Spotters

S.No. Spotter Sp.no

NUTRITION
1. Milled rice 9

2. Wheat 12

3. Maize 13

4. Bajra 14

5. Ragi 15

6. Red gram 17

7. Bengal gram (whole) 16

8. Green gram 18

9. Rajma 19

10. Soya bean 20

11. Soya chunk 21

12. Ground nut 22

13. Carrot 23

14. Green leafy vegetable 24

15. Banana 25

16. Milk 26

17. Egg 27

18. Jaggery 28

19. Coconut oil 29

20. Vanaspati ghee 30

21. Iodised salt 31

22. Butter 100

VACCINES
23. BCG 33

24. DPT 34

25. TT 35

26. OPV 36

27. Measles 37

28. MMR 39

29. Pentavalent vaccine 105

30. Hepatitis B vaccine 40

31. Vitamin A solution 42

32. Tuberculin syringe 43

33. Distilled water 44

34. Disposable syringe 47

35. Dial/ stem thermometer 98

36. Vaccine carrier 46

ENTOMOLOGY
37. Anopheles adult 49

38. Aedes- adult mosquito 50

39. Culex- adult 52

40. Head louse 53

41. Cyclops 54

42. Rat flea 101

ENVIRONMENT.DISINFECTANTS,DRUGS

43. Sandfly 102

44. Hard tick 103

45. Soft tick 104

46. Sand filter 63

47. Septic tank 64

48. Chloroscope 60

49. Horrock’s apparatus 61

50. Sanitary well 62

51. Soap 65

52. Crude phenol 66

53. Dettol 67

54. Bleaching powder 68

55. Povidone iodine 69

56. Savlon 71

57. Formalin 96

58. Malathion 56

59. Rifampicin and INH 74

60. Streptomycin 76
61. Ethambutol 77

62. Dapsone 78

63. Clofazamine 79

64. Chloroquine 80

MCH RELATED SPOTTERS

65. IFA tablet 1

66. ORS 2

67. Growth charts 3

68. Immunization chart 97

69. Salters baby weighing scale 4

70. Ishihara chart 87

71. Harpenders calipers 89

72. Condom 90

73. Copper- T 92

74. Oral contraceptive pills 93

 Answer key

1.Milled rice
Q1.What is the effect of milling?
 Loss of protein upto 15 %
 Loss of thiamine up to 75 %
 Loss of riboflavin and niacin upto 60%
Q2.Why is rice protein considered better quality protein?
 Rice contains more lysine than any other cereals
2.Wheat
Q1.What is the protein content?
 9 to 16 g per 100 g
Q2.What is the limiting amino acid in it?
 Lysine
 Threonine
3.Maize
Q1.Mention its nutrition profile
 Protein- 11.1 g per 100 g
 Carbohydrate- 66.2 g per 100 g
 Fat- 3.6 g per 100 g
 Calories- 342 g per 100 g
Q2.What disease occurs in people with maize as staple diet?
 Pellagra
4.Bajra
Q1.What is the protein content?
 10-14 g per 100 g
Q2.Which disorder results from consumption of ergot infested grain? How can it be
prevented?
 Ergotism
 It can be prevented by floating them in 20% salt water
 Hand picking
 Air floatation
5.Ragi
Q1.Mention the nutritive profile
 Carbohydrate- 72 g per 100 g
 Fat- 1.3 g per 100 g
 Calories- 328 g per 100 g
Q2.How does this qualify as weaning food?
 High content of calcium
 All essential amino acids are present in adequate amounts
6.Red gram
Q1.What is the limiting amino acid in it?
 Methionine
 Cysteine
 Q2.Which health hazard results from consumption of contaminated dhal?
 Long term consumption leads to neurolathyrism in humans
 Osteolathyrism in animals
7 .Bengal gram (whole)
Q1.How do you improve its nutritive value?
 Germination (unsplit form only)
 Fermentation
Q2.Which amino acid is rich in it?
 Lysine
8.Green gram
Q1.Identify the spotter and write its nutritional profile
  Protein- 24 g per 100 g
 Fat- 1.2 g per 100 g
 Energy- 348 g per 100 g
9.Rajma
Q1.What are the limiting amino acids in it?
 Methionine, cysteine
Q2.Write its nutritive profile
 Protein- 22.3 g per 100 g
 Fat- 1.3 g per 100 g
 Energy- 346 g per 100 g
10.Soya bean
Q1.Write its nutritive profile
 Protein- 43.2 g per 100 g /Fat- 19.6 g per 100 g/ Energy- 432 g per 100 g
Q2.How does it differ from animal protein?
 Its protein is biologically incomplete. It is deficient in methionine
11.Soya chunks
Q1.Write its nutritional profile
 Protein- 43.2 g per 100 g /Fat- 19.6 g per 100 g/ Energy- 432 g per 100 g
Q2.How does it differ from soya beans?
 Soya beans is a natural legume whereas soya chunks are made by processing
defatted soya flour
12.Ground nut
Q1.Comment on quality of fat
 Mono unsaturated fatty acids
Q2.Which toxin is produced if it is stored improperly?
 Aflatoxin
13. Carrot
Q1.What is the important nutrient present in it?
 Vitamin A
Q2.What are the ocular manifestations of this nutrient deficiency?
 Night blindness,
 Xerosis,
 xerophtalmia,
 bitots spot,
 corneal xerosis,
 corneal ulcer
14. Green leafy vegetables
Q1.What is the recommended daily intake for?
 Adults- 40 g per day
 Pregnant women- 150 g per day

Q2. Mention its nutritional profile

 Rich source of carotenes, calcium, iron, vitamin C, riboflavin, folic acid
15. Banana
Q1.What is the calorie value?
 116 K cal
Q2What is its importance in diet?
 Cellulose helps in normal bowel movements
16. Milk
Q1.Why is milk white in colour?
 Milk contains casein a protein that gives white colour
Q2.What is the name of protein / carbohydrate – in milk?
 Protein- casein
 Carbohydrate – lactose

17. Egg
Q1.Mention the nutritive profile of an egg weighing 60 g
 Protein- 6 g
 Carbohydrate- nil
 Energy- 70 kcal
18. Jaggery
Q1.Where does iron content of jaggery come from?
 Iron pots in which sugarcane juice is boiled to make jaggery
Q2.Mention nutritional profile of jaggery (energy and other elements)
 Energy-383 kcal per 100 g
 Iron – 11.4 g /100 g
 Calcium 80 g/100 g
 Carotene- 165 mg
19. Coconut oil
Q1.What type of SFA is predominant in coconut oil?
 Mono unsatutared fatty acid
Q2.What is the calorie value?
 900 kcal per 100g
20. Vanaspathi ghee
Q1.Mention 4 points to tell how it is different from other vegetable oils?
 It is synthetically made from vegetable oil by hydrogenation
 Contains saturated fatty acid
 Trans fatty acid
 Better shelf life
 Fortified with vitamin D and A
Q2.What is hydrogenation?
 In the presence of catalyst vegetable oil is hydrogenated
 Unsaturated fatty acid is converted into saturated fatty acid
 Liquid oil is converted into semi solid and solid fat
21. Iodised salt
Q1.Mention 2 reasons why salt is used as a medium for iodisation?
 Universally consumed
 Consumed in same level throughout the year
 Produced in few centers
 Iodisation is easy and simple procedure
 Does not impart taste, colour, odour
 Low cost
Q2.What is food fortification?
 Process of adding nutrients to food in relatively small quantities to maintain
or improve the quality of diet of a group, a community or a population
22. Butter
Q1.What is the nutritional profile?
 Energy- 729 kcal/100 g
 Fat- saturated fatty acid
Q2.Which vitamins are available in this?
 Vitamin D
23. BCG
Q1. What type of vaccine is it?
 Live
 Freeze dried powder
Q2. What are the complications of BCG vaccination (write 2)
• Prolonged ulceration at the vaccination site
• Suppurative lymphadenitis
• Tubercular osteomyelitis
• Disseminated BCG infection
24. DPT
Q1.What is the site of injection?
 Anterolateral aspect of thigh
Q2.Is the pertussis vaccine given to the adult same as that given to younger
children?
 Adults should be given only acellular pertussis vaccine.
25. TT
Q1.What is the site of injection?
 Upper arm
Q2.What is the recommended dosage category after injury?
 Cat A – (received complete course within 5 years)- no action
 Cat B- (complete course/ booster>5 years but <10 yrs age) - Single dose of TT
 Cat C- (complete course/ booster >10 years ) - Single TT- if clean
 Single TT with human tetanus immunoglobulin – if not clean
 Cat D- (not immunised)- 2 doses TT1-2 months apart
 2 doses and immunoglobulin if wound is unclean
26. OPV
Q1. Write the schedule as under NIS?
 Zero dose- At birth
 1,2,3 – 6, 10 and 14 weeks
 Booster- 16-24 months with DPT and Vit A
 Pulse polio immunisation- given as planned by local authorities
Q2.What is pulse polio immunisation?
 Simultaneous administration of OPV to all the under 5 children of the area,
organised in two rounds 4-6 weeks apart every year.
27. Measles
Q1.What is the protective efficacy and duration?
 Efficacy is almost 95-100% and may last lifelong.
Q2.What is the diluent used?
 Distilled water
28. MMR vaccine
Q1.What is the route of administration and type of vaccine?
 Route of administration - Subcutaneous
 Type of vaccine - Live vaccine
Q2.Why is MMR contraindicated in pregnant women?
 Risk of foetus developing congenital rubella syndrome
29. Pentavalent vaccine
Q1. What are the diseases prevented by this spotter?
 Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, Hemophilus influenza B
Q2. What is the dose and route of administration?
 0.5 ml, I.M at anterolateral aspect of mid-thigh
30. Hepatitis B vaccine
Q1.What is the type of vaccine?
 Killed, recombinant
Q2.What is the immunisation schedule for adults?
 Rapid schedule- 0,1, 2 months
 Longer schedule- 0,1, 6 months – higher antibody titers
31. Vitamin A solution
Q1.What should be the minimum gap between two doses of Vitamin A and why?
 6 months
 Liver can store upto 6- 9 mths. Too frequent administration- liver toxicities
Q2.Mention 4 extra ocular manifestation of Vitamin A deficiency
 Follicular hyperkeratosis
 Anorexia
 Growth retardation
 Susceptible to respiratory and intestinal infection

32.Tuberculin Syringe
Q1.Write 2 uses of tuberculin syinge.
  Administer BCG
 Administer purified protein derivative (sensitivity testing\ before vaccination
or medication)
Q2.What is the route of administration for immunisation with a tuberculin syringe?
 Intradermal
33. Distilled water
Q1.Which NIS vaccines are to be reconstituted with distilled water
 Measles
 MMR
 MR
 Japanese encephalitis
Q2.What is the cold chain temperature at which distilled water should be stored?
 +2 to 8 degree C
34. Disposable syringe
Q1.Write 2 uses in public health
 To administer i.m vaccines like DPT, DT, TT
 S.c vaccines measles, MMR JE
 Reconstitute diluents
Q2.Mention 2 precautions to be taken while using the item.
 Use new syringe for each injection
 Do not recap
 Cut syringe using hub cutter, store in puncture proof container

35. Dial thermometer/ stemthermometer

Q1.What is the recommended temperature for the storage of vaccines?
 +2 to +8 degree c
Q2.Mention uses of these thermometer.
 Measure temperature during storage of vaccine and transport of vaccine
36. Vaccine carrier
Q1.What is cold chain?
 Cold chain is a procedure for ensuring the maintenance of recommended
temperatures while transporting and storing the vaccines at different points
from the place of production to the place of vaccination.
 Cold chain must never be broken

Q2. Mention 4 cold chain equipment

 Walker-in freezer
 ILR
 Domestic refrigerator
 Deep freezer
 Cold box
 Vaccine carrier
 Day carrier

37. Anopheles adult

Q1.Identify the mosquito class with 2 identification features.
 Body 3 parts- head, thorax, abdomen with pair of wings, 3 pairs of legs
 Spotted wings
 Long palpi
Q2.Mention the diseases transmitted by it
 Malaria
 Filaria
38. Aedes- adult mosquito
Q1.Write 4 identification features of this mosquito
 Unspotted wings
 Dark coloured body
 White stripes on black body
 Palpi shorter than proboscis in female
Q2.Describe the breeding places of this insect.
  Artificial collection of water.
39. Culex-adult mosquito
Q1. What is this insect?
 Culex adult mosquito
Q2.What is the public health importance of this insect?
 Transmits bancroftian filarial
 Japanese encephalitis
 West nile fever
 Viral arthritis
40. Head louse
Q1.Identify and name any 2 disease transmitted by this insect.
 Head louse
 Epidemic typhus
 Relapsing fever
 Trench fever
 Dermatitis
Q2.Mention the preventive measure.
 Daily bathing
 Frequent hair wash
 No share combs
 Use clean towel, clothing, bedding
 Avoid close contact with person with pediculosis
41. Cyclops
Q1.Identify and write its public health importance.
 Cyclops
 Transmits guinae worm disease
Q2.Write the biological method to control it.
 Fishes which feed on Cyclops – gambusia and barbel
42.Rat flea
Q1.Identify and comment on Identification features
 Rat flea
 Bilaterally compressed body
 Body covered with blisters which are directed backwards
 Body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen
 Head bears piercing mouthparts which are projected downwards
 Thorax bears three pairs of strong legs
Q2.what are the diseases transmitted by it?
Bubonic plague, Endemic typhus, Chiggerosis, Hymolepsisdiminuta
43.Sand fly
Q1. Identify and comment on identification features
 Sand fly
 A small insect with the body divided into head, thorax and abdomen
 The head has long, slender, and hairy antennae
 The wings are upright and lanceotae in shape
 The wings are densely hairy
 In the wings second longitudinal vein branches twice and first branching
occurs in the middle of the wing
 The legs are small, slender and out of proportion to the body
 The abdomen is intensely hairy
Q2. What are the diseases transmitted by it?
 Kala azar, sandfly fever, oriental sore
44. Hard tick
Q1.Identify and comment on features
 Hard tick
 Oval body, no clear distinction between head, thorax and abdomen
 Four pair of legs
 No antennae, dorsal surface has chitiniousscutum, head visible from above
Q2. Enumerate the disease transmitted
  Tick typhus
 Viral encephalitis
 Viral hemorrhagic fever
 Tularemia
 Tick paralysis
 Human bebesiosis
45. Soft tick
Q1.Identify and comment on features
 Soft tick
 Oval body
 No clear distinction between head, thorax and abdomen
 Four pairs of legs
 No antennae
 No chitinious covering
 Head not visible from above
Q2. Enumerate the disease transmitted by it.
 Q fever
 Relapsing fever
 KFD

46. Sand filter

Q1.What is it used for?
 Purify drinking water
Q2.Write 2 advantages of rapid sand filters.
 Occupies less space
 Rate of filtration is fast
 Deals with raw water directly without need to store it
47. Septic tank
Q1.What are the stages the sewage undergoes in a septic tank?
 anerobic digestion- inside tank
 aerobic digestion- effluent let out of tank
Q2.Mention 2 advices / instructions you give to the users of septic tank.
 Do not flush soap water and disinfectants
 Empty tank once a year
 New tank has to be filled up with water and then seeded using ripe sludge
from another tank
48. Chloroscope
Q1.What is the reagent used?
 Orthotolidine dissolved in 10%solution of HCL
Q2.Which are the units in which the concentration of residual chlorine is expressed?
 Parts per million (PPM)
49. Horrock’s apparatus
Q1.What is the purpose of this apparatus?
 To calculate the dose of bleaching powder for disinfecting water sample
Q2.What is the inference you draw if no cup gave a blue colour?
 Chlorine demand is not met
 Sample is probably polluted
50. Sanitary well
Q1.Enumerate the features present in this model for calling it a “sanitary well”?
 Lining
 Parapet wall
 Platform
 Drain
 Soakage pit
 Covering
 Hand pump
Q2.What is the advantage of using soaking pit?
 Prevents mosquito breeding
51. Soap
Q1.How does it act?
  Lowering surface tension
 Emulsifying dirt and holding it in suspension
Q2.What is a deodorant?
 Substance that suppresses or neutralizes bad odours
52. Crude phenol
Q1.What is the composition of crude phenol?
 Carbolic acid and cresol
Q2.How do you disinfect a cholera stool?
 Add equal amount of 10% crude phenol allow it to act for 1-2 hrs
53. Dettol
Q1.What is the chemical name?
 Chloroxylenol
Q2.How do you disinfect a clinical thermometer before use?
 Dip in solution of 1 part of savlon and 6 parts of spirit x 3 mins
54. Bleaching powder
Q1.What is the chemical composition and what is the active ingredient/ disinfectant
in bleaching powder?
 Lime and calcium hypochlorite
 Active ingredient: Calcium hypochlorite
Q2.What are the advantages of using this as a disinfectant?
 Cheap
 Disinfection is rapid
55. Povidone iodine
Q1.What are its advantages over the alcoholic solution of iodine?
 Actively bactericidal
 Sporicidal action
Q2.Where is it commonly used?
  Before surgery on wounds
56. Savlon
Q1.What does it contain?
 Cetavlon +hibitane
Q2.Write 2 common uses of it.
 Disinfecting plastic- lippes loop
 Clinical thermometer

57. Formalin
Q1.What is the strength of solution recommended for disinfecting a room?
 40% in 1 litre of water
Q2.To which group does it belong to?
 Formaldehyde
58. Malathion
Q1.What is the mode of action?
 Contact poison
Q2.What is the disadvantage over other insecticides?
 No residual action
59. Rifampicin
Q1.Against which diseases is it used under National health program?
 TB
 Leprosy
Q2. Mention 2 toxic effects of this drug.
 Hepatotoxic, gastritis, influenza like illness, thrombocytopenia, nephrotoxic
60. INH
Q1.What is the mode of action?
  Bactericidal
 Acts on both intracellular and extracellular bacilli
Q2. What is the dosage?
 10mg/kg daily

61. Streptomycin
Q1.Dosage and route of administration of this drug.
 Bactericidal
 Acts against rapidly multiplying bacteria
Q2.Name some adverse effects of the drug (any 2)
 Vestibular damage, nystagmus
 Nephrotoxic
62. Ethambutol
Q1.What is the dosage?
 20mg/kg daily
Q2.Name one adverse effect of this drug?
 Retrobulbar neuritis
63. Dapsone
Q1.Against which disease is it used under National health program?
 Leprosy
Q2.What is the adult dosage?
 100 mg daily x 6 months PB
 12 months- MB
64. Clofazimine
Q1.Against which disease it is used under National health program?
 Multibacillary leprosy
Q2.What is the dosage?
 300 mg once monthly (supervised) and 50 mg daily (self administered)
65. Chloroquine
Q1.What is the dosage of this drug?
 25 mg per kg body wt, over 3 days
Q2.What are the toxic effects of this drug?
 Nausea vomiting
 Blurring of vision
66.IFA tablets
Q1.What is the recommended strength of these tablets for pregnant women under
the National program?
 100 mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid
Q2.What is “12 by 12 initiative?
 Initiative launched by Govt. of India to achieve haemoglobin of 12 g % in all
children by the time they attain 12 years.
67.ORS
Q1.What does it constitute?
As recommended by WHO :
 Sodium chloride- 2.6 g
 Glucose (anhydrous)-13.5 g
 Potassium chloride- 1.5 g
 Tri sodium citrate dehydrate- 2.9 g
 Total weight- 20.5 g
Q2.How will you manage if these packets are not available at home?
 A simple salt and sugar solution can be made by dissolving
 Table salt- 5 g
 Sugar- 20 g in Water- 1 L
68.Growth charts
Q1.Mention any4 uses of growth charts
 For growth monitoring
 As a diagnostic tool for identification of a child at high risk
 For planning health services and making health policies
 As an educational tool for the mother who will learn to visually identify any
flattering in the child’s growth
 As an action tool for the health workers, helps the health worker;helps the
health worker to decide the nature of intervention
 For evaluation of child health services
 As a teaching tool, teaching the effects of adequate feeding

Q2.Write about the colour zones in the chart

 Green zone- satisfactory growth
 Yellow zone- mild malnutrition
 Orange zone- severe degree malnutrition
69. Immunisation chart
Q1.Mention 4 uses of this chart.
 Record for immunisation
 To identify drop outs
 Counter foils can be used to estimate beneficiaries
 Vaccine requirement can be calculated
 Reminder to report due date
 Duplicate when original is lost
 To assess immunisation coverage
Q2.Mention 2 steps to improve immunization coverage in an area.
 Make complete entries in immunisation cards, counterfoils and in registers
 Follow up of drop outs
 Give clear instruction to parents on due dates
70. Salters baby weighing scale
Q1.Write any2 precautions to be taken while using it
 Should be suspended from a stable and solid support
 Reading should be adjusted to zero after suspending empty weighing pants
  The child should be hanging freely and should not touch or hold anything
the reading should be taken only if the child is settled and reading is stable
 The scales should be regularly checked using standard weights
Q2.What is the recommended frequency of weighing under-5 children for growth
monitoring?
 From birth- 1 year- monthly
 Second year- every 2 months
 Thereafter upto 5 years- every 3 months
71. Ishihara chart
Q1. Identify the spotter. What is the use of this chart?
 Ishihara chart
 Test colour vision
Q2.Enumerate where it is used?
 To test colour vision and diagnose colour blindness in occupations which
requires near perfect vision
72. Harpenders caliper
Q1.What is its use?
 Measure skin fold thickness to assess obesity
Q2.Enumerate sites used for the measurement with this instrument.
 Mid triceps
 Biceps
 Subscapular
 Suprailiac
73. Condom
Q1.What is its failure rate?
 2 to 14 pregnancies per 100 women years
Q2.What is the extra advantage other than contraception?
 Protects against HIV/STD
74. Copper-T
Q1.Write 4 advantages of it
 Simple to insert
 Long term effectiveness
 Highly effective
 Effective immediately after insertion \reversibility
 No systematic side effects
 Used during breast feeding
Q2.Write 4 absolute contraindication to IUD insertion
 Pregnancy
 Puerperal sepsis
 Post abortal sepsis
 Vaginal bleed
 PID
 Cervical/ endometrial cancer
 Congenital malformations
 h/o ectopic pregnancies
75.Oral contraceptive pill
Q1.Write 4 mechanism of action of oral pills
 Combined pills – inhibit ovulation
 Progresterone only pills- cervical mucus thickening
 Inhibit sperm penetration
 Inhibit tubal motility
 Delay transport of ovum into uterine cavity
Q2.Mention the composition of hormonal oral pills
 Ethinylestradiol- 0.03 mg
 Levonogestrol- 0.15 mg
Housefly
Q1.Enumerate two mechanisms by which the housefly transmits disease?
 Mechanical
 Vomit drop
 Defecation
Q2. Mention any 2 types of control measures
 Environmental – elimate breeding
o Store waste in tight fitted lit containers
o Regular collection disposal of waste
o Stop open air defecation
o Sanitary latrines provision
o Sanitary disposal of animal manure
o Keep surrounding clean
 Chemical method :
o Residual spray
o Baits
o Cords and ribbons- diazinon, fenthion
o Larvicides- diazinion
o Fly papers