Professional Documents
Culture Documents
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These 50 questions should be answered in an hour in the real exam, so make sure you time
yourself accurately.
Record your answer for each question by circling your selected answer.
When you have finished the test, you may check your answers against the Answer Sheet
at the back of this paper.
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35-45 Pass
0-34 Fail
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For those questions you answered incorrectly, the answer sheet will show you the
corresponding syllabus element, sub element and learning objective against which the
questions were written, so you can identify any syllabus areas where you may need to
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revise further.
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1 Which of the following is a key task that employees have regarding their firm`s risk management
processes?
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2 What mechanism is considered to be an internal corporate governance control?
4 The settlement cycle for trades at the Central Depository and Settlement Corporation is:
A T+0
B T+1
C T+2
D T+3
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5 Which of the following is a characteristic of exchange-traded funds?
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6 According to the Capital Markets Authority`s disclosure of fees rules, how are intermediaries allowed
to charge fees?
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7 Under the foreign investor rules, how often must a listed company provide reports of its share
ownership to the Capital Markets Authority and the exchange?
A Weekly
B Monthly
C Quarterly
D Annually
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8 The purpose of the client asset rules is to:
9 What would be the situation if a board of directors had drawn up a code of conduct that was not
consistent with the model code?
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10 Which of the following types of collective investment scheme should only be offered to professional
investors?
A An investment trust
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B A development real estate investment trust
C An exchange-traded fund
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D A mutual fund
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11 How long should the offer period be according to rules set out under the listing process?
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A 1 week
B 14 days
C 30 days
D 1 month
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13 What is the prime responsibility of the Capital Markets Authority?
B
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Developing all aspects of the capital markets
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14 What is the standard time frame for resolving customer complaints in line with the complaint handling
rules?
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15 Depositing banknotes obtained from a robbery directly into a savings account is normally known as
which stage in the money laundering process?
A Integration
B Front running
C Placement
D Layering
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16 In order to gain Capital Markets Authority approval, a central securities depository must demonstrate
that it:
17 Which of the following types of business is required to hold a licence from the Capital Markets
Authority as opposed to requiring approval?
B Securities exchanges
C Investment banks
D Microfinance institutions
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18 What is the maximum period a good till day order will remain on the order book before it is
automatically deleted?
A 1 day
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B 5 days
C 14 days
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D 30 days
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19 During discussions with a new client, a market intermediary asked about the need for emergency
funds.
One of the main reasons why this is needed is because it will help to determine:
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20 The obligation for market intermediaries to disclose to clients any limitations on its capacity only
applies in cases where:
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A the intermediary is not subject to the East African Community Directives
A 9am to 3pm
B 9.30am to 3pm
C 9.30am to 3.30pm
D 9am to 3.30pm
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22 At what MINIMUM frequency are market intermediaries obliged to review their anti-money laundering
policies and procedures?
A Six months PA
B Twelve months
C Two years
D Five years
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23 Front running is deemed to be an unacceptable trading practice because it would result in:
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B clients making investments that are suitable for the firm rather than themselves
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C a false market
24 Which of the following pieces of information obtained from a client would normally be classed as a
subjective factor when used to determine risk attitude?
C He is likely to inherit significant assets from his father who is currently in very poor health
D He had a bad investment experience recently which has significantly affected his decision-
making
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25 If there is a change in key personnel at a licensed firm, its list of key personnel must be updated
within what MAXIMUM time frame? PA
A Immediately
B Five days
C Ten days
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D One month
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26 Which of the following must be reported by a firm to the Capital Markets Authority within 24 hours?
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27 The Capital Markets Authority Internal Control Standards have been designed to allow firms to:
A take the standards and amend them to fit their own internal standards
B
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see precisely which departments should be segregated and separated
C design and implement systems that will enable it to comply with the regulatory system
D organise the reporting structures and hierarchy of their firms to fit with the standards
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28 What must a firm do if it is unable to disclose the fees to be charged in a client agreement?
29 Once the value of an investment adviser`s portfolio exceeds Kshs 10 million, what licence is the
intermediary required to have?
A Fund manager
B Stockbroker
C Dealer
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30 Which of the following duties would be expected to be performed by a firm`s internal auditor?
31 Internal Control Standards for compliance suggest that client complaints should ideally be:
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C investigated by staff who are not directly involved in the subject matter
32 How long should a firm retain transaction records in order to comply with money laundering
requirements?
A One year
B Three years
C Five years
D Seven years
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33 How frequently should an employee share ownership plan be audited?
A Every month PA
B Every quarter
C Every year
D Every 18 months
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34 How often must a participant at the Nairobi Securities Exchange provide evidence of complying with
the capital and financial requirements of the Capital Markets Authority?
A Monthly
B Quarterly
C Semi-annually
D Annually
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35 A participant of the Nairobi Securities Exchange produces market research reports that make stock
recommendations. How should they handle possible conflicts of interest for their clients?
36 In respect of the Capital Markets Authority`s cold calling rules, calls must be made between which of
the following times?
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37 A person needs to make a claim from the Investor Compensation Fund. After the appointment of a
statutory manager, what is the maximum number of days they have to make a claim?
A 30
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B 60
C 90
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D 100
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38 The board of directors of a market intermediary should review its recruitment policy at least every:
A year
B three years
C five years
D ten years
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39 When carrying out a compliance review, the Capital Markets Authority will consider how a firm views
its own whistleblowing arrangements as part of its inspection of:
A corporate culture PA
B supervisory approach
C compliance risks
D business matters
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40 Who is responsible for reporting the performance of the Capital Markets Authority (CMA) to
Parliament each year?
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41 The correct formula for calculating the value of each unit or share in a fund is:
A the net asset value divided by the total number of shares or units in issue
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B the net asset value multiplied by the total number of shares or units in issue
42 If there are nine directors on the board of a market intermediary, what is the maximum number that
can be closely related?
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A One
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B Two
C Three
D Five
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44 The Capital Markets Tribunal was created to hear appeals concerning decisions of the Capital
Markets Authority and which other body?
This means that, in relation to the anti-money laundering procedures, it is likely that:
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46 A market intermediary provided information to a third party about one of its clients despite failing to
obtain consent from the client to do so. PA
What key factor meant that this action complied with the regulations?
47 Which party is responsible for submitting an annual report to the Capital Markets Authority in relation
to investment administration where discretionary management of funds takes place?
A Compliance
B Internal audit
C Custodian
D External audit
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48 A market intermediary conducting business with the public must:
D maintain objectivity
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49 If a market intermediary has notified a client that a particular investment would be unsuitable but the
client wishes to continue with the investment, then the firm:
D can opt for the Capital Markets Authority`s adjudication process to independently determine
suitability
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50 A key difference between omnibus and designated accounts is that only:
D an omnibus account makes the nominee the legal owner of the asset
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ANSWER SHEET
Regulations & Market Practice (Kenya)
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ANSWER SHEET
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ANSWER SHEET
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