Student Number

2021
TRIAL HIGHER SCHOOL CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION

Biology

General Instructions
• Reading time – 5 minutes
Total Marks – 100
• Working time – 3 hours
• Write using black pen. Section I - 20 marks (pages 2 - 7)
• Draw diagrams using pencil. • Attempt Questions 1 – 20.
• For questions in Section II, show all • Allow about 35 minutes for this section.
relevant working in questions
involving calculations. Section II – 80 marks (pages 8 - 30)
• NESA-approved calculators may be • Attempt Questions 21 – 37.
used. • Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes for
this section.
Write your Student Number where
required.

Directions to School or College

To ensure integrity and security, examination papers must NOT be removed from the examination room. Examination papers may not
be returned to students until 16th August 2021. These examination papers are supplied Copyright Free, as such the purchaser may
photocopy and/or make changes for educational purposes within the confines of the School or College.
All care has been taken to ensure that this examination paper is error free and that it follows the style, format and material content of
the High School Certificate Examination in accordance with the NESA requirements. No guarantee or warranty is made or implied that
this examination paper mirrors in every respect the actual HSC Examination paper for this course.

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Section I
20 marks
Attempt Questions 1 – 20.
Allow about 35 minutes for this section.
Use the multiple-choice answer sheet provided for Questions 1 – 20.

1 Examples of asexual reproduction include:

A. fusion of gametes, budding in yeast, binary fission in bacteria
B. strawberry runners, spore production in flowering plants, potato tubers
C. parthenogenesis in worms, binary fission in protists, spermatogenesis
D. spore production in fungi, budding in hydra, parthenogenesis in lizards

2 During the human reproductive cycle, the acrosome reaction occurs during:
A. menstruation
B. ovulation
C. fertilisation
D. implantation

3 Complementary base-pairing in nucleic acids allows for:

A. exact duplication of DNA.
B. accurate removal of introns from pre-mRNA.
C. covalent bonding of recombinant DNA.
D. all of the above.

4 Several of the vaccines that have recently been manufactured to control infectious disease
contain viral mRNA. Once the vaccine has been injected into the body:
A. transcription of the mRNA produces viral antibodies.
B. transcription of the mRNA produces viral antigens.
C. translation of the mRNA produces viral antibodies.
D. translation of the mRNA produces viral antigens.

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5 WHIM syndrome is a rare hereditary immunodeficiency disorder, so-named for its four
major symptoms: warts, hypogammaglobulinaemia (reduced antibody production),
infections (of the upper respiratory tract) and myelokathexis (retention and destruction of
neutrophils in the bone marrow).
The following pedigree shows the inheritance pattern of WHIM syndrome in a family
from North Carolina, USA.1

Based only on the information in the pedigree above, which of the four types of
inheritance (I, II, III and IV) are possible explanations for this family’s pedigree?

I. autosomal dominant
II. autosomal recessive
III. sex-linked dominant
IV. sex-linked recessive

A. I and III are possible.

B. I, II and III are possible.
C. I, II, III and IV are possible.
D. only I is possible.

6 There are several mutations that have been identified as causes for WHIM, all of which
affect a gene called CXCR4. These include a frameshift mutation, several point mutations
causing a stop codon and single point substitution causing a missense mutation. Which
of the following statements relating to these types of mutation is CORRECT?
A. A frameshift mutation is a chromosomal mutation in which one section of a gene is
translocated to another location in the same gene.
B. A missense mutation affects all subsequent bases in the gene.
C. A stop codon is a sequence of three bases that signals termination of translation.
D. A, B and C are all correct.

1
Liu, Q. et al. (2012) WHIM syndrome caused by a single amino acid substitution in the carboxy-tail of
chemokine receptor CXCR4. Blood 120(1): 181–189.

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7 The roles of neutrophils and antibodies in the immune system are, respectively:

neutrophil antibody
protein produced by B cells that
A. white blood cell that responds to
responds to infection by destroying
infection by destroying pathogens
infected cells
protein produced by B cells that
B. white blood cell that responds to
responds to infection by destroying
infection by destroying pathogens
pathogens
protein produced by B cells that
C. white blood cell that responds to
responds to infection by destroying
infection by destroying infected cells
pathogens
protein produced by B cells that
D. white blood cell that responds to
responds to infection by destroying
infection by destroying infected cells
pathogens

8 Which of the following statements about mutagenic agents is CORRECT?

A. All electromagnetic radiation is mutagenic.
B. Cells lack any processes to repair DNA damage from mutagens.
C. Thymine dimers caused by UV radiation prevent the accurate replication and
translation of DNA.
D. Mutagens such as nitrites in smoked meats are classified as biological mutagens.

9 Which of the following is NOT an example of an epidemiological study?

A. Describing the demographic characteristics of persons with acute lead poisoning in a
certain district.
B. Recommending that a restaurant be closed after it has been identified as the source of
a hepatitis A outbreak.
C. Comparing the family history, amount of exercise, and eating habits of those with and
without Type II diabetes.
D. Prescribing an antibiotic to treat a patient with community-acquired methicillin-
resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection.

10 How does a germline mutation differ from a somatic mutation?

somatic germline
A. affects all cells in the body affects only some cells in the body
B. affects only some cells in the body is non-inheritable
C. is inheritable affects all cells in the body
D. affects only some cells in the body is inheritable

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11 Vitiligo is a skin disorder in which the normal melanin pigment is not produced. It is an
autoimmune disease that occurs in individuals with a particular genetically-based
susceptibility. In a study on the genetics of vitiligo the author concluded there was
“strong evidence for the presence of multiple vitiligo susceptibility genes on different
chromosomes”2.
Based on the information given, inheritance of susceptibility to vitiligo is best described
as:
A. polygenic
B. an example of multiple alleles
C. Mendelian
D. polyploidy

12 Mutations in non-coding sections of DNA:

A. can affect both introns and exons.
B. can affect transcription of coding sections of DNA.
C. have no effect on the phenotype of individuals.
D. are more common in prokaryotes than eukaryotes.

13 For which of the following purposes would an investigator use Koch’s postulates?
A. To demonstrate that microorganisms can be grown in cell culture
B. To refute the theory of spontaneous generation
C. To determine the prevalence of a particular non-infectious disease
D. To determine the cause of a particular infectious disease

14 Creams containing aciclovir are prescribed for treating cold sores, which is a form of
herpes. Aciclovir is an:
A. antiviral
B. antibiotic
C. antifungal
D. antigen

2 Al-Shobaili, H.A. (2011) Update on the genetics characterization of vitiligo. International Journal of Health Sciences.
5(2): 167 - 179

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15 Consider the following statement: “Once a pathogen has penetrated a cell, the immune
system cannot fight it.” Which of the following is CORRECT?
A. The statement is false as antibodies can penetrate cells to fight pathogens.
B. The statement is true as antibodies can only destroy pathogen cells while they are in
the bloodstream or extracellular fluid.
C. The statement is false as cytotoxic T cells can destroy infected host cells.
D. The statement is true as cytotoxic T cells can only destroy pathogen cells while they
are in the bloodstream or extracellular fluid.

16 The mite Varroa destructor causes the collapse of honeybee colonies by spreading
viruses and feeding on the fat reserves of adults and larvae.

Varroa mite

Content available under Creative Commons License: CC-BY-SA-4.0

(Photo by Piscisgate)

Which of the following terms is NOT applicable to Varroa destructor in this example?
A. pathogen
B. vector
C. host
D. macroparasite

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17 Which of the following correctly lists the stimulus for release of the named hormones?

insulin glucagon ADH

A. Released in response to Released in response to Released in response to
a decrease in blood an increase in blood an increase in blood
sugar concentration sugar concentration osmotic concentration
B. Released in response to Released in response to Released in response to
an increase in blood a decrease in blood an increase in blood
sugar concentration sugar concentration osmotic concentration
C. Released in response to Released in response to Released in response to
an increase in blood an increase in blood a decrease in blood
osmotic concentration sugar concentration osmotic concentration
D. Released in response to Released in response to Released in response to
an increase in blood a decrease in blood a decrease in blood
sugar concentration osmotic concentration sugar concentration

18 Patients suffering from kidney failure can be treated by dialysis to replicate the function
of the kidney. There are two types of dialysis: haemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
Which area of the body is intubated in peritoneal dialysis?
A. the stomach
B. the abdomen
C. a vein
D. an artery

19 Which of the following lists only non-infectious diseases?

A. diabetes, phenylketonuria, influenza
B. basal cell carcinoma, hepatitis, atherosclerosis
C. cystic fibrosis, scurvy, cirrhosis of the liver
D. rickets, rubella, rheumatoid arthritis

20 Which of the following is the best description of a negative feedback system?

A. The response of an effector to a stimulus turns off the response.
B. The stimulus is turned off as soon as the effector responds.
C. The stimulus increases as the response is occurring.
D. The effector does not respond to an increase in stimulus until a threshold level is
reached.

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2021 NSW TRIAL HIGHER SCHOOL CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION

Student Number

Section II Answer Booklet

80 marks
Attempt Questions 21 – 37.
Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes for this section.

• Write your Student Number at the top of this page.

Instructions
• Answer the questions in the spaces provided. These spaces
provide guidance for the expected length of response.

• Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.

• Extra writing space is provided at the back of this booklet. If

you use this space, clearly indicate which question you are
answering.

Please turn over.

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Question 21. (4 marks)
The ABO blood antigens in humans are inherited in a way that involves both multiple alleles
and co-dominance.

Define each of these terms and discuss how each is illustrated by the ABO blood antigen
system. (4 marks)

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Question 22. (4 marks)

If the Varroa mite were to enter Australia and become widespread it could destroy many
honeybee populations and would have a devastating impact on our agricultural and horticultural
industries.

(a) Describe the mechanism farmers would need to use if honeybees became extinct in
Australia and comment on the difficulty this would involve for large-scale farming.
(2 marks)

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(b) Currently Australia is free from Varroa mite. What processes have been
implemented to ensure this? (2 marks)

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Question 23. (4 marks)
Navel oranges were first found in Brazil in the early 1800s and were the result of a mutation
that caused a second small fruit to grow at the base of each orange. The oranges were seedless
and all subsequent navel orange trees are the result of grafts taken from existing trees. The
graft is a small shoot of the original tree that is connected to a hardy rootstock so all current
navel oranges are clones of that original Brazilian tree.

(a) What is the benefit of producing clones of fruit trees by grafting compared to
growing them from seeds? (2 marks)

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(b) Outline the disadvantage of producing crops by cloning compared to growing them
from seeds. (2 marks)

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Question 24. (8 marks)
The following diagram illustrates one of the endomembrane systems in a cell.

(Images available under Creative Commons License CC BY 4.0)

(a) Identify the endomembrane structure indicated by A in image (a). (1 mark)

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(b) Identify the structures indicated by B in the images and describe their role in
polypeptide synthesis. (3 marks)

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 (c) Chaperone proteins are found in this endomembrane system and their function is to
promote the correct folding of polypeptides to form functional proteins. Many of the
proteins synthesized in cells are enzymes.

Explain how the correct folding of the polypeptide chains that make up an enzyme
contributes to enzyme function. (2 marks)

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(d) In most cases, a mis-folded protein produced in a cell would be recognized and
destroyed. However, some mis-folded proteins have evaded destruction and in
certain instances are responsible for serious diseases in humans, e.g. prions.
Researchers are now looking to use chaperone proteins in therapy for some of these
diseases.

Name and describe a specific disease that is caused either by prions or by any other
case of mis-folded protein. (2 marks)

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Question 25. (4 marks)
Biochemists are now using a number of naturally-occurring enzymes in genetic technology.

Choose TWO of the following enzymes and discuss the role each plays in a specific example
of genetic technology.

DNA polymerase
restriction endonuclease
DNA ligase (4 marks)

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Question 26. (4 marks)

A student produced the following summary of internal and external fertilisation in animals and
posted it to a student content-sharing site on the internet. Unfortunately, there were a number of
errors in the summary, providing misleading information to students who downloaded the
summary for their own study purposes.

(a) Outline and discuss the errors that the student has made. (2 marks)

Differences
Characteristic
External fertilisation Internal fertilisation

Union of gametes Occurs in water Usually occurs on land

Relative chance of fertilisation High Low

Relative number of offspring High Low
Relative breeding frequency High Low
Level of parental care High Low

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(b) What advice would you give to students searching for Biology information on the
internet to ensure the information they were accessing is accurate and reliable?
(2 marks)

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Question 27. (3 marks)

Crossing over of homologous chromosomes is a regular feature of meiosis in eukaryotic cells.

Use a diagram to explain how this process occurs and describe the effect it has on the genetic
makeup of the daughter cells. (3 marks)

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Question 28. (4 marks)
The joint winners of the Nobel Prize for Chemistry in 2020 were Jennifer Doudna and
Emmanuelle Charpentier for their work in developing the technology known as CRISPR-
Cas9.

Discuss the role and benefits of using CRISPR-Cas9 in biotechnology and outline its potential
uses in medicine.

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Question 29. (10 marks)
A major contributor to the protection of the genome from damage is the tumour suppressor
gene, p53. The amount of p53 protein in normal cells is low but it accumulates in response to
DNA damage and acts to destroy the damaged cells by promoting cell death (apoptosis). The
p53 gene is mutated in more than 50% of all human tumours.

Professor Louise Lutze-Mann leads a team of researchers at the University of New South
Wales in the study of cancer and potential therapies. She uses mice that have mutated p53
genes, called p53 knockout mice, in these studies.3

(a) The normal (or wildtype) allele for p53 is represented as p53+. The p53 knockout
allele is represented as p53− and is recessive to p+. The experimental animals in
Professor Lutze-Mann’s research work comprise individuals of three different
genotypes: homozygous for p53+, homozygous for p53− and heterozygous.

Two mice that are heterozygous for the p53 gene were crossed. What would be the
genotype and phenotype frequencies in their offspring? Use a Punnett square to
illustrate your answer. (3 marks)

Question continues over page.

3 Fernandez, H.R., Batten, M., Kugathasan, K. and Lutze-Mann, L.H. (2008) Long-term mutagenic effects of
ionising radiation on mice which vary in their p53 status. DNA Repair 7(4): 641-647

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 (b) What effect would the mutant p53 phenotype have on mice that were exposed to a
carcinogen? (1 mark)

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(c) Another effect of the p53 gene is to interrupt the cell cycle in cells with damaged
DNA. Explain how this could affect the growth of tumours in a wildtype mouse.
(2 marks)

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 (d) Two genes have been identified that are associated with an increased risk of
developing breast cancer (BRCA1 and BRCA2). The mutant alleles of these genes
are called BRCA1Mut and BRCA2 Mut and cause similar effects as the mutant p53,
since the normal BRCA1 and BRCA2 alleles are involved in DNA damage repair,
cell cycle control and apoptosis. Genetic testing can detect the presence of the
BRCA1Mut and BRCA2 Mut alleles but this technique is subject to several ethical
issues.

Discuss at least two ethical or social issues that surround this or any other type of
genetic testing. (2 marks)

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(e) Other ethical issues related to medical research concern awareness of intellectual
property rights as scientists are starting to develop treatments for disease that are
based on traditional indigenous practices.

Describe an example of disease management used traditionally by Australian

Aboriginal people and discuss the ethical implications of its development as a
commercially-available treatment. (2 marks)

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Question 30. (4 marks)

A student wrote the following answer in a Biology examination on biotechnology and the
teacher awarded the student zero marks.

“Biotechnology has only been used in industry for the production of goods since the discovery
of DNA and the subsequent development of genetic engineering techniques.”

Explain, using examples, why the student was awarded zero for this answer. (4 marks)

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Question 31. (6 marks)

Both plants and humans employ a variety of physical and chemical defences against pathogens.
These include barriers to infection and responses to pathogens once they have entered the body.

(a) Compare and contrast the physical defences that plants and humans use to prevent
the entry of pathogens. (4 marks)

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(b) Describe at least two physical or chemical responses that plants use to defeat
pathogens once they have passed into the plant’s tissues. (2 marks)

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Question 32. (8 marks)

(a) The following graph indicates the relative concentration of an antibody following
the initial (A) and second (B) exposure to a pathogen. Discuss what is happening at
the level of the immune system to explain the differences in antibody response
between the two exposures. (4 marks)

B: second
exposure

A: initial
exposure

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 (b) Following entry of a pathogen into the body a patient will often present with
symptoms of redness and swelling and have a high fever. What aspects of the
body’s immune response account for these symptoms? (2 marks)

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(c) Pathogenic organisms have evolved many adaptations that ensure they can enter a
host, survive within the host and be transferred to a new host.

Name a pathogen you have studied this year and describe at least two adaptations
that facilitate its entry into and transmission between hosts. (2 marks)

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Question 33. (4 marks)

(a) Identify the structures of the human eye indicated by the letters, W, X, Y and Z, in
the diagram below. (2 marks)

Label Name of structure

W
X
Y
Z

(b) Describe a disorder of the eye related to one of the structures labeled above and
briefly describe one technique to assist with the effects of this disorder. (2 marks)

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Question 34. (3 marks)

A number of diseases are known to be caused by exposure to chemicals or radiation in the

environment. Discuss the specific cause and symptoms of one such named disease. (3 marks)

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Question 35. (3 marks)

On a very hot day in January a researcher was measuring the body temperatures of different
animals in the arid zone of Australia, using implanted temperature transmitters. The mean body
temperatures of three different species were 35.5°C for the red kangaroo, 37.5°C for a skink (a
lizard species) and 37.8°C for a honeyeater (a bird species). The researcher’s assistant was
puzzled by these results and said it is not possible for the cold-blooded reptile to have a body
temperature higher or equal to that of the warm-blooded mammal and bird.

Using your knowledge of temperature regulation in endotherms and ectotherms, explain the
error in the assistant’s reasoning. (3 marks)

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Question 36. (2 marks)

The following images illustrate different plant structures that assist in maintaining water
balance. For each image, describe how the features illustrated assist to reduce water loss.
(2 marks)

Image A Image B
(Images available under Creative Commons License CC BY 4.0)

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Question 37. (5 marks)

The Human Genome Project was established in 1990 with the aim of mapping the entire human
genome. Since then, many of the genes responsible for particular genetic diseases have been
identified and sequenced. Using several examples, discuss how information obtained from
sequencing such genes can be used to help prevent genetic disease. (5 marks)

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THIS IS THE END OF THE EXAMINATION PAPER.

Extra writing space is provided over the page.

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Section II extra writing space

If you use this space, clearly indicate which question you are answering.

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