you
recognised before
061-047-002
During a low level flight 2 parallel roads are crossed at right angles by an aircraft. The time
between these roads can be used to check the aircraft’s:
a) position
b) groundspeed
c) track
d) drift
048: CLIMBS AND DESCENTS (21 Questions)
061-048-001
An aircraft is descending down a 6% slope whilst maintaining a G/S of 300 kts. The rate of
descent of the aircraft is approximately:
a) 3,600 ft/min
b) 900 ft/min
c) 1,800 ft/min
d) 10,800 ft/min
061-048-002
An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient at 7 nm from the runway on a flat terrain; its height is
approximately:
a) 1,890 ft
b) 2,210 ft
c) 3,640 ft
d) 680 ft
061-048-003
At 65 nm from a VOR you commence a descent from FL330 in order to arrive over the VOR at
FL 100. Your mean groundspeed in the descent is 240 kts. What rate of descent is required?
a) 1,630 ft/min
b) 1,830 ft/min
c) 1,420 ft/min
d) 1,270 ft/min
061-048-004
ME2 Given: Aircraft height 2,500 ft; ILS GP angle 3°. At what approximate distance from the
threshold can you expect to intercept the glidepath?
a) 13.1 nm
b) 8.0 nm
c) 14. Nm
d) 7.0 nm
061-048-005
On a 12% glide slope your groundspeed is 540 kts. What is your rate of descent?
a) 6,550 ft/min
b) 120 ft/min
c) 4,820 ft/min
d) 8,740 ft/min
061-048-006
The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 nm from the threshold. Assuming
a glide slope height of 50 ft above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing
the outer marker is:
a) 1,480 ft
b) 1,200 ft
c) 1,430 ft
d) 1,380 ft
061-048-007
You are flying a visual approach into London City airport where the glide slope angle is
5.5°. Assuming you are on glide slope, what height should you be passing when you are 3 nm
from the touchdown point?
a) 2,200 ft
b) 1,650 ft
c) 900 ft
d) 1,200 ft
061-048-008
You are on ILS (3° glideslope) which passes over the runway threshold at 50 ft.
Your DME range is 25 nm from the threshold. What is your height above the runway threshold
elevation?
a) 7,550 ft
b) 8,010 ft
c) 7,450 ft
d) 6,450 ft
061-048-009
You are to make a visual approach at an airfield with a glideslope of 3.5°. If your groundspeed is
150 kts what rate of descent is required to maintain the glideslope?
a) 625 ft/min
b) 875 ft/min
c) 750 ft/min
d) 500 ft/min
061-048-010
An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent when 50 nm from a VOR and to cross
that VOR at FL80. Mean GS during descent is 271 kts. ,
What is the minimum rate of descent required?
a) 1,800 ft/min
b) 2,000 ft/min
c) 1,700 ft/min
d) 1,900 ft/min
061-048-011
An aircraft at FL330 is required to commence descent when 65 nm from a VOR and to cross the
VOR at FL100. The mean GS during the descent is 330 kts.
a) 1,750 ft/min
b) 1,650 ft/min
c) 1,850 ft/min
d) 1,950 ft/min
061-048-012
An aircraft at FL350 is required to commence descent when 85 nm from a VOR and to cross the
VOR at FL80. The mean GS for the descent is 340 kts.
a) 1,600 ft/min
b) 1,700 ft/min
c) 1,800 ft/min
d) 1,900 ft/min
061-048-013
An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at FL110 and to commence
descent when 100 nm from the facility. The mean GS for the descent is 335 kts.
a) 1,240 ft/min
b) 1,390 ft/min
c) 1,340 ft/min
d) 1,290 ft/min
061-048-014
An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80.
Maximum rate of descent is 1,800 ft/min and mean GS for descent is 276 kts.
The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is:
a) 59 nm
b) 69 nm
c) 49 nm
d) 79 nm
061-048-015
An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 120 nm from a VOR and to cross the
facility at FL130. The mean GS for the descent is 288 kts.
The minimum rate of descent required is:
a) 960 ft/min
b) 860 ft/min
c) 890 ft/min
d) 920 ft/min
061-048-016
An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent when 100 nm from a DME facility and to
cross the station at FL120. The mean GS during the descent is 396 kts.
The minimum rate of descent required is approximately:
a) 1,550 ft/min
b) 1,000 ft/min
c) 2,000 ft/min
d) 1,650 ft/min
061-048-017
An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL70.
Maximum rate of descent is 2,500 ft/min mean GS during descent is 248 kts.
What is the minimum range from the DME at which descent should commence?
a) 63 nm
b) 53 nm
c) 58 nm
d) 68 nm
061-048-018
Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending 15,000 ft with a
TAS of 320 kts and maintaining a rate of descent of 3,000 ft/min?
a) 26.7 nm
b) 16.0 nm
c) 19.2 nm
d) 38.4 nm
061-048-019
At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kts is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 nm away. The
aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80.
For a mean rate of descent of 1,800 ft/min at a mean GS of 232 kts, the latest time at which to
commence descent is:
a) 0454
b) 0445
c) 0451
d) 0448
061-048-020
Given: ILS GP angle 3.5°; GS 150 kts. What is the approximate rate of descent?
a) 1,000 ft/min
b) 700 ft/min
c) 900 ft/min
d) 800 ft/min
061-048-021
Given: TAS 197 kts; TRK 240°T; W/V 180/30. Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at
FL 40. Distance to be covered during descent is 39 nm.
What is the approximate rate of descent?
a) 1,400 ft/min
b) 1,500 ft/min
c) 950 ft/min
d) 800 ft/min
049: CRUISE NAVIGATION & THE 1 IN 60 RULE (6 Questions)
061-049-001
Given: Distance A to B 100 nm; a fix is obtained 40 nm along and 6 nm to the left of track. What
heading alteration must be made to reach B?
a) 18° Right
b) 15° Right
c) 6° Right
d) 9° Right
061-049-002
ME2 Given: Distance A to B 90 nm; a fix is obtained 60 nm along and 4 nm to the right of track.
What heading alteration must be made to reach B?
a) 12° Left
b) 4° Left
c) 16° Left
d) 8° Left
061-049-003
Given: Distance A to B 120 nm; after 30 nm aircraft is 3 nm to the left of course. What heading
alteration should be made in order to arrive at point B?
a) 8° Left
b) 8° Right
c) 4° Right
d) 6° Right
061-049-004
Given: Distance A to B 180 nm; after 60 nm the aircraft 4 nm left of track. Assuming no change
in wind velocity, what alteration of heading must be made in order to arrive at point B?
a) 6° Right
b) 2° Left
c) 8° Right
d) 4° Right
061-049-005
Given: Distance between A to B 200 nm; to calculate compass heading the pilot used 2E
variation instead of 2W. What will the off track distance be at point B?
a) 7 nm
b) 14 nm
c) 21 nm
d) 0 nm
061-049-006
You are flying from A to B planned track 245°M distance 225 nm. Your groundspeed is 180
kts. After 15 minutes flying you fix your position as 3 miles left of planned track. Which of the
following statements is correct?
a) You should turn 8° right to go direct to B
b) You should turn 5° right to go direct to B
c) Your drift is 4P
d) Your drift is 2P
050: PLOTTING (60 Questions)
061-050-001
A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar. If the
heading of the aircraft is 355°M and the magnetic variation is 15E, the true bearing of the
aircraft from the feature is:
a) 310°
b) 130°
c) 220°
d) 160°
061-050-002
An aircraft is heading 311°M. The drift is 10°P. The relative bearing to NDB X from the aircraft is
270°R. What is the magnetic bearing of X from the aircraft?
a) 311°
b) 041°
c) 211°
d) 221°
061-050-003
An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line of an AWR display. What is the true bearing
of the aircraft from the island if at the time of the observation the aircraft was on a heading of
020°M with variation of 25W?
a) 195°
b) 145°
c) 325°
d) 205°
061-050-004
An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on an AWR display. What is the true bearing
of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a heading of 355°M
with variation 15E?
a) 160°
b) 190°
c) 130°
d) 220°
061-050-005
An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on an AWR display. What is the true bearing
with variation 21W?
a) 329°
b) 059°
c) 101°
d) 239°
061-050-006
An island appears 60° to the left of the centre line on an AWR display. What is the true bearing
with the magnetic variation 10E?
a) 086°
b) 026°
c) 226°
d) 046°
061-050-007
An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120°M and
the variation 17W. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island?
a) 088°
b) 122°
c) 268°
d) 302°
061-050-008
Given: HDG 311°M; drift 10°P; relative bearing of NDB 270°. What is the magnetic bearing of
the NDB measured from the aircraft?
a) 211°
b) 180°
c) 221°
d) 208°
061-050-009
An aircraft is on the 025° radial from Shannon VOR (SHA 52°43N 008°53W) at 49 DME. What
is its position?
a) 53°29N 008°30W
b) 53°29N 009°30W
c) 52°39N 008°30W
d) 52°29N 009°30W
061-050-010
Given:
CRN DME (53°18N 008°56W) DME 18 nm
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) DME 30 nm
Aircraft heading 270°M; both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position?
a) 53°10N 008°30W
b) 53°07N 009°23W
c) 52°52N 009°23W
d) 53°55N 008°25W
061-050-011
Given:
CON VOR (53°55N 008°49W) DME 30 nm
CRN VOR (53°18N 008°56W) DME 25 nm
a) 53°37N 008°20W
b) 53°35N 009°25W
c) 53°43N 009°25W
d) 53°30N 008°20W
061-050-012
Refer to Annex B (Jeppesen Chart E(LO)1).
Given:
CON VOR/DME (53°55N 008°49W)
Abbey Shrule aerodrome (53°35N 007°39W)
What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Abbey Shrule aerodrome?
a) 296° / 46 nm
b) 304° / 47 nm
c) 123° / 46 nm
d) 116° / 47 nm
061-050-013
ME2 Refer to Annex B (Jeppesen Chart E(LO)1).
Given:
CON VOR/DME (53°55N 008°49W)
Castlebar aerodrome (53°51N 009°17W)
What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Castlebar aerodrome?
a) 086° / 18 nm
b) 257° / 17 nm
c) 077° / 18 nm
d) 265° / 17 nm
061-050-014
Given:
CRK VOR/DME (51°50N 008°30W)
Kerry aerodrome (52°11N 009°31W)
What is the CRK radial and DME distance when overhead Kerry aerodrome?
a) 127° / 45 nm
b) 299° / 42 nm
c) 119° / 44 nm
d) 307° / 43 nm
061-050-015
Given:
CRN VOR (53°18N 008°56W) DME 18 nm
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) DME 30 nm
a) 53°10N 008°30W
b) 53°07N 009°22W
c) 53°55N 008°25W
d) 52°52N 009°23W
061-050-016
Given:
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) DME 41 nm
CRK VOR (51°50N 008°30W) DME 30 nm
a) 52°15N 008°05W
b) 52°15N 009°15W
c) 52°05N 009°15W
d) 52°25N 008°10W
061-050-017
Given:
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) DME 50 nm
CRK VOR (51°50N 008°30W) DME 41 nm
Aircraft heading 270°M; both DME distances increasing. What is the aircraft position?
a) 52°15N 007°45W
b) 52°35N 007°50W
c) 52°00N 009°35W
d) 52°15N 009°40W
061-050-018
Given:
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) radial 120°
CRK VOR (51°50N 008°30W) radial 033°.
What is the aircraft position?
a) 52°25N 008°05W
b) 52°20N 007°50W
c) 52°30N 008°00W
d) 52°40N 007°50W
061-050-019
Given:
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) radial 129°
CRK VOR (51°50N 008°30W) radial 047°
a) 52°10N 007°50W
b) 52°15N 007°55W
c) 52°05N 007°55W
d) 52°20N 007°50W
061-050-020
Given:
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) radial 143°
CRK VOR (51°50N 008°30W) radial 050°
a) 52°05'N 008°05'W
b) 52°10'N 008°00'W
c) 52°00'N 008°00'W
d) 51°55'N 008°10'W
061-050-021
Given:
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) radial 205°
CRK VOR (51°50N 008°30W) radial 317°
a) 51°18'N 009°13'W
b) 52°10'N 009°10'W
c) 52°15'N 009°17'W
d) 52°05'N 009°15'W
061-050-022
Given:
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) radial 205°
CRK VOR (51°50N 008°30W) radial 317°
e) 51°18'N 009°13'W
f) 52°10'N 009°10'W
g) 52°15'N 009°17'W
h) 52°05'N 009°15'W
061-050-023
Given:
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) radial 223°
CRK VOR (51°50N 008°30W) radial 322°
a) 52°20N 009°20W
b) 52°10N 009°30W
c) 52°10N 009°10W
d) 52°30N 009°10W
061-050-024
Given:
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W)
CON VOR (53°55N 008°49W)
Aircraft position 53°20N 009°50W
Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?
a) SHA 137° - CON 046°
b) SHA 145° - CON 055°
c) SHA 325° - CON 235°
d) SHA 317° - CON 226°
061-050-025
Given:
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W)
CRK VOR (51°50N 008°30W)
Aircraft position 52°30N 008°20'W
Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?
a) SHA 304° - CRK 189°
b) SHA 312° - CRK 197°
c) SHA 131° - CRK 017°
d) SHA 124° - CRK 009°
061-050-026
Given:
SHA VOR/DME (52°43N 008°53W)
Birr aerodrome (53°04N 007°54W)
What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Birr aerodrome?
a) 060° - 42 nm
b) 248° - 42 nm
c) 240° - 41 nm
d) 068° - 41 nm
061-050-027
Given:
SHA VOR/DME (52°43N 008°53W)
Connemara aerodrome (53°14N 009°28W)
What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Connemara aerodrome?
a) 326° - 37 nm
b) 333° - 37 nm
c) 146° - 38 nm
d) 154° - 38 nm
061-050-028
Given:
SHA VOR/DME (52°43N 008°53W) radial 120°/35 nm
a) 53°00N 009°45W
b) 52°50N 009°50W
c) 52°30N 008°00W
d) 52°25N 008°05W
061-050-029
Given:
a) 53°15N 009°15W
b) 52°10N 008°30W
c) 52°08N 008°40W
d) 53°17N 009°08W
061-050-030
Given:
a) 53°05N 008°15W
b) 52°20N 009°30W
c) 53°03N 008°10W
d) 52°28N 009°35W
061-050-031
Given:
SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) 239° radial / 36 DME
a) 52°20N 009°37W
b) 52°12N 009°15W
c) 52°12N 009°30W
d) 52°15N 009°30W
061-050-032
What is the magnetic radial and DME distance from Connaught VOR/DME (CON 53°55N
008°49W) to overhead Abbey Shrule aerodrome( 53°36N 007°39W)?
a) 124° - 47 nm
b) 116° - 46 nm
c) 304° - 47 nm
d) 296° - 46 nm
061-050-033
What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (54°40N 006°14W) to position
54°10N 007°10W?
a) 236° - 44 nm
b) 320° - 44 nm
c) 333° - 36 nm
d) 223° - 36 nm
061-050-034
54°40N 007°30W?
a) 278° - 10 nm
b) 278° - 44 nm
c) 090° - 46 nm
d) 098° - 45 nm
061-050-035
What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (53°55N 008°49W) to position
53°30N 009°30W?
a) 233° - 35 nm
b) 025° - 38 nm
c) 335° - 43 nm
d) 165° - 27 nm
061-050-036
Refer to Annex B (Jeppesen Chart E(LO)1))
53°40N 008°20W?
a) 140° - 23 nm
b) 240° - 24 nm
c) 119° - 42 nm
d) 311° - 22 nm
061-050-037
54°00N 008°00W?
a) 094° - 64 nm
b) 320° - 8 nm
c) 088° - 29 nm
d) 260° - 30 nm
061-050-038
54°30N 009°00W?
a) 049° - 45 nm
b) 169° - 35 nm
c) 358° - 36 nm
d) 214° - 26 nm
061-050-039
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR (51°51N 008°30W) to position 52°20N
009°10W?
a) 322° - 41nm
b) 322° - 39nm
c) 330° - 39nm
d) 330° - 41nm
061-050-040
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (51°51N 008°30W) to position
51°40N 007°30W?
a) 293° - 39 nm
b) 113° - 38 nm
c) 106° - 38 nm
d) 104° - 76 nm
061-050-041
52°10N 009°20W?
a) 295° - 38 nm
b) 170° - 22 nm
c) 350° - 22 nm
d) 311° - 38 nm
061-050-042
52°20N 008°10W?
a) 014° and 33 nm
b) 030° and 33 nm
c) 220° and 40 nm
d) 048° and 40 nm
061-050-043
52°30N 007°50W?
a) 023° - 48 nm
b) 017° - 43 nm
c) 024° - 43 nm
d) 039° - 48 nm
061-050-044
What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (52°43N 008°53W) to position
53°00N 009°40W?
a) 057° - 27 nm
b) 309° - 33 nm
c) 324° - 17 nm
d) 293° - 33 nm
061-050-045
53°10N 008°30W?
a) 035° - 30 nm
b) 070° - 58 nm
c) 207° - 31 nm
d) 019° - 31 nm
061-050-046
52°10N 009°20W?
a) 198° - 37 nm
b) 214° - 37 nm
c) 346° - 34 nm
d) 354° - 34 nm
061-050-047
52°20N 008°10W?
a) 129° - 46 nm
b) 212° - 26 nm
c) 132° - 36 nm
d) 139° - 35 nm
061-050-048
You are at position 53°40N 008°00W. What is the QDR from the SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W)?
a) 209°
b) 037°
c) 217°
d) 029°
061-050-049
You are on a heading of 105°C; DEV 3E
WTD NDB (52°11N 00705W) bears 013°R
CRK VOR (51°50N 008°30W) QDM is 211°
What is your position?
a) 52°45N 007°57W
b) 52°17N 007°45W
c) 54°12N 006°39W
d) 52°28N 008°02W
061-050-050
You are on the 205° radial from the Shannon VOR (SHA 52°43N 008°53W) and on the 317°
radial from Cork VOR (CRK 51°50N 008°30W).
a) 52°10'N 009°09'W
b) 52°15'N 009°17'W
c) 51°18'N 009°13'W
d) 52°05'N 009°15'W
061-050-051
Your magnetic radial from the SHA VOR (52°43N 008°53W) is 120°
From the CRK VOR (51°50N 008°30W), the radial is 033°
a) 53°20N 008°00W
b) 52°30N 008°00W
c) 52°20N 008°21W
d) 53°20N 008°00W
061-050-052
You are heading 345°M; VAR 20°E, and you take a radar bearing of 30° left of the nose from an
island.
What bearing do you plot?
a) 180°T
b) 140°T
c) 160°T
d) 155°T
061-050-053
You are using a Lambert's chart and are heading 080°T, when you get a range and bearing fix
from your AWR on a headland at 185 nm 30° left of the nose.
What true bearing do you plot on the chart?
a) 050° from the headland using the aircraft's meridian
b) 050° from the headland using the headland's meridian
c) 230° from the headland using the headland's meridian
d) 230° from the headland using the aircraft's meridian
061-050-054
The aircraft position is at 53°30N 008°00W; The VORs are tuned to Shannon (SHA 52°43N
008°53W) and Connaught (CON 53°55N 008°49W).
Which magnetic radials will be indicated?
a) SHA 042° - CON 138°
b) SHA 213 ° - CON 310°
c) SHA 221° - CON 318°
d) SHA 033° - CON 130° ……..
061-050-055
Given:
CRN (53°18N 008°57W) 18 DME
SHA (52°43N 008°53W) 20 DME
Heading 270°M; both ranges DME decreasing
a) 52°03N 008°43W
b) 53°01N 009°08W
c) 52°01N 009°08W
d) 53°02N 008°43W
061-050-056
What is the approximate course and distance between Waterford NDB (WTD 52°12N 007°05W)
and Sligo NDB (SLG 54°17N 008°36W)?
a) 164°T - 138 nm
b) 336°T - 137 nm
c) 344°T - 139 nm
d) 156°T - 136 nm
061-050-057
55°00N 007°00N?
a) 296° and 65 nm
b) 222° and 48 nm
c) 315° and 34 nm
d) 126° and 33 nm
061-050-058
A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315°, and three minutes later on a
relative bearing of 270°. W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kts.
What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the ground feature?
a) 3 nm
b) 9 nm
c) 6 nm
d) 12 nm
061-050-059
A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325°; and five minutes later on a relative
bearing of 280°. HDG 165°M; VAR 25W; drift 10S; and GS 360 kts.
When the relative bearing was 280° the distance and true bearing of the aircraft from the feature
was:
a) 40 nm and 110°
b) 40 nm and 290°
c) 30 nm and 060°
d) 30 nm and 240°
061-050-060
Kerry (52°11N 009°32W) is 41 nm
Galway DME (53°18N 008°56W) is 50 nm
a) 52°42N 008°27W
b) 52°55N 008°19W
c) 52°19N 008°09W
d) 52°30N 008°34W
051: GENERAL NAVIGATION PROBLEMS (7 Questions)
061-051-001
An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an NDB at 0830. At 0840 the relative bearing
from the same NDB is 270°.
Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kts what is the approximate range from the NDB at 0840?
a) 50 nm
b) 60 nm
c) 30 nm
d) 40 nm
061-051-002
At 0020 UTC an aircraft is crossing the 310° radial at 40 nm of a VOR/DME station. At 0035
UTC the radial is 040° and DME distance is 40 nm. Magnetic variation is zero.
The true track and ground speed are:
a) 080° - 226 kts
b) 088° - 232 kts
c) 090° - 232 kts
d) 085° - 226 kts
061-051-003
At 1000 an aircraft is on the 310° radial from a VOR/DME at 10 nm range. At 1010 the radial
and range are 040°/10 nm.
What is the aircraft's track and groundspeed?
a) 085° / 85 kts
b) 080° / 80 kts
c) 085° / 90 kts
d) 080° / 85 kts
061-051-004
Given: An aircraft is flying a track of 255°M. At 2254 UTC it crosses the 360° radial from a VOR;
at 2300 UTC it crosses the 330° radial from the same station.
At 2300 UTC the distance between the aircraft and the station is:
a) randomly different than it was at 2254 UTC
b) less than it was at 2254 UTC
c) greater than it was at 2254 UTC
d) the same as it was at 2254 UTC
061-051-005
Given: TAS 240 kts; the relative bearing from an NDB is 315°R at 1410.
At 1420 the bearing has changed to 270°R.
What is your distance from the NDB at 1420?
a) 50 nm
b) 40 nm
c) 60 nm
d) 70 nm
061-051-006
The relative bearing to a beacon is 270°R. Three minutes later at a groundspeed of 180 knots it
has changed to 225°R.
What was the distance of the closest point of approach of the aircraft to the beacon?
a) 45 nm
b) 9 nm
c) 3 nm
d) 18 nm
061-051-007
What is the definition of an IFR EAT?
a) Estimated on-blocks arrival time
b) Estimated time overhead the destination airfield
c) Estimated initial approach fix time
d) Estimated final approach fix time
056: FLIGHT LOG (6 Questions)
061-056-001
Refer to Annex C (Flight Navigation Log)
Complete line 1; positions A to B. What is the HDG (°M) and ETA?
a) 268° - 1128 UTC
b) 282° - 1114 UTC
c) 268° - 1114 UTC
d) 282° - 1128 UTC
061-056-002
ME2 Refer to Annex C (Flight Navigation Log)
Complete line 2; positions C to D. What is the HDG (°M) and ETA?
a) 193° - 1249 UTC
b) 188° - 1229 UTC
c) 193° - 1239 UTC
d) 183° - 1159 UTC
061-056-003
Complete line 3; positions E to F. What is the HDG (°M) and ETA?
a) 095° - 1155 UTC
b) 115° - 1145 UTC
c) 106° - 1215 UTC
d) 105° - 1205 UTC
061-056-004
Complete line 4; positions G to H. What is the HDG(°M) and ETA?
a) 354° - 1326 UTC
b) 344° - 1303 UTC
c) 344° - 1336 UTC
d) 034° - 1336 UTC
061-056-005
Complete line 5; positions J to K. What is the HDG (°M) and ETA?
a) 320° - 1432 UTC
b) 337° - 1322 UTC
c) 337° - 1422 UTC
d) 320° - 1412 UTC
061-056-006
Complete line 6; positions L to M. What is the HDG (°M) and ETA?
a) 064° - 1449 UTC
b) 070° - 1459 UTC
c) 075° - 1502 UTC
d) 075° - 1452 UTC

OXFORD EXAMINATION DATABASE BY LESSON SUBJECT: GEN NAV

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OXFORD EXAMINATION DATABASE BY LESSON SUBJECT: GEN NAV

001: FORM OF THE EARTH (5 Questions)

The circumference of the Earth is approximately:

The diameter of the Earth is approximately:

The radius of the Earth at the Equator is approximately?

Parallels of latitude except the Equator are:

A Rhumb line is:

Position A is located on the Equator at 130°00E. Position B is 100 nm from A on a bearing of

An ICAO nautical mile is:

The length of a nautical mile is:

An aircraft at position 00°00N/S 163°27W flies a track of 225°T for 70 nm.

The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 60°N is approximately:

265 US-gal equals? (Specific gravity 0.80)

730 ft/min equals:

Convert 70 metres/sec into knots.

What is the weight in kilogrammes of 380 US Gallons at a Specific Gravity of 0.78?

Given: IAS 120 kts; FL 80; OAT +20°C. What is the TAS?

An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its groundspeed?

Given: GS 510 kts; Distance A to B 43 nm. What is the time from A to B?

How far would an aircraft travel in 1 min 45 sec if GS is 135 kts?

Refer to Annex D (Diagram)

Given: HDG 060°M; VAR 8°W; Drift 4°S. What is the track?

Given: HDG 156°T; TAS 320 kts; W/V 130/45. What is the track?

061-035-003 3b, ME2

061-035-008 3b, ME2

061-035-017 3a, ME2

061-037-001 3a, ME2

061-039-002 3a, ME2

061-039-008 3b, ME2

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