ETO Questions 2020

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Contents:
 Current Electricity (Generation, Transmission, Distribution & Utilization)

 Capacitors
 Electromagnetic Induction
 Electrolysis and Storage of Batteries
 Principle of DC and AC current
 DC Generators and DC Motors
 Transformers & Induction Motors
 Alternators
 Semi‐conductors & Electronics
 Measuring Equipment
 Protection and switch gear
 Air conditioning
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Current Electricity:
Ques 1. The flow of current in solids is due to

a. Electrons
b. Electrons & Ions
c. Atoms
d. Nucleus
Answer: a
Ques 2. Electric current in a wire is the flow of…………………. electrons?

a. Free
b. Valence
c. Bound
d. Loose
Answer: a
Ques 3. Electromotive force in a circuit

a. Causes free electrons to flow
b. Increases the circuit resistance
c. Maintains circuit resistance
d. Is needed to make the circuit complete
Answer: a
Ques 4. The resistance of a material is…………………………. its area of cross section.

a. Directly proportional
b. Independent of
c. Inversely proportional to
d. Equal to
Answer: c
Ques 5. If the length and area of cross section of a wire are doubled, then its resiatnce
a. Becomes 4 times
b. Becomes 6 times
c. Remains same
d. Becomes 2 times
Answer: c
Ques 6. What is the SI unit of specific resistance or resistivity?

a. Ohm – circular per inch
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b. Ohm circular per foot
c. Ohm – meter
d. Ohm – centimeter
Answer: c
Ques 7. The temperature coefficient of resistance of conductors is

a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Infinite
Answer: a
Ques 8. The temperature coefficient of resistance of semi‐conductors is

a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
d. Infinite
Answer: c
Ques 9. One commercial unit of energy equals

a. 500 watts – seconds
b. One‐watt hour
c. One Kilo watt hour
d. Ten Kilo watt hour
Answer: c
Ques 10. In gases flow of current is due to

a. Electrons only
b. Positive Ions only
c. Electrons & Positive ions
d. Electrons, Positive ions and negative ions
Answer: d
Ques 11. A 200 w lamp working for 24 hours will consume approximately…………units
a. 50
b. 5
c. 24
d. 0.5
Answer: b
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Ques 12. A positive charged body has
a. Deficit of electrons
b. Excess of neutrons
c. Excess of electrons
d. Deficit of protons
Answer: a
Ques 13. A negative charged body has

a. Deficit of electrons
b. Excess of neutrons
c. Excess of electrons
d. Deficit of protons
Answer: c
Ques 14. The maximum current rating for a 10 kΩ, 0.5W resistor is
a. 0.707 mA
b. 7.07 mA
c. 14.14 mA
d. 28.28 mA
Answer: b
Ques 15. An electrical lamp consumes 100W power. If the supply voltage is 220V, the energy consumed in
30 minutes is
a. 0.005 kWh
b. 0.05 kWh
c. 0.5 kWh
d. 5 kWh
Answer: b
Ques 16. Out of the following which is an insulating material

a. Copper
b. Gold
c. Silver
d. Paper
Answer: d
Ques 17. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called
a. Resistance
b. Reluctance
c. Conductance
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d. Inductance
Answer: c
Ques 18. Conductance is reciprocal of

a. Resistance
b. Inductance
c. Reluctance
d. Capacitance
Answer: a
Ques 19. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as

a. Length
b. Area of cross section
c. Temperature
d. Resistivity
Answer: b
Ques 20. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. First increases then decreases
d. Remains constant
Answer: a
Ques 21. When the temperature of copper wire is increased its resistance is
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Constant
d. Zero
Answer: a
Ques 22. An instrument which detects electric current is known as

a. Voltmeter
b. Rheostat
c. Wattmeter
d. Galvanometer
Answer: d
Ques 23. In a circuit, a 33Ω resistor carries a current of 2A. The voltage across the resistor is
a. 33v
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b. 66v
c. 80v
d. 132v
Answer: b
Ques 24. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

a. Same current passes in turns through both
b. Both carry the same value of current
c. Total current equals the sum of branch currents
d. Sum of IR drops equals the applied EMF
Answer: a
Ques 25. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

a. Vacuum tubes
b. Carbon resistors
c. High voltage circuits
d. Circuit with low current densities
Answer: a
Ques 26. Whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an EMF is induced in it. This is known as
a. Coulomb’s law
b. Joule’s law
c. Faraday’s law
d. Ohm’s law
Answer: c
Ques 27. A law that states that the polarity of induced voltage will oppose the change in magnetic flux
causing the induction
a. Joule’s law
b. Faraday’s law
c. Coulomb’s law
d. Lenz’s law
Answer: d
Ques 28. The net electrical charge in an isolated system remains constant. This is known as
a. Law of conservation of charge
b. Coulomb’s first law
c. Coulomb’s 2nd law
d. Law of conservation of energy
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Answer: a
Ques 29. Varistors are

a. Insulators
b. Nonlinear resistors
c. Carbon resistors
d. Resistors with zero temperature co‐efficient
Answer: b
Ques 30. Insulating materials have the function of

a. Preventing a short circuit between conducting wire
b. Preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
c. Conducting very large currents
d. Storing very high currents
Answer: a
Ques 31. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in

a. Ampere‐hours
b. Ampere‐volts
c. kWh
d. Amperes
Answer: d
Ques 32. The filament of an electrical bulb is made of

a. Carbon
b. Aluminum
c. Tungsten
d. Nickle
Answer: c
Ques 33. A 3Ω resistor having 2A current will dissipate the power of

a. 2 watts
b. 4 watts
c. 6 watts
d. 8 watts
Answer: c
Ques 34. Which of the following statement is true?

a. A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
b. A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
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c. A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
d. A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter
Answer: c
Ques 35. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
a. Increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
b. Increases in each branch
c. Is zero in all branches
d. Is zero in the highest resistance branch
Answer: c
Ques 36. If one resistance in a series connection opens, then

a. The current is zero in all other resistances
b. The current is maximum in all other resistances
c. The voltage is zero across the open resistance
d. The voltage is infinite across the open resistance
Answer: a
Ques 37. When resistances are connected in parallel, the total resistance is
a. Less than the smallest resistance in the connection
b. Greater than the smallest resistance in the connection
c. Between the smallest and greatest resistance in the connection
d. Increasing and decreasing depending on the supply voltage
Answer: a
Ques 38. Which factor does not affect resistance?

a. Length
b. Resistivity
c. Cross sectional area
d. Mass
Answer: d
Ques 39. Three 60W bulbs are in parallel across the 60V power line. If one bulb burns open
a. There will be heavy current in the main line
b. Rest of the two bulbs will not light
c. All three bulbs will light
d. The other two bulbs will light
Answer: d
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Ques 40. The four bulbs of 40W each are connected in series with a battery across them, which of the
following statement is true
a. The current through each bulb is same
b. The voltage across each bulb is not same
c. The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
d. None of the above
Answer: a
Ques 41. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current is due to
a. Reactance
b. Capacitance
c. Impedance
d. Resistance
Answer: d
Ques 42. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided

a. To prevent leakage of current
b. To prevent shock
c. Both of above
Answer: c
Ques 43. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on

a. The magnitude of voltage on the conductor
b. The magnitude of current through the conductor
c. Both of above
Answer: a
Ques 44. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit
a. Voltage
b. Current
c. Power
d. Resistance
Answer: b
Ques 45. A 40W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40W bulb is replaced by 100W bulb,
the heater output will
a. Decrease
b. Increase
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c. Remain same
d. Heater will burn
Answer: b
Ques 46. Electric current passing through the circuit produces

a. Magnetic effect
b. Luminous effect
c. Thermal effect
d. Chemical effect
e. All of the above
Answer: e
Ques 47. Resistance of material always decreases if

a. Temperature of material is decreased
b. Temperature of material is increased
c. Number of free electrons becomes more
Answer: c
Ques 48. When electric current passes through a conductor, its temperature rises. This is due to
a. Collision between conduction electrons and atoms
b. The release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
c. Mutual collision between metal atoms
d. Mutual collision between conducting electrons
Answer: a
Ques 49. Two bulbs of 500W and 200W rated at 250V will have resistance ratios as
a. 4:25
b. 25:4
c. 2:5
d. 5:2
Answer: c
Ques 50. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
a. It takes in proton
b. Its atoms are removed
c. It gives away electrons
d. It gives away positive charge
Answer: c
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Ques 51. Two lamps 100W and 40W are connected in series across 230V AC. Which of the following
statement is correct?
a. 100W lamp will glow brighter
b. 40W lamp will glow brighter
c. Both lamps will glow equally bright
d. 40W lamp will fuse
Answer: b
Ques 52. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lots of bubbling appears. This
suggests that the type of supply is
a. AC
b. DC
c. Any of above
Answer: b
Ques 53. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in

a. Parallel
b. Series
c. Series‐parallel
d. End to end
Answer: a
Ques 54. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
a. Resistance
b. Inductance
c. Capacitance
d. Impedance
Answer: b
Ques 55. Copper wire of certain lengths and resistance is drawn out to 3 times its length without change in
volume. The new resistance of wire becomes
a. 1/9 times
b. 3 times
c. 9 times
d. Unchanged.
Answer: c
Ques 56. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series. The resultant resistance
of the first combination to the second will be
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a. 9 times
b. 1/9 times
c. 1/3 times
d. 3 times
Answer: b
Ques 57. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two
corners?
a. 3/2 Ohm
b. 6 Ohm
c. 4 Ohm
d. 8/3 Ohm
Answer: c

a. Semi‐conductors
b. DC circuits
c. Small resistors
d. High currents
Answer: a
Ques 59. Two copper conductors have equal lengths. The cross sectional area one conductor is four times
that of the other. If the conductor having smaller cross sectional area has a resistance of 40 Ohms
the resistance of the other conductor is
a. 160 Ohms
b. 80 Ohms
c. 20 Ohms
d. 10 Ohms
Answer: d
Ques 60. When current flows through heater coil, it glows. But the supply wire doesn’t glow. Why?
a. Current through supply line flows at lower speed.
b. Supply wire is covered with insulation layer
c. Resistance of heater is more than the supply wire
d. Supply wire is made of superior metal
Answer: c
Ques 61. An open resistor when checked with an Ohm‐meter reads

a. Zero
b. Infinite
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c. High but within tolerance
d. Low but not zero
Answer: b
Ques 62. All good conductors have high

a. Conductance
b. Resistance
c. Reluctance
d. Thermal conductivity
Answer: a
Ques 63. A thermistor has

a. Positive temperature coefficient
b. Negative temperature coefficient
c. Zero temperature coefficient
d. Variable temperature coefficient
Answer: b
Ques 64. Conductance : mho ::

a. Resistance : ohm
b. Capacitance : Henry
c. Inductance : farad
d. Lumen : Steradian
Answer: a
Ques 65. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance are called
(a) insulators
(b) inductors
(c) semi‐conductors
(d) conductors
Answer: d
Ques 66. The property of a conductor due to which it passes current is called
(a) resistance
(b) reluctance
(c) conductance
(d) inductance
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Answer: c
Ques 67. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Answer: a
Ques 68. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi‐conductors

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Answer: a
Ques 69. An instrument which detects electric current is known as

(a) voltmeter
(b) rheostat
(c) wattmeter
(d) galvanometer
Answer: d
Ques 70. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Q resistor but have several 1000 Q
ones which you would connect
(a) two in parallel
(b) two in parallel and one in series
(c) three in parallel
(d) three in series
Answer: b
Ques 71. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

(a) same current passes in turn through both
(b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents
(d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
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Answer: a
Ques 72. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C. circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents
(b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive
(d) Power are additive
Answer: d
Ques 73. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?

(a) Iron
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon
Answer: a
Ques 74. The minimum charge on an ion is

(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom (#) zero
Answer: b
Ques 75. In a series circuit with unequal resistances

(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
Answer: d
Ques 76. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Answer: a
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Ques 77. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is replaced by 100 W
bulb, the heater output will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain same
(d) heater will burn out
Answer: d
Ques 78. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes,
using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
(d) none of the above
Answer: a
Ques 79. An electric filament bulb can be worked from

(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above
Answer: d
Ques 80. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?

(a) Input power
(b) Losses
(c) True component of power
(d) kWh consumed
(e) Ratio of output to input
Answer: b
Ques 81. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature rises. This is due to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
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(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
Answer: a
Ques 82. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
Answer: c
Ques 83. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in reducing the magnitude of
the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Answer: d
Ques 84. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating).
Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will glow brighter
(b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright
(d) 40 W lamp will fuse
Answer: b
Ques 85. In the case of direct current

(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant
(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time
(c) magnitude of current changes with time
(d) magnitude of current remains constant
Answer: b
Ques 86. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is observed. This
suggests that the type of supply is
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(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) any of above two
Answer: b
Ques 87. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm’s law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Answer: d

(a) semi‐conductors
(b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors
(d) high currents
Answer: a
Ques 89. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) A semi‐conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between that of a conductor and
an insulator
(b) A semi‐conductor is a material which has conductivity having average value of conductivity of
metal and insulator
(c) A semi‐conductor is one which con¬ducts only half of the applied voltage
(d) A semi‐conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting material and insulator
Answer: a
Ques 90. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it

(a) has lower wattage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tapping
Answer: b
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Ques 91. A thermistor has
(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Answer: c
Ques 92. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
(a) equal to load resistance
(b) less than the load resistance
(c) greater than the load resistance
Answer: a
Ques 93. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi‐conductor diodes. The circuit will be known as
(a) non‐linear circuit
(b) linear circuit
(c) bilateral circuit
Answer: a
Ques 94. Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit yields

(a) equivalent current source and impedance in series
(6) equivalent current source and impedance in parallel
(c) equivalent impedance
(d) equivalent current source
Answer: a
Ques 95. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and open circuit has the
characteristic of an open circuit.
(b) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and a short circuit has the
characteristic of a short circuit.
(c) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and an open circuit has the
characteristic of an open circuit.
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(d) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and a short circuit has the
characteristic of resistor R.
Answer: a
Capacitors:
Ques 1. The charge in the capacitor is stored at the

a. Terminals
b. Plates
c. Dielectric
d. Air
Answer: b
Ques 2. A capacitor is basically constructed of

a. Two conductors separated by a dielectric
b. Two dielectric separated by a conductor
c. Conductors and dielectric
d. Conductors and semi‐conductors
Answer: a
Ques 3. Which component opposes voltage change?

a. Resistor
b. Inductor
c. Capacitor
d. Transistor
Answer: c
Ques 4. Which of the following describes the action of a capacitor?

a. Stores electrical energy
b. Opposes changes in current flow
c. Creates a de‐resistance
d. Converts ac to dc
Answer: a
Ques 5. For parallel capacitors, total charge is

a. The sum of individual charges
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b. Equal to the charge of either capacitors
c. Equal to the product of the charges
d. The quotient of the charges
Answer: a
Ques 6. A capacitor is used to

a. Block the current
b. Pass the current
c. Open voltage source
d. Short the voltage source
Answer: a
Ques 7. The distance between the capacitor plates increases two times, then its capacitance
a. Increases two times
b. Increases 4 times
c. Decreases 2 times
d. Decreases 4 times
Answer: c
Ques 8. The area of capacitor plates increases two times, then its capacitance
a. Increases two times
b. Increases 4 times
c. Decreases 2 times
d. Decreases 4 times
Answer: a
Ques 9. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled, the force
will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N
Answer: b
Ques 10. The lines of force due to charged particles are

(a) always straight
(b) always curved
(c) sometimes curved
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Answer: b
Ques 11. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .

(a) away from the charge
(b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (6)
Answer: a
Ques 12. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor, the capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains unchanged
(d) become zero
Answer: b
Ques 13. Which of the following does not generally affect the value of a capacitor?
a. The dielectric material used
b. The surface area of the plates
c. The thickness of the dielectric
d. The voltage applied to the plate
Answer: d
Ques 14. If voltage across the plates of 2F capacitor is increased by 4V, then charge on the plates will
a. Decreases by 2C
b. Increases by 2C
c. Decreases by 4C
d. Increases by 4C
Answer: d
Ques 15. What does a capacitor store?

a. Voltage
b. Charge
c. Circuit
d. Power
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Answer: b
Ques 16. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having

(a) low permittivity
(b) high permittivity
(c) permittivity same as that of air
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air
Answer: b
Ques 17. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF
Answer: a
Ques 18. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net capacitance is
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF
Answer: b
Ques 19. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for

(a) D.C. only
(b) AC. only
(c) both D.C. as well as A.C.
Answer: a
Ques 20. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the circuit because
(a) varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow
(d) discharge current can flow
Answer: a
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Ques 21. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Air capacitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
(6) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity
(c) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity
(d) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 pF
Answer: b
Ques 22. “The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the amount
oflcharge enclosed”.
The above statement is associated with
(a) Coulomb’s square law
(b) Gauss’s law
(c) Maxwell’s first law
(d) Maxwell’s second law
Answer: b
Ques 23. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C
can be obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
Answer: c
Ques 1. When capacitors are connected in parallel, the total capacitance is

a. Greater than the largest capacitor
b. Smaller than the largest capacitor
c. Smaller than the smallest capacitor
d. Greater than the smallest capacitor
Answer: a
Ques 24. Which of the following statement is true ?

(a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
(b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially
(c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially
(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly
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Answer: b
Ques 25. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in

(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) both (a) and (6)
Answer: b
Ques 26. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high
(b) The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of capacitance
(c) The stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage
(d) A wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors
Answer: b
Ques 27. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
(6) capacitor in series with each contact
(c) resistance in line
Answer: a
Ques 28. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is

(a) zero
(6) proportional to applied voltage
(c) proportional to value of capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c) above
Answer: a
Ques 29. In a capacitive circuit

(a) a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge
(b) an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(c) decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
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Answer: b
Ques 30. Capacitance increases with

(a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
(b) increase in plate area and distance between the plates
(c) decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage
(d) reduction in plate area and distance between the plates
Answer: a
Ques 31. A capacitor consists of

(a) two insulators separated by a conductor
(b) two conductors separated by an insulator
(c) two insulators only
(d) two conductors only
Answer: b
Ques 32. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong connections, which type
of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Any‐of the above
Answer: c
Ques 33. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C source of voltage V is
equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) CV
Answer: a
Ques 34. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
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(d) 8 joules
Answer: d
Ques 35. The capacitor preferred for high frequency circuits is

(a) air capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
Answer: b
Ques 36. While testing a capacitor with ohm meter, if the capacitor shows charging, but the final resistance
reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is
(a) short‐circuited
(b) open circuited
(c) alright
(d) leaky
Answer: d
Ques 37. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic
Answer: d
Ques 38. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as

(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 10
Answer: b
Ques 39. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower the voltage breakdown
rating for a capacitor .
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(b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and yellow has the capacitance
value of 500 pF
(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage breakdown rating for the
combination
(d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between two conductors
Answer: b
Ques 40. Capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.
(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Answer: b
Ques 41. Capacitors are used in transistor circuits.

(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolytic
Answer: a
Electromagnetic Induction
Ques 1. The process by which an EMF and hence current is generated in a conductor when there is a
change in the magnetic flux linking the conductor is called?
a. Electromagnetic induction
b. Mutual induction
c. Faraday’s law
d. Electromagnetic interference
Answer: a
Ques 2. The property of coil by which a counter EMF is induced in it when the current through the coil
changes is known as
a. Self‐Inductance
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b. Mutual Inductance
c. Series aiding inductance
d. Capacitance
Answer: a
Ques 3. The EMF induced in a coil due to the changing current of another neighboring coil is called
a. Mutually induced EMF
b. Self‐induced EMF
c. Statically induced EMF
d. Dynamically induced EMF
Answer: a
Ques 4. As per Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction and EMF is induced in a conductor whenever it
a. Lies perpendicular to the magnetic field
b. Lies in a magnetic field
c. Cuts magnetic flux
d. Moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
Answer: c
Ques 5. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz’s law, self‐induced voltage will
a. Aid the increasing current
b. Tend to decrease the amount of current
c. Produce current opposite to the increasing current
d. Aid the applied voltage
Answer: c
Ques 6. The direction of Induced EMF can be found by

a. Laplace’s law
b. Lenz’s law
c. Fleming’s right hand rule
d. Kirchhoff’s law
Answer: b
Ques 7. The magnitude of the induced EMF in a conductor depends on the

a. Flux density of the magnetic field
b. Amount of flux cut
c. Amount of flux linkages
d. Rate of change of flux linkages
Answer: d
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Ques 8. Which of the following is unit of inductance?
a. Ohm
b. Henry
c. Ampere turns
d. Weber / meter
Answer: b
Ques 9. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance is
a. 50 ohms
b. 500 ohm
c. 1000 ohm
d. 5000 ohm
Answer: d
Ques 10. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

a. Induced current
b. Charge
c. Energy
d. Induced EMF
Answer: c
Ques 11. Which circuit element will oppose the change in circuit current?
a. Resistance only
b. Inductance only
c. Capacitance only
d. Inductance and capacitance
Answer: b
Ques 12. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a charged body
is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction
Answer: d
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Electrolysis and Storage of Batteries
Ques 1. During the charging of a lead‐acid cell

(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Answer: a
Ques 2. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead‐acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Answer: a
Ques 3. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead‐acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
Answer: c
Ques 4. The output voltage of a charger is

(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
Answer: b
Ques 5. As compared to constant‐current system, the constant‐voltage system of charging a lead acid cell
has the advantage of
(a) reducing time of charging
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(b) increasing cell capacity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) avoiding excessive gassing
Answer: c
Ques 6. A dead storage battery can be revived by

(a) adding distilled water
(6) adding so‐called battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
Answer: d
Ques 7. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to

(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged
Answer: d
Ques 8. In a lead‐acid cell dilute sulfuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Answer: c
Ques 9. The ampere‐hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between

(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%
Answer: d
Ques 10. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
(a) 1 V
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(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Answer: c
Ques 11. Lead‐acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
(a) 500
(b) 700
(c) 1000
(d) 1250
Answer: d
Ques 12. The internal resistance of a lead‐acid cell is that of Edison cell
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
Answer: a
Ques 13. Electrolyte used in a lead‐acid cell is

(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4
Answer: d
Ques 14. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by

(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Answer: c
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Ques 15. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead‐acid cell is reduced to 1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(d) active state
Answer: b
Ques 16. Over charging

(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above
Answer: d
Ques 17. Undercharging

(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature
Answer: a
Ques 18. Internal short circuits are caused by

(a) breakdown of one or more separators
(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell
Answer: c
Ques 19. On overcharging a battery

(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur
Answer: d
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Ques 20. Each cell has a vent cap
(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions
Answer: d
Ques 21. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above
Answer: d
Ques 22. 48 ampere‐hour capacity would deliver a current of

(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Answer: d
Ques 23. A 12V battery is rated at 48 AH. If it must deliver an average of 2 A, how long will the battery last
before it needs recharging?
a. 48 Hours
b. 4 Hours
c. 96 Hours
d. 24 Hours
Answer: d
Ques 24. To increase the voltage output, cells are connected in

a. Parallel
b. Series parallel
c. Parallel series
d. Series
Answer: d
Ques 25. Connecting batteries of equal voltage in parallel
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a. Multiplies the voltage available
b. Increases the internal resistance
c. Reduces the power available
d. Multiplies the current available
Answer: d
Ques 26. In constant‐current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
Answer: b
Ques 27. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
Answer: a
Ques 28. Battery charging equipment is generally installed

(a) in well ventilated location
(b) in clean and dry place
(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged
(d) in location having all above features
Answer: d
Ques 29. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.
(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above
Answer: d
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Ques 30. Cell short circuit results in
(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte
(b) abnormal high temperature
(c) reduced gassing on charge
(d) all above
Answer: d
Ques 31. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by

(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
(d) all above methods
Answer: d
Ques 32. Capacity of dry cells is

(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge
Answer: a
Ques 33. In a lead‐acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following ratio of acid
to water to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Answer: c
Ques 34. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur
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Answer: d
Ques 35. What refers to a method in which the charger and the battery are always connected to each other
for supplying current to the load?
a. Continuous charging
b. Float charging
c. Infinite charging
d. On line charging
Answer: b
Ques 36. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen

(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high
Answer: d
Ques 37. _____ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Answer: d
Ques 38. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Answer: d
Ques 39. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in

(a) Ah
(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh
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Answer: a
Ques 40. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of _____ volts from fully charged state to fully discharged
state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9
Answer: c
Ques 41. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Answer: d
Ques 42. While preparing electrolyte for a lead‐acid battery

(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
Answer: b
Ques 43. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A lead‐acid cell can be recharged
(c) A carbon‐zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction
Answer: c
Ques 44. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same ampere‐hour capacity
(d) they have identical internal resistance
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Answer: a
Ques 45. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead‐acid battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short‐circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Answer: d
Ques 46. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the lead acid battery?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
(d) All of the above
Answer: d
Principle of AC and DC Current:
Ques 1. According to Kirchhoffs voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR drops and e.m.fs. in any closed loop
of a network is always
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) determined by battery e.m.fs.
(d) zero
Answer: d
Ques 2. The concept on which Superposition theorem is based is

(a) reciprocity
(b) duality
(c) non‐linearity
(d) linearity
Answer: d
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Ques 3. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor, it is necessary to know
(a) value of current through the resistor
(b) direction of current through the resistor
(c) value of resistor
(d) e.m.fs. in the circuit
Answer: b
Ques 4. “Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load resistance is equal to the
output resistance of the network as seen from the terminals of the load”. The above statement is
associated with
(a) Millman’s theorem
(b) Thevenin’s theorem
(c) Superposition theorem
(d) Maximum power transfer theorem
Answer: d
Ques 5. A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements will be
(a) R/6
(b) fi?
(c) 2R
(d) 4R
Answer: b
Ques 6. The time constant of an R‐C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging voltage
actually rises to ______ percent of its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 62, initial
(c) 62, final
(d) 37, final
Answer: c
Ques 7. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown voltage is applied
on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked
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(d) Its molecular structure will get changed
Answer: c
Ques 8. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
(a) Wien’s bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay’s bridge
Answer: c
Ques 9. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then

(a) the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
(6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted towards the charging
body
(c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction
(d) it remains as such
Answer: b
Ques 10. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of frequency 50 Hz is 20 Q. If frequency
is increased to 100 Hz, reactance becomes_____ohms.
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15
Answer: c
Ques 11. The form factor is the ratio of

(a) peak value to r.m.s. value
(6) r.m.s. value to average value
(c) average value to r.m.s. value
Answer: b
Ques 12. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V refers to
(a) average voltage
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(b) r.m.s. voltage
(c) peak voltage
Answer: b
Ques 13. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This figure represents
(a) mean value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) peak value
(d) average value
Answer: a
Ques 14. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the phase difference between the
current and voltage is
(a) 180″
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°
Answer: b
Ques 15. The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the case of
(a) triangular wave
(6) sine wave
(c) square wave
(d) half wave rectified sine wave
Answer: c
Ques 16. For the same peak value which of the following wave will ‘have the highest r.m.s. value ?
(a) square wave
(b) half wave rectified sine wave
(c) triangular wave
(d) sine wave
Answer: a
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Ques 17. Capacitive reactance is more when
(a) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less
(b) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more
(c) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less
(d) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is more
Answer: a
Ques 18. The best place to install a capacitor is

(a) very near to inductive load
(b) across the terminals of the inductive load
(c) far away from the inductive load
(d) any where
Answer: b
Ques 19. The ratio between the active power and apparent power of a load in an AC circuit is called
a. Quality factor
b. Power factor
c. Power ratio
d. Power reactive
Answer: b
Ques 20. When the power factor of a circuit is zero

a. Power absorbed is maximum
b. Power absorbed is minimum
c. Power absorbed is zero
d. The impedance is minimum
Answer: c
Ques 21. Poor power factor

(a) reduces load handling capability of electrical system
(b) results in more power losses in the electrical system
(c) overloads alternators, transformers and distribution lines
(d) results in more voltage drop in the line
(e) results in all above
Answer: e
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Ques 22. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its twice value and reducing capacitance to its
half value
(a) will change the maximum value of current at resonance
(6) will change the resonance frequency
(c) will change the impedance at resonance frequency
(d) will increase the selectivity of the circuit
Answer: d
Ques 23. Pure inductive circuit

(a) consumes some power on average
(b) does not take power at all from a line
(c) takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then returns back to it during other
part of the cycle
Answer: c
Ques 24. Inductance of a coil Varies

(a) directly as the cross‐sectional area of magnetic core
(b) directly as square of number of turns
(c) directly as the permeability of the core
(d) inversely as the length of the iron path
(e) as (a) to (d)
Answer: e
Ques 25. Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by connecting capacitor to it in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) either (a) or (b)
Answer: a
Ques 26. Power factor of the following circuit will be zero

(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
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(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer: d
Ques 27. Power factor of the following circuit will be unity

(a) inductance
(b) capacitance
(c) resistance
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: c
Ques 28. Power factor of the system is kept high

(a) to reduce line losses
(b) to maximise the utilization of the capacities of generators, lines and transformers
(c) to reduce voltage regulation of the line
(d) due to all above reasons
Answer: d
Ques 29. In a loss‐free R‐L‐C circuit the transient current is

(a) oscillating
(b) square wave
(c) sinusoidal
(d) non‐oscillating
Answer: c
Ques 30. The double energy transient occur in the

(a) purely inductive circuit
(b) R‐L circuit
(c) R‐C circuit
(d) R‐L‐C circuit
Answer: d
Ques 31. The power factor at resonance in R‐L‐ C parallel circuit is

(a) zero
(b) 0.08 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
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(d) unity
Answer: d
Ques 32. In a pure resistive circuit

(a) current lags behind the voltage by 90°
(b) current leads the voltage by 90°
(c) current can lead or lag the voltage by 90°
(d) current is in phase with the voltage
Answer: d
Ques 33. In a pure inductive circuit

(a) the current is in phase with the voltage
(b) the current lags behind the voltage by 90°
(c) the current leads the voltage by 90°
(d) the current can lead or lag by 90°
Answer: b
Ques 34. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in
(a) C only
(b) L only
(c) R only
(d) all above
Answer: c
Ques 35. Inductance of coil

(a) is unaffected by the supply frequency
(b) decreases with the increase in supply frequency
(c) increases with the increase in supply frequency
(d) becomes zero with the increase in supply frequency
Answer: c
Ques 36. Time constant of an inductive circuit

(a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance
(c) increases with the decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance
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(d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance
Answer: a
Ques 37. Time constant of a capacitive circuit

(a) increases with the decrease of capacitance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the decrease of capacitance and increase of resistance
(c) increases with the increase of capacitance and decrease of resistance
(d) increase with increase of capacitance and increase of resistance
Answer: d
Ques 38. Magnitude of current at resonance in R‐L‐C circuit

(a) depends upon the magnitude of R
(b) depends upon the magnitude of L
(c) depends upon the magnitude of C
(d) depends upon the magnitude of R, Land C
Answer: a
Ques 39. In a R‐L‐C circuit

(a) power is consumed in resistance and is equal to I R
(b) exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line
(c) exchange of power takes place between capacitor and supply line
(d) exchange of power does not take place between resistance and the supply line
(e) all above are correct
Answer: e
Ques 40. Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency ?
(a) A coil with large resistance
(b) A coil with low resistance
(c) A coil with large distributed capacitance
(d) A coil with low distributed capacitance
Answer: c
Ques 41. In an AC. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with kW indicates
(a) low efficiency
(b) high power factor
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(c) unity power factor
(d) maximum load current
Answer: b
Ques 42. All definitions of power factor of a series R‐L‐C circuit are correct except
(a) ratio of net reactance and impedance
(b) ratio of kW and kVA
(c) ratio of J and Z
(d) ratio of W and VA
Answer: a
Ques 43. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and active power is 8 kW. The reactive
power in the circuit is
(a) 4 kVAR
(b) 6 kVAR
(c) 8 kVAR
(d) 16 kVAR
Answer: b
Ques 44. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of equal frequency, when one wave
attains maximum value the other is at zero value ?
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Answer: c
Ques 45. In an A.C. circuit power is dissipated in

(a) resistance only
(b) inductance only
(c) capacitance only
Answer: a
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Ques 46. In a parallel R‐C circuit, the current always______the applied voltage
(a) lags
(b) leads
(c) remains in phase with
Answer: b
Ques 47. The power is measured in terms of decibles in case of

(a) electronic equipment
(b) transformers
(c) current transformers
(d) auto transformers
Answer: a
Ques 48. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of

(a) reactive power in a circuit
(b) the extent of neutralisation of reactive power in a circuit
(c) a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to pass current
(d) a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to resist the flow of current
Answer: c
Ques 49. A parallel AC. circuit in resonance will

(a) have a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive section
(b) have a high impedance
(c) act like a resistor of low value
(d) have current in each section equal to the line current
Answer: b
Ques 50. The inductance of a coil can be increased by

(a) increasing core length
(b) decreasing the number of turns
(c) decreasing the diameter of the former
(d) choosing core material having high relative permeability
Answer: d
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Ques 51. In a three‐phase supply floating neutral is undesirable because it way give rise to
(a) high voltage across the load
(b) low voltage across the load
(c) unequal line voltages across the load
Answer: c
Ques 52. The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The r.m.s. value of full wave rectified AC.
will be
(a) 282.8 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 111 V
(d) 100 V
Answer: a
Ques 53. The frequency of an alternating current is

(a) the speed with which the alternator runs
(b) the number of cycles generated in one minute
(c) the number of waves passing through a point in one second
(d) the number of electrons passing through a point in one second
Answer: c
Ques 54. An A.C. voltage is impressed across a pure resistance of 3.5 ohms in parallel with a pure
inductance of impedance of 3.5 ohms,
(a) the current through the resistance is more
(b) the current through the resistance is less
(c) both resistance and inductance carry equal currents
Answer: c
Ques 55. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times as high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Answer: b
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Ques 56. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times at high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Answer: a
Ques 57. In each of the three coils of a three phase generator, an alternating voltage having an r.m.s. value
of 220 V is induced. Which of the following values is indicated by the voltmeters ?
(a) 220 V
(b) 220V3V
(c) 220/V3 V
Answer: a
DC Generators and DC Motors:
Ques 1. According to Fleming’s right‐hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when middle
finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
Answer: b
Ques 2. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be

(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
(d) any of the above
Answer: d
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Ques 3. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is fixed,
then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Answer: b
Ques 4. In a four‐pole D.C. machine

(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
(d) two north poles follow two south poles
Answer: b
Ques 5. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Answer: c
Ques 6. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Answer: a
Ques 7. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of

(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Answer: a
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Ques 8. In case of a 4‐pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen coils, the pole
pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Answer: b
Ques 9. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the floating
condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above
Answer: d
Ques 10. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Answer: c
Ques 11. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is
(a) to reduce the reluctance of the mag¬netic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Answer: d
Ques 12. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?
(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt gen¬erators
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Answer: d
Ques 13. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C. generator

(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble
Answer: a
Ques 14. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators

(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short‐circuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross‐magnetising effect of the armature reaction
Answer: c
Ques 15. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Answer: c
Ques 16. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains constant,
if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Answer: b
Ques 17. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the armature
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(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Answer: d
Ques 18. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the same
when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Answer: d
Ques 19. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to

(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
(c) number of poles
(d) all of the above
Answer: b
Ques 20. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self‐induced e.m.f. in the coil is
neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Answer: b
Ques 21. The following constitute short‐circuit in the armature winding.

(a) Insulation failure between two commutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
(d) All of the above
Answer: d
Ques 22. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will be
(a) zero
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(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Answer: a
Ques 23. Armature reaction in a generator results in

(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole tip
(c) damagnetising the center of all poles
(d) magnetising the center of all poles
Answer: a
Ques 24. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of
(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Answer: a
Ques 25. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the load current
is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
Answer: c
Ques 26. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
Answer: c
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Ques 27. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by
(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed
Answer: c
Ques 28. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
Answer: b
Ques 29. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Answer: b
Ques 30. Starters are used with D.C. motors because

(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self‐starting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting
Answer: d
Ques 31. Main advantage of DC motor is

a. It is cheap
b. It provides fine speed control
c. It is simple in construction
d. It has no replacement
Answer: b
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Ques 32. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced
(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant
(d) the speed will reduce
Answer: c
Ques 33. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will
(a) run at normal speed
(b) not run
(c) run at lower speed
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by .eddy currents
Answer: d
Ques 34. The back EMF in a DC motor

a. Opposes the applied voltage
b. Aids the armature current
c. Aids the supplied voltage
d. Opposes the armature current
Answer: a
Ques 35. Back EMF in a DC motor is maximum at

a. No load
b. Half full load
c. Full load
d. ¾ full load
Answer: a
Ques 36. A motor takes a large current at starting because

a. The armature resistance is high
b. Beck EMF is low
c. Back EMF is high
d. Shunt filed is producing weak field
Answer: b
Ques 37. When the speed of a DC motor increases, its armature current
a. Increases
b. Remains same
c. Decreases
d. Becomes infinite
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Answer: c
Ques 38. The armature of a DC machine is made of

a. Silicon steel
b. Cast steel
c. Wrought iron
d. Soft iron
Answer: c
Ques 39. The armature of a DC machine is laminated in order to reduce

a. Eddy current loss
b. Copper loss
c. Hysteresis loss
d. Frictional loss
Answer: a
Ques 40. A series motor will over speed when

a. The load is increased
b. The armature circuit is open
c. The field is opened
d. Load is removed
Answer: d
Ques 41. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Answer: c
Ques 42. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Answer: d
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Ques 43. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular motor is D.C.
motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Answer: c
Ques 44. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally

(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large
Answer: a
Ques 45. The speed of a D.C. series motor is

(a) proportional to the armature current
(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Answer: d
Transformers and Induction Motors:
Ques 1. A transformer will work on

a. AC only
b. AC as well as DC
c. DC only
d. Pulsating DC
Answer: a
Ques 2. When the primary of a transformer is connected to a DC supply

a. The primary draws small current
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b. Primary reactance is increased
c. Core losses are increased
d. Primary may burn out
Answer: d
Ques 3. A transformer will have zero efficiency at

a. Full load
b. Half load
c. No load
d. Twice the full load
Answer: c
Ques 4. The voltage per turn of the primary of a transformer is…………….the voltage per turn of the
secondary
a. More than
b. Same as
c. Less than
d. Twice
Answer: b
Ques 5. The winding of the transformer with greater number of turns will be
a. High voltage winding
b. Low voltage winding
c. Either high or low voltage winding
d. High power
Answer: a
Ques 6. The number of parallel paths in a simplex lap winding is equal to

a. 2
b. Number of poles
c. Number of pair poles
d. 1
Answer: b
Ques 7. In a simplex wave winding the number of parallel paths is equal to

a. Number of poles
b. 2
c. Number of pair poles
d. 1
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Answer: b
Ques 8. In a lap winding, the number of brushes required are equal to

a. Number of poles
b. Commutator pitch
c. Number of pair of poles
d. Number of coils
Answer: a
Ques 9. For the same rating, a DC machine has……………….an AC machine

a. The same as
b. Less weight than
c. More weight than
d. Half the weight than
Answer: c
Ques 10. If the capacitor of a single‐phase motor is short‐circuited

(a) the motor will not start
(b) the motor will run
(c) the motor will run in reverse direction
(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.
Answer: a
Ques 11. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar is found to be ground. Most
probable location of the ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Answer: d
Ques 12. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer: c
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Ques 13. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight skew in order to
(a) reduce windage losses
(b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(d) reduce magnetic hum
Answer: d
Ques 14. In case the air gap in an induction motor is increased

(a) the magnetising current of the rotor will decrease
(b) the power factor will decrease
(c) speed of motor will increase
(d) the windage losses will increase
Answer: b
Ques 15. Slip rings are usually made of

(a) copper
(b) carbon
(c) phospor bronze
(d) aluminium
Answer: c
Ques 16. A 3‐phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f. will be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
(d) 0.2 Hz
Answer: c
Ques 17. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running speed of an induction motor will
be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l‐s)Ns
(d) (Ns‐l)s
Answer: c
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Ques 18. The starting torque of a squirrel‐cage induction motor is
(a) low
(b) negligible
(c) same as full‐load torque
(d) slightly more than full‐load torque
Answer: a
Ques 19. Star‐delta starting of motors is not possible in case of

(a) single phase motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) low horse power motors
(d) high speed motors
Answer: a
Ques 20. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have
(a) 8 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles
(d) 2 poles
Answer: b
Ques 21. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of the squirrel‐cage
induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator poles
(b) Rotor rheostat control
(c) By operating two motors in cascade
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
Answer: a
Ques 22. It is advisable to avoid line‐starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick‐up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high
Answer: a
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Ques 23. In a three‐phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding is always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator
Answer: d
Ques 24. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to

(a) low horsepower motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) high horsepower motors
(d) high speed motors
Answer: a
Ques 25. The speed of a squirrel‐cage induction motor can be controlled by all of the following except
(a) changing supply frequency
(b) changing number of poles
(c) changing winding resistance
(d) reducing supply voltage
Answer: c
Ques 26. Slip of an induction motor is negative when

(a) magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite direction
(b) rotor speed is less than the synchronous speed of the field and are in the same direction
(c) rotor speed is more than the synchronous speed of the field and are in the same direction
Answer: c
Ques 27. A 3‐phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full load and one of its fuses blows
out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Answer: a
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Ques 28. A 3‐phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and one of its fuses blows
out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Answer: c
Ques 29. A change of 4% of supply voltage to an induction motor will produce a change of appromimately
(a) 4% in the rotor torque
(b) 8% in the rotor torque
(c) 12% in the rotor torque
(d) 16% in the rotor torque
Answer: d
Ques 30. An induction motor can run at synchronous speed when

(a) it is run on load
(b) it is run in reverse direction
(c) it is run on voltage higher than the rated voltage
(d) e.m.f. is injected in the rotor circuit
Answer: d
Ques 31. In an induction motor if air‐gap is increased

(a) the power factor will be low
(b) windage losses will be more
(c) bearing friction will reduce
(d) copper loss will reduce In an induction motor
Answer: a
Ques 32. The torque of an induction motor is

(a) directly proportional to slip
(b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip
Answer: a
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Ques 33. Synchronous motors are generally not self‐starting because
(a) the direction of rotation is not fixed
(b) the direction of instantaneous torque reverses after half cycle
(c) startes cannot be used on these machines
(d) starting winding is not provided on the machines
Answer: b
Ques 34. In case one phase of a three‐phase synchronous motor is short‐circuited the motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load
Answer: a
Ques 35. A three‐phase synchronous motor will have

(a) no slip‐rings
(b) one slip‐ring
(c) two slip‐rings
(d) three slip‐rings
Answer: c
Ques 36. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous motor is likely to occur ?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Over‐excitation
(c) Over‐loading for long periods
(d) Small and constant load
Answer: a
Ques 37. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when the load angle is
(a) zero
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Answer: c
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Ques 38. The synchronous motor is not inherently self‐starting because
(a) the force required to accelerate the rotor to the synchronous speed in an instant is absent
(b) the starting device to accelerate the rotor to near synchronous speed is absent
(c) a rotating magnetic field does not have enough poles
(d) the rotating magnetic field is produced by only 50 Hz frequency currents
Answer: a
Ques 39. Synchronous motor always runs at

(a) the synchronous speed
(b) less than synchronous speed
(c) more than synchronous speed
Answer: a
Ques 40. The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends on

(a) speed
(b) load
(c) load angle
Answer: c
Ques 41. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to that of an equivalent induction
motor. This is mainly because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field
(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant
(d) synchronous motor has large airgap
Answer: b
Ques 42. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased, which of the following will reduce
?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
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Answer: d
Ques 43. A synchronous machine with large air gap has

(a) a higher value of stability limit
(6) a small value of inherent regulation
(c) a higher synchronizing power which makes the machine less sensitive to load variations
Answer: d
Ques 44. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is called _____ angle.
(a) torque
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor
Answer: a
Ques 45. Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous motor ?
(a) Damper winding
(b) Star‐delta starter
(c) Damper winding in conjunction with star‐delta starter
(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit
Answer: c
Ques 46. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over wound round induction motor is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily
Answer: a
Ques 47. Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity when

(a) the armature current is maximum
(b) the armature current is minimum
(c) the armature current is zero
Answer: b
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Ques 48. If one‐phase of a 3‐phase synchronous motor is short‐circuited, motor
(a) will refuse to start
(b) will overheat in spots
(c) will not come upto speed
(d) will fail to pull into step
Answer: a
Ques 49. The speed of a synchronous motor

(a) increases as the load increases
(b) decreases as the load decreases
(c) always remains constant
Answer: c
Alternators:
Ques 1. The speed of a 4 ples 60 Hz synchronous machine will be

a. 1800 rpm
b. 2400 rpm
c. 3000 rpm
d. 3600 rpm
Answer: a
Ques 2. The formula for speed of synchronous machine in rpm is given by

a. 120f/p
b. 120p/f
c. p/120fp
d. 120fp
Answer: a
Ques 3. In an alternator the voltage generated per phase is proportional to

a. Number of turns in coil
b. Flux per pole
c. Frequency of wave form
d. All of the above
Answer: d
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Ques 4. In huge alternators, the moving part is
a. Brushes
b. Poles
c. Armature
Answer: b
Ques 5. Alternators are usually designed to generate

a. Definite currents
b. Definite power factor
c. Variable frequencies
d. Definite frequencies
Answer: d
Ques 6. The dark and bright lamp method is used for

a. Transfer of load
b. Synchronizing
c. Balancing of load
d. Phase sequence
Answer: b
Ques 7. When the speed of an alternator increases

a. The frequency decreases
b. The frequency increases
c. The frequency remains same
d. The frequency changes
Answer: b
Ques 8. If an alternator is operating at leading power factor, then it can be said

a. The alternator is under excited
b. The alternator is over excited
c. The torque angle of the alternator has negative value
d. The residual magnetism of the poles is zero
Answer: b
Ques 9. The speed of an alternator is changed from 3000 to 1500 rpm. The generated EMF will become
a. ¼
b. Half
c. Double
d. Unchanged
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Answer: b
Ques 10. Zero power factor method for an alternator is generally used to determine
a. Synchronous impedance of alternator
b. Efficiency of alternator
c. Voltage regulation of alternator
Answer: c
Ques 11. 4 pole, 1500 rpm alternator will generate EMF at

a. 2o Hz
b. 40 Hz
c. 50 Hz
d. 60 Hz
Answer: c
Ques 12. Generated EMF for same field current and double speed will be
a. Same
b. Double
c. Less than double
d. More than double
Answer: b
Ques 13. The power factor of an alternator is determined by its

a. Prime mover
b. Excitation
c. Speed
d. Load
Answer: d
Ques 14. If the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is changed then
a. The power of the load remains constant
b. The reactive component of the output is changed
c. The active component of the output is changed
Answer: b
Ques 15. For parallel operation of 3 phase AC alternators must have the same
a. kVA rating
b. excitation
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c. speed
d. voltage rating
Answer: d
Ques 16. Alternators are rated in

a. MW
b. kVAR
c. kWh
d. kVA
Answer: d
Ques 17. Two alternators are t be put in parallel operation. Which of the following factors should be
identical for both?
a. Frequency
b. Phase sequence
c. Voltage
d. All of the above
Answer: d
Ques 18. An exciter for a generator is

a. Shunt motor
b. Series motor
c. Shunt generator
Answer: c
Ques 19. In an alternator the armature reaction influences

a. Generated voltage per phase
b. Wave form of voltage generated
c. Operating speed
d. Windage losses
Answer: a
Ques 20. When the load on an alternator is increased the terminal voltage increses if the load power factor
is
a. Unity
b. Leading
c. Lagging
d. Zero
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Answer: b
Ques 21. In an alternator the frequency of voltage generated depends on

a. Rotating speed
b. Number of poles
c. Above both
Answer: c
Ques 22. A lower voltage alternator, for the same power rating, will be
a. More costly
b. Larger in size
c. More efficient
d. Higher rpm
Answer: b
Ques 23. Which of the following relays come into operation in the event of the failure of prime mover
connected to the generator?
a. Buchholz relay
b. Reverse power relay
c. Differential relay
d. Overload relay
Answer: b
Semi‐conductors & Electronics:
Ques 1. A semiconductor is formed by ……… bonds.
A. Covalent
B. Electrovalent
C. Co‐ordinate
D. None of the above
Answer: a
Ques 2. A semiconductor has ………… temperature coefficient of resistance.
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a. Positive
b. Zero
c. Negative
Answer: c
Ques 3. The most commonly used semiconductor is ………..
a. Germanium
b. Silicon
c. Carbon
d. Sulphur
Answer: b
Ques 4. A semiconductor has generally ……………… valence electrons.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 4
Answer: d
Ques 5. A semi‐conductor in its purest form is called

a. Pure semi‐conductor
b. Doped semi‐conductor
c. Intrinsic semi‐conductor
d. Extrinsic semi‐conductor
Answer: c
Ques 6. An extrinsic semiconductor is a

a. Doped semi‐conductor
b. Pure semi‐conductor
c. Good insulator
d. Good conductor
Answer: a
Ques 7. Silicon that has been doped with a trivalent impurity is called
a. P type semi‐conductor
b. N type semi‐conductor
c. Intrinsic semi‐conductor
d. Extrinsic semi‐conductor
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Answer: a
Ques 8. In an n type semi‐conductor, free electrons are called

a. Minority carrier
b. Valence electrons
c. Majority carriers
d. Charge carriers
Answer: c
Ques 9. In an n type semi‐conductor, holes are called

a. Minority carriers
b. Majority carriers
c. Protons
d. Charge carriers
Answer: a
Ques 10. When temperature increases, barrier potential

a. Remains same
b. Decreases
c. Increases
d. Depends on semi‐conductor material
Answer: b
Ques 11. When temperature of a pure semi‐conductor is increased, its resistance

a. Decreases
b. Remains the same
c. Increases
d. Cannot be estimated
Answer: a
Ques 12. As a general rule…………………are found only in semi‐conductors

a. Electrons
b. Resistance
c. Holes
Answer: c
Ques 13. Pure semi‐conductor atoms contain how many valence electrons?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
Answer: c
Ques 14. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor, it becomes ………
a. An insulator
b. An intrinsic semiconductor
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c. p‐type semiconductor
d. n‐type semiconductor
Answer: d
Ques 15. An n‐type semiconductor is ………
a. Positively charged
b. Negatively charged
c. Electrically neutral
Answer: c
Ques 16. A trivalent impurity has ….. valence electrons
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 3
Answer: d
Ques 17. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates many ……..
a. Holes
b. Free electrons
c. Valence electrons
d. Bound electrons
Answer: a
Ques 18. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as …………….
a. A free electron
b. The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
c. A free proton
d. A free neutron
Answer: b
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Ques 19. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to ……..
a. Only holes
b. Only free electrons
c. Holes and free electrons
Answer: c
Ques 20. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn junction are ……
a. +ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n

b. ‐ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
c. ‐ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
Answer: a
Ques 21. In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a shortage of ……..

a. Acceptor ions
b. Holes and electrons
c. Donor ions
Answer: b
Ques 22. A reverse bias pn junction has …………
a. Very narrow depletion layer

b. Almost no current
c. Very low resistance
d. Large current flow
Answer: b
Ques 23. Avalanche effect occurs at

a. Higher reverse voltage
b. Lower reverse voltage
c. Higher forward voltage
d. Lower forward voltage
Answer: a
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Ques 24. Avalanche breakdown in a semi‐conductor takes place
a. When forward current exceeds a certain value
b. When potential barrier is reduced to zero
c. When reverse bias exceeds a certain value
d. When forward bias exceeds a certain value
Answer: c
Ques 25. The leakage current across a p‐n junction is due to …………..
a. Minority carriers
b. Majority carriers
c. Junction capacitance
Answer: b
Ques 26. With forward bias to a pn junction , the width of depletion layer ………
a. Decreases
b.Increases
c. Remains the same
Answer: a
Ques 27. A zener diode has ………..
a. one pn junction
b. two pn junctions
c. three pn junctions
d. none of the above
Answer: a
Ques 28. A zener diode is used as …………….
a. an amplifier
b. a voltage regulator
c. a rectifier
d. a multivibrator
Answer: b
Ques 29. A zener diode is always ………… connected.
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a. reverse
b. forward
c. either reverse or forward
Answer: a
Ques 30. A zener diode utilizes ……….. characteristics for its operation.
a. forward
b. reverse
c. both forward and reverse
Answer: b
Ques 31. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a …………… source.
a. constant voltage
b. constant current
c. constant resistance
Answer: a
Ques 32. There is a need of transformer for ………………..
a. half‐wave rectifier
b. centre‐tap full‐wave rectifier
c. bridge full‐wave rectifier
Answer: b
Ques 33. The most widely used rectifier is ……………….
a. half‐wave rectifier
b. centre‐tap full‐wave rectifier
c. bridge full‐wave rectifier
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Answer: c
Ques 34. For a full wave rectifier, the output frequency

a. Equals one half the input frequency
b. Equals the line frequency
c. Equals two times the input
d. Is 3 times the line frequency
Answer: c
Ques 35. The frequency of the half wave rectifier signal is

a. Twice the line frequency
b. Equal to the line frequency
c. One half of the line frequency
d. One fourth of the line frequency
Answer: b
Ques 36. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a semi‐conductor is

a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. Infinity
Answer: b
Ques 37. At absolute zero temperature a semi‐conductor behaves a

a. Good conductor
b. Super conductor
c. Insulator
d. Variable resistor
Answer: c
Ques 38. A transistor has …………………
a. one pn junction
b. two pn junctions
c. three pn junctions
d. four pn junctions
Answer: b
Ques 39. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is …………
a. four
b. three
c. one
d. two
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Answer: d
Ques 40. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is ………………..
a. collector
b. base
c. emitter
d. collector‐base‐junction
Answer: a
Ques 41. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are ………….
a. acceptor ions
b. donor ions
c. free electrons
d. holes
Answer: d
Ques 42. In a npn transistor, ……………. are the minority carriers
a. free electrons
b. holes
c. donor ions
d. acceptor ions
Answer: b
Ques 43. In a transistor ………………..
a. IC = IE + IB
b. IB = IC + IE
c. IE = IC – IB
d. IE = IC + IB
Answer: d
Ques 44. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is …………… arrangement
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a. common emitter
b. common base
c. common collector
Answer: a
Ques 45. A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not connected in CE mode with same bias voltages,
the values of IE, IB and IC will …………..
a. remain the same

b. increase
c. decrease
Answer: a
Ques 46. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture of a transistor is ………….
a. germanium
b. silicon
c. carbon
Answer: b
Ques 47. The collector‐base junction in a transistor has ……………..
a. forward bias at all times

b. reverse bias at all times
c. low resistance
Answer: b
Ques 48. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should have …………
a. Proper forward bias

b. Proper reverse bias
c. Very small size
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Answer: b
Ques 49. If the value of collector current IC increases, then the value of VCE …………
a. Remains the same

b. Decreases
c. Increases
Answer: b
Ques 50. An SCR has …………….. pn junctions
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the above
Answer: b
Ques 51. An SCR has ………….. semiconductor layers
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
Answer: c
Ques 52. An SCR has three terminals viz ……………
a) Cathode, anode, gate

b) Anode, cathode, grid
c) Anode, cathode, drain
Answer: a
Ques 53. An SCR behaves as a ……………. Switch
a) Unidirectional
b) Bidirectional
c) Mechanical
Answer: a
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Ques 54. An SCR is sometimes called …………
a) Triac
b) Diac
c) Unijunction transistor
d) Thyristor
Answer: d
Ques 55. In the normal operation of an SCR, anode is …………… w.r.t. cathode
a) At zero potential
b) Negative
c) Positive
Answer: c
Ques 56. In normal operation of an SCR, gate is ………..w.r.t. cathode

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) At zero potential
Answer: a
Ques 57. The control element of an SCR is ………….
a) Cathode
b) Anode
c) Anode supply
d) Gate
Answer: d
Ques 58. An SCR is turned off by …………….
a) Reducing anode voltage to zero

b) Reducing gate voltage to zero
c) Reverse biasing the gate
Answer: a
Ques 59. An SCR is a ……………….. triggered device
a) Voltage
b) Current
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c) Voltage as well as current
Answer: b
Ques 60. An SCR is turned off when …………..
a) Anode current is reduced to zero

b) Gate voltage is reduced to zero
c) Gate is reverse biased
Answer: a
Ques 61. If firing angle in an SCR circuit is increased, the output …………
a) Remains the same

b) Is increased
c) Is decreased
Answer: c
Ques 62. If gate current is increased, then anode‐cathode voltage at which SCR closes …………….
a) Is decreased
b) Is increased
c) Remains the same
Answer: a
Ques 63. When SCR is OFF, the current in the circuit is …………….
a) Exactly zero
b) Small leakage current
c) Large leakage current
Answer: b
Ques 64. An SCR can exercise control over ………. of a.c. supply
a) Positive half‐cycles only

b) Negative half‐cycles only
c) Both positive and negative half‐cycles
d) Positive or negative half‐cycles
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Answer: d
Ques 65. When SCR starts conducting, then ……………. loses all control
a) Gate
b) Cathode
c) Anode
Answer: a
Ques 66. A……………….is considered a current controlled device

a. Diode
b. Conductor
c. Transistor
d. Resistor
Answer: c
Ques 67. A…………….is considered as voltage controlled device

a. FET
b. Diode
c. Transistor
d. Capacitor
Answer: a
Ques 68. What semi‐conductor material is used in the construction of LED?

a. Silicon
b. Germanium
c. Gallium
d. Gallium arsenide
Answer: d
Ques 69. In an amplifier the emitter junction is

a. Forward biased
b. Reverse biased
c. Grounded
d. Shorted
Answer: a
Ques 70. What diode gives off light when energized?

a. Photodiode
b. LED
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c. Photo conductive cell
d. Tunnel diode
Answer: b
Ques 71. The arrow in semi‐conductor symbol

a. Always points to P region and away from N region
b. Always points towards N region and away from P region
c. Is not a significant symbol
d. Always points towards the PN junction
Answer: b
Ques 72. What are three terminals of a FET?

a. Gate, source and drain
b. Plate, cathode and grid
c. Gate, source and battery
d. Input, output and ground
Answer: a
Ques 73. What is the input control parameter of a FET?

a. Gate voltage
b. Source voltage
c. Drain voltage
d. Gate current
Answer: a
Ques 74. What is the time taken by the electrons or holes to pass from the emitter to the collector?
a. Transit time
b. Recombination
c. Transient time
d. Duty cycle
Answer: a
Ques 75. Which configuration has the lowest current gain?

a. Common base
b. Common collector
c. Common emitter
d. Emitter follower
Answer: a
Ques 76. What is a three terminal device used to control large current to a load?
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a. SCR
b. SCS
c. GTO
d. Thyristor
Answer: a
Ques 77. The three terminals of an SCR are

a. Anode, cathode and grid
b. Anode, cathode, gate
c. Anode, cathode, drain
d. Drain, source, gate
Answer: b
Ques 78. How many semi‐conductor layers does an SCR have?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
Answer: a
Ques 79. A Diac has how many terminals?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer: a
Ques 80. An SCR combines the feature of

a. A rectifier and resistance
b. A rectifier and capacitor
c. A rectifier and transistor
d. A rectifier and inductor
Answer: c
Ques 81. Which is the control element in SCR?

a. Anode
b. Cathode
c. Gate
d. Cathode supply
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Answer: c
Ques 82. A Diac has

a. 1 pn junction
b. 3 pn junctions
c. 2 pn junctions
d. 4 pn junctions
Answer: c
Ques 83. A Diac is…………………switch

a. An AC
b. A mechanical
c. A dc
d. Both ac and dc
Answer: a
Ques 84. Which device does not have gate terminal?

a. Triac
b. SCR
c. FET
d. Diac
Answer: d
Ques 85. The supply voltage is generally……………. that of break over voltage in an SCR
a. Equal to
b. Less than
c. Greater than
d. Twice
Answer: b
Ques 86. When the supply voltage exceeds the break over voltage of an SCR, it
a. Starts conducting
b. Stops conducting
c. Conducts leakage current
d. Conducts terminal current
Answer: a
Ques 87. What is that voltage above the SCR enters the conduction region?
a. Reverse break over voltage
b. Forward break over voltage
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c. Holding voltage
d. Trigger voltage
Answer: b
Ques 88. What is that value of current below which the SCR switches from the conduction state to the
forward blocking region?
a. Holding current
b. Forward current
c. Reverse current
d. Trigger current
Answer: a
Ques 89. When SCR starts conducting then………………losses all control.

a. Gate
b. Anode
c. Cathode
d. Anode supply
Answer: a
Ques 90. SCR is made of what material?

a. Silicon
b. Carbon
c. Germanium
d. Gallium
Answer: a
Ques 91. When the SCR is off, the current in the circuit is
a. Exactly zero
b. Large leakage current
c. Small leakage current
d. Thermal current
Answer: c
Ques 92. Which transistor conducts current in both directions when turned on?
a. Diac
b. SCR
c. Quadrac
d. SCS
Answer: a
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Measuring Equipments:
Ques 1. A moving‐coil permanent‐magnet instrument can be used as _____ by using a low resistance shunt.
(a) ammeter
(b) voltmeter
(c) flux‐meter
(d) ballistic galvanometer
Answer: a
Ques 2. A moving‐coil permanent‐magnet instrument can be used as flux‐meter

(a) by using a low resistance shunt
(b) by using a high series resistance
(c) by eliminating the control springs
(d) by making control springs of large moment of inertia
Answer: c
Ques 3. A potentiometer may be used for

(a) measurement of resistance
(b) measurement of current
(c) calibration of ammeter
(d) calibration of voltmeter
(e) all of the above
Answer: e
Ques 4. An ammeter’s ideal resistance should be

a. Zero
b. Unity
c. Infinite
d. Same as circuit resistance
Answer: a
Ques 5. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by

(a) battery
(b) permanent magnet D.C. generator
(c) AC. generator
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(d) any of the above
Answer: b
Ques 6. The operating voltage of a meggar is about

(a) 6 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 40 V
(d) 100 V
Answer: d
Ques 7. Alternating current is measured by

(a) induction ammeter
(b) permanent magnet type ammeter
(c) electrostatic ammeter
(d) moving iron repulsion type voltmeter
Answer: a
Ques 8. An ammeter is connected in …………….. with the circuit element whose current we wish to measure
a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Series or parallel
Answer: a
Ques 9. A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called ……………
a) An ammeter
b) A voltmeter
c) A wattmeter
Answer: b
Ques 10. An ammeter should have ………….. resistance
a) Infinite
b) Very large
c) Very low
Answer: c
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Ques 11. A voltmeter should have ………. Resistance
a) Zero
b) Very high
c) Very low
Answer: b
Protection and Switch Gears:
Ques 1. The main function of a fuse is to

(a) protect the line
(b) open the circuit
(c) protect the appliance
(d) prevent excessive currents
(e) none of the above
Answer: d
Ques 2. The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made of

(a) copper tungsten alloy
(b) porcelain
(c) electrolytic copper
(d) aluminum alloy
Answer: a
Ques 3. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker ?
(a) Water
(b) Oil
(c) Air
(d) SF6
Answer: c
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Ques 4. Overload relays are of…… type.
(a) induction
(b) solid state
(c) thermal
(d) electromagnetic
(e) all above
Answer: e
Ques 5. Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against over current due to
(a) short‐circuits
(b) heavy loads
(c) grounds
Answer: b
Ques 6. Circuit breakers are essentially

(a) current carrying contacts called electrodes
(b) arc extinguishers
(c) circuits to break the system
(d) transformers to isolate the two systems
(e) any of the above
Answer: a
Ques 7. The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the circuit breaker is called voltage.
(a) recovery
(b) surge
(c) operating
(d) arc
Answer: a
Ques 8. Which of the following is the least expensive protection for overcurrent is low voltage system ?
(a) Rewireable fuse
(b) Isolator
(c) Oil circuit breaker
(d) Air break circuit breaker
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(e) None of the above
Answer: a
Ques 9. Short‐circuit currents are due to

(a) single phase to ground faults
(b) phase to phase faults
(c) two phase to ground faults
(d) three phase faults
(e) any of these
Answer: e
Ques 10. The single phasing relays are used for the protection of
(a) single phase motors only
(b) two phase motors only
(c) two single phase motors running in parallel
(d) three phase motors
Answer: d
Ques 11. The material used for fuse must have

(a) low melting point and high specific resistance
(b) low melting point and ‐low specific resistance
(c) high melting point and low specific resistance
(d) low melting point and any specific resistance
Answer: a
Ques 12. A fuse is connected

(a) in series with circuit
(b) in parallel with circuit
(c) either in series or in parallel with circuit
Answer: a
Ques 13. To limit short‐circuit current in a power system are used.

(a) earth wires
(b) isolators
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(c) H.R.C. fuses
(d) reactors
Answer: d
Ques 14. The insulating material for cables should

(a) be acid proof
(b) be non‐inflammable
(c) be non‐hygroscopic
(d) have all above properties
Answer: d
Ques 15. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath _____ is provided.

(a) earthing connection
(b) bedding
(c) armouring
Answer: b
Ques 16. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non‐existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
Answer: c
Ques 17. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
Answer: a
Ques 18. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing
(a) the resistance of the conductor
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(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Answer: c
Ques 19. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance

(a) becomes one‐fourth
(b) becomes one‐half
(c) becomes double
(d) remains unchanged
Answer: c
Ques 20. In the cables, sheaths are used to

(a) prevent the moisture from entering the cable
(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation
Answer: a
Ques 21. The cable insulating material should have

(a) low permittivity
(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength
Answer: d
Ques 22. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on

(a) presence of moisture
(b) working temperature
(c) time of application of the voltage
Answer: d
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Air Conditioning:
Ques 1. In a refrigeration cycle the heat is rejected by refrigerant at….
A. Condenser
B. Evaporator
C. Compressor
D. Expansion valve
Answer: Option A
Ques 2. In a refrigeration cycle the flow of refrigerant is controlled by…
A. Compressor
B. Evaporator
C. Expansion valve
D. Condenser
Answer: Option C
Ques 3. Which part of the vapor compression refrigeration cycle produces refrigeration effect?
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Ques 4. In a refrigeration cycle oil separator is installed between …….
A. Condenser and TEV
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B. Compressor and condenser
C. Condenser and evaporator
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Ques 5. What removes moisture from a refrigerant?
A. Dehumidifier
B. Solenoid
C. TEV
D. Drier
Answer: Option D
Ques 6. In VCRS the condition of refrigerant before entering the compressor is……
A. Wet vapor
B. Saturated liquid
C. Dry saturated liquid
D. Superheated vapor
Answer: Option D
Ques 7. The highest temperature during the VCRS cycle occurs after……
A. Condensation
B. Expansion
C. Evaporation
D. Compression
Answer: Option D
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Ques 8. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator
A. increases heat transfer
B. improves C.O.P. of the system
C. increases power consumption
D. reduces power consumption
Answer: Option C
Ques 9. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is called
A. dry bulb depression
B. wet bulb depression
C. dew point depression
D. degree of saturation
Answer: Option B
Ques 10. Defrosting of a refrigerator may be done by stopping the compressor for a short period.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Ques 11. The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is

A. higher in winter than in summer
B. lower in winter than in summer
C. same in winter and summer
D. not dependent on season
Answer: Option B
Ques 12. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a

A. compressor
B. condenser
C. evaporator
D. expansion valve
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Answer: Option B
Ques 13. A refrigeration system

A. removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body
B. removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body
C. rejects energy to a low temperature body
D. none of the above
Answer: Option A
Ques 14. A pressure gauge on the discharge side of a refrigerant compressor reads too high. The reasons
will be
A. lack of cooling water
B. water temperature being high
C. dirty condenser surface
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 15. The freon group of refrigerants are

A. halo‐carbon refrigerants
B. azeotrope refrigerants
C. inorganic refrigerants
D. hydro‐carbon refrigerants
Answer: Option A
Ques 16. Which of the following refrigerant has the highest freezing point.
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. R‐12
Answer: Option B
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Ques 17. Air conditioning means
A. cooling
B. heating
C. dehumidifying
D. all of these
Answer: Option D
Ques 18. Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the
stratophere?
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Flourine
Answer: Option D
Ques 19. One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing capacity is
A. 21 kJ/min
B. 210 kJ/min
C. 420 kJ/min
D. 620 kJ/min
Answer: Option B
Ques 20. The thermostatic expansion valve is used in __________ type of evaporators.
A. flooded
B. DX coil
C. dry
Answer: Option C
Ques 21. A good refrigerant should have

A. high latent heat of vaporisation and low freezing point
B. high operating pressures and low freezing point
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C. high specific volume and high latent heat of vaporisation
D. low C.O.P. and low freezing point
Answer: Option A
Ques 22. The capillary tube is not used in large capacity refrigeration systems because
A. cost is too high
B. capacity control is not possible
C. it is made of copper
D. required pressure drop can not be achieved
Answer: Option B
Ques 23. The thermostatic expansion valve operates on the changes in the
A. degree of superheat at exit from the evaporator
B. temperature of the evaporator
C. pressure in the evaporator
Answer: Option A
Ques 24. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the expansion or
throttle valve is
A. high pressure saturated liquid
B. wet vapour
C. very wet vapour
D. dry vapour
Answer: Option A
Ques 25. The pressure at the outlet of a refrigerant compressor is called

A. suction pressure
B. discharge pressure
C. critical pressure
D. back pressure
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Answer: Option B
Ques 26. A one tonne refrigerating machine means that

A. one tonne is the total mass of machine
B. one tonne refrigerant is used
C. one tonne of water can be converted into ice
D. one tonne of ice when melts from and at 0° C in 24 hours, the refrigeration effect is equivalent
to 210 kJ/min
Answer: Option D
Ques 27. The expansion valve in a refrigerator controls the flow of refrigerant.
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
Answer: Option A
Ques 28. A thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system

A. ensures the evaporator completely filled with refrigerant of the load
B. is suitable only for constant load systems
C. maintains different temperatures in evaporator in proportion to load
Answer: Option A
Ques 29. R‐12 is generally preferred over R‐22 in deep freezers since
A. it has low operating pressures
B. it gives higher coefficient of performance
C. it is miscible with oil over large range of temperatures
D. all of the above
Answer: Option C
Ques 30. The colour of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of freon refrigerant, will change to
A. bright green
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B. yellow
C. red
D. orange
Answer: Option A
Ques 31. For comfort air conditioning the conditions maintained are
A. 15 deg dbt to 20 deg Wbt
B. 25 deg dbt to 60 % RH
C. 40 deg dbt and 40 deg Wbt
D. 25 deg dbt and 80 % RH
Answer: Option B
Ques 32. In a mechanical refrigeration system, the highest temperature of refrigerant occurs
A. Between condenser and evaporator
B. In evaporator
C. Before expansion value
D. Between compressor and condenser
Answer: Option D
Ques 33. The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid refrigerant from the expansion valve into
A. high pressure liquid refrigerant
B. low pressure liquid and vapour refrigerant
C. low pressure vapour refrigerant
D. none of these
Answer: Option C
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 Current Electricity (Generation, Transmission, Distribution & Utilization)

Ques 1. The flow of current in solids is due to

Ques 2. Electric current in a wire is the flow of…………………. electrons?

Ques 3. Electromotive force in a circuit

Ques 4. The resistance of a material is…………………………. its area of cross section.

Ques 6. What is the SI unit of specific resistance or resistivity?

Ques 7. The temperature coefficient of resistance of conductors is

Ques 8. The temperature coefficient of resistance of semi‐conductors is

Ques 9. One commercial unit of energy equals

Ques 10. In gases flow of current is due to

Ques 13. A negative charged body has

Ques 16. Out of the following which is an insulating material

Ques 18. Conductance is reciprocal of

Ques 19. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as

Ques 20. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals

Ques 22. An instrument which detects electric current is known as

Ques 24. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

Ques 25. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

Ques 29. Varistors are

Ques 30. Insulating materials have the function of

Ques 31. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in

Ques 32. The filament of an electrical bulb is made of

Ques 33. A 3Ω resistor having 2A current will dissipate the power of

Ques 34. Which of the following statement is true?

Ques 36. If one resistance in a series connection opens, then

Ques 38. Which factor does not affect resistance?

Ques 42. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided

Ques 43. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on

Ques 46. Electric current passing through the circuit produces

Ques 47. Resistance of material always decreases if

Ques 53. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in

Ques 58. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

Ques 61. An open resistor when checked with an Ohm‐meter reads

Ques 62. All good conductors have high

Ques 63. A thermistor has

Ques 64. Conductance : mho ::

Ques 67. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals

Ques 68. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi‐conductors

Ques 69. An instrument which detects electric current is known as

Ques 71. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

Ques 73. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?

Ques 74. The minimum charge on an ion is

Ques 75. In a series circuit with unequal resistances

Ques 79. An electric filament bulb can be worked from

Ques 80. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?

Ques 85. In the case of direct current

Ques 88. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

Ques 89. Which of the following statement is correct?

Ques 90. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it

Ques 94. Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit yields

Ques 95. Choose the incorrect statement.

Ques 1. The charge in the capacitor is stored at the

Ques 2. A capacitor is basically constructed of

Ques 3. Which component opposes voltage change?

Ques 4. Which of the following describes the action of a capacitor?

Ques 5. For parallel capacitors, total charge is

Ques 6. A capacitor is used to

Ques 10. The lines of force due to charged particles are

Ques 11. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .

Ques 15. What does a capacitor store?

Ques 16. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having

Ques 19. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for

Ques 1. When capacitors are connected in parallel, the total capacitance is