Very Short Answer Type Questions

Q.1. What are the component cells of the egg apparatus in an embryo sac?
A.1. An egg apparatus consists of:

• One egg cell

• Two synergids

Q.2. Which part of gynoecium determines the compatible nature of pollen grain?
A.2. Stigma

Q.3. What is common in the function performed by nucellus and cotyledon?

A.3. The cotyledons and nucellus both store reserve food material and does the work of
providing nourishment- nucellus (embryo sac), cotyledons (embryo).

Q.4. Fill in the missing words:

Pollen mother cell → Pollen tetrad → Pollen grain → Vegetative cell, ___?____
A.4. Generative cell

Q.5. In the following events, indicate the stages where mitosis and meiosis occur
(1,2,3).
Megaspore mother cell →(1)→Megaspores→(2)→Embryo sacs→(3)→EggA.5. 1-
Meiosis 2- Mitosis 3- Meiosis

Q.6. Show the direction of the pollen tube from the pollen on the stigma in the embryo
sac in the given diagram.

A.6.
Q.7. Which regions of pistil form fruits and seeds?
A.7. The ovary develops into a fruit. The ovule develops into the seed.

Q.8. During polyembryony, if one embryo is formed from synergids and the other
from nucellus, state the one that is haploid and the one that is diploid.
A.8. Embryo developed from the synergid- haploid Embryo developed from the
nucellus- diploid.

Q.9. Is it possible that an unfertilized apomictic embryo sac gives rise to a diploid
embryo? Give a reason in support of your answer.
A.9. Yes, an unfertilized apomictic embryo sac can give rise to a diploid embryo. If the
megaspore develops into an embryo sac without mitotic division, it will give rise to a
diploid embryo.

Q.10. When a pollen grain is shed at the 3-celled stage, which three cells are found?
A.10. The following three cells are found at the three-celled stage:

• One vegetative cell

• Two male gametes

Q.11. Define self-incompatibility. How do self-incompatible plants pollinate?

A.11. Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism in which the growth of the pollen tube
in the pistil is inhibited which prevents self pollens from fertilizing the ovules. The self-
incompatible plants pollinate by cross-pollination.

Q.12. Which is a triploid tissue? How is the condition achieved in a fertilized ovule?
A.12. The endosperm is a triploid tissue in a fertilized ovule. Triple fusion, leading to the
fusion of one male gamete and two haploid polar nuclei form the triploid tissue.

Q.13. Does apomixis require fertilization and pollination? Give reasons in support of
your answer.
A.13. No, apomixis does not require pollination and fertilization. This is because
apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction in which the female reproductive apparatus
is used. The embryos can develop directly from the nucellus or synergids.
Q.14. Mention the kind of carpel in the diagram given below.

A.14.

• (a) Multicarpellary, the syncarpous pistil of Papaver

• (b) Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium of Michelia

Q.15. How do aquatic plants undergo pollination?

A.15. A few aquatic plants have their flowers growing in the air. They are pollinated by
the insects. Other plants that have their flowers submerged in water release their
pollen in the water that drifts in the water and are caught by the feathery stigma of
female flowers.

Q.16. Each pollen grain in the flowering plants produces male gametes. State the
function of the male gametes.
A.16. One male gamete fuses with the nucleus of the egg cell, while the other male
gamete moves towards the two polar nuclei present in the central cell and fuses with it
to form a triploid primary endosperm nucleus.

Q.17. List out the agents of pollination.

A.17. The pollinating agents are involved in transferring pollen grains from the male to
the female part of the flower. Animals, birds, insects, wind and other biotic and abiotic
agents are all examples of pollinating agents.

Q.18. What is pollination?

A.18.Pollination is a process of transferring pollen grains from the male anther of a

flower to the flower’s female part called the stigma. Pollination is the sexual mode of
reproducing, which is carried out by all flowering plants of a plant kingdom.

Q.19.What are the stages of post-fertilization in plants?

A.19.In all flowering plants, the post-fertilization is a critical stage which occurs after the
double fertilization and includes the series of steps:

1. Endosperm development.
 2. Embryo improvement.
3. Development of ovule into a seed.
4. Development of ovary into a fruit.

Q.20.What are the male and female reproductive parts of a flower?

A.20.A flower plays a vital role in the reproduction process of a plant. Therefore, it is
called the reproductive organ of plants.

The male reproductive parts of the flower include the stamen the filament and the
anther, which are collectively termed the androecium.

The female reproductive parts of the flower include carpels, pistils, stigma, style and an
ovary, which are collectively termed the gynoecium.

Q.21.What is cross-pollination?

A.21.Cross-Pollination is the complex type of pollination during which the pollen grains
are transferred from the anther of one flower into the stigma of another flower. This
type of pollination makes use of both biotic and abiotic agents like wind, water, insects,
birds, animals, and other agents as pollinators.

Q.22.Define double fertilization.

A.22.In plants, double fertilization refers to the fusion of one female gametophyte with
two male gametophytes. It is a complex process in all flowering plants.

Q.23.What are the main layers of a flower?

A.23. There are different types of flowers in a plant kingdom. A few among them vary in
colour, structure, shape, etc. However, all flowers have unique layers. The four main
layers of a flower:

1. Calyx
2. Corolla
3. Androecium
4. Gynoecium

Q.24. Define Morphogenesis.

A.24.Morphogenesis is defined as a biological process which controls the growth,

development in size, shape and structure and distribution of cells during the embryonic
development of an organism.

Q.25. State the role of endothecium.

A.25. The endothecium protects the microsporangium and helps in the dehiscence of
anther for the release of pollen grains.
Short Answer Type Questions
Q.1. How does a chasmogamous bisexual flower prevent self-pollination?
A.1. A chasmogamous bisexual flower prevents self-pollination in the following ways:

1. Dichogamy: In this strategy, the release of pollens and the receptivity of stigma are not
synchronized. For e.g., in sunflower, the stigma becomes receptive long after the pollen
release.
2. Herkogamy: In this, the male and female flowers are present at different locations. In this,
the pollen of the flower cannot come in contact with the stigma of the same flower. For
e.g., Hibiscus gloriosa
3. Self-sterility: It is a mechanism in which the growth of the pollen tube in the pistil or the
germination of pollen grains is inhibited. This prevents the fertilization of the ovules from the
pollen of the same flower. For e.g., Abolition.

Q.2. Arrange them sequentially according to how they appear in the artificial
hybridization programme.

1. Rebagging
2. Selection of parents
3. Bagging
4. Dusting the pollen on the stigma
5. Emasculation
6. Collection of pollen

A.2. a) Selection of parents b) Emasculation c) Bagging d) Collection of pollen e)

Dusting of pollen on the stigma f) Rebagging

Q.3. How does self-incompatibility restrict autogamy? How does pollination occur in
such plants?
A.3. Self-incompatibility restricts autogamy by a mechanism known as self-sterility.
This is a genetic mechanism in which the germination of pollen grains or the pollen
tube growth in the pistil is inhibited which prevents the pollen from fertilizing the ovules.
Such plants pollinate by the process of cross-pollination.
Q.4. Label the following diagram.

A.4.

Q.5. Explain the term polyembryony. How is it exploited commercially?

A.5. When more than one embryo occurs in a seed, it is referred to as polyembryony.
This can be seen in a few citrus fruits and mango varieties. Polyembryony plays a
significant part in plant breeding and horticulture. These embryos give rise to virus-free
plantlets and are healthy. Hybrid varieties of such plants and vegetables are being
grown extensively. These varieties thus obtained are highly productive.

Q.6. Is there any difference between apomixis and parthenocarpy? Explain the
benefits of each.
A.6. Yes, parthenocarpy is different from apomixis. In parthenocarpy, the fruit is
produced without the fertilization of the female gamete. It is used for the production of
fruits without seeds such as banana and grapes for commercial purposes. Apomixis is
the process in which the seeds are produced without fertilization but the process
occurs in the female reproductive tract of the plant. In this, the megaspore mother cell
does not undergo meiosis. It is used for the commercial production of hybrid varieties
and in the production of virus-free varieties.
Q.7. The zygote divides only after the division of the primary endosperm cell. Give
reasons in support of the statement.
A.7. Zygote requires nourishment for its growth and division. This nourishment is
provided by the primary endosperm cell. That is why the zygote divides only after the
growth, food storage and division of the primary endosperm cell.

Q.8. Why is it that the generative cell of 2-celled pollen divides in a pollen tube and
not of 3-celled pollen?
A.8. The generative cell divides to form two male gametes. In three-celled pollen, the
generative cell divides into two gametes, therefore, no further division takes place in
the pollen tube. However, in two-celled pollen, the generative cell moves down the
pollen tube and divides to form two male gametes.

Q.9. Label the following parts in the diagram given below:

Male gametes, egg cell, polar nuclei, synergid, pollen tube.

A.9.

Q.10.Explain the events which occur after the process of fertilization in plants.

A.10.Fertilization is a vital process, which takes place in all sexually reproducing

organisms. In all flowering plants, fertilization occurs after pollination and germination.
After the process of fertilization, the following events occur:

1. The ovary becomes the fruit

2. The ovules become the seeds.
3. The other structures including the corolla, calyx, and other remaining parts of the
androecium and gynoecium degenerate or fall off.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q.1. Explain the pollination occurring in the chasmogamous flowers.
A.1. The chasmogamous flowers are open with their anther and stigma exposed for
pollination. In these flowers two types of pollinations take place:
Self-Pollination: Self-pollination occurs when both the anther and the stigma mature
simultaneously and come in contact with each other.
Cross-Pollination: This type of pollination occurs in self-incompatible plants. In this,
the anther and the stigma mature at different times so cannot come in contact with
each other. Cross-pollination is of two types:

• Geitonogamy– When the pollen grains from the anther transfer to the stigma of a different
flower in the same plant, it is known as geitonogamy.
• Xenogamy– When the pollen grains from the anther of a flower get transferred to the
stigma of a flower in some other plant, it is known as xenogamy. This process carries
genetically different pollen to the stigma.

Q.2. Describe the structure of the embryo sac of a mature angiosperm. Explain the
role of synergids in it.
A.2.

• The cell walls of the 8 nucleate stages are organized in the form of a female gametophyte or
embryo sac.
• Six out of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls.
• The egg apparatus comprises two synergids and one egg cell.
• Three cells called the antipodals are present at the chalazal end.
• The central cell is formed by the fusion of two polar nuclei.
• On maturity, the embryo sac of the angiosperms consists of 8 nuclei and 7 cells.
• A single megaspore gives rise to the embryo sac, hence called monosporic embryo sac.

Role of Synergids
The synergids are responsible for the reproduction in an angiosperm. During
fertilization, a pollen tube grows into one of the synergids. The tube ceases growth,
ruptures and releases two sperm cells.

Q.3. How is it that the embryo sacs of some apomictic species look normal but
contain diploid cells?
A.3. The offsprings produced by apomixis are genetically identical to the parent. In
flowering plants apomixis is used to reproduce asexually through seeds. In a few
species, the diploid egg cell does not undergo reduction division and forms an embryo
without fertilization. In a few citrus species, the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo
sac divide and give rise to an embryo. This takes place in the megaspore mother cell. It
only undergoes mitosis and hence produces diploid cells in the embryo sac.

Q.4. What are the characteristics of wind, water and insect-pollinated flowers?

A.4. Characteristics of wind-pollinated flowers:

 • These flowers are not brightly coloured.
• They possess no special odours or nectar.
• They are small and have no petals.
• Their stigma and stamens are exposed to air currents.
• The pollen is smooth, light can be blown easily by wind and are in large numbers.
• The stigma is feathery and can catch pollen from the wind.

Characteristics of water-pollinated flowers:

• They possess small male flowers that are not clearly visible.
• A large number of pollens are released in water that is caught by large, feathery stigma of
female flowers.
• This pollen keeps floating on the water surface until they are caught by female flowers.

Characteristics of insect-pollinated flowers:

• They are large with bright-coloured petals to attract insects.

• The flowers have nectar and a pleasant fragrance.
• The pollen grains are sticky and can easily stick to the insect’s body.

Q.5. Explain the structure of the pollen.

A.5. Pollen grains are microscopic structures that carry the male reproductive cells of a
plant. It is a double-walled structure with a thin inner wall known as endospore
composed of cellulose and a thick outer wall known as exospore, composed of
sporopollenin.

The exospore protects the male genetic material during transportation from an anther
to stigma. The waxes and proteins present on the pollen surface repel moisture and
interact with the stigma.

Q.6.What are the functions of a flower?

A.6.The flowers are the reproductive organs of plants and are mainly involved in the
reproduction process. The essential functions of flowers are mentioned below:

1. It provides the beauty of the plant.

2. Gametophytes developed in the flowers.
3. Helps in the development of fruit with a seed.
4. Involved in the union of male and female gametes.
5. It accommodates the sex organs of the plant.
6. Flowers provide nectar to certain birds and insects.
7. It protects the reproductive organs of a plant.
8. The flowers can produce diaspores without fertilization.
9. Flowers also promote the union of sperm and eggs from the same flower or different flowers.
10. It helps in pollination by attracting insects and other animals prior to transfer pollen grains.
Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q.1. List the following events observed in human reproduction in chronological order.
Fertilization, gametogenesis, insemination, gestation, parturition, implantation.

A.1. Following is the sequence of events occurring in the process of human

reproduction:

1. Gametogenesis
2. Insemination
3. Fertilization
4. Implantation
5. Gestation
6. Parturition

Q.2. Fill in the missing boxes exhibiting the route of sperm transport.

A.2. Following is the pathway followed by a sperm.

Q.3. State the significance of cervix in the female reproductive system.

A.3. The cervix is a narrow opening through which the uterus opens up to the vagina.
The cervical canal is the cavity of the cervix which alongside the vagina goes on to
form the birth canal.

Q.4. What is the reason for the absence of menstrual cycles during conception or
pregnancy?

A.4. During pregnancy, all the events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no
menstruation. Menstruation occurs only when the egg that is released is not fertilized.
But in pregnancy, the released egg is fertilized and hence the uterus lining does not
shed, instead nourishes the foetus. However, a woman may experience uterine
bleeding during pregnancy due to various reasons. It is not due to the period.
Q.5. Fill up the missing data in the table where Column A shows female reproductive
organs and Column B shows its respective functions.

Column A Column B
(Organs) (Corresponding Functions)

Ovaries Ovulation

Oviduct

Pregnancy

Vagina Birth

A.5. Following are the female reproductive organs and their associated functions.

Column A Column B
(Organs) (Corresponding Functions)

Ovaries Ovulation

Oviduct Fertilization

Uterus Pregnancy

Vagina Birth

Q.6. Name the hormone crucial in parturition. Does the parturition signal originate
from the mother or the foetus?

A.6. The hormone is Oxytocin. The signal originates from the placenta and fully
developed foetus which initiate the foetal ejection reflex triggering the release of the
hormone, oxytocin.
Q.7. State the role of the epididymis in male fertility.

A.7. It is situated along the posterior surface of each testis where spermatozoa acquire
motility and the capacity to fertilize the egg. The surface of the sperm is altered in
response to secretions of the epididymis, which is key to achieve the ability to fertilize
an egg.

Q.8. List the names of the hormones, endocrine glands along with functions of the
hormones that are crucial in causing spermatogenesis.

A.8. The table below provides the required data:

Endocrine glands
Name of the
where the hormone is Functions of the hormone
hormone
released

Increase in secretion of GnRH initiates

Gonadotropin-
spermatogenesis at puberty age After acting
releasing Hypothalamus
on the anterior pituitary gland – triggers the
hormone(GnRH)
secretion of LH and FSH

Luteinising Anterior pituitary Triggers the production and secretion of

hormone(LH) gland androgens

Follicle Stimulating Acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates the

Pituitary gland
Hormone (FSH) secretion

Q.9. Fill in the missing boxes for the levels in the transformation of mother germ cells
into a mature follicle.
A.9. The various steps in the formation of the mature follicle are as follows:

Q.10. What are the events that cause the chromosome number of gametes to go from
2n, n, and again back to 2n during reproduction?

A.10. Chromosomes replicate once but divide twice. They undergo mitosis, first meiotic
cell division and second meiotic cell division, the outcome of which is n number of
chromosomes. They fuse with the haploid(n) sex gamete of the opposite sex to form a
diploid(2n) cell during reproduction.

Q.11. How is a primary oocyte different from a secondary oocyte?

A.11. The primary oocyte is a diploid cell whereas secondary oocyte is a haploid cell.
The primary oocyte is formed when oogonia are at the prophase-I of the meiotic
division in the foetal ovary whereas secondary oocyte is formed from primary oocyte
after meiosis – I division to produce ova in females during the stage of puberty.

Q.12. State the role of the ampullary-isthmic junction in the female reproductive
tract.

A.12. In the ampullary-isthmic junction, fertilization of the ovum takes place.

Q.13. How is polyspermy checked by the zona pellucida of the ovum?

A.13. The zona pellucida is a thick layer that is girdled by corona radiata cells. During
fertilization, cortical granules are released from the egg which blocks fusing of multiple
sperms with an egg.

Q.14. What is the significance of LH surge through the menstrual cycle?

A.14. It triggers the rupture of Graafian follicle and causes the release of the ovum in
the fallopian tube.

Q.15. During which stage of cell division are spermatids formed from the secondary
spermatocytes?

A.15. The second meiotic division.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q.1. State the significance of the following stages during the lifetime of a female.

1. Menarche
2. Menopause

A.1. The first menstruation or onset of menstruation at puberty is referred to as

menarche. It indicates the attainment of sexual maturity and the commencement of
the fertile period. Menstruation cycle is the cycle of events from one up till the next
menstruation and is repeated for about 28 days on an average wherein one ovum is
released. Menopause, on the other hand, is when the menstruation cycle comes to a
halt, indicating the end of the fertile period as the process of ovulation stops. Cyclic
menstruation denotes a regular reproductive phase stretching from menarche to
menopause.

Q.2.

a. How many spermatozoa does one secondary spermatocyte produce?

b. Where in zygote does the first cleavage division occur?

A.2. a. The secondary spermatocytes undergo meiotic division – II to generate four
haploid spermatids which through the process of spermiogenesis are transformed into
spermatozoa.

A.2. b. Cleavage occurs within the fallopian tube and is holoblastic, dividing the zygote
completely into blastomeres. The first cleavage divides the zygote longitudinally into
two blastomeres wherein one is slightly larger than the other.

Q.3. Why does corpus luteum stay active throughout pregnancy and in the absence
of fertilization, is active only for 10-12 days?
A.3. During the luteal phase, the leftover parts of Graafian follicle transform into the
corpus luteum. It discharges large quantities of progesterone hormone which is
required for the maintenance of the endometrium. The endometrium is important for
implantation of the fertilized egg and various other stages of pregnancy. Hence, corpus
luteum has a long life in pregnancy. In the absence of fertilization, upholding of the
corpus luteum is not required and thus it declines within 10-12 days, which causes the
lining of the endometrium to menstruate and hence the onset of the new menstrual
cycle.

Q.4. What is foetal ejection reflex? How does it cause parturition?

A.4. Foetal ejection reflex is the mild uterine contractions that arise from the parturition
signals from the fully developed foetus and the placenta. This reflex stimulates the
release of oxytocin, which causes uterine contractions, in turn, stimulating the
increased secretion of oxytocin. This action of uterine contractions and oxytocin
secretion further results in stronger contractions leading to the dilation and hence
expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through the cervical canal, expelling placenta
along, thus the parturition or childbirth.

Q.5. What are the functions of placenta other than its endocrine function?

A.5. The placenta promotes the supply of nutrients and oxygen to the embryo. It also
facilitates the elimination of excretory wastes and carbon dioxide produced by the
embryo. Placenta aids in the transportation of substances to and from the embryo as it
is connected to the embryo through the umbilical cord.

Q.6. Why is breastfeeding recommended during the initial stages of infant growth?

A.6. The mammary glands in females start producing milk towards the end of
pregnancy through the process of lactation which helps the mother feed the newborn.
Colostrum is the milk produced during the initial few days. Colostrum contains
antibodies which are crucial in developing resistance in the newborns, hence it is
recommended by doctors to bring up a healthy baby.

Q.7. What are the different stages of the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle
taking place in ovary and uterus?

A.7. In this phase, primary follicles transform into the fully mature Graafian follicle in the
ovary. The endometrium of the uterus simultaneously regenerates through
proliferation. Changes in the levels of ovarian and pituitary hormones induce changes
in the uterus and ovaries. During this stage, the secretion of FSH and LH eventually
increases and triggers the secretion and follicular development of estrogen by the
growing follicles. In the middle of the cycle, both LH and FSH reach the peak level. This
speedy secretion of LH at the maximum level during the mid-cycle causes rupture of
Graafian follicle and hence ovulation.

Q.8. Mention the names of the hormones responsible for ovarian changes during the
menstrual cycle in the boxes provided.
A.8. Hormones responsible for the various stages of the menstrual cycle are:

Q.9. Draw a schematic diagram depicting oogenesis. (Label without description)

A.9.

Q.10. Mention the changes taking place during the transition of a primary follicle to
Graafian follicle in the oogonia.

A.10. Oogonia or the gamete mother cells are formed within each foetal ovary. No more
oogonia are formed after birth. They enter into the prophase-I stage of meiotic division
when they start cell division to approach the primary oocyte stage. These primary
oocytes are girdled by a layer of granulosa cells to form the primary follicle which
degenerates during the stages of birth to puberty. The primary follicles are encircled by
more layers of granulosa cells and a new theca known as secondary follicles. The
theca is subdivided into other theca externa and an inner theca interna which secretes
estrogen. The secondary follicle is then transformed into a tertiary follicle characterized
by antrum, which is a fluid-filled cavity. At this phase, the primary oocyte grows in size
inside the tertiary follicle to complete the first meiotic division. The tertiary follicle finally
transitions to form the Graafian follicle.

Q.10. Define Parturition.

A.10. Parturition refers to a process of delivering a baby from the uterus to the vagina to
the outside world. There are three stages of Parturition:

1. Dilation.
2. Expulsion.
3. Placental.

Q.11. Define Fertilization.

A.11. Fertilization refers to the biological process of fusion of male and female gametes
resulting in the formation of a zygote. In humans, the fertilization process takes place
in the fallopian tube.

Q.12. Write the main functions each of testis and ovary?

A.12. Testis also called the Testicles. It is a pair of oval-shaped organs masked in a
pouch called the scrotum. They are responsible for the production of sperms and the
male hormone testosterone.

The ovary is a ductless reproductive gland, which functions by producing a female sex
hormone called estrogen and also involved in producing and storing the ovum or
the egg cell.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q.1. Explain the role of pituitary gonadotropins during the follicular and ovulatory
phases of the menstrual cycle. Describe the shifts in steroidal secretions.

A.1. The menstrual flow is due to the breakdown of the lining of the uterine
endometrium and blood vessels which forms the liquid discharged from the vagina.
The menstrual cycle is controlled through the pituitary gland by the hypothalamus.
Changes in the ovary and uterus during the menstrual cycle is due to the fluctuation in
the levels of ovarian and pituitary hormones. Towards the end of the menstrual phase,
the pituitary FSH eventually increases which causes the development of the follicles
inside the ovaries. Both the FSH and LH attain a peak level during the mid of the cycle.
This speedy secretion of LH leads to LH surge which induces rupture of the Graafian
follicle and hence the ovulation. During the maturation of follicles, more of estrogen is
secreted causing a surge in FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary. The LH surge causes
ovulation. The LH also induces luteinisation. The LH hormone causes the conversion of
the empty follicle into the corpus luteum. The Corpus luteum produces steroidal
hormones – progesterone and estrogen. These hormones govern the growth and
maintenance of the uterine endometrium for probable implantation.

Q.2. Explain in detail the difference between the meiotic division of oogenesis and
spermatogenesis.

A.2. Spermatogenesis is the production process of sperm from the male germ cell
whereas oogenesis is the production process of the eggs from the oogonia in females.
Meiosis is different in spermatogenesis and oogenesis in the quantity of the end
product. This unequal division is necessary to maintain the essential part of the
cytoplasm. One minor part is detached as the polar body where a single daughter cell
called the ovum is formed which is functional. But in spermatogenesis, four spermatids
are produced which are functional and that later develops into spermatozoa.

Oogenesis Spermatogenesis

Production of eggs from oogonia Production of sperm from spermatogonia

Takes place inside the ovary in females Takes place inside the testes in males

All except the last phase takes place inside the

All phases occur inside the testis
ovary

Early stages observed during the foetal period.

A continuous process that is initiated from
Rest stages observed between puberty and
puberty and lasts until death
menopause

Matured from germinal epithelium overlying the Developed from the germinal epithelial lining
ovary of the seminiferous tubules
 Sertoli cells not found in germinal cell epithelium Sertoli cells found in germinal cell epithelium

Few oogonia divide to produce eggs, one at a Spermatogonia are divided by meiosis to
time produce sperms

Lengthy growth phase in oogonia The growth phase of spermatogonia is short

Generates non-motile gametes Produces motile gametes

During meiosis-I, primary spermatocyte

Primary oocyte divides to form a secondary
divides to form two secondary
oocyte and polar body during meiosis-I
spermatocytes

Q.3. Explain in detail the various developmental stages of the zygote until
implantation with suitable diagrams.

A.3. When the zygote moves through the isthmus of the oviduct, the mitotic division is
initiated and is called the cleavage towards the uterus to form 2,4,8,16 daughter cells
called blastomeres. It is an embryo containing 8 to 16 blastomeres from the morula. It
continues to transform and divide into blastocysts as it further approaches the uterus.
In the blastocyst, the blastomeres are organized into an outer layer referred to as the
trophoblast and the inner cell mass, which is an inner collection of cells attached to the
trophoblast. This layer gets attached to the endometrium and the inner cell mass
transforms into the embryo. After attachment, the cells of the uterus rapidly divide and
covers up the entire blastocyst. This causes the blastocyst to implant in the
endometrium of the uterus which leads to conception.
Q.4. With the help of a neat labelled diagram of the female reproductive system,
depict the following sites:

(a)production of gamete
(b)site of fertilization
(c)site of implantation
(d)birth canal

A.4.

Q.5. Explain the organization of the mammary gland with the help of a diagram.

A.5. One of the characteristics of the female mammals is that they possess functional
mammary glands. They have paired structures, containing glandular tissues and fat
that varies in individuals. The glandular tissue is organized into 15-20 mammary lobes
in each breast, which possess alveoli which are a cluster of cells. These alveolar cells
secrete milk that is stored in the lumens or cavities of the alveoli. The alveoli open into
the mammary tubules. These tubules in each of the lobes combine to form the
mammary duct. Many such mammary ducts join to form a mammary ampulla that is
connected to the lactiferous ducts. Through these structures, milk is sucked.
Q.6. What is Reproduction? Explain how humans reproduce their young ones?

A.6. Reproduction is a biological process of producing young ones or offspring, which

are identical to their parents. There are two different modes of reproduction and are
classified mainly based on the involvement of the parents.

The two different modes of reproduction are:

Asexual Reproduction: This mode of reproduction involves only one parent and the
new offspring produced is genetically similar to the parent.

Sexual Reproduction: This mode of reproduction involves the formation and transfer of
gametes, followed by fertilization, the formation of the zygote and embryogenesis. It is
very complex.

Humans reproduce their young ones through the sexual mode of reproduction.

Q.7. How many eggs does a woman have?

A.7. As a foetus early in development, a female produces about 6 million to 7 million
eggs.

At birth, there are approximately 1 million eggs. By the time of puberty, only about
300,000 remains. Out of these, only 200 to 300 will be ovulated during a woman’s
reproductive lifetime. Fertility can drop as a woman ages due to decreasing number
and quality of the remaining eggs.
Q.8. What is the female reproductive system?

A.8.

The female reproductive system includes both the internal and external organs. These
organs are mainly involved with the reproduction process.

• Internal Reproductive Organs

The internal reproductive organs of females include the vagina, uterus (womb), cervix,
fallopian tubes and ovaries.

• External Reproductive Organs

The vulva consists of all of the external parts of female’s reproductive organs.

Q.9.What is Menopause?

A.9. Menopause is defined as the final stage or the end of a woman’s menstrual cycle,
fertility and the different types of changes a woman experiences. This is a natural
process in all females and happens in all older women, between the age of 40 and 50,
though it may also vary. The main cause for menopause is the female sex hormone
levels, which naturally reduces along with age and eventually the ovaries stop
releasing the eggs. Therefore, women in this phase no longer have periods and are not
able to get pregnant.

Q.10.What is the menstrual cycle? Name the Hormones which control the menstrual
cycle.

A.10.The menstrual cycle is defined as the natural process, which occurs in all females
after reaching the age of their puberty. During this period, an ovary releases a mature
egg, which travels to the uterus, if the egg is not fertilized, the uterine lining sheds and a
new cycle begins. Overall, a menstrual cycle lasts for 28 days. These cycles may either
last for 21 days or as long as 35 days in some individuals.

The entire process of the menstrual cycle is controlled by the endocrine system and
the hormones involved are FSH, LH, estrogen, and progesterone. Both FSH and LH
hormones are produced by the gonadotropic cells and progesterone hormones are
produced by the ovaries.
Reproductive Health
Question 1.Our government has intentionally imposed strict conditions for MTP in our country.
Justify giving a reason. (Delhi 2017)
Answer: MTP or induced abortion is the termination of pregnancy due to certain medical reasons.
Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with strict conditions to avoid its misuse, i.e. to check
indiscriminate and illegal female foeticides.

Question 2.Name an IUD that you would recommend to promote the cervix hostility to sperms.
(Delhi 2014C)
Answer:The hormone releasing IUDs, e.g., progestasert and LNG-20 are recommended to promote
the cervix hostility to sperms.

Question 3.State one reason, why breastfeeding the baby acts as a natural contraceptive for the
mother. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer: Lactation or Breastfeeding the baby delays the onset or return of menstruation and
ovulation cycle due to interference of hormone prolactin. Therefore, the chances of conception are
nil during this period, i.e., up to six months. Hence, breastfeeding the baby may act as a natural
contraceptive (lactational amenorrhea) for mother. (1)

Question 4.Mention one positive and one negative application of amniocentesis. (Delhi 2010)
Answer: Applications of amniocentesis are

• Positive, application It can be used to diagnose any chromosomal abnormality or

genetic disorder in foetus.
• Negative application It can be used to determine the sex of foetus and lead to female
foeticide.

Question 5.Why is tubectomy considered a contraceptive method? (Foreign 2010)

Answer: In tubectomy, a small part of Fallopian tube or oviduct is cut and tied up to block the
passage of ova from ovary to the site of fertilisation in Fallopian tube. It prevents fertilisation. So,
it is considered as a contraceptive method.

Question 6.Mention the problems that are taken care of by Reproduction and Child Healthcare
Programme. (All India 2016)
Answer: Reproduction and Child Healthcare (RCH) programmes cover wide range of reproduction
related areas. They include

• Creating awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects.

• Support for building up a reproductively healthy society by providing increased
medical facilities, better postnatal care, better detection and cure of diseases like
STDs, etc.

Question 7.What is amniocentesis? How is it misused? (Delhi 2014C)

Or
Why there is a statutory ban on amniocentesis? Why is this technique so named? (Delhi 2012C)
Or
What is amniocentesis? Why has the government imposed a statutory ban in spite of its
importance in medical field? (Foreign 2010)
Answer: Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic test. It is named so, because it is based on the
chromosomal pattern of the cells in the amniotic fluid that surrounds the developing foetus in the
womb.
It is misused to detect the sex of pre-born child that leads to female foeticide. Hence, there is
statutory ban on amniocentesis.

Question 8.What do oral pills contain and how do they act as effective contraceptives? (Delhi
2014C)
Answer: Oral contraceptives or pills contain either progestogens or progesterone-oestrogen
combinations. They function as contraceptives by

• inhibiting ovulation.
• inhibiting implantation.
• altering the quality of cervical mucus to prevent the motility of sperms in female
reproductive tract.

Question 9.Why is Cu-T considered a good contraceptive device to space children? (Delhi 2011)
Answer: Copper-T (Cu-T) is an Intra Uterine Device (IUD) that is inserted by experts and it serves
as an effective contraceptive in the following ways

• Increases phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.

• Copper ions released by Cu-T suppress the motility of sperms and their fertilising
ability.

Question 10.Name an oral pill used as a contraceptive by human females. Explain, how does it
prevent pregnancy? (Delhi 2011)
Or
Why is Saheli a well-accepted contraceptive pill? (Foreign 2010)
Answer: ‘Saheli’ is a non-steroidal contraceptive pill used by females to space children.
Saheli inhibits ovulation and implantation. It alters the quality of cervical mucus to prevent the
entry of sperms into cervix.

Question 11.Describe the lactational amenorrhea method of birth control. (All India 2011)
Answer: Lactation amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstruation during the period of intense
lactation following parturition. It is a birth control method because

• ovulation and other events of menstrual cycle are stopped at this time.
• as long as the mother breastfeeds her child, chances of conception are nil because of
the suppressed gonadotropin activity. However, this method is generally reliable up to
only six months after delivery.

Question 12.At the time of Independence, the population of India was 350 million, which
exploded to over 1 billion by May 2000.
List any two reasons for this rise in population and any two steps taken by the government to
check this population explosion. (Foreign 2011)
Answer: Reasons for rise in population include

• All-round development in various fields and increased health facilities along with
better living conditions.
• Reduced maternal and infant mortality rate.
Two major steps taken by the government to check this population growth are

• People are educated and support the idea of small family by using various
contraceptive methods.
• There is statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 18 years and of males to
21 years.

Question 13.How do copper and hormone releasing IUDs act as contraceptives? Explain. (All
India 2010)
Answer: Copper and hormone releasing IUDs act as contraceptives because:

• Copper IUDs (Cu-T, Cu-7) release Cu ions, which suppress sperm motility and the
fertilising capacity of sperms.
• Hormone releasing IUDs (protesterate, LNG-20)

(a) inhibit ovulation.

(b) make the cervix unreceptive to sperms.
(c) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.

(iii) They both increase the phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.

Question 14.(i) List any four characteristics of an ideal contraceptive.

(ii) Name two intrauterine contraceptive devices that affect the motility of sperms. (All India
2016)
Answer:(i) An ideal contraceptive must have the following four characteristics

• It must be safe and user friendly.

• It must be easily available.
• It must be reversible with little or no side effects.
• It must not interfere with the sexual drive, desire or sexual act of the user.

(ii) Cu-T and Cu-7 are two examples of IUDs that affect the motility of sperms.

Question 15.Name two hormones that are constituents of contraceptive pills. Why do they have
high and effective contraceptive value? Name a commonly prescribed non-steroidal oral pill. (All
India 2014)
Answer: The two hormones that are the constituents of oral pills are

• progesterone
• oestrogen

They inhibit ovulation and fertilisation and also modify the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or
retard the entry of sperms. Hence, they have high and effective contraceptive value. Saheli is the
most commonly prescribed new oral contraceptive pill for females. It contains a non-steroidal
preparation called centchroman. It is once a week pill with few side effects and high contraceptive
value. It was developed by CDRI (Centra! Drug Research Institute), Lucknow.

Question 16.If implementation of better techniques and new strategies are required to provide
more efficient care and assistance to people, then why is there a statutory ban on
amniocentesis? Write the use of this technique and give reason to justify the ban. Answer:
Though implementation of better techniques and new strategies is required to provide more
efficient care and assistance to people still, there is a statutory ban on amniocentesis.
Amniocentesis helps to determine any chromosomal abnormalities or genetic disorders, sex of
foetus and foetal infections, etc., by using minute amount of amniotic fluid surrounding the foetus.

This prenatal diagnostic test is particularly useful for those women who are at increased risk or
have genetic disorders or chromosomal problems. However, this is also misused to determine the
sex of foetus which had ultimately led to increased female foeticides. Therefore, government has
imposed a statutory ban to prevent its further misuse and to balance the unequal sex-ratio
prevailing in human population. (3)

Question 17A woman has certain queries as listed below, before starting with contraceptive pills.
Answer them.
(i) What do contraceptive pills contain and how do they act as contraceptives?
(ii) What schedule should be followed for taking these pills? (Delhi 2014)
Answer:(i) Refer to Answer No. 8. (2)
(ii) The oral contraceptive pills are to be taken daily for 21 days, preferably within the first five days
of menstrual cycle. After the onset of menstruation cycle, i.e., 5-7 days, the process is to be
repeated in the same pattern (again for 21 days). This schedule is to be followed till the woman
wants to avoid conception. (1)

Question 18.(i) Name any two copper releasing IUDs.

(ii) Explain, how do they act as effective contraceptives in human females. (All India 2014)
Answer:(i) The copper releasing IUDs are Cu-T, Cu-7 and multiload.-375.
(ii) Refer to Answer No. 9.

Question 19.Name and explain the surgical method advised to human males and females as a
mean of birth control. Mention its one advantage and one disadvantage. (Foreign 2014)
Answer: The surgical or sterilisation methods advised to human males and females as effective
means of birth control are

• Vasectomy (In males) A sterilisation method in which a small portion of vas deferens
is removed or tied up through a cut or incision on scrotum, thus blocking the transport
of sperms from the testes to the copulatory organ.
• Tubectomy (In females) A sterilisation method in which small part of Fallopian tube is
removed or tied up through incision in abdomen or through vagina. It blocks the
passage of ova from ovary to the site of fertilisation.

The advantage of these two sterilisation methods in both human males and females is that it is a
very effective method for preventing conception as it blocks the transport of gametes. The
disadvantage of this method is that this surgical procedure cannot be reversed, so it is helpful for
only those who already have children and do not want to extend their family further.

Question 20.How do ‘implants’ act as an effective method of contraception in human females?

Mention its one advantage over contraceptive pills. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:Subcutaneous ‘implants’ contain synthetic progesterone and are placed under the skin.
They are an effective contraceptive method as they check ovulation and thicken cervical mucus to
prevent sperm transport.

‘Subcutaneous implants’ are more advantageous than contraceptive pills as they are long lasting
and once implanted, they are effective for up to 5 years.
Question 21.Your school has been selected by the Department of Education to organise and host
an interschool seminar on ‘Reproductive Health Problems and Practices’. However, many
parents are reluctant to permit their wards to attend it. Their argument is that the topic is ‘too
embarrassing’.
Put forth four arguments with appropriate reasons and explanation to justify the topic to be very
essential and timely. (All India 2015)
Answer: Parents should encourage their children to attend such seminar as they will get right
information regarding myths and misconceptions about sex related aspects. Following are the
four points to justify this topic to be essential

• Awareness of problems due to uncontrolled population growth, social evils like sex
abuse and sex related crimes, etc., need to be created so that children should think
and take up necessary steps to prevent them and thereby build up a reproductively
healthy society.
• Large group of school students comprises of adolescents who have attained puberty.
Therefore, these seminars are necessary to provide medical help and care for
reproduction related problems like menstrual problems, infertility, pregnancy, delivery,
contraception, abortions, etc.
• Knowledge about Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) is essential as children
should be aware that unprotected sex with multiple partners results in the
transmission of sex related problems.
• Increasing population is a major problem of India which is directly related with
reproductive health. Children should be aware of family planning programmes such
as Reproductive and Child Healthcare (RCH) programmes.

Question 22.Name any two assisted reproductive technologies that help infertile couples to have
children. (Delhi 2012C)
Answer: The assisted reproductive technology methods that can help infertile couple to have
children are

• Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT) and

• Artificial Insemination (AI) Technique.

Question 23.Expand GIFT and ICSI. (All India 2012C)

Answer: GIFT – Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer.
ICSI – Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection.

Question 24.After a brief medical examination a healthy couple came to know that both of them
are unable to produce functional gametes and should look for an ‘ART’ (Assisted Reproductive
Technique). Name the ‘ART’ and the procedure involved that you can suggest to them to help
them bear a child. (Delhi 2015)
Answer: The ART that would help the couple to bear a child is IVF (In Vitro Fertilisation) or Test
tube baby programme. In this process, ova from wife/donor female and sperms from the
husband/donor male are collected and fused to form zygote in the laboratory under same
conditions as in the body. This is in vitro fertilisation (fertilisation outside the body).

Zygote or early embryo is transferred into Fallopian tube or uterus for further development. This is
called Embryo Transfer (ET). It can be Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT) or Intra Uterine
Transfer (IUT).
Question 25.An infertile couple is advised to adopt test tube baby programme. Describe two
principal procedures adopted for such technologies. (Delhi 2015)
Or
Explain the Zygote Intra Fallopian
Transfer Technique (ZIFT). How is Intra Uterine Transfer (IUT) Technique different from it? (All
India 2010)
Answer’s (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) is the technique in which zygote or early embryo with
up to 8 blastomeres is transferred into the Fallopian tube of female.
On the other hand in IUT, embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus.
These are the two principal procedures adopted for test tube baby programme.

Question 26.A childless couple has agreed for a test tube baby programme. List only the basic
steps the procedure would involve to conceive the baby. (Delhi 2015C)
Or
(i) Give any two reasons for infertility among young couple.
(ii) Test tube baby programme is a boon to such couples. Explain the steps followed in the
procedure. (All India 2010C)
Answer:(i) The reasons of infertility in young people can be physical, congenital diseases, use of
drugs, immunological or even psychological factors.
(ii) In test tube programme,
(a) Ova from the wife or a donor female and the sperms from the husband or a donor male are
allowed to fuse under simulated conditions in the laboratory. It is called in vitro fertilisation.
(b) Embryo is then transferred into the uterus or Fallopian tube for further development.

The process of embryo transfer is done in following ways Zygote or embryo up to 8 blastomeres is
1 transferred into Fallopian tube (ZIFT). Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into
uterus (IUT).

Question 27.‘Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)’ and ‘Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
(GIFT)’ are two assisted reproductive technologies. How is one different from the other? All
(India 2014C)
Answer: In Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT), the ovum from a healthy donor female is
transferred to a female, who cannot produce ova. However, she can provide suitable environment
for fertilisation and embryo development (in vivo fertilisation).

In Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI), the fertilisation is done in vitro by injecting sperms
directly into the ovum from a donor female, under simulated conditions. The embryo is thus,
formed in laboratory and which is later transferred to the uterus or Fallopian tube for further
development.

Question 28.Why is ZIFT a boon to childless couples? Explain the procedure. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer: ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) is a boon to childless couples as it helps them to
become parents. In this technique, ova from wife/donor female and sperms from husband/donor
male are fused to form zygote in laboratory. Zygote is allowed to divide up to 8 blastomeres stage
and it is at this stage, a zygote or early embryo is transferred into the Fallopian tube. Implantation
takes place in the uterus where further development takes place.

Question 29.State any four methods to overcome infertility in human couples. (Delhi 2011C)
Answer: Following are the four methods to overcome infertility problems in human couples
 • Test tube baby programme in this method, the fusion of ovum and sperm is done
outside the body of a woman (in vitro fertilisation) to form zygote which divides to
form embryo. The embryo is then implanted in the uterus where it develops into a
foetus and then into the child.
• Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) In this technique, embryo is formed in the
laboratory by directly injecting the sperm into the ovum followed by embryo transfer.
• Artificial Insemination Technique (AIT) Semen (containing sperms) from husband or
donor is artificially introduced into the vagina hr uterus (IUI).
• Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) Sperm and unfertilised ova are transferred into
the Fallopian tube of the female and they are allowed to fuse naturally.

Question 30.A couple where both husband and wife are producing functional gametes, but the
wife is still unable to conceive, is seeking medical aid. Describe any one method that you can
suggest to this couple to become happy parents. (All India 2014)
Answer: In case, if both husband and wife are producing functional gametes, but wife is not able
to conceive, the IVF technique can be employed to bless them with child.
Method of in vitro fertilisation is given below

• Gametes from both husband and wife are collected, i.e., sperm and ova. These are
fused to form zygote under laboratory conditions. As the fertilisation takes place
outside the female body, it is referred to as in vitro fertilisation.
• The zygote or embryo is then either transferred to Fallopian tubes (if up to 8
blastomeres), i.e., ZIFT or to the uterus (more than 8 blastomeres), i.e., IUT.

Question 31.Suggest and explain any three Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) to an
infertile couple. (All India 2013)
Answer: Refer to Answer No. 3 and 4.

Question 32.(i) Explain one application of each one of the following (Delhi 2019)
(a) Amniocentesis
(b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) ZIFT
Answer:(i) (a) Amniocentesis The benefits of amniocentesis include the diagnosis of
chromosomal abnormalities and developmental disorders of foetus.
(b) Lactational amenorrhea It is the absence of menstruation during the period of intense lactation
following parturition. Because ovulation does not occur in this period, the chances of conception
are nill.
(c) ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) is related to embryo transfer in the test tube programme.
In this technique, the zygote or embryo up to 8 blastomeres is transferred into the Fallopian tube.

Question 34. (i) State any two reasons responsible for the cause of infertility.
(ii) Suggest a technique that can help the couple to have a child where the problem is with the
male partner. (All India 2016)
Answer:(i) Causes of infertility could be

• Sexually transmitted diseases both in males and females.

• Some physiological problems in females/males, so gametes (sperm/ova) are not
produced.

(ii) IVF (In Vitro Fertilisation) and Artificial Insemination (AI) can be done if the sperm count of
male is low.