COMPREHENSIVE COACHING IN CRIMINALISTICS

PREPARED BY: RIZALINO D. FLORES III

1. Forensic Ballistics is ultimately about identification of __________

a. fired bullets c. fired Shells
b. firearms d. all are correct
2. When only 2 fired bullets were submitted for examination, the purpose of the examination will be
__________
a. to identify the firearm/s where they originated
b. to identify whether they were fired from one or more firearm/s
c. to identify whether there are one or more shooters
d. all will serve as its purposes
3. Striation patterns in the gun’s barrel are the object of final determination of the firearm’s identity, this
characteristics can be viewed only after the firearm is __________________
a. subjected through microscopic examination
b. subjected to test firing
c. compared to another firearm
d. subjected to caliber and rifling determination
4. A .729 inch bore shotgun is…
a. 10 gauge c. 12 gauge
b. 16 gauge d. 20 gauge
5. The ignition of propellant charge mechanical blow against the primer or percussion cup of the cartridge.
a. Recoil c. Priming mixture
b. Percussion action d. Friction
6. Which of the following is NOT a job for a firearm examiner?
a. Determination of what firearm was used in the crime
b. Determination of whether or not a person fired a gun
c. Determination whether two or more guns were used in the crime
d. None
7. The following can be examined to determine the caliber of the bullet that hits the victim, EXCEPT
a. The size of the entrance wound
b. The bullet collected from the victim’s body
c. The firearm collected from the crime scene
d. None
8. Legally speaking, paraffin test showing negative result for powder burns may be disregarded when made
at least _______ days after the shooting
a. 1 c. 2
b. 3 d. 5
9. The stable flight of the bullet is caused by its_____________
a. direct motion c. rotary motion
b. translational motion d. terminal motion
10. Branch of ballistics that deals with the impact and force imparted on the target
a. Interior c. Exterior
b. Terminal d. Forensic
11. Interior ballistics, technically speaking begins with ____________
a. loading the firearm c. squeezing the trigger
b. when the chamber is loaded d. when the bullet comes in contact with the riflings
12. Recoil of the gun is affected by the following EXCEPT
a. Tightness the firearm is held
b. Weight of the firearm
c. Physical and mental condition of the shooter
d. None
13. Which of the following is considered as mechanical erosion of the bore?
a. Projectile passing through the bore
b. Heat from burning propellant
c. Pressure of powder gasses and combustion
d. Chemical action of powder gasses and combustion residue
14. The fatal equivalent of the bullet
a. Velocity c. Energy
b. Yaw d. Gyroscopic Action
15. The bore of the shotgun is constricted
a. Cylinder bore c. Smooth bore
b. Choke bore d. Paradox bore

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 16. Which of the following maybe consider an unusual gunshot location in the head for suicide?
a. Temple c. Mouth
b. Under the chin d. Back of the head
17. This/these examination/s should be performed in order to determine the presence, location and the path
of the bullet in victim’s body
a. Parrafin test
b. Firearm identification and microscopic examination
c. X-Ray
d. All shall be done
18. Which of the following maybe washed out from the gunshot wound?
a. Smudging c. Tattooing
b. Singeing d. Cavity
19. In 1845 Rim fire cartridge was discovered in France by__________
a. Le Faucheux c. Flobert
b. Morse d. Vieille
20. Considered to be the first true machine gun
a. Gustav gun c. Gatling gun
b. Maxim Gun d. Paradox gun
21. The part of firearm that controls the path of the bullet
a. Chamber c. Cylinder
b. Frame d. Barrel
22. A cartridge shell with grooves near its base and is straight, was fired in ________
a. Pistol c. Revolver
b. Rifle d. Shotgun
23. The word bullet originates from the French word ____________
a. Cartouche c. Boulette
b. Charta d. Balla
24. Bullets ideal against targets that rapidly burns such as aircrafts
a. Tracer c. Fragmentation
b. Armor piercing d. Incendiary
25. The part of the cartridge that protects the propellant from external factors
a. Bullet c. Primer
b. Casing d. All are correct
26. Modern ammunitions are more powerful than its older versions since it uses _______
a. Larger caliber bullets c. Longer barrels
b. Different propellants d. Different firearm mechanisms
27. In establishing the distance of the shooter to the target, what should be critically determined first?
a. Bullet’s entrance hole c. Bullet’s exit hole
b. Bullet’s caliber d. Bullets trajectory
28. When bullet fracture a glass, this is considered as the primary breaks
a. Radial c. Concentric
b. Stress lines d. Cavity
29. This ensures that ballistic evidence found at the crime scene can be identified as the same evidence to be
examined in the laboratory
a. Proper collection of evidence c. Proper preservation of evidence
b. Proper recognition of evidence d. Proper marking of evidence
30. A bullet to be collected was found disfigured/deformed, where it should be marked
a. Ogive C. Base
b. Nose d. Any of the given answer
31. When marking a firearm at the shooting scene, these are the three main parts of the gun that should be
marked, EXCEPT
a. Barrel c. Frame
b. Magazine d. Receiver
32. When providing “tag” to a firearm all shall be written, but which detail about the firearm should be
considered the most important?
a. Type of firearm c. Make or model
b. Caliber d. Serial Number
33. If the issue surrounding the firearm is whether or not its serial number was tampered, this equipment will
be highly useful
a. Comparison microscope c. Strereoscopic microscope
b. Shadow graph d. CP-6 Comparison Projector
34. Describe as a long hollow probe equip with a lamp and magnifying apparatus in its tail end use to fit inside
the barrel for examination
a. Micrometer c. Taper gauge

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 b. Helixometer d. Torsion balance
35. The following are considered as individual characteristics EXCEPT
a. Breech face mark c. Firing pin impression
b. Extractor mark d. Rifling
36. You are a firearm examiner examining two specimens of fired cartridge case using comparison
microscope. What should be the focused of examination?
a. Extractor marks c. Ejector Marks
b. Breech face marks d. Caliber
37. The helical grooves pattern in the internal surface of the barrel responsible for imparting a spinning
motion to ensure accuracy of projectile during flight
a. Striations c. Lands
b. Grooves d. Riffling
38. The metal cup containing highly sensitive priming mixture of chemical compound which when hit or
crushed by the firing pin will facilitate ignition
a. Silver halide c. Primer pocket
b. Anvil d. Primer
39. A firearm that allows the user to either manually cock the hammer or simply pull the trigger and release
the hammer of its own
a. Single action c. Double action
b. Pump action d. Bolt action
40. Refers to the quickness that a burning gun powder transform into gas
a. Rate of fire c. Combustion rate
b. Percussion rate d. Burning rate
41. The disruption of the bullet into many pieces causes by the force of impact
a. Fragmentation c. Detonation
b. Explosion d. Collision
42. Refers to the bullets capability to deliver a very heavy paralyzing blow
a. Fire power c. Knocking power
b. Shocking power d. Destructive power
43. The microscopic contours found at the surface of the fired bullet used by the examiners as basis of
comparison and identification
a. Land marks c. Impression
b. Striations d. Rifling marks
44. Refers to the amount of gunpowder loaded to ammunition
a. Energy charge c. Power charge
b. Loaded charge d. Powder charge
45. The bullet’s capacity in hitting the target
a. Muzzle blast c. Muzzle energy
b. Muzzle break d. Muzzle velocity
46. A bullet designed with a sharp bore diameter shoulder that enhance its cutting action without requiring
expansion
a. Hollow point c. Round
b. Pointed d. Semi wad cutter
47. Upon checking the bore of the barrel, the examiner sees spiral rifling going in a clockwise direction. This
means it has _________
a. Right twist of rifling c. Left twist of rifling
b. Right pitch of rifling d. Left pitch of rifling
48. The hole in the bottom of the primer pocket through which the primer clash imparts ignition to the
propellant
a. Primer pocket c. Sensitive material/priming mixture
b. Anvil d. Vent/Flash hole
49. Part of the shell that prevents the bullet from being pulled out
a. Cannelure c. Neck
b. Crimp d. Shoulder
50. The Study of the motion of projectile
a. Forensic ballistics c. Ballistics
b. Firearm identification d. All of the above
51. The following are the terms from which the word “ballistics” was derived, except…
a. Ballo c. Ballien
b. Ballista d. Forum
52. Refers to the unstable rotating motion of the bullet
a. Yaw c. Gyroscopic action

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 b. Ricochet d. Tumbling
53. Refers to the “nose – end” rotation of the bullet while in flight
a. Yaw c. Gyroscopic action
b. Ricochet d. Tumbling
54. The forward motion of the bullet
a. Direct c. Rotary
b. Translational d. Ricochet
55. The branch of ballistics where percussion occurs
a. Internal c. External
b. Terminal d. Forensic
56. Refers to the equal opposite action of the gun to the forward movement of the bullet
a. Ricochet c. Recoil
b. Jump d. Blow back
57. The hole drilled in the barrel of the firearm through which the bullet travels when its fired
a. Rifling c. Muzzle
b. Chamber d. Bore
58. The farthest distance that the bullet can travel upon discharge from the firearm
a. Range c. Maximum range
b. Maximum effective range d. Trajectory
59. Attributes of terminal ballistics that deals with the precision in hitting the intended target by the
projectile
a. Velocity c. Accuracy
b. Energy d. Penetration
60. It is the ratio of weight of a lead ball to a pound whose diameter is equal to the barrel’s bore
a. Caliber c. Bore diameter
b. Gauge d. Millimeter
61. The father of percussion ignition system of firearm
a. Calvin Goddard c. Alexander John Forsyth
b. Roger Bacon d. John M. Browning
62. A firearm that operates like a rifle but with less than 22 inches barrel
a. Shot gun c. Machine gun
b. Sub – machine gun d. Carbine
63. A firearm utilizing ammunitions for handguns that can continuously discharge bullets as long as
the trigger is pressed
a. Shot gun c. Machine gun
b. Sub – machine gun d. Carbine
64. A firearm that is designed with multiple chambers
a. Pistol c. Revolver
b. Shot gun d. Rifles
65. A magazine with a maximum capacity of 7 cartridges was the only evidence left at the shooting
scene that resulted to the killing of 7 individuals. What firearm could be possibly involved?
a. Pistol c. Shotgun
b. Sub machine gun d. Revolver

66. The following are the advantages of cartridge EXCEPT

a. Speeded the loading of firearm
b. Avoid spillage of gun powder
c. Soldiers carry with them bag of gun powder
d. Provide uniform charge for every shot
67. What do you call a firearm in which the caliber is more than one inch?
a. Small arms c. Artillery
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 b. Cannons d. Big guns
68. A firearm capable of firing more than one bullets because of the cartridges stored in its handle
a. Revolver c. Pistol
b. Rifle d. Shotgun
69. A firearm’s mechanical construction that propels a bullet and then reload for every press of the
trigger
a. Bolt action type c. Lever action type
b. Semi – automatic d. Automatic type
70. It serves as the igniter of the cartridge
a. Bullet c. Shell
b. Gun powder d. Primer
71. It serves as the propellant of the cartridge
a. Bullet c. Shell
b. Gun powder d. Primer
72. The specific part of the bullet where the rifling marks is found
a. Base c. Bearing surface
b. Nose d. Ogive
73. Refers to the curved path of the bullet extending from shoulder towards the nose
a. Shoulder c. Head height
b. Ogive d. Meplat
74. A bullet that is covered by copper/nickel strips that prevents it to be dismembered
a. Jacketed c. Lead
b. Fragmentary d. Incendiary
75. The specific part of the cartridge that locks the bullet to avoid unnecessary movement or
prevent it from pushing down the shell
a. Mouth c. Cannelure
b. Shoulder d. Neck
76. It serves as the passage way or bridge between priming mixture and the propellant
a. Vent/flash hole c. Primer cup
b. Anvil d. All of these
77. A cartridge shell in which the diameter of the rim is equal with the diameter of the body of the
shell
a. Rimmed c. Semi – rimmed
b. Rimless d. Rebated
78. Which of the following is not a chemical component of a black powder
a. Potassium nitrate c. Carbon
b. Sulfur d. Nitro - cellulose
79. The sensitive material of the primer that ignites by percussion
a. Priming cup c. Disc
b. Priming mixture d. Anvil
80. A type of primer with an anvil attached to shell of the cartridge case and equip with two flash
holes
a. Rim fire c. Center fire
b. Boxer d. Berdan
81. The transmission of an electrical signal from a logging unit the logging cable to a blasting cap
and it happens when high explosive is ignited
a. Deflagration c. Explosion
b. Detonation d. Fragmentation
82. Which of the following is not a class characteristic?
a. Twist of rifling c. Caliber
b. Firing pin impression d. Number of lands and grooves
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 83. A firearm with 6 lands and grooves, left twist and the grooves are twice wider in width
a. Steyr type c. Colt type
b. Webley type d. Browning type
84. Firearm characteristics that are random in nature that are caused by machine imperfections and
wear or tear of firearm parts
a. General characteristics c. Class characteristics
b. Individual characteristics d. Sub – class characteristics
85. The markings left on the bullet that was fired from an over sized or eroded muzzles
a. Groove marks c. Land marks
b. Skid marks d. Shave marks
86. Which of the following is the equivalent of 45 cal.
a. 12. 7 mm c. 9.65 mm
b. 11. 43 mm d. 5. 56 mm
87. The main area of examination among fired bullets for the purpose of firearm identification
a. Land marks c. Groove marks
b. Striations d. Skid marks
88. The main area of examination among fired shells for the purpose of firearm identification
a. Extractor and ejector marks
b. Firing pin and breech face marks
c. Chamber and pivot marks
d. Magazine lip marks and Extractor marks
89. The part of the firearm that pulls fired shell out of the chamber
a. Ejector c. Magazine release
b. Cylinder release d. Extractor
90. The part that throws fired shell out of the firearm
a. Ejector c. Magazine release
b. Cylinder release d. Extractor
91. A fired bullet should be marked at any of the following except…
a. Base c. Nose
b. Ogive d. Bearing surface
92. Fired shells should be marked at any of the following except…
a. At the side of the body c. Near the mouth
b. Primer d. None of the above
93. An instrument considered as the “backbone” of the firearm identification
a. Shadowgraph c. Bullet recovery box
b. Comparison microscope d. Stereoscopic microscope
94. The part of the firearm that closes the rear part of the chamber
a. Hammer c. Firing pin
b. Breech block/bolt d. Muzzle
95. The markings on bullet considered as the most common reference used by investigators for
comparison and identification purposes that is primarily caused by its travel along the barrel
a. Friction c. Impression
b. Tool marks d. Pressured marks
96. Useful for the opacity test for papers
a. Transmitted light c. Infra Red radiation
b. Ultra Violet light d. Oblique light
97. A kind of document that contain some changes like addition or deletion
a. Altered c. Obliterated
b. Erased d. Disputed
98. Label the container containing the questioned document ____________ packaging
a. Prior
b. After
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 c. During
d. Before, during and after
99. Pen emphasis: The act of intermittently forcing the pen against paper surface with an increased
pressure
Pen pressure:
____________________________________________________________________
a. Removing or lifting of writing instrument
b. Average force applied by the writer
c. Involves the manner of holding the writing instrument
d. Gap in writing caused by defective instrument
100. At least how many exemplars should be collected to attain a sound conclusion?
a. 5 c. 6
b. 4 d. 3
101. *Questioned document is otherwise known as…
a. Simulated document c. Disputed document
b. Falsified document d. Forged document
102. What is the object of examination in a Holograph document?
a. Signature
b. Writings
c. Date or age
d. Entire document
103. *Spurious signature: simple forgery
Simulated forgery: ____________
a. Simple forgery c. Traced forgery
b. Duplicated forgery d. Copied forgery
104. How should a wet document be collected
a. Dry it first
b. Collect it while still wet
c. Collect it while still wet and put water to its container
d. Immediately put adhesive transparent tapes on it to prevent disintegration
105. Previous and present writings of a person will show differences upon comparison due
to…
a. Transitory changes c. Habits
b. Tremors d. Variations
106. An introductory backward stroke
a. Retracing c. Retouching/patching
b. Hitch d. Pen lifting
107. Which of the following genuine signatures should not be used for comparison purposes
during document examination
a. Collected specimens of signatures
b. Requested specimens of signature
c. Model signature
d. Evidentiary signature
108. Contemporary handwriting standards means, the age of the standard should be within…
a. 12 years prior to the date of the QD
b. 10 years after the date of the QD
c. 8 years prior and after the date of the QD
d. 5 years prior and after the date of the QD
109. Request handwriting specimens from the subject shall be done by…
a. Allowing the subject to copy a selected set of writing
b. Allowing the subject to write what is being dictated
c. Allowing the subject to write anything he wants
d. Allowing the subject to copy the content of the questioned document
110. A written material that provides information that can serve as an official record
a. Document c. Warrant
b. Certificate d. Report
111. This involves the observation, measurement and /or determination of properties of the
writing characteristics

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 a. Evaluation c. Analysis/recognition
b. Examination d. Comparison
112. A person denied that he issued a check containing a signature which is very similar in
size and shape when compared to his genuine signature. This can be a case of_____
a. Simple forgery c. Traced forgery
b. Simulated forgery d. Copied forgery
113. Refers to the factors and circumstances that affect the writer’s ability to write
a. Writing condition c. Pen pressure
b. Pen hold d. Muscular habits and coordination
114. Inventor of fountain pen design to allow air to induce a steady and even flow of ink
a. Petrache Poenaru c. John Loud
b. Julius Parker d. Lewis Watterman
115. The following are proofs of genuine writing except…
a. Ink failure c. Illegible forms
b. Abbreviated forms d. unnatural pen – lift
116. A written presentation of thought by which an obligation is established
a. Certification c. Document
b. Contract d. Record
117. A forensic document examiner may provide expert opinion with regards to the following
except…
a. Whether the document is forged
b. Whether the document is authentic or genuine
c. Whether a suspect is guilty of forgery
d. Whether the document is altered or not
118. An NBI clearance is…
a. Public Document
b. Official Document
c. Private Document
d. Commercial Document
119. Forgery committed without attempting to copy the authentic signature
a. Simple Forgery
b. Simulated Forgery
c. Traced Forgery
d. Copied Forgery
120. The ruled or imaginary line where the writing rests
a. Line of writing c. Base
b. Composition writing d. Writing Guide line
121. A person who conducts examination using scientific processes and methods on
documents to proves its falsity and authenticity
a. Document examiner
b. Expert witness
c. Handwriting expert
d. Graphologist
122. The element of handwriting that is regular, recurrent and visually pleasing
a. Skill c. Rhythm
b. Habit d. Significant writing habit
123. Water marks maybe use for the purpose of any of the following, except…
a. Paper security feature
b. To establish the probable age of the document
c. As proof of paper’s authenticity
d. Protection against attempt of alteration to its content
124. Which of the following writings is the least proficient?
a. Guided Writing
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 b. Natural Writing
c. Disguised Writing
d. Forged Writing
125. As the age differences between genuine and questioned specimen becomes greater, the
standard has a tendency to become_____________ representative of the unknown.
a. More
b. Less
c. Equal
d. Contemporary
126. Identifying properties of handwriting that serves as the basis of the examiner in
identification of its source or author
a. Individual characteristics c. Class characteristics
b. Genuine characteristics d. Gross charcateristics
127. Transitory changes: Temporary factors that affect writing
Natural variations: ____________________________
a. Repeated writings
b. Assisted writing
c. Disguised writing
d. Genuine writing
128. If the examiner would like to reveal an indented writing, what instrument he can best
utilize for such purpose
a. Test plates
b. Iodine fuming apparatus
c. Electro Static Detection Apparatus
d. Microscope
129. Partially visible ink strokes appearing on a sheet of paper after having touch by freshly
applied ink strokes
a. Invisible writing
b. Contact writing
c. Indented writing
d. Obliterated writing
130. Legible Handwriting: Illegible handwriting
Calligraphy: Cacography
Disguised writing: _____________
a. Genuine writing
b. Authentic writing
c. Natural writing
d. Natural variation
131. It refers to the translucent design in paper which serves as a distinguishing
characteristics of a document made by dandy role
a. Wire mark
b. Skid mark
c. Watermark
d. Oil mark
132. Through this, the writer’s possible nationality could be established or determined
a. System of Writing
b. Copy book form
c. Writing movement
d. Writing form
133. Handwriting identification is based on the examination of…
a. Writing characteristics
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 b. Writing motion/movement
c. Writing instrument and materials
d. Writing condition
134. He wrote the book “Suspect documents”
a. William Harrison
b. Albert Osborn
c. Ordway Hilton
d. Henry Mill
135. Considered as the focal point of document examination and it is where the document
examiner relies as to the determination of the appropriate examination and the extent of the
problem involved.
a. Questioned document c. Exemplar
b. Standard document d. Evidential document
136. Process of repairing defects found along the line of writing
a. Retouching
b. Retracing
c. Altering
d. Correcting
137. Most common problem encountered in document examination by its practitioners are
those concerning.
a. Origin c. Authorship
b. Counterfeit d. Alteration of content
138. Handwriting examination to determine one’s personality or character.
a. Calligraphy c. Cacography
b. Chromatography d. Graphology
139. Paper: Wood pulp fibers
Parchment: ____________
a. Recycled paper
b. Animal skin
c. Vegetables fiber
d. Clay tablet
140. Writing proficiency is…
a. Movement c. Skill
b. Rhythm d. Speed
141. Use for obliterating writing
a. Ink eradicator c. Sympathetic ink
b. Superimposing ink d. Invisible ink
142. Which of the following f – numbers will help prevent film’s “over exposure” when
photographing under excessive source of light
a. F5.6 c. F8
b. F22 d. F 16
143. DSLR stands for _____________
a. Data Single Lens Reflex c. Digital Single Lens Reflex
b. Double Single Lens Reflex d. Decimal Single Lens Reflex
144. The dispersion of varying colors of light travelling in different speed as it enter through
the lens
a. Distortion c. Chromatic aberration
b. Curvature of field d. Astigmatism
145. A lens with a variable focal length is a zoom lens, which one is a zoom lens?
a. 25mm c. 50 mm
b. 25 – 75 mm d. 200 mm
146. Flash unit intended for close – up photography
a. Ring flash c. On camera flash
b. Umbrella flash d. Off camera flash
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 147. The withholding of exposure time on a specific area of the photographic paper
a. Intensification c. Dodging
b. Burning – in d. Cropping
148. A condition in which too little amount of light reaches the film
a. Under develop
b. Over develop
c. Under exposure
d. Over exposure
149. The following are continuous radiation type of light sources except…
a. Incandescent lamp c. Photoflood lamp
b. Flash unit d. Fluorescent lamp
150. Ideal lighting required in photography
a. Back lighting c. Front lighting
b. Top/above lighting d. Below/under lighting
151. How many parts does a camera generally have with all the others treated as
accessories?
a. 4 c. 5
b. 6 d. 3
152. Its sensitivity does not include the colors of visible light
a. Infra – red film c. Orthochromatic film
b. Panchromatic film d. Blue – sensitive
153. F4 will admit how many times, more light than F11?
a. Two times c. Six times
b. Four times d. Eight times
154. The undeveloped sensitized material is called…
a. Film c. Negative
b. Photograph d. Positive print
155. In order to remove the chemicals brought about by fixation process on the film, it
should be subjected to…
a. Acetic acid washing c. Stop bath
b. Running water d. Hypo bath
156. The time development of photographic paper
a. 1 ½ minutes c. 20 – 30 minutes
b. 30 seconds d. 6 – 7 minutes
157. The distance that the lens can move away or towards the film from which the
photographic image will still be in acceptable focus
a. Focal length c. Depth of focus
b. Depth of field d. Focal distance
158. Refers to a reduced photograph
a. Photomicrograph c. Macrograph
b. Micrograph d. Milligraph
159. “Angle of view” and image size are controlled by…
a. Lens aperture c. Shutter speed
b. Lens focal length d. Both a and c
160. Refers to the science, application and practice of creating durable images which can aid
investigations
a. Sketching c. Photography
b. Painting d. Drawing
161. Basic consideration when using a flash unit
a. Perspective
b. Parallax
c. Synchronization
d. Light intensity
162. It gives the “enlarger” an upright appearance
a. Elevating Knob
b. Bellows
c. Vertical column
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 d. Focusing Knob
163. A lens with a focal length less than the diagonal measurement of the negative material
a. Wide c. Normal
b. Telephoto d. Zoom
164. Is a type of an artificial light which makes sympathetic ink visible
a. Ultra- violet c. Infrared
b. Transparent light d. Oblique light
165. Why must the taking of photograph from an unusual camera position in crime
photography be avoided?
a. It distorts the focus c. It distorts the magnification
b. It distorts the perspective d. It distorts the texture
166. In photographing the scene of the crime, what view should be used in order to show the
best feature of the nature of the crime scene
a. Medium c. Close-up
b. General d. Extreme close-up
167. Laser light is also referred to as
a. Ultra violet c. Visible
b. Coherent d. Heat
168. When one uses a photographic filter in taking a photograph he is actually ______ light
rays or color from the light to reach the film
a. Adding c. Subtracting
b. Multiplying d. Dividing
169. A type of lighting conditions at which object in open space cast a transparent shadow
(bluish) caused by thin clouds covering the sun
a. Hazy sunlight c. Bright sunlight
b. Dull sunlight d. None
170. What photo paper according to its chemical content is best suited for police
photography
a. Chloride paper c. Chloro-bromide
b. Bromide paper d. Iodide
171. Is a lens defect, which enables the lens to focus both horizontal and vertical lines in a
plane at the same time
a. Coma c. Chloro-bromide
b. Astigmatism d. Potassium bromide
172. There are how many layers of emulsion can be found in color print film
a. 10 c. 8
b. 3 d. 12
173. Shutter speed setting at which the shutter remains open as long as the shutter release is
depressed and closed as soon as the release returns to its normal position
a. T-setting c. X- setting
b. B-setting d. A – setting
174. When photographing a crime scene with very narrow space this is the lens that should
be used
a. Magnifying lens c. Normal lens
b. Wide-angle lens d. Telephoto lens
175. Before the introduction of lens, it is the one responsible for image formation among the
early versions of camera obscura
a. Mirror c. Tracing paper
b. Pinhole d. Artist
176. Which of the following focal length will provide more depth of field in the photograph?
a. 35mm c. 25mm
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 b. 30mm d. 100mm
177. What is the function of the film in the camera?
a. Image recording c. Image formation
b. Prevention of unwanted exposure d. Image development
178. It is a device used in measuring the intensity of light as a basis for the correct setting for
the allowance of photographic rays
a. Rangefinder c. Exposure meter
b. Synchronizer d. Flash units
179. The first photograph was produced by Joseph Nicephore Niepce through the process he
named _________
a. Calotype c. Heliograph
b. Daguerreo type d. Wet collodian
180. In the co – incident image type of focusing, when the image is out of focus it appears…
a. Blurred c. Cut into half
b. Sharp d. Doubled image
181. A color that reflects all colors of light
a. White c. Black
b. Blue d. Gray
182. Which of the following is not a factor that affects the intensity/brightness of light?
a. Power source
b. Temperature
c. Medium from which the light passes through
d. Distance that the light travels
183. A curtain with slots of various widths located immediately in front of the film in which
the movement of any slots across the film provides exposure when the release button is pressed
a. Before the lens shutter c. Focal plane shutter
b. Central plane shutter d. After the lens shutter
184. The chemical used in development that “accelerates” the developing solution
a. Sodium carbonate c. Sodium sulfite
b. Elon or hydroquinone d. Potassium bromide
185. In police photography, all perishable articles or objects that can be used as evidence can
be ___
a. Preserved c. Identified
b. Substituted d. Stored
186. Black out photography is called ______
a. Infrared photography c. Macro photography
b. Microphotography d. Ultra violet photography
187. The two lenses that are usually used in crime scene photography
a. Wide and telephoto lens c. Normal and wide angle lens
b. Zoom and telephoto lens d. Normal and telephoto lens
188. A type of filter used to reduce or eliminate reflections on highly reflective surface
a. Polarizing filters c. Contrast filter
b. Haze filter d. Color-correction filter
189. Which lens is ideal for surveillance work since it will allow you to watch your subject
even from a great distance?
a. 25mm c. 50mm
b. 100mm d. 28mm
190. A celluloid or glass coated sheet with an emulsion of silver halides which retains latent
image when exposed to light
a. Film c. Photo paper
b. Negative d. Photograph
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 191. The part of the camera design for image composition
a. Lens c. Viewing system
b. Film d. Shutter
192. Which of the following best describes the main feature of the “Calotype”
a. It utilizes “mercury” vapor in fixing the photographic image
b. It utilizes “collodian” in affixing light sensitive materials
c. The camera used is equip with flexible rolled films
d. It utilizes paper in the production of its negatives
193. The part of the eye that is actually sensitive to light
a. Iris c. Pupil
b. Lens d. Retina
194. The first use of photography for police investigative work is for
a. Identification
b. Recording
c. Preservation
d. Presentation
195. The inability of the camera to record completely the photographic scene from the
viewfinder is caused by…
a. Lens defect c. Parallax error
b. Image distortion d. Error in reciprocity
196. What lens shall be used to effectively photograph a room where a murder took place
a. Wide angle c. Telephoto
b. Macro d. Photomicro
197. A complimentary colors of light that is a mixture or combinations of green and red
colors
a. Green
b. Cyan
c. Magenta
d. Yellow
198. Which of the following has the finest grains?
a. ASA 100
b. ASA 200
c. ASA 400
d. Any of the above
199. The one who introduced the first system of classification of fingerprints
a. Sir William Herschel c. JC Meyer
b. Herman Welcker d. Johannes E. Furkenje
200.Study of the soles of the feet
a. Podoscopy c. Poroscopy
b. Chairoscopy d. Dactyloscopy
201.The following fingers are rolled away from the body of the subject when taken
a. All fingers except the thumb c. Both thumbs
b. All fingers d. both thumbs and index finger
202.Metal or plane glass where the ink is distributed
a. Fingerprint cardholder c. Ink slab
b. Fingerprint brush d. Fingerprint roller
203.A cardinal rule in taking fingerprint is that, the finger must be completely…
a. Healthy c. Dry and clean
b. Moist d. Healed from injury
204.The fingerprint pattern with 2 deltas and circuiting ridge which maybe spiral or oval
a. Plain whorl c. Central pocket loop whorl
b. Ulnar loop d. Double loop whor
205.*It is the process of placing under each pattern the letter symbol representing their pattern interpretation
a. Identification c. Blocking
b. Tracing d. Classification

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 206.In fingerprint classification the diagonal mark (/) means…
a. Right hand ulnar c. Left hand ulnar
b. Left hand radial d. a and b are correct
207.Contaminated Fingerprints are those…
a. Impressed on soft surface c. Deformed patterns
b. Deposited by foreign visible substance d. Whose owner is affected by disease
208.The classification placed at the extreme left of the of the fingerprint card.
a. Key division c. Major division
b. Primary division d. Final division
209.The ridge is so thin or fine which is not included in ridge counting even it has been crossed by imaginary
line
a. Ending ridge c. Incipient ridge
b. Intervening ridge d. Enclosure
210.The suspect was found guilty for murder since his fingerprint was found at the murder weapon. What
principle of fingerprint can be applied in the case?
a. Fingerprint remains unchanged throughout the life of a person
b. No two persons have identical fingerprints
c. Fingerprint is the most practical means of identification
d. Fingerprints will always be left at the scene of the crime
211.It means that the fingerprint cannot be changed and a reliable positive means of identification
a. Principle of individuality c. Principle of permanency
b. Principle of infalliability d. Principle of variation
212.The first Filipino fingerprint technician
a. Isabela Bernales c. Agustin Patricio
b. Generoso Reyes d. Flaviano Guerrero
213.*A type of whorl tracing where the ridges goes inside or above the right delta with three or more
intervening ridges
a. Inner c. Outer
b. Meeting d. Center
214.It is at this age that the pubic hair starts to appear
a. 13 – 14 c. 12
b. 16 – 18 d. 16 – 17
215.The approximate distance that a person who are almost stranger can be recognized
a. 16 – 17 yards c. 100 yards
b. 10 – 13 yards d. 25 yards
216.A case of person with an extra finger
a. Temporary deformities c. Deformities
b. Permanent disabilities d. Deficiency
217.The friction Ridge pattern of a fingerprint is established by the
a. Dermis
b. Sweat pores
c. Dermal Papillae
d. Sweat gland
218.It is how the individual characteristics of the fingerprint is generated for purpose of identification
a. Ridge Counting and Tracing
b. Positioning and presence of Delta and core
c. Type and location of Ridge Characteristics
d. Ridge Patterns
219. Once the latent print was made visible, it should be preserved by _______
a. photography c. brushing
b. developing latent print d. lifting the impression
220.If an imaginary line drawn between two deltas of a whorl pattern touches any of the spiral ridges, the
pattern is classified as a/an…
a. Plain
b. Central Pocket
c. Double Loop
d. Accidental
221. Suppose during the pre – test interview, the subject admitted that he regularly uses a certain drug for
medication. Upon hearing this, what do you think should the examiner do?
a. Verify if the subject is lying through polygraph test
b. Verify if the subject is really in the influence of such drug through the assistance of a medical
practitioner
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 c. Re – schedule the subject and instruct him not to take the drug one day before the exam
d. Ask what kind of drug is it and verify if it can affects the subject’s psycho – physiological response
222.You are requested to conduct polygraph test to a subject for determining his possible involvement,
participation and whatever knowledge he posses about the crime under investigation. What type of exam
will you prefer
1. Multi – facet
2. Single issue
3. Diagnostic

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
223. German physiologist who invented the kymograph in the 1840s and it was the first device that monitors
blood pressure
a. John Larson c. Charles Ludwig
b. Vorga Ludwig d. Carl Ludwig
224.The suspect’s counsel argued that his client is suffering from a certain form of mental illness. To prove
this, he is willing to subject his client to polygraph test. If you are the examiner will you agree to act on it?
a. Yes, because polygraph examination is a reliable method of determining truth and deception on
cases involving lies
b. Yes, since polygraph examination can verify lies regardless of issues
c. No, the subject being a mentally retarded is unfit
d. No, because polygraph machine is not a diagnostic instrument for medical application
225.Which is not a characteristic of an irrelevant question
a. It does not threaten the subject
b. It is with the same nature with that of the relevant question
c. The true answer is both known to the subject and examiner
d. Use to establish the subject’s normal response
226.Which of these classifications of tracing should be given scores during analysis and interpretation?
a. Average tracings
b. Reaction tracing
c. Distortion
d. Relief
227.Which of the following is NOT John Reid’s accomplishment?
a. Introduced control questions
b. Introduced relevant - irrelevant questions
c. Introduced movement activity (muscular resistance) sensor to polygraph machine
d. Introduced guilt complex test
228.Cardio vascular activity is one of the physical responses that is recorded, measured and collected by the
polygraph machine. The work of the following individuals greatly contributes in its development except
for…
a. Veraguth
b. Mosso
c. Marston
d. Lombroso
229.The examiner includes relevant, irrelevant and control questions in his test. What polygraph technique is
he utilizing
a. General Question Test
b. Relevant/Irrelevant Test
c. Guilt Complex Test
d. Peak of the Tension Test
230.A component of polygraph machine which records blood pressure and pulse rate
a. Kymograph c. Cardiosphymograph
b. Galvanograph d. Pneumograph
231.Dr. William Marston introduced the “discontinuous blood pressure method” of detecting deception. In
which blood pressure readings were repeatedly taken from the subject…
a. Before each of the question is ask
b. After each of the question has been asked and answered
c. Before the question was ask an after it was answered
d. Before and after the completion of the test
232.Which of the following is not true about the capability of James Mackezie’s Ink polygrapgh
a. It was used for lie detection
b. It was used for diagnostic medical examination

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 c. It has paper rolling mechanism for chart recording
d. It records cardio vascular activity
233.How will you describe an “overly responsive” subject
a. Those who comply with the instruction of the examiner
b. Those who shows passive resistance in the conduct of examination
c. Those who responded on question design for guilty and truthful subject
d. Those whose physiological responses were accurately recorded by the polygraph machine
234.What kind of polygraph test is ideal to conduct for the subject described in # 233?
a. General Question Test
b. Relevant/Irrelevant questions
c. Peak of the Tension
d. Guilt Complex Test
235.He devised an instrument called “Bread Board Lie Detector” that can record the changes of blood
pressure, pulse beat and respiration simultaneously
a. Cesare Lombroso c. William Maulton Marston
b. Angelo Mosso d. John Larson
236.The accuracy of polygraph examination result will ultimately depend on…
a. Subject’s degree of cooperation
b. Examiner’s competency
c. Machine’s functionality
d. Completeness of the facts of the case
237.There are how many phases/stages that polygraph examination has?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
238.This is conducted for the purpose of obtaining confession or an admission from the subject once
deception is observed
a. Initial interview c. Post – test interview
b. Pre – test interview d. instrumentation
239. An American interrogation specialist and polygraph expert for the CIA who devised the Backster Zone
Comparison Test
a. Cleve Backster c. John Backster
b. Steve Backster d. Charles Backster
240.One of the activities involves in the conduct of pre – test interview is to get the subject’s personal profile.
Why is this necessary?
a. For proper identification of the subject
b. To determine the subject’s fitness for the examination
c. To ensure voluntariness on his part
d. To know the facts of the case
241.“Did you rape Rosanna”? is what type of question?
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Irrelevant d. Unknown questions
242.Which of the following best explains the “mechanical leg” premise of the tripod foundation of polygraphy

1. Polygraph provides graphical recordings of subject’s physiological responses

2. Polygraph can record physiological responses that occurs automatically when a specific nervous system was
stimulated
3. That the physiological response recorded by polygraph machine is triggered by involuntary emotional
process

a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 only
d. 3 and 4
243.Which of the following is a “secondary” type of chart markings
a. X
b. XX
c. Y
d. /
244.An ancient method of detecting deception practice in Bengal India
a. Boiling water ordeal c. Red – hot iron ordeal
b. Ordeal of balance d. Ordeal of heat and fire

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 245.If two or more examiners apart from the one who conducted the actual examination are analyzing the
completed charts one at a time, what they are doing is…
a. Open chart analysis
b. Blind chart analysis
c. Close chart analysis
d. Peer Evaluation of Polygrams (PEP)
246.The force or motion reaching any organism that excite or causes reaction to body receptors
a. Stimulus c. Response
b. Excitement d. Arousal
247.The type of question designed to established responses from an innocent subject
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Irrelevant d. Knowledge
248.Which of the following components should be attached last?
a. Pneumograph c. Galvanograph
b. Cardiosphymograph d. Kymograph
249. The blood pressure when the heart is relaxed
a. Systolic
b. Diastolic
c. Anabolic
d. A and b are correct
250.The Kymograph drives the chart under the pen at the rate of 5 seconds per vertical chart division. How
many vertical division will it consume for a period of 1 minute
a. 12
b. 50
c. 300
d. 65
251.“Sacrifice relevant” question introduces the relevant question. Which among the following is an example
of it
a. Do you believe me when I promise not to ask question in this test that I have not gone over word
for word?
b. Regarding the (matter being investigated) are you willing to answer all the questions truthfully
c. Did you (participation in the commission of the crime)?
d. Although I promise I would not, are you afraid I will ask a question in this test which we have not
reviewed?
252.A tracing caused by examinee’s unnecessary movement
a. Recovery
b. Response
c. Artifacts
d. Phasic response
253.In the conduct of polygraph test, which serves as the main stimulus
a. Polygraph instrument
b. Interrogation room
c. Questions being asked
d. Polygraph examiner
254.Polygraphy is a type of
a. Scientific interrogation c. Instrumental interrogation
b. Investigative interrogation d. Technical interrogation
255.If the polygraph test correctly determines truth and deception, therefore it is…
a. Generalizable
b. Reliable
c. Valid
d. Acceptable
256.All requires the physical presence of the subject except one.
a. Phase I c. Phase II
b. Phase III d. Phase IV
257.Consists of “strong” and “weak” questions
a. Relevant c. Knowledge
b. Evidence connecting d. Controlled
258. Here the examination briefly explains to the subject what the tracing indicates for every chart taken
a. Initial interview
b. Chart probing
c. Stimulation test
d. Test Data Analysis
259.Which of the following does not measures subject’s physiological responses?
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 a. Kymograph c. Cardiosphymograph
b. Galvanograph d. Pneumograph
260.In this test the subject’s responses among set of choices is the focus of evaluation and analysis
a. General Question Test
b. Guilt Complex Test
c. Peak of the Tension Test
d. Silent Answer Test
261. Still connected with no. 260, the item among the choices from which the examiner expects physiological
reaction from a guilty subject is called?
a. Key
b. Relevant
c. Buffer
d. Determiners
262. “Is your name Jaimee Ann Carinosa?” is what kind of a question?
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Irrelevant d. Sacrifice relevant
263.Which of these/this is/are expectedly to be answered by “yes” by the subject?
a. Sacrifice relevant c. Introductory
b. Irrelevant d. Any of the given answer
264.Which of the following is/are not given quantitative value (score) during chart analysis and interpretation?
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Irrelevant d. Any of the given answer
265. “Apnea” and “blocking” are responses that maybe detected by this sensor
a. Kymograph c. Cardiosphymograph
b. Galvanograph d. Pneumograph
266.When the tracing on the chart shows an upward movement from the base line with subsequent return to
the original base line, such is…
a. Phasic response
b. Tonic response
c. Response amplitude
d. Response duration
267.A test use to determine subject’s responsiveness to the machine and considered an excluded activity of
the formal instrumental test
a. Stimulation test c. Post – test
b. Pre – test d. Deception test
268. “Before this year, did you ever violate traffic law?” is what kind of a question?
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Irrelevant d. Sacrifice relevant
269.Questions to be asked to the subject…
a. Should be reviewed and clarified to him/her prior to the test
b. Should be made known to the subject only during examination
c. Should be communicated with the subject for approval prior to questioning
d. Should be discussed with him only after the end of the test
270.If the subject gave a “yes” answer to the question, what marking should the examiner indicate on the
chart?
a. +
b. –
c. /
d. X
271.Polygraph component represented by the longest pen on the chart system
a. Kymograph c. Cardiosphymograph
b. Galvanograph d. Pneumograph
272.In the conduct of “spot – analysis”, responses from the red and green questions are compared. What are
these questions?
a. Relevant is red, Control is green
b. Relevant is green, Control is red
c. Relevant is red, Irrelevant is green
d. Relevant is green, Irrelevant is red

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 273. Polygraph component that can graphically records movement of the heart and radial pulse
a. Cardiosphymograph c. Galvanograph
b. Pneumograph d. Kymograph
274.In the numerical scoring of chart analysis, responses in this question shall be provided with negative
scores
a. Relevant
b. Irrelevant
c. Control
d. Relevant and control
275.Deceptive examinee passed the test
a. False negative c. False Positive
b. Inconclusive d. Deceptive
276.Chart probing is performed or conducted…
a. After the actual test c. After the post test
b. Every after taking each chart d. Before the actual test
277.After informing the subject of his right against self incrimination, the examinee voluntarily agreed to be
polygraphed. However, in the middle of the instrumental test, the subject requested to withdraw his
previously given consent and asked to be released. If you’re the examiner, will you grant his request?
a. No, because he had signed already the consent and that is already binding
b. No, because it is obvious that the subject is finding ways to escape possible detection
c. No. because he was informed properly and clearly before the exam about this matter, and the
examination is not a trial and error process
d. Yes, because it is his right to do so
278.The test designed to determine the tracing reflected on the machine as the subject responded about
unpublicized knowledge known only to the victim, investigator and the possible perpetrator
a. Card Number Test
b. Peak of Tension Test
c. Guilt Complex Test
d. Mixed Question Test
279.The possible “race” of an unknown homicide victim can be established by combination of, or any of the
following except…
a. Color of the skin c. Feature of the face
b. Shape of the skull d. Deformities
280.Which of the following results to complete/total cessation of body vital functions?
a. State of suspended animation c. Somatic/Clinical
b. Mollecular death d. None of the above
281.This can best establish the original position of the cadaver in relation to the floor or ground from where
the body lies
a. Cadaveric spasm c. Livor Mortis
b. Rigor Mortis d. Putrefaction
282.Within this period, the contusion is said to change its color to green
a. 4 – 5 days c. 14th – 15th days
b. 7 – 10 days d. 1 – 4 weeks
283.Wounds characterized by the removal of the skin’s superficial layer brought about by friction against hard
surface
a. Contusion c. Abrasion
b. Dislocation d. Sprain
284.Injury caused by sharp edge instrument
a. Incised wound c. Punctured wound
b. Stab wound d. Lacerated wound
285. “Singeing” is caused by…
a. Bullet hit c. Gun powder residue
b. Smoke of the firearm discharge d. Flame from the firearm discharge
286. A disorder in the central nervous system in which abnormal brain activity causes seizures and sometimes
loss of awareness
a. Cataplexy c. Schizophrenia
b. Epilepsy d. Catatonia
287.A form of violent death which results primarily from the interferences of respiration process or to
condition in which the supply of oxygen to the blood or tissue introduces cessation
a. Death by asphyxia c. Death from coma

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 b. Death from syncope d. Death by change of atmospheric pressure
288.Describe as the “zig zag” fashion of walking
a. Direction line c. Gait line
b. Foot line d. Foot angle
289.A method of administering poison rubbed into and absorbed through the skin
a. Orally c. Intramuscularly
b. Endodermically d. Hypodermically
290.Scorpion sting is represented by…
a. 2 puncture wounds c. 2 or more puncture wounds
b. A puncture wound d. Coelenterate sting
291.The deliberate and painless acceleration of death of a person usually suffering from an incurable and
distressing disease
a. Euthanasia c. Suicide
b. Judicial death d. Artomatism
292.A wound from which the object or instrument that caused it can be inferred
a. Patterned wound c. Self inflicted wound
b. Defense wound d. Perforating wound
293.Refers to physical injury found at the site of the application force
a. Coup c. Coup Contre – Coup
b. Contre – coup d. “Locus Minoris Resistencia”
294.Incised wound inflicted below the adam’s apple, from which weapon is absent and the dead body’s hand
is clean
a. Homicidal c. Accidental
b. Suicidal d. Clinical/medical
295.The whole skin is destroyed with formation of slough which is yellowish brown or parchment like
a. 1st degree c. 3rd degree
nd
b. 2 degree d. 4th degree
296.A condition of muscle contraction found in dead bodies which have been subjected to heat
a. Heat rupture c. Heat stroke
b. Heat stiffening d. Heat exhaustion
297.A term use to describe laceration or rupture of the hymen as a result of sexual intercourse
a. Superficial c. Complete
b. Deep d. Defloration
298.Identification of person make through the process of elimination
a. Exclusion
b. Comparison
c. Scientific Means
d. Ordinary Means
299.Possession of vagina and pennis
a. Conclusive evidence of gender
b. Inconclusive evidence of gender
c. Highly probable evidence of gender
d. Presumptive evidence of gender
300.What is the proper way of preserving and recording of the following; skin lesion, penetrating wounds,
hymeneal laceration and person
a. Description
b. Manikin method
c. Recollection
d. Special methods

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