7 - CPL Questions FP-2

FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING
FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING QUESTIONS
CHAPTER1
CHAPTER1 – AIR INFORMATION PUBLICATIONS
1. Where would you find information regarding Customs and Health facilities?
a) ATCC broadcasts
b) NOTAMs
c) NAV/RAD supplements
d) AIP's
2. Where would you find information regarding Search and Rescue procedures?
a) ATCC broadcasts
b) NOTAMs
c) SIGMETs
d) AIPs
3. In which document would you find information on known short-term unserviceability of VOI
TACAN, and NDB?
a) NOTAM
b) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
c) SIGMET
d) ATCC
4. Where may details of temporary Danger and Restricted Airspace be found?

a) SIGMETs
b) Aeronautical Information Circulars (AIC)
c) NOTAM and Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
d) ATCC
5. Details of temporary danger areas are published:

a) in AICs
b) on the appropriate chart
c) by VOLMET
d) in NOTAMs
6. What are the types of NOTAM?

a) Temporary, short-notice, permanent
b) A, B, C
c) NOTAMN, NOTAMR, NOTAMC
d) A, E, L
Answers:
1D 2D 3A 4C 5D 6C
1
1.19 WORKSHEET ON AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION PUBLICATIONS
Insert in the answer column where details on each piece of aeronautical information may be found. Use
the following code:
AIP....................................A
NOTAM............................B
AIP Supplement ..............C
Both A & B……………..D
Other source.....................E
Q- Item Found in
No.
1 Aeronautical charts A B C D E
2 MET services A B C D E
3 Temporary changes to info contained in the AIP A B C D E
4 P, R, Danger areas A B C D E
5 Airspace (FIR, UIR, TMA) and ATS routes A B C D E
6 List of radio nav aids A B C D E
7 All changes of operational significance contained in AIP, AIC, AIP A B C D E
Supps are announced in...............
8 Temporary known changes to aerodromes e.g. lighting, runways, A B C D E
taxiways
9 Military training areas A B C D E
10 Search and rescue (SAR) facilities A B C D E
11 ATS communications and services A B C D E
12 Temporary known unserviceabilities of VOR, DME, NDB A B C D E
13 Full details of non-permanent Danger Areas A B C D E
14 Customs and Health facilities A B C D E
Answers:-
Q- Answers
No.
1 A
2 A
3 C
4 A
5 A
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 A
10 A
11 A
12 B
13 A+B
14 A
2
CHAPTER3 – FUEL POLICY AND FUEL MONITORING
1. Given: Dry Op Mass = 33510 kg

Load = 7600 kg
Final reserve fuel = 983 kg
Alternate fuel = 1100 kg
Contingency fuel = 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at the alternate should be:
a) 42312 kg
b) 42093 kg
c) 42210 kg
d) 42195 kg
2. What is the purpose of Decision Point Procedure?

a) Carry minimum fuel to increase Traffic Load.
b) Increase safety of the flight.
c) Reduce landing mass to avoid stressing the aircraft.
d) Reduce contingency fuel to below that required from Decision Point to destination.
3. What is Decision Point Procedure?

It is a procedure to reduce the amount of fuel carried on a flight by:
a) Reducing contingency fuel from 10% to 5% of trip fuel.
b) Reducing contingency fuel to only that required from Decision Point to Destination.
c) Reducing trip fuel to only that required from Decision Aerodrome to Destination.
d) Reducing contingency fuel to below that required from Decision Point to destination.
4. Turbo jet ac; taxi fuel 600 kg; fuel flow cruise 10,000 kg/hr; fuel flow hold 8,000 kg/hr;
alternate fuel 10,200 kg; flight time 6 hours; visibility at destination 2000 m. What is the
minimum ramp fuel?
a) 80,500 kg
b) 79,200 kg
c) 77,800 kg
d) 76,100 kg
5. Given: DOM 33,510 kg; Traffic load 7,600 kg. Trip fuel 2040 kg. Final reserve 983 kg.
Alternate fuel 1100 kg. Contingency 5% of trip fuel.
Which of the following is correct?
a) est landing mass at destination 43,193 kg
b) est landing mass at destination 43,295 kg
c) est take-off mass 43,295 kg
d) est take-off mass 45,233 kg
3
6. Multi-engined ac on IFR flight. Given: trip fuel 65 US Gal; contingency 5% trip; Alternate
fuel including final reserve 17 US Gal; Useable fuel at departure 93 US Gal. At a point
halfway to destination, fuel consumed is 40 US Gal. Assuming fuel consumption is
unchanged, which of the following is correct?
a) At departure Reserve Fuel was 28 US Gal.
b) At destination required reserves remain intact.
c) Remaining fuel is insufficient to reach destination with reserves intact.
d) At destination there will be 30 gal in tanks.
7. Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve is included). Assume the
ground speed on this trip is constant. When half the distance has been flown, the remaining
fuel is 70 kg. Is it necessary to divert to a nearby alternate?
a) diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the remaining fuel is not sufficient.
b) diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because the reserve fuel has not been
used completely.
c) diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because it is allowed to calculate the fuel
without reserve.
d) diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, unless the captain decides to continue on
his own responsibility.
ANSWERS
1d
2a
3b
4c
5b
6c
7a
4
CHAPTER4 – SINGLE ENGINE PISTON (SEP) AIRCRAFT
EXERCISE 1. AIR DISTANCE TO GROUND DISTANCE

Fill in the blanks ; use CR3 for questions 1-4 (Answers are at the end of the chapter)
Item TAS WC GS NGM NAM TIME

1 -30 150 86
2 180 210 74
3 245 745 785
4 432 492 256
Use Calculator for questions 5-8

5 -30 89 42.5
6 +30 153 73
7 -55 377 57
8 +35 170 85
Use any method for remaining questions

9 -10 125 46 21
10 169 181 96 90
11 281 112 26.5
12 +83 539 280 237
13 +40 150 19
14 312 -27 119 25
15 292 93 17
16 273 30 6
5
SEP - TIME, FUEL AND DISTANCE TO CLIMB DATA (Ref. CAP697, Fig. 2.1)
Example 1:
Calculate the climb time, fuel and distance for take-off from airfield at MSL, OAT +20 degree C, initial
climb weight 3400 LB to cruise at FL 70, OAT +5°C.
Example 2:
Calculate the climb time, fuel and distance for take-off from airfield using the following data:-
OAT at take-off 15degree C
OAT at cruise -5 C
Airport pressure altitude 5653 Feet
Cruise pressure altitude 11500 Feet
Initial climb weight 3650 LB
EXERCISE 2. SEP CLIMB (Ref. CAP697, Fig. 2.1)
Using figure 2.1, calculate for each climb the time, fuel and distance. Convert NAM to NGM and
complete the navigation and fuel plans, below.
Item Airfield of Pressure OAT - take- Pressure OAT-cruise Initial

take-off altitude - off altitude weight
take-off cruise
1 A 1000 +20 6000 +5 3600
2 B 4000 -10 7500 -20 3000
3 C 4623 -15 9500 -25 3200
4 D 3780 +15 8500 0 3525
From To FL WC GS Time Fuel Fuel

Dist Flow Reqd.
GAL
NAM NGM
A TOC 15
B TOC -15
C TOC -10
D TOC 13
Example 3:
What is the fuel flow, IAS and TAS for ISA + 0 at FL 80, using power 25" HG @ 2500 RPM? ............
PPH............ GPH............ kt........... kt.
6
Example 4:
Give the fuel flow (GPH) and TAS for 25" HG @ 2500 RPM at FL 65, ISA -17°C.
Use ISA -20°C.
Example 6:
Which power setting would give the greatest range if flight was limited to not above FL80? Enter on the
left at Pressure Altitude 8000 and move right, reading the range as each power curve is reached.
Power Range
Full throttle @ 2500 RPM ...........
21" HG @2 100 RPM ...........
4.9 ENDURANCE (Ref. CAP Fig. 2.5.)
Example 7:
What will be the endurance if you plan to cruise at FL80, using power set at 23 IN HG ( or full
throttle ) @ 2300 RPM ?
Ans. .............h.
Example 8:
What is the endurance and approximate TAS for a flight at 11,500 feet pressure altitude, 23 IN HG
(or full throttle) @ 2300 RPM ?
Ans. ............h; .............kt
Example 9:
See example 7. You had planned to fly at FL80, power full throttle @ 2300 RPM. This gave 5.3
hours' endurance. If you need to remain airborne for 6 hours, name the available alternative power
settings or cruising levels.
Ans. ..........IN HG @ ..........RPM or, cruise at FL.......... or above.
EXERCISE 3.
Complete the attached Nav/Fuel plan for a flight from airfield A to E, with the alternate at F. Use the
following data:
a) Airfield A's pressure altitude is 1236ft; OAT +26°C.
b) Airfield E's pressure altitude is 2125ft: OAT +23 °C.
c) Take-off weight is 3650LB.
d) Use a cruise power of 25.0 IN. HG (or FULL THROTTLE) @ 2500RPM.
e) Use VFR ICAO Semi-circular Cruising Level rules.
f) Fuel:
i) Taxy :- 3 US GAL.
ii) Holding Fuel:
Use "Economy Cruise Power Settings" for 21.0 IN. HG @ 2100RPM, at 1500' above the
airfield pressure altitude.
ii) 74 US GAL of fuel is loaded.
7
g) Met. Forecast
Airfield A ROUTE/ALTN
18 110/30 -6 18 120/35 -7
10 110/25 +10 10 120/25 +9
5 110/20 +20 5 120/20 +19
21 110/151 +24 21 110/10 +23
h) For the climb find the wind velocity at 2/3 of the climb profile from the airfield to the
cruising level.
i) Aircraft airborne at 1152UTC.
8
9
EXERCISE 4.
Complete the attached Nav/Fuel plan for a flight from airfield A to C with an alternate at D. Choose
cruising levels to comply with the ICAO VFR semi-circular rules; the appropriate levels to be the
lowest available above the MSAs. The forecast regional QNH is 1013.2 mb/hPa throughout. Use the
following data:
a) Airfield A's pressure altitude is 2050ft; OAT +1 °C.
b) Airfield C's pressure altitude is 3120ft; OAT 0°C.
c) Airfield D's pressure altitude is 1000ft; OAT 0°C. d) Power settings:
i) Cruise: 25 IN. HG (or full throttle) @ 2500RPM.
ii) Hold: 21 IN. HG (or full throttle) @ 2100RPM at 1500' over head C. e) Fuel:
i) Taxy: 3 US GAL.
ii) 74 US GAL loaded.
f) Take-off weight 3650LB g)
Met. Forecast
ROUTE/ALT N
18 140/35 -36
10 130/30 -20
5 120/20 -10
2 110/10 +2
10
11
Answers – CH4- SEP (Single Engine Piston) Examples
Example 1
7min, 2.5GAL, 13NAM.
Example 2
18-6.5 = 11.5min 6-2.5 =3.5GAL 36- 12.5 = 23.5 NAM
Example 3
79.3PPH, 13.2GPH, 152kt, 169kt.
Example 4
15 - 0.3 = 14.7GPH 169.5 (170) kt
Example 5
a) and b)
LINE FL OAT TEMP TAS WIND GS DIST TIME FUEL FUEL

DEVN COMP NGM FLOW REQD.
GAL.
1 75 2 +2 139 -12 127 45 21 9.5 3.3
2 75 2 +2 169 -12 157 45 17 13.5 3.9
c) Ans iii)
Example 6
797, 844, 895, 912, NAM
Example 7
5.3h
Example 8 5.9h, 153kt TAS
Example 9
25 IN HG @ 2100RPMor, cruise at FL 120 or above.
12
Answers – CH4- SEP (Single Engine Piston) Exercise
13
14
15
16
CHAPTER5 – MULTI ENGINE PISTON (MEP) AIRCRAFT
Example 1:
Departure airfield 2000ft, OAT 21 °C; cruise altitude 16500ft, OAT -130C. Calculate fuel, time and
distance. (Ref Fig5.1)
Ans. ...... GAL; ...... min; ....... NAM
17
Example 2:
Cruise altitude 16500ft, 45% (Long Range Cruise) power. Calculate the range (NAM) with and
without reserves. (Ref Fig5.2)
Ans. .........NAM with reserves Ans. .........NAM without reserves
18
Example 3:
Power 65%, RPM 2600, FL 60. Give manifold pressure and fuel flow for ISA and ISA + 12°C.
(Ref CAP697 fig3-3)
Ans. ISA: ..........IN HG;.......... GPH. Ans. ISA +12°C: (Add 2%) ..........IN HG;.......... GPH.
Example 4.
Cruise altitude 16500ft, OAT -13 °C and power setting 55%
Ans. TAS.......... kt
(Reference CAP 697 figure 3.4)
Example 5:
Cruise altitude 16500ft, 45% power setting. Calculate the fuel endurance with and without the
reserve.
(Reference figure CAP697 3.5)
Ans. Endurance with reserves = ............ hr/............ hr............ min Ans. Endurance without
reserves = ............ hr/............ hr............ min
Example 6:
Cruise altitude is 16500ft, OAT -13°C; destination airfield altitude and OAT are 3000ft and 22°C.
Obtain the descent fuel, time and NAM distance.
(Ref CAP697 fig 3-6)
EXERCISE 1.
Complete the attached Nav/Fuel plan for a flight from airfield A to C; alternate D. a) Airfield A
pressure altitude is 2000ft; OAT +21 °C.
b) Airfield C pressure altitude is 3000ft; OAT +22 °C.
c) Airfield D is at mean sea level; OAT +240C.
d) Take-off weight is 4750LB (MTOM); fuel 123 GAL.
e) Cruise at FL 165 A to C, 65% power setting.
f) Diversion data is given.
Met forecast:
ROUTE
18 310 15 -16
10 270 15 0
5 260 10 5
2 260 10 11
g) 45' holding fuel at 45% POWER at FL 165.
h) For climb use WN at 2/3 point of climb profile; for descent use W/V at 'h point of descent
profile.
i) For endurance use cruise at FL 165 @ 65% power.
19
20
ANSWERS TO EXAMPLES – CH5
Example 1
2 gal; 3 min; 5 nam
15 gal; 27 min; 50 nam 13 gal; 24 min; 45 nam
Example 2
943 nam 1059 nam
Example 3
30.3 in Hg; 23.3 gph
30.9 in Hg; 23.8 gph (2% added)
Example 4
TAS 173 kt
Example 5
6.16 hr/6 hr 10 min (.16 x 60 = 9.6 min) 6.91 hr/6 hr 55 min (.91 x 60 = 54.6 min)
Example 6
6 gal; 16 min; 44 nam 1 gal; 3 min; 7 nam 5 gal; 13 min; 37 nam
21
ANSWERS TO EXERCISE 1 – CH5
22
CHAPTER6
CHAPTER6 – MEDIUM
MEDIUM RANGE JET (MRJT
(MRJT)
RJT) AIRCRAFT
There will be no questions on Medium Range Jet for CPL Exams
23
CHAPTER7 – MEDIUM RANGE JET AIRCRAFT ADDITIONAL PROCEDURES
There will be no questions on Medium Range Jet for CPL Exams
24
FLIGHT PLANNING
PLANNING & MONITORING QUESTIONS
CHAPTER9 – POINT OF NO (SAFE) RETURN (PNR/PSR)
FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING POINT OF NO (SAFE) RETURN (PNR/PSR)
EXERCISE 1 - SINGLE LEG PNR
a) An aircraft is to fly 800nm from A to B at 160kt groundspeed; the return groundspeed to its
diversion A is 190kt. If its safe endurance is 5 hours calculate the time and distance from A to
the point of no return.
Ans 163min; 435nm)
b) Determine the time and distance to the point of no return from the following data:
i) Outbound leg; TAS 275kt, HEADWIND COMPONENT 35kt.
ii) Return leg; TAS 285kt, TAILWIND COMPONENT 35kt.
iii) Fuel available, excluding reserve, 21420 lb.
iv Mean fuel consumption 3730 lb/h.
Ans: 197nm; 788nm)
c) On a flight from L to M the TAS is 170kt and the fuel in tanks is sufficient for the time of the
flight, plus 2 hours. In the event of the aircraft having to divert back to L the aircraft must arrive
overhead with sufficient fuel for a further 75 minute flight.
Route details:
FROM TO WC. DIST.

L M +30 800nm
M L -30 800mn
Calculate the time and distance from L to the point of no return.
(Ans. 117.5min; 392nm)
d) An aircraft has 2320 Imp gal of fuel in tanks (SG 0.72). The fuel consumption is 21001b/h, TAS
270kt and a forecast outbound wind component of 40kt head(assume 40kt tail for the return).
Calculate the distance beyond which it will be imprudent to return to the departure airfield to
arrive overhead with a reserve of 260 Imp gal.
(Ans: 931 nm)
25
EXERCISE 2 - SINGLE LEG PNR VARIABLE FUEL FLOWS.
1. Given:
Fuel flow out TO PNR 115001b/hr TAS 474kt Wind component 50kt head
Fuel flow HOME from PNR 10300lb/hr TAS 466kt Wind component 70kt tail
Flight Plan fuel 820001b
Fuel less reserves 700001b
The time and distance to the PNR are:
a) 1769nm; 250.5min.
b) 1530nm; 169min.
c) 1510nm; 213.5min.
d) 1530nm; 211.5min.
2. An aeroplane is to fly 1 190nm from A to B at a TAS of 210kt with a forecast wind component
of 30kt head (assume 30kt tail on return to A). The mean fuel consumption outbound is expected
to be 2400kg/h, and 2000kg/h if the aircraft has to return to A. If the fuel available is 14500kg,
excluding reserve,the distance and time to the point of no return are.
a) 669m-n; 223min.
b) 678nm; 226min.
c) 687nm ; 229min.
d) 665nm; 166min.
3. At 10202 an aircraft leaves its PNR to return to overhead its departure airfield.
Given:
Fuel flow out TO PNR 3310kg/hr TAS 484kt Wind component 30kt head
Fuel flow HOME from PNR 2810kg/hr TAS 475KT Wind component 50kt tail
Route distance 2500nm
Total Endurance fuel 28900kg
Safe Endurance fuel 21000kg
The aircraft's ETA at the departure airfield and planned fuel burn on the return flight are:
a) 1328Z,8990kg
b) 1359Z;12080kg.
c) 14412; 12235kg.
d) 13302; 8898kg.
4. Reference CAP697 and relevant MEP data.

Given:
Fuel in tanks 123GAL Safe Endurance Fuel 93.5GAL
Departure OUT to PNR
FL80 COAT-10C Power Setting 55% @ 230ORPM Wind Component 20kt tail
PNR HOME to Departure
FL140 COAT-130C Power Setting 65% @ 250ORPM Wind component 35kt head
The distance and time to the PNR are:
a) 348nm; 120.5min.
b) 353nm; 122.5min.
c) 459nm; 159min.
d) 252nm; 87min.
26
5. Reference CAP697 and relevant SEP data.
Fuel in tanks 74GAL Safe Endurance Fuel 64.6GAL 251N HG/250ORPM

Departure OUT to PNR
FL 105 COAT -18°C Wind component 20kt. head
PNR HOME to De Departure
FL115 COAT -20°C Wind component 30kt. tail
The distance and time to the PNR are:
a) 500nm; 208min.
b) 391 nm; 182min.
c) 436nm; 181.5min.
d) 448nm; 187min.
ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5
C A D A C
27
CHAPTER10
CHAPTER10 – POINT OF NO (SAFE) RETURN (PNR/PSR)
10.6 EXERCISE -SINGLE SECTOR CP.
a) On a flight of 1400nm the groundspeeds from the critical point to departure P and
destination Q are 31O kt and 230kt. Calculate the distance and time to the critical point
between P and Q.
Ans. 804nm. 210min.
b) The distance C to D is 1120nm, TAS 210kt and wind component -35kt (assume the
wind component is -35kt D to C). Calculate the distance and time from C to the critical
point between C and D.
Ans: 653min, 2241nin
c) A flight at 165kt TAS is to made from L to N, 1620nm. If the track direction is 035°(T) and
wind velocity is 090/35, after what period of time will it be quicker to continue the flight to N
rather than return to L `?
(Ans: 912nmn, 386rnin.
d) A flight is to be made from A to F; tracks and distance are:
SECTOR DISTANCE(nm)
A-B 220
B-C 170
C-D 480
D-E 95
E-F 320
Assuming that the mean TAS is 325kt, and the mean wind components from the critical point to F and A
are +35kt and -25kt, calculate the time and distance to the critical point between A and F.
Ans: 584nm, min.
e) A twin engine aircraft is to fly 1700nm from R to S. Assume
2 engine TAS 480kt

Single engine TAS 370kt
Mean wind velocity 240/45
Track 030"(T)
Airborne time 090OUTC
After what time will it be quicker to continue the flight to S from the engine failure critical point?
Ans: 1028UTC
28
CHAPTER11 – AIRWAYS
HIGH CHARTS
Ref: Jeppesen ME(HI)2 Rev. 01Feb 08
[unless otherwise specified, all answers are (a). The Question setter should
change the sequence of answers]
01. Find the shortest valid air distance from SAHIL (N 31º24.0’ E074º19.0’) to DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’)?
a) 235nm b) 195nm c) 219nm d) 263nm
Ans. A
02. In the shortest valid route from SAHIL (N 31º24.0’ E074º19.0’) to DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’), how many
NAV AIDs are there?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d)4
Ans. A
03. Find the shortest valid air distance from DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’) to SAHIL (N 31º24.0’ E074º19.0’)?
a) 250nm b) 234nm c) 205nm d) 161nm
Ans. A
04. In the shortest valid route from DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’) to SAHIL (N 31º24.0’ E074º19.0’), how many
NAV AIDs are there?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d)4
Ans. A
05. The symbol 10 on airways A466 and A589 on ME(HI)2 indicates:-

a) minimum flight level is FL10
b) The route is valid from 0000UTC to 1000UTC
c) The route is valid from 1000UTC to 0000UTC
d) Aircraft to contact ALPHA CTL 119.7 for identification.
Ans. A
06. Find the shortest valid air distance from TIGER (N28º28.8’ E072º14.9’) to DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’)?
a) 254nm b) 173nm c) 229nm d) 316nm
Ans. A
07. In the shortest valid route from TIGER (N28º28.8’ E072º14.9’) to DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’), how many
NAV AIDs are there?
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d)4
Ans. A
08. Find the shortest valid air distance from DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’) to TIGER (N28º28.8’ E072º14.9’)?
a) 261nm b) 235nm c) 161nm d) 260nm
Ans. A
09. In the shortest valid route from DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’) to TIGER (N28º28.8’ E072º14.9’), how many
NAV AIDs are there?
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d)4
Ans. A
29
10. Along the airway G333, what is the distance of the changeover point from ESDEM?
a) 65nm b) 135nm c) 70nm d) 210nm
Ans. A
11 Find the shortest valid air distance from RAMSA (N25º20.0’ E070º44.4’) to PRATAPGARH (N24º01.8’
E074º45.0’)?
a) 236nm b) 232nm c) 286nm d) 227nm
Ans. A
12 In the shortest valid route from RAMSA (N25º20.0’ E070º44.4’) to PRATAPGARH (N24º01.8’ E074º45.0’),
how many NAV AIDs are there?
a) b) c) d)
Ans. A
13 Find the distance from DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’) to KOLKATA (N72º38.7’ E088º27.2’) along R460?
a) 713nm b) 641nm c) 631nm d) 587nm
Ans. A
14 Along R460 from DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’) to KOLKATA (N22º38.7’ E088º27.2’), how many NAV
AIDs are there?
a) 6 b) 5 c) 7 d) 8
Ans. A
15 Find the shortest valid air distance from KOLKATA (N22º38.7’ E088º27.2’) to DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’)?
a) 715nm b) 681nm c) 660nm d) 713nm
Ans. A
16 In the shortest valid route from KOLKATA (N22º38.7’ E088º27.2’) to DELHI (N28º34.0’ E077º0.57’), how
many NAV AIDs are there?
a) 7 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8
Ans. A
17 What is distance of the changeover point from ALIGARH (N27º49.8’ E078º10.7’) along the airway R460 to
LUCKNOW?
a) 75nm b) 82nm c) 157nm d) 11nm
Ans. A
18. What is the distance from KOLKATA (N22º38.7’ E088º27.2’) to CHENNAI(N12º59.6’ E080º10.2’) along the
airway A465?
a) 759nm b) 695nm c) 697nm d) 705nm
Ans. A
19. How many NAVAIDS are there along the airway A465 KOLKATA (N22º38.7’ E088º27.2’) to
CHENNAI(N12º59.6’ E080º10.2’) disregarding BHUBANESHWAR?
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4
Ans. A
20. What is the distance from CHENNAI(N12º59.6’ E080º10.2’) to KATUNAYAKEE(N7º09.7’ E079º52.1’) along
the airway A465?
a) 350nm b) 282nm c) 300nm d) 317nm
Ans. A
21. How many NAVAIDS are there along the airway A465 CHENNAI(N12º59.6’ E080º10.2’) to
KATUNAYAKEE (N7º09.7’ E079º52.1’)?
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) 4
Ans. A
30
22. What is the distance from KOLKATA(N22º38.7’ E088º27.2’) to MUMBAI(N19º5.2’ E072º52.5’) along the
airway G450?
a) 906nm b) 806nm c) 578nm d) 630nm
Ans. A
23. How many NAVAIDS are there along the airway G450 from KOLKATA(N22º38.7’ E088º27.2’) to
MUMBAI(N19º5.2’ E072º52.5’)?
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 6
Ans. A
24. What is the distance from CHIANG MAI (N18º46.0’ E098º57.7’) to KUALALAMPUR (N02º43.5’ E101º44.3’)
along the airway A464?
a) 987nm b) 947nm c) 909nm d) 840nm
Ans. A
25. How many NAVAIDS are there along the airway A464 from CHIANG MAI (N18º46.0’ E098º57.7’) to
KUALALAMPUR (N02º43.5’ E101º44.3’)?
a) 6 b) 7 c) 5 d) 8
Ans. A
26. What is the distance from LASHIO (N22º59.1’ E097º44.8’) to KOTA BARU (N06º09.8’ E102º18.9’) along the
airway B463?
a) 1137nm b) 1017nm c) 1089nm d) 1104nm
Ans. A
27. How many NAVAIDS are there along the airway B463 from LASHIO (N22º59.1’ E097º44.8’) to KOTA BARU
(N06º09.8’ E102º18.9’)?
a) 5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
Ans. A
28. What is the distance from DAWEI (N14º5.9’ E098º12.2’) to TANSONN HAT (N10º49.0’ E106º38.7’) along the
airway R468?
a) 541nm b) 496nm c) 511nm d) 526nm
Ans. A
29. How many NAVAIDS are there along the airway R468 from DAWEI (N14º5.9’ E098º12.2’) to TANSONN
HAT (N10º49.0’ E106º38.7’)?
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 5
Ans. A
30. What is the distance from DA NANG (N16º3.2’ E108º11.9’) to BANGKOK (N13º53.6’ E100º35.8’) along the
airway A1?
a) 459nm b) 373nm c) 365nm d) 427nm
Ans. A
31. How many NAVAIDS are there along the airway A1 from DA NANG (N16º3.2’ E108º11.9’) to BANGKOK
(N13º53.6’ E100º35.8’)?
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
Ans. A
32. What is the distance from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E90º24.8’) to BANGKOK (N13º53.6’ E100º35.8’) along the
airway G463?
a) 841nm b) 816nm c) 779nm d) 784nm
Ans. A
31
33. How many NAVAIDS are there along the airway G463 from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E90º24.8’) to BANGKOK
(N13º53.6’ E100º35.8’)?
a) 4 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6
Ans. A
34. What is the distance from MADURAI (N09º49.9’ E078º05.3’) to MUMBAI (N19º05.2’ E072º52.5’)?
a) 635nm b) 567nm c) 577nm d) 540nm
Ans. A
35. How many NAVAIDS are there along the airway from MADURAI (N09º49.9’ E078º05.3’) to MUMBAI
(N19º05.2’ E072º52.5’)?
a) 4 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6
Ans. A
36. What is the distance from PRATAPGARH (N24º01.8’ E074º45.0’) to VAISHAKAPATNAM (N17º40.1’
E083º15.2’) along the airway N877R?
a) 611nm b) 516nm c) 528nm d) 526nm
Ans. A
37. How many NAVAIDS are there along the airway N877R from PRATAPGARH (N24º01.8’ E074º45.0’) to
VAISHAKAPATNAM (N17º40.1’ E083º15.2’)?
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
Ans. A
38. What is the distance from AGRA (N27º09.0’ E077º56.9’) to BHUBANESHWAR (N20º14.6’ E085º48.8’) along
the airway L759R?
a) 602nm b) 527nm c) 566nm d) 420nm
Ans. A
39. How many NAVAIDS are there along the airway L759R from AGRA (N27º09.0’ E077º56.9’) to
BHUBANESHWAR (N20º14.6’ E085º48.8’)?
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
Ans. A
HIGH/LO CHARTS – Type-

Type-1
Ref: Jeppesen ME(H/L)9 & 10 Rev. 01Feb 08
01. What is the distance from KALAY (N23º11.2 E094º3.5’) to BAGAN (N21º10.2’ E094º55.0’) along the airway
W6?
a) 132nm b) 157nm c) 260nm d) 257nm
Ans. A
02. What is the MOCA from KALAY (N23º11.2 E094º3.5’) to BAGAN (N21º10.2’ E094º55.0’) along the airway
W6?
a) 6400’ b) 26000’ c) 11000’ d) 132000’
Ans. A
03. What is the MAA from KALAY (N23º11.2 E094º3.5’) to BAGAN (N21º10.2’ E094º55.0’) along the airway
W6?
a) FL260 b) FL110 c) FL64 d) FL130
Ans. A
32
04. What is the MEA from KALAY (N23º11.2 E094º3.5’) to BAGAN (N21º10.2’ E094º55.0’) along the airway
W6?
a) FL110 b) FL260 c) 6400’ d) 132000’
Ans. A
05. What is the distance from LASHIO (N22º59.1 E097º44.8’) to BAGO (N17º19.2’ E098º32.5’) along the airway
V2?
a) 347nm b) 150nm c) 279nm d) 362nm
Ans. A
06. What is the MAA from LASHIO (N22º59.1 E097º44.8’) to BAGO (N17º19.2’ E098º32.5’) along the airway
V2?
a) FL230 b) FL150 c) 10300’ d) FL340
Ans. A
07. What is the MEA from LASHIO (N22º59.1 E097º44.8’) to BAGO (N17º19.2’ E098º32.5’) along the airway
V2?
a) FL150 b) FL230 c) 10300’ d) FL340
Ans. A
08. What is the MOCA from LASHIO (N22º59.1 E097º44.8’) to BAGO (N17º19.2’ E098º32.5’) along the airway
V2?
a) 10300’ b) FL150 c) FL230 d) FL340
Ans. A
09. What is the distance from VARANASI (N25º27.2’ E082º51.6’) to BHUBANESHWAR (N20º14.6’ E085º48.8’)
along the airway W50?
a) 363nm b) 109nm c) 100nm d) 140nm
Ans. A
10. What is the MEA from VARANASI (N25º27.2’ E082º51.6’) to BHUBANESHWAR (N20º14.6’ E085º48.8’)
a) FL100 b) 5600’ c) FL109 d) FL220
Ans. A
11. What is the MOCA from VARANASI (N25º27.2’ E082º51.6’) to BHUBANESHWAR (N20º14.6’ E085º48.8’)
a) 5600’ b) FL100 c) FL109 d) FL220
Ans. A
12. What is the MAA from VARANASI (N25º27.2’ E082º51.6’) to BHUBANESHWAR (N20º14.6’ E085º48.8’)
a) Not Defined b) FL100 c) FL109 d) FL220
Ans. A
13. What is the distance from GWALIOR (N26º17.1’ E078º13.0’) to BHOPAL (N23º17.0’ E077º20.2’) along the
airway W10S?
a) 187nm b) 80nm c) 107nm d) 294nm
Ans. A
14. What is the MEA from GWALIOR (N26º17.1’ E078º13.0’) to BHOPAL (N23º17.0’ E077º20.2’) along the
airway W10S?
a) FL180 b) 3600’ c) FL360 d) FL180
Ans. A
33
15. What is the MOCA from GWALIOR (N26º17.1’ E078º13.0’) to BHOPAL (N23º17.0’ E077º20.2’) along the
airway W10S?
a) 3600’ b) FL180 c) FL360 d) FL180
Ans. A
16. What is the MAA from GWALIOR (N26º17.1’ E078º13.0’) to BHOPAL (N23º17.0’ E077º20.2’) along the
airway W10S?
a) Not Defined b) 3600’ c) FL80 d) FL180
Ans. A
17. What is the distance from KHAJURAHO (N24º48.9’ E079º55.1’) to JABALPUR (N23º10.8’ E080º03.6’) along
the airway W66?
a) 187nm b) 80nm c) 107nm d) 294nm
Ans. A
18. What is the MEA from KHAJURAHO (N24º48.9’ E079º55.1’) to JABALPUR (N23º10.8’ E080º03.6’) along
the airway W66?
a) FL180 b) 3600’ c) FL360 d) FL180
Ans. A
19. What is the MOCA from KHAJURAHO (N24º48.9’ E079º55.1’) to JABALPUR (N23º10.8’ E080º03.6’) along
the airway W66?
a) 3600’ b) FL180 c) FL360 d) FL180
Ans. A
20. What is the MAA from KHAJURAHO (N24º48.9’ E079º55.1’) to JABALPUR (N23º10.8’ E080º03.6’) along
the airway W66?
a) Not Defined b) 3600’ c) FL80 d) FL180
Ans. A
21. What is the distance from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to JESSORE (N23º10.6’ E089º09.8’) along the
airway W2?
a) 79nm b) 50nm c) 54nm d) 104nm
Ans. A
22. What is the MEA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to JESSORE (N23º10.6’ E089º09.8’) along the airway
W2?
a) FL80 b) FL250 c) 1800’ d) FL180
Ans. A
23. What is the MOCA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to JESSORE (N23º10.6’ E089º09.8’) along the
airway W2?
a) 1800’ b) FL80 c) FL250 d) FL180
Ans. A
24. What is the MAA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to JESSORE (N23º10.6’ E089º09.8’) along the airway
W2?
a) FL250 b) FL80 c) FL180 d) FL190
Ans. A
25. What is the distance from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to BARISAL (N22º47.9’ E090º17.9’) along the
airway W9?
a) 61nm b) 50nm c) 72nm d) 80nm
Ans. A
34
26. What is the MEA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to BARISAL (N22º47.9’ E090º17.9’) along the airway
W9?
a) 3000’ b) 1800’ c) FL250 d) FL200
Ans. A
27. What is the MOCA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to BARISAL (N22º47.9’ E090º17.9’) along the
airway W9?
a) 1800’ b) 3000’ c) FL250 d) FL200
Ans. A
28. What is the MAA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to BARISAL (N22º47.9’ E090º17.9’) along the airway
W9?
a) FL250 b) FL200 c) 3000’ d) FL300
Ans. A
29. What is the distance from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to SAIDPUR (N25º45.3’ E088º54.6’) along the
airway W3?
a) 146nm b) 114nm c) 121nm d) 132nm
Ans. A
30. What is the MEA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to SAIDPUR (N25º45.3’ E088º54.6’) along the airway
W3?
a) 4000’ b) FL250 c) FL60 d) 1800’
Ans. A
31. What is the MOCA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to SAIDPUR (N25º45.3’ E088º54.6’) along the
airway W3?
a) 1800’ b) 4000’ c) FL60 d) 6000’
Ans. A
32. What is the MAA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to SAIDPUR (N25º45.3’ E088º54.6’) along the airway
W3?
a) FL250 b) 4000’ c) 6000’ d) 10000’
Ans. A
33. What is the distance from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to SYLHET (N24º57.6’ E091º52.0’) along the
airway W1?
a) 106nm b) 81nm c) 97nm d) 115nm
Ans. A
34. What is the MEA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to SYLHET (N24º57.6’ E091º52.0’) along the airway
W1?
a) FL60 b) 4000’ c) 1600’ d) FL250
Ans. A
35. What is the MOCA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to SYLHET (N24º57.6’ E091º52.0’) along the
airway W1?
a) 1600’ b) 4000’ c) FL60 d) 6000’
Ans. A
36. What is the MAA from DHAKA (N23º49.5’ E090º24.8’) to SYLHET (N24º57.6’ E091º52.0’) along the airway
W1?
a) FL250 b) FL60 c) 6000’ d) FL400
Ans. A
35
37. What is the distance from AGARTALA (N23º53.4’ E091º14.4’) to GUWAHATI (N26º06.1’ E091º35.1’) along
the airway B593?
a) 135nm b) 105nm c) 110nm d) 107nm
Ans. A
38. What is the MEA from AGARTALA (N23º53.4’ E091º14.4’) to GUWAHATI (N26º06.1’ E091º35.1’) along the
airway B593?
a) FL100 b) FL60 c) 7900’ d) FL250
Ans. A
39. What is the MOCA from AGARTALA (N23º53.4’ E091º14.4’) to GUWAHATI (N26º06.1’ E091º35.1’) along
the airway B593?
a) 7900’ b) FL100 c) FL250 d) FL160
Ans. A
40. What is the MAA from AGARTALA (N23º53.4’ E091º14.4’) to GUWAHATI (N26º06.1’ E091º35.1’) along
the airway B593?
a) FL250 b) FL150 c) FL100 d) 7900’
Ans. A
HIGH/LO CHARTS – Type-

Type-2
Ref: Jeppesen FE(H/L)1 Rev. 11Jan 08
01. What is the distance from CHIANG MAI (N18º46.0’ E098º57.7’) to LOEI (N17º26.8’ E101º43.4’) along the
airway Q15?
a) 189nm b) 78nm c) 111nm d) 143nm
Ans. A
02. What is the MEA from CHIANG MAI (N18º46.0’ E098º57.7’) to LOEI (N17º26.8’ E101º43.4’) along the
airway Q15?
a) FL70 b) 7000’ c) FL170 d) 7500’
Ans. A
03. What is the distance from CHIANG MAI (N18º46.0’ E098º57.7’) to KHON KAEN (N16º28.2’ E102º47.3’)
a) 215nm b) 109nm c) 106nm d) 324nm
Ans. A
04. What is the distance from CHIANG MAI (N18º46.0’ E098º57.7’) to MAE SOT (N16º41.9’ E098º32.5’) along
the airway W7?
a) 126nm b) 99nm c) 77nm d) 203nm
Ans. A
05. What is the distance from CHIANG RAI (N19º59.6’ E099º53.0’) to RHITSANULOK (N16º46.2’ E100º17.5’)
a) 192nm b) 110nm c) 82nm d) 274nm
Ans. A
06. What is the distance from BKK (N13º53.6’ E100º35.8’) to UBON (N15º14.7’ E104º52.0’) along the airway A1?
a) 261nm b) 175nm c) 347nm d) 284nm
Ans. A
36
07. What is the distance from KORAT (N14º55.0’ E102º08.4’) to SAVANNAKHET (N16º33.7’ E104º45.9’) along
the airway W37?
a) 182nm b) 119nm c) 245nm d) 115nm
Ans. A
08. What is the distance from SIEM REAP (N13º24.9’ E103º49.3’) to PHNOMPENH (N11º32.5’ E104º50.3’) along
the airway W15?
a) 136nm b) 187nm c) 221nm d) 236nm
Ans. A
09. What is the distance from RANONG (N9º46.7’ E098º35.0’) to HAT YAI (N06º56.0’ E100º23.3’) along the
airway W17?
a) 202nm b) 151nm c) 230nm d) 179nm
Ans. A
10. What is the distance from PHUKET (N8º6.9’ E098º18.4’) to HAT YAI (N06º56.0’ E100º23.3’) along the
airway W14?
a) 143nm b) 86nm c) 57nm d) 157nm
Ans. A
11. What is the distance from KUALALAMPUR (N2º43.5’ E101º44.3’) KUANTAN (N3º46.6’ W103º12.7’) along
the airway W533?
a) 109nm b) 152nm c) 131nm d) 154nm
Ans. A
AREA, ARRIVAL/DEPARTURE (INCL. SID, STAR, GPS) CHARTS
Ref: Jeppesen KATMANDU (VNKT/KTM) 10-

10-2 02Feb 07
01. What is the airport elevation?
a) 4390’ b) 4400’ c) 4300’ d) 4000’
Ans. A
02. What is the transition level?

a) FL150 b) 13500’ c) 4390’ d) 4000’
Ans. A
03. What is the transition altitude?

a) 13500’ b) FL150 c) 4300’ d) 6000’
Ans. A
04. What is the MSA between 135º-255º

a) 20800’ b) 10500’ c) 11800’ d) 13500’
Ans. A

a) 10500’ b) 20800’ c) 11800’ d) 13500’
Ans. A

a) 11800’ b) 10500’ c) 20800’ d) 13500’
Ans. A
37
07. What is the MHA at NOPEN?
a) 11500’ b) 10500’ c) 20800’ d) 11800’
Ans. A
08. What should be the altitude while crossing 1F?

a) 11500’ b) 10500’ c) 20800’ d) 11800’
Ans. A
09. What is the course from SIMARA to RATAN in the SIMARA 02 arrival?
a) 054º b) 022 º c) 255 º d) 135 º
Ans. A
10. What is the course from ROMEO to RATAN in the ROMEO 02 arrival?
a) 022º b) 054 º c) 255 º d) 135 º
Ans. A

10-3/3A/3C 02Feb 07
01. In DHARKE 1A, 1B, 1C, 1D, 1E departures, what should be the altitude while intercepting KTM R-289 to
LDK?
a) at or above 7500’ b) at or above 4700’ c) 10500’ d) 13500’
Ans. A
02. In DHARKE 1A, 1B, 1C, 1D, 1E departures, what is the radius of the DME arc between KTM R-270 & KTM
R-214?
a) 20nm b) 19nm c) 4 nm d) 5nm
Ans. A
?03. In DHARKE 1A, 1B, 1C, 1D, 1E departures, what is the length of the DMW arc between KTM R-270 & KTM
R-214?
a) 20nm b) 19nm c) 4 nm d) 18nm
Ans. A
04. In DHARKE 1A, 1B, 1C, 1D, 1E departures, what should be the altitude while crossing LDK from KTM R289?
a) 10500’ b) 13500’ c) 7500’ d) 4700’
Ans. A
05. In DHARKE 1A, 1B, 1C, 1D, 1E departures, what is the distance from the beginning of the 20DME arc to BHP?
a) 31nm b) 19nm c) 17nm d) 5nm
Ans. A
06. DHARKE 1A departure, according to Note 2, westbound direction is not available for international traffic
except VNKT SIDs to:-
a) VIBN b) VNPK c) VNGK d) VNBW
Ans. A
07. In DHARKE 1A, 1B, 1C, 1D, 1E departures, what should be the minimum gradient of climb?
a) 6% b) 4% c) 8% d) 2.4%
Ans. A
08. In IGRIS 1A, 1B departure, what should be the altitude while crossing IGRIS?
a) 10500’ b) 13500’ c) 11800’ d) 20800’
Ans. A
38
09. In IGRIS 1A, 1B departure, what is the distance between IGRIS and JANAKPUR?
a) 57nm b) 42nm c) 45nm d) 54nm
Ans. A
10. In IGRIS 1A, 1B departure, what should be the minimum gradient of climb?
a) 8% b) 6% c) 4% d) 2.4%
Ans. A
11. Which of the following SIDs can be used for Rwy 20?
a) IGRIS 1A b) IGRIS 1B c) DHARKE 1A d) DHARKE 1B
Ans. A

10-9, 05Apr 02
01. What is the length of the runway?
a) 10007’ b) 4390’ c) 14397’ d) 13500’
Ans. A
02. What are the ATIS frequencies?

a) 127.0 & 112.3 MHz b) 127.0 & 112.3 KHz c) 121.9 & 118.1 MHz d) 121.9 & 118.1 KHz
Ans. A
03. What are the coordinates of the stands 4 through 6?

a) N27º42.0’ E085º21.5’ b) N27º41.9’ E085º21.5’ c) N27º42.1’ E085º21.5’ d) N27º41.8’ E085º21.5’
Ans. A

18-1, 05Apr 02, GPS Rwy 02
01. What is the final approach course?
a) 037º b) 096 º c) 031 º d) 276 º
Ans. A
02. What is the MHA at TARKU?

a) 11100’ b) 11000’ c) 8100’ d) 11400’
Ans. A
03. During missed approach, if minimum 5.6% climb gradient is maintained, at what altitude do you turn right to
reach TARKU?
a) 5400’ b) 4390’ c) 8100’ d) 11000’
Ans. A
04. What should be the minimum altitude at FF02?

a) 8100’ b) 11000’ c) 10300’ d) 7106’
Ans. A
05. What are the MDAs for missed approach climb gradients of minimum 5.6% and 2.5% respectively?
a) 4900’ & 6260’ b) 587’ & 1947’ c) 5400’ & 11000’ d) None of the above
Ans. A
06. What are the MDHs for missed approach climb gradients of minimum 5.6% and 2.5% respectively?
a) 587’ & 1947’ b) 4900’ & 6260’ c) 5400’ & 11000’ d) None of the above
Ans. A
39
10-1, 19May 06 Area Chart
01. What is the frequency of LUCKNOW Navaid?
a) 113.1MHz b) 113.1KHz c) 118.5MHz d) 118.5KHz
Ans. A
02. What is the distance from SIMARA to LUCKNOW along G598?

a) 222nm b) 107nm c) 100nm d) None of the above
Ans. A
03. What is the distance from SIMARA to APIPU along G598?

a) 107nm b) 222nm c) 100nm d) None of the above
Ans. A
04. What is the MEA from SIMARA along G598?

a) FL100 b) 10000’ c) 1900’ d) 11500’
Ans. A
05. What is the MOCA from SIMARA along G598?

a) 1900’ b) FL100 c) 10000’ d) 11500’
Ans. A
Ref: Jeppesen KOLKATA 10-

10-2, 16Feb 07 Rwy01R Arrival to ILS
01. What is the radius of the arc before intercepting 007º?
Ans. A
02. What is the altitude of the arc before intercepting 007º?

a) 2000’ b) 3000’ c) 4000’ d) 6000’
Ans. A
03. What is the MSA?

a) 2000’ b) 4000’ c) 3000’ d) 2500’
Ans. A
04. At what altitude should you intercept runway course 007º?

a) 1700’ b) 2700’ c) 4000’ d) 3000’
Ans. A
05. Give the coordinates of IAF when approaching from LEGOS.

Ans. A
06. Give the maximum speed at IAF when approaching from LEGOS.
a) 180kts b) 150kts c) 200kts d) 250kts
Ans. A
07. Give the coordinates of FAF when approaching from LEGOS.

Ans. A
08. Arrival from which of the following does not require a 12DME arc?
a) LEGOS b) JAMSHEDPUR c) AVPOP d) SUMAG
Ans. A
40
10-2B, 16Feb 07 Rwy01L/R Arrival to VOR/DME
01. What is the distance in from JAMSHEDPUR normally, to IAF while arriving from JAMSHEDPUR?
a) 115nm b) 119nm c) 116nm d) 117nm
Ans. A
02. What are the coordinates of IAF while arriving from JAMSHEDPUR?
a) N22°39.8’ E88°13.0’ b) N22°45.7’ E088°15.1’
c) N22°26.3’ E88°22.5’ d) N22°26.6’ E88°32.3’
Ans. A

10-2C, 16Feb 07 Rwy19L Arrival to VOR/DME
01. What is the distance in from AGODA to IAF while arriving from AGODA?
a) 76nm b) 18nm c) 90nm d) 109nm
Ans. A
02. What are the coordinates of IAF while arriving from AGODA?
a) N23°3.7’ E88°29.2’ b) N23°2.9’ E088°19.7’
c) N23°3.7’ E088°19.7’ d) N23°2.9’ E88°29.2’
Ans. A

10-3A, 13Feb 04 SID
01. BEMAK1 refers to which of the following?
a) Follow 020 Hdg to intercept CEA R 056° to BEMAK
b) Follow 090 Hdg to intercept CEA R 056° to BEMAK
c) Follow 220 Hdg to intercept CEA R 199° to LEGOS
d) Follow 020 Hdg to intercept CEA R 199° to LEGOS
Ans. A
02. BEMAK2 refers to which of the following?

Ans. B
03. BUBKO2 refers to which of the following?

Ans. C

10-3B, 13Feb 02 SID
01. What is the radius of arc between CEA R210° and R285°?
Ans. A
02. What should be the altitude at CEA R-285° following DUMKA1?

a) 4000’ b) 2000’ c) 2017’ d) 4017’
Ans. A
41
10-3C, 06Dec 02 SID
01. Rwy 01L/R is associated with which of the following SIDs?
a) JAMSHEDPUR2 b) JAMSHEDPUR4 c) LEGOS2 d) All of the above
Ans. A
02. Rwy 19L/R is associated with which of the following SIDs?

a) JAMSHEDPUR1 b) LEGOS1 c) both (a) and (b) d) LEGOS1
Ans. C.

10-3E, 13Feb 04 SID
01. SUMAG1 refers to which of the following?
a) Follow 070 Hdg to intercept CEA R 097°
b) Follow 140 Hdg to intercept CEA R 097°
c) Follow 135 Hdg to intercept CEA R 285°, then 330° Hdg. to R-303°
d) Follow 270 Hdg to intercept CEA R 303°
Ans. A
02. SUMAG2 refers to which of the following?

Ans. B
03. TEFAL1 refers to which of the following?

Ans. C
04. TEFAL2 refers to which of the following?

Ans. D
42
Ref: Jeppesen BANGKOK (VTBS/BKK) 10-
10-2, 8Sep06, RNAV STAR
01. All non-GNSS (Global Navigation Satellite System) equipped aircraft shall inform ATC and
a) obtain clearance for the RNAV STAR ARONS 1B ARRIVAL.
b) obtain clearance for the RNAV STAR CABIN 1B ARRIVAL.
c) obtain clearance for the RNAV STAR CAROS 1B ARRIVAL.
d) request RADAR vectoring
Ans. D
02. What is the MSA between 314° and 002° within 20nm?
a) 1500’ b) 3900’ c) 2300’ d) 1505’
Ans. B
03. What is the initial course from LIMLA?

a) 134° b) 117° c) 095° d) 139°
Ans. A
04. What is the initial course from BETNO?

a) 117° b) 134° c) 095° d) 115°
Ans. A
05. What is the initial course from TANEK?

a) 095° b) 134° c) 117° d) 180°
Ans. A
06. What is the MHA at ARONIS?

a) FL140 b) FL170 c) FL130 d) FL110
Ans. A
07. What is the Max. Speed at ARONIS?

a) 240kts. b) 210kts. c) 170kts. d) 200kts.
Ans. A
Ref: Jeppesen DHAKA (VGZR/DAC) 10-

10-3 04Mar 05
01. What is the airport elevation?
a) 27’ b) 127’ c) 4027’ d) 54’
Ans. A
02. What is the transition level?

a) FL60 b) FL40 c) 4000’ d) 6000’
Ans. A
03. What is the transition altitude?

a) 4000’ b) FL40 c) FL60 d) 6000’
Ans. A
04. Following BATEL1 departure, initial turning is done at which altitude?

a) 1000’ b) 1000’ or above c) 2000’ d) 2000’ or above
Ans. A
43
05. Following BATEL2 departure, initial turning is done at which altitude?
Ans. A
06. Following ADMIL1 departure, initial turning is done at which altitude?

Ans. A
07. Following ADMIL2 departure, initial turning is done at which altitude?

Ans. A
08. Following BATEL1 ALPHA departure, initial turning is done at which altitude?
a) 2000’ or above b) 1000’ or above c) 1000’ d) 2000’
Ans. A
09. ADMIL1 refers to which of the following?

a) Intercept DAC R-141° within DAC DME 10 to ADMIL
b) Climb on runway heading to 1000’, turn right, intercept DAC R-141 within DAC DME 10 to ADMIL
c) Climb on runway heading to 1000’, turn right, intercept DAC R-290 within DAC DME 10 to BATEL
d) Climb on runway heading to 1000’, turn left, intercept DAC R-141 within DAC DME 10 to BATEL
Ans. A
10. ADMIL2 refers to which of the following?

Ans. B
11. BATEL1 refers to which of the following?

Ans. C
12. BATEL1 refers to which of the following?

Ans. D
13. Which of the following are not associated with DAC Rwy 14?
a) ADMIL1 b) ADMIL2 c) BATEL1 d) BATEL 1 ALPHA
Ans. B
44
Ref: Jeppesen CHITTAGONG (VGEG/CTG) 11-
11-1 07Jul 06, VOR ILS DME-
DME- Arc
Rwy 23
01. What is the MSA between 090°-360°, through 045° inbound?

a) 2000’ b) 3500’ c) 2014’ d) 3514’
Ans. A
02. Missed approach procedures require climb to 2000’ on which track?

a) 229° b) 055° d) 266° d) 218°
Ans. A
03. Ships with masts 150’ may travel at a distance from threshold within:-
a) 0.5nm b) 1nm c) 1.5nm d) 11nm
Ans. A

13-1 07Jul 06, VOR DME Rwy 05
01. What is the MSA between 090°-360° through 045° inbound?

a) 2000’ b) 3500’ c) 2014’ d) 3514’
Ans. A

a) 055° b) 229° d) 266° d) 218°
Ans. A
03. The procedure is based on a speed of:-

Ans. A
.
04. What is the MDA?
a) 500’ b) 1500’ c) 520’ d) 430’
Ans. A

16-1 07Jul 06, NDB Rwy 05

a) 2000’ b) 3500’ c) 2014’ d) 3514’
Ans. A

a) 057° b) 055° d) 266° d) 218°
Ans. A
03. The procedure is based on a speed of:-

Ans. A
.
45
a) 430’ b) 1500’ c) 520’ d) 500’
Ans. A
Ref: Jeppesen SYLHET (VGSY/ZYL) 11-

11-1 08Aug 03, VOR ILS DME Rwy 11
a) 2000’ b) 6000’ c) 2050’ d) 6050’
Ans. A

a) 114° b) 116° d) 120° d) 218°
Ans. A

a) 450’(AB) b) 500’ (CD) c) 450(CD) d) both (a) and (b) are correct
Ans. D
46
CHAPTER13
CHAPTER13 – ATC FLIGHT PLAN
Q01. Using the attached ATC Flight Plan Example-1, the cruising speed is:
a. 430 kilometers/hr.
b. 430 nautical miles /hr.
c. Not 430 kts at FL290
d. None of the above.
Q02. Using the attached ATC Flight Plan Example-1, the endurance is:
a. 2hr30min.
b. 230 min.
c. 2300 min.
d. 23 hrs.
Q03. Using the attached ATC Flight Plan Example-1, the persons on board is:
a. 103
b. 105
c. 50
d. 230
Q04. Using the attached ATC Flight Plan Example-1, the type of survival equipment carried is:
a. Maritime
b. Polar
c. Desert
d. Jungle
Answers
Q-01(b )
Q-02(a )
Q-03(a )
Q-04(a )
47

There will be no questions on MRJT(Medium Range Jet) for CPL Exams and
they have been deleted.
CHAPTER15 – QUESTIONS - FLIGHT PLANNING
1. A turbine - engined aircraft burns fuel at 200 gals per hour (gph) with a Fuel Density of 0.8. What is the fuel flow
if Fuel Density is 0.75?
a. 213 gph
b. 208 gph
c. 200 gph
d. 188 gph
2. AC flying at 7500ft, is cleared to descend to be level at 100011, 6nm before reaching a beacon. If ground speed is
156kt and Rate of Descent is 800fpm, how many miles before the beacon should descent begin?
a. 15.0
b. 30.2
c. 27.1
d. 11.1
3. After flying for 16 minutes at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure.
You will arrive after:
a. 10 min 40 sec
b. 20 min
c. 24 min
d. 16 min
4. An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL095, IAS 155 kt.

The pilot intends to descend at 500 ft/min to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2000 ft (QNH 1030 hPa).
The TAS remains constant in the descent, wind is negligible, temperature standard. At which distance from MAN
should the pilot commence the descent?
a. 42 nm
b. 40 nm
c. 45 nm
d. 48 nm
5. At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of useable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12 USG.
The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable?
a. 33.0 USG/Hr
b. 37.9 USG/Hr
c. 30.3 USG/Hr
d. 21.3 USG/Hr
6. ATC require a descent from FL270 to FL 160 to be level 6 nm before a VOR.

If rate of descent is 800 feet per minute, mean groundspeed is 256 kt, how far out from the VOR must descent be
started?
a. 59 nm
b. 65 nm
c. 144 nm
d. 150 nm
48
7 Given:
Track 355 T, wind velocity 340/30kt, TAS 140kt, total distance A to B 350 nm. What are the time and distance to
the point of equal time between A and B?
a. 75 mins, 211 nm.
b. 75 mins, 140 nm.
c. 50 mins, 140 nm.
d. 114 rains, 211 nm.
8. The fuel burn - off is 200 kg/hr with a relative fuel density of 0.8. If the relative fuel density is 0.75, the fuel burn
will be:
a. 267 kg/hr
b. 213 kg/hr
c. 200 kg/hr
d. 188 kg/hr
9. You are flying at FL330, M0.84, OAT -48C, headwind 52 kt. The time is 1338 UTC. ATC clear you to be at 30W
(570 nm away) at 1500 UTC. To what Mno do you have to adhere?
a. 0.72
b. 0.76
c. 0.80
d. 0.84
10 Where would you find information regarding Customs and Health facilities?
a. ATCC broadcasts
b. NOTAMs
c. NAV/RAD supplememnts
d. AIPs
11 Where would you find information regarding Search and Rescue procedures?
a. ATCC broadcasts
b. NOTAMs
c. SIGMETs
d. AIPs
12. An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500 ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75. What height does the aircraft have
to climb?
(Assume 1 mb = 3011.)
a. 6600 ft
b. 7800 ft
c. 6300 ft
d. 6000 ft
13. Given by a met station elevation at 4000ft where QNH is 1003hpa. The minimum obstruction clearance
altitude(MOCA) is 8500ft. Assume 3011 per HPa
What is the minimum pressure altitude?
a. 1280ft
b. 8500ft
c. 8200ft
d. 880011
14 Given:
true track 215; mountain elevation 11,600 ft; local airfield gives QNH as 1035 mb; Required terrain clearance 1500
ft; temperature ISA - 15C.
Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature?
a. FL150
b. FL 140
c. FL 120
49
d. FL110 10
15. Multi-engined ac on IFR flight.

Given:
trip fuel 65 US Gal; contingency 5% trip; Alternate fuel including final reserve 17 US Gal; Useable fuel at departure
93 US Gal. At a point halfway to destination, fuel consumed is 40 US Gal.
Assuming fuel consumption is unchanged, which of the following is correct'?
a. At departure Reserve Fuel was 28 US Gal.
b. At destination required reserves remain intact.
c. Remaining fuel is insufficient to reach destination with reserves intact.
d. Remaining fuel is insufficient to reach the destination.
30. The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure to
destination aerodrome is 5,325 kg.
Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/hr. Alternate fuel is 4 380 kg.
Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel.
What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?
a. 13 220kg
b. 14 500kg
c, 13 000kg
d. 13 370kg
31. Turbo jet ac, flying to an isolated airfield, with no destination alternative. On top of: taxi, trip and contingency
fuel, what fuel is required?
a. Greater of 45 mins + 15% of trip or 2 hours
b.30 mins holding @ 450m AMSL
c. 30 mins holding @ 450m AAL
d. 2 hours at normal cruise consumption
32. CAP697 SEP1 fig 2.5.

For a flight departing from MSL at 36631b, cruising at FL80 @2300 RPM, 20C lean of peak EGT, in 40kt
headwind, calculate endurance.
a. 4.75hr
b. 5.3hr
c, 6.1 hr
d. 6.55 hr
33. For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:

Flight time 2 hr 42 min.
The reserve fuel, at any time, should be not less than 30% of trip fuel remaining. Block fuel 136 kg.
Taxi fuel 9 kg.
How many kg of fuel should remain after 2 hours flight'?
a. 33kg trip and 10 kg reserve
b. 25 kg trip and 8 kg reserve
c. 23 kg trip and 10 kg reserve
d. 33 kg trip and no reserve
34. Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg ( 30% total reserve is included). Assume the ground speed on this trip
is constant.
When half the distance has been flow, the remaining fuel is 70 kg.
Is it necessary to divert to a nearby alternate?
a. diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the remaining fuel is not sufficient.
b. diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because the reserve fuel has not been used completely.
c. diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because it is allowed to calculate the fuel without the reserve
d. diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, unless the captain decides to continue on his own
responsibility.
50
36. Refer to CAP 697 SEP1, fig 2.1. Aerodrome elevation 2500 ft, OAT +l OC. Initial weight 35001b. Climb to FL
140,
OAT -5C.
What are the climb time, fuel, NAM?
a. 22 min, 6.5 g, 46 nam
b. 24 min, 7.5g, 50 nam
c. 2 min, 1.0g, 4 nam
d. 26 min, 8.5g, 54 nam.
37. Refer to CAP 697 SEP l, fig 2.1.

Given:
FL75, OAT +5C,
during climb, average headwind component 20kt, take-off from MSL with initial mass of 3 650 lbs.
Find time and fuel to climb.
a. 11 min, 3.6 USG
b. 7 min, 2.6 USG
c. 9 min, 2.7 USG
d. 9 min, 3.3 USG
38. Refer to CAP 697 SEP I, fig 2.2.3.

Given:
FL75, OAT +l 0 C,
Lean mixture, 2300 RPM.
Find fuel flow (GPH) gallons per hour and TAS.
a. 11.6 GPH 160 kt
b. 68.5 GPH 160 kt
c. 71.1 GPH 143 kt
d. 11.6 GPH 143 kt
39. Refer to CAP 697 SEP 1 fig 2.4

Given:
Aeroplane mass at start up 3663 lbs
fuel load (density 6lbs/gal) 74 gal
Take-off altitude sea level
Headwind 40 kt
Cruise altitude 8000 ft Power setting full throttle 2300 RPM 20°C lean of peak
Calculate the range
a. 633 nm
b. 844 nm
c. 730 nm
d. 547.5 nm
40. Refer to CAP697 SEP. Given: -

Power setting of 23 in HG @ 2300 RPM 20°C lean. FL50 OAT -5°c Fuel for start-up & taxi 10 lbs
Allow 1 gallon & 3 minutes for your climb 10 minutes and no fuel correction for descent Flight time of 2 hours 37
minutes
Reserve fuel of 30% of trip fuel
What is the minimum block fuel?
a. 250 lbs
b. 208 Ibs
c. 270 lbs
d. 265 lbs
41. Refer to CAP697, SEP 1, fig 2.5.
51
Given: FL75;
Lean mixture; Full throttle/2300 RPM; Take-off fuel 444 lbs; Take-off from MSL.
Find endurance in hours.
a. 5 hrs 12 mins
b. 5 hrs 20 mins
c. 4 hrs 42 mins
d. 5 hrs 23 mins
42. The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be
covered in a 30 kt headwind?
a. 189 nm
b. 203 nm
c. 174 nm
d. 193 nm
43. Turbo jet ac;

taxi fuel 600kg;
fuel flow cruise 10,000 kg/hr ; fuel flow hold 8,000kg/hr; alternate fuel 10,200kg; flight time 6 hours;
visibility at destination 2000m.
What is the minimum ramp fuel?
a. 80,500 kg
b. 79,200 kg
c. 77,800 kg
d. 76,100 kg
44 What is Decision Point Procedures?

It is a procedure to reduce the amount of fuel carried on a flight by:
a. Reducing contingency fuel from 10% to 5% of trip fuel.
b. Reducing contingency fuel to only that required from Decision Point to Destination
c. Reducing trip fuel to only that required from Decision Aerodrome to Destination.
d. Reducing trip distance
45. What is the purpose of Decision Point Procedure?

a. Carry minimum fuel to increase Traffic Load.
b. Increase safety of the flight.
c. Reduce landing mass to avoid stressing the aircraft.
d. To assist in decision making at refueling
46. When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into account:
1. the wind
2. foreseeable airborne delays
3. other weather forecasts
4. any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing
The combination which provides the correct statement is:

a. 1-3
b. 2-4
c. 1-2-3-4
d. 1-2-3
47. Refer to CAP 697, ME PI, fig 3.3.

Given:
Trip time 2 hr 37 min from departure to destination at 2500 RPM, 65% power. For the climb and descent add 13
mins of cruise fuel.
Reserve = 30% of trip fuel. Taxy fuel is 5 US gal.
What is the min Ramp Fuel?
52
a. 86 gal
b. 91 gal
c. 120 gal
d. 115 gal
48. Refer to CAP697 MEPI fig 3.2.
A flight is to be made in a multi-engine piston aeroplane.
Given:
Cruising level 11000 ft
OAT in the cruise-15C
Usable fuel 123 US gallons The power is set to economy cruise.
Find the range in NM with 45 min reserve fuel at 45% power.
a. 752 nm
b. 852 nm
c. 610 nm
d. 602 nm.
What is the maximum possible trip distance?

a. 3640
b. 3740
c. 3500
d. 3250
88. DOM 2800kg

Trip 300
Payload 400
MTOM 4200
MLM 3700
What is maximum fuel load?
a. 700 kg
b. 1000 kg
c. 800 kg
d. 500 kg
89 Given:
DOM 33,510kg;
Traffic load 7,600kg.
Trip fuel 2040kg.
Final reserve 983kg.
Alternative fuel I 100kg.
Contingency 5% of trip fuel.
Which of the following is correct?
a. est landing mass at destination 43,193kg
b. est landing mass at destination 43,295kg
c. est take-off mass 43,295kg
d. est take-off mass 45,233kg
90. Given:
Dry Op Mass = 33510 kg
Load = 7600kg
Final reserve fuel = 983 kg
Alternate fuel =I 100 kg
Contingency fuel = 102 kg.
The estimated landing mass at the alternate should be:

a. 42312 kg
b. 42093 kg
53
c. 42210 kg
d. 42195 kg
91. Given:
Dry operating mass = 33 500 kg
Load 7 600 kg
Maximum allowable take-off mass = 66 200 kg
Standard taxi fuel = 200 kg
Tank capacity = 16 100 kg
The maximum possible take-off fuel is:
a. 15 900kg
b. 16 300kg
c. 17 100kg
d. 17 300kg
92. MTOM 64 400 kg

MLM 56 200 kg
MZFM 53 000 kg
DOM 35 500 kg
Load 14 500 kg
Trip fuel 4 900 kg
t/o fuel 7 400 kg
Maximum additional load is ?
a. 3 000 kg
b. 4 000 kg
c. 5 600 kg
d. 7 000 kg
93. MTOM 64400 kg

MLM 56200 kg
MZFM 53300 kg
DOM 35500 kg
Traffic load 14500kg
Trip fuel 4900kg
Minimum takeoff fuel 7400kg
What is the maximum allowable takeoff fuel ?
a. 11400 kg
b. 14400 kg
c. 8600 kg
d. 11100 kg
95. Reference computer flight plre they able to account for bad weather in calculating fuel required?
a. can automatically allow extra consumption for anti-icing use
b. can automatically divert route around forecast thunderstorms
c. no
d. can automatically allow for poorly maintained engines
96. Which statements are correct about computer flight plans?

1). They can file the flight plan for you.
2). In the event of an in-flight re-routing computer automatically generates a new flight plan.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Neither
d. Both
54
121. A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 rim.
Wind component out is 35 kt (TWC),
TAS 450 kt.
Mean fuel flow out is 2500 kg/hr,
mean fuel flow inbound is 1900 kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000 kg.
The time and distance to PSR is

a. 1 hr 30 min, 660 nm
b. 1 hr 30 min, 616 nm
c. 1 hr 16 min, 606 nm
d. 1 hr 16 min, 616 nm
122. Find the distance to the POINT OF SAFE RETURN (PSR).

Given:
Maximum useable fuel = 15 000 kg,
minimum reserve fuel = 3 500 kg,
Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind component = 30 kt, fuel flow = 2150 kg/hr.
Return: TAS 430 kt, tailwind component = 20 kt, fuel flow = 2150 kg/hr.
a. 1491 nm
b. 1125 nm
c. 1143 nm
d. 1463 nmb
123. Given:
15,000 kg total fuel,
reserve 1,500 kg,
TAS 440 kt,
wind component 45 head outbound,
average fuel flow 2150 kg/hr.
What is the distance to the point of safe return?

a. 1520 nm
b. 1368 nm
c. 1702 nm
d. 1250 nm
124. Given:
fuel flow 2150 kg/hr,
total fuel in tanks 15,000 kg,
fuel reserve required on arrival 3500 kg,
TAS outbound 420 kt, wind -30 kt,
TAS home bound 430 kt, wind +20 kt.
Find the time to Point of Safe Return.

a. 2 hr 06 min
b. 1 hr 26 min
c. 3 hr 33 min
d. 2 hr 52 min
125 Given:
Safe endurance = 5 hours
True track = 315
WN = 100/20
TAS = 115
What is distance to PSR?
55
a. 205 nm
b. 100 nm
c. 282 nm
d. 141 nm
126. Distance between airports = 340 nm

True track = 320
W/V = 160/40
TAS= 110
Distance to PET is:
a. 121 nm
b. 219 nm
c. 112 nm
d. 228 nm
127. Flying from A to B, 270 nm, true track 030, wind velocity 120/35, TAS 125 kt. What are the distance and time
to the Point of Equal Time?
a. 141 nm, 65 min
b. 141 nm, 68 min
c. 135 nm, 68 min
d. 150 nm, 65 min.
128. Given:
Course A to B 088(T)
Distance 1250 run
Mean TAS 330kt
Mean WN A to B 340/ 60kt
The time from A to the Point of Equal Time between A and B is:
a. 1 Hour 54 minutes
b. 1 Hour 44 minutes
c. 1 hour 39 minutes
d. 2 hours 02 minutes
129. Given:
distance A to B = 2050 nm.
Mean groundspeed "on" = 440 kt
Mean groundspeed "back" = 540 kt
The distance to the point of equal time (PET) between A and B is:
a. 1153 nm
b. 1025 nm
c. 920 nm
d. 1130 nm
130. If CAS is 190 kt, altitude 9000 ft, temperature ISA -10C
True course 350, W/V 320/40,
distance from departure to destination is 350 nm
endurance 3 hrs, and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC.
The PET is reached at:
a. 1233 UTC
b. 1221 UTC
c. 1214 UTC
d. 1203 UTC
131. If CAS is 190 kt, altitude 9000 ft, temperature ISA - l OC true course 350, WN 320/40
distance from departure is 350 nm, endurance 3 hours. The distance to PET is?
a. 203 nm
56
b. 170 rim
c. 211 nm
d. 330 nm
132. An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a course of 180
degrees magnetic is:
a. FL105
b. FL90
c. FL95
d. FL 100
133. For an IFR flight using ICAO semi-circular cruising levels on a magnetic track of 200, which is a suitable
level?
a. FL290
b. FL300
c. FL310
d. FL320
196. A "current flight plan" is:

a. flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and ATC
b. filed flight plan
c. flight plan with the correct time of departure
d. filed flight plan with amendments and clearances included.
197. A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme, Paris-Orly as alternate.
Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be closed at the expected time of arrival.
The airline decides before departure to plan a re-routing of that flight to Limoges.
a. It is not possible to plan another destination and that flight has to be simply cancelled that day (scheduled
flight and not chartered)
b. The airline's Operations department has to transmit a change to the RPL to the ATC office, at least half
an hour before the planned time of departure.
c. The pilot-in-command must advise ATC of his intention to divert to Limoges at least 15 minutes before
the planned time of arrival.
d. The RPL must be cancelled for that day and an individual flight plan must be filed.
198. An aircraft in the cruise has a calibrated airspeed of 150 kt, a true airspeed of 180 kt and an average ground
speed of 210 kt.
The speed box of the flight plan must be filled as follows:
a. K0210
b. N0150
c. N0180
d. K0180
199. For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is:
a. the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off
b. the time at which the flight plan is filed.
c, The estimated off-block time.
d. The time of take-off.
200. For a radio equipped aircraft, the identifier in the ATS flight plan item 7 must always:
a. be the RTF call sign to be used
b. include the aircraft registration
c. include the operating agency designator
d. include an indication of the aircraft type
57
201. For which flights are Flight Plans required?
i). IFR flights.
ii). IFR and VFR flights.
iii). Flights crossing national boundaries.
iv). Flights over water.
v). Public transport flights.
a. ii, iii, iv
b. i , iii , v
c. i , iii
d. ii , iii, iv, v
202. Given:
Maximum Certificated take-off mass 137 000 kg
Actual take-off mass 135 000 kg
For item 9 of the ATS flight plan the wake turbulence category is:
a. medium plus "M+"
b. heavy/medium "H/M"
c. medium "M"
d. Heavy "H"
203. Given the following flight plan information,
Trip fuel 136 kg
Flight time 2.75 hrs
Reserve fuel 30% of trip
Fuel in tanks Minimum
Taxi fuel 3 kg,
state how "endurance" should be completed on the ICAO flight plan:
a. 0338
b. 0334
c. 0245
d. 0249
204. How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas
subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM) ?
a. 3.00 hrs
b. 0.30 hrs
c. 1.00 hr
d. 0.10 hr
205. If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she
must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at
destination.
The time is:
a. 45 mins
b. 30 mins
c. 15 mins
d. 10 mins
206. If equipment listed in item 19 is not carried:

a. Circle boxes of equipment not carried
b. Tick the boxes of equipment carried
c. Cross out the boxes for equipment not carried
58
d. List equipment carried in box 18 (other information)
207. If the destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in box 16 of your ATS flight plan, you write:
a. ////
b. AAAA
c, XXXX
d. ZZZZ
208. In an ATS flight plan an aircraft will be classified as "L" if its MTOM is ?
a. 27 000 kg
b. 10 000 kg
c. 57 000 kg
d. 7 000 kg
209. In an ATS flight plan item 15 where either a route for which standard departure (SID) and a standard arrival
(STAR) are provided
a. SID should be entered but not STAR
b. Both should be entered
c. STAR should be entered but not SID
d. SID nor STAR should be entered
210. In flight, it is possible to:

i. File an IFR flight plan
ii. Modify an active flight plan
iii. Cancel a VFR flight plan
iv. Close a VFR flight plan (rules of the air ann2 3.3.5)
a. i iii
b i ii iii iv
c. ii iii iv
d. i iv
211. In order to comply with PANS-RAC, during an IFR flight, deviations from flight plan particulars should be
reported to ATC.
Concerning TAS and time, the minimum deviations which must be reported are:
a. TAS 3% and time 3 minutes
b. TAS 5% and time 3 minutes
c. TAS 5 kt and time 5 minutes
d. TAS 10 kt and time 2 minutes.
212. In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not on or
connected to that route:
a. It is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to the ATS unit.
b. It is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route
c. The letters "DCT" should be entered, followed by the point of joining the ATS route.
d. The words "as cleared" should be entered.
213. In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes
place.
For this purpose a "change of speed" is defined as:
a. 10% TAS or 0.05 Mach or more
b. 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more.
59
c. 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more
d. 20km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more
214. In the event that SELCAL is prescribed by an appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight plan
will the SELCAL code be entered?
a. equipment
b. route
c. aircraft identification
d. other information
215. Item 7 of the flight plan in accordance with PANS-RAC (DOC 4444) should always include, for an aircraft
equipped with a radio:
a. Aircraft initialization
b. Aircraft type
c. aircraft call sign
d. aircraft operator
216. Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in
box 16 "total elapsed time" is the time elapsed from
a. take-off until reaching the IAF (initial approach fix) of the destination aerodrome
b. taxi out prior to take-off until the IAF
c. take off until landing
d. taxi-out prior to take-off until completion off taxi-ing after landing.
217. Reference CA48.

What is the maximum estimated elapsed time or distance between points on track mentioned in Item 15 of the flight
plan, for flights outside designated ATS routes?
a. 30 min / 200 nm
b. 60 min / 370 nm
c. 90 min / 370 km
d. 120 min / 370 nm
218. Reference item 19 of the ICAO flight plan, Endurance is?

a. Maximum flight time plus 45 minutes holding fuel
b. Maximum flight time plus 30 minutes holding fuel
c. Fuel endurance of the aircraft
d. Total usable fuel required for the flight
219. Reference the ICAO flight plan, in item 15 (speed) this speed refers to
a. Indicated airspeed
b. Equivalent airspeed
c. Initial cruising true airspeed
d. Calculated groundspeed
220. Standard equipment in item 10 is considered to be:

a. VHF, RTF, ADF, VOR, ILS
b. HF, RTF, VOR, DME
c. VHF, VOR, ADF
d. VHF, RTF, ILS, VOR
221. The navigation plan reads:

Trip fuel 100 kg
Flight time 1 hr 35 min
Taxi fuel 3 kg
Block fuel 181 kg
How should "endurance" be shown on the flight plan?
60
a. 0204
b. 0240
c. 0249
d. 0252
222. The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815UTC. The estimated take-off time is 1825UTC.
The IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at:
a. 1725 UTC
b. 1715 UTC
c. 1745 UTC
d. 1755 UTC
223. "Total Elapsed Time" for an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan at box 16, is the time elapsed from
a. take-off until landing
b. take-off until reaching the IAF ( Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome
c. taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing after landing
d. taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.
224. What is Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan ?.

a. From take-off to overhead destination
b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins
c. From take-off to landing
d. From taxi to arrival on the gate.
225. When filling in a flight plan, wake turbulence category is a function of ?
a. Max certificated landing mass.

b. Max certificated take-off mass
c. Estimated landing mass
d. Estimated take-off mass
226. When filling in item 9 of the flight plan and there is no aircraft designator listed, what should the entry be?
a. none
b. ZZZZ followed by an entry at item 18
c. XXXX followed by an entry at item 18
d. a descriptive abbreviation of the aircraft type.
227. When submitting a flight plan before flight, departure time is ?

a. Overhead the first reporting point
b. At which the aircraft leaves the parking area
c. Of take-off
d. At which flight plan is filed
228. You have a flight plan, IFR, from Amsterdam to London.

In the flight plan it is noted that you will deviate from the ATS route on passing the FIR
boundary Amsterdam/London.
The airway clearance reads " Cleared to London via flight plan route".
Which of these statements is correct?
a. The filed deviation is not accepted

b. The route according to the flight plan is accepted
61
c. It is not allowed to file such a flight plan
d. You will get a separate clearance for the deviation
229. You have a mode A transponder (4 digits, 4096 codes) and mode C. Item 10 of the flight plan should show
a. C
b. A
c. P
d. S
230. You have filed a flight plan for an uncontrolled flight and suffer a delay prior to departure. After how long a
delay must you restate your OBT?
a. 30 mins
b. 40 mins
c. 60 mins
d. 90 mins
231. You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield.
Within what time after landing should you inform ATC?
a. 10 mins
b. 20 mins
c, 30 mins
d. 45 mins
62
Answers:
1. A 54. C 107. C 160. A 213. C
2. C 55. C 108. D 161. A 214. D
3. C 56. C 109. B 162. D 215. C
4. D 57. D 110. C 163. B 216. A
5. C 58. A 111. C 164. A 217. A
6. B 59. B 112. D 165. B 218. C
7. D 60. B 113. A 166. A 219. C
8. C 61. C 114. D 167. C 220. A
9. C 62. D 115. D 168. D 221. C
10. D 63. A 116. A 169. B 222. B
11. D 64. B 117. B 170. A 223. B
12. C 65. C 118. A 171. B 224. A
13. D 66. D 119. A 172. C 225. B
14. B 67. D 120. C 173. B 226. B
15. C 68. A 121. D 174. B 227. B
16. C 69. C 122. B 175. A 228. B
17. D 70. B 123. B 176. B 229. A
18. C 71. A 124. D 177. A 230. C
19. B 72. A 125. C 178. D 231 C
20. B 73. B 126. C 179. B
21. C 74. A 127. C 180. D
22. A 75. D 128. B 181. A
23. A 76. B 129. D 182. A
24. D 77. C 130. C 183. C
25. D 78. C 131. A 184. D
26. A 79. A 132. D 185. C
27. D 80. C 133. C 186. D
28. C 81. B 134. A 187. B
29. B 82. C 135. C 188. D
30. C 83. A 136. C 189. C
31. D 84. C 137. D 190. C
32. B 85. C 138. D 191. B
33. B 86. D 139. D 192. A
34. A 87. D 140. C 193. B
35. C 88. C 141. B 194. A
36. A 89. B 142. A 195. B
37. D 90. D 143. B 196. D
38. A 91. A 144. B 197. D
39. A 92. A 145. D 198. C
40. D 93. D 146. B 199. C
41. A 94. D 147. C 200. A
42. C 95. C 148. A 201. C
43. C 96. A 149. D 202. D
44. B 97. C 150. C 203. B
45. A 98. D 151. B 204. A
46. C 99. B 152. A 205. B
47. B 100. C 153. A 206. C
48. A 101. C 154. B 207. D
49. A 102. D 155. D 208. D
50. A 103. C 156. D 209. B
51. C 104. A 157. B 210. B
52. A 105. B 158. D 211. B
53. B 106. D 159. C 212. C
63
FLIGHT PLANNING
EXAMINATION PAPER
1. Information on Search and Rescue (SAR) procedures may be obtained:

a) from NOTAMs.
b) from the latest AIC.
c) from the Aeronautical Information Publication.
d) by RT communication with the FIR within which the aircraft is operating.
4. Refer to CAP697 SEP Figure 2.1.

Given : Airfield elevation 6000ft OAT 15°C Initial Weight 35251b
Cruise altitude 14000ft OAT -13 °C Wind component 60kt tail
The time, fuel and ground nautical miles to TOC are:
a) 16 min 5 gall 31 ngm
b) 15 min 6 gall 18 ngm
c) 17 min 7 gall 46 ngm
d) 16 min 5 gall 52 ngm
5. Refer to CAP697 SEP Figure 2.2.

Given: Pressure Altitude 10000ft OAT -15°C Power 23IN HG @ 2300RPM
The fuel flow and KIAS are:
a) 67.3 PPH 140 kt
b) 67.3 GPH 157 kt
c) 11.4 GPH 139 kt
d) 66.2 GPH 137 kt
6. Refer to CAP697 MEP Figure 3.4.

An aircraft is flying at a High Speed Cruise at a pressure altitude of 12000ft, temperature ISA +15°C. The TAS is:
a) 189 kt
b) 186 kt
c) 183 kt
d) 182 kt
7. Refer to CAP697 MEP Figure 3.5

The endurance "With 45 Min. Reserve at 45% Power" for an Economy Cruise at 13000ft is:
a) 4 hr 25 min
b) 4 hr 04 min
c) 4 hr 57 min
d) 6 hr 18 min
8. The air distance and time to climb is 197 nam and 33 min respectively. What is the required ground distance with
a 40 kt headwind component ?
a) 222 ngm
b) 184 ngm
c) 157 ngm
d) 175 ngm
9. Given: Trip time 3hr 06min Block fuel I I8kg Taxi fuel 8kg
If the aircraft is required at any time during its flight to have a minimum reserve fuel of 30% of trip fuel remaining,
the minimum fuel amount after 2hr is:
a) 39 kg
b) 55 kg
c) 42 kg
d) 45 kg
64
10. An aircraft is airborne from an airfield, elevation 156011 amsl, on a QNH of 986mb/hPa. On its track of
269°(M) there is a mountain 12090ft amsl. To clear this obstacle by a minimum of 2000ft its correct ICAO VFR
Flight level is: (1 mb/hPa = 30ft).
a) FL145
b) FL155
c) FL160
d) FL165
11. On a Jeppesen chart the figures "FL80 2700a" are displayed below an airway.
What does the "FL80" indicate?
a) The Route MORA (a Safety Altitude)
b) Minimum Enroute Altitude
c) Maximum Authorized Altitude
d) The base of the airway
12. In the Jeppesen SID, STARs & IAP directions are given as
a) True Course/Track
b) Magnetic Course/Track
c) True Heading
d) Magnetic Heading
13. Refer to CAP697 SIMPLIFIED FLIGHT PLANNING LRC (use Figures 4.5.3.1 & 4.3.1 B)
Given: Distance 997 ngm tail wind component 160 kt landing weight 45000 kg
Cruise weight 56000 kg FL370 ISA 0°C
The fuel required and trip time is:
a) 11200 kg 4 hr 09 min
b) 5300 kg 1 hr 09 min
c) 4200 kg 1 hr 51 min
d) 5000 kg 2 hr 00 min
14. Refer to CAP697 MRJT Figure 4.4

Given: Aircraft mass 43000 kg
Destination airfield elevation = 3500 ft
Alternate airfield elevation =10 ft
ISA conditions
What is the final reserve?
a) 2110 kg
b) 1025 kg
c) 1038 kg
d) 1055 kg
15. Refer to CAP697 MRJT Figure 4.5.4

An aircraft with an estimated landing weight of 55000 kg plans a descent from FL310 through turbulence; the mean
wind component in the descent is 45 kt headwind.
The fuel and ground distance are:
a) 280 kg 82 ngm
b) 270 kg 107 ngm
c) 270 kg 79 ngm
d) 275 kg 117 ngm
65
16. Refer to CAP697 MRJT Fig 4.3.213
Given : 5000 kg fuel available Cruise at FL210 50 kt headwind
Landing weight 45000 kg
How far could you fly ?
a) 600 ngm
b) 750 ngm.
c) 500 ngm
d) 670 ngm
17. Given: MTOM 62000 kg

MLM 54000 kg
DOM 35500 kg
MZFM 51300 kg
Take Off Fuel 14500 kg
Landing Fuel 3500 kg
The maximum traffic load for this flight is
a) 15000 kg
b) 15800 kg
c) 12000 kg
d) 4000 kg
18. Refer to CAP697 MRJT Figure 4.3.1 B

Given: Trip Distance 1000 nm Nil wind FL 290
For a temperature increase of 30°C the approximate change in Trip Time is:
a) +10%
b) -5%
C) -10%
d) +7%
19. Refer to CAP697 MRJT Figure 4.2.1.

If an aircraft's cruise weight is 50000 kg the Optimum Altitude for a .78 Mach flight is:
a) 35500 ft pressure altitude
b) 36200 ft pressure altitude
c) 35500 ft altitude
d) FL360
20. Reference CAP697 MRJT Figure 4.5.3.2

Given: Brake Release Mass 62800 kg Fuel to TOC 1400 kg
0.74 Mach Cruise at FL310 ISA -10°C Wind component 50 kt head
Mass at first reporting point after TOC 59500 kg
The planned ground distance TOC to the first reporting point is:
a) 356 nm
b) 314 nm
c) 277 nm
d) 280 nm
21. Given: Track 185°(T) Variation 9° east Heading 182°(M)

Which is the lowest suitable ICAO IFR cruising level ?
a) FL280
b) FL310
c) FL290
d) FL270
66
22. Reference CAP697 MRJT Figure 4.5.1.
Given: Climb to FL350
ISA+6°C MSL airfield
Brake Release Weight 57500 kg
The time, fuel, TAS and distance covered are:
a) 22' 1625 kg 395 kt 114 nam
b) 20' 1625 kg 395 kt 117 nam
c) 20' 1630 kg 395 kt 100 nam
d) 21' 1675 kg 398 kt 133 nam
23. Reference CAP697 MRJT Figure 4.3.6.

Given : Time to alternate 54min Landing weight 55000kg Wind component 50kt tail
The alternate fuel and ground nautical mile distance are:
a) 2500 kg 320 ngm
b) 1500 kg 175 ngm
c) 2350 kg 355 ngm
d) 2200 kg 350 ngm
24. Reference CAP697 MRJT Figure 4.5.3.1

Given: Pressure altitude 33000ftLRC OAT -61°C Cruise time 29min
Zero wind Initial Gross weight 54100kg
The fuel required is:
a) 1100 kg
b) 1200 kg
c) 1207 kg
d) 900 kg
25. Refer CAP697 MRJT Fig 4.3.1

Given: FL370 @ LRC ISA +20°C Distance 800 ngm
50 kt headwind Landing weight 50000 kg
What is the trip fuel and flight time?
a) 5600 kg 2 hr 15 min
b) 4500 kg 2 hr 00 min
c) 4100 kg 1 hr 48 min
d) 4400 kg l hr 48 min
26. A flight is due to operate between London and Glasgow on a Repetitive Flight Plan (RPL).
Prior to departure Glasgow is closed due heavy snow. The operator intends to operate this flight to Edinburgh
instead.
The correct action regarding flight plans is ?
a) This cannot be done, go back to airport hotel.
b) Operations should inform the London ATC Unit at least 10 minutes before departure.
c) Cancel the RPL and file a standard ICAO Flight Plan to Edinburgh
d) Take-off for Glasgow and divert along route
27. A normal commercial IFR flight has an estimated EOBT of 1540 UTC with the estimated take-off time as 1555
UTC.
What is the latest time for filing the ICAO Flight Plan?
a) 1510 UTC
b) 1455 UTC
c) 1525 UTC
d) 1440 UTC
67
32. Given: A to B Distance 2050 nm Safe Endurance 6 hrs
GS OUT = 480 kt GS ON = 450 kt
GS HOME = 380 kt
Calculate the distance and time to the Point of Equal Time from A.
a) 1272 nm 2 hr 39 min
b) 906 nm 1 hr 53 min
c) 1111 nm 2 hr 19 min
d) 939 nm 1 hr 57 min
33. Given: GS OUT = 178 GS HOME = 249

Distance A to B = 450 nm Endurance 3 hours
What is the distance to the Point of Safe Return from A ?
a) 204 nm
b) 311 nm
c) 415 nm
d) 262 nm
34. You plan to fly from A to B at a TAS of 230 kt, a GS of 255 kt and an initial cruising pressure altitude of 15000
ft.
What should you complete Item 15 of the ICAO Flight Plan?
a) K0230 F150
b) N0230 F150
c) N0255 S1500
d) 0230 FL 150
36. A current flight plan is

a) the filed flight plan with amendments and clearances included
b) the filed flight plan without any changes
c) flight plan with correct time of departure
d) one that is stored via repetitive flight plan procedures
38. What is the temperature and dewpoint at 1420Z on the 27th ?

a) No data given
b) Temperature +8°C Dewpoint +6°C Refer to SA for 1420z
c) Temperature -8°C Dewpoint -6°C
d) Temperature +10°C Dewpoint +12°C
39. What is the worst visibility you might experience when landing at 0200Z on the 28th ?
a) No data given covering this period
b) 10 kilometers or more
c) 7 kilometers in light rain
d) 7000 meters in moderate rain
40. Refer CAP697 MRJT Fig 4.7.2

Given : ETOPS approval for 120 minutes Weight at diversion 50000 kg
Long Range Cruise
Your diversion airfield should be within ...
a) 742 nm
b) 379 nm
c) 768 nm
d) 1101nm
68
42. You are cruising at FL250 and need to be at FL50 10 nm before a VOR/DME.
Your rate of descent is 1250 ft/min and your GS in the descent 250 kt.
How far before the VOR/DME should you start your descent ?
a) 66.7 nm
b) 83.3 nm
c) 98.5 nm
d) 76.7 nm
43. You required to uplift 40 US Gallons of AVGAS with Sp.G of 0.72.

How many litres and kilograms is this ?
a) 109 ltr 151 kg
b) 182 ltr 131 kg
c) 182 ltr 289 kg
d) 151 ltr 109 kg
44. Refer CAP697 MRJT Figure 4.3.2C

Given : Mach 0.74 cruise Trip fuel available 17000 kg FL280
Estimated landing mass 52000 kg Trip distance 2500 ngm
What is the maximum wind component ?
a) Zero
b) 25 kt head
c) 25 kt tail
d) 60 kt head
46. Given: DOM 33510 kg

Traffic load 7600 kg
Taxi fuel 250 kg
Trip Fuel 2500 kg
Contingency fuel 125 kg
Final reserve fuel 983 kg
Alternate fuel 1100 kg
What is the estimated landing mass at the destination?

a) 43318 kg
b) 45818 kg
c) 42218 kg
d) 43193 kg
47. When completing an IFR flight plan the "Total Elapsed Time" in item 16 is from....
a) take-off to overhead the destination airport
b) from first taxiing under own power until the IAF for destination airport
c) take off to the IAF for the destination airport
d) take-off until landing at the destination airport
52. An aircraft is carrying Maritime Survival Equipment. The correct entry at Item 19 is:
a) Cross out indicators P, D and J; tick M.
b) Circle indicator M.
c) Tick indicator M.
d) Cross out indicators P, D and J.
53. Refer to Training Manual, Amsterdam page 10-9X. What is the minimum radar altitude for a Cat 2 ILS DME
approach to runway 01L ?
a) 88'
b) 100'
c) 300m
d) 103'
69
54. At a fuel Relative Density of 0.80 an aircraft turbine engine burns 220 liters per hour. If Relative Density is 0.75
what is the fuel burn ?
a) 2351/hr
b) 206
c) 220
d) 176
Answers:
1C 11 B 21 D 31 A 41 A 51 D
2C 12 B 22 B 32 D 42 D 52 D
3D 13 C 23 C 33 B 43 D 53 B
4D 14 D 24 A 34 B 44 B 54 A
5A 15 C 25 A 35 D 45 C 55 A
6B 16 A 26 C 36 A 46 A 56 B
7A 17 C 27 D 37 C 47 C
8D 18 B 28 C 38 B 48 A
9A 19 A 29 A 39 C 49 B
10 D 20 C 30 C 40 A 50 A
70

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FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING

FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING QUESTIONS

4. Where may details of temporary Danger and Restricted Airspace be found?

5. Details of temporary danger areas are published:

6. What are the types of NOTAM?

FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING QUESTIONS

CHAPTER3 – FUEL POLICY AND FUEL MONITORING

1. Given: Dry Op Mass = 33510 kg

2. What is the purpose of Decision Point Procedure?

3. What is Decision Point Procedure?

FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING QUESTIONS

CHAPTER4 – SINGLE ENGINE PISTON (SEP) AIRCRAFT

EXERCISE 1. AIR DISTANCE TO GROUND DISTANCE

Item TAS WC GS NGM NAM TIME

Use Calculator for questions 5-8

Item TAS WC GS NGM NAM TIME

Use any method for remaining questions

Item TAS WC GS NGM NAM TIME

EXERCISE 2. SEP CLIMB (Ref. CAP697, Fig. 2.1)

Item Airfield of Pressure OAT - take- Pressure OAT-cruise Initial

2 B 4000 -10 7500 -20 3000

3 C 4623 -15 9500 -25 3200

4 D 3780 +15 8500 0 3525

From To FL WC GS Time Fuel Fuel

4.9 ENDURANCE (Ref. CAP Fig. 2.5.)

Ans. ............h; .............kt

LINE FL OAT TEMP TAS WIND GS DIST TIME FUEL FUEL

Example 8 5.9h, 153kt TAS

FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING QUESTIONS

CHAPTER5 – MULTI ENGINE PISTON (MEP) AIRCRAFT

Ans. .........NAM with reserves Ans. .........NAM without reserves

FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING QUESTIONS

There will be no questions on Medium Range Jet for CPL Exams

FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING QUESTIONS

CHAPTER7 – MEDIUM RANGE JET AIRCRAFT ADDITIONAL PROCEDURES

There will be no questions on Medium Range Jet for CPL Exams

CHAPTER9 – POINT OF NO (SAFE) RETURN (PNR/PSR)

FLIGHT PLANNING AND MONITORING POINT OF NO (SAFE) RETURN (PNR/PSR)

EXERCISE 1 - SINGLE LEG PNR

Ans 163min; 435nm)

Ans: 197nm; 788nm)

FROM TO WC. DIST.

(Ans. 117.5min; 392nm)

(Ans: 931 nm)

4. Reference CAP697 and relevant MEP data.

Fuel in tanks 74GAL Safe Endurance Fuel 64.6GAL 251N HG/250ORPM

FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING QUESTIONS

10.6 EXERCISE -SINGLE SECTOR CP.

Ans. 804nm. 210min.

Ans: 653min, 2241nin

d) A flight is to be made from A to F; tracks and distance are:

Ans: 584nm, min.

e) A twin engine aircraft is to fly 1700nm from R to S. Assume

2 engine TAS 480kt

05. The symbol 10 on airways A466 and A589 on ME(HI)2 indicates:-

HIGH/LO CHARTS – Type-

HIGH/LO CHARTS – Type-

AREA, ARRIVAL/DEPARTURE (INCL. SID, STAR, GPS) CHARTS

Ref: Jeppesen KATMANDU (VNKT/KTM) 10-

02. What is the transition level?

03. What is the transition altitude?

04. What is the MSA between 135º-255º

05. What is the MSA between 050º-135º