CountDown Mock 9

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Countdown Mock 09 (CLAT) 2024
English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 25: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage – 1
After decades of declining numbers, bankruptcies and privatization, Israel's kibbutz movement is
undergoing a remarkable revival, with rising numbers wanting to join the unique form of collective
living.
The population of about 143,000 is the highest in its 102-year history, after growth of 20% between
2005 and 2010, according to the official Kibbutz Movement. More people are now joining kibbutzim
than leaving a reversal of the crisis years and the influx of working-age adults and young children is
helping to redress the balance of an ageing population.
Most kibbutzim have implemented reforms to become commercially viable and stem decline.
Liberalization including permitting differential incomes and home ownership has increased their
attractiveness to newcomers reluctant to commit to pure communal principles.
Only about 60 of Israel's 275 kibbutzim still operate a completely collective model, in which all
members are paid the same regardless of their allotted job. Most of the rest have introduced wage
differentials for people employed by the kibbutz but, more importantly, many members now work
outside the kibbutz and contribute a proportion of their salaries to the collective.
Other measures have included selling kibbutz businesses, charging for meals and services, and
recruiting agricultural laborers from Southeast Asia. The changes, necessary for survival, have been
painful, particularly for a generation of kibbutz pioneers wedded to a socialist-Zionist dream.
Increasing numbers of families are attracted to kibbutz living by the quality of education, environment,
space and security. But, according to Amikam Osem, a member of Kibbutz Afikim near the Sea of
Galilee for 50 years after marrying a kibbutznik, the most important reason was a sense of community.
This is the principle of kibbutz life: mutual help and responsibility for each other. A kibbutz, he said,
was like an orchestra with people playing different parts but together we create something meaningful.
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In the last two years, Afikim's membership has increased from 500 to 600, and there is now a waiting
list of people wanting to join. Many are the children of members, wishing to raise their own families in
a co-operative environment. Others have never previously lived on a kibbutz.
Afikim operates a progressive taxation system: the more you earn, the more you pay into the
collective fund. There is a safety net minimum income for all, and the kibbutz subsidizes healthcare,
education, social needs and care for the elderly. The kibbutz owns and runs several successful
businesses, plus dairy and fish farms, and grows dates, bananas, avocados and olives on its land.
The heavily subsidized dining room at the heart of the kibbutz is open every day for lunch, and twice a
week in the evenings.
Before being accepted as members with full voting rights, candidates rent homes on the kibbutz. Most
members now own their own homes, which can be bequeathed to their children or sold back to the
collective. Occasionally a candidate family decides that kibbutz life is not for them; sometimes the
kibbutz admissions committee rejects candidates as unsuitable. Those with criminal records, a history
of financial mismanagement or antisocial behavior are not invited to join.
Here in the kibbutz, we are not neighbours, we are partners, says Osem. The kibbutz movement is in
a process of change in which there are many different directions. But the thing that unites all kibbutzim
is mutual responsibility.
Q 1. 30405650 Which of the following is not a problem faced by the kibbutz's movement in the past?
a) b) Economic failure of the collective living model

Dwindling participation in the kibbutz way of life c)
An age ratio skewed in favor of the older
generation
d)
Lack of support from the government for the
Kibbutz movement
Q 2. 30405650 Which of the following is an appropriate title for the passage?
a) The Revival of Israel's Kibbutz Movement: A Return to Collective Living
b) The Challenges and Successes of Israel's Kibbutz Movement
c) The Transition from Socialism to Commercial Viability in Israeli Kibbutzim

d) The Growing Attraction of Kibbutz Living: A Sense of Community and Partnership
Q 3. 30405650 Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
a)
After its remarkable revival, the kibbutz movement is shaping up to be what its founders had planned.
b)
The revival of the kibbutz way of life has been driven by the increasing commercial viability of the
kibbutz settlements.
c) Change, even when for the better, is necessarily painful.

d) The kibbutz experience proves that collective living is a defunct model.
Q 4. 30405650 Which of the following best defines the term "liberalization" as used in the passage?
a) The process of implementing economic reforms to make kibbutzim commercially viable

b) The shift towards individual ownership and external employment in kibbutzim
c) The increasing attractiveness of kibbutz living to newcomers
d) The sense of community and partnership within kibbutzim
Q 5. 30405650 Which figure of speech is used in the following sentence from the passage?
"A kibbutz, he said, was like an orchestra with people playing different parts 'but together we create
something meaningful.'"
a) Simile b) Metaphor c) Hyperbole d) Personification
Passage – 2
In its literal definition, power is the ability to control and influence others for a cause. Power is all-
pervasive, it permeates every sense of our being, it comes in many forms: Money power, muscle
power, profile power, chair power, academic power, bureaucratic power, networking power, market
power, purchasing power, ego power and tech power. In physics, power is the rate of doing work. In
metaphysics, it's about a human's control over her thoughts and feelings. Post-Covid, power, for many
of us, has got reshaped in terms of vulnerability. In all this noise over power, we miss five of its
aspects that lie at the heart of who we are as Indians.
Spiritual power: For Socrates, power comes with the control and order of one's body and soul - the
discipline to act justly, live virtuously. The citizen should be more powerful than the consumer. For
Vivekananda, the spirit of unification of soul and body or Advait makes a person powerful. For
Mahatma Gandhi, we cannot understand the meaning of power until we are aware of the enlightened
self. That can only be done by reduction of self-centeredness - the power of a genuine sense of
humility, that comes from becoming aware of the power of the inner self.
The power of family: Becoming a parent or a member of a family is an act of interconnectedness, of

our selves being linked to others. The source of power in a family is affection and gratitude, respect
and caring. Parents derive power not just from addressing the material needs of children but by
playing the guardian - one who provides moral and emotional, physical and material support. A
powerful family is one where the child sees the parent as a benchmark of goodness, where she
doesn't need to look elsewhere for the light and to understand what the right thing is. Japan's Prime
Minister Fumio Kishida sacked his eldest son as aide amid public outcry over the latter's use of the
leader's official residence for a private party. Former New Zealand Prime Minister Jacinda Ardern left
the chair for her family responsibilities. By one's conduct at the family level, both imbued power with a
sense of ethics and being good.
The power of caring: Assumptions of authority and imperatives of governance seriously detract from
the spirit of power. Power should define a relationship not by asking the question, "Who are you?", but
by asking, "How are you?". When the person in power relates to others through this question, only
then can he be a true leader. How those in authority relate to those who are powerless defines power
and its limits. In a democracy, that means listening to and addressing the needs and aspirations of all
- those on the margins and also those who may not have voted to bring you to power. This is the
power of caring, it transcends party lines and term limits. It is the power that endures.
Q 6. 30405650 What does the passage suggest about power in the post-Covid era?
a) Power has become more concentrated in the hands of a few individuals.
b) Power has undergone a transformation and is now associated with vulnerability.
c) Power has lost its significance and is no longer relevant.

d) Power has become more competitive and cutthroat.
Q 7. 30405650 Which of the following options captures the meaning of the last sentence best?
a) The power of caring is limited to specific political parties.
b) The power of caring transcends political affiliations and time limits.
c) The power of caring is defined by authority and governance.
d) The power of caring is irrelevant in a democratic system.
Q 8. 30405650 What does the word 'vulnerability' as used in the passage, mean?
a) The state of being weak or defenseless. b) The ability to control and influence others.
c) The act of reshaping power. d) The significance and relevance of power.
Q 9. 30405650 Which of the following would the author agree to be the ideal responsibility of 'Power'?
a) Exercising control and dominance over others.
b) Providing material support and addressing the needs of children.
c) Acting justly and living virtuously.

d) Defining relationships based on authority and governance.
Q 10. 30405650 Why does the author mention 'guardian' in the passage?
a) To highlight the role of parents' style of exercising power.
b) To emphasize the need for strong leadership in a post-Covid era.
c) To illustrate the power dynamics within a family.
d) To suggest the importance of hierarchical structures in society.
Passage – 3
SEZs are probably one of those areas in the public eye where angels fear to tread, although everyone
has an opinion on it. They have dominated our thinking for the last couple of years, beginning with
POSCO located in the tribal areas of Orissa and more recently, Nandigram in southern West Bengal.
By and large, activists have come out strongly against SEZs because they displace living
communities and push them into a life of deprivation and want. On the other hand, governments,
industry and finance institutions are strongly in favor.
Not only is the situation complex, but the battle lines are also so rigidly drawn that there is ample
scope for misunderstanding. First, let us not confuse SEZs located in tribal regions with those in non-
tribal parts of India. The cultures, needs, lifestyles, expectations, and consequently, behavioral
patterns of the two are markedly different. In a nutshell, tribals share a symbiotic relationship with their
lands, particularly their forests, which we most certainly do not. By linking the two types of
communities we do not draw on their strength; instead, we weaken the case for tribal people.
Even in non-tribal areas, the situation does not seem to be a simple and clear-cut division of those for
and against. To put it differently, it is difficult to classify them merely by their caste, class and
occupation. In many cases, SEZs are coming up in accordance with the wishes of the local
community. Maggarpatta city in Pune district, Maharashtra has come up because 120 families from
that village took the initiative and decided to develop their lands into an integrated township. The
original owners continue to receive part of the income generated by the township. This has been
widely talked about as a model of inclusive development. Why are such cases occurring? Are we, as
activists, not reading the signals, right?
Perhaps we can learn best from the latest example, Goa. It is worth recalling that when activists
appealed to tourists to avoid Goa during Christmas and declared a ban on all Christmas festivities in
protest against the government plan to set up 15 SEZs, it was the ordinary people who objected. This
was because the tourist trade is vitally important to their livelihood. In the 1970s, those very people
were bitterly opposed to tourists because they spoilt Goa. Now they cannot do without them. One is
reminded of Disraeli who said something like todays radical being tomorrows conservative. The
activists backed down and postponed their protest till after the New Year. So did the government. The
chief minister declared that no SEZ would be set up in Goa, some to stop in the planning stage itself,
while others where work has begun would be de-notified.
Now there is trouble on two fronts. The central government is in two minds about the provision for de-
notifying SEZs, but Kamal Nath, the Union minister for commerce and industry sees no difficulty in de-
notifying for, he says, which industry would like to go in against peoples wishes? This is the first time
that people have counted in the process of land acquisition and macro planning.
There are two separate and seemingly contradictory lessons to be learnt from Goa. First, activists
may not always represent the people. So, go slow on the opposition. Second, if the idea behind a SEZ
is to convert land to non-agricultural use and provide non-agrarian employment, Goa has done it
already by having a sizeable tourist industry and absorbing people in the non-agrarian sector. Hotels,
transport, restaurants, entertainment, tourist attractions, ethnic shopping, singing and dancing,
swimming and the like are available to suit different sized pockets. Local fish, feni and fiestas are
much in demand. It now even beckons visitors during the torrential monsoons due to imaginative
promotion by the state tourism department. Goa has found non-agrarian employment venues without
noticeably converting farmlands to non-farm use. Indeed, the rural un-spoilt look is the main attraction.
So, go slow on SEZ!
Q 11. 30405650 According to the passage, which of the following is true?
a) Activists are universally opposed to SEZs.
b) Magarpatta city was developed when all the locals took an initiative.
c) People in Goa have always supported tourism.
d) SEZ has been a complex, contentious issue with people having divergent perspectives.
Q 12. 30405650 What is the main idea of the passage?
a)
The importance of understanding the cultural and social differences between tribal and non-tribal
communities in relation to SEZs.
b)
SESz are a complex issue and there is need to take a nuanced approach balancing the views of key
stakeholders.
c)
The need for activists to reconsider their opposition to SEZs and the potential benefits they can bring
to local communities.
d)
The case of Goa as an example of successful non-agrarian employment and the cautionary approach
towards SEZs.
Q 13. 30405650 Based on the last paragraph of the passage, what can be inferred about the impact
of SEZs on farmland in Goa?
a) SEZs in Goa have significantly converted farmland into non-farm use.
b) The presence of SEZs in Goa has had minimal impact on farmland conversion.
c)
The rural and untouched appearance of farmland in Goa has been preserved while creating signifcant
non agrarian jobs.
d) SEZs in Goa have led to a complete transformation of farmland into non-agricultural sectors.
Q 14. 30405650 Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as one of the differences
between tribal and nontribal regions?
a) Culture b) Lifestyles c) Religion d) Expectations
Q 15. 30405650 Which of the following words from the passage best captures the meaning of
"deprivation"?
a) Dominated b) Symbiotic c) Rigidly d) Want
Passage – 4
Hunger is rural - three-fourths of the world's poorest and food insecure live in rural areas. Rural
economies, specifically agriculture, have suffered from chronic under-investment. Today, low- and
middle-income countries are increasingly indebted, and global inflation and local currency
depreciation are making it challenging for them to finance their development and climate action.
Additionally, donor support for agriculture has stagnated at 4-6 per cent of total official development
assistance (ODA) for at least two decades. After peaking at US$10.8 billion in 2020, it fell 10 per cent
to US$9.9 billion in 2021. Estimates suggest that we need US$300-400 billion annually until 2030 to
transform food systems. SoSo, investment needs to grow at least 30 times!
Investing in rural agriculture makes a lot of sense for both governments and companies. For
governments, boosting local production, local food chains and local markets means global food
security, jobs and less conflict. It will also mean lower GHG emissions (agriculture is responsible for
up to 21 per cent of total emissions). For the private sector, investing in small-scale farmers should be
a win-win: Production costs are low, returns on capital are high, farmer organisations and
cooperatives have shown they can achieve economies of scale, and crop diversification can defray
risk for farms and markets.
These investments can build long-term resilience and reduce the impact of climate change and other
shocks. Every US$1 spent on resilience saves up to US$10 in emergency aid in the future. Investing
in agriculture is at least 2-3 times more effective in reducing poverty than investment in other sectors.
Yet small-scale agriculture faces many challenges. Small-scale producers still lack access to credit,
markets, technology, infrastructure, information and land. This is where multilateral development
banks and international financial institutions like the International Fund for Agricultural Development
(IFAD) can make a big difference. If we de-risk investments through innovative financial instruments
and mechanisms, we can help agriculture become the centre of growth it has the potential to be.
Q 16. 30405650 What is the key conclusion about investing in rural agriculture?
a) Investing in rural agriculture can lead to global food security and job creation.
b) Investing in rural agriculture has a minimal impact on reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
c) Investing in rural agriculture is not cost-effective compared to other sectors.
d) Investing in rural agriculture is primarily the responsibility of governments, not the private sector.
Q 17. 30405650 "Today, low- and middle-income countries are increasingly indebted, and global
inflation and local currency depreciation are making it challenging for them to finance their
development and climate action." - in elaboration of this sentence, which of these options follows?
a) These countries need to focus on reducing their dependence on agriculture.
b) The governments of these countries should prioritize investment in urban areas.
c)
The financial constraints hinder the ability of these countries to fund their development and climate
initiatives.
d)
The private sector should play a more significant role in supporting these countries' development and
climate action.
Q 18. 30405650 "If we de-risk investments through innovative financial instruments and mechanisms,
we can help agriculture become the centre of growth it has the potential to be." - Which of the
following is the most convincing conclusion from this statement?
a) Agriculture has been overlooked as a sector with significant growth potential.
b) De-risking investments in agriculture can lead to its transformation and significant growth.
c) Innovative financial instruments are ineffective in supporting the growth of the agricultural sector.
d) The potential growth of agriculture depends solely on government support.
Q 19. 30405650 ODA is an acronym for:
a) Official Development Aid b) Overseas Development Agency
c) Official Development Assistance d) Operational Development Assessment
Q 20. 30405650 "These investments can build long-term resilience and reduce the impact of climate
change and other shocks. Every US$1 spent on resilience saves up to US$10 in emergency aid in the
future. Investing in agriculture is at least 2-3 times more effective in reducing poverty than investment
in other sectors." - These sentences imply:
a) Investing in agriculture is the only effective way to reduce poverty.
b) Investments in rural agriculture have a significant impact on poverty reduction.
c) Climate change and shocks have no impact on poverty levels.
d) Emergency aid is the most effective solution for addressing poverty.
Passage – 5
The ministerial declaration issued by India, Bhutan, Nepal, and Bangladesh addressing food, water,
energy, and biodiversity concerns in the Himalayan region is a welcome initiative to protect this
biodiversity-rich mountain range. The vast area faces a variety of problems that directly affect the local
communities and threaten ecosystem services provided to millions of people in neighbouring
countries. Some of the serious issues that need urgent attention are accelerated forest loss, soil
erosion, resource degradation, and loss of habitat and biodiversity. Climate change is a major source
of worry and needs intensive study because of its potential for severe ecological damage. It is a step
forward therefore that four countries in the subcontinent convened the Climate Summit for a Living
Himalayas in Bhutan and evolved a consensus-based mitigation effort primarily for the eastern part.
The task before the signatories is to build institutions that will pursue research and share knowledge,
beginning with a centre for the study of climate change. Sustained effort is necessary to achieve the
key goals: access to reliable and affordable energy; food and water security; demarcation of
connected conservation spaces; and sustainable use of biodiversity for poverty alleviation.
The Himalayan region includes many climatic systems: tropical, sub-tropical, temperate, and alpine.
Thanks to sheer inaccessibility, this remote and difficult landscape has mostly escaped the ill-effects
of the industrial farming system, such as pesticide and insecticide use and the introduction of hybrid
or transgenic crops. Himalayan biodiversity provides a resource base for an estimated 80 million
people, mostly subsistence farmers and pastoral communities. The challenge is to provide strong
support systems to help them adapt to climate change. And yet data that can aid conservation of
biodiversity are far from comprehensive. India, for instance, acknowledged at the summit that an
inventory of the Eastern Himalayas, the target region for protection, at the level of genes, species,
ecosystem, and landscape is yet to be completed. This task can bring no delay. The Himalayas form
part of global natural heritage, and the U.N. Framework Convention on Climate Change must provide
substantial funding for research, capacity-building, and preservation. It is also important to harness
traditional knowledge and get local communities to participate in conservation programmes. A good
example of this is the protection plan for snow leopards in India's Spiti valley. The Himalaya protection
programme can achieve even more if Pakistan, China, and Afghanistan join the initiative.
Q 21. 30405650 Which of the following is the main purpose of the passage?
a) To provide a detailed description of the climatic conditions in the Himalayan region.
b) To outline the economic challenges faced by subsistence farmers in the Himalayas.
c) To discuss the potential effects of climate change on the Himalayan ecosystem.
d) To highlight the achievements of the Climate Summit for a Living Himalayas in Bhutan.
Q 22. 30405650 Which of the following is one of the key challenges mentioned in the passage
regarding the Himalayan region?
a) Lack of awareness about climate change effects
b) Inadequate funding for research and preservation
c) Insufficient availability of food and water resources
d) Limited participation of local communities in conservation efforts
Q 23. 30405650 What does the word 'biodiversity' as used in the passage, mean?
a) Mountain terrains. b) All forms of life in an area
c) Plant lives that cover Himalaya. d) Areas which need to be conserved.
Q 24. 30405650 Which of the following words from the passage refers to the process of wearing
away or removal of soil or rock by natural agents like wind or water?
a) Mitigation b) Erosion c) Degradation d) Alleviation
Q 25. 30405650 It can be inferred that the author is mainly concerned with
a) climate change in the Himalayas. b) protecting the Himalayan biodiversity.
c) d) None of the above.

Collaborative effort to protect the Himalayas
ecosystem
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1
After the constitutional changes and reorganization of the erstwhile State of Jammu-Kashmir, the
Union territories of Jammu-Kashmir and Ladakh have been fully integrated into the mainstream of the
nation. As a result, all the rights enshrined in the Constitution of India and benefits of all the Central
Laws that were being enjoyed by other citizens of the country are now available to the people of
Jammu-Kashmir and Ladakh.
The change has brought about socio-economic development in both the new UT's i.e. UT of Jammu-
Kashmir and the UT of Ladakh. Empowerment of people, removal of unjust Laws, bringing in equity
and fairness to those discriminated since ages who are now getting their due along with
comprehensive development are few of the important changes that are ushering both the new Union
Territories towards the path of peace and progress. With the conduct of elections of Panchayati Raj
Institutions such as Panches and Sarpanches, Block Development Councils and District Development
Councils, the 3-tier system of grassroot level democracy has now been established in Jammu and
Kashmir.
Q 26. 30405650 What was the main consequence of the Constitution (Application to Jammu and
Kashmir) Order, 2019, issued on August 5, 2019?
a) It revoked Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.
b) It granted Jammu and Kashmir a separate constitution.
c) It extended special privileges to the residents of Jammu and Kashmir.

d) It established a new legislative assembly for Jammu and Kashmir.
Q 27. 30405650 What was the significance of Article 35A in the context of Jammu and Kashmir?
a) It granted special powers to the President of India.

b) It allowed the Union government to amend Article 370.
c) It defined the relationship between Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
d) It conferred special rights and privileges to the permanent residents of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q 28. 30405650 How did the term "Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir" change after the
modification of Article 370?
a) It was replaced by "Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir."
b) It was expanded to include representatives from Ladakh.
c) It remained unchanged.
d) It was dissolved following the modification.
Q 29. 30405650 What is the primary argument made by the petitioners challenging the Presidential
Orders of August 5 and 6, 2019?
a) The orders violate the rights of Ladakh's residents.
b) The orders lack proper legal authorization and are unconstitutional.

c) The orders infringe upon the powers of the Indian Parliament.
d) The orders discriminate against non-residents of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q 30. 30405650 What was the main objective of Article 370 in the Indian Constitution?
a) To grant special privileges to Jammu and Kashmir.
b) To establish a separate constitution for Jammu and Kashmir.
c) To provide autonomy to Jammu and Kashmir.
d) To create a separate legislative assembly for Jammu and Kashmir.
Passage – 2
During the third India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) Summit held in Papua New Guinea, Prime
Minister Narendra Modi engaged in meetings with leaders from Pacific Island nations. On this
occasion, he unveiled a comprehensive 12-step initiative aimed at advancing India's collaborations
with the countries in the Pacific region.
"FIPIC SME Development Project, Solar project for Government buildings, Provide desalination units
for drinking water, Supply sea ambulances, Set up dialysis units, Set up of 24x7 emergency helpline,
Set up of Jan Aushadi Kendras, Set up Yoga centres," he added.
India's development partnership with Pacific Island Countries (PICs) encompasses various areas,
such as infrastructure development, with a particular emphasis on education, health, and culture.
Additionally, community development projects have involved initiatives such as refurbishing libraries
and school buildings, renovating colleges, providing IT infrastructure to educational institutions, and
establishing digital libraries.
India's involvement with these 14 nations aligns with its Act East Policy, and the country has primarily
fostered its relationships with them through developmental aid as part of South-South Cooperation. As
part of the Act East Policy, India established the Forum for FIPIC and its inaugural gathering was
convened by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Fiji in 2014. All 14 countries actively participated in this
landmark event. In 2015, the second meeting of the forum was held in Jaipur, with the participation of
all 14 countries.
Q 31. 30405650 What is the highest civilian award of Papua New Guinea, presented to the Indian
Prime Minister during the 3rd FIPIC Summit?
a) Order of the Golden Crescent b) Order of the Star of Melanesia
c) d) Order of the Rising Sun

Grand Companion of the Order of Logohu (GCL)
Q 32. 30405650 How does India's engagement with the Pacific Island Countries (PICs) align with its
vision for the Indo-Pacific region?
a) By establishing military alliances in the region.
b) By providing military aid to the Pacific Island Countries (PICs).
c) By promoting a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region.
d) By focusing solely on economic cooperation with the PICs.
Q 33. 30405650 What significant assistance did India provide to the Pacific Island Countries during
the Covid-19 pandemic?
a) Financial aid for infrastructure development. b) Military support for disaster relief efforts.
c) d)
Supply of essential medicines, vaccines, and Technological assistance for space exploration.
food.
Q 34. 30405650 Which of the following Pacific Island Countries received a line of credit worth USD
100 million from India for a solar power project?
a) Fiji b) Papua New Guinea c) Samoa d) Palau
Q 35. 30405650 What was the main objective of the 3rd FIPIC Summit held in Port Moresby, Papua
New Guinea?
a) To establish a new trade agreement between India and the Pacific Island Countries.
b) To discuss the formation of a new military alliance in the Indo-Pacific region.

c) To promote cultural exchange between India and the Pacific Island Countries.
d) To enhance India's relations with the Pacific Island Countries in various sectors.
Passage – 3
In 1973, the Government of India launched Project Tiger, an ambitious, holistic conservation project,
aimed at safeguarding the nation's tiger population and preserving biodiversity. Over the past fifty
years, Project Tiger has achieved commendable success, making significant strides in tiger
conservation. Initially covering nine tiger reserves spanning 18,278 km2, the project has flourished
into a remarkable accomplishment with 53 reserves spread across 75,796 km2, effectively covering
2.3% of India's total land area. India currently harbors almost 75% of the world's wild tiger population.
The first phase of tiger conservation in the 1970s focused on enacting the Wildlife Protection Act and
establishing protected areas for tigers and tropical forests. However, the 1980s saw a decline due to
extensive poaching. In response, the government initiated the second phase in 2005, adopting a
landscape-level approach, community involvement & support, implementing strict law enforcement,
and using modern technology for scientific monitoring to ensure tiger conservation. This approach not
only led to an increase in the tiger population, but also had several critical outcomes that included the
designation of inviolate critical core and buffer areas, the identification of new tiger reserves, and the
recognition of tiger landscapes and corridors.
The monitoring exercise inculcated scientific thinking amongst forest staff and employment of
technology ensured transparency of data collection and analysis. India categorized tiger habitats into
five major landscapes based on biogeography and interconnectivity, enabling effective ecological and
management-based strategies. With significant changes in the spatial patterns of tiger occurrence and
an increase in unique tiger sightings from 2461 in 2018 to 3080 in 2022, now more than 3/4th of the
tiger population is found within protected areas.
Q 36. 30405650 When and why was International Tiger Day (ITD) established?
a) In 2010, to celebrate the successful recovery of wild tiger populations
b) In 2010, to raise awareness about the decline of wild tiger numbers
c) In 2012, to mark the anniversary of a tiger conservation organization
d) In 2013, to promote the conservation of other endangered species
Q 37. 30405650 What was the focus of the Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) report for
Indian tiger reserves prepared by the Wildlife Institute of India and the National Tiger Conservation
Authority?
a) Global system for tiger protection b) Alarming situation of tiger poaching in India
c) Progress and challenges in tiger conservation d) Decline of wild tiger numbers in India
Q 38. 30405650 Which of the following states has reported the largest tiger population?
a) Maharashtra b) Karnataka c) Madhya Pradesh d) Uttarakhand
Q 39. 30405650 What was the estimated tiger population declared by Hon'ble Prime Minister Shri
Narendra Modi during the celebration of 50 years of Project Tiger on April 9, 2022?
a) 3,925 tigers b) 3,167 tigers c) 3,682 tigers d) 3,000 tigers
Q 40. 30405650 What is the primary threat to tiger conservation?
a) Habitat destruction due to climate change b) Human-wildlife conflict
c) Disease outbreak d) Natural predation
Passage – 4
On June 22, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) issued a statement on the use of cryptocurrency
in the Latin America and Caribbean market, and about the rising interest in blockchain-based central
bank digital currencies (CBDCs). The global monetary authority ended its statement noting that a ban
on crypto "may not be effective in the long run" in the region. This has raised eyebrows due to the
international organisation's change in stance on crypto in the LatAm market.
Countries like Argentina, Chile, and Columbia have experienced devaluation of their currency against
the U.S. dollar. To preserve the value of their savings, some residents have explored converting their
funds to U.S. dollars. However, there are legal restrictions controlling this. Others have chosen to
convert their assets to stablecoins - cryptocurrencies designed to reflect the value of fiat currencies
such as the U.S dollar.
Brazil, Argentina, Colombia, and Ecuador are among the top 20 in Chainalysis' 2022 Global Crypto
Adoption Index. Separately, a number of central banks in the Latin American market are also
considering CBDCs, meaning that more people could soon be exposed to blockchain-based
infrastructure.
Q 41. 30405650 What is a cryptocurrency?
a) Physical coins and banknotes used for digital transactions.
b) A decentralized digital or virtual currency secured by cryptography.
c) A government-issued digital currency.

d) A type of stock market investment.
Q 42. 30405650 What is the legal status of cryptocurrency in India?
a) Cryptocurrency is fully regulated and widely accepted as legal tender.
b) Cryptocurrency is banned and illegal to use.
c) The legal status of cryptocurrency in India is uncertain and subject to change.
d) Cryptocurrency is recognized as a form of digital art.
Q 43. 30405650 What is a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)?
a) It is a digital form of paper currency issued by a central bank and backed by a government.
b) An online marketplace for buying and selling cryptocurrencies.
c) A digital version of physical banknotes and coins.
d) A form of stock market investment.
Q 44. 30405650 What is the role of the blockchain in cryptocurrency transactions?
a) It stores physical currency used in transactions.

b) It centralizes control over transactions.
c) It records and verifies transactions in a decentralized digital ledger.

d) It facilitates offline transactions.
Q 45. 30405650 Which of the following countries recently became the first in the world to adopt
Bitcoin as its legal tender?
a) Venezuela b) El Salvador c) Switzerland d) South Korea
Passage – 5
The annual Group of Seven (G7) Summit, hosted by Japan, took place in Hiroshima on May 19-21,
2023. Among other matters, the G7 Hiroshima Leaders' Communiqué initiated the Hiroshima AI
Process (HAP) - an effort by this bloc to determine a way forward to regulate artificial intelligence (AI).
The ministerial declaration of the G7 Digital and Tech Ministers' Meeting, on April 30, 2023, discussed
"responsible AI" and global AI governance, and said, "we reaffirm our commitment to promote human-
centric and trustworthy AI based on the OECD AI Principles and to foster collaboration to maximise
the benefits for all brought by AI technologies".
Even as the G7 countries are using such fora to deliberate AI regulation, they are acting on their own
instead of waiting for the outcomes from the HAP. So while there is an accord to regulate AI, the
discord - as evident in countries preferring to go their own paths - will also continue. The communiqué
accorded more importance to AI than the technology has ever received in such a forum - even as G7
leaders were engaged with other issues like the war in Ukraine, economic security, supply chain
disruptions, and nuclear disarmament. It said that the G7 is determined to work with others to
"advance international discussions on inclusive AI governance and interoperability to achieve our
common vision and goal of trustworthy AI, in line with our shared democratic value".
Q 46. 30405650 Which of the following countries has issued guiding documents such as the National
Strategy for Artificial Intelligence and the Responsible AI for All report?
a) United States b) China c) European Union d) India
Q 47. 30405650 What is the significance of the Hiroshima AI Process (HAP) in AI governance?
a) It aims to exclude international organizations from AI discussions.
b) It aims to promote the dominance of Generative AI (GAI).
c)
It aims to address challenges and opportunities associated with AI and establish principles for
trustworthy AI.
d) It focuses solely on regulating AI technologies in the G7 countries.
Q 48. 30405650 How does the Hiroshima AI Process (HAP) plan to achieve its objectives?
a) By promoting divergent regulation of AI among G7 countries.
b) By excluding international organizations from its operations.
c) By cooperating with organizations like OECD and GPAI.
d) By emphasizing the use of Generative AI (GAI) exclusively.
Q 49. 30405650 What is Geoffrey Hinton known for in the field of artificial intelligence (AI)?
a) Being the founder of Google's AI research division.
b) Pioneering the development of deep learning and neural network algorithms.

c) Inventing the first AI-powered chatbot.
d) Leading the development of robotic AI systems.
Q 50. 30405650 Threads is an online social media and social networking service operated
by____________.
a) Google b) Twitter c) Meta d) Apple
Passage – 6
The Justice G. Rohini-led Commission on the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes groups,
constituted in October 2017, submitted its long-awaited report to the President of India on July 31,
after having received 14 extensions in the last six years. The Commission was initially asked to finish
its report in 12 weeks.
The President had formed the Commission headed by former Delhi High Court Chief Justice G. Rohini
in October 2017, to examine the question of sub-categorising the over 2,600 caste groups listed in the
Central OBC list.
The Commission had as a Member, Dr. J.K. Bajaj of the Centre for Policy Studies with representatives
from the Anthropological Survey of India, the Office of the Registrar General of India, and the Social
Justice and Empowerment Ministry. In the notification announcing its formation, the Commission was
tasked with first examining how much of 27% reservation (jobs and education) and other government
benefits meant for OBCs was dominated by which caste groups.
The Commission had arrived at the conclusion that a small number of caste groups among all OBC
groups, were dominating reservation and other government benefits. Further, the Commission went
on to explore ways of sub-categorising these existing OBC groups in order to make sure benefits can
be redistributed equitably. This involved breaking up all OBC caste groups into further categories
based on how dominant the communities have been in availing government benefits meant for OBCs.
Q 51. 30405650 What is the purpose of sub-categorization within the OBC community?
a) To allocate more benefits to affluent OBC communities.

b) To create further divisions within the OBC community.
c) To ensure equitable distribution of benefits among different OBC communities.

d) To eliminate the concept of reservation altogether.
Q 52. 30405650 What was one of the challenges faced by the Rohini Commission?
a) b) Lack of political support for sub-categorization.

Lack of data for the population of OBC c) Excessive interference from the government.
communities.
d) Rapid submission of the final report.
Q 53. 30405650 What percentage of opportunities, such as jobs and educational seats, were
concentrated among just 25% of the sub-castes classified as OBCs, as per the Rohini Commission's
analysis?
a) 10% b) 50% c) 75% d) 97%
Q 54. 30405650 Under which of the following constitutional amendment acts was the National
Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) established as a Constitutional Body?
a) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act b) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act
c) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act d) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act
Q 55. 30405650 What percentage of OBC communities had zero representation in jobs and
educational institutions, as per the findings of the Rohini Commission?
a) 5% b) 25% c) 37% d) 50%
Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 56 to 85: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.
Passage – 1
Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act lays down that a marriage may be solemnized between any two
Hindus, on fulfilment of certain conditions. The conditions require that, at the time of marriage, neither
party has a spouse living and neither party is incapable of giving a valid consent owing to
unsoundness of mind. It further requires that neither party at the time of marriage, if capable of giving
a valid consent, has been suffering from mental disorder of such a kind so as to be unfit for marriage
and the procreation of children or has been subjected to recurrent attacks of insanity and epilepsy.
The Act also lays down the minimum age for marriage of the bridegroom as 21 years and of the bride
as 18 years. The Act is strict about prohibited marriages and provides that if the parties are sapindas
of each other, unless the custom or usage permits such marriage, the marriage shall not be a valid
one.
Before 1995, Hindus could practice polygamy (having several wives) or polyandry (having several
husbands). Now, under the Hindu Marriage Act, only monogamy is permitted. A person who marries
during lifetime of his or her spouse, provided that the first marriage is not null and void, commits the
offence of bigamy. Sec. 11 of the Act makes a bigamous marriage void and section 17 makes it a
penal offence under sections 494 and 495, IPC. A marriage, which is in violation of "any provisions of
law", would be void under Section 494, IPC.
For prosecution for bigamous marriage, the first marriage should be perfectly valid and should have
been solemnized according to proper ceremonies. Thus, if the first marriage is void, a person cannot
be prosecuted for bigamy. Also, if the first marriage is voidable and a court's decree annulling first
marriage has been obtained, a person cannot be prosecuted for bigamy. The persons who perform
bigamous marriage cannot be guilty if they omit, deliberately or inadvertently, to perform the essential
ceremonies of marriage.
The Courts have held that a marriage under Hindu law by a minor male is valid even though no
consent of the parents/guardians was obtained. The marriage under the Hindu law is sacrament and
not a contract; a minor can't enter into a contract but can perform necessary 'sanskars'.
Q 56. 30405650 A is married to B. However, A develops a liking towards Z and starts living with Z. A
and Z have a child. B sues A for bigamy. Decide.
a) A is liable, since he is already married to B. b)

A is liable because his marriage to B is a valid
one.
c) A is not liable because A does not marry Z. d) Both (a) and (b).
Q 57. 30405650 A, a Hindu, is married to B. However, 2 years after his marriage, he converts into a
Muslim and accepts Islam as his religion. Islam allows polygamy, whereas Hinduism strictly follows
monogamy. After his conversion, A marries C. B sues A for bigamy. Decide.
a) A is liable as Hindu law prohibits polygamy. b) A is liable as his marriage to B is valid.
c) A is not liable because Islam allows polygamy. d) Both (a) and (b).
Q 58. 30405650 A, a Hindu girl, marries B, a Hindu boy, by performance of the required religious
ceremonies and rituals. A later realizes that B was impotent. A stop staying with B and marries C. B
sues A for bigamy.
a) A is liable because she was married to B at the time of marrying C.

b) A is liable because A's marriage with B is valid.
c) A is not liable because A's marriage with B is invalid.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q 59. 30405650 A, a boy, and B, a girl, both Hindu and aged 20 years, elope and get married in a
temple. However, B, unsatisfied with A after one year of marriage, marries C. A sues B for bigamy.
Decide.
a) B is not liable as her marriage to A is invalid.

b) B is liable as she is married to A at the time of marrying C.
c) B is liable as she is a Hindu and her marriage to A is valid.
d) Both (b) and (c).
Q 60. 30405650 A and B fall in love in college and get married two years after their studies are
finished. Both get jobs in multinationals, right out of college. However, due to some reasons, A is fired
from his job. This state of unemployment and due to being unsuccessful in finding another job, A
enters depression and within a few years, is tested as mentally unstable. During this time, B stops
staying with A and starts living with C and eventually marries C. A sues B for bigamy. Decide.
a) B is liable because their marriage was valid. b)

B is not liable because their marriage is invalid.
c) B is liable because she is still married to A. d) Both (a) and (c).
Passage – 2
Section 403 of the IPC says that whoever, dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use any
movable property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to two years, or with fine, or with both. The section also takes into account a dishonest
misappropriation which is conducted for a limited time period only.
The offence of criminal misappropriation consists of dishonest misappropriation or conversion to his

own use any movable property. It takes place when the possession has been innocently come by, but
where, a subsequent change of intention, or from the knowledge of some new fact with which the
party was not previously acquainted, the retaining becomes wrongful and fraudulent. It is the mental
act of fraudulent misappropriation that demarcates an act of embezzlement which is a civil wrong from
the offences of criminal breach of trust. This section also deals with an aggravated form of offence of
criminal misappropriation committed in respect of property after its owner is dead and before it is
taken possession of by his legal representative.
To 'misappropriate' means 'improperly setting apart for one's use to the exclusion of the owner'.
'Converts' means appropriation and dealing with property of another without right as if it is his own
property. He is guilty only when he appropriates or converts to his own use such property. Further, the
property must be a movable property. Thus, a house cannot be misappropriated. Misappropriation or
conversion need not be permanently done; it may even be for a time.
A mere misappropriation or conversion to one's use is not sufficient for the completion of an offence,
but that the element of dishonesty is essential. Where a person found a purse and put it in his pocket,
but was immediately after arrested, he was not guilty of misappropriation for it could not be assumed
that by the mere act of picking up the purse of putting it in his pocket he intended to appropriate its
contents to his own use.
The accused would not be guilty of the offence, where there was no information as to the
circumstances under which the things were lost and the probability was that property was abandoned
by the original owner. The section makes it clear that the property must be owned by somebody. The
finder must wait upon a reasonable time to allow the owner to claim the property, before he
appropriates it. If the owner is not discovered, then, under certain circumstances, the finder may retain
the property, but if he acts with reference to the article found in such a way that the true owner may
never discover that it had been picked up by him, then he would be guilty.
Q 61. 30405650 A, in a hurry, outside a supermarket, picks up the bicycle belonging to B, which is
similar looking to a bicycle owned by A. A realizes this after he has reached home. Is A guilty under
section 403 of the IPC?
a) Yes, because he uses it for his own use. b) Yes, because A was negligent.
c) No, because A is guilty of theft. d) No, because A had no dishonest intentions.
Q 62. 30405650 A co-owns a property with B. A uses the property, without the knowledge of B, for an
event organized by him. B eventually is informed about this, and decides to sue A. Decide whether A
can be held liable for misappropriation.
a) Yes, because A used it for his own purpose. b) Yes, because A used it without B's permission.
c) d)
No, because A was the co-owner and could use No, because A caused no damage to the
the property. property.
Q 63. 30405650 A has been the servant of B for 20 years and supports B entirely in his old age. B
dies of old age, and leaves behind the house, some furniture and the money lying around in the
house. A finds the money and without informing anyone, uses the money to travel back to his village.
The heirs of B sue A for criminal misappropriation. Decide.
a) A is liable, because he uses the money for his own purpose.
b) A is liable, because he had dishonest intention.

c) A is not liable, because he was entitled to the money in lieu of the services provided by him.
Q 64. 30405650 A finds a 10$ bill lying on the road. He picks up the note and keeps it with himself,
with the intention of using it in future. Can A be held liable under Section 403?
a) Yes, because A had a dishonest intention of using the money for himself.
b) No, because A did not know who the owner was.
c) No, because A did not use the money.
Q 65. 30405650 A finds a diamond ring lying on the road in front of a jewelry store. A, not seeing any
person around, picks up the ring and takes it with himself, intending to sell it in future. Is A liable under
section 403 of IPC?
a) Yes, because he had dishonest intentions to use the ring for his own purpose in future.
b) Yes, because he did not try to find the owner.

c) Yes, because he was not the rightful owner of the ring.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Passage – 3
When the performance of the contract becomes impossible, the purpose, which the parties have in
mind, is frustrated. If the performance becomes impossible, because of a supervening event, the
promisor is excused from the performance of the contract. This is known as doctrine of frustration
under English law, and is covered by section 56 of the Indian Contract Act.
The "doctrine of supervening impossibility" as enunciated in Sec 56 is similar to the "doctrine of

frustration" known to the English law. However, the former is wider than the latter and covers both the
physical impossibility (initial impossibility) as well as failure of object ('frustration' or subsequent
impossibility). The "doctrine of implied term" was in vogue before the doctrine of frustration, i.e. an
implied condition would be read into the contract when the performance becomes impossible from the
perishing of the thing without default of the contracting parties.
"Frustration of the contract" means "occurrence of an intervening event or change of circumstances

so fundamental as to be regarded by the law both as striking at the root of the contract, and as
entirely beyond what was contemplated by the parties when they entered into the contract". The word
"frustration" is a sort of shorthand": it means that a contract has ceased to bind the parties because
the common basis on which by mutual understanding it was based has failed. It is not the contract has
been frustrated, but that there has been a failure of what in the contemplation of both parties would be
the essential condition or purpose of the performance.
The doctrine of supervening impossibility comes into play in two types of situations - where the
performance becomes physically impossible because of disappearance of the subject matter; where
the object the parties had in mind failed to materialize. The performance of an act may not be literally
(or physically) or legally impossible but it may be impracticable and useless from the point of view of
the object and purpose which the parties had in view.
The effect of frustration is that the dissolution of the contract occurs automatically; it does not depend
on the choice or election of either party (as in the case of novation or rescission of contract) or on their
intention or the opinion or even knowledge as to the event. A very important principle follows from this,
that frustration should not be due to the act of a party to the contract, i.e. self-induced. When a
contract becomes frustrated (i.e. becomes void), the party who has received the benefits must restore
them to the other.
Q 66. 30405650 A enters into a contract with B for supply of 50 kgs of carrots, to be grown on A's
farm. That year, due to heavy rainfall, A's crops get destroyed. B sues A for non-performance of
contract. Decide.
a) A shall not be liable because the damage to crops rendered the performance impossible.
b) A shall be liable because he did not perform his duty, as per the contract.
c) A shall be liable because he did not take reasonable care of his crops.
Q 67. 30405650 A and his son, both are painters. B hires A to paint a portrait of B. A and B decide to
meet for the same, but A dies before the meeting. B requests A's son to paint the portrait but he
refuses. Can B sue A's son for non-performance?
a) Yes, because A did not perform his part of the contract.
b) Yes, because A's son refused to perform A's part of the contract.
c) No, because the contract stands void on the death of A.
Q 68. 30405650 A acquires a license to trade a product X, in the market. The license was subject to
certain conditions which were fulfilled by A and he entered into a contract with a vendor B in
Hyderabad for procurement of X. However, before the procurement, the government imposed a ban
on the sale of the product X. The ban was lifted after 6 months, but B refused to supply the product.
Decide B's liability.
a) B shall be liable because he committed breach of contract.

b) B shall not be liable because the ban rendered the performance impossible.
c) B shall not be liable because the ban rendered the contract void.
Q 69. 30405650 A entered into a contract with B for painting B's live portrait within the coming month.
However, due to initiation in spread of corona virus in the country, the government imposes a severe
lockdown for two months, due to which A is unable to meet B for the purpose of making his portrait. B
sues A for non-performance. Decide.
a) A is liable as he could have made the painting post the lockdown.

b) A is liable as he did not perform his part of the duty.
c) A is not liable as the performance within the due date was rendered impossible.
Q 70. 30405650 A enters into a contract to marry B. A, at the time of the contract, is already married.
B, on gaining this knowledge, sues A for non-performance of the contract. Decide A's liability.
a) A is liable because he entered into contract knowing that he is married.
b) A is liable because he did not inform B about his marital status.
c) A is not liable as the performance was rendered void due to A's marital status.
Passage – 4
In Muslim law, gifts are called "hiba". The gifts in India are governed by Transfer of Property Act, 1872.
However, the provision of Transfer of Property Act, 1872 does not apply to Muslim law. The English
term, 'gift' is of a wider connotation and applies to all transactions where one transfers one's property
to another without any consideration. The term hiba has a narrow meaning.
According to Ameer Ali, a hiba will be valid if the following conditions are fulfilled:-
1. The manifestation of the wish to give on the part of the donor,
2. Acceptance of the gift, express or implied, by the donee, and

3. Taking of possession of the subject-matter of the gift by the donee, either actually or constructively.
Every Muslim, male or female, married or unmarried, who has attained the age of majority and who is
of sound mind has the mental capacity to make a gift. The rule of Muslim law of majority, i.e.
attainment of puberty, does not apply to gifts. A person of unsound mind can make a valid gift during
lucid intervals. The Muslim law-givers recognize the doctrine of ikrash or compulsion, and a gift-deed
executed under compulsion is not valid. In such a case the gift is voidable, and it can be avoided by
the donor whose consent was so obtained.
In every gift, there must be a bona fide intention on the part of the donor to transfer property to the
donee. And, if a gift is made with an intention to defraud the creditors, the gift is invalid.
All forms of property over which dominion could be exercised, or anything which could be taken into
possession without any conditions, or which could exist as a specific entity, or as an enforceable right,
maybe the subject-matter of a valid gift. Muslim law, in this context, makes no distinction between
ancestral or self-acquired or between movable and immovable property.
Capacity to make a gift is not solely enough. The donor must also have a right to make a Hiba. A
Muslim has a right to gift only those properties of which he has the ownership. If he is simply a tenant
in a house, he is not allowed to gift that house to someone because he does not have the ownership
of that house.
The person in whose favour the gift is made is known as the done and for being a competent donee,
the only essential requirement is that a donee must be any person in existence at the time of the
making of a gift. He may be a person of any religion, sex, or state of mind.
Similarly, a gift can be made of property on lease, a property of attachment or any actionable claim.
Unlike the concept of the will or wasiyat under Islamic law in which only one-third of the total property
can be bequeathed by a will, a Hiba or gift can be made of the entire property.
Q 71. 30405650 A gifts a house he owns, to B but fails to deliver the title-deeds. Further, in spite of
frequent requests made by B, the mutation of name is not initiated and A is the one still responsible for
the payments of house tax. Decide whether this gift is valid or not.
a) No, because A is not a valid donor. b) No, because B is not a valid donee.
c) d) Both (a) and (c).

No, because A does not transfer the ownership.
Q 72. 30405650 A, while going through insolvency, makes a gift to B, with the bona fide intention of
fulfilling it. Decide the validity of the gift.
a) Valid, because A had the intention to fulfil it. b) Valid, because B is a valid donee.
c) Invalid, because A is not a valid donor. d) Invalid, because B is an invalid donee.
Q 73. 30405650 A and B lived together in a house owned by A. A gifts the said house to B, but
continues living in the same with B. B now owns the house and pays its rent in his own name. Decide
the validity of the gift.
a) Valid, because the ownership is transferred.
b) Valid, because A and B are valid donor and donee, respectively.
c) Invalid, because the possession of the property is not physically transferred by A to B.

Q 74. 30405650 A and B enter into a contract wherein A promises to gift to B his entire next month
produce, on his farm. Decide the validity.
a) Valid, because the ownership is transferred to B by A.
b) Valid, because A and B are valid donor and done, respectively.

c) Invalid, because A it is a conditional transfer.
d) Invalid, because is an invalid donor.
Q 75. 30405650 A and A's grandson, B, enter into a contract, wherein A promises to gift his house to
B on A's death. Until then, A holds onto the ownership and possession over the property. The property
is transferred to B after A dies, as per the contract. Decide the validity.
a) b) Invalid, because the transfer is conditional.

Valid, because the ownership is transferred to B. c) Invalid, because A is not alive anymore.
Passage – 5
False imprisonment consists in the imposition of a total restraint for some period, however short, upon
the liberty of another, without sufficient lawful and reasonable justification. "Every restraint of the
liberty of one person by another is in law an imprisonment and, if imposed without lawful cause,
constitutes a false imprisonment which is both a criminal offence and an actionable tort".
To constitute this wrong, "imprisonment" in the ordinary sense is not required, as a person may be
falsely imprisoned, viz. by being confined within the four walls or by being prevented from leaving the
place where he is (that may be his own house or an open field or a bus/train). The detention of the
person may be either (a) actual, i.e. physical (laying hands upon a person), or (b) constructive, i.e. by
mere show of authority (an officer telling any one that he is wanted and making him accompany).
Under criminal law whether the restraint is total ('wrongful confinement', Sec 340, IPC) or partial
('wrongful confinement', Sec 339, IPC), the same is actionable. A partial restraint is not actionable
under the civil law. Thus, when a man is prevented from going to a particular direction but is free to go
to any other direction or to go back, there is no false imprisonment. The total restraint results in false
imprisonment, however, short in its duration may be, viz. a few minutes. Knowledge of a person that
he has been imprisoned is not required and a person may be imprisoned without his knowing, e.g.
while he is asleep, drunk, or unconscious.
For false imprisonment the detention should be without any lawful justification. Making a false
complaint to the police by the defendants, leading to the arrest of the plaintiffs, if without any
justification, will make the defendants liable for false imprisonment. A person may be liable for false
imprisonment not only when he directly arrests/ detains the plaintiff, but also when he was "active in
promoting or causing" the arrest or detention. Bad faith is not necessary to be proved.
A person arrested by the orders of a judicial officer cannot sue the judicial officer for false
imprisonment, unless the judicial officer acts recklessly, illegally or maliciously. A person detained by a
private individual must be quickly handed over to the police, otherwise it will amount to false
imprisonment.
However, if a man entered certain premises subject to certain reasonable conditions it is not wrong to
prevents him from leaving those premises until and unless those conditions are fulfilled. Thus, not
allowing a person to go until he pays reasonable charges is no false imprisonment.
Similarly, when there is volenti non fit injuria on the part of the plaintiff, the defendant cannot be made
liable. Thus, a miner going into coal mine by his own consent, cannot sue for false imprisonment if he
himself wrongfully stops the work and wants to be taken out before the usual time.
Law permits the arrest of a person when he has committed some offence. Such arrest may be made
by a magistrate, a police officer or a private individual according to the circumstances.
Q 76. 30405650 A is unlawfully restraint, for some time, from crossing a bridge via the footway, but is
allowed to cross it via the carriage way. Decide.
a) b)
False imprisonment, because his liberty is Not false imprisonment, because he can use the
restrained. other way.
c) d) Both (b) and (c).

Not false imprisonment, because it is for a short
duration.
Q 77. 30405650 A is unlawfully restraint, for some time, from crossing a bridge via the footway, but
can cross it via the lake, by swimming. Decide.
a) b) False restraint, because he cannot swim.

False restraint, because he prefers the footway. c)
Not false restrain, because he can use the lake.
Q 78. 30405650 A and B are detained by the shopkeeper of the shop they allegedly robbed. The
shopkeeper calls the police, right after the event, and keeps both A and B inside his office, without
informing them the reason for the same. A and B go to trial, wherein A is charged guilty but B is
proved innocent. B sues the shopkeeper for false imprisonment. Decide.
a) False imprisonment, because they were kept in there without any justification.
b) False imprisonment, because B was not even guilty.
c) Both (a) and (b).
d) Not false imprisonment, because the shopkeeper called the police as soon as possible.
Q 79. 30405650 A resided in Agra and wanted to take a flight to Mumbai. The flight was scheduled to
depart from the airport in Lucknow, for which A reached Lucknow on the date of the flight. A toll plaza
falls between Agra and Lucknow which allows vehicle to move freely from Agra to Lucknow, but
charges Rs 500 for moving from Lucknow to Agra. A's flight to Mumbai gets cancelled and he is forced
to return back to Agra. A refuse to pay the toll and is thus not allowed to leave Lucknow. Decide
whether this amounts to false imprisonment or not.
a) It does not, because A can pay and leave.
b) It does not, because A had knowledge of the applicable conditions.
c) It does, because it is not A's fault that he had to return.
Q 80. 30405650 A was allegedly charged with the murder of two kids and was under-trial. After a year
of the initiation of the trial proceedings, the court found him innocent and thus, acquitted him.
However, A was still kept in custody in the jail, owing to the impression that he can be of danger.
Decide whether this amounts to wrongful imprisonment.
a) It does, because he was acquitted.
b) It does, because there is no proof that he was of any danger.

c) It does not, because he was confined for public good.
Passage – 6
Into the second week of the amendments to Motor Vehicles Act kicking in, the step to sharply increase
fines for violations remains controversial. Gujarat this week reduced some of the fines set by the
Centre on humanitarian grounds. The overarching aim of the amendments has wide support. Given
that India has a shameful record of fatalities on account of road accidents, even when compared to
other developing countries, some of the measures in the amendments, particularly the one relating to
encouraging good Samaritans, are welcome. The debate is over a steep hike in fines. For example,
the penalty for jumping a traffic light has gone from Rs 100 to Rs 5,000. Will a harsh measure be the
game changer?
The newly passed Act increases the minimum compensation for hit and run cases as follows: (i) in
case of death, from Rs 25,000 to two lakh rupees, and (ii) in case of grievous injury, from Rs 12,500 to
Rs 50,000.The Act also allows the central government to order for recall of motor vehicles if a defect
in the vehicle may cause damage to the environment, or the driver, or other road users. The
manufacturer of the recalled vehicle will be required toreimburse the buyers for the full cost of the
vehicle.
The record across the world is decidedly mixed but fine remains a popular tool, with Finland going so
far as to link it to a violator's disposable income. What is unambiguous is that the problem of fatalities
is more pronounced in the developing world, which WHO says accounts for 93% of fatalities with
around 60% of vehicles. Richer countries have created safer roads over the last four decades. There
are two solutions and both are needed. One, is to strengthen the regulatory and enforcement
framework. Two, significantly improve road design in India which is also a cause of fatalities.
Will stiff fines improve driving habits? Yes, if the violator is fairly sure that it's difficult to escape.
However, enforcement has been India's weakness. Once the current fuss dies, our record suggests it
will be business as usual. It may also encourage petty corruption. Therefore, instead of fixing fines at
a level where even a relatively wealthy BJP-administered state feels pressured to lower it, focus on
consistent enforcement. A model where most fines escalate with repeat offences with the possibility of
flying below the radar minimised is the way forward.
Q 81. 30405650 With which of the following steps, according to the passage, would the author most
likely to agree with?
a) The government includes private contractors in road construction.
b) The government provides for high toll collection at the national highways.
c)
The government orders that any construction of road must be only after consulting architects for its
design and layout.
d) The government orders that the road construction be finished within a fixed timeframe.
Q 82. 30405650 According to the author, why would the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act be a failure
or be less efficacious?
a) b)
The Act does not learn from foreign experiences. The Act ignores the problem of tepid enforcement
in India.
c) The Act does not have adequate penalties. d)
The Act did not take suggestions from the State
governments.
Q 83. 30405650 Suppose, the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act is not passed. Chandu, in an
inebriated condition is driving back home when he runs over Gujan. Gunjan suffers left leg and right
arm fractures besides major bruises on her head. Chandu had fled the spot. Decide.
a) b)
Gunjan will get minimum Rs.12500 from the Gunjan will get minimum Rs.12500 from Chandu.
government. c)
Gunjan will get minimum Rs.50000 from Chandu.
d)
Gunjan will get minimum Rs.50000 from the
government.
Q 84. 30405650 Kalyan hits his car against a cycler Ranga, as a result of which Ranga dies. Kalyan
noticing no one at the accident spot, sped away. Decide based on the passage.
a) Kalyan is liable for causing death by rash and negligent act.

b) Ranga will be paid half by Kalyan and balance by government.
c) Kalyan has to pay Rs. 2 Lakhs compensation to Ranga.
d) Ranga is to be paid a compensation of Rs. 2 Lakhs by the government.
Q 85. 30405650 X industry manufactures passenger cars. It launched a new model which uese a
new engine technology resulting in greater power and better driving experience. Shashank purchase
one of this model cars for Rs. 10 Lakhs. A month later some scientific studies found emissions
containing large amounts of heavy metals in the exhaust of the car. The government ordered the
entire new stock to be called back. Decide.
a) Shashank has to be paid back Rs. 10 Lakhs by the government.
b) Shashank has to be paid back Rs. 10 Lakhs by the X industry.

c) Shashank has to pay the government Rs. 10 Lakhs.
d) X industry has to pay the government Rs. 10 Lakhs for polluting the environment.
Logical Reasoning
Direction for questions 86 to 110: Read the following passages and answer the questions that
follow.
Passage – 1
Initial estimates for India's external trade performance in May are a harbinger of even tougher times
ahead. The 10.3% decline in goods exports marks the fourth successive month of contraction in
outbound shipments and the sixth such occasion in eight months. May's $35 billion export value is
only 0.8% over April's figure that was a six-month low. Barring electronics exports, which grew
healthily year-on-year as well as sequentially, exporters across sectors had a tough month.
Engineering goods that make up over a quarter of India's goods export basket, contracted for the 11th
month in a row, while the employment-intensive textiles sector shrank for the seventh straight month.
The 30% decline in petroleum exports (the seventh contraction in eight months) may largely be due to
cooling global prices that are also affecting other commodities' export values, if not volumes. After a
6.7% rise in 2022-23, goods exports are now down 11.4% over the first two months of this year. The
current estimate of $25.3 billion for May's services exports is quite sobering as well.
A 26.7% boom in services exports last year had helped narrow the steep goods trade and current
account deficits amid surging global prices of commodities such as oil and fertilizers whose imports
are inelastic for India. The trend reversal in that pace of growth began this March and has accelerated
to a critical point with a mere 0.7% rise in global services receipts in May. The global slowdown that
had clearly hit consumer demand for products, now appears to be infecting the appetite for services
too. With IT companies slashing guidance and benching fresh recruits, some impact on domestic
demand is visible and may intensify in coming months. Core imports (excluding oil and gems and
jewellery) have contracted 5.5% so far in 2023-24. Overall goods imports are down over 10% through
April and May, after surging 16.5% last year to $714 billion. May's $57.1 billion import bill was just
6.6% below 2022 levels and almost 14% over April's figure which had been the lowest in 15 months.
This has lifted the merchandise trade deficit to a five-month high of $22.1 billion. Last month, the
Commerce Ministry had expressed hope that demand from key markets may revive from August or
September. Now, it believes the trend may improve from July or August. It has again cited the World
Trade Organization global trade growth upgrade from 1% to 1.7% for 2023. Even if that were to
fructify, it is far from the 2.6% growth averaged in the last 12 years and the respite for India may be
limited. A 'business as usual' approach will not suffice any more to keep this key growth engine of the
economy firing.
Q 86. 30405650 What is the main conclusion of the passage about India's external trade
performance?
a)
India's export and import performance indicates a robust and consistent growth trend in the global
market.
b)
The drop in India's goods exports and the sobering estimate of service exports signify tougher
economic times ahead for the nation.
c)
The contraction in goods exports and services is mainly attributed to a decrease in global consumer
demand for Indian products.
d)
The Commerce Ministry expects a swift recovery in demand from key markets starting from July or
August, promising an imminent improvement in India's trade deficit.
Q 87. 30405650 What inference can be drawn from the passage regarding the impact of global
economic conditions on India's trade performance?
a)
India's trade performance is independent of the global economic slowdown and changing commodity
prices.
b)
The global economic slowdown has primarily impacted India's IT companies and the textiles sector,
causing a decline in domestic demand.
c)
The global slowdown, coupled with fluctuating commodity prices, has adversely impacted India's
goods and services exports, exacerbating the trade deficit.
d)
Global demand for India's services has consistently grown over the past year, thus mitigating the
effects of the global economic slowdown.
Q 88. 30405650 Which of the following scenarios would strengthen the author's argument about
India's external trade performance?
a)
Global consumer demand for Indian products experiences an unprecedented surge in the upcoming
quarter.
b) The World Trade Organization further downgrades its global trade growth prediction for the year.
c)
Indian IT companies report unexpected losses and layoffs, exacerbating the decline in domestic
demand.
d) There's a sudden hike in commodity prices, inflating India's export values.
Q 89. 30405650 What is a key assumption made in the author's argument about India's external
trade performance?
a) The World Trade Organization's global trade growth predictions are always accurate and reliable.
b) Indian domestic demand has a significant impact on the nation's external trade performance.
c)
Global consumer demand for Indian products is the only influential factor determining India's export
performance.
d)
The Indian government's policy measures will have no impact on the country's external trade
performance.
Q 90. 30405650 Which statement would the author of the passage most likely disagree with?
a) The persistent decline in goods exports from India signals economic challenges ahead.
b)
The contraction in goods exports and services is a direct consequence of a decrease in global
consumer demand for Indian products.
c)
A 'business as usual' approach will be sufficient to sustain India's growth in the face of declining
exports.
d)
Even if global trade growth meets the WTO's upgraded prediction, the respite for India may be limited.
follow.
Passage – 2
The United States said earlier this week that it was rejoining the United Nations Educational, Scientific
and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). In 2017, the Trump administration withdrew from the
organisation after the Obama administration ceased funding, in 2011. The reason for the U.S'.s return
is ostensibly 'China', with senior U.S. administration officials stating that the U.S.'s absence had
helped China gain "more influence" in setting the rules around artificial intelligence and the ensuing
technological shifts. For a change, this is the first time that 'China' has been proffered as a reason for
the U.S.'s re-entry into, rather than its exit of, a multi-lateral treaty. During the pandemic, in 2020,
President Trump announced the U.S.'s withdrawal from funding the World Health Organization - the
year too when he moved to withdraw the U.S. from the Paris Agreement. This followed from the
Trumpist world view that the U.S. was being shortchanged by major polluters such as China and
India. In the case of WHO, the case was over its 'inadequate' response time to the gravity of the
pandemic originating in China. Following political change, President Joseph Biden has now brought
the U.S. back into the fold of funding WHO as well as rejoining the climate treaty.
Unlike the 'America First' policies that propelled the Trump administration's exits, the U.S.'s UNESCO
re-entry has little to do with why it exited it in the first place, which was, as it was believed, "an anti-
Israel bias". The U.S., then and now, remains Israel's staunchest ally and does not recognise
Palestine. It is not unreasonable to infer that the re-entry is a sign of America's growing paranoia
about China. It is also appropriate to recall that the Reagan administration withdrew from UNESCO in
1984 for, among other things, "advancing Soviet interests". Developments in AI are slightly different
from historical technological developments. Here, product patents and their enforcement have helped
countries such as the U.S. maintain their edge, but with AI, China, along with a rising repertoire of
patents and research publications, has the advantages of a much larger population and a more
powerful surveillance state. This feeds into a cycle of generating greater troves of data that in turn
feed and improve machine learning systems that make its AI far more formidable. Unlike other
technologies, no country can have a sustained, natural edge in AI indefinitely. America might bring in
atleast $600 million in outstanding dues to the UNESCO but it is high time - and countries such as
India would do well to point this out - that the organisation gets stricter on countries exiting and
entering on frivolous grounds, alongside framing policies and research that accommodate the tussles
of a hyper-connected world.
Q 91. 30405650 Which of the following pieces of additional information would most strengthen the
author's argument in the passage?
a)
In recent times, the United States has taken significant strides towards re-engaging with various
international organizations, demonstrating a clear departure from the previous 'America First' policies
that were in place.
b)
China's increasing influence in the AI field is evident through numerous published research papers
and significant patents.
c) The United States has resolved its past grievances with UNESCO, allowing for a smooth re-entry.
d) UNESCO has announced new strategies to enforce stricter regulations on member states.
Q 92. 30405650 What assumption does the passage make about the United States' role in
international organizations?
a)
The United States' decision to rejoin UNESCO is primarily driven by the aim of reclaiming its position
as a prominent global leader in technological advancements, recognizing the organization's potential
to foster international cooperation and facilitate innovation across various fields.
b)
The United States believes its re-entry into UNESCO will resolve all issues related to China's growing
influence.
c)
The United States sees its involvement in organizations like UNESCO as a means to influence global
rules and counterbalance potential rivals.
d)
The United States is primarily rejoining UNESCO to change its stance on the recognition of Palestine.
Q 93. 30405650 Based on the passage, with which of the following statements would the author most
likely disagree?
a)
The United States rejoining UNESCO signifies a shift from nationalistic policies to a more global
collaborative approach.
b)
China's growing influence and advancements in the field of artificial intelligence are a concern for the
United States.
c)
The primary reason for the U.S.'s re-entry into UNESCO has nothing to do with its initial reason for
exit.
d)
Countries should be allowed to freely exit and rejoin international organizations like UNESCO without
any restrictions or penalties.
Q 94. 30405650 What inference can be drawn from the passage about the United States' perspective
on technological shifts and international treaties?
a)
The United States believes that its re-entry to UNESCO will ensure immediate technological
superiority over China.
b)
The United States uses international organizations to counterbalance China's growing technological
prowess.
c)
The United States is rejoining UNESCO primarily to resolve the organization's financial dues and
funding issues.
d)
The United States intends to leverage its re-entry to UNESCO to change the organization's perceived
"anti-Israel bias."
Q 95. 30405650 What is the main idea conveyed in the passage about the United States rejoining
UNESCO?
a)
The United States decided to rejoin UNESCO due to concerns over an alleged "anti-Israel bias" that
initially led to their exit.
b)
The re-entry of the United States to UNESCO is primarily driven by fears of China's increasing
influence, particularly in the sphere of artificial intelligence.
c)
The United States rejoining UNESCO signifies a shift from the 'America First' policies of the Trump
administration towards a more global collaborative approach.
d)
The United States is rejoining UNESCO to bring in outstanding dues and to influence the organization
to get stricter on countries exiting and entering on frivolous grounds.
follow.
Passage – 3
Former U.S. President Donald Trump has pled not guilty to 37 charges related to wilfully withholding
classified documents from the White House and obstructing justice in their return. Of these charges,
31 relate to Espionage Act violations, some with a potential prison sentence of 20 years. After he was
arraigned in court and entered his plea in Miami, Florida, Mr. Trump was released on bond with the
condition that he would not be permitted to discuss the case with a specific list of witnesses in the
case. This is the second indictment that the 45th President has been slapped with, following a prior
one relating to allegations that he paid hush money to an adult film star Stormy Daniels, potentially in
violation of federal campaign finance laws, a felony. The latest charges relate to more than 100
classified documents discovered at his private residence in Florida, in August, some allegedly
pertaining to defence and weapons capabilities of the U.S. and other countries. According to
prosecutors, Mr. Trump hoarded and hid the files, and then went on to engage in a conspiracy to
obstruct the FBI's inquiry, with the help of an aide.
Unsurprisingly, both indictments have been used by the Trump campaign to fuel its mobilisation
efforts, including not only repeated messaging about a "witch hunt" but also misinformation regarding
the alleged culpability of the U.S. President, Democrat Joe Biden, and Mr. Trump's 2016 Democratic
rival and former Secretary of State Hillary Clinton. It is true that classified documents were also
discovered on properties linked to Mr. Biden in Delaware, including some dating back to his time as
Senator and Vice President, and in the Indiana residence of former Republican Vice President Mike
Pence. Yet, no conclusion has been reached by the authorities regarding ongoing investigations into
these potential breaches. Meanwhile, every turn of the screw in the Trump cases is further being used
to vitiate the political ecosystem with an eye on the 2024 presidential election. The electorate was
already bitterly polarised on hot-button issues - from the economy and jobs to reproductive rights and
immigration reform. Barring rare exceptions, such as the recent coming together of Republicans and
Democrats to raise the national debt ceiling and narrowly avoid a spiralling credit ratings crisis,
bipartisanship has been in scarce supply. The post-COVID economic rebound has been dampened by
inflationary fears, and much work remains unfinished to fortify public health systems. The law will take
its course on every investigation into potential wrongdoing by political leaders. Even so, as the U.S.
enters the deep end of the campaign cycle, it would behove all parties to show restraint in putting out
extremist views and focus on the greater good of all Americans.
Q 96. 30405650 Which of the following statements would the author of the passage most likely
disagree with?
a)
The legal proceedings against Donald Trump are contributing to the polarization of the U.S. political
landscape.
b) Indictments against Trump won't sway the political climate or affect the 2024 election.
c) The post-COVID economic rebound has been dampened by inflationary fears.
d) The American electorate is already deeply polarized on various key issues.
Q 97. 30405650 What is an underlying assumption made in the passage concerning the legal and
political climate surrounding former U.S. President Donald Trump?
a)
The political landscape in the United States is predominantly influenced by the personal lives of its
political leaders.
b)
Legal proceedings and indictments against political leaders inherently lead to an increase in political
polarization.
c) Trump's legal charges and actions may affect the 2024 election.
d) The majority of Americans support Trump's claims of the indictments being part of a "witch hunt".
Q 98. 30405650 Which of the following pieces of evidence would most strengthen the author's
argument that legal developments surrounding former President Donald Trump are being utilized as
political tools for the upcoming 2024 elections?
a) Donald Trump has decided to run for the 2024 presidential elections.
b)
A recent national poll shows that Trump's approval ratings have significantly increased since the
charges were filed.
c)
Evidence that Trump's campaign team has been using the indictments to fuel fundraising efforts and
to rally support by portraying him as a victim of political bias.
d) A report indicating that public interest in the charges against Trump has decreased over time.
Q 99. 30405650 Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the current political climate in the
United States and its potential impact on the upcoming 2024 election?
a)
The political climate in the United States is marked by harmony and bipartisanship, which is likely to
lead to a smooth 2024 election.
b)
Despite the charges against Trump and other leaders, the political climate remains indifferent to these
developments, rendering them inconsequential for the 2024 election.
c)
Ongoing legal cases against political leaders like Trump are being politically exploited, possibly
influencing the 2024 election amid a highly polarized climate.
d)
The charges against Trump have unanimously been perceived negatively by the American electorate,
severely hampering his chances in the 2024 election.
Q 100. 30405650 What is the main idea of the passage regarding the recent legal developments
surrounding former U.S. President Donald Trump and their political implications?
a)
Donald Trump has been cleared of all charges related to violations of the Espionage Act and
obstruction of justice, which has strengthened his political positioning for the 2024 election.
b)
Donald Trump has pled guilty to 37 charges, which include allegations of withholding classified
documents and obstructing justice, significantly impacting his political future.
c)
Trump pleads not guilty to 37 charges, including Espionage Act violations and obstruction of justice,
fueling political maneuvering during the 2024 campaign.
d)
The charges against Donald Trump for withholding classified documents and obstructing justice have
led to a decrease in political polarization in the United States.
follow.
Passage – 4
As the conflict in Ukraine reaches the 500-day mark, a series of developments highlight that the
geopolitical churn unleashed by Russia's invasion of its neighbour is far from finding an equilibrium.
The conflict has neither erased the differences within NATO nor completely isolated Russia. At the
same time, Russia is certainly less secure than it was before the war. On Wednesday, Turkey
reiterated its opposition to Sweden joining NATO - Recep Erdogan's narrow election win has done
nothing to soften Ankara's position. On the same day, Belarus President Aleksandr Lukashenko
confirmed that his country had received several nuclear weapons from Russia, including "bombs three
times more powerful than those [dropped on] Hiroshima and Nagasaki". Belarus, and Lukashenko in
particular, have stood steadfastly with Putin during the invasion and the country has served as a
launchpad for Moscow's military.
Turkey, the proverbial bad boy of NATO, opposes Sweden's entry because the latter, in Ankara's view,
has allowed "terrorist" groups, especially Kurdish organisations, to operate from and in its territory. But
the fact remains that NATO expansion is unlikely to push Russia to end the conflict - it will likely do the
opposite. Thus far, NATO has done well to avoid becoming directly involved in the war. Despite the
support in terms of money and weapons, there are certain red lines which the US-led alliance has not
crossed: Since the beginning of this year, Ukraine President Volodymyr Zelenskyy has been
demanding that the EU and/or NATO countries provide fighter aircraft to Ukraine - they haven't. Yet, it
is important to keep in mind that the dangers of the conflict becoming larger and more devastating are
greater as the war continues.
Russia's stated reason for invading Ukraine was that its security is compromised by having a NATO
country at its border. Now, with Finland having joined the alliance and Sweden perhaps next in line, it
is clear that its action was counterproductive. It has also pushed Moscow into playing second-fiddle to
Beijing. At the same time, a further expansion of the alliance could plunge the world deeper into a new
Cold War. Earlier this month, NATO Secretary General Jens Stoltenberg told The Indian Express that,
"… it's important to have partners also outside their territory… I think there is a potential in developing
more contacts and close relationships with India". Recently, there have been reports of a NATO office
in Tokyo. New Delhi, for its part, has been clear about not joining any military alliance: "NATO
template doesn't apply to India," External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar said earlier this month. The
aim for all global actors must now be to bring Russia and Ukraine to the negotiating table.
Q 101. 30405650 Which of the following pieces of information, if true, would most strengthen the
author's argument in the passage?
a) Sweden has publicly announced its intent to join NATO despite opposition.
b) The United States has made commitments to provide direct combat troops to Ukraine.
c) Russia has indicated that further NATO expansion will only escalate the conflict.
d) Belarus has requested more nuclear weapons from Russia to maintain a defensive stance.
Q 102. 30405650 What is the primary role of the third paragraph in the context of the entire passage?
a) It outlines Russia's reasoning for invading Ukraine and the counterproductive results of its action.
b) It provides a detailed account of NATO's military strategies in the Russia-Ukraine conflict.
c)
It defends Turkey's position on opposing Sweden's entry into NATO due to its support for Kurdish
groups.
d)
It criticizes India's stance of not joining any military alliance and pushes for India's involvement in
NATO.
Q 103. 30405650 Which of the following inferences cannot be drawn from the passage about the
ongoing conflict between Russia and Ukraine?
a) Belarus has received nuclear weapons from Russia during the conflict.
b) Turkey is opposed to Sweden joining NATO due to perceived support for Kurdish organisations.
c) NATO has provided direct combat troops to support Ukraine in the conflict.
d) The expansion of NATO may provoke further escalation in the conflict rather than resolution.
Q 104. 30405650 What is the main conclusion drawn by the author in the passage concerning the
ongoing conflict between Russia and Ukraine?
a) The expansion of NATO is the primary solution to end the conflict between Russia and Ukraine.
b) NATO should provide direct military assistance to Ukraine to counteract the Russian invasion.
c)
Turkey's stance on Sweden's NATO membership is the critical issue in resolving the Russia-Ukraine
conflict.
d)
Emphasize diplomacy and negotiations to avoid further conflict escalation between Russia and
Ukraine.
Q 105. 30405650 What is the primary assumption made by the author in order for the arguments in
the passage to hold?
a) Belarus will continue to support Russia regardless of the global pressure.
b) NATO's expansion is a primary cause of increased tension and escalation of conflict.

c) Sweden's entry into NATO will help resolve the Russia-Ukraine conflict.
d) India's reluctance to join NATO will significantly affect the alliance's effectiveness.
follow.
Passage – 5
Twenty years ago, actor Christopher Reeve gave a talk at the Yale School of Medicine, where he
made an impassioned plea to those opposing embryonic stem cell research on ethical grounds.
Reeve, who had lost the use of his limbs in an accident had become an ardent supporter of the
relatively new field of study, which he believed had the potential to cure his condition. He died in 2004,
too early to see the advances in stem cell research. One groundbreaking leap was announced at the
International Society of Stem Cell Research's annual meeting in Boston on Wednesday. Magdalena
Zernicka-Goetz, who holds professorial chairs at the University of Cambridge and Caltech in the US,
announced that her team has succeeded in creating synthetic human embryos using stem cells,
sidestepping the need for egg and sperm.
Zernicka-Goetz said that the primitive embryos do not have a heart or a rudimentary brain but include
cells that go on to form the placenta, the yolk-sac and the embryo itself. She hopes the research will
shine a light on the "black box of human development", the period before a pregnancy's progress can
be detected on a scan. The stem cell-based models could provide a window to understanding cases
of miscarriage and help study genetic disorders without having to use early embryos.
It's not yet clear whether these embryos have the potential to progress beyond the early stage. But
last year Zernicka-Goetz's team demonstrated that stem cells from mice could be programmed into
developing a beating heart and primordial brain. In a field of research that has been dogged by ethical
concerns related to issues such as cloning, the new development will pose regulatory challenges.
None of the animal embryos have gone on to produce living species. Even then, ethicists believe that
this is the time to set boundaries - limit research to welfare such as alleviating the trauma of patients
like Reeve.
Q 106. 30405650 What central message is the author conveying in this passage?
a)
The author argues that the ethical concerns surrounding stem cell research and synthetic embryos
outweigh the potential benefits.
b)
The author is celebrating the success of Zernicka-Goetz's team in creating synthetic human embryos,
considering it a pivotal moment for medicine and genetics.
c)
The author suggests that stem cell research has now advanced far enough to cure conditions like the
one Christopher Reeve had, who advocated for such research.
d)
The author contends that future regulation should entirely prohibit research into synthetic embryos
due to potential ethical dilemmas.
Q 107. 30405650 Which of the following assumptions underlies the author's discussion of Zernicka-
Goetz's research on synthetic human embryos?
a) Every scientific breakthrough is universally accepted by the scientific community.
b)
The ability to create synthetic human embryos implies an immediate capacity to cure genetic
disorders.
c)
The outcomes from stem cell research in animals can directly and precisely predict the results in
humans.
d)
Research on synthetic human embryos offers vital insights into early human development and specific
medical conditions.
Q 108. 30405650 Which of the following statements would most effectively strengthen the author's
argument about the potential impact of Zernicka-Goetz's work in stem cell research?
a)
Zernicka-Goetz's research has sparked intense interest from the general public, with many supporting
her work.
b) Stem cell research has consistently been a contentious issue, with a divided public opinion.
c) Globally, other research teams are replicating Zernicka-Goetz's method and report similar findings.
d)
Critics argue that the regulation of Zernicka-Goetz's work could be excessively cumbersome and limit
scientific progress.
Q 109. 30405650 Which of the following can be reasonably, inferred from the passage?
a)
Zernicka-Goetz's research has already resulted in the full development of a human being from stem
cells.
b) Ethicists universally agree that the development of synthetic embryos should be prohibited.
c) Stem cell research has the potential to alleviate the trauma of patients suffering from paralysis.
d) The creation of synthetic human embryos could alter our understanding of human development.
Q 110. 30405650 The work of Zernicka-Goetz's team in creating synthetic human embryos using
stem cells can be analogically compared to which of the following scenarios?
a) A mechanic overhauling an old car's engine to improve its performance.
b) An artist crafting an intricate sculpture from a single block of marble.

c) A chef mastering a complex recipe, creating a new dish from basic ingredients.
d) A detective piecing together various clues to solve a long-standing mystery.
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 111 to 115: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
A metro train commenced its journey from station A to station B. There were three intermediate
stations-X, Y, and Z-in that order between station A and station B. The fare between any two
consecutive stations was Rs. 10. The total number of passengers who boarded at station A was 560.
The ratio of passengers who boarded and left at station X was 11:9, respectively. At station Y, a total
of 60 tickets were sold for station B, and the total number of Rs. 10 tickets sold at station Y was 200.
The ratio of the total number of passengers who left at station X to those who left at station Y was 1:2,
respectively.
The revenue generated from selling Rs. 10 tickets at station A amounted to Rs. 1,800. Furthermore,
the total number of passengers who left at station B was 260. The earnings from ticket sales at station
Z reached Rs. 1,400.
Q 111. 30405650 How many passengers had left the metro at station Z?
a) 290 b) 320 c) 360 d) 380
Q 112. 30405650 How many passengers were on the metro between station Y and station Z?
a) 480 b) 500 c) 520 d) 540
Q 113. 30405650 Find the total amount (in Rs.) collected at station Y from selling all the tickets.
a) 3000 b) 3200 c) 3250 d) 3500
Q 114. 30405650 If the per person average weight of the passengers traveling on the metro from
station X to station Y was 40 kg, then find the total weight (in tonnes) of these passengers on the
metro. (1 tonne = 1000 kg)
a) 24 b) 20 c) 16 d) 26
Q 115. 30405650 If the ratio of the number of Rs. 20, Rs. 30, and Rs. 40 tickets sold at station A was
13 : 4 : 2, respectively, then find the number of Rs. 20 tickets sold at station A.
a) 220 b) 240 c) 260 d) 280
Directions for questions 116 to 120: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
The income and expenditure of five persons - Ahmed, Bhatnagar, Chopra, Desai, and Ehsan -
working in the same company, was noted. The work experience (in years) of these employees are
distinct natural numbers that are in Arithmetic Progression, such that the least is 6 years, for Desai,
and the highest is 14 years for Ehsan. The annual incomes of all except Bhatnagar are in Arithmetic
Progression and Bhatnagar’s income is Rs,18 lakh. The one with the least work experience earns the
lowest annual amount, which is Rs.10 lakh whereas Ahmed, whose work experience is more than
Bhatnagar, earns annual Rs.25 lakh, which is the maximum. Chopra, whose work experience is the
average of the remaining four, earns less than Ehsan. (Savings = Income – Expenditure)
Chopra saves 40% of his annual income, which is Rs. 1 lakh more than Ehsan's annual savings.
Bhatnagar and Chopra save the same amount at the end of the year. Ahmed and Ehsan's monthly
expenses are in the ratio 6 : 5 whereas Desai's savings are equal to half of Ehsan's.
Q 116. 30405650 The numerical values of work experience (in years) and annual income (in Rs. lakh)
were equal for which pair of friends respectively?
a) Desai and Bhatnagar b) Chopra and Desai c) Ahmed and Ehsan d) Ehsan and Chopra
Q 117. 30405650 What is the difference in annual incomes of the persons with the highest work
experience and second lowest work experience?
a) Rs.2 lakh b) Rs.6 lakh c) Rs.8 lakh d) Rs.3 lakh
Q 118. 30405650 Which of the following is a correct order on the basis of the annual savings of these
friends, where they are represented by their initials?
a) A > B > D > E b) A > C > B > D c) A > D > B = C d) B = C > E > D
Q 119. 30405650 The percentage of annual income that is spent is minimum for which of these
friends?
a) Ahmed b) Chopra c) Desai d) Ehsan
Q 120. 30405650 Which of the following statements is/are correct about the above mentioned
friends?
I. The monthly expenditure as well as savings of two of these friends is equal.
II. The difference between the annual expenditures of Bhatnagar and Desai is 5.5 lakh.
III. The average annual savings of these five friends is Rs.5.3 lakh.
a) Only III b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Both II and III

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Countdown Mock 09 (CLAT) 2024

a) b) Economic failure of the collective living model

Q 2. 30405650 Which of the following is an appropriate title for the passage?

a) The Revival of Israel's Kibbutz Movement: A Return to Collective Living

b) The Challenges and Successes of Israel's Kibbutz Movement

c) The Transition from Socialism to Commercial Viability in Israeli Kibbutzim

c) Change, even when for the better, is necessarily painful.

a) The process of implementing economic reforms to make kibbutzim commercially viable

c) The increasing attractiveness of kibbutz living to newcomers

d) The sense of community and partnership within kibbutzim

a) Simile b) Metaphor c) Hyperbole d) Personification

The power of family: Becoming a parent or a member of a family is an act of interconnectedness, of

a) Power has become more concentrated in the hands of a few individuals.

b) Power has undergone a transformation and is now associated with vulnerability.

c) Power has lost its significance and is no longer relevant.

a) The power of caring is limited to specific political parties.

b) The power of caring transcends political affiliations and time limits.

c) The power of caring is defined by authority and governance.

d) The power of caring is irrelevant in a democratic system.

a) Exercising control and dominance over others.

b) Providing material support and addressing the needs of children.

c) Acting justly and living virtuously.

d) Defining relationships based on authority and governance.

a) To highlight the role of parents' style of exercising power.

b) To emphasize the need for strong leadership in a post-Covid era.

c) To illustrate the power dynamics within a family.

d) To suggest the importance of hierarchical structures in society.

a) Activists are universally opposed to SEZs.

c) People in Goa have always supported tourism.

Q 12. 30405650 What is the main idea of the passage?

a) SEZs in Goa have significantly converted farmland into non-farm use.

a) Culture b) Lifestyles c) Religion d) Expectations

a) Dominated b) Symbiotic c) Rigidly d) Want

c) Investing in rural agriculture is not cost-effective compared to other sectors.

a) These countries need to focus on reducing their dependence on agriculture.

b) The governments of these countries should prioritize investment in urban areas.

a) Agriculture has been overlooked as a sector with significant growth potential.

d) The potential growth of agriculture depends solely on government support.

Q 19. 30405650 ODA is an acronym for:

a) Official Development Aid b) Overseas Development Agency

c) Official Development Assistance d) Operational Development Assessment

a) Investing in agriculture is the only effective way to reduce poverty.

b) Investments in rural agriculture have a significant impact on poverty reduction.

c) Climate change and shocks have no impact on poverty levels.

d) Emergency aid is the most effective solution for addressing poverty.

a) To provide a detailed description of the climatic conditions in the Himalayan region.

b) To outline the economic challenges faced by subsistence farmers in the Himalayas.

c) To discuss the potential effects of climate change on the Himalayan ecosystem.

a) Lack of awareness about climate change effects

b) Inadequate funding for research and preservation

c) Insufficient availability of food and water resources

d) Limited participation of local communities in conservation efforts

a) Mountain terrains. b) All forms of life in an area

c) Plant lives that cover Himalaya. d) Areas which need to be conserved.

a) Mitigation b) Erosion c) Degradation d) Alleviation

a) climate change in the Himalayas. b) protecting the Himalayan biodiversity.

c) d) None of the above.

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

a) It revoked Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.

b) It granted Jammu and Kashmir a separate constitution.

c) It extended special privileges to the residents of Jammu and Kashmir.