1. A nurse is examining the nose of a client
"I should stay in the house when there;s
diagnosed with an upper respiratory tract
infection. Which characteristics of the nasal
mucosa should the nurse expect to find during
assessment of a client with an upper respiratory
tract infection?
a. Dark pink, moist, & free of discharge.
b. Red, swollen, with purulent discharge.
c. Pale, pink, swollen, with watery
exudate.
d. Bluish gray, swollen, with watery
exudate.
2. You are assigned to a patient having a URT
infection and the client is expected to be
recovered. What do you expect if the client is
recovering from URT infection?
a. Experience chills
b. Cough productively without chest
discomfort.
c. Experience less nasal obstruction and
discharge.
d. Maintain a fluid intake of 800 mL every
24 hours
3. The following are your nursing intervention
to your client who has allergic disorder and you
are giving information for allergy symptoms
control. (SATA)
a. Instructing the client to wear a mask
when cleaning
b. Instructing the client to cover the
mattress with a hypoallergenic cover
c. Instruct the client to refrain use of aircon
or humidifier in the house
d. Instructing the client to avoid using
sprays, powders, and perfumes
4. For Aubrey Anne who has allergies, which
client statement indicates that the nurse's
teaching about her condition has be successful?
a. “I don’t need to wear any type of mask
when I’m cleaning the house.”
b. "I should avoid any types of spray,
powders, and perfumes.”
c. “"I can wear any type of clothing that I
want to as long as I wash it first."
d.
a low pollen count outside."
5. The main regulator of immune system is?
a. IgE
b. IgA
c. Mast cells
d. T-cells
6. A client with allergic rhinitis asks the nurse
what he should do to decrease his symptoms.
Which of the following instructions would be
appropriate for the nurse to give the client?
a. "Use your nasal decongestant spray
regularly to help clear your nasal
passages."
b. "Ask the doctor for antibiotics.
Antibiotics will help decrease the
secretion."
c. "It is important to increase your
activity. A daily brisk walk will help
promote drainage."
d. "Keep a diary when your symptoms
occur. This can help you identify what
precipitates your attacks."
7. Medication used for stuffy nose. A drug that
can decrease production of secretion into
swollen mucus membrane.
a. Antibiotic
b. Antihistamine
c. Decongestant
d. Corticosteriod
8. You are assigned to Ms. A you will give
antihistamin nasal spray. But before giving or
administering the medication the most important
things you need to do is?
a. Position the patient
b. Patient obtain a deep breath
c. Clear the nasal passages
d. Put the bed rails side up.\
9. What is the best position of patient while
administering nasal spray?
a. Fowlers position, tilt head.
10. You are developing plan to teach patient on
how to manage allergic rhinitis. What
information you should include in your teaching
plan?
a. Identification and avoidance of
environmental triggers are the best
way to prevent symptoms.
b. Frequent hand washing is the primary
way to prevent spreading the condition
to others.
c. Corticosteroid nasal sprays will reduce
inflammation, but systemic effects limit
their use.
d. Using oral antihistamines for 2 weeks
before the allergy season may prevent
reactions.
11. You patient is experiencing nasal congestion.
The following are the independent nursing
intervention except:
a. Give decongestant spray
b. Apply a warm damp cloth
c. Steam inhalation
d. Drink warm water
12. Which part of the nose causes obstruction of
the mucus ciliaric clearance of the sinus outflow
that leads of partial or complete obstruction?
a. Sinus
b. Mucosal lining
c. Nasal septum
d. Cilia
13. Pharyngitis is also known as?
a. Sore throat
14. Your patient is newly admitted who has
streptococcal pharyngitis and is placed on a
droplet precaution. Which of the following
statement indicated the best understanding for
the type of isolation?
a. The client can be placed in a room with
another client with measles (rubeola).
b. A special mask (N95) should be worn
when working with the client.
c. Must maintain a spatial distance of 3
feet.
d. Gloves should be only worn when
giving direct care.
15. Your patient is complaining that she is
expreiencing sore throat with a low grade fever.
The patient ask you what is the preparation in
gargling.
a. 1 tsp of salt from 8oz of warm water
16. One of you patient is experiencing sore
throat. The preventive measure that you will
advice are the following except:
a. Maintain proper hygiene
b. Sharing of utensils
c. Avoid smoking
17. Your patient has pharyngitis, you are the
nurse assigned and you will do the following
independent nursing intervention except:
a. Advice patient to rest her voice
b. Advice to do salt water gargling
c. Use analgesic and antipyretic
d. Warm compress for lymph nodes
18. Streptococcal pharyngitis are less common
in infant. What antibody the infant has after
giving birth?
a. IgG
19. The nurse is preparing to teach a client who
is newly diagnosed with asthma on how to
prevent asthma triggers. Which trigger should
the nurse include in the teaching​plan? (Select
all that​apply.)
a. Cigarette smoke
b. Mattress covers
c. Indoor pets
d. Stuffed animals
e. Tile floors in the house
20.Which clinical manifestation should the nurse
expect to observe in the client with​asthma?
(Select all that​apply.)
a. Bradycardia
b. Wheezing
c. Dyspnea
d. Retractions
e. Cough
21. The nurse is examining a client newly
diagnosed with asthma. Which pathological
characteristic should the nurse expect in this
client during physical​examination?
 a. Dead space
b. Air trapping
c. Expiratory wheezing
d. Increased lung volume
22. The nurse is discharging a client following a
status asthmaticus episode. Which information
should the nurse include in the​asthma-teaching
plan to prevent recurrence of​episodes? (Select
all that​apply.)
a. Carrying a​rapid-acting
bronchodilator inhaler at all times
b. Getting a yearly influenza vaccination
c. Using the inhaled corticosteroid when
shortness of breath occurs
d. Recommending that the client not be
vaccinated for pneumonia
e. Avoiding breathing in strong odors
and smoke
23. The nurse is completing an admission
history on a client with hypertension and
possible asthma who is experiencing a new onset
of wheezing and shortness of breath. Which
information from the​client's health history may
identify the cause of the asthma​attack?
a. The client started a nonsteroidal​
anti-inflammatory drug​(NSAID) 1
hour prior.
b. Two weeks​ago, the client had an
influenza vaccination.
c. The client took two acetaminophen​
(Tylenol) tablets for a headache that
morning.
d. The client visited the zoo yesterday.
24. The nurse is discharging a client who is
newly diagnosed with asthma. Which topic
should the nurse include in the discharge​
teaching? (Select all that​apply.)
a. Side effects of theophylline
b. Complications associated with oxygen
therapy
c. Self-administration of inhaled
corticosteroids
d. When to contact the healthcare
provider
e. How to use a peak flowmeter
25. A client is admitted in the emergency
department for asthma. Which diagnostic and
lab test should the nurse expect to be​ordered?
(Select all that​apply.)
a. Allergy skin testing
b. Arterial blood gas
c. Spirometry
d. Pulse oximetry
e. Peak expiratory flow
26. A client who is experiencing an acute asthma
attack is brought to the emergency department.
Which action should the nurse take first​?
a. Administer an inhaled corticosteroid.
b. Obtain a peak flowmeter reading.
c. Auscultate the​client's lungs.
d. Determine when the shortness of breath
began.
27. The nurse is evaluating the oxygenation
status of a client during an asthma attack. Which
diagnostic tool should be most useful for
gathering this​information?
a. Cardiac monitor
b. Chest​x-ray
c. Pulse oximetry
d. Peak flowmeter
28. A pediatric client who has asthma is unable
to​speak, has shortness of​breath, and has
diminished breath sounds. Which type of asthma
exacerbation is the client experiencing based on
the assessment​findings?
a. Minimal
b. Severe
c. Moderate
d. Mild
29. Which intervention is appropriate for the
nurse to implement for a client who is short of​
breath? (Select all that​apply.)
a. Monitor skin color and temperature.
b. Place the client in the prone position.
c. Monitor level of consciousness.
d. Provide endotracheal suctioning as
needed.
e. Administer oxygen as prescribed.
30. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of
therapy for a client following treatment for an
asthma attack. Which assessment finding is the
best indicator that the therapy has been​
effective?
a. No wheezing.
b. Capillary refill is 2 seconds.
c. Respiratory rate is 18​breaths/min.
d. Oxygen saturation is​96%.
31. The nurse is auscultating the lungs of an
asthmatic client during an acute attack. Which is
the correct technique that the nurse should use
during this​assessment?
a. Listen as the client​inhales, and then
move to the next site on the thorax
during exhalation.
b. Auscultate for at least one full
respiration in each location on the
thorax.
c. Auscultate the anterior and posterior
thorax over the​client's hospital gown.
d. Ask the client to breathe in and out
rapidly through the mouth while
auscultating each location.
32. A client with acute shortness of breath is
brought to the emergency department. Which
action should the nurse take during the initial
​assessment?
a. Briefly ask specific questions about
the​client's current respiratory status.
b. Assess for allergies before treatment.
c. Place the client supine to complete a full
physical assessment.
d. Complete pulmonary function testing.
33. A clinician is providing teaching for inhaled
corticosteroid technique. Which information
should be included in teaching?
a. "You should inhale as quickly and as
deeply as possible when you take a
puff."
b. "Spacers are not necessary. They are
mostly for looks."
c. "Press the canister down, breathe in
slowly and deeply, hold your breath
for a few seconds and then slowly
exhale."
d. "It is not necessary to rinse your mouth
after using your inhaler."
34. A health care provider is evaluating the
management of a child with a history of asthma.
Which of the following statements from the
child's mother would be most concerning to the
health care provider?
a. "My child uses her inhaler about once or
twice a week."
b. "When my child has an attack, she
usually has to use her rescue inhaler 4
times before her breathing improves."
c. "My child's peak flow reading is usually
about 90 percent of her personal best."
d. "My child sometimes has to take breaks
during gym class to catch her breath."
35. A clinician is developing the plan of care for
a patient with a history of asthma. Which of the
following is the priority problem for this patient
during an acute exacerbation?
a. risk for ineffective airway clearance
b. ineffective breathing pattern
c. activity intolerance
d. altered coping
36. Which of the following should be included
in peak flow measurement teaching?
a. " inhale deeply, put your mouth over
mouthpiece, then exhales slow and
steady"
b. "Exhale deeply, put your mouth over
mouthpiece, then inhale slow and
steady."
c. "Exhale deeply, put your mouth over
mouthpiece, then inhale hard and fast."
d. "Inhale deeply, put your mouth over
mouthpiece, then exhale hard and
fast."
37. Which of the following statements from a
patient with environmental allergies indicates
the need for further education?
a. " I should keep my home clean and tidy"
 b. " I should wash my bedding at least
weekly"
c. carpet helps reduce allergens"
d. " I should monitor daily pollen counts"
38. Which of the following would the patient
most likely report as triggers for asthma attack?
Select all that apply.
a. Exercise
b. warm air
c. cold air
d. inhaled corticosteroids
e. pollen
39. A patient with asthma is prescribed to take
inhaled Salmeterol and Fluticasone for
long-term management of asthma. You observe
the patient taking these medications. Which
option below best describes the correct order in
how to take these medications?
a. The patient inhales the Salmeterol
first and then waits 5 minutes before
inhaling the Fluticasone.
b. The patient inhales the Fluticasone first
and then waits 5 minutes before inhaling
the Salmeterol.
c. The patient inhales the Salmeterol first
and then waits 1 minute before inhaling
the Fluticasone.
d. The patient inhales the Fluticasone and
immediately inhales the Salmeterol.
40. You're assisting your patient who has asthma
to bed. The patient is experiencing a frequent
cough and chest tightness. You auscultate the
patient's lung fields and note expiratory
wheezes. The patient's peak flow rate is 78%
less than their best peak flow reading. Which
medication will provide the patient with the
fastest relief from these signs and symptoms of
an asthma attack?
a. Theophylline
b. Tiotropium
c. Albuterol
d. Cromolyn
41. A patient with asthma is receiving a
nebulizer of Cromolyn. The patient reports a
burning sensation in the nose along with a
horrible taste in their mouth. As the nurse you
will?
a. Immediately stop the nebulizer
b. Re-adjust the nebulizer
c. Call a rapid response because the patient
is having a potential anaphylactic
reaction to the medication.
d. Reassure the patient this is a
temporary side effect of this
medication.
42. A nurse teaches a client about the use of a
respiratory inhaler. Which action by the client
indicated a need for further teaching?
a. Removes the cap and shakes the inhaler
well before use
b. Presses the canister down with finger as
he breathes in.
c. Inhales the mist and quickly exhales
d. Waits 1 to 2 minutes between puffs if
more than one puff has been prescribed
43. A client has an order to have radial ABG
drawn. Before drawing the sample, a nurse
occludes the:
a. Brachial and radial arteries, and then
releases them and observes the
circulation of the hand.
b. Radial and ulnar arteries, releases
one, evaluates the color of the hand,
and repeats the process with the other
artery.
c. Radial artery and observes for color
changes in the affected hand.
d. Ulnar artery and observes for color
changes in the affected hand.
44. During an assessment of a 45-yr-old patient
with asthma, the nurse notes wheezing and
dyspnea. The nurse interprets that these
symptoms are related to what pathophysiologic
change?
a. Laryngospasm
b. Pulmonary edema
c. Narrowing of the airway
d. Overdistention of the alveoli
45. Which position is most appropriate for the
nurse to place a patient experiencing an asthma
exacerbation?
a. Supine
b. Lithotomy
c. High Fowler's
d. Reverse Trendelenburg
46. The nurse is describing the effects of
smoking. Which effect should be​included?
(Select all that​apply.)
a. Constriction of smooth muscle
b. Destruction of airways
c. Inhibited function of alveolar
macrophages
d. Atrophy of​mucus-secreting glands
e. Enhanced ciliary movement
47. What are the clinical manifestation of
emphysema?
a. Barrel chest
b. Dyspnea
c. Minimal coughing with small amount
of sputum
d. Flattened and AP diameter increased
e. Chest breather
f. Underweight
g. Minimal cyanosis
h. Shortness of breath
i. Tachypnea
j. Use accessory muscle
48. The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed
with emphysema. Which clinical manifestation
should the nurse expect to​find? (Select all that​
apply.)
a. Barrel chest
b. Diminished breath sounds
c. Cough with copious amounts of sputum
d. Hypercapnia noted within laboratory
results
e. Use of accessory muscles when
breathing
49. The nurse is assessing a client who has
chronic bronchitis. Which symptom should the
nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.)
a. Distended neck veins
b. Cough with sputum production
c. Wheezing
d. Diminished breath sounds
e. Barrel chest
50. What is the best position to client having
emphysema having normal circumstances?
a. Semi fowlers
51. Oxygen has been prescribed for a client with
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Which amount of oxygen is considered most
appropriate for the COPD client?
a. 10 L/min
b. 1 to 2 L/min
c. 4 to 6 L/min
d. 5 L/min
52. Which condition should the nurse understand
occurs in the pathophysiology of​emphysema?
(Select all that​apply.)
a. Excessive mucus produced
b. Decrease in cilia function
c. Fluid buildup in the lungs
d. Loss of elastic recoil of the lungs
e. Enlargement of the alveoli
53. If client has sever dyspenic episode, what
position is best?
a. Sitting upright with arms folded on
the over bed table.
54. What will you observe in the hands of the
client with emphysema?
a. Clubbing of the fingernail beds
55. The development of emphysema is most
associated with history of what?
a. smoking
56. In emphysema, the appetite ______ the
weight ______ and the anterior-post diameter of
the chest _______?
a. Decrease, decreased, increases
57. What is the increase in anterior-posteriaer
diameter of emphysema called?
a. barrel chest
58. The person with emphysema have ______,
______ lip and _______ breathing?
a. grunting, pursed, rapid
59. What dietary prescription its most
appropriate for the client with emphysema?
a. Frequent small meals to prevent
tiring
60. Patient with emphysema experienced
hypoventilation as compensatory mechanism to
help increase oxygen level and decrease carbon
dioxide level of the body
a. False
61. Which of the following is most commonly
found in a patient with emphysema?.
a. Barrel chest
b. Cyanosis
c. V/Q mismatch
d. Excessive productive cough
62.True or False: V/Q mismatch is found in
chronic bronchitis.
a. True
b. false
63. In which of the following conditions below
is there a matched V/Q defect?
a. Chronic Bronchitis
b. Emphysema
64. Select ALL the options that are TRUE about
chronic bronchitis and emphysema:
a. Patients with chronic bronchitis have the
ability to fully exhale but have limited
airflow.
b. Emphysema and chronic bronchitis
are irreversible.
c. An incentive spirometer is used to
diagnose both chronic bronchitis and
emphysema.
d. Patients with chronic bronchitis are
sometimes referred to as "blue
bloaters, while patients with
emphysema are sometimes referred to
as "pink puffers".
65. In which of the following conditions below
do the alveolar sacs lose elasticity which can
lead to "air-trapping":
a. Chronic Bronchitis
b. Emphysema
66. Patients with chronic bronchitis and
emphysema can MOST COMMONLY
experience what type of acid-base imbalance?
a. High oxygen level and high carbon
dioxide level
b. Low oxygen level and low carbon
dioxide level
c. High oxygen level and low carbon
dioxide level
d. Low oxygen level and high carbon
dioxide level
67. True or False: Hyperinflation of the lungs
leads to diaphragm flattening.
a. True
b. False
68. A patient is newly diagnosed with COPD
due to chronic bronchitis. You're providing
education to the patient about this disease
process. Which statement by the patient
indicates they understood your teaching about
this condition?
a. "If I stop smoking, it will cure my
condition."
b. "Complications from this condition
can lead to pulmonary hypertension
and right-sided heart failure."
c. "I'm at risk for low levels of red blood
cells due to hypoxia and may require
blood transfusions during acute
illnesses."
d. "My respiratory system is stimulated to
breathe due to high carbon dioxide
levels rather than low oxygen levels.
69. Which of the following statements are
incorrect about discharge teaching that you
would provide to a patient with COPD?
Select-all-that-apply:
a. "It is best to eat three large meals a
day that are relatively low in
calories."
b. "Avoid going outside during extremely
hot or cold days."
c. "It is important to receive the
Pneumovax vaccine annually."
 d. "Smoking cessation can help improve
your symptoms.”
70. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic
airflow limitation and notes that the client has a
"barrel chest." The nurse interprets that this
client has which of the following forms of
chronic airflow limitation?
a. chronic obstructive bronchitis
b. Emphysema
c. bronchial asthma
d. bronchial asthma and bronchitis
71. A client with COPD reports steady weight
loss and being "too tired from just breathing to
eat." Which of the following nursing diagnoses
would be most appropriate when planning
nutritional interventions for this client?
a. Altered nutrition: Less than body
requirements related to fatigue.
b. Activity intolerance related to dyspnea.
c. Weight loss related to COPD.
d. Ineffective breathing pattern related to
alveolar hypoventilation.
72. Which of the following physical assessment
findings would the nurse expect to find in a
client with advanced COPD?
a. Increased anteroposterior chest
diameter
b. Underdeveloped neck muscles
c. Collapsed neck veins
d. Increased chest excursions with
respiration
73. A nurse instructs a female client to use the
pursed-lip method of breathing and the client
asks the nurse about the purpose of this type of
breathing. The nurse responds, knowing that the
primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing is to:
a. Promote oxygen intake
b. Strengthen the diaphragm
c. Strengthen the intercostal muscles
d. Promote carbon dioxide elimination
74. Aminophylline (theophylline) is prescribed
for a client with acute bronchitis. A nurse
administers the medication, knowing that the
primary action of this medication is to:
a. Promote expectoration
b. Suppress the cough
c. Relax smooth muscles of the
bronchial airway
d. Prevent infection
75. When teaching a client with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease to conserve
energy, the nurse should teach the client to lift
objects:
a. While inhaling through an open mouth.
b. While exhaling through pursed lips.
c. After exhaling but before inhaling.
d. While taking a deep breath and holding
it.
76. The nurse is planning to teach a client with
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease how to
cough effectively. Which of the following
instructions should be included?
a. Take a deep abdominal breath, bend
forward, and cough three or four
times while saying the word “wo” on
exhalation.
b. Lie flat on the back, splint the thorax,
take two deep breaths, and cough.
c. Take several rapid, shallow breaths and
then cough forcefully.
d. Assume a side-lying position, extend the
arm over the head, and alternate deep
breathing with coughing.
77. The nurse is teaching coughing techniques to
a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease. Which technique should the nurse​
include except?
a. Cough​twice, the first time to loosen
mucus and the second time to expel
secretions.
b. Limit fluid intake to decrease
pulmonary secretions.
c. Inhale deeply through the mouth prior to
huff coughing.
d. Utilize oxygen therapy as needed
77. The nurse is teaching coughing techniques to
a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease. Which technique should the nurse​
include?
a. Cough​twice, the first time to loosen
mucus and the second time to expel
secretions.
b. Limit fluid intake to decrease pulmonary
secretions
c. Inhale deeply through the mouth prior to
huff coughing.
d. Utilize oxygen therapy as needed
78. On assessment you patient has cyanotic lip,
edema on abdomen and legs based on your
nursing knowledge and patient symptoms the
patient suffered from what type of copd?
a. Chronic bronchitis
79. An alarm beeps notifying you that one of
your patient's oxygen saturation is reading 89%.
You arrive to the patient's room, and see the
patient comfortably resting in bed watching
television. The patient is already on 2 L of
oxygen via nasal cannula. The patient is
admitted for COPD exacerbation. Your next
nursing action would be:
a. Continue to monitor the patient
b. Increase the patient's oxygen level to 3 L
c. Notify the doctor for further orders
d. Turn off the alarm settings
80. medication that restrict blood clots
a. anticoagulant
81. A client has a pulmonary embolism and is
started on oxygen. The student nurse asks why
the client's oxygen saturation has not
significantly improved. What response by the
nurse is best?
a. "Breathing so rapidly interferes with
oxygenation."
b. "Maybe the client has respiratory
distress syndrome."
c. "The blood clot interferes with
perfusion in the lungs."
d. "The client needs immediate intubation
and mechanical ventilation."
82. A client appears dyspneic, but the oxygen
saturation is 97%. What action by the nurse is
best?
a. Assess for other manifestations of
hypoxia.
b. Change the sensor on the pulse
oximeter.
c. Obtain a new oximeter from central
supply.
d. Tell the client to take slow, deep breaths.
83. Predisposing factors in pulmonary emboli
a. Stasis of blood flow
b. Endothelial injury
c. hypercoagulability
84. The most prevalent cause of pulmonary
embolism is the result of blood clot from a deep
vein moving to the lungs. Deep vein thrombosis
lodge into pulmonary
a. true
85. A nurse answers a call light and finds a
client anxious, short of breath, reporting chest
pain, and having a blood pressure of 88/52 mm
Hg on the cardiac monitor. What action by the
nurse takes priority?
a. Assess the clients lung sounds.
b. Notify the Rapid Response Team.
c. Provide reassurance to the client.
d. Take a full set of vital signs.
86. The following are the nursing intervention
assist for prevention of pulmonary embolism in
hospitalized patient:
a. A liberal fluid intake.
b. Assisting the patient to do leg
elevations above the level of the heart.
c. Encouraging the patient to dangle his or
her legs over the side of the bed for 30
minutes, four times a day.
d. The use of elastic stockings, especially
when decreased mobility would
promote venous stasis.
87. A client with a new pulmonary embolism
(PE) is anxious. What nursing actions are most
appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
 a. Acknowledge the frightening nature
of the illness.
b. Delegate a back rub to the unlicensed
assistive personnel (UAP).
c. Give simple explanations of what is
happening.
d. Request a prescription for antianxiety
medication.
e. Stay with the client and speak in a
quiet, calm voice.
88. Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary
embolism, a client is being discharged with a
prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). In
conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises
the client to have which diagnostic test
monitored regularly after discharge?
a. Perfusion scan.
b. Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
c. Activated partial thromboplastin
(APTT).
d. Serum Coumadin level (SCL).
89. A nurse is caring for several clients. Which
of the following clients are at risk for having a
pulmonary embolism? (Select all that apply)
A. client who has a BMI of 30
B. female client who has postmenopausal
C. client who has a fractured femur
D. client who is a marathon runner
E. A client who has chronic atrial
fibrillation
90. A nurse is assessing a client who has a
pulmonary embolism. Which of the clinical
manifestations should the nurse expect to find?
(Select all that apply)
a. Bradypnea
b. Pleural friction rub
c. Hypertension
d. Petechiae
e. Tachycardia
91. A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a
client who has acute dyspnea and diaphoresis.
The client states that she is anxious because she
feels that she cannot get enough air. Vital signs
are: HR 117/min, RR 38/min, temp 38.4 (101.2),
BP 100/54. Which of the following actions is the
priority action at this time?
a. Notify the provider
b. Administer heparin via IV infusion
c. Administer oxygen therapy
d. Obtain a spiral CT scan
92. The following are diagnostic tests for a
patient with pulmonary embolism except:
a. Chest x-ray
b. ECG
c. ABG analysis
d. Pulmonary function tests
93. The most reliable index to determine the
respiratory status of a client is to:
a. Observe the chest rising and falling
b. Observe the skin and mucous membrane
color
c. Listen and feel the air movement
d. Determine the presence of a femoral
pulse
94. your patient is admitted in icu and diagnosed
with pulmonary embolism which blockage on
the main artery of the lungs experiencing
problem in ventilation and perfusion which is
the appropriate nursing diagnosis
a. Impaired blood gas
95. Which patient(s) are most at risk for
developing coronary artery disease?
Select-all-that-apply:
a. A 25 year old patient who exercises 3
times per week for 30 minutes a day and
has a history of cervical cancer.
b. A 35 year old male with a BMI of 30
and reports smoking 2 packs of
cigarettes a day.
c. A 45 year old female that reports her
father died at the age of 42 from a
myocardial infraction.
d. A 29 year old that has type I diabetes.
96. True or False: The left anterior descending
coronary artery provides blood supply to the left
ventricle, front of the septum and part of the
right ventricle.
a. True
 b. false
97. Which coronary artery provides blood to the
left atrium and left ventricle:
a. Right marginal artery
b. Posterior descending artery
c. Left circumflex artery
d. Right coronary artery
98. Lipitor is prescribed for a patient with a high
cholesterol level. As the nurse, how do you
educate the patient on how this drugs works on
the body?
a. Lipitor increases LDL levels and
decreases HDL levels, total cholesterol,
and triglyceride levels.
b. Lipitor decreases LDL, HDL levels,
total cholesterol, and triglyceride levels.
c. Lipitor increases HDL levels, total
cholesterol, and triglyceride levels.
d. Lipitor increases HDL levels and
decreases LDL, total cholesterol, and
triglyceride levels.
99. The nurse is teaching a client about coronary
artery disease (CAD). Which response by the
client indicates the need for further teaching?
a. "The increased levels of high-density
lipoproteins decrease the risk of
atherosclerosis."
b. "It decreases quality of life but does
not increase a person's risk of death."
c. "Damage to the linings of my arteries
can cause clots and blockage."
d. "It is a leading cause of death for men
and women in the U.S."
[Additional]
100. Your patient is taking Simvastatin. Which
of the following findings below demonstrate this
medication is providing therapeutic effects to
this patient? SATA.
a. HDL 80 mg/dL
b. LDL 72 mg/dL
c. HDL 30 mg/dL
d. LDL 190 mg/dL
101. The nurse instructs a 68-year-old woman
with hypercholesterolemia about natural
lipid-lowering therapies. The nurse determines
further teaching is necessary if the patient makes
which statement?
a. "Omega-3 fatty acids are helpful in
reducing triglyceride levels."
b. "I should check with my physician
before I start taking any herbal
products."
c. "Herbal products do not go through
extensive testing as prescription drugs
do."
d. "I will take garlic instead of my
prescription medication to reduce my
cholesterol."
102. The nurse prepares a discharge teaching
plan for a 44-year-old male patient who has
recently been diagnosed with coronary artery
disease. Which risk factor should the nurse plan
to focus on during the teaching session?
a. Type A personality
b. Elevated serum lipids
c. Family cardiac history
d. Hyperhomocysteinemia
103. A patient is receiving treatment for stable
coronary artery disease. The doctor prescribes
the patient Plavix. What important information
will you include in the patient's teaching?
Select-all-that-apply:
a. If you are scheduled for any planned
surgical procedures, let your doctor
know you are taking Plavix because
this medication will need to be
discontinued 5-7 days prior to the
procedure.
b. A normal side effect of this medication
is a dry cough.
c. Avoid green leafy vegetables while
taking Plavix.
d. Notify the doctor, immediately, if you
develop bruising, problems urinating,
or fever.