Decoding SBI PO Prelims 2023 - 1380

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Decoding SBI PO Prelims 2023
SBI PO Vacancy Trend
Year No. of Vacancies

2023 2000
2022 1673
2021 2056
2020 2000
SBI PO Prelims Cut Off Trend

In the following table, SBI PO Prelims Cut Off trend of last 3 years is given
Category Wise 2022 2021 2020
General 59.5 63 58.5
EWS 59.5 62.75 56.75
SC 52.5 54.75 50
ST 47.75 49.25 43.75
OBC 58.25 61.25 56
SBI PO Education Qualification

Candidate must be a graduate in any discipline from a recognized university.
SBI PO Age Limit

Minimum Age Maximum Age
21 Years 30 Years
SBI PO Application Fees

Category Fees
SC/ST/PWD Nil
General/ EWS/ OBC Rs. 750
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SBI PO Prelims Exam Pattern
Sections No. of Questions Marks Duration
English Language 30 30 20 Minutes
Quantitative Aptitude 35 35 20 Minutes
Reasoning Ability 35 35 20 Minutes
Total 100 100 1 Hour
• Total number of questions: 100

• Total marks- 100
• Total time- 60 minutes
• Section Time- 20 Minutes for Each Section
• Negative marking- 0.25 Marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.
• Sectional Marks will not be maintained for both Preliminary & Main Examinations.
SBI PO Prelims Syllabus

English Language
• Cloze Test
• Sentence Correction
• Para Jumbles
• Fill in the Blanks
• Reading Comprehension
• Spotting Errors
• Sentence Improvement
• Para/Sentence Completion
• Sentence Rearrangement
• Column Based, Spelling Errors
• Word Swap
• Word Rearrangement
• Sentence Based Errors
• Idioms & Phrases
Quantitative Aptitude
• Simplification and Approximation: BODMAS, Square & Cube, Square & cube root, Indices, fraction,
percentage, etc.
• Number Series: Missing Number series, Wrong number series, etc.
• Inequality: Linear equation, Quadratic equation, Quantity comparison (I and II), etc.
• Arithmetic: Ratio and Proportion, Percentage, Number System, HCF and LCM, Average, Age,
Partnership, Mixture and Alligation, Simple Interest, Compound Interest, Time and Work & wage, Pipe
and Cistern, Profit and Loss & Discount, Speed Time Distance, Boat And stream, Train, Mensuration 2D
and 3D, Probability, Permutation, and combination, etc.
• Data Interpretation (DI): Table DI, Missing Table DI, Pie chart DI (single and multiple pie chart), Line
chart DI (Single and multiple line), Bar chart DI, Mixed DI, Caselet (Simple table-based caselet, Venn
diagram based caselet, Arithmetic based caselet) etc.
• Data Sufficiency (DS): Two Statement Data Sufficiency

Reasoning Ability
• Seating Arrangements – Circle/Square/Triangle/Linear/ Uncertain number of persons
• Puzzles – Category/Comparison/Designation/Box/Box/Day/Month/Year/Floor & Flat
• Inequalities – Direct and indirect
• Syllogism – Only a few
• Input-Output – Shifting and arranging based
• Data Sufficiency – 2 statements
• Blood Relations – Normal Blood Relation
• Coding Decoding – Chinese coding
• Order and Ranking
• Alpha/numeric/symbol Series
• Distance and Direction
• Miscellaneous – Odd one out, Word pair, Number pair, Number operation
• SBI PO Salary
•
SBI PO Prelims Exam Analysis Trend

Trend of English Language
Topics 2022 2021 2020
Reading Comprehension 9 9 8
Word Rearrangement 2 5 2
Word Swap 4 0 0
Error Detection/ Sentence Improvement 5 3 5
Phrase Replacement 4 3 5

Topics 2022 2021 2020
Fillers 0 5 5
Cloze Test 6 0 0
Sentence Rearrangement 0 5 5
Total 30 30 30
Trend of Quantitative Aptitude

Topics 2022 2021 2020
Tabular Data Interpretation 5 5 6
Line Graph Data Interpretation 5 5 0
Pie Chart Data Interpretation 0 0 6
Caselet DI 3 5 0
Approximation 5 0 6
Quadratic Equation 5 5 6
Missing Number Series 0 5 0
Arithmetic Word Problems 12 10 11
Total 35 35 35
Trend of Reasoning Ability

Topics 2022 2021 2020
Puzzle and Seating Arrangement 20 22 24
Syllogism 0 5 5
Inequality 4 0 0
Blood Relation 3 3 3
Direction Sense 0 2 0
Coding Decoding 5 0 0
Number Based Coding 0 1 1
Meaningful Word 1 1 1
Word Based 1 0 0
Pair Formation 1 1 1
Total 35 35 35

SBI PO Previous Year Questions Papers With Solutions (2021-2022)
SBI PO Prelims Previous Year Paper- 2022 (Questions)
Directions (1-9): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them.
There is widespread international concern that Russia's war will provoke a global food crisis similar to, or
worse than, that faced in 2007 and 2008. The war comes at a time when the global food system was already
struggling to feed its growing population in a sustainable way, under the pressure caused by climate change
and the Covid-19 pandemic. Russia and Ukraine are key agricultural players, together exporting nearly 12
% of food calories traded globally. They are major providers of basic agro-commodities, including wheat,
maize and sunflower oil, and Russia is the world's top exporter of fertilisers. The global supply chain will
get impacted until Russia and Ukraine retreat and will end the war.
The war's impact on global food supply centred on three factors. First is a significant reduction in exports
and production of essential commodities from both countries, caused by the war and not the economic
sanctions imposed on Russia, which, intentionally, did not target the agricultural sector. Overall, the
European Commission estimates that 'up to 25 million tonnes of wheat would need to be substituted to
meet worldwide food needs in the current and the next season. Second factor is a global spike in prices of
food supplies and inputs needed for agri-food production, which were already at record levels before the
war. The war has further pushed the prices up. Third factor is the international response to the above,
which could either amplify the effects of the crisis (mainly by uncoordinated export bans) or mitigate them
(applying lessons learnt from the 2007-2008 food crisis). A number of countries, other than Russia and
Ukraine, have already imposed or announced their intention to impose some control over exports of
essential agricultural commodities, including Egypt, Argentina, Indonesia, Serbia, Turkey and, in the EU,
Hungary. We should keep this in our mind that the long duration of war will make the global situation
irrecoverable.
Q1. What can be said about the impact of Russia and Ukraine's war on the global food system?
(a) Only Russia and Ukraine are experiencing a shortage of food supply.
(b) The war is affecting not only the global food system but polluting groundwater also.
(c) The war is further worsening an already battered global food system.
(d) Global food supply is unaffected by the war but has some impacts of Covid-19.
(e) None of these
Q2. What can be inferred about Russia and Ukraine’s contribution on the global food trade?
(a) A major part of basic agro-commodities supply comes from both countries.
(b) Russia and Ukraine both export approximately 12% of food calories traded globally.
(c) Ukraine alone meets more than half of the global demand for wheat, maize, and rice.
(d) All of these
(e) Only (a) and (b)

Q3. According to European Commission what action should be taken to meet global food demand
for the current and the next year?
(a) Wheat-oriented farming should be the priority from now onwards.
(b) To persuade Russia not to halt the supply of wheat and rice.
(c) Up to 25 million tonnes of wheat would need to be substituted.
(d) Mitigating the various tax rates to facilitate the global supply chain.
(e) None of these
Q4. Which of the following statements mentions the first factor that affects the global food supply?
(a) Damage of basic agro-commodities in Ukraine due to Russia’s invasion.
(b) Financial sanctions imposed on Russia by developed as well as developing counties.
(c) Decline in exports and production of essential goods from Ukraine and Russia due to war.
(d) Disruption in global supply chain of agricultural inputs such as fertilizers and chemicals
(e) None of these
Q5. What is/are the possible consequence(s) of international response to the rise in price and
decrease in food supply from Russia?
(a) There will be a huge difference in the prices of the same commodities in different countries.
(b) The effects of food crises would be aggravated mainly because of uncoordinated export bans.
(c) The number of cases of starvation and malnutrition will rise sharply throughout the world.
(d) Experience in tackling food crises would help in mitigating the effects of current food crisis.
(e) Both (b) and (d)
Q6. Which of the following sentences is FALSE as per the information given in the passage?
(i) Many countries intend to impose control over exports of essential agricultural commodities
(ii) Food prices and agricultural input prices have declined due to the Russia-Ukraine war.
(iii) The world has already experienced a global food crisis in 2007-2008.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (ii) & (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Both (i) & (ii)
(e) Only (iii)
Q7. Which of the following statements has/have the correct usage of the word ‘keep’ used in the
passage?
(i) Always keep hard to fulfill your dreams.
(ii)Doctors recommended medicines that keep aches and pains at bay.
(iii) I promised him to keep his personal matter a secret.
(a) Both (ii) & (iii)
(b) Only (i)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Both (i) & (ii)
(e) Only (iii)

Q8. Which of the following words is an antonym of ‘retreat’ given in the passage?
(a) engage
(b) bolster
(c) arduous
(d)withdraw
(e) None of these
Q9. Which of the following words is a synonym of ‘pushed’ given in the passage?
(a) jerk
(b) ambit
(c) propel
(d) collapse
(e) None of these
Directions (10-13): In the following question, sentences are given with a part in bold. The given
phrase in bold may or may not contains an error. The options following can replace the incorrect
phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced will be your answer. If the sentence is correct then
select ‘No improvement required’ as your answer.
Q10. Water overuse is a huge issue that a lot of peoples are dealing with.
(a) a lot of people is
(b) lot of people have
(c) a lot of people are
(d) a lot of people had
(e) No improvement required
Q11. Teams made up of a number of instructors working together are crucial in fostering creativity.
(a) Teams make up of
(b) Team made up in
(c) Teams made up by
(d) Team making up of
Q12. He was promoted to the rank of major in recognising of his valour during the battle.
(a) with recognising of his
(b) in recognition of his
(c) in recognising to its
(d) on recognition to his
Q13. Every individual have rights which must never be taken away.
(a) individuals has rights which
(b) individual had rights that
(c) individual has rights which
(d) individuals have rights that

Directions (14-18): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is ‘e’. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
Q14. India continues to face (A)/ several inherent challenges (B)/ to the realm of sustainable (C)/
consumption and production (D).
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q15. Poorest citizens of a (A)/ country frequently bear (B)/ the burden of the costs (C)/ associated with
development. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q16. Migration and environmental (A)/ changes are deeply interconnected (B)/ processes, intimately
linked (C)/ to development pathways. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q17. Women remaining in vulnerable (A)/ environments facing social and (B)/ economic challenges are
having an (C)/ impact on its empowerment. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q18. As a result of societal and (A)/ economic obstacles, women (B)/ continue to been marginalized and
(C)/ live in hazardous conditions. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Directions (19-20): In each of the following questions, a sentence has been divided into four
phrases. These phrases may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. Identify the
correct rearrangement of the phrases to make the sentence grammatically correct and contextually
meaningful and mark that option as your answer.
Q19. India operates the widest spectrum of (A)/ social security schemes which cater (B)/ people than any
other country (C)/ to the largest number of (D)
(a) DABC
(b) ABDC
(c) CADB
(d) ACBD
(e) No rearrangement required
Q20. on the health security front, (A)/ there is the Ayushman Bharat Scheme (B)/ over a million
beneficiaries (C)/ of the central government with (D)
(a) BDAC
(b) ACBD
(c) ABDC
(d) DABC
(e) No rearrangement required
Directions (21-25): In each of the questions given below, four words have been highlighted. These
four words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then
followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order
to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the
words that should replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option (e) as your
choice.
Q21. The BRICS provides an appropriate shape (A) model suitable for the 21st century where a
dominated (B) group of states narrow (C) by one power will not governance (D) the agenda.
(a) B-C
(b) A-B
(c) A-D & B-C
(d) A-C & B-D
(e) No replacement required
Q22. A lead (A) to exchange experiences on societal benefits (B) and growth as complementary goals
would forum (C) to fresh thinking on employment (D) and the environment.
(a) B-C
(b) A-B & C-D
(c) A-C
(d) A-C & B-D

Q23. Harnessing the potential (A) of the digital revolution requires redefining (B) digital access that goes
beyond physical connectivity (C) to share specific opportunities (D) available.
(a) B-C
(b) A-B
(c) A-B & C-D
(d) A-C & B-D
Q24. The Senate passed a bill that investment (A) the largest represents (B) ever made in the United
States to advance rebate (C) energy and provide middle-class people with a tax sustainable (D).
(a) B-C
(b) A-B & C-D
(c) A-B
(d) A-C & B-D
Directions (25-30): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, a few options are given. Find out
the appropriate word which fits the blank appropriately.
As the pandemic made its mark in 2022, the planet _________(25)_________ a series of growing environmental
challenges. At the UN, the struggles of farmers and the global food system, the ________(26)_________ loss of
biodiversity, and the ever-heating planet dominated the agenda, culminating at November’s COP26 climate
conference. This challenge is especially ______(27)______ in India, where more than 700 million people
depend on forests and agriculture for their sustenance. More than 85% of them are small and marginal
landholders, leaving them especially _________(28)_________ as the climate changes the world around them.
Fortunately, pioneers across India are deploying a set of techniques, known as landscape restoration, that
can _______(29)______ damaged ecosystems and ______(30)____ biodiversity.
Q25. (a) endured

(b) evaded
(c) relished
(d) adored
(e) deified
Q26. (a) propitious

(b) felicitous
(c) congruous
(d) precipitous
(e) auspicious

Q27. (a) affable
(b) genial
(c) stark
(d) embark
(e) ornate
Q28. (a) fortified

(b) exposed
(c) shielded
(d) annexed
(e) braced
Q29. (a) undermine

(b) recuperate
(c) perforate
(d) vanquish
(e) interlude
Q30. (a) improve

(b) rectify
(c) resolve
(d) disapprove
(e) engage
Directions (31-35): The Line graph shows total number of quantities of items (P + Q) dispatched
and number of quantities of item ‘Q’ dispatched out of total items of P & Q
dispatched from four (A, B C & D) different warehouses in the month of march. Read the following
line chart carefully and answer the questions given below.
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
A B C D
Quantity of items 'P & Q' dispatched Quantity of item Q dispatched

Q31. Find the ratio of total number of item P dispatched from D and A together to that of B and C
together.
(a) 17:21
(b) 29:16
(c) 11:24
(d) 35:18
(e) 13:21
Q32. Find the total number of item Q dispatched from A is what percent of average number of item
P dispatched from B and D?
(a) 88%
(b) 55%
(c) 29%
(d) 75%
(e) 120%
Q33. The total number of item Q dispatched from C in February is 20% less than total number of
item P dispatched from A in March. If ratio of total number of item P dispatched from C in March to
February 5:4 respectively, then find the total number of item P&Q together dispatched from C in
February.
(a) 345
(b) 360
(c) 310
(d) 335
(e) 320
Q34. If total number of item P dispatched from E is 40% more than that of item Q from D, then find
the total number item Q dispatched from B is how much more/less than that of item P from E.
(a) 69
(b) 62
(c) 66
(d) 68
(e) 72
Q35. Find the total number of item Q dispatched from B is how much percent (approx.) more/less
than total number of item P dispatched from C.
(a) 177%
(b) 171%
(c) 189%
(d) 190%
(e) 165%

Directions (36 -40); What approximate value should come in the place of question (?) mark.
5
Q36. 120.03 ÷ 8 of 24.08 × 3.95 = ?
(a) 36
(b) 28
(c) 32
(d) 42
(e) 22
Q37. ? % of 750.03 + (14.99)2 = (8.03)2 +356.01

(a) 42
(b) 16
(c) 22
(d) 26
(e) 32
Q38. ? + 125.03 % of 239.99 – (5.99)3 = (11.93)2

(a) 60
(b) 40
(c) 80
(d) 20
(e) 100
840.03 3
Q39. + (7.99)3 = 90.03 % of 599.99 + √7.99
?
(a) 31
(b) 28
(c) 37
(d) 24
(e) 20
Q40. (189.97 × 48.03) ÷ (1368.02 ÷ 440.98) + 86.99 % of 500.01 = ?3

(a) 10
(b) 7
(c) 18
(d) 15
(e) 24
Directions (41-45): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. Solve the
equations and mark the correct option.
(a) If x> y
(b) If x≥ y
(c) If x< y
(d) If x≤ y
(e) If x = y or no relation can be established between x and y
Q41. I: 2x² + 10x + 12 = 0

II: y² + 10x + 25 = 0

Q42. I. x² - 8x + 15 =0
II. 2y² - 5y - 3 = 0
Q43. I. 6x² + x- 15 =0
II. 4y² - 24y + 35 = 0
Q44. I. 5x² + 11x + 2 = 0

II. 4y² + 13y + 3 = 0
Q45. I. x 2 + 21x + 108 = 0

II. y 2 + 14y + 45 = 0
Directions (46-50): Table given below shows total number of people (Adult + Children) visited four
different parks in a week. The table also shows total number of males and ratio of male to female
in adult people. Read the data carefully and answer the questions.
Total people (Adult + Total number of The ratio of total number of males to that
Parks
children) males of females in adult people
A 2200 80P ----
B 1440 40P ----
C 1200 45P 9:4
D 480 15P 5:3
Note: (i) Adult = Male + female

(ii) Total number of adult males visited all four parks in the week = 2700
Q46. If total females visited park A are 255 more than that of total children visited park C, then find
total children visited park A.
(a) 520
(b) 480
(c) 720
(d) 420
(e) 620
𝟒𝟎𝟎
Q47. Total female visited park B are % more than total children visited park D, then find total
𝟑
children visited park B are what percent more than total female visited park C.
(a) 86.66%
(b) 84.66%
(c) 88.66%
(d) 82.66%
(e) 90.66%

Q48. Find the ratio of total female visited park D to total children visited park C and D together in a
week.
(a) 9 : 22
(b) 9 : 23
(c) 9 : 25
(d) 3 : 7
(e) 9 : 31
Q49. Find the difference between total male visited parks C & D together and total female visited in
same parks.
(a) 525
(b) 435
(c) 565
(d) 465
(e) 555
Q50. If total female visited park A are 40% more than that of park C and total female visited park B
are 115 more than total male visited park D, then find average number of children visited in park
A and B.
(a) 560
(b) 440
(c) 480
(d) 520
(e) 540
Directions (51-54): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
In society A, some people like three different types of music i.e. jazz, rock & folk. People who like only jazz
and only rock are in the ratio of 4:3 respectively and people who like all the three types of music is 15.
People who like only folk is 50 and people who like jazz is 140. People who like both jazz & folk is 20 and
people who like both rock & folk is 50% more than the people who like both jazz & folk. People who like
both jazz & rock is average of people who like both jazz & folk and like both rock & folk.
Q51. Find the total number of people who like rock music is what percent of total number of people
like only folk music?
(a) 260%
(b) 210%
(c) 180%
(d) 280%
(e) 150%

Q52. Find the total number of people who like at most one type of music.
(a) 90
(b) 175
(c) 100
(d) 125
(e) 190
Q53. Find the total number of people who like only jazz music is how much more/less than the total
number of people who like at least two types of music.
(a) 20
(b) 18
(c) 12
(d) 10
(e) 5
Q54. Find the respective ratio of total number of people who like both jazz & folk music to that of
both rock & jazz music.
(a) 4:7
(b) 4:5
(c) 2:5
(d) 6:5
(e) None of these
Q55. A spend 10% of his monthly income on rent, 20% of the remaining on food and 50% of the
remaining on travelling. If the difference between the amount he spends on travelling and that on
rent is Rs.13000, then find the monthly income (in Rs.) of A?
(a) Rs.40000
(b) Rs.50000
(c) Rs.30000
(d) Rs.20000
(e) Rs.55000a
Q56. A container contains 90 liters of milk and 18 liters of water. If X liter of mixture is taken out
and 6 liter of water is added the new ratio of milk to water became 5:2, then find the value of X?
(a) 36
(b) 24
(c) 72
(d) 90
(e) 18

Q57. A started a business with an investment of Rs.1200. After some months, B join the business
with an investment of Rs.3600 and after two more months C joins the business with Rs.2800. If the
annual profit share of A and B is equal, then find for how many months C invested his money?
(a) 5 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 8 months
(d) 2 months
(e) 1 months
Q58. A man invested some amount at R% per annum on simple interest for eight years in scheme
X. He also invested same amount at (R+4) % per annum on simple interest for same period of time
in scheme Y. If interest received from scheme Y is Rs.1152 more than that from scheme X, then find
the amount (in Rs.).
(a) 3000
(b) 2400
(c) 4000
(d) 3600
(e) 4200
Q59. Train ‘A’ can cross a pole and 200 meters long platform in 16 seconds & 24 seconds
respectively. Find time taken by train ‘A’ to cross another train’ B’, which length is 480 meters and
running at the speed of 108 km/hr in opposite direction.
(a) 25 seconds
(b) 24 seconds
(c) 18 seconds
(d) 20 seconds
(e) 16 seconds
Q60. The average of present age of A, B and C is 29 years. If age of A is two years less than that of B
and age of B is eight years less than C, then find the present age of A.
(a) 27 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 22 years
(d) 25 years
(e) 24 years
Q61. X number of men can do a work in (X – 28) days, while (X + 12) number of men can do the same
𝟑
work in (X – 32) days. Find 𝟒 𝑿 women together can do the same work in how many days.
77
(a) 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
3
92
(b) 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
3
91
(c) 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
3
80
(d) 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
3
(e) None of these

Q62. A boat covers 22.4 km in downstream in 48 minutes and the speed of the stream is 40% of the
speed of the boat in still water. Find the ratio of time taken by boat to cover 54 km in upstream to
the time taken by boat to cover 210 km in downstream respectively?
(a) 5 : 3
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 2 : 3
(e) 1 : 3
Q63. The sum of the length of two rectangles P and Q is 60 cm, while their breadths are 16 cm and
12 cm respectively. If the ratio of the area of rectangles P to that of Q is 8 : 3, then find the difference
between perimeters of these two rectangles?
(a) 48 cm
(b) 32 cm
(c) 64 cm
(d) 72 cm
(e) 56 cm
Q64. A man invested some amount, out of Rs.47000 he invested on simple interest at 12 p.a. for two
years and rest amount on compound interest also for two years at 15% p.a. If compound interest
received by is Rs.532.5 more than simple interest, then find amount invested by man on compound
interest?
(a) Rs.23000
(b) Rs.22000
(c) Rs.21000
(d) Rs.25000
(e) Rs.24000
Q65. The ratio of cost price of a pen to that of a pencil is 3:4 and shopkeeper marked each of pen
and pencil 20% above their respective cost prices. If shopkeeper allowed 10% discount on each of
pen & pencil and earned a total of Rs. 2.8 on selling a pen & a pencil, then find the cost price of a
pen.
(a) Rs.25
(b) Rs.15
(c) Rs.35
(d) Rs.45
(e) Rs.55
Directions (66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
Eight persons sit in a parallel row such that four persons-A, B, C and D sit in a row 1 and face north and the
remaining four persons- P, Q, R and S sit in a row 2 and face south. The persons sit in a row 1 face the
person sits in a row 2 and vice versa. Each person belongs to different countries i.e. Japan, USA, Canada,
Egypt, Cuba , Iran, Italy and China. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.
The one who belongs to Iran sits second to the left of R. Only one person sits between B and A. B faces
neither R nor the one who belongs to Iran. The one who belongs to Egypt sits to the immediate right of A
and sits at the extreme end. S faces C who sits second to the right of the one who faces the one who belongs
to Japan. P faces the one who belongs to Cuba. D sits to the left of the one who belongs to Canada. Q and the
one who belongs to Italy didn’t sit in the same row. The one who belongs to china doesn’t sit adjacent to S.

Q66. Who among the following belongs to USA?
(a) P
(b) A
(c) Q
(d) C
(e) R
Q67. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true?

(a) No one sits to the right of S
(b) More than one person sits between P and R
(c) R faces the one who belongs to Cuba
(d) C sits adjacent to A
(e) All are true
Q68. Who among the following person sits between B and the one who faces the one who belongs
to Iran?
(a) D
(b) The one who belongs to USA
(c) A
(d) The one who belongs to Japan
(e) Both D and A
Q69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Find the one who
doesn’t belong to the group?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) B
(d) S
(e) C
Q70. A belongs to which among the following countries?

(a) Canada
(b) USA
(c) China
(d) Egypt
(e) None of these
Directions (71-73): Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions:
A is the only son of Q who is the brother-in-law of Y. U is the mother of B but she is not the spouse of Q. Y
is the unmarried brother of Z. X is the paternal aunt of B whereas V is the daughter-in-law of A. No single
parent has a child and an equal number of males and females are there in the family.
Q71. How is X related to Y?

(a) Nephew
(b) Niece
(c) Son
(d) Daughter
(e) Cannot be determined

Q72. If J is the brother of V, then how is J related to B?
(a) Daughter-in-law
(b) Son-in-law
(c) Brother-in-law
(d) Sister-in-law
(e) None of these
Q73. Who among the following person is the mother of A?

(a) Z
(b) U
(c) X
(d) Y
(e) None of these
below.
Seven persons- A, B, C, D, E, F and G were born in different years – 1969, 1973, 1978, 1982, 1988, 1990 and
1995 but not necessarily in the same order. Age of each person is calculated on the base year 2022.
C is two years elder than E. The age difference between F and E is a perfect cube number. The number of
persons born after E is same as the number of persons born before D. The difference between the age of D
and B is a prime number. A is older than G.
Q74. What is the age of A?

(a) 49 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 53 years
(d) 44 years
(e) None of these
Q75. What is the sum of the ages of D, B and F?

(a) 130 years
(b) 123 years
(c) 112 years
(d) 133 years
(e) 155 years
(a) D
(b) B
(c) F
(d) C
(e) E

I. A is the oldest among all
II. C was born in 1988
III. No one born after E
(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Both II and III
(d) Both I and II
(e) All I, II and III
Q78. What is the difference between the age of A and G?

(a) 16 years
(b) 26 years
(c) 28 years
(d) 30 years
(e) 36 years
Q79. Find the odd one out?

(a) RUW
(b) PSU
(c) JLN
(d) MPR
(e) FIK
Directions (80-82): In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,
find which of the two conclusions I and II given below is/are definitely true and give your answer
accordingly.
Q80. Statement: A<G<R>J≤Q=Z≤O; P>T=I≤J≥M

Conclusion: I. O≥I
II. M≥T
III. P>M
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Both I and II are true
(d) Only I and either II or III are true
(e) Either II or III is true
Q81. Statement: B≥D=C≤A≥Y; N≥E>M=C>L≤P

Conclusion: I. N≥Y
II. B≥M
III. P<N
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(e) Either II or III is true

Q82. Statement: U=B<I; X>M≥U=P<E; O=P≤D<H>Z
Conclusion: I. X>O
II. E>I
III. H<O
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(e) Either II or III are true
Q83. How many such pair of letters are there in the word ‘REVOLUTION’, each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as they have in English alphabet (both in forward and backward direction)?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) More than three
(e) Three
below.
Five persons A, B,C, D and E (but not necessarily in the same order) have different designations i.e., General
Manager (GM), Deputy General Manager (DGM), Assistant Manager (AM), Section Officer (SO), and Clerk in
a company. The order of seniority is the same as given above i.e., GM is the senior-most designation and
Clerk is the junior-most designation. Each person has different number of pens – 19, 23, 35, 39 and 51 but
not necessarily in the same order.
The one who has prime number of pens is not the senior most person but two designations senior to D. C
is junior to D. The one who has 39 pens is just senior to E. The difference between the pens of E and C is 4.
D has 12 pens more than C. B is junior to the one who has 39 pens.
Q84. Who among the following has maximum number of pens?

(a) B
(b) A
(c) D
(d) Either A or D
(e) None of these
Q85. What is the designation of A?

(a) DGM
(b) Clerk
(c) GM
(d) AM
(e) SO

Q86. What is the sum of the number of pens does E, C and B has?
(a) 83
(b) 73
(c) 68
(d) 93
(e) 59
Q87. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Find the one which
(a) A-39
(b) E-19
(c) B-51
(d) D-35
(e) C-39

I. E has minimum number of pens
II.C is designated as SO
III. D is senior to A
(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Both II and III
(d) Both I and II
Q89. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the 2 nd, 4th, 5th and 6thlettersof the
word “DISCOVER” using each letter only once, then what is the last letter of the word. If no such
meaningful word can be formed the answer is “X” and if more than one such meaningful word can
be formed, the answer will be “Z”?
(a) I
(b) C
(c) V
(d) X
(e) Z
below.
In a certain code language;

“stay calm be ready” is coded as “ mn jk lm rs”
“ready for stay quiet” is coded as “ rp jk ut mn“
“calm nature for peace” is coded as” lm ve rp st”
“nature quiet for calm” is coded as “ ve ut rp lm”

Q90. What will be the code for “be”?
(a) st
(b) rs
(c) mn
(d) jk
(e) Can’t be determined
Q91. What will be the code for “quiet peace”?

(a) utmn
(b) stjk
(c) stut
(d) vejk
(e) None of these
Q92. Which among the following word is coded as “lm”?

(a) Calm
(b) Ready
(c) Stay
(d) Either Calm or Stay
(e) Either Ready or Calm
Q93. What will be the code for “nature”?

(a) rs
(b) st
(c) ve
(d) Either rs or st
(e) mn
Q94. If the code for the words “ready to for” is coded as “rpyzjk” then what will be code for “stay to”
(a) jkyz
(b) rpmn
(c) yzrp
(d) mnyz
(e) None of these
Q95. In the given word “WORKSHOP” if the letters at even position when counts from the left are changed
with its just preceding letter according to alphabetical series and the letters at odd position when counts
from the left are changed with its just succeeding letter according to alphabetical series position then how
many letters are repeated in the word thus formed?
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) None
(d) Three
(e) Four

below.
Nine persons-K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S purchase different products one after another but not necessarily
in the same order. Three persons purchase products between K and M. R purchase product two persons
before M. Two persons purchase product between R and O who purchase product before K. L purchase
product just after K. Four persons purchase product between L and Q. The number of persons purchases
products before K is same as the number of persons purchase products after Q. P purchase product before
S but after M.
Q96. Who among the following purchase product at third position when counts from the top?
(a) L
(b) O
(c) K
(d) R
(e) P
Q97. How many persons purchase products between O and P?

(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Seven
(e) Three

I. S purchase product before K
II. No one purchase product before O
III. More than three persons purchase products after R
(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) Both II and III
(d) Both I and II
Q99. The number of persons purchases products before L is same as after____.

(a) Q
(b) S
(c) M
(d) P
(e) N
(a) O-L
(b) K-R
(c) L-N
(d) M-Q
(e) Q-S

Solutions
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct choice can be inferred from the first paragraph which mentions, “There is widespread
international concern that Russia's war will provoke a global food crisis similar to, or worse than, that faced
in 2007 and 2008. The war comes at a time when the global food system was already struggling to feed its
growing population in a sustainable way, under the pressure caused by climate change and the Covid-19
pandemic.”
S2. Ans.(e)
Sol. The correct choice can be inferred from the first paragraph which mentions, “Russia and Ukraine are
key agricultural players, together exporting nearly 12 % of food calories traded globally. They are major
providers of basic agro-commodities, including wheat, maize and sunflower oil, and Russia is the world's
top exporter of fertilisers.”
S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct choice can be inferred from the second paragraph which mentions, “Overall, the European
Commission estimates that 'up to 25 million tonnes of wheat would need to be substituted to meet
worldwide food needs in the current and the next season.”
S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. To validate the answer refer to the second paragraph which mentions, “First is a significant reduction
in exports and production of essential commodities from both countries, caused by the war and not the
economic sanctions imposed on Russia, which, intentionally, did not target the agricultural sector.”
S5. Ans.(e)
Sol. To validate the answer refer to the second paragraph which mentions, “Third factor is the international
response to the above, which could either amplify the effects of the crisis (mainly by uncoordinated export
bans) or mitigate them (applying lessons learnt from the 2007-2008 food crisis).”
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. Statement (ii) is false as per the information given in the passage.
For statement (i), refer to the second paragraph which mentions,” A number of countries, other than Russia
and Ukraine, have already imposed or announced their intention to impose some control over exports of
essential agricultural commodities, including Egypt, Argentina, Indonesia, Serbia, Turkey and, in the EU,
Hungary.”
For statement (ii), refer to the second paragraph which mentions,” Second factor is a global spike in prices
of food supplies and inputs needed for agri-food production, which were already at record levels before
the war. The war has further pushed the prices up.”
For statement (iii), refer to the first paragraph which mentions,” There is widespread international concern
that Russia's war will provoke a global food crisis similar to, or worse than, that faced in 2007 and 2008.”

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Keep’ in the statement (i) is incorrect and should be replaced with ‘work’.
S8. Ans.(a)
Sol. ‘Engage’ is an antonym of ‘retreat’.
engage: participate or become involved in.
bolster: support or strengthen.
arduous: involving or requiring strenuous effort; difficult and tiring.
withdraw: remove or take away (something) from a particular place or position.
S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. ‘Propel’ is a synonym of ‘pushed’
jerk: a quick, sharp, sudden movement.
ambit: the scope, extent, or bounds of something.
propel: drive or push something forwards.
collapse: (of a structure) suddenly fall down or give way.
S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. Among the given options, only phrase (c) is the most appropriate option to replace the highlighted one.
‘a lot of’ implies plural subject thus, plural verb is needed. Further, options using helping verbs of perfect
tenses are grammatically incorrect to comply with the structure of the given sentence.
S11. Ans.(e)
Sol. The highlighted phrase in the given sentence does not contain any errors. Thus, no improvement is
required.
S12. Ans.(b)
Sol. Among the given options, only phrase (b) is the most appropriate option to replace the highlighted
one. When ‘in’ is used as a preposition, it must be followed by a noun, thus, ‘recognition’ is the correct form.
‘Of’ is used to suggest the belonging to somebody; relating to somebody
S13. Ans.(c)
Ans. Among the given options, only phrase (b) is the most appropriate option to replace the highlighted
one. ‘Every’ is a singular pronoun and thus must be followed by a singular noun and verb.
S14. Ans.(c)
Sol. The error lies in part (C). Here, “to” should be replaced with “in” to make the given statement correct.
‘In’ is used as a function word to indicate inclusion, location, or position within limits.

S15. Ans.(a)
Sol. The error lies in part (A). Here, the article “the” should be used before the superlative degree “poorest”
to make the given statement correct.
S16. Ans.(e)
Sol. There is no error in the given sentence.
S17. Ans.(d)
Sol. The error lies in part (D). Here, “its” should be replaced with “their” to make the given statement
correct.
S18. Ans.(c)
Sol. The error lies in part (C). Here, “been” should be replaced with “be” to make the given statement
grammatically correct.
S19. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct rearrangement of the given phrases would be ABDC. The sentence thus formed would be
“India operates the widest spectrum of social security schemes which cater to the largest number of people
than any other country.”
S20. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct rearrangement of the given phrases would be ABDC. The sentence thus formed would be
“On the health security front, there is the Ayushman Bharat Scheme of the central government with over a
million beneficiaries.”
S21. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct replacement of the highlighted words would be A-D & B-C.
S22. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct replacement of the highlighted words would be A-C.
Forum means a meeting or medium where ideas and views on a particular issue can be exchanged.
S23. Ans.(e)
Sol. All of the highlighted words have been placed in their correct positions. Thus, no replacement is
required.
Potential means having or showing the capacity to develop into something in the future.
S24. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct replacement of the highlighted words would be A-B & C-D.
Rebate means a partial refund to someone who has paid too much for tax, rent, or a utility.
Sustainable means able to be maintained at a certain rate or level.

S25. Ans.(a)
Sol. Among the given options, “endured” is the most appropriate word that best fits the context of the
sentence.
(a) endured- to suffer (something painful or difficult) patiently.
(b) evaded- to avoid giving a direct answer to (a question).
(c) relished- to enjoy greatly.
(d) adored- to love and respect (someone) deeply.
(e) deified- to worship or regard as a god.
S26. Ans.(d)
Sol. Among the given options, “precipitous” is the most appropriate word that best fits the context of the
sentence.
(a) propitious- giving or indicating a good chance of success; favorable.
(b) felicitous- well chosen or suited to the circumstances.
(c) congruous- in agreement or harmony.
(d) precipitous- dangerously high or steep.
(e) auspicious- conducive to success; favorable.
S27. Ans.(c)
Sol. Among the given options, “stark” is the most appropriate word that best fits the context of the sentence.
(a) affable- friendly, good-natured, or easy to talk to.
(b) genial- friendly and cheerful.
(c) stark- unpleasantly or sharply clear.
(d) embark- begin (a course of action).
(e) ornate- elaborately or highly decorated.
S28. Ans.(b)
Sol. Among the given options, “exposed” is the most appropriate word that best fits the context of the
sentence.
(a) fortified- (of a place) provided with defensive works as a protection against attack.
(b) exposed- in a vulnerable position or situation.
(c) shielded- protect from danger, risk, or unpleasant experiences.
(d) annexed- add as an extra or subordinate part, especially to a document.
(e) braced- to prepare (oneself) for something difficult or unpleasant.
S29. Ans.(b)
Sol. Among the given options, “recuperate” is the most appropriate word that best fits the context of the
sentence.
(a) undermine- erode the base or foundation of (a rock formation).
(b) recuperate- recover or regain (something lost or taken).
(c) perforate- to make a hole or holes through by boring, punching, piercing, or the like.
(d) vanquish- defeat thoroughly.
(e) interlude- an intervening period of time; an interval.

S30. Ans.(a)
Sol. Among the given options, “improve” is the most appropriate word that best fits the context of the
sentence.
(a)improve- make or become better
(b)rectify- put right; correct
(c)resolve- settle or find a solution to
(d)disapprove- refuse to agree to
(e)engage- participate or become involved in.
S31. Ans.(b)
Sol. Req. ratio = (640 − 320) + (480 − 220) ∶ (560 − 380) + (320 − 180)
= 580 ∶ 320 = 29: 16
S32. Ans.(a)
Sol. Average number of item P dispatched from B and D
(560−380)+(640−320)
= 2
180 + 320
= = 250
2
220
Req. % =250 × 100 = 88%
S33. Ans.(e)
Sol. Total number of item Q dispatched from C in February
80
=(480 − 220) × 100 = 208
Total number of item P dispatched from C in February
320−180
= × 4 = 112
5
Total number of item P&Q together dispatched from C in February
=208 + 112
= 320
S34. Ans.(d)
140
Sol. Total number of item P dispatched from E = 320 × 100 = 448
Total number item Q dispatched from B = 380
Req. difference = 448 − 380 = 68
S35. Ans.(b)
Sol. Total number of item P dispatched from C =320 − 180 = 140
380−140
Req. %= × 100
140
240
= × 100 = 171.4 ≈ 171%
140

S36. Ans.(c)
Sol. 120 ÷ 15 × 4 ≈?
?≈ 8 × 4
? ≈ 32
S37. Ans.(d)
?
Sol. 100 × 750 + (15)2 ≈ (8)2 +356
?
× 750 + 225 ≈ 64 + 356
100
?
× 750 ≈ 195
100
195×100
?≈
750
? ≈ 26
S38. Ans.(a)
Sol. ? + 125 % of 240 – (6)3 ≈ (12)2
125
? + 100 × 240 − 216 ≈ 144
? ≈ 144 – 84
? ≈ 60
S39. Ans.(b)
840 3
Sol. ? + 83 ≈ 90 % of 600 + √8
840 90
≈ × 600 + 2 − 512
? 100
840
≈ 542 – 512
?
840
?≈ 30
? ≈ 28
S40. Ans.(d)
1368 87
Sol. (190 × 48) ÷( 441 ) + 100 × 500 ≈ ?³
441
190 × 48 × 1368 + 435 ≈ (?)³
2940 + 435 ≈ (?)³
? ≈15
S41. Ans.(a)
Sol. I. 2x² + 10x + 12 = 0
2x² + 6x + 4x + 12 = 0
(2x + 4)(x + 3)= 0
x= –3, –2
II. y² + 10y + 25 = 0
y² +5y +5y + 25 = 0
(y + 5)(y + 5) = 0
y = -5, -5
∴x>y

S42. Ans.(b)
Sol. I. x² - 8x + 15 = 0
x² - 5x – 3x + 15 = 0
x(x - 5) – 3 (x - 5) = 0
∴ x = 3 or 5
II. 2y² - 5y – 3 = 0
2y² - 6y + y – 3 = 0
2y (y - 3) + 1 (y – 3) = 0
1
𝑦 = 3 𝑜𝑟 −
2
∴x≥y
S43. Ans.(c)
Sol. I. 6x² + x – 15 = 0
6x² - 9x + 10x – 15=0
3x (2x - 3) +5 (2x – 3)= 0
3 5
∴ 𝑥 = 2 𝑜𝑟 − 3
II. 4y² - 24y + 35 = 0
4y² - 14y – 10y + 35 = 0
2y(2y - 7) – 5 (2y - 7) = 0
7 5
∴ 𝑦 = 2 𝑜𝑟 2
∴y>x
S44. Ans.(e)
Sol. I. 5x² + 11x + 2 = 0
5x² + 10x + x + 2 = 0
5x(x + 2) +1 (x + 2) = 0
1
x = -2 or − 5
II. 4y² + 13y + 3 = 0
4y² + 12y + y + 3 = 0
4y (y + 3) + 1 (y + 3) = 0
1
∴ y = -3 𝑜𝑟 − 4
∴ no relation
S45. Ans.(d)
Sol. I. 𝑥 2 + 21𝑥 + 108 = 0
𝑥 2 + 12𝑥 + 9𝑥 + 108 = 0
𝑥(𝑥 + 12) + 9(𝑥 + 12) = 0
(𝑥 + 9)(𝑥 + 12) = 0
𝑥 = −9, −12
II. 𝑦 2 + 14𝑦 + 45 = 0
𝑦 2 + 9𝑦 + 5𝑦 + 45 = 0
𝑦 (𝑦 + 9) + 5 (𝑦 + 9) = 0
(𝑦 + 5)(𝑦 + 9) = 0
𝑦 = −5, −9
So, x≤ y

Solutions. (46 -50): Given, 80P + 40P + 45P + 15P =2700
180P = 2700
P =15
Total male visited park A in a week = 80 × 15 = 1200
Total male visited park B in a week = 40 × 15 = 600
Total male visited park C in a week = 45 × 14 = 675
Total male visited park D in a week = 15 × 15 = 225
4
Total female visited park C in a week = 675 × 9 = 300
3
Total female visited park D in a week = 225 × 5 = 135
Total children visited park C in a week = 1200 – (675 + 300) =225
Total children visited park D in a week = 480 – (225 +135) = 120
S46. Ans.(a)
Sol. Total female visited park A in the week = 225+255= 480
Total children visited park A = 2200 – (1200+480) = 520
S47. Ans.(a)
7
Sol. Total female visited park B = 120 × 3 = 280
Total children visited park B = 1440 – (600 + 280) = 560
560−300
Required percent = 300 × 100 = 86.66%
S48. Ans.(b)
Sol. Required ratio = 135 : (225+120) = 9 : 23
S49. Ans.(d)
Sol. Total male visited parks C & D = 675 + 225 = 900
Total female visited parks C & D = 300 + 135 = 435
Required difference = 900 −435 = 465
S50. Ans.(e)
140
Sol. Total female visited park A in the week = 300 × 100 = 420
Total children visited park A = 2200 – (1200+420) = 580
Total female visited park B = 225 + 115 = 340
Total children visited park B = 1440 – (600 + 340) = 500
580+500
Required average = = 540
2
Solutions. (51-54): People who like only jazz and only rock be 4x & 3x respectively.
People who like only folk=50
People who like all the three types of music = 15
People who like both jazz & folk = 20
150
People who like both rock & folk = 20 × 100 = 30
20+30
People who like both jazz & rock = = 25
2

ATQ,
4𝑥 + 15 + 20 + 25 = 140
4𝑥 = 80
𝑥 = 20
People who like only jazz and only rock is 80 & 60 respectively.
S51. Ans.(a)
25+15+30+60
Sol. Req. % = × 100 = 260%
50
S52. Ans.(e)
Sol. Total number of people who like at most one music = 80 + 60 + 50 = 190
S53. Ans.(d)
Sol. Total number of people who like only jazz music = 80
Total number of people who like at least two music 20 + 30 + 15 + 25 = 90
Req. difference = 90 – 80 = 10
S54. Ans.(b)
Sol. Req. ratio = 20 : 25 = 4:5
S55. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let monthly income of A= 100x
10
So, total amount spends on Rent = 100x × 100 = 10𝑥
80 50
Total amount spends on travel = (100x −10𝑥) × 100 × 100 = 36𝑥
ATQ –
36x – 10x = 13000
x = 500
So, monthly income of A= Rs.50000
S56. Ans.(c)
Sol. Ratio of milk to water initially = 90:18= 5:1
ATQ
5
90− ×𝑋 5
6
1 =2
18− ×𝑋+6
6
𝑋 = 72 liter
S57. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let B joined after X months
1200 × 12: (12 − 𝑋) × 3600: 2800 × (12 − 𝑋 − 2)
1200 × 12: (12 − 𝑋) × 3600: 2800 × (10 − 𝑋)
12 × 1200 = (12 − 𝑋) × 3600
4 = (12 − 𝑋)
𝑋=8
Required answer = 10 – X = 2 months

S58. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let the sum invested in each scheme be Rs. P.
ATQ
𝑃×(𝑅+4)×8 𝑃×𝑅×8
− = 1152
100 100
(𝑃×4×8)
= 1152
100
𝑃 = 3600 Rs.
S59. Ans.(e)
Sol. Let the length and speed of train – A be x meters and y m/sec respectively.
ATQ,
𝑙
=𝑦
16
𝑙 = 16𝑦 ----- (i)
Now,
𝑙+200
= 𝑦 …(ii)
24
from (i) and (ii) we get –
𝑦 = 25 & 𝑙 = 400
5
Speed of train – B = 108 × 18 = 30 m/sec
400+480
Required time = = 16 seconds
25+30
S60. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let present age of A, B and C are a, b and c years respectively.
𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 = 29 × 3 = 87 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 ….(i)
𝑏 − 2 = 𝑎 ……(ii)
𝑏 + 8 = 𝑐 ….. (iii)
ATQ.
𝑏 − 2 + 𝑏 + 8 + 𝑏 = 87
3𝑏 = 81
𝑏 = 27
Present age of A = 25 years
S61. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let efficiency of a man be w units/day.
ATQ –
X × (𝑋 − 28) × 𝑤 = (𝑋 + 12) × ( 𝑋 − 32) × 𝑤
X = 48
Total work = 48 × (48 − 28) × 𝑤 = 960𝑤 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
960𝑤 2
Required days = 3 = 26 3 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
48 × ×𝑤
4

S62. Ans.(b)
Sol. Ratio of speed of boat in still water to speed of stream = 100% : 40% = 5 : 2
Let the speed of boat in still water and speed of stream be 5s km/hr and 2s km/hr respectively
60
Downstream speed of boat = 22.4 × 48 = 28 km/hr
ATQ –
(5s + 2s) = 28
s = 4 km/hr
So, Upstream speed of boat = (5× 4 − 2 × 4) = 12 km/hr
54
Required ratio = 12
210 =3:5
28
S63. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let length of rectangle P = L cm
Then length of rectangle Q = (60 – L) cm
ATQ –
𝐿×16 8
(60−𝐿)×12
=3
L = 40 cm
Required difference = 2(40 + 16) – 2(20+12) = 48 cm
S64. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let amount invested by man on compound interest be ‘Rs. x’.
So, amount invested by man on simple interest = Rs (47000 – x)
Now,
Equivalent rate of interest at 15% p.a. on compound interest for 2 years
15 × 15
= 15 + 15 + = 32 .25%
100
ATQ,
𝑥 × 32.25 (47000 – 𝑥 )× 2 × 12
– = 532.5
100 100
32.25x + 24x = 1181250
x = 21000 Rs.
S65. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let cost price of a pen & a pencil be Rs.30x & Rs.40x respectively.
So, marked price of a pen = Rs. 36x
And, marked price of a pencil = Rs.48x
Now, selling price of a pen = Rs. 32.4x
And, selling price of a pencil = Rs. 43.2x
ATQ,
(43.2𝑥 + 32.4𝑥) − (30𝑥 + 40𝑥 ) = 2.8
𝑥 = 0.5
So, cost price of a pen = Rs.15

Solutions (66-70):
S66. Ans.(c)
S67. Ans.(d)
S68. Ans.(e)
S69. Ans.(b)
S70. Ans.(a)
Solutions (71-73):
S71. Ans.(b)
S72. Ans.(c)
S73. Ans.(a)
Solutions (74-78):
Years Age Persons
1969 53 A
1973 49 D
1978 44 B
1982 40 F
1988 34 C
1990 32 E
1995 27 G

S74. Ans.(c)
S75. Ans.(d)
S76. Ans.(a)
S77. Ans.(d)
S78. Ans.(b)
S79. Ans.(c)
Sol.
Solutions (80-82):
S80. Ans.(a)
S81. Ans.(b)
S82. Ans.(a)
S83. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Solutions (84-88):
Designation Persons Pens
GM A 39
DGM E 19
AM B 51
SO D 35
Clerk C 23
S84. Ans.(a)
S85. Ans.(c)
S86. Ans.(d)
S87. Ans.(e)
S88. Ans.(a)

S89. Ans.(d)
Sol. DISCOVER
ICOV – no meaningful word formed.
Solutions (90-94):
Words Code
Stay/ready mn/jk
Calm lm
Be rs
For rp
Quiet ut
Nature ve
Peace st
S90. Ans.(b)
S91. Ans.(c)
S92. Ans.(a)
S93. Ans.(c)
S94. Ans.(d)
S95. Ans.(c)
Sol. Given word- WORKSHOP
After arrangement- XNSJTGPO
Solutions (96-100):
O
K
L
R
N
M
P
Q
S
S96. Ans.(a)
S97. Ans.(b)
S98. Ans.(c)
S99. Ans.(d)
S100. Ans.(e)

SBI PO Prelims Previous Year Paper 2021
Directions (1-7): Read the given passage and Life is never boring for a curious person. Everyone
answer the following questions. Some words are possesses curiosity to some degree although
highlighted to help you answer some of the people will differ according to the depth and
strength of their curiosity and their willingness to
questions.
act on it. Curiosity helps your mind to be more
active instead of passive. The mind is a muscle and
Curiosity is a trait of many a famous genius the more exercise it gets the stronger it will
including Thomas Edison, Albert Einstein and become. Various studies have shown that keeping
Leonardo da Vinci. In an article in LIFE Magazine your brain active and alert can be very helpful as
well in later life. Curiosity is the engine of
in 1955 entitled "Old Man's Advice to Youth:
intellectual achievement; those who are more
'Never Lose a Holy Curiosity” Einstein, who interested in a topic will learn faster and prime the
developed the theory of relativity famously said: brain better for learning. Curiosity is associated
“The important thing is not to stop questioning. with high performance in both academic and work
Curiosity has its own reason for existence. One settings. There is evidence to suggest that the
more we learn, the more we want to learn.
cannot help but be in awe when he contemplates the
Curious people rarely find life boring because
mysteries of eternity, of life, of the marvellous there is always something new to explore and
structure of reality. It is enough if one tries merely discover. You can turn any event into something
to comprehend a little of this mystery each day." In fascinating by sharpening your observation and
an ever-evolving world that is fuelled by giving your attention to something you would
normally miss. Walt Disney embraced curiosity as
innovation, curiosity could indeed be considered a
one of the core ingredients of living a fulfilling and
very relevant business imperative. exciting life. He said: “We keep moving forward,
We can all be grateful for those with a progressive opening new doors, and doing new things, because
mind and an insatiable thirst for discovery, as we we are curious and curiosity keeps leading us
have all benefited from some of their findings! down new paths.” In any business context, it is
important that people keep satisfying the thirst of
Eleanor Roosevelt once observed that if a mother
innovating new ways of doing things so that they
could ask a Fairy Godmother to endow a child with can keep ahead of the game. Refreshing the way
the most useful gift, that gift should be curiosity. we do things helps us to be more agile and work
One of the key components of cultivating a growth smarter by letting go of irrelevant habits.
mindset is our ability to be curious and open-
Q1. Why does the author refer to curiosity as the
minded and to question and challenge the way we
engine of innovation?
think. It helps us to avoid getting rigid in our (a) It assists us in staying flexible in our thoughts.
thinking and leads us into exploring new avenues (b) It stimulates people to explore different things.
and possibilities. Curiosity is the engine of (c) It enables people to be naturally eccentric
innovation and curious people have an ongoing, around them.
(d) It makes a person's life more bold and
intrinsic interest in both their inner experience
adventurous.
and the world around them. (e) None of these
Q2. Why does the author encourage us to be (b) One of the most important factors in having a
grateful for all those who are keen to know? full and exciting life is curiosity.
(a) Because they aided us in fostering a growth (c) In both academic and professional settings,
ethic and a desire to learn. curiosity is linked to excellent performance.
(b) Because they were interactive individuals who (d) Only (a) and (c)
queried our assumptions. (e) None of these
(c) Because some of their research and discoveries
Q6. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the
have helped us all.
word ‘PROGRESSIVE’, as highlighted in the given
(d) Because they had an intense thirst for
passage.
knowledge and an open mind.
(a) Exasperate
(e) All of these
(b) Dwindling
Q3. Which of the following instances could be (c) Augmenting
deduced from Albert Einstein's quotation italicized (d) Cumulative
in the first paragraph? (e) None of these
(a) People should not cease questioning in order to
be innovative in their activities. Q7. Which of the following words should replace
(b) Curiosity comes to an end when its inherent the word ‘SATISFYING’, as highlighted in the
purpose for being is accomplished. passage to make the given sentence grammatically
(c) It is adequate to understand a tiny proportion correct and contextually meaningful.
of a mystery each and every day. (a) Pleasing
(d) All of these (b) Exploring
(e) Only (a) and (c)
(c) Impeding
(d) Mitigating
Q4. Why does a curious person's life never get
monotonous as per the information provided in
the given passage?
(a) Because everyone has an unquenchable need Directions (8-12): In each of the questions below,
to learn new things. a sentence is given with two blanks that indicate
(b) Because the depth and power of one's curiosity that some parts are missing. Identify the correct
affect one's thoughts. pair of words that fit in the sentence to make it
(c) Because curiosity encourages our thoughts to grammatically and contextually correct.
be less futile.
(d) Because curious people always have something Q8. At the start of the ____________ pandemic, there
fresh to learn and explore. seemed to be positive ______________________ on the
(e) None of these environment.
(a) world-wide, outcome
Q5. Which of the following statements is/are (b) global, impact
incorrect based on the information provided in the
(c) global, nature
given passage?
(d) regional, impact
(a) Curiosity helps the mind to be active as the
(e) ongoing, outcome
more exercise it gets the stronger it will become.

Q9. The unions ____________the new owners of the Q14. Although she has an(A) interfere on the
workers’ ______________to the company.
matter, Brenda won’t(B) internal in the
(a) assured, loyalty
(b) exempted, allegiance company’s(C) opinion issues(D) without being
(c) assured, treason asked.
(d) confirmed, treason
(e) exempted, loyalty (a) ADBC
(b) BCAD
Q10. A facial ________________ of the suspect and the
drawing ___________________ that it was in fact a (c) DBCA
match. (d) CABD
(a) mismatch, reveal
(B) comparison, showed (e) No rearrangement is required
(c) data, suggest
(d) features, suggest
Q15. To(A) avoid being fired from his teaching
(e) contrast, reveal
gig, the(B) incompetent coach decided to(C)
Q11. Because of a ________________ in sales, the resign and leave on his own(D) accord.
company owner has no choice but to __________ a
few workers. (a) ADBC
(a) efflux, elevated (b) BCAD
(b) decline, promote
(c) influx, fire (c) DBCA
(d) surge, dismiss (d) CABD
(e) decline, dismiss
(e) No rearrangement is required
Q12. Decades ago, Western nations faced a fuel
________________ when the Arab countries placed
Q16. The(A) asthma of smoking in(B) blessing is
a/an ____________ on petroleum trades.
(a) shortage, embargo a(C) restaurants to people like myself who (D)
(b) shortage, deterrent abolition from allergies and(E) suffer.
(c) abundance, sanction
(d) abundance, embargo (a) ABDEC
(e) deficiency, permit (b) BCDAE
Directions (13-17): In each sentence few words (c) DCBEA
are given in bold. They may or may not be (d) CADEB
arranged in a proper sequence. Choose the
sequence that make the sentence grammatically (e) No rearrangement is required
and contextually meaningful. If the sentence is
correct, choose option(e) i.e., no rearrangement is
Q17. Because we had(A) decided than we needed,
required.
we(B) fortunate to sacrifice our Christmas(C)
Q13. There is(A) dipped for optimism in India’s offering by(D) more them to the less(E) gifts.
battle(B) reason the COVID-19 pandemic as (C)
against new coronavirus cases have(D) daily to a (a) ABDEC
nine-month low. (b) BDCAE
(a) ADBC
(b) BCDA (c) DAECB
(c) DBCA (d) CADEB
(d) CDAB
Directions (18-22): There are three sentences Q21. (A) China seems to be mending its diplomatic
given in each question. Find the sentence(s) which fences with the Arab countries.
is/are grammatically correct and mark your (B) A Canada has become the world’s first patient
answer choosing the best possible alternative diagnosed with climate change, linked to breathing
among the five options given below each question.
trouble caused by air pollution
If all the sentences are incorrect, choose (e) i.e.
‘None is correct’ as your answer. (C) His comforting words helped to sustain me in
my faith during those dark days.
Q18. (A) Tepid response to reopening of schools (a) Only (A)
as parents prefer than wait and watch (b) Both (A) and (C)
(B) The National Education Policy lays emphasis in (c) Both (C) and (B)
imparting teaching in mother tongue in primary (d) Only (B)
classes.
(e) None is correct
(C) The episode betrays a lack of understanding of
the recovery process and its underlying principles.
(a) Only (A) Q22. (A) Israel is growing increasing suspicious of
(b) Both (A) and (C) almost every country.
(c) Both (C) and (B) (B) The percentage of rural children who was not
(d) Only (C) enrolled in school doubled during the pandemic
(e) None is correct (C) Delhi has recorded the lowest rate of inflation
among the metro city in the country.
Q19. (A) Prereaders progressed faster in learning
to read the visual list, whereas novice and veteran (a) Only (A)
readers progressed faster in learning to read the (b) Both (A) and (C)
phonetic list. (c) Both (C) and (B)
(B) The residents of city X are dismayed to find its (d) Only (B)
locality in the news for all the wrong reasons. (e) None is correct
(C) Farmers refused to end protest in Noida
despite of repeated requests
Directions (23-27): Rearrange the following six
(a) Only (A)
(b) Both (A) and (C) sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the proper
(c) Both (C) and (B) sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and
(d) Only (B) then answer the questions given below.
(e) None is correct (A) Since they were part of the local culture, they
could not be separated from religion.
Q20. (A) Chennai have a history of implementing (B) The Indians, Greeks, Mesopotamians and
innovative and inclusionary models of slum
Egyptians led the way, but every culture, strangely
clearance.
(B) In the absence of a policy, the relocations have enough, used the same animals to represent the
been governed by ad hoc government orders. same powers.
(C) Much residents sell or rent out their allotments (C) They were stronger, faster, could live in the sea
and return to informal settlements in the city to or air, had abilities and senses that the human
safeguard their painstakingly crafted pathways to could not even aspire to.
a better life. (D) So there was a willingness to use animals as
(a) Only (A)
gods. They gave added meaning to the divine.
(b) Both (A) and (C)
(c) Both (C) and (B) (E) In the ancient world, humans were not just
(d) Only (B) close to animals but, in most cases, deeply
(e) None is correct dependent on them.
Q23. Which of the following should be the FIRST Directions (28-30): In each question three
sentence after rearrangement? sentences are given corresponding to a single
(a) A idiom/phrasal verb. Choose the sentence(s) that
(b) C have the correct usage of the given idiom.
(c) D
(d) B Q28. Take off
(e) E (A) I'll take off now, and see you later.
(B) The plane will take off in twenty minutes
Q24. Which of the following should be the (C) The doctor gave me tablets to take off the pain.
SECOND sentence after rearrangement? (a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(a) E
(c) Only (C)
(b) D
(d) only (A) and (B)
(c) C
(e) Only (B) and (C)
(d) B
(e) A
Q29. Up in the arms
(A) The whole village is up in arms about the
Q25. Which of the following should be the THIRD
proposal to build an airport nearby.
sentence after rearrangement?
(B) The children were jumping up in the arms
(a) E
with excitement.
(b) B (C) Her eyes widened and her chest moved up in
(c) D the arm faster as her breath quickened.
(d) A (a) Only (A)
(e) C (b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
Q26. Which of the following should be the (d) only (A) and (B)
FOURTH sentence after rearrangement? (e) All of the above
(a) B
(b) D Q30. On cloud nine
(c) A (A) I told her how much of her winnings would be
(d) E going to taxes, she was definitely on cloud nine.
(e) C (B) Although we are making good profits there is a
cloud nine, the government may increase taxes.
Q27. Which of the following should be the LAST (C) I've been on cloud nine ever since I landed my
(SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement? dream job.
(a) E (a) Only (A)
(b) A (b) Only (B)
(c) B (c) Only (C)
(d) C (d) only (A) and (C)
(e) D (e) All of the above

Direction (31–35): Given below table shows total Q34. Find the ratio of total number of AC’s sold by
three items (refrigerators, AC’s & ovens) sold by C & D together to total AC’s & refrigerators sold by
four stores. Table also shows percentage of B?
refrigerators sold & total number of AC’s sold by (a) 8 : 9
out of total items sold. Read the data carefully and (b) 9 : 8
answer following questions: (c) 9 : 7
Note- Each store sold only three types of items. (d) 4 : 3
(e) 6 : 5
Total
Number
number % Of
Stores of AC’s Q35. Total refrigerators sold by A & C together are
of items refrigerators
sold what percent more than total ovens sold by C ?
sold 2
(a) 63 3 %
A 500 32% 100
2
B 800 48% 96 (b) 60 3 %
1
C 1200 45% 240 (c) 33 %
3
D 1500 56% 300 2
(d) 66 3 %
Q31. Total ovens sold by C & D together is what 2
(e) 69 3 %
percent less than total number of refrigerators
sold by A & D together?
(a) 16% Direction (36–40): In each of the following
(b) 24% questions two equations are given. Solve these
(c) 22% equations and give answer:
(d) 26% (a) if 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦, i.e., 𝑥 is greater than or equal to 𝑦
(e) 18% (b) if 𝑥 > 𝑦, i.e., 𝑥 is greater than 𝑦
(c) if 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦, i.e., 𝑥 is less than or equal to 𝑦
Q32. Find the difference between average number (d) if 𝑥 < 𝑦, i.e., 𝑥 is less than 𝑦
of ovens sold by B & D and total number of (e) 𝑥 = 𝑦 or no relation can be established
refrigerators sold by C. between 𝑥 and 𝑦
(a) 260
(b) 240 Q36. I. 𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 8 = 0
(c) 250 II. 𝑦 2 + 8𝑦 + 15 = 0
(d) 150
(e) 200 Q37. I. 𝑥² – 12𝑥 + 32 = 0
II. 𝑦² − 17𝑦 + 72 = 0
Q33. If total refrigerators sold by store X is 25%
more than refrigerators sold by D and total ovens,
1
Q38. I. 𝑥² − 12𝑥 + 35 = 0
sold by store X is 372% more than total ovens sold II. 𝑦² − 11𝑦 + 24 = 0
by A, then find total number of refrigerators &
ovens sold by store X? Q39. I. 8𝑥² + 10𝑥 − 7 = 0
(a) 780 II. 𝑦² − 6𝑦 + 8 = 0
(b) 1480
(c) 1180
Q40. I. 𝑥² + 7𝑥 + 12 = 0
(d) 1280
II. 𝑦² + 15𝑦 + 44 = 0
(e) 1380
Directions (41-45): Line chart shows the number of graduate students & postgraduate students in five
different collages (A, B, C, D & E). Study the line chart given below and answer the following questions.
160
120
80
40
0
A B C D E
Graduate Postgraduate
Q41. Total number of students (graduate + 1

(a) 233 3 %
postgraduate) in collage A in together are what 2
(b) 266 3 %
percent more or less than total postgraduate
(c) 250%
students in collage B & collage E together?
(d) 225%
(a) 80%
(e) 275%
(b) 30%
(c) 50% Q44. If total graduate students in collage X are 90
(d) 20% more than total graduate students in collage E and
(e) 60% ratio of boys to girls in graduate students in
collage B & collage X is 11 : 9 and 3 : 7 respectively,
Q42. If ratio of boys to girls in graduate students then find number of girls in graduate students in
and postgraduate students in collage C is 3 : 2 & 5 : collage B & X together?
3 respectively, then find ratio of total number of (a) 145
(b) 128
boys in graduate students and postgraduate
(c) 134
students in collage C together to total number of
(d) 166
graduate students in collage B? (e) None of the above.
(a) 7 : 5
(b) 23 : 15 Q45. The average number of students
(c) 3 : 2 postgraduate students in collage B, C & D are how
(d) 21 : 13 much more or less than graduate students in
(e) 4 : 3 collage A & E together?
(a) 10
Q43. Total number of graduates students in (b) 20
collage C & collage E together are what percent of (c) 30
total graduate students and postgraduate students (d) 50
in collage D? (e) 40

Q46. A man spent 20% of his monthly income on than that of article A and profit on both articles is
house rent, 20% of the remaining income on Food. same, then find the selling price of article B?
If from the remaining income, ratio of amount (a) Rs.3300
spent on clothing to saving of a man is 7: 9 and (b) Rs.3600
difference between amount spent on Food and (c) Rs.3000
clothing is Rs.1080, then find income of man for (d) Rs.3800
nine months? (e) Rs.4200
(a) Rs. 81000
(b) Rs.70000 Q50. 16 men and 14 women can complete a piece
(c) Rs.68000 of work in 30 days. If four men joined them, then
(d) Rs.96000 they could finish the 80% of the same work in 20
(e) Rs.108000 days, then find the time taken by 42 women to
complete the two times of the same work?
Q47. The ratio of speed of boat in still water to (a) 60 days
speed of stream is 8 : 5 and total time taken by (b) 50 days
boat to cover ‘D’ km distance in downstream and (c) 80 days
upstream together is 32 hours. Find the time taken (d) 120 days
by boat to cover ‘2D’ km in still water? (e) 100 days
(a) 15.5 hours
(b) 21.5 hours Direction (51–55): Read the data carefully and
(c) 19.5 hours answer the questions.
(d) 17.5 hours
(e) 16.5 hours A store sold ‘X’ number of total three different
items (Jackets, Sweaters & Sweatshirts) in two
Q48. Length of train A is 200 meters and length of
different brands (Adidas & Nike). 40% of total sold
train B is ‘l’ meters and train A and train B crosses
items are Jackets and the ratio of total Jackets to
a pole in 8 sec and 26 sec respectively, then find
total Sweatshirts sold by store is 10: 9. The ratio of
the time taken by train A to cross train B, when
total Adidas to Nike Sweaters sold by store is 7: 5
both trains are running in opposite direction if
and 60% of total Jackets sold by store are Adidas
ratio of speed of train A to train B is 5 : 4?
brand. There are 40 Nike Sweatshirts sold by store
(a) 18 sec
& store sold 170 Nike brand items.
(b) 20 sec
(c) 24 sec
Q51. Find difference between total Adidas and
(d) 12 sec
Nike items sold by store?
(e) 16 sec
(a) 160
(b) 120
Q49. A shopkeeper marked up of article A at 60%
(c) 180
above its cost price and sold it at the discount of
(d) 260
25%. Profit made by shopkeeper on article A is
(e) 140
Rs.475. If the cost price of article B is 40% more

Q52. Total Adidas Sweaters sold by store are what Q57. 162, 125, 94, 65, ?, 23
percent less than total Nike Jackets sold by store? (a) 42
(a) 8% (b) 38
(b) 12.5% (c) 40
(c) 12% (d) 41
(d) 10%
(e) 43
(e) 17.5%
Q58. 2, 15, 64, 195, ?, 393

Q53. Find average number of Adidas brand of
items sold by store. (a) 381
(a) 120 (b) 387
(b) 90 (c) 392
(c) 110 (d) 389
(d) 80 (e) 385
(e) 130
Q59. 322, ?, 82, 42, 22, 12
Q54. Find ratio of total Adidas brand of (a) 172
Sweatshirts sold by store to total Nike brand of all
(b) 165
three items sold by store?
(c) 164
(a) 17 : 14
(d) 158
(b) 12 : 17
(c) 7 : 17 (e) 162
(d) 13 : 17
(e) 14 : 17 Q60. 8, 5, 6, 13, 53, ?
(a) 427
Q55. Total Adidas brand of Sweatshirts are what (b) 425
percent more than total Nike brand Sweaters sold (c) 421
by store? (d) 423
(a) 160% (e) 429
(b) 180%
(c) 200%
Q61. P and Q started a business and investment of
(d) 140%
Q is 25% more than that of P. After six months P
(e) 120% 1
doubled his investment and Q withdrew 3 rd of his
Direction (56–60): What will come in the place of investment. If at the end of a year total profit
question mark (?) in following series? obtained by them is Rs. 12200, then find the profit
share of P?
Q56. 33, 36, 44, 59, ?, 118 (a) 7200 Rs.
(a) 85
(b) 5000 Rs.
(b) 83
(c) 7800 Rs.
(c) 81
(d) 5600 Rs.
(d) 87
(e) 91 (e) 8400 Rs.

Q62. A man invested Rs. P in scheme X at the rate Direction (66-70): Study the following
of 20% p.a. on compound annually for two years. information and answer the questions below:
Man invested total amount received from scheme
X in another scheme Y at the rate of 5% p.a. on Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, G, H and K sit in a linear
simple interest for 2 years. Find interest received row and face north (but not necessarily in the
from scheme Y is what percent of interest received same order). All the persons work in a company on
from scheme X? different designations viz. MD, CMD, CEO, Senior
(a) 40.72% executive, Executive, Manager, Associate Manager
(b) 36.72% and HR.
(c) 39.72% Two persons sit between B and the one who is
(d) 16.36% CEO. G who is HR sits third to the right of CEO. K is
(e) 32.72%
one of the immediate neighbours of HR. The one
Q63. Four years ago, age of A is six years more who is Executive sits exactly between K and the
than half of the age of B at that time. If eight years one who is CEO. D sits third to the left of the one
hence average age of A & B will be 42 years, then who is Executive. D sits adjacent to A who is not
find ratio of age of A to that of B two years hence CEO. Same number of persons sit to the left of A
will be? and right of the one who is Manager. C and the one
(a) 5 : 6 who is Senior executive are immediate neighbours.
(b) 7 : 12 Three persons sit between H and the one who is
(c) 5 : 7 MD. D is not Associate Manager.
(d) 7 : 9
(e) 3 : 4 Q66. Who among the following is Associate
Manager?
Q64. In a vessel, milk and water are in the ratio of (a) B
5 : 2 respectively. If 42 liter of mixture is taken out (b) E
from the vessel and 32 liter of water is added, then (c) K
new ratio of milk and water becomes 7 : 6. Find (d) H
initial quantity of mixture in vessel? (e) None of these
(a) 84 liters
(b) 98 liters Q67. Who among the following sits to the
(c) 126 liters immediate right of G?
(d) 154 liters (a) A
(e) 140 liters (b) D
(c) E
Q65. The ratio of the radius of two circles X & Y is
(d) K
3 : 4 respectively and the sum of circumference of
(e) None of these
circle X and diameter of circle Y is 188 cm. If the
ratio of side of a square to the sum of the radius of
Q68. How many persons sit between the one who
circle X & Y is 8 : 7, then find the perimeter of the
is CMD and K?
square?
(a) Three
(a) 200 cm
(b) Four
(b) 208 cm
(c) Five
(c) 216 cm
(d) Two
(d) 224 cm
(e) 232 cm (e) None of these

(c) ct bj
Q69. D works on which among the following (d) st ht
designation? (e) None of these
(a) Manager
(b) CEO Q73. The code ‘bj’ stands for which among the
(c) MD following words?
(d) CMD (a) Score
(e) None of these (b) Rank
(c) Result
Q70. What is the position of A with respect to the (d) Advantage
one who is CEO? (e) Can’t be determined
(a) Second to the left
(b) Immediate left
Q74. Which among the following words are coded
(c) Immediate right
as ‘ct rt nt’ in the given code language?
(d) Third to the right
(a) Practice Attempt Result
(e) None of these
(b) Attempt Result Advantage
(c) Exam Analysis Score
Direction (71-75): Study the given information
(d) Rank Score Attempt
carefully to answer the questions below:
(e) None of these
In a certain code language
‘Entrance Score Attempt’ is coded as ‘gt dt ct’
Q75. What is the code for ‘Analysis’ according to
‘Score Result Rank’ is coded as ‘dt bj rt’
‘Attempt Rank Advantage’ is coded as ‘ct bj nt’ the given code language?
‘Practice Exam Attempt’ is coded as ‘bt ht ct’ (a) rt

‘Exam Analysis Score’ is coded as ‘dt st ht’ (b) ht
(c) nt
Q71. Which among the following is the code for (d) st
‘Exam’? (e) None of these
(a) ht
(b) bt Direction (76-78): Study the following
(c) ct information and answer the questions below:
(d) st
(e) None of these Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and V sit around a circular
table but not necessarily in the same order. Three
Q72. What will be the code for ‘Attempt Analysis’ of them face inside while rest three faces outside
in the given code language? the centre. They are of different ages (in years) viz.
(a) ct st 15, 16, 18, 21, 25 and 27 but not in the same order
(b) gt st as given.
V and R sits immediate left to each other. R’s age is Q80. How many symbols are there in the given
perfect square number. Difference between the series which are immediately followed by a
age of R and S is 2 years. S sits third to the right of number and immediately preceded by a
R. P and T are immediate neighbours. The ages of consonant?
both P and T are an even number. The age of Q is a (a) One
multiple of five and sits second to the left to P. The
(b) None
persons whose age are a perfect square are
(c) Two
immediate neighbours. T and Q faces each other.
(d) Three
Q76. Who among the following sits second to the (e) More than three
right of T?
(a) The one who sits immediate right of V Q81. In the word ‘OPERATION’, if all the
(b) The one who sits second to the right of Q consonants are replaced with their previous letter
(c) The one whose age is 27 years and all the vowels are replaced with their next
(d) V letter according to alphabetical series, then how
(e) None of these many vowels are there in the new word formed
after the rearrangement?
Q77. What is the age of R?
(a) One
(a) 16 years
(b) 15 years (b) Two
(c) 27 years (c) Four
(d) 25 years (d) Three
(e) None of these (e) None of these
Q78. Who among the following is 21 years old? Direction (82-84): In each of the questions below
(a) The one who faces R are given some statements followed by some
(b) S conclusions. You have to take the given statements
(c) The one who sits immediate left of R to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
(d) Either (b) or (c) commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions
(e) None of these and then decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given statements
Direction (79-80): Study the given series
disregarding commonly known facts.
carefully and answer the questions below:
IE*6B54#5UI6LSH72IY89@G$46A Q82. Statements: Some rocks are marble. All

R72 marble are stone. No stone is sand.
Conclusion: I. Some rocks are not sand.
Q79. Which among the following element is 18 th II. Some marble is sand.
from right end of the given series? (a) If only conclusion I follows.
(a) 6 (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(b) L (c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(c) S (d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(d) I
(e) If both conclusion I and II follows.
(e) None of these
Q83. Statements: No animal is bird. Only a few Q85. Who among the following sits 3rd to the left
bird is rabbit. Some rabbit is owl. of S?
Conclusion: I. Some bird is not rabbit. (a) The one who likes Violet
II. No owl is animal. (b) T
(a) If both conclusion I and II follows. (c) The one who sits immediate left of U
(b) If Neither conclusion I nor II follows. (d) U
(c) If Only conclusion II follows. (e) Both (a) and (d)
Q86. Which of the following pair is correct?
(d) If Either conclusion I or II follows.
(a) P-White
(e) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) Q-Violet
(c) S-White
Q84. Statements: Only red is yellow. Only a few
(d) T-Blue
white is red.
(e) U-Green
Conclusion: I. No yellow is white.
II. Some white is not yellow. Directions (87-91): Study the information
III. All red can be white. carefully and answer the questions given below.
(a) None follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows Ten Persons L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T and U were
(c) Both conclusion I and II follow born (but not necessarily in the same order) on
(d) All follows either 9th or 30th of five different months- January,
(e) None of these May, August, October and December.
Three persons were born between M and Q and
they born on same date. Two persons were born
Directions (85-86): Study the information
between M and R, who was born in either May or
carefully and answer the questions given below.
December. The number of persons were born
between R and Q is same as the number of persons
Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U sit around a
were born between N and T. T was born in
triangular table. Three persons sit at each corner
October. S was born just after L, who was born
of table and rest sit at middle of each side of table. after R. P was born just before the month when O
All of them face inside and like different colours – was born. U was born before T. M was born after R.
Blue, Black, White, Violet, Red and Green. All the L and S were not born in the same month. U is not
information is not necessarily in the same order. T the eldest person.
sits 2nd to the left of the one who likes White, who
sits opposite to U. R likes red. R is not an Q87. How many persons were born between S and
immediate neighbour of T and the one who likes U?
(a) Three
white. Q sits 2nd to the left of P, who sits at one of
(b) More than five
the corners of the table. The one who likes Violet
(c) Two
sits immediate left of the one who likes Black but
(d) Four
not sit opposite to P. Q does not like Blue.
(e) None

Q88. Who among the following was born on 30 th Directions (93-97): Study the information
August? carefully and answer the questions given below.
(a) S
(b) P Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F live in a three-storey
(c) Q building such that ground floor is numbered as 1,
(d) M above it is floor 2 then topmost floor is numbered
(e) L as 3. Each of the floor has 2 flats in it as flat-1 and
flat-2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-1
Q89. The number of persons were born between N of floor-1 and immediately below flat-1 of floor-3
and S is same as the number of persons born after and so on. In the same way flat-2 of floor-2 is
___? immediately above flat-2 of floor-1 and
(a) P immediately below flat-2 of floor-3 and so on. Flat-
(b) L 1 is in west of flat-2. Each of them likes different
(c) S fruits.
(d) O One floor gap between C and the one who likes
Grapes in the same flat number. A lives on an even
(e) None of these
number floor in the north west of C. The one who
likes apricot lives below A. The one who likes
Q90. Four of the following five are alike in a
banana lives above C and in the south-east of D,
certain way and so form a group. Find the one who
who does not like Apple. F likes Apricot. D and A
does not belong to that group?
not like orange. E lives below B. One of the persons
(a) N
like coconut.
(b) L
(c) R
Q93. Who among the following likes Orange?
(d) O
(a) B
(e) P (b) E
(c) C
Q91. Who among the following was not born
(d) Either (a) or (c)
before October?
(e) None of these
(a) U
(b) S
Q94. Which of the following statement is true?
(c) R
(a) A lives below F
(d) N (b) D likes Grapes
(e) O (c) E lives on an even number floor
Q92. If 1 is added from each even digit and 2 is (d) No one lives below B
subtracted to each odd digit in the number (e) A and E lives on different floor
45925639258, then how many digits will appear
more than twice in the new number thus formed? Q95. Who among the following lives in flat 2 on 3 rd
floor?
(a) Only 7
(a) D
(b) Both 3 and 7
(b) B
(c) 1, 3 and 7
(c) E
(d) 1, 3 and 9
(d) F
(e) None of these
(e) C
Q96. Who among the following lives in the north- Directions (98-100): In these questions, a
east of the one who likes Apricot? relationship between different elements is shown
(a) C in the statements. The statements are followed by
two conclusions. Given answer
(b) D
(a) if only conclusion I is true.
(c) E
(b) if only conclusion II is true.
(d) B (c) if either conclusion I or II is true.
(e) Both (c) and (d) (d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) if both conclusions I and II are true.
Q97. Who among the following lives just above the
flat of A? Q98. Statement: X ≤ V ≤ Z < F > A; Z > Q
(a) F Conclusion: I. Q > V II. V ≥ Q
(b) D
Q99. Statement: I < B > C ≥ E ≥ D; C = O > T
(c) E
Conclusion: I. B > T II. C ≥ D
(d) C
(e) B Q100. Statement: T > R < O > F > L < E
Conclusion: I. O > L II. R > E

SBI PO Prelims Previous Year Paper 2021 - Solutions
S1. Ans.(b) correct based on the information provided in the
Sol. On referring to the last line of the second given passage. Thus, none of the given statements
paragraph, we can infer that curiosity stimulates is incorrect. Hence, option (e) is the right answer
people to explore different things in both their choice.
inner experience and the world around them.
Thus, the author refers to curiosity as the engine of S6. Ans.(b)
innovation. Hence, option (b) is the right answer Sol. Among the given words, ‘dwindling’ which
choice. means ‘diminishing gradually in size, amount, or
strength’ is the most appropriate antonym of the
S2. Ans.(c) highlighted word. Hence, option (b) is the right
Sol. On referring to the starting line of the second answer choice. The word ‘PROGRESSIVE’ means
paragraph, we can infer that the author happening or developing gradually or in stages.
encourages us to be grateful for all those who are (a) Exasperate means irritating and frustrating
keen to know because some of their research and (someone) intensely.
discoveries have helped us all. Hence, option (c) is (c) Augmenting means make (something) greater
the right answer choice. by adding to it; increase.
(d) Cumulative means increasing or increasing in
S3. Ans.(e) quantity, degree, or force by successive additions.
Sol. On reading the italicized quotation
thoroughly, we can infer that only (a) and (c) are S7. Ans.(b)
correct with reference to the context of the given Sol. The concerned sentence states that in any
question. While statement (b) is incorrect as business setting, it is critical that individuals
curiosity doesn’t come to an end when its inherent continue to seek out innovative methods of doing
purpose for being is accomplished. Hence, option things in order to stay ahead of the competition.
(e) is the right answer choice. Thus, we can infer that ‘exploring’ is the most
appropriate option to replace the word ‘satisfying’.
S4. Ans.(d) Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice.
Sol. On referring to the starting line of the fourth Satisfying means giving fulfillment or the pleasure
paragraph, we can infer that a curious person's life associated with this. While exploring means
never gets monotonous because they always have inquiring into or discussing (a subject) in detail.
something fresh to learn and explore. Hence, (a) Pleasing means satisfying or appealing.
option (d) is the right answer choice. (c) Impeding means delaying or preventing
(someone or something) by obstructing them;
S5. Ans.(e) hindering.
Sol. On reading the given thoroughly, we can (d) Mitigating means lessening the gravity of an
conclude that all of the given statements are offence or mistake.

S8. Ans.(b) S11. Ans.(e)
Sol. The words that appropriately fit into the Sol. The words that appropriately fit into the
blanks to give the sentence a logical sense are: blanks to give the sentence a logical sense are:
global, impact. decline, dismiss.
World-wide: extending or reaching throughout the Efflux: the flowing out of a substance or particle.
Elevated: to move somebody/something to a
world.
higher place or more important position
Global: affecting the whole world
Decline: to become weaker, smaller or less good
Outcome: the result or effect of an action or an Promote: to encourage something; to help
event something to happen or develop
Impact: an effect or impression Influx: large numbers of people or things arriving
Ongoing: continuing to exist now suddenly
Fire: to remove an employee from a job
S9. Ans.(a) Surge: a sudden strong swelling
Sol. The words that appropriately fit into the Dismiss: to order an employee to leave his/her job
blanks to give the sentence a logical sense are: Decline: to become weaker, smaller or less good
assured, loyalty.
Assured: believing that you can do something or S12. Ans.(a)
succeed at something; confident Sol. The words that appropriately fit into the
blanks to give the sentence a logical sense are:
Loyalty: faithfulness to commitment, obligation
shortage and embargo.
Exempted: to say officially that somebody does not Shortage: a situation where there is not enough of
have to do something or pay for something something
Allegiance: support for a leader, government, Embargo: an official order to stop doing business
belief, etc. with another country
Treason: the criminal act of causing harm to your Deterrent: something that should stop you doing
country something
Confirmed: fixed in a particular habit or way of life Sanction: an official order that limits business,
contact, etc.
S10. Ans.(b) Abundance: a very large quantity of something
Sol. The words that appropriately fit into the Deficiency: the state of not having enough of
blanks to give the sentence a logical sense are: something; a lack
Permit: to allow somebody to do something or to
comparison, showed.
allow something to happen.
Mismatch: a combination of things or people that
do not go well together S13. Ans.(b)
Comparison: an act of comparing Sol. The correct rearrangement for this sentence
Reveal: to make something known that was secret is: BCDA. Thus, the correct sentence will be:
or unknown before “There is reason for optimism in India’s battle
Showed: to let somebody see somebody/ against the COVID-19 pandemic as daily new
something coronavirus cases have dipped to a nine-month
Data: facts or information low.”
Suggest: to mention a plan or an idea that you have
for somebody to discuss or consider S14. Ans.(d)
Feature: an important or noticeable part of Sol. The correct rearrangement for this sentence
is: CABD. Thus, the correct sentence will be:
something
“Although she has an opinion on the matter,
Contrast: comparison between two people or
Brenda won’t interfere in the company’s internal
things that shows the differences between them issues without being asked”
S15. Ans.(e) S22. Ans.(e)
Sol. The sentence is meaningful and coherent, Sol. The correct choice is option (e). None of the
thus, required no change. given sentence is error free. In sentence (A),
‘increasing’ should be ‘increasingly’ as we need
S16. Ans.(c) adverb here. In sentence (B), ‘was’ should be
Sol. The correct rearrangement for this sentence ‘were’. In sentence (C), ‘city’ should be ‘cities’ as
is: DCBEA. Thus, the correct sentence will be:” The we need plural noun here.
abolition of smoking in restaurants is a blessing to
people like myself who suffer from allergies and S23. Ans.(e)
Sol. The passage given above discusses the
asthma.”
importance of ancient animals in human lives in
earlier times. Here, apart from statement (E), none
S17. Ans.(c)
of the given statements is independent and will
Sol. The correct rearrangement for this sentence
therefore be the first statement in the logical
is: DAECB. Thus, the correct sentence will be:”
sequence that begins the paragraph. Further,
Because we had more than we needed, we decided statement (A) will follow statement (E) which
to sacrifice our Christmas gifts by offering them to further continues the sentence describing more
the less fortunate.” about earlier animal-human relations. Statement
(D) supports statement (A) which describes the
S18. Ans.(d) importance of animals in spirituality. Further,
Sol. The correct choice is option (d). All sentences statement (C) will be the appropriate statement to
are incorrect except sentence (C). In sentence (A), follow (D) which states the features of animals.
‘prefer than’ should be ‘prefer to’. In sentence (B), Statement (B) will conclude the given passage as it
‘emphasis in’ should be ‘emphasis on’. ends with describing the different cultures using
the same animal to relate them with similar
S19. Ans.(a) powers. Therefore, the correct sequence is EADCB.
Sol. The correct choice is option (a). All sentences
are incorrect except sentence (A). In sentence (B), S24. Ans.(e)
‘its’ should be replaced with ‘their’. In sentence (C), Sol. The passage given above discusses the
‘despite of’ should be ‘despite’ as despite is never importance of ancient animals in human lives in
followed by ‘of’. earlier times. Here, apart from statement (E), none
S20. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct choice is option (d). All sentences
statement (A) will follow statement (E) which
are incorrect except sentence (B). In sentence (A),
further continues the sentence describing more
‘have’ should be replaced ‘has’ and in sentence (C),
about earlier animal-human relations. Statement
‘Much’ should be replaced ‘many’ as we use ‘much’
(D) supports statement (A) which describes the
if the noun is non-countable and use ‘many’ if the importance of animals in spirituality. Further,
noun is countable statement (C) will be the appropriate statement to
follow (D) which states the features of animals.
S21. Ans.(b) Statement (B) will conclude the given passage as it
Sol. The correct choice is option (b). Only sentence ends with describing the different cultures using
(B) has an error where ‘Canada’ should be the same animal to relate them with similar
replaced with ‘Canadian’. powers. Therefore, the correct sequence is EADCB.
S25. Ans.(c) S27. Ans.(c)
Sol. The passage given above discusses the Sol. The passage given above discusses the
importance of ancient animals in human lives in importance of ancient animals in human lives in
earlier times. Here, apart from statement (E), none earlier times. Here, apart from statement (E), none
further continues the sentence describing more
about earlier animal-human relations. Statement further continues the sentence describing more
(D) supports statement (A) which describes the about earlier animal-human relations. Statement
importance of animals in spirituality. Further, (D) supports statement (A) which describes the
statement (C) will be the appropriate statement to importance of animals in spirituality. Further,
follow (D) which states the features of animals. statement (C) will be the appropriate statement to
Statement (B) will conclude the given passage as it follow (D) which states the features of animals.
ends with describing the different cultures using Statement (B) will conclude the given passage as it
the same animal to relate them with similar ends with describing the different cultures using
powers. Therefore, the correct sequence is EADCB.
the same animal to relate them with similar
S26. Ans.(e)
Sol. The passage given above discusses the
S28. Ans.(d)
importance of ancient animals in human lives in
earlier times. Here, apart from statement (E), none Sol. “Take off” means “to leave or start flying”.
of the given statements is independent and will Thus, the only sentences that correctly represent
therefore be the first statement in the logical the meaning are: (A) and (B).
statement (A) will follow statement (E) which S29. Ans.(a)
further continues the sentence describing more Sol. “up in the arm” means “protesting angrily
about earlier animal-human relations. Statement about something”. Thus, the only sentence that
(D) supports statement (A) which describes the correctly represent the meaning is option (A).
importance of animals in spirituality. Further,
statement (C) will be the appropriate statement to
S30. Ans.(c)
follow (D) which states the features of animals.
Sol. “On cloud nine” means “extremely happy”.
Statement (B) will conclude the given passage as it
Thus, the only sentence that correctly represent
ends with describing the different cultures using
the same animal to relate them with similar the meaning is option (C).

S31. Ans.(c) Required percentage =
700−420
× 100
420
Sol. Total ovens sold by C & D = 1200 – (240 + 280 2
= 420 × 100 = 66 3 %
45 56
1200 × 100) + 1500 – (300 + 1500 × 100 )
= 420 + 360 = 780 S36. Ans.(b)
Total number of refrigerators sold by A & D Sol.
32 56 I. 𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 8 = 0
= 500 × 100 + 1500 × 100 = 160 + 840 = 1000
𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 − 2𝑥 + 8 = 0
1000−780
Required percentage = × 100 = 22% 𝑥(𝑥 − 4) − 2(𝑥 − 4) = 0
1000
(𝑥 − 2) (𝑥 − 4) = 0
S32. Ans.(e) 𝑥 = 2, 4
Sol. Total number of ovens sold by B & D II. 𝑦 2 + 8𝑦 + 15 = 0
48 𝑦 2 + 5𝑦 + 3𝑦 + 15 = 0
= 800 – (96 + 800 × 100) + 1500 – (300 + 𝑦(𝑦 + 5) + 3(𝑦 + 5) = 0
56
1500 × 100) (𝑦 + 3) (𝑦 + 5) = 0
𝑦 = − 3, − 5
= 320 + 360 = 680
𝑖. 𝑒. 𝑥 > 𝑦
Total number of refrigerators sold by C
45
= 1200 × 100 = 540 S37. Ans.(c)
Required difference = 540 –
680
= 200 Sol.
2
I. 𝑥² – 12𝑥 + 32 = 0
𝑥² − 8𝑥 – 4𝑥 + 32 = 0
S33. Ans.(e)
𝑥 (𝑥 − 8) – 4 (𝑥 − 8) = 0
Sol. Total refrigerators sold by store X
56 125
(𝑥 − 4) (𝑥 – 8) = 0
= 1500 × 100 × 100 = 1050 𝑥 = 4, 8
Total ovens sold by store X II. 𝑦² – 17𝑦 + 72 = 0
32 11 𝑦² – 9𝑦 − 8𝑦 + 72 = 0
= [500 − (100 + 500 × 100)] × = 330
8
𝑦 (𝑦 – 9) − 8 (𝑦 – 9) = 0
Required sum = 330 + 1050 = 1380
(𝑦 – 9) (𝑦 − 8) = 0
𝑦 = 9, 8
S34. Ans.(b)
𝑠𝑜, 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦
Sol. Total AC’s sold by C & D together
= 240 + 300 = 540 S38. Ans.(e)
Total AC’s & refrigerators sold by B Sol.
48
= 800 × 100 + 96 = 480 I. 𝑥² − 12𝑥 + 35 = 0
Required ratio = 540 : 480 = 9 : 8 𝑥² − 5𝑥 – 7𝑥 + 35 = 0
𝑥 (𝑥 − 5) – 7 (𝑥 − 5) = 0
S35. Ans.(d) (𝑥 − 7) (𝑥 – 5) = 0
Sol. Total refrigerators sold by A & C 𝑥 = 7, 5
32 45 II. 𝑦² − 11𝑦 + 24 = 0
= 500 × 100 + 1200 × 100
𝑦² – 3𝑦 − 8𝑦 + 24 = 0
= 160 + 540 = 700 𝑦 (𝑦 – 3) − 8 (𝑦 – 3) = 0
Total ovens sold by C (𝑦 – 8) (𝑦 − 3) = 0
45
= 1200 – (240 + 1200 × 100) = 420 𝑦 = 8, 3
So, no relation can be established between x and y
S39. Ans.(d) = 84 + 100 = 184
Sol. Total number of graduate students in B=120
I. 8𝑥² + 10𝑥 − 7 = 0 184
Required ratio = 120 = 23 : 15
8𝑥² − 4𝑥 + 14𝑥 − 7 = 0
4𝑥 (2𝑥 − 1) + 7 (2𝑥 − 1) = 0
S43. Ans.(a)
(2𝑥 − 1) (4𝑥 + 7) = 0
1 −7 Sol. Total number of graduates students in collage
𝑥 = ,
2 4 C & collage E = 140 + 70 = 210
II. 𝑦² − 6𝑦 + 8 = 0 Total graduate students and postgraduate
𝑦 2 − 4𝑦 − 2𝑦 + 8 = 0
students in collage D = 40 + 50 = 90
𝑦 (𝑦 − 4) − 2 (𝑦 − 4) = 0 210 1
Required % = × 100 = 233 3 %
(𝑦 − 4) (𝑦 – 2) = 0 90
𝑦 = 4, 2
𝑠𝑜, 𝑥 < 𝑦 S44. Ans.(d)
Sol. Total graduate students in collage X
S40. Ans.(a) = 90 + 70 = 160
Sol. Number of girls in graduate students in collage X
I. 𝑥² + 7𝑥 + 12 = 0 7
= 160 × 10 = 112
𝑥² + 4𝑥 + 3𝑥 + 12 = 0
Number of girls in graduate students in collage B
𝑥 (𝑥 + 4) + 3 (𝑥 + 4) = 0 9
(𝑥 + 3) (𝑥 + 4) = 0 = 120 × 20 = 54
𝑥 = −3, −4 So, required sum = 112 + 54 = 166
II. 𝑦² + 15𝑦 + 44 = 0
𝑦 2 + 4𝑦 + 11𝑦 + 44 = 0 S45. Ans.(c)
𝑦 (𝑦 + 4) + 11 (𝑦 + 4) = 0 Sol. Average number of students postgraduate
(𝑦 + 4) (𝑦 + 11) = 0 students in collage B, C & D =
1
× (150 + 160 +
3
𝑦 = −11, −4
50) = 120
𝑠𝑜, 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦
Graduate students in collage A & E = 80 + 70 = 150
Required difference = 150 – 120 = 30
S41. Ans.(d)
Sol. Total number of students (graduate +
postgraduate) in collage A = 80 + 120 = 200 S46. Ans.(a)
Total postgraduate students in collage B & collage Sol.
E = 150 + 100 = 250 Let the monthly income of man be Rs.100x.
250−200
Required percentage = × 100 = 20% Amount spent on house rent = 100𝑥 × 100 = 20𝑥
20
250
20
Amount spent on Food = 100 × (100𝑥 − 20𝑥) =
S42. Ans.(b)
Sol. Total number of boys in graduate students 16𝑥
and postgraduate students in collage C = Remaining amount = 100𝑥 − 20𝑥 − 16𝑥 = 64𝑥
7
3 5
(140 × 5) + (160 × 8) Amount spent on clothing = 64𝑥 × 16 = 28𝑥

ATQ, S50. Ans.(e)
28𝑥 − 16𝑥 = 1080 Sol. Let the efficiency of a man and a woman be ‘x’
𝑥 = 90 units/day and ‘y’ units/day respectively.
So, income of man for nine months= 90 × 100 × ATQ,
(16𝑥+14𝑦)×30 (20𝑥+14𝑦)×20
9 = 𝑅𝑠. 81000 = 80
1
100
96𝑥 + 84𝑦 = 100𝑥 + 70𝑦
S47. Ans.(c) 𝑥 7
=2
Sol. Let the speed of stream be ′5𝑥’ km/h 𝑦
And speed of boat in still water = 5𝑥 × 5 = 8𝑥

8 Total work = (16 × 7 + 14 × 2) × 30 = 4200 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
2×4200
Required days = = 100 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
km/hr 42×2
ATQ,
𝐷 𝐷 Solutions. (51 – 55): Let total number of items
+ = 32 sold by store = 100x
5𝑥 + 8𝑥 8𝑥 − 5𝑥 40
16𝐷
= 32 Total Jackets sold by store = 100x × 100 = 40𝑥
39𝑥 9
𝐷 = 78𝑥 Total Sweatshirts sold by store = 40x × 10 = 36𝑥
So, Required time =
2× 78𝑥
= 19.5 hours Total Sweaters sold by store = 100x – (40x + 36x)
8𝑥
= 24x
5
S48. Ans.(e) Total Nike Sweaters sold by store = 24x × 12 = 10x
200 40
Sol. Speed of train A = = 25 m/sec Total Nike Jackets sold by store = 40x × 100 = 16𝑥
8
4
So, speed of train B = 25 × 5 = 20 m/sec ATQ –
10x + 16x + 40 = 170
ATQ, 26x = 130
𝑙
= 26 x=5
20
l = 520 meters Items Adidas Nike Total
Now the time in which train A crosses train B Jackets 120 80 200
running in opposite direction Sweaters 70 50 120
200+520
= = 16 sec Sweatshirts 140 40 180
(25+20)
Total 330 170 500
S49. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let the cost price of article A = 100a S51. Ans.(a)
Marked price of article A = 100a × 100 = 160a
160
Sol. Required difference = 330 – 170 = 160
Selling price of article, A
(100−25) S52. Ans.(b)
= 160𝑎 × = 120𝑎 80−70
100 Sol. Required percentage = × 100 = 12.5%
80
ATQ –
120𝑎 − 100𝑎 = 475
S53. Ans.(c)
95
a= 330
Sol. Required average = 3 = 110
4
Since, Selling price = cost price + profit
So, selling price of article B S54. Ans.(e)
140 95 140
= 100 × 100 × + 475 = 𝑅𝑠. 3800 Sol. Required ratio = 170 = 14 : 17
4

S55. Ans.(b) S61. Ans.(a)
Sol. Required percentage =
140−50
× 100 = 180% Sol. Let investment of P = 4x Rs.
50 125
So, investment of Q = 4x × 100 = 5𝑥 Rs.
ATQ –
S56. Ans.(b)
Ratio of profit share of P to Q = (4x × 6 +
Sol. Pattern of series – 2
4𝑥 × 2 × 6) : (5x × 6 + 5𝑥 × 3 × 6)
33 + (22 – 1) = 36
= 72x : 50x = 36x : 25x
36 + (32 – 1) = 44 36𝑥
Profit of P = 12200 × (36𝑥+25𝑥) = 7200 Rs.
44 + (42 – 1) = 59
? = 59 + (52 – 1) = 83
S62. Ans.(e)
83 + (62 – 1) = 118
Sol. Equivalent interest received by man from
scheme X at the rate of 20% p.a. for two years = 20
S57. Ans.(a) 20×20
+ 20 + 100 = 44%
Sol. Pattern of series –
So, total interest received by man from scheme X =
Subtraction of consecutive prime number 44
P × 100 = 0.44𝑃
162 – 37 = 125
Total amount received by man from scheme X = P
125 – 31 = 94
+ 0.44P = 1.44P
94 – 29 = 65 Total interest received by man from scheme Y =
? = 65 – 23 = 42 5×2
1.44P × 100 = 0.144P
42 – 19 = 23 0.144𝑃
Required percentage = × 100 = 32.72%
0.44𝑃
S58. Ans.(c)
S63. Ans.(c)
Sol. Pattern of series – Sol. Let four years ago age of B = 2a
2 × 5 + 5 = 15 2𝑎
So, age of A = 2 + 6 = a + 6
15 × 4 + 4 = 64
ATQ –
64 × 3 + 3 = 195 (2a + 12) + (a + 18) = 42 × 2
? = 195 × 2 + 2 = 𝟑𝟗𝟐 3a = 54
392 × 1 + 1 = 393 a = 18 years
Age of A = (18 + 10) = 28 years
S59. Ans.(e) Age of B = 2 × 18 + 4 = 40 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
Required ratio = (28 +2) : (40 + 2) = 5 : 7
Sol. Pattern of series –
322, ?= 162, 82, 42, 22, 12 S64. Ans.(e)
-160 -80 -40 -20 -10 Sol. Let total mixture in vessel be x liters
ATQ,
S60. Ans.(b) 5𝑥 5
7 − 42 × 7 = 7
Sol. Pattern of series – 2𝑥 2 6
8 × 0.5 + 1 = 5 7 − 42 × 7 + 32
5×1+1= 6 5𝑥 − 210 7
=
6 × 2 + 1 = 13 2𝑥 + 140 6
30x – 1260 = 14x + 980
13 × 4 + 1 = 53 16x = 2240
? = 53 × 8 + 1 = 425 x = 140 liters

S65. Ans.(d) Solutions (76-78):
Sol. Let radius of circle X & Y be 3r and 4r
respectively
22
2× × 3𝑟 + 2 × 4𝑟 = 188 cm
7
r = 7 cm
8
Side of square = 7 × (3 × 7 + 4 × 7) = 56 𝑐𝑚
Perimeter of square = 56 × 4 = 224 𝑐𝑚
Solutions (66-70):
S76. Ans.(c)
S77. Ans.(d)
S78. Ans.(c)
Solutions (79-80):
S79. Ans.(b)
S66. Ans.(b) S80. Ans.(a)
S67. Ans.(c) S81. Ans.(a)
S68. Ans.(a)
S69. Ans.(d) Solutions (82-84):
S70. Ans.(b)
S82. Ans.(a)
Solutions (71-75): Sol.
Words Codes
Entrance gt
Exam ht
Analysis st
Score dt S83. Ans.(e)
Attempt ct Sol.
Practice bt
Result rt
Rank bj
Advantage nt S84. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S71. Ans.(a)
S72. Ans.(a)
S73. Ans.(b)
S74. Ans.(b)
S75. Ans.(d)

Directions (85-86): S87. Ans.(c)
S88. Ans.(d)
S89. Ans.(a)
S90. Ans.(b)
S91. Ans.(e)
S92. Ans.(b)
Sol. Original number= 45925639258
New number= 53733717339
Directions (93-97):
Floor Flat-1 Flat-2

S85. Ans.(e)
S86. Ans.(c) 3 D-Coconut B-Grapes
2 A-Apple E-Banana
Directions (87-91): 1 F-Apricot C-Orange
Month Date Persons

S93. Ans.(c)
9 N
January S94. Ans.(c)
30 U
S95. Ans.(b)
9 R
May S96. Ans.(e)
30 L
S97. Ans.(b)
9 S
August
30 M Solutions (98-100):
9 P
October
30 T S98. Ans.(c)
9 O S99. Ans.(e)
December
30 Q S100. Ans.(a)

Decoding SBI PO Prelims 2023 - 1380

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Decoding SBI PO Prelims 2023 - 1380

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SBI PO Vacancy Trend

Year No. of Vacancies

SBI PO Prelims Cut Off Trend

SBI PO Education Qualification

SBI PO Age Limit

SBI PO Application Fees

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• Total number of questions: 100

SBI PO Prelims Syllabus

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SBI PO Prelims Exam Analysis Trend

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Trend of Quantitative Aptitude

Trend of Reasoning Ability

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Q25. (a) endured

Q26. (a) propitious

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Q28. (a) fortified

Q29. (a) undermine

Q30. (a) improve

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Q37. ? % of 750.03 + (14.99)2 = (8.03)2 +356.01

Q38. ? + 125.03 % of 239.99 – (5.99)3 = (11.93)2

Q40. (189.97 × 48.03) ÷ (1368.02 ÷ 440.98) + 86.99 % of 500.01 = ?3

Q41. I: 2x² + 10x + 12 = 0

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Q44. I. 5x² + 11x + 2 = 0

Q45. I. x 2 + 21x + 108 = 0

Note: (i) Adult = Male + female

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Q67. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true?

Q70. A belongs to which among the following countries?

Q71. How is X related to Y?

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Q73. Who among the following person is the mother of A?

Q74. What is the age of A?

Q75. What is the sum of the ages of D, B and F?

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Q78. What is the difference between the age of A and G?

Q79. Find the odd one out?

Q80. Statement: A<G<R>J≤Q=Z≤O; P>T=I≤J≥M

Q81. Statement: B≥D=C≤A≥Y; N≥E>M=C>L≤P

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Q84. Who among the following has maximum number of pens?

Q85. What is the designation of A?

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Q88. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true?

In a certain code language;

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Q91. What will be the code for “quiet peace”?