GK Booster - November

NOVEMBER CURRENT AFFAIRS (125 QUESTIONS)
PASSAGE - 1
The United States is hosting the annual APEC summit of world leaders this week for the first time since 2011. Leaders
from the 21-member Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation group will gather in [1] to talk about how to better spur
trade and economic growth across the Pacific region. But the main summit event will actually be on the sidelines: A
face-to-face meeting between U.S. President Joe Biden and Chinese President Xi Jinping. This year’s conference is
happening against the backdrop of the frosty relationship between China and the United States and global turmoil
from the Israel-Hamas war and Russia’s invasion of Ukraine.
APEC stands for Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation. It’s a forum to promote trade, investment, and economic
development among nations around the Pacific Ocean. The group started with 12 members in [2], but has since grown
to 21 including China, Russia, Japan, the United States, and Australia. Notably, while most international institutions
have “member states,” ASEAN has “member economies,” allowing for participation by Taiwan (which is self-ruling
but claimed by China) and Hong Kong (which is part of China but has its own currency and legal system). Within
APEC, Taiwan is officially registered as “Chinese Taipei,” the same name used for its participation in the Olympics.
By whatever name, APEC members pack a lot of punch, accounting for nearly 40 percent of the global population
and almost half the world’s trade. The annual leaders’ conference brings together heads of nations and other top
economic and diplomatic leaders. (Don’t expect much of a presence from Russia this year; it’s a pariah as Russian
President Vladimir Putin presses his country’s invasion of Ukraine and will have lower-level representation.) White
House aides say the goal for this year’s summit is to try to make APEC economies more resilient, particularly in the
face of growing climate issues and following a global pandemic that killed millions of people and strained supply
chains.
Source: The APEC Summit Is Happening in San Francisco. What Is APEC, Anyway?, The Diplomat,
November 14, 2023.
76. The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) grouping is meeting in _________ in the United States for
the Leaders‘which will conclude with the Economic Leaders‘ Retreat as indicated by [1] in the passage.
(A) Los Angeles

(B) San Francisco
(C) Washington D.C.
(D) New York
77. India‘s present Union Minister for Commerce and Industry is _________.
(A) Shri Narendra Modi

(B) Shri Amit Shah
(C) Shri Piyush Goyal
(D) Shri Rajnath Singh
78. In the 1991 _________ Declaration, APEC member economies proclaimed the creation of a liberalized free
trade area around the Pacific Rim as the principle objective of the organization.
(A) Bangkok Declaration

(B) Manila Declaration
(C) Seoul Declaration
(D) Tokyo Declaration
79. APEC is a regional economic forum that was established in the year_____ as indicated by [2] in the passage
(A) 1975
(B) 1983
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(C) 1989
(D) 1994
80. As of 2023, which of the following countries is not a member of APEC?
(A) Indonesia
(B) Brazil
(C) Australia
(D) Japan
Answers
76. B) San Francisco
77. C) Shri Piyush Goyal
78. C) Seoul Declaration
79. C) 1989
80. B) Brazil
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PASSAGE – 2
There are three main reasons for this: the threat posed by rising interest rates; a mounting debt burden; and a polarised
Congress that has been failing to agree on ways to tackle America’s budget deficit. “In the context of higher interest
rates, without effective fiscal policy measures to reduce government spending or increase revenues, Moody’s expects
that the US’ fiscal deficits will remain very large, significantly weakening debt affordability,” Moody’s said in a
statement. “Continued political polarisation within US Congress raises the risk that successive governments will not
be able to reach consensus on a fiscal plan to slow the decline in debt affordability.” In an interview with Reuters,
William Foster, a senior vice president at Moody’s, said: “Any type of significant policy response that we might be
able to see to this declining fiscal strength probably wouldn’t happen until 2025 because of the reality of the political
calendar next year”. Notably, the firm’s decision has come at a time when the federal government is on the brink of a
shutdown next week if Republicans and Democrats in Congress can’t agree on a spending plan.
The White House has blamed the Republican Party for the move. Press Secretary Karine Jean-Pierre in a statement
said, “Moody’s decision to change the US outlook is yet another consequence of Congressional Republican extremism
and dysfunction”. Meanwhile, Deputy Treasury Secretary Wally Adeyemo criticised Moody’s, saying the
administration has “demonstrated its commitment to fiscal sustainability, including through the more than $1 trillion
in deficit reduction included in the June debt limit deal as well as President Biden’s budget proposals that would
reduce the deficit by nearly $2.5 trillion over the next decade.”
Source: Moody’s lowers US credit rating outlook to ‘negative’: What does it mean?, The Indian Express, November
11, 2023.
81. Moody‘s was founded by _________ in _________, to produce manuals of statistics related to stocks and
bonds and bond ratings.
(A) John Moody, 1900

(B) John Moody, 1909
(C) Warren Buffett, 1965
(D) Michael Bloomberg, 1981
82. In August this year, another credit rating firm, Fitch, downgraded its US long-term rating to _________
from its top mark of AAA.
(A) AA
(B) AA+
(C) A+
(D) BBB
83. In Moody‘s Investors Service‘s ratings system, securities are assigned a rating from _________, with
_________ being the highest quality and C the lowest quality.
(A) Aaa to C
(B) AAA to D
(C) AA to C
(D) A to C
84. Moody‘s Investors Service rates debt securities in several _________ market segments.
(A) Stock Market

(B) Bond Market
(C) Commodities Market
(D) Foreign Exchange Market
85. Which of the following best describes Moody's 'Caa' rating?

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(A) High-quality with very low credit risk
(B) Upper medium grade with low credit risk
(C) Bonds of poor standing with very high credit risk
(D) Government bonds with guaranteed returns
Answers
81. B) John Moody, 1909
82. B) AA+
83. A) Aaa to C
84. B) Bond Market
85. C) Bonds of poor standing with very high credit risk
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PASSAGE – 3
The US arm of the Industrial and Commercial Bank of [1] (ICBC) was hit by a ransomware attack that minimally
disrupted trades in the US Treasury market on Thursday (November 9). The company, in a statement on Thursday,
said that it was investigating the attack that disrupted some of its systems, and making progress toward recovering
from it. Immediately after discovering the hack, ICBC “isolated impacted systems to contain the incident,” the
statement stated. ICBC, a [1] state-owned commercial bank, is [1] — and the world’s — largest lender in terms of
assets (over $ 6 trillion), and one of the most profitable companies in the world, according to Forbes. It is also the 3rd
largest bank in the world (behind JPMorgan Chase and Bank of America) by market capitalization, at $ 194.57 billion,
according to a Fobes article from August. Ransomware is a type of malicious software (commonly referred to as
malware) that either blocks access to, or threatens to publish sensitive data until the victim pays a ransom fee to the
attacker. It is a type of a cyber-attack that has become increasingly popular among bad actors in recent years. ICBC
has not made public the specifics of the attack, nor the attacker behind it. All that is known for sure is that the company
is in touch with law enforcement agencies in the United States, as well as in [1]. However, the Financial Times reported
that a ransomware called [2] was behind the attack. [2] was created by Lockbit, a group which effectively sells its
malware bad actors on the dark web. [2] is the most popular strain of ransomware, accounting for around 28 per cent
of all known attacks from July 2022 to June 2023, CNBC reported. “LockBit actors have executed over 1,400 attacks
against victims in the United States and around the world, issuing over $100 million in ransom demands,” the US
Department of Justice said in a press release in June. The group previously claimed responsibility for ransomware
attacks on Boeing last month. It is said to have Russian origins, though this has never been confirmed.
Source: World’s biggest bank, China’s ICBC, hit by ransomware: 7 things you need to know, The Indian Express,
November 11, 2023.
86. The US arm of the Industrial and Commercial Bank of _________ (ICBC) was hit by a ransomware attack
that minimally disrupted trades in the US Treasury market as indicated by [1] in the passage.
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) India
(D) Germany
87. _________ was created by Lockbit, a group which effectively sells its malware bad actors on the dark web
as indicated by [2] in the passage
(A) WannaCry 2.0

(B) LockBit 3.0
(C) Ryuk
(D) Petya
88. When was the Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC) established?
(A) 1984
(B) 1991
(C) 1978
(D) 2001
89. As of 2023, ICBC is known to be one of the largest banks in the world by total assets. Which of the following
is a key factor contributing to its size?
(A) It is the central bank of China

(B) It operates exclusively in the Asian market
(C) It has a significant number of overseas branches
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(D) It is the only bank allowed to issue currency in China
90. What type of financial services does ICBC primarily offer?
(A) Insurance and risk management

(B) Investment banking and asset management
(C) Retail and commercial banking
(D) Foreign exchange and commodities trading
Answers
86. B) China
87. B) LockBit 3.0
88. A) 1984
89. C) It has a significant number of overseas branches
90. C) Retail and commercial banking
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PASSAGE – 4
One of the most spectacular sights in the Solar System is the majestic ringed planet Saturn, which is clearly visible in
the evening sky through a telescope. In [1], however, Saturn’s rings will seemingly disappear from view. It isn’t as if
the planet will lose them forever. The rings will just be invisible from Earth and will reappear soon thereafter. The
reason for this temporary disappearance has to do with Saturn’s tilt and an optical illusion. Like Earth’s axis of
rotation, which is tilted by 23.5 degrees, Saturn’s axis of rotation has a 26.7 degree tilt — its enormous ring system is
also tilted to the plane of Saturn’s orbit. As a result, when Saturn revolves around the Sun, it seems to nod up and
down when viewed from Earth and the view of its rings also keeps changing. Saturn takes [2].5 years to complete an
orbit around the Sun and every 13 to 15 years, the edge of its rings aligns directly with Earth. As the rings are very
thin — in most places, just tens of metres thick — at this position, “they reflect very little light, and are very difficult
to see, making them essentially invisible,” Vahe Peroomian, professor of physics and astronomy at the University of
Southern California, told CBS News. Imagine seeing a piece of paper, which is parallel to the ground and at eye-level,
from the opposite end of Mumbai’s Wankhede Stadium. According to a 2018 report by the National Aeronautics and
Space Administration (NASA), Saturn would probably lose its rings completely in the next 300 million years, or even
sooner than that. It will probably happen because the rings are being pulled into the planet by its gravity as a dusty
rain of ice particles under the influence of Saturn’s magnetic field, said the report.
Source: Why will Saturn’s rings briefly ‘disappear’ from view in 2025?, The Indian Express, November 12,
2023.
91. In _________, however, Saturn‘s rings will seemingly disappear from view as indicated by [1] in the
passage
(A) 2021
(B) 2023
(C) 2025
(D) 2030
92. Saturn takes _________ to complete an orbit around the Sun and every 13 to 15 years, the edge of its rings
aligns directly with Earth. As indicated by [2] in the passage
(A) 12 years
(B) 29.5 years
(C) 50 years
(D) 76 years
93. One hypothesis is that the rings are remnants of a destroyed moon of Saturn, for which a research team at
MIT has proposed the name _________.
(A) Titanus
(B) Hyperion
(C) Chrysalis
(D) Iapetus
94. The Saturn rings extend from 6,630 to 120,700 kilometers (4,120 to 75,000 mi) outward from Saturn‘s
equator and average approximately _________ in thickness.
(A) 10 meters
(B) 20 meters
(C) 100 meters
(D) 500 meters
95. _________ made the first flyby of Saturn in September 1979.

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(A) Voyager 1
(B) Voyager 2
(C) Cassini
(D) Pioneer 11
Answers
91. C) 2025
92. B) 29.5 years
93. C) Chrysalis
94. B) 20 meters
95. D) Pioneer 11
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PASSAGE – 5
This so-called [1] Canal Project, which was first envisioned in the 1960s would, if it were to be actually completed,
transform global maritime dynamics by taking away Egypt’s monopoly over the shortest route between Europe and
Asia. However, any attempt to construct the canal would have to overcome gigantic logistical, political, and funding
challenges which, in the current situation, makes it seem largely fantastical. We take a look at what has been proposed,
and its implications, theoretically, on global trade and geopolitics. When it opened in 1869, the Suez Canal
revolutionised global maritime trade. By connecting the Mediterranean and Red Seas through the Isthmus of Suez, it
ensured that ships travelling between Europe and Asia would not have to travel all the way around the continent of
Africa. The canal cut the distance between London and Bombay (now Mumbai) by a more than 41 per cent. The Suez
Canal shortened the distance between Lonodn and Bombay by well over 4,000 nautical miles (1 nm = 1.852 km)
(Wikimedia Commons). In the 2022-23 fiscal year, around 26,000 vessels crossed the Suez Canal, accounting for
approximately 13 per cent of global shipping. First, the 193 km-long, 205 m-wide, and 24 m-deep Suez Canal is the
world’s biggest shipping bottleneck. Despite being widened and deepened over the years, it remains perennially
congested, with long queues at either end. In March 2021, the mammoth cargo ship Ever Given got stuck in the canal,
blocking passage for more than a week. It was estimated that the resulting “traffic jam” held up an estimated $ 9.6
billion of goods every day. Also, Egypt’s control over the waterway has been a source of conflict for almost 70 years
now. In 1956, after President Gamal Abdel Nasser (1918-70) decided to nationalise the canal, war broke out, with the
UK, France, and Israel attacking Egypt in order to regain control.
Source: A plan to join the Red Sea with Mediterranean — an alternative to the Suez Canal, The Indian Express,
November 10, 2023.
96. The _________ Canal Project is a theoretical proposal to cut a canal through Israel‘s_________ Desert,
creating an alternative route to the Suez Canal.
(A) Ben Gurion, Negev Desert

(B) Herzl, Judean Desert
(C) Weizmann, Arava Desert
(D) Rabin, Galilee Desert
97. The Currency of Israel is _________.
(A) Dinar
(B) Sheqel
(C) Euro
(D) Lira
98. The_----------------being the longest river ending in the Mediterranean Sea.
(A) Danube River

(B) Rhone River
(C) River Nile
(D) Tiber River
99. The Present Prime Minister of Israel is _________.
(A) Yitzhak Rabin

(B) Ehud Barak
(C) Ariel Sharon
(D) Benjamin Netanyahu
100. The Mediterranean Sea covers an area of about 2,500,000 km2 representing 0.7% of the global ocean
surface, but its connection to the Atlantic via the _________.
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(A) Strait of Gibraltar
(B) Bosporus Strait
(C) Suez Canal
(D) Strait of Hormuz
Answers
96. A) Ben Gurion, Negev Desert

97. B) Sheqel
98. C) River Nile
99. D) Benjamin Netanyahu
100. A) Strait of Gibraltar
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PASSAGE – 6
A parliamentary panel has asked the government to retain Section [x] of the [y], which relates to adultery, in the
proposed Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. In 2018, the Supreme Court had decriminalised adultery. In its report on the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, which seeks to replace the [y], the parliamentary standing committee on home affairs noted
that a Supreme Court Bench had struck down Section [x] of the [y] as it violated Articles 14, 15, and 21 of the
Constitution. The SC Bench held that the law was archaic, arbitrary and paternalistic and infringed upon a woman’s
autonomy, dignity and privacy. The provisions under this Section only penalised the married man and reduced the
married woman to be her husband’s property, the SC order said. However, in its report submitted to the Rajya Sabha
on Friday, the panel said it was “of the view that the institution of marriage is considered sacred in Indian society, and
there is a need to safeguard its sanctity.” It said: “For the sake of protecting the institution of marriage, this section
should be retained in the Sanhita by making it gender-neutral.” The committee asked the government to reintroduce
and retain [y] Section 377 in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita. It said the Sanhita’s draft currently had no provision for
non-consensual sexual offence against male, female, transgender and for bestiality. It noted that a Supreme Court
Bench in 2018 unanimously held that Section 377 of IPC violated Articles 14, 15, 19, and 21 of the Constitution of
India. Still, its provisions remain applicable in cases of non-consensual carnal intercourse with adults, all acts of carnal
intercourse with minors, and acts of bestiality. The committee said that Sanhita’s intent to move towards gender-
neutral offences makes it “mandatory to reintroduce and retain Section 377 of the [y].”
Source: Make adultery a crime again, parliamentary panel tells government, Business Standard, November 14,
2023.
101. The Parliamentary Committee on Home Affairs has suggested that adultery should be re-instituted as a
crime in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, the proposed law to replace the _________ as indicated by
[x] and [y] in the passage
(A) Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code

(B) Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code
(D) Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code
102. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) was drafted by:
(A) Lord Macaulay

(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
103. The BNS Bill contains _________ provisions as compared to 511 sections in the IPC.
(A) 356 Provisions

(B) 450 Provisions
(C) 275 Provisions
(D) 600 Provisions
104. The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) was enacted in:
(A) 1861
(B) 1898
(C) 1973
(D) 1980
105. The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) in India is primarily concerned with:
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(A) Defining acts that constitute crimes and prescribing punishments
(B) The process of registration and investigation of crimes
(C) The civil disputes and their resolution
(D) The administration of contractual obligations
Answers
101. C) Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code
102. A) Lord Macaulay

103. A) 356 Provisions
104. C) 1973
105. B) The process of registration and investigation of crimes
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PASSAGE – 7
The wild tiger status is good in South Asia and Russia, but the picture in Southeast Asia is grim, posing challenges to
the global tiger population recovery. Countries like India, which have committed to conserving the wild cat species,
have submitted tiger population numbers from 2010-2022 to the United Nations Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species (CITES), a multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals. Global Tiger Recovery
Program (GTRP) evolved under the Global Tiger Initiative in 2010. The St Petersburg Declaration in 2010 saw 13
tiger range countries commit to reversing the decline of the species population and double their numbers by 2022. The
submissions were made under GTRP 2.0 and CITES, that aim to pave the way for tiger conservation from 2023-2034.
There has been an overall increase in the tiger population by 60 per cent, taking the number to 5,870. However,
countries like Bhutan, Myanmar, Cambodia, Lao-PDR and Vietnam showed decline in tiger populations, making the
situation “grim” in the Tiger Range Countries (TRCs) of Southeast Asia. The situation is said to be challenging in the
region due to widespread prey and tiger poaching combined with other lacunae such as inadequate patrolling, poor
wildlife monitoring, forest loss for commercial needs, proximity to wildlife trade hubs and rapid infrastructure
development resulting in fragmentation. Poor monitoring and low investment in wildlife conservation are other
reasons for drop in tiger populations. The success of countries in South Asia like Bangladesh, Bhutan, India and Nepal
including China and Russia in North East Asia is attributed to effective measures taken for habitat conservation and
protection. Nepal has tripled the tiger population. The submitted report warned, “Tiger population, which will be
demographically and genetically viable, will not be sustained if steps are not taken now to reverse the current trend of
habitat loss, prey depletion and tiger poaching.” Habitat loss and fragmentation, along with depleting biodiversity due
to anthropogenic reasons among others, is another concern raised threatening the tiger conservation. The report
observed that loss of forest is a major factors across its ranges, with rapid decline in Southeastt Asia.
Source: 60% increase in overall tiger population, but habitat & biodiversity loss threatening Southeast Asian
big cats, Downtoearth, November 10, 2023.
106. Global Tiger Recovery Programme (GTRP) 2.0 was released at _________.
(A) Thimpu
(B) Kathmandu
(C) New Delhi
(D) Jakarta
107. The GTI Secretariat is based at the _________.
(A) World Wildlife Fund (WWF) headquarters

(B) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) office
(C) World Bank headquarters
(D) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) headquarters
108. India is now home to approximately _________ of the world‘s tiger population.
(A) 50%
(B) 60%
(C) 75%
(D) 85%
109. Which international organization played a key role in forming the Global Tiger Initiative?
(A) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

(B) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
(C) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
(D) The World Bank
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110. The Global Tiger Initiative (GTI) was launched in which year?
(A) 2000
(B) 2008
(C) 2015
(D) 1997
Answers
106. A) Thimpu
107. C) World Bank headquarters
108. C) 75%
109. D) The World Bank
110. B) 2008
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PASSAGE – 8
The 2023 UN Climate Change Conference will convene from 30 November to 12 December 2023 in [1]. It will
comprise: the 28th meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COP 28); the fifth meeting of the COP serving as the
Meeting of the Parties to the Paris Agreement (CMA 5); the 18th meeting of the COP serving as the Meeting of the
Parties to the Kyoto Protocol (CMP 18); the 59th meeting of the Subsidiary Body for Implementation (SBI 59); and
the 59th meeting of the Subsidiary Body for Scientific and Technological Advice (SBSTA 59). In a letter dated 13
January 2023, the UNFCCC Secretariat announced that Sultan Ahmed Al Jaber, Minister of Industry and Advanced
Technology and UAE Special Envoy for Climate Change, has been appointed to serve as COP 28 President-Designate.
The COP 27 Egyptian Presidency and the Incoming COP 28 Presidency are convening informal consultations to
engage governments at the ministerial, Head-of-Delegation, and technical levels to lay the groundwork “to deliver a
successful COP 28 that drives global transformation towards a low-emission and climate-resilient world, fosters
ambitious climate action and facilitates implementation, including the related support”. The first [2] of the
implementation of the Paris Agreement will conclude at COP 28. Each stocktake is a two-year process that happens
every five years, with the aim of assessing the world’s collective progress towards achieving its climate goals. The
first [2] takes place at the mid-point in the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and its
SDGs, including Goal 13 (climate action). It will be preceded by a mandated workshop on the elements of the outcome
of the GST in October in the UAE.
Source: 2023 UN Climate Change Conference (UNFCCC COP 28), IISD, November 16, 2023.
111. The 2023 United Nations Climate Change Conference or Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC, more
commonly referred to as COP28, will be the 28th United Nations Climate Change conference, held from 30
November until 12 December 2023, at the _________ as indicated by [1] in the passage
(A) Dubai, UAE

(B) Paris, France
(C) New York, USA
(D) Bonn, Germany
112. In September 2023, in advance of the opening of COP28, the United Nations published the first two- year
assessment of global progress in slowing down climate change, called the _________ as indicated by [2] in the
passage
(A) Global Climate Report

(B) Climate Action Review
(C) Global Stocktake
(D) Sustainable Development Goals Report
113. The 2022 United Nations Climate Change Conference or Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC,
more commonly referred to as COP27, was held in _________.
(A) Glasgow, United Kingdom

(B) Madrid, Spain
(C) Sharm El Sheikh, Egypt
(D) Bonn, Germany
114. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was adopted in the year:
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2005
(D) 2015
115. Which COP meeting led to the adoption of the Kyoto Protocol?
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(A) COP3
(B) COP15
(C) COP21
(D) COP26
Answers
111. A) Dubai, UAE
112. C) Global Stocktake
113. C) Sharm El Sheikh, Egypt
114. A) 1992
115. A) COP3
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PASSAGE – 9
Indian Defence Minister Rajnath Singh and External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar met their counterparts from the US
government, Defence Secretary Lloyd Austin and Secretary of State Antony Blinken respectively, for the fifth 2+2
Ministerial Dialogue held in [1] on Friday (November 11). The 2+2 meetings have been held annually with the US
leaders since 2018. What is this meeting format and which countries does India engage with in this manner? We take
a look. The 2+2 meetings signify the participation of two high-level representatives, Ministers holding Foreign and
Defence portfolios, from each of the two countries who aim to enhance the scope of dialogue between them. Having
such a mechanism enables the partners to better understand and appreciate each other’s strategic concerns and
sensitivities taking into account political factors on both sides, in order to build a stronger, more integrated strategic
relationship in a rapidly changing global environment. The first 2+2 dialogue between the two countries was held
during the Trump Administration, when then Secretary of State Michael Pompeo and then Secretary of Defence James
Mattis met the late Sushma Swaraj and then Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in New Delhi in September 2018.
It was also seen as a replacement for the Strategic and Commercial Dialogue, held between the foreign and commerce
ministers of the two countries during the previous Obama administration. The launch of the dialogue was seen as a
“reflection of the shared commitment” by India and the US to provide “a positive, forward-looking vision for the
India-US strategic partnership and to promote synergy in their diplomatic and security efforts”. Additionally, India
has held 2+2 meetings with ministers from Australia, Japan, the United Kingdom and Russia. Notably, in this year’s
meeting, Antony Blinken reiterated the significance of India’s relations with some of these countries that are also
important US allies.
Source: India holds ‘2+2’ Ministerial dialogue with the US: What it means, November 10, 2023.
116. The largest trading partner of India in 2022-23 was_________
(A) China
(B) The United States
(C) Japan
(D) The United Kingdom
117. Where was the fifth 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue held as indicated by [1] in the passage
(A) Washington D.C.

(B) Tokyo
(C) Canberra
(D) New Delhi
118. The 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue is a diplomatic format primarily involving:
(A) Defense and Foreign Ministers

(B) Prime Ministers and Presidents
(C) Finance and Commerce Ministers
(D) Environment and Energy Ministers
119. Which two countries were among the first to adopt the 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue format?
(A) United States and India

(B) Japan and Australia
(C) Russia and China
(D) Germany and France
120. The 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue format is primarily intended to:
(A) Enhance economic and trade cooperation

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(B) Strengthen defense and strategic ties
(C) Promote cultural and educational exchanges
(D) Coordinate international aid and development
Answers
116. B) The United States
117. D) New Delhi
118. A) Defense and Foreign Ministers
119. A) United States and India
120. B) Strengthen defense and strategic ties
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PASSAGE – 10
The United Kingdom’s Supreme Court has ruled that a controversial government plan to send asylum seekers to
Rwanda is “unlawful” in a big blow to Prime Minister Rishi Sunak and his government’s hardline immigration policy.
Britain signed a deal with Rwanda last April under which some migrants who arrive in the UK across the English
Channel on boats were to be sent to the East African country where their asylum claims would be processed. The
judgement backed a London Court of Appeals decision on June 29 that the policy is unlawful under Britain’s Human
Rights Act, which incorporates the European Convention on Human Rights (ECHR) into British law. The first
deportation flight to Rwanda was blocked by a last-minute injunction from the ECHR on June 14. The ruling comes
a day after Sunak sacked Home Secretary Suella Braverman, who zealously backed the stalled Rwanda Plan. In a
letter released on Wednesday, Braverman criticised Sunak over his handling of the case. She had called for the UK to
leave the ECHR if the Rwanda plan was blocked. The court concluded that the UK is party to various conventions,
including the refugee convention, which would dictate that the Rwanda plan is unlawful, owing to the potential of
human rights abuses in Rwanda or the refugees’ home countries. “There are substantial grounds for believing that
asylum seekers would face a real risk of ill-treatment by reason of refoulement to their country of origin if they were
removed to Rwanda,” the judges wrote in the verdict. The UN refugee convention stands against refoulement –
returning refugees to countries where they might be in danger. The court said that Rwanda was not safe for refugees
and that people could only be sent to countries that follow the non-refoulement rule. The UN refugee agency has
produced evidence of Rwanda breaching the rule in a deal with Israel. The judgement does, however, affirm that
Rwanda entered the agreement with the UK in good faith and has given assurances to safeguard those sent to the
country.
Source: What’s the UK’s ‘unlawful’ Rwanda immigration plan?, ALJAZEERA, November 15, 2023.
121. Rishi Sunak and his _________ party have pushed the flagship policy on immigration highlighting the
growing number of people arriving in Britain using boats.
(A) Labour
(B) Liberal Democrats
(C) Conservative
(D) Green
122. The UK comprises four countries – England, Scotland, Wales, and _________.
(A) Ireland
(B) Northern Ireland
(C) Isle of Man
(D) Jersey
123. The _________ between the Kingdom of England (which included Wales) and the Kingdom of Scotland
in _________ resulted in their unification to become the Kingdom of Great Britain.
(A) Treaty of Edinburgh, 1586

(B) Acts of Union, 1707
(C) Magna Carta, 1215
(D) Anglo-Scottish Treaty, 1603
124. The European Convention on Human Rights (ECHR) was signed in which year?
(A) 1950
(B) 1960
(C) 1975
(D) 1990
19
125. Which of the following bodies is responsible for overseeing the implementation of the European
Convention on Human Rights?
(A) The European Parliament

(B) The European Court of Human Rights
(C) The Council of Europe
(D) The European Union Commission
Answers
121. C) Conservative
122. B) Northern Ireland
123. B) Acts of Union, 1707
124. A) 1950
125. B) The European Court of Human Rights
20
PASSAGE – 11
India on Friday abstained from voting on a resolution in the United Nations that called for an immediate humanitarian
truce in the ongoing Israel-Hamas conflict. The resolution drafted by Jordan also called for unhindered humanitarian
access in the Gaza Strip but had no mention of Hamas. Canada proposed an amendment that a paragraph condemning
the 'terrorist attacks by Hamas' be inserted. India voted in favour of Canada's proposed amendment along with 87
other nations. But it could not be adopted as it did not have a two-third majority. The Jordan-drafted resolution titled
‘Protection of civilians and upholding legal and humanitarian obligations’ was adopted with 120 nations voting in its
favour, 14 against it and 45 abstaining. India, Australia, Canada, Germany, Japan, Ukraine and the UK abstained from
voting.
Two key words Hamas and hostage were missing from the resolution, US ambassador to the UN Linda Thomas-
Greenfield said before the voting, opposing it. “As you’ll notice, two key words are missing in the resolution before
us. The first is Hamas. It is outrageous that this resolution fails to name the perpetrators of the October 7th terrorist
attacks: Hamas. Hamas. It is outrageous," the envoy said. “This resolution makes no mention of the innocent people
– including citizens of many of you in this room – many of you here today who have citizens who are being held
hostage by Hamas and other terrorist groups,” Linda said. “These are omissions of evil. And they give cover to, and
they empower, Hamas' brutality. And no member state – no member state – should allow that to happen. You should
not let it stand,” she said. The resolution referred to Israel as "the occupying Power". The resolution called for the
rescinding of the order by Israel, “the occupying Power”, for Palestinian civilians, UN staff and humanitarian workers
to evacuate all areas in the Gaza Strip north of Wadi Gaza and relocate to the south.
Source: India abstains from UN vote calling for truce in Israel without mentioning Hamas, Hindustan Times,
November 1, 2023.
126. In 1974, India became the first non-Arab state to recognize _________ as the sole and legitimate
representative of the Palestinian people.
(A) Hamas
(B) Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO)
(C) Palestinian National Authority
(D) Palestinian Islamic Jihad
127. In 1988, India was one of the first countries to recognize the _________.
(A) Palestinian State
(B) State of Israel
(C) Republic of Egypt
(D) Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan
128. In 1996, India opened its Representative Office to the State of Palestine in _________.
(A) Jerusalem
(B) Ramallah
(C) Gaza
21
(D) Bethlehem
129. India, Brazil, South Africa (IBSA) Fund has financed five projects in Palestine, including the Indoor
Multipurpose Sports Complex in _________
(A) Hebron
(B) Nablus
(C) Ramallah
(D) Jericho
130. The Gaza Strip and the West Bank are separated geographically by:
(A) The Golan Heights
(B) Israeli territory
(C) The Sinai Peninsula
(D) The Jordan River
Answers
126. B) Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO)

127. A) Palestinian State
128. C) Gaza
129. C) Ramallah
130. B) Israeli territory
22
PASSAGE – 12
Bhutanese King [1] is coming to India on a week-long official visit, accompanied by senior officials of his government,
on Friday. During the visit, which will conclude on November 10, he will meet Prime Minister Narendra Modi,
External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and other senior officials, as per a statement issued by the Ministry of External
Affairs on Thursday.
[1] will also visit Assam and Maharashtra during his visit, the MEA said, adding that the visit would provide an
opportunity to both the sides “to review the entire gamut of bilateral cooperation and to advance the bilateral
partnership across diverse sectors”.
Significantly, the trip comes weeks after China and Bhutan held the 25th round of boundary talks in Beijing and signed
an agreement on the “responsibilities and functions of the joint technical team on the delimitation and demarcation of
the Bhutan-China boundary”. The Bhutanese King had also visited India earlier this year. The MEA said India and
Bhutan enjoy unique ties of friendship and cooperation, characterised by understanding and mutual trust. [1] will make
his first stop in Assam on Friday, the first trip by any monarch of the neighbouring country to the northeastern state
He will arrive in New Delhi on Sunday for the next leg of his India trip. The queen will not accompany the monarch
this time. During his visit to Assam, [1] will attend various programmes in the state and also visit Kaziranga National
Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site famous for its one-horned rhinos. Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma
on Thursday said India and Bhutan share a unique relationship which has strengthened with the passage of time. Ahead
of the Bhutan King’s visit, the Assam government on Wednesday approved the reservation of five seats for Bhutanese
nationals in medical colleges in the state.
Source: Bhutan King arrives on week-long visit today, 1st stop Assam, The Indian Express, November 3, 2023.
131. Who is the King of Bhutan as indicated by [1] in the passage?
(A) Jigme Dorji Wangchuck
(B) Jigme Singye Wangchuck
(C) Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck
(D) Ugyen Wangchuck
132. During the visit, India and Bhutan discussed the development of a cross-border rail link between
Gelephu in Bhutan and Kokrajhar in Assam, spanning _________ km.
(A) 58 km
(B) 72 km
(C) 85 km
(D) 100 km
133. The Darranga-Samdrup Jongkhar border crossing between Assam and Bhutan‘s SouthEastern district
will be designated as an _________ check post, promoting tourism and enhancing connectivity.
(A) Immigration
(B) Customs
(C) Trade
23
(D) Security
134. India has committed to continuing its support for Bhutan‘s socio-economic development, with a
particular focus on the _________ Five-Year Plan
(A) Tenth
(B) Eleventh
(C) Twelfth
(D) Thirteenth
135. Bhutan lauded India‘s successful organization of the recent G20 Summit, praising India for fostering
consensus and constructive decisions outlined in the _________ Declaration.
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi Leaders'
(C) Bangalore
(D) Kolkata
Answers
131. C) Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck
132. A) 58 km
133. A) Immigration
134. D) Thirteenth
135. B) New Delhi Leaders'
24
PASSAGE – 13
The Jharkhand government Monday (November 6) started a special drive, titled [1], to give land title certificates to
individuals and communities under the Forests Rights Act. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, grants the rights of self cultivation and habitation, in the form of
Individual Forest Rights (IFR) and Community Forest Rights (CFR). The titles cover areas such as grazing, fishing,
access to water bodies, resource access, recognition of customary rights, among others. As per Jharkhand government
data submitted in the Supreme Court this year, it received 98,308 IFR and 2,695 CFR applications since the formation
of the state in November [2]. Out of them, 60,021 IFR titles and 2,013 CFR titles have been given, which translates
into 2.17 lakh acres in terms of forest land. As many as 30,906 claims were rejected and 8,333 are pending. This is
way below Chhattisgarh, the state formed at the same time as Jharkhand, which has managed 9.28 lakh title claims
and 5.28 lakh title distributions till June 30, 2023. Since the Hemant Soren government won the 2019 election on the
‘Jal, Jungle, Zameen’ plank — and another of its key promises, of a modified domicile policy, is stalled with the
Governor — it is working hard to streamline FRA claims generation and titles distribution. A dedicated website and
mobile application are being set up, where multiple stakeholders can track the application process, verify geotagged
land parcels, etc. Secretary of the Department of Scheduled Tribe, Scheduled Caste, Minority and Backward Class
Welfare, Rajiv Arun Ekka, has sent a letter to all 24 Deputy Commissioners for the smooth implementation of the
campaign. Instructions have been given to form/reconstitute Forest Rights Committee (FRC) at the village level and
a monitoring committee at the sub-divisional and district level.
Source: Jharkhand launches drive to grant land titles under FRA: Why now, challenges, The Indian Express,
November 8, 2023.
136. The Jharkhand government started a special drive, titled _________, to give land title certificates to
individuals and communities under the Forests Rights Act.
(A) Van Adhikar Abhiyan
(B) Jharkhand Janadhikar Mahotsav
(C) Abua Bir Dishom Abhiyan
(D) Jharkhand Bhumi Adhikar Yatra
137. The present Governor of Jharkhand is _________
(A) Ramesh Bais
(B) Draupadi Murmu
(C) Hemant Soren
(D) C. P. Radhakrishnan
138. In conjunction with the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, _________
protects the tribal population from eviction without rehabilitation and settlement
(A) The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers Act, 2006
(B) Rehabilitation and Settlement Act, 2013
(C) Jharkhand Tribal Protection Act
25
(D) Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996
139. The main objective of the Forest Rights Act in India is to:
(A) Promote commercial forestry
(B) Recognize and vest the forest rights and occupation in forest land
(C) Regulate the wildlife conservation efforts
(D) Facilitate the industrial use of forest resources
140. Jharkhand, a state rich in mineral resources, was formed in the year as indicated by [2] in the passage
(A) 1956
(B) 1966
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Answers
136. C) Abua Bir Dishom Abhiyan
137. D) C. P. Radhakrishnan
138. B) Rehabilitation and Settlement Act, 2013
139. B) Recognize and vest the forest rights and occupation in forest land
140. D) 2000
26
PASSAGE – 14
Rising pollution levels in north India have led to focus returning on the Air Quality Index (AQI) score, a measure of
air pollution. Delhi, for instance, recorded an AQI score of more than 400 on Monday (November 6). This puts the air
in the ‘severe’ category, with anything beyond 100 considered to be a state of at least moderate pollution on the index.
The AQI transforms complex air quality data of various pollutants into a single number for ease of understanding. The
pollutants include PM 10, PM 2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, [1], Carbon, etc. Here is what each of these are, where they
come from and how they can impact your health. These are extremely fine particulate matter (PM) particles, with the
digits accompanying them referring to their diameter. So, PM 10 and PM 2.5 are smaller than 10 and 2.5 microns in
their diameter, respectively. One micron is about a thousandth of a millimetre and this tiny size has a role to play in
how they impact human health. The finer the particles are, the more difficult it gets to protect oneself from them. Due
to their size, the PM 2.5 particles can easily bypass the nose and throat and can enter the circulatory system. The
particles can also lead to chronic diseases such as asthma, heart attack, bronchitis and other respiratory problems.
Byproducts of emissions from factories, vehicular pollution, construction activities and road dust, such particles are
not dispersed and stay suspended in the air that we breathe. The United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
states that short-term exposure to high levels of NO2 can aggravate respiratory diseases like asthma, and lead to other
problems such as coughing or difficulty in breathing. Long-term exposure may also contribute to the development of
asthma and could increase susceptibility to respiratory infections. As The Indian Express reported last week, exposure
to NO2, even for a short duration (between zero and seven days), leads to an increase in the number of emergency
room visits by 53 per cent, according to a large study by AIIMS, Delhi.
Source: PM 2.5, Sulphur Dioxide, and more: What are the pollutants in our air, and how they impact health,
The Indian Express, November 7, 2023.
141. _________ is a gas that is present in the upper layers of the atmosphere, protecting human health from
the impact of the harmful UV rays as indicated by [1] in the passage
(A) Carbon Dioxide
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Ozone
(D) Methane
142. According to the US government‘s Environment Protection Agency, the largest source of SO2 in the
atmosphere is the burning of _________ by power plants and other industrial facilities.
(A) Biomass
(B) Natural Gas
(C) Fossil Fuels
(D) Nuclear Materials
143. In the troposphere – the lowest, most dense part of the atmosphere where all weather takes place and
where people live _________ reacts with nitric and sulfuric acids to form nitrate-containing particles.
(A) Carbon Monoxide
(B) Ammonia Gas
27
(C) Water Vapor
(D) Ozone
144. The chemical formula for ozone gas is:
(A) O2
(B) O3
(C) CO2
(D) H2O
145. The international treaty aimed at protecting the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous
substances responsible for ozone depletion is:
(A) The Paris Agreement
(B) The Kyoto Protocol
(C) The Montreal Protocol
(D) The Rio Declaration
Answers
141. C) Ozone
142. C) Fossil Fuels
143. B) Ammonia Gas
144. B) O3
145. C) The Montreal Protocol
28
PASSAGE – 15
The origins of the [2] as a symbol of Palestinian solidarity can be traced back to the aftermath of the Six-Day War in
[1], as reported by TIME. This conflict resulted in Israel's control over Gaza and the West Bank. In response to this
occupation, the Israeli government prohibited the display of the Palestinian flag in these territories. In an ingenious
act of defiance, Palestinians turned to the [2], which, when cut open, revealed the same colors as their flag – a silent
yet powerful form of protest against the ban. This creative use of the [2] allowed Palestinians to subtly express their
national identity and resistance. The prohibition on the Palestinian flag was eventually lifted in 1993 through the Oslo
Accords, a set of agreements between Israel and the [3]. However, the [2] had already established itself as a poignant
symbol of Palestinian solidarity and resilience during this challenging period. The [2], when sliced open, reveals the
same colors as the Palestinian flag: red, black, white, and green. Each color on the flag has its own significance: green
represents the land and agriculture, black symbolizes the dark periods of the Palestinian history, white stands for peace,
and red signifies the bloodshed in the struggle for freedom. The [2], with its natural embodiment of these colors,
becomes a powerful symbol of Palestinian identity and resilience. The employment of the [2] emoji in social media
conversations is an example of "algospeak," a term TechCrunch defines as "coded euphemisms used online" to
circumvent content filtering systems. This practice involves using seemingly innocuous symbols or language to
convey messages that might otherwise be flagged or censored by automated moderation tools.
Source: How a watermelon became a symbol of Palestinian solidarity, Times of India, November 15, 2023.
146. After the _________ Arab-Israeli war, Israel occupied West Bank and Gaza, and criminalised public
displays of the Palestinian flag as indicated by [1] in the passage
(A) 1948
(B) 1956
(C) 1967
(D) 1973
147. The Capital of Israel is _________
(A) Tel Aviv
(B) Jerusalem
(C) Haifa
(D) Nazareth
148. In the many posts showing support for Palestine on social media, a popular symbol is the ________ as
indicated by [2] in the passage
(A) Olive Branch
(B) Dove
(C) Watermelon
(D) Sunflower
29
149. The Oslo Peace Accords refer to a few agreements signed between the _________ and the Government of
Israel as indicated by [2] in the passage
(A) United Nations
(B) Arab League

(C) Palestine Liberation Organization
(D) Hamas
150. The Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) was founded in the year:
(A) 1948
(B) 1959
(C) 1964
(D) 1973
Answers
146. C) 1967
147. B) Jerusalem
148. C) Watermelon
149. C) Palestine Liberation Organization
150. C) 1964
30
PASSAGE – 16
The Center on Saturday issued an order to lift the ban on construction activities linked to linear public projects in
Delhi-NCR, along with permitting the entry of polluting trucks and commercial four-wheelers into the national capital.
The decision comes in response to an improvement in air quality within the region, attributed to favorable wind speed
and direction. These actions mark the implementation of the final stage, [1] of the [2], the Center's air pollution control
plan, which is activated when the Air Quality Index (AQI) is projected to exceed the 450-mark in the capital, with at
least a three-day notice. The Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining
Areas (CAQM), a statutory body tasked with devising pollution control strategies, directed Delhi and NCR states to
rescind all emergency measures. These measures mandated that only CNG, electric, and BS VI-compliant vehicles
from other states could enter Delhi, with exemptions for those engaged in essential services. Additionally, [1] of the
[2] prohibited all medium and heavy goods vehicles not involved in essential services from operating in the capital,
according to the latest CAQM directive. The CAQM stated that air quality forecasts from the India [3] do not predict
a significant deterioration in the overall air quality of Delhi-NCR in the upcoming days. As of Saturday, the city's 24-
hour average AQI, recorded at 4 pm daily, showed an improvement from 405 on Friday to 319, indicating a positive
trend in air quality.
Source: Curbs under GRAP Stage 4 lifted in Delhi-NCR as air quality improves, The Times of India, November
18, 2023.
151. As the AQI in NCR dipped to the ̳severe ‘category last week, _________ of _________ was set in motion
as indicated by [1] and [2] in the passage
(A) Stage 1 of SAPCC
(B) Stage 2 of CAP
(C) Stage 3 of NAPCC
(D) Stage 4 of GRAP
152. EPCA was constituted under section 3 of the _________ for the National Capital Region in compliance
with the Supreme Court order dated January 1998.
(A) Clean Air Act
(B) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(C) National Green Tribunal Act
(D) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
153. INSAT is established in _________ with commissioning of INSAT-1B.
(A) 1975
(B) 1980
(C) 1983
(D) 1988
31
154. The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system is a constellation of operational communication satellites
placed in _________ orbit.
(A) Low Earth Orbit
(B) Medium Earth Orbit
(C) Geo-stationary Orbit

(D) Polar Orbit
155. SAFAR system is indigenously developed by the _________ and is operationalized by the India
Meteorological Department (IMD) as indicated by [3] in the passage
(A) Indian Space Research Organisation
(B) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
(C) National Environmental Engineering Research Institute
(D) Centre for Atmospheric Sciences
Answers
151. D) Stage 4 of GRAP
152. B) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

153. C) 1983
154. C) Geo-stationary Orbit
155. B) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
32
PASSAGE – 17
The Marathas are a group of castes comprising peasants and landowners, among others, constituting nearly 33 per
cent of state’s population. The demand for Maratha reservation is not new in the state. The first protest over this was
held 32 years ago by Mathadi Labour Union leader Annasaheb Patil in Mumbai. In November 2018, the then BJP
government in Maharashtra passed a Bill proposing 16 per cent reservation in education and government jobs for the
Maratha community. This was challenged in court. In June 2019, the Bombay High Court bench of Justices Ranjit V
More and Bharati H Dangre upheld the constitutional validity of the Maratha quota under the Socially and
Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC) Act, 2018. While ruling that the 16 per cent quota granted by the state was
not ‘justifiable,’ the HC reduced it to [1] per cent in education and 13 per cent in government jobs, as recommended
by the Maharashtra State Backward Class Commission. The HC said that while the reservation ceiling should not
exceed 50%, in exceptional circumstances and extraordinary situations, this limit can be crossed if quantifiable data
reflecting backwardness is made available. The High Court relied heavily on findings of the 11-member Maharashtra
State Backward Class Commission (MSBCC) headed by retired Justice G M Gaikwad. The Committee surveyed about
[2] families, from two villages in each of the 355 talukas that had more than 50 per cent Maratha population. The
November 2015 report found the Maratha community to be socially, economically and educationally backward.
Source: Maratha quota protest heats up: What SC, Bombay HC have ruled on it, what steps state govt is taking,
The Indian Express, November 1, 2023.
156. In 2019, the Bombay High Court ruled that the Maratha quota, proposed by the Maharashtra
government, was constitutionally valid but reduced it to _________ in education and 13 percent in
government jobs as indicated by [1] in the passage
(A) 10%
(B) 12%
(C) 15%
(D) 18%
157. The High Court relied on the findings of the Maharashtra State Backward Class Commission (MSBCC),
which conducted a comprehensive survey of _________ families across the state.
(A) 30,000
(B) 35,000
(C) 40,000
(D) 45,000
158. Maharashtra boasts six UNESCO World Heritage Sites, including the Ajanta and Ellora Caves, and
_________ in Mumbai.
(A) Kanheri Caves
(B) Bhaja Caves
(C) Elephanta Caves
(D) Karla Caves
33
159. Maharashtra‘s rich history includes the rule of various dynasties, such as the Mauryas, Satavahanas,
Marathas, and the _________, leaving behind numerous historical sites and landmarks across the state.
(A) Mauryas
(B) Satavahanas
(C) Guptas
(D) Bhojas
160. The primary objective of the Maharashtra State Backward Class Commission (MSBCC) is to:
(A) Implement reservation policies in the state
(B) Assess the educational needs of the state
(C) Identify socially and educationally backward classes
(D) Provide financial assistance to underprivileged students
Answers
156. B) 12%
157. D) 45,000
158. C) Elephanta Caves
159. D) Bhojas
160. C) Identify socially and educationally backward classes
34
PASSAGE – 18
The [1] Cabinet, last week, approved the ‘Abua Awas Yojna’ (AAY) — a housing scheme for the poor, which will
provide eight lakhs pucca houses to the homeless in the state, and has a total budget of Rs 16,320 crore. The scheme
will be implemented in three phases, with a target of 2 lakh houses in the current financial year; 3.5 lakh houses in FY
2024-25 and 2.5 lakh houses in FY 2025-26. Existing Union Government schemes like Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-
Rural or Ambedkar Awas Yojna have been around for a while. As per data from the state government, 16 lakh families
have been beneficiaries of PMAY-Rural, and 50,000 families have benefited from Ambedkar Housing Scheme since
the formation of [1] in 2000. Nonetheless, these schemes have been unable to cover all eligible beneficiaries. Sources
in the government told that since 2016, SECC (2011) data was being used to identify the beneficiaries. Certain
problems regarding this came to fore when [1] Chief Minister [3] (in Nov’22) and Minister of Rural Development
Alamgir Alam (in Feb’23) wrote to Union Minister of Rural Development [2] that around 8 lakh eligible beneficiaries
had been left out of the ambit of housing schemes. The list included 2 lakh beneficiaries’ wrong entry in the database
as being ‘not eligible’ in addition to other discrepancies. CM Soren and Alam repeatedly requested the Centre to add
these eligible people to the list of beneficiaries under exisring housing schemes. Sources said that they repeatedly met
the union minister to discuss the matter, but for reasons as still unclear, their requests were not paid heed to. Thus, the
state decided to create its own housing scheme.
Source: Why Jharkhand govt has approved a new Rs 16,000 crore housing scheme, The Indian Express,
November 2, 2023.
161. The _________ Cabinet approved the ̳Abua Awas Yojna‘ (AAY) with a budget of Rs. 16,320 crore to
provide eight lakh pucca houses to the homeless in the state, and it will be implemented in three phases over
the next three fiscal years as indicated by [1] in the passage
(A) Bihar
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Odisha
(D) West Bengal
162. Who is the Union minister of rural Development as indicated by [2] in the passage?
(A) Narendra Singh Tomar
(B) Nitin Gadkari
(C) Giriraj Singh
(D) Ravi Shankar Prasad
163. Jharkhand Present Chief Minister is _________ as indicated by [3] in the passage
(A) Raghubar Das
(B) Hemant Soren
(C) Arjun Munda
(D) Babulal Marandi
164. Jharkhand was carved out of which Indian state in the year 2000?
35
(A) Bihar
(B) West Bengal
(C) Odisha
(D) Chhattisgarh
165. Which mineral-rich region in Jharkhand is known for its coal and iron ore deposits?
(A) Palamu
(B) Deoghar
(C) Dhanbad
(D) Hazaribagh
Answers
161. B) Jharkhand
162. C) Giriraj Singh
163. B) Hemant Soren
164. A) Bihar
165. C) Dhanbad
36
PASSAGE – 19
Last week, several state governments requested schools to seek parental consent for the creation of a new student
identity card known as the [2] (APAAR). This is part of the ‘One nation, One Student ID’ initiative of the Union
government, stemming from the new [1]. APAAR, which stands for [2], is envisioned as a special ID system for all
students in India, starting from childhood. Under the initiative, each student would get a lifelong APAAR ID, making
it easy for the learners, schools, and governments to track academic progress from pre-primary education to [3]
education. APAAR would also serve as a gateway to [4], a digital system where students can store their important
documents and achievements, such as exam results and report cards, digitally, making it easier to access and use them
in the future for, say, pursuing [3] education or finding a job. The goal behind introducing APAAR is to make education
hassle-free and reduce the need for students to carry physical documents. This initiative was launched as part of the
[1] by the Education Ministry. “The vision is to create a positive change, allowing state governments to track literacy
rates, dropout rates, and more, helping them make improvements,” Anil Sahasrabuddhe, Chairman of the National
Educational Technology Forum, explained, “It’s about giving states the tools to enhance their performance.” APAAR
also aims to reduce fraud and duplicate educational certificates by providing a single, trusted reference for educational
institutions. Only first party sources that issue certificates will be allowed to deposit credits into the system, ensuring
authenticity.
Source: What is the ‘One nation, One Student ID’ initiative of the Union govt?, The Times of India, October 31, 2023.
166. The National Educational Technology Forum (NETF) is an initiative by the Government of India
proposed under which policy as indicated by [1] in the passage?
(A) Right to Education Act, 2009
(B) National Policy on Education, 1986
(C) National Education Policy, 2020
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
167. APAAR, which stands for _________ Permanent Academic Account Registry, is envisioned as a special
ID system for all students in India, starting from childhood as indicated by [2] in the passage
(A) Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry
(B) Advanced Permanent Academic Account Registry
(C) Academic Permanent Account Record Registry
(D) Associate Permanent Academic Account Registry
168. Under the initiative, each student would get a lifelong APAAR ID, making it easy for the learners,
schools, and governments to track academic progress from pre-primary education to _________ education as
indicated by [3] in the passage
(A) Secondary education
(B) Higher education
(C) Graduate education
(D) Postgraduate education
37
169. APAAR would also serve as a gateway to _________, a digital system where students can store their
important documents and achievements, such as exam results and report cards, digitally, making it easier to
access and use them in the future for, say, pursuing higher education or finding a job as indicated by [4] in
the passage
(A) eBasta
(B) Digilocker
(C) ePathshala
(D) SWAYAM
170. The Present Education Minister of India is _________
(A) Prakash Javadekar
(B) Ramesh Pokhriyal
(C) Dharmendra Pradhan
(D) Smriti Irani
Answers
166. C) National Education Policy, 2020
167. A) Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry
168. B) Higher education
169. B) Digilocker
170. C) Dharmendra Pradhan
38
PASSAGE – 20
As Telangana gears up for Assembly polls next month, its stringent preventive detention law is under the spotlight. In
at least three separate instances, the Supreme Court has red-flagged the Telangana government’s use of the law. The
latest was in a ruling on September 4, where a bench of Justices Surya Kant and Dipankar Dutta underlined that the
“pernicious trend prevalent in the state of Telangana” has not escaped the Court’s attention. Preventive detention
means detention of a person by the state without trial and conviction by court, but merely on suspicion. The detention
could be up to a year unless extended. A pre-trial detention is not the same as preventive detention. While the former
is an undertrial accused of a crime, a detainee can be taken into custody just as a preventive measure even if he has
not committed a crime. In countries such as Britain, United States and Canada, preventive detention is a wartime
measure. In India, the Constitution itself makes space for preventive detention. Part III of the Constitution, which
deals with fundamental rights, also gives the state the power to suspend these rights for preventive detention. Despite
its emphasis on individual liberty, Part III, which forms the basic structure of the Constitution that cannot be amended,
also contains provisions for preventive detention under Article 22. Among central legislations, the National Security
Act, the Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act, 1974 (COFEPOSA) are
examples of laws under which preventive detention can be ordered. As many as 25 states also have preventive
detention legislations, like the Telangana law, which is called The Telangana Prevention of Dangerous Activities of
BootLeggers, Dacoits, Drug-Offenders, Goondas, Immoral Traffic Offenders, Land-Grabbers, Spurious Seed
Offenders, Insecticide Offenders, Fertiliser Offenders, Food Adulteration Offenders, Fake Document Offenders,
Scheduled Commodities Offenders, Forest Offenders, Gaming Offenders, Sexual Offenders, Explosive Substances
Offenders, Arms Offenders, Cyber Crime Offenders and White Collar or Financial Offenders Act, (PD Act), 1986.
Source: Telangana’s law under scanner: How preventive detention works, The Times of India, October 30,
2023.
171. Telangana was formed as a separate state from Andhra Pradesh in which year?
(A) 2000
(B) 2007
(C) 2014
(D) 2019
172. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution begins with the words:
(A) "We the people of India"
(B) "In the name of God"
(C) "Justice and Liberty for all"
(D) "Unity in Diversity"
173. The capital of Telangana is:
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Warangal
(C) Nizamabad
39
(D) Khammam
174. Which one of the following rivers flows through Telangana?
(A) Krishna
(B) Godavari
(C) Both Krishna and Godavari
(D) Tungabhadra
175. The Indian Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of government which is federal in structure
with:
(A) Unitary features
(B) Confederal features
(C) Presidential features
(D) Monarchical features
Answers
171. C) 2014
172. A) "We the people of India"
173. A) Hyderabad
174. C) Both Krishna and Godavari
175. A) Unitary features
40
PASSAGE – 21
Dozens of US states have sued Instagram and Facebook’s parent company Meta, accusing the tech giant of
contributing to the youth mental health crisis through the addictive nature of its social media platforms. In a complaint,
the attorneys general of 33 US states, including California and New York, said Meta repeatedly “misled” the public
about the dangers of its platforms, and knowingly induced young children and teenagers into addictive and compulsive
social media use. The lawsuit comes two years after former Meta employee Frances Haugen emerged as a
whistleblower with allegations that the company was knowingly preying on vulnerable young people to boost profits.
She had revealed an internal study at Instagram which found that many young girls using the app were suffering from
depression and anxiety around body-image issues. While a majority of the lawsuit has been redacted from public view,
it specifically names features such as likes, alerts and filters that are “known to promote young users’ body
dysmorphia”. Body dysmorphia leads a person to spend a lot of time worrying about flaws in their appearance, and
often these perceived flaws are unnoticeable to others. “Meta has harnessed powerful and unprecedented technologies
to entice, engage, and ultimately ensnare youth and teens,” the suit said. “It has concealed the ways in which these
platforms exploit and manipulate the most vulnerable consumers: teenagers and children. And it has ignored the
sweeping damage these platforms have caused to the mental and physical health of our nation’s youth.” Meta has
contested the allegations. “We share the attorneys general’s commitment to providing teens with safe, positive
experiences online, and have already introduced more than 30 tools to support teens and their families,” Liza
Crenshaw, Meta spokesperson, said in a statement responding to the lawsuit. “We’re disappointed that instead of
working productively with companies across the industry to create clear, age-appropriate standards for the many apps
teens use, the attorneys general have chosen this path.”
Source: Why have 33 US states sued Meta?, Livemint, October 30, 2023.
176. In the United States, there are _________ constituent political entities known as states.
(A) 48
(B) 50
(C) 52
(D) 54
177. Each state shares its sovereignty with the federal government, resulting in a unique system of _________
jurisdiction
(A) Exclusive jurisdiction
(B) Concurrent jurisdiction
(C) Divided jurisdiction
(D) Unitary jurisdiction
178. American citizens hold dual citizenship, both as members of the federal republic and as residents of the
_________ in which they live
(A) County
(B) Municipality
(C) State
41
(D) Region
179. State citizenship and residency are generally flexible, allowing individuals to move between states
without the need for _________ approval.
(A) State governments
(B) Federal government
(C) Local governments
(D) International authorities
180. State governments derive their powers from the people through individual state constitutions and are
structured with three separate branches: executive, legislative, and _________
(A) Judiciary
(B) Bureaucracy
(C) Military
(D) Administrative
Answers
176. B) 50
177. B) Concurrent jurisdiction
178. C) State
179. B) Federal government
180. A) Judiciary
42
PASSAGE – 22
Earlier this month, India had sought ‘parity’ with [1], asking it to downsize its diplomatic staff here. India has about
20 diplomats in [1] and said there should be a similar number of [1] diplomats in India as well. The move followed a
row over [1] Prime Minister Justin Trudeau’s remarks in [1] Parliament in September 2023. He had then claimed a
potential Indian government link to the killing of pro-Khalistan separatist leader Hardeep Singh Nijjar in [1] earlier
this year — which India rejected, terming the claims to be “absurd” and “motivated”. Now, the US and UK have
backed [1] diplomats’ presence. Further, they spoke of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, which has
also been mentioned by the Indian Ministry of External Affairs (MEA and the Indian Minister of Foreign Affairs, S
Jaishankar. On Saturday, the US and UK backed [1], stating that diplomats are required to be on the ground to resolve
differences. Notably, the two countries are also part of the Five Eyes intelligence-sharing alliance with [1], which also
includes Australia and New Zealand. US State Department spokesperson Matthew Miller said, “Resolving differences
requires diplomats on the ground… We expect India to uphold its obligations under the [2] Vienna Convention on
Diplomatic Relations, including with respect to privileges and immunities enjoyed by accredited members of [1]
diplomatic mission.” The UK Foreign, Commonwealth & Development Office said, “We expect all states to uphold
their obligations under the [2] Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations.”
Source: Canada recalls 41 diplomats from India: What is the 1961 Vienna Convention, why it was invoked, The
Hindu, November 1, 2023.
181. ______ is Canada’s Foreign Minister
(A) Chrystia Freeland
(B) Melanie Joly
(C) Marc Garneau
(D) François-Philippe Champagne
182. India sought ̳parity‘ with _______ as indicated by [1] in the passage
(A) United States
(B) United Kingdom
(C) Canada
(D) Australia
183. The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, which provides a framework for diplomatic relations
between independent countries, was signed in which year as indicated by [2] in the passage?
(A) 1945
(B) 1955
(C) 1961
(D) 1971
184. One of the key provisions of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations is the granting of:
43
(A) Economic privileges to diplomats
(B) Diplomatic immunity
(C) Special travel rights
(D) Exemption from all local laws
185. The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations establishes rules for:
(A) International trade agreements
(B) Diplomatic correspondence
(C) The functioning of international courts
(D) Diplomatic missions
Answers
181. B) Melanie Joly
182. C) Canada
183. C) 1961
184. B) Diplomatic immunity
185. D) Diplomatic missions
44
PASSAGE – 23
The Goa government had approached the Supreme Court seeking a stay on the High Court’s judgement. Last week,
as the three-month deadline to notify the tiger reserve passed, Goa Chief Minister [2] told the media, “We have filed
an application in High Court seeking more time to implement the court order. We will wait till the application is
decided.” On Monday (October 30), the Goa Foundation filed a contempt petition before the Bombay HC at Goa
seeking action against the Goa government for not complying with the directions of the High Court to notify a tiger
reserve within three months. The 2014 Status of Tigers (Co-predators & Prey) in India report, released by the statutory
body [3] formed under the Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972, speaks about the tiger presence in the region, the PIL
said.
The report said the Cotigao-Mhadei forest complex of Goa comprises five protected areas: [1], Bhagwan Mahavir
Wildlife Sanctuary and Mollem National Park, Bhagwan Mahavir National Park, Netravali Wild ife Sanctuary and
Cotigao Wildlife Sanctuary, and they together cover an area of 750 sq mts, forming a contiguous belt connecting the
forests of Karnataka and Maharashtra. It further added that Goa has a persistent tiger presence with about three to five
tigers. The NTCA has made multiple recommendations to the state for a tiger reserve. Following this, protections for
the area would be enhanced and lead to stricter security measures, such as a ‘Special Tiger Protection Force’ for
guarding purposes. In 2011, Jairam Ramesh, the then Minister of State for Environment and Forests, wrote to former
Goa CM Digambar Kamat to declare the [1] as a tiger reserve. The letter said, “There is evidence to show that tigers
in Goa are not merely transient animals but are a resident population as well. [1] is a contiguous tiger landscape to
Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in Karnataka to its south-east and to Anshi Dandeli Tiger Reserve to its south which has
around 35 tigers.”
Source: Why the Goa government is in the dock over notifying a tiger reserve, The Indian Express, November
2, 2023.
186. The Goa Bench of the Bombay High Court directed the Goa government to notify a tiger reserve in
_________ Wildlife Sanctuary as indicated by [1] in the passage
(A) Bhagwan Mahavir Wildlife Sanctuary
(B) Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Cotigao Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary
187. Goa Chief Minister _________ sought more time to implement the court order after the initial three-
month deadline for notifying the tiger reserve passed as indicated by [2] in the passage
(A) Manohar Parrikar
(B) Pramod Sawant
(C) Laxmikant Parsekar
(D) Digambar Kamat
188. The 2014 Status of Tigers in India report was given by whom as indicated by [3] in the passage?
(A) Wildlife Institute of India
(B) National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)
(C) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

45
(D) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
189. In 2022, Goa‘s Forest Minister _________ claimed there were no resident tigers in Goa and opposed the
idea of a tiger reserve.
(A) Vijai Sardesai
(B) Vishwajit Rane
(C) Nilesh Cabral
(D) Mauvin Godinho
190. Goa, a state known for its beaches and tourism, was a former colony of which European country?
(A) Portugal
(B) France
(C) Spain
(D) United Kingdom
Answers
186. D) Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary
187. B) Pramod Sawant

188. B) National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)
189. B) Vishwajit Rane
190. A) Portugal
46
PASSAGE – 24
On October 17, Srettha, who was then in Beijing for the Belt and Road Summit, posted on Twitter (X) a doodle of a
map of Thailand with a part of the peninsula highlighted. He wrote: “I tried to draw Landbridge’s route for railway
operators in China to make it easier to understand. It gives an image of the project of two piers but counted as one.
The project will reduce the problem of double handling. Hurry and draw and talk to understand. Even though the
picture didn’t come out very pretty, the communication was effective.” (Google translation from the Thai) On October
25, the Prime Minister said in a speech, “This may be one of the largest megaprojects in the world, which would make
Thailand an attractive country for investment… The government will push for this project to be formed during our
term,” The Bangkok Post reported. What Srettha has been referring to is a centuries-old Thai dream: to reduce the
sailing distance between the Indian Ocean Region and the waters of East Asia. The proposed route would cut across
the [1], and would provide an alternative to the longer and congested shipping route through the [2] — the narrow sea
lane that passes between Malaysia, Indonesia, and Singapore, and carries 25% of the world’s traded goods. Srettha is
not suggesting that a canal — like the Suez Canal or the Panama Canal — be cut through the [1] to join the seas on
either side. Instead, he is proposing a “land bridge” across the 90-km-wide strip, with two large-capacity ports or
shipping terminals on either side, joined by an east-west economic corridor including an oil pipeline.
Source: A ‘land bridge’ across Thailand’s Kra Isthmus: What is this centuries-old idea, resurrected again?, The
Indian Express, November 2, 2023.
191. On a map, Thailand resembles a plume of smoke rising from the sea into the East Asian landmass, with
_________, Laos, and Cambodia wrapped around its head.
(A) Vietnam
(B) Myanmar
(C) Cambodia
(D) China
192. The proposed land bridge across the _________ aims to reduce the sailing distance between the Indian
Ocean and the waters of East Asia.
(A) Chao Phraya River
(B) Gulf of Thailand
(C) Isthmus of Kra
(D) Andaman Sea
193. The Thai monarch _________ first envisioned a canal across the _________ in 1677.
(A) King Nara, Isthmus of Kra
(B) King Narai, Chao Phraya River
(C) King Chulalongkorn, Gulf of Thailand
(D) King Bhumibol Adulyadej, Andaman Sea
194. The _________ land bridge is expected to comprise road and rail networks to transport goods to and
from deep-sea ports on each coast.
47
(A) 60 Kms
(B) 75 Kms
(C) 90 Kms
(D) 100 Kms
195. The project could save transport costs, reduce the risk of piracy, and ease pressure on the congested
_________ as indicated by [2] in the passage
(A) Strait of Hormuz
(B) Sunda Strait
(C) Malacca Strait
(D) Strait of Gibraltar
Answers
191. B) Myanmar
192. C) Isthmus of Kra
193. A) King Nara, Isthmus of Kra
194. C) 90 Kms
195. C) Malacca Strait
48
PASSAGE – 25
[1] Edition of the Indo-US Joint Special Forces exercise “[2]” commenced at the Joint Training Node, [3] today. The
US contingent is represented by personnel from the 1st Special Forces Group (SFG) of US Special Forces. The Indian
Army contingent is led by Special Forces personnel from the Eastern Command. Exercise [2] is a joint exercise
conducted between Indian Army and US Army Special Forces. It aims at sharing best practices and experiences in
areas such as joint mission planning and operational tactics. The first edition was conducted in the year 2010 in India
and the 13th edition of the Indo-US Joint Special Forces exercise was conducted at the Special Forces Training School
(SFTS), Bakloh (HP). The current edition is being conducted in [3] Cantonment, Meghalaya from 21st November to
11th December 2023. During the course of the next three weeks, both sides will jointly plan and rehearse a series of
Special Operations, Counter Terrorist Operations, Air Borne operations in simulated conventional and unconventional
scenarios in mountainous terrain. Key highlights include ‘Combat free fall insertion of troops from stand-off
distances’, ‘Water borne insertion of troops’, ‘Precision engagement of targets at long ranges’, ‘Combat air controlling
of fixed wing and rotary wing aircraft’ besides ‘Airborne insertion and sustenance of troops’. Exercise [2] has evolved
as a mechanism to exchange ideas and share best practices between the Special Forces of both the nations. It is also a
platform to enhance inter-operability and strengthen defence cooperation between the armies of India and the United
States of America.
Source: INDIA-USA JOINT EXERCISE VAJRA PRAHAR COMMENCES IN UMROI, MEGHALAYA, PIB,
November 2023
196. What is the name of the Special Forces Exercise between India-US as indicated by [2] in the passage?
(A) Yudh Abhyas
(B) Malabar
(C) Vajra Prahar
(D) Cobra Gold
197. The Year 2023 observes which edition of the exercise as indicated by [1] in the passage?
(A) 12th
(B) 13th
(C) 14th
(D) 15th
198. The joint exercise commenced at ______as indicated by [3] in the passage
(A) Agra
(B) Urmoi
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Pune
199. How frequently is this joint exercise conducted between India and the United States?
(A) Annually
49
(B) Biannually
(C) Every three years
(D) Every five years
200. This joint exercise is primarily conducted to enhance cooperation and skills in:
(A) Maritime security
(B) Counter-terrorism
(C) Nuclear warfare strategies
(D) Space defense
Answers
196. C) Vajra Prahar

197. C) 14th
198. B) Urmoi
199. A) Annually
200. B) Counter-terrorism
50

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NOVEMBER CURRENT AFFAIRS (125 QUESTIONS)

(A) Los Angeles

(A) Shri Narendra Modi

(A) Bangkok Declaration

80. As of 2023, which of the following countries is not a member of APEC?

76. B) San Francisco

77. C) Shri Piyush Goyal

78. C) Seoul Declaration

(A) John Moody, 1900

(A) Stock Market

85. Which of the following best describes Moody's 'Caa' rating?

81. B) John Moody, 1909

84. B) Bond Market

85. C) Bonds of poor standing with very high credit risk

(A) WannaCry 2.0

(A) It is the central bank of China

90. What type of financial services does ICBC primarily offer?

(A) Insurance and risk management

87. B) LockBit 3.0

89. C) It has a significant number of overseas branches

90. C) Retail and commercial banking

95. _________ made the first flyby of Saturn in September 1979.

92. B) 29.5 years

(A) Ben Gurion, Negev Desert

97. The Currency of Israel is _________.

98. The_----------------being the longest river ending in the Mediterranean Sea.

(A) Danube River

99. The Present Prime Minister of Israel is _________.

(A) Yitzhak Rabin

96. A) Ben Gurion, Negev Desert

99. D) Benjamin Netanyahu

100. A) Strait of Gibraltar

(A) Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code

102. The Indian Penal Code (IPC) was drafted by:

(A) Lord Macaulay

(A) 356 Provisions

104. The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) was enacted in:

101. C) Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code

102. A) Lord Macaulay

105. B) The process of registration and investigation of crimes

107. The GTI Secretariat is based at the _________.

(A) World Wildlife Fund (WWF) headquarters

(A) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

107. C) World Bank headquarters

109. D) The World Bank

(A) Dubai, UAE

(A) Global Climate Report

(A) Glasgow, United Kingdom

112. C) Global Stocktake

113. C) Sharm El Sheikh, Egypt

116. The largest trading partner of India in 2022-23 was_________

(A) Washington D.C.

118. The 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue is a diplomatic format primarily involving:

(A) Defense and Foreign Ministers

(A) United States and India

120. The 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue format is primarily intended to:

(A) Enhance economic and trade cooperation

116. B) The United States

117. D) New Delhi

118. A) Defense and Foreign Ministers

119. A) United States and India

120. B) Strengthen defense and strategic ties

(A) Treaty of Edinburgh, 1586