Practice Module 5

Practice Module 5
Question 1
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The weather forecast for a five-day period is summarized in the table below:
For each of the rows of the table one of the bar charts A to E could represent the data if it
were suitably labelled.
1. Which one of the bar charts does not represent any of the rows in the table?
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
As we go through the options, we see if that particular graph represents any of the table rows.
The easiest way to do that is to look for distinctive features in the graph and glance through
the table to see if they work. For example, the first graph shows Tuesday and Friday having
the highest values, and a glance at the table shows that the “cloud cover” row matches that.
Going through this process of elimination, we get the correct answer as D.
Option A → is incorrect as the argument states that the pills are the most effective treatment
available. Thus, how they are used is a significant factor in how effective treatment can be.
Whether or not they are significantly effective is relevant, and thus A is not an assumption.
Option B→ is a completely irrelevant point, which does not affect the argument’s
conclusion.
Option D → is irrelevant because the argument refers to the expenditure on the treatment per
head of population over 65-so has already taken into account regional variations in numbers
of people over 65.
Option E → is not an assumption because it is not needed to be true for the argument’s
conclusion to be valid.
Question 2
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The seas around the UK have become so noisy that whales are having to sing louder to make
themselves heard above the din created by ships, wind farms and oil exploration. With whale
numbers severely depleted, the ability to communicate over long distances could be key to
their finding a mate. According to a study by marine biologists, around the coast of the UK
whale song is now ten times louder than it was fifty years ago, and also higher pitched.
Whales are trying to adapt to increased man made noise either by emitting much louder
noises or by calling at higher frequencies. Their messages are getting simpler and repeated
more often, like a person being forced to shout.
2. Which of the following can be drawn as a conclusion from the passage above?
The noise of modern human life will eventually cause whales to

become extinct.
Sea-based wind farms should not be built because of the danger

to whales.
Whales will be able to adapt their communication methods to

overcome the problem of human noise.
The depletion of whale numbers is caused by the growth of

human noise.
None of the above.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
Option A →this statement is too bold a statement to be the correct answer, and also it is not
what the passage is saying.
Option B→This is not what the passage is saying. The passage is just stating observations
rather than calling anyone for action.
Option C →” whales are trying to adapt, says the passage and not “they will be able to
adapt” which is what the answer suggests.
Option D → this is a very bold statement, it is usually a risk to agree with statements that
suggest causation, especially when the passage does not say that.
Question 3
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I am planning to visit a resort for my holiday this summer. There are three options for my
accommodation: a single room which costs $70 per night, a deluxe room which costs $80 per
night or a suite which costs $95 per night. The prices include meals, but it is possible to opt
out from the meals by paying $15 less per night. The resort offers a taxi service from the
airport at a cost of $10. Alternatively, it is possible to hire a car at the airport which can be
used for the whole stay. This option costs $5, plus an additional $5 per night.
I want to stay for six nights in a deluxe room, but I don’t want my meals included in the price
that I pay. I also want to hire a car for the duration of the stay.
3. What will be the total cost of my stay?
$36
5
$39
0
$42
5
$43
5
$48
0
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
6 nights at 80pernight,minus80pernight,minus15 because he’s opting out of meals. So

that’s 65pernight.65x6=390.Carhireis65pernight.65x6=390.Carhireis5 plus 5x6=5x6=35, so the
total cost is $425 C
Question 4
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Becoming a London taxi driver isn’t as easy as you may think. Unlike other London folk who
choose to take the tube or bus, taxi drivers have to spend hours learning the city’s road
network for a face-to-face exam at the Public Carriage Office to get a license to start their
careers. Recent brain scans on a group of taxi drivers revealed that areas of their brains
associated with memory were more developed than would be normal for the general
population. So, all that learning not only makes them money, but also increases their memory
power.
4. Which one of the following is an assumption made in the above argument?
People who have a poor memory do not become taxi drivers.
Many people believe that it is easy to become a taxi driver.

Brain scans on the same group before they became taxi drivers
would not have shown the same results.
People usually become taxi drivers in order to make money rather

than to improve their memory.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The passage’s conclusion is basically “becoming a taxi driver improves your memory”, based
on the fact that recent research showed taxi drivers having a bigger-than-normal memory
section of their brains. We find the assumption by seeing which of the options, when
combined with the evidence, let us reasonably reach the conclusion.
Anyway, A, B and D don’t act as a bridge between the statement and conclusion of this
passage. C is the only answer that works.
Question 5
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An airline has decided to introduce a flight from London, England to St. John’s, Antigua. The
airline owns a range of aeroplanes as shown in the table below. It needs to decide which one
would be best suited to do this flight. The distance travelled between London and St John's is
a maximum of 5600 miles; variability is due to different flight paths. A weekly flight would
have between 163 and 177 passengers.
5. Which plane (A - H) is the most fuel-efficient plane per passenger per mile that would be
suitable for this flight?
A
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The process of elimination is our best friend here. We know the plane needs to carry at least
177 passengers, so we can rule out F straight away. The plane needs to be able to travel 5,600
miles, so we can rule out C and E as well. We’re left with A, B, D, G and H. G and H have
very high consumption per additional passenger, so we can rule them out. And out
of A, B and D which all have the same consumption per passenger, A has the lowest
consumption when empty.
Question 6
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Questions 6 - 9 are based on the following information:
The difference between men's and women's pay is still at unacceptable levels, according to
recent TUC research. It found that from the age of 18 - and throughout the rest of their
working lives - women earn less than men.
In their 20s, the pay gap for full-timers is a modest 3.3%, but in their 30s women take home
11.2% less than men. And in their 40s - the peak age for discrimination - the gap rises to
22.8%
The TUC said the undervaluing of women in the workplace was partly due to a "motherhood
penalty". The long hours and intensity of senior positions deterred mothers from seeking
promotions for which they were qualified. The TUC said there was direct discrimination
against mothers and their choice became limited to jobs that could be combined with looking
after children. The "motherhood penalty" became even more severe for women who switched
to part-time work.
They were more likely to change employer or occupation, often taking jobs with lower hourly
earnings. The hourly earnings of women working part-time were 23.4% less than the
equivalent male rate in their 30s, and 41.2% in their 40s.
6. On the basis of the above data which one of the following is a reliable conclusion to draw?
On average, men's earnings peak before they reach 50.
Employers are less willing to employ women over 30 than they

are to employ women under 30.
The percentage difference between men's and women's pay more
than trebles between the ages of 22 and 30.
On average, a woman in her 40s or 50s earns less than £0.80 for
every £1 earned by a man in that age range.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A and B are clearly wrong. C is wrong because although it’s true that the percentage
difference more than trebles between the 22-29 and the 30-39 age bracket, we can’t say for
sure that the same is true between 22-30. That leaves us with D as the right answer, which
also works out if you calculate that 23% less than £1 is 77p, which is indeed less than 80p.
Question 7
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22.8%
to part-time work.
7. Suppose the average pay for women in full-time work aged 40-49 was £16,000.
Which of the following is the best approximation of the average pay for a man in the same
age-range, at that time, based on the above figures?
£19,7
00
£20,3
00
£20,7
00
£21,3
00
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
We might be tempted to simply work out 23% of £16,000 and add it on, but that wouldn’t be
correct. The graph is in terms of male pay, so if the £16,000 were the male pay, then yes we
would just add 23% to that to work out the female. But to reverse engineer the male pay from
the female one we have to be slightly cleverer. £16,000 is 77.2% of the male pay.
Question 8
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22.8%
to part-time work.
8. Which one of the following is an assumption behind the TUC's reasoning, as reported in
the third paragraph?
It is mainly men who are responsible for recruiting and promoting

staff.
Women are less well qualified than men for senior positions
which attract higher pay.
Mothers would choose to take up higher positions for which they

are qualified after they have started a family.
Motherhood is the only reason for the pay discrimination against

women.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Option A → Not necessarily. Women running businesses can be equally likely to

discriminate against other women.
Option B → This would be perfect for “which of the statements weakens the argument”, but
definitely isn’t an assumption as it goes against what the passage is trying to say.
Option C → This seems reasonable. The point the passage is making is that there are less
women in senior jobs because they clash with their mothering duties, and the conclusion is
that women are discriminated against. To get from the statement to the conclusion, we need
to assume that the fact that there are less women is evidence of discrimination, which requires
us to assume that women would take up those jobs after starting a family. If they didn’t, that
wouldn’t be evidence of discrimination due to motherhood, it would just be down to the fact
that women don’t want those jobs.
Option D → Such a bold statement is almost never the right answer. And here it definitely
isn’t because the passage says that undervaluing of women in the workplace was partly due to
a "motherhood penalty".
Question 9
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22.8%
to part-time work.
9. Assuming that the figures in paragraph 4 for part-time pay are correct, and that they follow
the same general trend as the full-time pay gap, which one of the following is most strongly
supported by the data provided?
A woman over 60, working part-time, will earn £8.57 for every £10
earned by a man over 60 working part-time.
On average, a man in his 40s working part-time earns 80% more

than a man working part-time in his 30s.
A woman working part-time in her 20s will earn more than a

woman working part-time in her 30s.
If the average part-time pay for men in their 40s is £15 per hour,
women of the same age, on average, will earn £8.82 per hour.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
A can’t be right because we don’t have any data for part-time workers over 60. B and C can’t
be right because there’s no way of comparing absolute figures of men and women – all we
are given is the percentage difference between the salaries of each gender. So, by elimination,
D has to be the right answer, and if you do 40% less than 15, you find that it’s £9. The actual
value will be slightly less than £9 because we rounded 41.2% down to 40%, so £8.82 seems
very reasonable.
Question 10
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The ability to use language (to communicate using symbols and words to represent objects,
feelings and thoughts) separates humans from all other animals on earth. By the age of 18,
humans know more than 60,000 words, which is a surprising figure when you consider the
monosyllabic vocabulary used by most teenagers. From the age of six months babies begin to
recognize their own language. There are genetic reasons why this form of communication is
unique to humans. Humans and chimps actually share 99% of their DNA, but in 2006,
researchers comparing the two species found a gene, HAR1, that makes us dramatically
different. It is expressed in the human cerebral cortex, a part of the brain that is particularly
associated with language.
10. Which one of the following pieces of evidence would strengthen the hypothesis that
HAR1 explains the human language ability?
A chimpanzee gene is found to be 98% identical to HAR1.

A human genetic disorder (of specific language impairment) is
found to be caused by a mutation in HAR1.
HAR1 is found to be expressed in parts of the human brain that

are not related to communication.
HAR1 is expressed in the brain before birth.
Some chimps can be taught to communicate with symbols.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
We’re looking for a statement that supports the hypothesis that HAR1 is related to language.
A, C, D and E are so obviously not-the-right-answers. The right answer is clearly B.
Question 11
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The final league table for the inter-regional cribbage competition is shown below (in
alphabetical order). Five teams took part and all played each other once. The points system is
3 for a win, 1 for a draw and 0 for a loss. Unfortunately, the points for the Eastern Region
team have been obliterated.
11. How many points did the Eastern team score?
1
0
1
2
1
5
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Central: 2 draws, 2 losses.

Northern: 2 wins, 2 draws.
Southern: 1 win, 2 draws, 1 loss.
Western: 1 draw, 3 losses.
The above is easy to determine from the information given. There are probably multiple ways
to get to the points for Eastern, but the way to use Is to work out that with the 4 teams above,
there are 3 wins but 6 losses. Because the number of total wins and losses has to be equal,
Eastern must have 3 wins. Every team plays 4 games, so Eastern’s last game must be a draw.
If it were a win or a loss, the numbers would be uneven. The answer is therefore C – 10.
Question 12
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Data for the world’s largest 10 lakes are shown below:
12. Which has the greatest average depth?
Caspian
Sea
Victoria
Tanganyik
a
Baikal
Winnipeg
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
As is often the case with questions with lots of data, the key here is to ignore the useless
information and just focus on the numbers we’re interested in. We want to find the lake that
has the highest average depth, and the way we work that out is volume/area.
 Caspian Sea: 78,200/394,299 = 80k/400k = 8/40 = 1/5

 Victoria: 3/69 = less than 1/5
 Taganyika: 19/33 = over 1/2
 Baikal: 24/32 = more than Tahanyika
 Winnipeg: nowhere near any of the others
The lake with the highest depth, based on our eyeball figures, has to be D – Baikal. As you
can see, we didn’t bother working most of them out. Like with Victoria, there’s no need at all
to work out what 3/69 is, because we know it has to be less than 1/5 which means there’s no
way it can be the deepest. Likewise, it’s obvious that 24/32 is a bigger number than 19/33, so
we don’t really need to work either of them out.
Question 13
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Employees at Grindstone Ltd are paid a weekly wage according to the following formula:
£240 + £5 for every year of their age above 21 (where appropriate) + £20 for every full year
of service with the company.
Jasper is 43 years old and has worked for Grindstone for 6 years. Although Ruby is 8 years
younger, she earns £40 per week more than Jasper.
13. For how much longer than Jasper has Ruby been employed by Grindstone Ltd?
2
years
4
years
6
years
8
years
10
years
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Ruby is 8 years younger, and therefore (all else being equal) she should earn £40 less than
Jasper. However, she actually earns £40 more than him, which means £80 must come from
her extra time at the company, which looks to be 4 years (B).
Question 14
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Questions 14 - 17 refer to the following information:
Tree diagrams are used in decision making by predicting the various possible outcomes and
their likelihood. The diagram below represents the choices facing an oil company - call it 'X-
Oil' – who have discovered a possible oil deposit and are deciding whether or not to drill at
the site. They will make the decision on purely financial terms - i.e. likely profits or losses.
The key factors are the known drilling costs

(800,000)andtheunknownreturns,whichdependonhowbigtheoilstrikeis.A′small
′oilstrike,worthonly800,000)andtheunknownreturns,whichdependonhowbigtheoilstrikeis.A′small
′oilstrike,worthonly80,000, would mean a net loss
of 720,000whendrillingcostsarefactoredin.Butthereisonlyasmallchanceofthis,0.1or10720,0
00whendrillingcostsarefactoredin.Butthereisonlyasmallchanceofthis,0.1or105 million. The most likely
outcome is a medium strike.
If the company decides not to drill, there is a 20% chance of finding a buyer for the drilling
rights at 1million,anda601million,anda60500,000.
To assist the decision whether to drill or not, each of the possible outcomes is assessed by
multiplying the chance (probability) of each outcome by the potential profit or loss. If the
sum of the possible outcomes (profit x chance) of a decision to drill is greater than the sum of
outcomes of a decision not to drill, statistically the better option is to drill.
14. On the basis of the data shown in the diagram, which one of the following conclusions
can most reliably be drawn?
Drilling represents a more favourable option than not

drilling.
Not drilling represents a more favourable option than

drilling.
Neither option is financially more favourable than the

other.
A decision to try and sell the drilling rights will

guarantee the best profit.
Either decision, to drill or not to drill, could make a loss.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Drill + Small strike = -72 (profit x chance)

Drill + medium strike = 400 profit x 0.8 chance = 320
Drill + big strike = 3800 profit x 0.1 chance = 380.
Don’t drill + big sale = 200
Don’t drill + small sale = 300
We can clearly see that drilling represents a more favorable option than not drilling, and so A
is the right answer.
Question 15
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15. Which one of the following can correctly be inferred from the data in the decision tree?
Drilling for oil is unlikely to make X-Oil a profit unless there is a

'big' strike.
A 'medium' strike would be a better outcome for X-Oil than a sale

of drilling rights.
The risk for X-Oil of making a loss by drilling at the site is greater
than the probability of making a profit.
The probability of a 'medium' strike is the same as the probability

of selling the drilling rights at $500,000 or more.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Option A → Drilling for oil is unlikely to make X-Oil a profit unless there is a 'big' strike –
Even if there’s a medium strike, they still make a profit, so this is false.
Option B → A 'medium' strike would be a better outcome for X-Oil than a sale of drilling
rights – Nope. A sale of rights would get
them 500,000profitatleast,whereasamediumstrikewouldonlygetthem500,000profitatleast,wher
easamediumstrikewouldonlygetthem400,000.
Option C → The risk for X-Oil of making a loss by drilling at the site is greater than the
probability of making a profit – Nope. They only make a loss if it’s a small strike, and there’s
only a 10% chance of that happening.
Option D → The probability of a 'medium' strike is the same as the probability of selling the
drilling rights at $500,000 or more – TRUE! There’s an 80% chance of a medium strike, and
a (60+20)% chance of selling the rights.
Question 16
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16. For a company (Y-Oil) that bought the drilling rights for $500,000 and proceeded to drill
for oil, which of the following statements are true?
I. Given the estimated costs, Y-Oil would not make a profit if there was only a 'medium' strike
II. Given the estimated costs, the chances of Y-Oil making a profit are less than 80%.
III. Y-Oil could make a profit from a 'medium' strike if they could reduce drilling costs by 25%.
I only
II only
III only
I and III
only
II and III
only
I, II and III
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
I. Given the estimated costs, Y-Oil would not make a profit if there was only a 'medium' strike.
TRUE. A medium strike gets 1.2mrevenue,butcosts1.2mrevenue,butcosts800,000 to drill. That
plus the $500,000 drilling rights makes a loss.
II. Given the estimated costs, the chances of Y-Oil making a profit are less than 80%. TRUE.
They can only make a profit if they get a big strike, and there’s only a 10% chance of that.
III. Y-Oil could make a profit from a 'medium' strike if they could reduce drilling costs by 25%.
TRUE. Reducing drilling costs would take that down
to 600,000.Totalcost:600,000.Totalcost:1.1m. Total revenue = $1.2m. So yes, they would
make a profit.
Question 17
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17. Health and Safety advisors have warned that an accidental oil-spill at the site during
drilling, resulting in compensation of up
to 10,000,000,hasaprobabilityof0.03ofoccurringduringadrillofthekindproposed.Insurance
premiumsagainstsuchanincidentwouldcostthecompany10,000,000,hasaprobabilityof0.03ofoccurr
ingduringadrillofthekindproposed.Insurancepremiumsagainstsuchanincidentwouldcostthecompany200,00
0.
Using the above information and assuming the data given in the tree diagram remains the
same, place the following options in the most favourable order:
X-Oil should:
1. pay the insurance and proceed with the drilling.

2. proceed with the drilling without insurance.
3. decide against drilling.
4. 12
3
13
2
21
3
23
1
31
2
32
1
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
We’ve already established that drilling would give a (profit x chance)

of 628k.Notdrillinggivesusa(profitxchance)of628k.Notdrillinggivesusa(profitxchance)of500k.
The insurance
costs 200k,sopayingitwouldgiveuslessprofitthannotdrillingatall.Anoilspillhasa3200k,sopayi
ngitwouldgiveuslessprofitthannotdrillingatall.Anoilspillhasa3300k. Proceeding without insurance
costs a (profit x chance) of 300ksoit
′sobviouslyaworseoptionthaninsurance(whichonlycosts300ksoit
′sobviouslyaworseoptionthaninsurance(whichonlycosts200k). So, the most favourable option is not
drilling (500k),followedbydrillingwithinsurance(500k),followedbydrillingwithinsurance(428k)
followed by drilling without insurance ($328k). The answer is therefore E.
Question 18
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Asked at a press conference whether the new signing, Petermass, would be playing in the big
match on Saturday, the Manager replied: “Only if Fredericks isn’t fit.”
Three of the journalists present noted the announcement as follows:
Jed wrote: “If Fredericks is fit Petermass won’t be playing.”

Ned wrote: “If Fredericks isn’t fit, Petermass will be playing.”
Ted wrote: “If Petermass doesn’t play it’ll mean Fredericks is fit."
18. Which of them got the facts right?
Jed only
Ned only
Ted only
Jed and Ned

only
Jed and Ted
only
Ned and Ted

only
Jed, Ned and

Ted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Let’s analyse the statements that the journalists make.
Jed wrote: “If Fredericks is fit Petermass won’t be playing.” – This seems reasonable. The
manager said that Petermass would be playing “only if Fredericks isn’t fit”, so if Fredericks is
fit then we can logically conclude that Petermass won’t be playing.
Ned wrote: “If Fredericks isn’t fit, Petermass will be playing.” – On the surface, this seems
reasonable. However, the statement “Petermass will be playing” fails to take into account
external factors apart from Fredericks being unfit that might play a part in that decision. The
manager uses the phrase “only if” which implies there could be other factors affecting
whether or not Petermass will play.
Ted wrote: “If Petermass doesn’t play it’ll mean Fredericks is fit." – Again, seems somewhat
reasonable, but fails to take into account external circumstances. If Petermass doesn’t play, it
could be because his mother has died or something else, not necessarily that Fredericks is fit.
So, the only statement we can make with absolute certainty, based on the manager’s words, is
that if Fredericks is fit then Petermass won’t be playing. So, Jed is the only one with the right
answer. In other words, we could say that Fredericks being unfit is a prerequisite for
Petermass to have a chance of playing at all, but we can’t say anything else with certainty.
Question 19
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Raymond has made up two vinaigrettes for his restaurant. One has half oil and half vinegar,
the other has 2/3 oil and 1/3 vinegar. He has 180ml of each. He wants to use them to make 2
x 180ml, each containing the same proportions, so he removes 90ml from the one with equal
proportions and adds it to the other. He mixes well and takes 90ml from the new larger mix
and adds it to the small one, so he once again has 2 x 180ml.
19. What is the result - does one vinaigrette have a higher proportion of oil than the other or
are they equal?
One mix has 70ml oil, the other has

80ml oil.
120ml oil.

110ml oil.
Both mixes have 105ml oil.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Let’s follow the process and see what’s happening. We start off with two bottles. Bottle A
has 90ml oil, and 90ml vinegar. Bottle B has 120ml oil and 60ml vinegar.
We transfer 90ml from A to B, so Bottle A now has 45ml oil and 45ml vinegar, and Bottle B
has 165ml oil and 105ml vinegar. We then transfer 90ml from B to A. In total, there are
270ml in B. 90ml is 1/3 of that. So, we’re taking 1/3 of 165ml oil and 1/3 of 105ml vinegar.
165/3 = 55ml oil, and 105/3 = 35ml vinegar. So, Bottle A now has 100ml oil and 80ml
vinegar, while Bottle B has 110ml oil and 70ml vinegar. So, the answer is C.
Question 20
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Claire walks to work at 6km/hr and Charles cycles along the same route. Normally Charles
overtakes Claire outside the public library. One day Claire leaves 20 minutes late and Charles
overtakes her outside the swimming pool, 3km before she gets to the library.
20. At what speed does Charles cycle?
9km/
hr.
12km/
hr.
15km/
hr.
18km/
hr.
24km/
hr.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Claire normally walks at 6km/h. It takes her 20 mins to travel 2km, so had she left on time,
she would be 2km away from the swimming pool when Charles would be at the swimming
pool. But when she leaves late, her and Charles get to the swimming pool at the same time.
So, let’s take the swimming pool as our starting point for Charles, and 2km in front of it as
our starting point for Claire (when she’s on time). Charles reaches her by the time she gets to
the library (another 1km further along). It takes Claire 10 minutes to travel that 1km, and so it
must take Charles 10 minutes to travel 3km. Charles’ speed is therefore D – 18km/h.
Question 21
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An exhibition of the work of a modern artist is currently on display at an art gallery for a
period of 30 days. One of the exhibits, entitled “Countdown”, started off as 30 individual
identical cylinders arranged in 10 stacks of 3, with the following appearance when viewed
from above.
Each day since the exhibition began, one cylinder has been removed, and this will continue
until there is just one left on day 30.
Today is day 11, so 20 cylinders remain. The view from above is still the same as it was on
day 1, but the side view today from the direction marked X is:
21. Which one of the following could not be the side view today of “Countdown” from the
direction marked Y?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
We know that there are 20 cylinders left. Looking at view X, 3 of those cylinders are the left-
most and another 3 are the right-most. This means the middle 2 columns must have the
remaining 14 cylinders.
The next step is to go through the options and see if they allow 14 cylinders to be in the
middle 2 columns.
Option A → The left-most column (in view Y) has 2 cylinders, so the bottom row (a) can
only have a maximum height of 2 cylinders. So, if we had 2 cylinders in each (a), that would
be 4 in the bottom row. The middle column (in view Y) also has 2 cylinders, so the middle
row (b) can also have a max height of 2 cylinders, which makes 4. So, we need 6 cylinders to
be in (c), and because the right column in view Y has 3 cylinders, we are allowed to have 3
cylinders each in (c), which works fine.
Option B → We know this definitely has to work, because the middle column isn’t restricted
to 2 cylinders. So, the 10 cylinders that bbcc need to have could be 3,2,3,2 and things would
work out fine.
Option C → So, one of the a’s has to have 3, and the other can have as many as we want. So,
let’s assume that both a’s are 3. That gives us 6 cylinders, and so we need another 8 to make
up the 14. The bb row has to be 1 cylinder each (because the middle row in the Y-view is 1
cylinder high), so that leaves us with 6 cylinders to go in the cc row. However, the Y-view
shows that this cc row can have a max height of 2 cylinders, so there’s no way we can fit 6
cylinders into it. This must be the right answer.
We shouldn’t bother with checking D and E unless we have plenty of time leftover and are
sure we’ve got everything else right.
Question 22
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The graph below shows the results of surveys of local medical practices on number of patient
consultations in 1995 and 2006. Consultations include face-to-face meetings with both
doctors and nurses, telephone consultations and home visits.
The overall mean consultation rate (per patient per year) was 3.90 in 1995 and 5.26 in 2006.
Findings for all years in the survey are shown below:
The consultation rate for doctors remained almost constant over the study period with 3.0
consultations per patient-year in 1995 and 3.3 in 2006. The consultation rate for nurses
increased from 0.8 consultations per patient-year in 1995 to 1.8 in 2006. The consultation rate
for other clinicians increased from 0.1 consultations per patient-year in 1995 to 0.2 in 2006.
22. If the average doctor has 1500 patients, and consultations are available on 250 days per
year, approximately how many consultations per doctor (include consultations with all
clinicians) per day were there on average in 2006?
1
6
2
4
3
2
6
4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Each doctor has 1,500 patients, and each patient sees the doctor 5.26 times a year. That’s
1,500x5.26 = 1,500x5 + (1500/4) = 7,500 + 375 = 7,875 = around 8,000 consultations per
year in total. If consultations are available for 250 days per year, we need 8,000/250 per day
= 32. The correct answer is therefore C – 32.
Question 23
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23. What is the percentage increase in the proportion of patients seen by nurses from 1995 to
2006?
14%
26%
32%
67%
125
%
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question specifies the proportion of patients seen by nurses. So, in 1995, 0.8/3.9 patients
were seen by nurses and in 2006, 1.8/5.26 were seen by nurses.
0.8/3.9 ~ 0.8/4.0 = 1/5 = 20%.

1.8/5.26 ~ 1.8/5.4 = 33%.
To work out percentage increases, we do (difference/original) x 100. In this case, it’s

13/20x100 = 65%. The closest answer is D – 65%.
Question 24
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24. There has been a percentage increase in consultations between 1995 and 2006 for both
sexes and all age groups.
Which one of the following would be least satisfactory as a potential explanation for this?
There has been an increased awareness of health issues among

the general public.
People of all ages have become equally less healthy.
All the people surveyed have become 11 years older.
GPs have increased the amount of preventative medicine they do.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Taking a quick glance at the graph given tells us that the same number of females as males
were seeing doctors in the age group 85-89, so we expect the female/male ratio for that age
group to be 1. Looking at the options given, only C and D fit that criteria, so we can
eliminate A and B. Another interesting feature of the original graph is that in the age group
25-29, the number of males seeking consultations is just over 2, while the number of females
is around 6. 6/2 = 3, so we expect the female/male ratio to be roughly 3. Looking at the
graphs, the only one that comes even close is C, which has a female/male ratio of just over
2.5 in that age group. This must, therefore, be the right answer.
Question 25
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25. Which line on the following graph best shows the female/male consultation ratio in
2006?
A
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
A and D are very reasonable options. B is a little bold for our liking, but if it were true, it
would explain the data. C is downright ridiculous – why on earth would the fact that the
people surveyed becoming older have anything to do with the fact that the number of
consultations has increased? C is clearly the least satisfactory explanation, and is therefore
the answer we’re looking for.
Question 26
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The height and weight of three children were measured and the table below used to determine
their BMI. Unfortunately, some of the data have been lost. We know that Alex is 162cm tall,
Jay is 150cm tall and has a BMI of 22, and Charlie is 156cm tall and has a BMI of 24. The
combined weight of the children is 172kg.
26. What is Alex's BMI?
2
5
2
6
2
7
2
8
2
9
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
This question relies on quick data analysis, so the first thing we must do is find the
information that we know, in the table; I have circled the relevant ones. So, we know that the
weights of Jay and Charlie are 49 and 58 respectively, and that the combined of the 3 children
is 172kg, so by simple subtraction, we now know that Alex’s weight is 65kg, which if we
extrapolate with 162cm in height, we can find that his BMI, which is 25. The answer is A.
Question 27
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Societies with a flourishing arts sector (including visual art, theatre, music and dance) tend to
be more democratic, more egalitarian, economically more robust and to have more fulfilled,
healthier citizens. So, if we want to live in the most democratic, egalitarian and economically
robust society, we should demand that the Government subsidies the arts to a level which
enables them to flourish.
27. Which one of the following illustrates a flaw in the above argument?
There may be other important demands on government

money.
A flourishing arts sector may influence citizens’

psychological health.
A strong economy may be a precondition of a flourishing

arts sector.
Some of the arts (for example, opera) may be seen as

non-egalitarian.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
This question is asking for a flaw in the reasoning, which should be identified before looking
at the multiple-choice answers. Immediately, you should realise that the author is confusing
correlation with causation, and doesn’t realise that there are other factors that could result in a
better society.
Option A→ This is simply weakening the conclusion, and is not a flaw in the reasoning.
Option B→ This statement is too vague, and it doesn’t state how the arts could influence
health (in a good or bad way?), so some could interpret it as strengthening the reasoning.
Option C→ This is most likely the answer, as it states that the author is confusing cause and
effect, which is also a very true flaw in the reasoning.
Option D → Because the passage has said “societies with a flourishing arts sector TEND TO
be more egalitarian”, C is a better flaw in the overall reasoning.
Question 28
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The pupils in a class took two tests. The results and the teacher's scatter graph are shown
below:
28. Whose results are shown by the white diamond?
Carla
David
Erin
Georgin
a
Ferdina
nd
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
To quickly overcome this question, we must decide on a strategy that saves time and ensures
accuracy. One example is by identifying that the white diamond has the 5 highest score in
th
test 1 (and test 2), so by crossing off the top 4 of test 1, we soon realise that the person that
came 5 was Erin. The answer is C.
th
Question 29
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million tons of carbon dioxide, one of the main contributors to global warming. More
effective spam filtering could reduce the amount by 75%, which would be the equivalent of
taking 2.3 million cars off the road. This would not deal with the extra energy being used to
send out the messages in the first place, however. A better strategy would be to fight spam at
the source. When one global web hosting firm was taken offline after it was found to have
ties to spammers, global spam volume fell briefly by 70%.
29. Which one of the following is a conclusion that could be drawn from the above passage?
It is always better to fight problems at the source.
Reducing spam is a higher priority than easing congestion on the

roads.
Action to deal with global warming should include tackling spam

as one of the strategies.
Spam filtering systems should be improved as much as possible.
Action to stop spam will never have long lasting effects.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Option A → This is a rather vague statement about problems in general. If it mentioned

tackling spam problems, then it would have been an appropriate conclusion
Option B → This is not suggested at all in the passage, as the congestion is only used as
evidence.
Option C → This has the qualities of a good conclusion, as it tells the reader that they
“should” do something and it involves tackling spam to deal with global warming.
Option D → This also has the qualities of a good conclusion, although it has not fully
understood the argument, which is geared more toward fighting spam at the source, rather
than through filtering systems.
Question 30
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I need to make 72 cakes for when my guests visit tomorrow. I make the cakes in batches of
12. It takes me 40 minutes to prepare each batch and then they need to be in the oven for 25
minutes (during which time I can be working on the next batch). Once they have finished
baking, I need to spend 5 minutes putting the cakes out to cool before the oven is ready for
the next batch. It is now 1pm.
30. What time should I finish?
4:55p
m
5:00p
m
5:30p
m
5:55p
m
6:00p
m
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The key to understanding this data and answering the question accurately is through
visualising the overlapping times. For some, this is quite difficult which is why I have drawn
a quick sketch of what the calculations would involve. As you can see, there will be 6 batches
of 12 cakes, and as preparation can be done during the 25 minutes the cakes are in the oven,
these 25 minutes do not need to be considered (except for the very last batch!). Finally, we
must also consider the 5 minutes for each batch to cool. Therefore, the calculation is
6*40mins=240mins (4 hours) + 25 + (6*5mins). So, the answer is 4hr55mins after 1pm, so D.
Question 31
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Although child road deaths and serious injuries have fallen by 52% in the past ten years, we
should not assume that lessons in road safety are no longer vital for school pupils. A
Government study reports that in 2006 almost 1,300 boy pedestrians and 700 girl pedestrians
were killed or seriously injured in road traffic accidents, and that 500 child cyclists were
killed or seriously injured, more than 400 of whom were male.
31. Assuming that 2006 is a representative year for road accidents involving child pedestrians
and cyclists, which one of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the passage
above?
There are more boys than girls who own and ride bicycles.
Girls spend less time than boys as pedestrians unsupervised by

adults.
Boys are much more likely than girls to take risks when cycling.
Boys are more than twice as likely as girls to be killed or

seriously injured as pedestrians or cyclists.
Lessons in road safety specially designed for male pupils would

reduce child road deaths.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
This question asks for a conclusion drawn from the passage, but suggests that it should be
based on the data given about 2006.
Option A → This is not the message that the data is trying to send.
Option B → The “unsupervised by adults” aspect of this statement makes this answer
doubtful.
Option C → This is more of an assumption to give a reason for the evidence.
Option D → If we consider the math involved, this is an accurate statement, and does get the
point across regarding road deaths and serious accidents in children.
Option E → This is not argued by the author, as the intermediate conclusion given at the end
of the first sentence mentions school “pupils” not just boys. The answer is thus D.
Question 32
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Questions 32 - 35 refer to the following information
In 2005, the total number of passengers at UK airports rose to 228 million, compared to 5
million in 1955.
The numbers of passengers fell in the recession year of 1974, and in 1991, the year of the
Gulf War, before continuing upward. There was also a marked flattening of the upward trend
in 2001, the result of the Foot and Mouth outbreak and the September 11 attacks in New
York. But these blips were temporary.
The number of passenger kilometres flown by UK airlines increased significantly over the
past twenty years, from 80 billion kilometres in 1985 to 287 billion in 2005. Around 97% of
the 2005 total was accounted for by international travel.
Nine in ten air passengers at UK airports in 2005 were travelling internationally. The country
with which the UK exchanges the most air traffic is Spain. There were 34 million passenger
movements between the two countries in 2005.
Heathrow was the busiest airport in the UK, with 68 million passengers in 2005. Gatwick was
the second busiest (33 million passengers). Demand for air travel is projected to continue
growing well into the 21st century. Mid-range estimates from the Department for Transport
suggest that the number of passengers at UK airports will grow to 500 million in 2030.
Notes:
Passengers on internal flights (domestic) are counted both at airport of departure and arrival.
32. Domestic passengers are counted both at airport of departure and airport of arrival.
Suppose that domestic passengers were counted once per flight instead of both on departure
and arrival, and the figures were adjusted accordingly. What would be the corrected figure for
the total number of passengers at UK airports in 2005, to the nearest million?
217
million
206
million
228
million
239
million
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
We are told that 9 out of 10 flights in 2005 were international, which means 10% of them
were domestic. 10% of 228 = 22.8. Domestic flights are counted twice, so the actual number
of domestic flights is 22.8/2 = 11.4.
228 – 11.4 = 216.6 = 217

Question 33
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million in 1955.
Notes:
33. Assuming that the proportion of passengers travelling to Spain was the same in 1980 as it
was in 2005, which of the following is the best estimate of passenger movements between
UK airports and Spain in 1980?
3
million
6
million
9
million
12
million
15
million
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
34/228 is roughly 15%. In 1980, there were around 55 million flights, so 15% of that would
be 8 million-ish. The closest answer is C – 9 million
Option C → weakens the argument by suggesting that work can be better done with children
sitting in groups at tables
Option B → also weakens the argument by giving less importance to whether children sit in
groups or rows, as children may be distracted either way.
Option A → irrelevant
Option D → irrelevant, as the fact that traditionalists favour this arrangement does not affect
the conclusion that it is better to do so.
Option E → strengthens the argument, as children can see visual aids more clearly, and thus
they can concentrate more on their work.
Question 34
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million in 1955.
Notes:
34. Which of the following can reliably be inferred from the graph and other available data?
1. Between 1980 and 2005 the average increase per annum in the number of passengers more
than trebled compared with the previous 25 years.
2. Heathrow and Gatwick between them account for more than 4 out of every 10 passengers
passing through UK terminals.
3. To achieve the Department of Transport prediction for 2030, the average increase in the
number of passengers going through UK terminals will have to exceed 10 million per annum.
4.
1 only
2 only
3 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
None of the
above
Correct Answer: F
Explanation:
1. Between 1980 and 2005 the average increase per annum in the number of passengers more
than trebled compared with the previous 25 years. – Between 1980 and 2005, there was an
increase of around 175 million. 175m/25 = 7 million per annum. Between 1955 and 1980, the
increase was roughly 50 million, which is 2 million per annum. So yes, the average increase
more than trebled.
2. Heathrow and Gatwick between them account for more than 4 out of every 10 passengers
passing through UK terminals – 68+33 = 101 million. 40% of 228 = 4 x 23 = 92. So 101
million is more than 40% of 228 and so this statement is true.
3. To achieve the Department of Transport prediction for 2030, the average increase in the
number of passengers going through UK terminals will have to exceed 10 million per annum
– We need an increase of 272 million in 25 years, which is an increase in more than 10
million per annum.
Option E → completely irrelevant

Option B → also irrelevant as the argument does not say anything about whether risk taking
humans are atypical. It simply means variation.
Option A → a simply stated reason in the passage, and not a conclusion
Option D → also a stated fact in the passage, thus it can be seen as a conclusion, but it is an
immediate conclusion, which goes on to support the main conclusion from the passage, it is
not the main conclusion itself.
Option C → readily follows from the reasoning given in the passage as a whole. If the
reasoning in this passage is true, we have good reason to believe the statement made in C.
Thus, this is the main conclusion of the passage.
Question 35
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million in 1955.
Notes:
35. After the first Gulf War in the early 1990s and the flattening effects of Foot and Mouth
and the September 11 attacks in 2001, passenger numbers at least recovered their previous
trends. Therefore, the recession of 2009, although it has brought a sharp fall in passenger
numbers, will not necessarily prevent the Department of Transport's prediction - that 500
million passengers will use UK terminals by 2030 - from being realized.
Which one of the following is a fair assessment of the use of data in the above argument?
The data have been incorrectly interpreted and do not justify the
conclusion.
Although the data have been correctly interpreted, they do not

justify the conclusion.
If the interpretation of the data had been correct it would justify

the conclusion, but it has been incorrectly interpreted.
The data have been correctly interpreted and do support the

conclusion.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The points the passage makes seem to be valid, and the data does support them. For example,
in 2001 we see a small dip in passengers but that doesn’t stop the overall increase. And this
overall increase is what the passage is referring to when it talks about how the dip due to the
2009 recession would not necessarily prevent the prediction from being realised. Note also,
the careful use of language “not necessarily prevent” rather than “will not prevent”, the latter
being much more believable. The answer therefore, has to be D.
1,400 trips per person per year, which is roughly 1,400/50, approximately 27 per week.
Question 36
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One fund-raising activity of a particular sports club is a weekly draw. Participants choose two
different numbers between 1 and 15 inclusive. When the draw is made, two numbers between
1 and 15 inclusive are selected at random. The prize money is shared by anyone who has
chosen these two numbers. If there are no winners, the prize fund rolls over to the following
week.
When last week's winning numbers were announced as 3 and 10, someone pointed out that it
was the fifth successive week that the two numbers consisted of a total of three digits, all
different.
36. What is the probability that when two different numbers between 1 and 15 inclusive are
selected at random they will consist of three digits all different?
4/21
8/21
6/35
9/35
12/3
5
18/3
5
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
One of the numbers must be between 1 and 9 inclusive, and the other must be between 10 and
15 inclusive. We can rule out 1 being the first number, because the second number must have
a 1 in it, so in reality, the first number has to be between 2 and 9 inclusive. We can also rule
out 11 being a possibility because obviously, that’s two digits which are the same.
2 - 10, 13, 14, 15

3 -10, 12, 14, 15
4 - 10, 12, 13, 15
5 - 10, 12, 13, 14
6 - 10, 12, 13, 14, 15
It should be obvious that the numbers 2, 3, 4 and 5 can be paired with one of 4 2-digit
numbers, while the numbers 6, 7, 8 and 9 can be paired with one of 5 2-digit numbers.
P(different digits if first number is 2,3,4,5):

1/15 × 4/14 × 4 = 16/210
P(different digits if first number is 6,7,8,9):

1/15 × 5/14 × 4 = 20/210
20/210 + 16/210 = 36/ 210 = 12/70 = 6/35
This probability that we’ve just worked out applies if the first number that’s selected is the 1-
digit number. What if the first number selected is the 2-digit number? Well, we would get the
same probability again, so the final answer is E.
6\35x 2 = 12/35=E
Question 37
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Scientists have argued over whether the extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by a space
impact or by super-volcanic activity which lasted for 1.5 million years. The space impact
would have caused sudden large-scale fires and earthquakes. Volcanic activity would have
caused a cooling of the atmosphere and acid rain which would be seen in changes to marine
and land ecosystems over the 500,000 years before the extinction. As no such changes were
identified during this period, the space impact is the only plausible explanation.
37. Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument?
Volcanic activity would not have also caused large-scale fires

and earthquakes.
A cooling of the atmosphere and acid rain could have caused the
extinction of the dinosaurs.
There are no other possible explanations for the extinction of the

dinosaurs.
The large-scale fires and earthquakes caused by a space impact

would have caused the extinction of the dinosaurs.
Extinction is always accompanied by significant changes in

marine and land ecosystems.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The conclusion of this passage is the final sentence, so statement 3 is not a weakness in the
argument, as it is only a hypothetical condition for the conclusion. Similarly, statement 1 is
not a weakness because the scientific model is based on this too. The main weakness in the
passage is in that it assumes that fossil fuel emissions will continue to rise until in 50 years
time they will stop altogether, but this may not be the case, so the answer is B.
Question 38
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Throughout the world, boys and girls prefer to play with different types of toys. Boys
typically like to play with cars and trucks, while girls typically choose to play with dolls.
Why is this? A traditional sociological explanation is that boys and girls are socialized and
encouraged to play with different types of toys by their parents, peers, and “society”.
Growing scientific evidence suggests, however, that boys’ and girls’ toy preferences may
have a biological origin.
In 2002, Gerianne M. Alexander of Texas A&M University and Melissa Hines of City
University in London stunned the scientific world by showing that vervet monkeys showed
the same sextypical toy preferences as humans. In an incredibly ingenious study, published in
Evolution and Human Behaviour, Alexander and Hines gave two stereotypically masculine
toys (a ball and a police car), two stereotypically feminine toys (a soft doll and a cooking
pot), and two neutral toys (a picture book and a stuffed dog) to 44 male and 44 female vervet
monkeys. They then assessed the monkeys’ preference for each toy by measuring how much
time they spent with each. Their data demonstrated that the male vervet monkeys showed
significantly greater interest in the masculine toys, and the female vervet monkeys showed
significantly greater interest in the feminine toys. The two sexes did not differ in their
preference for the neutral toys.
38. Which one of the following views is most clearly challenged by the first paragraph?
That toy preference in humans is the result of

socializing.
That boys and girls play with different types
of toys.
That cars and trucks are typically chosen by

boys.
That animal behaviour is not social

behaviour.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A → This is the answer as the final sentence of the first paragraph is that the
preferences “may have a biological origin”. The “however” is the big give-away!
Option B → This is stated to be true in the first sentence.
Option C →This is also not challenged.
Option D → This could be true from the information but is much too vague to be clearly
challenged.
Question 39
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39. Which one of the following, if true, would present the strongest challenge to the inference
that the vervet monkeys in the study showed preferences that varied in accordance with their
sex?
The more aggressive sex monopolized the toys that were the
most attractive to the monkeys.
Male monkeys lost interest in the toys they chose more quickly
than the females.
Monkeys also show preferences for different kinds of food when

they are given a choice.
No other species besides monkeys has been observed to

demonstrate preferences for different toys.
Vervet monkeys exhibit signs of social behaviour, for example

warning each other of danger.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In this question, we must look for a way in which the Vervet monkey study does not strongly
support the inference that the monkeys selectively chose the toys according to their sex.
Option A → If this were true, then it would challenge the inference significantly as it
removes the sex-typical aspect of the toy, so it is the answer.
Option B → If this were true, the monkeys still would have spent more time with their sex-
typical toy, whether or not they changed their minds.
Option C → This would in fact support the inference made.
Option D → This would make no difference as the inference is only considering Vervet
monkeys.
Option E → This is irrelevant to sex-typical preferences.
Question 40
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40. To accept the claim made in paragraph two, which one of the following must be
assumed?
Spending time with an object is a reliable indicator of interest.
Vervet monkeys and humans are alike in their genetic makeup.
Cooking and childcare are distinctively feminine roles.
The only explanation for preferring one toy to another is sexual

stereotyping.
Previous studies of animal behaviour have shown that monkeys

show no preference for different toys.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
First, we must decide that the claim made in Paragraph 2 is that Vervet monkeys showed the
same sextypical toy preferences as humans.
Option A → This seems to be the best assumption made, as it is the missing link between
“they assessed the monkeys’ preference” and “by measuring how much time they spent with
each”
Option B → This would have to be assumed if the claim made was that human preferences
have biological origin, but this claim was made in Paragraph 1.
Option C → This may be an assumption but does not help accept the claim above.
Option D → This is not an assumption, rather it is a conclusion.
Option E → This would weaken the above claim, so is not an assumption.
Question 41
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41. From the photographic evidence accompanying the article, which of the following can be
reliably inferred?
1. Vervet monkeys respond to toys in the same way as humans.

2. Some monkeys show the preferences alleged by Alexander and Hines.
3.
1 but not 2
2 but not 1
both 1 and
2
neither 1
nor 2
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The question here asks whether any of the statements given can be reliably inferred purely
from the photographic evidence, so we must be cautious when critiquing the images.
Statement 1 is definitely not inferred because not only does this mention Vervet monkeys (the
picture captions only mentions monkeys) but the images do not tell us how the monkeys are
responding to the toys, nor do they tell us how humans respond to toys. Statement 2 is
unclear as it does mention “some monkeys” which are shown in the pictures and they do
show such preferences. However, if we look back to the studies of Alexander and Hines in
the passage, we should remember that it was only carried out on Vervet monkeys and it
involves spending time with the toys which we cannot assess from 2 images. So, the answer
is D.
Question 42
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A target at a fair has twelve sections, marked as shown above. Participants throw four darts at
the target. They win a prize if all four-darts land in different sections of the target and the
total score is at least 30.
Phil has thrown two of his four darts, scoring 12 and 8. He is confident that whenever he
throws he will hit the target and, whatever section he aims at, the dart will never land further
away than one of the two neighboring sections. With this in mind, he realizes that if he aims
his third dart at 5 or 6 he can be confident of winning a prize.
42. Which other section could Phil aim his third dart at and still be confident of winning a
prize?
1
0
1
1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
The answer to this question is essentially the target that has the highest minimum score in
either of the 3 components (itself and one on either side) and neither of these should contain a
12 or 8. This sounds a bit weird, so I’ll try to explain the thought process behind it. If we aim
for 4, we might hit 1. If we aim for 7, we might hit 3. If we aim for 9, we might hit 6. If we
aim for 10, we might hit 5. If we aim for 11, we might hit 2. Aiming for 9 gives us the best
worst-case-scenario and so C has to be the answer.
Question 43
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The behaviour of the general public has contributed to the reluctance of doctors to do out of
hours work. When doctors only ever had to deal with genuine medical emergencies out of
hours then the workload was manageable. Unfortunately, the Government has helped stoke
public expectations so that now people think they should be entitled to full medical care 24
hours a day, no matter how trivial the problem is. However, minor problems should be dealt
with at day surgeries.
43. Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?
The problem of providing out of hours medical care is partly of

the public’s making.
The Government should encourage doctors to offer separate out-

of-hours surgeries for urgent and non-urgent problems.
The public cannot distinguish between an urgent and a non-

urgent medical problem.
Doctors running out-of-hours surgeries see more patients with

non-urgent than urgent medical problems.
Doctors should turn away patients who come to out of hours

surgeries with nonurgent medical problems.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Here, we are looking for the main conclusion of the whole argument, so we must understand
the essence of the argument and realise what the reasons are supporting.
Option A → The reasons in the passage do support this statement, so this appears to be the
correct conclusion, as the whole passage concerns the public and its behaviour/expectations
of medical care.
Option B→ Although this has the qualities of a conclusion (“should”), the passage states that
non-urgent work should be dealt with at day surgeries, thus contradicting this statement.
Option C → This may be a reason for the argument, but is definitely not a conclusion as it
cannot be supported by the passage.
Option D → We have not been given any data or evidence to support this claim.
Option E → Although this has both the qualities of a conclusion and emphasises the
statement given at the end of the passage, the majority of the argument given in the passage is
of the cause of such behaviour rather than what needs to be done about it, so the answer is A.
Question 44
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These are the most common versions of the digits that appear on digital displays, and are to
be assumed in this question.
To change a display from to , two of the seven elements have to

change.
 top left changes from off to on.

 top right changes from on to off.
44. What is the maximum number of elements that change from one number to another?
7
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
One way of finding the answer to this question is by trial and error, e.g. from 1 to 6 (more
changes than 1 to 8, as it involves one more element being turned off) which involves 6
elements changing. This is, in fact, the answer.
Question 45
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Vitelo Pareto observed that in Italy in 1906 that 80% of the wealth was owned by 20% of the
people. The 'Pareto Principle' has since been applied to a wide range of other areas.
For example, in the USA it has been found that 20% of the population use 80% of the health
care resources. Although most developed countries have a somewhat more even distribution
of wealth in modern times, on a global scale it has been estimated that currently 20% of the
world's population have 82.7% of the world's income.
Various parameters are used to give a measure of inequality of income within a society. One
of the simplest of these is the ratio of the average income of the best paid 20% of the
population to that of the lowest paid 20%. Among countries this ratio varies from 4.5 for
Japan to 168 for Bolivia. It is clearly very high for some developing countries because a
significant part of the population has no measurable income at all.
In the fictional country of Capitalia, the income distribution is as follows:
45. In Capitalia what, approximately, is the ratio of earnings of the richest 20% to the poorest
20%?
5:2
4:1
6:1
10:
1
12:
1
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
First, we must find the totals of the richest and poorest 20%, which are 213 and 34 thousand
respectively. Thus, the proportion of 213:34 is approximately 6:1 so the answer must be C.
Question 46
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46. In Capitalia, what percentage of income is earned by the richest 10%?
10
%
20
%
40
%
60
%
80
%
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
This is a simple calculation of 162/400 = 40%

Question 47
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47. Suppose a wealth tax of 20% of income was imposed on the top 20% of earners and
spread out evenly among the rest (a so called 'Robin Hood' tax). To the nearest $100, how
much would the average earnings of the bottom 10% be?
$17,8
00
$18,0
00
$21,5
00
$32,4
00
$48,6
00
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
As we know that the earnings of the top 20% are approximately 212 thousand, 20% of this is
approximately 42 thousand. If we divide this by 8 (for each other income bracket), we get just
over 5 thousand, which added on to 16,203 for the bottom 10% gives the answer C.
Question 48
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48. The graphs below show an index of health as a function of both inequality and wealth for
a range of countries (the same group of developed countries is shown in both graphs).
Which of the following may be concluded from these graphs?
1. Within any given country, the richer people are no healthier than the poor.
2. Countries with less variability of income generally have healthier people.
3.
1 only
2 only
both 1 and
2
neither 1
nor 2
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
From looking at the 2 graphs we can see that there is a negative correlation in the first, so the
greater the inequality of income, the less healthy a country; and there is no correlation in the
second, so wealth does not affect the health of a country. Therefore, statement 2 is definitely
correct and can be concluded from the graph, although statement 1 is not necessarily true as
richer people may be healthier than the poor in certain selected country, so the answer is B.
Question 49
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As examination results come out again, there will undoubtedly be concerns about the state of
the education system. If the results are good then we will hear that the examinations are
becoming too easy. On the other hand, if the results are poor, then we will hear about the
poor state of funding for the education sector. Since there will be negative stories in the press
either way, we should ignore these stories and not worry about them.
49. Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?
The options are restricted to the results being either good or bad.
It makes an unwarranted attack on the press.
It makes a prediction about the future which is not supported by

any evidence.
It fails to establish that examinations are becoming easier.
The fact that a negative story is inevitable does not mean that it
should be ignored.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation:
The conclusion here is that we should ignore the stories, so the flaw is with respect to this.
Option A → This is a flaw, but more so in the reasoning as it does not consider the
conclusion.
Option B→ The attack is not necessarily unwarranted as it has reasoning.
Option C → It is true that the author is speculating, but just because it is not supported by
evidence does not mean it is a flaw in the argument.
Option D → This is incorrect as it has been considered in the argument.
Option E → This is the correct answer as it reflects the flaw in the conclusion and considers
the reasoning too.
Question 50
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I am playing a card game with three friends. Each of us has two cards which are placed face
up on the table. The score for a hand is calculated by adding up the value of the two cards and
then doubling the total if the cards are the same suit (denoted by the symbols ♥, ♦, ♣ or ♠).
The highest score wins.
My two cards are the 2♠ and 7♥.
The other hands are:
 4♦ and 7♦
 5♣ and 8♠
 2♥ and 9♣
I am the last person to play. I can exchange one of my cards with a card from another hand
and I want to finish in the highest position possible.
50. What will be my score after I exchange cards?
1
4
1
6
1
8
2
0
2
2
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two things that we must consider when achieving the highest position possible:
ensuring that my score gets significantly higher and, more importantly, ensuring that the
person who is currently top scores lower, if need be. Currently, the highest score is 22 (11
doubled), followed by 13, 11 and my score is 9. So, by switching my 2♠ with the 7♦ from the
person who is currently first, I achieve 14, and he now scores 6. The answer is therefore A.

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Practice Module 5

The noise of modern human life will eventually cause whales to

Sea-based wind farms should not be built because of the danger

Whales will be able to adapt their communication methods to

The depletion of whale numbers is caused by the growth of

None of the above.

3. What will be the total cost of my stay?

6 nights at 80pernight,minus80pernight,minus15 because he’s opting out of meals. So

4. Which one of the following is an assumption made in the above argument?

People who have a poor memory do not become taxi drivers.

Many people believe that it is easy to become a taxi driver.

People usually become taxi drivers in order to make money rather

On average, men's earnings peak before they reach 50.

Employers are less willing to employ women over 30 than they

Questions 6 - 9 are based on the following information:

Questions 6 - 9 are based on the following information:

It is mainly men who are responsible for recruiting and promoting

Mothers would choose to take up higher positions for which they

Motherhood is the only reason for the pay discrimination against

Option A → Not necessarily. Women running businesses can be equally likely to

Questions 6 - 9 are based on the following information:

On average, a man in his 40s working part-time earns 80% more

A woman working part-time in her 20s will earn more than a

A chimpanzee gene is found to be 98% identical to HAR1.

HAR1 is found to be expressed in parts of the human brain that

HAR1 is expressed in the brain before birth.

Some chimps can be taught to communicate with symbols.

11. How many points did the Eastern team score?

Central: 2 draws, 2 losses.

Data for the world’s largest 10 lakes are shown below:

12. Which has the greatest average depth?

 Caspian Sea: 78,200/394,299 = 80k/400k = 8/40 = 1/5

Questions 14 - 17 refer to the following information:

The key factors are the known drilling costs

Drilling represents a more favourable option than not

Not drilling represents a more favourable option than

Neither option is financially more favourable than the

A decision to try and sell the drilling rights will

Either decision, to drill or not to drill, could make a loss.

Drill + Small strike = -72 (profit x chance)

Questions 14 - 17 refer to the following information:

The key factors are the known drilling costs

Drilling for oil is unlikely to make X-Oil a profit unless there is a

A 'medium' strike would be a better outcome for X-Oil than a sale

The probability of a 'medium' strike is the same as the probability

Questions 14 - 17 refer to the following information:

The key factors are the known drilling costs

Questions 14 - 17 refer to the following information:

The key factors are the known drilling costs

1. pay the insurance and proceed with the drilling.

We’ve already established that drilling would give a (profit x chance)

Three of the journalists present noted the announcement as follows:

Jed wrote: “If Fredericks is fit Petermass won’t be playing.”

18. Which of them got the facts right?

Jed and Ned

Ned and Ted

Jed, Ned and

Let’s analyse the statements that the journalists make.

One mix has 70ml oil, the other has

One mix has 100ml oil, the other has

Both mixes have 105ml oil.

20. At what speed does Charles cycle?

Questions 22 - 25 refer to the following information:

Questions 22 - 25 refer to the following information: