NAVIGATION

1. The shape of earth is

a. Circle
b. Perfect Sphere
c. Oblate Spheroid

Ans : C

2. The flattening of earth at Equatorial regions is called

a. Compression
b. Expansion
c. Flattening

Ans : A

3. When viewed from North Pole, the earth appears to be rotate in

a. Clock wise
b. Anti clock wise
c. Fixed

Ans : B

4. Given two points on earth, how many great circles can be drawn
a. 1
b. Unlimited
c. 1 Except when both points are diametrically opposite

Ans : C

5. What is approximate Compression of Earth?

a. 3%
b. 0.03%
c. 0.3%
d. 1/3000

Ans : C

6. A Graticule is the name given to

a. A series of Lines drawn on a chart
b. A series of latitude and longitude lines drawn on a chart or map
c. A selection of small circles as you get to either pole

Ans : B

7. If the equatorial diameter is 6378.4 km, then what will the polar diameter
a. 6399.9 km
b. 6356.9 km
c. 6378.4 km
d. 6367.0 km

Ans : B

8. Below which are Rhumb lines

a. Parallels of Latitude
b. Equator
c. Meridians
d. All of above

Ans : D
9. Any meridian is a
a. Rhumb line
b. Semi Great Circle
c. Rhumb line and Semi Great circle

Ans : C

10. A Rhumb line cuts all meridians at the same angle. This gives
a. The shortest distance between two points
b. A line which would never be a great circle track
c. A line of constant direction

Ans : C

11. Give the shortest distance in nautical miles and kilo meters between 52 Deg 6 min N 002 Deg 32 E and 53 Deg 36
min N 002 Deg 32 min E

a. 90 nm and 166 km
b. 90 km and 166 Nm
c. 80 Nm and 148 Km

Ans : A

12. What is the change of longitude between 075 Deg 40 min W to 125 Deg 35 min W

a. 49 Deg 55 W
b. 49 Deg 55 E

Ans : A

13. What is the direction and change of latitude and longitude between 50 Deg 31 min N 006 Deg 30 W to 52 Deg 00
min N 008 Deg 30 min W
a. 01 Deg 29 min N 002 Deg 5 min W
b. 01 Deg 29 min N 002 Deg 5 min E

Ans : A

14. What is change of Latitude between 52 Deg 15 N to 39 Deg 35 N

a. 12 Deg 40 min S
b. 12 Deg 40 min N

Ans : A

15. The line which is connecting points of zero variation is called

a. Agonic Line
b. Zero variation line
c. Iso Bars

Ans : A

16. NDB transmit

a. Vertically polarised signals in MF band
b. Horizontally polarised signals in HF band
c. Phase comparable signal in the MF/HF band
d. Horizontally polarised signals in MF band

Ans : A

17. The rated coverage of Homing and Holding NDBs is

a. 25 Nm
b. 10 Nm
c. 50 Nm
 d. 100 Nm

Ans : C

18. When using ADC for enroute navigation, the bearing obtained is
a. Magnetic bearing
b. True bearing
c. Relative bearing
d. None of above

Ans : C

19. The promulgated protective range of an NDB is applicable

a. During day only
b. During night time only
c. Through out 24hrs
d. None of above

Ans : A

20. For a NDB, to double range

a. The transmission power to be doubled
b. The transmission power must be increased fourfold
c. The transmission power must be increased sixfold
d. Range does not depend on transmission power

Ans : B

21. The frequency band chosen for NDB is/are

a. Upper LF and lower MF
b. VHF and above
c. HF
d. None of above

Ans : A

22. The Q-code for an aircraft’s magnetic heading to steer to reach the station in Zero wind is
a. QDM
b. QDR
c. QDF
d. QTE

Ans : A

23. On a VHF let down, the controller passes a true bearing of 127 Deg Class Bravo, it means that the bearing accurage
with in
a. +/- 2 Deg
b. +/- 5 Deg
c. +/- 10 Deg
d. More than 10 Deg

Ans : B

24. Super refraction possible in

a. HF band
b. VHF band
c. MF band

Ans : B

25. Ionosphere is insufficient to reflect back the signal on frequency

a. Above 30 MHz
 b. Above 30 GHz
c. Above 30 Khz

Ans : A

26. ICAO Emission designators for HF communication is

a. NON
b. A3E
c. J3E

Ans : C

27. Ground attenuation will be less

a. For MF transmitter over sea
b. For HF transmitter on land
c. For MF transmitter on mountainous area

Ans : A

28. Dead space is not possible in MF and LF because

a. Surface wave is very short and sky wave returned from higher levels
b. Surface wave is longer and sky wave returned from lower levels
c. Static more on these frequencies

Ans : B

29. Broadcasting in MF band is done by using

a. AM
b. FM
c. Pulse modulation

Ans : A

30. To minimse error due coastal refraction

a. Use as NDB sited on the coast line
b. Climb up to higher FL
c. Use singals when leave the coast around 90 Deg
d. All above

Ans : D

31. For direction finding, ADF uses

a. Loop aerial only
b. Sense aerial only
c. Loop and Sense aerial only
d. None of above

Ans : C

32. Relative bearing = 50 Deg, Heading(M) = 050, What is QDM

a. 050
b. 100
c. 150
d. 280

Ans : B

33. The critical period for operation of ADF are

a. Sunrise
b. Sunset
c. Sunrise and sunset
d. All of above is wrong
 Ans : C

34. DME operates in the frequency band

a. VLF
b. MF
c. HF
d. UHF

Ans : D

35. The type of emission used for DME is

a. A8W
b. PON
c. A9W
d. J3E

Ans : B

36. Accurancy of DME equipment is

a. ½ NM or +/- 3% of the distance measured
b. 1 Nm or +/- 2% of the distance measured
c. 1 ½ Nm or +/- 4% of the distance measured
d. None of above

Ans : A

37. The maximum no. of aircraft that a DME beacon can handle before becoming saturated
a. 63
b. 126
c. 100
d. No restriction

Ans : C

38. If VOR and DME stations have separate identifications of ‘VON’ and ‘VOZ’ for VOR and DME respectively, this means
a. The VOR and DME beacons are co-located
b. The VOR and DME beacons are not co-located, but serving the same location and may be used in conjunction
with each other
c. The VOR and DME beacons are at entirely different location

Ans : B

39. The Range from a beacon indicated by DME is

a. Slant Range
b. Ground Range
c. Ground range only if the beacon is co-located with VOR

Ans : a

40. If a DME beacon becomes saturated, it adjusts itself to

a. Give preference to the strongest aircraft signals
b. Give Preference to the most distant aircraft
c. Give service to a maximum of 7 aircraft, irrespective of distance

Ans : A

41. Mark the correct statement regarding VOR

a. It is free from night effect
b. It is highly effected by static
c. It is not affected by high ground
d. All of above
 Ans : A

42. Mark the factors affecting VOR ranges

a. Transmission power
b. Tranmission height
c. Aircraft height
d. All of the above

Ans : D

43. In Doppler VOR, the number of aerials surrounding the certral aerial is
a. 10
b. 50
c. 100
d. 150

Ans : B

44. The sub-carrier wave of the reference signal of a VOR is

a. AM
b. Phase modulated
c. Frequency modulated
d. None of above

Ans : A

45. The frequency range of a VOR a

a. 108-117.95 MHz
b. 108-117.95 KHZ
c. 108-117.95 GHz
d. All of above

Ans : A

46. Factors affecting VOR accuracy are

a. Site error
b. Propagation error
c. Interference error
d. All the above

Ans : D

47. The transmission protection for VOR is provided

a. Range and altitude
b. Range only
c. Altitude only
d. None of above

Ans : B

48. In a five-dot VOR airborne equipment, the lateral deviation of each dot is
a. 2 Deg
b. 10 Deg
c. 5 Deg
d. 7 ½ Deg

Ans : A

49. Principle of VOR is

a. Bearing by Phase difference
b. Bearing by Phase comparison
c. Doppler shift
 d. None of above

Ans : B

50. VOR transmits

a. Vertically polarised signals
b. Horizontally polarised signals
c. Circularly polarised signals
d. Non-polarised signals

Ans : B

51. AWR operates in SHF band because

a. Large water droplets, hailstones etc give good reflection at 3 Cm wavelength, while small droplets of Fog, Mist
or stratus do not
b. It enables equipment to be powerful but light enough to be installed in the a/c nose cone
c. It enables a narrow width beam to be used to obtain the required degree of definition

Ans : A

52. Hail associated with thunder storm will offen be shown on the AWR as
a. An extremely straight edge to the echo
b. A finger extending out from the echo
c. A distance concave edge to the echo

Ans : B

53. On colour weather radar, the heaviest precipitation is shown by

a. Green Echo
b. Yellow Echo
c. Red Echo

Ans : C

54. Radio altimeters operate in

a. VHF band
b. SHF band
c. VLF band

Ans : B

55. Position fixing by satellite is by means of

a. Simultaneous bearing from a number of satellites
b. Range and bearing from each know satellites position
c. Simultaneous Ranges from a number of satelllites

Ans : C

56. The differential GPS is

a. The time difference between the transmission of the satellites coded signal and the time that it is received at
the aircraft
b. The time difference between the satellite and the a/c GPS unit translating the same code point on the signal
c. The Correction applied to the raw GPS position to obtain a near precise position

Ans : C

57. The GPS can

a. Provide two dimension and three dimension positions
b. Only provide position in latitude and longitude
c. Indicate two dimension position or position lines in the horizontal plane

Ans : A
58. The accuracy of range measurement of satellite to GPS receiver is
a. Seriously reduced during periods of sunspot activity
b. Seriously eroded during periods of anomalous propagation in an inversion
c. Derived from accurate clocks in the satellite and the a/c GPS receiver

Ans : C

59. In TCAS RA stands for

a. Radar Adviosry
b. Resolution advisory
c. Radar Activate

Ans : B

60. On a TCAS, TA stands for

a. Traffic advisory
b. Threat advisory
c. Temporary advisory

Ans : A

61. On an EFIS display proximity traffic is shown as

a. Solid red square
b. Solid Yellow Circle
c. Solid cyan or solid white diamond

Ans : C

62. The distance to “proximity traffic” is within

a. 1200’ and 6NM
b. 600’ and 12 NM
c. 600’ and 30 NM

Ans : A

63. The difference between TCAS I and TCAS II is that

a. TCAS II can only be fitted in the large A/C but TCAS 1 can be fitted in any size of A/C
b. TCAS II can gerenate TAs and RAs while TCAS I can only generate TA
c. TCAS II can be fitted to the A/C equipped with Full EFIS but TCAS I can be fitted to any A/C with SSR

Ans : B

64. The Resolution advisory is shown on the ND panel of EFIS as

a. A solid yellow circle
b. A solid white diamond
c. A solid red square

Ans : C

65. Radio ducting is of most significance on the frequency bands

a. VLF to MF
b. VHF and above
c. MF and HF

Ans : B

66. For a given HF frequency, the skip distance will normally

a. Have no diurnal variation
b. Be greater by night than by day
c. Be greater by Day than by night

Ans :B
67. The accuracy of Radio altimeters is upto
a. 2000-2500’
b. 1500-2000’
c. 2700-3000’
d. None of above

Ans : A

68. Errors associated with radio altimeter are

a. Position error
b. Fixed error
c. Mushing error
d. Only b and C are correct

Ans : D

69. The height of any aircraft at 2 Nm range on a glide slope of 2.7Deg will be
a. 534’
b. 437’
c. 547’
d. None of above

Ans : C

70. The full deflection of the glide path needle occurs when the aircraft is
a. 0.7 Deg or more above or below the glide path
b. 1.4 Deg or more above or below the glide path
c. 0.6 Deg or more above or below the glide path
d. None of above

Ans : A

71. The rate of decent in Ft/min for a glide angle of 3Deg and ground speed of 150kts is
a. 450
b. 650
c. 750
d. 850

Ans : C

72. An aircraft flying at FL250 could expect to be within VHF contact of an airfield 3600’ amsl at a max range of approx..
a. 270 Nm
b. 150 Nm
c. 225 Nm

Ans : D

73. A major factor which influences sky wave propagation particularly is

a. Power
b. Season of the year
c. Terrain
d. Time of day

Ans : D

74. The ILS signal is not corrupted by

a. Topography
b. Vehicle movement in operational area
c. Thick FOG and rain
 Ans : C

75. What is ROD for a glide path angle of 3 Deg and G/S of 108 Kts is
a. 600 Ft/min
b. 540 Ft/min
c. 645 Ft/min

And : B

76. To Triple range of primary radar, the power transmission must be increase by
a. 3 times
b. 9 Times
c. 27 Times
d. 81 Times

Ans : D

77. The total number of codes available in SSR are

a. 4096
b. 9999
c. 7777

Ans : A

78. Airborne weather radar cannot detect

a. Thunderstorm
b. CAT
c. Cyclone

Ans : B

79. In ground mapping, weather radar identifies the coast line because
a. Very less energy comes back from sea compared to land
b. Very less energy comes back from land compared to Sea
c. Generally clouds persist along the coast line

Ans : A

80. If the top of a cloud, at a range of 40Nm, disappears at a tile angle of 4Deg and assuming 5Deg beam width, then
the relative height of the cloud to the aircraft is
a. 7200 Ft
b. 3280 Ft
c. 5280 Ft
d. 6080 Ft

Ans : D

81. Radio waves on the SHF are propagated by

a. Ground waves
b. Direct waves
c. Sky waves

Ans : A

82. Electron density

a. In E layer is greater than F layer
b. In E layer is less than F layer
c. Is the same in both layers

Ans : B

83. Glide slope of an ILS operates on

 a. 100 Mhz
b. 332 Mhz
c. 500 Mhz

Ans : B

84. DME gives

a. Range
b. Plan and position
c. Fix

Ans : A

85. To reduce rain clutter in radar operation

a. The beam should be circularly polarised
b. The beam should be vertically polarised
c. The beam should be horizontally polarised

Ans : A

86. Pilotage error arises when

a. Aircraft is reaching closer to a VOR station
b. Aircraft is far away from a VOR station
c. Aircraft is passing through turbulence

Ans : A

87. A primary radar will receive a better echo when incoming wave is
a. Normal to the fuselage
b. Parallel to fuselage
c. Oblique to fuselage

Ans : A

88. Middle marker is identified by

a. Blue light flashes
b. Amber light flashes
c. White light flashes

Ans : B

89. Outer marker is identified by

a. Tow low pitched dashes per sec
b. Alternate dots and dashes
c. Six high pitched dots per sec

Ans : A

90. The distance between two pulses at pair of the interrogator of the DME is
a. 20 Micro sec
b. 12 micro sec
c. 10 Micro sec

Ans : B

91. Airborne weather radar operate on 9375 MHZ because

a. It is easier to generate by AWR magnetron
b. It gives maximum range from ground mapping
c. It gives a wavelength of 3.2 cm which gives a better range and more comprehensive picture of the situation

Ans : C

92. The accuracy of resolution of airborne weather radar depends on

 a. Frequency
b. Beam width
c. Nature of the weather

Ans : B

93. In SSR, the information in exchanged in the form of

a. Group of pulses
b. Individual pulses
c. Amplitude modulation

Ans : A

94. Mode A and B are used

a. For identification
b. For automatic height information
c. For determining the speed of the aircraft

Ans : A

95. Mode C is used

a. For automatic height information
b. For data transmission
c. For identification

Ans : A

96. Squawk is a four digit number allotted to an aircraft by ATC

a. It may be any number between 0000 to 9999
b. It may be any number between 0000 to 7777
c. It may be any number between 0000 to 7777 except those containing any digit 8 and 9

Ans :C

97. Pulse modulation altimeter operates on the principle of

a. Echo
b. FM(frequency modulation)
c. AM(amplitude modulation)

Ans : A

98. Geostationary satellite are capable to provide effective communication

a. Through out the globe
b. In all longitude over pacific ocean
c. IN all longitude between 80 Deg N and 80 Deg S

Ans : C

99. Geostationary satellite are established

a. Over equator at a height of 36000 Kms
b. Over pole at a height of 36000 Kms
c. Over tropic of cancen at height of 36000 km

Ans : A

100. ACARs stands for

a. Atlantic crossing automatic reporting system
b. Aircraft communication addressing and reporting system
c. Air crew automatic reporting system

Ans : B

101. QTE means

 a. Aircraft’s true tract to the station
b. Aircraft true bearing from the station
c. Aircraft magnetic bearing from the station

Ans : B

102. Seasons are due to

a. Earth’s elliptical orbit around the sun
b. Inclinatioin of the polar axis with ecliptic plane
c. Earth’s rotation on its polar axi

Ans : B

103. The only line on the earth which is both Great circle and Rhumb line
a. Meridians
b. Equator
c. Both

Ans : B

104. Radio Navigation Charts(jeppesen) uses

a. Lamberts Conformal conic projection
b. Mercators Projection
c. IMPP

Ans : A

105. The GC distance in nm from 60Deg N 20 Deg W to 60 Deg N 160 Deg E is

a. 3600
b. 10800
c. 5400
d. 1800

Ans : C

106. The RL distance in nm from 60 Deg N 20 W to 60 Deg N 160 E is

a. 3600
b. 10800
c. 5400
d. 1800

Ans : A

107. Magnetic Dip is 63 Deg, the value of horizontal magnetic force(H) is 18 units. Give the total magnetic force
and the value of Vertical magnetic force(Z)
a. 40 , 35
b. 35, 40
c. 45,30
d. 30, 45

Ans : A

108. If Z is 45 and T is 76 units, The value of dip and force H will be

a. 36.3 Deg, 61
b. 53.7 Deg, 61
c. 59.5 Deg, 66
d. 61.3 Deg, 36

Ans : A

109. If T is 53 and H is 39 units. The value of the dip and Z will be

a. 47.4 Deg, 36
 b. 42.6 Deg, 36
c. 47.4 Deg, 42
d. 42.6 Deg, 42

Ans : B

110. If the Compass direction is 115 Deg and Deviation is 2 Deg W, what is Magnetic direction
a. 117 Deg
b. 113 Deg
c. 115 Deg

Ans : B

111. If the Compass direction is 358 Deg, Deviation is 3E and Variation is 15 W, what is Magnetic direction and
True direction
a. 001, 346
b. 355, 010
c. 355, 340
d. 001, 016

Ans : A

112. If the True direction is 265 Deg, Variation is 18 W and deviation is 3 W, what is compass direction and
magnetic direction
a. 286, 283
b. 247, 250
c. 247, 244
d. 286, 289

Ans : A

113. If the Magnetic heading is 215 Deg, Variation is 10 W and relative bearing is 105 Deg, what is True heading
and True bearing
a. 205, 310
b. 225, 330
c. 205, 100
d. 225, 120

Ans : A

114. If the Grid heading is 150 Deg and Convergence is 10 W, what is true heading
a. 160
b. 140
c. 150

Ans : A

115. If the True heading is 006 Deg and Convergence is 57 W, what is Grid heading
a. 063 Deg
b. 006 Deg
c. 309 Deg

Ans : C

116. If the true heading is 024 Deg and Grid heading is 295 Deg, what is convergence
a. 319 W
b. 89 W
c. 89 E
d. 319 E

Ans : B
117. If the Grid heading is 217 Deg and Grivation is 25 W, what is Magnetic Heading
a. 242 Deg
b. 192 Deg
c. 217 Deg

Ans : A

118. When do we say a chart is conformal

a. If the meridians and parallels are at 90 Deg
b. Scale at any point on the chart should be same
c. Both

Ans : C

119. If the scale of a chart is is 1:1000000 and at a poing A the scale factor is 1.2, what will the actual scale at A
as an RF ?
a. 1:833333
b. 1:1200000
c. 833333
d. 1200000

Ans : A

120. Express scale of 1:2500000 as cm to nm

a. 1349 nm
b. 134.9 nm
c. 13.49 nm
d. 1.349 nm

Ans : C

121. Express a chart scale of 16 cm to 20nm as a representative fraction

a. 1:231500
b. 1:23150
c. 1:2315000

Ans : A

122. The scale of a chart quoted as 40 nm to 1 in. Give scale as a representative fraction
a. 1: 291653.5
b. 1: 2916535
c. 1 : 29165.35

Ans : B

123. If the scale of the chart is 1:250000, what is the distance in centimeters on the chart between 32Deg 11 min
N 06Deg 47 min E and 30 Deg 33min N 06 Deg 47 E
a. 7.26 cm
b. 72.6 cm
c. 726 cm

Ans : B

124. On a Mercator chart, if the scale at 25 Deg S is 1:3000000, what will be the scale at 52 Deg S
a. 1: 2039735
b. 1 : 203973.5
c. 1: 20397.35

Ans : A

125. An aircraft takes 15 mins to cover 6.6 cm on a 1:2000000 chart. Its ground speed is
a. 284 kts
 b. 142 Kts
c. 245 kts
d. 187 Kts

Ans : A

126. The distance flown by an aircraft in 40 seconds at a ground speed of 480 kts is represented on a chart by a
line 3.6 cm long. The scale denominator is
a. 274200
b. 1865000
c. 3125000
d. 2742000

Ans : A

127. On a Standard Mercator chart, scale is correct at

a. Equator
b. At Poles
c. At all latitudes
d. At all longitudes

Ans : A

128. On a Mercator chart, scale varies with latitude

a. Cosine of Latitude
b. Tangent of Latitude
c. Sine of latitude
d. Secant of Latitdue

Ans : D

129. On a Mercator chart, Rhumb lines and Great circles are projected as
a. Rhumb lines – straight lines, GC curve concave to Equator
b. Rhumb lines – straight lines, GC curve convex to Equator
c. Rhumb lines – curve concave to Equator , GC as straight lines
d. Rhumb lines – curve convec to Equator , GC as straight lines

Ans : A

130. Shapes of areas on a normal Mercator chart are correct

a. Reasonable for small areas in low latitudes
b. Everywhere
c. Approximately every where
d. Approximately in middle latitudes

Ans : A

131. On a transverse Mercator chart, the rhumb lines are

a. Straight lines
b. Curve concave to Equator
c. Curve concave to nearer poles

Ans : B

132. Scale on the oblique Mercator chart is correct along

a. All lines at 90 Deg to Datum meridian
b. The equator
c. The Datum meridian
d. Along the datum great circle

Ans : D
133. Scale of the tranverse Mercator varies as
a. Secant GC distance from DM(datum meridian)
b. Secant d long from DM
c. Secant latitude
d. Cosine GC distance from DM

Ans : A

134. In general, a GC on an oblique Mercator chart is a curve concave to

a. DGC
b. Equator
c. Meridian through the point of origin
d. Nearer pole

Ans : A

135. The scale of a lambert’s is correct at the

a. Parallel of origin and increase away from it
b. Standard parallels and is too small in between
c. Standard parallels and is too large in between
d. Parallel of origin and decrease away from it

Ans : B

136. The Scale of polar stereographic chart varies

a. Secant latitude
b. Secant^2 ½ latitude
c. Secant ^2 ½ Co latitude
d. Cosine ^2 ½ Co latitude

Ans : C

137. The centre of projection for a North Polar stereographic projection is

a. The North pole
b. The centre of earth
c. The south Pole
d. The point of tangency

Ans : C

138. The chart convergency on a polar stereographic projection is, in general

a. Correct
b. Too large compared to Earth convergency
c. Too small compared to Earth convergency
d. Correct at the parallel where scale is correct

Ans : B

139. A sidereal day is

a. Longer than apparent solar day
b. Longer than real solar day
c. Shorter than apparent solar day
d. Equal to real solar day

Ans : C

140. The maximum difference between mean time and apparent time is
a. 21 mins
b. 16 mins
c. 30 mins
d. There is no difference
 Ans : B

141. The declination of a celestial body(sun) measured at the celestial sphere is equivalent to ________ on the
earth?
a. Latitude
b. Longitude
c. Altitude of the body measured from the sensible horizon
d. Co-latitude

Ans : A

142. Convert 153 Deg 30 mins of arc of longitude into time

a. 10 hrs 24 mins
b. 10 hrs 22 mins
c. 10 hrs 14 mins
d. 10 hrs 8 mins

Ans : C
143. Local mean time(LMT) always changes by a day when crossing
a. The greenwich meridian
b. 180 Deg E/W
c. The international date line
d. The equator

Ans : B

144. Zone time(ZT) is used ?

a. By aircraft on trans-oceanic routes
b. As legal time in all countries
c. By ships at sea
d. In polar regions

Ans : C

145. A ship at longitude 83E observes sunrise at a zone time of 0500 LT on zone date 15th May. What is UTC?
a. 2300 UTC of 14 May
b. 1100 UTC of 15th May
c. 2328 UTC of 14th May
d. 1032 UTC of 15th May

Ans : A

146. Find UTC if the LMT at longitude 30E is 0900 hours

a. 1100hrs
b. 0900 hrs
c. 1000hrs
d. 0700 hrs

Ans : D

147. Find LMT at Longitude 13 E if the UTC is 1345hrs

a. 1437 hrs
b. 1253 hrs
c. 1423 hrs
d. 1250 hrs

Ans : A

148. If the LMT at A (40 Deg N 137 Deg 50 min W) is 1812 LMT on 18th August, what is LMT at B(30 Deg S 121 Deg
12min E) is
a. 1128 LMT on 19th August
 b. 1128 LMT on 18th August
c. 1918 LMT on 18th August
d. 1918 LMT on 19th August

Ans : A

149. What is Zone number at position 40S 137E and at 60 Deg 00min N 097 Deg 30 min
a. -10, -7
b. -9, -7
c. -9, 7
d. 10, 7

Ans : C

150. You are flying from A to B . You find that your position is 120nm outbound from A and 8nm left of the
required tract. What is track error angle
a. 8 Nm Left
b. 4 Nm Left
c. 8 Nm right
d. 4 Nm right

Ans : B

151. You are flying from A to B, which is required track of 45 Deg(T). you find your position is 80 nm outbound
from A and 4nm Left of the required track. What is track made good ?
a. 42 Deg(T)
b. 48 Deg(T)
c. 49 Deg(T)
d. 41 Deg(T)

Ans : A

152. You are flying from A to B. You find that your position is 90nm outbound from A and 6nm right of the
required tract. What is track error angle
a. 4 Nm Right
b. 4 Nm Left
c. 6 Nm Right
d. 6 Nm left

Ans : A

153. You are flying from A to B, which is required track of 220 Deg(T). you find your position is 45 nm outbound
from A and 3nm right of the required track. What is track made good ?
a. 216 (T)
b. 224 (T)
c. 223(T)
d. 217(T)

Ans : B

154. You are flying from A to B, 95 nm of distance. Having flown 35nms, the aircraft position is found from a
pinpoint. The pinpoint is 7nm right of tract. What alternation of heading is required to fly direct to B?
a. 19 Deg Right
b. 19 Deg Left
c. 2 Deg left
d. 2 Deg left

Ans : B

155. You are flying along an airway to VOR/DME. The airway QDM is 271 Deg M. You radio magnetic indicator
indicates QDM 266 M, range 48 nm. How far you are away from center line
 a. 4 Nm right of centre line
b. 4 Nm left of centre line
c. 5 Nm left of centre line
d. 5 Nm right of centre line

Ans : A

156. The Great Circle distance in nm from 60 Deg N 20 Deg W to 60 Deg N 160 Deg E is
a. 3600
b. 10800
c. 5400
d. 1800
Ans : A
157. The shortest GC track and distance in NM from 00 Deg N 168 Deg W to 00 Deg N 173 E is
a. 270 Deg(T), 1140
b. 270 Deg(T), 20460
c. 090 Deg(T), 1140
d. 090 Deg(T), 20460

Ans : A

158. An aircraft flies due EAST from 53 Deg 45 min N 02 Deg 25 min W for 736 nm. The longitude of final position
will be
a. 07 Deg 28 min E
b. 180 Deg 10 min E
c. 09 Deg 51 min E
d. 18 Deg 19 min E
Ans : D
159. Great Circle Track of A from B is 126 Deg, Latitude 50 Deg N, D Long 8 Deg, what Is Convergency?
a. 6 Deg
b. 3 Deg
c. 4 Deg
d. 8 Deg

Ans : A

160. Great Circle Track of A from B is 064 Deg, Latitude 34 Deg S, D Long 7 Deg, what Is Great Circle Track from A
to B?
a. 248
b. 244
c. 240
d. 251

Ans : C

161. Great Circle bearing from A from B is 128 Deg. Latitdule 38 Deg S. D Long 8 Deg. What is Convergency
angle(CA)?
a. 4 Deg
b. 8 Deg
c. 6 Deg
d. 2 Deg
Ans : D
162. Great Circle bearing from A from B is 289 Deg. Latitdule 59 Deg N. D Long 11 Deg. What is RL to plot from A
to B?
a. 113 Deg
b. 105 Deg
c. 109 Deg
d. 101 Deg
 Ans : B

163. If the Track is 010 Deg, Heading is 000 Deg. The drift is
a. 10 Deg P
b. 10 Deg S
c. Wind is from starboard
Ans : B
164. If heading is 270 Deg, TAS 250 kts, Course 267 Deg, Ground speed is 213 kts, What is drift and W/V ?
a. 3 P, 286/39 Kts
b. 3 S, 286/39 Kts
c. 3 P, 280/35 kts
d. 3 S, 280/35 kts

Ans : A

165. Calibrated airspeed is

a. IAS plus Pressure error
b. IAS plus density error correction
c. IAS plus instrument error correction

Ans : C

166. If the Outside air temperature at 35000Ft is -40 Deg, The local speed of sound is
a. 307 Kts
b. 686 Kts
c. 596 Kts

Ans : C

167. What type of gyro has a horizontal spin axis and one degree of freedom?
a. Rate Gyro
b. Displacement Gyro
c. Rate Integrating Gyro

Ans : A

168. Gyro rigidity improves with

a. Increasing RPM, mass and radial displacement of mass
b. Increasing RPM and mass but decreasing radial displacement of mass
c. Decreasing RPM but increasing mass and radial displacement of mass

Ans : A

169. During Climb, if the static probe is blocked, ASI will

a. Over read
b. Under read
c. Cannot say

Ans : B

170. If static tube is clogged, which instruments is/are affected

a. VSI & ASI only
b. Altimeter & VSI only
c. ASI, VSI and altimeter

Ans : C

171. Which of the following is not an input to a GPWS

a. Radio Altimeter
b. ILS Localiser
 c. Vertical speed Sensor
d. Flap Position Sensor

Ans : B

172. How does a Pilot know his GPWS is unserviceable

a. ATC will tell pilot
b. A warning light will illuminate when he descends below 2500Ft
c. Pilot will test if before flight

Ans : C

173. What is principle of EGPWS

a. It combines the radio altimeter with many sensors to compute safe descent rate at varying heights
b. It uses GPS and a map database to compute safe clearance from ground ahead
c. It sends radar signals ahead of the aircraft to sense high ground ahead

Ans : B

174. What is a typical wavelength of a radio altimeter transmission

a. 7 mm
b. 7 Cm
c. 14 Cm

Ans : B

175. What indication would a pilot see on his ACAS II display if an aircraft was assessed as requiring resolution
advisory action
a. A white square
b. A blue diamond
c. A red Square
d. A yellow circle

Ans : C

176. If a pilot sees a solid white diamond on his EFIS, what does the that indicate?
a. This is a traffic advisory which will pass well away from his aircraft
b. This is a traffic advisory which will pass close to his aircraft
c. This is a resolution advisory which the pilot must turn to avoid
d. This is a resolution advisory which the pilot must change height to avoid

Ans : B

177. Why are SSR transmissions in pairs of pulses

a. To Prevent random noise being falsely identified
b. To Provide side lobe suppression
c. To indicate the more of interrogation
d. TO avoid dividing the response time by 2 to find the range

Ans : C

178. Your aircraft is being hijacked. What SSR code should you select on the Mode A?
a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500
d. 7007

Ans : C

179. A Transmission has a pulse width of 2 µs. What is its minimum resolution distance in range?
a. 3 Km
b. 600m
 c. 300m
d. 60m

Ans : C

180. What maximum detection range would you expect from a radar transmission with a prf of 1 Khz?
a. 15km
b. 30km
c. 150km
d. 300km

Ans : C

181. Where would you expect to find a false glideslope on ILS?

a. On the localiser, below the correct glide slope
b. On the back beam, below the correct glide slope
c. On the localiser, above the correct glide slope

Ans : C

182. Which frequency bands are transmitted by the ILS equipment?

a. Glide slope on VHF and localiser on VHF
b. Glide slope on VHF, Localiser on UHF
c. Glide slope on UHF, localiser on VHF

Ans :C

183. The Outer marker of an ILS emits :

a. Blue flashes synchronised with audio dashes
b. White flashes synchronised with audio dashes
c. Blue flashes synchronised with audio dots
d. White flashes synchronised with audio dots

Ans : A

184. What form of emission does an ILS signal use

a. A2A
b. A3E
c. A8W
d. J3E

Ans : C

185. What height should an aircraft on a 2.5 Deg glide slope be, at a range of 6nm from the touch down, given
ILS reference height of 50Ft
a. 1350 Ft
b. 1550 Ft
c. 1750 Ft
d. 1950 Ft

Ans : B

186. The frequency band 108 MHZ to 112 MHZ contains :

a. VOR signals only
b. ILS signals only
c. Both VOR and ILS signals

Ans : C

187. If a DME is paired with an ILS, where will the indicated ranges be correct
a. In all directions upto 20nm
 b. Within the localiser catchment area
c. In all direction upto 10nm
d. Along the runway center line in both directions up to 20nm

Ans : B
188. What rate of descent should an aircraft use on a 2.5Deg ILS glide slope if it has a ground speed on 120Kts
a. 500 Ft per min
b. 600 Ft per min
c. 700 Ft per min
d. 800 ft per min

Ans : A
189. Azimuth resolution on a radar screen depends on the
a. Pulse width of the transmission
b. Frequency of the transmission
c. Beam width of the transmission
d. Prf of the transmission

Ans : C

190. On a EFIS AWR picture, what colour depicts the strongest Echoes
a. Green
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Magenta

Ans : D

191. Why a wavelength o 3cm used for AWR?

a. To allow antenna to fit in the nose of the aircraft
b. To receive reflections from large water drops
c. To receive reflections from small as well as large water drops
d. To keep the weight of the airborne equipement to practical level

Ans : C

192. Which of the following contour indications on AWR would most likely indicate turbulence
a. A large Red area
b. A large Yellow area
c. A large green area
d. Colours changing very rapidly with distance

Ans : D

193. Looking at AWR returns on an EFIS screen, where is turbulence most likely?
a. Where the colour changes rapidly
b. Where hook-shaped echoes are seen
c. Both a and b
d. Turbulence cannot be detected

Ans : C

194. What is Iso-echo?

a. A black indication in the middle of a white radar return
b. A strong echo showing turbulence
c. A green indication on an EFIS display
d. A strange shaped return on the AWR screen

Ans : A
195. What form of emission does a DME signal use?
a. A2A
b. A3E
c. A8W
d. PON

Ans : D

196. What accuracy would expect from a DME range indication of 50nm?
a. 0.5 nm
b. 1 nm
c. 1.5 nm
d. 2nm

Ans : C

197. If your DME indicator reads 5nm and your aircraft is flyin at 24000Ft . what is your surface range from the
station
a. 3km
b. 4km
c. 5.5 km
d. 8km

Ans : C

198. How many GPS satellites are needed to provide an accurate stand alone fix?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Ans : D

199. How many GPS satellites are needed to provide remote autonomous integrity monitoring for precision
guidance
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

Ans : C

200. Which of the following does DGPS not reduce?

a. Ionospheric group delay
b. Multi path errors
c. Selective availability
d. Satellite position errors

Ans : B

201. Which GPS signal or code is available for use by civilians

a. The L2 Signal
b. The Y code
c. The P code
d. The SPS signal

Ans : D

202. An aircraft at latitude 020 20’ tracks 1800(T) for 685 km. On completion of the flight the latitude will be
0
a. 04 10’ S
b. 03050’ S
 c. 04030’ S

Ans : B

203. The departure between positions 600 N 160’ E and 600N “X” is 900 Nm. What is the longitude of X. What is
the longitude of “X”
a. 1700 W
b. 1450 E
c. 1750 E

Ans : A

204. An aircraft at position 600 N 005’ W tracks 0900 (T) for 315 km. On completion of the flight the longitude will
be
a. 0000 40’ E
b. 0020 10’W
c. 0000 15’ E

Ans : A

205. A flight is to be made from “A” 490 S 1800 E/W to “B” 580 S 1800 E/W. The distance in kilometeres from “A”
to “B” is approximately
a. 1222
b. 1000
c. 804

Ans : B

206. An aircraft at latitude 100S flies north at a Ground speed of 890 km/hr. What will its latitude be after 1.5hrs
0
a. 02 00’ N
b. 120 15’ N
c. 220 00’ N

Ans : A

207. An aircraft at latitude 100N flies north at a Ground speed of 445 km/hr. What will its latitude be after 3hrs
a. 03050’ S
b. 02000’ S
c. 12015’ S

Ans : B

208. An aircraft flies at a great circle track from 560N 0700 W to 620 1100 E. the total distance travelled is
a. 2040 NM
b. 5420 NM
c. 3720 NM

Ans : C

209. Position A 600N 0200 W, Position B 600N0210W and Postion C 590N0200W. What are respectively the
distance from A to B and from A to C?
a. 60 nm and 52 nm
b. 52 nm and 60 nm
c. 30nm and 60 nm

Ans : C
210. An aircraft departing A(N400 00’ E080000’) flies a constant true track of 2700 at a ground speed of 120 kts.
What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6hrs
a. N400 00’ E060000’
b. N400 00’ E064020’
c. N400 00’ E068010’
 Ans : B

211. If an aeroplane was to circle around the earth following parallel 600 N at a ground speed of 480 Kts. In order
to circle around the Earth along the equator in the same amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of :
a. 550 Kts
b. 240 Kts
c. 960 Kts

Ans : C

212. The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 600 N is approximately

a. 18706 Nm
b. 34641 NM
c. 10800 NM

Ans : C

213. 1 Nautical mile equals to

a. 0.869 Statute mile
b. 1609 meters
c. 6076 Feet

Ans : C

214. Length of NM is more at

a. Equator
b. 450 Latitude
c. Poles

Ans :C

215. A nautical mile is defined as

a. The average length of a 1 minute arc of a meridian
b. 1855 meters
c. The average length of a 1’ arc of longitude and 1’ arc of latitude

Ans : A

216. On a Mercator chart GC track from A 2500 S 1000 W to B 3500S 4000W is 242. Find RL track from B to A
a. 249.5
b. 075
c. 069.5

Ans : C
217. Great circle from P to Q measured at P = 950 Southern hemisphere conversion angle P-Q = 70. What is
Rhumb line track from P-Q?
a. 088
b. 102
c. 109

Ans : A

218. On the 27th Feb, at 520 S and 0400 E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC on the same day at 520 S and 0350 W, the
sunrise is at
a. 0243 LMT
b. 0743 LMT
c. 0523 LMT

Ans : C

219. When the GMT at Chennai 1300N 8300E is 1100 hrs. The IST at 2000N 8830E will be
a. 1122
 b. 1100
c. 1630

Ans : C

220. The sunrise at 500 N and 0250 E on the 25th Jan is a 0245 UTC. On the same day what time does it rise at 500
N and 0400 W
a. 0245 UTC
b. 0714 UTC
c. 2154 UTC

Ans : B

221. The local mean time at longitude 095020’ W at 0000 UTC is

a. 1738:40 Same day
b. 1738:40 Previous day
c. 0621:20 Previous day

Ans : B

222. The LMT at a place in India is 0400. If the position of the place is 100N 0780E. The IST at that place will be
a. 0400
b. 0418
c. 0342

Ans : B

223. At 10hrs 40mins at 1600E, the difference between zone time and LMT will be
a. Zone will be ahead of LMT by 20mins
b. Zone time will be ahead of LMT by 40mins
c. LMT will be ahead of Zone time by 20 mins

Ans : A

224. The times given for sunrise, sunset, morning and evening twilight in the air almanac?
a. Are given in UTC
b. Are given in standard time
c. Are given in LMT

Ans : C

225. Compass deviation is caused by

a. Aircraft magnetism distorting the earths magnetic field
b. The angel of magnetic dip
c. Angle of inclination

Ans : A

226. At a Magnetic equator

a. Deviation is Zero
b. The isogonal is an agonic line
c. Dip is Zero

Ans : C

227. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field?

a. Weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles
b. Weakens with increasing distance from the nearest magnetic poles
c. Is approximately the same at magnitude latitude 500 N and 500 S

Ans : C

228. A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called an
 a. Agonic Line
b. Aclinic Line
c. Isogonal

Ans : A

229. Isogonals coverge at

a. Magnetic equator
b. North magnetic pole only
c. North and South geographic and magnetic poles

Ans : C

230. At magnetic equator

a. Variation is Zero
b. Deviation is Zero
c. Dip is Zero

Ans : C

231. Radio Navigation Charts uses

a. Lamberts conformal conic projection
b. Mercators Projection
c. IMPP

Ans : A

232. At 600 N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1:3000000. What is scale at the equator
a. 1:5000000
b. 1:6000000
c. 1:12000000

Ans : B

233. When Track is 0100 , Heading 0000 , The drift is

a. 10 Deg P
b. 10 Deg S
c. Wind is from starboard

Ans : B

234. An aircraft flying at indicated altitude of 25000Ft, SAT is -50Deg C. Find True altitude
a. 25000Ft
b. 23500Ft
c. 26500Ft

Ans :B

235. An aircraft flying at indicated altitude of 21000 Ft. OAT is -12 Deg C. Find TA(True altitude)
a. 22260 Ft
b. 21000 Ft
c. 19740 Ft

Ans : A

236. An aircraft flying at indicated altitude of 17000 Ft. OAT is -30 Deg C. Find TA(True altitude)
a. 17000 Ft
b. 17748 Ft
c. 16252 Ft

Ans : C
237. At 3 Deg Glide Path at 3 DME, ILS glide slope shows 2 dot fly up indications on 4 dot indicator.
Approximately how many feet aircraft is above/below Glide slope
a. 106’ below Glide slope
b. 106’ above glide slope
c. 212’ below glide slope

Ans : A

238. At 2.7 DME G/S shows ½ of full scale fly down indications. At this place there is spot height of 200Ft. Find
clearance of a/c while flying over spot height
a. 1114’
b. 714’
c. 914’

Ans : B

239. A/C Postion 410N 81’W, QDM = 1730 from a G/S(VOR) at 590N 84’W, Variation at G/S =3 Deg E, Variation at
A/C position is 6 Deg E, Find Bearing to Plot on Lambert Chart
a. 176 Deg
b. 356 Deg
c. 353 Deg

Ans : B

240. A/C True bearing from Station is 050 Deg in Northern Hemisphere, CA = 5 Deg. Find Bearing to plot on
Mercator Chart
a. 050 Deg
b. 045 Deg
c. 055 Deg

Ans : C

241. A/C True bearing from Station is 240 Deg in Northern Hemisphere, CA = 10 Deg. Find Bearing to plot on
Mercator Chart
a. 230 Deg
b. 240 Deg
c. 250 Deg

Ans : A

242. A/C True bearing from Station is 320 Deg in Southern Hemisphere, CA = 8 Deg. Find Bearing to plot on
Mercator Chart
a. 312 Deg
b. 328 Deg
c. 148 Deg

Ans : B

243. What will be rate of descent when flying down a 7% Glide slope, at a ground speed of 250 Kts
a. 1575 Ft/min
b. 1737 Ft/min
c. 1773 Ft/min

Ans : C

244. If there is 15Kts increase in head wind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to
maintain a 30 Glide slope
a. It must be decreased by 79 ft/min
b. It must be increased by 79 Ft/min
c. It must be increased by 35 Ft/min
Ans : A

245. Aircraft height 2500 Ft, ILS GP angle 3 Deg. At what approximate distance from threshold can you expect to
capture Glide path
a. 8.3NM
b. 7.0NM
c. 13.1NM

Ans : A

246. If there is 12Kts increase in head wind by what amount must the rate of descent be changed in order to
maintain a 30 Glide slope
a. It must be decreased by 35 ft/min
b. It must be decreased by 35 Ft/min
c. It must be decreased by 61 Ft/min

Ans : C

247. An aircraft at 25NM on 3 Deg GP of ILS is required to be over threshold at 50 Ft . What is height
a. 7550’
b. 7600’
c. 7650’

Ans : C

248. Given TAS = 197 Kts, True Course = 240 Deg, W/V = 180/30Kts. Descent initiated at FL220 and completed at
FL40. Distance covered during descent is 39NM. What is approximate rate of descent
a. 800 Ft/min
b. 950 Ft/min
c. 1400 Ft/min

Ans : C

249. Satellite Geometry error is greatest when

a. Satellites are closest together
b. Satellites are spaced well apart
c. Satellites are nearest the horizon

Ans : A

250. Satellites used in GNSS, orbit the earth

a. Once in Twelve hours
b. Once in Eight hours
c. Once in 24 hrs

Ans : A

251. Position fixing by satellites is by means of

a. Simultaneous bearing from a number of satellites
b. Simultaneous bearing from each know satellites position
c. Simultaneous ranges from number of satellites

Ans : C

252. Speed of lights is

6
a. 3*10 Km/Sec
b. 3*108 m/Sec
c. 3*109 m/Sec
Ans : B

253. In vertically polarized signal,

a. Electrical component travels in horizontal plan and magnetic component in vertical plane
b. Electrical component travels in vertical plan and magnetic component in horizontal plane
c. Electrical component spins along the line of propagation

Ans : B

254. If a signal strength at a distance of 25 NM from a transmitter is 100 Micro Volts. Then signal strength at a
distance of 50NM will be
a. 50 Micro Volts
b. 12.5 Micro Volts
c. 25 Micro Volts

Ans : C

255. Broad casting in MF band is done by using

a. Amplitude Modulation
b. Frequency Modulation
c. Pulse modulation

Ans : A

256. ICAO Emission designators fro HF Communications is

a. NON
b. A3E
c. J3E

Ans : C

257. Ionosphere is insufficient to reflect back the signal of frequency

a. Above 30 MHZ
b. Above 30 GHZ
c. Above 30 KHZ

Ans :A

258. Dead space is not possible in MF and LF because

a. Surface wave is very short and sky wave returned from higher levels
b. Surface wave is longer and sky wave returned from lower levels
c. Static is more on these frequencies

Ans : B

259. The Q-code for aircraft’s magnetic heading to steer to reach the station in Zero wind is
a. QDM
b. QDR
c. QDF

Ans : A

260. NDB Transmits

a. Vertically polarised signals in MF band
b. Horizontally polarised signals in HF band
c. Horizontally polarised signals in MF band

Ans : A

261. The frequency bands chosen for NDB are

a. Upper LF and lower MF
b. VHF and above
c. HF

Ans : A

262. The rated coverage of homing and holding NDBs is a range of approximately
a. 25 NM
b. 10 NM
c. 50 NM

Ans : C

263. When using ADF for enroute navigation, the bearing obtained is
a. Magnetic bearing
b. True bearing
c. Relative Bearing

Ans : C

264. For NDB to double range

a. The tramission power must be doubled
b. The transmission power must be increased fourfold
c. The transmission power must be increased sixfold

Ans : B

265. To minimse error due to coastal refraction

a. Use NDB sited on the coast line and Fly higher levels
b. Use signal which leave the coast around 90 Deg
c. Both a and b

Ans : C

266. The critical period for operation of ADF are

a. Sunrise
b. Sunset
c. Sunrise and Sunset

Ans : C

267. For direction finding, ADF uses

a. Loop aerial only
b. Sense aerial only
c. Both loop and sense aerial

Ans : C

268. Relative bearing = 050 Deg, HDG(M) = 050 Deg, what will be the QDM
a. 050 Deg
b. 100 Deg
c. 280 Deg

Ans : B

269. DME operates on Which frequency band

a. VHF
b. HF
c. UHF

Ans : C

270. Accuracy of DME equipment is

a. ½ NM or +/- 3% of the distance measured
b. 1 NM or +/- 2% of the distance measured
c. ½ NM or +/- 4% of the distance measured

Ans : A

271. In Doppler VORs, the number of aerials surrounding the central aerial is
a. 10
b. 50
c. 100

Ans : B

272. In a Five-dot VOR equipment, the lateral deviation for each dot is
a. 2 Deg
b. 10 Deg
c. 5 Deg

Ans : A

273. Principle of VOR is

a. Bearing by Phase difference
b. Bearing by Phase comparison
c. Dopple Shift

Ans : B

274. For a given HF frequency , skip distance will be

a. Have no diurnal variation
b. Be greater by night than day
c. Be greater by day than night

Ans : B

275. The error associated with Doppler equipment’s are

a. HDG Error
b. Latitude error
c. Altitude error

Ans : C

276. A HERTZ(HZ) is
a. The frequency in cycles per second
b. A frequency of one cycle per second
c. The wave length corresponding to 1 Cycle per second

Ans : B

277. For frequency of 325 KHZ the wavelength is

a. 920m
b. 460m
c. 1380m

Ans : A

278. Weather radar of 3.2 cm corresponds to a frequency of approximate

a. 950 MHZ
b. 9.5MHZ
c. 9.5GHZ

Ans : C

279. An aircraft flying at FL250 could expect to be within VHF contact of an airfield 3600 Ft AMSL at a maximum
range of approx.
a. 270 NM
 b. 150 NM
c. 225 NM

Ans : A

280. A major factor which influence sky wave propagation particularly is

a. Terrain
b. Season of the year
c. Time of day

Ans : C

281. To triple range of primary radar, the power of transmitter must be increased by
a. Three times
b. 27 times
c. 81 Times

Ans : C

282. The SSR Code for communication failure is

a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500

Ans : B

283. Airborne Weather radar cannot detect

a. Thunderstorm
b. CAT
c. Cyclone

Ans : B

284. In Iso-echo weather radar black/white display, a hole in the centre of cloud indicates
a. Highest concentration of large water drops
b. Presence of weak, inactive clouds
c. CAT

Ans : A

285. In ground mapping, weather radar identifies the coast line because
a. Very less energy comes back from sea compared to land
b. Very less energy comes back from land compared to Sea
c. Generally clouds persist along the coast line

Ans : A

286. Conical beam of an AWR should be used for map painting in preference to fan shaped beam when
a. There is thunderstorm
b. Maximum range is required to be scanned
c. Approaching coast line

Ans : B

287. A Traffic Advisory is shown on TCAS display is

a. A solid red square
b. A solid blue diamond
c. A solid yellow circle

Ans : C
288. VHF Ranges is not affected by
a. Height of the receiver and transmitter
b. Obstacle near the transmitter
c. Static

Ans : C

289. ILS Signals is not corrupted by

a. Topography
b. Vehicles movement in the operational area
c. Thick FOG

Ans : C

290. The distance between two pulses at pair of the interrogator of the DME is
a. 20 µs
b. 12 µs
c. 10 µs

Ans : B

291. The accuracy of resolution of airborne weather radar depends on

a. Frequency
b. Beam width
c. Nature of weather

Ans : B

292. Airborne weather radar does the ground mapping by using

a. Height ring
b. Cosecant beam
c. Iso-echo display

Ans : B

293. In SSR the information in exchange in the form of

a. Group of pulses
b. Individual pulses
c. Amplitude modulation

Ans : A

294. Pulse modulation altimeter operates on the principle of

a. Echo
b. Frequency modulation
c. Amplitude modulation

Ans : A

295. GPS satellites give the same information as given by

a. VOR
b. DME
c. Doppler

Ans : B

296. If frequency of a radio wave in 1875 KHZ then wavelength in

a. 1600m
b. 160m
c. 16m

Ans : B
297. If frequency of a radar wave in 9.375 GHZ, then wave length is
a. 3.2 mm
b. 3.2 cm
c. 3.2 m

Ans : B

298. Sun will appear at same latitude

a. Once a year
b. Twice a year
c. Once a day

Ans : B

299. Civil Twilight is defined by

a. Sun upper edge tangential to horizon
b. Sun altitude is 60 below the celestial horizon
c. Sun altitude is 180 below the celestial horizon

Ans : B

300. A meridian is a
a. Semi Great circle
b. Line joining places of the same latitude
c. Semi great circle joining places of same longitude

Ans : C