CL CD Mock 09

Countdown Mock 09 (CLAT) 2024
English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 25: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single
passage. Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the
corresponding passage. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the
question; in such a case, please choose the option that most accurately and
comprehensively answers the question.
Passage – 1
After decades of declining numbers, bankruptcies and privatization, Israel's kibbutz

movement is undergoing a remarkable revival, with rising numbers wanting to join the unique
form of collective living.
The population of about 143,000 is the highest in its 102-year history, after growth of 20%
between 2005 and 2010, according to the official Kibbutz Movement. More people are now
joining kibbutzim than leaving a reversal of the crisis years and the influx of working-age
adults and young children is helping to redress the balance of an ageing population.
Most kibbutzim have implemented reforms to become commercially viable and stem decline.
Liberalization including permitting differential incomes and home ownership has increased
their attractiveness to newcomers reluctant to commit to pure communal principles.
Only about 60 of Israel's 275 kibbutzim still operate a completely collective model, in which
all members are paid the same regardless of their allotted job. Most of the rest have
introduced wage differentials for people employed by the kibbutz but, more importantly, many
members now work outside the kibbutz and contribute a proportion of their salaries to the
collective.
Other measures have included selling kibbutz businesses, charging for meals and services,
and recruiting agricultural laborers from Southeast Asia. The changes, necessary for survival,
have been painful, particularly for a generation of kibbutz pioneers wedded to a socialist-
Zionist dream.
Increasing numbers of families are attracted to kibbutz living by the quality of education,
environment, space and security. But, according to Amikam Osem, a member of Kibbutz
Afikim near the Sea of Galilee for 50 years after marrying a kibbutznik, the most important
reason was a sense of community. This is the principle of kibbutz life: mutual help and
responsibility for each other. A kibbutz, he said, was like an orchestra with people playing
different parts but together we create something meaningful.
In the last two years, Afikim's membership has increased from 500 to 600, and there is now a
waiting list of people wanting to join. Many are the children of members, wishing to raise their
own families in a co-operative environment. Others have never previously lived on a kibbutz.
Afikim operates a progressive taxation system: the more you earn, the more you pay into the
collective fund. There is a safety net minimum income for all, and the kibbutz subsidizes
healthcare, education, social needs and care for the elderly. The kibbutz owns and runs
several successful businesses, plus dairy and fish farms, and grows dates, bananas,
avocados and olives on its land. The heavily subsidized dining room at the heart of the
kibbutz is open every day for lunch, and twice a week in the evenings.
Before being accepted as members with full voting rights, candidates rent homes on the
kibbutz. Most members now own their own homes, which can be bequeathed to their children
or sold back to the collective. Occasionally a candidate family decides that kibbutz life is not
for them; sometimes the kibbutz admissions committee rejects candidates as unsuitable.
Those with criminal records, a history of financial mismanagement or antisocial behavior are
not invited to join.
Here in the kibbutz, we are not neighbours, we are partners, says Osem. The kibbutz
movement is in a process of change in which there are many different directions. But the
thing that unites all kibbutzim is mutual responsibility.
Q 1. 11921248 Which of the following is not a problem faced by the kibbutz's movement in
the past?
a) b)
Dwindling participation in the kibbutz way of Economic failure of the collective living
life model
c) d)
An age ratio skewed in favor of the older Lack of support from the government for the
generation Kibbutz movement
Q 2. 11921248 Which of the following is an appropriate title for the passage?
a) The Revival of Israel's Kibbutz Movement: A Return to Collective Living
b) The Challenges and Successes of Israel's Kibbutz Movement
c) The Transition from Socialism to Commercial Viability in Israeli Kibbutzim
d) The Growing Attraction of Kibbutz Living: A Sense of Community and Partnership
Q 3. 11921248 Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
a)
After its remarkable revival, the kibbutz movement is shaping up to be what its founders had
planned.
b)
The revival of the kibbutz way of life has been driven by the increasing commercial viability
of the kibbutz settlements.
c) Change, even when for the better, is necessarily painful.
d) The kibbutz experience proves that collective living is a defunct model.
Q 4. 11921248 Which of the following best defines the term "liberalization" as used in the
passage?
a) The process of implementing economic reforms to make kibbutzim commercially viable
b) The shift towards individual ownership and external employment in kibbutzim
c) The increasing attractiveness of kibbutz living to newcomers
d) The sense of community and partnership within kibbutzim
Q 5. 11921248 Which figure of speech is used in the following sentence from the passage?
"A kibbutz, he said, was like an orchestra with people playing different parts 'but together we
create something meaningful.'"
a) Simile b) Metaphor c) Hyperbole d) Personification
Passage – 2
In its literal definition, power is the ability to control and influence others for a cause. Power is
all-pervasive, it permeates every sense of our being, it comes in many forms: Money power,
muscle power, profile power, chair power, academic power, bureaucratic power, networking
power, market power, purchasing power, ego power and tech power. In physics, power is the
rate of doing work. In metaphysics, it's about a human's control over her thoughts and
feelings. Post-Covid, power, for many of us, has got reshaped in terms of vulnerability. In all
this noise over power, we miss five of its aspects that lie at the heart of who we are as
Indians.
Spiritual power: For Socrates, power comes with the control and order of one's body and soul
- the discipline to act justly, live virtuously. The citizen should be more powerful than the
consumer. For Vivekananda, the spirit of unification of soul and body or Advait makes a
person powerful. For Mahatma Gandhi, we cannot understand the meaning of power until we
are aware of the enlightened self. That can only be done by reduction of self-centeredness -
the power of a genuine sense of humility, that comes from becoming aware of the power of
the inner self.
The power of family: Becoming a parent or a member of a family is an act of

interconnectedness, of our selves being linked to others. The source of power in a family is
affection and gratitude, respect and caring. Parents derive power not just from addressing
the material needs of children but by playing the guardian - one who provides moral and
emotional, physical and material support. A powerful family is one where the child sees the
parent as a benchmark of goodness, where she doesn't need to look elsewhere for the light
and to understand what the right thing is. Japan's Prime Minister Fumio Kishida sacked his
eldest son as aide amid public outcry over the latter's use of the leader's official residence for
a private party. Former New Zealand Prime Minister Jacinda Ardern left the chair for her
family responsibilities. By one's conduct at the family level, both imbued power with a sense
of ethics and being good.
The power of caring: Assumptions of authority and imperatives of governance seriously

detract from the spirit of power. Power should define a relationship not by asking the
question, "Who are you?", but by asking, "How are you?". When the person in power relates
to others through this question, only then can he be a true leader. How those in authority
relate to those who are powerless defines power and its limits. In a democracy, that means
listening to and addressing the needs and aspirations of all - those on the margins and also
those who may not have voted to bring you to power. This is the power of caring, it
transcends party lines and term limits. It is the power that endures.
Q 6. 11921248 What does the passage suggest about power in the post-Covid era?
a) Power has become more concentrated in the hands of a few individuals.
b) Power has undergone a transformation and is now associated with vulnerability.
c) Power has lost its significance and is no longer relevant.
d) Power has become more competitive and cutthroat.
Q 7. 11921248 Which of the following options captures the meaning of the last sentence
best?
a) The power of caring is limited to specific political parties.
b) The power of caring transcends political affiliations and time limits.
c) The power of caring is defined by authority and governance.
d) The power of caring is irrelevant in a democratic system.
Q 8. 11921248 What does the word 'vulnerability' as used in the passage, mean?
a) The state of being weak or defenseless. b) The ability to control and influence others.
c) The act of reshaping power. d) The significance and relevance of power.
Q 9. 11921248 Which of the following would the author agree to be the ideal responsibility of
'Power'?
a) Exercising control and dominance over others.
b) Providing material support and addressing the needs of children.
c) Acting justly and living virtuously.
d) Defining relationships based on authority and governance.
Q 10. 11921248 Why does the author mention 'guardian' in the passage?
a) To highlight the role of parents' style of exercising power.
b) To emphasize the need for strong leadership in a post-Covid era.
c) To illustrate the power dynamics within a family.
d) To suggest the importance of hierarchical structures in society.
Passage – 3
SEZs are probably one of those areas in the public eye where angels fear to tread, although
everyone has an opinion on it. They have dominated our thinking for the last couple of years,
beginning with POSCO located in the tribal areas of Orissa and more recently, Nandigram in
southern West Bengal. By and large, activists have come out strongly against SEZs because
they displace living communities and push them into a life of deprivation and want. On the
other hand, governments, industry and finance institutions are strongly in favor.
Not only is the situation complex, but the battle lines are also so rigidly drawn that there is
ample scope for misunderstanding. First, let us not confuse SEZs located in tribal regions
with those in non-tribal parts of India. The cultures, needs, lifestyles, expectations, and
consequently, behavioral patterns of the two are markedly different. In a nutshell, tribals
share a symbiotic relationship with their lands, particularly their forests, which we most
certainly do not. By linking the two types of communities we do not draw on their strength;
instead, we weaken the case for tribal people.
Even in non-tribal areas, the situation does not seem to be a simple and clear-cut division of
those for and against. To put it differently, it is difficult to classify them merely by their caste,
class and occupation. In many cases, SEZs are coming up in accordance with the wishes of
the local community. Maggarpatta city in Pune district, Maharashtra has come up because
120 families from that village took the initiative and decided to develop their lands into an
integrated township. The original owners continue to receive part of the income generated by
the township. This has been widely talked about as a model of inclusive development. Why
are such cases occurring? Are we, as activists, not reading the signals, right?
Perhaps we can learn best from the latest example, Goa. It is worth recalling that when
activists appealed to tourists to avoid Goa during Christmas and declared a ban on all
Christmas festivities in protest against the government plan to set up 15 SEZs, it was the
ordinary people who objected. This was because the tourist trade is vitally important to their
livelihood. In the 1970s, those very people were bitterly opposed to tourists because they
spoilt Goa. Now they cannot do without them. One is reminded of Disraeli who said
something like todays radical being tomorrows conservative. The activists backed down and
postponed their protest till after the New Year. So did the government. The chief minister
declared that no SEZ would be set up in Goa, some to stop in the planning stage itself, while
others where work has begun would be de-notified.
Now there is trouble on two fronts. The central government is in two minds about the
provision for de-notifying SEZs, but Kamal Nath, the Union minister for commerce and
industry sees no difficulty in de-notifying for, he says, which industry would like to go in
against peoples wishes? This is the first time that people have counted in the process of land
acquisition and macro planning.
There are two separate and seemingly contradictory lessons to be learnt from Goa. First,
activists may not always represent the people. So, go slow on the opposition. Second, if the
idea behind a SEZ is to convert land to non-agricultural use and provide non-agrarian
employment, Goa has done it already by having a sizeable tourist industry and absorbing
people in the non-agrarian sector. Hotels, transport, restaurants, entertainment, tourist
attractions, ethnic shopping, singing and dancing, swimming and the like are available to suit
different sized pockets. Local fish, feni and fiestas are much in demand. It now even beckons
visitors during the torrential monsoons due to imaginative promotion by the state tourism
department. Goa has found non-agrarian employment venues without noticeably converting
farmlands to non-farm use. Indeed, the rural un-spoilt look is the main attraction. So, go slow
on SEZ!
Q 11. 11921248 According to the passage, which of the following is true?
a) Activists are universally opposed to SEZs.
b) Magarpatta city was developed when all the locals took an initiative.
c) People in Goa have always supported tourism.
d) SEZ has been a complex, contentious issue with people having divergent perspectives.
Q 12. 11921248 What is the main idea of the passage?
a)
The importance of understanding the cultural and social differences between tribal and non-
tribal communities in relation to SEZs.
b)
SESz are a complex issue and there is need to take a nuanced approach balancing the
views of key stakeholders.
c)
The need for activists to reconsider their opposition to SEZs and the potential benefits they
can bring to local communities.
d)
The case of Goa as an example of successful non-agrarian employment and the cautionary
approach towards SEZs.
Q 13. 11921248 Based on the last paragraph of the passage, what can be inferred about the
impact of SEZs on farmland in Goa?
a) SEZs in Goa have significantly converted farmland into non-farm use.
b) The presence of SEZs in Goa has had minimal impact on farmland conversion.
c)
The rural and untouched appearance of farmland in Goa has been preserved while creating
signifcant non agrarian jobs.
d)
SEZs in Goa have led to a complete transformation of farmland into non-agricultural sectors.
Q 14. 11921248 Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as one of the
differences between tribal and nontribal regions?
a) Culture b) Lifestyles c) Religion d) Expectations
Q 15. 11921248 Which of the following words from the passage best captures the meaning
of "deprivation"?
a) Dominated b) Symbiotic c) Rigidly d) Want
Passage – 4
Hunger is rural - three-fourths of the world's poorest and food insecure live in rural areas.
Rural economies, specifically agriculture, have suffered from chronic under-investment.
Today, low- and middle-income countries are increasingly indebted, and global inflation and
local currency depreciation are making it challenging for them to finance their development
and climate action. Additionally, donor support for agriculture has stagnated at 4-6 per cent of
total official development assistance (ODA) for at least two decades. After peaking at
US$10.8 billion in 2020, it fell 10 per cent to US$9.9 billion in 2021. Estimates suggest that
we need US$300-400 billion annually until 2030 to transform food systems. SoSo,
investment needs to grow at least 30 times!
Investing in rural agriculture makes a lot of sense for both governments and companies. For
governments, boosting local production, local food chains and local markets means global
food security, jobs and less conflict. It will also mean lower GHG emissions (agriculture is
responsible for up to 21 per cent of total emissions). For the private sector, investing in small-
scale farmers should be a win-win: Production costs are low, returns on capital are high,
farmer organisations and cooperatives have shown they can achieve economies of scale,
and crop diversification can defray risk for farms and markets.
These investments can build long-term resilience and reduce the impact of climate change
and other shocks. Every US$1 spent on resilience saves up to US$10 in emergency aid in
the future. Investing in agriculture is at least 2-3 times more effective in reducing poverty than
investment in other sectors.
Yet small-scale agriculture faces many challenges. Small-scale producers still lack access to
credit, markets, technology, infrastructure, information and land. This is where multilateral
development banks and international financial institutions like the International Fund for
Agricultural Development (IFAD) can make a big difference. If we de-risk investments
through innovative financial instruments and mechanisms, we can help agriculture become
the centre of growth it has the potential to be.
Q 16. 11921248 What is the key conclusion about investing in rural agriculture?
a) Investing in rural agriculture can lead to global food security and job creation.
b)
Investing in rural agriculture has a minimal impact on reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
c) Investing in rural agriculture is not cost-effective compared to other sectors.
d)
Investing in rural agriculture is primarily the responsibility of governments, not the private
sector.
Q 17. 11921248 "Today, low- and middle-income countries are increasingly indebted, and
global inflation and local currency depreciation are making it challenging for them to finance
their development and climate action." - in elaboration of this sentence, which of these
options follows?
a) These countries need to focus on reducing their dependence on agriculture.
b) The governments of these countries should prioritize investment in urban areas.
c)
The financial constraints hinder the ability of these countries to fund their development and
climate initiatives.
d)
The private sector should play a more significant role in supporting these countries'
development and climate action.
Q 18. 11921248 "If we de-risk investments through innovative financial instruments and
mechanisms, we can help agriculture become the centre of growth it has the potential to be."
- Which of the following is the most convincing conclusion from this statement?
a) Agriculture has been overlooked as a sector with significant growth potential.
b)
De-risking investments in agriculture can lead to its transformation and significant growth.
c)
Innovative financial instruments are ineffective in supporting the growth of the agricultural
sector.
d) The potential growth of agriculture depends solely on government support.
Q 19. 11921248 ODA is an acronym for:

a) Official Development Aid b) Overseas Development Agency
c) Official Development Assistance d) Operational Development Assessment
Q 20. 11921248 "These investments can build long-term resilience and reduce the impact of
climate change and other shocks. Every US$1 spent on resilience saves up to US$10 in
emergency aid in the future. Investing in agriculture is at least 2-3 times more effective in
reducing poverty than investment in other sectors." - These sentences imply:
a) Investing in agriculture is the only effective way to reduce poverty.
b) Investments in rural agriculture have a significant impact on poverty reduction.
c) Climate change and shocks have no impact on poverty levels.
d) Emergency aid is the most effective solution for addressing poverty.
Passage – 5
The ministerial declaration issued by India, Bhutan, Nepal, and Bangladesh addressing food,
water, energy, and biodiversity concerns in the Himalayan region is a welcome initiative to
protect this biodiversity-rich mountain range. The vast area faces a variety of problems that
directly affect the local communities and threaten ecosystem services provided to millions of
people in neighbouring countries. Some of the serious issues that need urgent attention are
accelerated forest loss, soil erosion, resource degradation, and loss of habitat and
biodiversity. Climate change is a major source of worry and needs intensive study because of
its potential for severe ecological damage. It is a step forward therefore that four countries in
the subcontinent convened the Climate Summit for a Living Himalayas in Bhutan and evolved
a consensus-based mitigation effort primarily for the eastern part. The task before the
signatories is to build institutions that will pursue research and share knowledge, beginning
with a centre for the study of climate change. Sustained effort is necessary to achieve the
key goals: access to reliable and affordable energy; food and water security; demarcation of
connected conservation spaces; and sustainable use of biodiversity for poverty alleviation.
The Himalayan region includes many climatic systems: tropical, sub-tropical, temperate, and
alpine. Thanks to sheer inaccessibility, this remote and difficult landscape has mostly
escaped the ill-effects of the industrial farming system, such as pesticide and insecticide use
and the introduction of hybrid or transgenic crops. Himalayan biodiversity provides a
resource base for an estimated 80 million people, mostly subsistence farmers and pastoral
communities. The challenge is to provide strong support systems to help them adapt to
climate change. And yet data that can aid conservation of biodiversity are far from
comprehensive. India, for instance, acknowledged at the summit that an inventory of the
Eastern Himalayas, the target region for protection, at the level of genes, species,
ecosystem, and landscape is yet to be completed. This task can bring no delay. The
Himalayas form part of global natural heritage, and the U.N. Framework Convention on
Climate Change must provide substantial funding for research, capacity-building, and
preservation. It is also important to harness traditional knowledge and get local communities
to participate in conservation programmes. A good example of this is the protection plan for
snow leopards in India's Spiti valley. The Himalaya protection programme can achieve even
more if Pakistan, China, and Afghanistan join the initiative.
Q 21. 11921248 Which of the following is the main purpose of the passage?
a) To provide a detailed description of the climatic conditions in the Himalayan region.
b) To outline the economic challenges faced by subsistence farmers in the Himalayas.
c) To discuss the potential effects of climate change on the Himalayan ecosystem.
d) To highlight the achievements of the Climate Summit for a Living Himalayas in Bhutan.
Q 22. 11921248 Which of the following is one of the key challenges mentioned in the
passage regarding the Himalayan region?
a) Lack of awareness about climate change effects
b) Inadequate funding for research and preservation
c) Insufficient availability of food and water resources
d) Limited participation of local communities in conservation efforts
Q 23. 11921248 What does the word 'biodiversity' as used in the passage, mean?
a) Mountain terrains. b) All forms of life in an area
c) Plant lives that cover Himalaya. d) Areas which need to be conserved.
Q 24. 11921248 Which of the following words from the passage refers to the process of
wearing away or removal of soil or rock by natural agents like wind or water?
a) Mitigation b) Erosion c) Degradation d) Alleviation
Q 25. 11921248 It can be inferred that the author is mainly concerned with
a) climate change in the Himalayas. b) protecting the Himalayan biodiversity.
c) d) None of the above.

Collaborative effort to protect the Himalayas
ecosystem
Current Affairs Including General

Knowledge
Passage – 1
After the constitutional changes and reorganization of the erstwhile State of Jammu-Kashmir,
the Union territories of Jammu-Kashmir and Ladakh have been fully integrated into the
mainstream of the nation. As a result, all the rights enshrined in the Constitution of India and
benefits of all the Central Laws that were being enjoyed by other citizens of the country are
now available to the people of Jammu-Kashmir and Ladakh.
The change has brought about socio-economic development in both the new UT's i.e. UT of
Jammu-Kashmir and the UT of Ladakh. Empowerment of people, removal of unjust Laws,
bringing in equity and fairness to those discriminated since ages who are now getting their
due along with comprehensive development are few of the important changes that are
ushering both the new Union Territories towards the path of peace and progress. With the
conduct of elections of Panchayati Raj Institutions such as Panches and Sarpanches, Block
Development Councils and District Development Councils, the 3-tier system of grassroot
level democracy has now been established in Jammu and Kashmir.
Q 26. 11921248 What was the main consequence of the Constitution (Application to Jammu
and Kashmir) Order, 2019, issued on August 5, 2019?
a) It revoked Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.
b) It granted Jammu and Kashmir a separate constitution.

c) It extended special privileges to the residents of Jammu and Kashmir.
d) It established a new legislative assembly for Jammu and Kashmir.
Q 27. 11921248 What was the significance of Article 35A in the context of Jammu and
Kashmir?
a) It granted special powers to the President of India.
b) It allowed the Union government to amend Article 370.
c) It defined the relationship between Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
d)
It conferred special rights and privileges to the permanent residents of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q 28. 11921248 How did the term "Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir" change
after the modification of Article 370?
a) It was replaced by "Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir."
b) It was expanded to include representatives from Ladakh.
c) It remained unchanged.
d) It was dissolved following the modification.
Q 29. 11921248 What is the primary argument made by the petitioners challenging the
Presidential Orders of August 5 and 6, 2019?
a) The orders violate the rights of Ladakh's residents.
b) The orders lack proper legal authorization and are unconstitutional.
c) The orders infringe upon the powers of the Indian Parliament.
d) The orders discriminate against non-residents of Jammu and Kashmir.
Q 30. 11921248 What was the main objective of Article 370 in the Indian Constitution?
a) To grant special privileges to Jammu and Kashmir.
b) To establish a separate constitution for Jammu and Kashmir.
c) To provide autonomy to Jammu and Kashmir.
d) To create a separate legislative assembly for Jammu and Kashmir.
Passage – 2
During the third India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) Summit held in Papua New
Guinea, Prime Minister Narendra Modi engaged in meetings with leaders from Pacific Island
nations. On this occasion, he unveiled a comprehensive 12-step initiative aimed at advancing
India's collaborations with the countries in the Pacific region.
"FIPIC SME Development Project, Solar project for Government buildings, Provide
desalination units for drinking water, Supply sea ambulances, Set up dialysis units, Set up of
24x7 emergency helpline, Set up of Jan Aushadi Kendras, Set up Yoga centres," he added.
India's development partnership with Pacific Island Countries (PICs) encompasses various
areas, such as infrastructure development, with a particular emphasis on education, health,
and culture. Additionally, community development projects have involved initiatives such as
refurbishing libraries and school buildings, renovating colleges, providing IT infrastructure to
educational institutions, and establishing digital libraries.
India's involvement with these 14 nations aligns with its Act East Policy, and the country has
primarily fostered its relationships with them through developmental aid as part of South-
South Cooperation. As part of the Act East Policy, India established the Forum for FIPIC and
its inaugural gathering was convened by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Fiji in 2014. All 14
countries actively participated in this landmark event. In 2015, the second meeting of the
forum was held in Jaipur, with the participation of all 14 countries.
Q 31. 11921248 What is the highest civilian award of Papua New Guinea, presented to the
Indian Prime Minister during the 3rd FIPIC Summit?
a) Order of the Golden Crescent b) Order of the Star of Melanesia
c) d) Order of the Rising Sun

Grand Companion of the Order of Logohu
(GCL)
Q 32. 11921248 How does India's engagement with the Pacific Island Countries (PICs) align
with its vision for the Indo-Pacific region?
a) By establishing military alliances in the region.
b) By providing military aid to the Pacific Island Countries (PICs).
c) By promoting a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region.

d) By focusing solely on economic cooperation with the PICs.
Q 33. 11921248 What significant assistance did India provide to the Pacific Island Countries
during the Covid-19 pandemic?
a) b) Military support for disaster relief efforts.

Financial aid for infrastructure development. c)
Supply of essential medicines, vaccines, and
food.
d)
Technological assistance for space
exploration.
Q 34. 11921248 Which of the following Pacific Island Countries received a line of credit
worth USD 100 million from India for a solar power project?
a) Fiji b) c) Samoa d) Palau

Papua New Guinea
Q 35. 11921248 What was the main objective of the 3rd FIPIC Summit held in Port Moresby,
Papua New Guinea?
a) To establish a new trade agreement between India and the Pacific Island Countries.
b) To discuss the formation of a new military alliance in the Indo-Pacific region.
c) To promote cultural exchange between India and the Pacific Island Countries.
d) To enhance India's relations with the Pacific Island Countries in various sectors.
Passage – 3
In 1973, the Government of India launched Project Tiger, an ambitious, holistic conservation
project, aimed at safeguarding the nation's tiger population and preserving biodiversity. Over
the past fifty years, Project Tiger has achieved commendable success, making significant
strides in tiger conservation. Initially covering nine tiger reserves spanning 18,278 km2, the
project has flourished into a remarkable accomplishment with 53 reserves spread across
75,796 km2, effectively covering 2.3% of India's total land area. India currently harbors
almost 75% of the world's wild tiger population.
The first phase of tiger conservation in the 1970s focused on enacting the Wildlife Protection
Act and establishing protected areas for tigers and tropical forests. However, the 1980s saw
a decline due to extensive poaching. In response, the government initiated the second phase
in 2005, adopting a landscape-level approach, community involvement & support,
implementing strict law enforcement, and using modern technology for scientific monitoring to
ensure tiger conservation. This approach not only led to an increase in the tiger population,
but also had several critical outcomes that included the designation of inviolate critical core
and buffer areas, the identification of new tiger reserves, and the recognition of tiger
landscapes and corridors.
The monitoring exercise inculcated scientific thinking amongst forest staff and employment of
technology ensured transparency of data collection and analysis. India categorized tiger
habitats into five major landscapes based on biogeography and interconnectivity, enabling
effective ecological and management-based strategies. With significant changes in the
spatial patterns of tiger occurrence and an increase in unique tiger sightings from 2461 in
2018 to 3080 in 2022, now more than 3/4th of the tiger population is found within protected
areas.
Q 36. 11921248 When and why was International Tiger Day (ITD) established?
a) In 2010, to celebrate the successful recovery of wild tiger populations
b) In 2010, to raise awareness about the decline of wild tiger numbers
c) In 2012, to mark the anniversary of a tiger conservation organization
d) In 2013, to promote the conservation of other endangered species
Q 37. 11921248 What was the focus of the Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE)
report for Indian tiger reserves prepared by the Wildlife Institute of India and the National
Tiger Conservation Authority?
a) Global system for tiger protection b)

Alarming situation of tiger poaching in India
c) d) Decline of wild tiger numbers in India
Progress and challenges in tiger
conservation
Q 38. 11921248 Which of the following states has reported the largest tiger population?
a) Maharashtra b) Karnataka c) Madhya Pradesh d) Uttarakhand
Q 39. 11921248 What was the estimated tiger population declared by Hon'ble Prime Minister
Shri Narendra Modi during the celebration of 50 years of Project Tiger on April 9, 2022?
a) 3,925 tigers b) 3,167 tigers c) 3,682 tigers d) 3,000 tigers
Q 40. 11921248 What is the primary threat to tiger conservation?
a) Habitat destruction due to climate change b) Human-wildlife conflict
c) Disease outbreak d) Natural predation
Passage – 4
On June 22, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) issued a statement on the use of
cryptocurrency in the Latin America and Caribbean market, and about the rising interest in
blockchain-based central bank digital currencies (CBDCs). The global monetary authority
ended its statement noting that a ban on crypto "may not be effective in the long run" in the
region. This has raised eyebrows due to the international organisation's change in stance on
crypto in the LatAm market.
Countries like Argentina, Chile, and Columbia have experienced devaluation of their currency
against the U.S. dollar. To preserve the value of their savings, some residents have explored
converting their funds to U.S. dollars. However, there are legal restrictions controlling this.
Others have chosen to convert their assets to stablecoins - cryptocurrencies designed to
reflect the value of fiat currencies such as the U.S dollar.
Brazil, Argentina, Colombia, and Ecuador are among the top 20 in Chainalysis' 2022 Global
Crypto Adoption Index. Separately, a number of central banks in the Latin American market
are also considering CBDCs, meaning that more people could soon be exposed to
blockchain-based infrastructure.
Q 41. 11921248 What is a cryptocurrency?
a) Physical coins and banknotes used for digital transactions.
b) A decentralized digital or virtual currency secured by cryptography.
c) A government-issued digital currency.
d) A type of stock market investment.
Q 42. 11921248 What is the legal status of cryptocurrency in India?
a) Cryptocurrency is fully regulated and widely accepted as legal tender.

b) Cryptocurrency is banned and illegal to use.
c) The legal status of cryptocurrency in India is uncertain and subject to change.
d) Cryptocurrency is recognized as a form of digital art.
Q 43. 11921248 What is a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)?
a)
It is a digital form of paper currency issued by a central bank and backed by a government.
b) An online marketplace for buying and selling cryptocurrencies.
c) A digital version of physical banknotes and coins.
d) A form of stock market investment.
Q 44. 11921248 What is the role of the blockchain in cryptocurrency transactions?
a) It stores physical currency used in transactions.
b) It centralizes control over transactions.
c) It records and verifies transactions in a decentralized digital ledger.
d) It facilitates offline transactions.
Q 45. 11921248 Which of the following countries recently became the first in the world to
adopt Bitcoin as its legal tender?
a) Venezuela b) El Salvador c) Switzerland d) South Korea
Passage – 5
The annual Group of Seven (G7) Summit, hosted by Japan, took place in Hiroshima on May
19-21, 2023. Among other matters, the G7 Hiroshima Leaders' Communiqué initiated the
Hiroshima AI Process (HAP) - an effort by this bloc to determine a way forward to regulate
artificial intelligence (AI). The ministerial declaration of the G7 Digital and Tech Ministers'
Meeting, on April 30, 2023, discussed "responsible AI" and global AI governance, and said,
"we reaffirm our commitment to promote human-centric and trustworthy AI based on the
OECD AI Principles and to foster collaboration to maximise the benefits for all brought by AI
technologies".
Even as the G7 countries are using such fora to deliberate AI regulation, they are acting on
their own instead of waiting for the outcomes from the HAP. So while there is an accord to
regulate AI, the discord - as evident in countries preferring to go their own paths - will also
continue. The communiqué accorded more importance to AI than the technology has ever
received in such a forum - even as G7 leaders were engaged with other issues like the war in
Ukraine, economic security, supply chain disruptions, and nuclear disarmament. It said that
the G7 is determined to work with others to "advance international discussions on inclusive
AI governance and interoperability to achieve our common vision and goal of trustworthy AI,
in line with our shared democratic value".
Q 46. 11921248 Which of the following countries has issued guiding documents such as the
National Strategy for Artificial Intelligence and the Responsible AI for All report?
a) United States b) China c) European Union d) India
Q 47. 11921248 What is the significance of the Hiroshima AI Process (HAP) in AI

governance?
a) It aims to exclude international organizations from AI discussions.
b) It aims to promote the dominance of Generative AI (GAI).
c)
It aims to address challenges and opportunities associated with AI and establish principles
for trustworthy AI.
d) It focuses solely on regulating AI technologies in the G7 countries.
Q 48. 11921248 How does the Hiroshima AI Process (HAP) plan to achieve its objectives?
a) By promoting divergent regulation of AI among G7 countries.
b) By excluding international organizations from its operations.
c) By cooperating with organizations like OECD and GPAI.
d) By emphasizing the use of Generative AI (GAI) exclusively.
Q 49. 11921248 What is Geoffrey Hinton known for in the field of artificial intelligence (AI)?
a) Being the founder of Google's AI research division.
b) Pioneering the development of deep learning and neural network algorithms.
c) Inventing the first AI-powered chatbot.
d) Leading the development of robotic AI systems.

Q 50. 11921248 Threads is an online social media and social networking service operated
by____________.
a) Google b) Twitter c) Meta d) Apple
Passage – 6
The Justice G. Rohini-led Commission on the sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes

groups, constituted in October 2017, submitted its long-awaited report to the President of
India on July 31, after having received 14 extensions in the last six years. The Commission
was initially asked to finish its report in 12 weeks.
The President had formed the Commission headed by former Delhi High Court Chief Justice
G. Rohini in October 2017, to examine the question of sub-categorising the over 2,600 caste
groups listed in the Central OBC list.
The Commission had as a Member, Dr. J.K. Bajaj of the Centre for Policy Studies with
representatives from the Anthropological Survey of India, the Office of the Registrar General
of India, and the Social Justice and Empowerment Ministry. In the notification announcing its
formation, the Commission was tasked with first examining how much of 27% reservation
(jobs and education) and other government benefits meant for OBCs was dominated by
which caste groups.
The Commission had arrived at the conclusion that a small number of caste groups among
all OBC groups, were dominating reservation and other government benefits. Further, the
Commission went on to explore ways of sub-categorising these existing OBC groups in order
to make sure benefits can be redistributed equitably. This involved breaking up all OBC caste
groups into further categories based on how dominant the communities have been in availing
government benefits meant for OBCs.
Q 51. 11921248 What is the purpose of sub-categorization within the OBC community?
a) To allocate more benefits to affluent OBC communities.
b) To create further divisions within the OBC community.
c) To ensure equitable distribution of benefits among different OBC communities.
d) To eliminate the concept of reservation altogether.
Q 52. 11921248 What was one of the challenges faced by the Rohini Commission?
a) b)
Lack of data for the population of OBC Lack of political support for sub-
communities. categorization.
c) d) Rapid submission of the final report.
Excessive interference from the government.
Q 53. 11921248 What percentage of opportunities, such as jobs and educational seats, were
concentrated among just 25% of the sub-castes classified as OBCs, as per the Rohini
Commission's analysis?
a) 10% b) 50% c) 75% d) 97%
Q 54. 11921248 Under which of the following constitutional amendment acts was the
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) established as a Constitutional Body?
a) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act b) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act
c) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act d) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act
Q 55. 11921248 What percentage of OBC communities had zero representation in jobs and
educational institutions, as per the findings of the Rohini Commission?
a) 5% b) 25% c) 37% d) 50%
Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 56 to 85: You have been given some passages followed by
questions based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option
which follows from the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used
for choosing the answer and no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be
applied.
Passage – 1
Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act lays down that a marriage may be solemnized between
any two Hindus, on fulfilment of certain conditions. The conditions require that, at the time of
marriage, neither party has a spouse living and neither party is incapable of giving a valid
consent owing to unsoundness of mind. It further requires that neither party at the time of
marriage, if capable of giving a valid consent, has been suffering from mental disorder of
such a kind so as to be unfit for marriage and the procreation of children or has been
subjected to recurrent attacks of insanity and epilepsy.
The Act also lays down the minimum age for marriage of the bridegroom as 21 years and of
the bride as 18 years. The Act is strict about prohibited marriages and provides that if the
parties are sapindas of each other, unless the custom or usage permits such marriage, the
marriage shall not be a valid one.
Before 1995, Hindus could practice polygamy (having several wives) or polyandry (having
several husbands). Now, under the Hindu Marriage Act, only monogamy is permitted. A
person who marries during lifetime of his or her spouse, provided that the first marriage is not
null and void, commits the offence of bigamy. Sec. 11 of the Act makes a bigamous marriage
void and section 17 makes it a penal offence under sections 494 and 495, IPC. A marriage,
which is in violation of "any provisions of law", would be void under Section 494, IPC.
For prosecution for bigamous marriage, the first marriage should be perfectly valid and
should have been solemnized according to proper ceremonies. Thus, if the first marriage is
void, a person cannot be prosecuted for bigamy. Also, if the first marriage is voidable and a
court's decree annulling first marriage has been obtained, a person cannot be prosecuted for
bigamy. The persons who perform bigamous marriage cannot be guilty if they omit,
deliberately or inadvertently, to perform the essential ceremonies of marriage.
The Courts have held that a marriage under Hindu law by a minor male is valid even though
no consent of the parents/guardians was obtained. The marriage under the Hindu law is
sacrament and not a contract; a minor can't enter into a contract but can perform necessary
'sanskars'.
Q 56. 11921248 A is married to B. However, A develops a liking towards Z and starts living
with Z. A and Z have a child. B sues A for bigamy. Decide.
a) b)
A is liable, since he is already married to B. A is liable because his marriage to B is a
valid one.
c) d) Both (a) and (b).
A is not liable because A does not marry Z.
Q 57. 11921248 A, a Hindu, is married to B. However, 2 years after his marriage, he

converts into a Muslim and accepts Islam as his religion. Islam allows polygamy, whereas
Hinduism strictly follows monogamy. After his conversion, A marries C. B sues A for bigamy.
Decide.
a) b) A is liable as his marriage to B is valid.

A is liable as Hindu law prohibits polygamy. c)
A is not liable because Islam allows
polygamy.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q 58. 11921248 A, a Hindu girl, marries B, a Hindu boy, by performance of the required
religious ceremonies and rituals. A later realizes that B was impotent. A stop staying with B
and marries C. B sues A for bigamy.
a) A is liable because she was married to B at the time of marrying C.
b) A is liable because A's marriage with B is valid.
c) A is not liable because A's marriage with B is invalid.
Q 59. 11921248 A, a boy, and B, a girl, both Hindu and aged 20 years, elope and get
married in a temple. However, B, unsatisfied with A after one year of marriage, marries C. A
sues B for bigamy. Decide.
a) B is not liable as her marriage to A is invalid.
b) B is liable as she is married to A at the time of marrying C.
c) B is liable as she is a Hindu and her marriage to A is valid.
d) Both (b) and (c).
Q 60. 11921248 A and B fall in love in college and get married two years after their studies
are finished. Both get jobs in multinationals, right out of college. However, due to some
reasons, A is fired from his job. This state of unemployment and due to being unsuccessful in
finding another job, A enters depression and within a few years, is tested as mentally
unstable. During this time, B stops staying with A and starts living with C and eventually
marries C. A sues B for bigamy. Decide.
a) b)
B is liable because their marriage was valid.
B is not liable because their marriage is
invalid.
c) d) Both (a) and (c).
B is liable because she is still married to A.
applied.
Passage – 2
Section 403 of the IPC says that whoever, dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own
use any movable property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both. The section also takes into
account a dishonest misappropriation which is conducted for a limited time period only.
The offence of criminal misappropriation consists of dishonest misappropriation or

conversion to his own use any movable property. It takes place when the possession has
been innocently come by, but where, a subsequent change of intention, or from the
knowledge of some new fact with which the party was not previously acquainted, the
retaining becomes wrongful and fraudulent. It is the mental act of fraudulent misappropriation
that demarcates an act of embezzlement which is a civil wrong from the offences of criminal
breach of trust. This section also deals with an aggravated form of offence of criminal
misappropriation committed in respect of property after its owner is dead and before it is
taken possession of by his legal representative.
To 'misappropriate' means 'improperly setting apart for one's use to the exclusion of the
owner'. 'Converts' means appropriation and dealing with property of another without right as
if it is his own property. He is guilty only when he appropriates or converts to his own use
such property. Further, the property must be a movable property. Thus, a house cannot be
misappropriated. Misappropriation or conversion need not be permanently done; it may even
be for a time.
A mere misappropriation or conversion to one's use is not sufficient for the completion of an
offence, but that the element of dishonesty is essential. Where a person found a purse and
put it in his pocket, but was immediately after arrested, he was not guilty of misappropriation
for it could not be assumed that by the mere act of picking up the purse of putting it in his
pocket he intended to appropriate its contents to his own use.
The accused would not be guilty of the offence, where there was no information as to the
circumstances under which the things were lost and the probability was that property was
abandoned by the original owner. The section makes it clear that the property must be owned
by somebody. The finder must wait upon a reasonable time to allow the owner to claim the
property, before he appropriates it. If the owner is not discovered, then, under certain
circumstances, the finder may retain the property, but if he acts with reference to the article
found in such a way that the true owner may never discover that it had been picked up by
him, then he would be guilty.
Q 61. 11921248 A, in a hurry, outside a supermarket, picks up the bicycle belonging to B,
which is similar looking to a bicycle owned by A. A realizes this after he has reached home. Is
A guilty under section 403 of the IPC?
a) Yes, because he uses it for his own use. b) Yes, because A was negligent.
c) No, because A is guilty of theft. d)

No, because A had no dishonest intentions.
Q 62. 11921248 A co-owns a property with B. A uses the property, without the knowledge of
B, for an event organized by him. B eventually is informed about this, and decides to sue A.
Decide whether A can be held liable for misappropriation.
a) b)
Yes, because A used it for his own purpose. Yes, because A used it without B's
permission.
c) d)
No, because A was the co-owner and could No, because A caused no damage to the
use the property. property.
Q 63. 11921248 A has been the servant of B for 20 years and supports B entirely in his old
age. B dies of old age, and leaves behind the house, some furniture and the money lying
around in the house. A finds the money and without informing anyone, uses the money to
travel back to his village. The heirs of B sue A for criminal misappropriation. Decide.
a) A is liable, because he uses the money for his own purpose.

b) A is liable, because he had dishonest intention.
c)
A is not liable, because he was entitled to the money in lieu of the services provided by him.
Q 64. 11921248 A finds a 10$ bill lying on the road. He picks up the note and keeps it with
himself, with the intention of using it in future. Can A be held liable under Section 403?
a) Yes, because A had a dishonest intention of using the money for himself.
b) No, because A did not know who the owner was.
c) No, because A did not use the money.
Q 65. 11921248 A finds a diamond ring lying on the road in front of a jewelry store. A, not
seeing any person around, picks up the ring and takes it with himself, intending to sell it in
future. Is A liable under section 403 of IPC?
a) Yes, because he had dishonest intentions to use the ring for his own purpose in future.
b) Yes, because he did not try to find the owner.
c) Yes, because he was not the rightful owner of the ring.
d) Both (a) and (b)
applied.
Passage – 3
When the performance of the contract becomes impossible, the purpose, which the parties
have in mind, is frustrated. If the performance becomes impossible, because of a
supervening event, the promisor is excused from the performance of the contract. This is
known as doctrine of frustration under English law, and is covered by section 56 of the Indian
Contract Act.
The "doctrine of supervening impossibility" as enunciated in Sec 56 is similar to the "doctrine
of frustration" known to the English law. However, the former is wider than the latter and
covers both the physical impossibility (initial impossibility) as well as failure of object
('frustration' or subsequent impossibility). The "doctrine of implied term" was in vogue before
the doctrine of frustration, i.e. an implied condition would be read into the contract when the
performance becomes impossible from the perishing of the thing without default of the
contracting parties.
"Frustration of the contract" means "occurrence of an intervening event or change of

circumstances so fundamental as to be regarded by the law both as striking at the root of the
contract, and as entirely beyond what was contemplated by the parties when they entered
into the contract". The word "frustration" is a sort of shorthand": it means that a contract has
ceased to bind the parties because the common basis on which by mutual understanding it
was based has failed. It is not the contract has been frustrated, but that there has been a
failure of what in the contemplation of both parties would be the essential condition or
purpose of the performance.
The doctrine of supervening impossibility comes into play in two types of situations - where
the performance becomes physically impossible because of disappearance of the subject
matter; where the object the parties had in mind failed to materialize. The performance of an
act may not be literally (or physically) or legally impossible but it may be impracticable and
useless from the point of view of the object and purpose which the parties had in view.
The effect of frustration is that the dissolution of the contract occurs automatically; it does not
depend on the choice or election of either party (as in the case of novation or rescission of
contract) or on their intention or the opinion or even knowledge as to the event. A very
important principle follows from this, that frustration should not be due to the act of a party to
the contract, i.e. self-induced. When a contract becomes frustrated (i.e. becomes void), the
party who has received the benefits must restore them to the other.
Q 66. 11921248 A enters into a contract with B for supply of 50 kgs of carrots, to be grown
on A's farm. That year, due to heavy rainfall, A's crops get destroyed. B sues A for non-
performance of contract. Decide.
a) A shall not be liable because the damage to crops rendered the performance impossible.
b) A shall be liable because he did not perform his duty, as per the contract.
c) A shall be liable because he did not take reasonable care of his crops.
Q 67. 11921248 A and his son, both are painters. B hires A to paint a portrait of B. A and B
decide to meet for the same, but A dies before the meeting. B requests A's son to paint the
portrait but he refuses. Can B sue A's son for non-performance?
a) Yes, because A did not perform his part of the contract.
b) Yes, because A's son refused to perform A's part of the contract.
c) No, because the contract stands void on the death of A.
Q 68. 11921248 A acquires a license to trade a product X, in the market. The license was
subject to certain conditions which were fulfilled by A and he entered into a contract with a
vendor B in Hyderabad for procurement of X. However, before the procurement, the
government imposed a ban on the sale of the product X. The ban was lifted after 6 months,
but B refused to supply the product. Decide B's liability.
a) B shall be liable because he committed breach of contract.
b) B shall not be liable because the ban rendered the performance impossible.
c) B shall not be liable because the ban rendered the contract void.
Q 69. 11921248 A entered into a contract with B for painting B's live portrait within the
coming month. However, due to initiation in spread of corona virus in the country, the
government imposes a severe lockdown for two months, due to which A is unable to meet B
for the purpose of making his portrait. B sues A for non-performance. Decide.
a) A is liable as he could have made the painting post the lockdown.
b) A is liable as he did not perform his part of the duty.
c) A is not liable as the performance within the due date was rendered impossible.
Q 70. 11921248 A enters into a contract to marry B. A, at the time of the contract, is already
married. B, on gaining this knowledge, sues A for non-performance of the contract. Decide
A's liability.
a) A is liable because he entered into contract knowing that he is married.

b) A is liable because he did not inform B about his marital status.
c) A is not liable as the performance was rendered void due to A's marital status.
applied.
Passage – 4
In Muslim law, gifts are called "hiba". The gifts in India are governed by Transfer of Property
Act, 1872. However, the provision of Transfer of Property Act, 1872 does not apply to Muslim
law. The English term, 'gift' is of a wider connotation and applies to all transactions where
one transfers one's property to another without any consideration. The term hiba has a
narrow meaning.
According to Ameer Ali, a hiba will be valid if the following conditions are fulfilled:-
1. The manifestation of the wish to give on the part of the donor,
2. Acceptance of the gift, express or implied, by the donee, and
3. Taking of possession of the subject-matter of the gift by the donee, either actually or
constructively.
Every Muslim, male or female, married or unmarried, who has attained the age of majority
and who is of sound mind has the mental capacity to make a gift. The rule of Muslim law of
majority, i.e. attainment of puberty, does not apply to gifts. A person of unsound mind can
make a valid gift during lucid intervals. The Muslim law-givers recognize the doctrine of
ikrash or compulsion, and a gift-deed executed under compulsion is not valid. In such a case
the gift is voidable, and it can be avoided by the donor whose consent was so obtained.
In every gift, there must be a bona fide intention on the part of the donor to transfer property
to the donee. And, if a gift is made with an intention to defraud the creditors, the gift is invalid.
All forms of property over which dominion could be exercised, or anything which could be
taken into possession without any conditions, or which could exist as a specific entity, or as
an enforceable right, maybe the subject-matter of a valid gift. Muslim law, in this context,
makes no distinction between ancestral or self-acquired or between movable and immovable
property.
Capacity to make a gift is not solely enough. The donor must also have a right to make a
Hiba. A Muslim has a right to gift only those properties of which he has the ownership. If he is
simply a tenant in a house, he is not allowed to gift that house to someone because he does
not have the ownership of that house.
The person in whose favour the gift is made is known as the done and for being a competent
donee, the only essential requirement is that a donee must be any person in existence at the
time of the making of a gift. He may be a person of any religion, sex, or state of mind.
Similarly, a gift can be made of property on lease, a property of attachment or any actionable
claim. Unlike the concept of the will or wasiyat under Islamic law in which only one-third of
the total property can be bequeathed by a will, a Hiba or gift can be made of the entire
property.
Q 71. 11921248 A gifts a house he owns, to B but fails to deliver the title-deeds. Further, in
spite of frequent requests made by B, the mutation of name is not initiated and A is the one
still responsible for the payments of house tax. Decide whether this gift is valid or not.
a) No, because A is not a valid donor. b) No, because B is not a valid donee.
c) d) Both (a) and (c).

No, because A does not transfer the
ownership.
Q 72. 11921248 A, while going through insolvency, makes a gift to B, with the bona fide
intention of fulfilling it. Decide the validity of the gift.
a) b) Valid, because B is a valid donee.

Valid, because A had the intention to fulfil it. c) Invalid, because A is not a valid donor.
d) Invalid, because B is an invalid donee.
Q 73. 11921248 A and B lived together in a house owned by A. A gifts the said house to B,
but continues living in the same with B. B now owns the house and pays its rent in his own
name. Decide the validity of the gift.
a) Valid, because the ownership is transferred.

b) Valid, because A and B are valid donor and donee, respectively.
c) Invalid, because the possession of the property is not physically transferred by A to B.
Q 74. 11921248 A and B enter into a contract wherein A promises to gift to B his entire next
month produce, on his farm. Decide the validity.
a) Valid, because the ownership is transferred to B by A.
b) Valid, because A and B are valid donor and done, respectively.
c) Invalid, because A it is a conditional transfer.
d) Invalid, because is an invalid donor.
Q 75. 11921248 A and A's grandson, B, enter into a contract, wherein A promises to gift his
house to B on A's death. Until then, A holds onto the ownership and possession over the
property. The property is transferred to B after A dies, as per the contract. Decide the validity.
a) b)
Valid, because the ownership is transferred Invalid, because the transfer is conditional.
to B. c) Invalid, because A is not alive anymore.
applied.
Passage – 5
False imprisonment consists in the imposition of a total restraint for some period, however
short, upon the liberty of another, without sufficient lawful and reasonable justification. "Every
restraint of the liberty of one person by another is in law an imprisonment and, if imposed
without lawful cause, constitutes a false imprisonment which is both a criminal offence and
an actionable tort".
To constitute this wrong, "imprisonment" in the ordinary sense is not required, as a person
may be falsely imprisoned, viz. by being confined within the four walls or by being prevented
from leaving the place where he is (that may be his own house or an open field or a
bus/train). The detention of the person may be either (a) actual, i.e. physical (laying hands
upon a person), or (b) constructive, i.e. by mere show of authority (an officer telling any one
that he is wanted and making him accompany).
Under criminal law whether the restraint is total ('wrongful confinement', Sec 340, IPC) or
partial ('wrongful confinement', Sec 339, IPC), the same is actionable. A partial restraint is not
actionable under the civil law. Thus, when a man is prevented from going to a particular
direction but is free to go to any other direction or to go back, there is no false imprisonment.
The total restraint results in false imprisonment, however, short in its duration may be, viz. a
few minutes. Knowledge of a person that he has been imprisoned is not required and a
person may be imprisoned without his knowing, e.g. while he is asleep, drunk, or
unconscious.
For false imprisonment the detention should be without any lawful justification. Making a false
complaint to the police by the defendants, leading to the arrest of the plaintiffs, if without any
justification, will make the defendants liable for false imprisonment. A person may be liable
for false imprisonment not only when he directly arrests/ detains the plaintiff, but also when
he was "active in promoting or causing" the arrest or detention. Bad faith is not necessary to
be proved.
A person arrested by the orders of a judicial officer cannot sue the judicial officer for false
imprisonment, unless the judicial officer acts recklessly, illegally or maliciously. A person
detained by a private individual must be quickly handed over to the police, otherwise it will
amount to false imprisonment.
However, if a man entered certain premises subject to certain reasonable conditions it is not
wrong to prevents him from leaving those premises until and unless those conditions are
fulfilled. Thus, not allowing a person to go until he pays reasonable charges is no false
imprisonment.
Similarly, when there is volenti non fit injuria on the part of the plaintiff, the defendant cannot
be made liable. Thus, a miner going into coal mine by his own consent, cannot sue for false
imprisonment if he himself wrongfully stops the work and wants to be taken out before the
usual time.
Law permits the arrest of a person when he has committed some offence. Such arrest may
be made by a magistrate, a police officer or a private individual according to the
circumstances.
Q 76. 11921248 A is unlawfully restraint, for some time, from crossing a bridge via the
footway, but is allowed to cross it via the carriage way. Decide.
a) b)
False imprisonment, because his liberty is Not false imprisonment, because he can use
restrained. the other way.
c) d) Both (b) and (c).
Not false imprisonment, because it is for a
short duration.
Q 77. 11921248 A is unlawfully restraint, for some time, from crossing a bridge via the
footway, but can cross it via the lake, by swimming. Decide.
a) b) False restraint, because he cannot swim.

False restraint, because he prefers the
c)
footway. Not false restrain, because he can use the
lake.
Q 78. 11921248 A and B are detained by the shopkeeper of the shop they allegedly robbed.
The shopkeeper calls the police, right after the event, and keeps both A and B inside his
office, without informing them the reason for the same. A and B go to trial, wherein A is
charged guilty but B is proved innocent. B sues the shopkeeper for false imprisonment.
Decide.
a) False imprisonment, because they were kept in there without any justification.
b) False imprisonment, because B was not even guilty.
c) Both (a) and (b).
d) Not false imprisonment, because the shopkeeper called the police as soon as possible.
Q 79. 11921248 A resided in Agra and wanted to take a flight to Mumbai. The flight was
scheduled to depart from the airport in Lucknow, for which A reached Lucknow on the date of
the flight. A toll plaza falls between Agra and Lucknow which allows vehicle to move freely
from Agra to Lucknow, but charges Rs 500 for moving from Lucknow to Agra. A's flight to
Mumbai gets cancelled and he is forced to return back to Agra. A refuse to pay the toll and is
thus not allowed to leave Lucknow. Decide whether this amounts to false imprisonment or
not.
a) It does not, because A can pay and leave.
b) It does not, because A had knowledge of the applicable conditions.
c) It does, because it is not A's fault that he had to return.
Q 80. 11921248 A was allegedly charged with the murder of two kids and was under-trial.
After a year of the initiation of the trial proceedings, the court found him innocent and thus,
acquitted him. However, A was still kept in custody in the jail, owing to the impression that he
can be of danger. Decide whether this amounts to wrongful imprisonment.
a) It does, because he was acquitted.
b) It does, because there is no proof that he was of any danger.
c) It does not, because he was confined for public good.
applied.
Passage – 6
Into the second week of the amendments to Motor Vehicles Act kicking in, the step to sharply
increase fines for violations remains controversial. Gujarat this week reduced some of the
fines set by the Centre on humanitarian grounds. The overarching aim of the amendments
has wide support. Given that India has a shameful record of fatalities on account of road
accidents, even when compared to other developing countries, some of the measures in the
amendments, particularly the one relating to encouraging good Samaritans, are welcome.
The debate is over a steep hike in fines. For example, the penalty for jumping a traffic light
has gone from Rs 100 to Rs 5,000. Will a harsh measure be the game changer?
The newly passed Act increases the minimum compensation for hit and run cases as follows:
(i) in case of death, from Rs 25,000 to two lakh rupees, and (ii) in case of grievous injury,
from Rs 12,500 to Rs 50,000.The Act also allows the central government to order for recall of
motor vehicles if a defect in the vehicle may cause damage to the environment, or the driver,
or other road users. The manufacturer of the recalled vehicle will be required toreimburse the
buyers for the full cost of the vehicle.
The record across the world is decidedly mixed but fine remains a popular tool, with Finland
going so far as to link it to a violator's disposable income. What is unambiguous is that the
problem of fatalities is more pronounced in the developing world, which WHO says accounts
for 93% of fatalities with around 60% of vehicles. Richer countries have created safer roads
over the last four decades. There are two solutions and both are needed. One, is to
strengthen the regulatory and enforcement framework. Two, significantly improve road
design in India which is also a cause of fatalities.
Will stiff fines improve driving habits? Yes, if the violator is fairly sure that it's difficult to
escape. However, enforcement has been India's weakness. Once the current fuss dies, our
record suggests it will be business as usual. It may also encourage petty corruption.
Therefore, instead of fixing fines at a level where even a relatively wealthy BJP-administered
state feels pressured to lower it, focus on consistent enforcement. A model where most fines
escalate with repeat offences with the possibility of flying below the radar minimised is the
way forward.
Q 81. 11921248 With which of the following steps, according to the passage, would the
author most likely to agree with?
a) The government includes private contractors in road construction.
b) The government provides for high toll collection at the national highways.
c)
The government orders that any construction of road must be only after consulting architects
for its design and layout.
d) The government orders that the road construction be finished within a fixed timeframe.
Q 82. 11921248 According to the author, why would the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act be
a failure or be less efficacious?
a) b)
The Act does not learn from foreign The Act ignores the problem of tepid
experiences. enforcement in India.
c) d)
The Act does not have adequate penalties. The Act did not take suggestions from the
State governments.
Q 83. 11921248 Suppose, the Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Act is not passed. Chandu, in
an inebriated condition is driving back home when he runs over Gujan. Gunjan suffers left leg
and right arm fractures besides major bruises on her head. Chandu had fled the spot.
Decide.
a) b)
Gunjan will get minimum Rs.12500 from the Gunjan will get minimum Rs.12500 from
government. Chandu.
c) d)
Gunjan will get minimum Rs.50000 from Gunjan will get minimum Rs.50000 from the
Chandu. government.
Q 84. 11921248 Kalyan hits his car against a cycler Ranga, as a result of which Ranga dies.
Kalyan noticing no one at the accident spot, sped away. Decide based on the passage.
a) Kalyan is liable for causing death by rash and negligent act.
b) Ranga will be paid half by Kalyan and balance by government.
c) Kalyan has to pay Rs. 2 Lakhs compensation to Ranga.
d) Ranga is to be paid a compensation of Rs. 2 Lakhs by the government.
Q 85. 11921248 X industry manufactures passenger cars. It launched a new model which
uese a new engine technology resulting in greater power and better driving experience.
Shashank purchase one of this model cars for Rs. 10 Lakhs. A month later some scientific
studies found emissions containing large amounts of heavy metals in the exhaust of the car.
The government ordered the entire new stock to be called back. Decide.
a) Shashank has to be paid back Rs. 10 Lakhs by the government.
b) Shashank has to be paid back Rs. 10 Lakhs by the X industry.
c) Shashank has to pay the government Rs. 10 Lakhs.
d) X industry has to pay the government Rs. 10 Lakhs for polluting the environment.
Logical Reasoning
Direction for questions 86 to 110: Read the following passages and answer the questions
that follow.
Passage – 1
Initial estimates for India's external trade performance in May are a harbinger of even
tougher times ahead. The 10.3% decline in goods exports marks the fourth successive
month of contraction in outbound shipments and the sixth such occasion in eight months.
May's $35 billion export value is only 0.8% over April's figure that was a six-month low.
Barring electronics exports, which grew healthily year-on-year as well as sequentially,
exporters across sectors had a tough month. Engineering goods that make up over a quarter
of India's goods export basket, contracted for the 11th month in a row, while the employment-
intensive textiles sector shrank for the seventh straight month. The 30% decline in petroleum
exports (the seventh contraction in eight months) may largely be due to cooling global prices
that are also affecting other commodities' export values, if not volumes. After a 6.7% rise in
2022-23, goods exports are now down 11.4% over the first two months of this year. The
current estimate of $25.3 billion for May's services exports is quite sobering as well.
A 26.7% boom in services exports last year had helped narrow the steep goods trade and
current account deficits amid surging global prices of commodities such as oil and fertilizers
whose imports are inelastic for India. The trend reversal in that pace of growth began this
March and has accelerated to a critical point with a mere 0.7% rise in global services receipts
in May. The global slowdown that had clearly hit consumer demand for products, now
appears to be infecting the appetite for services too. With IT companies slashing guidance
and benching fresh recruits, some impact on domestic demand is visible and may intensify in
coming months. Core imports (excluding oil and gems and jewellery) have contracted 5.5%
so far in 2023-24. Overall goods imports are down over 10% through April and May, after
surging 16.5% last year to $714 billion. May's $57.1 billion import bill was just 6.6% below
2022 levels and almost 14% over April's figure which had been the lowest in 15 months. This
has lifted the merchandise trade deficit to a five-month high of $22.1 billion. Last month, the
Commerce Ministry had expressed hope that demand from key markets may revive from
August or September. Now, it believes the trend may improve from July or August. It has
again cited the World Trade Organization global trade growth upgrade from 1% to 1.7% for
2023. Even if that were to fructify, it is far from the 2.6% growth averaged in the last 12 years
and the respite for India may be limited. A 'business as usual' approach will not suffice any
more to keep this key growth engine of the economy firing.
Q 86. 11921248 What is the main conclusion of the passage about India's external trade
performance?
a)
India's export and import performance indicates a robust and consistent growth trend in the
global market.
b)
The drop in India's goods exports and the sobering estimate of service exports signify
tougher economic times ahead for the nation.
c)
The contraction in goods exports and services is mainly attributed to a decrease in global
consumer demand for Indian products.
d)
The Commerce Ministry expects a swift recovery in demand from key markets starting from
July or August, promising an imminent improvement in India's trade deficit.
Q 87. 11921248 What inference can be drawn from the passage regarding the impact of
global economic conditions on India's trade performance?
a)
India's trade performance is independent of the global economic slowdown and changing
commodity prices.
b)
The global economic slowdown has primarily impacted India's IT companies and the textiles
sector, causing a decline in domestic demand.
c)
The global slowdown, coupled with fluctuating commodity prices, has adversely impacted
India's goods and services exports, exacerbating the trade deficit.
d)
Global demand for India's services has consistently grown over the past year, thus
mitigating the effects of the global economic slowdown.
Q 88. 11921248 Which of the following scenarios would strengthen the author's argument
about India's external trade performance?
a)
Global consumer demand for Indian products experiences an unprecedented surge in the
upcoming quarter.
b)
The World Trade Organization further downgrades its global trade growth prediction for the
year.
c)
Indian IT companies report unexpected losses and layoffs, exacerbating the decline in
domestic demand.
d) There's a sudden hike in commodity prices, inflating India's export values.
Q 89. 11921248 What is a key assumption made in the author's argument about India's
external trade performance?
a)
The World Trade Organization's global trade growth predictions are always accurate and
reliable.
b)
Indian domestic demand has a significant impact on the nation's external trade
performance.
c)
Global consumer demand for Indian products is the only influential factor determining India's
export performance.
d)
The Indian government's policy measures will have no impact on the country's external
trade performance.
Q 90. 11921248 Which statement would the author of the passage most likely disagree
with?
a) The persistent decline in goods exports from India signals economic challenges ahead.
b)
The contraction in goods exports and services is a direct consequence of a decrease in
global consumer demand for Indian products.
c)
A 'business as usual' approach will be sufficient to sustain India's growth in the face of
declining exports.
d)
Even if global trade growth meets the WTO's upgraded prediction, the respite for India may
be limited.
that follow.
Passage – 2
The United States said earlier this week that it was rejoining the United Nations Educational,
Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). In 2017, the Trump administration withdrew
from the organisation after the Obama administration ceased funding, in 2011. The reason
for the U.S'.s return is ostensibly 'China', with senior U.S. administration officials stating that
the U.S.'s absence had helped China gain "more influence" in setting the rules around
artificial intelligence and the ensuing technological shifts. For a change, this is the first time
that 'China' has been proffered as a reason for the U.S.'s re-entry into, rather than its exit of,
a multi-lateral treaty. During the pandemic, in 2020, President Trump announced the U.S.'s
withdrawal from funding the World Health Organization - the year too when he moved to
withdraw the U.S. from the Paris Agreement. This followed from the Trumpist world view that
the U.S. was being shortchanged by major polluters such as China and India. In the case of
WHO, the case was over its 'inadequate' response time to the gravity of the pandemic
originating in China. Following political change, President Joseph Biden has now brought the
U.S. back into the fold of funding WHO as well as rejoining the climate treaty.
Unlike the 'America First' policies that propelled the Trump administration's exits, the U.S.'s
UNESCO re-entry has little to do with why it exited it in the first place, which was, as it was
believed, "an anti-Israel bias". The U.S., then and now, remains Israel's staunchest ally and
does not recognise Palestine. It is not unreasonable to infer that the re-entry is a sign of
America's growing paranoia about China. It is also appropriate to recall that the Reagan
administration withdrew from UNESCO in 1984 for, among other things, "advancing Soviet
interests". Developments in AI are slightly different from historical technological
developments. Here, product patents and their enforcement have helped countries such as
the U.S. maintain their edge, but with AI, China, along with a rising repertoire of patents and
research publications, has the advantages of a much larger population and a more powerful
surveillance state. This feeds into a cycle of generating greater troves of data that in turn
feed and improve machine learning systems that make its AI far more formidable. Unlike
other technologies, no country can have a sustained, natural edge in AI indefinitely. America
might bring in atleast $600 million in outstanding dues to the UNESCO but it is high time -
and countries such as India would do well to point this out - that the organisation gets stricter
on countries exiting and entering on frivolous grounds, alongside framing policies and
research that accommodate the tussles of a hyper-connected world.
Q 91. 11921248 Which of the following pieces of additional information would most
strengthen the author's argument in the passage?
a)
In recent times, the United States has taken significant strides towards re-engaging with
various international organizations, demonstrating a clear departure from the previous
'America First' policies that were in place.
b)
China's increasing influence in the AI field is evident through numerous published research
papers and significant patents.
c)
The United States has resolved its past grievances with UNESCO, allowing for a smooth re-
entry.
d)
UNESCO has announced new strategies to enforce stricter regulations on member states.
Q 92. 11921248 What assumption does the passage make about the United States' role in
international organizations?
a)
The United States' decision to rejoin UNESCO is primarily driven by the aim of reclaiming its
position as a prominent global leader in technological advancements, recognizing the
organization's potential to foster international cooperation and facilitate innovation across
various fields.
b)
The United States believes its re-entry into UNESCO will resolve all issues related to
China's growing influence.
c)
The United States sees its involvement in organizations like UNESCO as a means to
influence global rules and counterbalance potential rivals.
d)
The United States is primarily rejoining UNESCO to change its stance on the recognition of
Palestine.
Q 93. 11921248 Based on the passage, with which of the following statements would the
author most likely disagree?
a)
The United States rejoining UNESCO signifies a shift from nationalistic policies to a more
global collaborative approach.
b)
China's growing influence and advancements in the field of artificial intelligence are a
concern for the United States.
c)
The primary reason for the U.S.'s re-entry into UNESCO has nothing to do with its initial
reason for exit.
d)
Countries should be allowed to freely exit and rejoin international organizations like
UNESCO without any restrictions or penalties.
Q 94. 11921248 What inference can be drawn from the passage about the United States'
perspective on technological shifts and international treaties?
a)
The United States believes that its re-entry to UNESCO will ensure immediate technological
superiority over China.
b)
The United States uses international organizations to counterbalance China's growing
technological prowess.
c)
The United States is rejoining UNESCO primarily to resolve the organization's financial dues
and funding issues.
d)
The United States intends to leverage its re-entry to UNESCO to change the organization's
perceived "anti-Israel bias."
Q 95. 11921248 What is the main idea conveyed in the passage about the United States
rejoining UNESCO?
a)
The United States decided to rejoin UNESCO due to concerns over an alleged "anti-Israel
bias" that initially led to their exit.
b)
The re-entry of the United States to UNESCO is primarily driven by fears of China's
increasing influence, particularly in the sphere of artificial intelligence.
c)
The United States rejoining UNESCO signifies a shift from the 'America First' policies of the
Trump administration towards a more global collaborative approach.
d)
The United States is rejoining UNESCO to bring in outstanding dues and to influence the
organization to get stricter on countries exiting and entering on frivolous grounds.
that follow.
Passage – 3
Former U.S. President Donald Trump has pled not guilty to 37 charges related to wilfully
withholding classified documents from the White House and obstructing justice in their return.
Of these charges, 31 relate to Espionage Act violations, some with a potential prison
sentence of 20 years. After he was arraigned in court and entered his plea in Miami, Florida,
Mr. Trump was released on bond with the condition that he would not be permitted to discuss
the case with a specific list of witnesses in the case. This is the second indictment that the
45th President has been slapped with, following a prior one relating to allegations that he
paid hush money to an adult film star Stormy Daniels, potentially in violation of federal
campaign finance laws, a felony. The latest charges relate to more than 100 classified
documents discovered at his private residence in Florida, in August, some allegedly
pertaining to defence and weapons capabilities of the U.S. and other countries. According to
prosecutors, Mr. Trump hoarded and hid the files, and then went on to engage in a
conspiracy to obstruct the FBI's inquiry, with the help of an aide.
Unsurprisingly, both indictments have been used by the Trump campaign to fuel its
mobilisation efforts, including not only repeated messaging about a "witch hunt" but also
misinformation regarding the alleged culpability of the U.S. President, Democrat Joe Biden,
and Mr. Trump's 2016 Democratic rival and former Secretary of State Hillary Clinton. It is true
that classified documents were also discovered on properties linked to Mr. Biden in
Delaware, including some dating back to his time as Senator and Vice President, and in the
Indiana residence of former Republican Vice President Mike Pence. Yet, no conclusion has
been reached by the authorities regarding ongoing investigations into these potential
breaches. Meanwhile, every turn of the screw in the Trump cases is further being used to
vitiate the political ecosystem with an eye on the 2024 presidential election. The electorate
was already bitterly polarised on hot-button issues - from the economy and jobs to
reproductive rights and immigration reform. Barring rare exceptions, such as the recent
coming together of Republicans and Democrats to raise the national debt ceiling and
narrowly avoid a spiralling credit ratings crisis, bipartisanship has been in scarce supply. The
post-COVID economic rebound has been dampened by inflationary fears, and much work
remains unfinished to fortify public health systems. The law will take its course on every
investigation into potential wrongdoing by political leaders. Even so, as the U.S. enters the
deep end of the campaign cycle, it would behove all parties to show restraint in putting out
extremist views and focus on the greater good of all Americans.
Q 96. 11921248 Which of the following statements would the author of the passage most
likely disagree with?
a)
The legal proceedings against Donald Trump are contributing to the polarization of the U.S.
political landscape.
b) Indictments against Trump won't sway the political climate or affect the 2024 election.
c) The post-COVID economic rebound has been dampened by inflationary fears.
d) The American electorate is already deeply polarized on various key issues.
Q 97. 11921248 What is an underlying assumption made in the passage concerning the
legal and political climate surrounding former U.S. President Donald Trump?
a)
The political landscape in the United States is predominantly influenced by the personal
lives of its political leaders.
b)
Legal proceedings and indictments against political leaders inherently lead to an increase in
political polarization.
c) Trump's legal charges and actions may affect the 2024 election.
d)
The majority of Americans support Trump's claims of the indictments being part of a "witch
hunt".
Q 98. 11921248 Which of the following pieces of evidence would most strengthen the
author's argument that legal developments surrounding former President Donald Trump are
being utilized as political tools for the upcoming 2024 elections?
a) Donald Trump has decided to run for the 2024 presidential elections.
b)
A recent national poll shows that Trump's approval ratings have significantly increased since
the charges were filed.
c)
Evidence that Trump's campaign team has been using the indictments to fuel fundraising
efforts and to rally support by portraying him as a victim of political bias.
d)
A report indicating that public interest in the charges against Trump has decreased over
time.
Q 99. 11921248 Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the current political
climate in the United States and its potential impact on the upcoming 2024 election?
a)
The political climate in the United States is marked by harmony and bipartisanship, which is
likely to lead to a smooth 2024 election.
b)
Despite the charges against Trump and other leaders, the political climate remains
indifferent to these developments, rendering them inconsequential for the 2024 election.
c)
Ongoing legal cases against political leaders like Trump are being politically exploited,
possibly influencing the 2024 election amid a highly polarized climate.
d)
The charges against Trump have unanimously been perceived negatively by the American
electorate, severely hampering his chances in the 2024 election.
Q 100. 11921248 What is the main idea of the passage regarding the recent legal
developments surrounding former U.S. President Donald Trump and their political
implications?
a)
Donald Trump has been cleared of all charges related to violations of the Espionage Act and
obstruction of justice, which has strengthened his political positioning for the 2024 election.
b)
Donald Trump has pled guilty to 37 charges, which include allegations of withholding
classified documents and obstructing justice, significantly impacting his political future.
c)
Trump pleads not guilty to 37 charges, including Espionage Act violations and obstruction of
justice, fueling political maneuvering during the 2024 campaign.
d)
The charges against Donald Trump for withholding classified documents and obstructing
justice have led to a decrease in political polarization in the United States.
that follow.
Passage – 4
As the conflict in Ukraine reaches the 500-day mark, a series of developments highlight that
the geopolitical churn unleashed by Russia's invasion of its neighbour is far from finding an
equilibrium. The conflict has neither erased the differences within NATO nor completely
isolated Russia. At the same time, Russia is certainly less secure than it was before the war.
On Wednesday, Turkey reiterated its opposition to Sweden joining NATO - Recep Erdogan's
narrow election win has done nothing to soften Ankara's position. On the same day, Belarus
President Aleksandr Lukashenko confirmed that his country had received several nuclear
weapons from Russia, including "bombs three times more powerful than those [dropped on]
Hiroshima and Nagasaki". Belarus, and Lukashenko in particular, have stood steadfastly with
Putin during the invasion and the country has served as a launchpad for Moscow's military.
Turkey, the proverbial bad boy of NATO, opposes Sweden's entry because the latter, in
Ankara's view, has allowed "terrorist" groups, especially Kurdish organisations, to operate
from and in its territory. But the fact remains that NATO expansion is unlikely to push Russia
to end the conflict - it will likely do the opposite. Thus far, NATO has done well to avoid
becoming directly involved in the war. Despite the support in terms of money and weapons,
there are certain red lines which the US-led alliance has not crossed: Since the beginning of
this year, Ukraine President Volodymyr Zelenskyy has been demanding that the EU and/or
NATO countries provide fighter aircraft to Ukraine - they haven't. Yet, it is important to keep in
mind that the dangers of the conflict becoming larger and more devastating are greater as
the war continues.
Russia's stated reason for invading Ukraine was that its security is compromised by having a
NATO country at its border. Now, with Finland having joined the alliance and Sweden
perhaps next in line, it is clear that its action was counterproductive. It has also pushed
Moscow into playing second-fiddle to Beijing. At the same time, a further expansion of the
alliance could plunge the world deeper into a new Cold War. Earlier this month, NATO
Secretary General Jens Stoltenberg told The Indian Express that, "… it's important to have
partners also outside their territory… I think there is a potential in developing more contacts
and close relationships with India". Recently, there have been reports of a NATO office in
Tokyo. New Delhi, for its part, has been clear about not joining any military alliance: "NATO
template doesn't apply to India," External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar said earlier this
month. The aim for all global actors must now be to bring Russia and Ukraine to the
negotiating table.
Q 101. 11921248 Which of the following pieces of information, if true, would most strengthen
the author's argument in the passage?
a) Sweden has publicly announced its intent to join NATO despite opposition.
b) The United States has made commitments to provide direct combat troops to Ukraine.
c) Russia has indicated that further NATO expansion will only escalate the conflict.
d)
Belarus has requested more nuclear weapons from Russia to maintain a defensive stance.
Q 102. 11921248 What is the primary role of the third paragraph in the context of the entire
passage?
a)
It outlines Russia's reasoning for invading Ukraine and the counterproductive results of its
action.
b) It provides a detailed account of NATO's military strategies in the Russia-Ukraine conflict.
c)
It defends Turkey's position on opposing Sweden's entry into NATO due to its support for
Kurdish groups.
d)
It criticizes India's stance of not joining any military alliance and pushes for India's
involvement in NATO.
Q 103. 11921248 Which of the following inferences cannot be drawn from the passage
about the ongoing conflict between Russia and Ukraine?
a) Belarus has received nuclear weapons from Russia during the conflict.
b)
Turkey is opposed to Sweden joining NATO due to perceived support for Kurdish
organisations.
c) NATO has provided direct combat troops to support Ukraine in the conflict.
d)
The expansion of NATO may provoke further escalation in the conflict rather than resolution.
Q 104. 11921248 What is the main conclusion drawn by the author in the passage
concerning the ongoing conflict between Russia and Ukraine?
a)
The expansion of NATO is the primary solution to end the conflict between Russia and
Ukraine.
b)
NATO should provide direct military assistance to Ukraine to counteract the Russian
invasion.
c)
Turkey's stance on Sweden's NATO membership is the critical issue in resolving the Russia-
Ukraine conflict.
d)
Emphasize diplomacy and negotiations to avoid further conflict escalation between Russia
and Ukraine.
Q 105. 11921248 What is the primary assumption made by the author in order for the
arguments in the passage to hold?
a) Belarus will continue to support Russia regardless of the global pressure.
b) NATO's expansion is a primary cause of increased tension and escalation of conflict.
c) Sweden's entry into NATO will help resolve the Russia-Ukraine conflict.
d) India's reluctance to join NATO will significantly affect the alliance's effectiveness.
that follow.
Passage – 5
Twenty years ago, actor Christopher Reeve gave a talk at the Yale School of Medicine,
where he made an impassioned plea to those opposing embryonic stem cell research on
ethical grounds. Reeve, who had lost the use of his limbs in an accident had become an
ardent supporter of the relatively new field of study, which he believed had the potential to
cure his condition. He died in 2004, too early to see the advances in stem cell research. One
groundbreaking leap was announced at the International Society of Stem Cell Research's
annual meeting in Boston on Wednesday. Magdalena Zernicka-Goetz, who holds
professorial chairs at the University of Cambridge and Caltech in the US, announced that her
team has succeeded in creating synthetic human embryos using stem cells, sidestepping the
need for egg and sperm.
Zernicka-Goetz said that the primitive embryos do not have a heart or a rudimentary brain
but include cells that go on to form the placenta, the yolk-sac and the embryo itself. She
hopes the research will shine a light on the "black box of human development", the period
before a pregnancy's progress can be detected on a scan. The stem cell-based models could
provide a window to understanding cases of miscarriage and help study genetic disorders
without having to use early embryos.
It's not yet clear whether these embryos have the potential to progress beyond the early
stage. But last year Zernicka-Goetz's team demonstrated that stem cells from mice could be
programmed into developing a beating heart and primordial brain. In a field of research that
has been dogged by ethical concerns related to issues such as cloning, the new
development will pose regulatory challenges. None of the animal embryos have gone on to
produce living species. Even then, ethicists believe that this is the time to set boundaries -
limit research to welfare such as alleviating the trauma of patients like Reeve.
Q 106. 11921248 What central message is the author conveying in this passage?
a)
The author argues that the ethical concerns surrounding stem cell research and synthetic
embryos outweigh the potential benefits.
b)
The author is celebrating the success of Zernicka-Goetz's team in creating synthetic human
embryos, considering it a pivotal moment for medicine and genetics.
c)
The author suggests that stem cell research has now advanced far enough to cure
conditions like the one Christopher Reeve had, who advocated for such research.
d)
The author contends that future regulation should entirely prohibit research into synthetic
embryos due to potential ethical dilemmas.
Q 107. 11921248 Which of the following assumptions underlies the author's discussion of
Zernicka-Goetz's research on synthetic human embryos?
a) Every scientific breakthrough is universally accepted by the scientific community.
b)
The ability to create synthetic human embryos implies an immediate capacity to cure genetic
disorders.
c)
The outcomes from stem cell research in animals can directly and precisely predict the
results in humans.
d)
Research on synthetic human embryos offers vital insights into early human development
and specific medical conditions.
Q 108. 11921248 Which of the following statements would most effectively strengthen the
author's argument about the potential impact of Zernicka-Goetz's work in stem cell research?
a)
Zernicka-Goetz's research has sparked intense interest from the general public, with many
supporting her work.
b)
Stem cell research has consistently been a contentious issue, with a divided public opinion.
c)
Globally, other research teams are replicating Zernicka-Goetz's method and report similar
findings.
d)
Critics argue that the regulation of Zernicka-Goetz's work could be excessively cumbersome
and limit scientific progress.
Q 109. 11921248 Which of the following can be reasonably, inferred from the passage?
a)
Zernicka-Goetz's research has already resulted in the full development of a human being
from stem cells.
b)
Ethicists universally agree that the development of synthetic embryos should be prohibited.
c)
Stem cell research has the potential to alleviate the trauma of patients suffering from
paralysis.
d)
The creation of synthetic human embryos could alter our understanding of human
development.
Q 110. 11921248 The work of Zernicka-Goetz's team in creating synthetic human embryos
using stem cells can be analogically compared to which of the following scenarios?
a) A mechanic overhauling an old car's engine to improve its performance.
b) An artist crafting an intricate sculpture from a single block of marble.
c) A chef mastering a complex recipe, creating a new dish from basic ingredients.
d) A detective piecing together various clues to solve a long-standing mystery.
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 111 to 115: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
A metro train commenced its journey from station A to station B. There were three
intermediate stations-X, Y, and Z-in that order between station A and station B. The fare
between any two consecutive stations was Rs. 10. The total number of passengers who
boarded at station A was 560.
The ratio of passengers who boarded and left at station X was 11:9, respectively. At station Y,
a total of 60 tickets were sold for station B, and the total number of Rs. 10 tickets sold at
station Y was 200. The ratio of the total number of passengers who left at station X to those
who left at station Y was 1:2, respectively.
The revenue generated from selling Rs. 10 tickets at station A amounted to Rs. 1,800.
Furthermore, the total number of passengers who left at station B was 260. The earnings
from ticket sales at station Z reached Rs. 1,400.
Q 111. 11921248 How many passengers had left the metro at station Z?
a) 290 b) 320 c) 360 d) 380
Q 112. 11921248 How many passengers were on the metro between station Y and station
Z?
a) 480 b) 500 c) 520 d) 540
Q 113. 11921248 Find the total amount (in Rs.) collected at station Y from selling all the
tickets.
a) 3000 b) 3200 c) 3250 d) 3500
Q 114. 11921248 If the per person average weight of the passengers traveling on the metro
from station X to station Y was 40 kg, then find the total weight (in tonnes) of these
passengers on the metro. (1 tonne = 1000 kg)
a) 24 b) 20 c) 16 d) 26
Q 115. 11921248 If the ratio of the number of Rs. 20, Rs. 30, and Rs. 40 tickets sold at
station A was 13 : 4 : 2, respectively, then find the number of Rs. 20 tickets sold at station A.
a) 220 b) 240 c) 260 d) 280
Directions for questions 116 to 120: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
The income and expenditure of five persons - Ahmed, Bhatnagar, Chopra, Desai, and Ehsan
- working in the same company, was noted. The work experience (in years) of these
employees are distinct natural numbers that are in Arithmetic Progression, such that the least
is 6 years, for Desai, and the highest is 14 years for Ehsan. The annual incomes of all except
Bhatnagar are in Arithmetic Progression and Bhatnagar’s income is Rs,18 lakh. The one with
the least work experience earns the lowest annual amount, which is Rs.10 lakh whereas
Ahmed, whose work experience is more than Bhatnagar, earns annual Rs.25 lakh, which is
the maximum. Chopra, whose work experience is the average of the remaining four, earns
less than Ehsan. (Savings = Income – Expenditure)
Chopra saves 40% of his annual income, which is Rs. 1 lakh more than Ehsan's annual
savings. Bhatnagar and Chopra save the same amount at the end of the year. Ahmed and
Ehsan's monthly expenses are in the ratio 6 : 5 whereas Desai's savings are equal to half of
Ehsan's.
Q 116. 11921248 The numerical values of work experience (in years) and annual income (in
Rs. lakh) were equal for which pair of friends respectively?
a) b) Chopra and Desai c) Ahmed and Ehsan d)

Desai and Bhatnagar Ehsan and Chopra
Q 117. 11921248 What is the difference in annual incomes of the persons with the highest
work experience and second lowest work experience?
a) Rs.2 lakh b) Rs.6 lakh c) Rs.8 lakh d) Rs.3 lakh
Q 118. 11921248 Which of the following is a correct order on the basis of the annual savings
of these friends, where they are represented by their initials?
a) A > B > D > E b) A > C > B > D c) A > D > B = C d) B = C > E > D
Q 119. 11921248 The percentage of annual income that is spent is minimum for which of
these friends?
a) Ahmed b) Chopra c) Desai d) Ehsan
Q 120. 11921248 Which of the following statements is/are correct about the above
mentioned friends?
I. The monthly expenditure as well as savings of two of these friends is equal.
II. The difference between the annual expenditures of Bhatnagar and Desai is 5.5 lakh.
III. The average annual savings of these five friends is Rs.5.3 lakh.
a) Only III b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Both II and III

CL CD Mock 09

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

CL CD Mock 09

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Countdown Mock 09 (CLAT) 2024

After decades of declining numbers, bankruptcies and privatization, Israel's kibbutz

Q 2. 11921248 Which of the following is an appropriate title for the passage?

a) The Revival of Israel's Kibbutz Movement: A Return to Collective Living

b) The Challenges and Successes of Israel's Kibbutz Movement

c) The Transition from Socialism to Commercial Viability in Israeli Kibbutzim

d) The Growing Attraction of Kibbutz Living: A Sense of Community and Partnership

d) The kibbutz experience proves that collective living is a defunct model.

a) The process of implementing economic reforms to make kibbutzim commercially viable

b) The shift towards individual ownership and external employment in kibbutzim

c) The increasing attractiveness of kibbutz living to newcomers

d) The sense of community and partnership within kibbutzim

a) Simile b) Metaphor c) Hyperbole d) Personification

The power of family: Becoming a parent or a member of a family is an act of

The power of caring: Assumptions of authority and imperatives of governance seriously

a) Power has become more concentrated in the hands of a few individuals.

b) Power has undergone a transformation and is now associated with vulnerability.

c) Power has lost its significance and is no longer relevant.

d) Power has become more competitive and cutthroat.

a) The power of caring is limited to specific political parties.

b) The power of caring transcends political affiliations and time limits.

c) The power of caring is defined by authority and governance.

d) The power of caring is irrelevant in a democratic system.

c) The act of reshaping power. d) The significance and relevance of power.

a) Exercising control and dominance over others.

b) Providing material support and addressing the needs of children.

c) Acting justly and living virtuously.

d) Defining relationships based on authority and governance.

b) To emphasize the need for strong leadership in a post-Covid era.

c) To illustrate the power dynamics within a family.

d) To suggest the importance of hierarchical structures in society.

a) Activists are universally opposed to SEZs.

c) People in Goa have always supported tourism.

a) SEZs in Goa have significantly converted farmland into non-farm use.

a) Culture b) Lifestyles c) Religion d) Expectations

a) Dominated b) Symbiotic c) Rigidly d) Want

a) These countries need to focus on reducing their dependence on agriculture.

b) The governments of these countries should prioritize investment in urban areas.

a) Agriculture has been overlooked as a sector with significant growth potential.

Q 19. 11921248 ODA is an acronym for:

c) Official Development Assistance d) Operational Development Assessment

a) Investing in agriculture is the only effective way to reduce poverty.

b) Investments in rural agriculture have a significant impact on poverty reduction.

c) Climate change and shocks have no impact on poverty levels.

d) Emergency aid is the most effective solution for addressing poverty.

a) To provide a detailed description of the climatic conditions in the Himalayan region.

b) To outline the economic challenges faced by subsistence farmers in the Himalayas.

c) To discuss the potential effects of climate change on the Himalayan ecosystem.

a) Lack of awareness about climate change effects

b) Inadequate funding for research and preservation

c) Insufficient availability of food and water resources

d) Limited participation of local communities in conservation efforts

a) Mountain terrains. b) All forms of life in an area

c) Plant lives that cover Himalaya. d) Areas which need to be conserved.

a) Mitigation b) Erosion c) Degradation d) Alleviation

a) climate change in the Himalayas. b) protecting the Himalayan biodiversity.

c) d) None of the above.

Current Affairs Including General

a) It revoked Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.

b) It granted Jammu and Kashmir a separate constitution.

d) It established a new legislative assembly for Jammu and Kashmir.

a) It granted special powers to the President of India.

b) It allowed the Union government to amend Article 370.