NAV TEST PAPER

1. The distance from A to B is 690 NM. The track is 307°(T), TAS 182 kts, reduced TAS
140 kts and the W/V 065/35. The time and distance to the CP is:
a) 303NM, 1 hr 33 min.
b) 295 NM, 1 hr 33 min.
c) 303 NM, 1 hr 59 min.

2. On a fright from A to B, track 243°(T), W/V 300/30, total fuel is 11 782 kg, the FF is 4
200 kg/hr, TAS 440 kts. The time and distance to the PNR with 2 000 kg reserves intact is:
a) 1 hrs 13 mins, 515nm
b) 1 hrs 16 mins, 536nm
c) 1 hrs 22 mins, 508nm

3. An aircraft flies from A to B on a track of 282°(T), TAS 236 kts. For the first 1 000 NM the
W/V is 045/30, for the remaining 452 NM to B the W/V is 350/45. The time and distance to
the PET is:
a) 252 NM, 2 hrs 44 min.
b) 252 NM, 3 hrs 17 min.
c) 268 NM, 2 hrs 44 min.

4.. The distance from A to B is 983 NM, track 124°(T), TAS 212 kts, W/V 350/40, safe
endurance 6 hrs 16 minutes. The time and distance to the PNR is:
a) 2 hrs 43 mins, 647 NM
b) 2 hrs 38 mins, 670NM
c) 2 hrs 28 mins, 667NM

5.. The distance from X to Y is 935 NM. The distance from X to the PET is 540 NM. The
groundspeed out is 170 kts; safe endurance is 6 hrs 52 mins. The time and distance to the
PNR is:
a) 3 hrs 48 mins, 675NM
b) 3 hrs 58 mins, 674NM
c) 3 hrs 43 mins, 608NM
6. The distance from A to B is 1 280 NM, TAS 222 kts. The wind component from A to the
PET is -42 kts. The wind component from the PET to B is -16 kts. Assume these
components remain the same in both directions with the signs reversed. The time from A
to the PET is:
a) 3 hrs 29 mins.
b) 4 hrs 00 mins.
c) 4 hrs 09 mins.

7. To B from A is 1 684 NM, track 357°(T), TAS 222 kts. W/V 205/40. Total endurance is 8
hrs 23 mins that includes one hour’s reserve. The distance to the PNR with reserve intact
is:
a) 75 NM.
b) 797NM.
c) 818 NM.

8. Given:
MTOW (structural) - 100000KG
MLW (structural) - 80000KG
AEW - 57000KG
Crew + catering - 1000KG
Total distance - 2080 NM
TAS - 440 kts
FF - 3600 kg/hr
Reserve fuel - 4600 kg
The maximum payload with an average headwind component of 40 kts is:
a) 18 689 kg.
b) 18 040 kg.
c) 17 400 kg

9. Given:
MTOW - 12500 lbs
MLW - 12500 lbs
MZF - 10400 lbs
AEW - 8000lbs
Crew + baggage - 380 lbs
Trip fuel - 1400 lbs
Reserves - 600 lbs
The maximum payload is:
a) 2 020 lb.
b) 2 120 lb.
c) 2 160 lb.

10. Maximum Take-off Mass - 151500kgs

Maximum Landing Mass - 107000kgs
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass - 96300 kgs
Optional Empty Mass - 64250 kgs
Distance A to B - 2850nm
Groundspeed - 490 kts
Fuel Flow - 7350 kg/hr
Reserve Fuel - 15%

The maximum payload that may be carried from A to B is:

a) 36 337 kg.
b) 38 087 kg.
c) 32 050 kg.

11. Aircraft Empty Weight = 2 160 lbs maximum Take-off Weight = 3 600 lbs Pilot plus
passengers (175 lbs/person) plus 150 lbs baggage. The maximum fuel that can be carried
is:
a) 415 lbs.
b) 505 lbs.
c) 590 lbs.

12. Maximum Take-Off Mass - 151500kg

Maximum Landing Mass - 112000kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass - 101200kg
Operational Empty Mass - 69700kg
Trip Fuel - 40150kg
Reserve Fuel - 8200kg
The maximum payload that may be carried is: -
a) 31 500 kg.
b) 33 450 kg.
c) 35 250 kg.

13. The Point of no Return and the Point of Equal Time will be the same when:
a) The fuel carried for the flight is the same as the maximum carrying capacity of the
aircraft.
b) Endurance equals flying time to the destination.
c) Reserve fuel is carried.

14. Vlo (maximum landing gear operating speed) in normally lower than Vle (maximum
landing gear extended speed) because:
a) Unacceptable turbulence can be generated upon lowering the gear.
b) The gear linkage is easily damage when the wheels are in transit.
c) The gear doors have a speed limitation lower that the gear structures itself.

15. Take-off distance (all engine) is the distance:

a. From brake release to rotate.
b. From brake release to V2 at 35 ft above the runway.
c. From brake release to V2 at 35 ft above the clearway.

16. Accelerate-go always assumes:

a) That clearway issued in the calculation.
b) Engine failure occurs.
c) That Vr is greater than V1

17. Runway 22, length 1 800 meters. Displaced threshold 30 meters, stopway 120 meters,
clearway 200 meters. The take-off distance available is:
a) 1 800 meters.
b) 1 930 meters.
c) 2 000 meters.

18. Variation in the Specific gravity of fuel is dependent upon:

a) The varying density of water.
b) The differing fuel distillates.
c) Different fuel temperatures.

19 . A – B distance 1 072 NM, 210°(T), TAS 490 kts, reduced TAS 460 kts, W/V from A -
CP 020/47, W/V from CP – B 065/65. What is the distance and time to the CP?
a) 594nms @ 1:10.
b) 467nms @ 1:01.
c) 478nms @ 1:06.

20 . When selecting gear down, the CG:

a) Moves forward.
b) Moves aft.
c) Does not move.

21. When retracting the landing gear, the CG:

a.Moves forward.
b. Does not move.
c. Moves aft.

22. The following figures apply to a runway:

Runway total length 4500ft
Stopway 520ft
Clearway 740 ft
Displaced threshold 220 ft
The Landing Distance Available (LDA) is:
a) 4 280 ft.
b) 4 500 ft.
c) 5 240 ft.

22. V1 decision speed:

a) Is lower than Vmca.
b) Is the take-off safety speed.
c) Is always lower than V2.

23. Accelerate-stop distance always assumes that:

a) All available methods of retarding the aircraft will be used in order to prevent it running
past the runway into the clearway.
b) Only propellers will be used “in reverse” to assist the brakes when stopping.
c) An engine stops at V1 or that it has ceased to operate quite a ling time before V1 but is
only recognised as having stopped at or just before V1.

24. Vref is:

a) 1.1 Vso.
b) 1.3 Vso.
c) 1.5 Vso.

25 . After engine failure during take-off the best speed to fly at would be:
a) V2
b) Vmca.
c) Va.

26. The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is often expressed as:

a) A percentage of the mean lateral axis.
b) A ratio of the sum of the stations.
c) A percentage of the mean aerodynamic chord.

27. Endurance for a flight is based on fuel available of 4 830 kgs. The performance figure
estimated outbound is 2.23 kg per GNM. On the return, the performance is 1.94 kg/GNM.
The distance to the PNR is:
a) 1 158 SM.
b) 1 333 SM.
c) 2 147 SM.

28. Centre of gravity on an aircraft is calculated to determine:

a) Lateral imbalance.
b) Longitudinal imbalance.
c) Both (a) and (b).

29. On a flight from EGPH to LFPO, the track is 303°(T). ATD is 1157Z. The total distance
is 870 NM and the TAS 165 kts. W/V to the PET is 360/35, and from the PET to destination
250/50. The PET will be reached at:
a) 1445 Z.
b) 1511 Z.
c) 1529 Z.

30. The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is often expressed as:

a) A percentage of the mean lateral axis.
b) A ratio of the sum of the stations.
c) A percentage of the mean aerodynamic chord.

31. An aircraft at FL280 whose consumption is 4200 litres per hour obtains a TAS of 250
kts, while an aircraft at FL310 whose consumption is 4 050 litres per hour obtains a TAS of
238 kts. The aircraft with the better performance is:
a) The aircraft at FL280.
b) The aircraft at FL310.
c) The performances are the same.

32. If the specific gravity of a substance is given as 3.0, this means that:
a) The substance occupies 3 times the volume of water for the same weight.
b) The density is 3 times that of water.
c) The weight is 3 lbs/Imp gall.

33. The moment index is:

a) The product of the weight and the distance.
b) The product of the arm and the moment.
c) The moment divided by a chosen figure

34. Aircraft performance may be measured in:

a) Ground nautical miles per hour.
b) US gallons per hour.
c) US gallons per kilometre.

35. When does aphelion occur?

a. early January
b. mid March
c. early July
d. September 21

36. A sidereal day is?

a. longer than an apparent solar day
b. longer than a real solar day
c. shorter than an apparent solar day
d. equal to a real solar day

37. The maximum difference between Mean Time and Apparent Time is:
a. 21 minutes
b. 16 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. there is no difference

38. A ship at longitude 83E observes sunrise at a Zone Time of 0500 ZT on Zone Date
15th May. What is the UTC?
a. 2300 UTC 14th May
b. 1100 UTC 15th May
c. 2328 UTC 14th May
d. 1032 UTC 15th May
39. When LMT at 4600N 00830W is 2300 on the 9th May, what is the LMT and local date
at:
a. 4600N 10830W?
b. 4600N 10830E?

40. At 3000N 4630E the time is 0300 LMT. What is the time at 6000N 01615W in:
a. UTC?
b. LMT?

41. The time is 1300 UTC on 1st April. Calculate the LMT and local date at:
a. 5430N 00715E
b. 1627S 10743W
c. 1846N 16835E

42. If the PNR is calculated to be 880 NM with 10,000 Kg of fuel available, the distance to
the PNR with 11,000 Kg fuel available, other factors being equal, will be –
a) 920 nm
b) 968 nm
c) 960 nm

43. The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The masses of the following items
are :- catering: 300 kg- safety and rescue material: nil- fly away kit: nil- crew (inclusive
crew baggage): 365kg- fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg- unusable fuel: 120 kg- passengers,
baggage, cargo: 8 000 kgThe Dry Operating Mass is :
a) 30 785 kg
b) 30 300 kg
c) 38 300 kg
d) 30 665 kg

44. The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, is 61300 kg. The
operational items (including crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg. If the take- off mass is
132000 kg (including a useable fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful load is
a) 68400 kg
b) 70700 kg
c) 29600 kg
d) 26900 kg.

45. The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg.The maximum take-off mass, landing
and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550kg, and the taxi fuel
mass is 50 kg. The available mass of payload is:
a) 1 000 kg
b) 950 kg
c) 1 500 kg
d) 1 450 kg

46. The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items (including
crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel mass is given as
65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is:
a) 18400 kg
b) 20700 kg
c) 23000 kg
d) 19460 kg.

47. Given:VS= Stalling speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick
speed (disregarding engine failure)V1= take-off decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2
min.= Minimum take-off safety speedVLOF: Lift-off speed The correct formula is:
a) VS< VMCA< V2 min
b) VR< VMCA< VLOF
c) VMU<= VMCA< V1
d) V2min< VMCA> VMU

48. Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by :

a) VR and VMCG
b) V2 and VMCA
c) VR and VMCA
d) V2 and VMCG

49. The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than:

a) 1.2Vs.
b) 1.2VMCG.
c) 1.05VLOF.
d) 1.3V1.
50. Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50°N/S).At which time of year is the relationship
between the length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the
sun, changing at the greatest rate?
a) Spring equinox and autumn equinox
b) Summer solstice and spring equinox
c) summer solstice and winter solstice
d) Winter solstice and autumn equinox

51. On the 27th of February, at 52°S and 040°E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the same
day, at 52°S and 035°W, the sunrise is at:
a) 0743 UTC
b) 0243 UTC
c) 2143 UTC
d) 0523 UTC

52. Civil twilight is defined by :

a) sun altitude is 6° below the celestial horizon
b) sun altitude is 12° below the celestial horizon
c) sun altitude is 18° below the celestial horizon
d) sun upper edge tangential to horizon

53.Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NMGroundspeed 'out' 365 ktGroundspeed 'back' 480
ktSafe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN The time from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
a) 290 MIN
b) 219 MIN
c) 197 MIN
d) 209 MIN

54. Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NMMean groundspeed 'out' 420 ktMean groundspeed
'back' 500 ktSafe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe
Return (PSR) 'A' is:
a) 1940 NM
b) 1908 NM
c) 1736 NM
d) 1630 NM

55. An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a track of
090°(T), W/V 130°/ 20 kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of departure before
sunset, the furthest distance which may be travelled is:
a) 97 NM
b) 115 NM
c) 105 NM
d) 84 NM

56. The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth's surface
where:
a) a position where the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field is a maximum
b) a freely suspended compass needle will stand horizontal
c) a freely suspended compass needle would stand vertical
d) the value of magnetic variation equals 90°

57. At the magnetic equator:

a) Deviation is zero
b) Dip is zero
c) The isogonal is an agonic line
d) Variation is zero

58. Why do we normally overlook the descend phase when calculating Point of Equal
Time (PET)?
A) Because we never know what kind of descend clearance we will get from ATC.
B) Because there are so many uncertain factors in the descend phase.
C) Because the descend will have an equal effect, whatever destination we decide to
proceed to.
D) Because the W/V during the descend is not known in academic situations.

59. The length of a nautical mile is

a) maximum at 45°N/S
b) maximum at the Equator
c) consistent
d) maximum at the Poles

60 . What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60°N between
meridians 010°E and 030°W at a groundspeed of 480 kts?
a) 5hr00min
b) 1hr45min
c) 2hr30min
d) 1hr15min

61. . Which of the following statements is correct?

A) The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by structural limitations,
performance limitations and the strength of the runway
B) The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aeroplane excluding traffic
load and useable fuel but including the crew
C) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of gravity remains within
limits after the uplift of fuel
D) The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the
ramp

62. The Maximum Structural Take-off Mass is:

A) the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass for take-off but excluding fuel
B) the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass at the start of the take-off run
C) the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass on completion of the refuelling
operation
D) the maximum permissible total aeroplane mass for take-off subject to the
limiting conditions at the departure airfield

63. The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:

A) Operating Mass plus all the traffic load
B) Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded
C) Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel
D) Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load

64. The CG envelope is the distance between the point furthest _____ (i) that a CG has
been approved to act to the point furthest _____ (ii) that a CG has been approved to act.
A) (i) aft (ii) forward
B) (i) right (ii) left
C) (i) port (ii) starboard
D) (i) up (ii) down

65. Balance Arm (BA) is:

A) The distance from the centre of gravity to the centre of amass
B) The point on which a lever is supported, balanced, or about which it turns C) The
distance from the centre of pressure to the centre of a mass
D) The distance from the datum to the centre of gravity of a mass

66. The maximum zero-fuel mass:

1. is a regulatory limitation
2. is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g
3. is due to the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root
4. imposes fuel dumping from the outer wings tank first
5. imposes fuel dumping from the inner wings tank first
6. can be increased by stiffening the wing
The combination of correct statements is:
A) 1, 3, 5
B) 2, 5, 6
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 4, 2, 6

67. Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of
gravity on an aeroplane in flight?
A) Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane
B) Lowering the landing gear
C) Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties
D) Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angle

68.Loads must be adequately secured in order to:

A) allow steep turns
B) avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight
C) avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage
D) prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare

69. The highest value of longitude is found:

A) At Greenwich anti meridian.
B) Close to the poles.
C) Close to the prime meridian.
D) Along equator.
70. A is at longitude 01230E and B is at longitude 04315E. LMT in B is 1749. What is the
LMT in A?
A) 1546
B) 1952
C) 1706
D) 1456

71. The LMT and date at a longitude of 00100W is 1330 on the 6 January, what is the LMT
and date at a longitude of 15900E:
A) 0010 7 January
B) 0046 7 January
C) 0010 5 January
D) 0006 7 January

72 . The countries having a standard time slow on UTC:

A) will generally be located at eastern longitudes.
B) will often experience sunrise earlier than the sunrise occurs at the Greenwich meridian.
C) will often have an earlier standard date than the UTC date.
D) will generally be located at western longitudes.