In the 1950s, Central American commercial banana growers were facing the death of their most lucrative product,

the
Gros Michel banana, known as Big Mike. And now it’s happening again to Big Mike’s successor – the Cavendish.
With its easily transported, thick-skinned and sweet-tasting fruit, the Gros Michel banana plant dominated the plantations
of Central America. United Fruit, the main grower and exporter in South America at the time, mass-produced its bananas
in the most efficient way possible: it cloned shoots from the stems of plants instead of growing plants from seeds, and
cultivated them in densely packed fields.
Unfortunately, these conditions are also perfect for the spread of the fungus Fusarium oxysporum f. sp. cubense, which
attacks the plant’s roots and prevents it from transporting water to the stem and leaves. The TR-1 strain of the fungus
was resistant to crop sprays and travelled around on boots or the tyres of trucks, slowly infecting plantations across the
region. In an attempt to escape the fungus, farmers abandoned infected fields, flooded them and then replanted crops
somewhere else, often cutting down rainforest to do so.
Their efforts failed. So, instead, they searched for a variety of banana that the fungus didn’t affect. They found the
Cavendish, as it was called, in the greenhouse of a British duke. It wasn’t as well suited to shipping as the Gros Michel,
but its bananas tasted good enough to keep consumers happy. Most importantly, TR-1 didn’t seem to affect it. In a few
years, United Fruit had saved itself from bankruptcy by filling its plantations with thousands of the new plants, copying
the same monoculture growing conditions Gros Michel had thrived in.
While the operation was a huge success for the Latin American industry, the Cavendish banana itself is far from safe. In
2014, South East Asia, another major banana producer, exported four million tons of Cavendish bananas. But, in 2015,
its exports had dropped by 46 per cent thanks to a combination of another strain of the fungus, TR-4, and bad weather.
Growing practices in South East Asia haven’t helped matters. Growers can’t always afford the expensive lab-based
methods to clone plants from shoots without spreading the disease. Also, they often aren’t strict enough about cleaning
farm equipment and quarantining infected fields. As a result, the fungus has spread to Australia, the Middle East and
Mozambique – and Latin America, heavily dependent on its monoculture Cavendish crops, could easily be next.
Racing against the inevitable, scientists are working on solving the problem by genetically modifying the Cavendish with
genes from TR-4-resistant banana species. Researchers at the Queensland University of Technology have successfully
grown two kinds of modified plant which have remained resistant for three years so far. But some experts think this is
just a sophisticated version of the same temporary solution the original Cavendish provided. If the new bananas are
planted in the same monocultures as the Cavendish and the Gros Michel before it, the risk is that another strain of the
disease may rise up to threaten the modified plants too.
1. Mass-produced bananas are …
A. grown from seeds because it's efficient. B. cloned because it's a fast and cheap way to grow them.
C. sweeter than other bananas. D. exported to Central America.
2. The spread of the TR-1 strain was …
A. caused by lack of water. B. speeded up by the flooding of banana fields.
C. slowed down by crop spraying. D. helped by the movement of people and vehicles.
3. Which sentence is NOT true?
A. The Cavendish replaced the Gros Michel.
B. The Cavendish bananas were easier to transport than the Gros Michel.
C. The Cavendish was resistant to the fungus.
D. The Cavendish stopped United Fruit from losing more money.
4. South East Asia's Cavendish exports fell in 2015 because …
A. a new strain of the fungus has developed. B. farmers can't afford new farming technology.
C. they had to quarantine their fruit. D. they depended too much on other countries.
5. Genetically modifying bananas may …
A. mean farmers can grow the Gros Michel again. B. cause farmers to repeat the mistakes of the past.
C. encourage farmers to try new growing methods. D. only be a short-term solution.
6. How would you describe the writer's opinion about the future of the Cavendish?
A. Optimistic B. Pessimistic C. Cautious D. Uninterested
PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10
It was previously believed that dinosaurs were cold-blooded creatures, like reptiles. However, a recent discovery has led
researchers to believe they may have been warm-blooded. The fossilized remains of a 66 million-year-old dinosaur’s
heart were discovered and examined by x-ray. The basis for the analysis that they were warm-blooded is the number of
chambers in the heart as well as the existence of a single aorta.
Most reptiles have three chambers in their hearts, although some do have four. But those that have four chambers, such
as the crocodile, have two arteries to mix the oxygen-heavy blood with oxygen-lean blood. Reptiles are cold-blooded,
meaning that they are dependent on the environment for body heat. Yet the fossilized heart had four chambers in the
heart as well as a single aorta. The single aorta means that the oxygen-rich blood was completely separated from the
oxygen-poor blood and sent through the aorta to all parts of the body.
Mammals, on the other hand, are warm-blooded, meaning that they generate their own body heat and are thus more
tolerant of temperature extremes. Birds and mammals, because they are warm blooded, move more swiftly and have
greater physical endurance than reptiles.
Scientists believe that the evidence now points to the idea that all dinosaurs were actually warm-blooded. Ironically, the
particular dinosaur in which the discovery was made was a Tescelosaurus, which translates to “marvelous lizard”. A
lizard, of course, is a reptile.
1. The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to _________.
A. researchers B. dinosaurs C. reptiles D. discoveries
2. According to the author, what theory was previously held and now is being questioned?
A. That dinosaurs were cold-blooded B. That dinosaurs were warm-blooded
C. That dinosaurs had four-chambered hearts D. That dinosaurs were swifter and stronger than reptiles
3. What is the basis of the researchers’ new theory?
A. They performed mathematical calculations and determined that dinosaurs must have had four-chambered hearts.
B. They found a fossil of an entire dinosaur and reviewed the arteries and veins flowing from and to the heart.
C. They viewed a fossil of a dinosaur’s heart and discovered that it had two aortas.
D. They found a fossil of a dinosaur’s heart and discovered it had four chambers and one aorta.
4. The word “those” in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. hearts B. chambers C. reptiles D. arteries
5. The author implies that reptiles _________.
A. are cold-blooded B. have four-chambered hearts
C. have one aorta D. are faster and have more endurance than mammals
6. The word “completely” in paragraph two is closest in meaning to _________.
A. constantly B. unevenly C. partially D. entirely
7. The word “generate” in paragraph three is closest in meaning to _________.
A. use B. lose C. produce D. tolerate
8. The author implies that birds _________.
A. move slower and have less endurance than reptiles B. move faster and have greater endurance than reptiles
C. move faster and have greater endurance than dinosaurs D. move slower and have less endurance than dinosaurs
9. What does the author imply by the sentence:
“Ironically, the particular dinosaur in which the discovery was made was a Tescelosaurus, which translates to “marvelous
lizard”.
A. It is unusual that the creature would have a name with the suffix of a dinosaur.
B. It is surprising that the fossilized heart was discovered.
C. It is paradoxical that the dinosaur’s name includes the word lizard, because now scientists believe it is not a lizard.
D. It should have been realized long ago that dinosaurs were warm-blooded.
10. The word “particular” in paragraph four is closest in meaning to _________.
A. special B. specific C. sparse D. spatial
PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20
Sometimes people worry about the germs that they come into contact with daily. In fact, most people would be surprised
to learn just how many microbes actually inhabit a human’s body at any given time, in addition to the larger visitors that
come around occasionally. Such natural species that regularly come into contact with our bodies include mites, lice,
yeast, and fungus, just to name a few. We are, in fact, an ecosystem much like a rain forest is to the natural flora and
fauna that call it home.
Lice, or nits, are particularly horrible to even think about. To learn that one’s child has been found in school with head
lice can cause trauma and shame. People think that having lice is a symptom of being unclean, although one can be
infected by contact with somebody else who has them. Although lice are not that common in general circles, children can
easily acquire them just because of their close contact with other children at school or play. Some large cities host high-
priced nit pickers who make a living removing head lice from children.
Mites on the human body are much more common, and cleanliness does not eliminate the chance of having them. They
are also microscopic, so they are invisible to the naked eye. There are a number of different species of mites, two of
which have the human face as their natural habitat, particularly the skin of the forehead. Others are very content among
human hair, living among the follicles of the eyelashes, eyebrows, and scalp hair.
Not all such inhabitants are harmful. In fact, even the annoying mite lives on dead skin cells, actually doing us a
favor by removing them. The dreaded dust mite, for example, blamed for causing allergies, removes dead skin from bed
coverings. And harmless bacteria often keep potentially harmful bacteria from being able to survive. So people should not
try to eliminate mites from their bodies, although some have tried. Some sufferers of obsessive/compulsive disorder have
scrubbed themselves raw trying to eliminate all scavengers from their bodies, only to damage their skin, and all to no
avail.
Certain types of yeast also regularly live on the human body, sometimes causing annoyances. One common type lives on
the oil produced in the skin of the face or scalp, causing a condition known as pityriasis versicolor, which is a scaling and
discoloration of the skin.
Ailments such as athlete’s foot are caused by a fungus that grows in warm, moist conditions. To avoid them or avoid a
recurrence, patients are encouraged keep their feet dry and cool, which of course may not be easy, depending on one’s
work or personal habits. Ringworm is also a fungus acquired by contact with keratin-rich soil in many parts of the world.
Besides the tiny inhabitants, we are also regularly harassed by insects that feed off of our bodies, like mosquitoes, ticks,
and fleas, which sometimes deposit harmful illnesses at the same time they probe the skin for the blood on which they
live. Mosquitoes have been known to cause malaria and yellow fever as well as encephalitis. Fleas have transmitted
bubonic plague, and ticks have caused lime disease.
Just like a river, an ocean, a rain forest, or any other ecological wonder in which numerous species survive, feeding upon
other inhabitants, our bodies are natural providers of nutrition and life for various small and microscopic species.
11. The word “inhabit” in the second sentence is closest in meaning to _________.
A. escape B. feed on C. live in D. abuse
12. The author’s main point is _________.
A. to describe how the human body is host to a number of different harmful and harmless inhabitants and visitors.
B. to describe the dangerous ailments that can result from insects and microbes.
C. to warn people about the dangers of being attacked by small life forms.
D. to describe how to rid oneself of bacteria and insects.
13. The author infers that lice and mites are different in that _________.
A. lice are not harmful, but mites are. B. mites live only on the skin, and lice live only in the hair.
C. mites are treatable, and lice are not. D. mites are totally unavoidable, while lice may be avoidable.
14. The word “shame” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. anger B. embarrassment C. disbelief D. contentment
15. The word “their” in the second paragraph refers to _________.
A. lice’s B. schools’ C. circles’ D. children’s
16. The word “Others” in the third paragraph refers to _________.
A. foreheads B. follicles C. mite species D. habitats
17. The author indicates that lice are also known as _________.
A. yeast B. nits C. microbes D. ticks
18. The author indicates that a nit picker is _________.
A. somebody who removes lice professionally B. somebody who is afraid of mites
C. a doctor who treats patients for infection D. somebody who has been bitten by a tick
19. The author infers that _________.
A. being host to insects and microbes is unwise B. one can avoid infestation by microbes
C. insects are the cause of microbial infestation D. being host to insects and microbes is inevitable
20. What does the author mean by the statement “Not all such inhabitants are harmful” at the beginning of the
fourth paragraph?
A. Mites are the same as yeast.
B. Some mites eat other harmful mites.
C. Mites actually are beneficial because they remove dead skin particles from the body and habitat.
D. The diseases mites carry do not pass to humans.
PASSAGE 3 – Questions 21-30
The Asian migration hypothesis is today supported by most of the scientific evidence. The first “hard” data linking
American Indians with Asians appeared in the 1980s with the finding that Indians and northeast Asians share a common
and distinctive pattern in the arrangement of the teeth. But perhaps the most compelling support for the hypothesis
comes from genetic research. Studies comparing the DNA variation of populations around the world consistently
demonstrate the close genetic relationship of the two populations, and recently geneticists studying a virus sequestered
in the kidneys of all humans found that the strain of virus carried by Navajos and Japanese is nearly identical, while that
carried by Europeans and Africans is quite different.
The migration could have begun over a land bridge connecting the continents. During the last Ice Age 70.000 to 10.000
years ago, huge glaciers locked up massive volumes of water and sea levels were as much as 300 feet lower than today.
Asia and North America were joined by a huge Subcontinent of ice-free, treeless grassland. 750 miles wide. Geologists
have named this area Beringia, from the Bering Straits. Summers there were warm, winters were cold, dry and almost
snow-free. This was a perfect environment for large mammals-mammoth and mastodon, bison, horse, reindeer, camel,
and saiga (a goatlike antelope). Small bands of Stone Age hunter-gatherers were attracted by these animal populations.
which provided them not only with food but with hides for clothing and shelter, dung for fuel. and bones for tools and
weapons. Accompanied by a husky-like species of dog, hunting bands gradually moved as far east as the Yukon River
basin of northern Canada, where field excavations have uncovered the fossilized jawbones of several dogs and bone tools
estimated to be about 27,000 years old.
Other evidence suggests that the migration from Asia began about 30,000 years ago-around the same time that Japan
and Scandinavia were being settled. This evidence is based on blood type. The vast majority of modern Native Americans
have type 0 blood and a few have type A, but almost none have type B. Because modern Asian populations include all
three blood types, however, the migrations must have begun before the evolution of type B, which geneticists believe
occurred about 30,000 years ago.
By 25,000 years ago human communities were established in western Beringia, which is present-day Alaska. [A] But
access to the south was blocked by a huge glacial sheet covering much of what Is today Canada. How did the hunters
get over those 2,000 miles of deep ice? The argument is that the climate began to warm with the passing of the Ice Age,
and about 13,000 B.C.E. glacial melting created an ice-free corridor along the eastern front range of the Rocky
Mountains. [B] Soon hunters of big game had reached the Great Plains.
In the past several years, however, new archaeological finds along the Pacific coast of North and South America have
thrown this theory into question. [C] The most spectacular find, at Monte Verde in southern Chile, produced striking
evidence of tool making, house building, rock painting, and human foot prints conservatively dated at 12,500 years ago,
long before the highway had been cleared of ice. [D] Many archaeologists now believe that migrants moved south in
boats along a coastal route rather than overland. These people were probably gatherers and fishers rather than hunters
of big game.
There were two Later migrations into North America. About 5000 B.C.E. the Athapascan or Na-Dene people began to
settle the forests in the northwestern area of the continent. Eventually Athapascan speakers, the ancestors of the
Navajos and Apaches, migrated across the Great Plains to the Southwest. The final migration began about 3000
B.C.E after Beringnia had been submerged, when a maritime hunting people crossed the Bering Straits in
small boats. The Inuits (also known as the Eskimos) colonized the polar coasts of the Arctic, the Yupiks the coast of
southwestern Alaska, and the Aleuts the Aleutian Islands. While scientists debate the timing and mapping of these
migrations, many Indian people hold to oral traditions that include a long journey from a distant place of origin to a new
homeland.
21. The word “distinctive” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. New B. simple C. particular D. different
22. According to paragraph 2, why did Stone Age tribes begin to migrate Into Beringia?
A. To hunt for animals in the area B. To Intermarry with tribes living there
C. To trade with tribes that made tools D. To capture domesticated dogs
23. The phrase “Accompanied by” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. found with B. detoured with C. threatened by D. joined by
24. The word “which” in the passage refers to _________.
A. evolution B. migrations C. geneticists D. populations
25. Why does the author mention blood types in paragraph 3?
A. Blood types offered proof that the migration had come from Scandinavia.
B. Comparisons of blood types in Asia and North America established the date of migration.
C. The presence of type B in Native Americans was evidence of the migration.
D. The blood typing was similar to data from both Japan and Scandinavia.
26. How did groups migrate Into the Great Plains?
A. By following a mountain trail B. By walking on a corridor covered with Ice
C. By using the path that big game had made D. By detouring around a huge ice sheet
27. The word “Eventually” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. in this way B. without doubt C. nevertheless D. in the end
28. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the
passage? The other choices change the meaning or leave out important information.
A. Beringia sank after the last people had crossed the straits in their boats about 3000 B.C.E.
B. About 3000 B.C.E., the final migration of people in small boats across Beringia had ended.
C. Beringia was under water when the last people crossed the straits in boats about 3000 B.C.E.
D. About 3000 B.C.E., Beringia was flooded, preventing the last people from migrating in small boats.
29. According to paragraph 6, all of the following are true about the later migrations EXCEPT _________.
A. The Athapascans traveled into the Southwest United States.
B. The Eskimos established homes in the Arctic polar region.
C. The Yupiks established settlements on the Great Plains.
D. The Aleuts migrated in small boats to settle coastal islands.
30. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
Newly excavated early human sites in Washington State, California, and Peru have been radiocarbon dated to be 11,000
to 12,000 years old.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
PASSAGE 4 – Questions 31-40
One of the primary ways of approaching the Greek theatre is through archeology, the systematic study of material
remains such as architecture, inscriptions, sculpture, vase painting, and other forms of decorative art. [A] Serious on-site
excavations began in Greece around 1870, but W. Dorpfeld did not begin the first extensive study of the Theatre of
Dionysus until 1886. [B] Since that time, more than 167 other Greek theatres have been identified and many of them
have been excavated. [C] Nevertheless, they still do not permit us to describe the precise appearance of the skene
(illustrations printed in books are conjectural reconstructions), since many pieces are irrevocably lost because the
buildings in later periods became sources of stone for other projects and what remains is usually broken and scattered.
[D] That most of the buildings were remodeled many times has created great problems for those seeking to date both
the parts and the successive versions. Despite these drawbacks, archeology provides the most concrete evidence we
have about the theatre structures of ancient Greece. But, if they have told us much, archeologists have not completed
their work, and many sites have scarcely been touched.
Perhaps the most controversial use of archeological evidence in theatre history is vase paintings, thousands of which
have survived from ancient Greece. (Most of those used by theatre scholars are reproduced in Margarete Bieber’s The
History of the Greek and Roman Theatre.) Depicting scenes from mythology and daily life, the vases are the most graphic
pictorial evidence we have. But they are also easy to misinterpret. Some scholars have considered any vase that depicts a
subject treated in a surviving drama or any scene showing masks, flute players, or ceremonials to be valid evidence of
theatrical practice. This is a highly questionable assumption, since the Greeks made widespread use of masks, dances,
and music outside the theatre and since the myths on which dramatists drew were known to everyone, including vase
painters, who might well depict the same subjects as dramatists without being indebted to them. Those vases showing
scenes unquestionably theatrical are few in number.
Written evidence about ancient Greek theatre is often treated as less reliable than archeological evidence because most
written accounts are separated so far in time from the events they describe and because they provide no information
about their own sources. Of the written evidence, the surviving plays are usually treated as the most reliable. But the
oldest surviving manuscripts of Greek plays date from around the tenth century, C.E., some 1500 years after they were
first performed. Since printing did not exist during this time span, copies of plays had to be made by hand, and therefore
the possibility of textual errors creeping in was magnified. Nevertheless, the scripts offer us our readiest access to the
cultural and theatrical conditions out of which they came. But these scripts, like other kinds of evidence, are subject to
varying interpretations. Certainly performances embodied a male perspective, for example, since the plays were written,
selected, staged, and acted by men. Yet the existing plays feature numerous choruses of women and many feature
strong female characters. Because these characters often seem victims of their own powerlessness and appear to be
governed, especially in the comedies, by sexual desire, some critics have seen these plays as rationalizations by the
male-dominated culture for keeping women segregated and cloistered. Other critics, however, have seen in these same
plays an attempt by male authors to force their male audiences to examine and call into question this segregation and
cloistering of Athenian women.
By far the majority of written references to Greek theatre date from several hundred years after the events they report.
The writers seldom mention their sources of evidence, and thus we do not know what credence to give them. In the
absence of material nearer in time to the events, however, historians have used the accounts and have been grateful to
have them. Overall, historical treatment of the Greek theatre is something like assembling a jigsaw puzzle from which
many pieces are missing: historians arrange what they have and imagine (with the aid of the remaining evidence and
logic) what has been lost. As a result, though the broad outlines of Greek theatre history are reasonably clear, many of
the details remain open to doubt.
31. According to paragraph 1, why is it impossible to identify the time period for theatres in Greece?
A. It is confusing because stones from early sites were used to build later structures.
B. There are too few sites that have been excavated and very little data collected about them.
C. The archeologists from earlier periods were not careful, and many artifacts were broken.
D. Because it is very difficult to date the concrete that was used in construction during early periods.
32. What can be inferred from paragraph 1 about the skene in theatre history?
A. Drawings in books are the only accurate visual records.
B. Archaeologists have excavated a large number of them.
C. It was not identified or studied until the early 1800s.
D. Not enough evidence is available to make a precise model.
33. The word “primary” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. important B. reliable C. unusual D. accepted
34. In paragraph 2, the author explains that all vases with paintings of masks or musicians may not be evidence of
theatrical subjects by
A. identifying some of the vases as reproductions that were painted years after the originals
B. casting doubt on the qualifications of the scholars who produced the vases as evidence
C. arguing that the subjects could have been used by artists without reference to a drama
D. pointing out that there are very few vases that have survived from the time of early dramas
35. In paragraph 3, the author states that female characters in Greek theatre _________.
A. had no featured parts in plays B. frequently played the part of victims
C. were mostly ignored by critics D. did not participate in the chorus
36. According to paragraph 3, scripts of plays may not be accurate because _________.
A. copies by hand may contain many errors B. the sources cited are not well known
C. they are written in very old language D. the printing is difficult to read
37. The word “them” in the passage refers to _________.
A. events B. writers C. sources D. references
38. Why does the author mention a jigsaw puzzle in paragraph 4?
A. To compare the written references for plays to the paintings on vases
B. To justify using accounts and records that historians have located
C. To introduce the topic for the next reading passage in the textbook
D. To demonstrate the difficulty in drawing conclusions from partial evidence
39. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the author’s opinion about vase paintings?
A. Evidence from written documents is older than evidence from vase paintings.
B. There is disagreement among scholars regarding vase paintings.
C. The sources for vase paintings are clear because of the images on them.
D. The details in vase paintings are not obvious because of their age.
40. Look at the four squares [_] that indicate where the following sentence can be added to the passage.
These excavations have revealed much that was previously unknown, especially about the dimensions and layout of
theatres.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]

EXERCISE 1:
No one can say when sports began. Since it is impossible to (1)_______ a time when children did not spontaneously run
races or wrestle, it is clear that children have always included sports in their play, but one can only speculate about the
(2) _______ of sports as autotelic physical contests for (3) _______. Hunters are depicted in prehistoric art, but it cannot
be known (4) _______ the hunters pursued their prey in a mood of grim necessity or with the joyful abandon of
sportsmen. It is certain, (5) _______, from the rich literary and iconographic evidence of all ancient civilizations that
hunting soon became an end in itself at least for royalty and nobility.
Archaeological evidence also indicates that ball games were common among ancient people as (6) _______ as the
Chinese and the Aztecs. If ball games were contests rather than (6) _______ritual performances, such as the Japanese
football game Kemari, then they were sports in the most rigorously (7) _______ sense. That it cannot (8) _______ be
assumed that they were contests is clear from the evidence presented by Greek and Roman antiquity, which indicates
that ball games had been for the most part playful pastimes (9) _______ those recommended for healthy by the Greek
physician Galen in the 2nd century AD.
Question 1 A. think B. see C. have D. imagine
Question 2 A. emergence B. emerge C. emergency D. immersion
Question 3 A. people B. children C. adults D. society
Question 4 A. when B. whether C. how D. why
Question 5 A. therefore B. so C. consequently D. however
Question 6 A. different B. far C. similar D. old
Question 7 A. competitive B. competitively C. noncompetitive D. competition
Question 8 A. definite B. defined C. definitive D. definition
Question 9 A. really B. actually C. usually D. simply
Question 10 A. as B. like C. alike D. of
EXERCISE 2:
Etymologically, anthropology is the science of humans. In fact, however, it is only once of the sciences of humans,
bringing together those disciplines the common aims of which are to describe human beings and explain them on the
basis of the biological and cultural characteristics of the populations among which they are distributed and to emphasize,
through time, the differences and variations of these populations. The concept of race, on the one hand, and that of
culture, on the other, have received special attention; and although their meaning is still subject to debate, these terms
are doubtless the most common of those in the anthropologist’s vocabulary.
Anthropology, which is concerned with the study of human differences, was born after the Age of Discovery had opened
up societies that had remained outside the technological civilization of the modern West. In fact, the field of research was
at first restricted to those societies that had been given one unsatisfactory label after another. “savage”, “primitive”,
“tribal”, “traditional”, or even “preliterate”, “prehistorical”, and so on. What such societies had in common, above all, was
being the most “different” or the most foreign to the anthropologist; and in the early phases of anthropology, the
anthropologists were always European or North American. The distance between the researcher and the object of his
study has been a characteristic of anthropological research; it has been said of the anthropologists that he was the
“astronomer of the sciences of man”.
Anthropologists today study more than just primitive societies. Their research extends not only to village communities,
within modern societies but also to cities, even to industrial enterprises. Nevertheless, anthropology’s first field of
research, and the one that perhaps remains the most important, shaped its specific point of view with regard to the
other sciences of man and defined its theme. If, in particular, it is concerned with generalizing about patterns of human
behaviour seen in all their dimensions and with achieving a total description of social and cultural phenomena, this is
because anthropology has observed small-scale societies, which are simpler or at least more homogeneous than modern
societies and which change at a slower pace. Thus they are easier to see whole.
What has just been said refers especially to branch of anthropology concerned with the cultural characteristics of man?
Anthropology has, in fact, gradually divided itself into two major sphres, the study of man’s biological characteristics and
the study of his cultural characteristics. The reasons for this split are manifold, one being the rejection of the initial
mistakes regarding correlations between race and culture. More generally speaking, the vast field of 19th century
anthropology was subdivided into a series of increasingly specialized disciplines, using their own methods and techniques,
that were given different labels according to national traditions.
Question 1: According to the passage, anthropology is most likely defined as the study of _______.
A. one of the sciences of humans B. the biological and cultural characteristics of human beings
C. the lives of people all over the world D. the distribution of human beings the world over
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT stated in the passage?
A. Anthropology has been subdivided into specialized disciplines
B. Anthropology gives special attention to the concept of race.
C. Anthropology is concerned with the study of human differences.
D. Anthropologists are agreed on the meaning of race and culture.
Question 3: It is implied in the passage that the early anthropologists did research only on _______.
A. large societies B. modern groups C. racial minorities D. civilized societies
Question 4: It can be inferred from the passage that anthropology was first developed in _______.
A. Europe and North America B. some primitive societies
C. some tribal societies D. some prehistoric societies
Question 5: Anthropologists of the early phases were regarded as the “astronomers of the sciences of man” because
_______.
A. they also studied the sun, the moon, stars, planets, etc.
B. they also studied our planets as the sciences of man
C. they did not belong to the societies into which they did research
D. they applied the sciences of man to astronomy
Question 6: According to the passage, modern anthropologists study _______.
A. only primitive and tribal societies B. both communities and modern societies
C. only modern industrial societies D. both primitive and modern societies
Question 7: The phrase “first field of research” in paragraph 3 most likely refers to the study of _______.
A. modern societies B. primitive societies C. large societies D. industrial societies
Question 8: Small societies are preferable to anthropological research because they are _______.
A. simple, homogenous, and change slowly B. small, isolated, and easy to study
C. ancient, exotic, and interesting D. similar to primitive societies
Question 9: It is mentioned in the passage that the split of anthropology into two major areas is partly due to _______.
A. more knowledge to be gained B. the development of the sciences of humans
C. the interpretation of race and culture D. the development of modern anthropology
Question 10: It is mentioned in the passage that anthropology began to divided into various disciplines in _______.
A. prehistoric times B. the Age of Discovery C. the 20th century D. the 19th century
VOCABULARY
• homogeneous: đồng nhất, đồng đều
• manifold: rất nhiều
• correlation: sự tương quan
• subdivide: chia nhỏ ra
EXERCISE 3:
It may seem as if the art of music by its nature would not lend itself to the exploration and expression of really
characteristic of Romanticism, but that is not so. True, music does not tell stories or paint pictures, but it stirs feeling and
evokes moods, through both of which various kinds of reality can be suggested or expressed. It was in the rationalist
18th century that musicians rather mechanically attempted to reproduce stories and subjects in sound. These literal
renderings naturally failed, and the Romanticists profited from the error. Their discovery of new realms of experience
proved communicable in the first place because they were in touch with the spirit of renovation, particularly through
poetry. What Goethe meant to Beethoven and Berlioz and what German folk tales and contemporary lyricists meant to
Weber, Schumann, and Schubert are familiar to all who are acquainted with the music of these men.
There is, of course, no way to demonstrate that Beethoven’s Egmont music or, indeed, its overture alone corresponds to
Goethe’s drama and thereby enlarges the hearer’s consciousness of it; but it cannot be accident or an aberration that
the greatest composers the period employed the resources of their art for the creation of works expressly related to such
lyrical and dramatic subjects. Similarly, the love of nature stirred Beethoven, Weber and Berlioz, and here too the
correspondence is felty and persuades the fit listener that his own experience is being expanded. The words of the
creators themselves record this new comprehensiveness. Beethoven referred to his activity of mingled of contemplation
and composition as dichten, making a poem; and Berlioz tells in his Memoires of the impetus given to his genius by the
music of Beethoven and Weber, by the poetry of Goethe and Shakespeare, and not least by the spectacle of nature. Nor
did the public that ultimately understood their works gainsay their claims.
It must be added that the Romantic musicians including Chopin, Mendelssohn, Glinka, and Liszt had at their disposal
greatly improved instruments. The beginning of the 19th century produced the modern piano, of greater range and
dynamics than theretofore, and made all wind instruments more exact and powerful by the use of the keys and valves.
The modern full orchestra was the result. Berlioz, whose classic treatise on instrumentation and orchestration helped to
give it definite form, was also the first to exploit its resources to the full, in the Symphonic fantastique of 1830. This
work, besides its technical significance just mentioned, can also be regarded as uniting the characteristics of Romanticism
in music, it is both lyrical and dramatic, and, although it makes use of a “story”, that use is not to describe the scenes but
to connect them; its slow movement is a “nature poem” in the Beethovenian manner; the second, fourth, and fifth
movements include “realistic” detail of the most vivid kind; and the opening one is an introspective reverie.
Question 1: Music can suggest or express various kinds reality by _______.
A. telling stories or minting pictures B. stirring feelings and evoking moods
C. exploring and expressing reality D. depicting nature and reality
Question 2: The word “error” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. the feelings and moods of the Romanticist musicians
B. the exploration and expression of reality of Romanticism
C. the works of the Romanticist musicians in the 18th century
D. musicians’ mechanical reproduction of stories and subjects
Question 3: It is stated in the passage that the Romanticists were influenced by _______.
A. the works of the rationalist musicians in the 18th century B. Goethe, German folk tales and contemporary
C. the thoughts of Beethoven, Weber, and Berlioz D. the art of music by the rationalist musicians
Question 4: The word “accident” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to _______.
A. unplanned happening B. collision or similar incident C. unusual occurrence D. unpleasant event
Question 5: The passage indicates that the Romanticist composers were inspired not only by lyrical and dramatic subjects
but also by _______.
A. the rationalists B. the creation of works C. the love of nature D. the poetry of Goethe
Question 6: It can be inferred from the passage that Berlioz were _______.
A. a rationalist musician B. an English writer C. a composer and critic D. a German poet
Question 7: The Romantic musicians also made use of modern technologies such as _______.
A. improved wind instruments B. powerful keys and valves
C. greater range and dynamics D. instrumentation and orchestration
Question 8: Romanticism in music is characterized as being _______.
A. exact and powerful B. realistic and vivid C. great and dynamic D. lyrical and dramatic
Question 9: All of the following are true about the Symphonic fantastique EXCEPT _______.
A. It is both lyrical and dramatic B. It was composed by Beethoven
C. It was issued in 1830 D. It unites the characteristics of Romanticism
Question 10: According to the passage, Romanticism in music extended over _______.
A. the 18th and 19th centuries B. the late 18th century
C. the early 19th century D. the beginning of the 20th century
VOCABULARY
• rationalist: người theo chủ nghĩa duy lý
• aberration: sự lầm lạc
• impetus: sự thúc đẩy
• gainsay: nói trái lại
• overture: khúc mở màn
• introspective: nội tâm
EXERCISE 4:
Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English was first written down when Christian monks
came to England In Anglo-Saxon (1) ________. They used the 23 letters of Latin to write down the sound of Anglo-
Saxon (2) ________ as they heard it. However, English has a (3) ________ range of basic sounds (over 40) than Latin.
The alphabet was too small, and so combinations of letters were needed to (4) ________ the different sounds.
Inevitably, there were inconsistencies in the way that letters were combined. With the Norman invasion of England, the
English language was put at risk, English survived, but the spelling of many English words changed to follow French (5)
________, and many French words were introduced into the language. The result was more irregularity.
When the printing press was (6) ________ in the fifteenth century, many early printers of English texts spoke other first
languages. They made little effort to respect English spelling. Although one of the short-term (7) ________ of printing
was to produce a number of variant spelling, in the long term it created fixed spellings. People became used to seeing
words spelt in the same way. Rules were (8) ________ , and dictionaries were put together which printers and writers
could refer to. However, spoken English was not fixed and continued to change slowly – just as it still does now.
Letters that were sounded in the Anglo-Saxon period, like the “k” in “knife”, now became (9) ________. Also, the
pronunciation of vowels then had little in common with how they sound now, but the way they are spelt hasn’t changed.
No (10) ________, then, that it is often difficult to see the link between sound and spelling.
Question 1 A. years B. centuries C. times D. ages
Question 2 A. speech B. chat C. discussion D. communication
Question 3 A. longer B. wider C. thicker D. deeper
Question 4 A. perform B. tell C. explain D. express
Question 5 A. plans B. patterns C. guides D. types
Question 6 A. take in B. invented C. made up D. discovered
Question 7 A. conclusions B. effects C. meanings D. actions
Question 8 A. filled in B. handed out C. drawn up D. got across
Question 9 A. silent B. quiet C. speechless D. dumb
Question 10 A. wonder B. problem C. mention D. idea
EXERCISE 5: DESERTIFICATION
Desertification is the degradation once-productive land into unproductive or poorly productive land. Since the first great
urban-agricultural centers in Mesopotamia nearly 6000 years ago, human activity has had a destructive impact on soil
quality, leading to gradual desertification in virtually every area of the world.
It is a common misconception that desertification is caused by droughts. Although drought does make land more
vulnerable, well-managed land can survive droughts and recover, even in arid regions. Another mistaken belief is that the
process occurs only along the edges of deserts. In fact, it may take place in any arid or semiarid region, especially where
poor land management is practiced. Most vulnerable, however, are the transitional zones between deserts and
arable land; wherever human activity leads to land abuse in these fragile marginal areas, soil destruction
is inevitable.
[1] Agriculture and overgrazing are the two major sources of desertification. [2] Large-scale farming requires extensive
irrigation, which ultimately destroys lands by depleting its nutrients and leaching minerals into the topsoil. [3] Grazing is
especially destructive to land because, in addition to depleting cover vegetation, herds of grazing mammals also trample
the fine organic particles of the topsoil, leading to soil compaction and erosion. [4] It takes about 500 years for the
earth to build up 3 centimeters of topsoil. However, cattle ranching and agriculture can deplete as much as 2 to 3
centimeters of topsoil every 25 years – 60 to 80 times faster than it can be replaced by nature.
Salination is a type of land degradation that involves an increase in the salt content of the soil. This usually occurs as a
result of improper irrigation practices. The greatest Mesopotamian empires – Sumer, Akkad and Babylon – were built on
the surplus of the enormously productive soil of the ancient Tigris-Euphrates alluvial plain. After nearly a thousand years
of intensive cultivation, land quality was evident decline. In response, around 2800 BC the Sumerians began digging the
huge Tigris-Euphrates canal system to irrigate the exhausted soil. A temporary gain in crop yield was achieved in this
way, but over -irrigation was have serious and unforeseen consequences. From as early as 2400 BC we find Sumerian
documents referring to salinization as a soil problem. It is believed that the fall of the Akkadian Empire around 2150 BC
may have been due to a catastrophic failure in land productivity; the soil was literally turned into salt. Even today, four
thousand years later, vast tracks of salinized land between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers still resemble rock-hand fields
of snow.
Soil erosion is another form of desertification. It is a self-reinforcing process; once the cycle of degradation begins,
conditions are set for continual deterioration. As the vegetative cover begins to disappear, soil becomes more vulnerable
to raindrop impact. Water runs off instead of soaking in to provide moisture for plants. This further diminishes plan cover
by leaching way nutrients from the soil. As soil quality declines and runoff is increased, floods become more frequent
and more severe. Flooding washes away topsoil, the thin, rich, uppermost layer of the earth’s soil, and leaves finer
underlying particles more vulnerable to wind erosion. Topsoil contains the earth’s land-based biological activity occurs.
Without this fragile coat of nutrient-laden material, plan life cannot exist. An extreme case of its erosion is found in the
Sahel, a transitional zone between the Sahara Desert and the tropical African rain forests; home to some 56 million
people.
Overpopulation and overgrazing have opened the hyperarid land to wind erosion, which is stripping away the protective
margin of the Sahel, and causing the desert to grow at an alarming rate. Between 1950 and 1975, the Sahara Desert
spread 100 kilometers southward through the Sahel.
Question 1: Which of the following statements is true about desertification?
A. It was just as serious in the past as it is today. B. Ancient societies managed the problem well.
C. It is a fairly recent problem. D. It has a history as long as that of civilization.
Question 2: The word “arable” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to ______.
A. populated B. settled C. cultivatable D. dry
Question 3: According to the passage, many people’s understanding of desertification is incorrect because
A. they do not see it as being caused human activity B. they see it as being reversible
C. they think of it as a very slow process D. they do not think of it as a serious problem
Question 4: Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence in the
passage?
A. Most of the vulnerable areas in transition from desert to arable land, a process that because of human activity and the
delicate nature of these areas, always leads to soil loss.
B. It is the areas that exist between the deserts and the land that is usable for agriculture that are most at risk because
they are susceptible to poor land management methods from human activity which will always result in the loss of soil.
C. Soil loss in the transitional zones is especially severe where human activity is damaging the environment through
agriculture which is causing the loss of soil.
D. Human activity in the transition areas is vulnerable because of the fragile nature of these areas that are neither desert
nor arable land because they have suffered damage to the soil.
Question 5: The word “compaction” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to ____.
A. depletion B. compression C. disruption D. fragmentation
Question 6: According to the passage, agriculture furthers desertification through which of the following activities?
A. Over fertilization B. The repetitive planting of the same crops
C. The stripping away of native vegetation D. Irrigation
Question 7: The word “degradation” in the paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to
A. contribution B. rejuvenation C. consumption D. deterioration
Question 8: Paragraph 4 of the passage serves mainly to do which of the following?
A. Propose a method for dealing with desertification problem.
B. Describe the main cause of desertification in one particular area
C. Describe one process that leads to desertification
D. Show the progress of desertification down through history
Question 9: The word “leaching” in paragraph 5 is closet in meaning to
A. washing B. depositing C. dispersing D. concentrating
Question 10: Look at numbers [1], [2], [3], [4] in paragraph 3 of the passage. Where would the following sentence best
fit?
Each furthers the process dramatically, but they act in quite different ways
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
VOCABULARY
• trample: giẫm đạp, làm tổn hại
• salination: sự ướp muối
• improper: không chính xác
• semiarid: bán khô cằn
ARE YOU A BULLY?
—Researchers at Compass Academy have been asking this question for the last eight months, and according to a recent
experiment they believe they have found the answer. Experiments show that one's propensity for being a bully is
probably not the product of one’s personality or background. Bullying may be a natural response to specific situations,
hard-wired into the human brain. Given the right environmental conditions, anyone, even the most easygoing person, can
quickly turn mean.
To arrive at this conclusion, researchers examined thirty sample populations, or "teams," consisting of twenty individuals
each. In each of these teams, a leader was selected. Not just any leader would do. The population of leaders selected
had to be very diverse; the researchers did not want their results to be skewed because all team leaders were white
males aged 15 –18, for example. Therefore, leaders were selected so to represent a variety of traits. Each leader had
a different age and gender, as well as different economic, social, and ethnic backgrounds.
After the teams had been established, researchers began the experiment. The teams were given a goal of forming a line
from shortest to tallest, using every person on the team. Sounds pretty simple, right? But there was a catch: the leader
was the only one allowed to move team members into position. Absolute power was given solely to the team leader, and
team members had to obey him or her no matter what. What is more, in order to incentivize the teams, they were told
that a $2000 prize was to be awarded to the team that managed to form a perfect line in the least amount of time.
Given the relatively large team size, there was almost always a case in which the leader had to make a tough decision
regarding who was taller. And, upon the decision, there was likely disagreement on behalf of the team members. Given
that a $2000 payoff was at stake, things often became rather heated. In the shuffle, it was not uncommon to hear team
members utter such criticisms as, "Great, we're never going to win now," and "Who picked our team leader?"
Researchers found that in roughly 80% of all cases in which such remarks were made, the team leader immediately
entered bully mode, disparaging ornery team members with remarks such as "Shut up," and "Just do what I say and
keep your mouth shut, okay?" In one such occasion, the team leader was recorded saying, "There's a reason
I'm the boss here, buddy," when in actuality, there wasn't. In a particularly tense exchange, the team leader was
overheard asking the team member if he "wanted to get hurt"—a classic bullying tactic—and researchers were forced to
intervene. Unsurprisingly, this group did not win the prize.
What are we to glean from such a study? The belief that some people are born bullies is certainly shaken; it seems
anyone can be a bully, no matter his or her background. So the next time you feel the bully within yearning to come out,
don't let it. If you see someone else being a bully, don't judge him or her so quickly. Instead, realize that their bullying
behavior doesn't just come from within. Rather, one study shows that it may very well come from without.

1) Based on its use in paragraph 1, it can be inferred that the word propensity belongs to which of the following word
groups?
A. inclination, proclivity, tendency B. decision, action, affirmation
C. ability, aptitude, capacity D. tug, gravity, pull
2) Based on information in the passage, it can be understood that something that is "hard-wired" into the brain is
A. attached to the brain via physical wires B. a result of one's environment
C. a product of the imagination D. an inborn trait
3) Which of the following sentences from the passage best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
A. "Researchers at Compass Academy have been asking this question for the last eight months, and according to a recent
experiment, they believe they have found an answer."
B. "Given the right environmental conditions, anyone, even the most easygoing person, can quickly turn mean."
C. "One team leader was actually recorded saying, "There's a reason I'm the boss here, buddy" when in actuality, there
wasn't."
D. "The belief that some people are born bullies is certainly shaken; it seems anyone can be a bully, no matter his or
her background."
4) In paragraph 2, the author writes, "The population of leaders selected had to be very diverse; the researchers did not
want their results to be skewed because all team leaders were white males aged 15 –18, for example." Given the context
of this quotation, it can be understood that the author means to say that the researchers wanted to
A. ensure that their experiment was designed to test whether personality traits had a general correlation with
bullying
B. avoid the risk of failing to include a certain social demographic in their experiment
C. eliminate the possibility that the public would view their experiment as racially prejudiced and therefore invalid
D. guarantee that no certain leader would feel excluded or left out
5) As used in paragraph 4, the word disparaging most nearly means
A. inflicting physical harm B. verbally abusing C. challenging D. firmly replying

The Anti --Stratfordians

William Shakespeare was the author of 38 plays and over 150 poems. Or was he? The question of whether William
Shakespeare actually wrote "his" famous plays has been a topic of debate for centuries. Since the middle of the
nineteenth century, a group of people known as Anti-Stratfordians (so named because Shakespeare was born in a town
called Stratford-upon-Avon) have argued that someone other than William Shakespeare was responsible for writing the
famous plays. Currently over 70 different people have been suggested as the "real" author of Shakespeare’s plays. But is
there any truth to these arguments?
We do not know very much about Shakespeare’s life. Shakespeare did not leave us any journals or personal letters. The
only biographical information we have about Shakespeare has come from things like tax records and other legal
documents, such as his birth and marriage certificates. We know that he was born the son of a glove maker, had little
formal education, and likely never set foot inside of a royal palace. These humble beginnings have led many Anti-
Stratfordians to argue that there is no possible way that such a man could have written these masterpieces. After all,
how could a "commoner" come to understand enough about royal life to write a play like King Lear or Richard III? How
could a person who has never attended a university write the brilliant poetry in Hamlet or Othello?
Another piece of evidence that Anti-Stratfordians use is the misspelling of Shakespeare’s name. There are only six
surviving signatures that William Shakespeare himself wrote. These are from court records, real estate records, and his
will. Each of these documents features a different spelling of his name. One of his homeowner’s documents, for example,
is signed "Wm Shakspe," while the first page of his will is signed "William Shakspere." Anti-Stratfordians argue that
because none of the spellings on Shakespeare’s official signatures exactly match the way his name is spelled on the first
page of his plays, the name "William Shakespeare" might therefore be the actual author’s pseudonym. A pseudonym, or
"pen name," is a made-up name that a person uses instead of his or her own. Some Anti-Stratfordians argue that
"William Shakespeare," therefore, is just a pseudonym for another famous author, like Christopher Marlowe or Sir Francis
Bacon.
Although Anti-Stratfordians use the evidence of Shakespeare’s humble beginnings and his signatures to suggest that he
did not write the plays, there are other important factors to consider. Arguing that Shakespeare could not have written
about royalty because he was a commoner, or that he could not have written beautiful poetry because he was
uneducated, is not only insulting, it is wrong. There have been hundreds of authors throughout history who wrote
masterpieces of literature without having had the benefit of formal education. As for his "misspelled" name, it is true that
he spelled his name six different ways on six different documents, and that none of these spellings match those on his
plays. However, while this may seem strange to modern readers, it was not unusual for people in that time period.
During Shakespeare’s day, spelling was much more informal than it is today. The word "queen," for example, was also
spelled "queene," "quean," and "queane."
Furthermore, there is quite a bit of convincing evidence that suggests Shakespeare actually did write the plays. Other
authors from Shakespeare’s time period wrote about a man named Shakespeare who wrote and acted in plays. In his
will, Shakespeare left money to famous actors who performed in his plays. Finally, there are no records whatsoever of
anyone from Shakespeare’s time period wondering contemporaries ever suggested that the name "William Shakespeare"
was a pseudonym.
Despite all of this evidence, why might people be so eager to prove that Shakespeare didn’t really write any of
Shakespeare’s plays? It is certainly an interesting idea, and many people enjoy having mysteries to solve. Maybe,
however, the real reason driving this idea is the fact that some people just have a hard time accepting that one person—
especially a person who never had a formal education—was responsible for some of the greatest literature ever written.
Sources:
"Anti Stratfordian." The Authoritative Shakespeare, Web, 18 May. 2012.

1) The main purpose of the passage is to

A. introduce readers to the works of William Shakespeare
B. convince readers that William Shakespeare actually wrote all of his famous works
C. familiarize readers with some of the Anti-Stratfordians’ claims
D. inform readers about how few records of Shakespeare’s life we actually have
2) In paragraph 1, the author writes: “The question as to whether William Shakespeare actually wrote ‘his’ famous plays
has been a topic of debate for centuries.” The author most likely put the word “his” in quotation marks to
A. show readers that someone is speaking the word “his” aloud in a live theater context
B. highlight the fact that Shakespeare might not have written the plays that most people consider to be his own
C. encourage readers to consider that Shakespeare might have been female
D. draw attention to the fact that Shakespeare did not have a formal education
3) As used in paragraph 2, which is the best antonym for humble?
A. clever B. passionate C. grand D. joyful
4) Which of the following accurately describes the organization of this passage?
A. the passage follows chronological order, because it organizes events in the order in which they occur
B. one side’s opinions are presented, then the author provides facts to support those opinions
C. one side’s arguments are given, then the author provides evidence to counter those arguments
D. the passage organizes ideas in order of increasing importance
5) According to the passage, which facts do Anti-Stratfordians use as evidence to support their claims about the
authorship of Shakespeare’s plays?
I. Shakespeare was born the son of a glove maker.
II. There is no consistent spelling of Shakespeare’s last name.
III. Other writers from Shakespeare’s time wrote about an author named “Shakespeare.”
A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
6) At the end of paragraph 3, we learn that "Some Anti-Stratfordians argue that "William Shakespeare," therefore, is just
a pseudonym for another famous author, like Christopher Marlowe or Sir Francis Bacon." As used in paragraph 3, which
of the following would qualify as an example of someone using a pseudonym?
A. Many people think that William Shakespeare named his famous character Hamlet after his son, who was named
Hamnet.
B. Christopher Marlowe’s name was often spelled “Christo Marlow.”
C. David Rorvik wrote a famous book claiming to have been a part of a program that successfully cloned a human being;
these claims later turned out to be false.
D. Mary Ann Evans wrote most of her famous works under the name “George Eliot” because she thought readers
would take a male author more seriously.
7) In paragraph 4, the author writes that during Shakespeare’s time, the word “queen” was also spelled “queene,”
“quean,” and “queane.” The author most likely includes this information to
A. present evidence to support his or her argument against Anti-Stratfordians’ claims regarding Shakespeare’s
changing signature
B. explain where Shakespeare might have gotten his ideas about royal life, even though he grew up as a commoner
C. argue that if Shakespeare was unable to spell a simple word like “queen” correctly, there was no way he could have
written such masterful plays
D. compare the modern spelling of the word “queen” to the way Shakespeare might have spelled it
Things to Consider
Many farmers use pesticides to ensure that their crops are healthy and abundant. These chemicals kill or repel a variety
of pests, including weeds, insects, and rodents, in order to prevent them from feeding on or destroying the farmer’s
crops. Although there are certainly advantages to using pesticides, there are also some serious disadvantages that
farmers should consider before using them on crops. Because of the various negative effects of chemical pesticides,
farmers might decide to use more natural alternatives instead.
Pesticides help crops grow larger and faster as well as allow for a wider variety of plants. Because famers who use
pesticides harvest more crops than they would otherwise, they are able to sell them at lower prices. So, by keeping the
price of domestic produce low, pesticides reduce our reliance on imported products. Pesticides also allow farmers to use
smaller tracts of land to raise their crops, which frees up more land for other uses. For these reasons, many people argue
that using pesticides is beneficial for both the farmer and the consumer.
Despite these advantages, there are significant dangers associated with the use of chemical pesticides. Many scientific
studies have shown that the farm workers who come into contact with pesticides can develop serious medical conditions,
such as cancer, lung damage, or severe burns. When pregnant women have long-term contact with these chemicals,
their unborn babies may be harmed. Studies have also shown that when people ingest residual pesticides left on fruits
and vegetables, they might suffer from many health problems. Furthermore, pesticides harm the environment; some
experts estimate that over 95% of the pesticides sprayed on crops end up in the soil, water, or air, all places where they
can do severe damage to the ecosystem.
How can we achieve the benefits of pesticides while minimizing these negative consequences? Some farmers have
attempted to solve this conundrum by using biological pest control instead of synthetic pesticides. For example, a
farmer who wants to control an infestation of aphids on his or her crops might introduce a population of ladybugs, insects
that prey on aphids. Wasps can also be helpful, as they eat caterpillars and beetles, which destroy many crops. Because
wasps also eat nectar, they supply the additional benefit of pollinating plants as they fly from flower to flower. Farmers
can also use trap crops, plants that work as traps to lure insects away from the crop farmers are trying to protect. A
field of cotton plants, for instance, can be protected by nearby alfalfa plants. The lygus bugs that can infest cotton are
more attracted to the alfalfa plants, and so they will eat the trap crop instead of destroying the cotton.
Even though biological pest control seems safer than using synthetic pesticides, there are still risks involved. Introducing
a non-native species into a new environment might create a great deal of problems in the ecosystem. Furthermore,
biological pest control does not work nearly as quickly as chemical pesticides; it may take weeks or months for a trap
crop to successfully lure insects away from the protected crop. This solution is obviously not effective for pest problems
that require immediate action. Finally, pests can become increasingly resistant to any form of pest control, whether it is
biological or synthetic. Although biological pest control might not be a perfect solution to the pest problem, it is the one
that seems to carry the least risk for both human beings and the environment.
1) Which of the following would be the best subtitle for this passage?
A. The Dangers of Chemical Pesticides
B. A Farmer’s Biggest Dilemma
C. Biological Pest Control: The Lesser of Two Evils
D. The Economic Benefits of Using Biological Pest Control
E. The Effectiveness of Trap Crops
2) The author likely chooses to include paragraph 2, which outlines the benefits of chemical pesticides, in order to
I. present a balanced perspective before concluding that it is better to use biological pest control
II. provide sufficient information so that readers can develop their own conclusions about chemical pesticides versus
biological pest control
III. demonstrate that chemical pesticides are more effective than biological pest control
A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II, and III
3) As used in paragraph 4, which is the best synonym for conundrum?
A. puzzle B. obstacle C. failure D. disaster E. issue
4) Paragraph 4 begins: “How can we achieve the benefits of pesticides while minimizing these negative consequences?”
Which of the following literary devices does the author use in this line?
A. Ambiguity, characterized by the expression of an idea in such a way that it becomes possible to glean more than one
meaning from it.
B. Hyperbole, characterized by the use of specific words and phrases that exaggerate and overemphasize the core of the
statement in order to produce a grander, more noticeable effect. This usually works to convey an action or sentiment
that is generally not realistically possible or plausible but helps to emphasize an emotion.
C. Indirect question, characterized by a sentence that reports a question instead of directly asking one.
D. Rhetorical question, characterized by a question posed for effect rather than one that expects a reply.
E. Inversion, characterized by the reversal of the usual order of words in order to add emphasis or character.
55) Which of the following would provide support for the author's overall argument?
A. Studies have shown that a ban on chemical pesticides in the United States might result in rising food prices, job loss,
and an increase in world hunger.
B. Scientists have discovered a natural, environmentally-friendly fertilizer that helps wheat crops grow twice as fast as
they normally do.
C. Farmers who do not use any sort of pest control on their crops grow 30% less produce than farmers who use some
kind of pesticide.
D. In addition to weeds, insects, and rodents, plants can also be harmed by birds, bacteria, and fungi.
E. The use of trap crops in Sudan has dramatically increased the production of crops such as sorghum and maize.
6) In the final paragraph, the author writes, "Although biological pest control might not be a perfect solution to the pest
problem, it is the one that seems to carry the least risk for both human beings and the environment." The author most
likely admits that biological pest control is not "a perfect solution" because
A. the author has no hope that there will ever be an ideal solution to the problem of agricultural pests
B. the author is not sure if chemical pesticides are really as dangerous as he or she originally thought
C. by admitting that his or her solution is not perfect, the author shows that he or she has thought carefully about the
practicality of using biological pest control
D. by admitting that his or her solution is not perfect, the author shows the reader that even the best ideas have flaws
E. the author is concerned that using biological pest control will cause too many economic and environmental problems

Passage 1
During the Age of Reason, humanity was in a state of transition. The old superstitions were proven wrong by science.
And so some thinkers wondered if the old ways of organizing societies and governments were wrong too. To that end,
philosophers began to develop and later debate the very natures of society. And three men in particular argued that
society was in fact formed by something called the social contract.
The social contract is an abstract agreement. No one technically signs it, but everyone agrees to it informally. It is an
agreement among the people of a society to cooperate with each other because it is mutually beneficial to do so. That is,
it is in everyone’s interests to work together.
Thomas Hobbes first proposed the theory in his Leviathan, from 1651. He argued that people were essentially evil in
nature and entered society for mutual protection. To Hobbes, people gave power to a monarch or king because that
person protected them.
Decades later, John Locke adapted the notion. He argued that people were free in nature and gave up political power in
society. However, people joined the social contract to get protection for their natural rights of life, liberty, and property.
He argued that the government’s power derives from the people and that people should form a new government if the
existing one does not protect those natural rights.
Finally, just over 110 years after Hobbes, Jean-Jacques Rousseau argued in his The Social Contract that all the power of
a just government comes from the people. That is, when one enters the social contract, he gives up his freedom but gets
political power. Thus, in a little over a century, philosophers had switched. Where they once argued that people have
little power in society, they were now arguing that the people had all of the power.
Passage 2
To the men who formed the United States, only one thing was agreed upon: the British had broken the social contract
with them. They may have disagreed about what they should do about it or, later, about what the new country should
look like. However, they were certain that the king had not done what he was supposed to do. Thus, the Thomas
Jefferson-penned Declaration of Independence is primarily an explanation of how King George III had broken that
contract.
The first section of the document expresses the colonists’ belief that man has three essential natural rights of life, liberty,
and the pursuit of happiness. It also expresses the belief that government power comes from the governed. The second
section lists the English government’s abuses on the colonists. They include keeping a standing army in a time of peace,
disallowing representation in parliament, and suspending colonial assemblies. Finally, the third section explains that the
Americans have taken less extreme measures in the past but that, finally, they were severing their bond, their social
contract, with England.
1) It can be inferred from Passage 1 that the Age of Reason
A. occurred in the 17th and 18th centuries
B. influenced the men who formed the United States
C. was possible only because of new science breakthroughs
D. was started by Thomas Hobbes and his Leviathan
2) According to Passage 1, the primary difference between the social contracts defined by Hobbes and Rousseau is that
A. Hobbes believes the government cannot take away three things, while Rousseau argues the government has total
power to do what it likes
B. Hobbes argues that one joins the social contract for protection, while Rousseau argues that people give up their
political power in joining the social contract
C. Hobbes argues that man has natural rights, while Rousseau argues that man gives up his rights to join society
D. Hobbes argues that more power lies in the government, while Rousseau argues that more power lies in the people
3) As used in paragraph 2 of Passage 1, the word abstract most nearly means
A. unusual B. concrete C. theoretical D. representational
4) According to Passage 2, each of the following is true about the Declaration of Independence EXCEPT that
A. it is rooted in the social contract theory B. it was inspired by Jean-Jacques Rousseau
C. it was written by Thomas Jefferson D. it listed ways the English had abused the colonists
5) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the two passages?
A. While one argues that a belief exists in theory only, the other argues that it exists in concrete form too.
B. While one explains the historical development of a theory, the other shows a specific application of that same
theory.
C. While one is about the history of the social contract, the other is about a specific event in history.
D. While one analyzes three different conceptions of a theory, the other argues that one conception is better than
another.

A Tale of Two Revolutions

In the height of the Enlightenment, men influenced by the new political theories of the era launched two of the largest
revolutions in history. These two conflicts, on two separate continents, were both initially successful in forming new
forms of government. And yet, the two conflicts, though merely a decade apart, had radically different conclusions. How
do two wars inspired by more or less the same ideals end up so completely different? Why was the American Revolution
largely a success and the French Revolution largely a failure?
Historians have pointed to myriad reasons—far too various to be listed here. However, the most frequently cited are
worth mentioning. For one, the American Revolution was far removed from the Old World; that is, since it was on a
different continent, other European nations did not attempt to interfere with it. However, in the French Revolution, there
were immediate cries for war from neighboring nations. Early on, for instance, the ousted king attempted to flee to
neighboring Austria and the army waiting there. The newly formed French Republic also warred with Belgium, and a
conflict with Britain loomed. Thus, the French had the burden not only of winning a revolution but also defending it from
outside. The Americans simply had to win a revolution.
Secondly, the American Revolution seemed to have a better chance for success from the get-go, due to the fact that
Americans already saw themselves as something other than British subjects. Thus, there was already a uniquely
American character, so, there was not as loud a cry to preserve the British way of life. In France, several thousands of
people still supported the king, largely because the king was seen as an essential part of French life. And when the king
was first ousted and then killed, some believed that character itself was corrupted. Remember, the Americans did not
oust a king or kill him—they merely separated from him.
Finally, there is a general agreement that the French were not as unified as the Americans, who, for the most part, put
aside their political differences until after they had already formed a new nation. The French, despite their Tennis Court
Oath, could not do so. Infighting led to inner turmoil, civil war, and eventually the Reign of Terror, in which political
dissidents were executed in large numbers. Additionally, the French people themselves were not unified. The nation had
so much stratification that it was impossible to unite all of them—the workers, the peasants, the middle-class, the
nobles, the clergy—into one cause. And the attempts to do so under a new religion, the Divine Cult of Reason, certainly
did not help. The Americans, remember, never attempted to change the society at large; rather, they merely attempted
to change the government.

1) It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author most likely believes that
A. historians have not come to a conclusion about what separates the French and American Revolutions
B. the French Revolution could have been just as successful as the American Revolution was
C. two events based on the same philosophy are generally not that common
D. the American Revolution is a high point in history, the French Revolution a low point
E. two events that are similar in one way ought to be similar in other ways
2) What function do the questions that end paragraph 1 play in the passage?
A. They introduce the topic the author of the passage will explore, even though he or she will not answer the
questions.
B. They introduce the author’s opinions on the main topic and summarize his or her main argument.
C. They present rhetorical questions that are used only for the purposes of engaging the reader, even though the
questions will not be answered.
D. They refocus the passage into its original topic after a detour into historical context.
E. They present the two questions the author will spend the rest of the passage exploring and then answering.
3) As used in paragraph 2, the word myriad most nearly means
A. an unknowable secret B. an uncountable number C. an unrealistic ideal
D. an unusually rare occurrence E. an unimaginably large object
4) According to the passage, the Reign of Terror happened because of
A. social stratification in America B. infighting in the American Revolution
C. the decision to kill the king in the French Revolution D. infighting in the French Revolution
E. social stratification in France
5) According to the author, which of the following best summarizes the most frequently cited explanations historians give
for why the French and American Revolutions did not turn out the same way?
A. locations relative to Europe, social equality in America, and the lack of a unique French identity
B. social unity among the Americans, social stratification among the French, and the character of the French and
Americans in general
C. locations relative to Europe, American and French characters, and political cohesion or lack thereof
D. locations relative to Europe, the decision to oust or not oust a king, and a lack of unity amongst all the revolutionaries
E. the geography of America and France, the character and identity of American and French people, and the decision to
oust or not oust a king
6) As used in paragraph 4, the word stratification describes
A. social inequality B. physical differences C. social cohesion
D. physical separations E. societal interactions

Wright and Nature

Over the past half a century, many have erroneously agreed that there is a chasm in Frank Lloyd Wright’s work, an
unbridgeable gap between his residential and commercial buildings. In fact, all of his architectural designs show off his
belief in a world governed by technology but indebted to nature, and all his buildings are really monuments to man’s
place in the natural world.
In his domestic homes, Wright seems to emphasize a blending of the artificial and the natural, with an emphasis on low-
pitched roofs, asymmetry, natural light, and hidden entrances that would require a visitor to search for a way in. These
obscured entrances also make the visitor confront the landscape in a way he or she would not have to if he or she
entered merely from the urban street the house would be located on (in the case of houses such as the Winslow House
in Illinois and other suburban houses). In his own house at Taliesien, in Wisconsin, the visitor must travel a winding
driveway uphill to the back of the house and literally confront a panoramic vista of green hills and woods, rather than
merely entering the house. In this way, then, one is forced to acknowledge both the artificial and the natural at once and
cannot merely observe the home as one thing alone.
In his commercial buildings, too, there exists a great deal of nature’s influence. Though the spaces are more
straightforward than the domestic spaces (entrances are not hidden, for instance), as their functions necessitated,
Wright’s commercial buildings still showcase the marriage of nature and technology. The Larkin Building, for instance, lets
in an unprecedented amount of natural light for an office building. Wright intentionally eliminated darkness wherever
possible, even encapsulating the central space with a giant skylight, creating the effect of working outdoors. Still more
clearly connected to nature is Wright’s Price Tower in Oklahoma. The cantilevered skyscraper, though the home of an oil
and chemical pipeline company, was designed to look like a giant tree, thus blending in with the surroundings
so that, at least from a great distance, it would look just like another tree. Obviously, the building is so tall up close that
the effect is somewhat lost, but the attempt to use technology to recreate nature is still impressive. If nothing else,
designs such as these demonstrate that Wright’s residential and commercial designs had more in common with each
other than originally thought.

1) The author’s main purpose in writing this passage is to…

A. refute the opinion of most architectural critics that Frank Lloyd Wright put more effort into his residential projects than
he did in his commercial projects
B. prove that Frank Lloyd Wright celebrated technology in both his commercial and residential projects
C. analyze several viewpoints about nature’s influence in Frank Lloyd Wright’s works
D. disprove a common belief about two types of Frank Lloyd Wright’s work
E. challenge the belief that only some of Frank Lloyd Wright’s designs celebrate nature
2) As used in paragraph 1, the word chasm most nearly means…
A. a divide B. an abyss C. an analysis D. an opinion E. a design
3) According to the passage, the central difference between Frank Lloyd Wright’s residential and commercial buildings is
that…
A. the residential buildings were not usually on city streets
B. the commercial buildings had hidden entrances C. the residential buildings let in less natural light
D. the commercial buildings have less connection to nature E. the residential buildings are less straightforward
4) It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that Frank Lloyd Wright believed…
A. a commercial space should look as professional as possible
B. all domestic homes should be monuments to nature C. a building’s function should influence its form
D. technology would never be able to stand out from nature E. most office buildings did not allow in enough light
5) According to the passage, which of the following is true about the Price Tower?
A. It blends into the tree-line when seen up close. B. It housed a company that supplied oil.
C. It was built in Oklahoma. D. Its design was inspired by its function as an office building.
E. All of the above are true.

In the early 1920's, settlers came to Alaska looking for gold. They traveled by boat to the coastal towns of Seward and
Knik, and from there by land into the gold fields. The trail they used to travel inland is known today as the Iditarod Trail,
one of the National Historic Trails designated by the Congress of the United States. The Iditarod Trail quickly became a
major thoroughfare in Alaska, as the mail and supplies were carried across this trail. People also used it to get from place
to place, including the priests, ministers, and judges who had to travel between villages. In the winter, the settlers’ only
means of travel down this trail was via dog sled.
Once the gold rush ended, many gold-seekers went back to where they had come from, and suddenly there was much
less travel on the Iditarod Trail. The introduction of the airplane in the late 1920’s meant dog teams were no longer the
standard mode of transportation, and of course with the airplane carrying the mail and supplies, there was less need for
land travel in general. The final blow to the use of the dog teams was the appearance of snowmobiles.
By the mid 1960's, most Alaskans didn’t even know the Iditarod Trail existed, or that dog teams had played a crucial role
in Alaska’s early settlements. Dorothy G. Page, a self-made historian, recognized how few people knew about the former
use of sled dogs as working animals and about the Iditarod Trail’s role in Alaska’s colorful history. To raise awareness
about this aspect of Alaskan history, she came up with the idea to have a dog sled race over the Iditarod Trail. She
presented her idea to an enthusiastic musher, as dog sled drivers are known, named Joe Redington, Sr. Soon the Pages
and the Redingtons were working together to promote the idea of the Iditarod race.
Many people worked to make the first Iditarod Trail Sled Dog Race a reality in 1967. The Aurora Dog Mushers Club, along
with men from the Adult Camp in Sutton, helped clear years of overgrowth from the first nine miles of the Iditarod Trail.
To raise interest in the race, a $25,000 purse was offered, with Joe Redington donating one acre of his land to help raise
the funds. The short race, approximately 27 miles long, was put on a second time in 1969.
After these first two successful races, the goal was to lengthen the race a little further to the ghost town of Iditarod by
1973. However in 1972, the U.S. Army reopened the trail as a winter exercise, and so in 1973, the decision was made to
take the race all the way to the city of Nome—over 1,000 miles. There were many who believed it could not be done and
that it was crazy to send a bunch of mushers out into the vast, uninhabited Alaskan wilderness. But the race went! 22
mushers finished that year, and to date over 400 people have completed it.

1) The primary purpose of this passage is to…

A. recount the history of the Iditarod trail and the race that memorializes it
B. describe the obstacles involved in founding the Iditarod race
C. outline the circumstances that led to the establishment of the Iditarod Trail
D. reestablish the important place of the Iditarod Trail in Alaska’s history
2) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that all of the following contributed to the disuse of the
Iditarod Trail except…
A. more modern forms of transportation B. depleted gold mines
C. highway routes to ghost towns D. reduced demand for land travel
3) As used in paragraph 2, which is the best definition for mode?
A. formula B. way C. preference D. option
4) According to the passage, the initial Iditarod race…
A. was funded through the sale of musher entrance fees B. was founded by an advocate for Alaskan history
C. ended at the ghost town of Iditarod D. boasted a total of 400 entrants
5) As used in paragraph 3, the phrase “self-made historian” implies that Dorothy G. Page…
A. was employed by the state to keep its dog sled history alive
B. was determined to honor the glories of the gold rush in spite of her questionable credentials
C. had pursued the study of Alaska’s history out of her own interest
D. had personally educated others about Alaska’s history
6) In 1925, when a diphtheria outbreak threatened the lives of people in the remote town of Nome, the government used
the Iditarod Trail to transport medicine nearly 700 miles to the town. If the author chose to include this fact in the
passage, it would best fit in…
A. paragraph 1 B. paragraph 2 C. paragraph 3 D. paragraph 5
7) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that because the U.S. Army reopened the Iditarod Trail in
1972,
A. more people could compete in the Iditarod race
B. the mushers had to get permission from the U.S. Army to hold the race
C. the trail was cleared all the way to Nome
D. the Iditarod race became a seasonal Army competition

First introduced in 1927, The Hardy Boys Mystery Stories are a series of books about the adventures of brothers Frank
and Joe Hardy, teenaged detectives who solve one baffling mystery after another. The Hardy Boys were so popular
among young boys that in 1930 a similar series was created for girls featuring a sixteen-year-old detective named Nancy
Drew. The cover of each volume of The Hardy Boys states that the author of the series is Franklin W. Dixon; the Nancy
Drew Mystery Stories are supposedly written by Carolyn Keene. Over the years, though, many fans of both series have
been surprised to find out that Franklin W. Dixon and Carolyn Keene are not real people. If Franklin W. Dixon
and Carolyn Keene never existed, then who wrote The Hardy Boys and Nancy Drew mysteries?
The Hardy Boys and the Nancy Drew books were written through a process called ghostwriting. A ghostwriter writes a
book according to a specific formula. While ghostwriters are paid for writing the books, their authorship is not
acknowledged, and their names do not appear on the published books.
Ghostwriters can write books for children or adults, the content of which is unspecific. Sometimes they work on book
series with a lot of individual titles, such as The Hardy Boys and the Nancy Drew series. The initial idea for both The
Hardy Boys and the Nancy Drew series was developed by a man named Edward Stratemeyer, who owned a publishing
company that specialized in children’s books. Stratemeyer noticed the increasing popularity of mysteries among adults,
and surmised that children would enjoy reading mysteries about younger detectives with whom they could identify.
Stratemeyer first developed each book with an outline describing the plot and setting. Once he completed the outline,
Stratemeyer then hired a ghostwriter to convert it into a book of slightly over 200 pages. After the ghostwriter had
written a draft of a book, he or she would send it back to Stratemeyer, who would make a list of corrections and mail it
back to the ghostwriter. The ghostwriter would revise the book according to Stratemeyer’s instructions and then return it
to him. Once Stratemeyer approved the book, it was ready for publication.
Because each series ran for so many years, Nancy Drew and The Hardy Boys both had a number of different ghostwriters
producing books; however, the first ghostwriter for each series proved to be the most influential. The initial ghostwriter
for The Hardy Boys was a Canadian journalist named Leslie McFarlane. A few years later, Mildred A. Wirt, a young writer
from Iowa, began writing the Nancy Drew books. Although they were using prepared outlines as guides, both McFarlane
and Wirt developed the characters themselves. The personalities of Frank and Joe Hardy and Nancy Drew arose directly
from McFarlane’s and Wirt’s imaginations. For example, Mildred Wirt had been a star college athlete and gave Nancy
similar athletic abilities. The ghostwriters were also responsible for numerous plot and setting details. Leslie McFarlane
used elements of his small Canadian town to create Bayport, the Hardy Boys’ fictional hometown.
Although The Hardy Boys and Nancy Drew books were very popular with children, not everyone approved of them. Critics
thought their plots were unrealistic and even far-fetched, since most teenagers did not experience the adventures Frank
and Joe Hardy or Nancy Drew did. The way the books were written also attracted criticism. Many teachers and librarians
objected to the ghostwriting process, claiming it was designed to produce books quickly rather than create quality
literature. Some libraries—including the New York Public Library—even refused to include the books in their children’s
collections. Ironically, this decision actually helped sales of the books, because children simply purchased them when
they were unavailable in local libraries.
Regardless of the debates about their literary merit, each series of books has exerted an undeniable influence on
American and even global culture. Most Americans have never heard of Edward Stratemeyer, Leslie McFarlane, or Mildred
Wirt, but people throughout the world are familiar with Nancy Drew and Frank and Joe Hardy

1) According to the passage, the Nancy Drew mystery series was introduced in
A. 1925 B. 1927 C. 1929 D. 1930
2) Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
A. Ghostwriting: A Way of Life
B. Who Were Leslie McFarlane and Mildred A. Wirt?
C. The Hardy Boys and Nancy Drew: Ghostwriting a Series
D. The Dubious yet Profitable Practice of Ghostwriting
3) According to the passage, which of the following people was a real writer?
A. Carolyn Keene B. Franklin W. Dixon C. Leslie McFarlane D. Tom Hardy
4) According to the passage, a ghostwriter is someone who
I. writes about mysterious or strange events II. does not receive credit as the author
III. bases his or her books on predetermined guidelines
A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
5) As used in paragraph 3, which is the best definition for surmised?
A. guessed B. questioned C. knew D. proved
6) According to the passage, The Hardy Boys and Nancy Drew books were created based on the idea that
I. mystery books for adults are popular II. children enjoy reading about characters they can relate to
III. girls and boys are not interested in the same things
A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
7) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that Leslie McFarlane and Mildred Wirt
A. disliked writing according to a specific formula
B. respected the art of ghostwriting
C. were unsuccessful in their previous occupations
D. found it helpful to write from personal experience
8) According to the passage, some teachers and librarians objected to ghostwritten books such as The
Hardy Boys and Nancy Drew Mystery Stories because they
A. disapproved of mystery stories
B. thought the books were too expensive
C. believed the books were not quality literature
D. disliked Edward Stratemeyer’s questionable business practices
9) Which of the following best describes the author's attitude toward The Hardy Boys and Nancy Drew book series?
A. balanced and respectful B. doubtful and critical
C. hostile but forgiving D. overwhelmingly praising
10) Which of the following best describes the structure of this passage?
A. introduction, explanation, history, controversy, conclusion
B. introduction, history, controversy, explanation, conclusion
C. history, explanation, summary, conclusion, controversy
D. history, controversy, explanation, summary, conclusion

Some people say that the best defense is a good offense; an octopus, however, would disagree. In addition to being one
of the strangest and most beautiful creatures in nature, the octopus has some of the most inventive and effective
defense mechanisms imaginable. While other animals have teeth, horns, or claws to help defend them from predators,
the octopus concentrates its energy on hiding from and confusing its attackers. When it wants to get away, the octopus
has an impressive arsenal of tricks at its disposal.
The most well-known of the octopus’s defense mechanisms is its ability to squirt clouds of ink into the water. Some
octopi use this cloud of ink as camouflage; after squirting the ink, the octopus retreats into the ink cloud where the
predator cannot see it. Other octopi use the ink cloud as a decoy. If a large, intelligent predator such as a shark knows
that octopi use ink clouds for camouflage, it might simply attack the ink cloud blindly, hoping to make contact with the
octopus inside. However, some sneaky octopi will release the ink cloud in one direction and scurry away in another
direction, leaving the predator with nothing but a mouthful of ink. In addition to confusing predators’ sense of sight,
these ink clouds also confuse their sense of smell. The ink is composed primarily of melanin (the same chemical that
gives human skin its color), which can shut down a predator’s sense of smell. If an octopus cannot be seen or
smelled, it has a much higher chance of escaping an attack.
Another defense mechanism possessed by many octopi is the ability to change color, much like a chameleon. Most
animals get their skin color from chemicals in the skin called chromatophores (melanin is one of these chromatophores).
Chromatophores might contain yellow, orange, red, brown, or black pigments, and the amount of each pigment present
in the skin determines an animal’s color. While most animals are always the same color, some species of octopi can
control the amount of each color pigment in their skin cells, allowing them to change color. Some poisonous octopi, when
provoked, will change their skin to a bright, eye-catching color to warn predators that they are dangerous and ready to
strike. Other octopi use this ability to change their skin to the color and texture of seaweed or coral, allowing
them to blend in with their environment. Finally, some octopi—such as the mimic octopus—use this colorchanging ability
to masquerade as another type of animal. The body of an octopus is highly flexible, and some species can combine this
flexibility with their color-changing skills to make themselves resemble more dangerous animals such as sea snakes or
eels.
Yet another defense mechanism possessed by some octopi is the ability to perform an autotomy, or self-amputation, of
one of their limbs and regrow it later. Many species of skink and lizard also possess this ability, which allows them to
shed their tails when caught by a predator and therefore get away. When a predator catches a tentacle the octopus can
amputate this tentacle, thereby unfettering itself, and regrow the tentacle later. Some octopi, however, are even
cleverer. When threatened by a predator, these octopi will shed a tentacle before being attacked in the hope that the
predator will go after the detached tentacle rather than the octopus itself.
While the octopus may not be the most vicious creature in the ocean, its numerous and clever defense mechanisms help
it to survive in the dangerous undersea world.

1) Which of the following sentences from the passage best expresses the main idea?
A. The most well-known of the octopus’s defense mechanisms is its ability to squirt clouds of ink into the water.
B. Some people say that the best defense is a good offense; an octopus, however, would disagree.
C. Another defense mechanism possessed by many octopi is the ability to change color, much like a chameleon.
D. When it wants to get away, the octopus has an impressive arsenal of tricks at its disposal.
2) The author claims in paragraph 1 that an octopus would disagree with the statement “the best defense is a good
offense” because
A. octopi employ more defensive than offensive capabilities
B. octopi possess good defensive and offensive capabilities
C. octopi can protect themselves from teeth, horns, and claws
D. not all octopi possess the same defense mechanisms
3) Which of the following statements best describes the organizational structure of paragraphs 2-4?
A. The author lays out several reasons to support the argument that the octopus has the best defense mechanisms of
any sea creature.
B. The author devotes one paragraph each to explaining three different defense mechanisms possessed by
the octopus.
C. The author devotes one paragraph each to highlighting three potential threats to the octopus and how the octopus
deals with each one differently.
D. The author compares and contrasts three different defense mechanisms employed by the octopus.
4) According to the passage, which of the following statements about the chemical melanin are true?
I. An octopus’s ink is composed primarily of melanin. II. Melanin is a chromatophore.
III. Like the octopus, chameleons use melanin to change color.
A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
5) As used in paragraph 4, which of the following is the best synonym for unfettering?
A. freeing B. regrowing C. amputating D. sacrificing
6) The final paragraph can best be described as a
A. prediction conclusion, in which the author looks toward the future
B. full circle conclusion, in which the author incorporates and builds on a word or theme from the introduction
C. solution conclusion, in which the author proposes a solution to a problem posed earlier in the passage
D. summary conclusion, in which the author restates the passage’s main idea

Directions: Read the passage. Then answer the questions below.

For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax
and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks
also provide considerable environmental benefits.
One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to
breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits
in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island
Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much
more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building
materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the
Urban Heat Island Effect.
Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings, roads,
parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive
effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would
not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of
years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container
gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work.
Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the
much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They
also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money.
In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce
cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading
to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them
money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a
smart environmental investment.

1) Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word groups?
A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate
C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume
2) Using information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that
A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without
B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens
C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens
D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city
3) According to the passage, the Urban Heat Island Effect is caused by the fact(s) that
I. cities are warmer than nearby rural areas
II. building materials absorb more of the sun’s heat than organic surfaces
III. building materials release the sun’s heat more quickly than organic surfaces
A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
4) Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and
rooftop gardens?
A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not.
B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private.
C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not.
D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not.
5) The author claims all of the following to be benefits of rooftop gardens except
A. increased space for private relaxation B. savings on heating and cooling costs
C. better food for city dwellers D. improved air quality
6) According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they
A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen
C. do not require the use of valuable urban land D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces
7) Which of the following pieces of information would, if true, most weaken the author's claim that rooftop gardens are
good for the environment?
A. Parks have many benefits that rooftop gardens do not share.
B. More pollution is produced during rooftop garden construction than rooftop plants can remove from the
air.
C. Extremely high winds atop tall city buildings can severely damage some plants.
D. The overall environmental benefits that result from driving less exceed those of planting a rooftop garden.
8) Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed. B. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored.
C. A viewpoint is established and then defended. D. A thesis is presented and then supported.
9) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that the author would most likely endorse a program that
A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens
B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens
C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park
D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer

Among the old Norsemen, it was customary for certain warriors to dress in the skins of the beasts they had slain, and
thus to give themselves an air of ferocity, which was calculated to strike terror into the hearts of their foes. Of course,
one may also assume that a wolf or bear skin would make a warm, comfortable outer coat for a man whose manner of
living required him to defy all weathers.
Many legends speak of these warriors, also known as berserkers, and imply that they were physically transformed into
the beasts whose skins they wore. The werewolf is one such being. There is also mention of a type of man who was
bewitched into bear shape. Legends suggest that the skins carried the power of the beasts and, when worn, turned the
wearer into that animal at the height of its capabilities.
The berserker was an object of terror, as his life’s goal was to challenge quiet country farmers to combat. As the law of
the land stood in Norway, a man who declined to accept a challenge from a berserker forfeited all his possessions, even
his wife, over to the hands of his challenger. Therefore, the berserker had any man he challenged at his mercy. If the
berserker slew him, the farmer's possessions became his, and if the poor fellow declined to fight, he lost all legal right to
his inheritance. A berserker would invite himself to any feast and contribute to the hilarity of the entertainment by
snapping the backbone or cleaving the skull of some merrymaker who displeased him. He might even single one out to
murder for no other reason than to practice his combat skills.
It is not difficult to imagine that popular superstition went along with the popular dread of these wolf- and bear-skinned
rovers, and that they were believed to be filled with the force, as they certainly were with the ferocity, of the beasts
whose skins they wore.
The stories of the Norsemen indicate that the berserker rage was believed to be a kind of demonic possession. The
berserkers were said to work themselves into a frenzy, in which an evil power came over them and compelled them to
carry out acts that they never would commit in their normal states. They acquired superhuman force, and were wholly
insensitive to pain. No sword would wound them, no fire would burn them, and only a club could destroy them, by
breaking their bones or crushing their skulls. Their eyes glared as though a flame burned in the sockets; they ground
their teeth and frothed at the mouth; they gnawed at their shield rims, and are said to have sometimes bitten through
them; and as they rushed into conflict they yelped as dogs or howled as wolves.

1) passage would most likely be found in a(n)

A. scholarly history journal B. nature magazine
C. fiction novel about werewolves D. encyclopedia article about berserkers
2) As used in paragraph 1, which is the best synonym for ferocity?
A. viciousness B. confidence C. insanity D. strength
3) In paragraph 1, the author writes, “Of course, one may also assume that a wolf or bear skin would make a warm,
comfortable outer coat to a man whose manner of living required him to defy all weathers.” Using this information, the
reader can infer that Norse warriors
A. had great respect for the animals that they killed and skinned B. lived in harsh climate conditions
C. made comfort their highest priority in life D. only made clothing out of ferocious animals, like wolves or bears
4) According to the passage, legends suggest that the berserkers got their powers from
I. their own strength II. evil spirits III. their animal skins
A. l only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
5) In paragraph 4, the author writes: “A berserker would invite himself to any feast and contribute to the hilarity of the
entertainment by snapping the backbone or cleaving the skull of some merrymaker who displeased him.” Which of the
following literary devices is used in this sentence?
A. Irony, characterized by the use of words to convey a meaning that is the opposite of its literal meaning.
In irony, the deeper, real layer of significance is revealed by the situation and the context in which they
are placed and not by the words themselves.
B. Hyperbole, characterized by the use of specific words and phrases that exaggerate and overemphasize the core of the
statement in order to produce a grander, more noticeable effect. This usually works to convey an action or sentiment
that is generally not realistically possible or plausible but helps to emphasize an emotion.
C. Foreshadowing, characterized by the use of words or phrases that hint at something—typically something bad—that is
going to happen later in the story. This is done without revealing the story or spoiling the suspense.
D. Personification, characterized by the attribution of human traits or characteristics to non-human animals, inanimate
objects, or abstract ideas.
6) Which sentence from the passage best supports the idea that the berserkers did, in a sense, transform into the
animals whose skins they wore?
A. "The berserker was an object of terror, as his life’s goal was to challenge quiet country farmers to combat."
B. "Their eyes glared as though a flame burned in the sockets; they ground their teeth and frothed at the
mouth; they gnawed at their shield rims, and are said to have sometimes bitten them through; and as they
rushed into conflict they yelped as dogs or howled as wolves."
C. "The berserkers were said to work themselves into a frenzy, in which an evil power came over them, compelling them
to carry out acts that they never would commit in their normal states."
D. "Many legends speak of these warriors, also known as berserkers, and imply that they were physically transformed
into the beasts whose skins they wore

Once upon a time a famous art museum searched the world over for the best paintings it could find. After a long search,
the museum found a beautiful Old Master painting depicting youths and maidens frolicking in a wood. The directors were
only too glad to pay millions for this painting because they were captivated by its beauty and elegance. How delightfully
the maidens' hair and mouths were drawn, how perfectly the hands and arms of the youths, how lifelike the bare feet on
the forest floor. But the curator of the museum was the happiest one of all, for he had now become guardian and
protector of a famous work by a famous painter. "Every time I look at that painting," he would say, "I see new beauties
and excellences. Just look at these leaves here, the sweep of the branches from this tree, capturing just the hint of a
breeze and seeming to vibrate with the music from the dance of the youths and maidens in the clearing. My very soul
resonates with the greatness of it all."
Needless to say, this wonderful painting was the most popular exhibit at the museum, providing instruction and delight
for thousands of visitors. Everyone, from the young child who could barely walk to the old man who could barely walk,
enjoyed its beauty frankly and openly or profited from studying its color and arrangement. Children loved to see the
happy figures kicking up their feet with joy; the young people marveled at the freshness and beauty of the figures; those
of mature years stood astonished at the excellent technique that could present such a convincing vision; the old
remarked upon the feeling of cozy intimacy produced by the scene of innocent pleasure.
"This painting is almost too good to be true," remarked one visitor prophetically as he purchased a print of it. One day a
horrible discovery was made: the painting was not a genuine Old Master after all. It was a forgery. It had not been
painted by the famous artist whose name was on it, and in fact it had been painted within the last ten years. The
museum directors and the curator were horrified and consumed with shame. Immediately the painting was jerked from
the walls of the museum and ignominiously relegated to a basement storeroom. "We regret such an unfortunate
imposition," the curator told the museum's patrons. "This painting is not art; it is a tawdry fake. This painting is a lie."
At first the public was saddened to lose sight of such a popular painting, and a few mild protests were raised, but
eventually concern for the painting was pushed aside by other more pressing concerns, and it was forgotten (as are all
things no longer directly in front of us in this busy world) and life continued.
Only the museum curator and an occasional junior staff member ever saw the painting now, hanging in the dim light of
the basement well away from public view. All that was heard of it was the curator's occasional disparaging comment.
"Every day I see new defects and ugliness in this fraudulent outrage," he would say. "Just look how false the sun on the
leaves looks, how phony is the wisp of that girl's hair, how ugly the clouds there, and how awkward that boy's position in
the dance. How we were ever taken in by this obvious cheat is beyond me." And finally, shaking his head to show his
regret, he concluded, "What we did was foolish and shameful."

1) According to the passage, before the painting is discovered to be a forgery, it is

I. viewed as a fraudulent outrage II. considered to be highly valuable
III. perceived as a delight by the public
A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II, and III
2) Based on its use in paragraph 4, it can be inferred that ignominiously belongs to which of the following word groups?
A. delightfully, merrily, blissfully B. penitently, remorsefully, sorrowfully
C. ardently, fervently, enthusiastically D. disgracefully, shamefully, humiliatingly
3) Which of the following statements best expresses the overall theme of the passage?
A. Knowledge can alter one’s perceptions. B. Art is impossible to understand.
C. Experts should be the ultimate judges of value. D. Public popularity is a poor measure of value.
4) It can be inferred that the author would most likely agree that
A. people should never pay millions of dollars for a painting
B. most people, including experts, do not know much about art
C. the person who sold the forgery to the museum should be imprisoned
D. the value of art is determined by people, not by the art itself
5) The museum curator can be described as all of the following except
A. passionate B. ashamed C. unwavering D. inconsistent
6) As used in the final paragraph, which is the best antonym for disparaging?
A. unreliable B. fortunate C. neutral D. complimentary

Directions: Read the passage. Then answer the questions below.

Many of the serious health concerns in modern America can be linked to poor diet. People who regularly consume foods
high in sodium, sugar, and saturated fats not only increase their chances of obesity, but also increase their risks of
developing heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, and several types of cancer. Although some people who regularly
consume unhealthy foods do so knowingly, there is also a significant portion of the population that remains
undereducated about proper nutrition. What is more, individuals who live in food deserts—areas in low-income
neighborhoods that lack easy access to healthy, affordable food—may not even have the opportunity to obtain nutritious
food. Although there have been some recent government efforts to reduce the number of food deserts, more community-
based efforts should be encouraged and supported.
Food deserts are located in high-poverty areas, such as sparsely populated rural areas or densely populated, low-income
urban centers. Food deserts most often develop when major supermarket chains either relocate out of these areas or
simply refrain from building stores there in the first place. Major food retailer chains tend to limit their store locations to
wealthier urban or suburban neighborhoods. This means that those who live in high-poverty areas often also live miles
away from the fresh meats, dairy products, and produce available at supermarkets. Residents of these areas who do not
have cars are thus forced to travel long distances on public transportation to do their grocery shopping, or else they are
limited to the food available at local convenience stores and gas stations. These types of food retailers often only sell
packaged, processed foods that offer little nutritional value.
Furthermore, fast food restaurants are disproportionately concentrated in low-income areas; recent estimates suggest
that those living in the poorest areas of a city experience 2.5 times more exposure to fast food restaurants than the
wealthiest inhabitants of the city. Because individuals who live in food deserts tend to get their meals from fast food
restaurants or convenience stores, they often suffer from a variety of health issues. Research has found that individuals
who live in low-income neighborhoods are much more likely to develop problems with obesity, diabetes, and
hypertension than those who live in more affluent neighborhoods.
A solution to the problem of food deserts seems obvious: more supermarkets should be built in lowincome
neighborhoods. The problem with this solution, of course, is that it is difficult to lure supermarket chains into poor areas.
Because poorer people have less money to spend on food, supermarket chains do not consider them to be attractive
customers. One way that the government can help to offset this issue is by offering tax breaks or other incentives for
supermarkets in low-income areas. In 2010, the Obama administration implemented the Healthy Food Financing
program, which is a set of initiatives designed to help bring grocery stores into areas currently designated as food
deserts.
While this federal program is a commendable effort to improve low-income residents’ access to healthy food, local
initiatives often have a stronger and more immediate impact. Community gardens, independent food stores, co-ops, and
farmers’ markets are all examples of local initiatives that can substitute for or supplement the opening of a major chain
supermarket. Despite the time, dedication, and funds required for community members to initiate such programs, these
efforts can be incredibly beneficial, not only in providing people with access to healthier foods, but also in instilling a
sense of community in the residents of these neighborhoods.
1) Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Supermarkets’ Contributions to Obesity in America B. The Dangers of Fast Food
C. Food Deserts: the Problem and the Solutions D. Food Deserts and Rural America
2) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that if supermarkets opened locations in more low-income
areas,
A. members of low-income households would not be likely to go there because they are not concerned with eating
healthy foods
B. the supermarkets would be unable to compete with the fast food chains located in low-income areas
C. the health of low-income residents would be more likely to improve, as residents would have easier
access to healthy food
D. there would be an increase in community spirit among members of low-income neighborhoods
3) Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would best support the author’s argument in paragraph 3?
A. A study completed in 2010 shows that the farther a low-income housing development is from a
supermarket, the more likely residents of that development are to have a higher body mass index, which is
linked to being overweight or obese.
B. On average, energy-dense “junk foods” cost $1.76 per 1000 calories, while low-energy, but nutrient dense foods like
fresh produce cost $18.16 per 1000 calories.
C. Access to healthy foods has become especially difficult for those living in the largely black and Latino neighborhoods of
cities like Los Angeles, Memphis, Chicago, and Detroit. Some experts estimate that nearly 50% of Detroit’s 900,000
residents live in a food desert.
D. Research shows that Americans who live in Appalachia and the South are the least likely to be physically active in their
leisure time. In many counties in that region, more than 29% of adults report getting no physical activity other than at
their regular job.
4) As used in paragraph 3, which is the best synonym for affluent?
A. healthy B. updated C. corrupt D. wealthy
5) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that the author considers major supermarkets to be
I. more interested in increasing their profits than in helping people
II. unwilling to build new stores in low-income neighborhoods despite incentives offered by the Healthy Food Financing
program
III. guiltier than fast food restaurants of contributing to the obesity epidemic
A. l only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only
6) As used in paragraph 5, which is the best synonym for commendable?
A. useless B. praiseworthy C. essential D. superficial

Directions: Read the passage. Then answer the questions below.

This November, I encourage the people of Arkansas to vote NO on a referendum to repeal the state’s motorcycle helmet
law. The state’s current helmet law saves hundreds of lives per year, and it is senseless that people should be injured or
killed merely because they are too vain to wear a helmet.
Furthermore, helmet laws help to reduce public expenditures on health care and have even been shown to deter
motorcycle theft. For these reasons, the citizens of Arkansas must oppose this referendum. One hardly needs to appeal
to statistics to show that helmets protect motorcyclists against injury or death. For those who are skeptical, however,
the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) calculates that in an accident helmets reduce the likelihood
of fatal injury by 29%. After California passed its helmet law in 1992, that state saw motorcycle-related fatalities
decrease by 37% in a single year. These statistics are impossible to ignore. If motorcyclists wish to protect themselves
against injury and death, they should wear a helmet whenever they ride.
Many opponents of the helmet law agree that helmets save motorcyclists’ lives, but insist that the decision to wear a
helmet should be left to the individual rider. Perhaps this argument would be valid if motorcyclists were the only ones
negatively affected by their decision, but this is not the case. A 2002 study by the NHTSA concluded that only about half
of all injured motorcyclists were properly insured, which means many of these riders likely relied on public funds to
subsidize their healthcare costs. If the citizens of Arkansas choose to repeal the helmet law, we can expect these costs to
rise significantly, and at a time when our state is in a financial crisis.
Helmet laws can also help reduce motorcycle theft. Few thieves think to bring a helmet with them when they steal a
motorcycle, which makes them much easier for police to spot. In addition to making it easier to apprehend motorcycle
thieves and recover stolen bikes, evidence shows that helmet laws can deter motorcycle theft from happening in the first
place. After Texas enacted a statewide helmet law, cities there saw rates of motorcycle theft drop by up to 44%. A drop
in the rates of motorcycle theft directly reduces law enforcement expenses related to this crime, which is another benefit
to all citizens.
Opponents of the helmet law offer two main arguments. First, the law’s detractors argue that properly educating riders is
the best way to avoid accidents. I agree entirely; all motorcycle riders should be properly educated and should ride their
bikes responsibly. Some accidents, however, are unavoidable, and as I have argued, helmets significantly reduce health
care expenditures associated with all accidents. Second, opponents argue that helmet laws infringe on their personal
freedom. Again, I agree that the government should avoid constraining individual choice whenever possible, but as I
have shown, the decision to wear a helmet does not affect only the rider, so this issue is not a simple matter of
individual liberty. The government must not allow a few individuals to make society bear the burden of their irresponsible
choices.
In a perfect world, helmet laws would not be necessary because all riders would wear them voluntarily. However, we do
not live in a perfect world. Therefore we must require motorcyclists to make this socially responsible decision. As I have
argued, helmet laws not only benefit motorcyclists, but all citizens. Please join me this November in voting NO on the
referendum to repeal the state helmet law

1) As used in paragraph 2, which is the best antonym for skeptical?

A. doubtful B. trustworthy C. sympathetic D. gullible
2) Which of the following statements, if true, would provide the strongest evidence against the author’s claims in this
passage?
A. Studies show that over 80% of motorcyclists wear a helmet even when not required to do so by law.
B. After enacting its helmet law, Wisconsin saw no significant decrease in healthcare costs related to
motorcycle injuries.
C. Automobiles are a much more common target for theft than motorcycles.
D. Only about 15% of motorcycle accidents can be attributed to negligence on the part of the motorcyclist.
3) The main purpose of paragraph 5 is to
A. expose the logical flaws in potential counterarguments
B. assert that the helmet law does not encroach upon personal freedom
C. emphasize the importance of rider education in preventing motorcycle accidents
D. prove that the author shares common ground with opponents of the law
4) The tone of the author can best be described as
A. fiery B. rigid C. coercive D. firm
5) Which of the following statements can be described as one of the author’s unstated assumptions?
A. Motorcyclists should be properly educated and should ride responsibly.
B. Helmets help to prevent injury in only the most serious motorcycle accidents.
C. Motorcycle theft is a major problem in Arkansas.
D. Individuals should be responsible for the costs of their own medical care if they bear some
responsibility for their injuries
Directions: Read the passage. Then answer the questions below.
The trees were not old, but they grew thickly round the glade: there was no outlook, except northeastward upon distant
hill-tops, or straight upward to the sky; and the encampment felt secure and private like a room. By the time I had
made my arrangements and fed Modestine, the day was already beginning to decline. I buckled myself to the knees into
my sack and made a hearty meal; and as soon as the sun went down, I pulled my cap over my eyes and fell asleep.
Night is a dead monotonous period under a roof; but in the open world it passes lightly, with its stars and dews and
perfumes, and the hours are marked by changes in the face of Nature. What seems a kind of temporal death to people
choked between walls and curtains, is only a light and living slumber to the man who sleeps afield. All night long he can
hear Nature breathing deeply and freely; even as she takes her rest she turns and smiles; and there is one stirring hour
unknown to those who dwell in houses, when a wakeful influence goes abroad over the sleeping hemisphere, and all the
outdoor world are on their feet. It is then that the cock first crows, not this time to announce the dawn, but like a
cheerful watchman speeding the course of night. Cattle awake on the meadows; sheep break their fast on dewy hillsides,
and change to a new lair among the ferns; and houseless men, who have lain down with the fowls, open their dim eyes
and behold the beauty of the night.
The stars were clear, colored, and jewel-like, but not frosty. A faint silvery vapor stood for the Milky Way. All around me
the black fir-points stood upright and stock-still. By the whiteness of the pack-saddle, I could see Modestine walking
round and round at the length of her tether; I could hear her steadily munching at the sward; but there was not another
sound, save the indescribable quiet talk of the runnel over the stones. I lay lazily smoking and studying the color of the
sky, as we call the void of space, where it showed a reddish gray behind the pines to where it showed a glossy blue-black
between the stars. As if to be more like a peddler, I wear a silver ring. This I could see faintly shining as I raised or
lowered the cigarette; and at each whiff the inside of my hand was illuminated, and became for a second the highest
light in the landscape.
A faint wind, more like a moving coolness than a stream of air, passed down the glade from time to time; so that even in
my great chamber the air was being renewed all night long. I thought with horror of the inn at Chasserades and the
congregated night caps; with horror of the nocturnal prowess of clerks and students, of hot theatres, and passkeys and
close rooms. I have not often enjoyed a more serene possession of myself, nor felt more independent of material aids.
The outer world, from which we cower into our houses, seemed after all a gentle, habitable place; and night after night a
man's bed, it seemed, was laid and waiting for him in the fields, where God keeps an open house.

1) Which of the following literary devices does the author employ throughout the passage?
A. Imagery, characterized by using vivid or figurative language to appeal to the reader’s senses.
B. Biography, characterized as an account of a person’s life written by another person.
C. Inversion, characterized by the reversal of the usual order of words in order to add emphasis or character.
D. Satire, characterized by the use of ridicule to expose a vice, weakness, or flaw. Though satire may be humorous, its
purpose is not to entertain but to derive a reaction of contempt from the reader.
2) The author contrasts sleeping indoors to sleeping outdoors in order to make the point that
A. sleeping outdoors is more freeing and satisfying than sleeping indoors
B. the sounds of nature and animal activity make the outdoors a poor environment for sleeping
C. under certain conditions, sleeping outdoors can be an enjoyable experience
D. animals are more active at night while humans are more active in the daytime
3) In paragraph 2, the author writes, “All night long he can hear Nature breathing deeply and freely; even as she takes
her rest she turns and smiles.” Which of the following literary devices is used in this sentence?
A. Simile, characterized by the making of a comparison between two unrelated and dissimilar things, people, beings,
places, or concepts. Similes allow the reader to better understand the sentiment the author wishes to convey. Similes are
marked by the use of the words “as” or “like.”
B. Juxtaposition, characterized by the placement of a person, concept, place, idea, or theme parallel to another. This
usually works to highlight the contrast between the two or to compare them.
C. Cliché, characterized by a trite or overused expression or idea. This usually expresses a popular or common thought or
idea that has lost originality, ingenuity, and impact by overuse.
D. Personification, characterized by the attribution of human traits or characteristics to non-human
animals, inanimate objects, or abstract ideas.
4) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that Modestine could be any of the following animals except a
A. donkey B. dog C. horse D. mule
5) According to the author, the encampment
I. has a spacious view II. is surrounded by pine trees III. is near farms with herds of sheep and cattle
A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only
6) The author’s tone can best be described as
A. matter-of-fact B. contented C. nostalgic D. joyous
7) The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. convince readers to experience nature by camping outdoors
B. report on animal activity that occurs only at night
C. describe the author’s impressions of a night spent outdoors
D. enlighten those who are too afraid to sleep without a roof over their heads

Like many people acting on the desire to eat healthy and local, Acropolis resident Eduardo Jimenez decided to plant a
garden in his backyard. He tilled the soil, he planted the seeds, and he even erected a fence to keep out the deer.
Eduardo did everything right. Or so it seems. Harvest time has come, and he has not one tomato, bean, or leaf of lettuce
to show for his hard work. How did this happen? The answer comes in the form of a small, brown, particularly smelly
insect: the stink bug.
Unlike their fastidious cousins, stink bugs feed on some 300 species of plants, including figs, mulberries, corn, and
citrus fruits as well as soybeans, legumes, and weeds. Although they do little damage to the plant itself, they make the
fruits and vegetables unmarketable. For this reason, stink bugs pose the most serious threat to the big agriculturalists
and macro farm operators. Macro farmers have more invested in their produce, and therefore have more to lose. While
hobbyists like Eduardo are left to face the disappointment of an unsuccessful garden, macro farmers are forced to live
with the loss of entire tracts of cash crops—a fact that has left many barely able to clothe their children or put food on
the table. Last season alone, several New Jersey pepper farmers saw 75% of their crops damaged. Pennsylvania lost half
of its peach population, and, according to the US Apple Association, apple farmers in the mid-Atlantic states lost $37
million. This year could be worse.
As a result of this decline in the supply of fresh fruits and vegetables, shoppers have seen adjustments—sometimes quite
dramatic—in prices at the grocery store. Prices of apples in Maryland are up 8%. In the north-Atlantic states, prices for
peppers shot up an astounding 14%. Not only are these items becoming more expensive, but they are also getting
harder to find. Last week, Marge Jenkins of Athens, Georgia reported having to check three different stores before
stumbling upon a decent batch of peas. And this, she assures us, is a regular occurrence.
Accidentally brought from Asia, the stink bug has no natural predators in America, and thus its population is soaring.
Reported sightings of stink bugs are becoming increasingly numerous, as the desiccated, brown, trapezoidal shells of the
dead bugs are ubiquitous in some areas. This has farmers and scientists alike scratching their heads in search of a
remedy. Hope, they believe, may lie with an Asian parasitic wasp, which helpfully lays its eggs inside stink bug eggs. The
larvae of the wasp devour the stink bug from the inside. Implementation of such a solution is still several years away, as
scientists must first determine if it is safe for the wasp to be introduced into America. Until then, some farmers are
resorting to homemade traps. Others have even contemplated the use of peacocks and praying mantises, which, they
hypothesize, will gulp down the little stinkers

1) It is typically a good idea to begin a new paragraph with a transition sentence. Transition sentences are used to
introduce a new idea, and to make a smooth shift from the previous paragraph to the next. This helps prevent the reader
from getting lost or confused. Using this information, which of the following is the best transition sentence to insert at the
beginning of paragraph 2?
A. An increasing number of them have been found in North America, occupying over half of the continental United States
as well as Mexico and parts of Canada.
B. Unbeknownst to Eduardo, the local population of stink bugs has increased dramatically over the last decade, especially
in and around the town of Acropolis.
C. A member of the Pantatomidae family, stink bugs surprisingly do not share the eating habits of related
insects.
D. Brown marmorated stink bugs, which first appeared in America in the late 1990s, are now found in over 30 states.
2) Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that fastidious belongs to which of the following word families?
A. forward, assertive, proactive B. demanding, particular, critical
C. delicate, insubstantial, frail D. passionate, fervent, avid
3) In paragraph 2, the author most likely refers to people like Eduardo as "hobbyists" in order to
A. illustrate the type of person who plants a home garden
B. characterize the type of person who is most likely to be affected by stink bugs
C. emphasize the idea that gardeners are relatively unskilled compared to farmers
D. juxtapose the impact of stink bugs on gardeners with that on farmers
4) According to the author, what is the biggest problem resulting from stink bugs?
A. Hobbyists like Eduardo Jimenez are unable to eat healthy and local.
B. Fresh fruits and vegetables are becoming harder to find.
C. Peppers and apples are becoming increasingly scarce.
D. Macro farmers are losing their crops.
5) Based on the information in paragraph 3, it can be inferred that an increase in supply results in
A. a decrease in price B. an increase in demand C. low availability D. reduced importance
6) Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?
A. The fight against stink bugs is hopeless.
B. There is a possible remedy to the stink bug problem, but it is unlikely to succeed.
C. In hopes of eradicating stink bugs, several solutions are in the works.
D. While the stink bug problem is difficult, most believe it to be short-lived.
7) Using the passage as a guide, it can be understood that
I. Macro farmers commonly use pesticides, artificial hormones, and other synthetic materials.
II. Until a solution to the stink bug problem is found, it is probably not a good time to start a home garden in Washington
DC.
III. Introducing foreign insects to closed environments can cause hazardous imbalances.
A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only
8) As used in the final paragraph, which of the following describes something that is ubiquitous?
A. On Valentine's Day, our school was littered with little pink love notes. I even found one stuck to my
shoe when I got home.
B. Ignacio counted eight purple trucks on the way to work today. He is in the market for a new truck and would like to
get a color that nobody else already has.
C. The copier malfunctioned and showered paper all over the room. It took Earnest twenty minutes to clean it up.
D. Upon taking the hot dogs from the fire, flies swarmed the campers. Jaime wished he had brought bug spray.

According to some estimates, if we could compile the amount of food, land, water, and energy used to raise the 10 billion
animals slaughtered each year for meat, we could use those resources to feed every single starving person on earth. The
majority of these resources are depleted by concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs). CAFOs are factory farms
that mass-produce livestock—harming animals, the environment, and humans in the process. It is true that these farming
methods provide an abundant source of food and employ thousands of workers across the country. However, CAFOs
should be placed under more stringent restrictions because of their unfair treatment of animals and the harm they do to
both the environment and humans.
One of the key controversies surrounding factory farms is animal rights. Factory farms raise livestock indoors, as opposed
to allowing the animals to graze in fields and pastures. The farmers favor this overcrowded environment because it
maximizes profits. Providing less space for the animals costs less money; filling pens to their maximum capacity ensures
that no space is wasted. Consequently, animal pens are often so small that larger animals cannot lie down or turn
around. In some cases, these small cages are beneficial for more than just maximizing capacity: calves, for example, do
not gain muscle mass in this environment. This keeps their meat more tender, which makes it more attractive to
consumers.
Livestock in CAFOs are often found living in their own urine and feces, stimulating the spread of diseases—such as avian
flu, foot and mouth disease, and mad cow disease—among other animals on the farm. In order to combat this, farmers
must give the animals antibiotics. In many cases, however, antibiotics are used for disease prevention instead of
treatment. In addition to being used to combat the spread of disease, antibiotics are also commonly used to encourage
faster growth in livestock. This overuse increases the risk of livestock developing immunity to antibiotics, ironically
making animals even more susceptible to disease. After being digested, these antibiotics are released back into the
environment in the form of milk, meat, and waste, which can affect the people who eat these products or the
environment that absorbs them.
CAFOs also negatively impact the environment in the form of air and water pollution. Factory farms contribute to air
pollution issues in the United States through the release of toxic gases and vapors and by burning fossil fuels to run farm
machinery. These farms also have notable consequences for the environment in terms of water pollution. One
characteristic of CAFOs that creates water pollution is the presence of a lagoon. Lagoons are artificial storage basins
where animal excrement is temporarily contained; periodically, farmers flush this waste into ditches or nearby bodies of
water. This waste combines with runoff from fertilized fields to pollute the water sources surrounding CAFOs. It adds
excess nutrients, pathogens, veterinary pharmaceuticals, heavy metals, and excreted hormones to the water sources.
Such pollutants not only affect aquatic life, but can lead to severe impacts on human health.
Another negative environmental impact of factory farms is resource depletion. Factory farming uses more land than any
other agricultural or industrial enterprise in the country. CAFOs consume a great deal of resources in terms of grain,
energy, and land. There are far more efficient ways of using these resources to feed people. For example, it has been
estimated that the grain used to feed livestock in the United States alone could feed up to 800 million people in one year.
By contrast, the production of livestock in CAFOs is a wasteful use of energy. While both chicken meat and soybeans are
good sources of protein, producing equivalent amounts of protein from chicken meat and soybeans does not require
equivalent amounts of energy: chicken meat production consumes 14 times more energy than soybean production. Grain
and energy supplies should be used more efficiently to produce food sources other than livestock.
In order to combat the unfair treatment of animals and the risks to environmental and human health, CAFOs should be
placed under stricter guidelines. One such regulation would force factory farms to adhere to air and water quality
protection standards from which they have previously been exempted, like those set forth by the Clean Water Act.
Enforcing these standards would lead to banning environmental hazards such as waste lagoons, which in turn would
reduce environmental pollution and human health liabilities.
Some have suggested that due to these environmental and human health concerns, factory farms should be banned
outright. Advocates for CAFOs, however, argue that factory farming allows for lower production costs that translate into
lower food prices for consumers. Organic and free-range products, they argue, do not allow for the large-scale
production of livestock; prices for meat, eggs, and dairy would increase should the country shift towards organic
products. Although this would be an inconvenience to consumers, a price increase would encourage people to eat a diet
of less meat. This cultural change would assist in solving the broader resource crisis as fewer grain, energy, and land
resources would be needed to support smaller-scale production. Better treatment of animals and more responsible
environmental practices would protect humans more from infectious diseases and the effects of air and water pollution—
a benefit everyone should embrace.

1) The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. persuade readers that factory farms should be more strictly regulated to minimize the harm they cause
B. suggest economic alternatives to factory farms, such as organic farming and soybean production
C. complain about the water pollution caused by the irresponsible practice of keeping waste lagoons on CAFOs
D. educate readers about the pros and cons of CAFOs
2) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that animals raised on CAFOs live indoors because
I. animals that live indoors require fewer antibiotics than animals raised outside
II. some animals raised inside produce more appealing meat
III. animals raised indoors are less expensive to maintain
A. l only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only
3) The author describes CAFOs as having a negative impact on the environment for all of the following reasons except
A. animal waste pollutes water sources near factory farms
B. exhaust from farm machinery contributes to air pollution
C. animals that live in overcrowded environments waste energy
D. fertilizer-rich runoff from farms contaminates the environment
4) Which of the following statements from paragraph 5 represents an opinion, as opposed to a fact?
A. “Factory farming uses more land than any other agricultural or industrial enterprise in the country.”
B. “Producing equivalent amounts of protein from chicken meat and soybeans does not require equivalent amounts of
energy.”
C. “Chicken meat production consumes 14 times more energy than soybean production.”
D. “Grain and energy supplies should be used more efficiently to produce food sources other than
livestock.”
5) Which of the following pieces of information, if true, would best strengthen the author’s argument in paragraph 6?
A. People who reduce their intake of meat raised on factory farms reduce their chances of developing high blood
pressure and heart conditions.
B. A town in North Carolina that used to be situated next to a hog waste lagoon reported 50% fewer cases
of respiratory illness after the lagoon was shut down.
C. Factory farms that are forced to adhere to air and water quality protection standards often report a 30% decrease in
annual profits.
D. Several animal rights groups have supported bills to force factory farms to abide by greater environmental protection
standards.
6) In the final paragraph, the author states that meat from animals raised on factory farms is cheaper than organic or
free-range meat. The author likely admits this fact in order to
A. provide a balanced perspective before concluding that the drawbacks of CAFO-produced meat outweigh
the economic benefits
B. give readers enough information so that they can come to their own conclusions about CAFOs’ benefits and drawbacks
C. warn readers about the economic dangers that would result from shutting down CAFOs
D. criticize supporters of CAFOs for being more concerned with the economy than the environment
7) As used in the final paragraph, which is the best synonym for advocates?
A. critics B. founders C. supporters D. censors
8) Which of the following statements contains a valid objection to the author’s argument in the final paragraph that he or
she does not address?
A. Not everyone wants to be a vegetarian.
B. An increase in food prices is more than just an inconvenience for many households; it can mean the
difference between having enough to eat or not.
C. Factory farm owners pay taxes just like everyone else, and therefore they should be allowed input in the creation and
modification of environmental policy.
D. If farms move toward producing more organic products, food prices will likely go up.

The word euthanasia is of Greek origin and literally means “a good death.” The American Heritage Dictionary defines it as
“the act of killing a person painlessly for reasons of mercy.” Such killing can be done through active means, such as
administering a lethal injection, or by passive means, such as withholding medical care or food and water.
In recent years in the United States, there have been numerous cases of active euthanasia in the news. They usually
involve the deliberate killing of ill or incapacitated persons by relatives or friends who plead that they can no longer bear
to see their loved ones suffer. Although such killings are a crime, the perpetrators are often dealt with leniently by our
legal system, and the media usually portrays them as compassionate heroes who take personal risks to save another
from unbearable suffering.
The seeming acceptance of active forms of euthanasia is alarming, but we face a bigger, more insidious threat from
passive forms of euthanasia. Every year, in hospitals and nursing homes around the country, there are growing numbers
of documented deaths caused by caregivers withholding life sustaining care, including food and water, from vulnerable
patients who cannot speak for themselves.
While it is illegal to kill someone directly, for example with a gun or knife, in many cases the law has put its stamp of
approval on causing death by omitting needed care. Further, many states have “living will” laws designed to protect
those who withhold treatment, and there have been numerous court rulings which have approved of patients being
denied care and even starved and dehydrated to death. Because such deaths occur quietly within the confines of
hospitals and nursing homes, they can be kept hidden from the public. Most euthanasia victims are old or very ill, so their
deaths might be attributed to a cause other than the denial of care that really killed them. Further, it is often relatives of
the patient who request that care be withheld.
In one court case, the court held that decisions to withhold life sustaining care may be made not only by close family
members but also by a number of third parties, and that such decisions need not be reviewed by the judicial system if
there is no disagreement between decision makers and medical staff. The court went so far as to rule that a nursing
home may not refuse to participate in the fatal withdrawal of food and water from an incompetent patient!
“Extraordinary” or “heroic” treatment need not be used when the chance for recovery is poor and medical intervention
would serve only to prolong the dying process. But to deny customary and reasonable care or to deliberately starve or
dehydrate someone because he or she is very old or very ill should not be permitted. Most of the cases coming before
the courts do not involve withholding heroic measures from imminently dying people, but rather they seek approval for
denying basic care, such as administration of food and water, to people who are not elderly or terminally ill, but who are
permanently incapacitated. These people could be expected to live indefinitely, though in an impaired state, if they were
given food and water and minimal treatment.
No one has the right to judge that another’s life is not worth living. The basic right to life should not be abridged
because someone decides that someone else’s quality of life is too low. If we base the right to life on quality of life
standards, there is no logical place to draw the line. To protect vulnerable patients, we must foster more positive
attitudes towards people with serious and incapacitating illnesses and conditions. Despite the ravages of their diseases,
they are still our fellow human beings and deserve our care and respect. We must also enact positive legislation that will
protect vulnerable people from those who consider their lives meaningless or too costly to maintain and who would cause
their deaths by withholding life-sustaining care such as food and water.

1) The tone of the author can best be described as

A. pleading B. argumentative C. compassionate D. emphatic
2) In paragraph 3, the author finds starvation and dehydration induced euthanasia is to be “more insidious" because
A. euthanasia is legally considered to be a criminal act
B. the public’s attitude toward euthanasia is becoming more positive
C. it often involves those who cannot protest
D. the patient has asked to die with dignity
3) As used in paragraph 3, what is the best synonym for insidious?
A. mischievous B. treacherous C. seductive D. apparent
4) The author maintains that death by withholding care is
A. largely confined to hospitals B. largely confined to the terminally ill
C. often requested by family members D. approved by living wills
5) As used in paragraph 7, which is the best definition of abridged?
A. trimmed B. curtailed C. lengthened D. extended
6) Using the passage as a guide, it can be inferred that the author would find euthanasia less objectionable in cases in
which
I. the patient’s death is imminent
II. the patient has left instructions in a living will not to provide care
III. the patient refuses to accept nourishment
A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I, II and III
7) The main idea of paragraph 7 is that
A. lawyers will be unable to prosecute or defend caregivers
B. no comprehensive right or wrong definition of euthanasia will exist
C. using a subjective standard will make the decision to end an individual’s life arbitrary
D. no boundary will exist between euthanasia and care omission
8) In the final paragraph the author writes, "Despite the ravages of their diseases, they are still our fellow human beings
and deserve our care and respect." The main purpose of this statement is to
A. prove a previous argument B. illustrate an example
C. gainsay a later statement D. justify an earlier statement

Concussions are brain injuries that occur when a person receives a blow to the head, face, or neck. Although
most people who suffer a concussion experience initial bouts of dizziness, nausea, and drowsiness, these symptoms often
disappear after a few days. The long-term effects of concussions, however, are less understood and far more severe.
Recent studies suggest that people who suffer multiple concussions are at significant risk for developing chronic
traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), a degenerative brain disorder that causes a variety of dangerous mental and motional
problems to arise weeks, months, or even years after the initial injury. These psychological problems can include
depression, anxiety, memory loss, inability to concentrate, and aggression. In extreme cases, people suffering from CTE
have even committed suicide or homicide. The majority of people who develop these issues are athletes who participate
in popular high-impact sports, especially football. Although new sports regulations and improvements in helmet
technology can help protect players, amateur leagues, the sports media, and fans all bear some of the responsibility for
reducing the incidence of these devastating injuries. Improvements in diagnostic technology have provided substantial
evidence to link severe—and often fatal—sychological disorders to the head injuries that players receive while on the
field. Recent autopsies performed on the brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced
cases of CTE in every single victim.
In response to the growing understanding of this danger, the National Football League (NFL) has revised its
safety regulations. Players who have suffered a head injury on the field must undergo a “concussion sideline
assessment”—a series of mental and physical fitness tests—before being allowed back in the game. In an effort to
diminish the amount of head and neck injuries on the field, NFL officials began enforcing stricter penalty calls for helmet-
to-helmet contact, leading with the head, and hitting a defenseless player. Furthermore, as of 2010, if a player’s helmet
is accidentally wrenched from his head during play, the ball is immediately whistled dead. It is hoped that these new
regulations, coupled with advances in helmet design, will reduce the number of concussions, and thus curb further cases
of CTE.
Efforts by the NFL and other professional sports leagues are certainly laudable; we should commend every attempt to
protect the mental and physical health of players. However, new regulations at the professional level cannot protect
amateur players, especially young people. Fatal cases of CTE have been reported in victims as young as 21. Proper
tackling form—using the arms and shoulders to aim for a player’s midsection—should be taught at an early age. Youth,
high school, and college leagues should also adopt safety rules even more stringent than those of the NFL. Furthermore,
young athletes should be educated about the serious dangers of head injuries at an early age. Perhaps the most
important factor in reducing the number of traumatic brain injuries, however, lies not with the players, the coaches, or
the administrators, but with the media and fans.
Sports media producers have become accustomed to showcasing the most aggressive tackles and the most intense plays.
NFL broadcasts often replay especially violent collisions while the commentators marvel at the players’ physical prowess.
Some sports highlights television programs even feature weekly countdowns of the “hardest hits.” When the media
exalts such dangerous behavior, professionals are rewarded for injuring each other on the field and amateurs become
more likely to try to imitate their favorite NFL athletes. Announcers, commentators, television producers, and
sportswriters should engage in a collective effort to cease glorifying brutal plays. In turn, fans should stop expecting their
favorite players to put their lives on the line for the purposes of entertainment. Players must not be encouraged to trade
their careers, their health, their happiness, and even their lives for the sake of a game.

1) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that all of the following statements are true except
A. tackling is not always dangerous; however, players who use improper tackling form may injure others
B. scientists have established a definitive link between players who die untimely deaths and the onset of CTE
C. NFL officials have done little to address the problem of CTE
D. athletes who are praised for exceptionally brutal hits are likely to continue engaging in such dangerous behavior
2) According to the passage, which of the following factors contribute(s) to the incidence of CTE in amateur players?
I. inconsistent application of safety regulations for all levels
II. lack of education about the dangers of head injuries
III. amateur players’ desire to emulate professionals
A. l only B. II only C. I and II only D. I, II, and III
3) As used in paragraph 3, which is the best synonym for laudable?
A. praiseworthy B. ineffectual C. memorable D. audacious
4) The author’s tone in the final paragraph can best be described as
A. remorseful B. hopeless C. perplexed D. insistent
5) As used in the final paragraph, which is the best antonym for exalts?
A. mitigates B. venerates C. mollifies D. castigates
6) In describing the sports media, the author emphasizes its
A. responsibility B. entertainment value C. senselessness D. sensationalism
7) In the final paragraph, the author mentions “sports highlights television programs” as an example of how
I. the media glorifies violence II. amateurs learn to mimic professional athletes
III. professional athletes gain approval
A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I, II, and III
8) In the last sentence of this passage, the author writes, "Players must not be encouraged to trade their careers, their
health, their happiness, and even their lives for the sake of a game." Which of the following literary devices is used in this
quotation?
A. Irony, characterized by the use of words to convey a meaning that is the opposite of its literal meaning. In irony, the
deeper, real layer of significance is revealed by the situation and the context in which they are placed and not by the
words themselves.
B. Climax, characterized by the arrangement of words, phrases, or causes in an order of ascending power
that culminates into the highest or most intense point. This works to deliver the main action or integral
message to the reader in a powerful way.
C. Authorial intrusion, characterized by a point at which the author speaks out directly to the reader. This establishes a
one to one relationship between the writer and the reader where the latter is no longer a secondary player or an indirect
audience to the progress of the story but is the main subject of the author’s attention.
D. Hyperbole, characterized by the use of specific words and phrases that exaggerate and overemphasize the core of the
statement in order to produce a grander, more noticeable effect. This usually works to convey an action or sentiment
that is generally not realistically possible or plausible but helps to emphasize an emotion

The biggest house of cards, the longest tongue, and of course, the tallest man: these are among the thousands of
records logged in the famous Guinness Book of Records. Created in 1955 after a debate concerning Europe's fastest
game bird, what began as a marketing tool sold to pub landlords to promote Guinness, an Irish drink, became the
bestselling copyright title of all time (a category that excludes books such as the Bible and the Koran). In time, the book
would sell 120 million copies in over 100 countries— quite a leap from its humble beginnings.
In its early years, the book set its sights on satisfying man's innate curiosity about the natural world around him. Its two
principal fact finders, twins Norris and Ross McWhirter, scoured the globe to collect empirical facts. It was their task to
find and document aspects of life that can be sensed or observed, things that can be quantified or measured. But not just
any things. They were only interested in superlatives: the biggest and the best. It was during this period that some of the
hallmark Guinness Records were documented, answering such questions as "What is the brightest star?" and "What is
the biggest spider?"
Once aware of the public's thirst for such knowledge, the book's authors began to branch out to cover increasingly
obscure, little-known facts. They started documenting human achievements as well. A forerunner for reality television,
the Guinness Book gave people a chance to become famous for accomplishing eccentric, often pointless tasks. Records
were set in 1955 for consuming 24 raw eggs in 14 minutes and in 1981 for the fastest solving of a Rubik's Cube (which
took a mere 38 seconds). In 1979 a man yodeled non-stop for ten and a quarter hours.
In its latest incarnation, the book has found a new home on the internet. No longer restricted to the confines of physical
paper, the Guinness World Records website contains seemingly innumerable facts concerning such topics as the most
powerful combustion engine, or the world's longest train. What is striking, however, is that such facts are found sharing a
page with the record of the heaviest train to be pulled with a beard. While there is no denying that each of these facts
has its own, individual allure, the latter represents a significant deviation from the education-oriented facts of earlier
editions. Perhaps there is useful knowledge to be gleaned regarding the tensile strength of a beard, but this seems to
cater to an audience more interested in seeking entertainment than education.
Originating as a simple bar book, the Guinness Book of Records has evolved over decades to provide insight into the full
spectrum of modern life. And although one may be more likely now to learn about the widest human mouth than the
highest number of casualties in a single battle of the Civil War, the Guinness World Records website offers a telling
glimpse into the future of fact-finding and recordrecording.

1) Which of the following statements would best serve as the headline for this passage?
A. The encyclopedia of the extremes reflects the changing interests of modern society.
B. A book of simple origins makes it to the top as sales total a staggering 120 million copies.
C. Facts are often displayed in a boring, uninteresting manner, but not in the Guinness Book of Records.
D. The Guinness World Records website proves itself a valuable resource for insight into the full spectrum of modern life.
2) According to the author, the most significant difference between older editions of the Guinness Book of Records and
the new Guinness World Records website involves
A. an end to the use of facts as a means to promote Guinness
B. an overall increase in the total number of facts presented
C. a move from fact-finding to the recording of achievements
D. a shift in focus from educational to entertaining material
3) As used in paragraph 2, which is the best definition for empirical?
A. natural B. derived from experience C. recordable D. excellent or unmatched
4) Based on its use in paragraph 2, which of the following best describes something that is superlative?
A. Students give presentations about their favorite subjects for a grade. Amy Newhouse receives an 87% for her
presentation, while Dustin Lincoln receives a 92%.
B. Although sharks are significantly bigger and have razor-sharp teeth, dolphins are smarter and can therefore
successfully evade attack.
C. The lake holds a contest to see who can catch the biggest fish. Tommy wins, having caught a 6 lb. 5 oz.
smallmouth bass.
D. A man built an enormous house of cards. It took him 44 days and 218,792 individual playing cards to complete.
5) Using the passage as a guide, it can be inferred that the author most likely believes reality television to be
A. corrupt B. absurd C. idiotic D. shallow
6) In the final paragraph, the author writes, "And although one may be more likely now to learn about the widest human
mouth than the highest number of casualties in a single battle of the Civil War, the Guinness World Records website
offers a telling glimpse into the future of fact-finding and recordrecording." Which of the following literary devices is used
in this quotation?
A. Aphorism, characterized by the use of a concise statement that is made in a matter of fact tone to state a principle or
an opinion that is generally understood to be a universal truth. Aphorisms are often adages, wise sayings and maxims
aimed at imparting sense and wisdom.
B. Alliteration, characterized by the use of adjacent words that begin with the same sound or letter,
creating a repetition of similar sounds in the sentence. This is used to add character to the writing and
often adds an element of playfulness.
C. Amplification, characterized by the embellishment or extension of a statement in order to give it greater worth or
meaning. This is often used for rhetorical purposes.
D. Anagram, characterized by the jumbling of the syllables of a phrase or the individual letters of a word to create a new
word. Anagram is a form of wordplay that allows the writer to infuse mystery and a fun into the writing so that the
reader can decipher the actual word on his or her own and discover enhanced depth of meaning.
7) Which of the following best summarizes the organization of this passage?
A. introduction, history, conclusion B. history, examples, explanations, conclusion
C. exposition, history, conclusion D. introduction, history, exposition, conclusion

Autism spectrum disorders (ASD) are a range of psychological conditions characterized by abnormalities in social
interaction, behavior, interests, and communication. The five forms of ASD include classical autism, Asperger syndrome,
Pervasive Developmental Disorder, Rett syndrome, and Childhood Disintegrative Disorder. Although the number of
reported cases of ASD has experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years, the majority of doctors agree that this
increase is due to changes in diagnostic practices and advances in the understanding of psychiatric health. While there is
no general consensus among medical professionals about the underlying causes of ASD, theories range from genetic
inheritance to environmental factors. One of the most controversial theories to have emerged in recent times is the
hypothesis that ASD could be caused by the MMR vaccine, which is an immunization against measles, mumps, and
rubella that was first developed in the 1960’s. The vaccine is a mixture of three live viruses and is administered via
injection to children when they are one year old. By the late 1990’s, this vaccination had led to the near-eradication of
measles in countries that employed widespread inoculation. However, a combination of spurious scientific data and
alarmist media attention led to an entirely preventable resurgence in measles cases in the early 21 st century.
The first claims of a connection between the MMR vaccine and autism were made in 1998, when an article in The
Lancet, a respected British medical journal, reported on eight cases of autism that could possibly be traced back to the
administration of an MMR vaccine. The parents of the children in this study contended that the symptoms of autism in
their children developed within days of vaccination. During a press conference, Andrew Wakefield, one of the authors of
the article, called on British doctors to stop giving combined MMR vaccines, instead advocating for individual inoculations
against measles, mumps, and rubella.
Following the publication of this article, Wakefield published several follow-up papers that further questioned the
safety of the MMR vaccine. An onslaught of media coverage then began. Parents appeared on television sharing
anecdotal evidence linking their child’s inoculation to the onset of ASD. The popular press quickly seized upon this story;
in 2002, over 1200 articles were written about the link between MMR vaccines and ASD. Less than 30% of these articles
mentioned that an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence suggested that these vaccinations were completely safe.
Since the initial panic, fears that MMR vaccines cause ASD have generally subsided. A survey completed in 2004
showed that only 2% of people in the United Kingdom thought that there was a legitimate link between MMR vaccines
and ASD. Fears were most likely allayed when, in 2004, an investigative reporter discovered that Andrew Wakefield had
received a large sum of money from lawyers seeking evidence to use in cases against vaccine manufacturers. It was then
discovered that Wakefield had applied for patents on an alternate MMR vaccine. These severe conflicts of interest
damaged the credibility of Wakefield’s study beyond repair. In 2010, Wakefield was tried by Britain’s General Medical
Council under allegations that he had falsified data and manipulated test results. The Council found that Wakefield had
acted “dishonestly and irresponsibly,” and consequently The Lancet officially retracted Wakefield’s 1998 article.
The anti-MMR vaccine panic that arose immediately after Wakefield’s article was published had a significant
negative effect on the health of thousands of children. Once the controversy began, the number of parents in the United
Kingdom who inoculated their children with the MMR vaccine experienced a sharp decline. Not surprisingly, the number
of reported cases of measles increased; while there were only 56 confirmed cases of measles in the UK in 1998; in 2008
there were over 1300. Between 2002 and 2008, there were outbreaks of measles throughout Europe and North America.
These outbreaks cost millions of dollars in health care and resulted in the deaths of dozens of children and adults with
compromised immune systems.
Who is to blame for these deaths? It is easy to hold Andrew Wakefield accountable, but the media must also
bear some of the responsibility. The media’s appetite for a sensational medical story overshadowed the fact that there
was very little scientific evidence behind Wakefield’s claim. Although Wakefield is certainly not the first person to publish
fraudulent scientific findings in a respected medical journal, the magnitude of this event was anomalous, as most
medical hoaxes are discredited before they can reach the popular media. While The Lancet should not have published
Wakefield’s article without checking it thoroughly, the popular media should not have blown the study out of proportion
without fully considering the consequences.
1) The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. warn parents about the dangers of not vaccinating their children against measles
B. criticize The Lancet for publishing Wakefield’s article without vetting it more thoroughly
C. provide an overview of the MMR vaccine controversy, including its consequences and responsible
parties
D. inform readers about the history of the MMR vaccine, especially in the U.S. and the UK
2) As used in paragraph 1, which is the best antonym for spurious?
A. reassuring B. safe C. clear D. legitimate
3) Which of the following statements most accurately summarizes the author’s explanation for the increase in reported
cases of ASD over the past 25 years?
A. Over the past 25 years, parents have been more likely to have their young children inoculated against MMR.
B. Since the results of Wakefield’s study were published, parents have been less likely to have their young children
inoculated against MMR.
C. In the past 25 years, doctors have developed a better understanding of genetics, which is thought to be the leading
factor in whether or not a child will develop ASD.
D. The increase in reported cases of ASD is mainly the result of an increased understanding of how to
recognize ASD.
4) Which of the following pieces of evidence from paragraphs 2 and 3 support(s) the author’s claim that popular media is
partially responsible for creating unnecessary panic?
I. “An article published in The Lancet, a respected British medical journal, reported on eight cases of autism that could
possibly be traced back to the administration of an MMR vaccine.”
II. “In 2002, over 1200 articles were written about the link between MMR vaccines and ASD. Less than 30% of these
articles mentioned that an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence suggested that these vaccinations were
completely safe.”
III. “Parents appeared on television sharing anecdotal evidence regarding the links between their child’s inoculation and
the onset of ASD.”
A. l only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only
5) In paragraph 4, the author cites all of the following as ways that Wakefield’s study was discredited except
A. investigators discovered that the parents of children in Wakefield’s study were litigants in a lawsuit
against the pharmaceutical company that made the MMR vaccine
B. The Lancet eventually retracted Wakefield’s original article
C. it was discovered that Wakefield accepted money from lawyers who were filing a suit against the pharmaceutical
companies responsible for making the MMR vaccine
D. an investigation into Wakefield’s research found that he had falsified data in his initial study
6) Based on its use in paragraph 4, it can be inferred that the phrase “conflicts of interest” means situations in which
people
A. unethically accept large sums of money
B. have interests that fail to accord with those of the mainstream media
C. falsify data and manipulate test results
D. have personal interests that threaten their official objectivity
7) As used in paragraph 6, which is the best synonym for anomalous?
A. timely B. calamitous C. abnormal D. unacceptable
8) Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would best strengthen the author’s argument in paragraph 6?
A. An estimated 1.4 million measles deaths are averted each year due to MMR immunization.
B. 90% of parents in the UK who decided not to immunize their children against measles reported that
they did so against their doctors’ wishes.
C. Measles outbreaks in Japan can be traced back to Japanese exchange students who were studying in the UK.
D. In the United States, over 60% of children who are not immunized against MMR never exhibit any symptoms of the
measles.

It is not uncommon for close synonyms to be understood to share the same meaning. The difference between
words like "hard" and "difficult", for example, goes tragically unnoticed. One may employ one or the other with complete
indifference, postulating no discrepancy between them. In general this is well and good; most people lack the
scrupulous pedanticalness to quibble over such trifles. Nevertheless, for those of us with ample compulsiveness (and
time), it is of significant value to comprehend such nuances.
Take for example the following sentences: 1) The test was hard. 2) The test was difficult. Is the difference between
these synonyms readily apparent? Is there a noticeable difference between them at all? Indeed, these questions are valid
and warrant answer. For, what would be the point to having multiple words with the exact same meaning? No, that
would be superfluous; the English language being far too economical. While many close synonyms share similar, if not
the same, dictionary definitions, the feeling, or mood, they convey is utterly singular. Although a dictionary can provide
information about word meanings, pronunciations, etymologies, inflected forms, derived forms, et cetera, it cannot
communicate how it feels to use a word.
So, if there is indeed a difference between words like "hard" and "difficult", what is it? To begin, "hard" is pragmatic
and realistic, firmly grounded in reality. It is a utilitarian word that gets the job done and doesn't apologize for its
brusque, uncouth nature. On the other hand, "difficult" is eloquent and refined. It is civilized, willing to expend the effort
necessary to appear urbane. Why, the mere difference in sonic quality between them is striking enough. "Hard" makes a
quick, unassuming sound, having but a single syllable (voiced under certain inflections, it can even come across as
harsh), while "difficult" is more lengthy and melodic, its number of syllables totaling three times that of its counterpart.
Furthermore, "hard" is more likely to be used in casual, informal circumstances, or to communicate an idea "on the go"
or simply to "get it out" as the sayings go. It is used without pretense, and does not maintain a feeling of being overly
concerned. In terms of daily usage, "hard" may be employed by an exhausted brick mason when posed with the
question, "How was your day?" Conversely, "difficult" may be used by a military general upon explaining to his or her
superior the progression of a particularly taxing campaign.
Similar to "hard" and "difficult", the words "weird" and "strange" too are close synonyms, and may seemingly be used
interchangeably. Take for instance the following sentences: 1) Sea monkeys are weird. 2) Sea monkeys are strange.
Contrary to popular belief, these sentences are not tautologous. So how do they differ? Their dictionary definitions are
nearly identical, so the difference does not lie there. Rather, the difference involves the feeling, or mood, that these
words convey. Notice that while "weird" and "strange" both have but one syllable, the latter has a remarkably
distinguished feel. Similar to "hard", "weird" conveys a more basic, a more crude, sentiment. Something "weird" is crass
or gross, and is typically undesirable. No one wants to be associated with something "weird". If trying to impress
someone, one probably doesn't want to be categorized among the "weird". On the other hand, if something is labeled as
"strange", it is not necessarily bad. Rather, something "strange" is simply abnormal, or unusual—a deviation from what is
expected. This distinction between "weird" and "strange" is so pronounced that the latter can be used as a euphemism
for the former in certain situations. For example, notice how a simple substitution is able to make the following sentence
less offensive: "Your mother's cookies taste weird" compared to ” Your mother's cookies taste strange". In the former
sentence, the speaker sounds as though he or she is insulting your mother's cookies, stating that they taste bad. In the
latter sentence, however, the speaker sounds as though the cookies simply taste different, or unusual, compared to what
he or she is used to—the difference owing to the innocuous addition of too much flour, perhaps.
Finally, let's look at the synonyms, "happy" and "glad". As in the aforementioned cases, these words seem to have little
or no discernible difference between them. Take for example the following sentences: 1) Tommy is happy because he got
a new bike. 2) Tommy is glad because he got a new bike. Most understand these sentences to have the same meaning.
And again, upon consulting a dictionary, one will find highly similar, if not the same, definitions. But these definitions lack
the feeling, the unique emotional charge that these words convey. The word "happy" conveys a sense of levity, or a
carefree attitude. The thought of someone who is "happy" conjures the image of a bright-eyed, ruddy, smiling face.
One is "happy" on the morning of his birthday, discovering a new puppy bounding into his bedroom. On the other hand,
the word "glad" conveys a sense of relief or contentment. The thought of someone who is "glad" conjures the image of a
man standing crossed-armed, nodding gently, a stoic grin crossing his face. One is "glad" when he sees that the child's
lost puppy has been found, and was merely frolicking too far from home.
Granted, the notion that close synonyms can be used interchangeably is prevalent among English speakers. And alas, the
dictionary—the text purported to be responsible for clarifying such issues—is of little assistance. In the end, it is left to
us, the speakers of the language, those actively responsible for maintaining its sustenance and generation, to understand
how these words make us feel and what mood we are inclined to attach to them. Using the examples and insights
described above, one may come to recognize these subtle, yet crucial, differences.

1) What is the thesis statement in this passage?

A. It is not uncommon for close synonyms to be believed to share the same meaning. (paragraph 1)
B. However, for those of us with ample compulsiveness (and time), it is of significant value to comprehend such nuances.
(paragraph 1)
C. While many close synonyms share similar, if not the same, dictionary definitions, the feeling, or mood,
they convey is utterly singular. (paragraph 2)
D. Although a dictionary can provide information about word meanings, pronunciations, etymologies, inflected forms,
derived forms, et cetera, it cannot communicate the energy of a word. (paragraph 2)
2) As used in paragraph 1, what is most likely meant by " scrupulous pedanticalness"?
A. mild curiosity B. wry skepticism of C. passionate indignation
D. excessive concern
3) As used in paragraph 2, which of the following best describes something that is superfluous?
A. Yoko expects to have six dinner guests, so she sets the table with six places. On the side, however, she keeps another
two places just in case her guests bring friends.
B. The instructions say to fill the tires with 35-38 pounds per square inch of air, but Michele fills them with 40 pounds per
square inch because they are old and tend to leak.
C. Manufacture of Model 24A had been scheduled to begin on May 8. However, creditors failed to forward much needed
monetary advancements, delaying the start of production until May 10.
D. Lavished with critical acclaim, the publication was slated to generate tremendous revenue in sales.
Unfortunately, demand had been overestimated, and as a result, ten thousand copies never left store
shelves.
4) In paragraph 3, the author writes: "To begin, 'hard' is pragmatic and realistic, firmly grounded in reality. It is a
utilitarian word that gets the job done and doesn't apologize for its brusque, uncouth nature. On the other hand, 'difficult'
is eloquent and refined. It is civilized, willing to expend the effort necessary to appear urbane." Which of the following
literary devices is used in this quotation?
A. onomatopoeia B. hyperbole C. metaphor D. personification
5) Using information in paragraph 3 as a guide, which of the following describes someone who is utilitarian?
A. Without fail, Edgar rises at daybreak, eats two eggs for breakfast, drinks a glass of orange juice, laces up his boots
and heads out into the field.
B. In hopes of impressing their classmates, most students wear their new winter jackets to the play.
Alyosha, however, knows it will be warm in the theater and therefore leaves his jacket at home.
C. Nikkos parks his car so that other cars cannot get out. Upon returning to his car, a woman is waiting there on him to
move. She looks upset. He tells her it's not his problem, gets in his car and drives off.
D. Amy takes time to look nice in the morning. She brushes her hair, puts on light makeup, and picks out the clothes she
will wear for the day.
6) Using the information in paragraph 4, it can be inferred that which of the following statements contains a tautology?
A. Paige received a free gift for her birthday.
B. Science tells us that humans evolved to use their thumbs.
C. Computers represent a significant technological advancement.
D. Hexagons have six sides.
7) It can be inferred that the author believes there to exist a relationship between the vulgarity of a word and the
I. number of syllables it has II. way it sounds III. way it is commonly used
A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I, II, and III
8) Which of the following sentences from the passage represents a fact, rather than an opinion?
A. One may employ one or the other with complete indifference, postulating no discrepancy between them.
B. Although a dictionary can provide information about word meanings, pronunciations, etymologies,
inflected forms, derived forms, et cetera, it cannot communicate how it feels to use a word.
C. No one wants to be associated with something "weird".
D. The thought of someone who is "happy" conjures the image of a bright-eyed, ruddy, smiling face.
9) Which of the following statements best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Close synonyms are difficult to comprehend, and are commonly used interchangeably.
B. Contrary to popular belief, close synonyms do not share the same meaning.
C. The difference between the words "hard" and "difficult" is indiscernible to most.
D. Absent a dictionary definition, the difference between close synonyms is difficult to discern.
10) Which of the following sentences from the passage is a fragment?
A. And in general, this is well and good; most people lack the scrupulous pedanticalness to quibble over such trifles.
B. Is there a noticeable difference between them at all?
C. No, that would be superfluous. D. But not to worry.
11) Using information in paragraph 4 as a guide, it can be inferred that which of the following expressions contains a
euphemism?
I. The test was impossible. I scored a miserable 26%, far from a passing grade.
II. Dan's father passed away last spring. His funeral service was solemn yet beautiful.
III. The bride was pretty, I guess. Her dress struck me as a bit too informal.
A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only
12) With respect to the way in which close synonyms are commonly understood, the author's tone can best be described
as
A. belligerent B. supercilious C. rueful D. conscientious
United States Postal Service

Directions: Read the passage. Then answer questions about the passage below.
The United States Postal Service (also known as USPS, the Post Office, informally as the P.O., or the U.S. Mail) is the
third largest employer in the United States, after the Department of Defense and Wal–Mart. It employs over 785,000
workers in over 14,000 U.S. postal facilities.
The Postal Service has certainly grown and changed since 1775 when the first Postmaster General – Benjamin Franklin –
was named to head the Post Office Department, the forerunner of the current USPS. At that time, members of the
Second Continental Congress agreed that the Postmaster General headquarters, or most important offices, would be
stationed in Philadelphia, and that the Postmaster would be paid $1,000 a year for his or her service.
As the country grew westward, it became necessary for the railroad system to carry the mail. The Railway Mail Service
(RMS) was initiated in 1862. The RMS workers sorted mail on the train, and became some of the fastest workers in the
system. They sorted about 600 pieces of mail per hour. All the mail had to be sorted before the train reached the first
stop, since some of the mail was destined for that first stop on the route.
By 1918, the Post office took over air mail from the U.S. Army. The first airplanes used in U.S. air mail were surplus
planes from World War I. The Post Office started with only four pilots flying these leftover planes in August 1 918, but by
the end of that year, the Post Office had hired 36 more pilots. By 1920, over 49 million air mail letters had been
delivered.
The Post Office has used alternate methods of transmission during its history. It owned and operated the first telegraph
lines from 1884 to 1887 – when the lines were privatized. It utilized “V–Mail” (Victory Mail) during World War II when
U.S. military mail was put on microfilm in the U.S. and printed near its destination, in order to save space on military
transport. During the 1980s, Electronic Computer Originated Mail, called ECOM, was used for some bulk mailings.
Computer generated mail was printed near its destination, and bore a blue ECOM logo on its special envelopes.
In 1970, the Postal Reorganization Act, signed by President Richard Nixon, replaced the Post Office Department (a
Cabinet–level department) with the independent US Postal Service.
The independent US Postal Service has streamlined its workload and modernized operations. Today’s multi–line optical
character readers (MLOCRs) can read the entire address on an envelope, print a barcode on the envelope, and sort the
mail at the rate of nine letters per second. The zip code + 4, a four digit code added to the end of the existing 5–digit
code, has decreased the number of times a piece of mail needs to be handled. Special barcode sorters assign an 11–digit
zip code to each address, apply a barcode to each letter, and sort the mail in order of delivery.
The Postal Service has installed automated customer–service equipment in lobbies, and is planning to automate even
more of its work, including more machines which will process parcels and forwarded mail.
The price of a first–class stamp - recently approved at 44 cents and good for up to one–ounce domestic mail - seems
relatively inexpensive compared to its predecessor; the first U.S. postage stamp, issued in 1847. The first stamps,
adorned with a picture of Benjamin Franklin, sold for 5 cents apiece.
They were used for letters weighing less than one ounce with a travel distance of less than 300 miles.
By way of comparison, pay records available for the 1890s indicate that a typical year’s pay for a schoolteacher was
around $500, or 10,000 times the price of a stamp. Stamp prices then seem relatively high when compared to today’s
average teacher pay, in the $40,000 per–year range, or about 1,000,000 times the price of a postage stamp!

Questions:
1) What is another name for the United States Post Office?
A. The P.O. B. The U.S.A. Mail C. The Ministry of Mail D. The Mail Department
2) How much did Benjamin Franklin earn as Postmaster General?
A. $100 per year B. $500 per year C. $1000 per year D. $14,000 per year
3) What technological innovation did the Post Office use during World War II?
A. Telegraph lines B. Surplus airplanes C. Mail on microfilm D. Computer–originated mail
4) When was the Post Office removed from the Executive Cabinet?
A. 1847 B. 1918 C. 1920 D. 1970
5) What acronym was used for the system of transporting mail by rail?
A. RMS B. USPS C. ECOM D. MLOCRs
Vocabulary:
1) The best synonym for headquarters is…
A. employer. B. postmaster. C. main office. D. mainstream.
2) When you sort items, you …
A. collect them. B. arrange them.
C. organize them. D. Both B and C are correct.
3) Which is the best synonym for surplus?
A. Superfluous. B. Antiquated. C. Military. D. Damaged.
4) The best synonym for streamlined is…
A. Made more durable. B. Made more popular.
C. Made more efficient. D. Made more expensive.
5) To automate is to …
A. mechanize. B. make automatic. C. accomplished by machine. D. Both B and C are correct.
Africa

Directions: Read the passage. Then answer questions about the passage below.
Africa is the second–largest continent after Asia. It also has the second–largest population after Asia. about one billion
people live in Africa. That is almost 15% of the world’s population. There are currently 54 countries on the continent of
Africa, including island countries and the Western Sahara. The number of countries sometimes changes because many of
the countries were made by colonial powers. Colonial powers are countries that made colonies in Africa when it was first
being discovered by outsiders. There are about 2,000 different languages in Africa. Most of the languages belong to one
of four large language groups. The four large language groups are Afro-Asiatic, Nilo-Saharan, Niger-Congo, and the
Khoisan languages. People also speak some non–African languages in Africa. About 20% of the population speak Arabic,
mostly in northern Africa. About 10% speak Swahili, mostly in southeastern Africa. About 5% speak Hausa, mostly in
western Africa. Many people also speak English, French, and Portuguese. One African country, Nigeria, has 250 different
languages!
There are many different tribes and cultures in Africa. For example, there is the Ashanti people. They live in Ghana. They
are famous for their beautiful Kente cloth. Kente cloth can be different colors. Ashanti people wear clothing made of
Kente cloth for important events. There are also the Madinka people. They live in West Africa - mostly in Senegal,
Gambia, and Guinea-Bissau. Some Madinka people also live in Burkina Faso, Mali, and Cote d'Ivoire. The Madinka people
are famous for their music. They tell their history with music.
Most scientists think that the first humans came from Africa. The first written information in Africa comes
from Egypt at around 3300 B.C.E. (B.C.E. means Before the Common Era., or before the year “0”). Egypt is one of the
oldest African civilizations. At that time, Egypt traded with Phoenicia, which is now Lebanon, and includes parts of Israel,
Palestine, and Syria. Egypt was discovered by the ancient Greeks, who were the first Europeans to go to Africa.
In the late 1800s, European countries went to Africa. France, Britain, Portugal, Germany, Belgium, Spain,
Italy, and Algeria made colonies in Africa. That means they controlled the governments there. The European powers took
land by force. This enabled them to send many raw materials home to their countries. Raw materials are resources that
are basic, and have not been made into anything else.
Many African countries became free after World War II. Some countries became free in a peaceful way.
Some countries had to fight to be free. The time after colonial rule is commonly referred to as “post–colonial Africa.”
Post–colonial Africa has had some very big problems. After the colonial powers left, there were problems with the
government. Between 1960 and 1980, there were 70 coups. (pronounced “koo”) A coup is the overthrow of a
government. There were 13 presidential assassinations. That means 13 African presidents were murdered. In the 1970s,
there was a huge famine in Ethiopia. A famine is a time of little or no food. Hundreds of thousands of people died of
starvation, which means they died of hunger. There have been wars. There has been a big conflict in Dafur, Sudan, and
many people have died. And the AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) disease has caused much sickness and
death in post–colonial Africa.
Africa has many natural resources. There are eight oil exporting countries in Sub–Saharan Africa. They are Nigeria,
Angola, Congo-Brazzaville, Gabon, Equatorial Guinea, Cameroon, Chad, the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), and
Sudan. Africa has about 7% of the oil reserves in the world. South Africa is the largest gold producer in the world. Ghana,
Mali, Sierra Leone, Tanzania, Rwanda and the DRC also have a lot of gold. The DRC has copper and cobalt. The DRC
produces 22% of the world's diamonds every year. Botswana, Sierra Leone, and South Africa also have a lot of
diamonds. Mozambique, Cameroon, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Ghana, and Liberia all have a lot of timber, which is
wood. The business in gas, oil, diamonds, timber and tourism is very good.
People visit Africa because the landscape is beautiful. There are many animals in Africa. Many tourists visit Kruger
National Park in South Africa. The park has 517 species of birds! The park also has 147 species of mammals! The park
even has webcams so people can watch the animals using their computer.
Some tourists go on safari in Africa. The word “safari” is a Swahili word. It comes from the Arabic word safiara, which
means travel. It is a trip where people can watch and take pictures of animals. Sometimes it is a hunting trip. Most
modern safaris are trips to look at animals. Some safari trips are in cars or trucks, helicopters or air balloons. This way,
people can watch the animals from a safe place. Soccer is the most popular sport in Africa. The Confederation of African
Football (CAF) is the organization in charge of soccer. The first members of the organization were Egypt, Sudan, Ethiopia,
and South Africa. The CAF is the biggest of the six continental soccer associations around the globe, and the African Cup
of Nations is the main contest for men’s national soccer teams in Africa. The continent of Africa is rich with resources,
people and culture. Unfortunately, this has contributed to its chaotic history. Africa is currently working on increasing
education and jobs. Many organizations are working together to build schools, hospitals, and industry to improve the
future of the African nation.

Questions:
1) How many large language groups are there in Africa?
A. 4 B. 8 C. 25 D. 2,50
2) Where does Kente cloth come from?
A. Mali B. Ghana C. Gambia D. Senegal
3) Which country had colonies in Africa?
A. Germany B. France C. Britain D. All of the above
4) How many different kinds of birds can you see at Kruger National Park?
A. 13 B. 70 C. 147 D. 517
5) Why do people go on safaris?
A. To look at animals B. To purchase diamonds
C. To take pictures of animals D. Both A and C are correct
Vocabulary:
1) A coup is…
A. a government takeover. B. a group of people.
C. a colonial power. D. a refugee.
2) A famine is …
A. a time without food. B. a peaceful change.
C. a time of extreme conflict. D. a family group.
3) What is starvation?
A. War B. Hunger C. Industry D. Freedom
4) Where does timber come from?
A. Oil B. Trees C. Mines D. Factories
5) A safari is a…
A. trip. B. tour. C. search. D. All of the above
6) If something is chaotic, it is…
A. carefully organized. B. sick and diseased.
C. crazy and demented. D. turbulent and disorderly.

Bathtubs have a very curious history. The bathtub has been in existence for thousands of years. Given its long history,
the modern day bathtub is very different from its predecessors. The bathtub originated in ancient Rome as a social
gathering place. It did not become the private bathtub, common in American households, until the early 20th century.
From its early beginnings in Rome, to cast iron horse troughs, and eventually to the modern day bathtub, it is clear that
the bathtub has had quite an evolution.
The Romans are famous for being one of the first civilizations to bathe. Starting in around 500 BC, Roman citizens were
encouraged to bathe daily in one of the many public bathtubs. The Romans used the public baths as a place for social
events and as a chance to get to know other people. Their public baths were fairly large and most commonly made of
marble. The Romans used lead or bronze pipes to fill the tubs with water. Contrary to popular belief, the habit of bathing
continued after the collapse of the Roman Empire, and was common throughout the Middle Ages. Bathing eventually
went out of fashion at the beginning of the Renaissance period, only to resurface in the 19th century.
In 1883, the Standard Sanitary Manufacturing Company and the Kohler Company began producing cast-iron tubs. These
companies advertised their tubs as horse troughs –– large tubs where horses could drink – because this was seen as a
more marketable product than a bathtub. However, human bathing in the tubs became popular due to the easy to clean
surface of the tub, and the desire to prevent disease.
One cannot explain the history of bathtubs without mentioning the name Henry L. Mencken. He was a journalist who
infamously wrote a false story regarding the history of bathtubs. In his story, Mencken wrote that the first bathtub in
the United States belonged to Adam Thompson. According to the story, Adam Thompson put a bathtub in his house in
1842. At a Christmas party, four guests tried the tub, and news of the bathtub was in the newspaper the next day.
Mencken went on to claim that some people were upset about the news of Thompson’s bathtub because they believed it
to be undemocratic. In addition to these, he fabricated several other details. He wrote that the bathtub was dangerous,
and that the Philadelphia Common Council considered disallowing bathing between November 1 and March 15 of that
year for health reasons. He even wrote that several cities put very high taxes on water for houses that had bathtubs.
Mencken claimed that he did not expect people to believe his newspaper story. However, his story was reprinted in many
newspapers. Shortly afterward, historians also began to spread Mencken’s spurious story. Eight years after he wrote the
false story, Mencken wrote a second story admitting that everything he had written about bathtubs was false. His story
on the bathtub is now considered to be one of the most famous newspaper hoaxes, or tricks, in history. Even today,
some of Mencken’s false information still gets intermixed with the true history of bathtubs.
Finally, after World War I – and after Mencken’s hoax – many new houses were built in the United States with indoor
plumbing. Previously, most houses in the United States did not have indoor plumbing. In the early 1920s, only 21% of
houses had bathrooms, but by the end of the twentieth century, all new houses had bathrooms.
Today, there are many different types of bathtubs. Luxury bathtubs are made not only for bathing, but also for recreation
and relaxation. Some homes have hot–tubs, which are also called spas. The hot tub has a built in heater that keeps the
water hot and jets to create bubbles. Some hot tubs even have built–in sound systems so the bather can listen to music
while they relax. There are also tubs made just for the elderly and disabled. These bathtubs allow people to walk into the
tub without having to step over the edge.
It is apparent that, throughout its long history, the bathtub has changed tremendously since its birth in ancient Rome.
Questions:
1) According to Mencken’s newspaper story, where was the first bathtub located in the U.S.?
A. Henry Mencken’s house B. Adam Thompson’s house
C. Millard Fillmore’s house D. John Michael Kohler’s house
2) Mencken most likely write a second story about bathtubs because
A. the first story had become so popular. B. he was finally let out of prison.
C. he felt guilty about lying. D. he sought revenge on Thompson.
3) What were the Roman baths made of?
A. Iron B. Glass C. Wood D. Marble
4) When did Americans start building bathrooms in their houses?
A. In the mid–1800s B. In the late 1800s C. During World War I
D. After World War I
5) According to the passage, what kinds of bathtubs are being made today?
A. Spas B. Hot tubs C. Walk–in tubs D. Cast iron tubs
E. A, B, and C are correct. F. A, C, and D are correct.
Vocabulary:
1) A predecessor is something that comes…
A. before something else. B. during something else. C. after something else.
D. None of the above are correct.
2) If something is infamous, it is…
A. heinous. B. audacious. C. laudatory. D. notorious.
3) The best synonym for regarding is…
A. about B. so C. through D. denying
4) Mencken’s story was fabricated. This…
A. means it was complicated. B. means it was popular. C. means it was accurate.
D. means it was genuine. E. means it was fictitious.
5) The best synonym for spurious is…
A. kind. B. unaware. C. false. D. genuine.
6) The best synonym for apparent is…
A. clear. B. muddled. C. correct. D. appropriate.
7) If something is tremendous, it is…
A. small. B. significant. C. incorrect. D. passionate.
“City Girl”

Directions: Read the story. Then answer the questions below.

I am a city girl at heart. I’ve never milked a cow – never wanted to. I was shocked when I attended my first “pig pickin’”
after my husband and I moved to North Carolina from Boston. I had to avert my eyes from the huge pig, skin and head
still on, splayed open across an oil drum that had been sawed in half lengthwise and fitted with hinges so it opened and
closed. This, I later learned, was called a “pig cooker.” Part of the pig’s insides were chopped up in a pan beside it and
referred to as “barbecue.” Seeing all of this did not improve my appetite.
“Y’all in thuh country now, gul,” the host told me happily, apparently thrilled to be the one to indoctrinate me into
country living.
When, at 8 months pregnant, I volunteered to chaperone my son’s strawberry picking field trip, the other mothers looked
at me strangely. I thought strawberries grew on tall bushes, not low to the ground. All that squatting sent me into early
labor.
You should keep these incidents in mind in order to understand my attitude when I heard a “huge hurricane” was headed
toward our town. I thought back to the snowstorms forecast during my days growing up in Philadelphia. The “20 inches”
predicted by the weatherman never seemed to materialize.
The local newspaper ran a long checklist of things townspeople should get to prepare for the hurricane. My neighbor,
Wayne, aware that I was new to town, made a point of giving me a copy of the list. I took a cursory glance and thought
nothing more of it.
While my neighbors were running around taping their windows, buying fresh batteries, and prepping their generators, I
was, quite literally, sitting in my glass house playing with the kids on the floor. The rains started at 2 o’clock in the
afternoon. To my amazement, this was exactly what the weatherman had predicted. These were no ordinary rains,
either. From my glass living room, I could no longer see the front lawn or the trees. The rain was as thick as a woolen
curtain.
By nightfall, my husband’s car had begun to float out of the driveway. The water started insidiously creeping up our front
steps, overturning potted plants and benches in its wake. “This is unbelievable!” I yelled. I reached for the phone to dial
Wayne. He had been born and raised in these parts; surely he would know what to do.“Wayne,” I said worriedly into the
receiver. “The water is coming up our front
steps. It’s almost to our door!”
“Ours, too,” he said, quite calmly, I thought, given the circumstances.
“What should I do?”
“Put out your sandbags. It will keep the water out as long as it doesn’t get too high.”
“Sandbags?”
“You didn’t get any?” he asked in disbelief. “They were on the list.”
No, I hadn’t.

Questions:
1) What other title might fit this passage best?
A. "An Urban Attitude" B. "Learning Hurricanes"
C. "Picking Strawberries" D. "Snow Storms that Don't Come"
2) What seems to be the author's main purpose in the first four paragraphs of this passage?
A. to let the reader know that the narrator went into early labor
B. to let the reader know that the narrator does not like barbecue
C. to let the reader know that the narrator is unfamiliar with country life
D. to let the reader know that the narrator wants to move back to Boston
3) “I had to avert my eyes from the huge pig, skin and head still on, splayed open across half of an oil drum that had
been sawed in half lengthwise.”
Which of the following is the best way to rewrite the above sentence while keeping its original meaning as used in the
story?
A. I had to open my eyes to the huge pig, skin and head on, splayed open across an oil drum that had been sawed in
half lengthwise.”
B. I had to direct my eyes towards the huge pig, skin and head on, splayed open across an oil drum that had been sawed
in half lengthwise.
C. I had to turn my eyes away from the huge pig, skin and head on, splayed open across an oil drum that
had been sawed in half lengthwise.
D. I had to fix my eyes upon the huge pig, skin and head on, splayed open across an oil drum that had been sawed in
half lengthwise.
4) As used , which is the best definition for materialize?
A. to be false B. to increase in size
C. to become actual or real D. to be concerned with consumer goods.
5) Which literary term best applies to the following quote: “Y’all in thuh country now, gul.”
A. yarn, meaning an improbable tale
B. trait, characterized as a habit or tendency in one’s personality
C. caprice, characterized as expressing fanciful or odd notions
D. vernacular, meaning the native language of people in a particular geographical area
6) Which best describes the narrator's attitude in this passage?
A. disdainful of rural life B. unaware of country ways
C. anxious to get back to Boston D. wishful for her children to grow up in the city
7) As used in the middle of the story, which is the best antonym for cursory?
A. angry and willful B. fast and intelligent
C. slow and deliberate D. slow and superficial
8) What does it mean to literally do something?
A. to think about doing something B. to do something exactly as said
C. to do something and regret it later D. to do something with a bad attitude
9) What message does the author convey by having the narrator wait out the storm in a glass room?
A. It signifies how vulnerable she is.
B. It signifies the narrator's nontraditional tastes.
C. It lets the reader know that she has not taped up her windows.
D. It lets the reader know she can see everything that's going on.
10) Which best describes the use of woolen curtain in this passage?
A. simile, meaning the direct comparison of two different things using “like” or “as.”
B. comic relief, meaning it offers humor in a tense situation.
C. personification, meaning something described as if it were human.
D. satire, meaning it ridicules the weakness of an institution.
11) If the story were to continue, what might reasonably happen next?
I. Water might get into the house.
II. The narrator might flee to Wayne’s house for safety.
III. The narrator might drive back to the store to get sandbags.
A. I only B. I and II C. II and III D. I, II, and III
12) Which lesson does the narrator most likely learn during the hurricane?
A. The early bird catches the worm.
B. Marry in haste and repent at leisure.
C. An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure.
D. Actions speak louder than words.
13) How might the narrator have been better able to deal with her immediate problem?
A. She could have taped her windows.
B. She could have replaced the old batteries in her appliances.
C. She could have prepped her generator.
D. She could have purchased the items from the hurricane list.

Directions: Read the story. Then answer the questions below.

The relationship between my mother, sister and me had been cold and inimical for as long as I could remember.
To me, my mother was irrational, hurling hurtful invectives for the slightest infraction. “Don’t matter,” my mother
grumbled when I asked her where she moved my watercolor paints. “It ain’t like you got talent.” The time our mailbox
got knocked off she somehow got it in her head that I was the culprit. “Never respected nothin’,” I heard her say. And
my sister took my mother’s side against me every time. Five years my senior, Tammy seemed not to have a brain in her
head. She dithered about everything, incapable of making any firm decision. No matter how often my mother
deprecated her— “dumb, ugly, fat”—Tammy made futile attempts to fawn her way back into mother’s good graces. My
father would pontificate, “You three are more alike than you know.”
In April of 2000, my mother kicked us both out of the house. (Dad had been exiled many years before.) After that, my
sister and I went our separate ways. It was then that I began having recurring dreams.
In one, I am running to catch up with a woman. Each time I get near, I trip and fall. Another woman, smiling and
shouting my name, comes with great alacrity and offers her hand, but when I reach to grab it, she disappears.
In another, a female professor hands me a test. Although I have spent hours studying for it, I know none of the answers.
The professor derides me for my poor performance. I watch while she relays my ignorance to the class with comic
hilarity.
These dreams were not hard to understand. In fact, it was just the opposite; they were pellucid, and absent any
knowledge of dream interpretation, I was still able to devise their significance. I knew that they both reflected the
pugnacious relationship I shared with my mother and sister. However, there was one dream I could never quite
construe. I bite into an apple. All my teeth fall out. I had this dream far more than any of the others. Years later, in an
effort to heal our fractious relationship, Mom, Tammy and I elected to go to counseling together. After several sessions, I
told my dream about teeth tumbling out of my head.
“My God, Crystal,” said my mother. “I’ve had the exact same dream many times.”
“Me, too,” said Tammy solemnly. Breakthrough? No idea. But I was reminded of the words of my now-dead father.
Maybe the three of us are more alike than we know.

Questions:
1) Which is most likely to make a relationship inimical?
A. great pathos B. frequent maledictions
C. magnanimous gestures D. ingenious discussions
2) As used which is the best synonym for invectives?
A. insults B. names C. profanity D. words E. misfortunes
3) If the story were true, which would best describe its genre?
A. literary essay, based on a piece of literature
B. memoir essay, centered on a significant memory from the past
C. persuasive essay, characterized by choosing a side and refuting other arguments
D. expository essay, meant to inform the reader of a body of knowledge
E. satire, in which human folly and vice are held up to scorn, derision, or ridicule
4) The father's comment is best described as……….
A. hyperbole, an obvious exaggeration for effect
B. a paradox, an idea that contains two conflicting concepts
C. symbolism, using one thing to represent something else
D. foreshadowing, a hint at what is to come
E. a simile, comparing two or more things using like or as
5) What is the tone of this story?
A. matter-of-fact B. sentimental C. pompous D. uncertain E. comical
6) How does the relationship between the narrator, her mother, and her sister seem to change from the beginning of
passage to end?
A. from brusque to florid B. from egregious to impassive
C. from enervating to rejuvenating D. from destructive to collaborative
E. from convivial to estranged
7) As used , which is the best antonym for pellucid?
A. dirty B. frightening C. enlightening D. strange E. unclear
8) "The professor derides me for my poor performance."
Which of the following is the best way to rewrite the above sentence while keeping its original meaning the same?
A. The professor is in disbelief due to my poor performance.
B. The professor laughs mockingly at my poor performance.
C. The professor announces my poor performance.
D. The professor gives me a failing grade for my poor performance.
E. The professor gives me a tutorial because of my poor performance.
9) "I bite into an apple. All my teeth fall out."
Which of the following is the best way to rewrite the above sentences while keeping their original meaning the same?
A. I bite into an apple, so all my teeth fall out.
B. I bite into an apple, yet all my teeth fall out.
C. I bite into an apple, and all my teeth fall out.
D. I bite into an apple, because all my teeth fall out.
E. I bite into an apple, but all my teeth fall out.
10) Which of the following words from the story has/have a negative connotation?
I. deprecated II. alacrity III. pugnacious
A. I only B. II only C. I and III D. II and III E. I, II, and III
11) If the professor in the narrator's dream represented someone in her life, who would that person most likely be, and
why?
A. the sister, because she was described in the passage as dithering
B. the mother, because she was described in the passage as mean-spirited
C. the narrator, because she seems to be testing everyone in the passage
D. the father, because he understood that that the three women were alike
E. herself, because she was hyper-aware of her own problems
12) Breakthrough? No idea.
Which is the best way to rewrite the above sentence fragments so that they are grammatically correct, while keeping
their original meaning as used in the final paragraph?
A. Breakthrough, no idea. B. Was this a breakthrough? I have no idea.
C. If this was a breakthrough; I have no idea. D. I had no idea. This was a breakthrough.
E. Breakthrough or not, I have no idea.
Flower Power

Directions: Read the story. Then answer the questions below.

When her grandmother’s health began to deteriorate in the fall of 1994, Mary would make the drive from Washington,
DC to Winchester, VA every few days. She hated highway driving, finding it ugly and monotonous. She preferred to take
meandering back roads to her grandmother’s hospital. When she drove through the rocky town of Harpers Ferry, the
beauty of the rough waters churning at the intersection of the Shenandoah and Potomac rivers always captivated her.
Toward the end of her journey, Mary had to get on highway 81. It was here that she discovered a surprising bit of
beauty during one of her trips. Along the median of the highway, there was a long stretch of wildflowers. They were thin
and delicate and purple, and swayed in the wind as if whispering poems to each other.
The first time she saw the flowers, Mary was seized by an uncontrollable urge to pull over on the highway and yank a
bunch from the soil. She carried them into her grandmother’s room when she arrived at the hospital and placed them in
a water pitcher by her bed.
For a moment her grandmother seemed more lucid than usual. She thanked Mary for the flowers, commented on their
beauty and asked where she had gotten them. Mary was overjoyed by the ability of the flowers to wake something up
inside her ailing grandmother.
Afterwards, Mary began carrying scissors in the car during her trips to visit her grandmother. She would quickly glide
onto the shoulder, jump out of the car, and clip a bunch of flowers. Each time Mary placed the flowers in the pitcher, her
grandmother’s eyes would light up and they would have a splendid conversation.
One morning in late October, Mary got a call that her grandmother had taken a turn for the worse. Mary was in such a
hurry to get to her grandmother that she sped past her flower spot. She decided to turn around, head several miles back,
and cut a bunch.
Mary arrived at the hospital to find her grandmother very weak and unresponsive. She placed the flowers in the pitcher
and sat down to hold her grandmother’s hand. She felt a squeeze on her fingers. It was the last conversation they had.

Questions:
1) As used at the beginning of the story, which is the best antonym for deteriorate?
A. improve B. increase C. adjust D. accumulate
2) As used in the beginning of the story, which is the best definition for captivated?
A. energized B. fascinated C. humbled D. relaxed
3) "She hated highway driving, finding it ugly and monotonous."
Which of the following is the best way to rewrite the above sentence, while keeping its original meaning?
A. She hated highway driving, finding it ugly and tedious.
B. She hated highway driving, finding it ugly and confusing.
C. She hated highway driving, finding it ugly and nerve-wracking.
D. She hated highway driving, finding it ugly and time-consuming.
4) "They were thin and delicate and purple, and swayed in the wind as if whispering poems to each other."
Which of the following literary techniques is used in the above sentence?
A. vernacular, suggesting the dialect of a particular geographical area
B. assonance, characterized by the repetition of identical or similar vowel sounds in successive words
C. foreshadowing, characterized by the use of hints to suggest what is to come
D. personification, characterized by a thing or object being endowed with human qualities
5) Which best describes what the act of stopping for flowers on the side of the highway became for Mary?
A. monotonous B. a ritual C. a regret D. torturous
6) What other title would best fit this passage?
A. “The Fall” B. "On the Road"
C. “Wildflower Poetry” D. "Living for Tomorrow"
7) In the final paragraph, the author writes, “She felt a squeeze on her fingers. It was the last conversation they had.”
Which of the following best describes what the author is trying to communicate in these sentences?
A. Mary and her grandmother held hands and had a splendid conversation
B. Mary’s grandmother was too weak to communicate with Mary
C. Mary and her grandmother communicated through touch
D. Mary’s grandmother liked the flowers that Mary brought
8) Which of the following accurately describe Mary’s personality?
I. impatient II. drawn towards beauty III. loving
A. I only B. I and II C. II and III D. I, II, and III
9) As used in the middle of the story, which is the best antonym for lucid?
A. false B. realistic C. muddled D. determined
10) What do the flowers come to signify most for Mary?
A. the natural beauty of U.S. highways
B. an opportunity to compose herself before visiting her grandmother
C. a final chance to connect with her grandmother
D. a way to make the hospital room more pleasant

“Love Train”

Directions: Read the story. Then answer the questions below.

When I was a little girl, I loved for my mom to tell me stories about herself. No matter how tired she was, she never
adumbrated them. She would fill the tales with the minutest details, and they were always fascinating.
Another thing she did was tell the stories with such grandiloquence! At different points she would stop and say, “Now
what do you think that word means?” I would try to piece together what was happening in the story and make my best
guess.
To this day, when I want to bug my friends, I use the huge words that I first learned leaning on Mom's shoulder as she
recounted a snippet of her life. My favorite story was the one about how my mom met my dad:
“I was 17 years old, but I already knew the kind of man I would marry. Take note: “He would not be too garrulous. I
tell you, Rosa, it’s important for a man to make interesting conversation, but he must also take time to listen to what you
have to say.
“And never impertinent. I’ll never forget when I was 16; a boy from my church named Joe Turner came and knocked on
our door. He didn’t look my momma in the eye, and didn’t say, ‘Hello.’ He just leaned against the door jamb and said,
‘Rosa here?’
“My momma raised her brow and said, ‘She is, but not for boys such as yourself.’
“But I digress. I’m supposed to be telling you about the day I met your daddy, right?
“Okay, so I was riding the Amtrak train between Providence and Philadelphia during my freshman year at Brown, and the
door at the end of my car rattled open.
“He was tall and swarthy. He wore a thick, ivory, cable knit sweater with a gray wool scarf wrapped firmly around his
neck. I couldn’t tell what his heritage was and that intrigued me. What was he -- Indian, Portuguese, Peruvian?”
Mom would pause here and I would shout, “Cape Verdean!”
She’d continue:
“Well, if I had been shy, I might have just looked out the train window. But then
where would I be now? You wouldn’t even be here! So I let my eyes lock with his as he wobbled down the moving train.
“He smiled a slight smile, not a big one. His eyes raised just enough to let me know he had spotted me too.”
I always loved this line and would smile at the image of my dad stumbling down the train and then noticing my radiant
mom.
“So Rosa, once we spotted each other, your dad found a number of reasons to walk past me to go to the café car.
"I was sitting by myself along the aisle. So finally, I just slid over to the window, leaving the seat next to me empty.
“Your dad came back with two cups of hot cocoa and sat down with a smile. And we had the most delightful
conversation!
“I could tell right then that this was no ephemeral crush – this was the real deal. I was going to end up loving this man
forever.”
And then the part I loved best about the story.
“We pull into the train station in Philadelphia, and it’s time for me to get off. He was heading on to Washington where he
was going to school.
“I prepared myself for some hackneyed expression as I got off the train. You know, ‘Great meeting you,’ or ‘Good luck
at school.’
"I also worried he might try to sneak a smooch, which would have been a big turn off. We'd just met!
"Instead, he took my hand gently and gave it a little squeeze. He said, ‘If it’s the thought that counts, consider yourself
kissed.’”
Mama said she just about died when he said that! Then she said to herself, “That man will be my husband.” And so he is.

Questions:
1) As used at the beginning of the story, which is the best antonym for adumbrated?
A. detailed B. lengthened C. invented D. simplified
2) As used in the beginning of the story, which is the best definition for grandiloquence?
A. technical jargon B. archaic speech
C. pithy expression D. overly ornate or pompous language
3) What is ironic about the title of this passage?
A. Rosa's mother does not like clichés.
B. The passage has nothing to do with a song.
C. It is where Rosa's mother meets her husband-to-be.
D. The train only went a short distance but their love continued forever.
4) Why might the author have chosen Rosa as the narrator even though it is her mother who is telling the main story?
A. to make the story harder to follow
B. to make the story seem more straightforward
C. to make it clear that Rosa’s mother has passed away
D. to allow the reader to hear the story from Rosa's perspective
5) As used in the beginning of the overly ornate or pompous language story, which is the best definition for
garrulous?
A. conceited B. talkative C. narrow-minded D. fawning
6) Which situation best describes someone who has been impertinent, as used in the beginning of the story?
A. A man crashes into the car in front of him.
B. A student gestures rudely to his teacher.
C. A child rushes out the door, forgetting to say good-bye to his mom.
D. A woman refuses to let her son play video games before school.
7) As used in the story, which is the best antonym for digress?
A. stop B. stray C. shorten D. stay on course
8) What may Rosa’s mother intend to convey to her child by telling this story?
A. advice about what to look for in a partner
B. regret that she met her husband on a train
C. the suggestion that Rosa might find her husband on a train
D. a yearning to go back to that time and place
9) Judging from the passage, what does Rosa's mother find most important in a husband?
I. humor II. Respectfulness III. originality
A. I only B. III only C. I and II D. II and III
10) What is implied in the following paragraph from the middle of the story?
"Well, if I had been shy, I might have just looked out the train window. Where would I be now? You wouldn’t even be
here! But I let my eyes lock with his as he wobbled down the moving train."
A. Rosa’s mother really wanted to simply look out the window.
B. It is best to be outspoken in nearly all circumstances.
C. As soon as their eyes locked they fell in love.
D. A slight change in circumstances could have greatly altered Rosa’s mother’s life.
11) As used at the end of the story, which is the best definition for ephemeral?
A. fleeting B. permanent C. ridiculous D. serious
12) As used at the end of the story, which is the best antonym for hackneyed?
A. happy B. humorous C. original D. overused

“Remains of a Marriage”

Directions: Read the story. Then answer the questions below.

Kelsey could not begin to fathom what she was hearing. In fact, a part of her began to feel she was in some sort of
dream, unable to emerge to wakefulness.
Even the contractor appeared flabbergasted. His mouth stayed in a half-open position, like a marionette waiting for its
strings to be tugged. “Yes. Leave it,” Robert said again, speaking to the notion that someone in the room had asked him
to clarify his words. No one had, but Robert understood the silence. What were the chances that an Indian burial ground
would be found on the bucolic site where Robert and Kelsey had chosen to build their dream home? Why in the world
would Robert not want to have the remains carted away, thought Kelsey. The last thing they needed were Indian
poltergeists meandering around their home while the two of them were trying to renovate their marriage. Kelsey, usually
deferential to her husband, knew that now was the time to make her position heard.
She tried to cajole Robert away from the direction he was heading.
“Sweetheart,” she cooed. “We don’t want to build on a site with human remains. It would be irreverent to the dead.”
Immediately, she saw contempt in Robert’s eyes; it was a subtle reminder of how he often viewed her as superficial and
self-absorbed.
“What would be irreverent,” said Robert, his voice dripping with condescension,
“would be to desecrate these Native graves and move them from their final resting place. Remember the culture.”
No, Kelsey did not “remember the culture.” She could not care less about the culture. However, Robert, the history
professor, was obviously enthralled by the contractor’s findings. He had an innate way of understanding other cultures
and other people that amazed Kelsey. He did not have that gift with her.
But something inside Kelsey said this was too much. She believed wholeheartedly in ghosts and could not imagine a life
of them haunting her, rattling her cupboards, and shaking her floorboards. Kelsey had an unnerving sensation that
problems were ahead.

Questions:
1) Which of the following best explains how Kelsey feels at the beginning of the story?
A. unable to comprehend the current situation
B. unable to comprehend the decision of her husband
C. unaware of the problem at hand
D. unwilling to confront a potentially life-threatening ordeal
2) As used at the beginning of the story, which is the best synonym for flabbergasted?
A. dumbfounded B. hostile C. querulous D. unimpressed
3) In paragraph 2, the author writes, “His mouth stayed in a half-open position, like a marionette waiting for its strings to
be tugged.” Which of the following literary techniques is used in this quotation?
A. allusion, characterized by a casual reference to a literary or historical figure
B. simile, characterized by a comparison between two unlike things using “like” or “as”
C. denotation, characterized by the usage of the literal definition of a word
D. hyperbole, characterized by a gross exaggeration
4) The title of this passage makes use of which literary device?
A. a pun, where one word has two meanings that are both used at the same time
B. irony, where the words used mean the opposite of what they say
C. foreshadowing, which hints at what is to come later in the story
D. overstatement, where something is exaggerated for effect
5) Kelsey wants to have the remains removed because
I. She is afraid of ghosts.
II. Robert wants to leave them there.
III. She respects Native cultures.
A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. I, II, and III
6) If Kelsey had chosen to be deferential to her husband, what would she have likely told him regarding his plans?
A. "Good idea." B. "Don't be silly." C. "I'll leave you." D. "I’m not sure."
7) Which adjective best describes Kelsey and Robert’s marriage?
A. busy B. appalling C. strained D. good-natured
8) What about Robert seems to keep him from wanting to move the gravesite?
A. He is controlling. B. He fears the Indians.
C. He cares about cultural history. D. He is afraid of ghosts.
9) The author writes, “She tried to cajole Robert away from the direction he was heading. "Which of the following is the
best way to rewrite the above sentence while keeping its original meaning as used in the story?
A. She tried to compromise with Robert to go the other direction.
B. She tried to force Robert to change directions.
C. She tried to entice Robert away from the direction he was heading.
D. She tried to threaten Robert about the direction he was heading.
10) As used at the end of the story, which is the best antonym for desecrate?
A. honor B. excavate C. defile D. criticize