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Disha NEET Physics Guide
Disha NEET Physics Guide
By
Sanjeev Kumar Jha
DISHA PUBLICATION
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© Copyright Publisher
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the publisher do not take any legal responsibility for any errors or misrepresentations that might have crept in. We
have tried and made our best efforts to provide accurate up-to-date information in this book.
(ii)
Contents
1. Physical World 1-7
8. Gravitation 211-240
(iii)
16. Electric Charges and Fields 401-429
(iv)
1 Physical World
Some physicists from different countries of the world and their major contributions
Name of physicists Major contribution/discovery Country of origin
Abdus Salam Unification of weak and electromagnetic interactions Pakistan
Albert Einstein Explanation of photoelectric effect; Theory of relativity Germany
Archimedes Principle of buoyancy; Principle of the lever Greece
C.H. Townes Maser; Laser U.S.A.
Christiaan Huygens Wave theory of light Holland
C.V. Raman Inelastic scattering of light by molecules India
Edwin Hubble Expanding universe U.S.A.
Enrico Fermi Controlled nuclear fission Italy
Ernest Orlando Lawrence Cyclotron U.S.A.
Ernest Rutherford Nuclear model of atom New Zealand
Galileo Galilei Law of inertia Italy
Heinrich Rudolf Hertz Generation of electromagnetic waves Germany
Hideki Yukawa Theory of nuclear forces Japan
Homi Jehangir Bhabha Cascade process of cosmic radiation India
Issac Newton Universal law of gravitation; Laws of motion; Reflecting telescope U.K.
James Clark Maxwell Electromagnetic theory; Light - an electromagnetic wave U.K.
James Chadwick Neutron U.K.
J.C. Bose Ultra short radio waves India
J.J. Thomson Electron U.K.
John Bardeen Transistors; Theory of super conductivity U.S.A.
Lev Davidovich Landau Theory of condensed matter; Liquid helium Russia
Louis Victor de Broglie Wave nature of matter France
Marie Sklodowska Curie Discovery of radium and polonium; Studies on natural radioactivity Poland
Michael Faraday Laws of electromagnetic induction U.K.
M.N. Saha Thermal ionisation India
Niels Bohr Quantum model of hydrogen atom Denmark
Paul Dirac Relativistic theory of electron; Quantum statistics U.K.
R.A. Millikan Measurement of electronic charge U.S.A.
S. Chandrashekhar Chandrashekhar limit, structure and evolution of stars India
S.N. Bose Quantum statistics India
Victor Francis Hess Cosmic radiation Austria
Werner Heisenberg Quantum mechanics; Uncertainty principle Germany
W.K. Roentgen X-rays Germany
Wolfgang Pauli Exclusion principle Austria
Example 1. Does imagination play any role in physics? frictional force, muscular force, forces exerted by springs and
Solution : Yes, imagination has clayed an important role in the strings etc. These forces actually arise from four fundamental forces
development of physics. Huygen’s principle, Bohr’s theory, of nature.
Maxwell equations, Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, etc. were Following are the four fundamental forces in nature.
the imaginations of the scientists which successfully explained 1. Gravitational force
the various natural phenomena.
2. Weak nuclear force
Example 2. How is science different from technology?
3. Electromagnetic force
Solution : Science is the study of natural laws while technology is
the practical application of these laws to the daily life problems. 4. Strong nuclear force
Among these forces gravitational force is the weakest and strong
FUNDAMENTAL FORCES IN NATURE
nuclear force is the strongest force in nature.
We come across several forces in our day-to-day lives eg.,
4 PHYSICS
Unified celestial and terrestrial mechanics; showed that the same laws of
Issac Newton 1687
motion and the law of gravitation apply to both the domains.
Hans Christian Oersted 1820 Showed that electric and magnetic phenomena are inseparable aspects of
a unified domain : electromagnetism.
Michael Faraday 1830
Unified electricity, magnetism and optics; showed that light is an
James Clark Maxwell 1873
electromagnetic wave.
Sheldon Glashow, Abdus Salam, Showed that the 'weak' nuclear force and the electromagnetic force could
1979
Steven Weinberg be viewed as different aspects of a single electro-weak force.
Verified experimentally the predictions of the theory of electro-weak
Carlo Rubia, Simon Vander Meer 1984
force.
Example 3 . What is electromagnetic force? scientific community. The production of a summary description of
Solution : It is the force due to interaction between two moving nature in the form of such laws is a fundamental aim of science.
Physical laws are distinguished from scientific theories by their
charges. It is caused by exchange of photons (g) between two
simplicity. Scientific theories are generally more complex than laws.
charged particles. They have many component parts, and are more likely to be
NATURE OF PHYSICAL LAWS changed as the body of available experimental data and analysis
develops. This is because a physical law is a summary observation
A physical law, scientific law, or a law of nature is a scientific
of strictly empirical matters, whereas a theory is a model that
generalization based on empirical observations of physical
accounts for the observation, explains it, relates it to other
behavior. Empirical laws are typically conclusions based on
observations, and makes testable predictions based upon it. Simply
repeated scientific experiments and simple observations over many
stated, while a law notes that something happens, a theory explains
years, and which have become accepted universally within the
why and how something happens.
Physical World 5
6 PHYSICS
1. The man who has won Nobel Prize twice in physics is 11. Madam Marie Curie won Nobel Prize twice which were in the
(a) Einstein (b) Bardeen field of
(c) Heisenberg (d) Faraday (a) Physics and chemistry(b) Chemistry only
2. Prof. Albert Einstein got nobel prize in physics for his work (c) Physics only (d) Biology only
on 12. The man who is known as the Father of Experimental Physics
(a) special theory of relativity is
(b) general theory of relativity (a) Newton (b) Albert Einstein
(c) Galileo (d) Rutherford
(c) photoelectric effect
13. The person who has been awarded the title of the Father of
(d) theory of specific heats
Physics of 20th century is
3. Which of the following is wrongly matched ?
(a) Madame Curie (b) Sir C.V. Raman
(a) Barometer-Pressure
(c) Neils Bohar (d) Albert Einstein
(b) Lactometer-Milk 14. Which of the following is true regarding the physical science?
(c) Coulomb’s law-charges (a) They deal with non-living things
(d) Humidity-Calorimeter (b) The study of matter are conducted at atomic or ionic
4. C.V. Raman got Nobel Prize for his experiment on levels
(a) dispersion of light (b) reflection of light (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) deflection of light (d) scattering of light (d) None of these
5. A scientific way of doing things involve 15. The branch of science which deals with nature and natural
(a) identifying the problem phenomena is called
(b) collecting data (a) Sociology (b) Biology
(c) hypothesising a possible theory (c) Civics (d) Physics
(d) All of the above 16. Who gave general theory of relativity?
6. The scientific principle involves in production of ultra high (a) Einstein (b) Marconi
magnetic fields is (c) Ampere (d) Newton
(a) super conductivity (b) digital logic 17. Who discovered X-rays?
(c) photoelectric effect (d) laws of thermodynamics (a) Chadwick (b) Roentgen
7. Which of the following has infinite range? (c) Thomson (d) Madam Curie
(a) Gravitational force (b) Electromagnetic force 18. Which of the following is the weakest force?
(c) Strong nuclear force (d) Both (a) and (b) (a) Nuclear force (b) Gravitational force
(c) Electromagnetic force (d) None of these
8. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of the
strengths of four fundamental forces of nature ? 19. The field of work of S. Chandrashekar is
(a) theory of black hole (b) Cosmic rays
(a) Electromagnetic force > weak nuclear force >
gravitational force > strong nuclear force (c) theory of relativity (d) X-rays
20. Two Indian born physicists who have been awarded Nobel
(b) Str ong nuclear force > weak nuclear force >
Prize in Physics are
electromagnetic force > gravitational force
(a) H. J. Bhabha and APJ Kalam
(c) Gravitational force > electromagnetic force > strong
(b) C.V. Raman and S. Chandrasekhar
nuclear force > weak nuclear force
(c) J.C. Bose and M.N. Saha
(d) Strong nuclear force > electromagnetic force > weak
(d) S. N. Bose and H. J. Bhabha
nuclear force > gravitational force
21. Science is exploring, ...x... and ...y... from what we see
9. The exchange particles for the electromagnetic force are
around us. Here, x and y refer to
(a) gravitons (b) gluons
(a) qualitative, modify (b) experiment, predict
(c) photons (d) mesons
(c) verification, predict (d) reasoning, quantitative
10. Louis de-Broglie is credited for his work on 22. Macroscopic domain includes
(a) theory of relativity (a) phenomena at the laboratory
(b) electromagnetic theory (b) terrestrial scales
(c) matter waves (c) astronomical scales
(d) law of distribution of velocities (d) All of the above
Physical World 7
23. In Rutherford, alpha particle scattering experiment as shown DIRECTIONS for Qs. (24-25) : Each question contains
in given figure, A and B refer to STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
(ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following
(a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
Lead Flash of (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
block light correct explanation for Statement-1
Microscope (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
Fluorescent a correct explanation for Statement-1
a q
screen (d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
A Scattering 24. Statement-1 : The concept of energy is central to Physics
angle and expression for energy can be written for every
B physical system.
Statement-2 : Law of conservation of energy is not valid
for all forces and for any kind of transformation between
(a) polonium sample and aluminium foil different forms of energy.
(b) polonium sample and gold foil 25. Statement-1 : Electromagnetic force is much stronger than
the gravitational farce.
(c) uranium sample and gold foil Statement-2 : Electromagnetic force dominates all
(d) uranium sample and aluminium foil phenomena at atomic and molecular scales.
a Fluorescent
A q
screen
Scattering
B angle
Polonium Gold foil
sample
8 PHYSICS
Units and
2 Measurements
PHYSICAL QUANTITY Fundamental (or Base) and Derived Units
All the quantities in terms of which laws of physics are described Fundamental units are those, which are independent of unit of
and which can be measured directly or indirectly are called other physical quantity and cannot be further resolved into any
physical quantities. For example mass, length, time, speed, force other units or the units of fundamental physical quantities are
etc. called fundamental or base units. e.g., kilogram, metre, second
Types of Physical Quantity etc,
1. Fundamental quantities : The physical quantities which do All units other than fundamental are derived units (which are
not depend upon other physical quantities are called dependent on fundamental units) e.g., unit of speed (ms–1) which
fundamental or base physical quantities. e.g. mass, length, depends on unit of length (metre) and unit of time (second), unit
time temperature electric current, luminous intensity and of momentum (Kgms–1) depends on unit of mass, length and time
amount of substance. etc.
2. Derived quantities :The physical quantities which depend SYSTEM OF UNITS
on fundamental quantities are called derived quantities A system of units is a complete set of fundamental and derived
e.g. speed, acceleration, force, etc. units for all physical quantities.
UNIT Different types of system of units
The process of measurement is a comparison process. F.P.S. (Foot - Pound - Second) system. (British engineering system
Unit is the standard quantity used for comparision. of units.): In this system the unit of length is foot, mass is pound
The chosen standard for measurement of a physical quantity, and time is second.
which has the same nature as that of the quantity is called the C.G.S. (Centimetre - Gram - Second) system. (Gaussian system
unit of that quantity. of units): In this system the unit of length is centimetre, mass is
Choice of a unit (Characteristics of a unit): gram and time is second.
(1) It should be suitable in size (suitable to use) M.K.S (Metre - Kilogram - Second) system. This system is related
(2) It should be accurately defined (so that everybody to mechanics only. In this system the unit of length is metre, mass
understands the unit in same way) is kilogram and time is second.
(3) It should be easily reproducible. S.I. (International system) units: (Introduced in 1971) Different
(4) It should not change with time. countries use different set of units. To avoid complexity, by
(5) It should not change with change in physical conditions international agreement, seven physical quantities have been
i.e., temperature, pressure, moisture etc. chosen as fundamental or base physical quantities and two as
(6) It should be universally acceptable. supplementary. These quantities are
Every measured quantity (its magnitude) comprises of a number
and a unit. Ex: In the measurement of time, say S.No Base physical quantity Fundamental unit Symbol
15 s 1 Mass kilogram kg
Number (n) Unit (u) 2 Length metre m
If Q is the magnitude of the quantity (which does not depend on 3 Time second s
the selection of unit) then
4 Temperature kelvin K
1
Q = n u = n1 u1 = n2 u2 Þ n µ 5 Electric current ampere A
u
6 Luminous intensity candela cd
Where u1 and u2 are the units and n1 and n2 are the numerical
values in two different system of units. 7 Amount of substance mole mol
Units and Measurements 9
For example : Force = mass × acceleration called dimensional formula. It shows how and which of the
fundamental quantities represent the dimensions.
v–u [LT -1]
= mass × = [M] T–2]
= [MLT For example, the dimensional formula of work is [ML2T–2]
t [T]
Hence the dimensions of force are 1 in mass 1 in length and (– 2) Dimensional Equation :
in time. When we equate the dimensional formula with the physical
Dimensional Formula : quantity, we get the dimensional equation.
Unit of a physical quantity expressed in terms of M, L and T is For example Work = [ML2T–2]
Classification of Physical Quantities (On the basis of dimensions) :
Physical Dimensional For e.g. distance, displacement, force, mass, time etc.
Quantity variable
Length
1. Velocity (v) [M0LT–1]
Time
Velocity
2. Acceleration (a) [M0LT–2]
Time
3. Momentum (p) Mass × velocity [MLT–1]
4. Force (F) Mass × acceleration [MLT–2]
5. Work Force × displacement [ML2T–2]
Fr 2
7. Universal gravitational constant G= [M–1L3T–2 ]
m1m 2
8. Torque t = r ´F [ML2T–2]
F
9. Surface tension S= [MT–2]
l
W
10. Gravitational potential VG = [M0L2T–2]
m
F
11. Coefficient of viscosity h= [ML–1T–1]
dv
A
dx
12. Impulse Force×time(F×t) [MLT–1]
Units and Measurements 11
Change in length æ DL ö
13. Strain ç
Original length è L ø
÷ [M0L0T0]
Pressure æ P ö
14. Pressure gradient ç ÷ [ML–2T–2]
Distance è l ø
Arc æsö
15. Plane angle ç ÷ [M0L0T0]
Radius of circle è r ø
Angle æ q ö
16. Angular velocity ç ÷ [M0L0T–1]
Time è t ø
Energy æ E ö
23. Planck’s constant ç ÷ [ML2T–1]
Frequency è n ø
Heat energy æ Q ö
24. Heat capacity, Entropy ç ÷
Temperature è T ø
[ML2T–2K–1]
Heat energy æ Q ö
25. Specific heat capacity ç ÷ [M0L2T –2K–1 ]
Mass ´ temperature è m ´ DT ø
Length
27. Thermal Resistance, R [M–1L–2T3K]
Thermal conductivity × area
(Energy/area) æ Q = sAtT 4 ö
29. Stefan’s constant (s) ç ÷ [ML0T–3K–4]
Time ´ (temperature) 4 çè E = Q / A.t = sT 4 ÷ø
Pressure ´ volume æ PV ö
30. Universal gas constant R ç ÷
Mole ´ temperature è nT ø [ML2 T -2 K -1mol-1 ]
Work æ W ö
31. Voltage, electric potential (V) or ç ÷ [ ML2T -3A -1 ]
Charge è q ø
electromotive force (e)
12 PHYSICS
Charge æqö
32. Capacitance (C) ç ÷ [ M -1L-2T 4A 2 ]
Potential difference è V ø
r Electric force æ F ö
33. ( )
Electric field E Charge çè q ÷ø
[ MLT-3A -1 ]
r Force
34. Magnetic field(B), magnetic induction, [F = IlBsin q] [ML0T–2 A–1 ]
Current ´ length
magnetic flux density
35. Magnetic flux (fm) f = BAcosq [ML2T–2 A–1 ]
36. Inductance [ ML2T -2 A -2 ]
Magnetic flux æ f m ö
Current çè I ÷ø
coefficient of self inductance (L) or
coefficient of mutual inductance (M)
37. Magnetic field strength or
Magnetic moment æ M ö
magnetic moment density (I) ç ÷ [M0L–1 T0A]
Volume èVø
(Charge)2 æ q2 ö
38. Permittivity constant in free space eo ç ÷ é M -1L-3T 4A 2 ù
4π ´ electrostatic force(distance)2 çè 4p´ F ´ r 2 ÷
ø ë û
39. Faraday constant (F), charge Avagadro constant × elementry charge [M0 L0 TA mol-1 ]
1
41. Resonant frequency (fr) Tr [M 0 L0 T -1 ]
æ1ö é M 0 L-1T0 ù
42. Power of lens (Focal length)-1 ç ÷
èf ø ë û
2p é M 0 L-1T0 ù
44. Wave number
Wavelength ë û
45. Binding energy of nucleus Mass defect × (speed of light in vacuum)2 é ML2 T -2 ù
ë û
1
46. Conductance (c) é M -1L-2 A 2T 3 ù
Resistance ë û
ROUNDING OFF The following diagrams illustrate the meaning of terms accuracy
1. If digit to be dropped is less than 5 then preceding digit and precision :
should be left unchanged.
2. If digit to be dropped is more than 5 then one should raise
preceding digit by one.
3. If the digit to be dropped is 5 followed by a digit other than
zero then the preceding digit is increased by one.
4. If the digit to be dropped is 5 then the preceding digit is not
changed if it is even.
5. If digit to be dropped is 5 then the preceding digit is increased
by one if it is odd.
Arithmetical Operations with Significant Figures and
Rounding off :
(1) For addition or subtraction, write the numbers one below
In the above figure : The centre of the target represents the
the other with all the decimal points in one line. Now locate accepted value. The closer to the centre, the more accurate the
the first column from the left that has a doubtful digit. All experiment. The extent of the scatter of the data is a measure of
digits right to this column are dropped from all the numbers the precision.
and rounding is done to this column. Addition subtraction A- Precise and accurate, B- Accurate but imprecise, C- Precise but
not accurate, D- Not accurate nor precise
is then done. When successive measurements of the same quantity are repeated
Example : Find the sum of 23.623 and 8.7 to correct there are different values obtained. In experimental physics it is
significant figures. vital to be able to measure and quantify this uncertainty. (The
words "error" and "uncertainty" are often used interchangeably
Sol. Step-1 :- 23.623 + 8.7 Step-2 :- 23.6 + 8.7=32.3 by physicists - this is not ideal - but get used to it!)
(2) In multiplication and division of two or more quantities, the Error in measurements is the difference of actual or true value
and measured value.
number of significant digits in the answer is equal to the
Error = True value – Measured value
number of significant digits in the quantity, which has
Keep in Memory
minimum number of significant digits.
The insignificant digits are dropped from the result if they 1. Accuracy depends on the least count of the instrument used
for measurement.
appear after the decimal point. They are replaced by zeroes
2. In the addition and subtraction operation, the result contains
if they appear to the left of the decimal point. The least
the minimum number of decimal places of the figures being
significant digit is rounded off. used
Example : 107.88 (5. S. F.) 3. In the multiplication and division operation, the result
contains the minimum number of significant figures.
× 0.610 (3 S. F.)
4. Least count (L.C.) of vernier callipers = one MSD – one VSD
= 65.8068 @ 65.8
where MSD = mains scale division
ACCURACY, PRECISION OF INSTRUMENTS AND ERRORS VSD = vernier scale division
IN MEASUREMENTS : 5. Least count of screw gauge (or spherometer)
Accuracy and Precision are two terms that have very different pitch
=
meanings in experimental physics. We need to be able to no of divisions on circular scale
distinguish between an accurate measurement and a precise where pitch is the ratio of number of divisions moved on
measurement. An accurate measurement is one in which the linear scale and number of rotations given to circular scale.
results of the experiment are in agreement with the ‘accepted’ 6. Pure number or unmeasured value do not have significant
value. This only applies to experiments where this is the goal like numbers
7. Change in the position of decimal does not change the
measuring the speed of light.
number of significant figures.
A precise measurement is one that we can make to a large number Similarly the change in the units of measured value does not
of decimal places. change the significant figures.
Units and Measurements 17
1. What are the units of magnetic permeability? 12. The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from
(a) Wb A–1 m–1 (b) Wb–1 Am
–1 A x
(c) Wb A m (d) Wb A–1 m a fixed origin as V = where A and B are constants.
x+B
2. The dimensions of pressure gradient are
(a) [ML–2 T–2] (b) [ML–2 T–1] The dimensions of AB are
(c) [ML–1 T–1] (d) [ML–1 T–2] (a) [M1 L5/ 2 T -2 ] (b) [M1 L2 T -2 ]
3. The dimensions of Rydberg’s constant are
(a) [M0 L–1 T] (b) [MLT–1] (c) [M 3/ 2 L5/ 2 T -2 ] (d) [M1 L7 / 2 T -2 ]
(c) [M0 L–1 T0] (d) [ML0 T2] 13. Distance travelled by a particle at any instant ‘t’ can be
4. The dimensions of universal gas constant are represented as S = A (t + B) + Ct 2. The dimensions of B are
(a) [L2 M1 T–2 K–1] (b) [L1 M2 T–2 K–1] (a) [M 0 L1 T -1 ] (b) [M 0 L0 T1]
1 1
(c) [L M T K ] –2 –1 (d) [L2 M2 T–2 K–1]
5. The dimensions of magnetic moment are (c) [M 0 L-1 T -2 ] (d) [M 0 L2 T -2 ]
(a) [L2 A1] (b) [L2 A–1] 14. The deBroglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass
2
(c) [L / A ] 3 (d) [LA2]
m and energy E is h / 2 m E . The dimensional formula of
6. The dimensions of Wien’s constant are
(a) [ML0 T K] (b) [M0 LT0 K] Planck’s constant h is
(c) [M0 L0 T K] (d) [MLTK] (a) [M 2 L2 T -2 ] (b) [ M L2 T -1 ]
7. The unit and dimensions of impedance in terms of charge Q
are (c) [M LT -2 ] (d) [M L2 T -2 ]
(a) mho, [ML2 T–2 Q–2] (b) ohm, [ML2 T–1 Q–2] 15. The velocity of a body which falls under gravity varies as ga
(c) ohm, [ML2 T–2 Q–1] (d) ohm, [MLT–1 Q–1] hb, where g is acc. due to gravity and h is the height. The
8. If L denotes the inductance of an inductor through which a values of a and b are
current i is flowing, the dimensions of L i2 are (a) a = 1, b = 1/2 (b) a = b = 1
(a) [ML2 T–2] (c) a = 1/2, b = 1 (d) a = 1/2; b = 1/2
(b) [MLT–2] b
(c) [M2 L2 T–2] 16. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = a t +
t+c
(d) Not expressible in M, L, T The dimensions of a, b c are respectively
9. The dimensional formula of wave number is (a) [LT–2], [L], [T] (b) [L2], [T] and [LT2]
(a) [M0 L0 T–1] (b) [M0 L–1 T0] (c) [LT2], [LT] and [L] (d) [L], [LT] and [T2]
–1
(c) [M L T ] –1 0 (d) [M0 L0 T0] 17. The dimensions of Hubble’s constant are
10. The period of a body under S.H.M. is represented by: T = Pa
Db Sc where P is pressure, D is density and S is surface (a) [T -1 ] (b) [M 0 L0 T -2 ]
tension, then values of a, b and c are
(c) [MLT 4 ] (d) [MT - 1 ]
3 1
(a) - , , 1 (b) -1, - 2, 3 18. Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. Then
2 2
error in the measurement of volume is
1 3 1
(c) ,- ,- (d) 1, 2 1/3 (a) 1% (b) 5%
2 2 2 (c) 3% (d) 8%
11. The time of oscillation T of a small drop of liquid depends 19. Subtract 0.2 J from 7.26 J and express the result with correct
on radius r, density r and surface tension S. The relation number of significant figures.
between them is given by
(a) 7.1 J (b) 7.06 J
S r r3 (c) 7.0 J (d) 7 J
(a) Tµ (b) Tµ 20. Multiply 107.88 by 0.610 and express the result with correct
r r3 S
number of significant figures.
S2 r 3 r r3 (a) 65.8068 (b) 65.807
(c) Tµ (d) Tµ
r S (c) 65.81 (d) 65.8
22 PHYSICS
21. When 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result is (a) M–1 L–3 T4 A2 (b) ML3 T–4 A–2
(a) 38.3937 (b) 38.394 (c) M0 L0 T0 A0 (d) M–1 L–3 T2 A
(c) 38.39 (d) 38.4 33. The dimensional formula for entropy is
22. Relative density of a metal may be found with the help of (a) [MLT–2 K1] (b) [ML2 T–2]
spring balance. In air the spring balance reads (5.00 ± 0.05) 2
(c) [ML T K ]–2 –1 (d) [ML2 T–2 K]
N and in water it reads (4.00 ± 0.05) N. Relative density
34. Dimensions of specific heat are
would be
(a) [ML2 T–2 K] (b) [ML2 T–2 K–1]
(a) (5.00 ± 0.05)N (b) (5.00 ± 11%)
(c) [ML2 T2 K–1] (d) [L2 T–2 K–1]
(c) (5.00 ± 0.10) (d) (5.00 ± 6%)
35. L, C, R represent physical quantities inductance, capacitance
23. Area of a square is (100 ± 2) m2. Its side is
and resistance respectively. The combinations which have
(a) (10 ± 1) m (b) (10 ± 0.1) m
the dimensions of frequency are
(c) (10 ± 2 )m (d) 10 ± 2 % (a) 1/RC (b) R/L
24. Let Q denote the charge on the plate of a capacitor of (c) 1 / LC (d) C/L
Q2 36. The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula
capacitance C. The dimensional formula for is
C [M1T–3] is
(a) [L2 M 2 T ] (b) [LMT 2 ] (a) surface tension (b) solar constant
(c) density (d) compressibility
(c) [L2 MT -2 ] (d) [L2 M 2 T 2 ] 37. Which of the following is the most accurate?
25. If L and R denote inductance and resistance then dimension (a) 200.0 m (b) 20 × 101 m
of L/R is 2
(c) 2 × 10 m (d) data is inadequate
(a) [M 0 L0 T 0 ] (b) [M 0 L0 T ] 38. The velocity of water waves (v) may depend on their
wavelength l, the density of water r and the acceleration
(c) [M 2 L0 T 2 ] (d) [MLT 2 ] due to gravity, g. The method of dimensions gives the
relation between these quantities is
26. The dimensional formula of current density is
(a) v (b) v2 µ g l
(a) [M 0 L-2 T -1Q] (b) [M 0 L2 T1Q -1 ]
(c) v2 µ g l 2 (d) v2 µ g -1 l 2
(c) [ MLT -1Q] -2 -1 2
(d) [ML T Q ]
27. The least count of a stop watch is 0.2 second. The time of 20 39. The time dependence of a physical quantity p is given by
oscillations of a pendulum is measured to be 25 second. p = p0 exp. (– a t2), where a is a constant and t is the time.
The percentage error in the measurement of time will be The constant a
(a) 8% (b) 1.8% (a) is dimensionless (b) has dimensions T–2
(c) has dimensions T 2 (d) has dimensions of p.
(c) 0.8% (d) 0.1%
28. The dimensional formula for relative density is
æ a ö
(a) [M L–3] (b) [M0 L–3] 40. In the eqn. ç P + 2 ÷ (V - b) = constant, the unit of a is
0 0 –1 è V ø
(c) [M L T ] (d) [M0 L0 T0]
29. The solid angle sustended by the total surface area of a (a) dyne × cm5 (b) dyne × cm4
sphere, at the centre is (c) dyne/cm3 (d) dyne × cm2
(a) 4p (b) 2p 41. Dimensions of ‘ohm’ are same as (where h is Planck’s
(c) p (d) 3p constant and e is charge)
30. If C and L denote the capacitance and inductance, the
h h2 h h2
dimensions of LC are (a) (b) (c) (d)
2
(a) [M0 L0 T–1] (b) [M0 L–1 T0] e e e e2
–1
(c) [M L T ] –1 0 (d) [M0 L0 T2] 42. The Richardson equation is given by I = AT2e–B/kT. The
31. The dimensions of solar constant is dimensional formula for AB2 is same as that for
(a) [M0 L0 T0] (b) [MLT–2] (a) I T2 (b) kT
2 –2 2 (d) I k2/T
(c) [ML T ] (d) MT –3 (c) I k
43. The unit of current in C.G..S. system is
1 e2 (a) 10 A (b) 1/10 A
32. The dimensions of are
Îo hc (c) 1/100 A (d) 1/1000 A
Units and Measurements 23
44. Which of the following do not have the same dimensional (a) 10% (b) 13%
formula as the velocity? (c) 30% (d) 20%
Given that m0 = permeability of free space, e0 = permittivity 52. Using mass (M), length(L), time (T) and electric current (A)
of free space, n = frequency, l = wavelength, P = pressure, r as fundamental quantities the dimensions of permittivity
= density, w = angular frequency, k = wave number, will be
(a) [MLT–1 A–1 ] (b) [MLT–2 A–2 ]
(a) 1 m 0 eo (b) n l –1 –3
(c) [M L T A ] +4 2 (d) [M2L–2 T –2 A2 ]
53. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed
(c) P/r (d) wk are 2% and 3% respectively. The error, in kinetic energy
45. A cube has numerically equal volume and surface area. The obtained by measuring mass and speed, will be
volume of such a cube is (a) 12 % (b) 10 %
(a) 1000 unit (b) 200 unit (c) 8 % (d) 2 %
(c) 216 unit (d) 300 unit 54. The density of a cube is measured by measuring its mass
and length of its sides. If the maximum error in the
46. A spherical body of mass m and radius r is allowed to fall in
measurement of mass and length are 4% and 3% respectively,
a medium of viscosity h. The time in which the velocity of
the maximum error in the measurement of density will be
the body increases from zero to 0.63 times the terminal
(a) 7% (b) 9%
velocity (v) is called time constant t. Dimensionally t can be
(c) 12% (d) 13%
represented by
gRT
55. The speed of sound in a gas is given by v =
æ 6pmrh ö M
mr 2 ç ÷ R = universal gas constant,
(a) (b) ç g2 ÷
6ph è ø T = temperature
M = molar mass of gas
m The dimensional formula of g is
(c) 6 ph r v
(d) None of these
(a) [M 0 L0 T 0 ] (b) [M 0 LT -1 ]
47. A quantity is represented by X = Ma Lb Tc. The % error in
measurement of M, L and T are a%, b% and g% (c) [ MLT -2 ] (d) [M 0 L0 T -1 ]
respectively. The % error in X would be 56. Specific gravity has ............ dimensions in mass, ............
(a) (a a + b b + g c ) % (b) (a a - b b + g c) % dimensions in length and ............ dimensions in time.
(a) 0, 0, 0 (b) 0, 1, 0
(c) (a a - b b - g c) ´100% (d) None of these (c) 1, 0, 0 (d) 1, 1, 3
48. In a Vernier calliper, N divisions of vernier scale coincide 57. If I is the moment of inertia and w the angular velocity,,
with (N–1) divisions of main scale (in which one division what is the dimensional formula of rotational kinetic energy
represents 1 mm). the least count of the instrument in cm. 1 2
Iw ?
should be 2
(a) N (b) N – 1
(a) [ ML2T -1 ] (b) [ M 2 L-1T -2 ]
1 1
(c)
10 N
(d) (c) [ ML2 T - 2 ] (d) [ M 2 L-1T -2 ]
N -1
58. Given that r = m2 sin pt , where t represents time. If the unit
49. What is the fractional error in g calculated from of m is N, then the unit of r is
T = 2 p l / g ? Given fraction errors in T and l are ± x and (a) N (b) N2
± y respectively.. (c) Ns (d) N 2 s
(a) x + y (b) x – y 59. The dimensional formula of farad is
(c) 2x + y (d) 2x – y
50. Conversion of 1 MW power in a New system of units having (a) [M -1L-2 TQ] (b) [M -1L-2T 2Q 2 ]
basic units of mass, length and time as 10 kg, 1 dm and 1
(c) [M -1L-2 TQ 2 ] (d) [ M -1L-2 T 2 Q ]
minute respectively is
(a) 2.16 × 1010 unit (b) 2 × 104 unit 60. If time T, acceleration A and force F are regarded as base
units, then the dimensional formula of work is
(c) 2.16 × 1012 unit (d) 1.26 × 1012 unit
51. A resistor of 10 k W having tolerance 10% is connected in (a) [FA] (b) [FAT]
series with another resistor of 20 k W having tolerance 20%.
The tolerance of the combination will be
(c) [FAT 2 ] (d) [FA 2 T]
24 PHYSICS
76. In the equation X = 3YZ2, X and Z are dimensions of 84. The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4g/cm3.
capacitance and magnetic induction respectively. In MKSQ In a system of units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit
system, the dimensional formula for Y is of mass is 100 g, the value of density of material will be
(a) [M–3 L–2 T–2 Q–4] (b) [M L–2] (a) 0.4 (b) 40
–3 –2
(c) [M L Q T ] 4 8 (d) [M–3 L–2 Q4 T4] (c) 400 (d) 0.04
77. A force is given by F = at + bt2 , where t is time, the 85. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured
dimensions of a and b are with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively.
Quantity P is calculated as follows
(a) [M L T–4] and [M L T–1]
(b) [M L T–1] and [M L T0] a 3b 2
P=
(c) [M L T–3] and [M L T–4] cd
(d) [M L T–3] and [M L T0] % error in P is
n (a) 10% (b) 7%
78. The frequency of vibration of a string is given by f =
2L (c) 4% (d) 14%
T 86. What is the fractional error in g calculated from
, where T is tension in the string, L is the length, n is
m
number of harmonics. The dimensional formula for m is T = 2 p l / g ? Given fractional errors in T and l are ± x
(a) [M0 L T] (b) [M1 L–1 T–1] and ± y respectively..
(c) [M1 L–1 T0] (d) [M0 L T –1] (a) x + y (b) x – y
79. The dimensions of voltage in terms of mass (M), length (L) (c) 2x + y (d) 2x – y
and time (T) and ampere (A) are rl
87. The resistance R of a wire is given by the relation R = .
(a) [ML2T–2 A–2 ] (b) [ML2T 3A–1 ] p r2
Percentage error in the measurement of r, l and r is 1%, 2%
(c) [ML2T –3A1 ] (d) [ML2T–3 A–1 ] and 3% respectively. Then the percentage error in the
80. Suppose the kinetic energy of a body oscillating with measurement of R is :
amplitude A and at a distance x is given by (a) 6 (b) 9
(c) 8 (d) 10
Bx
K= 88. What are the dimensions of permeability ?
x + A2
2
(a) [M1L1T1 A–2 ] (b) [M1L1 T–2 A–2 ]
The dimensions of B are the same as that of 2 2
(c) [M L T A ]1 0 (d) [M1L2T2 A–2 ]
(a) work/time (b) work × distance 89. The physical quantity having the dimensions
(c) work/distance (d) work × time [M–1L–3T3A2] is
81. The dimensions of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (coulomb) (a) resistance (b) resistivity
are given as (c) electrical conductivity (d) electromotive force
(a) [MLT–1 C–1] (b) [MT2 C–2] 90. The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What
(c) [MT–1 C–1] (d) [MT–2 C–1] will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of a room,
having all the dimensions double of those of room A?
82. Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a
(a) 2 (b) 4
distance of 1mm on its main scale. The total number of
divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that 1
(c) (d) 1
the screw gauge has a zero error of – 0.03 mm. While 2
measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the 91. Which of the following is the unit of molar gas constant?
main scale reading of 3 mm and the number of circulr scale (a) JK–1 mol–1 (b) Joule
divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The diameter of
(c) JK–1 (d) J mol–1
the wire is
92. Density of liquid is 16.8 g cm–3. Its value in the International
(a) 3.32 mm (b) 3.73 mm System of Units is
(c) 3.67 mm (d) 3.38 mm
83. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by
(a) 16.8 kgm -3 (b) 168 kgm -3
Ma Lb Tc, then the physical quantity will be
(c) 1680 kgm -3 (d) 16800 kgm -3
(a) velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1
93. The dimensional formula of couple is
(b) acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2
(c) force if a = 0, b = – 1, c = – 2 (a) [ML2 T -2 ] (b) [MLT 2 ]
(d) pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2
(c) [ML-1T -3 ] (d) [ML-2 T -2 ]
26 PHYSICS
94. The refractive index of water measured by the relation DIRECTIONS for Qs. (97 to 100) : Each question contains
real depth STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
m= is found to have values of 1.34, 1.38,
apparent depth (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following
1.32 and 1.36; the mean value of refractive index with (a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
percentage error is
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
(a) 1.35 ± 1.48 % (b) 1.35 ± 0 %
(c) 1.36 ± 6 % (d) 1.36 ± 0 % correct explanation for Statement-1
95. Diameter of a steel ball is measured using a Vernier callipers (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
which has divisions of 0.1 cm on its main scale (MS) and 10 a correct explanation for Statement-1
divisions of its vernier scale (VS) match 9 divisions on the (d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
main scale. Three such measurements for a ball are given
below: 97. Statement 1 : The number of significant figures depends on
the least count of measuring instrument.
S.No. MS(cm) VS divisions
Statement 2 : Significant figures define the accuracy of
1. 0.5 8 measuring instrument.
2. 0.5 4
98. Statement 1 : Absolute error may be negative or positive.
3. 0.5 6
Statement 2 : Absolute error is the difference between the
If the zero error is – 0.03 cm, then mean corrected diameter is real value and the measured value of a physical quantity.
(a) 0.52 cm (b) 0.59 cm
99. Statement 1 : In the measurement of physical quantities
(c) 0.56 cm (d) 0.53 cm
L direct and indirect methods are used.
96. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T = 2p .
g Statement 2 : The accuracy and precision of measuring
Measured value of L is 20.0 cm known to 1 mm accuracy and instruments along with errors in measurements should be
time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90 s taken into account, while expressing the result.
using a wrist watch of 1s resolution. The accuracy in the
100. Statement 1 : Energy cannot be divided by volume.
determination of g is
(a) 1% (b) 5% Statement 2 : Because dimensions for energy and volume
(c) 2% (d) 3% are different.
10. The mean length of an object is 5 cm. Which is the following 15. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental
measurement is most accurate? units, then the dimensions of mass are : [2014]
(a) 4.9 cm (b) 4.805 cm (a) [F V T– 1] (b) [F V T– 2]
(c) 5.25 cm (d) 5.4 cm (c) [F V– 1 T– 1] (d) [F V– 1 T]
11. Young's modulus of steel is 1.9 × 1011 N/m2. When expressed 16. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as the
in CGS units of dyne/cm2, it will be equal to (1N = 105 dyne, fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of surface
1 m2 = 104 cm2) tension will be : [2015]
(a) 1.9 × 1010 (b) 1.9 × 1011 (a) [EV–1T–2] (b) [EV–2T–2]
(c) 1.9 × 1012 (d) 1.9 × 1013 (c) [E–2V–1T–3] (d) [EV–2T–1]
12. If momentum (p), area (A) and time (T) are taken to be 17. If dimensions of critical velocity ucof a liquid flowing
fundamental quantities, then energy has the dimensional
through a tube are expressed as [ hx ry r x ] , where h, r and
formula
(a) [pA–1T1] (b) [p2AT] r are the coefficient of viscosity of liquid, density of liquid
and radius of the tube respectively, then the values of x, y
(c) [pA–1/2T] (d) [ pA1/2T]
and z are given by : [2015 RS]
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions (a) –1, –1, 1 (b) –1, –1, –1
13. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured (c) 1, 1, 1 (d) 1, –1, –1
with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. 18. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be
a 3b 2 e2
Quantity P is calculated as follows P = % error in P is: formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity of light, G is
cd 4pe0
(a) 10% (b) 7% [2013] universal constant of gravitation and e is charge] [2017]
(c) 4% (d) 14% 1/ 2 1/ 2
é e2 ù 1 é e2 ù
14. The pair of quantities having same dimensions is 2
c êG ú ê ú
(a) (b)
(a) Young’s modulus and energy [NEET Kar. 2013] ëê 4pe 0 ûú c 2 ëê G4pe0 ûú
(b) impulse and surface tension
1/ 2
(c) angular momentum and work 1 e2 1 é e2 ù
(d) work and torque (c) G (d) ê G ú
c 4pe0 c 2 êë 4pe 0 úû
28 PHYSICS
1
13. (c) 1 light year = speed of light in vacuum × no. of seconds dimensions of R = = L-1 = [M 0 L-1 T 0 ]
in one year = (3 × 108) × (365 × 24 × 60 × 60) = 9.467 × L
1015 m.
14. (c) 1 pascal = 1 N / m2. PV W ML2 T -2
4. (a) R= = =
15. (c) Electron volt is a unit of energy & mT m T mol K
1eV = 1.6×10–19 joule where m is number of mole of the gas
16. (a) Impulse = force × time = MLT -2 1 -1
´ T = [M LT ] . = [M1L2T–2K–1mol–1]
5. (a) M = current × area = AL2 = [L2 A1]
2
M Am
17. (b) Pole strength, m = = = A m. 6. (b) b = l m T = LK = [M0 L1 T 0 K1 ]
2l m
18. (d) Both energy and work have same unit. V W ML2 T -2
\ energy/work is a pure number. 7. (b) Impedance = = =
I QI Q QT -1
19. (a) Potential is work done per unit charge.
20. (c) Maxwell is the unit of magnetic flux in C.G.S system. = [ML2 T -1 Q -2 ] .
1 Wb(S.I unit) = 108 maxwell
Units and Measurements 29
= M L2 T -2 L1 / 2 = M L5 / 2 T -2 Q2
24. (c) We know that is energy of capacitor so it represent
2C
AB = (ML5 / 2 T -2 ) (L) = [M1 L7 / 2 T -2 ]
13. (b) In S = A (t + B) + Ct2 ; B is added to time t. Therefore, the dimension of energy = [ML2 T -2 ] .
dimensions of B are those of time. Volt ´ sec/amp.
25. (b) L/R = = sec. = [M 0 L0 T ]
2 -2 2 -1 Volt/amp.
14. (b) h = l 2m E = L M ( ML T ) = [M L T ]
Current Q
15. (d) v = ga h b ; [M 0 LT -1 ] = (LT -2 ) a Lb = La + b T -2a 26. (a) Current density = =
area area ´ t
\ a + b = 1; - 2a = -1 a = 1/ 2 0.2
27. (c) ´ 100 = 0.8
\ b = 1/ 2 25
16. (a) As c is added to t, \ c = [T] 28. (d) 29. (a)
1
v LT -1 30. (d) From n =
a= = = [LT -2 ] , 2p LC
t T
1 1
b = v (t + c) = LT -1 ´ T = [L] LC = = = T 2 = [M 0 L0 T 2 ]
2 -1 2
(2p n) (T )
velocity [ LT -1 ] 31. (d) Solar constant = energy/sec/area
17. (a) Hubble’s constant, H = =
dis tan ce [ L]
M L2 T -2
= = [MT-3 ]
= [T -1 ] = 70 ´ 10 -3 N / m. TL 2
4 1 e2
18. (c) V = p r 3; 32. (c) From F =
3 4 p eo r2
DV æ Dr ö
´ 100 = 3ç ÷ ´ 100 = 3 ´ 1 % = 3 % e2
V è r ø \ = 4 p F r 2 (dimensionally)
eo
19. (a) Subtraction is correct upto one place of decimal,
corresponding to the least number of decimal places. e2 4pFr 2 (MLT-2 )L2
= = = [M 0 L0 T 0 A 0 ] ,
7.26 – 0.2 = 7.06 = 7.1 J. eo hc hc ML2T-1[LT-1]
20. (d) Number of significant figures in multiplication is three,
corresponding to the minimum number e2
107.88 × 0.610 = 65.8068 = 65.8 is called fine structure constant & has value
e o hc
97 .52
21. (d) = 38 . 393 = 38 .4 (with least number of 1
2 .54 .
significant figures, 3). 137
30 PHYSICS
So dimension of e0
0.1 æ 19 ö 1 1
2 66. (c) = ç1 - ÷ MSD Þ = ´ 1MSD
=
[AT]
= [M -1L-3T 4 A 2 ] 10 è 20ø 100 20
-2 2
[MLT ][L ] 1
Þ 1 MSD = ´ 10 = 2
5
æ Dm ö
53. (c) Percentage error in mass ç ´ 100 ÷ = 2% and
è m ø 0.5
67. (b) Least count = = 0.01mm
50
percentage error in speed æç D ´ 100 ö÷ = 3% .
v
68. (c) Maximum absolute error is Da + Db . Therefore the
è v ø
absolute error
1 percentage error = actual value ´ 100
E = mv2
2
DQ 2DI DR Dt
DE Dm DV 69. (d) ´ 100 = ´ 100 + ´100 + ´100
\ ´ 100 = ´ 100 + 2 ´ 100 Q I R t
E m V
= 2% + 2 × 3% = 8%. = 2 ´ 2% +1% +1% = 6%.
Mass DP DF Dl
70. (c) ´ 100 = ´ 100 + 2 ´ 100 = 4% + 2 × 2%
54. (d) Density =
Volume P F l
= 8%
M Dr DM DL
r= 3 , = +3 l l
L r M L 71. (c) T = 2p , gµ 2
g T
% error in density = % error in Mass + 3 (% error
in length) Dg
= 4 + 3(3) = 13% \ ´ 100 = 0.5% + 2 × 0.2% = 0.9%
g
Cp
55. (a) Ratio of specific heat, g = 72. (a) % error =
0.01
´ 100 +
0.01
´100 +
0.01
´ 100
Cv
0.5 1.0 0.5
56. (a) Specific gravity is the ratio of density of substance =2+1+2=4+1=5
and density of water at 4°C. The ratio of like quantities 73. (c)
is dimensionless.
57. (c) Dimensionally K.E = Work 74. (b) [ LC] = ML2T -2 A -2 .M -1L-2 T4 A 2 = T
58. (b) Trigonometric ratio are a number and hence
demensionless wx
75. (c) The quantity ( – wk) has dimension of angle and
v
éQù é Q2 ù
59. (b) [C] = ê ú = ê
-1 -2 2 2
ú = [M L T Q ] hence wk is dimensionless being angle.
ëVû ëê W ûú
[X] M -1L-2 T 4 A 2
76. (d) [Y] = = = M -3 L-2 Q 4 T 4
60. (c) [A ] = [LT -2 ] or [L ] = [AT 2 ] [Z2 ] M 2 T -4 A -2
9 é W ù ML2T -2
65. (c) 10 VD = 9MD, 1VD = MD 79. (d) [V] = ê ú = = ML2 A -1T -3
10 ëQû AT
Vernier constant = 1 MD – 1 VD
Bx Bx B
æ 9ö 1 1 1 80. (b) From K = 2 2
= 2 =
= ç1- ÷ MD = MD = ´ = 0.05 mm x +A x x
è 10ø 10 10 2
\ B = K × x = K.E. × distance = work × distance
32 PHYSICS
9. (a) For the most precise measurement, the unit must be 14. (d) Work = Force × displacement
least and number of digits including zeroes after Torque = Force × force arm
decimal must be zero. = mass × acceleration × length
Now, take first option, = [M] × [LT–2] × [L] = [M L2T–2]
As here 5.00 mm has the smallest unit and the error in
15. (d) Force = mass × acceleration
5.00 mm is least (commonly taken as 0.01 mm if not
specified), hence, 5.00 mm is most precise. Þ [Mass]
10. (a) Now, checking the errors with each options one by é force ù
=ê
one, ë acceleration úû
|Dl1| = |5 – 4.9| = 0.1 cm
|Dl2| = |5 – 4.805| = 0.195 cm é force ù –1
= ê ú = [F V T]
|Dl3| = |5.25 – 5| = 0.25 cm ë velocity / time û
|Dl4| = |5.4 – 5| = 0.4 cm 16. (b) Let surface tension
Error Dl1 is least or minimum.
s = Ea Vb Tc
So, 4.9 cm is most precise.
b
11. (c) It is given that Young's modulus (Y) is, MLT –2 æ Lö
= (ML2 T –2 )a ç ÷ (T)C
Y = 1.9 × 1011 N/m2 L è Tø
1N = 105 dyne Equating the dimension of LHS and RHS
So, Y = 1.9 × 1011 × 105 dyne/m2 ML0T–2 = MaL2a + b T–2a – b + c
Convert meter to centimeter
Þ a = 1, 2a + b = 0, –2a – b + c = –2
Q 1m = 100 cm
Þ a = 1, b = – 2, c = – 2
Y = 1.9 × 1011 × 105 dyne/(100)2 cm2
= 1.9 × 1016 – 4 dyne/cm2 Hence, the dimensions of surface tension are
[E V–2 T–2]
Y = 1.9 × 1012 dyne/cm2
12. (d) Given that fundamental quantities are momentum (p), 17. (d) Applying dimensional method :
area (A) and time (T). vc = hxryrz
Let us consider the dimensional formula for [M0LT–1] = [ML–1T–1]x [ML–3T0]y [M0LT0]z
E µ [ p a AbT c ] Equating powers both sides
x + y = 0; –x = –1 \ x = 1
E = kp a AbT c ]
1 + y = 0 \ y = –1
where k is dimensionless constant of proportionality.
–x – 3y + z = 1
Dimensions of energy [E] = [ML2T–2] and Dimension
–1 – 3(–1) + z = 1
of momentum p = mv = [MLT–1]
Dimension of Area [A] = [L2] –1 + 3 + z = 1
Dimension of Time [T] = [T] \ z = –1
Dimension of energy [E] = [K] [p]a[A]b[T]c 18. (d) Let dimensions of length is related as,
Putting all the dimensions, value z
é e2 ù
ML2T–2 = [MLT–1]a [L2]b [T]c x
L = [c] [G] ê
y
ú
= MaL2b + aT–a + c êë 4pe 0 úû
By principle of homogeneity of dimensions,
1 e2
a = 1, 2b +a = 2 Þ 2b + 1 = 2 Þ b = = ML3T–2
2 4pe0
- a + c = -2 L = [LT–1]x [M–1L3T–2]y[ML3T–2]z
c = –2 + a = –2 + 1 = –1 [L] = [Lx + 3y + 3z M –y + z T–x – 2y – 2z]
So, Dimensional formula (of energy) Comparing both sides
E = [pA1/2T–1] –y + z = 0 Þ y = z ...(i)
E = [ pA1/2T -1] x + 3y + 3z = 1 ...(ii)
–x – 4z = 0 (Q y = z) ...(iii)
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions From (i), (ii) & (iii)
a 3 b 2 DP Da Db 1
13. (d) P = , × 100% = 3 × 100% + 2 × z = y = , x = –2
cd P a b 2
1/2
Dc Dd é e2 ù
100% + × 100% + × 100%. -2
c d Hence, L = c êG × ú
= 3 × 1% + 2 × 2% + 3% + 4% = 14% ëê 4pe 0 ûú
Motion in a
3
BASIC DEFINITIONS
Straight Line
3. Displacement of an object is independent of the path
Mechanics : Branch of physics, which deals with the study of followed by the object but distance depends upon path.
objects in rest and in motion. 4. Displacement and distance both have same unit as that of
Statics : Study of objects at rest or in equilibrium. length i.e. metre.
Kinematics : Study of motion of objects without considering the
cause of motion. Distance
5. ³1
Dynamics : Study of motion of objects considering the cause of |Displacement|
motion.
Rest : An object is said to be at rest if it does not change its 6. For a moving body distance always increases with time
position with time, with respect to its surrounding (a reference 7. For a body undergoing one dimensional motion, in the same
point which is generally taken as origin in numerical problems) direction distance = | displacement |. For all other motion
Motion : An object is said to be in motion if it changes its position distance > | displacement |.
with time, with respect to its surroundings.
Rest and motion are relative terms. SPEED
Point mass/Point object : An object is said to be a point mass if It is the distance travelled per unit time by an object. It is a scalar
during its motion it covers distance much greater than its own quantity. It cannot be negative.
size. Uniform speed : An object is said to be moving with a uniform
One dimensional motion : An object travels in a straight line. It is speed, if it covers equal distances in equal intervals of time,
also called rectilinear or linear motion. The position change of howsoever small the time intervals may be.
the object with time in one dimension can be described by only Non-uniform speed : If an object covers unequal distances in
one co-ordinate. equal interval of time or equal distances in unequal interval of
Ex. A stone falling freely under gravity. time.
Two dimensional motion or motion in a plane : For an object Instantaneous speed : The speed of an object at a particular instant
travelling in a plane two coordinates say X and Y are required to of time is called the instantaneous speed.
describe its motion.
Ex. An insect crawling over the floor. Ds ds
Instantaneous speed, Vinst = lim = .
Three dimensional motion : An object travels in space.To describe Dt dt
Dt ® 0
motion of objects in three dimension require all three coordinates Average speed : It is ratio of the total distance travelled by the
x, y and z. object to the total time taken.
Ex. A kite flying in the sky.
Dx
DISTANCE AND DISPLACEMENT Average speed Vav =
Dt
Distance or Path length : The length of the actual path travelled Dimensions : [M0LT-1]; Unit: In SI systems.
by an object during motion in a given interval of time is called
the distance travelled by that object or path length. It is a scalar VELOCITY
quantity. It is the displacement of an object per unit time. It is a vector
Displacement : It is the shortest distance between the initial and quantity. It can be positive negative or zero.
final position of an object and is directed from the initial position Uniform velocity : An object is said to be moving with a uniform
to the final position. It is a vector quantity. velocity, if it covers equal displacements in equal intervals of
time, howsoever small the time intervals may be.
Keep in Memory Non-uniform velocity : If an object covers unequal displacements
1. Displacement may be positive, negative or zero but distance in equal interval of time or equal displacements in unequal interval
is always positive. of time.
Instantaneous velocity : The velocity of an object at a particular
2. Displacement is not affected by the shift of the coordinate
axes. instant of time is called the instantaneous velocity.
36 PHYSICS
To summarise :
Motion of a body
motion may also be used for uniformly accelerated motion. 1. The direction of average acceleration vector is the direction
r r
Uniformly Accelerated Motion : A Discussion r vf - vi
While using equations of motion we can have two approaches. of the change in velocity vector. a =
t
Approach 1 : Take a = +ve when velocity increases and r r r r r
a has a direction of v f - v i = v f + (– v i )
a = –ve when velocity decreases. r r
Take rest of physical quantities such as u, v, t and s as positive. i.e., the resultant of vf and – v i
Approach 2 : (Vector method)
2. There is no definite relationship between velocity vector
Assume one direction to be positive and other negative. Assign
and acceleration vector.
sign to all the vectors (u, v, a, s), +ve sign is given to a vector
which is directed to the positive direction and vice-versa 3. For a body starting from rest and moving with uniform
– + acceleration, the ratio of distances covered in t 1 sec.,
+
Solution : r r
r v - vi 5jˆ - 5iˆ r 1 1
v = k x or
dx
= k x or
dx
= k dt
a= f = Þ a = – $i + $j
Dt 10 2 2
dt x
Given that when t = 0, x = 0 and when t = t, x = x, r FG 1 IJ + FG 1 IJ
2 2 1
m/s2.
x
dx
t |a |=
H 2K H 2 K =
2
Hence ò x
ò
= k dt ;
Keep in Memory
0 0
x
é - 1 +1 ù 1. An object moving under the influence of earth's gravity in
x t êx 2 ú which air resistance and small changes in g are neglected is
ú = k [ t ]0
t
\ ò x -½ dx = k ò dt or ê called a freely falling body.
1
ê - + 1ú
0 0 2. In the absence of air resistance, the velocity of projection
ëê 2 ûú 0
is equal to the velocity with which the body strikes the
kt ground.
or 2 x = k t or x=
2 3. Distance travelled by a freely falling body in 1st second is
2 always half of the numerical value of g or 4.9 m, irrespective
ék tù k t
Now, v = k ´ ê ú = of height h.
ë2û 2 4. For a freely falling body with initial velocity zero
Thus the velocity varies with time. (i) Velocity µ time (v = gt)
Example 2. (ii) Velocity µ Distance fallen (v2 = 2gs)
A particle covers each 1/3 of the total distance with speed
vl, v2 and v3 respectively. Find the average speed of the æ 1 ö
(iii) Distance fallen a (time)2 ç s = gt 2 ÷ , where g is the
particle. è 2 ø
Solution : acceleration due to gravity.
Average speed 5. If maximum height attained by a body projected vertically
Total distance travelled s upwards is equal to the magnitude of velocity of projection,
v= = then velocity of projection is 2g ms–1 and time of flight is 4
Total time taken s s s
+ + sec.
3v1 3v 2 3v 3
6. If maximum height attained by a body projected upward is
3v1 v 2 v 3 equal to magnitude of acceleration due to gravity i.e., 'g',
Þ v=
v1v 2 + v 2 v 3 + v 3 v1 the time of ascent is 2 sec. and velocity of projection is
Example 3.
A cheetah can accelerate from 0 to 96 km/h in 2 sec., whereas g 2.
a cat requires 6 sec. Compute the average accelerations for 7. Ratio of maximum heights reached by different bodies
the cheetah and cat. projected with velocities u1, u2, u3 etc. are in the ratio of
Solution : u12 : u 22 : u 33 etc. and ratio of times of ascent are in ratio of
r r
r | vf - vi | 96km / h - 0 u1 : u2 : u3 etc.
For cheetah | a av| = =
Dt 2sec 8. During free fall velocity increases by equal amount every
1000 m decend and distance covered during 1st, 2nd, 3rd seconds
96 ´ of fall, are 4.9m, 14.7m, 24.5m.
3600 sec
= = 15 m/s2
2 sec u=0 t=0
10 4.9 m
96 ´ 9.8 m/s t=1
r
For cat | a av| = 36 = 5 m/s2. 14.7 m
6 19.6 m/s t=2
Example 4.
A particle is moving in east direction with speed 5 m/s.
After 10 sec it starts moving in north direction with same 24.5 m
speed. Find average acceleration.
Solution : N 29.4 m/s t=3
r r
| v f| = | v i| = 5 m/s
9. If a body is projected horizontally from top of a tower, the
Acceleration ¹ 0
W E time taken by it to reach the ground does not depend on
(due to change in direction the velocity of projection, but depends on the height of
of velocity Av. acceleration,
2h
r
D v = vr f – vr i = vr f + (– vr i) S
tower and is equal to t =
g
.
Motion in a Straight Line 39
Example 10.
A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform
t1 t2 = 3u/2g acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in the nth
h sec to the distance covered in n sec is
3h/4 2 1 1 1
(a) – (b) –
n n2 n 2 n
2 1 2 1
u u u (c) 2
– 2 (d) +
Taking negative sign, t 1 = - = ; n n n n2
g 2g 2g Solution : (a)
The distance covered in nth second
u u
Taking positive sign, t 2 = + = 3u / 2g.
g 2g a a
sn = u + (2 n - 1) or s n = 0 + (2 n - 1) ...(1)
2 2
t 1 æ u / 2g ö 1 Further distance covered in n second
=ç ÷=
t 2 çè 3u / 2g ÷ø 3 . 1 2 1
s = ut+ a t = 0 + a n2 ...(2)
Example 8. 2 2
A police party in a jeep is chasing a dacoit on a straight
road. The jeep is moving with a maximum uniform speed v. a
(2 n - 1)
sn 2 2 1
The dacoit rides on a motorcycle of his waiting friend when \ = = -
2
the jeep is at a distance d from him and the motorcycle s (an / 2) n n2
starts with constant acceleration a. Show that the dacoit Example 11.
will be caught if v ³ 2ad . The water drop falls at regular intervals from a tap 5 m
Solution : above the ground. The third drop is leaving the tap at
Suppose the dacoit is caught at a time t sec after the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above
motorcycle starts. The distance travelled by the motorcycle the ground is the second drop at that instant?
during this interval is (a) 1.25 m (b) 2.50 m
(c) 3.75 m (d) 4.00 m
1 2 Solution : (c)
s= at ...(1)
2 See fig. Let t be the time interval between any two drops.
During the interval, the jeep travels a distance,
s + d = vt ...(2) Tap
3rd drop
x
1 2 v ± v 2 - 2ad 2nd drop
By (1) and (2), at - vt + d = 0 or t =
2 a 5m
The dacoit will be caught if t is real and positive. This will be h
Ist drop
possible if v 2 - 2ad > 0 or v > 2ad .
ground
Example 9.
Two trains, each of length 100 m, are running on parallel
1
tracks. One overtakes the other in 20 second and one For third drop 5 = g (2 t ) 2 or g t 2 = 5 / 2
crosses the other in 10 second. Calculate the velocities of 2
each train. 1 2 1 5 5
Solution : For second drop x = g t or x = ´ = = 1.25 m
2 2 2 4
Let u and v be the velocities of the trains.
Therefore h = 5 – x = 5 – 1.25 = 3.75 m
The relative velocity of overtaking is u – v while the relative
Hence option (c)
velocity of crossing is u + v.
Motion in a Straight Line 41
u=10m/s
u
40m
(iv) For an accelerated motion the slope of time-
displacement curve increases with time while for
v
decelerated motion it decreases with time.
h
Motion in a Straight Line 43
t t
(v) When the particle returns towards the point of
reference then the time-displacement line makes an
angle q > 90° with the time axis.
(v) When the acceleration decreases and increases.
Displ
q > 90º
g
in
V
as
re
ec
ad
t g
asin
(b) Velocity-time graph - In this curve time is plotted along re
x-axis and velocity is plotted along y-axis. a inc
(i) When the velocity of the particle is constant or t
acceleration is zero. (vi) The total area enclosed by the time - velocity curve
represents the distance travelled by a body.
t
(ii) When the particle is moving with a constant
acceleration and its initial velocity is zero.
t
V Retardation (ii) When acceleration is constant
a
a = const
t t
44 PHYSICS
t 40
(v) When initial acceleration is zero and rate of change of 20 8
acceleration is non-uniform t (s) t (s)
10
Train I
–20 Train II
a
(a) 120 m (b) 280 m
(c) 60 m (d) 20 m.
Solution : (d)
t
(vi) The change in velocity of the particle = area enclosed
by the time-acceleration curve.
Initial distance between trains is 300m. Displacement of 1st
train is calculated by area under v – t.
a 1
Curve of train I = displacement = ´ 10 ´ 40 = 200m
2
1
Displacement of train II = ´ 8 ´ (-20) = -80m
2
\ Distance between the two trains is 20m.
t Example 20.
Example 18. Figure given below shows the variation of velocity of a
The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line particle with time.
is shown in fig. Find the displacement and distance Y
travelled by the body in 10 seconds.
u (m/s)
8
20 A
6
velocity
D 4
(m/s)
10
2
0 t (s)
2 4 6 8 10 X
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
–10
Find the following : time(sec)
–20
(i) Displacement during the time intervals
C (a) 0 to 2 sec, (b) 2 to 4 sec. and (c) 4 to 7 sec.
Solution : (ii) Accelerations at –
The area enclosed by velocity-time graph with time axis (a) t = 1 sec, (b) t = 3 sec. and (c) t = 7 sec.
measures the distance travelled in a given time. Displacement (iii) Average acceleration –
covered from 0 to 6 seconds is positive; from 6 to 8 seconds (a) between t = 0 to t = 4 sec.
is negative and from 8 to 10 seconds is positive; whereas (b) between t = 0 to t = 7 sec.
distance covered is always positive. (iv) Average velocity during the motion.
Motion in a Straight Line 45
Solution : RELATIVE VELOCITY (In one dimension)
(i) (a) Displacement between t = 0 sec. to t = 2 sec. The velocity of A relative to B is the velocity with which A appears
1 to be moving w.r.t.an observer who is moving with the velocity of B
Þ ´ 2 sec ´ 8 m / s = 8m Relative velocity of A w.r.t. B
2 r r r
(b) Between t = 2 sec. to t = 4 sec. v AB = vA - vB
Þ 2 sec ´ 8 m / s = 16m Similarly, relative velocity of B w.r.t. A
(c) Between t = 4 sec. to t = 7 sec. r r r
vBA = vB - vA
1 Case 1: Bodies moving in same direction :
Þ ´ 3 sec ´ 8 m / s = 12m
2
(ii) Acceleration = slope of v – t curve vA vB
(a) At t = 1 sec, r r r
v AB = vA - vB Þ vAB = vA – vB
8 m / sec
slope = m / sec = 4 m / s 2
2 sec Case 2: Bodies moving in opposite direction :
(b) At t = 3 sec, slope = 0 – +
vA vB
(c) At t = 7 sec,
8 2 r r r
slope = - = -2 m / s
2 v AB = v A - ( -vB ) Þ vAB = vA + vB
3 3 Example 22.
Total change in velocity Two trains, one travelling at 54kmph and the other at
(iii) Average acceleration = 72kmph, are headed towards each other on a level track.
Total change in time
When they are two kilometers apart, both drivers
(a) Between t = 0 to t = 4 sec.,
simultaneously apply their brakes. If their brakes produces
8m/s equal retardation in both the trains at a rate of 0.15 m/s2,
Average acceleration = = 2m / s 2
4 determine whether there is a collision or not.
(b) Between t = 0 to t = 7 sec., Solution :
0 Speed of first train = 54 kmph = 15m/s.
Average acceleration = = 0 Speed of second train = 72kmph = 20 m/s
7
As both the trains are headed towards each other, relative
Total displacement
(iv) Average velocity = velocity of one train with respect to other is given as
Total time vr=15 + 20 = 35 m/s
8 + 16 + 12 36 1 Both trains are retarded by acceleration of 0.15 m/s2. Relative
= = = 5 m /s retardation ar = 0.15 + 0.15 = 0.3 m/s2.
7 7 7 Now, we assume one train is at rest and other is coming at
Example 21.
The velocity-time graph of a particle moving along a 35m/s retarded by 0.3 m/s2 at a distance of two kilometer.
straight line is shown below. The maximum distance travelled by the moving train while
The acceleration and deceleration are same and it is equal retarding is
to 4 m/s². If the average velocity during the motion is 15 m/ v 2r
s and total time of motion is 20 second then find (35) 2
smax = = = 2041.66m
2a r 2 ´ 0.3
It is more than 2km, which shows that it will hit the second
20 – 2t train.
v
Example 23.
Two cars started simultaneously towards each other from
t towns A and B which are 480 km apart. It took first car
t 20–t 20 travelling from A to B 8 hours to cover the distance and
(a) the value of t (b) the maximum velocity of the particle second car travelling from B to A 12 hours. Determine
during the journey. (c) the distance travelled with uniform when the car meet after starting and at what distance from
velocity. town A. Assuming that both the cars travelled with constant
Solution : v = 0 + at speed.
1
Total displacement = (20 - 2t + 20) ´ 4t = 2t (40 - 2t) 480
2 Solution : Velocity of car from A = = 60 km / hour
Total displacement 8
Average velocity =
Total time 480
2t (40 - 2t) velocity of car from B = = 40 km / hour
15 = 12
20 Let the two cars meet at t hour
Solving quadratic equation, 150 = 40t – 2t2 Þ t = 5 sec.
(another solution not acceptable think why!) total distance 480
\ t= = = 4.8 hour
Maximum velocity = 4t = 4 × 5 = 20 m/s relative velocity of meeting 60 + 40
Distance travelled with uniform velocity The distance s = vA × t = 60 × 4.8 = 288 km.
= (20 – 2t) V = (20 – 2 × 5) × 20 = 200 m
46 PHYSICS
Motion in a Straight Line 47
1. The study of motion, without consideration of its cause is (a) 1/2 (b) 1 / 3
studied in
(a) statistics (b) kinematics (c) 3 (d) 1/3
(c) mechanics (d) modern physics 12. A person travels along a straight road for the first half time
2. The ratio of the numerical values of the average velocity with a velocity v1 and the second half time with a velocity
and average speed of a body is always: v2. Then the mean velocity v is given by
(a) unity (b) unity or less
v1 + v 2 2 1 1
(c) unity or more (d) less than unity (a) v= (b) = +
3. A particle has moved from one position to another position 2 v v1 v 2
(a) its distance is zero
v2
(b) its displacement is zero (c) v= v1 v 2 (d) v=
(c) neither distance nor displacement is zero v1
(d) average velocity is zero 13. A particle covers half of the circle of radius r. Then the
4. The displacement of a body is zero. The distance covered displacement and distance of the particle are respectively
(a) is zero (a) 2pr, 0 (b) 2r, pr
(b) is not zero pr
(c) may or may not be zero (c) , 2r (d) pr, r
2
(d) depends upon the acceleration 14. The distance through which a body falls in the nth second
5. Which of the following changes when a particle is moving is h. The distance through which it falls in the next second is
with uniform velocity? g
(a) Speed (b) Velocity (a) h (b) h +
2
(c) Acceleration (d) Position vector
(c) h – g (d) h + g
6. The slope of the velocity time graph for retarded motion is 15. It is given that t = px2 + qx, where x is displacement and t is
(a) positive (b) negative time. The acceleration of particle at origin is
(c) zero (d) can be +ve, –ve or zero
7. The area of the acceleration-displacement curve of a body 2p 2q 2p 2q
(a) - - 3
(b) (c)
3
(d)
gives q 3 p q p3
(a) impulse 16. Figure shows the v-t graph for two particles P and Q. Which
(b) change in momentum per unit mass of the following statements regarding their relative motion
(c) change in KE per unit mass is true ?
(d) total change in energy Their relative velocity is
8. If the displacement of a particle varies with time as V
x = t + 7 , the P
(a) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t Q
(b) velocity of the particle is proportional to t
(c) velocity of the particle is proportional to t
(d) the particle moves with a constant acceleration
9. The initial velocity of a particle is u (at t = 0) and the
O T
acceleration a is given by f t.
Which of the following relation is valid? (a) is zero
(a) v = u + f t2 (b) v = u + f t2/2 (b) is non-zero but constant
(c) v = u + f t (d) v = u (c) continuously decreases
10. The displacement x of a particle moving along a straight line (d) continuously increases
at time t is given by 17. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is
x = a 0 + a1 t + a 2 t2 h below the top of the well. If v is velocity of sound, the time
What is the acceleration of the particle T after which the splash is heard is given by
(a) a 1 (b) a 2
æ 2h ö h
(c) 2 a2 (d) 3 a2 (a) T = 2h/v (b) T= ç ÷ +
11. The displacement-time graphs of two particles A and B are è g ø v
straight lines making angles of respectively 30º and 60º with
the time axis. If the velocity of A is vA and that of B is vB, the æ 2h ö h æ h ö 2h
(c) T= ç ÷+ (d) T = çç ÷÷ +
value of vA/vB is è v ø g è 2g ø v
48 PHYSICS
1. The position x of a particle varies with time (t) as The initial velocity and acceleration are respectively
x = A t2 – B t3. The acceleration at time t of the particle will be (a) b, – 4 d (b) – b, 2 c
equal to zero. What is the value of t? (c) b, 2 c (d) 2 c, – 4 d
2A A 4. A passenger travels along the straight road for half the
(a) (b)
3B B distance with velocity v1 and the remaining half distance
A with velocity v2. Then average velocity is given by
(c) (d) zero
3B (a) v1 v 2 (b) v2 2/ v1 2
2. The acceleration of a particle, starting from rest, varies with (c) (v1 + v2 )/2 (d) 2v1v2 / (v1 + v2)
time according to the relation 5. A point moves with uniform acceleration and v1, v2 and v3
2
a = -s w sin w t denote the average velocities in t1, t2 and t3 sec. Which of
The displacement of this particle at a time t will be the following relation is correct?
(a) s sin w t (b) s w cos w t (a) ( v 1 - v 2 ) : ( v 2 - v 3 ) = ( t 1 - t 2 ) : ( t 2 + t 3 )
1 (b) ( v 1 - v 2 ) : ( v 2 - v 3 ) = ( t 1 + t 2 ) : ( t 2 + t 3 )
(c) s w sin w t (d) - (s w 2 sin wt ) t 2
2 (c) ( v1 - v 2 ) : ( v 2 - v 3 ) = ( t1 - t 2 ) : ( t1 - t 3 )
3. The displacement of a particle is given by
y = a + b t + c t2 – d t4 (d) ( v1 - v 2 ) : ( v 2 - v 3 ) = ( t 1 - t 2 ) : ( t 2 - t 3 )
Motion in a Straight Line 49
6. A bus starts moving with acceleration 2 m/s2. A cyclist 96 m (b) from rest and moves with uniform acceleration
behind the bus starts simultaneously towards the bus at (c) with an initial velocity and moves with uniform
20 m/s. After what time will he be able to overtake the bus? acceleration
(a) 4 sec (b) 8 sec (d) with an initial velocity and moves with uniform velocity
(c) 12 sec (d) 16 sec 16. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the top of the
7. When the speed of a car is v, the minimum distance over tower reaches the ground with a velocity 3u. The height of
which it can be stopped is s. If the speed becomes n v, what the tower is
will be the minimum distance over which it can be stopped (a) 3u2/g (b) 4u2/g
2
(c) 6u /g (d) 9u2/g
during same retardation
(a) s/n (b) n s 17. A smooth inclined plane is inclined at an angle q with
(c) s/n 2 (d) n2 s horizontal. A body starts from rest and slides down the
8. The two ends of a train moving with constant acceleration inclined surface.
pass a certain point with velocities u and v. The velocity with
which the middle point of the train passes the same point is
(a) (u + v)/2 (b) (u2 + v2)/2
h
(c) (u 2 + vu2 ) / 2 (d) u 2 + v2
9. A particle accelerates from rest at a constant rate for some q
time and attains a velocity of 8 m/sec. Afterwards it Then the time taken by it to reach the bottom is
decelerates with the constant rate and comes to rest. If the
total time taken is 4 sec, the distance travelled is æ 2h ö æ 2l ö
(a) çç ÷÷ (b) çç ÷÷
(a) 32 m (b) 16 m è g ø è g ø
(c) 4 m (d) None of the above
10. The velocity of a particle at an instant is 10 m/s. After 5 sec, 1 2h ( 2h )
the velocity of the particle is 20 m/s. Find the velocity at 3 (c) (d) sin q
sin q g g
seconds before from the instant when velocity of a particle
18. A ball is dropped downwards, after 1 sec another ball is
is 10m/s.
dropped downwards from the same point. What is the
(a) 8 m/s (b) 4 m/s
distance between them after 3 sec?
(c) 6 m/s (d) 7 m/s
(a) 25 m (b) 20 m
11. A particle experiences constant acceleration for 20 seconds (c) 50 m (d) 9.8 m
after starting from rest. If it travels a distance s1 in the first 19. Two trains are each 50 m long moving parallel towards each
10 seconds and distance s2 in the next 10 seconds, then other at speeds 10 m/s and 15 m/s respectively. After what
(a) s2 = s1 (b) s2 = 2 s1 time will they pass each other?
(c) s2 = 3 s1 (d) s2 = 4 s1
12. A train of 150 m length is going towards north direction at a 2
(a) 5 sec (b) 4 sec
speed of 10 ms–1. A parrot flies at a speed of 5 ms–1 towards 3
south direction parallel to the railway track. The time taken (c) 2 sec (d) 6 sec
by the parrot to cross the train is equal to 20. A ball is projected vertically upwards with kinetic energy E.
(a) 12 s (b) 8 s The kinetic energy of the ball at the highest point of its
(c) 15 s (d) 10 s flight will be
13. A particle is moving along a straight line path according to (a) E (b) E / 2
the relation (c) E/2 (d) zero
s2 = at2 + 2bt + c 21. A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity
s represents the distance travelled in t seconds and a, b, c and uniform acceleration a. If the sum of the distance travelled
are constants. Then the acceleration of the particle varies in tth and (t + 1)th seconds is 100 cm, then its velocity after
as t seconds, in cm/s, is
(a) s – 3 (b) s 3/2 (a) 80 (b) 50
(c) s –2/3 (d) s 2 (c) 20 (d) 30
14. A stone thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m/sec 22. Similar balls are thrown vertically each with a velocity
attains a height H1. Another stone thrown upwards from 20 ms–1, one on the surface of earth and the other on the
the same point with a speed of 10 m/sec attains a height H2. surface of moon. What will be ratio of the maximum heights
The correct relation between H1 and H2 is attained by them? (Acceleration on moon = 1.7 ms–2 approx)
(a) H2 = 4H1 (b) H2 = 3H1 1
(c) H1 =2H2 (d) H1 = H2 (a) 6 (b)
6
15. A body covers 26, 28, 30, 32 meters in 10th, 11th, 12th and
13th seconds respectively. The body starts 1
(c) (d) None of these
(a) from rest and moves with uniform velocity 5
50 PHYSICS
23. The relative velocity VAB or VBA of two bodies A & B may 32. A particle travels half the distance with a velocity of 6 m s -1 .
be
(1) greater than velocity of body A The remaining half distance is covered with a velocity of 4
(2) greater than velocity of body B m s -1 for half the time and with a velocity of 8 m s -1 for the
(3) less than the velocity of body A rest of the half time. What is the velocity of the particle
(4) less than the velocity of body B averaged over the whole time of motion ?
(a) (1) and (2) only (b) (3) and (4) only
(a) 9 ms–1 (b) 6 ms–1
(c) (1), (2) and (3) only (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4) –1
24. A stone is thrown vertically upwards. When the particle is (c) 5.35 ms (d) 5 ms–1
at a height half of its maximum height, its speed is 10m/sec, 33. A ball released from a height falls 5 m in one second. In 4
then maximum height attained by particle is (g = 10m/sec2) seconds it falls through
(a) 8 m (b) 10 m (a) 20 m (b) 1.25 m
(c) 15 m (d) 20 m (c) 40 m (d) 80 m
25. From a 10m high building a stone ‘A’ is dropped & 34. A food packet is released from a helicopter rising steadily at
simultaneously another stone ‘B’ is thrown horizontally with the speed of 2 m/sec. After 2 seconds the velocity of the
an initial speed of 5 m/sec–1. Which one of the following packet is
statements is true?
(g = 10 m/sec2)
(a) It is not possible to calculate which one of two stones
(a) 22 m/sec (b) 20 m/sec
will reach ground first
(b) Both stones ‘A’ & ‘B’ will reach the ground (c) 18 m/sec (d) none of these
simultaneously. 35. The displacement x of a particle along a straight line at time
(c) ‘A’ stones reach the ground earlier than ‘B’ a1t a
(d) ‘B’ stones reach the ground earlier than ‘A’ t is given by : x = a0 + + 2 t2. The acceleration of the
2 3
26. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60 km/h, can apply
brake to stop within a distance of 20m. If the car is going particle is
twice as fast i.e., 120 km/h, the stopping distance will be a2 2a 2 a1 a
(a) 60 m (b) 40 m (a) (b) (c) (d) a0 + 2
3 3 2 3
(c) 20 m (d) 80 m
27. The motion of a particle is described by the equation u = at. 36. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 5 metre on a plane
The distance travelled by particle in first 4 sec is where the acceleration due to gravity is same as that onto
(a) 4a (b) 12a the surface of the earth. On bouncing, it rises to a height of
(c) 6a (d) 8a 1.8 m. On bouncing, the ball loses its velocity by a factor of
28. If you were to throw a ball vertically upward with an initial 2 16
3
velocity of 50 m/s, approximately how long would it take for (a) (b) 9 (c) (d)
5 25 5 25
the ball to return to your hand? Assume air resistance is
37. –1
A boy moving with a velocity of 20 km h along a straight
negligible.
(a) 2.5 s (b) 5.0 s line joining two stationary objects. According to him both
(c) 7.5 s (d) 10 s objects
29. A body travels 2 m in the first two second and 2.20 m in the (a) move in the same direction with the same speed of
next 4 second with uniform deceleration. The velocity of the 20 km h–1
body at the end of 9 second is (b) move in different direction with the same speed of
(a) – 10 m s -1 (b) – 0.20 m s -1 20 km h–1
(c) move towards him
(c) – 0.40 m s -1 (d) – 0.80 m s -1
(d) remain stationary
30. From a 200 m high tower, one ball is thrown upwards with
38. A man leaves his house for a cycle ride. He comes back to
speed of 10 m s -1 and another is thrown vertically his house after half-an-hour after covering a distance of
downwards at the same speeds simultaneously. The time one km. What is his average velocity for the ride ?
difference of their reaching the ground will be nearest to (a) zero (b) 2 km h–1
(a) 12 s (b) 6 s
1
(c) 2 s (d) 1 s (c) 10 km s–1 (d) km s -1
31. A rocket is fired upward from the earth’s surface such that it 2
39. A car travels from A to B at a speed of 20 km h–1 and returns
creates an acceleration of 19.6 m s - 2 . If after 5 s, its engine
is switched off, the maximum height of the rocket from earth’s at a speed of 30 km h –1. The average speed of the car for the
surface would be whole journey is
(a) 980 m (b) 735 m (a) 5 km h–1 (b) 24 km h–1
(c) 25 km h –1 (d) 50 km h–1
(c) 490 m (d) 245 m
Motion in a Straight Line 51
40. A body dropped from a height ‘h’ with an initial speed zero, (b) increases
strikes the ground with a velocity 3 km/hour. Another body (c) increases then decreases
of same mass dropped from the same height ‘h’ with an (d) decreases then increases
initial speed u' = 4 km/hour. Find the final velocity of second 48. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t as
mass, with which it strikes the ground x = ae-at + bebt, where a, b, a and b are positive constants.
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr The velocity of the particle will
(c) 5 km/hr (d) 6 km/hr (a) be independent of a and b
41. An electron starting from rest has a velocity that increases (b) drop to zero when a = b
-2
linearly with time i.e. v = kt where k = 2 m s . The distance (c) go on decreasing with time
(d) go on increasing with time
covered in the first 3 second is
49. Which one of the following equations represents the motion
(a) 9 m (b) 16 m
of a body with finite constant acceleration ? In these
(c) 27 m (d) 36 m
equations, y denotes the displacement of the body at time t
42. A body released from the top of a tower falls through half and a, b and c are constants of motion.
the height of the tower in 2 s. In what time shall the body fall
through the height of the tower ? (a) y = at y = at + bt 2
(b)
(a) 4 s (b) 3.26 s a
(c) y = at + bt 2 + ct 3 (d) y = + bt
(c) 3.48 s (d) 2.828 s t
43. The displacement x of a particle at the instant when its 50. The dependence of velocity of a body with time is given by
velocity is v is given by v = 3x + 16 . Its acceleration and the equation v = 20 + 0.1t 2 . The body is in
initial velocity are (a) uniform retardation
(a) 1.5 units, 4 units (b) 3 units, 4 units (b) uniform acceleration
(b) 16 units, 1.6 units (d) 16 units, 3 units (c) non-uniform acceleration
44. Let A, B, C, D be points on a vertical line such that (d) zero acceleration.
AB = BC = CD. If a body is released from position A, the 51. Two stones are thrown from the top of a tower, one straight
times of descent through AB, BC and CD are in the ratio. down with an initial speed u and the second straight up
with the same speed u. When the two stones hit the ground,
(a) 1 : 3 - 2 : 3 + 2 (b) 1 : 2 - 1 : 3 - 2 they will have speeds in the ratio
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 -1 : 3 (d) 1 : 2 : 3 - 1
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1
45. A body moves in a straight line along Y-axis. Its distance y 52. A graph of acceleration versus time of a particle starting
(in metre) from the origin is given by y = 8t – 3t2. The average from rest at t = 0 is as shown in Fig. The speed of the particle
speed in the time interval from t = 0 second to t = 1 second at t = 14 second is
is
(a) – 4 ms–1 (b) zero 4
(c) 5 ms–1 (d) 6 ms–1
46. The acceleration due to gravity on planet A is nine times the 2
12
a (in ms-2 )
S 50
40
d/m
30
R 20
10
q 0
0 10 20 30 t / s
P Q
(a) 1.5 (b) 4
(a) decreases continuously (c) 1 (d) 2
52 PHYSICS
54. Figure shows the position of a particle moving along the 61. For the velocity time graph shown in the figure below the
X-axis as a function of time. distance covered by the body in the last two seconds of its
x (m) motion is what fraction of the total distance travelled by it in
all the seven seconds?
20
10
10 8 B C
6
–1
2 4 6 t(s) ms 4
Which of the following is correct? velocity 2
A D
(a) The particle has come to the rest 6 times 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(b) The maximum speed is at t = 6 s.
(c) The velocity remains positive for t = 0 to t = 6 s. 1 1 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) The average velocity for the total period shown is 2 4 3 3
negative. 62. Which of the following graph cannot possibly represent
55. A steel ball is bouncing up and down on a steel plate with a one dimensional motion of a particle?
period of oscillation of 1 second. If g = 10 ms–2, then it x x
bounces up to a height of
(a) 5 m (b) 10 m
(c) 2.5 m (d) 1.25 m (a) t (b)
56. A body starts from rest and travels a distance x with uniform t
acceleration, then it travels a distance 2x with uniform speed,
finally it travels a distance 3x with uniform retardation and
comes to rest. If the complete motion of the particle is along speed
a straight line, then the ratio of its average velocity to
maximum velocity is
(a) 2/5 (b) 3/5
(c) (d) All of the above
(c) 4/5 (d) 6/7 t
57. When two bodies move uniformly towards each other, the
distance decreases by 6 ms–1. If both bodies move in the
same directions with the same speeds (as above), the 63. The distance time graph of a particle at time t makes angles
distance between them increases by 4 ms–1. Then the speeds 45° with the time axis. After one second, it makes angle 60°
of the two bodies are with the time axis. What is the acceleration of the particle?
(a) 3 ms–1 and 3 ms–1 (b) 4 ms–1 and 2 ms–1
–1 –1 (a) 3 - 1 (b) 3 + 1 (c) 3 (d) 1
(c) 5 ms and 1 ms (d) 7 ms–1 and 3 ms–1
58. A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity ‘u’ from 64. Two particles A and B are connected by a rigid rod AB. The
the balloon descending with velocity v. The ball will pass rod slides along perpendicular rails as shown here. The
by the balloon after time velocity of A to the left is 10 m/s. What is the velocity of B
u+v when angle a = 60°?
(a) u - v (b)
2g 2g B
2(u - v) 2( u + v )
(c) (d)
g g
59. Two bodies begin a free fall from the same height at a time
interval of N s. If vertical separation between the two bodies a A
is 1 after n second from the start of the first body, then n is (a) 9.8 m/s (b) 10 m/s (c) 5.8 m/s (d) 17.3 m/s
equal to
65. A balloon starts rising from the ground with an acceleration
(a) (b)
1 of 1.25 ms–2. After 8 s, a stone is released from the balloon.
nN
gN The stone will (Taking g = 10 m s–2)
(a) begin to move down after being released
1 N 1 N
(c) + (d) - (b) reach the ground in 4 s
gN 2 gN 4
(c) cover a distance of 40 m in reaching the ground
60. A particle starting from rest falls from a certain height.
(d) will have a displacement of 50 m.
Assuming that the acceleration due to gravity remain the
same throughout the motion, its displacements in three 66. A point initially at rest moves along x-axis. Its acceleration
successive half second intervals are S1, S2 and S3 then varies with time as a = (6t + 5)m / s 2 . If it starts from origin,
(a) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 5 : 9 (b) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5 the distance covered in 2 s is
(c) S1 : S2 : S3 = 9 : 2 : 3 (d) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 1 : 1 (a) 20 m (b) 18 m (c) 16 m (d) 25 m
Motion in a Straight Line 53
67. The relation between time t and distance x is t = ax 2 + b x 76. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h 1, h2
where a and b are constants. The retardation is and h 3 in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next
5 seconds respectively. The relation between h 1, h2 and h3
(a) 2av3 (b) 2b v3 (c) 2ab v 3 (d) 2b 2 v3 is
68. A stone is just released from the window of a train moving h h
along a horizontal straight track. The stone will hit the ground (a) h1 = 2 = 3 (b) h2 = 3h 1 and h3 = 3h2
3 5
following a (c) h1 = h2 = h3 (d) h1 = 2h 2 = 3h 3
(a) straight line path (b) circular path 77. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h meters.
(c) parabolic path (d) hyperbolic path It takes T seconds to reach the ground. What is the position
69. A parachutist after bailing out falls 50 m without friction. T
When parachute opens, it decelerates at 2 m/s2 . He reaches of the ball at second
3
the ground with a speed of 3 m/s. At what height, did he bail
out ? 8h
(a) meters from the ground
(a) 182 m (b) 91 m 9
(c) 111 m (d) 293 m 7h
(b) meters from the ground
70. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a for some time 9
after which it decelerates at a constant rate b to come to h
rest. If the total time elapsed is t, the maximum velocity (c) meters from the ground
9
acquired by the car is given by
17 h
(d) meters from the ground
18
æ a2 + b2 ö æ a2 - b2 ö 78. The motion of particle is described by the equation x = a +
ç ÷t ç ÷
(a) ç ab ÷ (b) ç a b ÷ t bt2, where a = 15 cm and b = 3 cm/sec2. Its instant velocity at
è ø è ø time 3 sec will be
(a) 36 cm/sec (b) 9 cm/sec
æ a +b ö æ ab ö
çç ÷÷ t çç ÷÷ t (c) 4.5 cm/sec (d) 18 cm/sec
(c) (d)
è ab ø è a +b ø 79. Which one of the following equation represents the motion
71. A car moving with a speed of 40 km/hour can be stopped by of a body moving with constant finite acceleration? In these
applying brakes after at least 2m. If the same car is moving equation, y denotes the displacement in time t and p, q and
with a speed of 80km/hour, what is the minimum stopping r are constant:
distance. (a) y = (p + qt )(t + pt)
(a) 8 m (b) 6 m (b) y = p + t/r
(c) 4 m (d) 2 m (c) y = (p + t) (q + t ) (r + t)
72. A man throws balls with same speed vertically upwards one (p + qt)
(d) y =
after the other at an interval of 2 sec. What should be the rt
speed of throw so that more than two balls are in air at any 80. A ball is thrown up with velocity 19.6 m/s. The maximum
time height attained by the ball is
(a) only with speed 19.6 m/s (a) 29.2 m (b) 9.8 m
(b) more than 19.6 m/s (c) 19.6 m (d) 15.8 m
(c) at least 9.8 m/s 81. A train A which is 120 m long is running with velocity 20 m/
(d) any speed less then 19.6 m/s. s while train B which is 130 m long is running in opposite
73. A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting direction with velocity 30 m/s. What is the time taken by
from rest. After 6 seconds another ball is thrown downwards train B to cross the train A ?
from the same platform with a speed v. The two balls meet at (a) 5 sec (b) 25 sec
t = 18s. What is the value of v? (c) 10 sec (d) 100 sec
(take g = 10 m/s2) 82. A car travelling at a speed of 30 km h–1 is brought to a halt in
(a) 75 m/s (b) 55 m/s 8 m by applying brakes. If the same car is travelling at 60 km
(c) 40 m/s (d) 60 m/s h–1, it can be brought to a halt with the same braking power
74. A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation in
x = (t + 5)–1. The acceleration of particle is proportional to (a) 32 m (b) 24 m
(c) 16 m (d) 8 cm
(a) (velocity) 3/2 (b) (distance)2 83. Velocity time curve for a body projected vertically upwards
(c) (distance)–2 (d) (velocity)2/3 is
r r (a) parabola (b) ellipse
75. A particle has initial velocity (2i + 3 j ) and acceleration
r r (c) hyperbola (d) straight line
(0.3i + 0.2 j ) . The magnitude of velocity after 10 seconds 84. A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both
will be with same speed. The observed direction of car to the
(a) 9 2 units (b) 5 2 units passenger in the train is
(a) east-north direction (b) west-north direction
(c) 5 units (d) 9 units
(c) south-east direction (d) None of the above
54 PHYSICS
85. A metro train starts from rest and in 5 s achieves 108 km/h. 94. The displacement time graph of a moving particle is shown
After that it moves with constant velocity and comes to rest below
after travelling 45 m with uniform retardation. If total distance S
travelled is 395 m, find total time of travelling.
DISPLACEMENT
(a) 12.2 s (b) 15.3 s
D
(c) 9 s (d) 17.2 s
86. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in C E F
second) the distance x (in metre) of the particle from O is
given by x = 40 + 12t – t3. How long would the particle travel Time
The instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at the
before coming to rest?
point
(a) 24 m (b) 40 m
(a) D (b) F
(c) 56 m (d) 16 m
(c) C (d) E
87. The displacement of particle is given by
95. A particle moves along a straight line such that its
a t a t2 displacement at any time t is given by
x = a0 + 1 - 2 . What is its acceleration?
2 3 s = (t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4) metres
2a2 2a The velocity when the acceleration is zero is
(a) (b) - 2 (a) 3 ms–1 (b) – 12 ms –1
3 3
(c) a 2 (d) zero (c) 42 ms–2 (d) – 9 ms–1
96. A body starts from rest, what is the ratio of the distance
88. Figure here gives the speed-time graph for a body. The
travelled by the body during the 4th and 3rd seconds ?
displacement travelled between t = 1.0 second and t = 7.0
second is nearest to 7 5
(a) (b)
5 7
4 7 3
8 (c) (d)
v (in ms -1 )
0 6 3 7
2 4 t
( in sec .) 97. Which of the following curve does not represent motion in
-4 one dimension?
v v
(a) 1.5 m (b) 2 m
(c) 3 m (d) 4 m
89. A boat takes 2 hours to travel 8 km and back in still water (a) (b)
lake. With water velocity of 4 km h –1, the time taken for t t
going upstream of 8 km and coming back is v
v
(a) 160 minutes (b) 80 minutes
(c) 100 minutes (d) 120 minutes
90. A lift in which a man is standing, is moving upwards with a (c) (d)
speed of 10 ms–1. The man drops a coin from a height of 4.9 t t
metre and if g = 9.8 ms–2, then the coin reaches the floor of
the lift after a time DIRECTIONS for Qs. (98 to 100) : Each question contains
STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
(a) 2 s (b) 1 s (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following.
1 1 (a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(c) (d)
2 2 (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
correct explanation for Statement-1
91. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
40m/s, then velocity of the ball after two seconds is :
a correct explanation for Statement-1
(g = 10 m/sec2) (d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(a) 15 m/s (b) 20 m/s 98. Statement 1 : Velocity-time graph for an object in
(c) 25 m/s (d) 28 m/s
uniform motion along a straight path is a straight
92. If a car at rest accelerates uniformly to a speed of 144 km/h line parallel to the time axis.
in 20 sec., it covers a distance of Statement 2 : In uniform motion of an object velocity
(a) 20 cm (b) 400 m
increases as the square of time elapsed.
(c) 1440 cm (d) 2980 cm 99. Statement 1 : A positive acceleration can be associated with
93. The water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap 5 m above a ‘slowing down’ of the body.
the ground. The third drop is leaving the tap at an instant
Statement 2 : The origin and the positive direction of an
when the first drop touches the ground. How far above the axis are a matter of choice.
ground is the second drop at that instant ? 100. Statement 1 :In a free fall, weight of a body becomes
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
effectively zero.
(a) 1.25 m (b) 2.50 m Statement 2 : Acceleration due to gravity acting on a body
(c) 3.75 m (d) 5.00 m having free fall is zero.
Motion in a Straight Line 55
(c) The acceleration is always a non-negative number (c) –2nb2 e–4n+1 (d) –2nb2x–2n–1
(d) The motion has no turning points 10. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt 2, where A and B are
4. A vehicle travels half the distance l with speed v1 and the constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1s and
other half with speed v2, then its average speed is 2s is : [2016]
3
v1 + v2 2v1 + v2 (a) A + 4B (b) 3A + 7B
(a) (b) 2
2 v1 + v2
3 7 A B
(c) A+ B (d) +
2v1v2 L(v1 + v2 ) 2 3 2 3
(c) (d)
v1 + v2 v1v2 11. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator
was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in
5. The displacement of a particle is given by x = (t – 2)2 where
time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the
x is in metre and t in second. The distance covered by the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time t2.
particle in first 4 seconds is The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator
(a) 4 m (b) 8 m will be: [2017]
(c) 12 m (d) 16 m t1t 2 t1t 2
6. At a metro station, a girl walks up a stationary escalator in (a) (b)
t 2 - t1 t 2 + t1
time t1. If she remains stationary on the escalator, then the
escalator take her up in time t2. The time taken by her to t1 + t 2
(c) t1 – t2 (d)
walk up on the moving escalator will be 2
56 PHYSICS
1 EXERCISE -2
At t = 0, v = v0 \ - =c
2v2o
1. (c) Given that x = A t2 – B t3
Putting in (1)
dx
1 1 1 1 \ velocity = = 2 A t - 3B t 2
- = - kt - or - = - kt dt
2v2 2v02 2v20 2v2
d æ dx ö
and acceleration = ç ÷ = 2 A - 6 Bt
dt è dt ø
é 1 ù
[ ]
1 2
or ê + kt ú = or 1 + 2v 02 kt = v 0 For acceleration to be zero 2A – 6Bt = 0.
êë 2 v 02 úû 2 v 2 v2 2A A
\ t= =
6 B 3B
v 20 v0
or v 2 = or v = d 2x
1 + 2 v 20 kt 1 + 2v 02 kt 2. (a) a= = -s w2 sin wt
2
dt
1 w
a - b´ a a 1 On integrating, dx = s w 2 cos t = s w cos w t
21. (d) x= (1 - e b )= (1 - e -1 ) = (1 - ) dt w
b b b e
Again on integrating, we get
a (e - 1) a ( 2 .718 - 1) a (1 .718 ) a 2
= = = = 0 .637 ~
- a/b sin w t
b e b 2 .718 b 2 .718 b 3 x = sw = s sin w t
w
dx
velocity v = = ae - bt , v0 = a 3. (c) v=
dy
= b + 2 c t - 4 d t3
dt dt
dv v0 = b + 2c(0) - 4d (0)3 = b
accleration a = = - abe - bt & a 0 = - ab
dt
(Q for initial velocity, t = 0)
a dv
At t = 0, x = (1 - 1) = 0 and Now a = = 2 c - 12 d t 2
b dt
1 a a 1 2 \ a 0 = 2c - 12d (0) 2 = 2c , (at t = 0)
At t = , x = (1 - e -1 ) = (1 - ) = a / b
b b b e 3
a x x
At t = ¥, x = +
b 2 2 = 1 2 v1 v2
4. (d) =
a x x æ v 2 + v1 ö v1 + v2
It cannot go beyond this, so point x > is not reached +
b 2 v1 2 v 2 çè 2 v1 v 2 ÷ø
by the particle.
a 5. (b) Let u be the initial velocity
At t = 0, x = 0, at t = ¥, x = , therefore the particle
b \ v1¢ = u + a t1, v2¢ = u + a (t1 + t 2 )
does not come back to its starting point at t = ¥ .
and v3¢ = u + a (t1 + t 2 + t 3 )
22. (c) x = t 2 + 2t + 1
dx u + v1¢ u + (u + a t1 ) 1
Now v1 = = = u + a t1
Hence v = = 2t + 2 . It increases with time. 2 2 2
dt
v ¢ + v2¢ 1
23. (b) When a body falls through a height h, it acquires a v2 = 1 = u + a t1 + a t 2
2 2
velocity 2gh . v2¢ + v3¢ 1
v3 = = u + a t1 + a t 2 + a t 3
24. (c) Initial relative velocity vA – vB, is reduced to 0 in 2 2
distance d¢ (<d) with retardation a. 1
So, v1 - v 2 = - a (t1 + t 2 )
\ 0 2 - ( v A - v B ) 2 = -2 ad ¢ 2
1
(v - v B ) 2 (v - v B ) 2 and v 2 - v3 = - a (t 2 + t 3 )
d¢ = A \ d> A 2
2a 2a
\ (v1 - v 2 ) :(v 2 - v3 ) = (t1 + t 2 ) : (t 2 + t 3 )
25. (d)
58 PHYSICS
6. (b) Let after a time t, the cyclist overtake the bus. Then 12. (d) So by figure the velocity of parrot
1 w.r. t. train is = 5–(–10) = 15m/sec
96 + ´ 2 ´ t 2 = 20 ´ t or t2 – 20 t + 96 = 0 so time taken to cross the train is
2
length of train 150
20 ± 400 - 4 ´ 96 = = = 10 sec
\t = relative velocity 15
2 ´1
20 ± 4 North
= = 8 sec . and 12 sec .
2
7. (d) v2 = u2 + 2 a s or v2 – u2 = 2 a s train
Maximum retardation, a = v2/2 s 10m/sec
West East
When the initial velocity is n v, then the distance over parrot
which it can be stopped is given by 5m/sec
u 2 (n v) 2
sn = 0 = = n2 s South
2 a 2 (v 2 / 2s)
8. (c) Let the length of train is s, then by third equation of ds
13. (a) s2 = at2 + 2bt + c \ 2 s = 2 at + 2 b
motion, v 2 = u 2 + 2a ´ s ....(1) dt
Where v is final velocity after travelling a distance s
ds at + b
with an acceleration a & u is initial velocity as per or = , again differentiating
question dt s
æ at + b ö
Let velocity of middle point of train at same point is v', as - (at + b ) ç ÷
d 2 s a . s - ( at + b ) ds è s ø
then = . =
dt 2 s2 dt s2
( v¢) 2 = u 2 + 2a ´ (s / 2) ....(2) 2 2
d s as - ( at + b ) 2
\ 2 =
dt s3
v2 + u2
By equations (1) and (2), we get v¢ =
2 d 2s
9. (b) 8 = a t1 and 0 = 8 – a (4 – t1) \a = 2
¥ s -3 .
dt
8 æ 8ö
or t 1 = \ 8 = a ç4 - ÷ 14. (a) From third equation of motion v 2 = u 2 + 2ah
a è aø
8 = 4 a – 8 or a = 4 and t1 = 8/4 = 2 sec In first case initial velocity u1 = 5 m/sec
final velocity v1 = 0, a = – g
1
Now, s1 = 0 ´ 2 + ´ 4 ( 2) 2 or s1 = 8 m 25
2 and max. height obtained is H1, then, H1 =
1 2g
s2 = 8 ´ 2 - ´ 4 ´ ( 2) 2 or s 2 = 8 m
2 In second case u2 = 10 m/sec, v2 = 0, a = –g
\ s1 + s 2 = 16 m
100
10. (b) u = 10 m/s, t = 5 sec, v = 20 m/s, a = ? and max. height is H2 then, H 2 = .
2g
20 - 10
a= = 2 ms -2 It implies that H2 = 4H1
5
15. (c) The distance covered in n th second is
From the formula v1 = u1 + a t, we have
1
10 = u1 + 2 × 3 or u1 = 4 m/sec. S n = u + ( 2 n - 1)a
11. (c) Let a be the constant acceleration of the particle. Then 2
where u is initial velocity & a is acceleration
1 1
s = u t + a t 2 or s1 = 0 + ´ a ´ (10 ) 2 = 50 a 19 a
2 2 then 26 = u + ....(1)
2
é 1 2ù
and s 2 = ê0 + a(20) ú - 50a = 150a 21a
ë 2 û 28 = u + ....(2)
2
\ s 2 = 3s1
Alternatively : 23 a
30 = u + ....(3)
Let a be constant acceleration and 2
1 1 25 a
s = ut + at 2 , then s1 = 0 + ´ a ´ 100 = 50a 32 = u + ....(4)
2 2 2
Velocity after 10 sec. is v = 0 + 10a From eqs. (1) and (2) we get u = 7m/sec, a=2m/sec2
1 \ The body starts with initial velocity u =7m/sec
So, s 2 = 10a ´ 10 + a ´ 100 = 150a Þ s 2 = 3s1
2 and moves with uniform acceleration a = 2m/sec2
Motion in a Straight Line 59
16. (b) The stone rises up till its vertical velocity is zero and 400
again reached the top of the tower with a speed u So s1 = = 20 m
2 ´ 10
(downward). The speed of the stone at the base is 3u.
For second case (at moon) u2 =20m/sec, v2=0,
u
g
– a2 = = 1 . 7 m / sec 2 , s 2 = ?
6
400 400 s1 1
+ s2 = = so =
2 ´ 1 .7 2 ´ 10 / 6 s2 6
v, g, h 23. (d) All options are correct :
(i) When two bodies A & B move in opposite
4u 2 directions then relative velocity between A & B
Hence (3u)2 = (-u)2 + 2gh or h = either VAB or VBA both are greater than VA & VB.
g
(ii) When two bodies A & B move in parallel direction
1 2
17. (c) So by second equation of motion, we get S = ut + at then VAB = VA - VB Þ VAB < VA
2
here S = l, u = 0, a = g sinq VBA = VB - VA Þ VBA < VB
2l 2h 1 2h æ 24. (b) From third equation of motion
hö
t= = = Q sin q = ÷ v2 = u2 – 2gh (Q a = -g)
a g sin 2 q sin q g çè lø
Given, v = 10 m/sec at h/2. But v = 0, when particle
attained maximum height h.
q Therefore (10)2 = u2 – 2gh/2
sin or 100 = 2gh –2gh/2 (Q 0 = u2 – 2gh)
g
g cosq
h Þ h = 10 m
g 25. (b) Since in both case the height of building and down
q ward acceleration ‘g’ is same. So both stones reach
1 2 1 2
18. (a) S = ut + ½at2 here a = g simultaneously i.e., S = gt Þ 10 = 10 ´ t
2 2
For first body u1 =0 Þ S1=½g × 9
For second body u2=0 Þ S2= ½g × 4 or t = 2 sec, for both stone.
So difference between them after 3 sec. = S1 – S2 5 50
26. (d) Speed v1 = 60 ´ m/s = m/s
= ½ g×5 18 3
If g = 10m/sec2 then S1–S2 = 25 m. 5 100
19. (b) Relative speed of each train with respect to each other d 1 = 20m, v'1 = 120 ´ = m/s
18 3
be, n = 10 + 15 = 25 m/s Let dceleration be a
Here distance covered by each train = sum of their
lengths = 50 + 50 = 100 m \ 0 = v12 - 2ad1 ....(1)
Þ u = 3528 = 5.94 t1 : t 2 : t 3 : : 1 : ( 2 - 1 ) : ( 3 - 2 )
Motion in a Straight Line 61
(8 ´ 1 - 3 ´ 1 ´ 1) - 0 x + 2 x + 3x
45. (c) v= = 5ms -1 56. (b) v av =
1 t1 + t 2 + t 3
46. (c) Since the initial velocity of jump is same on both planets
So 0 = u2– 2gAhA 2x 2x 6x
t1 = , t2 = , t3 =
0 = u2–2gBhB vmax vmax vmax
or g A ´ h A = h B Þ h B = 9 ´ 2 = 18m 6x v max
gB 1 v av =
10x
47. (d) S
vav 3
R =
q o sq vmax 5
in c
gs mg
m 57. (c) Let v A and vB are the velocities of two bodies.
mg
q In first case, v A + vB = 6m/s ........(1)
P Q In second case, v A – vB = 4m/s .........(2)
Let distance (PR) is covered by the particle in time ‘t’.
From (1) & (2) we get, v A = 5 m/s and vB =1 m/s.
1 1
Þ PR = 0 + g sin q . t 2 = gt 2 sin q r
2 2 58. (d) v BB = Relative velocity of ball w.r.t. balloon = u + v
PQ
Further PR = (Given PQ = constant) u+v
cos q 0 = -(u + v) + gt of t =
g
1 2 1
Þ PQ = gt sin q cos q = gt 2 sin 2q 2( u + v)
Total time =
2 4
g
PQ 1 1 2 1
Þ t=2 \ tµ
59. (c) y1 = gn , y 2 = g ( n - N ) 2
g sin 2q 2 2
sin 2q
1
So as q increases, sin 2q first increases and then \ y1 - y 2 = g[n 2 - (n - N) 2 ]
decreases. Hence ‘t’ first decreases and then increases. 2
48. (d) Given x = ae–at + bebt Þ 1=
g
(2n - N)N [Q y1 - y 2 = 1]
dx aa 2
bt
Velocity, v = = –aae–at + bbebt = - at + bbe 1 N
dt e Þ n= +
i.e., go on increasing with time. gN 2
49. (b) y µ t 2 ; v- µ t'; a µ t° 1 æ 1 ö2 1
60. (b) S1 = g ç ÷ , S1 + S2 = g(1)2
50. (c) On differentiating, acceleration = 0.2t Þ a = f ( t ) 2 è2ø 2
2
51. (d) Use v2 – u2 = 2aS. In both the cases, (u positive or 1 æ3ö
negative) u2 is positive. g ç ÷ = S1 + S2 + S3
2 è2ø
52. (b) Area under a-t graph is change in velocity. By solving we get
1 1 1 S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5
Area = (4 ´ 4) + 6 ´ 4 + ´ 2 ´ 4 - ´ 2 ´ 2 61. (b) Distance in last two second
2 2 2
1
= × 10 × 2 = 10 m.
= 36 - 2 = 34 ms-1 2
1
As initial velocity is zero therefore, the velocity at 14 Total distance = × 10 × (6 + 2) = 40 m.
2
second is 34 m s -1 . 62. (d) In (a), at the same time particle has two positions which
53. (c) At t = 20s, d = 20 m is not possible. In (b), particle has two velocities at the
same time. In (c), speed is negative which is not
54. (a) At six points in the graph the tangents have zero slope
possible.
i.e. velocity is zero. 63. (a) Velocity at time t is tan 45° = 1. Velocity at time (t = 1) is
1 tan 60° = 3 . Acceleration is change in velocity in
55. (d) Time fall is second.
2 one second = 3 - 1 .
2 64. (c) Here, the particle B moves upwards. Let the upward
1 æ 1ö 10 v
h = g ç ÷ = = 1.25 m velocity of B be v then = tan 60°
2 è 2ø 8 10
62 PHYSICS
v -u2 2
3 - 9802 1 dx = -1
S= = » 243 m 74. (a) x= \ v=
2´ 2 4 t +5 dt (t + 5) 2
Initially he has fallen 50 m.
d2x 2
\ Total height from where he bailed out \ a= = = 2x3
= 243 + 50 = 293 m dt 2 (t + 5)3
70. (d) As per question, 1 3
1 1
Let max. velocity is v Now µ v2 \ µ v2 µ a
then v = a t1 & v – b t2 = 0, where t = t1 + t2 (t + 5) (t + 5)3
Motion in a Straight Line 63
r r r Total distance to be covered by train B
75. (b) v = u + at
= LA + LB= (120 + 130) m
v = (2iˆ + 3 ˆj) + (0.3iˆ + 0.2 ˆj) ´ 10 = 5iˆ + 5 ˆj = 250 m
r r Hence, time required by train B to cross train A
| v | = 52 + 52 ; | v | = 5 2
250
1 2 t = sec = 5sec
76. (a) Q h = gt 50
2
v 2 - u 2 0 - (25 / 3) 2
1 82. (a) Retardation, a = =
\ h1 = g(5)2 = 125 2s 2 ´8
2
2
æ 25 ö 1
1
g(10)2 = 500 a = -ç ÷ ´
h1 + h2 =
2 è 3ø 16
Þ h2 = 375 50 –1
1 For u = 60 km h–1 = ms
3
h1 + h2 + h3 = g(15)2 = 1125
2
Þ h3 = 625 0 - (50 / 3) 2
s= = 32 m
h2 = 3h1 , h3 = 5h 1 2 ´ [-(25 / 3) 2 ´1/16]
h2 h3 83. (d) Velocity time curve will be a straight line as shown:
or h1 = =
3 5
v
1 2
77. (a) h = gT
2
now for t = T/3 second vertical distance moved is given by
2 o
1 æ Tö 2 t
h¢ = g ç ÷ Þ h¢ = 1 ´ gT = h
2 è 3ø 2 9 9 At the highest point v = 0.
84. (b) Let O be the origin, then
h 8h
\ position of ball from ground = h - = N
9 9 N
Q
78. (d) x = a + bt2 = 15 + 3t2
dx Car W E
v= = 3 × 2t = 6t
dt
Þ v t = 3s = 6 × 3 = 18cm/s O E
S
79. (a) Motion with constant acceleration is represented by a Train P
quadratic equation of t passenger in the train at P observes the car at Q along
Y = (p + qt) (r + pt) = pr + qrt + p2t + pqt2 the direction PQ; i.e. west north direction.
80. (c) Let the maximum height attained by the ball be h. 85. (d) Given : u = 0, t = 5 sec, v = 108 km/hr = 30m/s
At maximum height , velocity of ball, v = 0 By eqn of motion
Given, initial velocity, u = 19.6 m/s v = u + at
Using the equation of motion, v 30
or a= = = 6 m / s 2 [Q u = 0]
v2 = u2 + 2gh t 5
We get 0 = (19.6)2 + 2 (– 9.8) × h 1
S 1 = at 2
(19.6)2 2
Þ h = 1
2 ´ 9.8 = ´ 6 ´ 52 = 75 m
= 19.6 m 2
Distance travelled in first 5 sec is 75m.
81. (a) Here, length of train A, LA = 120 m
Distance travelled with uniform speed of 30 m/s is S2
length of train B, LB = 130 m
395 = S1 + S2 + S3
velocity of train A, vA = 20 m/s
395 = 75 + S2 + 45
velocity of train B, vB = 30 m/s
\ S2 = 395 – 120 = 275 m
Train B is running in opposite direction to train B,
\ velocity of train B relative to train A, Time take n to travel 275 m =
275
= 9.2 sec
vBA = vB + vA 30
= (30 + 20) m/s For retarding motion, we have
= 50 m/s 02 – 302 = 2 (– a) × 45
64 PHYSICS
2. (a) As the lift is moving downward directions so 5. (b) As given that, x = (t – 2)2
displacement is negative (zero). We have to see whether
dx d
the motion is accelerating or retarding. Now, velocity v = = (t - 2) 2
Due to downward motion displacement is negative the dt dt
lift reaches 4th floor is about to stop hence, motion is = 2 (t – 2) m/s
retarding (–a) downward in nature hence, x < 0; a > 0.
dv d
Acceleration, a = = [2(t - 2)]
dt dt
8th floor
= 2 [1 – 0] = 2 m/s2 = 2 ms–2
x<0 at t = 0; v0 = 2 (0 – 2) = –4 m/s
6th floor
t = 2 s; v2 = 2 (2 – 2) = 0 m/s
4th floor t = 4 s; v4 = 2 (4 – 2) = 4 m/s
x<0 O
Ground floor V
As displacement is in negative direction,
4 m/s B
x < 0 velocity will also be negative i.e., v < 0 but net
acceleration is +ve a > 0, that can be shown in the O A D
t
graph. 2 4 (Time)
3. (b) In one dimensional motion, for the maximum and –4 m/s C
minimum displacement we must have the magnitude
and direction of maximum velocity.
v-t graph is shown in diagram.
As maximum velocity in positive direction is v0, hence Distance travelled
maximum velocity in opposite direction is also –v0.
= area between time axis of the graph
Maximum displacement in one direction = v0T
= area OAC + are ABD
Maximum displacement in opposite directions = –v0T.
Hence, -v0T < x < v0T 1 1
= OA ´ OC + AD ´ BD
2 2
4. (c) Time taken to travel first half distance,
l/2 l 4´ 2 1
t1 = = = + ´ 2´ 4 = 8 m
(Q L1 = l / 2) 2 2
v1 2v1
If displacement occurs
Time taken to travel second half distance,
1 1
l = ´ OA ´ OC + ´ AD ´ BD
t2 = (Q L2 = l / 2) 2 2
2v2
So, total time taken to travel full distance 1 1
= ´ 2(-4) + ´ 2 ´ 4 = 0
= t1 + t2 2 2
6. (c) Let us consider, displacement is L, then
l l l é1 1 ù
= + = ê + ú velocity of girl with respect to ground,
2v1 2v2 2 ë v1 v2 û
L
vg =
l é v2 + v1 ù t1
Total time = 2 ê v v ú
ë 1 2 û Velocity of escalator with respect to ground,
So, average speed, L
ve =
Total distance t2
vav. = =
Total time Net velocity of the girl on moving escalator with respect
to ground
l 2v1v2
Þ vav. = =
l é1 1 ù v1 + v2 L L
= v g + ve = +
ê + ú t1 t2
2 ë v1 v2 û
2v1v2 ét + t ù
\ vav. = Þ vge = L ê 1 2 ú
v1 + v2 ë t1t2 û
66 PHYSICS
ò ò ( At + Bt ) dt
1 2
Þ dx =
\ h1 = g(5)2 = 125
2 0 1
1 Distance travelled by the particle between 1s and 2s
h1 + h2 = g(10)2 = 500
2
A ( 2 2 ) B ( 3 3 ) 3A 7B
Þ h2 = 375 x= 2 -1 + 2 -1 = +
2 3 2 3
1
h1 + h2 + h3 = g(15)2 = 1125
2 d
11. (b) Velocity of preeti w.r.t. elevator v1=
Þ h3 = 625 t1
h2 = 3h1 , h3 = 5h 1 d
h2 h3 Velocity of elevator w.r.t. ground v 2 = then
t2
or h1 = =
3 5 velocity of preeti w.r.t. ground
x +3 v = v1 + v2
8. (c) Q t =
d d d
Þ x = t – 3 Þ x = (t – 3)2 = +
t t1 t 2
dx
v= = 2(t – 3) = 0
dt 1 1 1
= +
Þ t=3 t t1 t 2
\ x = (3 – 3)2
Þ x = 0. t1t 2
\ t= (time taken by preeti to walk up on
9. (a) According to question, (t1 + t 2 )
V (x) = bx–2n the moving escalator)
Motion in a
4 Plane
SCALARS AND VECTORS (v) Unit vector : Vector which has unit magnitude. It represents
Scalars : The physical quantities which have only magnitude r
direction only. For example take a vector B . Unit vector in
but no direction, are called scalar quantities.
For example - distance, speed, work, temperature, mass, etc. r B
· Scalars are added, subtracted, multiplied and divided by the direction of B is , which is denoted as B̂ . B̂ , is
|B |
ordinary laws of algebra. read as “B cap” or "B caret".
Vectors: For any quantity to be a vector, (vi) Orthogonal unit vector : A set of unit vectors, having the
(i) it must have magnitude.
directions of the positive x, y and z axes of three dimensional
(ii) it must have direction.
(iii) it must satisfy parallelogram law of vector addition. rectangular coordinate system are denoted by ˆi, ˆj and kˆ .
For example – displacement, velocity, force, etc. They are called orthogonal unit vectors because angle
Electric current has magnitude as well as direction but between any of the two unit vectors is 90º.
still it is not treated as a vector quantity because it is added by Z
ordinary law of algebra.
k̂
Types of Vectors
(i) Like vectors : Vectors having same direction are called like
vectors. The magnitude may or may not be equal. ˆj
o Y
A î
B
r r
A and B are like vectors. These are also called parallel X
vectors or collinear vectors.
The coordinate system which has shown in fig. is called
(ii) Equal vectors : Vectors having same magnitude and same
direction are called equal vectors. right handed coordinate system. Such a system derives its
name from the fact that right threaded screw rotated through
A 90º from OX to OY will advance in positive Z direction as
B shown in the figure.
r r r r
Here A and B are equal vectors A = B (vii) Null vector (zero vector) : A vector of zero magnitude is
Thus, equal vector is a special case of like vector. called a zero or null vector. Its direction is not defined. It is
(iii) Unlike vectors : Vectors having exactly opposite directions denoted by 0.
are called unlike vectors. The magnitude may or may not be Properties of Null or Zero Vector :
equal. ur
(a) The sum of a finite vector A and the zero vector is
A
B equal to the finite vector
r r ur ur
A and B are unlike vectors. i.e., A + 0 = A
(iv) Negative vectors : Vectors having exactly opposite direction (b) The multiplication of a zero vector by a finite number n
and equal magnitudes are called negative vectors. is equal to the zero vector
i.e., 0 n = 0
A ur
(c) The multiplication of a finite A by a zero is equal to
B zero vector
r r r r ur
Here A and B are negative vectors, A = -B i.e., A 0 = 0
Thus negative vectors is a special case of unlike vectors.
68 PHYSICS
A D
th
Rmin = A 2 + B2 - 2AB = A - B
of
isp
ve lace
pa
c mto
r ent
cl
e
B i.e., q = 90 o , R = A 2 + B2
rB Parallelogram Law of Vector Addition
O X
It states that if two vectors are represented in magnitude and
uur uuur
rA = OA = x1 ˆi + y1 ˆj + z1 kˆ direction by the two adjacent sides of a parallelogram then their
uur uuur resultant is represented in magnitude and direction by the
rB = OB = x 2 ˆi + y2 ˆj + z 2 kˆ . diagonal of the parallelogram.
ur ur
The displacement vector is Let the two vectors A and B , inclined at angle q are represented
uuur uuur
AB = OB - OA . by sides OP and OS of parallelogram OPQS, then resultant vector
ur uuur
= (x 2 - x 2 )iˆ + (y 2 - y1 )ˆj + (z 2 - z1 )kˆ R is represented by diagonal OQ of the parallelogram.
Laws of Vector Algebra S Q
r r r r
1. A + B = B + A (Commutative law of addition)
r r r r r r
2. A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C (Associative law of addition) R
r r B
3. mA = Am q
r r b
4. m(nA) = (mn)A O
P
r r r A
5. (m + n)A = mA + nA B sin q
r r r r R = A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos q ; tan b =
6. m(A + B) = mA + mB A + B cos q
ur ur ur ur
ADDITION OF VECTORS If q < 90° , (acute angle) R = A + B , R is called main
(major) diagonal of parallelogram
Triangle Law of Vector Addition ur ur ur ur
It states that if two vectors acting on a particle at the same time If q > 90° , (obtuse angle) R = A + B , R is called minor
diagonal.
are represented in magnitude and direction by the two sides of a
triangle taken in one order, their resultant vector is represented Polygon Law of Vector Addition
in magnitude and direction by the third side of the triangle taken If a number of non zero vectors are represented by the (n–1)
in opposite order. sides of an n-sided polygon then the resultant is given by the
closing side or the nth side of the polygon taken in opposite
Q
order. D D C
C
E
R B B
E
q
b R B
O A P N O A
A
ur ur ur ur ur ur
ur So, R = A + B + C + D + E
Magnitude of R is given by R = A 2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos q uuur uuur uuur uuur uuur uuur
ur ur or, OA + AB + BC + CD + DE = OE
where q is the angle between A and B .
Motion in a Plane 69
Keep in Memory B
r r r r q
1. If A = B , then A - B = 0 is a null vector..
2. Null vector or zero vector is defined as a vector whose A
–B 180° – q
magnitude is zero and direction indeterminate. Null vector
differs from ordinary zero in the sense that ordinary zero is
not associated with direction. A - B = A + (-B )
r
A If the angle between A and B is q then the angle between
3. Â = r is called a unit vector. It is unitless and
|A|
A
dimensionless vector. Its magnitude is 1. It represents
direction only. a
r r r r
180
r æ ˆ ˆö
ˆ ˆ = - 1 i - j = - 1 (iˆ - ˆj)
= (A.b)b ç ÷ 2
2è 2ø S
Example 5.
250
If 0.3î + 0.4 ĵ + ck̂ is a unit vector, then find the value of c. tan q = = -1 Þ q = 135 °
-250
Solution : Example 9.
r r r
Unit vector is a vector of unit magnitude. r r r
If a,b and c are unit vectors such that a +b + c = 0 , then
\ 0.32 + 0.4 2 + c 2 = 1 Þ 0.09 + 0.16 + c 2 = 1 r
r
find the angle between a and b .
Þ c 2 = 1 - 0.25 = 0.75 Þ c = 0.75 Solution :
r r r r
Example 6. Given : ar + b + rc = 0 Þ c = -(a + b)
What is the vector joining the points (3, 1, 14) and r r r
(–2, –1, –6) ? Also, | a | = | b | = | c | = 1
Solution : r r
Let angle between a and b = q
If P and Q be the points represented by the coordinates
(3, 1, 14) and (–2, –1, –6) respectively then, \ 1 = 12 + 12 + 2 ´ 1 ´ 1 ´ cos q
PQ = p.v. of Q – p.v. of P \ cos q = -1/ 2 Þ q = 120° = 2 p / 3
= (-2î - ĵ - 6k̂ ) - (3î + ĵ + 14 k̂ ) = -5î - 2 ĵ - 20k̂ PRODUCT OF TWO VECTORS
uuur uuur Scalar or Dot Product
and QP = - PQ = 5iˆ + 2jˆ + 20kˆ
The scalar or dot product of two vectors A and B is a scalar,
Example 7. r r
Find the angle between two vectors of magnitude 12 and which is equal to the product of the magnitudes of A and B and
18 units, if their resultant is 24 units. cosine of the smaller angle between them.
r r
Solution : i.e., A . B = A B cosq
r B
Magnitude of first vector (A) = 12; Magnitude of second
r r
r r r
e.g. W = F × s;P = F × vr
vector (B) = 18 and resultant of the given vectors (R) = 24
q
X
\ 24 = 2 2
A + B + 2AB cos q B cosq
A
Properties of Scalar or Dot Product:
2 2
24 = (12) + (18) + 2 ´ 12 ´ 18 cos q
1. iˆ . iˆ = ˆj . ˆj = kˆ . kˆ =1
or (24)2 = 144 + 324 + 432 cos q or 432 cos q = 108
108 iˆ . ˆj = ˆj . kˆ = kˆ . iˆ = 0
or cos q = = 0.25 or q = 75°52¢ r r
432 2. A . B = A (B cosq) = B (A cosq)
Example 8.
r r The dot product of two vectors can be interpreted as the
Two forces F1 = 250N due east and F2 = 250 N due north
th product of the magnitude of one vector and the magnitude
have their common initial point. Find the magnitude and of the component of the other vector along the direction of
r r the first vector.
direction of F2 - F1
72 PHYSICS
r r r r
3. A . B = B . A Dot product of two vectors is commutative. S R
r r k
4. A . A = A2
B
r r r r r r r
5. A.( B + C ) = A . B + A .C Dot product is distributive. q
r r P Q
6. A .B = (A x ˆi + A y ˆj + A z k).(B
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
x i + B y j + B z k) A
= (Ax Bx + Ay By + Az Bz) r r
| A ´ B |= A( B sin q)
Vector or Cross Product = area of parallelogram PQRS
The vector product of two vectors is defined as a vector having
= 2 (area of DPQR)
magnitude equal to the product of two vectors and sine of the
angle between them. Its direction is perpendicular to the plane 8. A unit vector which is perpendicular to A as well as B is
containing the two vectors (direction of the vector is given by uur uur r r
A´B A´ B
right hand screw rule or right hand thumb rule. uur uur =
ur ur ur | A ´ B | AB sin q
C = A ´ B = (AB sin q) n̂
ur ur
The direction of (A ´ B) perpendicular to the plane containing Keep in Memory
ur ur ur ur
vectors A and B in the sense of advance of a right handed A x B x + A y B y + A z Bz A.B
ur ur 1. cos q = = ur ur
screw rotated from A to B is through the smaller angle between A 2x + A 2y + A z2 B2x + B2y + Bz2 | A || B |
them.
r r
A | A ´ B | A B sin q
2. tan q = r r =
q A.B A B cos q
ur ur ur
( A ´ B) = C B r r r r
3. | A ´ B |2 + | A.B |2 = A 2 B2
r r r r r r r r r r r r r r r
e.g., v = w´ r ; t = r ´ F; L = r ´ p
4. | A + B | ´ | A – B |= 2 | (B) ´ (A ) |
Properties of Vector or Cross Product r r r r r r r r r
i 5. If A + B + C = 0 , then A ´ B = B ´ C = C ´ A
1. iˆ ´ iˆ = ˆj ´ ˆj = kˆ ´ kˆ = 0 k
r r r r
6. | A.B |2 - | A ´ B |2 = A 2 B 2 cos 2q
2. iˆ ´ ˆj = kˆ; ˆj ´ kˆ = iˆ; kˆ ´ iˆ = ˆj
r r p
3. A´ A = 0 7. If | A ´ B |= A . B then angle between A and B is .
j 4
r r r r r r r r
4. A ´ B ¹ B ´ A (not commutative) [Q A ´ B = - B ´ A]
8. If A || B then A ´ B = 0
r r r r r r r
5. A ´ ( B + C ) = ( A ´ B) + ( A ´ C ) (follows distributive law)
9. Division by a vector is not defined. Because, it is not
r r
6. A ´ B = ( Ax iˆ + Ay ˆj + Az kˆ ) ´ ( B x iˆ + B y ˆj + B z kˆ ) possible to divide by a direction.
B = ( -1)2 + 22 + ( -1)2 = 6
Example 11.
r r
A particle suffers three displacements 4m in the northward, A.B = (iˆ + ˆj - 2k).(
ˆ -ˆi + 2ˆj - k)
ˆ = -1 + 2 + 3 = 3
2 m in the south-east and 1 m in the south-west directions.
What is the displacement of the particle and the distance 3 3 1
cos q = = = or q = 60°
covered by it? 6´ 6 6 2
Solution : Example 14.
Taking a frame of reference with the x-axis in the eastward A particle is displaced from a point (3, – 4, 5) to another point
and the y-axis in the northward direction
(–2, 6, – 4) under a force 2î + 3 ĵ - k̂ . Find the work done by
North (N) the force.
Y Solution :
r
F = 2î + 3 ĵ - k̂
West (W) X East (E) The displacement of the particle is
r
s = position vector of point (–2, 6, – 4) – position vector of
point (3, – 4, 5)
South (S) r
s = (-2î + 6 ĵ - 4k̂ ) - (3î - 4 ĵ + 5k̂ ) = -5î + 10 ĵ - 9k̂
74 PHYSICS
2. Horizontal projectile : In this, the body is given an initial Case 2: If a particle is projected at an angle (q) in upward direction
velocity directed along the horizontal and then it moves from the top of tower of height h with velocity u, then
under the influence of gravity along a parabolic path. uy = u sin q
Motion along x-axis g
ay = – g
ux = u, ax = 0 o ux = u x ux = u cos q
y
P(x,y) ax = 0
1
uy = 0
x = uxt + axt2 x b vx = ux = u
2 1
h = + u sin q.t - gt 2 and x = u cosq.t
2
x = ut + 0 vy=gt v
x y
\ t= …… (1)
u +
Motion along y-axis u sin q u
uy = 0, ay = g A q
–
1 1 u cos q
y = uyt + ayt2 Þ 0 + gt2
2 2 h
1
y = gt2 …… (2)
2
x B
æ g ö 2
From equations (1) and (2) we get y = çè 2 ÷ø x
2u Case 3: If a body is projected at an angle (q) from the top of tower
which is the equation of a parabola. in downward direction then
Velocity at any instant : uy = – u sin q, ux = u cosq, ax = 0
r
v = v ˆi + v ˆj
x y 1 2
ay = +g , - h = - u sin q.t - gt and x = u cosq.t
v= u 2 + g2 t 2 2
r
If b is the angle made by v with the horizontal, then
+ ucos q
vygt q u
tanb = = –
vx u usin q
Time of flight and horizontal range: h
If h is the distance of the ground from the point of projection, T
is the time taken to strike the ground and R is the horizontal range
of the projectile then
2h x
2h
T= and R = u
g g Equation of Trajectory
Let the point from which the projectile is thrown into space is
taken as the origin, horizontal direction in the plane of motion is
Case 1: If the projectile is projected from the top of the tower of taken as the X-axis, the vertical direction is taken as the Y-axis,
height 'h', in horizontal direction, then the height of tower h, Let the projectile be thrown with a velocity u making an angle q
range x and time of flight t are related as : with the X-axis.
1 Y
h = gt 2 and x = vt
2
vy v
b
u vx
u
u sin q P(x,y)
q
h X
1b v x O u cos q
v The components of the initial velocity in the X-direction and Y-
vy direction are u cos q and u sin q respectively. Then at any instant
x of time t,
76 PHYSICS
\ vA cos 53° = vB cos 37° Condition for horizontal range R on the inclined plane to be
cos 37° maximum :
or vA = vB cos (90° - 37°) u2
Since R = [2sin(q - a ) cos q]
g cos 2 a
60
or vA = 60 cot 37° = tan 37° [QvB = 60 units] u2
= [sin(2q - a) - sin a]
g cos 2 a
60 ´ 4
= = 80 units {2 sin A cos B = sin(A+B)+sin(A–B)}
3
R is maximum when sin (2q –a) is maximum
PROJECTILE ON AN INCLINED PLANE
Let a body is thrown from a plane OA inclined at an angle a with p a
i.e., sin (2q – a) = 1 or q = +
the horizontal, with a constant velocity u in a direction making an 4 2
angle q with the horizontal.
The body returns back on the same plane OA. Hence the net u2
displacement of the particle in a direction normal to the plane OA Þ R max = [1 - sin a]
is zero. g cos 2 a
u2
A where Rmax (on horizontal plane) = .
2g
a)
y sin(
g Condition for time of flight T to be maximum :
u ) g cos(a)
-a a
(q 2 u sin(q - a )
q T= so T is max when sin (q – a) is maximum
uy a g g cos a
O B p 2u
i.e., sin (q –a) = 1 or q = +a Þ T =
ux = u cos (q – a ) along the incline, + x-axis) 2 g cos a
uy = u sin (q – a ) along the incline, + y-axis) It means that if q1 is the angle for projectile for which T is maximum
ax = g sin a along – x-axis, as retardation and q2 is the angle for which R is maximum, then q1 = 2q2.
ay = g cos a along – y-axis, as retardation Example 23.
The time of flight of the projectile is given by The slopes of wind screen of two cars are b1 = 30° and
1 2 b2 = 15° respectively. At what ratio v1/v2 of the velocities
s = ut + at
2 of the cars will their drivers see the hailstorms bounced by
windscreen of their cars in the vertical direction? Assume
1
or 0 = u sin(q - a )T - g cos aT 2 hailstorms falling vertically.
2 Solution :
v
2 u sin(q - a ) From the fig tan a = and a = 90° - 2b1
T= v1
g cos(a )
where v is velocity of hail
If maximum height above the inclined plane is H, v
tan(90° - 2b1 ) = cot 2b1 =
v1
u 2 sin 2 (q - a )
H=
2g
v b1 b
1
The horizontal range R of the projectile is given by a
–v1
2 u 2 sin(q - a) cos q
OB = u cos q t = =R
g cos a b1
The range of the projectile at the inclined plane is given by v
Similarly, cot 2b 2 =
v2
OB 2u 2 sin(q - a)cos q
OA = = =R v1 cot 2b 2 cot 30
cos a g cos 2 a = = = 3.
v 2 cot 2b1 cot 60
Motion in a Plane 79
A
Angular velocity : Rate of change of angular displacement is called
angular velocity w
b dq
i.e., w =
a B dt
C
Relation between linear velocity (v) and angular velocity (w).
r r r
1
Tplane = Thorizontal plane
v = w´r
2 In magnitude, v = r w
2u sin(b - a ) u sin b Angular acceleration : Rate of change of angular velocity is called
or = angular accelaeration.
g cos a g
2 sinb cos a –2 cosb sina = cosa sinb d w d 2q
i.e., a = =
tan b dt dt 2
or sinb cosa = 2 cosb sina or tan a =
2 Relation between linear acceleration and angular accelaration.
r ur r
Keep in Memory a = a´r
1. Equation of trajectory of an oblique projectile in terms of In magnitude, a = r a
range (R) is Centripetal acceleration : Acceleration acting on a body moving
in uniform circular motion is called centripetal acceleration. It
æ xö arises due to the change in the direction of the velocity vector.
y = x tan q - çè1 - ÷ø Magnitude of certipetal acceleration is
R
v2
2. There are two unique times at which the projectile is at the ac = = rw2
same height h(< H) and the sum of these two times. r
2p æ 1 ö
1 2 Q w= = 2pu çè u = = frequency÷ø
Since, h = (u sin q)t - gt is a quadratic in time, so it has T T
2
\ ac = 4p2 u2 r
two unique roots t1 and t2 (say) such that sum of roots
This acceleration is always directed radially towards the centre of
2u sin q 2h the circle.
(t1 + t2) is g and product (t1t2) is g .
Centripetal force: The force required to keep a body moving in
uniform circular motion is called centripetal force.
mv2
4u sin q
2 2
8h Fc = = mr w2
The time lapse (t1– t2) is - . r
g2 g It is always directed radially inwards.
Centrifugal force : Centrifugal force is a fictitious force which
UNIFORM AND NON-UNIFORM CIRCULAR MOTION acts on a body in rotating (non-inertial frames) frame of reference.
Uniform Circular Motion mv2
An object moving in a circle with a constant speed is said to be Magnitude of the centrifugal force F = .
r
in uniform circular motion.Ex. Motion of the tip of the second This force is always directed radially outwards and is also called
hand of a clock. corolious force.
80 PHYSICS
1. It is found that A + B = A . This necessarily implies, 10. Given that A + B = R and A2 + B2 = R2. The angle between
A and B is
(a) B = 0 (a) 0 (b) p/4
(b) A, B are antiparallel (c) p/2 (d) p
(c) A, B are perpendicular
11. Given that A + B = R and A = B = R. What should be the
(d) A.B £ 0 angle between A and B ?
2. Which one of the following statements is true? (a) 0 (b) p/3
(a) A scalar quantity is the one that is conserved in a (c) 2p/3 (d) p
process. 12. Let A = iA cos q + jA sin q be any vector. Another vector B,
(b) A scalar quantity is the one that can never take negative which is normal to A can be expressed as
values. (a) i B cos q – j B sin q (b) i B cos q + j B sin q
(c) A scalar quantity is the one that does not vary from (c) i B sin q – j B cos q (d) i B sin q + j B cos q
one point to another in space. 13. Three particles A, B and C are projected from the same point
(d) A scalar quantity has the same value for observers with same initial speeds making angles 30º, 45º and 60º
with different orientations of the axes. respectively with the horizontal. Which of the following
3. Two balls are projected at an angle q and (90º – q) to the statements is correct?
horizontal with the same speed. The ratio of their maximum (a) A, B and C have unequal ranges
vertical heights is
(b) Ranges of A and C are equal and less than that of B
(a) 1 : 1 (b) tanq : 1
(c) Ranges of A and C are equal and greater than that of B
(c) 1 : tanq (d) tan2q : 1
(d) A, B and C have equal ranges
4. Which of the following is not correct ?
r r r 14. Two particles of equal masses are revolving in circular paths
(a) A ´ B = - B ´ A of radii r1 and r2 respectively with the same period. The
r r r
(b) A ´ B ¹ B ´ A ratio of their centripetal force is
r r r r r r r
(c) A ´ ( B + C ) = A ´ B + A ´ C (a) r1/r2 (b) r2 / r1
r r r r r r
(d) A ´ ( B + C ) = ( A ´ B ) + C
(c) (r1/r2)2 (d) (r2/r1)2
5. The greatest height to which a man can through a ball is h.
15. A bomb is released from a horizontal flying aeroplane. The
What is the greatest horizontal distance to which he can
trajectory of bomb is
throw the ball?
h (a) a parabola (b) a straight line
(a) 2h (b) (c) a circle (d) a hyperbola
4
h 16. A projectile can have the same range for two angles of
(c) (d) None of these projection. If h 1 and h2 are maximum heights when the
2
6. If A and B are two vectors, then the correct statement is range in the two cases is R, then the relation between R, h 1
(a) A + B = B + A (b) A – B = B – A and h2 is
(c) A × B = B × A (d) None of these
(a) R = 4 h1h 2 (b) R = 2 h1h 2
7. Three vectors A, B and C satisfy the relation
A · B = 0 and A · C = 0. The vector A is parallel to (c) R = h1h 2 (d) None of these
(a) B (b) C
(c) B · C (d) B × C 17. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving horizontally
at constant speed. If air resistance is taken into
8. If n̂ is a unit vector in the direction of the vector A, then consideration, then the bomb
A (a) falls on earth exactly below the aeroplane
(a) n̂ = (b) n̂ = A A
A (b) falls on the earth exactly behind the aeroplane
A (c) falls on the earths ahead of the aeroplane
(c) n̂ = (d) nˆ = nˆ × A (d) flies with the aeroplane
A
18. Two vectors A and B lie in a plane, another vector C lies
9. A projectile thrown with a speed v at an angle q has a range
outside this plane, then the resultant of these three vectors
R on the surface of earth. For same v and q, its range on the
i.e., A + B + C
é g Earth ù
surface of moon will be ê g moon = (a) can be zero
ë 6 úû (b) cannot be zero
(a) R/6 (b) R
(c) lies in the plane containing A + B
(c) 6 R (d) 36 R
(d) lies in the plane containing A – B
Motion in a Plane 83
19. A cannon on a level plane is aimed at an angle q above the (a) vA = vB = vC (b) vA = vB > vC
horizontal and a shell is fired with a muzzle velocity n0 towards (c) vB > vC > vA (d) vA > vB = vC
a vertical cliff a distance D away. Then the height from the 22. An aeroplane flying at a constant speed releases a bomb.
bottom at which the shell strikes the side walls of the cliff is As the bomb moves away from the aeroplane, it will
(a) always be vertically below the aeroplane only if the
g D2 aeroplane was flying horizontally
(a) D sin q -
2 v 0 2 sin 2 q (b) always be vertically below the aeroplane only if the
aeroplane was flying at an angle of 45° to the horizontal
g D2 (c) always be vertically below the aeroplane
(b) D cos q - (d) gradually fall behind the aeroplane if the aeroplane was
2 v 0 2 cos 2 q
flying horizontally.
23. In uniform circular motion, the velocity vector and
g D2
(c) D tan q - acceleration vector are
2 v 0 2 cos2 q (a) perpendicular to each other
(b) same direction
g D2 (c) opposite direction
(d) D tan q -
2 v0 2 sin 2 q (d) not related to each other
24. The time of flight of a projectile on an upward inclined plane
20. A projectile thrown with velocity v making angle q with
depends upon
vertical gains maximum height H in the time for which the
(a) angle of inclination of the plane
projectile remains in air, the time period is
(b) angle of projection
(a) H cos q / g (b) 2 H cos q / g (c) the value of acceleration due to gravity
(d) all of the above.
(c) 4H / g (d) 8H / g 25. At the highest point on the trajectory of a projectile, its
21. Three particles A, B and C are thrown from the top of a (a) potential energy is minimum
tower with the same speed. A is thrown up, B is thrown (b) kinetic energy is maximum
down and C is horizontally. They hit the ground with speeds (c) total energy is maximum
vA, vB and vC respectively then, (d) kinetic energy is minimum.
10. The velocity of projection of a body is increased by 2%. 18. A body is projected horizontally from a point above the
Other factors remaining unchanged, what will be the ground and motion of the body is described by the equation
percentage change in the maximum height attained? x = 2t, y = 5t2 where x, and y are horizontal and vertical
(a) 1% (b) 2 % coordinates in metre after time t. The initial velocity of the
(c) 4 % (d) 8 % body will be
11. A ball is thrown from the ground with a velocity of 20 3 (a) 29 m / s horizontal (b) 5 m/s horizontal
m/s making an angle of 60º with the horizontal. The ball will (c) 2 m/s vertical (d) 2 m/s horizontal
be at a height of 40 m from the ground after a time t equal to uur
(g = 10 ms–2) 19. A vector P1 is along the positive x-axis. If its vector product
(a) 2 sec (b) 3 sec with another vector P2 is zero then P2 could be
(c) 2 sec (d) 3 sec
12. Forces of 4 N and 5 N are applied at origin along X-axis and (a) 4 ĵ (b) - 4î
Y-axis respectively. The resultant force will be
(c) ( ĵ + k̂ ) (d) - (î + ˆj)
æ5ö æ4ö
(a) 41N, tan -1 ç ÷ (b) 41N, tan -1 ç ÷ 20. A wheel rotates with constant acceleration of
è4ø è5ø 2.0 rod/s2, if the wheel starts from rest the number of
revolutions it makes in the first ten seconds will be
æ5ö æ4ö
(c) - 41N, tan - 1 ç ÷ (d) - 41N, tan - 1 ç ÷ approximately
è4ø è5ø
(a) 32 (b) 24
13. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm at two revolutions (c) 16 (d) 8
per second. The acceleration of the particle in meter per
21. A projectile of mass m is fired with velocity u making angle
second2 is
q with the horizontal. Its angular momentum about the point
(a) p2 (b) 8 p2 of projection when it hits the ground is given by
(c) 4 p2 (d) 2 p2
14. The vector sum of the forces of 10 N and 6 N can be 2mu sin 2 q cos q 2mu 3 sin 2 q cos q
(a) 2 N (b) 8 N (a) (b)
g g
(c) 18 N (d) 20 N
15. A bomb is dropped on an enemy post by an aeroplane flying mu sin 2 q cos q mu3 sin 2 q cos q
horizontally with a velocity of 60 km h–1 and at a height of (c) (d)
2g 2g
490 m. At the time of dropping the bomb, how far the
aeroplane should be from the enemy post so that the bomb 22. A bucket, full of water is revolved in a vertical circle of
may directly hit the target ? radius 2 m. What should be the maximum time-period of
revolution so that the water doesn’t fall out of the bucket?
400 500
(a) m (b) m (a) 1 sec (b) 2 sec
3 3
(c) 3 sec (d) 4 sec
(c)
1700
m (d) 498 m. r r r r r r
3 23. If | a + b | = | a - b | then angle between a & b is
16. A projectile is thrown horizontally with a speed of (a) 45º (b) 30º
20 ms–1. If g is 10 ms–2, then the speed of the projectile (c) 90º (d) 180º
after 5 second will be nearly 24. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then the
(a) 0.5 ms–1 (b) 5 ms–1 magnitude of their difference is
(c) 54 ms–1 (d) 500 ms–1
17. A ball is projected at such an angle that the horizontal range (a) 3 (b) 2
is three times the maximum height. The angle of projection
of the ball is 1
(c) 5 (d)
2
-1 æ 3 ö -1 æ 4 ö
(a) sin ç ÷ (b) sin ç ÷ 25. Out of the following sets of forces, the resultant of which
è4ø è3ø
cannot be zero ?
æ4ö æ4ö (a) 10, 10, 10 (b) 10, 10, 20
(c) cos -1 ç ÷ (d) tan -1 ç ÷
è3ø è3ø (c) 10, 20, 20 (d) 10, 20, 40
Motion in a Plane 85
r
26. The magnitude of the vector product of two vectors is 3 32. The angles which the vector A = 3iˆ + 6jˆ + 2kˆ makes with
times the scalar product. The angle between vectors is the co-ordinate axes are :
p 3 4 1
(a)
p
(b) (a) cos -1 , cos -1 , cos -1
4 6 7 7 7
-1 3 6 2
(b) cos , cos -1 , cos -1
p p 7 7 7
(c) (d)
3 2 4 5 3
(c) cos -1 , cos -1 , cos -1
27. If A = B + C and the magnitudes of A, B and C are 5, 4 and 3 7 7 7
units, the angle between A and C is (d) None of these
(a) cos–1 (3/5) (b) cos–1 (4/5) 33. The resultant of two forces 3P and 2P is R. If the first force
is doubled then the resultant is also doubled. The angle
p
(c) (d) sin–1 (3/4) between the two forces is
2 (a) 60º (b) 120º
28. A rectangular sheet of material has a width of 3 m and a (c) 70º (d) 180º
length of 4 m. Forces with magnitudes of 3 N and 4N. r r r
34. Let C = A + B
respectively, are applied parallel to two edges of the sheet,
r r
as shown in the figure below. (a) | C | is always greater than | A |
r r r r
4N 4m (b) It is possible to have | C | < | A | and | C | < | B |
r r r
F (c) C is always equal to A + B
3m q r r r
(d) C is never equal to A + B
35. At what angle must the two forces (x + y) and (x – y) act so
3N
that the resultant may be (x 2 + y 2 ) ?
A third force F, is applied to the centre of the sheet, along a (a) cos -1[-(x 2 + y2 ) / 2(x 2 - y 2 )]
line in the plane of the sheet, at an angle q = tan 0.75 with
(b) cos -1[-2(x 2 - y 2 ) /(x 2 + y 2 )]
respect to the horizontal direction. The sheet will be in
translational equilibrium when F has what value? (c) cos -1[-(x 2 + y 2 ) /(x 2 - y 2 )]
(a) F = 3 N (b) F = 4N
(c) F = 5 N (d) F = 7N (d) cos -1[-(x 2 - y 2 ) /(x 2 + y 2 )]
29. The linear velocity of a rotating body is given by :
uur uur ur 36. A force of – Fk̂ acts on O, the origin of the coordinate
v = w´ r system. The torque about the point (1, –1) is
If w = î - 2ˆj + 2 k̂ and r = 4 ĵ - 3k̂ , then the magnitude of
Z
v is
(a) 29 units (b) 31 units
O
(c) (d) Y
37 units 41 units
30. Two forces are such that the sum of their magnitudes is 18 N
and their resultant is 12 N which is perpendicular to the X
smaller force. Then the magnitudes of the forces are
(a) 12 N, 6 N (b) 13 N, 5 N (a) F(î - ˆj) (b) - F(î + ĵ)
(c) 10 N, 8 N (d) 16N, 2N.
r r r r r r (c) F(î + ĵ) (d) - F(î - ˆj)
31. For any two vectors A and B , if A . B = | A ´ B | , the
r r r r
magnitude of C = A + B is 37. The component of vector a = 2iˆ + 3jˆ along the vector
i + j is
(a) A + B (b) A 2 + B 2 + 2 AB
5
(a) (b) 10 2
2 2 AB 2
(c) 2
A +B 2 (d) A +B +
2 (c) 5 2 (d) 5
86 PHYSICS
38. A body is projected at an angle of 30º to the horizontal with (a) It would depend upon the weights of the bullets.
speed 30 m/s. What is the angle with the horizontal after 1.5 (b) The slower one.
seconds? Take g = 10 m/s2. (c) The faster one.
(a) 0º (b) 30º (d) Both will reach simultaneously.
(c) 60º (d) 90º
39. A projectile is moving at 60 m/s at its highest point, where it 47. A cricket ball is hit with a velocity 25 m s -1 , 60° above the
breaks into two equal parts due to an internal explosion. horizontal. How far above the ground, ball passes over a
One part moves vertically up at 50 m/s with respect to the fielder 50 m from the bat (consider the ball is struck very
ground. The other part will move at a speed of close to the ground)?
(a) 110 m/s (b) 120 m/s Take 3 = 1.7 and g = 10 ms–2
(c) 130 m/s (d) 10 61 m / s (a) 6.8 m (b) 7 m
40. A particle having a mass 0.5 kg is projected under gravity (c) 5 m (d) 10 m
with a speed of 98 m/sec at an angle of 60º. The magnitude 48. The equation of a projectile is
of the change in momentum (in N-sec) of the particle after 10 gx 2
seconds is y = 3x -
(a) 0.5 (b) 49 2
(c) 98 (d) 490 The angle of projection is given by
41. A large number of bullets are fired in all directions with the 1
same speed v. What is the maximum area on the ground on (a) tan q = (b) tan q = 3
3
which these bullets will spread?
p
p v2 pv4 (c) (d) zero.
(a) (b) 2
g 2
g
49. A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity 2gh from
2
v p v
2 4
the top of a tower of height h. It strikes the level ground
(c) p2 (d)
2 2 through the foot of the tower at a distance x from the tower.
g g
The value of x is
42. A force of (3iˆ + 4j)
ˆ N acts on a body and displaces it by
gh
(a) gh (b)
(3iˆ + 4j)
ˆ m. The work done by the force is 2
(a) 5 J (b) 30 J 2gh
(c) 2h (d)
(c) 25 J (d) 10 J 3
43. A person aims a gun at a bird from a point at a horizontal 50. A plane flying horizontally at a height of 1500 m with a
distance of 100 m. If the gun can impact a speed of 500 ms– velocity of 200 ms–1 passes directly overhead on antiaircraft
1 to the bullet. At what height above the bird must he aim
gun. Then the angle with the horizontal at which the
his gun in order to hit it? (g = 10 ms–2) gun should be fired from the shell with a muzzle velocity of
(a) 10.4 cm (b) 20.35 cm 400 ms–1 to hit the plane, is
(c) 50 cm (d) 100 cms (a) 90° (b) 60°
r ˆ ˆ ˆ r (c) 30° (d) 45°
44. If a = i - j + k and b = 2iˆ + ˆj + 3kˆ , then the unit vector along
51. A projectile A is thrown at an angle of 30° to the horizontal
® ® from point P. At the same time, another projectile B is thrown
a + b is with velocity v2 upwards from the point Q vertically below
3i + 4 k -3i + 4 k v
the highest point. For B to collide with A, 2 should be
(a) (b) v1
5 5
Highest
-3i - 4 k point
(c) (d) None of these
5
45. A body is thrown with a velocity of 9.8 ms–1 making an v1
angle of 30º with the horizontal. It will hit the ground after a v2
time A B
30°
(a) 3.0 s (b) 2.0 s
P Q
(c) 1.5 s (d) 1 s
(a) 1 (b) 2
46. Two bullets are fired horizontally, simultaneously and with
different velocities from the same place. Which bullet will (c) 1 (d) 4
hit the ground earlier ? 2
Motion in a Plane 87
66. From a 10 m high building a stone A is dropped, and Directions for Qs. (71 to 75) : Each question contains
simultaneously another identical stone B is thrown STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
horizontally with an initial speed of 5 ms–1. Which one of (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following-
the following statements is true? (a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(a) It is not possible to calculate which one of the two
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
stones will reach the ground first
correct explanation for Statement-1
(b) Both the stones (A and B) will reach the ground
simultaneously (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
(c) A stone reaches the ground earlier than B a correct explanation for Statement-1
(d) B stone reaches the ground earlier than A (d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
67. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector r r
differences. In that case, the forces 71. Statement -1 : tr = rr ´ F and rt ¹ F ´ rr
(a) cannot be predicted Statement -2 : Cross product of vectors is commutative.
(b) are equal to each other r
(c) are equal to each other in magnitude 72. Statement -1 : If dot product and cross product of A and
(d) are not equal to each other in magnitude r r r
B are zero, it implies that one of the vector A and B must
æ 20 ö be a null vector
68. A particle moves along a circle of radius ç ÷ m with
è p ø Statement -2 : Null vector is a vector with zero magnitude.
constant tangential acceleration. It the velocity of particle 73. Statement-1 Two stones are simultaneously projected from
is 80 m/sec at end of second revolution after motion has level ground from same point with same speeds but different
begun, the tangential acceleration is angles with horizontal. Both stones move in same vertical
(a) 40 p m/sec2 (b) 40 m/sec2 plane. Then the two stones may collide in mid air.
(c) 640 p m/sec 2 (d) 160 p m/sec2
r r r r r r Statement-2 : For two stones projected simultaneously from
69. If | A ´ B |= 3A.B then the value of | A + B | is same point with same speed at different angles with
horizontal, their trajectories may intersect at some point.
(a) (A 2 + B 2 3AB)½ (b) (A 2 + B 2 + AB)½
74. Statement-1 : K.E. of a moving body given by as2 where s is
½ the distance travelled in a circular path refers to a variable
æ 2 AB ö
(c) çç A + B2 + ÷÷ (d) A + B acceleration.
è 3ø Statement-2 : Acceleration varies with direction only in this
Ù Ù Ù case of circular motion.
70. If a vector 2 i + 3 j + 8 k is perpendicular to the vector
Ù Ù Ù
75. Statement-1 : Centripetal and centrifugal forces cancel each
4 j - 4 i + a k , then the value of a is other.
(a) 1/2 (b) –1/2 Statement-2 : This is because they are always equal and
(c) 1 (d) –1 opposite.
Exemplar Questions 3. Figure shows the orientation of two vectors u and v in the
xy-plane.
1. The angle between A = iˆ + ˆj and B = iˆ - ˆj is Y
(a) 45° (b) 90°
(c) – 45° (d) 180° v
u
2. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) A scalar quantity is the one that is conserved in a
process O X
(b) A scalar quantity is the one that can never take negative If u = aiˆ + bjˆ and v = piˆ + qjˆ
values Which of the following is correct?
(c) A scalar quantity is the one that does not vary from (a) a and p are positive while b and q are negative
one point to another in space (b) a, p and b are positive while q is negative
(d) A scalar quantity has the same value for observers (c) a, q and b are positive while p is negative
with different orientation of the axes (d) a, b, p and q are all positive
Motion in a Plane 89
r
4. The component of a vector r along X-axis will have maximum Average velocity vector (Vav ) from t = 0 to t = 5s is : [2014]
value if
1 7 ˆ ˆ
(a) r is along positive Y-axis (a) (13iˆ + 14j)
ˆ (b) (i + j)
(b) r is along positive X-axis 5 3
(c) r makes an angle of 45° with the X-axis 11 ˆ ˆ
(c) 2(iˆ + ˆj) (d) (i + j)
(d) r is along negative Y-axis 5
5. The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an angle of 15° is 12. A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 km h–1
50 m. If it is fired with the same speed at an angle of 45°, its and a ship B 100 km South of A, is moving Northwards with
range will be a speed of 10 km h –1. The time after which the distance
(a) 60 m (b) 71 m between them becomes shortest, is : [2015]
(c) 100 m (d) 141 m
(a) 5h (b) 5 2 h
6. Consider the quantities, pressure, power, energy, impulse,
gravitational potential, electrical charge, temperature, area. (c) 10 2 h (d) 0 h
Out of these, the only vector quantities are : r r wt wt
(a) impulse, pressure and area 13. If vectors A = cos wtiˆ + sinwtjˆ and B = cos ˆi + sin ˆj
(b) impulse and area 2 2
(c) area and gravitational potential are functions of time, then the value of t at which they are
(d) impulse and pressure orthogonal to each other is : [2015 RS]
7. In a two dimensional motion, instantaneous speed v0 is a p p
(a) t = (b) t =
positive constant. Then, which of the following are 2w w
necessarily true? p
(c) t = 0 (d) t =
(a) The average velocity is not zero at any time 4w
(b) Average acceleration must always vanish r
14. The position vector of a particle R as a function of time is
(c) Displacements in equal time intervals are equal given by:
(d) Equal path lengths are traversed in equal intervals r
8. In a two dimensional motion, instantaneous speed v0 is a R = 4sin(2pt)iˆ + 4cos(2pt) ˆj
positive constant. Then, which of the following are Where R is in meter, t in seconds and î and ĵ denote unit
necessarily true?
vectors along x-and y-directions, respectively.
(a) The acceleration of the particle is zero
Which one of the following statements is wrong for the
(b) The acceleration of the particle is bounded
motion of particle? [2015 RS]
(c) The acceleration of the particle is necessarily in the
plane of motion v2
(a) Magnitude of acceleration vector is , where v is
(d) The particle must be undergoing a uniform circular R
motion the velocity of particle
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions (b) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/second
(c) path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter.
9. ( )
The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is 2$i + 3$j (d) Acceleration vector is along - R
r
m/s. It’s velocity (in m/s) at point B is [2013] 15. A particle moves so that its position vector is given by
r
r = cos wtxˆ + sin wtyˆ . Where w is a constant. Which of the
following is true ? [2016]
r
(a) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r
r
(b) Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r
r
(c) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is
directed towards the origin
(a) -2$i + 3 $j (b) 2$i - 3$j r
(d) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is
(c) 2$i + 3$j (d) -2$i - 3 $j directed away from the origin
r r r r r r r 16. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the
10. Vectors A, B and C are such that A × B = 0 and A × C = 0.
r magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle
Then the vector parallel to A is [NEET Kar. 2013] between these vectors is : [2016]
r r r r
(a) B and C (b) A ´ B (a) 0° (b) 90°
r r r r (c) 45° (d) 180°
(c) B + C (d) B ´ C
11. A particle is moving such that its position coordinate (x, y) 17. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t
are – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where x and y are in meters
(2m, 3m) at time t = 0 and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is
(6m, 7m) at time t = 2 s and (a) 5 m/s2 (b) –4 m/s2 [2017]
(c) –8 m/s 2 (d) 0
(13m, 14m) at time t = 5s.
90 PHYSICS
u 2 sin 60º 3 2
13. (c) R 30º = = (u / g)
g 2
on
y
n
Ca
u 2 sin 90 1 gx 2
R 45º = = u2 / g y = x tan q -
g 2 u 2 cos 2 q
q
O D B
2 2 2
u sin120º u cos 30º u
R 60 º = = = ( 3 / 2) Where y denotes the instantaneous height of particle
g g g
when it travels an instantaneous horizontal distance x.
so R 30º = R 60º > R 45º or R A = R C > R B here x = D, u = vo
gD 2
14. (a) F1 = mr1w 2 ; F2 = mr2 w 2 so y = D tan q - 1
2 v 20 cos 2 q
2p
since period T is same, so w is same, because T = .
w v 2 sin 2 (90 - q)
20. (d) Max. height = H = .....(i)
F1 æ r1 ö 2g
Hence =ç ÷
F2 çè r2 ÷ø 2 v sin( 90 - q )
Time of flight, T = ...(ii)
15. (a) A parabola g
Motion in a Plane 91
EXERCISE - 2
v 1. (b) K.E. is minimum at the highest point. So, the horizontal
Vertical distance is half of the range R i.e., 0.5 R.
u 2 sin 2 q u 2 sin 30 u2 u2
q 2. (b) R1 = = or 1.5 = or =3
g g 2g g
u 2 sin 90 u 2
R2 = = = 3 km
Horizontal g g
3. (b) The bullets are fired at the same initial speed
v cos q 2H
From (i), = ,From (ii), H u 2 sin 2 60º 2g sin 2 60º
g g = ´ 2 =
H¢ 2g u sin 2 30 º sin 2 30º
2H 8H
T=2 = ( 3 / 2) 2 3
g g = =
(1/ 2) 2 1
21. (a) For A: It goes up with velocity u will it reaches its
maximum height (i.e. velocity becomes zero) and comes 4. (b)
r r
back to O and attains velocity u. 5. (a) F1 .F2 = ( 2 î + 5k̂ ).(3ˆj + 4k̂ ) = 20
Using v 2 = u 2 + 2as Þ v A = u 2 + 2gh
u 2 2 sin q cos q u 2 sin 2 q
u 6. (d) = 2´ or tan q = 2
g 2g
O u = vx 1 3 1
7. (a) m(u cos q)2 = ´ m u 2
u 2 4 2
h 2 3 3
or cos q = or cos q = = cos 30 º .
4 2
vB vA 2 2
u = vX vc = v x + v y 8. (c)
2
u2 u2 gx
vC 9. (d) R= or 6 = ; y = x tan q -
For B, going down with velocity u g g 2 u cos 2 q
2
Þ v B = u 2 + 2gh 4 æ1ö 2 4
or h = 2 tan 45 º - ç ÷ = 2- = m
For C, horizontal velocity remains same, i.e. u. Vertical 2 cos 2 45 º è 6 ø 3 3
velocity = 0 + 2gh = 2gh
(u sin q) 2 u 2 sin 2 q
10. (c) We know that, y m = H = =
The resultant v C = v 2x + v 2y = u 2 + 2gh . 2g 2g
Hence v A = v B = v C DH 2 Du Du
\ = . Given = 2%
22. (c) Since horizontal component of the velocity of the bomb H u u
will be the same as the velocity of the aeroplane, DH
therefore horizontal displacements remain the same at \ = 2 ´ 2 = 4%
H
any instant of time.
23. (a) In uniform circular motion speed is constant. So, no 1 2
11. (c) As, s = u sin qt - gt
tangential acceleration. 2
1
v2 so 40 = 20 3 ´ ( 3 / 2 ) t - ´ 10 ´ t 2
It has only radial acceleration a R = [directed towards 2
R
or 5t2 – 30t + 40 = 0 or t2 – 6t + 8 = 0
center]
and its velocity is always in tangential direction. So these or t = 2 or 4.
two are perpendicular to each other. The minimum time t = 2s.
5 æ 5ö 50
The angle q will be given by tan q = or q = tan-1 ç ÷ \ Number of revolution = = 16
4 è 4ø 3.14
r r
1 21. (b) L = R´p
13. (c) Here T = sec the required centripetal acceleration
2
for moving in a circle is u 2 sin 2q
Where R = range =
g
v2 (rw )2
aC = = = rw 2 = r ´ (2p / T) 2 r r
r r The angle between R and p = q
Also, p = m u.
so a c = 0.25 ´ (2p / 0.5) 2 = 16 p 2 ´ .25 = 4.0p 2
u 2 sin 2q
14. (b) R max = (10 + 6) = 16N , R min = (10 - 6) = 4N Hence, L = ´ mu sin(q)
g
Þ Values can be from 4N to 16N
15. (b) Time taken for vertical direction motion 2mu3 sin 2 q cos q
=
2h 2 ´ 490 g
t= = = 100 = 10 s
g 9.8 22. (c) Let its angular velocity be w at all points (uniform
The same time is for horizontal direction. motion). At the highest point weight of the body is
balanced by centrifugal force, so
æ 5ö 500
\ x = vt = ç 60 ´ ÷ ´ 10 = m g
è 18 ø 3 mw2 r = mg Þ w =
r
16. (c) Even after 5 second, the horizontal velocity v x will be
2p r 2 2p
20 m s -1 . The vertical velocity v y is given by T= = 2p = 2p =
w g 10 5
v y = 0 + 10 ´ 5 = 50 m s -1
2 ´ 3.14
= = 3 sec .
2 2 2
Now, v = v x + v y = 20 + 50 » 54 ms 2 -1 2. 1
r r r r r r r r
23. (c) | a + b | = | a - b | Þ | a + b |2 = | a - b |2
u 2 sin 2q u 2 sin 2 q r r r r
17. (d) Given =3
g 2g Þ | a |2 + | b |2 + 2a . b = | a |2 + | b |2 - 2a . b
24. (a)
-1 æ 4 ö 25. (d) R2 = P2 + Q2 – PQ cos q
Þ q = tan ç ÷
è3ø (40)2 = (10)2 + (20)2 – 2 × 10 × 20 × cosq
18. (d) The horizontal velocity of the projectile remains 400 cos q = 500 – 1600 = – 1100
constant throughout the journey. 1100 11
Since the body is projected horizontally, the initial cos q = - =- which is not possible.
400 4
velocity will be same as the horizontal velocity at any In this way, the set of forces given in option (d) can not
point. be represented both in magnitude and direction by the
dx sides of a triangle taken in the same order. Thus their
Since, x = 2t , =2 resultant can not be zero.
dt r r r r
\ Horizontal velocity = 2 m/s 26. (c) Here, | A ´ B |= 3 | A.B |
\ Initial velocity = 2 m/s
19. (b) Vector product of parallel vectors is zero. Þ ABsin q = 3ABcos q Þ tan q = 3
20. (c) For circular angular motion, the formula for angular p
displacement q and angular acceleration a is Þ q = 60° =
3
1 27. (a) See fig. Clearly A is the resultant of B and C. Further B
q = wt + a t 2 where w = initial velocity
2 is perpendicular to C
1
or q = 0 + 1 at 2 or q = ´ (2)(10)2
2 2 4
or q = 100 radian 5
2p radian are covered in 1 revolution B 4
A
1
\ 1 radian is covered in revolution q
2p
100 C=3
or 100 radian are covered in revolution
2p cos q = 3/5 or q = cos–1 (3/5)
Motion in a Plane 93
q 1 2h
O B \ -h = - gt 2 Þ t =
100 m 2 g
u 2 sin 2q x
Here, horizontal range = = 100 velocity =
g t
2h
5002 sin 2q \ x = 2gh ´ = 2h
or = 100 or sin 2q g
10
50. (b) Horizontal distance covered should be same for the
100 ´ 10 1 time of collision.
= 2
= = sin14¢
(500) 250 1
400 cos q = 200 or cos q = or q = 60°
7 p 2
or 2q = 14' or q = 7' = ´ radian 51. (c) This happen when vertical velocity of both are same.
60 180
arc v2 1
\ v2 = v1 sin30° or =
As, angle = \ q = AB v1 2
radius OB
or AB = q × OB 52. (b) v = 6 î + 8ˆj
7 p
= ´ ´ (100 ´ 100) cm = 20.35 cm
60 180
r r
44. (a) a + b = 3iˆ + 4kˆ 10 8
\ Required unit vector
r r
a+b 3iˆ + 4kˆ 3iˆ + 4kˆ q
= r r = = .
|a+b| 32 + 4 2 5 6
uur
2 u sin q Comparing with v = vx ˆi + v yˆj , we get
45. (d) Time of flight =
g
v x = 6 m s -1 and v y = 8 m s -1
2 ´ 9.8 ´ sin 30º 1
= = 2 ´ = 1 sec . Also, v 2 = v x 2 + v y 2 = 36 + 64 = 100
9. 8 2
46. (d) The initial velocity in the vertically downward direction or v = 10 m s -1
is zero and same height has to be covered.
8 6
1 gx 2 sin q = and cos q =
47. (c) y = x tan q - 10 10
2 u 2 cos 2 q
v 2 sin 2q 2v 2 sin q cos q
R= =
10 ´ 50 ´ 50 =5 m g g
y = 50 tan 60° -
2 ´ 25 ´ 25 ´ cos 2 60° 8 6 1
48. (b) Comparing the given equation with R = 2 ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ ´ ´ = 9.6 m
10 10 10
gx 2 1 2
y = x tan q - , we get 53. (b) x= gt
2u 2 cos 2 q 2
1 1 1 9.8
tan q = 3 = ´ 9.8 ´ ´ = m
2 2 2 8
Motion in a Plane 95
54. (b) Comparing the given equation with the equation of Hence, change in momentum is given by :
trajectory of a projectile,
Dp = mvsin 60° - (-mv sin 60°) = 2mv sin 60°
gx 2
y = x tan q - 3
2u 2 cos 2 q = 2mv = 3mv
2
1 57. (a) The motion of the train will affect only the horizontal
we get, tan q = Þ q = 30°
3 component of the velocity of the ball. Since, vertical
20 component is same for both observers, the ym will be
and 2u 2 cos 2 q = 20 Þ u 2 = same, but R will be different.
2cos 2 q
v2
10 10 40 58. (c) a= = 1 cm/s. Centripetal acceleration is directed
= = = r
cos 2 30° æ 3ö
2 3
towards the centre. Its magnitude = 1. Unit vector at
çç ÷÷ the mid point on the path between P and Q is
è 2 ø
ˆ / 2.
-(xˆ + y)
u2 40 4
Now, R max = = = m
59. (c) v sin 45°
g 3 ´ 10 3
v
55. (c) The bullet performs a horizontal journey of 100 cm with
constant velocity of 1500 m/s. The bullet also performs 45°
a vertical journey of h with zero initial velocity and u sin 60° u
A v cos 45°
downward acceleration g.
Distance 60°
\ For horizontal journey, time (t) = O u cos 60° B
Velocity
Velocity of projectile u = 147 ms–1
100 1 angle of projection a = 60°
\t= = sec … (1)
1500 15 Let, the time taken by the projectile from O to A be t
The bullet performs vertical journey for this time. where direction b = 45°. As horizontal component of
1 2 velocity remains constant during the projectile motion.
For vertical journey, h = ut + gt Þ v cos 45° = u cos 60°
2
1 1 147 -1
2 Þ v× = 147 ´ Þ v = ms
1 æ1ö 2 2 2
h = 0 + ´10 ´ ç ÷
2 è 15 ø For Vertical motion, vy = uy – gt
Þ v sin 45° = 45sin 60° – 9.8 t
10 10 ´ 100
or, h = m= cm 147 1 3
2 ´ 15 ´ 15 2 ´ 15 ´ 15 Þ ´ = 147 ´ - 9.8 t
2 2 2
20 147
or, h = cm = 2.2cm Þ 9.8 t = ( 3 - 1) Þ t = 5.49 s
9 2
60. (d) When a cyclist moves on a circular path, it experiences
æ 20 ö a centrifugal force which is equal to mv2 / r. It tries to
The gun should be aimed ç ÷ cm above the target.
è 9 ø overturn the cyclist in outward direction. If speed
increases twice, the value of centrifugal force too
56. (b)
increases to 4 times its earlier value. Therefore the
PA= mv sin 60°
ARISTOTLE’S FALLACY
According to Aristotelian law an external force is required to keep Third law : To every action there is an equal and opposite
a body in motion. However an external force is required to reaction. For example – walking , swimming , a horse pulling a
overcome the frictional forces in case of solids and viscous forces cart etc.
r r
in fluids which are always present in nature. FAB = – FBA
LINEAR MOMENTUM (p) Action and reaction act on different bodies and hence cannot
Linear momentum of a body is the quantity of motion contained balance each other. Action and reaction occur simultaneously.
r r Forces always occur in pairs.
in the body. Momentum p = mv
It is a vector quantity having the same direction as the direction EQUILIBRIUM OF A PARTICLE
of the velocity. Its SI unit is kg ms–1. A body is said to be in equilibrium when no net force acts on the
body.
NEWTON’S LAWS OF MOTION r
i.e., SF = 0
First law : A body continues to be in a state of rest or of uniform
motion, unless it is acted upon by some external force to change Then SFx = 0, SFy = 0 and SFz = 0
its state. Stable equilibrium : If a body is slightly displaced from equilbrium
Newton’s first law gives the qualitative definition of force according position, it has the tendency to regain its original position, it is
to which force is that external cause which tends to change or said to be in stable equilibrium.
actually changes the state of rest or motion of a body.
Newton’s first law of motion is the same as law of inertia given by æ d 2u ö
In this case, P.E. is minimum. ç 2 = +ve ÷
Galileo. ç dr ÷
è ø
Inertia is the inherent property of all bodies because of which
So, the centre of gravity is lowest.
they cannot change their state of rest or of uniform motion unless
Unstable equilibrium : If a body, after being displaced from the
acted upon by an external force.
equilibrium position, moves in the direction of displacement, it is
Second law : The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly
said to be in unstable equilibrium.
proportional to the external force applied on it and the change
takes place in the direction of force applied. æ d 2u ö
In this case, P.E. is maximum. ç 2 = -ve ÷
r dpr mdvr r ç dr ÷
i.e., F = = = ma è ø
dt dt So, the centre of gravity is highest.
This is the equation of motion of constant mass system. For Neutral equilibrium : If a body, after being slightly displaced
variable mass system such as rocket propulsion from the equilibrium position has no tendency to come back or to
r d ( mvr ) move in the direction of displacement the equilibrium is known to
F= be neutral.
dt
æ d 2u ö
r m(dvr ) r dm In this case, P.E. is constant ç 2 = constant ÷
And, F = +v ç dr ÷
dt dt è ø
The SI unit of force is newton. (One newton force is that much The centre of gravity remains at constant height.
force which produces an acceleration of 1ms–2 in a body of mass COMMON FORCES IN MECHANICS
1 kg. 1. Weight : It is the force with which the earth attracts a body
The CGS unit of force is dyne. (1N = 105 dyne) and is called force of gravity, For a body of mass m, where
The gravitational unit of force is kg-wt (kg-f) or g-wt (g-f) acceleration due to gravity is g, the weight
1 kg-wt (kg-f) = 9.8 N, 1 g-wt (g-f) = 980dyne W = mg
100 PHYSICS
Let the total mass of the string be M and length be L. Then mass a
Fpseudo
per unit length is
M m x
L
Let x be the distance of the string from the mass m. Then the mass z
æM ö CONSTRAINT MOTION :
of the shaded portion of string is ç ´ x ÷ When the motion of one body is dependent on the other body, the
è L ø
relationship of displacements, velocities and accelerations of
If the string is at rest then the tension T has to balance the wt of
the two bodies are called constraint relationships.
shaded portion of string and weight of mass m.
Case 1 Pulley string system :
æ M ö
\T = çm + x÷ g
è L ø X
h
T
1 q 2 a T
F M1
x a
[Negative sign with dy/dt shows that with increase in time, y M1g M2
decreases]
1´ 2x dx dy
- = 0 Þ cos q (v1 – v2) = 0 M2g
2 h 2 + x 2 dt dt FBD of M1, FBD of M2
é x ù T T
êQ cos q = ú
ëê h 2 + x 2 ûú
M1 a M2 a
Case 3 Wedge block system : Thin lines represents the condition
of wedge block at t = 0 and dotted lines at t = t
M1g M2g
c T - M1g = M1a M 2g - T = M 2a
ax where T is the tension in the string. It gives
ay ay M 2 - M1 2M 1 M 2
a= g and T = g
q M1 + M 2 M1 + M 2
B ax Ax A (b) If the pulley begins to move with acceleration f,
Ax
q downwards
Ax = acceleration of wedge towards left uur M - M uur uur ur 2 M M uur uur
a = 2 1 ( g - f ) and 1 2
ax, ay = acceleration of block as shown T = (g - f )
M1 + M 2 M1 + M 2
ay Case 2 : Three masses M1, M2 and M3 are connected with strings
From D ABC , tan q =
ax + Ax as shown in the figure and lie on a frictionless surface. They are
Frame of Reference : pulled with a force F attached to M1.
Reference frames are co-ordinate systems in which an event is T2 T2 T1 T 1
M3 M2 M1 F
described.
There are two types of reference frames The forces on M2 and M3 are as follows
(a) Inertial frame of reference: These are frames of reference
in which Newton’s laws hold good. These frames are at rest M 2 + M3 M3
T1 = F and T2 = F;
with each other or which are moving with uniform speed M1 + M 2 + M 3 M1 + M 2 + M 3
with respect to each other.
All reference frames present on surface of Earth are F
Acceleration of the system is a =
supposed to be inertial frame of reference. M1 + M 2 + M 3
(b) Non – inertial frame of reference: Newton’s law do not
Case 3 : Two blocks of masses M1 and M2 are suspended
hold good in non-inertial reference frame.
All accelerated and rotatory reference frames are non – vertically from a rigid support with the help of strings as shown
inertial frame of reference. Earth is a non-intertial frame. in the figure. The mass M2 is pulled down with a force F.
102 PHYSICS
T1 y
R=N T x
T1
M1 g M1
T2 M1g cos q
T2 M1g sin q M1g
M2g
M2 FBD of M2
é M M ù g
F T =ê 2 1 ú
ë M1 + M2 û (1+sin q) T a
The tension between the masses M1 and M2 will be
M2g
T2 = F + M2g
Tension between the support and the mass M1 will be
(ii) When the mass M 1 moves downwards with
T1 = F + (M1 + M2)g
Case 4 : Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to a string which acceleration a.
passes over a pulley attached to the edge of a horizontal table. Equation of motion for M1 and M2,
The mass M1 lies on the frictionless surface of the table. M1g sin q – T = M1a ...(1)
T T – M2g = M2a ...(2)
M1 Solving eqns. (1) and (2) we get,
a é M sin q - M 2 ù é M 2 M1 ù g
T a=ê 1 ú g; T = ê ú
ë M1 + M 2 û ë M1 + M 2 û (1 + sin q)
M2 (a) If (M2/M1 = sinq) then the system does not accelerate.
M2 g (b) Changing position of masses, does not affect the
tension. Also, the acceleration of the system remains
Let the tension in the string be T and the acceleration of the unchanged.
system be a. Then
T = M1a ...(1) (c) If M1 = M2 = M (say), then
M2g – T = M2a ...(2) 2 2
Adding eqns. (1) and (2), we get æ q qö æ g ö æ q q ö æ Mg ö
a = ç cos - sin ÷ ç ÷ ; T = ç cos + sin ÷ ç ÷
è 2 2ø è 2 ø è 2 2ø è 2 ø
é M2 ù é M1 M 2 ù
a=ê ú g and T = ê úg Case 6 : Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the ends of a
ë M1 + M 2 û ë M1 + M 2 û
string over a pulley attached to the top of a double inclined
Case 5 : Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the ends of a
string, which passes over a frictionless pulley at the top of the plane of angle of inclination a and b.
inclined plane of inclination q. Let the tension in the string be T. Let M2 move downwards with acceleration a and the tension in
the string be T then
M1 M1 M2
q M2
M1g sinq M1g cosq
M1g a b
M2g
q
FBD of M1 a
T
(i) When the mass M1 moves upwards with acceleration a.
M1
From the FBD of M1 and M2,
T – M1g sin q = M1a ...(1) a
na M1gcosa
M2g – T = M2a ...(2) gsi M1g
Solving eqns. (1) and (2) we get,
M 1
(iii)When lift is at rest or moving with constant velocity : From From figure, dl = R d q ;
Newton’s second law N –mg = 0 or N = mg Mass of the element,
In this case spring balance gives the true weight of the man. m m
dm = dl ; or dm = . R d q
Case 10 : Three masses M1, M2 and M3 are placed on a smooth l l
surface in contact with each other as shown in the figure. Force responsible for acceleration, dF = (dm)g sinq ;
A force F pushes them as shown in the figure and the three
masses move with acceleration a, æm ö mgR
dF = ç R d q ÷(g sin q) = sin q d q
è l ø l
M3
M2 Net force on the chain can be obtained by integrating the
M1 above relation between 0 to a, we have
F2
F1 F a
F2 F1 mg R mg R a mg R
F= ò l
sin q dq =
l
(- cos q ) =
0 l
[1 - cos a]
a 0
M1 mg R é lù
Þ F – F1 = m1a ...(i) = ê1 - cos R ú ;
F1 F l ë û
M2
F2 F1 Þ F1 – F2 = m2a ...(ii) F gR æ lö
\ Acceleration, a = = ç 1 - cos ÷ .
M3 m l è Rø
F2 Þ F2 = M3 a ...(iii) Example 2.
A block slides down a smooth inclined plane to the ground
F
Adding eqns. (i), (ii) and (iii) we get, a = when released at the top, in time t second. Another block
M1 + M 2 + M 3 is dropped vertically from the same point, in the absence
of the inclined plane and reaches the ground in t/2 second.
M 3F (M 2 + M 3 )F
Þ F2 = and F1 = Then find the angle of inclination of the plane with the
M1 + M 2 + M 3 M1 + M 2 + M 3 vertical.
Solution :
Keep in Memory If q is the angle which the inclined plane makes with the
vertical direction, then the acceleration of the block sliding
1. When a man jumps with load on his head, the apparent down the plane of length l will be g cosq.
weight of the load and the man is zero.
2. (i) If a person sitting in a train moving with uniform A
velocity throws a coin vertically up, then coin will fall q
back in his hand.
(ii) If the train is uniformly accelerated, the coin will fall l h
behind him.
(iii) If the train is retarded uniformly, then the coin will fall
in front of him.
C B
Example 1.
A chain of length l is placed on a smooth spherical surface 1 2
Using the formula, s = ut + at , we have s = l, u = 0, t = t
of radius R with one of its ends fixed at the top of the 2
sphere. What will be the acceleration a of each element of and a = g cos q.
the chain when its upper end is released? It is assumed
1 1
æ Rö so l = 0 ´ t + g cos q t 2 = (g cos q)t 2 ...(i)
that the length of chain l < ç π ÷ . 2 2
è 2ø Taking vertical downward motion of the block, we get
Solution :
Let m be the mass of the chain of length l. Consider an 1 1
h = 0 + g ( t / 2) 2 = gt 2 / 4 ...(ii)
element of length dl of the chain at an angle q with vertical, 2 2
Dividing eqn. (ii) by (i), we get
h 1
= [Q cos q = h / l]
dl l 4 cos q
q dq 1 1
1
or cos q = ; or cos 2 q = ; or cos q =
R 4 cos q 4 2
or q = 60º
Laws of Motion 105
Example 3. Example 6.
A large mass M and a small mass Two masses each equal to m are lying on X-axis at (–a, 0)
m hang at the two ends of a string and (+ a, 0) respectively as shown in fig. They are connected
that passes through a smooth by a light string. A force F is applied at the origin and along
tube as shown in fig. The mass m the Y-axis. As a result, the masses move towards each other.
moves around a circular path in q What is the acceleration of each mass? Assume the
a horizontal plane. The length of l
instantaneous position of the masses as (– x, 0) and (x, 0)
the string from mass m to the top r m respectively
of the tube is l, and q is the angle
the string makes with the F
vertical. What should be the
frequency (n) of rotation of mass
T
m so that mass
M remains stationary? M
(–a, 0) (a, 0)
Solution : –X X
m O m
Tension in the string T = Mg. Solution :
Centripetal force on the body = mrw2 =mr ( 2p n )2. This is
provided by the component of tension acting horizontally F
i.e. T sinq ( = Mg sinq).
A
1 Mg
\ mr ( 2pn)2 = Mg sinq = Mgr/l. or n=
2p ml T q T
Example 4. B C
A string of negligible mass going over a clamped pulley of O
(–x, 0) (x, 0)
mass m supports a block of mass M as shown in fig. The
force on the pulley by the clamp is given by
From figure F = 2 T cos q or T = F/(2 cos q)
(a) 2 Mg The force responsible for motion of masses on X-axis is T
m sin q
(b) 2 mg F
\ m a = T sin q = ´ sin q
2 cos q
(c) [ (M + m)2 + m2 ] g
F F OB F x
= tan q = ´ = ´
(d) [ (M + m)2 + M2 ] g M
2 2 OA 2 (a - x 2 )
2
Solution : (c) F x
Force on the pulley by the clamp = resultant of so, a = ´
T = (M + m)g and mg acting along horizontal and vertical 2m (a - x 2 )
2
respectively
Example 7.
\ F = [(M + m)g]2 + (mg)2 = [ (M + m)2 + m2 ]g A block of mass M is pulled along horizontal frictionless
surface by a rope of mass m. Force P is applied at one end
Example 5.
of rope. Find the force which the rope exerts on the block.
The masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected
by a massless spring in fig. A force of 200 newton acts on the Solution :
20 kg mass. At the instant shown, the 10 kg mass has The situation is shown in fig
acceleration 12 m/sec2. What is the acceleration of 20 kg T O
mass? M P
m
20 kg Let a be the common acceleration of the system. Here
10 kg
200 newton T = M a for block
P – T = m a for rope
Solution :
P
Force on 10 kg mass = 10 × 12 = 120 N \ P – M a = m a or P = a (M + m) or a =
The mass of 10 kg will pull the mass of 20 kg in the backward ( M + m)
direction with a force of 120 N. MP
\ Net force on mass 20 kg = 200 – 120 = 80 N \T =
(M + m)
force 80 N
Its acceleration a = = = 4 m / s2
mass 20 kg
106 PHYSICS
Example 8. r r r
where p1, p 2 ...............p n are individual linear momentum of first,
In the system shown below, friction and mass of the pulley second and nth particle respectively.
are negligible. Find the acceleration of m 2 if If this rigid body is isolated i.e., no external force is applied on it,
m1 = 300 g, m2 = 500 g and F = 1.50 N r
then Ptotal = constant (from Newton’s second law).
Further we know that internal forces (such as intermolecular forces
etc.) also act inside the body, but these can only change individual
linear momentum of the particles (i.e., p1, p2.........), but their total
r
momentum Ptotal remains constant.
Solution : Gun Firing a Bullet
When the pulley moves a distance d, m1 will move a distance If a gun of mass M fires a bullet of mass m with velocity v. Then
2d. Hence m1 will have twice as large an acceleration as m2 from law of conservation of momentum, as initially bullet & gun
has. are at rest position i.e., initial momentum is zero, so final momentum
For mass m1, T1 = m1 (2a) ...(1) (gun + bullet) must also be zero.
For mass m2, F – T2 = m2(a) ...(2) r
Since on firing, the bullet moves with velocity v b in forward
T2 direction, then from Newton’s third law, the gun moves in backward
Putting T1 = in eqn. (1) gives T2 = 4m1a r
2 direction v g . So,
Initial momentum = final momentum
r r
0 = mvb + MVg uuur
uuur - mvb
Momentum Momentum \ V =
g
of bullet of gun M
(–ve sign shows that the vel. of gun will have the opposite
Substituting value of T2 in equation (2), direction to that of bullet)
F = 4m1a + m2a = (4m1 + m2)a IMPULSE
According to Newton’s second law the rate of change of
F 1.50 momentum of a particle is equal to the total external force applied
Hence a = = = 0.88 m / s 2
4m1 + m 2 4(0.3) + 0.5 on it (particle) i.e.,
r
LAW OF CONSERVATION OF LINEAR MOMENTUM dP r
= Fext ...(i)
A system is said to be isolated, when no external force acts on it. dt
r r
For such isolated system, the linear momentum ( P = mv ) is r r r r r tf r
or dP = Fext .dt or DP = Pf - Pi = ò Fext .dt ...(ii)
constant i.e., conserved. ti
The linear momentum is defined as r
r r Where Pi is momentum of the particle at initial time ti and when
P = mv .....(1) r r
r we apply some external force Fext its final momentum is Pf at
where v is the velocity of the body, whose mass is m. The direction
r r
of P is same as the direction of the velocity of the body. It is a time tf . The quantity Fext × dt on R.H.S in equation (ii) is called the
vector quantity. From Newton’s second law, impulse.
r d r d r We can write equation (ii) as
Fext . = (mv) = P .....(2)
t r r
dt dt I = ò f Fext .dt = DP ...(iii)
i.e., time rate of change in momentum of the body is equal to total ti
external force applied on the body. r
So, the impulse of the force Fext is equal to the change in
r d r r
If Fext . = 0 Þ (P) = 0 or P = constant .....(3) momentum of the particle. It is known as impulse momentum
dt theorem.
This is called law of conservation of momentum.
Now let us consider a rigid body consisting of a large number of Fext.
particles moving with different velocities, then total linear
momentum of the rigid body is equal to the summation of individual
linear momentum of all particles
n r r r r r
impulse
i.e., å p i = p1 + p 2 + p 3 + ..........p n
Area=
i =1
r n r r r r r
or Ptotal = å pi = p1 + p2 + p3 + .......... + pn t
i =1 ti (a) tf
Laws of Motion 107
Force vary with time and impulse is area under force versus Example 10.
time curve A hammer of mass M strikes a nail of mass m with velocity
of u m/s and drives it ‘s’ meters in to fixed block of wood.
Fext. Find the average resistance of wood to the penetration of
nail.
Area=Fext.Dt Solution :
Applying the law of conservation of momentum,
Fext.
. æ M ö
Fav m u = (M + m) v0 Þ v 0 = ç ÷u
t èm+Mø
ti (b) tf There acceleration a can be obtained using the formula
r (v2 = u2 + 2as).
Force constant with time i.e., Fext. constant with time (shown Here we have 0 – v02 = 2as or a = v02 /2s
by horizontal line) and it would give same impulse to particle 2 2
æ M ö u
in time Dt = tf – ti as time varying force described. \ a =ç ÷
It is a vector quantity having a magnitude equal to the area under è m + M ø 2s
the force-time curve as shown in fig. (a). In this figure, it is assumed
æ M2 ö u2
that force varies with time and is non-zero in time interval Dt = tf– Resistance = (M + m) a = ç ÷
r ç m + M ÷ 2s
ti. Fig.(b) shows the time averaged force Fext. i.e., it is constant è ø
in time interval Dt, then equation (iii) can be written as Example 11.
A ball of mass 0.5 kg is thrown towards a wall so that it
r t r r
I = Fext. ò f dt = F (t - t ) I = Fext. Dt ...(iv) strikes the wall normally with a speed of 10 ms–1. If the ball
it ext. f i bounces at right angles away from the wall with a speed of
The direction of impulsive vector I is same as the direction of 8ms–1, what impulse does the wall exert on the ball ?
change in momentum. Impulse I has same dimensions as that of Solution :
momentum i.e, [MLT–1] Approaching wall
Rocket propulsion (A case of system of variable mass ) : It is u = –10 ms–1
based on principle of conservation of linear momentum. 10
f
In rocket, the fuel burns and produces gases at high temperature.
These gases are ejected out of the rocket from nozzle at the 8 Leaving wall
backside of rocket and the ejecting gas exerts a forward force on v = +8 ms–1
the rocket which accelerates it.
Taking the direction of the impulse J as positive and using
dM J = mv – mu
Let the gas ejects at a rate r = - and at constant velocity u
dt 1 1
w.r.t. rocket then from the conservation of linear momentum we have J= ´8- (-10) = 9 N-s
2 2
dv ru ru Therefore the wall exerts an impulse of 9 N-s on the ball.
= = where M = M0 - rt and M0 is mass of rocket
dt M M 0 - rt
Example 12.
æ M0 ö Two particles, each of mass m, collide head on when their
with fuel and solving this equation, we get v = u log e çç ÷
÷ speeds are 2u and u. If they stick together on impact, find
è M 0 - rt ø
their combined speed in terms of u.
where v = velocity of rocket w.r.t. ground. Solution :
Example 9. m m
Two skaters A and B approach each other at right angles. Before impact u
Skater A has a mass 30 kg and velocity 1 m/s and skater 2u
B has a mass 20 kg and velocity 2 m/s. They meet and
2m
cling together. Find the final velocity of the couple. After impact v
Solution : Using conservation of linear momentum (in the direction of
Applying principle of conservation of linear momentum, the velocity 2u) we have
p = p12 + p 22 ; ( m1 + m 2 ) v = ( m1 v1 ) 2 + ( m 2 v 2 ) 2 1
(m) (2u) – mu = 2m × V Þ V = u
2
( 30 + 20 ) v = ( 30 ´1)2 + ( 20 ´ 2 )2 = 50 The combined mass will travel at speed u/2.
(Note that the momentum of the second particle before impact
50 is negative because its sense is opposite to that specified
v= =1 m / s
50 as positive.)
108 PHYSICS
FRICTION Fig.(c) (fs )max is equal to mkN. When the book is in motion,
When a body is in motion on a rough surface, or when an object
we call the retarding frictional force as the force of kinetic
moves through water (i.e., viscous medium), then velocity of the
friction fk.
body decreases constantly even if no external force is applied on
the body. This is due to friction. Since fk< (fs )max , so it is clear that, we require more force to
So “an opposing force which comes into existence, when two start motion than to maintain it against friction.
surfaces are in contact with each other and try to move relative By experiment one can find that (fs )max and f k are
to one another, is called friction”. proportional to normal force N acting on the book (by rough
Frictional force acts along the common surface between the two surface) and depends on the roughness of the two surfaces
bodies in such a direction so as to oppose the relative movement in contact.
of the two bodies. Note :
(a) The force of static friction fs between book and rough (i) The force of static friction between any two surfaces
surface is opposite to the applied external force Fext. The r
r in contact is opposite to Fext. and given by f s £ ms N
force of static friction fs = Fext .
and (fs )max = ms N (when the body just moves in the
R=N
right direction).
fs Book Fext. where N = W = weight of book and ms is called
coefficient of static friction, fs is called force of static
(a) friction and (fs )max is called limiting friction or
W maximum value of static friction.
r
(b) When Fext . exceeds the certain maximum value of static (ii) The force of kinetic friction is opposite to the direction
friction, the book starts accelerating and during motion of motion and is given by fk = mkN
Kinetic frictional force is present. where mk is coefficient of kinetic friction.
(iii) The value of mk and ms depends on the nature of
R=N Body just starts moving
surfaces and mk is always less then ms.
Book Friction on an inclined plane : Now we consider a book on an
fk Fext. inclined plane & it just moves or slips, then by definition
(f s) m
a x
(b) R=N
W
r ok
Bo
(c) A graph Fext . versus | f | shown in figure. It is clear that
q q mg cos q
fs, ,max > fk s in mg=W
mg q
|f|
( f s )max = m s R
(fs)max Now from figure, f s,max = mg sin q and R = mg cosq
Body is Body starts with
=msN at rest acceleration Þ ms= tanq or q = tan–1(ms)
where angle q is called the angle of friction or angle of repose
fk=mk N Some facts about friction :
(1) The force of kinetic friction is less than the force of static
O static kinetic friction and the force of rolling friction is less than force of
region region kinetic friction i.e.,
(c)
Fig.(a) shows a book on a horizontal rough surface. Now if fr < fk < fs or mrolling < mkinetic < mstatic
r hence it is easy to roll the drum in comparison to sliding it.
we apply external force Fext. , on the book, then the book
r (2) Frictional force does not oppose the motion in all cases,
will remain stationary if Fext. is not too large. If we increase infact in some cases the body moves due to it.
r
Fext. then frictional force f also increase up to (fs )max B
(called maximum force of static friction or limiting friction)
r A Fext
and (fs )max = msN. At any instant when Fext. is slightly
greater than (fs )max then the book moves and accelerates to In the figure, book B moves to the right due to friction
the right. between A and B. If book A is totally smooth (i.e., frictionless)
Fig.(b) when the book is in motion, the retarding frictional then book B does not move to the right. This is because of
no force applies on the book B in the right direction.
force become less than, (fs )max
Laws of Motion 109
Laws of limiting friction : Figure shows three processes A, B and C by which we can reach
(i) The force of friction is independent of area of surfaces from an initial position to final position. If force is conservative,
in contact and relative velocity between them (if it is then work done is same in all the three processes i.e., independent
not too high). of the path followed between initial and final position.
(ii) The force of friction depends on the nature of material
of surfaces in contact (i.e., force of adhesion). If force is non conservative then work done from i to f is different
m depends upon n ature of the surface. It is in all three paths A,B and C.
independent of the normal reaction. Hence it is clear that work done in conservative force depends
(iii) The force of friction is directly proportional to normal
only on initial & final position irrespective of the path followed
reaction i.e., F µ N or F = mn.
While solving a problem having friction involved, follow between initial & final position. In case of non-conservative
the given methodology forces the work done depends on the path followed between
initial and final position.
If Fapp < fl
We can say also that there is no change in kinetic energy of the
Body does not move and
Fapp = frictional force body in complete round trip in case of conservative force. While
in case of non conservative forces, when a body return to its
Check If Fapp = fl initial position after completing the round trip, the kinetic energy
(a) Fapp Body is on the verge of movement of the body may be more or less than the kinetic energy with
(b) Limiting if the body is initially at rest which it starts.
friction (fl) Body moves with constant velocity Example 13.
Pushing force making an angle q to the horizontal is
applied on a block of weight W placed on a horizontal
table. If the angle of friction is f, then determine the
magnitude of force required to move the body.
Rolling Friction : Solution :
The name rolling friction is a misnomer. Rolling friction has nothing
The various forces acting on the block are shown in fig.
to do with rolling. Rolling friction occurs during rolling as well as
sliding operation.
N
f cosq
f q
Cause of rolling friction : When a body is kept on a surface of F
another body it causes a depression (an exaggerated view shown mg F sinq
in the figure). When the body moves, it has to overcome the
depression. This is the cause of rolling friction. Here,
Rolling friction will be zero only when both the bodies f
incontact are rigid. Rolling friction is very small as compared to m = tan f = ; or f = N tanf...(i)
N
sliding friction. Work done by rolling friction is zero
The condition for the block just to move is
CONSERVATIVE AND NON-CONSERVATIVE FORCES
Fcosq = f = N tanf ...(ii)
If work done on a particle is zero in complete round trip, the
and F sinq + W = N ...(iii)
force is said to be conservative. The gravitational force,
electrostatics force, elastic force etc., are conservative forces. From (ii) and (iii),
On the other hand if the work done on a body is not zero during F cosq = (W + F sinq ) tan f = W tanf + F sin q tanf ;
a complete round trip, the force is said to be non-conservative.
or F cos q – F sinq sinf/cosf = W sinf/cosf
The frictional force, viscous force etc. are non-conservative
forces. or F (cosq cosf – sinq sinf) = W sinf ;
Final or F cos (q + f) = W sinf or F = W sinf / cos (q + f)
position
A f Example 14.
An object of weight W is resting on an inclined plane at an
B
angle q to the horizontal. The coefficient of static friction
C is m. Find the horizontal force needed to just push the object
i
Initial up the plane.
position
110 PHYSICS
2 2
vP + 4 g L v
or g+ = -4 g + 4 P
L L
L = (10/3) m and g = 10 m/s2 (given) q mg
Solving we get vP = 10 m/s. Horizontal
112 PHYSICS
When the banked surface is smooth, the force acting will be gravity Now in the case of minimum velocity with which body could move
and normal force only. in a circular motion, the direction of friction will be opposite to
that one in maximum velocity case.
N
fs
mv2
r N
mg mv 2
q r
Balancing forces mg
N cos q = mg ...(1) q
mv 2
N sin q = ...(2) 2 æ m - tan q ö
r and vmin = rg ç ÷
è 1 + m tan q ø
v2
= tan q ...(3) Keep in Memory
rg
Case of banking of road (with friction) 1. Whenever a particle is moving on the circular path then
The maximum velocity with which a vehicle can safely negotiate there must be some external force which will provide the
a curve of radius r on a rough inclined road is given by necessary centripetal acceleration to the particle.
For examples :
rg (m + tan q)
v2 = ; where m is the coefficient of friction of the (i) Motion of satellite around a planet : Here the centripetal
1 - m tan q force is provided by the gravitational force.
rough surface on which the vehicle is moving, and q is the angle
of inclined road with the horizontal.
Suppose a vehicle is moving in a circle of radius r on a rough V
μ
inclined road whose coefficient of friction is and angle of
M GMm mv 2 Satellite
banking is q. i.e. 2
= (m)
r r (M) Planet
N
N
mv2
If we apply pseudo force on body, centrifugal force is
r
when v is max. and friction force will be acting down the slope.
mv2 Nucleus
Balancing the force horizontally, = f s cos q + N sin q ...(1) Electron
r r
(Ze) (e)
Balancing the force vertically,
N cos q = f s sin q + mg ...(2)
when v = maximum, f = fmax = fs = mN ...(3)
From eqn. (2), (iii) Motion of a body in horizontal and vertical circle:
N cos q = mN sin q + mg Þ N (cos q - m sin q) = mg Here the centripetal force is provided by the tension.
Horizontal circle
mg
or N =
cos q - m sin q V
2 2
mv mmg cos q + mg sin q mv
From eqns.(1) and (3), = T= (m)
r cos q - m sin q r
T
mv 2 mg (m + tan q) 2 (m + tan q)
Þ = Þ vmax = rg
r 1 - m tan q 1 - m tan q
Laws of Motion 113
1. A rectangular block is placed on a rough horizontal surface 8. A uniform rope of length L resting on a frictionless horizontal
in two different ways as shown, then surface is pulled at one end by a force F. What is the tension
in the rope at a distance l from the end where the force is
applied.
F
F (a) F (b) F (1 + l/L)
(c) F/2 (d) F (1 – l/L)
(a) (b) 9. A particle of mass m is moving with velocity v1, it is given
(a) friction will be more in case (a) an impulse such that the velocity becomes v2 . Then
(b) friction will be more in case (b) magnitude of impulse is equal to
r r r r
(c) friction will be equal in both the cases (a) m( v2 - v1 ) (b) m( v1 - v 2 )
(d) friction depends on the relations among its dimensions. r r r r
(c) m ´ (v 2 - v1 ) (d) 0.5m(v 2 - v1 )
2. Centripetal force :
(a) can change speed of the body. 10. A constant force F = m2g/2 is applied on the block of mass
(b) is always perpendicular to direction of motion m1 as shown in fig. The string and the pulley are light and
the surface of the table is smooth. The acceleration of m1 is
(c) is constant for uniform circular motion.
(d) all of these m1
3. When a horse pulls a cart, the horse moves down to F
(a) horse on the cart.
(b) cart on the horse.
m2
(c) horse on the earth.
(d) earth on the horse. m2g
(a) towards right
4. The force of action and reaction 2 (m1 + m 2 )
(a) must be of same nature
(b) must be of different nature m 2g
(b) towards left
2 (m1 - m 2 )
(c) may be of different nature
(d) may not have equal magnitude m 2g
(c) towards right
5. A body is moving with uniform velocity, then 2 (m 2 - m1 )
(a) no force must be acting on the body.
(b) exactly two forces must be acting on the body m 2g
(d) towards left
2 (m 2 - m1 )
(c) body is not acted upon by a single force.
(d) the number of forces acting on the body must be even. 11. A mass is hanging on a spring balance which is kept in a lift.
6. The direction of impulse is The lift ascends. The spring balance will show in its readings
(a) same as that of the net force (a) an increase
(b) opposite to that of the net force (b) a decrease
(c) same as that of the final velocity (c) no change
(d) same as that of the initial velocity (d) a change depending on its velocity
7. A monkey is climbing up a rope, then the tension in the rope 12. A cart of mass M has a block of mass m attached to it as
(a) must be equal to the force applied by the monkey on shown in fig. The coefficient of friction between the block
the rope and the cart is m. What is the minimum acceleration of the
(b) must be less than the force applied by the monkey on cart so that the block m does not fall?
the rope. (a) mg
(c) must be greater than the force applied by the monkey (b) g/m M m
on the rope.
(c) m/g
(d) may be equal to, less than or greater the force applied
by the monkey on the rope. (d) M mg/m
116 PHYSICS
13. A particle of mass m moving eastward with a speed v collides 20. A particle starts sliding down a frictionless inclined plane.
with another particle of the same mass moving northward If Sn is the distance traveled by it from time t = n – 1 sec to
with the same speed v. The two particles coalesce on
t = n sec, the ratio Sn/Sn+1 is
collision. The new particle of mass 2m will move in the north-
external direction with a velocity : 2n - 1 2n + 1
(a) (b)
(a) v/2 (b) 2v 2n + 1 2n
(c) v / 2 (d) None of these 2n 2n + 1
(c) (d)
14. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of mass m1 2n + 1 2n - 1
and m2. When the toy carts are released, the springs exert 21. A block is kept on a inclined plane of inclination q of length l .
equal and opposite average forces for the same time on The velocity of particle at the bottom of inclined is (the
each toy cart. If v1 and v2 are the velocities of the toy carts coefficient of friction is m )
and there is no friction between the toy carts and the ground,
then : (a) [2gl(m cos q - sin q)]1 / 2 (b) 2gl(sin q - m cos q)
(a) v1/v2 = m1/m2 (b) v1/v2 = m2/m1
(c) 2gl(sin q + m cos q) (d) 2gl(cos q + m sin q)
(c) v1/v2 = –m2/m1 (d) v1/v2 = –m1/m2
22. A bird is in a wire cage which is hanging from a spring
15. Two mass m and 2m are attached with each other by a rope
balance . In the first case, the bird sits in the cage and in the
passing over a frictionless and massless pulley. If the pulley
second case, the bird flies about inside the cage. The reading
is accelerated upwards with an acceleration ‘a’, what is the
in the spring balance is
value of T?
(a) more in the first case
g+a g -a (b) less in first case
(a) (b)
3 3 (c) unchanged
4 m (g + a ) m (g - a ) (d) zero in second case.
(c) (d) 23. In an explosion, a body breaks up into two pieces of unequal
3 3
masses. In this
16. A rider on a horse back falls forward when the horse (a) both parts will have numerically equal momentum
suddenly stops. This is due to (b) lighter part will have more momentum
(a) inertia of horse (c) heavier part will have more momentum
(b) inertia of rider (d) both parts will have equal kinetic energy
(c) large weight of the horse 24. A block of mass m on a rough horizontal surface is acted
(d) losing of the balance upon by two forces as shown in figure. For equilibrium of
17. A ball of mass m is thrown vertically upwards. What is the block the coefficient of friction between block and surface is
rate at which the momentum of the ball changes? F2
q
(a) Zero (b) mg
(c) Infinity (d) Data is not sufficient. F1 m
18. A small block is shot into each of the four tracks as shown
below. Each of the tracks rises to the same height. The
speed with which the block enters the track is the same in all F1 + F2 sin q F1 cos q + F2
(a) (b)
cases. At the highest point of the track, the normal reaction mg + F2 cos q mg - F2 sin q
is maximum in F1 + F2 cos q F1 sin q - F2
(c) (d)
mg + F2 sin q mg - F2 cos q
25. A plate of mass M is placed on a horizontal of frictionless
(a) (b) surface (see figure), and a body of mass m is placed on this
v v plate. The coefficient of dynamic friction between this body
and the plate is m . If a force 2 m mg is applied to the body
of mass m along the horizontal, the acceleration of the plate
will be
(c) (d) m
v v 2m mg
M
19. A weight W rests on a rough horizontal plane. If the angle
of friction be q , the least force that will move the body mm mm
(a) g (b) g
along the plane will be M (M + m)
(a) W cos q (b) W cot q 2mm
2mm g.
(c) W tan q (d) W sin q (c) g (d)
M (M + m)
Laws of Motion 117
13. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 1 kg are placed on a smooth 20. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving with a velocity of 2 m/sec
horizontal table in contact with each other. A horizontal force strikes a wall normally and bounces back with the same
of 3 newton is applied on the first so that the block moves speed. If the time of contact between the ball and the wall is
with a constant acceleration. The force between the blocks one millisecond, the average force exerted by the wall on
would be the ball is :
(a) 3 newton (b) 2 newton (a) 2000 newton (b) 1000 newton
(c) 5000 newton (d) 125 newton
(c) 1 newton (d) zero
21. The mass of the lift is 100 kg which is hanging on the string.
14. A 4000 kg lift is accelerating upwards. The tension in the The tension in the string, when the lift is moving with
-
supporting cable is 48000 N. If g = 10m s 2 then the constant velocity, is (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
acceleration of the lift is (a) 100 newton (b) 980 newton
-2 -2 (c) 1000 newton (d) None of these
(a) 1 m s (b) 2 m s 22. In the question , the tension in the strings, when the lift is
-2 accelerating up with an acceleration 1 m/sec2, is
(c) 4 m s -2 (d) 6 m s (a) 100 newton (b) 980 newton
15. A rocket has a mass of 100 kg. Ninety percent of this is fuel. It (c) 1080 newton (d) 880 newton
ejects fuel vapors at the rate of 1 kg/sec with a velocity of 500 23. A block of mass 5 kg resting on a horizontal surface is
m/sec relative to the rocket. It is supposed that the rocket is connected by a cord, passing over a light frictionless pulley
outside the gravitational field. The initial upthrust on the to a hanging block of mass 5 kg. The coefficient of kinetic
rocket when it just starts moving upwards is friction between the block and the surface is 0.5. Tension in
(a) zero (b) 500 newton the cord is : (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
A
(c) 1000 newton (d) 2000 newton
16. A 0.1 kg block suspended from a massless string is moved 5 kg
26. Two trolleys of mass m and 3m are connected by a spring. 33. A trailer of mass 1000 kg is towed by means of a rope
They were compressed and released at once, they move off attached to a car moving at a steady speed along a level
in opposite direction and come to rest after covering a road. The tension in the rope is 400 N. The car starts to
distance S1, S2 respectively. Assuming the coefficient of accelerate steadily. If the tension in the rope is now 1650 N,
friction to be uniform, ratio of distances S1 : S2 is : with what acceleration is the trailer moving ?
(a) 1.75 ms–2 (b) 0.75 ms–2
(a) 1 : 9 (b) 1 : 3 –2
(c) 2.5 ms (d) 1.25 ms–2
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 9 : 1 34. A rocket of mass 5000 kg is to be projected vertically upward.
27. A particle of mass 10 kg is moving in a straight line. If its The gases are exhausted vertically downwards with velocity
displacement, x with time t is given by x = (t3 – 2t – 10) m, 1000 ms–2 with respect to the rocket. What is the minimum
then the force acting on it at the end of 4 seconds is rate of burning the fuel so as to just lift the rocket upwards
(a) 24 N (b) 240 N against gravitational attraction ?
(c) 300 N (d) 1200 N (a) 49 kg s–1 (b) 147 kg s–1
(c) 98 kg s –1 (d) 196 kg s–1
28. When forces F1, F2, F3 are acting on a particle of mass m
35. Blocks A and B of masses 15 kg and 10 kg, respectively, are
such that F2 and F3 are mutually perpendicular, then the connected by a light cable passing over a frictionless pulley
particle remains stationary. If the force F1 is now removed as shown below. Approximately what is the acceleration
then the acceleration of the particle is experienced by the system?
(a) F1/m (b) F2F3/mF1 (a) 2.0 m/s2
(c) (F2 – F3)/m (d) F2/m
(b) 3.3 m/s2
29. One end of massless rope, which passes over a massless
and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook C while the (c) 4.9 m/s2
other end is free. Maximum tension that the rope can B
(d) 9.8 m/s2 A
bear is 360 N. With what value of maximum safe
36. A 50 kg ice skater, initially at rest, throws a 0.15 kg snowball
acceleration (in ms –2 ) can a man of 60 kg moves
with a speed of 35 m/s. What is the approximate recoil speed
downwards on the rope? [Take g = 10 ms–2]
of the skater?
(a) 0.10 m/s (b) 0.20 m/s
P (c) 0.70 m/s (d) 1.4 m/s
37. Block A is moving with acceleration A along a frictionless
C horizontal surface. When a second block, B is placed on top
of Block A the acceleration of the combined blocks drops to
1/5 the original value. What is the ratio of the mass of A to
(a) 16 (b) 6 the mass of B?
(a) 5 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
(c) 4 (d) 8
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
r
30. A force F = 8î - 6 ĵ - 10k̂ newton produces an acceleration 38. A force F is used to raise a 4-kg mass M from the ground to
a height of 5 m.
of 1 ms–2 in a body. The mass of the body is
(a) 10 kg (b) 10 2 kg
40. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given 47. A 1 kg block and a 0.5 kg block move together on a horizontal
by F = 600 – 2 × 105 t frictionless surface . Each block exerts a force of 6 N on the
Where, F is in newtons and t in seconds. The force on the other. The block move with a uniform acceleration of
bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What is a
the average impulse imparted to the bullet? F 1 kg 0.5 kg
(a) 1.8 N-s (b) Zero
(c) 9 N-s (d) 0.9 N-s (a) 3 ms -2 (b) 6 ms -2
41. A rifle man, who together with his rifle has a mass of 100 kg, (c) 9 ms -2 (d) 12 ms -2
stands on a smooth surface and fires 10 shots horizontally. 48. A body of mass 32 kg is suspended by a spring balance
Each bullet has a mass 10 g and a muzzle velocity of 800 ms– from the roof of a vertically operating lift and going
1. The velocity which the rifle man attains after firing 10
downward from rest. At the instant the lift has covered 20 m
shots is and 50 m, the spring balance showed 30 kg and 36 kg
-1 respectively. Then the velocity of the lift is
(a) 8 ms -1 (b) 0.8 ms
(a) decreasing at 20 m, and increasing at 50 m
(c) 0.08 ms -1 (d) – 0.8 ms -1 (b) increasing at 20m and decreasing at 50 m
42. A block of mass 4 kg rests on an inclined plane. The (c) continuously decreasing at a steady rate throughout
inclination to the plane is gradually increased. It is found the journey
that when the inclination is 3 in 5, the block just begins to (d) constantly increasing at constant rate throughout the
slidedown the plane. The coefficient of friction between the journey.
block and the plane is 49. An object at rest in space suddenly explodes into three
parts of same mass. The momentum of the two parts are
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.6
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.75. 2pî and pĵ . The momentum of the third part
43. The minimum velocity (in ms-1) with which a car driver must
(a) will have a magnitude p 3
traverse a flat curve of radius 150 m and coefficient of friction
0.6 to avoid skidding is (b) will have a magnitude p 5
(a) 60 (b) 30
(c) will have a magnitude p
(c) 15 (d) 25 (d) will have a magnitude 2p.
44. A body of mass 2 kg is placed on a horizontal surface 50. A triangular block of mass M with angles 30°, 60°, and 90°
having kinetic friction 0.4 and static friction 0.5. If the force rests with its 30°–90° side on a horizontal table. A cubical
applied on the body is 2.5 N, then the frictional force acting block of mass m rests on the 60°–30° side. The acceleration
on the body will be [g = 10 ms–2] which M must have relative to the table to keep m stationary
(a) 8 N (b) 10 N relative to the triangular block assuming frictionless contact is
(c) 20 N (d) 2.5 N g
(a) g (b)
45. A bag of sand of mass m is suspended by a rope. A bullet of 2
g g
mass m is fired at it with a velocity v and gets embedded (c) (d)
20 3 5
into it. The velocity of the bag finally is 51. A body of mass 1.0 kg is falling with an acceleration of 10 m/
sec2. Its apparent weight will be (g = 10 m/sec2)
v 20v (a) 1.0 kg wt (b) 2.0 kg wt
(a) ´ 21 (b)
20 21 (c) 0.5 kg wt (d) zero
52. In the figure a smooth pulley of negligible weight is
v v suspended by a spring balance. Weight of 1 kg f and
(c) (d)
20 21 5 kg f are attached to the opposite ends of a string passing
46. For the arrangement shown in the Figure the tension in the over the pulley and move with acceleration because of
gravity, During their motion, the spring balance reads a
string is [Given : tan -1 (0.8) = 39° ] weight of
(a) 6 kg f
m = 1 kg
(b) less then 6 kg f
m = 0.8
39° (c) more than 6 kg f
53. A particle moves so that its acceleration is always twice its 60. A horizontal force F is applied on back of mass m placed on
velocity. If its initial velocity is 0.1 ms–1, its velocity after it a rough inclined plane of inclination q . The normal reaction
has gone 0.1 m is N is
(a) 0.3 ms–1 (b) 0.7 ms–1
(c) 1.2 ms –1 (d) 3.6 ms–1
54. An object is resting at the bottom of two strings which are F
inclined at an angle of 120° with each other. Each string can
withstand a tension of 20N. The maximum weight of the
object that can be supported without breaking the string is
(a) 5 N (b) 10 N
(c) 20 N (d) 40 N
55. On a smooth plane surface (figure) two block A and B are (a) mg cos q (b) mg sin q
accelerated up by applying a force 15 N on A. If mass of B is mg cos q - Fcos q
(c) (d) mg cos q + F sin q
twice that of A, the force on B is
61. The coefficient of friction between the rubber tyres and the
(a) 30 N (b) 15 N
road way is 0.25. The maximum speed with which a car can
(c) 10 N (d) 5 N be driven round a curve of radius 20 m without skidding is
(g = 9.8 m/s2)
15 N A B (a) 5 m/s (b) 7 m/s
(c) 10 m/s (d) 14 m/s
62. A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6 m long string is whirled in a
56. A 10 kg stone is suspended with a rope of breaking strength vertical circle with constant speed. What should be the
30 kg-wt. The minimum time in which the stone can be raised minimum speed so that the water from the bucket does not
through a height 10 m starting from rest is (Take spill when the bucket is at the highest position?
g = 10 N / kg) (a) 4 m/sec (b) 6.25 m/sec
(a) 0.5 s (b) 1.0 s (c) 16 m/sec (d) None of the above
63. A cane filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle of
(c) 2/3 s (d) 2 s
radius 4 meter and the water just does not fall down. The
-1 time period of revolution will be
57. A ball of mass 0.4 kg thrown up in air with velocity 30 ms
reaches the highest point in 2.5 second . The air resistance (a) 1 sec (b) 10 sec
encountered by the ball during upward motion is (c) 8 sec (d) 4 sec
(a) 0.88 N (b) 8800N 64. A circular road of radius r in which maximum velocity is v,
(c) 300 dyne (d) 300 N. has angle of banking
58. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g moving at a rate æ v2 ö æ rg ö
of 20 m/s. If the catching process is completed in 0.1s, the (a) tan -1ç ÷ (b) tan -1 çç ÷÷
ç rg ÷ è v2 ø
force of the blow exerted by the ball on the hand of the è ø
player is equal to
ævö æ rg ö
(a) 150 N (b) 3 N (c) tan -1 çç ÷÷ (d) tan -1 ç ÷
(c) 30 N (d) 300 N è rg ø èvø
59. In the system shown in figure, the pulley is smooth and 65. A small sphere is attached to a cord and rotates in a vertical
massless, the string has a total mass 5g, and the two circle about a point O. If the average speed of the sphere is
suspended blocks have masses 25 g and 15 g. The system increased, the cord is most likely to break at the orientation
is released from state l = 0 and is studied upto stage l' = 0 when the mass is at
During the process, the acceleration of block A will be
A
g m
(a) constant at l
9
C D
O
g l l'
(b) constant at
4 A B
(c) increasing by factor of 3 25 g
B (a) bottom point B (b) the point C
(d) increasing by factor of 2 15 g
(c) the point D (d) top point A
122 PHYSICS
66. A person with his hand in his pocket is skating on ice at the 71. A ball of mass 400 gm is dropped from a height of 5 m. A boy
rate of 10m/s and describes a circle of radius 50 m. What is on the ground hits the ball vertically upwards with a bat
his inclination to vertical : (g = 10 m/sec2) with an average force of 100 newton so that it attains a
(a) tan–1(½) (b) tan–1 (1/5) vertical height of 20 m. The time for which the ball remains in
contact with the bat is (g = 10 m/s2)
(c) tan–1 (3/5) (d) tan –1(1/10)
(a) 0.12 s (b) 0.08 s
67. When the road is dry and the coefficient of the friction is m,
the maximum speed of a car in a circular path is 10 ms–1. If (c) 0.04 s (d) 12 s
72. Block A of weight 100 kg rests on a block B and is tied with
m
the road becomes wet and m' = , what is the maximum horizontal str ing to the wall at C. Block B is of
2
200 kg. The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.25
speed permitted?
1
(a) 5 ms–1 (b) 10 ms–1 and that between B and surface is . The horizontal force F
3
(c) 10 2 ms -1 (d) 5 2 ms -1 necessary to move the block B should be (g = 10 m/s2)
68. Two pulley arrangements of figure given are identical. The
mass of the rope is negligible. In fig (a), the mass m is lifted A
by attaching a mass 2m to the other end of the rope. In fig C
(b), m is lifted up by pulling the other end of the rope with a
B F
constant downward force F = 2mg. The acceleration of m in
the two cases are respectively
(a) 1050 N (b) 1450 N
(c) 1050 N (d) 1250 N
73. An open topped rail road car of mass M has an initial velocity
v0 along a straight horizontal frictionless track. It suddenly
starts raising at time t = 0. The rain drops fall vertically with
velocity u and add a mass m kg/sec of water. The velocity of
car after t second will be (assuming that it is not completely
filled with water)
m 2m m F = 2 mg
u mv0
(a) (b) (a) v0 + m (b)
M M + mt
76. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45° incline and then 82. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of
slides a distance ‘d’. The time taken to slide is ‘n’ times as inclination q. The whole system is accelerated horizontally
much to slide on rough incline than on a smooth incline. so that the block does not slip on the wedge. The force
The coefficient of friction is exerted by the wedge on the block (g is acceleration due to
gravity) will be
1 1 (a) mg/cos q (b) mg cos q
(a) m k = 1- (b) m k = 1-
n 2
n2 (c) mg sin q (d) mg
83. The coefficient of static friction, ms, between block A of
1 1 mass 2 kg and the table as shown in the figure is 0.2. What
(c) m s = 1- (d) m s = 1- would be the maximum mass value of block B so that the
n 2
n2 two blocks do not move? The string and the pulley are
assumed to be smooth and massless. (g = 10 m/s2)
77. The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination f is
perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough. A body 2 kg
A
starting from rest at the top will again come to rest at the
bottom if the coefficient of friction for the lower half is given
by B
89. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal 95. A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal table top. If the
plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The coefficient of friction between the chain and the table surface
first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms–1 and the is 0.25, then the maximum fraction of the length of the chain
second part of mass 2 kg moves with speed 8 ms–1. If the that can hang over one edge of the table is
third part flies off with speed 4 ms–1 then its mass is
(a) 5 kg (b) 7 kg (a) 20% (b) 25%
(c) 17 kg (d) 3 kg (c) 35% (d) 15%
90. Two particles of masses m and M (M > m ) are connected by 96. A body of mass 5 kg explodes at rest into three fragments
a cord that passes over a massless, frictionless pulley. The with masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The fragments with equal
tension T in the string and the acceleration a of the particles masses fly in mutually perpendicular directions with speeds
is of 21 m/s. The velocity of heaviest fragment in m/s will be
2mM Mm
(a) T= g ;a = g (a) (b)
(M - m) (M + m) 7 2 5 2
13. The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by 17. Two stones of masses m and 2 m are whirled in horizontal
the force-time graph shown below. The change in momentum r
of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is : circles, the heavier one in radius and the lighter one in
2
[2014] radius r. The tangential speed of lighter stone is n times that
of the value of heavier stone when they experience same
6 centripetal forces. The value of n is : [2015 RS]
3 (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 1 (d) 2
0
F(N)
A B mv2 mv2
C (a) T+ (b) T–
l l
(a) 6 N (b) 8 N
(c) Zero (d) T
(c) 18 N (d) 2 N
21. Two blocks A and B of masses 3 m and m respectively are
16. A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light connected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole
string connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in
the edge of table and from its other end another block B of figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B
mass m2 is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction immediately after the string is cut, are respectively : [2017]
between the block and the table is µk. When the block A is
sliding on the table, the tension in the string is [2015] g
(a) ,g
(m 2 – mk m1 ) g m1m 2 (1 + m k )g 3
(a) (m1 + m 2 ) (b) (m1 + m 2 )
(b) g, g
m1m 2 (1 – m k )g (m 2 + m k m1 )g
(c) (d) g g
(m1 + m 2 ) (m1 + m 2 ) (c) ,
3 3 A 3m
g
(d) g, B m
3
Laws of Motion 127
EXERCISE - 2
here l1 = 10 cm., L = 30 cm., F1 = 20 N, F2 = 32N
1. (b) Here u = 10 ms–1, v = –2 ms–1,
so F = 24 N
t = 4 s, a = ?
10. (b) Change in momentum = F × t
Using a = v - u = - 2 - 10 = - 3 m / s 2 = 10 × 10 = 100 Ns or 100 kg. m/s
t 4
\ Force, F = ma = 10×(–3) = –30 N 11. (d) See fig.
2. (b) 2 T cos 60º = mg T
or T = mg = 2×10 = 20 N. T
3. (c) If k is the spring factor, then P.E. of the spring 1 kg
T
compressed by distance x æç = kx 2 ö÷ will equal to gain
1
1 kg
è 2 ø
1 From figure, 1 g – T = 1 a ...(i)
2
in P.E. of the dart ( = mgh) i.e. kx = mgh and T = 1 a ....(ii)
2
1 From eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
\ k ( 4 ) 2 = 16 ´ g ´ 200 ....(i)
2 1g – 1a = 1a or 2a = g
1
and k (6) 2 = 16 ´ g ´ h ...(ii) \ a = (g/2) = (10/2) = 5 m/s2
2
On solving, (i) and (ii), we get h = 450 cm = 4.5 m. So, T = ma = 1 × 5 = 5 N
4. (d) Here m = 0.5 kg ; u = – 10 m/s ; 12. (b) R = mg – ma = 0.5 × 10 – 0.5 × 2 = 5 – 1 = 4 N
t = 1/50 s ; v = + 15 ms–1
Force = m (v– u)/t = 0.5 (10 + 15) × 50 = 625 N 13. (c) See fig. Let F be the force between the blocks and a their
common acceleration. Then for 2 kg block,
Laws of Motion 129
N
3N 2 kg
1 kg
F F A a
T
3–F=2a ...(1) 5 kg
for 1 kg block, F = 1 × a = a ....(2) mN
a
\ 3 – F = 2 F or 3 F = 3 or F = 1 newton T
14. (b) T = m (g + a )
5 kg 5 kg B
48000 = 4000(10 + a )
-2
Þ a = 2 ms
Dm for block B, 5g – T = 5a
15. (b) Initial thrust on the rocket = v rel
Dt Þ T = 36.75N, a = 2.45 m/sec2
= 500 × 1 = 500 N 24. (a) Force on the slab (m = 40 kg) = reaction of frictional
force on the upper block
Dm
where = rate of ejection of fuel.
Dt 100 N
10 kg
16. (b) T1 = m(g + a ) = 0.1(10 + 5) = 1.5N m k × 10 × g
T2 = m(g - a ) = 0.1(10 - 5) = 0.5N 40 kg
27. (b) m = 10 kg, x = (t3 – 2t – 10) m The total mass that must be set in motion is
2 15 kg + 10 kg = 25kg
dx d x
= n = 3t 2 - 2 = a = 6t Since Ftotal = m total a , a = Ftotal / mtotal
dt dt 2
= 49 N / 25 kg @ 2 m/s2
At the end of 4 seconds, a = 6 × 4 = 24 m/s2
36. (a) Momentum is always conserved. Since the skater and
F = ma = 10 × 24 = 240 N
snowball are initially at rest, the initial momentum is
28. (a) F3 zero. Therefore, the final momentum after the toss must
also be zero.
Pskater + Psnowball = 0
F2
or m skater v skater + m snowball v snowball = 0
m
F1 v skater = -m snowball vsnowball / m skater
ò dv = 2[s]0
0.1
= 0.6 ´ 150 ´ 10 = 30 m/s. = 0.2
44. (d) Limiting friction = 0.5 ´ 2 ´10 = 10N 0.1
The applied force is less than force of friction, therefore v - 0.1 = 0.2
the force of friction is equal to the applied force. Þ v = 0.3ms -1
45. (d) Applying law of conservation of momentum 54. (c) If W is the maximum weight, then
Momentum of bullet = Momentum of sand-bullet W = 2T cos 60°
system or W = T = 20N
m æ mö 21 15 5
v = çm + ÷V = mV 55. (c) The acceleration of both the blocks = =
20 è 20 ø 20 3x x
46. (d) Here tan q = 0.8 5
\ Force on B = ´ 2x = 10 N
where q is angle of repose x
56. (b) The maximum acceleration that can be given is a
q = tan -1 (0.8) = 39°
\ 30g = 10g + 10a
The given angle of inclination is equal to the angle of
repose. So the 1 kg block has no tendency to move. Þ a = 2g = 20ms -2
\ mg sin q = force of friction 1 2
We know that s = ut + at
Þ T=0 2
47. (d) For 0.5 kg block, 6 = 0.5 a
2s 2 ´ 10
48. (b) While moving down, when the lift is accelerating the \t= = =1s
weight will be less and when the lift is decelerating the a 20
weight will be more. 57. (a) Let the air resistance be F. Then
mg + F = ma Þ F = m[a - g]
49. (b) Total momentum = 2p î + pˆj
Magnitude of total momentum 30
Here a = = 12ms - 2
2. 5
= ( 2 p) 2 + p 2 = 5p 2 = 5p
m( v - u ) 0.15(0 - 20)
This must be equal to the momentum of the third part. 58. (c) F= = = 30 N
t 0. 1
59. (c) Considering the two masses and the rope a system,
°
30 then
50. (c) cos
ma Initial net force = [25 - (15 + 5)] g = 5g
30° 60°
° Final net force = éë( 25 + 5 ) - 15 ùû g = 15 g
30 ma (pseudo force)
sin
mg Þ (acceleration)final = 3 (acceleration)initial
M a 60. (d)
30° 90°
q
os
Fc
ma cos 30° = mg sin 30° N q
F
g
\a= F sin q
3 q
sin mg cos q
51. (d) Apparent weight when mass is falling down is given mg mg
by W ' = m(g - a)
\ W ' = 1´ (10 - 10) = 0 From figure N = mg cos q + F sin q
132 PHYSICS
61. (b) m mg = m v 2 / r or v = m g r
or v = ( 0 .25 ´ 9 . 8 ´ 20 ) = 7 m / s
62. (a) Since water does not fall down, therefore the velocity
of revolution should be just sufficient to provide a
T T a
centripetal acceleration at the top of vertical circle. So,
v = (g r ) = {10 ´ (1.6)} = (16) = 4 m/sec.
T – mg = ma … (1)
æ ö
\ r ( 2 p / T ) > rg or T < 2pr < 2p çç r ÷÷ and 2mg – T = 2ma … (2)
rg ègø
Adding (1) and (2), we get
\ T = 2p æç 4 ö÷ = 4 sec mg = 3ma
è 9.8 ø
g
64. (a) From figure, \a=
3
mv2 For fig (b),
N sin q = ....... (i)
r
N cos q = mg ...... (ii)
Dividing, we get
v2 v2
tan q = or q = tan -1
rg rg a¢ T¢ T¢ a¢
65. (a) In the case of a body describing a vertical circle,
A
F = 2mg
mg
(b)
O D
C
q T T '- mg = ma ' … (3)
and 2mg - T ' = 0 … (4)
q Mg cos q
B Solving (3) and (4)
Mg sin q Mg a'=g
mn 2 mn 2 g
T - mg cos q = T = mg cos q + \ a= and a ' = g
l l 3
Tension is maximum when cos q = +1 and velocity is
maximum 69. (c) Linear momentum, P = a + bt 2
Both conditions are satisfied at q = 0º (i.e. at lowest dP
point B) = 2bt (on differentiation)
dt
66. (b) Since surface (ice) is frictionless, so the centripetal
force required for skating will be provided by inclination dP
\ Rate of change of momentum, µt
of boy with the vertical and that angle is given as dt
v2 dP
tan θ = By 2nd law of motion, µF
where v is speed of skating & r is radius dt
rg
\ Fµ t
of circle in which he moves. 70. (d) For equilibrium of all 3 masses,
67. (d) v max = mgr T3 = (m1 + m2 + m3)a or
For equilibrium of m1 & m2 74. (d) Let v1 = velocity when height of free fall is h 1
v2 = velocity when height of free rise is h2
T2 = (m1 + m 2 ).a
\ v12 = u 2 + 2gh1 for free fall
(m1 + m 2 )T3
or, T2 = or
m1 + m 2 + m3 For free rise after impact on ground
Given m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 6 kg, m3 = 4 kg, T3 = 40 N 0 = v22 - 2gh 2 or v 22 = 2gh 2
(10 + 6).40 Initial momentum = mv1
\ T2 = = 32N Final momentum = mv2
10 + 6 + 4
\ Change in momentum = m(v1 – v2)
71. (a) Velocity of ball after dropping it from a height of
5m = m( 2gh 2 - gh 2 )
75. (b) T = tension is the string
\ Applied force F = 2T
10 m/sec 20 m/sec T = F/2 … (i)
(using v2 = u2 + 2gh) T
v2 = 0 + 2 × 10 × 5 Þ v = 10 m/s
T T F
Velocity gained by ball by force exerted by bat f m
0 = u2 – 2gh
u2 = 2 × 10 × 20 or u = 20 m/s For block of mass m, force of friction due to surface f.
For sliding the block
Change in momentum = m(u + v) T – f = force on the block = mass × acceleration
= 0.4 (20 + 10) = 12 kg m/s
T -f
DP DP or acceleration of block = . Put T from (i)
F= or Dt = m
Dt F
F
-f
Dt =
12
= 0.12 sec \ Acceleration = 2
100 m
72. (d) F1 = Force of friction between B and A g sin q - mg cos q
76. (b)
= m1m1g d q
n
= 0.25 × 100 × g = 25 g newton g si d
F2 = Force of friction between (A + B) and surface 45° 45°
smooth rough
= m2 m 2 g = m2 (mass of A and B) g
When surface is When surface is
1 300 smooth rough
= (100 + 200)g = g = 100g newton
3 3 1 1 2
d= (g sin q)t 12 , d = (g sin q - mg cos q) t 2
\ F = F1 + F2 2 2
= 25 g + 100 g = 25g = 125 × 10 N 2d 2d
t1 = , t2 =
\ F = 1250 N g sin q g sin q - mg cos q
73. (b) The rain drops falling vertically with velocity u do not
According to question, t 2 = nt1
affect the momentum along the horizontal track. A
vector has no component in a perpendicular direction 2d 2d
Rain drops add to the mass of the car n =
g sin q g sin q - mg cos q
Mass added in t sec = (mt) kg
Momentum is conserved along horizontal track. m , applicable here, is coefficient of kinetic friction as
Initial mass of car = M the block moves over the inclined plane.
Initial velocity of car = v0 1 æ 1 ö
Final velocity of (car + water) = v n= ççQ cos 45° = sin 45° = ÷÷
1- mk è 2ø
Mass of (car + water) after time t = (M + mt)
\ final momentum = initial momentum 1 1
n2 = or 1 - mk =
(M + mt)v = Mv0 1- mk n2
Mv 0 1
\ v= or m k = 1-
(M + mt) n2
134 PHYSICS
( )
g sin f ;
| F |= 36 + 64 + 100 = 10 2 N Q F = Fx2 + Fy2 + Fz2
retardation of block while sliding down lower half = –
(g sin f - mg cos f) a = 1 ms–2
Q F = ma
For the block to come to rest at the bottom, acceleration
in I half = retardation in II half. 10 2
\ m= = 10 2 kg
g sin f = -(g sin f - mg cos f) 1
85. (d) Frictional force on the box f = mmg
Þ m = 2 tan f \ Acceleration in the box
Alternative method : According to work-energy a = mg = 5 ms–2
theorem, W = DK = 0 v2 = u2 + 2as
(Since initial and final speeds are zero) Þ 0 = 22 + 2 × (5) s
\ Work done by friction + Work done by gravity 2
=0 Þ s=– w.r.t. belt
5
Þ distance = 0.4 m
l
i.e., -(µ mg cos f) + mgl sin f = 0
2 86. (c) a=1
µ
or cos f = sin f or µ = 2 tan f
2
78. (c) Mass (m) = 0.3 kg Þ F = m.a = – 15 x m = 1000 kg
15 -150
a=– x= x = - 50 x
0.3 3
a = – 50 × 0.2 = 10 m / s 2 Total mass = (60 + 940) kg = 1000 kg
Let T be the tension in the supporting cable, then
79. (c) From free body diagram,
T – 1000g = 1000 × 1
ma
g cos Þ T = 1000 × 11 = 11000 N
N 87. (b)
a a
a a
mg cosa
+ ma sina mg mg sin a S/2 h
oot S/2 sin q
For block to remain stationary, Sm
q
mg sin a = ma cos a Þ a = g tan a S/2
h
oug S/2 sin q
q R
80. (a) v 2 - u 2 = 2as or 02 - u 2 = 2(-mk g) s
1 For upper half of inclined plane
- 100 2 = 2 ´ - ´10 ´ s v2 = u2 + 2a S/2 = 2 (g sin q) S/2 = gS sin q
2
s = 1000 m For lower half of inclined plane
81. (b) This is a standard formula and should be memorized. 0 = u2 + 2 g (sin q – m cos q) S/2
Þ – gS sin q = gS ( sinq – m cos q)
g sin q Þ 2 sin q = m cos q
a=
I 2 sin q
1+ Þ m= = 2 tan q
MR 2 cos q
82. (a) N = m a sin q + mg cos q ......(1)
88. (b) v = gr = 10 ´ 40 = 20 m s -1
also m g sin q = m a cos q ......(2)
from (2) a = g tan q 89. (a)
m y
2 ac
sin q os
\ N = mg + mg cos q , q 2 kg m2
cos q N
ma 8 m/sec
Presultant
mg q
or N = cos q
mg m 12 m/sec
cos q o sq g
ma
c mg sin m1
83. (a) mBg = ms mAg {Q mAg = ms mAg} q c x
/se
Þ mB = ms mA 4m 1 kg
or mB = 0.2 × 2 = 0.4 kg 3
m
Laws of Motion 135
æ m 2 g – m k m1g ö m2g
m2g – T = (m2) ç m + m ÷
è 1 2 ø 21. (a) m
solving we get tension in the string
m1m 2 g (1 + m k ) g
T=
m1 + m 2 mg
17. (d) According to question, two stones experience same
Before cutting the string
centripetal force
kx = T + 3 mg ...(i)
i.e. FC1 = FC2 T = mg ...(ii)
Þ kx = 4mg
mv12 2mv 22 After cutting the string T = 0
or, = or, V12 = 4V22
r (r / 2)
4mg - 3mg
So, V1 = 2V2 i.e., n = 2 aA =
3m
18. (a) Coefficient of static friction,
1 4mg
ms = tan 30° = = 0.577 @ 0.6
3
1 2
S = ut + at
2
1 1
4= a(4)2 Þ a = = 0.5
2 2
[Q s = 4m and t = 4s given]
a = gsinq – mk(g) cosq
0.9 g
Þ mk = = 0.5 aA =
3 3
19. (d) To complete the loop a body must enter a vertical loop
mg
of radius R with the minimum velocity v = 5gR . and a B = =g
m
Work, Energy
6 and Power
WORK The area under each segment of the curve is approximately equal
Work Done by a Constant Force to the area of a rectangle. The height of the rectangle is a constant
ur value of force, and its width is a small displacement Dx. Thus, the
Work done (W) by a force F in displacing a body through a step involves an amount of work DWn = Fn Dxn. The total work
displacement x is given by done is approximately given by the sum of the areas of the
rr rectangles.
W = F.x = Fx cos q
i.e., W » å Fn Dxn.
Fsinq
F
q
Body
x
F cos q
r
Where q is the angle between the applied force F and displacement
r
x.
As the size of the steps is reduced, the tops of the rectangle more
The S.I. unit of work is joule, CGS unit is erg and its dimensions closely trace the actual curve shown in figure. If the limit Dx ® 0,
are [ML2T–2]. which is equivalent to letting the number of steps tend to infinity,
1 joule = 107 erg the discrete sum is replaced by a continuous integral.
(a) When q = 0° then W = Fx
(b) When q is between 0 and p/2 then
W = lim
Dxn ®0
å Fn Dxn = ò Fx dx
W = Fx cos q = positive Thus, the work done by a force Fx from an initial point A to final
(c) When q = p/2 then W = Fx cos 90° = 0 (zero) xn
Work done by centripetal force is zero as in this case angle
q = 90°
point B is WA® B = ò Fx dx
xA
(d) \ When q is between p / 2 and p then The work done by a variable force in displacing a particle from x 1
W = Fx cos q = negative to x2
Work Done by a Variable Force x2
Q p = 2m E k
x
m
Fext
Ek
l
If spring constant is k, then energy stored in spring is given
by
P.E. of compressed spring = ½kx2
p
Now if the external force is removed, the mass m is free to
1
move then due to the stored energy in the spring, it starts The graph between E k and p is a rectangular hyperbola
oscillating
(b) Gravitational potential energy : When a body is raised to
some height, above the ground, it acquires some potential Ek
energy, due to its position. The potential energy due to
height is called gravitational potential energy. Let us
consider a ball B, which is raised by a height h from the
ground.
1
Fapp p
B
h 1
mg The graph between Ek and is a rectangular hyperbola
m
Ground p is constant
Ek
In doing so, we do work against gravity and this work is
stored in the ball B in the form of gravitational potential
energy and is given by
W = Fapp. h = mgh = gravitational potential energy ...(i) 1
Further if ball B has gravitational P.E. (potential energy) Uo m
at ground and at height h, Uh, then Keep in Memory
Uh–Uo =mgh ...(ii)
1. Work done by the conservative force in moving a body in
If we choose Uo= 0 at ground (called reference point) then a closed loop is zero.
absolute gravitational P.E of ball at height h is
Work done by the non-conservative force in moving a
Uh = mgh ...(iii) body in a closed loop is non-zero.
In general, if two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are separated 2. If the momenta of two bodies are equal then the kinetic
by a distance r, then the gravitational potential energy is energy of lighter body will be more.
m1m2 Q p1 = p 2 or 2 m1 E 1 = 2 m 2 E 2
U = -G
r
Work, Energy and Power 141
E1 m 2
Keep in Memory
\ =
E 2 m1 1. Work done against friction on horizontal surface
3. If the kinetic energies of two bodies are same then the = m mgx and work done against force of friction on inclined
momentum of heavier body will be more. plane = (mmg cosq) x where m = coefficient of friction.
2. If a body moving with velocity v comes to rest after
p1 m1 covering a distance ‘x’ on a rough surface having
Q E1 = E 2 \
p2
=
m2 coefficient of friction m, then (from work energy theorem),
ur ur
2m gx = v2. Here retardation is a = -mg
WORK-ENERGY THEOREM
Let a number of forces acting on a body of mass m have a resultant 3. Work done by a centripetal force is always zero.
r 4. Potential energy of a system decreases when a
force Fext. And by acting over a displacement x conservative force does work on it.
r r 5. If the speed of a vehicle is increased by n times, then its
(in the direction of Fext. ), Fext. does work on the body, and there
stopping distance becomes n2 times and if momentum is
by changing its velocity from u (initial velocity) to v (final velocity). increased by n times then its kinetic energy increases by
Kinetic energy of the body changes. n2 times.
So, work done by force on the body is equal to the change in
kinetic energy of the body. 6. Stopping distance of the vehicle = Kinetic energy
Stopping force
W = ½ mv 2 - ½mu 2 7. Two vehicles of masses M1 and M2 are moving with
velocities u1 and u2 respectively. When they are stopped
This expression is called Work energy (W.E.) theorem. by the same force, their stopping distance are in the ratio
as follows :
LAW OF CONSERVATION OF MECHANICAL ENERGY Since the retarding force F is same in stopping both the
The sum of the potential energy and the kinetic energy is called vehicles. Let x1 and x2 are the stopping distances of vehicles
the total mechanical energy. of masses M1 & M2 respectively, then
The total mechanical energy of a system remains constant if F.x1 (work done in stopping the mass M1 )
only conservative forces are acting on a system of particles and F.x 2 (work done in stopping the mass M 2 )
the work done by all other forces is zero.
½M1u12 E k1
i.e., DK + DU = 0 = = ....(i)
½M 2u 22 E k2
or Kf – Ki + Uf – Ui = 0
where u1 and u2 are initial velocity of mass M1 & M2
or Kf + Uf = Ki + Ui = constant
respectively & final velocity of both mass is zero.
VARIOUS FORMS OF ENERGY : THE LAW OF
CONSERVATION OF ENERGY x 1 E k1 ....(ii)
Þ =
Energy is of many types – mechanical energy, sound energy, x 2 E k2
heat energy, light energy, chemical energy, atomic energy, nuclear Let us apply a retarding force F on M1 & M2, a1 & a2 are
energy etc. the decelerations of M1 & M2 respectively. Then from third
In many processes that occur in nature energy may be transformed
from one form to other. Mass can also be transformed into energy (
equation of motion v 2 = u 2 + 2ax : )
and vice-versa. This is according to Einstein’s mass-energy
u12
equivalence relation, E = mc2. 0 = u12 - 2a1x1 Þ a 1 = ....(iii a)
2x1
In dynamics, we are mainly concerned with purely mechanical
energy.
u 22
and 0 = u 22 - 2a 2 x 2 Þ a 2 = ....(iii b )
Law of Conservation of Energy : 2x 2
The study of the various forms of energy and of transformation If t1 & t2 are the stopping time of vehicles of masses
of one kind of energy into another has led to the statement of a M1 & M2 respectively, then from first equation of motion
very important principle, known as the law of conservation of
energy. (v = u+at) 0 = u1 - a 1t1 Þ t1 = u1 ....(iv a)
a1
"Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it may only be
transformed from one form into another. As such the total amount u2
and 0 = u 2 - a 2 t 2 Þ t 2 = ....(iv b)
of energy never changes". a2
142 PHYSICS
Then by rearranging equation (i), (iii) & (iv), we get (a) If a spring is divided into n equal parts, the spring
constant of each part = nK.
t1 u /a æ x ö æu ö
= 1 1 = ç 1 ÷´ç 2 ÷ (b) If spring of spring constant K1, K2, K3 .......... are
t 2 u 2 / a 2 çè x 2 ÷ø çè u1 ÷
ø connected in series, then effective force constant
t (½ M1u12 ) u 2 æ M1u1 ö 1 1 1 1
Þ 1 = ´ =ç ÷÷ = + + + ......
t 2 (½ M 2 u 22 ) u1 çè M 2 u 2 ø K eff K1 K 2 K 3
(c) If spring of spring constant K1, K2, K3........... are
t1 M1
(a) If u1 = u 2 Þ = connected in parallel, then effective spring constant
t 2 M2 Keff = K1 + K2 + K3 +.............
t1 u 1
(b) If M1 = M 2 Þ = POWER
t2 u2 Power of the body is defined as the time rate of doing work by
(c) If M1u1 = M2u2 Þ t1 = t2 the body.
The average power Pav over the time interval Dt is defined by
x1 (M1u1 ) 2 M 2 x M
and = 2
´ Þ 1 = 2 DW
x 2 (M 2 u 2 ) M1 x 2 M1 Pav = ...(i)
Dt
(d) Consider two vehicles of masses M 1 & M 2
And the instantaneous power P is defined by
respectively.
If they are moving with same velocities, then the ratio DW dW
P = Lim = ...(ii)
of their stopping distances by the application of same dt ® 0 Dt dt
retarding force is given by Power is a scalar quantity
x1 M1 The S.I. unit of power is joule per second
= and let M2 > M1 then x1 < x2
x 2 M2 1 joule/sec = 1watt
The dimensions of power are [ML2T–3]
Þ lighter mass will cover less distance then the r
heavier mass dW d r r r dS rr
P= = ( F .S ) = F . = F .v
And the ratio of their retarding times are as follows : dt dt dt
t1 M1 x1 t 1 (force is constant over a small time interval)
= i.e =
t2 M2 x2 t2 So instantaneous power (or instantaneous rate of working) of a
man depends not only on the force applied to body, but also on
8. If kinetic energy of a body is doubled, then its momentum
the instantaneous velocity of the body.
p2 Example 1.
becomes 2 times, E k = Þ pµ E k A metre stick of mass 600 mg, is pivoted at one end and
2m
9. If two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic displaced through an angle of 60º. The increase in its
energies, then their velocities are inversely proportional potential energy is (g = 10 ms–2)
to the square root of the respective masses. i.e. (a) 1.5 J (b) 15 J
(c) 150 J (d) 0.15 J
1 1 v1 m2 Solution : (a)
m1v12 = m 2 v 2 2 then =
2 2 v2 m1 O
l/2
x
10. (a) The spring constant of a spring is inversely 60º
l/2 G´
1 M
proportional to the no. of turn s i.e. Kµ h
n G A´
or kn = const.
(b) Greater the no. of turns in a spring, greater will be the
work done i.e. W µ n A
(c) The greater is the elasticity of the spring, the greater
The C.G. of stick rises from G to G´.
is the spring constant.
\ Increase in P.E. = mgh
11. Spring constant : The spring constant of a spring is
mg l
1 = mg (l/2 – x) = (1 - cos 60º )
inversely proportional to length i.e., K µ or 2
l
0.6 x 10 x 1 é 1 ù
Kl = constant. = ê1 - 2 ú = 1.5 J
2 ë û
Work, Energy and Power 143
Example 2. Example 5.
A block of mass M slides along the sides of a flat bottomed A particle of mass m is moving along a circular path of
bowl. The sides of the bowl are frictionless and the base constant radius R. The centripetal acceleration varies as
has a coefficient of friction 0.2. If the block is released a = K2 Rt2, where K is a constant and t is the time elapsed.
from the top of the side which is 1.5 m high, where will the What is the power delivered to the particle by the force
block come to rest if, the length of the base is 15 m ? acting on it?
(a) 1 m from P (b) Mid point of flat part PQ v2
(c) 2 m from P (d) At Q Sol. For circular motion, ac = v2 / R here K2 Rt2 = or v2 =
R
Solution : (b) K2 R2 t2
P.E. of the block at top of side = 1.5 mg. 1 1
This is wasted away in doing work on the rough flat part, Now, KE = mv 2 = m. K 2 R 2 t 2
2 2
Work done in time t = W = DK
1.5 m
P Q (from work energy theorem)
15 m
m 2 2 2 m
1.5 \ DK = (K R t ) - 0 = K 2 R 2 t 2
\ 1.5 mg = m mg.x or x = = 7.5 m. 2 2
m dW m 2 2
i.e, the block comes to rest at mid-point of PQ. Power = = K .R .2t = mK 2 R 2 t
dt 2
Example 3. Example 6.
Fig. given below shows a smooth curved track terminating
An electron of mass 9.0 × 10–28 g is moving at a speed of
in a smooth horizontal part. A spring of spring constant
400 N/m is attached at one end to the wedge fixed rigidly 1000 m/sec. Calculate its kinetic energy if the electron
with the horizontal part. A 40 g mass is released from rest takes up this speed after moving a distance of 10 cm from
at a height of 4.9 m on the curved track. Find the maximum rest. Also calculate the force in kg weight acting on it.
compression of the spring. Solution :
1 1
K.E. = mn 2 = ´ 9 ´ 10-31 (103 ) 2 = 4.5 × 10–25 J ;
2 2
From n 2 – u2 =2as, n 2 = 2as Q u=0
4.9 m
n2 (103 ) 2
\a= =
2s 2 ´ 10 - 1
4.5 ´ 10-24
F = ma = 9 × 10–31 (0.5 × 107) N = kg wt.
Solution : 9.8
According to the law of conservation of energy, = 0.46 × 10–24 kg wt.
1 Example 7.
mg h = k x2 The bob of a simple pendulum of length 1 m is drawn aside
2
where x is maximum compression. until the string becomes horizontal. Find the velocity of
the bob, after it is released, at the equilibrium position.
æ 2m g hö
\ x= ç
è k ÷ø
ì 2 ´ (0.4 kg ) ´ (9.8 m / s 2 )0 ´ ( 4.9 m) üï
or x = ïí ý = 9.8 cm.
ïî ( 400 N / m) ïþ
Example 4.
The K.E. of a body decreases by 19%. What is the
percentage decrease in momentum?
Solution :
Solution :
As p = 2m K.E When the bob is raised from A to B the height through
which it is raised is the length of the pendulum.
p f - pi K.E f - K.E i
´ 100 = ´ 100 h = 1m
pi K.E i Taking A as the standard level.
æ 81 - 100 ö P.E. at B = mgh = m × 9.8 × 1 = (9.8) m joule, where m is the
=ç ÷ ´ 100
è 100 ø mass of the bob.
= -10% Since it is at rest at B it has no K.E.
144 PHYSICS
When the bob reaches A after it is released from B, its Oblique Elastic Collision :
energy at A is kinetic one. P.E. at A is zero. When a body of mass m collides obliquely against a stationary
If v be the velocity at A, from the law of conservation of body of same mass then after the collision the angle between
energy these two bodies is always 90°.
K.E. at A = P.E. at B
Elastic Collision in One Dimension (Head on)
1
mv2 = mgh or v2 = 2gh Let two bodies of masses M1 and M2 moving with velocities u1
2 and u2 along the same straight line, collide with each other. Let
Þ v = 2gh = 2 ´ 9.8 ´ 1 = 196 = 4.427 m/s u1>u2. Suppose v1 and v2 respectively are the velocities after
the elastic collision, then:
The bob has a velocity 4.427 m/s at A.
According to law of conservation of momentum
COLLISION
M1u1 + M 2 u 2 = M1v1 + M 2 v 2 ...(1)
Collision between two bodies is said to take place if either of
two bodies come in physical contact with each other or even M1 M2 M1 v1 M2 v2
u1 u2
when path of one body is affected by the force exerted due to
the other. Before collision After collision
From law of conservation of energy
Head on collision
Elastic collision (e = 1) (Impact parameter b = 0) 1 1 1 1
• Total energy conserved M1u12 + M 2 u 2 2 = M1v12 + M 2 v 2 2 ...(2)
• Total momentum conserved 2 2 2 2
• K.E is conserved Oblique collision
u1 - u 2 = – (v1 - v2 ) ...(3)
(Impact parameter b ¹ 0)
Collision Relative velocity of a Relative velocity of a
Inelastic collision body before collision body after collision
Inelastic collision (0 < e < 1) Solving eqs. (1) and (2) we get,
• Total energy conserved Head on Oblique
• Total momentum conserved collision collision (M1 – M 2 )u1 2M 2 u 2
• K.E is not conserved v1 = + ...(4)
Perfectly inelastic collision (M1 + M 2 ) (M1 + M 2 )
(e = 0)
(M 2 – M1 )u 2 2M1u1
(1) Elastic collision : The collision in which both the v2 = + ...(5)
(M1 + M 2 ) (M1 + M 2 )
momentum and kinetic energy of the system remains
conserved is called elastic collision. From eqns. (4) and (5), it is clear that :
Forces involved in the interaction of elastic collision are (i) If M1 = M2 and u2 = 0 then v1 = 0 and v2 = u1. Under this
conservative in nature. condition the first particle comes to rest and the second
(2) Inelastic collision : The collision in which only the particle moves with the velocity of first particle after
collision. In this state there occurs maximum transfer of
momentum of the system is conserved but kinetic energy
energy.
is not conserved is called inelastic collision.
(ii) If M1>> M2 and (u2=0) then, v1 = u1, v2 = 2u1 under this
Perfectly inelastic collision is one in which the two bodies
condition the velocity of first particle remains unchanged
stick together after the collision.
and velocity of second particle becomes double that of
Forces involved in the interaction of inelastic collision are first.
non-conservative in nature.
Coefficient of Restitution (or coefficient of resilience) : 2M1
(iii) If M1 << M2 and (u2 = 0) then v1 = –u1 and v2 = u1 » 0
It is the ratio of velocity of separation after collision to the M2
velocity of approach before collision. under this condition the second particle remains at rest
i.e., e = | v1 – v2 |/ | u1 – u2 | while the first particle moves with the same velocity in the
Here u1 and u2 are the velocities of two bodies before collision opposite direction.
and v1 and v2 are the velocities of two bodies after collision. (iv) If M1 = M2 = M but u2 ¹ 0 then v1 = u2 i.e., the particles
1. 0 < e < 1 (Inelastic collision) mutually exchange their velocities.
Collision between two ivory balls, steel balls or quartz ball (v) If second body is at rest i.e., u2 = 0, then fractional decrease
is nearly elastic collision. in kinetic energy of mass M1, is given by
2. For perfectly elastic collision, e = 1 E k1 - E 'k1 v12 4M1M 2
3. For a perfectly inelastic collision, e = 0 = 1- =
E k1 u12 (M1 + M 2 ) 2
Work, Energy and Power 145
//////////////////
2
æ v - v1 ö
v 2 = v12 + 2v 22 = v12 + 2ç ÷
è 2 ø At impact J J
v 2 + v 2 - 2vv 1 2
2v12 + v12 2
2
v = v12 + 1 or 2v = + v - 2vv1
2 Just after impact 2m/s
or 3v12 - 2vv1 - v 2 = 0 ; v1 = - v e = separation speed : approach speed = 2 : 3
3 Therefore the coefficient of restitution is 2/3.
1 Using impulse = change in momentum for the sphere we
mv 2
K.E. of colliding body before collision = 2 have : = 0.5 × 2 – 0.5 (–3) = 2.5
2 =9:1
K.E. of colliding body after collision 1 ævö The equal and opposite impulse acting on the wall is
mç ÷
2 è3ø therefore 2.5 N s.
Work, Energy and Power 147
148 PHYSICS
1. The magnitude of work done by a force : 10. A metallic wire of length L metre extends by l metre when
(a) depends on frame of reference stretched by suspending a weight Mg from it. The mechanical
(b) does not depend on frame of reference energy stored in the wire is
(c) cannot be calculated in non-inertial frames. (a) 2 Mg l (b) Mg l
(d) both (a) and (b) Mg l Mg l
(c) (b)
2. Work done by a conservative force is positive if 2 4
(a) P.E. of the body increases 11. A body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest to v1 in
(b) P.E. of the body decreases time t1. As a function of t, the instantaneous power delivered
(c) K.E. of the body increases to the body is
(d) K.E. of the body decreases m n1 t m n12 t
3. A vehicle is moving with a uniform velocity on a smooth (a) (b)
t2 t1
horizontal road, then power delivered by its engine must be
(a) uniform (b) increasing m n12 t
m n1 t 2
(c) decreasing (d) zero (c) (d)
4. Which of the following force(s) is/are non-conservative? t1 t12
(a) Frictional force (b) Spring force 12. A block is acted upon by a force, which is inversely
(c) Elastic force (d) All of these proportional to the distance covered (x). The work done
5. A ball of mass m and a ball B of mass 2m are projected with will be proportional to
equal kinetic energies. Then at the highest point of their (a) x (b) x1/2
respective trajectories. (c) x 2 (d) None of these
(a) P.E. of A will be more than that of B 13. A small body is projected in a direction inclined at 45º to the
(b) P.E of B will be more than that of B horizontal with kinetic energy K. At the top of its flight, its
(c) P.E of A will be equal to that of B kinetic energy will be
(d) can’t be predicted. (a) Zero (b) K/2
6. In case of elastic collision, at the time of impact.
(c) K/4 (d) K/ 2
(a) total K.E. of colliding bodies is conserved.
(b) total K.E. of colliding bodies increases 14. A motor cycle is moving along a straight horizontal road
(c) total K.E. of colliding bodies decreases with a speed v0. If the coefficient of friction between the
(d) total momentum of colliding bodies decreases. tyres and the road is m, the shortest distance in which the
7. The engine of a vehicle delivers constant power. If the car can be stopped is
vehicle is moving up the inclined plane then, its velocity, v20 v2
(a) must remain constant (a) (b)
2m g m
(b) must increase
(c) must decrease 2
æ v0 ö v0
(d) may increase, decrease or remain same. (c) çè m g ÷ø (d) mg
8. A ball projected from ground at a certain angle collides a
smooth inclined plane at the highest point of its trajectory. 15. Consider the following two statement:
If the collision is perfectly inelastic then after the collision, I. Linear momentum of a system of particles is zero.
ball will II. Kinetic energy of a system of particles is zero.
(a) come to rest Then
(b) move along the incline (a) I implies II but II does not imply I.
(c) retrace its path. (b) I does not imply II but II implies I.
9. The vessels A and B of equal volume and weight are (c) I implies II and II implies I.
immersed in water to depth h. The vessel A has an opening (d) I does not imply II and II does not imply I.
at the bottom through which water can enter. If the work 16. Which of the following must be known in order to determine
done in immersing A and B are WA and WB respectively, the power output of an automobile?
then (a) Final velocity and height
(a) WA = WB (b) WA < WB (b) Mass and amount of work performed
(c) WA > WB (d) WA > WB (c) Force exerted and distance of motion
<
(d) Work performed and elapsed time of work
Work, Energy and Power 149
17. The work done in stretching a spring of force constant k 22. A ball of mass m moving with a constant velocity strikes
from length l1 and l 2 is against a ball of same mass at rest. If e = coefficient of
restitution, then what will be the ratio of velocity of two
1 balls after collision?
(a) k(l 22 - l12 ) (b) k (l 22 - l 12 )
2 1- e e -1
(a) (b)
k 1+ e e +1
(c) k (l 2 - l 1 ) (d) (l 2 + l 1 )
2 1+ e 2+e
18. If the force acting on a body is inversely proportional to its (c) (d)
1- e e -1
velocity, then the kinetic energy acquired by the body in 23. Which one of the following physical quantities is
time t is proportional to represented by the shaded area in the given graph?
(a) t 0 (b) t 1
(c) t 2 (d) t 4
19. The engine of a truck moving along a straight road delivers
Force
constant power. The distance travelled by the truck in time
t is proportional to
(a) t (b) t 2
(c) t (d) t 3/2 Distance
20. A bullet of mass ‘a’ and velocity ‘b’ is fired into a large (a) Torque (b) Impulse
block of wood of mass ‘c’. The bullet gets embedded into (c) Power (d) Work done
the block of wood. The final velocity of the system is 24. A particle of mass m1 moving with velocity v collides with
b a +b a mass m2 at rest, then they get embedded. Just after
(a) ´c (b) ´a collision, velocity of the system
a+b c
(a) increases (b) decreases
a a +c (c) remains constant (d) becomes zero
(c) ´b (d) ´b
a +c a
21. A ball is dropped from a height h. If the coefficient of 25. A mass m1 moves with a great velocity. It strikes another
restitution be e, then to what height will it rise after jumping mass m2 at rest in a head on collision. It comes back along
twice from the ground? its path with low speed, after collision. Then
(a) e h/2 (b) 2 e h (a) m1 > m2 (b) m1 < m2
(c) e h (d) e4 h (c) m1 = m2 (d) cannot say
1. A particle describe a horizontal circle of radius 0.5 m with 4. A particle moving in the xy plane undergoes a displacement
r r
uniform speed. The centripetal force acting is 10 N. The of s = (2 î + 3 ĵ) while a constant force F = (5 î + 2 ĵ ) N
work done in describing a semicircle is
acts on the particle. The work done by the force F is
(a) zero (b) 5 J
(a) 17 joule (b) 18 joule
(c) 5 p J (d) 10 p J
2. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M, (c) 16 joule (d) 15 joule
a distance d at a constant downward acceleration of g/4. 5. A simple pendulum 1 metre long has a bob of 10 kg. If the
The work done by the cord on the block is pendulum swings from a horizontal position, the K.E. of the
bob, at the instant it passes through the lowest position of
d d
(a) Mg (b) 3Mg its path is
4 4
(a) 89 joule (b) 95 joule
d
(c) -3Mg (d) Mg d (c) 98 joule (d) 85 joule
4 6. A particle moves under the effect of a force F = cx from
3. A boy pushes a toy box 2.0 m along the floor by means of a
x = 0 to x = x1, the work done in the process is
force of 10 N directed downward at an angle of 60º to the
horizontal. The work done by the boy is 1 2
(a) 6 J (b) 8 J (a) cx 12 (b) cx1
2
(c) 10 J (d) 12 J
(c) 2 cx12 (d) zero
150 PHYSICS
7. A motor of 100 H.P. moves a load with a uniform speed of 72 18. A long string is stretched by 2 cm and the potential energy
km/hr. The forward thrust applied by the engine on the car is V. If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, its potential energy
is will be
(a) 1111 N (b) 3550 N (a) V / 25 (b) V/5
(c) 2222 N (d) 3730 N (c) 5 V (d) 25 V
8. Two bodies A and B having masses in the ratio of 3 : 1 19. When the kinetic energy of a body is increased to three
possess the same kinetic energy. The ratio of linear times, then the momentum increases
momentum of B to A is (a) 6 times (b) 1.732 times
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 2 times (d) 2 times
20. Two bodies of masses 2 m and m have their KE in the ratio
(c) 1: 3 (d) 3 :1
8 : 1. What is the ratio of their momenta ?
9. When a U238 nucleus, originally at rest, decays by emitting (a) 8 : 1 (b) 4 : 1
an a-particle, say with speed of v m/sec, the recoil speed of (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1
the residual nucleus is (in m/sec.) 21. A body of mass 5 kg initially at rest explodes into 3
(a) – 4 v/234 (b) – 4 v/238 fragments with mass ratio 3 : 1 : 1. Two of fragments each of
(c) 4 v/238 (d) – v/4 mass ‘m’ are found to move with a speed 60 m/s in mutually
10. Calculate the K.E and P.E. of the ball half way up, when a perpendicular directions. The velocity of third fragment is
ball of mass 0.1 kg is thrown vertically upwards with an (a) 60 2 (b) 20 3
initial speed of 20 ms–1.
(a) 10 J, 20 J (b) 10 J, 10 J (c) 10 2 (d) 20 2
(c) 15 J, 8 J (d) 8 J, 16 J 22. A machine, which is 75% efficient, uses 12 J of energy in
11. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 lifting up a 1 kg mass through a certain distance. The mass
cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is is then allowed to fall through that distance. The velocity
(a) 16 J (b) 8 J at the end of its fall is (in m/s)
(c) 32 J (d) 24 J. (a) 24 (b) 12
12. If the linear momentum is increased by 5%, the kinetic energy (c) (d)
18 9
will increase by
23. A body accelerates uniformly from rest to a velocity of 1
(a) 50% (b) 100%
ms–1 in 15 seconds. The kinetic energy of the body will be
(c) 125% (d) 10%
13. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M, through 2
a distance d at a constant downward acceleration of g/8. J when 't' is equal to [Take mass of body as 1 kg]
9
Then the work done by the cord on the block is (a) 4s (b) 8s
(a) Mg d/8 (b) 3 Mg d/8 (c) 10s (d) 12s
(c) Mg d (d) – 7 mg d/8 24. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity
r r r r
14. A force F = (5i + 3 j + 2k)N is applied over a particle which 1200 ms–1. The man holding it can exert a maximum force of
r r r 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second
displaces it from its origin to the point r = (2 i - j)m. The
at the most?
work done on the particle in joule is
(a) 2 (b) 4
(a) +10 (b) +7
(c) 1 (d) 3
(c) –7 (d) +13 25. A crane is used to lift 1000 kg of coal from a mine 100 m
15. A spring of spring constant 5 × 103 N/m is stretched initially deep. The time taken by the crane is 1 hour. The efficiency
by 5 cm from the unstretched position. Then the work of the crane is 80%. If g = 10 ms–2, then the power of the
required to stretch it further by another 5 cm is crane is
(a) 18.75 J (b) 25.00 J (a) 104 W (b) 105 W
(c) 6.25 J (d) 12.50 J
16. Two solid rubber balls A and B having masses 200 & 104 105
(c) W (d) W
400 gm respectively are moving in opposite direction with 36 ´ 8 36 ´ 8
velocity of A equal to 0.3 m/sec. After collision the two 26. In figure, a carriage P is pulled up from A to B. The relevant
balls come to rest when the velocity of B is coefficient of friction is 0.40. The work done will be
(a) 0.15 m/sec (b) 1.5 m/sec (a) 10 kJ
(c) –0.15 m/sec (d) None of these B
17. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into the pieces of masses (b) 23 kJ 0 kg
P 5
3 kg and 6 kg. The velocity of mass 3 kg is 16 m/s. The (c) 25 kJ
kinetic energy of mass 6 kg in joule is m 30 m
50
(a) 96 (b) 384 (d) 28 kJ q
(c) 192 (d) 768 A C
Work, Energy and Power 151
27. A neutron with velocity v strikes a stationary deuterium 35. A body of mass m is suspended from a massless spring of
atom, its K.E. changes by a factor of natural length l. It stretches the spring through a vertical
distance y. The potential energy of the stretched spring is
15 1
(a) (b) 1
16 2 mg (l + y)
(a) mg(l + y) (b)
2
2
(c ) (d) None of these 1
1 (c) mgy (d) mgy
28. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line under 2
the action of a force of 5 newtons. If the work done is 25 36. Figure here shows the frictional force versus displacement
joules, the angle which the force makes with the direction for a particle in motion. The loss of kinetic energy in
of motion of body is travelling over s = 0 to 20 m will be
(a) 0º (b) 30º
(c) 60º (d) 90º f(N)
29. A sphere of mass 8m collides elastically (in one dimension) 15
with a block of mass 2m. If the initial energy of sphere is E.
What is the final energy of sphere? 10
(a) 0.8 E (b) 0.36 E
(c) 0.08 E (d) 0.64 E 5
30. Johnny and his sister Jane race up a hill. Johnny weighs
twice as much as jane and takes twice as long as jane to 0 x(m)
0 5 10 20
reach the top . Compared to Jane
(a) Johnny did more work and delivered more power. (a) 250 J (b) 200 J
(b) Johnny did more work and delivered the same amount (c) 150 J (d) 10 J
of power. 37. Ten litre of water per second is lifted from a well through 10
(c) Johnny did more work and delivered less power m and delivered with a velocity of 10 ms –1 . If
(d) Johnny did less work and johnny delivered less power. g = 10 ms–2 , then the power of the motor is
31. A body of mass m moving with velocity v makes a head on (a) 1 kW (b) 1.5 kW
elastic collision with another body of mass 2m which in (c) 2 kW (d) 2.5 kW
initially at rest. The loss of kinetic energy of the colliding 38. A nucleus ruptures into two nuclear parts which have their
body (mass m ) is velocity ratio equal to 2 : 1 . The ratio of their respective
1 nuclear sizes (nuclear radii )is
(a) of its initial kinetic energy
2
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 2
(b) 1 of its initial kinetic energy (c) 1 : 2 1/3 (d) 1 : 8
9 39. The rest energy of an electron is 0.511 MeV. The electron is
8 accelerated from rest to a velocity 0.5 c. The change in its
(c) of its initial kinetic energy energy will be
9
(a) 0.026 MeV (b) 0.051 MeV
1 (c) 0.08 MeV (d) 0.105 MeV
(d) of its initial kinetic energy
4 40. A one-ton car moves with a constant velocity of
32. In the non-relativistic regime, if the momentum, is increase 15 ms–1 on a rough horizontal road. The total resistance to
by 100% , the percentage increase in kinetic energy is the motion of the car is 12% of the weight of the car. The
(a) 100 (b) 200 power required to keep the car moving with the same
(c) 300 (d) 400 constant velocity of 15ms–1 is
33. A body is dropped from a height of 20m and rebounds to a [Take g = 10 ms–2]
height 10m. The loss of energy is (a) 9 kW (b) 18 kW
(a) 10% (b) 45% (c) 24 kW (d) 36 kW
(c) 50% (d) 75% 41. Hail storms are observed to strike the surface of the frozen
34. A moving body with a mass m1 and velocity u strikes a lake at 300 with the vertical and rebound at 600 with the
stationary body of mass m2. The masses m1 and m2 should vertical. Assume contact to be smooth, the coefficient of
be in the ratio m1/m2 so as to decrease the velocity of the restitution is
first body to 2u/3 and giving a velocity of u to m2 assuming 1 1
a perfectly elastic impact. Then the ratio m1/m2 is (a) e= (b) e=
3 3
(a) 5 (b) 1 / 5
(c) 1 / 25 (d) 25. (c) e= 3 (d) e = 3
152 PHYSICS
45º P P
(c) (d)
A
t t
B 63. A glass marble dropped from a certain height above the
(a) both A and B rise to the same height horizontal surface reaches the surface in time t and then
(b) both A and B come to rest at B continues to bounce up and down. The time in which the
marble finally comes to rest is
(c) both A and B move with the velocity of A
(d) A comes to rest and B moves with the velocity of A (a) ent (b) e 2 t
57. Two masses ma and mb moving with velocities va and vb in
opposite direction collide elastically and after the collision é1+ e ù é1 - e ù
(c) tê (d) t ê ú
ma and mb move with velocities Vb and Va respectively. ë1 - e úû ë1 + e û
Then the ratio ma/mb is
64. A weight suspended from the free end of a vertically
Va - Vb ma + mb hanging spring produces an extension of 3 cm. The spring
(a) Va + Vb
(b) ma is cut into two parts so that the length of the longer part is
2
1 of the original length, If the same weight is now
(c) 1 (d) 3
2
suspended from the longer part of the spring, the extension
58. A particle moves in a straight line with retardation
produced will be
proportional to its displacement. Its loss of kinetic energy
for any displacement x is proportional to (a) 0.1 cm (b) 0.5 cm
(a) x (b) e x (c) 1 cm (d) 2 cm
(c) x 2 (d) loge x 65. A 10 m long iron chain of linear mass density 0.8 kg m–1 is
hanging freely from a rigid support. If g = 10 ms–2, then the
59. A particle of mass m1 moving with velocity v strikes with a power required to left the chain upto the point of support in
mass m2 at rest, then the condition for maximum transfer of 10 second
kinetic energy is (a) 10 W (b) 20W
(a) m1 >> m2 (b) m2 >> m2 (c) 30 W (d) 40 W
(c) m1 = m2 (d) m1 = 2m2 66. A smooth sphere of mass M moving with velocity u directly
60. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 4 kg are connected by a collides elastically with another sphere of mass m at rest.
spring of negligible mass and placed on a frictionless After collision, their final velocities are V and v respectively.
horizontal surface. An impulse gives a velocity of 14 m/s to The value of v is
the heavier block in the direction of the lighter block. The
velocity of the centre of mass is 2uM 2um
(a) (b)
(a) 30 m/s (b) 20 m/s m M
(c) 10 m/s (d) 5 m/s
61. A mass m is moving with velocity v collides inelastically 2u 2u
(c) (d)
with a bob of simple pendulum of mass m and gets embedded m M
1+ 1+
into it. The total height to which the masses will rise after M m
collision is 67. The kinetic energy of particle moving along a circle of radius
R depends upon the distance covered S and is given by K
v2 v2 = aS where a is a constant. Then the force acting on the
(a) (b)
8g 4g particle is
v2 2v 2 aS 2(aS) 2
(c) (d) (a) (b)
2g g R R
62. A motor drives a body along a straight line with a constant aS2 2aS
force. The power P developed by the motor must vary with (c) 2 (d)
R R
time t according to
154 PHYSICS
68. A ramp is constructed in parabolic shape such that the 74. A body falls freely under gravity. Its velocity is v when it
height y of any point on its surface is given in terms of the has lost potential energy equal to U. What is the mass of
point's horizontal distance x from the bottom of the ramp be the body ?
y = x2/2L. A block of granite is to be set on the ramp; the (a) U2 /v2 (b) 2U2/v2
coefficient of static friction is 0.80. What is the maximum x (c) 2U/v 2 (d) U /v2
coordinate at which the block can be placed on the ramp 75. If v be the instantaneous velocity of the body dropped
and remain at rest, if L = 10 m? from the top of a tower, when it is located at height h, then
which of the following remains constant ?
v2
y (a) gh + v2 (b) gh +
2
x v2
(a) 8 m (b) 8.4 m (c) gh - (d) gh – v2
2
(c) 9 m (d) 9.4 m
69. The force F acting on a body moving in a circle of radius r 76. The coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is
is always perpendicular to the instantaneous velocity v. m. A car is moving with momentum p. What will be the
The work done by the force on the body in half rotation is stopping distance due to friction alone ? The mass of the
(a) Fv (b) F·2pr car is m.
(c) Fr (d) 0 (a) p2/2mg (b) p2/2mmg
70. The negative of the distance rate of change of potential (c) p2/2m2mg (d) p2/2mg
energy is equal to 77. A particle moves in the X–Y plane under the influence of a
r
(a) force acting on the particle in the direction of force F such that its instantaneous momentum is
displacement r ˆ
p = i2cos t + ˆj2sin t .
(b) acceleration of the particle, perpendicular to
displacement What is the angle between the force and instantaneous
(c) power momentum ?
(d) impulse. (a) 0° (b) 45°
71. n small balls each of mass m impinge elastically each second (c) 90° (d) 180°
on a surface with velocity v. The force experienced by the 78. A particle of mass 10 kg moving eastwards with a speed 5
surface will be ms–1 collides with another particle of the same mass moving
north-wards with the same speed 5 ms–1. The two particles
1
(a) mnv (b) 2 mnv coalesce on collision. The new particle of mass 20 kg will
2 move in the north-east direction with velocity
(c) mnv (d) 2 mnv (a) 10 ms–1 (b) 5 ms–1
72. A horse drinks water from a cubical container of side 1 m.
The level of the stomach of horse is at 2 m from the ground. (c) (5 / 2)ms -1 (d) none of these
Assume that all the water drunk by the horse is at a level of 79. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of
2m from the ground. Then minimum work done by the horse 36 km/h has a head on collision with a stationary ball of
in drinking the entire water of the container is mass 3 kg. If after the collision, the two balls move together,
(Take rwater = 1000 kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2 ) – the loss in kinetic energy due to collision is
(a) 10 kJ (a) 140 J (b) 100 J
(c) 60 J (d) 40 J
(b) 15 kJ 80. A force acts on a 30 gm particle in such a way that the position
(c) 20 kJ of the particle as a function of time is given by x = 3t – 4t 2
+ t3, where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The work done
(d) zero during the first 4 seconds is
73. The ball rolls down without slipping (which is at rest at a) (a) 576mJ (b) 450mJ
along ab having friction. It rolls to a maximum height h c (c) 490mJ (d) 530mJ
where bc has no friction. Ka, Kb and Kc are kinetic energies 81. Arubber ball is dropped from a height of5m on a plane, where
at a, b and c. the acceleration due to gravity is not shown. On bouncing
Which of the following is correct ? it rises to 1.8 m. The ball loses its velocity on bouncing by
a a factor of
c
16 2
ha hc (a) (b)
b 25 5
(a) Ka = Kc, ha = hc (b) Kb > Kc, ha = hc 3 9
(c) (d)
(c) Kb > Kc, ha < hc (d) Kb > Kc, ha > hc 5 25
Work, Energy and Power 155
82. A 3 kg ball strikes a heavy rigid wall with a speed of 10 m/ 89. A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with
s at an angle of 60º. It gets reflected with the same speed and velocity v collides and sticks to mass of 3m moving vertically
angle as shown here. If the ball is in contact with the wall for upward (along the y-axis) with velocity 2v. The final velocity
0.20s, what is theaverageforceexertedon theball bythe wall? of the combination is
1 ˆ 3 ˆ 1 ˆ 2 ˆ
(a) 150N (a) vi + v j (b) vi + v j
4 2 3 3
(b) Zero 60º 2 ˆ 1 ˆ 3 ˆ 1 ˆ
(c) vi + v j (d) vi + v j
3 3 2 4
(c) 150 3N 60º 90. The potential energy of particle in a force field is
A B
(d) 300N U = 2 - , where A and B are positive constants and r is
r r
83. Abombofmass1kgis thrown verticallyupwards with a speed the distance of particle from the centre of the field. For
of 100 m/s. After 5 seconds it explodes into two fragments. stable equilibrium, the distance of the particle is
One fragment of mass 400 gm is found to go down with a (a) B / 2A (b) 2A / B
speed of 25 m/s. What will happen to the second fragment (c) A / B (d) B / A
just after the explosion? (g = 10 m/s2) 91. A uniform force of (3iˆ + ˆj ) newton acts on a particle of
(a) It will go upward with speed 40 m/s
mass 2 kg. The particle is displaced from position (2$i + k$ )
(b) It will go upward with speed 100 m/s
(c) It will go upward with speed 60 m/s meter to position (4$i + 3 $j - k$ ) meter. The work done by
(d) It will also go downward with speed 40m/s the force on the particle is
84. In a simple pendulum of length l the bob is pulled aside (a) 6 J (b) 13 J
from its equilibrium position through an angle q and then (c) 15 J (d) 9 J
released. The bob passes through the equilibrium position 92. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal
with speed plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The
first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms–1 and
(a) 2gl(1 + cos q) (b) 2gl sin q the second part of mass 2 kg moves with speed 8 ms–1. If the
third part flies off with speed 4 ms–1 then its mass is
(c) 2gl (d) 2gl(1 - cos q) (a) 5 kg (b) 7 kg
85. A stationary particle explodes into two particles of masses (c) 17 kg (d) 3 kg
m1 and m2 which move in opposite directions with velocities 93. If the kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300%, the
v1 and v2. The ratio of their kinetic energies E1/E2 is momentum of the body is increased by
(a) m1v2/m 2v1 (b) m2/m1 (a) 300% (b) 200%
(c) m1/m2 (d) 1 (c) 100% (d) 50%
86. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on a 94. If the mass of the body is halved and velocity gets doubled
horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless then final kinetic energy would be .........of initial.
spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The maximum (a) same (b) four times
compression of the spring would be (c) double (d) eight times
95. A train of weight 107 N is running on a level track with
uniform speed of 36 km h–1. The frictional force is 0.5 kg per
quintal. If g = 10 m/s2, then power of engine is
(a) 500 kW (b) 50 kW
(a) 0.5 m (b) 0.15 m (c) 5 kW (d) 0.5 kW
(c) 0.12 m (d) 1.5m DIRECTIONS (Qs. 96 to 100): Each question contains Statement-
87. A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head on with 1 and Statement-2. Choose the correct answer (ONLY ONE option
another stationary ball of double the mass. If the coefficient is correct ) from the following.
of restitution is 0.5, then their velocities (in m/s) after (a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
collision will be (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
(a) 0, 1 (b) 1, 1 correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) 1, 0.5 (d) 0, 2 (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
88. A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height a correct explanation for Statement-1
equal to earth's radius before returning to the earth. The (d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest 96. Statement-1 : A quick collision between two bodies is
(a) at the highest position of the body more violent than slow collision, even when initial and
(b) at the instant just before the body hits the earth final velocities are identical.
(c) it remains constant all through Statement -2 : The rate of change of momentum
(d) at the instant just after the body is projected determines that the force is small or large.
156 PHYSICS
97. Statement -1 : If collision occurs between two elastic 99. Statement -1 : An object of mass m is initially at rest. A
bodies their kinetic energy decreases during the time of constant force F acts on it. Then the velocity gained by
collision. the object during a fixed displacement is proportional to
1 2 3 t
KE KE
v (c) (d)
If the collision is elastic, which of the following (figure) is a
possible result after collision?
13. Which of the diagrams shown in figure represents variation
1 of total mechanical energy of a pendulum oscillating in air
(a) as function of time?
v=0 v/2 E E
1 2 3
(a) (b)
t
(b) t
v=0 v
E E
1 2 3
(c) (c) (d)
v/3 t t
17. Which of the diagrams in figure correctly shows the change 22. A particle with total energy E is moving in a potential energy
in kinetic energy of an iron sphere falling freely in a lake region U(x). Motion of the particle is restricted to the region
having sufficient depth to impart it a terminal velocity? when [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) U(x) > E (b) U(x) < E
(c) U(x) = O (d) U(x) £ E
KE KE 23. One coolie takes 1 minute to raise a suitcase through a
(a) (b) height of 2 m but the second coolie takes 30 s to raise the
t O t same suitcase to the same height. The powers of two coolies
O Depth Depth
are in the ratio of [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 3 : 1
KE KE 24. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly
(c) (d) explodes into three pieces. Two pieces, each of mass (m)
t t move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (v).
O Depth O Depth
The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is :
18. A cricket ball of mass 150 g moving with a speed of 126 km/ 3
h hits at the middle of the bat, held firmly at its position by (a) mv2 (b) mv 2 [2014]
2
the batsman. The ball moves straight back to the bowler
after hitting the bat. Assuming that collision between ball (c) 2 mv2 (d) 4 mv2
and bat is completely elastic and the two remain in contact 25. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a
for 0.001s, the force that the batsman had to apply to hold constant power of k watts. If the particle starts from rest the
the bat firmly at its place would be force on the particle at time t is [2015]
(a) 10.5 N (b) 21 N (a) mk t –1/2 (b) 2mk t –1/2
(c) 1.05 × 104 N (d) 2.1 × 104 N
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions 1 mk –1/2
(c) mk t –1/2 (d) t
2 2
19. A uniform force of (3iˆ + ˆj) newton acts on a particle of
mass 2 kg. The particle is displaced from position (2$i + k$ ) 26. Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants K P and
meter to position (4$i + 3 $j - k$ ) meter. The work done by KQ, such that KP > KQ. They are stretched, first by the
the force on the particle is [2013] same amount (case a,) then by the same force (case b). The
work done by the springs WP and WQ are related as, in
(a) 6 J (b) 13 J
case (a) and case (b), respectively [2015]
(c) 15 J (d) 9 J
(a) WP = WQ ; WP = WQ
20. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal
(b) WP > WQ ; WQ > WP
plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The
first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 ms–1 and (c) WP < WQ ; WQ < WP
the second part of mass 2 kg moves with speed 8 ms–1. If (d) WP = WQ ; WP > WQ
the third part flies off with speed 4 ms–1 then its mass is 27. A block of mass 10 kg, moving in x direction with a constant
(a) 5 kg (b) 7 kg [2013] speed of 10 ms–1, is subject to a retarding force F = 0.1 × J/m
(c) 17 kg (d) 3 kg during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. Its final KE will be:
21. A person holding a rifle (mass of person and rifle together (a) 450 J (b) 275 J [2015]
is 100 kg) stands on a smooth surface and fires 10 shots (c) 250 J (d) 475 J
horizontally, in 5 s. Each bullet has a mass of 10 g with a 28. The heart of man pumps 5 litres of blood through the arteries
muzzle velocity of 800 ms–1. The final velocity acquired by per minute at a pressure of 150 mm of mercury. If the density
the person and the average force exerted on the person are
of mercury be 13.6 ×103 kg/m3 and g = 10m/s2 then the
[NEET Kar. 2013]
power of heart in watt is : [2015 RS]
(a) –1.6 ms–1; 8 N (b) –0.08 ms–1; 16 N
(a) 2.35 (b) 3.0
(c) – 0.8 ms–1; 8 N (d) –1.6 ms–1; 16 N
(c) 1.50 (d) 1.70
Work, Energy and Power 159
1 2E 2´9
= ´ 800 ´ 0.02 = 8J v= = = 18 m / sec
2 m 1
1- 0 1
p2 \
dE æ dp ö
= 2 ç ÷ = 2 ´ 5% = 10% 23. (c) The uniform acceleration is a = = ms -2
12. (d) As E = E è pø 15 15
2m
2
7 Let v be the velocity at kinetic energy J
13. (d) T = M (g - g / 8) = Mg 9
8
Work done by the cord = T × d cos 180º 1 2 2
therefore ´ 1 ´ v 2 = or v = ms -1
2 9 3
7
= M g d (-1) = -7 M g d / 8. Using v = u + at
8
rr 2 1
= 0 + ´ t Þ t = 10s
14. (b) W = F.x = (5î + 3ˆj + 2k̂).(2î - ĵ) = 10 - 3 = 7 joules 3 15
162 PHYSICS
24. (d) Let n be the number of bullets that the man can fire in 29. (b) For elastic collision in one dimension
one second.
2m 2 u 2 (m1 - m 2 )u1
\ change in momentum per second = n ´ mv = F v1 = +
[ m= mass of bullet, v = velocity] (Q F is the force) m1 + m 2 (m1 + m 2 )
m0 m0 Case I :
= c2 = c 2 = 1.15m 0 c 2
1 - 0.25 0.75 2
æuö 2
Change in energy = 1.15 m0c2 – m0c2 ç ÷ - u = 2. a . 3
= 0.15 × 9.1 × 10–31 × (3 × 108)2 è2ø
= 12.285 × 10–15 J
3u 2 u2
12.285 ´ 10 -15 or – = 2. a. 3 Þ a = –
= MeV 4 8
1.6 ´ 10 -13 Case II :
= 0.07678 MeV æ u2 ö
æuö
2
u2 ç- ÷ ×x
12 0 - ç ÷ = 2. a. x or – = 2.
è 2ø 4 ç 8 ÷
40. (b) F = ´ 1000 ´ 10 N = 1200 N è ø
100
P = Fv = 1200 N × 15 ms–1 = 18 kW. Þ x = 1 cm
41. (b) Components of velocity before and after collision Alternative method : Let K be the initial energy and F
parallel to the plane are equal, So be the resistive force. Then according to work-energy
v sin 60° = u sin 30°.......(1) theorem,
Components of velocity normal to the plane are related W = DK
to each other 2
1 1 ævö
v cos 60° = e u (cos 30°) ........(2) i.e., 3F = mv2 - m ç ÷
2 2 è2ø
cos 60°
Þ cot 60° = e cot 30° Þ e =
cot 30° 1 æ 1ö
3F = mv 2 ç 1 - ÷
1 2 è 4ø
3 1
Þ e= Þ e= . 3æ1 ö
3 3 3F = ç mv2 ÷ ...(1)
4è2 ø
42. (d) Work done on the body is gain in the kinetic energy.
Acceleration of the body is a = V/T. 2
1 æ vö 1
and Fx = m ç ÷ - m(0) 2
V 2 è 2ø 2
Velocity acquired in time t is v = at = t
T
1æ1 2ö
V2 t 2 i.e., ç mv ÷ = Fx ...(2)
K.E. acquired µ v2. That is work done µ 4è2 ø
2
T Comparing eqns. (1) and (2)
43. (d) Kinetic energy of ball when reaching the ground F = Fx
= mgh = mg × 10 or x = 1 cm
164 PHYSICS
47. (b) Let the velocity and mass of 4 kg piece be v1 and m1 55. (a) Let M be the mass of shell. Applying law of
and that of 12 kg piece be v2 and m2. conservation of linear momentum
Applying conservation of linear momentum
æ MV ö M
m2v2 = m1v1 MV cos q = çè - cos q÷ + v
ø 2
2
12 ´ 4
Þ v1 = = 12 ms -1 M M
4 ie, MV cos q + Vcos q = v
2 2
1 1
\ K.E.1 = m1v12 = ´ 4 ´144 = 288 J or v = 3 Vcos q .
2 2 56. (d) As bob B is of same material and same mass as the
48. (d) Velocity will increase when force is along the direction bob A, therefore, on elastic collision, their velocities
of displacement i.e. F̂ = d̂ . are exchanged. Bob A comes to rest and B moves with
the velocity of A.
49. (b) When body is lowered gradually, its weight acts at
57. (c) As velocities are exchanged on perfectly elastic
C.G. of the spring. When same body is allowed to fall
collision, therefore masses of two objects must be
freely, the same weight acts at lower end of the spring.
equal.
In the latter case, original length (L) of spring is double.
As DL µ L, therefore, DL becomes twice in second ma
\ = 1 or m a = m b .
case i.e. 2x. mb
50. (d) If V is velocity of combination (bag + bullet), then
from principle of conservation of linear momentum dv
58. (c) a = - kx Þ = -kx
mv dt
(m + M) V = m v or V =
(m + M) dx dx
Also = v or dt =
dt dv
1 m 2 v2
K.E. = (m + M) V 2 = 2 v x
2 2(m + M) vdv
\ = -kx Þ ò v dv = -ò kxdx
51. (c) Workdone W = [ML2 T–2] dx
v1 0
It shows that W µ (LT -1 )2 i.e. W µ v 2 .
kx2 Þ 1 m v 2 - v 2 = 1 m æ - kx ö
( )
2
\ graph between W & v is a parabola.
Alternatively :
( v22 - v12 ) =-
2 2
2 1 ç
2 è 2 ø
÷
conservation of momentum.
r r r (n - 1)2 = 0 n = 1 ie. m 2 = m , m1 = m
mv = m1v1 + m 2 v2 Transfer will be maximum when both masses are equal
initial momentum momentum of momentum of
of nucleus a particle remaining nucleus and one is at rest.
Work, Energy and Power 165
2h q mg cosq
t BD + t DB = 2e 2 mg sinq mg
g B
x
\ Total time taken by the body in coming to rest x
\
= 0.8
2h 2h 2h L
= + 2e + 2e 2 + .........
g g g Þ x = 0.8 × 10 = 8 m
69. (d) Work done by centripetal force is zero.
2h 2h dU
= + 2e [1 + e + e 2 + .........] 70. (a) F=-
g g dx
71. (c) The change in momentum in the ball after the collision
2h 2h 1 = 2h é1 + e ù æ 1 + e ö with surface is m(0–v) = –mv
+ 2e ´ =t
g ëê1 - e ûú çè 1 - e ÷ø
=
g g 1- e Since n balls impinge elastically each second on the
surface, then rate of change of momentum of ball per
mg second is
64. (d) Initially, 3k = mg or k =
3 mvn (consider magnitude only)
New force constant of longer part Now According to Newton’s second law
3 3 mg mg rate of change of momentum per second of ball = force
k' = k= ´ = experienced by surface.
2 2 3 2
Finally, k ' y = mg 72. (d)
mg mg
y= = ´ 2 = 2cm h=1.5m
k' mg
65. (d) m = 10 ´ 0.8kg = 8kg
height of iron chain = 5m
The mass of water is m = 1 × 103 kg
mgh 8 ´ 10 ´ 5 \ The increase in potential energy of water is
P= = W = 40W
t 10 = mgh = (1 × 103) (10) (1.5) = 15 kJ
166 PHYSICS
q
dx
80. (a) x = 3t –4t2 + t3 = 3 - 8t + 3t 2 l
dt
d 2x C
Acceleration = = -8 + 6 t P
2 h
dt
Acceleration after 4 sec = –8 + 6 × 4 = 16 B
1 (KE + PE ) at P = (KE + PE ) at B
Þ mgh = mv2 Þ v = 2gh
2 1
0 + mgh = mv 2 + 0
If h 1 and h2 are initial and final heights, then 2
Þ v1 = 2gh 1 , v 2 = 2gh 2 Þ v = 2gh = 2gl(1– cos q)
Work, Energy and Power 167
85. (b) From law of conservation of momentum, before for stable equilibrium
collision and after collision linear momentum (p) will
be same. d 2U
should be positive for the value of r.
or initial momentum = final momentum. dr 2
p2 d 2U 6A 2B
E= = -
2m here 2 4 is +ve value for
dr r r3
According to question,
2A
E1 p 2 2m 2 E m r= So
= 1 ´ Þ 1 = 2 [p = p ] B
E 2 2m1 p 22 E 2 m1 1 2
r
91. (d) Given : F = 3i$ + $j
1 1 2 2 2 2
86. (b) mv 2 = kx 2 Þ mv = kx or 0.5 × (1.5) = 50×x ur r
$ $ uur
2
\ x = 0.15 m
2 ( )$ $
r1 = 2i + k , r2 = 4i + 3j - k ( )
r uur ur r
87. (a) Clearly v1 = 2 ms –1, v2 = 0
m1 = m (say), m2 = 2m
$ $
( $ $
r = r2 - r1 = 4i + 3j - k – 2i + k ) ( )
v1' = ?, v'2 = ? r
or r = 2i$ + 3j$ – 2k$
v1 '- v2 '
e= v -v ....(i) rr
2 1
So work done by the given force w = f .r
By conservation of momentum,
2m = mv1' + 2mv2' ... (ii) ( )(
= 3i$ + $j . 2i$ + 3j$ - 2k$ = 6 + 3 = 9J)
v2 '- v1 ' 92. (a)
From (i), 0.5 = y
2
\ v2' = 1 + v1' 2 kg m2
From (ii), 2 = v1'+ 2 + 2 v1' 8 m/sec Presultant
Þ v1 = 0 and v2 = 1 ms–1
88. (b) Power exerted by a force is given by 12 m/sec
P = F.v m1
c x
When the body is just above the earth’s surface, its /se 1 kg
4m
velocity is greatest. At this instant, gravitational force 3
is also maximum. Hence, the power exerted by the m
gravitational force is greatest at the instant just before
the body hits the earth.
89. (a) As the two masses stick together after collision, hence Presultant = 122 + 162
it is inelastic collision. Therefore, only momentum is
conserved. = 144 + 256 = 20
m3v3 = 20 (momentum of third part)
2v
20
or, m3 = = 5 kg
4
m v x 93. (c) p = 2mK
3m
r p ' = 2m[K + 3K] = 2p
\ mviˆ + 3m(2v)ˆj = (4m)v
Dp ´ 100 2p - p
r v 6 = ´ 100 = 100%
v = ˆi + vjˆ p p
4 4
v 3 94. (c) Let m and v be the mass and the velocity of the body.
= ˆi + vjˆ Then initial K.E. ,
4 2
90. (b) For equilibrium 1 2
Ki = mv
dU -2 A B 2
=0 Þ + 2 =0
dr r3 r m
Now, mass =
2A 2
r=
B velocity = 2v
168 PHYSICS
10. (b) As we know that, So, option (b) and (c) represents wrongly the variation
in kinetic energy of earth.
x2
r uur x2
r uur
W.D. = ò F × dx = ò ma0 ×dx
x1 x1
Fdx = 250p 2J
P= = constant (Q P = constant by question)
dt So, verifies the option (a).
Now, by dimensional formula 15. (b) P.E. is maximum when drop start falling at
F ×v = 0 t = 0 as it fall is P.E. decrease gradually to zero. So, it
[F] [v] = constant rejects the graph (a), (c) and (d).
[MLT–2] [LT–1] = constant K.E. at t = 0 is zero as drop falls with zero velocity, its
[ML2T–3] = constant velocity increases (gradually), hence, first KE also
increases. After sometime speed (velocity) is constant
T3
L2 = this is called terminal velocity, so, KE also become
M
æ 3ö
(As mass of body constant) constant. It happens when it falls ç ÷ height or
è 4ø
L2 µ T 3 Þ L µ T3/ 2 Þ Displacement (d ) µ t 3/ 2
Verifies the graph (b). æ 4ö
remains at ç ÷ from ground, then PE decreases
12. (d) The speed of earth around the sun can never be zero è 4ø
or negative, so the kinetic energy of earth cannot be continuously as the drop is falling continuously.
zero and negative. The variation in PE and KE is best represented by (b).
170 PHYSICS
16. (d) As given that, h = 1.5 m, v = 1 m/s, m = 10 kg, g = 10 ms–2 20. (a)
By the law of conservation of mechanical energy as y
no force acts on shotput after thrown. 2 kg m2
(PE)i + (KE)i = (PE)f + (KE)f
8 m/sec
1 Presultant
mghi + mvi2 = 0 + (KE) f
2 12 m/sec
1 2 m1
(KE)f = mghi + mvi c x
2 /se 1 kg
4m
Total energy when it reaches ground, so 3
m
1
(KE) f = 10 ´ 10 ´ 1.5 + ´ 10 ´ (1) 2
2 Presultant = 122 + 162
E = 150 + 5 = 155 J.
17. (b) First velocity of the iron sphere = 144 + 256 = 20
m3v3 = 20 (momentum of third part)
V = 2 gh after sometime its velocity becomes 20
constant, called terminal velocity. Hence, according or, m3 = = 5 kg
4
first KE increases and then becomes constant due to
21. (c) According to law of conservation of momentum
resistance of sphere and water which is represented
MV + mnv = 0
by (b).
18. (c) As given that, - mNv -0.01 kg ´ 10 ´ 800 m/s
ÞV = =
150 M 100
m = 150 g = kg = 0.15 kg Þ – 0.8 m/s
1000
Dt = time of contact = 0.001 s According to work energy theorem,
Average work done = Change in average kinetic energy
126×1000
u = 126 km/h = m/s 1
60 ´ 60 i.e., Fav ´ Sav = mVrms 2
5 2
= 126 ´ = 35 m/s F V t 1 V2
18 Þ av max = m rms
5 2 2 2
v = –126 km/h = -126 ´ = -35 m/s Þ Fav = 8 N
18
So, final velocity is acc. to initial force applied by 22. (d) As the particle is moving in a potential energy region.
batsman. \ Kinetic energy ³ 0
So, change in momentum of the ball And, total energy E = K.E. + P.E.
Þ U(x) £ E
3
Dp = m ( v - u ) = ( -35 - 35) kg-m/s w
20 23. (a) Q Power P =
t
3 21
= (-70) = - P1 t 2 30s 30s 1
20 2 Þ = = = =
As we know that, force P2 t1 1 minute 60s 2
Dp -21/ 2 (t1 = 1 minute; t2 = 30 second given)
F= = N = –1.05 × 10 4 N 24. (b) By conservation of linear momentum
Dt 0.001
Hence negative sign shown that direction of force will v
be opposite to initial velocity which taken positive 2mv1 = 2mv Þ v1 =
2
direction. Hence verify the option (c).
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions
v
m
r
19. (d) Given : F = 3i$ + $j
ur r m
$ $ uur
( ) $ $
(
r1 = 2i + k , r2 = 4i + 3j - k ) v
r uur ur r 2m
r = r -
2 1r = ( ) (
$ + 3j$ - k – 2i$ + k$
4i ) v1
r As two masses of each of mass m move perpendicular
or r = 2i$ + 3$j – 2k$ to each other.
rr Total KE generated
So work done by the given force w = f .r
1 1 1
( )( )
= 3i$ + $j . 2i$ + 3j$ - 2k$ = 6 + 3 = 9J =
2
mv 2 + mv 2 + (2m)v12
2 2
Work, Energy and Power 171
29. (a) When ball collides with the ground it loses its 50% of
mv2 3 2 energy
= mv2 + = mv
2 2
1
dw
KEf 1 mVf2
25. (d) As we know power P = = 2 1
dt \ Þ = M
KEi 2 1
1
Þ w = Pt = mV 2 mVi2 2
2 2
Vf 1
2Pt or V =
So, v = i 2
m
dV 2P 1 2gh 1 M
Hence, acceleration a = = . =
dt m 2 t or, 2
Therefore, force on the particle at time ‘t’ V02 + 2gh
F2 V2=?
Case (b) If spring force (F) is same W =
2K From figure, along x-axis,
So, WQ > WP M1u1 + M2u2 = M1V1 cosq + M2V2 cosf ...(i)
27. (d) From, F = ma Along y-axis
F 0.1x dV 0 = M1V1 sinq – M2Vs sinf ...(ii)
a= = = 0.01x = V By law of conservation of kinetic energy
m 10 dx
1 1 1 1
v2
x30 M1u12 + M 2 u 22 = M1V12 + M 2 V22 ...(iii)
So, ò vdV = ò dx 2 2 2 2
v1 20 100 Putting M1 = M2 and u2 = 0 in equation (i), (ii) and
(iii) we get
V2 30
V2 x2 30 ´ 30 20 ´ 20 p
– = = –
2 200 200 200 q + f= = 90°
V1 20 2
= 4.5 – 2 = 2.5 2 2 2
and u1 = V1 + V2
1
2
( )
m V22 – V12 = 10 ´ 2.5 J = – 25J æVö
2
2 é Vù
V2 = ç ÷ + V2 êQ u1 = V and V1 = ú
è3ø ë 3û
Final K.E.
2
1 2 1 2 1 æVö
= mv2 = mv1 – 25 = ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ 10 – 25 or, V2 – ç ÷ = V22
2 2 2 è3ø
= 500 – 25 = 475 J
rr r V2
28. (d) Power F.V = PAV = rghAV V2 - = V22
9
é F ù
êëQ P = A and P = rgh úû
8 2 2 2
or V22 = V Þ V2 = V
9 3
= 13.6 × 103 × 10 × 150 × 10–3 × 0.5 × 10–3/60 ur
31. (d) For collision V B/A should be along
102 r
=
60
= 1.70 watt B ® A ( rA/B )
172 PHYSICS
ur ur r r
V 2 - V1 r1 - r2 1 1 æ 10 ö 2
So, V - V = mv 2 = E Þ ç ÷ v = 8 × 10–4
2 1 r1 - r2 2 2 è 1000 ø
Þ v2 = 16 × 10–2
V1 V2
Þ v = 4 × 10–1 = 0.4 m/s
Now, using
A B v2 = u2 + 2ats(s = 4pR)
A B
æ 22 6.4 ö
r (0.4)2 = 02 + 2at ç 4 ´ ´ ÷
32. (d) Given force F = 2tiˆ + 3t 2 ˆj è 7 100 ø
According to Newton's second law of motion,
7 ´ 100
r Þ at = (0.4)2 × = 0.1 m/s2
dv 8 ´ 22 ´ 6.4
m = 2tiˆ + 3t 2 ˆj (m = 1 kg)
dt
34. (c) From work-energy theorem,
r
v t
r Wg + Wa = DK.E
ò dv = ò ( 2tiˆ + 3t ˆj) dt
2
Þ
1
0 0 or, mgh + Wa = mv 2 - 0
r 2
Þ v = t 2 ˆi + t3ˆj
r r 1
10 -3 ´ 10 ´ 103 + Wa = ´ 10 -3 ´ (50) 2
Power P = F·v = (2t iˆ + 3t 2 ˆj) · (t 2 ˆi + t 3 ˆj) 2
= (2t3 + 3t5)W Þ Wa = –8.75 J
10 which is the work done due to air resistance
33. (a) Given: Mass of particle, M = 10g = kg
1000 Work done due to gravity = mgh
radius of circle R = 6.4 cm = 10–3 × 10 × 103 = 10 J
Kinetic energy E of particle = 8 × 10–4J
acceleration at = ?
System of Particles
7 and Rotational Motion
CENTRE OF MASS Rigid Bodies
Centre of mass for a system of particles is defined as that point If a body does not undergo any change in shape by the action of
where the entire mass of the system is imagined to be a force, it is said to be rigid.
concentrated. If such body undergoes some displacement, every particle in it
undergoes the same displacement. No real body can be perfectly
If r1 , r2 , r3 ......... be the position vectors of masses m1, m2, m3 rigid.
....... respectively from the origin O, Rotatory Motion
y A body rotating about a fixed axis then every particle of the
body moves in a circle and the centres of all these circles lie on
axis of rotation. The motion of the body is said to possess
m4 rotational motion.
m2
r4 m3 Keep in Memory
r2
r3
m1 1. The centre of mass of a system of two identical particles
r1 lies in between them on the line joining the particles.
x 2. If m1 = m2
O uur uur ur uur
r (m 1 r1 + m 2 r 2 ) (r + r )
r cm = = 1 2
(m 1 + m 2 ) 2
then the centre of mass of the system is so, for particles of equal masses the centre of mass is
ur uur uur
uuur (m1 r1 + m2 r2 + m3 r3 + .....) 1 n uur located at the mean position vector of the particles.
rcm = = å mi ri 3. The position of centre of mass remains unchanged in pure
(m1 + m2 + m3 + ......) M i =1
rotatory motion. But it changes with time in translatory
where M is the total mass of the system of particles. The product
motion or rolling motion.
of mass of the particles and its position vector w.r.t. the reference
4. The position of centre of mass of a body is independent
point is called moment of mass
r of the choice of co-ordinate system.
i.e., moment of mass = m ´ r 5. If we take the centre of mass at the origin, then the sum of
MOTION OF CENTRE OF MASS the moments of the masses at of the system about the
The motion of the centre of mass is governed by the equation r
origin Sm i ri is zero.
r r r r
d 2 (rcm) 6. In pure rotatory motion, the axis of rotation passes through
MAcm = Fext where Acm =
dt 2 the centre of mass.
Momentum conservation of a system of particles : 7. If external force is zero then the velocity of the centre of
In the absence of external forces, the velocity of the centre of mass of a body remains constant.
mass remains constant. 8. The centre of mass and centre of gravity of a body
We have, MAcm = F ext coincide, if the value of g is same throughout the dimension
If Fext = 0 of the body.
d 9. In kinematics and dynamics, whole of the mass of a body
M ( vcm ) = 0
dt can be assumed to be concentrated at the centre of mass.
\ vcm = constant. 10. The location of the centre of mass depends on the shape
Hence, momentum (Mvcm = constant) of the centre of mass and nature of distribution of mass of the body.
system is conserved. (a) The position of centre of mass of continuous bodies
can be found using integration as
174 PHYSICS
1 1 1
Relationship between angular velocity and linear velocity:
X cm =
M ò
x dm, Ycm =
M
y dm, Z cm =òM
z dm ò z
where, x, y and z are the co-ordinates of small mass
w v
dm and M is the total mass of the system.
(b) The C.M. of a uniform rod of length L is at its middle r q P x
point.
(c) Centre of mass of a uniform semicircular wire is at
æ 2R ö y
ç 0, ÷ , where R is the radius of the semicircular wire.
è p ø r r r
v = w× r
It does not depend on mass.
Þ v = rw sin q
Y
where q is the angle between w & r.
MOMENT OF INERTIA AND RADIUS OF GYRATION
R A rigid body having constituent particles of masses m1, m2,
X ....mn and r1, r2 ... r n be their respective distances from the axis of
O
rotation then moment of inertia is given by,
(d) For symmetrical bodies of uniform mass distribution, n
the C. M. lies at the geometrical centre I = m1 r12 + m2 r22 + ... + mn rn2 = å m i ri2
i =1
The moment of inertia of continuous mass distribution is given
ANGULAR VELOCITY AND ANGULAR ACCELERATION by
The angular velocity is defined as the angle covered by the
I = ò r 2 dm
radius vector per unit time. It is denoted by w.
where r is the perpendicular distance of the small mass dm from
Y the axis of rotation.
Its SI unit is kgm2. It is a tensor.
Radius of gyration :
P The radius of gyration of a body about its axis of rotation may
r s be defined as the distance from the axis of rotation at which, if
q the entire mass of the body were concentrated, its moment of
X inertia about the given axis would be same as with its actual
O Q
distribution of mass.
Radius of gyration k is given by,
I = MK2
1
Dq
Average angular velocity w = 1 én ù2
Dt ê S mi ri 2 ú
é ù2
I
The unit of angular velocity is rad/sec. or K = ê ú = ê i ú
ëM û êë S mi úû
where, M = Sm i
The instantaneous angular velocity w (similar to instantaneous
linear velocity) is defined as X
Dq d q
w = lim = r4
Dt ®o Dt dt m4
r3 m3
The angular acceleration is the rate of change of angular
velocity. It is denoted by a. k Sm
m2
The average angular acceleration aavg. of a rotating body is r2
w - w1 Dw m1
a avg . = 2 =
r1
t2 - t1 Dt
r
In analogy to linear acceleration a , the instantaneous angular
Y
acceleration is defined as
r12 + r22 + r32 + .....rn2
Dw d w Also, k=
a = lim = n
dt ® o Dt dt
Therefore, radius of gyration (k) equals the root mean square of
The unit of angular acceleration is rad/sec2.
the distances of particles from the axis of rotation.
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 175
x
o y X
r p(x, y)
1 2
P P
Q Q
Y Q
Ix + Iy = Iz 3 P
Let us consider a particle of mass m at point P distance r from
origin O, where r = x 2 + y 2
s o Ix + Iy = Smy2 + Smx2 = Smr2 Solution : Y’
i.e., Iz = Ix + Iy Moment of inertia of each ring about its diameter
Theorem of parallel axes : 1
= PQ 2 .
(Derived by Steiner) This theorem is true for both plane laminar 2
body and thin 3D body. It states that “the moment of inertia of a So total moment of inertia of all three rings about Y Y' is
body about any axis is equal to its moment of inertia about a Itotal = I1 + I2+ I3
parallel axis through its centre of mass plus the product of the Using theorem of parallel axes (for rings 1 and 2), we get
mass of the body and the square of the distance between two æ1 2 2 ö æ12 2 2 ö 1 7
Itotal = ç PQ + PQ ÷ + ç PQ + PQ ÷ + PQ = PQ 2
axes. è2 ø è2 ø 2 2
Example 2.
P A
Four particles each of mass m are lying symmetrically on
the rim of a disc of mass M and radius R. Find MI of this
system about an axis passing through one of the particles
r and perpendicular to plane of disc.
Solution :
O According to the theorem of parallel axes, MI of disc about
c.m an axis passing through K and perpendicular to plane of
M
disc, is
1 2 2 3 2
= MR + MR = MR
Q B 2 2
Particle 2
Let AB be the axis in plane of paper about which, the moment of
inertia (I) of plane lamina is to be determined and PQ an axis R
Particle 1 K Particle 3
O R
parallel to AB, passing through centre of mass O of lamina is at a
distance ‘r’ from AB. Particle 4
Consider a mass element m of lamina at point P distant x from PQ. Total MI of the system =
Now the moment of inertia of the element about AB = m (x + r)2 3 MR 2
MR 2 + m(2 R ) 2 + m( 2 R ) 2 + m( 2 R ) 2 = 19
2 2
176 PHYSICS
Example 3.
Three identical rods, each of length l, are joined to from a Solution :
rigid equilateral triangle. Find its radius of gyration about
an axis passing through a corner and perpendicular to C2 O C1
the plane of the triangle. m2 m1
m
Solution :
A
I 'd I CM
(c) Tangent perpendicular
to plane M
R cm 2MR2 2R
Y
(b) Diameter in the plane Z
Id
MR 2 R
4 2
M
R 5 5
Ic MR2
cm
4 2 R
Id
178 PHYSICS
Ic
cylinder
L
cm
I
d Ic
(c) Perpendicular to length æ R 2 L2 ö
M
R 2 L2
Mç + ÷ +
passing through one end R è 2 3ø 2 3
cm
R MR 2 R
M 2 2
L
cm
I Ic
(b) Perpendicular to length M
passing through centre of mass æ R 2 L2 ö R 2 L2
R
Mç + ÷ +
è 4 12 ø 4 12
cm
Ic
Id
M
(c) Perpendicular to length
é R 2 L2 ù R 2 L2
passing through one end R
Mê + ú +
cm
êë 4 3 úû 4 3
L
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 179
R2 C
R1
M
(b) Diameter in the plane
C
Ic M[R12 + R 22 ] R12 + R 22
R2
R1 4 4
M
R2
R1
é R 2 + R 22 ù
L Mê 1 ú R12 + R 22
(6) Hollow cylinder (a) Geometrical axis 2
ëê ûú 2
cm
R2 M
R1
Ic
2 2
(7) Solid sphere (a) Along the diameter M MR2 R
5 5
R
cm
Id Ic
7 7
(b) Along the tangent M MR2 R
5 5
R
cm
180 PHYSICS
Ic
2 2
(8) Thin spherical shell (a) Along the diameter R MR2 R
3 3
Id Ic
5 5
(b) Along the tangent R MR2 R
3 3
Cavity
R
2 é R5 - r5 ù 2 (R 5 - r5 )
(9) Hollow sphere Along the diameter M ê 3 3ú
r 5 ëê R - r ûú 5 (R 3 - r3 )
Hollow sphere
Ic
ML2 L
(10) Thin rod (a) Perpendicular to length M 12 2 3
passing through centre cm
of mass L
Id Ic
ML2 L
(b) Perpendicular to length M
3 3
passing through one end cm
L
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 181
I AB
A
(11) Rectangular plate (a) Perpendicular to length in
the plane passing through b O D Ma 2 a
centre of mass C 12 2 3
B
a
B
a
I CM
(c) Perpendicular to plane
passing through centre of mass A
M(a 2 + b2 ) a 2 + b2
O D 12 2 3
b C
B
a
I1
(12) Square Plate (a) Perpendicular to plane passing M Ma 2 a
through centre of mass I1 =
a 6 6
I3 M I2
(b) Diagonal passing through a
a Ma 2
centre of mass I2 = I3 2 3
12
a
I1
I2
a
182 PHYSICS
TORQUE, ANGULAR MOMENTUM AND ANGULAR The magnitude of angular momentum for a system is given by
IMPULSE n n
2
Torque : | L |= å (m i ri ) vi = å (m i ri )w [Q v = rw]
The moment of force is called torque. It is defined as the product i =1 i =1
of force and the perpendicular distance of the force from the n
axis of rotation. Þ | L |= å (Ii ´ w) = Iw ...(ii)
Y i=1
Where Ii is the moment of inertia of the ith particle of that system
F
q and I is total moment of inertia of the system
n
r q I = å I i = I1 + I 2 + I3 + ....................+ I n
i =1
O X
or I = m1r12 + m 2 r22 + ....................+ m n rn2 ...(iii)
r r r So if a system undergoes a redistribution of its mass, then its
i.e., t = r ´ F moment of inertia changes but since no external torque is applied
or, t = rF sin q on the system so total angular momentum is constant before and
r r after the distribution of mass, even if moment of inertia of the
where q is the angle between r and F .
system is changed.
Its S.I. unit is (N-m). The dimensions of torque [ML2T–2] are uur uur
the same as that of energy but it is not energy. L Initial = L Final ...(iv)
Note : If the line of action of a force passes through axis of or, I1w1 = I2w2 ...(v)
rotation then no torque will be formed.
where L initial denote the state previous to the redistribution of
Angular Momentum :
mass and final denote the state after the redistribution of mass in
The angular momentum of a particle about an arbitrry point 'O' is
the moment of linear momentum taken about that point. that system.
Since, we can express the torque as vcm = linear velocity of the centre of mass of the rigid body
dw dw dq K = radius of gyration (I = MK 2 = SM i ri2 )
t = Ia = I =I .
dt dq dt r = radius of moving rigid body
I = moment of inertia of the rigid body about centre of mass
dw
t = Iw but tdq = dW ½ Iw2 = rotational kinetic energy about the centre of mass.
dq Hence it is clear from the expression that total kinetic energy of
Þ tdq = dW = Iwdw rolling body is equal to the sum of rotational kinetic energy about
By integrating the above expression, we get total work done by centre of mass (C.M.) and translational kinetic energy of the centre
all external force on the body, which is written as of mass of body.
Body Rolling without Slipping on an Inclined Plane :
q2 w2 1 1
òq1 tdq = òw1 Iwdw = 2 Iw2 - 2 Iw1 When a body performed translatory as well as rotatory motion
2 2
W=
then we can say that the body is in rolling motion.
where the angular velocity of the body changes from w1 to w2 as Acceleration for body rolling down an inclined plane without
the angular displacement changes from q1 to q2 due to external slipping.
r Let M is the mass of the body, R is its radius and I is the moment
force Fext. on the body.. of inertia about the centre of mass and K is the radius of gyration.
Rotational Kinetic Energy : R
Let us consider a rigid body (collection of small particles) of high f
symmetry which is purely rotating about z-axis with an angular Mg
co s q Mg
velocity w. Each particle has some energy, determined by m i and q Mg sin
q
vi. The kinetic energy of mi particle is
(E k )i = ½ m i v i2 ... (i) q
A round object rolling down an incline, mechanical energy is Rolling Motin Combination of translatory and rotatory
conserved if no slipping occurs. motion :
But mechanical energy of the body remains constant despite of (i) In pure rolling motion, the contact point O remains at rest.
friction because the contact point is at rest relative to the surface (ii) In pure rolling, the velocity of top most point is,
at any instant. V = Vcm + wR = 2Vcm
For pure rolling motion vc = rw
P
so E k = ½ I(v c / r ) 2 + ½ Mv 2c Vcm +wR
1 æ Ic ö C.M
Ek = çç + M ÷÷ vc2 ...(i)
2èr 2
ø Vcm
R
As body rolls down an incline, it loses potential energy Mgh (h
Vcm
is the height of incline). Since body starts from rest at top, hence O Contact
wR
its total kinetic energy at bottom given by eqn.(i) must be equal point
to Mgh at top i.e., (iii) In rolling without slipping Vcm = wR.
1/ 2
1 æ Ic ö æ 2gh ö 2wR = 2Vcm
çç + M ÷÷Vc2 = Mgh Þ v c = ç ÷
...(ii)
2èr 2 ç 2 ÷
ø è 1 + I c / MR ø
since h =x sin q, where x is length of incline and Ic =MK2
(K is radius of gyration), then Vcm
½
é 2gx sin q ù
vc = ê ....(iii)
2 2ú
ë1 + K / R û O Surface at rest
For rolling down an inclined plane without slipping, the
essential condition is : Keep in Memory
I cm
ms ³ tan q ; m is the coefficient of static friction 1. The axis of the rolling body is parallel to the plane on
MR 2 + I cm s
which the body rolls in case of sphere, disc, ring.
where Icm is moment of inertia of the body about its C.M. 2. Let (Ek)r = rotational kinetic energy
(Ek)t = translation kinetic energy
DIFFERENT TYPES OF MOTION (a) For solid sphere, (Ek)r = 40% of (Ek)t
Pure translational motion : In this case the velocities at all three
(b) For shell (Ek)r = 66% of (Ek)t
points : (i) top most point P, (ii) C.M. and (iii) contact point O are
same. (c) For disc, (Ek)r = 50% of (Ek)t
(d) For ring, (Ek)r = (Ek)t
P v
3. Translational kinetic energy is same for rolling bodies
having same M, R and w irrespective of their shape.
C.M (v) 4. Total energy is minimum for solid sphere and maximum for
(A)
ring having same mass and radius.
v 5. Rotational kinetic energy is maximum for ring and minimum
O
for solid sphere of same mass and radius.
Pure rotational motion : In this case the velocity of 6. (i) The acceleration down the inclined plane for different
(i) top most point P is Rw shapes of bodies of same mass and radius are as
(ii) C.M. is zero
follows :
(iii) contact point O is – Rw
Sphere > disc > shell > ring
Rw (ii) The velocity down the plane is related as follows:
Sphere > disc > shell > ring
(B) w Vcm = 0 (iii) The time taken to reach the bottom of the inclined
C.M
plane is related as follows :
O
Ring > shell > disc > sphere.
–Rw
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 185
This is because
Y
2
K
(i) For ring =1 log I
R2
K2 1
(ii) For disc = X
2 2
R
log K
K2 2 1 2
(iii) For sphere = 11. Rotational KE, (E k ) r = Iw \ Er µ w2
2 5
R 2
\ graph between (E k ) r and w will be as below
K2 2
(iv) For shell =
R 2 3 Y
7. The angular speed of all particles of a rotating/revolving
rigid body is same, although their linear velocities may be Er
different.
8. (i) Two particles moving with angular speed w1 and w2
on the same circular path and both in anti-clockwise X
w
direction then their relative angular speed will be wr =
w1 – w2. 12. Angular momentum L = Iw, hence L µ w.
\ Graph between L and w is a straight line.
w1
p1 Y
w2
r L
p2
r2 Example 7.
A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R rotating about
its axis with a constant angular speed w. Two blocks, each
r1 of mass, m are attached gently to opposite ends of a
v1 diameter of the ring. Find the angular speed of the ring.
10. As I µ K2 and I = MK2 ,
hence graph between I and K will be Solution :
a parabola. However graph between log I and log K will be As L = Iw = constant. Therefore,
straight line.
I1w1 MK 2 w Mw
Y I 2 w2 = I1w1 or w2 = = =
I2 ( M + 2m ) K 2 M + 2m
I Example 8
A solid sphere of mass 500 g and radius 10 cm rolls without
slipping with a velocity of 20 cm/s. Find the total K.E. of
X the sphere.
K
186 PHYSICS
1. Centre of mass of the earth and the moon system lies 8. A ball tied to a string is swung in a vertical circle. Which of
(a) closer to the earth the following remains constant?
(b) closer to the moon (a) tension in the string
(c) at the mid-point of line joining the earth and the moon (b) speed of the ball
(d) cannot be predicted (c) centripetal force
2. Four particles of masses m1,m2,m3 and m4 are placed at the (d) earth's pull on the ball
vertices A,B,C and D as respectively of a square shown. 9. Angular momentum of a system of a particles changes,
The COM of the system will lie at diagonal AC if when
(a) m1 = m3 A m1 B m2 (a) force acts on a body
(b) m2 = m4 (b) torque acts on a body
(c) direction of velocity changes
(c) m1 = m2
m4 m3 (d) None of these
(d) m3 = m4 D C 10. Angular momentum is
3. Two spheres A and B of masses m and 2m and radii 2R and (a) a polar vector (b) an axial vector
R respectively are placed in contact as shown. The COM (c) a scalar (d) None of these
of the system lies 11. If a running boy jumps on a rotating table, which of the
following is conserved?
A
(a) Linear momentum
B
(b) K.E
2R R
(c) Angular momentum
(d) None of these
12. A gymnast takes turns with her arms & legs stretched. When
(a) inside A (b) inside B she pulls her arms & legs in
(c) at the point of contact (d) None of these (a) the angular velocity decreases
4. Moment of inertia does not depend upon (b) the moment of inertia decreases
(a) distribution of mass (c) the angular velocity stays constant
(b) axis of rotation (d) the angular momentum increases
(c) point of application of force 13. Moment of inertia of a circular wire of mass M and radius R
(d) None of these about its diameter is
5. A disc is given a linear velocity on a rough horizontal surface (a) MR2/2 (b) MR2
then its angular momentum is (c) 2MR2 (d) MR2/4.
(a) conserved about COM only 14. A solid sphere is rotating in free space. If the radius of the
(b) conserved about the point of contact only sphere is increased keeping mass same which one of the
(c) conserved about all the points following will not be affected ?
(d) not conserved about any point. (a) Angular velocity
6. A body cannot roll without slipping on a (b) Angular momentum
(a) rough horizontal surface (c) Moment of inertia
(b) smooth horizontal surface (d) Rotational kinetic energy
(c) rough inclined surface 15. One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are of
(d) smooth inclined surface same mass and same outer radii. Their moment of inertia
7. A body is projected from ground with some angle to the about their diameters are respectively IA and IB Such that
horizontal. The angular momentum about the initial position
will (a) IA < IB (b) IA > IB
(a) decrease IA d A
(c) IA = IB (d) =
(b) increase IB d B
(c) remains same
where d A and d B are their densities.
(d) first increase then decrease
190 PHYSICS
1. A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg rotates about its axis with 3. Two particles A and B, initially at rest, moves towards each
angular speed 100 rad/s. The radius of the cylinder is 0.25 other under a mutual force of attraction. At the instant when
m. The K.E. associated with the rotation of the cylinder is the speed of A is v and the speed of B is 2 v, the speed of
(a) 3025 J (b) 3225 J centre of mass is
(c) 3250 J (d) 3125 J (a) zero (b) v
2. What is the moment of inertia of a solid sphere of density r (c) 1.5 v (d) 3 v
and radius R about its diameter? 4. Point masses 1, 2, 3 and 4 kg are lying at the points (0, 0, 0),
105 5 105 2 (2, 0, 0), (0, 3, 0) and (–2, –2, 0) respectively. The moment of
(a) R r (b) R r inertia of this system about X-axis will be
176 176
(a) 43 kg –m2 (b) 34 kg–m2
176 5 176 2
(c) R r (d) R r (c) 27 kg – m 2 (d) 72 kg – m2
105 105
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 191
5. A body having moment of inertia about its axis of rotation 13. A particle of mass m is observed from an inertial frame of
equal to 3 kg-m2 is rotating with angular velocity equal to 3 reference and is found to move in a circle of radius r with a
rad/s. Kinetic energy of this rotating body is the same as uniform speed v. The centrifugal force on it is
that of a body of mass 27 kg moving with a speed of
(a) 1.0 m/s (b) 0.5 m/s mv2
(a) towards the centre
(c) 1.5 m/s (d) 2.0 m/s r
6. A particle moves in a circle of radius 0.25 m at two mv2
revolutions per second. The acceleration of the particle in (b) away from the centre
metre per second2 is r
(a) p2 (b) 8p2
mv2
(c) 4p 2 (d) 2p2 (c) along the tangent through the particle
r
7. The radius of gyration of a body about an axis at a distance (d) zero
6 cm from its centre of mass is 10 cm. Then, its radius of
14. A circular disc X of radius R is made from an iron plate of
gyration about a parallel axis through its centre of mass will
thickness t, and another disc Y of radius 4R is made from an
be
t
(a) 80 cm (b) 8 cm iron plate of thickness . Then the relation between the
4
(c) 0.8 cm (d) 80 m moment of inertia IX and IY is
8. A particle of mass m is moving in a plane along a circular
path of radius r. Its angular momentum about the axis of (a) Ι Y = 32 Ι X (b) Ι Y = 16 Ι X
rotation is L. The centripetal force acting on the particle is
(c)Ι Y = ΙX (d) Ι Y = 64 ΙX
(a) L2 /mr (b) L2 m/r
15. A particles performing uniform circular motion. Its angular
(c) L2 /m r3 (d) L2 /m r2 frequency is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, then the
9. A small disc of radius 2 cm is cut from a disc of radius 6 cm. new angular momentum is
If the distance between their centres is 3.2 cm, what is the
shift in the centre of mass of the disc? (a) L (b) 2 L
(a) 0.4 cm (b) 2.4 cm 4
(c) 1.8 cm (d) 1.2 cm L
10. A solid cylinder of mass m & radius R rolls down inclined (c) 4 L (d)
2
plane without slipping. The speed of its C.M. when it
16. A simple pendulum is vibrating with angular amplitude of
reaches the bottom is
90° as shown in figure.
(a) 2 gh
q
(b) 4gh / 3
h
(c) 3 / 4 gh
For what value of q is the acceleration directed
4 gh (i) vertically upwards
(d)
(ii) horizontally
11. The ratio of moment of inertia of circular ring & circular disc
(iii) vertically downwards
having the same mass & radii about on axis passing the c.m
& perpendicular to plane is 1
(a) 0°, cos -1
1
, 90° (b) cos -1 , 0°, 90°
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 3
3
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
1
12. A rod of length L is pivoted at one end and is rotated with
(c) 90°, cos -1
1
, 0° (d) cos -1
, 90°, 0°
a uniform angular velocity in a horizontal plane. Let T1and 3 3
T 2 be the tensions at the points L/4 and
17. A mass is tied to a string and rotated in a vertical circle, the
3L/4 away from the pivoted end. Then
minimum velocity of the body at the top is
(a) T1 > T2
(b) T2 > T1 (a) gr (b) g/r
(c) T1 – T2
3/ 2
(d) the relation between T1 and T2 depends on whether ægö
(c) ç ÷ (d) gr
the rod rotates clockwise and anticlockwise. èrø
192 PHYSICS
18. A couple is acting on a two particle systems. The resultant 25. A uniform bar of mass M and length L is horizontally
motion will be suspended from the ceiling by two vertical light cables as
(a) purely rotational motion shown. Cable A is connected 1/4th distance from the left
(b) purely linear motion end of the bar. Cable B is attached at the far right end of the
(c) both a and b bar. What is the tension in cable A?
(d) None of these
19. A mass m is moving with a constant velocity along a line Cable A Cable B
parallel to the x-axis, away from the origin. Its angular 1L
momentum with respect to the origin 4
L
(a) is zero (b) remains constant
(c) goes on increasing (d) goes on decreasing. (a) 1/4 Mg (b) 1/3 Mg
20. A smooth sphere A is moving on a frictionless horizontal (c) 2/3 Mg (d) 3/4 Mg
plane with angular speed w and centre of mass velocity v. It 26. ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness. The sides are
collides elastically and head on with an identical sphere B in the ratio shown in the figure. IAB, IBC and ICA are the
at rest. Neglect friction everywhere. After the collision, their moments of inertia of the plate about AB, BC and CA as axes
angular speeds are wA and wB, respectively. Then respectively. Which one of the following relations is correct?
(a) wA< wB (b) wA= wB (a) I > I
AB BC
A
(c) wA= w (d) wB= w
(b) I BC > I AB
21. A particle moves in a circle of radius 4 cm clockwise at 5
3
constant speed 2 cm s–1 . If x̂ and ŷ are unit acceleration (c) I AB + I BC = I CA
vectors along X and Y respectively (in cm s–2 ), the 90°
(d) ICA is maximum B C
acceleration of the particle at the instant half way between 3
P and Q is given by 27. In carbon monoxide molecule, th e carbon and
Y the oxygen atoms are separated by a distance
1.12 × 10–10 m. The distance of the centre of mass, from the
carbon atom is
P
(a) 0.64 × 10–10 m (b) 0.56 × 10–10 m
(c) 0.51 × 10 m –10 (d) 0.48 × 10–10 m
X 28. A weightless ladder 20 ft long rests against a frictionless
O Q wall at an angle of 60º from the horizontal. A 150 pound man
is 4 ft from the top of the ladder. A horizontal force is needed
to keep it from slipping. Choose the correct magnitude from
(a) -4(x̂ + ŷ) (b) 4(x̂ + ŷ) the following.
(a) 175 lb (b) 100 lb
(c) - ( x̂ + ŷ) / 2 (d) ( x̂ - ŷ) / 4
(c) 120 lb (d) 17.3 lb
22. A particle is confined to rotate in a circular path decreasing 29. The moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R
linear speed, then which of the following is correct? about an axis, which is tangential to the circumference of the
r
(a) L (angular momentum) is conserved about the centre disc and parallel to its diameter, is
r 2
3
(b) only direction of angular momentum L is conserved (a) MR 2 (b) MR 2
(c) It spirals towards the centre 2 3
(d) its acceleration is towards the centre. 5 4
23. Two rings of radius R and nR made up of same material (c) MR 2 (d) MR 2
4 5
have the ratio of moment of inertia about an axis passing
through centre as 1 : 8. The value of n is 30. A tube one metre long is filled with liquid of mass 1 kg. The
tube is closed at both the ends and is revolved about one
(a) 2 (b) 2 2 end in a horizontal plane at 2 rev/s. The force experienced
by the lid at the other end is
1
(c) 4 (d) (a) 4p2N (b) 8p2N
2 (c) 16p N 2 (d) 9.8 N
24. A cylinder rolls down an inclined plane of inclination 30°, 31. If the linear density (mass per unit length) of a rod of length
the acceleration of cylinder is 3m is proportional to x, where x is the distance from one end
g of the rod, the distance of the centre of gravity of the rod
(a) (b) g
3 from this end is
g 2g (a) 2.5 m (b) 1 m
(c) (d) (c) 1.5 m (d) 2 m
2 3
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 193
42. A solid sphere of mass 1 kg rolls on a table with linear 48. The wheel of a car is rotating at the rate of 1200 revolutions
speed 1 ms–1. Its total kinetic energy is per minute. On pressing the accelerator for 10 seconds it
(a) 1 J (b) 0.5 J starts rotating at 4500 revolutions per minute. The angular
(c) 0.7 J (d) 1.4 J acceleration of the wheel is
43. A boy and a man carry a uniform rod of length L, horizontally (a) 30 radian / second2 (b) 1880 degrees/ second2
in such a way that the boy gets 1/4th load. If the boy is at (c) 40 radian / second2 (d) 1980 degree/second2
one end of the rod, the distance of the man from the other 49. Four masses are fixed on a massless rod as shown in the
end is adjoining figure. The moment of inertia about the dotted
(a) L/3 (b) L/4 axis is about
(c) 2 L/3 (d) 3 L/4
44. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is pulled horizontally 0.2 m 0.2 m
on a sufficiently rough surface as shown in the figure.
(a) 2 kg × m2 (b) 1 kg × m2
(c) 0.5 kg × m 2 (d) 0.3 kg × m2
Choose the correct alternative. 50. The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 1.2 kg
(a) The acceleration of the centre of mass is F/M m2. Initially, the body is at rest . In order to produce a
2 F rotational kinetic energy of 1500 J, an angular acceleration
(b) The acceleration of the centre of mass is of 25 rad s–2 must be applied about that axis for a duration
3M
of
(c) The friction force on the sphere acts forward
(a) 4 s (b) 2 s
(d) The magnitude of the friction force is F/3
(c) 8 s (d) 10 s
45. Three identical particles each of mass 1 kg are placed
51. Fig. shows a disc rolling on a horizontal plane with linear
touching one another with their centres on a straight line.
velocity v. Its linear velocity is v and angular velocity is w.
Their centres are marked A, B and C respectively. The
Which of the following gives the velocity of the particle P
distance of centre of mass of the system from A is
on the rim of the disc
AB + AC + BC AB + AC
(a) (b) A
3 3 w
P
AB + BC AC + BC
(c) (d) r
3 3
46. M.I of a circular loop of radius R about the axis in figure is q
v
O M
y
Axis of rotation
R/2 B N
x
O (a) v (1 + cos q) (b) v (1 – cos q)
(c) v (1 + sin q) (d) v (1 – sin q)
52. A toy car rolls down the inclined plane as shown in the fig.
It loops at the bottom. What is the relation between H and
(a) MR2 (b) (3/4) MR2 h?
(c) MR /2 2 (d) 2MR2 H
(a) =2
47. If the earth is treated as a sphere of radius R and mass M, h
its angular momentum about the axis of its diurnal rotation H h
with period T is (b) =3
h H D
r
4 pMR 2
2pMR 2 H
(a) (b) (c) =4
5T 5T h
B
MR 2 T pMR 3 H
(c) (d) (d) =5
T T h
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 195
65. A circular disk of moment of inertia It is rotating in a 70. If the angular velocity of a body rotating about an axis is
horizontal plane, its symmetry axis, with a constant angular doubled and its moment of inertia halved, the rotational
speed wi . Another disk of moment of inertia Ib is dropped kinetic energy will change by a factor of :
coaxially onto the rotating disk. Initially the second disk (a) 4 (b) 2
has zero angular speed. Eventually both the disks rotate 1
(c) 1 (d)
with a constant angular speed w f . The energy lost by the 2
71. One quarter sector is cut from a uniform circular disc of
initially rotating disk to friction is
radius R. This sector has mass M. It is made to rotate about
2
1 Ib I t2 a line perpendicular to its plane and passing through the
(a) wi2 (b) wi2
2 ( It + I b ) ( It + I b ) centre of the original disc. Its moment of inertia about the
axis of rotation is
Ib - It 2 1 Ib It
(c) wi (d) wi2 1
mR 2
1
mR 2
( It + I b ) (
2 t I + I ) (a) (b)
b 2 4
66. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and 1
length L about an axis passing through its midpoint and (c) mR 2 (d) 2mR 2
8
perpendicular to its length is I0. Its moment of inertia about
an axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular Directions for Qs. (72 to 75) : Each question contains
to its length is STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
(a) I0 + ML2/2 (b) I0 + ML2/4 (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following-
(c) I0 + 2ML 2 (d) I0 + ML2 (a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
67. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
wheel is given by theequation q(t) = 2t3 – 6t2. The torque correct explanation for Statement-1
on the wheel becomes zero at (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
(a) t = 1s (b) t = 0.5 s a correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) t = 0.25 s (d) t = 2s (d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
68. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is 72. Statement 1 : When you lean behind over the hind legs of
maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and the chair, the chair falls back after a certain angle.
passing through Statement 2 : Centre of mass lying outside the system
makes the system unstable.
73. Statement 1: A rigid disc rolls without slipping on a fixed
C rough horizontal surface with uniform angular velocity. Then
D the acceleration of lowest point on the disc is zero.
B Statement 2 : For a rigid disc rolling without slipping on a
A
fixed rough horizontal surface, the velocity of the lowest
point on the disc is always zero.
74. Statement 1 : If no external force acts on a system of
particles, then the centre of mass will not move in any
(a) B (b) C direction.
(c) D (d) A Statement 2 : If net external force is zero, then the linear
69. Three masses are placed on the x-axis : 300 g at origin, 500 momentum of the system remains constant.
g at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x = 70 cm. The distance of the 75. Statement 1 : A wheel moving down a frictionless inclined
centre of mass from the origin is plane will slip and not roll on the plane.
(a) 40 cm (b) 45 cm Statement 2 : It is the frictional force which provides a
(c) 50 cm (d) 30 cm torque necessary for a body to roll on a surface.
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 197
(a) increased
(a) g /L (b) 2g/L
(b) decreased
(c) the same 2g 3g
(c) (d)
(d) changed in unpredicted manner 3L 2L
198 PHYSICS
11. Two discs are rotating about their axes, normal to the discs string which passes through a smooth hole in the plane as
and passing through the centres of the discs. Disc D1 has shown.
2 kg mass and 0.2 m radius and initial angular velocity of 50
v0
rad s–1. Disc D2 has 4kg mass, 0.1 m radius and initial angular
velocity of 200 rad s–1. The two discs are brought in contact
face to face, with their axes of rotation coincident. The final m
angular velocity (in rad s–1) of the system is
(a) 40 (b) 60 [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) 100 (d) 120
12. The ratio of radii of gyration of a circular ring and a circular The tension in the string is increased gradually and finally
disc, of the same mass and radius, about an axis passing R
m moves in a circle of radius 0 . The final value of the
through their centres and perpendicular to their planes are 2
kinetic energy is [2015]
(a) 2 :1 (b) 1 : 2 [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 1
(a) mv02 (b) 2mv02
13. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass ‘m’ 4
and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline of angle ‘q’ without
slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is : 1
(c) mv02 (d) mv02
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 2 : 3 [2014] 2
(c) 2 : 5 (d) 7 : 5 r
18. A force F= a ˆi + 3jˆ + 6kˆ is acting at a point
14. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m r
is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string r = 2iˆ - 6jˆ - 12kˆ . The value of a for which angular
is wound round the cylinder with one end attached to it momentum about origin is conserved is : [2015 RS]
and other hanging freely. Tension in the string required to (a) 2 (b) zero
produce an angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s– 2 is : (c) 1 (d) –1
(a) 25 N (b) 50 N [2014] 19. Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the opposite ends of
(c) 78.5 N (d) 157 N a rigid rod of length L, and negligible mass. The rod is to be
set rotating about an axis perpendicular to it. The position
15. Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius of point P on this rod through which the axis should pass
r are placed as shown in figure. Consider an axis XX' which so that the work required to set the rod rotating with angular
is touching to two shells and passing through diameter of velocity w0 is minimum, is given by : [2015 RS]
third shell. Moment of inertia of the system consisting of
w0
these three spherical shells about XX' axis is [2015]
(a) 3mr2 X
16 2 m1 P m2
(b) mr
5
(c) 4mr2 x (L–x)
11 2 X¢
(d) mr
5
16. A rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife edges m1 m2
A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal position. The (a) x= L (b) x = m L
m2 1
knives are at a distance d from each other. The centre of
mass of the rod is at distance x from A. The normal reaction m2 L m1L
(c) x= (d) x = m + m
on A is [2015] m1 + m 2 1 2
21. A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll (B) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total
off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. gravitational torque on the body is zero
Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the (C) A couple on a body produce both translational and
plane first ? rotation motion in a body
(a) Disk [2016] (D) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that
(b) Sphere small effort can be used to lift a large load
(c) Both reach at the same time (a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C)
(d) Depends on their masses (c) (C) and (D) (d) (B) and (D)
22. A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn 25. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their
about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes regular axis passing through centre and perpendicular to
through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces the plane of disc with angular velocities w1 and w2 . They
a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s–2 . Its net are brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of
acceleration in ms–2 at the end of 2.0s is approximately : rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this
process is:- [2017]
(a) 8.0 (b) 7.0 [2016]
(c) 6.0 (d) 3.0 1
(a) I(w1 - w2 )2 (b) I(w1 - w2 )2
23. From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter 4
R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the
1 1
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a (c) (w1 - w2 )2 (d) I( w1 + w2 ) 2
perpendicular axis, passing through the centre ? [2016] 8 2
(a) 15 MR2/32 (b) 13 MR2/32 26. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and
(c) 11 MR2/32 (d) 9 MR2/32 radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the
cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N ? [2017]
24. Which of the following statements are correct ? [2017]
(a) 0.25 rad/s2 (b) 25 rad/s2
(A) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the 2
centre of gravity of the body (c) 5 m/s (d) 25 m/s2
200 PHYSICS
EXERCISE - 2 1 1
K.E. = m v 2 = ´ 27 ´ v 2 = 13.5
1 2 2 2
1. (d) K.E. of rotation = Iw
2 v =1 m/s
1 æ 1 2ö 2 6. (c) Centripetal acceleration
= ´ ç mr ÷ w
2 è2 ø a c = 4p2 n 2 r = 4 p 2 ´ 2 ´ 2 ´ 0.25 = 4p 2 ms -2
7. (b) From the theorem of parallel axes, the moment of inertia
1
= ´ 20 ´ (0.25)2 ´ 100 ´ 100 = 3125 J I = ICM + Ma2
4 where ICM is moment of inertia about centre of mass
2. (c) For solid sphere and a is the distance of axis from centre.
2 2æ4 ö mk2 = m(k1)2 + m(6)2
I= M R 2 = ç p R 3 r÷ R 2 (Q I = mk2 where k is radius of gyration)
5 5è3 ø or, k2 = (k1)2 + 36
8 22 5 176 5 or, 100 = (k1)2 + 36
=
´ R r= R r Þ (k1)2 = 64 cm
15 7 105
\ k1 = 8 cm
3. (a) Force FA on particle A is given by 8. (c) L = m v r or v = L /mr
mA v 2
FA = m A a A = ...(1) m v 2 m (L / m r) 2 = L
t Centripetal force =
r r m r3
mB ´ 2 v 9. (a) The situation can be shown as : Let radius of complete
Similarly FB = m B a B = ...(2)
t disc is a and that of small disc is b. Also let centre of
mass now shifts to O2 at a distance x2 from original
mA v mB ´ 2 v
Now = (Q FA = FB ) centre.
t t
So mA = 2 mB
For the centre of mass of the system a
O b
mA vA + m B vB O2 O1 x-axis
v=
mA + mB x2 x1
2 mB v - mB ´ 2 v
or v= =0
2 mB + m B The position of new centre of mass is given by
Negative sign is used because the particles are -s .pb 2 .x1
travelling in opposite directions. XCM =
s .pa 2 - s .pb 2
Alternatively, if we consider the two masses in a
system then no external force is acting on the system. Here, a = 6 cm, b = 2 cm, x1 = 3.2 cm
Mutual forces are internal forces. Since the centre of -s ´ p (2) 2 ´ 3.2
mass is initially at rest, it well remain at rest Hence, XCM =
s ´ p ´ (6)2 - s ´ p ´ (2)2
4. (a) Moment of inertia of the whole system about the axis
of rotation will be equal to the sum of the moments of 12.8p
inertia of all the particles. = = – 0.4 cm.
32p
Y 10. (b) By energy conservation
(K.E )i + (P.E )i = (K.E ) f + (P.E ) f
(0, 3, 0)
3 kg
(K.E )i = 0, (P.E )i = mgh, (P.E ) f = 0
X
(0, 0, 9) (2, 0, 0) (K.E)f = ½Iω2 + ½mvcm 2
\ I = I 1 + I2 + I3 + I4 æ v2 ö
so mgh = ½(½mR 2 ) ç cm2 ÷
+ ½mv 2cm
= 0 + 0 + 27 + 16 = 43 kg m2 è R ø
1 2 1
5. (a) Er = I w = ´ 3 ´ (3) 3 = 13.5 J Þ vcm = 4gh / 3
2 2
202 PHYSICS
11. (b) Moment of inertia (M.I) of circular ring I1 = mr2 18. (a) A couple consists of two equal and opposite forces
moment of inertia (M.I) of circular disc I2 = ½mr2 whose lines of action are parallel and laterally
I 2 separated by same distance. Therefore, net force (or
Þ 1 = resultant) of a couple is null vector, hence no
I2 1
translatory motion will be produced and only
12. (a) Tension provides the necessary centripetal force for rotational motion will be produced.
the rest of rod. 19. (b) Angular momentum of mass m moving with a constant
13. (d) Centrifugal force is observed when the observer is in velocity about origin is
a frame undergoing circular motion. v
line parallel
1 to x-axis
14. (d) I = mR2 y
m
2
M µ t µ R2 O x
1 2 1 2 2 L = momentum × perpendicular distance of line of
For disc X, ΙX = (m)(R) = (πr t).(R)
2 2 action of momentum from origin
L = mv × y
1
for disc Y, ΙY = [π(4R)2 .t / 4][4R]2 In the given condition mvy is a constant. Therefore
2 angular momentum is constant.
ΙX 1 20. (c) Since the spheres are smooth, there will be no transfer
Þ = Þ IY = 64 IX of angular momentum from the sphere A to sphere B.
ΙY (4)3
The sphere A only transfers its linear velocity v to the
sphere B and will continue to rotate with the same
1
15. (a) Angular momentum µ angular speed w.
Angular frequency
-( x̂ + ŷ)
µ Kinetic energy 21. (c) n̂ = –a cos45o x
r K.E. 2 45o
Þ L=
ω a
L1 æ K.E1 ö ω
=ç ÷ ´ 2 = 4 Þ L2 = L
L 2 è ω1 ø K.E 2 4 –a sin45o y
16. (a) When q = 0°, the net force is directed vertically
ur v2 4 -(xˆ + y)
ˆ
upwards. a = nˆ = ´
17. (a) Let velocity at A = v A and velocity at B = v B r 4 2
A 22. (b) Since v is changing (decreasing), L is not conserved
vA in magnitude. Since it is given that a particle is confined
r T to rotate in a circular path, it can not have spiral path.
Since the particle has two accelerations ac and at
therefore the net acceleration is not towards the centre.
vB v
B
Applying conservation of energy at A & B L at
ac
1 1
mv 2A + 2gmr = mv 2B [Q (P.E)A = mg (2r)]
2 2
t
4f
2
g sin q mR C
a= where I = is the moment of
æ I ö 2
ç1 + ÷
è mR 2 ø N1 W
1 ml 2 2 mgl
r ´ w = (1 + cos q)
dm 2 3 2
3g æ 2 qö 6g q
Þ w2 = ç 2 cos ÷ Þ w = cos
l è 2ø l 2
\ Since riron > raluminium 40. (d) Use t = Ia
so whole of aluminium is kept in the core and the iron
2
at the outer rim of the disc. and w 2 - w02 = 2aq Here I = MR 2
5
1 1
33. (d) Rotational energy = I(w) 2 = (mK 2 )w2 Given M = 2000g = 2kg
2 2 R = 5cm = 5 × 10–2m
1 q = 2p ´ 2p radians
Linear kinetic energy = mw2 R 2
2 n = 300 rpm = 5 rps
\ Required fraction
æ2 æ 2 2ö
2 ö w - w0
1 \ t = Ia = = çè 5 MR ÷ø ç 2q ÷
(mK 2 )w2 K2 è ø
= 2 = 2
1 1
(mK 2 )w 2 + mw 2 R 2
K + R2
(
4p 2 52 - 02 )
2
( )
2
2 2 = ´ 2 ´ 5 ´ 10 -2
5 2
34. (c) At the highest point 2 ´ 4p
= 0.025 N – m.
g = 2.5 × 105 dyne cm.
mg = mR4p 2 n2 Þ n =
4p 2 R 1´ 0 + 2 ´ 2 + 3 ´ 0 + 4 ´ 2 + 5 ´ 1
41. (c) X C.M. =
900 g 1+ 2 + 3 + 4 + 5
Revolution per minute = 60n =
p2R 4 + 8 + 5 17
= = = 1.1
15 15
35. (d) m mg = mr 4p 2 n 2
1´ 0 + 2 ´ 0 + 3 ´ 2 + 4 ´ 2 + 5 ´ 1
YC.M =
r1n12 r1n12 1+ 2 + 3 + 4 + 5
Þ r2 n 22 = r1 n12 Þ r2 = =
n 22 4n12 6+8+5
= = 1.3
15
r1
r2 = = 4 cm
4 1 1
42. (c) E= Mv 2 + Iw 2
36. (c) By conservation of angular momentum, 2 2
50 1 1 2 v2 7
5 ´ 10 = 5w + 20w Þ w = = 2 rps = Mv 2 + ´ MR 2 ´ = Mv 2 = 0.7 J
25 2 2 5 R 2 10
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 205
43. (a) So couple about the C.M must be zero for rotational 53. (a) Acceleration of a body rolling down an inclined plane
equilibrium, It means that g sin q
is given by , a =
W L 3W
´ = ´x Þ x =
L K2
1+ 2
4 2 4 6 R
L/2
boy C.M man In case of a solid sphere , we have
L/2 x
K2 [(I / M)] I (2 / 5)MR 2 2
= = = =
W 3W R2 R2 MR 2 MR 2 5
4 4 K2 2
and the distance of man from other end is Substituting = in equation (1) we get
2 5
R
L L L L 5
–x = - = a = g sin q
2 2 6 3 7
44. (b,c) 54. (c) The velocity of the top point of the wheel is twice that
45. (b) Position of C.M w.r. to A of centre of mass. And the speed of centre of mass is
same for both the wheels.
a2
A B C R2
R1 v 2 = wR 2
1´ 0 + 1 ´ AB + 1 ´ AC AB + AC a1
= = v1 = wR1
1+ 1+1 3
46. (b) Use theorem of parallel axes.
2 2p 4pMR 2
47. (a) Angular momentum = Iw = MR 2 . =
5 T 5T v12 w2 R 12
55. (c) a1 = = = w2 R 1
w2 - w1 R1 R1
48. (d) a=
t 2 - t1 v 22
a2 = = w2 R 2
R2
2 p ´1200 2 p ´ 4500
w1 = = 40p ; w2 = = 150p Taking particle masses equal
60 60
F1 ma 1 a 1 R 1
110p = = =
a= rad / sec2 F2 ma 2 a 2 R 2
10 Alternative method : The force experienced by any
Now, p radian = 180° particle is only along radial direction or the centripetal
force.
180 Force experienced by the particle, F = mw2R
\ 1 rad = degree
p F R
\ 1 = 1
11p ´180 F2 R 2
\ a= degree /sec 2 = 1980 degree/sec2 56. (d) t × Dt = L0 {Q since Lf = 0}
p
Þ t × Dt = Iw
49. (b) I = 2 ´ 5 ´ (0.2)2 + 2 ´ 2 ´ (0.4) 2 = 1kg ´ m 2 or t × 60 = 2 × 2 × 60p/60
50. (b) E = 1500 = 1/2 × 1.2 w2 60 ö
(Q f = 60rpm \ w = 2pf = 2p ´ ÷
3000 60 ø
w2 = = 2500 p
1.2 t = N-m
15
w = 50rad / sec
57. (c) m1d = m2 d2 Þ d 2 = m1d
w 50 m2
t= = = 2 sec
a 25
y1 y¢1
51. (c) Velocity of P = (NP)w = (NM + MP)w
= r(r + sin q)w = v(1 + sin q) 58. (d) Circular disc (1)
52. (d) Velocity at the bottom and top of the circle is 5gr
and gr . Therefore (1/2)M(5gr) = MgH and
MR 2
(1/2) M (gr) = Mgh. Iy =
1 4
206 PHYSICS
L1 : L2= 1 : 2
MR 2
Iy = 63. (d) Net work done by frictional force when drum rolls
2 2
down without slipping is zero.
MR 2 3 M
\ I¢y = + MR 2 = MR 2 R f
2 2 2
I¢y = MK 12 , I¢y 2 = MK 22
1
q
d 2q
Þa = = 12t - 12 = 0
dt 2
\ t = 1 sec.
System of Particles and Rotational Motion 207
68. (a) According to parallel axis theorem of the moment of 2. (c) Centre of mass of a system lies towards the part of the
Inertia system, having bigger mass. In the above diagram,
lower part is heavier, hence CM of the system lies
I = Icm + md2
below the horizontal diameter at C point.
d is maximum for point B so Imax about B.
3. (b) The initial velocity is vi = veˆy and after reflection from
m1 x1 + m2 x2 + m3 x3
69. (a) X cm = the wall, the final velocity is v f = -veˆ y . The trajectory
m1 + m2 + m3
is at constant distance a on z axis and as particle moves
along y axis, its y component changes .
300 ´ (0) + 500(40) + 400 ´ 70 So position vector (moving along y-axis),
X cm =
300 + 500 + 400 r
r = yeˆy + aeˆz
500 ´ 40 + 400 ´ 70 Hence, the change in angular momentum is
X cm =
1200 r
r ´ m(v f - v j ) = 2mvaeˆx .
50 + 70 120 dw
X cm = = = 40 cm 4. (d) Angular acceleration a =
3 3 dt
where w is angular velocity of the disc and is uniform
1 2 or constant.
70. (b) K= Iw
2 dw
a= =0
dt
1 æ 1ö
K ' = ç ÷ (2w) 2 = 2K Hence, angular acceleration is zero.
2 è 2ø
5. (b) According to the question, when the small piece Q
71. (a) For complete disc with mass '4M', M.I. about given removed it is stick at P through axis of rotation passes,
axis = (4M)(R2/2) = 2 MR2 but axis of rotation does not passes through Q and It
is glued to the centre of the plate, the mass comes
Hence, by symmetry, for the given quarter of the disc
closer to the z-axis, hence, moment of inertia decreases.
1 2 6. (c) Let us consider the diagram of problem 5, there is a
M.I. = 2 MR2 /4 = MR line shown in the figure drawn along the diagonal.
2
First, centre of mass of the system was on the dotted
72. (d) line and was shifted towards Q from the centre (1st
73. (a) For a disc rolling without slipping on a horizontal rough quadrant).
surface with uniform angular velocity, the acceleration y y
of lowest point of disc is directed vertically upwards
Q Q hole
and is not zero (Due to translation part of rolling,
x x
acceleration of lowest point is zero. Due to rotational x
part of rolling, the tangential acceleration of lowest
point is zero and centripetal acceleration is non-zero When the mass Q is decrease, it will be on the same
and upwards). Hence statement 1 is false. line but shifted towards other side of Q on the line
74. (a) 75. (b) joining QPor away from the centre so, new CM will
lies in IIIrd quadrant in x-y plane.
EXERCISE - 3
7. (a) As given that density :
Exemplar Questions
r( x) = a(1 + bx 2 )
1. (d) A bangle is in the form of a ring as shown in figure.
The centre of mass of the ring lies at its centre, which where a and b are constants and 0 £ x £ 1
is outside the ring or bangle. At b = 0, r( x) = a = constant
In that case, centre of mass will be at
x = 0.5 m (i.e., mid-point of the rod)
C Putting, b = 0 in options.
Centre
3 2 1
(a) ´ = = 0.5 m
4 3 2
208 PHYSICS
4 2
(b) ´ ¹ 0.5 m
3 3
3 3 10. (d)
(c) ´ ¹ 0.5 m
4 2
4 3
(d) ´ ¹ 0.5 m
3 2
Weight of the rod will produce the torque
So, only (a) option gives 0.5.
8. (a) As there is external torque acting on the system, L mL2 é ML2 ù
t = mg =Ia= a êQ Irod = ú
angular momentum should be conserved. 2 3 êë 3 úû
Hence Iw = constant ...(i)
where, I is moment of inertia of the system and w is 3g
Hence, angular acceleration a =
angular velocity of the system. 2L
From Eq. (i), 11. (c) Given: m1 = 2 kg m2 = 4 kg
I1w1 = I 2 w2 r1 = 0.2 m r2 = 0.1 m
w1 = 50 rad s–1 w2 = 200 rad s–1
where w1 and w2 are angular velocities before and
after jumping. As, I1W1 = I2W2 = Constant
2MR 2 w = MR2 w2 By putting the value of m1, m2, r1, r2 and solving we
get = 100 rad s–1
as mass reduced to half, hence, moment of inertia also
reduced to half. I
12. (a) Q I = MK2 \ K =
w2 = 2w M
1
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions Iring = MR2 and Idisc = MR 2
2
9. (c)
K1 I1 MR 2
= = = 2 :1
3V 2 K2 I2 æ MR 2 ö
ç ÷
4g V è 2 ø
A B K2
Order of value of
R2
d
x d–x K2 1
for disc; 2 = = 0.5
R 2
W
17. (b) Applying angular momentum conservation K2 2
for sphere; 2 = = 0.4
R 5
V0
m (sphere) < (disc)
\ Sphere reaches first
22. (a) Given: Radius of disc, R = 50 cm
angular acceleration a = 2.0 rads–2; time t = 2s
Particle at periphery (assume) will have both radial
æ R0 ö
mV0R0 = (m) (V1) ç ÷ (one) and tangential acceleration
è 2 ø at = Ra = 0.5 × 2 = 1 m/s2
210 PHYSICS
From equation, 24. (d) Centre of mass may or may not coincide with centre
w = w0 + at of gravity. Net torque of gravitational pull is zero about
w = 0 + 2 × 2 = 4 rad/sec centre of mass.
ac = w2R = (4)2 × 0.5 = 16 × 0.5 = 8m/s2 t g = Sti = Sri ´ mig = 0
Net acceleration,
Load
Mechanical advantage , M. A.=
atotal = a 2t + a 2c = 2
1 +8 2 » 8 m/s2 Effort
23. (b) Moment of inertia of complete disc about point 'O'. If M.A. > 1 Þ Load > Effort
M 25. (a) Here, Iw1 + Iw2 = 2Iw
MR 2
ITotal disc =
2 w1 + w2
Þ w=
Mass of removed disc O R 2
M R 1 2 1 2
MRemoved = (Mass µ area) (K.E.)i = Iw1 + Iw2
4 2 2
Moment of inertia of removed disc about point 'O'. 2
IRemoved (about same perpendicular axis) 1 æ w + w2 ö
(K.E.)f = ´ 2Iw2 = I ç 1
= Icm + mx2 2 è 2 ÷ø
M (R / 2)
2 2
3MR 2 1
MæRö Loss in K.E. = (K.E) f - (K.E)i = I(w1 - w2 )2
= + ç ÷ = 4
4 2 4è2ø 32
Therefore the moment of inertia of the remaining part 26. (b) Given, mass of cylinder m = 3kg
of the disc about a perpendicular axis passing through R = 40 cm = 0.4 m
the centre, F = 30 N ; a = ? 40
IRemaing disc = ITotal – IRemoved As we know, torque t = Ia cm
F × R = MR2a
MR 2 3 13
= - MR 2 = MR 2 F´ R
2 32 32 a=
MR 2
F = 30 N
30 ´ (0.4)
a= or, a = 25rad / s 2
3 ´ (0.4) 2
8 Gravitation
Example 2.
A mass M splits into two parts m and (M–m), which are R m
then separated by a certain distance. What will be the x
Center of earth
ratio m/M which maximizes the gravitational force
between the two parts?
Solution :
æ 4 px 3 ö
Gm (M - m) Gç d ÷m
F= ; For maxima, ç 3 ÷
x2 \F = è ø
2
dF G m 1 x
= 2 (M - 2m) = 0 or = 3M
dm x M 2 where d = density of earth = ;
Example 3. 4p R 3
Identical point masses each equal to m are placed at GMm
\F= .x [M is total mass of earth]
x = 0, x = 1, x = 2, x = 4, ... The total gravitational force R3
on mass m at x = 0 due to all other masses is Example 6.
(a) infinite (b) (4/3) Gm2 If the radius of the earth were to shrink by two per cent,
(c) (4/3 GM2) (d) zero its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to
Solution : (c) gravity on the earth’s surface would
o m m m (a) decrease by 2% (b) increase by 2%
(c) increase by 4% (d) decrease by 4%
x=0 x=1 x=2 x=4 Solution : (c)
2 2 2
Gm Gm Gm
F0 = + + + .... GM
12
2 2
42 As g = 2 ; So, if R decreases then g increases.
R
é1 1 1 ù Taking logarithm of both the sides;
F0 = Gm 2 ê + + + ...ú
2 2 2 log g = log G + log M – 2 log R
ë1 2 4 û
It is a G.P. with common ratio 1/4. dg 2 dR
Differentiating it, we get =0+0– ;
é 1 ù
F0 = Gm 2 ê 4Gm 2 g R
\ ú F0 =
ë1 - 1 / 4 û 3 dg æ -2 ö 4
Example 4. \ = -2ç ÷=
g è 100 ø 100
Four identical point masses each equal to m are placed
dg 4
at the corners of a square of side a. The force on a point \ % increase in g = ´100 = ´ 100 = 4%
mass m’ placed at the point of intersection of the two g 100
diagonals is Example 7.
(a) (4Gmm¢)/a2 (b) (2Gmm¢)/a2 An apple of mass 0.25 kg falls from a tree. What is the
(c) (Gmm¢)/a2 (d) zero acceleration of the apple towards the earth? Also calculate
Solution : (d) the acceleration of the earth towards the apple.
The forces acting on the mass m¢ placed at the point of Given : Mass of earth = 5.983 × 1024 kg,
intersection of diagonals are balanced by each other as Radius of earth = 6.378 × 106 metre,
shown in figure. Therefore net force is zero. G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2kg–2.
Solution :
m m Mass of apple, m = 0.25 kg,
Mass of earth, M = 5.983 × 1024 kg,
F
F m¢ Radius of earth, R = 6.378 × 106 metre
Gravitational constant, G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2kg–2
F Let F be the gravitational force of attraction between the
F apple and earth.
m m GmM
Then, F=
Example 5. R2
A tunnel is dug along the diameter of the earth. Determine Let a be the acceleration of apple towards the earth.
the force on a particle of mass m placed in the tunnel at a
distance x from the centre. F GmM GM
a= = = 2
Solution : m mR 2 R
Force on a mass m placed at a distance x from the centre is
equal to the force of gravity due to a mass of spherical 6.67 ´ 10 -11 ´ 5.983 ´ 1024
volume of earth of radius x. Þa= ms-2 = 9.810 ms-2
(6.378 ´ 10 )6 2
214 PHYSICS
Let a¢ be the acceleration of the earth towards the apple. (i) |Eg|= 0 at points inside the spherical shell (i.e. r < R)
F Gm -GM
a¢ = = (ii) | E g |= at the surface of shell (i.e. r = R)
M R2 R2
-GM
6.67 ´ 10-11 ´ 0.25 -2 (iii) | E g |= for outside the spherical shell (r >R).
= ms r2
(6.378 ´ 106 ) 2
It is clear that as r increases, E g decreases.
= 4.099 ´ 10 -25 ms -2 .
Gravitational intensity for solid sphere :
Example 8.
The acceleration due to gravity at the moon’s surface is Eg Solid
1.67 ms–2. If the radius of the moon is 1.74 × 106 m, calculate sphere
the mass of the moon. Use the known value of G. R
Solution :
GM gR 2 |Eg|
g= or M = r
R2 G
This relation is true not only for earth but for any heavenly
body which is assumed to be spherical. GM .r
(i) | E g |= - for points inside the solid sphere (r<R)
R3
Here, g = 1.67ms - , R = 1.74 ´ 10 m and
2 6
GM
G = 6.67 ´10-11 Nm 2 kg -2 (ii) At the surface of solid sphere (r = R) | E g |= -
R2
\ Mass of moon,
GM
1.67 ´ (1.74 ´ 106 ) 2 (iii) Outside the solid sphere | E g |= - (r > R)
M= kg = 7.58 ´ 1022 kg r2
6.67 ´ 10-11 GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL
GRAVITATIONAL FIELD Gravitational potential at any point is the work done by
(or Gravitational Field Intensity) gravitational force in carrying a body of unit mass from infinity
The region or space around a body in which its gravitational to that point in gravitational influence of source.
influence is experienced by other bodies is the gravitational W -GM
field of that body. i.e., VA = =
mo r
The gravitational field strength Eg, produced by a mass M at
any point P is defined as the force exerted on the unit mass where r is the distance of point from source mass M.
placed at that point P. Then The S.I. unit of V is joule/kg. Its dimensions are [M0L2T–2]. It is
a scalar quantity.
F æ G Mm ö GM Gravitational potential at the earth surface is
Eg = = m= 2 ...(i)
m çè r 2 ÷ø r -GM e
where m = test mass VA = = - gRe
Re
r = distance between M and m
Gravitational potential due to a uniform ring at a point on its
(i) The direction of E g always points towards the mass axis
producing it.
(ii) The gravitational field can be represented by gravitational
lines of force. a
(iii) The S.I unit of E g is newton/kg. Its dimensions are
q
[M0LT–2]. GM O r P
Vg = -
Gravitational intensity (Eg) for spherical shell a2 + r 2
Radius of
R spherical shell Gravitational potential due to a uniform thin spherical shell
Vg
GM
|Eg| | Eg |= 2 r
r O
|Eg|=0
r
O
GM
-
R
Gravitation 215
GM e m æ h ö
R » ç ÷ (if h<<R)
R e çè R e ÷
ø
æ GMe ö
-3GM = mç ÷h
(iii) Potential at the centre of solid sphere is V = ç R 2 ÷
2R è e ø
GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL ENERGY So, work done = mgh is stored in the particle as
Let Vg be the gravitational potential at a point. If we place a mass particle potenital energy, when kept at height ‘h’.
m at that point, then we say that the gravitational potential energy Example 9.
possessed by the mass is Four particles each of mass 1 kg are at the four corners of
a square of side 1m. Find the work done to remove one of
GM é GM ù
êë\ Vg = - r úû
U g = Vg ´ m Þ U g = - ´m the particles to infinity.
r Solution :
We can also therefore say that the gravitational potential energy The gravitational potential energy associated with any pair
of particle of mass m1 and m2 separated by a distance r is
of a system containing two masses m1 and m2 placed such that
the centre to centre distance between them is r then -Gm1m 2
U=
Gm1m2 r
Ug = - G ´ 1 ´ 1 2 G ´ 1´ 1
r Initial P.E. of system, – U1 = 4. +
This formula is valid taking into consideration the fact that we 1 2
have taken the gravitational potential of few at infinity. Please é4 2 + 2ù
remember that unless otherwise stated it is understood that the or U1 = -G ê ú
gravitational potential is taken to be zero at infinity. êë 2 úû
216 PHYSICS
1 Kg 1m 1 Kg Example 11.
Find the gravitational potential energy of a system of four
particles, each having mass m, placed at the vertices of a
2m
1m 1m square of side l. Also obtain the gravitational potential at
2m the centre of the square.
Solution :
1 Kg 1m 1 Kg The system has four pairs with distance l and two diagonal
When one mass is removed, then pairs with distance 2l.
é G ´ 1´1 G ´ 1´1 ù m m
P.E. = U2 = - ê2. + ú
ë 1 2 û
é 2 2 + 1ù
U 2 = -ê úG ; 2l l
ëê 2 ûú
é 4 2 + 2 - 2 2 -1ù é 2 2 + 1ù
\ Work done = G ê ú = Gê ú m m
êë 2 úû êë 2 úû
[Q Work done = change in P.E. = –U2–[–U1] = U1–U2] Gm2 Gm2 2Gm 2 æ 1 ö Gm 2
\ U = -4 -2 =- 2 + = - 5.41
Example 10. l 2l l çè ÷
2ø l
A solid sphere of uniform density and mass M has a radius The gravitational potential at the centre of the square is
of 4m. Its centre is at the origin of coordinate system. Two
spheres of radii 1m are taken out so that their centres are (r = 2l / 2 )
at P(0, –2, 0) and Q(0, 2, 0) respectively. This leaves two
V = Algebraic sum of potential due to each particle
spherical cavities. What is the gravitational field at the
centre of each cavity? 4 2Gm
z Þ V=-
l
Example 12.
The radius of earth is R. Find the work done in raising a
P Q body of mass m from the surface of earth to a height R/2.
y
O Solution :
If a body of mass m is placed at a distance x from the centre
of earth, the gravitational force of attraction F between the
R
GM m
body and the earth is F =
Solution : x2
If the cavities are not made, then the intensity at the point
P (or Q), due to whole sphere Small amount of work done in raising a body through a
small distance dx is given by
GM GM GM r r r r
I = 3 .x = ´2 = where I = IP + IQ + IR
R 64 32 GM m
r r r r dW = F dx = dx
\ IR = I - IP - IQ …… (i) x2
Where IR is the intensity of gravitational field at a point, Total work done in raising the body from the surface of
distance x from O due to remainder sphere (exclude cavity) earth to a height R/2 is given by
4p ´ (4) 3 d R +R / 2
GM m
Mass of big sphere M =
3 W= ò x2
dx
R
4π ´ (1)3 d M
Mass of small sphere P or Q, m = \m= 3 R/2 3 R/2
3 64 æ 1ö
Gm G æMö
= GMm ò x -2 dx = -GMm ç ÷
è xøR
R
At P, Ip = 0, I Q = 2
= .ç ÷
r 4 2 è 64 ø é 2 1ù GM m g R 2m
GM GM = - GMm ê - ú = =
\ IR = - [From eq (i)] ë 3R R û 3R 3R
32 1024
31GM 1
= mg R [\ GM = gR2]
\ IR = 3
1024
Gravitation 217
The distance of each focus from the centre of ellipse is ea, so that it travels in a ballistic trajectory. A ballistic trajectory is
where e is the dimensionless number between 0 to 1 called the common type of trajectory you get by throwing a rock or a
the eccentricity. If e = 0, the ellipse is a circle. baseball, neglecting air friction. At every point on the trajectory,
For earth e = 0.017. the acceleration is equal to g downward since there is no support.
2. Law of areas : An imaginary line that connects a planet to A considerable amount of experimentation has been done with
the sun sweeps out equal areas in the plane of the planet's such ballistic trajectories to practice for orbital missions where
orbit in equal times; you experience weightlessness all the time.
i.e., the rate dA/dt at which it sweeps out area A is constant. The satellite is moving in a circular orbit, it has a radial acceleration
P3
P2 v20 GM é æ GM ö ù
a= = 2 êas v0 = ç ú
r r è r ÷ø ú
P4 A2 A1 P1 ëê û
dA
Keep in Memory
vdt
r 1. The moon takes 27.3 days to revolve around the earth. The
radius of its orbit is 3.85 × 105 km.
2. Kepler's second law is based on conservation of angular
dA L
so = ....(1) momentum.
dt 2m
3. Perihelion distance is the shortest distance between the
But as L = constt., (force is central, so torque = 0 and hence sun and the planet.
angular momentum of the planet is conserved) 4. Aphelion distance is the largest distance between the Sun
areal velocity (dA/dt) = constant which is Kepler's IInd law, and the planet.
i.e., Kepler's IInd law or constancy of areal velocity is a
consequence of conservation of angular momentum. Vaphelion rperihelion
=
3. Law of periods : The square of the period of revolution of Vperihelion raphelion
any planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major
axis of the orbit, 5. If e is the eccentricity of the orbit
i.e., T2 µ r3. raphelion
1+ e
then =
T12 r13 1 - e rperihelion
or, =
T22 r23 raphelion + rperihelion = 2r
6. If e > 1 and total energy (KE + PE) > 0, the path of the
Satellite satellite is hyperbolic and it escapes from its orbit.
r 7. If e < 1 and total energy is negative it moves in elliptical
path.
Perigee Sun a Apogee 8. If e = 0 and total energy is negative it moves in circular
KE = Max KE = Min path.
PE = Min Focus Semi major
PE = Max 9. If e = 0 and total energy is zero it will take parabolic path.
axis b
b = Semi 10. The path of the projectiles thrown to lower heights is
minor axis parabolic and thrown to greater heights is elliptical.
rmin rmax 11. Kepler’s laws may be applied to natural and artificial
satellites as well.
WEIGHTLESSNESS 12. Gravitational force does not depend upon medium so no
The “weightlessness” you may feel in an aircraft occurs any time medium can shield it or block it.
the aircraft is accelerating downward with acceleration g. It is 13. The escape velocity and the orbital velocity are independent
possible to experience weightlessness for a considerable length of the mass of the body being escaped or put into the orbit.
of time by turning the nose of the craft upward and cutting power
220 PHYSICS
v' æ GM ö æ 4R ö
\ = ç ÷´ ç ÷ = 2 ; v' = 6v
3v è R ø è GM ø
Gravitation 221
222 PHYSICS
1. A satellite is orbiting around the earth near its surface. If its 7. Due to rotation of the earth the acceleration due to gravity
kinetic energy is doubled, then g is
(a) it will remain in the same orbit. (a) maximum at the equator and minimum at the poles
(b) it will fall on the earth. (b) minimum at the equator and maximum at the poles
(c) it will revolve with greater speed. (c) same at both places
(d) it will escape out of the gravitational field of the earth. (d) None of these
2. There is no atmosphere on the moon because 8. A planet moves around the sun. At a point P it is closest
(a) it is closer to the earth and also it has the inactive inert from the sun at a distance d1 and has a speed v1. At another
gases in it. point Q, when it is farthest from the sun at a distnace d 2 its
(b) it is too for from the sun and has very low pressure in speed will be
its outer surface.
(c) escape velocity of gas molecules is greater than their (a) d12 v1 / d 22 (b) d 2 v1 / d1
root mean square velocity.
(d) escape velocity of gas molecules is less than their
(c) d1 v1 / d 2 (d) d 22 v1 / d12
root mean square velocity. 9. The weight of an object in the coal mine, sea level and at
3. The maximum kinetic energy of a planet moving around the the top of the mountain, are respectively W1, W2 and W3
sun is at a position then
B (a) W1< W2 > W3 (b) W1= W2 = W3
(c) W1< W2 < W3 (d) W1> W2 > W3
10. Two planets of radii r1 and r2 are made from the same
A Sun C material. The ratio of the acceleration due to gravity g1/g2
at the surfaces of the two planets is
D (a) r1/r2 (b) r2/r1
(a) A (b) B (c) (r1/r2)2 (d) (r2/r1)2
(c) C (d) D 11. What would be the length of a sec. pendulum at a planet
4. A man waves his arms while walking. This is to (where acc. due to gravity is g/4) if it’s length on earth is l
(a) keep constant velocity (a) l/2 (b) 2 l
(b) ease the tension (c) l/4 (d) 4 l
(c) increase the velocity 12. Time period of a simple pendulum inside a satellite orbiting
(d) balance the effect of earth’s gravity earth is
5. A missile is launched with a velocity less than escape (a) zero (b) ¥
velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential energies is (c) T (d) 2 T
(a) zero 13. The ratio of the radii of the planets R1 and R2 is k. The ratio
(b) negative of the acceleration due to gravity is r. The ratio of the escape
(c) positive velocities from them will be
(d) may be positive, negative or zero.
(a) k r (b) kr
6. Which of the following graphs represents the motion of a
planet moving about the sun ?
(c) (k / r) (d) (r / k)
(a) (b)
14. If v e and v 0 represent the escape velocity and orbital
T2 T2 velocity of a satellite corresponding to a circular orbit of
radius R, then
R3 R3 (a) ve = vo (b) ve = 2 vo
1. The escape velocity from the earth's surface is 11 km/s. The (a) – 5 unit (b) + 5 unit
escape velocity from a planet having twice the radius and (c) + 10 unit (d) + 15 unit
same mean density as that of earth is 5. A planet of mass 3 × 1029 gm moves around a star with a
(a) 5.5 km/s (b) 11 km/s constant speed of 2 × 106 ms–1 in a circle of radii 1.5 × 1014
(c) 22 km/s (d) None of these cm. The gravitational force exerted on the planet by the star is
2. Two point masses each equal to 1 kg attract one another (a) 6.67 × 1022 dyne (d) 8 × 1027 Newton
with a force of 10–10 N. The distance between the two 26
(c) 8 × 10 N (d) 6.67 × 1019 dyne
point masses is (G = 6.6 × 10–11 MKS units)
(a) 8 cm (b) 0.8 cm 6. The mass of the moon is 1/81 of earth’s mass and its radius
(c) 80 cm (d) 0.08 cm 1/4 that of the earth. If the escape velocity from the earth’s
3. There are two bodies of masses 103 kg and 105 kg separated surface is 11.2 km/sec, its value from the surface of the
by a distance of 1 km. At what distance from the smaller moon will be
body, the intensity of gravitational field will be zero (a) 0.14 kms–1 (b) 0.5 kms–1
(c) 2.5 kms –1 (d) 5.0 kms–1
(a) 1/9 km (b) 1/10 km
(c) 1/11 km (d) 10/11 km 7. If the mass of earth is eighty times the mass of a planet and
4. Taking the gravitational potential at a point infinte distance diameter of the planet is one fourth that of earth, then
away as zero, the gravitational potential at a point A is –5 acceleration due to gravity on the planet would be
unit. If the gravitational potential at point infinite distance (a) 7.8 m/s2 (b) 9.8 m/s2
away is taken as + 10 units, the potential at point A is (c) 6.8 m/s 2 (d) 2.0 m/s2
224 PHYSICS
8. Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 100 kg are separated by a 18. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of radius R
distance of 2m ( G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm 2 kg–2 ). The at a height ‘x’ from its surface. If g is the acceleration due to
gravitational potential at the mid point on the line joining gravity on the surface of the earth, the orbital speed of the
the two is satellite is
(a) 7.3 × 10–7 J/kg (b) 7.3 × 10–9 J/kg
–9
(c) –7.3 × 10 J/kg (d) 7.3 × 10–6 J/kg gR 2 gR
(a) (b)
9. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the R+x R-x
separation between the earth and the satellite is increased
to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become æ gR 2 ö 1/ 2
(a) 10 hours (b) 80 hours (c) gx (d) ç ÷
çR+x÷
(c) 40 hours (d) 20 hours è ø
10. At sea level, a body will have minimum weight at
19. The time period of an earth satellite in circular orbit is
(a) pole (b) equator
independent of
(c) 42° south latitude (d) 37° north latitude
(a) both the mass and radius of the orbit
11. The distance of neptune and saturn from the sun is nearly
1013 and 1012 meter respectively. Assuming that they move (b) radius of its orbit
in circular orbits, their periodic times will be in the ratio (c) the mass of the satellite
(a) 10 (b) 100 (d) neither the mass of the satellite nor the radius of its orbit.
(c) 10 10 (d) 1000 20. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth
power of distance. Then the time period of a planet in circular
12. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of orbit of radius ‘R’ around the sun will be proportional to
5R above that surface of the earth, R being the radius of the
earth. The time period of another satellite in hours at a æ n -1 ö
ç ÷
height of 2R from the surface of the earth is (a) Rn (b) Rè 2 ø
(a) 5 (b) 10 æ n -2 ö
æ n +1 ö ç ÷
6 ç ÷
(c) 6 2 (d) (c) Rè 2 ø (d) Rè 2 ø
2
13. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically upwards 21. An earth satellite of mass m revolves in a circular orbit at a
from the surface of earth is 11 km/s. If the body is projected height h from the surface of the earth. R is the radius of the
at an angle of 45º with the vertical, the escape velocity will be earth and g is acceleration due to gravity at the surface of
the earth. The velocity of the satellite in the orbit is given
(a) 22 km/s (b) 11 km/s
by
11 (a) g R2/(R + h)
(c) km/s (d) 11 2 km/s
2 (b) g R
14. If the length of a simple pendulum is increased by 2%, then (c) g R/(R – h)
the time period
(a) increases by 2% (b) decreases by 2% (d) ég R 2 / (R + h) ù
ë û
(c) increases by 1% (d) decreases by 1%
22. Mass of the Earth has been determined through
15. The kinetic energy of a satellite in its orbit around the earth
is E. What should be the kinetic energy of the satellite so as T2
(a) use of Kepler's constancy law and Moon's period
to enable it to escape from the gravitational pull of the earth? R3
(a) 4 E (b) 2 E (b) sampling the density of Earth's crust and using Earth's
radius
(c) 2E (d) E
(c) Cavendish's determination of G and using Earth radius
16. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is and g at its surface
T, the period of another satellite in a circular orbit of radius
(d) use of periods of satellites at different heights above
4 R is
Earth's surface and known radius of Earth
(a) 4 T (b) T/4
(c) 8 T (d) T/8 23. Consider Earth to be a homogeneous sphere. Scientist A
goes deep down in a mine and scientist B goes high up in a
17. If the change in the value of g at the height h above the
balloon. The gravitational field measured by
surface of the earth is the same as at a depth ‘x’ below it,
then (both x and h being much smaller than the radius of the (a) A goes on decreasing and that by B goes on increasing
earth) (b) B goes on decreasing and that by A goes on increasing
(a) x = h (b) x = 2 h (c) each decreases at the same rate
(c) x = h/2 (d) x = h2 (d) each decreases at different rates
Gravitation 225
24. There are _______ gravitational lines of force inside a 30. If value of acceleration due to gravity changes from one
spherically symmetric shell. place to another, which of the following forces will undergo
(a) infinitely many a change ?
(b) zero (a) Viscous force (b) Buoyant force
(c) Magnetic force (d) All of the above
(c) varying number depending upon surface area
31. The amount of work done in lifting a mass ‘m’ from the
(d) varying number depending upon volume surface of the earth to a height 2R is
25. A uniform ring of mass m and radius r is placed directly (a) 2mgR (b) 3mgR
above a uniform sphere of mass M and of equal radius. The
centre of the ring is directly above the centre of the sphere 3 2
(c) mgR (d) mgR
2 3
at a distance r 3 as shown in the figure.
32. The radius of the earth is 4 times that of the moon and its
The gravitational force exerted by the sphere on the ring mass is 80 times that of the moon. If the acceleration due to
will be gravity on the surface of the earth is 10 m/s2, then on the
surface of the moon its value will be
GMm r
(a) 1 ms–2 (b) 2 ms–2
(a)
8r 2 (c) 3 ms–2 (d) 4 ms–2
3r 33. A satellite of mass ‘m’, moving around the earth in a circular
GMm 2r
(b) orbit of radius R, has angular momentum L. The areal velocity
2
4r of satellite is (Me = mass of earth)
(a) L /2m (b) L /m
GMm
(c) 3 (c) 2L /m (d) 2L /Me
8r 2 34. A solid sphere of uniform density and radius R applies a
gravitational force of attraction equal to F1 on a particle
GMm
(d) placed at A, distance 2R from the centre of the sphere.
8r 3 3
26. The gravitational potential difference between the surface
of a planet and a point 20 m above the surface is 2 joule/kg. A
If the gravitational field is uniform, then the work done in
carrying a 5 kg body to a height of 4 m above the surface is
(a) 2 J (b) 20 J
(c) 40 J (d) 10 J R R
27. The ratio of the kinetic energy required to be given to a A spherical cavity of radius R/2 is now made in the sphere
satellite so that it escapes the gravitational field of Earth to as shown in the figure. The sphere with cavity now applies
the kinetic energy required to put the satellite in a circular a gravitational force F2 on the same particle placed at A.
orbit just above the free surface of Earth is The ratio F2/F1 will be
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 1/2 (b) 3
(c) 3 (d) 9 (c) 7 (d) 1/9
35. A body starts from rest from a point distance R0 from the
28. The radii of two planets are respectively R1 and R2 and
centre of the earth. The velocity acquired by the body when
their densities are respectively r1 and r2. The ratio of the
it reaches the surface of the earth will be (R represents
accelerations due to gravity at their surfaces is
radius of the earth).
r1 r2
(a) g1 : g 2 = : æ1 1 ö æ 1 1ö
R12 R 22 (a) 2 G M çç - ÷ (b) 2 G M çç - ÷÷
÷ R R
è R R0 ø è 0 ø
(b) g1 : g 2 = R1R 2 : r1r 2
æ1 1 ö æ1 1 ö
(c) G M çç - ÷ (d) 2 G M çç - ÷
÷
(c) g1 : g 2 = R1r 2 : R 2r1 ÷
è R R0 ø è R R0 ø
(d) g1 : g 2 = R1r1 : R 2r 2 36. The largest and the shortest distance of the earth from the
sun are r1 and r2. Its distance from the sun when it is at
29. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the perpendicular to the major-axis of the orbit drawn from the sun
earth has a total (K.E. + P.E.) is E0. Its potential energy is –
(a) (r1 + r2 ) / 4 (b) (r1 + r2 ) /(r1 - r2 )
(a) –E0 (b) 1.5 E0
(c) 2E0 (d) E0 (c) 2 r1 r2 /(r1 + r2 ) (d) (r1 + r2 ) / 3
226 PHYSICS
37. The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit 44. If there were a small gravitational effect, then which of the
just above the centre’s surface is u. For a satellite orbiting following forces will undergo a change?
at an altitude of half of the earth’s radius, the orbital velocity is (a) Viscous force (b) Electrostatic force
(c) Magnetic force (d) Archimedes' uplift
æ æ 2öö 2 45. The gravitational force of attraction between a uniform
(a) ç ç ÷ ÷v (b) v0
ç è 3ø÷ 0 3 sphere of mass M and a uniform rod of length l and mass m
è ø
oriented as shown is
3 æ 3ö
(c) v0 (d) ç ÷v0
2 è 2ø
M m
38. A planet is revolving around the sun in an elliptical orbit.
Its closests distance from the sun is rmin. The farthest
distance from the sun is rmax. If the orbital angular velocity r l
of the planet when it is nearest to the sun is w, then the
orbital angular velocity at the point when it is at the farthest GMm GM
distance from the sun is (a) (b)
r(r + l ) r2
(a) ( rmin / rmax ) w (b) ( rmax / rmin ) w
(c) Mmr 2 + l (d) (r 2 + l )mM
2 2 2 2
(c) (rmax / rmin ) w (d) (rmin / rmax ) w
39. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii R and 2R 46. Explorer 38, a radio-astronomy satellite of mass
respectively are released in free space with initial separation 3R
between their centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each 200 kg, circles the Earth in an orbit of average radius
2
other due to gravitational force only, then the distance
where R is the radius of the Earth. Assuming the gravitational
covered by the smaller body just before collision is
pull on a mass of 1 kg at the earth's surface to be 10 N,
(a) 2.5 R (b) 4.5 R calculate the pull on the satellite
(c) 7.5 R (d) 1.5 R (a) 889 N (b) 89 N
40. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one per cent, its (c) 8889 N (d) 8.9 N
mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity 47. Suppose, the acceleration due to gravity at the Earth's
on the earth’s surface would surface is 10 m s–2 and at the surface of Mars it is
(a) decrease (b) remain unchanged 4.0 m s–2. A 60 kg pasenger goes from the Earth to the Mars
(c) increase (d) None of these in a spaceship moving with a constant velocity. Neglect all
41. If earth is supposed to be a sphere of radius R, if g 30 is other objects in the sky. Which part of figure best represents
the weight (net gravitational force) of the passenger as a
value of acceleration due to gravity at lattitude of 30° and g
function of time?
at the equator, the value of g – g30 is
Weight
1 2 3 2
(a) w R (b) w R
4 4 600 N A
1 2
(c) w2R (d) w R B
2
200 N
42. A ball is dropped from a satellite revolving around the earth
at height of 120 km. The ball will C
(a) continue to move with same speed along a straight D t0 time
line tangentially to the satellite at that time
(b) continue to move with same speed along the original (a) A (b) B
orbit of satellite. (c) C (d) D
(c) fall down to earth gradually 48. A projectile is fired vertically from the Earth with a velocity
kve where ve is the escape velocity and k is a constant less
(d) go far away in space
than unity. The maximum height to which projectile rises,
43. Two identical geostationary satellites are moving with equal
as measured from the centre of Earth, is
speeds in the same orbit but their sense of rotation brings
them on a collision course. The debris will R R
(a) (b)
(a) fall down k k -1
(b) move up
R R
(c) begin to move from east to west in the same orbit (c) 2 (d)
(d) begin to move from west to east in the same orbit 1- k 1+ k2
Gravitation 227
49. A diametrical tunnel is dug across the Earth. A ball is 53. The percentage change in the acceleration of the earth
dropped into the tunnel from one side. The velocity of the towards the sun from a total eclipse of the sun to the point
ball when it reaches the centre of the Earth is .... (Given : where the moon is on a side of earth directly opposite to
3 GM the sun is
gravitational potential at the centre of Earth = – )
2 R
2
(a) R (b) gR Ms r2 Ms æ r2 ö
(a) ´ 100 (b) ´ 100
M m r1 M m çè r1 ÷ø
(c) 2.5gR (d) 7.1gR
50. A man of mass m starts falling towards a planet of mass M
2 2
and radius R. As he reaches near to the surface, he realizes æ r ö Mm æ r1 ö M s
that he will pass through a small hole in the planet. As he (c) 2ç 1 ÷ ´ 100 (d) ç ÷ ´ 100
è r2 ø Ms è r2 ø M m
enters the hole, he sees that the planet is really made of two
pieces a spherical shell of negligible thickness of mass 2M/
54. A satellite is revolving round the earth in an orbit of radius
3 and a point mass M/3 at the centre. Change in the force of
r with time period T. If the satellite is revolving round the
gravity experienced by the man is
earth in an orbit of radius r + D r (Dr << r) with time period T
2 GMm
(a) (b) 0 + D T then,
3 R2
DT 3 Dr DT 2 Dr
1 GMm 4 GMm (a) = (b) =
(c) 2 (d) T 2 r T 3 r
3 R 3 R2
51. In a region of only gravitational field of mass 'M' a particle
DT Dr DT Dr
is shifted from A to B via three different paths in the figure. (c) = (d) =-
The work done in different paths are W1 , W2 , W 3 T r T r
respectively then 55. A cavity of radius R/2 is made inside a solid sphere of
3
radius R. The centre of the cavity is located at a distance R/
B C 2 from the centre of the sphere. The gravitational force on a
M particle of mass ‘m’ at a distance R/2 from the centre of the
2 sphere on the line joining both the centres of sphere and
1 cavity is – (opposite to the centre of gravity)
[Here g = GM/R², where M is the mass of the sphere]
A
mg 3mg
(a) W1 = W2 = W3 (b) W1 > W2 > W3 (a) (b)
2 8
(c) W1 = W2 > W3 (d) W1 < W2 < W3
52. Four similar particles of mass m are orbiting in a circle of mg
radius r in the same angular direction because of their mutual (c) (d) None of these
16
gravitational attractive force. Velocity of a particle is given by
56. A spherical uniform planet is rotating about its axis. The
m
velocity of a point on its equator is V. Due to the rotation of
planet about its axis the acceleration due to gravity g at
equator is 1/2 of g at poles. The escape velocity of a particle
m r on the pole of planet in terms of V is
m
(a) Ve = 2V (b) Ve = V
1/ 2 (a) v e (b) ve / 2
é 1 GM æ 1 + 2 ö ù
(c)
GM
r
(
1+ 2 2 ) (d) ê ç
ëê 2 r è 2 ø úû
÷ú (c) ve/2 (d) zero
228 PHYSICS
58. A (nonrotating) star collapses onto itself from an initial 63. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius R around
radius Ri with its mass remaining unchanged. Which curve the earth. A second satellite is launched into an orbit of
in figure best gives the gravitational acceleration ag on the radius 1.01 R. The period of second satellite is larger than
surface of the star as a function of the radius of the star the first one by approximately
during the collapse (a) 0.5% (b) 1.0%
ag (c) 1.5% (d) 3.0%
64. If gE and gM are the accelerations due to gravity on the
surfaces of the earth and the moon respectively and if
d
Millikan’s oil drop experiment could be performed on the
b two surfaces, one will find the ratio
a electronic charge on the moon
c to be
electronic charge on the earth
R
Ri (a) gM / gE (b) 1
(a) a (b) b
(c) 0 (d) gE / gM
(c) c (d) d
59. The earth is assumed to be sphere of radius R. A platform is 65. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of
arranged at a height R from the surface of Earth. The escape earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the
velocity of a body from this platform is kv, where v is its planet is equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the
escape velocity from the surface of the earth. The value of radius of the earth is R, the radius of the planet would be
k is
(a) ½ R (b) 2 R
1 1
(a) (b) (c) 4 R (d) 1/4 R
2 3
66. Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of
1 earth but it is 3 times bigger than the earth in size. If the
(c) (d) 2 acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g and
2
that on the surface of the new planet is g’, then
60. Four equal masses (each of mass M) are placed at the corners
of a square of side a. The escape velocity of a body from (a) g’ = g/9 (b) g’ = 27g
the centre O of the square is (c) g’=9g (d) g’=3g
67. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio
2GM 8 2 GM of kinetic energy to potential energy is
(a) 4 (b)
a a
1 1
(a) (b)
2 2
4GM 4 2 GM
(c) (d)
a a (c) 2 (d) 2
68. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the
61. A planet of mass m moves around the sun of mass M in an
sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the shaded area SAB.
elliptical orbit. The maximum and minimum distance of the
If t1 is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t 2 is
planet from the sun are r1 and r2 respectively. The time
the time to move from A to B then :
period of planet is proportional to
3/ 2 v
æ ö m
(a) r12 / 5 (b) çr + r ÷
è 1 2ø B C
3/ 2
æ ö
(c) ç r1 – r2 ÷ (d) r 3/ 2 S
è ø D
62. The change in potential energy, when a body of mass m is A
raised to a height nR from the earth’s surface is (R = radius
of earth)
(a) t1 = 4t2 (b) t1 = 2t2
æ n ö
(c) t1 = t2 (d) t1 > t2
(a) mgRç ÷ (b) nmgR
ç n – 1÷ 69. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the
è ø
earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the speed of satellite A
æ n2 ö is 3 V, then the speed of satellite B will be
æ n ö
(c) mgR ç ÷ (d) mgR ç ÷ (a) 3 V/4 (b) 6 V
ç n 2 +1 ÷ è n +1 ø
è ø (c) 12 V (d) 3 V/2
Gravitation 229
Exemplar Questions (c) not be true because the major gravitational force on
mercury is due to the sun
1. The earth is an approximate sphere. If the interior contained
matter which is not of the same density everywhere, then (d) not be true because mercury is influenced by forces
on the surface of the earth, the acceleration due to gravity other than gravitational force
(a) will be directed towards the centre but not the same 3. Different points in the earth are at slightly different
everywhere distances from the sun and hence experience different
(b) will have the same value everywhere but not directed forces due to gravitation. For a rigid body, we know that if
towards the centre various forces act at various points in it, the resultant motion
(c) will be same everywhere in magnitude directed towards is as if a net force acts on the CM (centre of mass) causing
the centre translation and a net torque at the CM causing rotation
around an axis through the CM. For the earth-sun system
(d) cannot be zero at any point
(approximating the earth as a uniform density sphere).
2. As observed from the earth, the sun appears to move in an
(a) the torque is zero
approximate circular orbit. For the motion of another planet
like mercury as observed from the earth, this would (b) the torque causes the earth to spin
(a) be similarly true (c) the rigid body result is not applicable since the earth
(b) not be true because the force between the earth and is not even approximately a rigid body
mercury is not inverse square law (d) the torque causes the earth to move around the sun
230 PHYSICS
4. Satellites orbitting the earth have finite life and sometimes NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions
debris of satellites fall to the earth. This is because 9. A body of mass ‘m’ is taken from the earth’s surface to the
(a) the solar cells and batteries in satellites run out height equal to twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change
(b) the laws of gravitation predict a trajectory spiralling in potential energy of body will be [2013]
inwards 2
(c) of viscous forces causing the speed of satellite and (a) mgR (b) 3 mgR
3
hence height to gradually decrease
1
(d) of collisions with other satellites (c) mgR (d) mg2R
3
5. Both the earth and the moon are subject to the gravitational
force of the sun. As observed from the sun, the orbit of the 10. Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are situated on
moon x-axis at distances 1m, 2m, 4m, 8m, ..... respectively, from the
origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this
(a) will be elliptical
system at the origin will be [2013]
(b) will not be strictly elliptical because the total
8 4
gravitational force on it is not central (a) - G (b) - G
3 3
(c) is not elliptical but will necessarily be a closed curve
(c) – 4 G (d) – G
(d) deviates considerably from being elliptical due to 11. The radius of a planet is twice the radius of earth. Both
influence of planets other than the earth have almost equal average mass-densities. If VP and VE are
6. In our solar system, the inter-planetary region has chunks escape velocities of the planet and the earth, respectively,
of matter (much smaller in size compared to planets) called then [NEET Kar. 2013]
asteroids. They (a) VE = 1.5VP (b) VP = 1.5VE
(a) will not move around the sun, since they have very (c) VP = 2VE (d) VE = 3VP
small masses compared to the sun 12. A particle of mass ‘m’ is kept at rest at a height 3R from the
(b) will move in an irregular way because of their small surface of earth, where ‘R’ is radius of earth and ‘M’ is mass
masses and will drift away into outer space of earth. The minimum speed with which it should be
projected, so that it does not return back, is (g is acceleration
(c) will move around the sun in closed orbits but not obey
due to gravity on the surface of earth) [NEET Kar. 2013]
Kepler's laws
1 1
(d) will move in orbits like planets and obey Kepler's laws æ GM ö 2 æ GM ö 2
(a) ç ÷ (b) ç ÷
7. Choose the wrong option. è R ø è 2R ø
(a) Inertial mass is a measure of difficulty of accelerating 1 1
a body by an external force whereas the gravitational æ gR ö 2 æ 2g ö 2
(c) ç ÷ (d) ç ÷
mass is relevant in determining the gravitational force è 4 ø è 4 ø
on it by an external mass
13. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth
(b) That the gravitational mass and inertial mass are equal with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represented
is an experimental result by: [2014]
(c) That the acceleration due to gravity on the earth is the
same for all bodies is due to the equality of gravitational E E
mass and inertial mass O R
(a) (b) O
r R r
(d) Gravitational mass of a particle like proton can depend
on the presence of neighbouring heavy objects but
the inertial mass cannot
E E
8. Particles of masses 2M, m and M are respectively at points A,
R
1 (c) O (d) O
B and C with AB = ( BC ) × m is much-much smaller than r R r
2
M and at time t = 0, they are all at rest as given in figure.
At subsequent times before any collision takes place. 14. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so
strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what
A r B C
approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 × 1024 kg)
2M m M have to be compressed to be a black hole? [2014]
(a) m will remain at rest (a) 10– 9 m (b) 10– 6 m
(b) m will move towards M
(c) 10– 2 m (d) 100 m
(c) m will move towards 2M
(d) m will have oscillatory motion
Gravitation 231
15. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5 M and radii R and 2 (b) the linear momentum of S remains constant in
R released in free space with initial separation between their magnitude.
centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each other due to (c) the acceleration of S is always directed towards the
gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the centre of the earth.
smaller body before collision is [2015]
(d) the angular momentum of S about the centre of the
(a) 4.5 R (b) 7.5 R earth changes in direction, but its magnitude remains
(c) 1.5 R (d) 2.5 R constant.
16. Kepler's third law states that square of period of revolution 19. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape
(T) of a planet around the sun, is proportional to third power velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean density are
of average distance r between sun and planet i.e. T 2 = Kr3 twice as that of earth is :
here K is constant. If the masses of sun and planet are M
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 2 2 [2016]
and m respectively then as per Newton's law of gravitation
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 2
GMm 20. At what height from the surface of earth the gravitational
force of attraction between them is F = 2 , here G is
r potential and the value of g are –5.4 × 107 J kg–1 and 6.0 ms–2
gravitational constant. The relation between G and K is
respectively ?
described as [2015]
Take the radius of earth as 6400 km : [2016]
(a) GMK = 4p2 (b) K = G
(a) 2600 km (b) 1600 km
1 (c) 1400 km (d) 2000 km
(c) K = (d) GK = 4p2
G 21. Two astronauts are floating in gravitation free space after
17. A remote - sensing satellite of earth revolves in a circular having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will
orbit at a height of 0.25 × 106 m above the surface of earth. (a) move towards each other. [2017]
If earth's radius is 6.38 × 106 m and g = 9.8 ms–2, then the (b) move away from each other.
orbital speed of the satellite is: [2015 RS] (c) become stationary
(a) 8.56 km s–1 (b) 9.13 km s–1 (d) keep floating at the same distance between them.
22. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the
(c) 6.67 km s–1 (d) 7.76 km s–1 earth is the same as at a depth d below the surface of earth.
18. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the earth. Then [2017]
The mass of the satellite is very small compared to the mass 3
(a) d = 1 km (b) d = km
of the earth. Then, [2015 RS] 2
(a) the total mechanical energy of S varies periodically 1
(c) d = 2 km (d) d = km
with time. 2
232 PHYSICS
3/ 2 3/ 2 1 10 2
T1 æ R1 ö T æ 4R ö =
19. (c) =ç ÷ Þ =ç ÷ r 2 (1 - r) 2
T2 çè R 2 ÷ø T2 è 16R ø
1 10
= Þ 10 r = 1 - r
Þ T2 = 8T r 1- r
1
20. (a) 3 2
T 2 µ (major axis) Þ T a a
3 \ r = km
11
21. (d) According to 3rd law of Kepler 4. (b) The gravitational potential V at a point distant ‘r’ from
a body of mass m is equal to the amount of work done
T2 µ R3 in moving a unit mass from infinity to that point.
Þ T 2 = KR 3 r ur r
Vr - Vµ = - ò E.dr = -GM (1/ r - 1/ µ )
where K is a constant
µ
2
T -GM æ r -dV ö
Thus 3 does not depends on radius. = çè As E = ÷
R r dr ø
(i) In the first case
1 1
22. (a) v1 µ , v2 µ 7R
R 7R - GM
when Vµ = 0, Vr = = -5 unit
r
v2 1 v v
= Þ v2 = 1 = R (ii) In the second case Vµ = + 10 unit
v1 7 7 7 Vr – 10 = – 5
23. (a) Escape velocity does not depend upon the mass of or Vr = + 5 unit
the body. 5. (c) Gravitational force supplies centripetal force
24. (b) At a height h above the surface of earth the
gravitational potential energy of the particle of mass mv 2 3 ´ 10 29 ´ (2 ´ 108 ) 2
\ F= = dynes
m is r 1.5 ´ 1014
GM e m = 8 × 1031 dyne = 8 × 1026 N (Q 1N = 105 dyne.)
Uh = -
Re + h
Me
Where Me & Re are the mass & radius of earth 2G
2GM e 81 = 2 v
respectively. 6. (c) ve = ; vm = e
Re Re 9
In this question, since h = Re
4
GM e m - mgRe
So U h = Re = - = = 2/9 × 11.2 kms–1 = 2.5 kms–1
2 Re 2
7. (d) Since gravitational acceleration on earth is defined as
25. (d) Energy required to move a body of mass m from an
orbit of radius 2R to 3R is GM e
ge = …… (i)
GMm -GMm GMm GMm GMm R e2
DU = - - = - =
3R 2R 2R 3R 6R
Me R
mass of planet is MP = & radius R P = e
EXERCISE - 2 80 4
1. (c) GM P
2. (c) According to Newton’s Gravitation Law So g P = …… (ii)
R 2P
GM1M 2
Fg = here Fg = 10–10 Newton, From (i) & (ii), we get
r2
m1= m2= 1kg, MP R e2 g e
G = 6.6 × 10–11 g P = ge ´ = =2m/sec2
R 2P M e 5
2 GM1 M 2 6.6 ´ 10 - 11 ´ 1 ´ 1
So r = = = 0.66 (as g=10m/sec2)
Fg 10 - 10
or r = 0.8125 metre = 81.25 cm » 80cm – 6. 67 ´ 10 - 11 ´ 10 6 .67 ´ 10 - 11 ´ 100
8. (c) Vg = -
G ´ 10 3 G ´ 10 5 1 1
3. (c) = –10
= –6.67 × 10 – 6.67 × 10 –9
(r ) 2 (1 - r ) 2 = – 6.67 × 10–10 × 11 = –7.3 × 10–9 J/kg
234 PHYSICS
9. (c) T2 µ R3 1/ 2
2 π é (R + h)3 ù
2 3 16. (c) T= ê ú
æ T1 ö æ R1 ö R êë g úû
Þ çç ÷÷ = çç ÷÷
è T2 ø è R2 ø Here (R + h) changes from R to 4 R. Hence period of
3/ 2 revolution changes from T to (43)1/2 T = 8 T.
3/ 2
æ T1 ö æ R1 ö æ 1ö
Þ çç ÷÷ = çç ÷÷ =ç ÷ æ 2h ö
g h = g ç1 -
è T2 ø è R2 ø è 4ø 17. (b) ÷
è R ø
T2 æ xö
Þ = ( 4) 3 / 2 = 8 g x = g ç1 - ÷
T1
è Rø
Þ T2 = 8 ´ T1 = 8 ´ 5 = 40 hours Given that, g h = g x
10. (b) At poles, the effect of rotation is zero and also the \x=2h
distance from the centre of earth is least.
mv 2 GmM GM
18. (d) = also g= 2
11. (c) T 2 µ R 3 (According to Kepler’s law) (R + x ) (R + x ) 2
R
T2 = 6 2 GM GM
Þ v2 = or v =
(R + x) R+x
13. (b) Since escape velocity v e = ( 2g R e ) is independent
2p(R + x) 2p(R + x)
of angle of projection, so it will not change. T= =
14. (c) Given that l2 = 1.02 l1 v GM
R+x
ælö which is independent of mass of satellite
We know that T = 2π ç ÷ or T µ l
ègø 20. (c) F = KR - n = MRw 2 Þ w 2 = KR - (n +1)
-( n +1)
T2 æl ö (1.02 l1 )
\ = ç 2÷ = = 101 or w = K' R 2 [where K' = K1/2, a constant]
T1 è l1 ø l1
-(n +1)
Thus time period increases by 1%. 2p
aR 2
15. (b) We know that v e = 2 v0 , where v0 is orbital T
velocity. (n +1)
\T a R 2
1
K.E. in the orbit, E = M v 02 21. (d) According to Newton gravitational force
2
GM e m GM e m
1 1 = mg & = mg¢
K.E. to escape E = M v e = M (2 v 0 )
2 2
R e2 (R e + h )2
2 2
1 gR e2
=
1
M v 02 ´ 2 = 2 E Þ g' = g =
2 (1 + h / R e ) 2
(R e + h) 2
Gravitation 235
Re æ 1 1ö
O v v = 2G M ç - ÷
R
è 0 R ø
Earth satellite
orbit 36. (c) Applying the properties of ellipse, we have
22. (c) 2 1 1 r1 + r2
23. (d) Both decreases but variation are different. = + =
R r1 r2 r1 r2
24. (b) There is no gravitational field in the shell.
25. (c) The gravitational field due to the ring at a distance 3r Instant position
is given by of satellite
Sun
Gm( 3r ) 3Gm
E= ÞE= R
[r 2 + ( 3r) 2 ]3 / 2 8r 2 major axis
3GmM r1 r2
Attractive force =
8r 2
26. (a) For uniform gravitational field 2 r1 r2
R=
V -2 1 r1 + r2
Eg = - =- = ms - 2
r 20 10
æ GM ö
1 37. (a) v= ç ÷ where r is radius of the orbit of the
Now, W = mgh = 5 ´ ´ 4 = 2J è r ø
10
satellite.
1 1
27. (b) E1 = mve2 , E 2 = mv20 Re 3
2 2 herer = Re + h = R e + = Re
2 2
2
E1 æ v e ö
\ =ç ÷ =2 Q ve = 2v0 2GM 2
E 2 çè v 0 ÷ø So, v = = v0
3R e 3,
28. (d) g µ rR
where v0 is the orbital velocity of the satellite, which
29. (c) is moving in circular orbit of radius, r = Re
30. (b) As buoyant force involves ‘g’ in it.
31. (d) Work done = Uf – Ui 38. (d) v1 r1 = v 2 r2 or r12 ω1 = r2 2 ω 2
GMm æ Gmm ö 2 GmM 2 (Q L=mrv = constant)
=- -ç- ÷= = mgR
2R + R è R ø 3 R 3
or rmin 2 ω = rmax 2 ω¢
32. (b) 33. (a)
34. (d) The gravitational force due to the whole sphere at A \ ω¢ = (rmin 2 / rmax 2 ) ω
point is
39. (c) Distance between the surface of the spherical bodies
GM e m o , where m is the assumed rest mass at = 12R – R – 2R = 9R
F1 = 0
(2R ) 2 Force µ Mass
point A.
Acceleration µ Mass
In the second case, when we made a cavity of radius
(R/2), then gravitational force at point A is Distance µ Acceleration
GM e m o S 1
F2 =
2 \ F2/F1= 1/9 Þ a1 = M = 1 Þ 1 = Þ S 2 = 5S1
( R + R / 2) a 2 5M 5 S 2 5
236 PHYSICS
S1 + S2 = 9
æ 2h ö 4 g æ 3R ö
46. (a) g = g ç1 - ÷ = çè since h = R + ÷ø
9 h è R ø h 2
Þ 6S1 = 9 Þ S1 = = 1 . 5
6
4
S2 = 1.5 × 5 = 7.5 Force on the satellite = mg h = mg
9
Note: Maximum distance will be travelled by smaller
bodies due to the greater acceleration caused by the 4
= ´ 200 ´ 10 » 889 N
same gravitational force 9
GM GM 1
40. (c) g= ; g' = 47. (c) gµ so we will not get a straight line.
2 2
R (0.99R ) R2
Also F = 0 at a point where Force due to Earth = Force
g' æ R 2 ö due to mars
\ =ç ÷ Þ g' > g 48. (c) Applying conservation of energy principle, we get
g è 0.99R2 ø
1 GMm GMm
41. (b) Acceleration due to gravity at lattitude’ l ’ is given by mk 2 v e2 - =-
2 R r
g l = g e - R e w 2 cos 2 l 1 2GM GMm GMm
Þ mk 2 - =-
At equator, l = 90° Þ cos l = cos 90° = 0 2 R R r
or g l = g e = g (as given in question) k2 1 1 1 1 k2
Þ - =- Þ = -
R R r r R R
2 2 3
At 30°, g 30 = g - Rw cos 30 = g - Rw 2 1 1 R
4 Þ = (1 - k 2 ) Þ r =
r R 1- k 2
3
or, g - g 30 = Rw 2 49. (b) Loss in potential energy = Gain in kinetic energy
4
42. (b) The orbital speed of satellite is independent of mass GMm æ 3 GMm ö 1 2
- -ç- ÷ = mv
of satellite, so ball will behave as a satellite & will R è 2 R ø 2
continue to move with same speed in original orbit.
GMm 1 GM
43. (a) The total momentum will be zero and hence velocity Þ = mv 2 Þ v = = gR
will be zero just after collisiion. The pull of earth will 2R 2 R
make it fall down. 50. (a) Change in force of gravity
44. (d) Weight of liquid displaced = mg. M
45. (a) The force of attraction between sphere and shaded G m
GMm
= - 32 (only due to mass M/3 due to shell
æm ö R2 R
ç dx ÷ gravitational field is zero (inside the shell))
l
position dF = GM è ø
2 2GMm
x =
3R 2
r l 51. (a)
52. (a) Centripetal force = net gravitational force
m mv20 2GM 2 1 Gm 2
M = 2Fcos 45° + F1 = +
r ( 2r) 2 2 4r 2
45° 2r
x V0
F
r+l F1 F
r +l r +l r
GMm GMm 1
F= òr
lx 2
dx =
l òr
x2
dx
r +l r +l
GMm GMm é x -2+1 ù
=
l ò
r
x -2 dx =
l êë -2 + 1úû r
r+l
GMm -1 r + l GMm é 1 ù GMm 1/2
=- éx ù = - = mv20 Gm 2 æ GM(2 2 + 1ö
l ë ûr l êë x úû r r (r + l ) = 2
[2 2 + 1] Þ ç ÷
r 4r è 4r ø
Gravitation 237
GM 4 GM
65. (a) g= also M = d ´ pR 3 \ u = 2· ·R Þ 2GM
2 3
R R2 R
4 73. (d) Intensity will be zero inside the spherical shell.
\g = dpR at the surface of planet
3 1
I = 0 upto r = a and I µ when r > a
4 4
g p = ( 2d ) pR ¢ , g e = (d ) pR r2
3 3 74. (b) 75. (b)
ge = gp Þ dR = 2d R' EXERCISE - 3
Þ R' = R/2
66. (d) We know that Exemplar Questions
1. (d) Let the density of earth as a sphere is uniform, then it
æ4 ö
GM G ç pR 3 ÷r 4 can be treated as point mass placed at its centre then
g= 2 =
è3 ø = pGRr acceleration due to gravity g = 0, at the centre. But if
R R2 3
the density of earth is considered as a sphere of non-
g' R' 3R uniform then value of 'g' will be different at different
= =
g R R
=3 \ g' = 3g
points
67. (a) K.E. of satellite moving in an orbit around the earth is
æ 4 ö
çQ g = prGR ÷ . So g cannot be zero at any point.
2
1 1 æ GM ö÷ GMm
K= mv 2 = mç = è 3 ø
2 2 èç r ø÷ 2r
2. (c) Force of attraction between any two objects obeys
P.E. of satellite and earth system is the inverse square law.
GMm As observed from the earth, the sun appears to move
GMm K 1
U= Þ = 2r = in an approximate circular orbit. The gravitational force
r U GMm 2 of attraction between the earth and the sun always
r follows inverse square law.
68. (b) According to Kepler’s law, the areal velocity of a Due to relative motion between the earth and mercury,
planet around the sun always remains constant. the orbit of mercury, as observed from the earth will
SCD : A1– t1 (areal velocity constant) not be approximately circular, since the major
SAB : A2 – t2 gravitational force on mercury is due to the sun is
A1 A 2
= , very large than due to earth and due to the relative
t1 t2 motion to sun and earth with mercury.
A 3. (a) As we know that, the torque on earth due to
t1 = t2 . 1 , (given A1 = 2A2)
A2 gravitational attractive force on earth is zero.
2A 2 As the earth is revolving around the sun in a circular
= t2 .
A2 motion due to gravitational attraction. The force of
\ t1 = 2t2 attraction will be of radial nature i.e., angle between
69. (b) Orbital velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius position vector r and force F is also, zero.
a is given by
So, torque = t = r ´ F = rF sin 0° = 0
GM 1 v2 a1
v= Þ va Þ v = 4. (c) As the total (P.E.) of the earth satellite orbiting in orbit
a a 1 a2
æ -GM ö
4R is negative ç ÷ , where r is radius of the satellite
\ v2 = v1 = 2 v1 = 6V è 2r ø
R and M is mass of the earth.
70. (a) Potential at the given point = Potential at the point Due to the viscous force acting on satellite, energy
due to the shell + Potential due to the particle decreases continuously and radius of the orbit or
GM 2GM 3GM height decreases gradually.
=- - =-
a a a 5. (b) The major force acting on moon is due to gravitational
71. (b) Angular momentum is conserved force of attraction by sun and earth and moon is not
\ L1 = L2 always in line of joining sun and earth.
v1 r2
Þ mr1v1 = mr2v2 Þ r1v1 = r2v2 Þ = As observed from the sun, two types of forces are
v2 r1 acting on the moon one is due to gravitational
72. (a) The velocity u should be equal to the escape velocity. attraction between the sun and the moon and the other
That is, u = 2gR is due to gravitational attraction between the earth
and the moon. So these two force have different lines
GM
But g = of action and it will not be strictly elliptical because
R2 total force on the moon is not central.
Gravitation 239
G (2 Mm) 8
= FBA =
11. (c) Escape velocity, Ve = R pGP
towards BA. 3
( AB) 2
VP RP
G (2 Mm ) Þ Ve µ R Þ = =2
= = 2 Fg VE RE
r2
Þ VP = 2VE.
and force on B due to C
12. (b) As we know, the minimum speed with which a body is
GMm projected so that it does not return back is called
= FBC = towards BC
( BC ) 2 escape speed.
As, (BC) = 2AB 2GM 2GM 2GM
Ve = = =
GMm GMm GMm Fg r R+h 4R
Þ FBC = 2
= 2
= 2
= 1
(2 AB) 4( AB ) 4r 4 æ GM ö 2
=ç ÷ (Q h = 3R)
As FBA > FBC, è 2R ø
hence, m will move towards (BA) i.e., (2M). 13. (b) First when (r < R) E µ r and then when r > R E µ 1 .
r2
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions
Hence graph (b) correctly dipicts.
-GMm 14. (c) From question,
9. (a) Initial P. E., Ui = ,
R Escape velocity
-GMm 2GM
Final P.E., Uf = [Q R' = R + 2R = 3R] = = c = speed of light
3R R
\ Change in potential energy, 2GM
Þ R=
-GMm GMm c2
DU = + 2 ´ 6.6 ´ 10 - 11 ´ 5.98 ´ 10 24
3R R = m
(3 ´ 108 )2
GMm æ 1 - 1 ö 2 GMm 2
= 10– 2 m
= ç 3÷ = = mgR
R è ø 3 R 3
15. (b) Before collision At the time of collision
5M 5M
æ GMm ö
çèQ = mgR ÷ M M
R ø 12R–3R=9R
R 2R R 2R
mgh
ALTERNATE : DU = 12R
h
1+
R Let the distance moved by spherical body of mass M
is x1 and by spherical body of mass 5m is x2
By placing the value of h = 2R we get As their C.M. will remain stationary
2 So, (M) (x1) = (5M) (x2) or, x1 = 5x2
DU = mgR. and for tauching x1 + x2 = 9R
3
So, x1 = 7.5 R
10. (c) GM
16. (a) As we know, orbital speed, Vorb =
m r
240 PHYSICS
2 pr 2 pr
Time period T = = r Ve R re
vorb GM Þ = e
Squarring both sides, Vp 2R e 2r e
2
æ 2 pr r ö 4p 2 3 Ve
T2 = ç ÷ = .r \ Ratio =1 : 2 2
è GM ø GM Vp
T 2 4p 2 20. (a) As we know, gravitational potential (v) and
Þ = =K
r 3 GM acceleration due to gravity (g) with height
Þ GMK = 4p2. -GM
17. (d) Given: Height of the satellite from the earth's surface V= = –5.4 × 107 …(1)
R+h
h = 0.25 × 106m
Radius of the earth R = 6.38 × 106m GM
and g = =6 …(2)
Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s2 ( R + h )2
Orbital velocity, V0 = ? Dividing (1) by (2)
GM GM R 2 -GM
V0 = = . R +h -5.4 ´107
(R + h) R 2 (R + h) =
GM 6
( R + h )2
9.8 ´ 6.38 ´ 6.38
=
6.63 ´106 5.4 ´ 107
Þ =6
(R + h )
é GM ù
= 7.76 km/s êQ 2 = g ú Þ R + h = 9000 km so, h = 2600 km
ë R û
21. (a) Both the astronauts are in the condition of
18. (c) The gravitational force on the satellite will be aiming weightlessness. Gravitational force between them
towards the centre of the earth so acceleration of the pulls towards each other. Hence Astronauts move
satellite will also be aiming towards the centre of the towards each other under mutual gravitional force.
earth. 22. (c) Above earth surface Below earth surface
19. (b) As we know, escape velocity,
æ 2h ö æ d ö
2GM 2G æ 4 3 ö gh = g ç1 - R ÷ gd = g ç1 - ÷
Ve = = · ç pR r ÷ µ R r è eø è R eø
R R è3 ø
According to question, gh = gd
Ve R e re æ 2h ö æ d ö
\ =
Vp R p rp g ç1 - ÷ = g ç1 - ÷
è Re ø è Re ø
Clearly,
d = 2h = 2 km
Mechanical
9 Properties of Solids
INTERATOMIC AND INTERMOLECULAR FORCE The force of attraction between molecules may be written as
The force between atoms of an element is called interatomic a
force. The force between molecules of a compound (or element) Fa = -
is called intermolecular force. These forces are electrical in r7
nature. Depending on the distance between the atoms, this force The negative sign shows that Fa is a force of attraction and ‘a’ is
may be attractive or repulsive in nature. These forces are a constant which depends on the kind of attractive force between
responsible for the definite size or shape of a solid. the molecules and the structure of the molecules. The force of
attraction results from the creation of induced dipole moment in
Detailed calculations as well as deductions from experiment show
one molecule by the neighbouring molecule.
that the interaction between any isolated pairs of atoms or
molecules may be represented by a curve that shows how the When the molecules are brought closer there is a force of repulsion
potential energy varies with separation between them as shown between them. It can be shown that the repulsive force is
in the figure. b
Fr = + ,
r9
where b is a constant like a. The force of repulsion varies very
rapidly. Fr is inversely proportional to the ninth power of distance
between the molecules. The resultant force acting on the
molecules is
a b
F=- 7
+
This curve describes the interatomic potential. The force between r r9
the atoms can be found from the potential energy by using the The distance between the molecules decides the sign of the
relation resultant force.
dU ELASTICITY
F =- The property of the body by virtue of which it tends to regain its
dr
original shape and size after removing the deforming force is
The resulting interatomic force curve is shown in figure. called elasticity. If the body regains its original shape and size
Force is along the line joining the atoms or molecules, and is completely, after the removal of deforming forces, then the body
shown negative for attraction and positive for repulsion. is said to be perfectly elastic.
· The property of the body by virtue of which it tends to
retain its deformed state after removing the deforming
F(R) force is called plasticity. If the body does not have any
R tendency to recover its original shape and size, it is called
O
R0 perfectly plastic.
Its S.I. Unit is Nm-2 greater and in which external force is exactly balanced by
Stress is a tensor as its value changes when direction changes. internal forces. The bar is said to be stressed in this
Types of Stress : condition.
Longitudinal stress or tensile stress, volumetric stress and
tangential stress are the types of stress.
Strain : Dl
It is defined as the ratio of the change in shape or size to the
Fixed Fl
original shape or size of the body.
l0
Change in dimension
Strain =
Original dimension
Strain has no units or dimensions. Now if the solid bar obey the Hooke’ law, the Young's
Types of Strain : modulus, Y is defined as
Longitudinal strain : It is defined as the ratio of the change in Tensile stress Fl / A
length to the original length. Y= =
Tensile strain Dl / l
Dl Where Dl is change in the length of bar, when we
Longitudinal strain =
l apply Fl.
Volume strain : It is the ratio of the change in volume to the (ii) Shear modulus (h) : Shear modulus or modulus of
original volume. rigidity h is
DV Shearing stress Ft / A
Volume strain = h= =
V Shearing strain Dx / h
Shearing strain : It is the angular deformation produced in a
body. Dx
Dx Ft
Shearing strain (q) =
h
HOOKE’S LAW hq
It is the fundamental law of elasticity given by Robert Hooke in
1679. It states that “the stress is directly proportional to strain Fixed face
provided the strain is small “. (a) As we see, there is no change in volume under
stress this deformation, but shape changes.
i.e. Stress µ strain Þ = constant = E
strain Dx
This proportionality constant is called modulus of elasticity (b ) = tan q » q (see the figure), where q is shear
h
(name given by Thomas Young) or coefficient of elasticity (E). angle.
Since stress has same dimensions as that of pressure and strain (iii) Bulk modulus (B) : The Bulk modulus B is defined
is dimensionless. So the dimensions of E is same as, that of as
stress or pressure i.e. [ML–1T–2]
The modulus of elasticity depends on the material and on the Volume stress Fn / A -DP
B= = =
nature of deformation. There are three type of deformations and Volume stain DV / V DV / V
therefore three types of modulus of elasticity. V
(i) Young’s modulus (Y) : It measures the resistance of a solid
to elongation.
(ii) Shear modulus (h) or modulus of rigidity : It measures
the resistance to motion of the plane of a solid sliding part Fn
on each other.
(iii) Bulk modulus (B) : It measure the resistance that solid or
V– D V
liquid offer to their volume change.
The stress under which the system breaks is called breaking
stress. Negative sign comes to make B positive, because with the
(i) Young's modulus (Y) : Let us consider a long bar (shown increase of pressure, the volume of body decreases or vice
in fig.) of cross-sectional area A and length lo, which is versa.
clamped at one end. When we apply external force Fl The reciprocal of the Bulk modulus is called
longitudinally along the bar, internal forces in bar resist compressibility of material
distortion, but bar attains equilibrium in which its length is i.e., Compressibility = 1/B.
Mechanical Properties of Solids 243
Poisson's Ratio (s) : The stress-strain graph for increasing and decreasing load
Lateral strain/longitudinal strain = Poisson's ratio (s). encloses a loop, as shown in figure. The area of the loop gives
The theoretical value of s lies between –1 and 0.5 and practical the energy dissipated during its deformation.
value of s lies between 0 and 0.5.
Keep in Memory
STRESS-STRAIN CURVE
F
Plastic 1. Thermal stress = = YaD T, where a is the coefficient of
region A
Breaking D linear expansion and DT is the change in temperature.
strength C E (Fracture point) 2. (i) The modulus of rigidity (h) for liquids is zero.
B
Elastic limit (ii) For a given tensile force, the increase in length is
A
Proportional limit inversely proportional to square of its diameter.
(iii) The pressure required to stop volume expansion of a
Stress piece of metal is
OO¢ Strain P=BgdT,
where g = coefficient of volume expansion = 3a
(i) Proportional limit : The limit in which Hooke’s law is valid
(iv) To compare elasticities of different materials, their
i.e, stress is directly proportional to strain is called proportion
identical small balls are made and they are dropped
limit. Stress µ strain
from same height on a hard floor. The ball which rises
(ii) Elastic limit : It is a maximum stress upto which the body
maximum after striking the floor, is most elastic. The
completely recovers its original state after the removal of
order of elasticity of different materials on this basis
the deforming forces. is as follows :
(iii) Yield point : The point beyond elastic limit, at which the Yivory > Ysteel > Yrubber > Yclay
length of wire starts increasing without increasing stress,
is defined as the yield point. (v) For the construction of rails, bridges, girders and
(iv) Breaking point : The position when the strain becomes so machines, materials with high Young's modulus are
large that the wire breaks down at last, is called breaking used so that they may not get permanently deformed.
point. At this position the stress acting in that wire is called YA D L
For a spring, F = = kx.
breaking stress and strain is called breaking strain. L
• Breaking stress is also known as the tensile strength. YA
• Metals with small plastic deformation are called brittle. Hence spring constant k = . Here DL = x.
L
• Metals with large plastic deformation are called ductile.
3. When equal force is applied on identical wires of different
Elastic fatigue : This is the phenomenon of a delay in recovering materials then the wire in which minimum elongation is
the original configuration by a body, if it had been subjected to produced is more elastic. For the same load, more elongation
stress for a longer time the body looses the property of elasticity is produced in rubber than in steel wire, hence steel is more
temporarily. elastic than rubber.
Elastic relaxation time : It is the time delay in regaining the
original shape after removal of deforming forces. Elastic relaxation Relation between Y, B, h and s
time for gold, silver and phosphor bronze is negligible. (i) Y = 3B(1 – 2s) (ii) Y = 2h (1 + s)
Elastic Hysteresis
3B – 2h 9 3 1
When the stress applied on a body, is decreased to zero, the (iii) s= (iv) = +
6 B + 2h Y h B
strain will not be reduced to zero immediately. For some
substances (e.g.-vulcanized rubber), the strain lags behind the Energy stored per unit volume in a strained body
stress. This lagging of strain behind stress is called elastic 1
Energy per unit volume = stress × strain
hysteresis. 2
1
= modulus of elasticity × (strain)2
2
1
Stress
f , W = p h R f joule = C f
4 2 1 2 m
Mass of section BC of wire = (L - x) ;
4l 2 L x
Cantilever : m
Tension at B, T = (L - x)g
A beam fixed at one end and loaded at the other end is called a L dx at B,
Elongation of element
cantilever. B
(i) The depression y at a distance x from the fixed end is (when T dx m(L - x )g
dl = = dx (L–x)
the weight of cantilever is ineffective) A Y LAY C
mg æç lx 2 x 3 ö÷ mg
L
mg L
y= - Total elongation = ò dl =
LAY ò
(L - x )dx =
YI çè 2 6 ÷ø 2YA
0
where mg = load applied, l = length of cantilever, Example 2.
I = geometrical moment of inertia of its cross section. If the potential energy of the molecule is given by
(ii) Maximum depression at free end of cantilever,
A B
mgl 3 U = 6 - 12 . Then at equilibrium position its potential
y max = d= r r
3YI
bd 3 energy is equal to
(a) For rectangular beam, I = (a) –A2/4 B (b) A2/4 B
12
(c) 2 A/B (d) A/2 B
pr4 Solution : (b)
(b) For a circular cross section beam of radius r, I =
4 dU d éA B ù é - A x 6 12 B ù
(iv) Depression produced in a beam supported at two ends F=- =- ê - ú = ê 7 + 13 ú
dr ë r 6 12
dr r û ë r r û
mgl 3
and loaded at the middle, d = In equilibrium position F = 0.
48YI
mgl 3 6A 12 B 2B
For rectangular beam, d = so, = or r 6 =
7 13
4Ybd 3 r r A
\ Potential energy at equilibrium position
mgl 3
and for circular beam, d =
12pr 4 Y A B A 2 A2 A2
U= - = - =
(2 B / A) (2 B / A) 2 2 B 4 B 4 B
Keep in Memory Example 3.
1. Wound spring possess elastic potential energy. The normal density of gold is r and its bulk modulus is K.
2. A material which can be drawn into wires is called ductile The increase in density of a lump of gold when a pressure
and a material which can be hammered into sheet is called P is applied uniformly on all sides is
malleable. (a) K/r P (b) P/r K
3. Ductility, brittleness, malleability, etc., are not elastic (c) r P/K (d) r K/P
properties. Solution : (a)
4. The substance which breaks just beyond the elastic limit p DV p
is called brittle. K= or = ;
DV / V V K
5. (i) Breaking force of a wire M M
Also r = and r =
'
= breaking stress × area of cross section ;
V V - DV
(ii) Breaking stress does not depend on the length of
-1
wire r' V 1 æ DV ö
(iii) Breaking stress depends on the material of wire. \ = = = ç1 - ÷
r (V - DV ) (1 - DV / V) è V ø
Mechanical Properties of Solids 245
æ DV ö p r¢ p Dr / r Dr Dl
» ç1 + ÷ = 1+ or -1 = Now s = - or = -s ;
è V ø K r K Dl / l r l
Dr
pr \ = -0.5 ´ (2 ´10 -3 ) = -1´ 10-3
or r¢ - r = (Q D V << V) r
K DV
Example 4. Further, = (2 ´10 -3 ) - 2 ´ (1 ´ 10 -3 ) = 0
V
A wire 3 m in length and 1 mm in diameter at 30ºC and
kept in a low temperature at –170ºC and is stretched \ % increase in volume is 0.
by hanging a weight of 10 kg at one end. Calculate the Example 6.
change in the length of the wire. Given a = 1.2 ×10–5/ºC (a) A heavy machine is to be installed in a factory. To
and Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2. Take g = 10 m/s2. absorb vibrations of the machine, a block of rubber is
Solution : placed between the machine and floor, which of the
We know that, two rubbers A and B would you prefer to use for the
purpose ? Why ?
FL 10 ´ 10 ´ 3
l= = = 1.91 × 10–3
Y A 2 ´10 ´ 0.785 ´10 -6
11
1. Elastomers are the materials which 9. The value of tan (90 – q) in the graph gives
(a) are not elastic at all
(b) have very small elastic range
(c) do not obey Hooke’s law
(d) None of these
Strain
2. The load versus elongation graph for four wires is shown.
The thinnest wire is q
Stress
Load P
Q (a) Young's modulus of elasticity
R (b) compressibility
(c) shear strain
S (d) tensile strength
10. The length of a metal is l1 when the tension in it is T1 and
Elongation is l2 when the tension is T2. The original length of the wire
is
(a) P (b) Q l1 + l 2 l 1T2 + l 2 T1
(c) R (d) S (a) (b)
2 T1 + T2
3. Which of the following affects the elasticity of a substance?
l 1T2 - l 2 T1
(a) hammering and annealing (c) T2 - T1
(d) T1T2 l 1l 2
(b) change in temperature
(c) impurity in substance 11. Uniform rod of mass m, length l , area of cross-section A
has Young’s modulus Y. If it is hanged vertically, elongation
(d) All of these under its own weight will be
4. Which of the following has no dimensions ?
mgl 2mgl
(a) strain (b) angular velocity (a) (b)
2AY AY
(c) momentum (d) angular momentum
5. Minimum and maximum values of Possion’s ratio for a metal mgl mgY
(c) (d)
lies between AY Al
(a) – ¥ to + ¥ (b) 0 to 1 12. Which one of the following affects the elasticity of a
(c) – ¥ to 1 (d) 0 to 0.5 substance ?
6. In solids interatomic forces are (a) Change in temperature
(a) totally repulsive (b) totally attractive (b) Hammering and annealing
(c) Impurity in substance
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(d) All of the above
7. Which one of the following is not a unit of Young’s
13. According to Hooke’s law of elasticity, if stress is
modulus ?
increased, then the ratio of stress to strain
(a) Nm–1 (b) Nm–2 (a) becomes zero (b) remains constant
(d) dyne cm–2 (d) mega pascal (c) decreases (d) increases
8. Two rods A and B of the same material and length have 14. The length of an iron wire is L and area of corss-section is
their radii r1 and r2 respectively. When they are rigidly fixed A. The increase in length is l on applying the force F on its
at one end and twisted by the same couple applied at the two ends. Which of the statement is correct?
other end, the ratio (a) Increase in length is inversely proportional to its length
æ Angle of twist at the end of A ö (b) Increase in length is proportional to area of cross-
çè Angle of twist at the end of B ÷ø is section
(c) Increase in length is inversely proportional to area of
(a) r12 / r22 (b) r13 / r23
cross-section
(c) r24 / r14 (d) r14 / r24 (d) Increase in length is proportional to Young's modulus
248 PHYSICS
15. A and B are two wires. The radius of A is twice that of B. 21. The diagram shown below represents the applied forces
They are stretched by the same load. Then the stress on B per unit area with the corresponding change X (per unit
is length) produced in a thin wire of uniform cross section in
(a) equal to that on A (b) four times that on A the curve shown. The region in which the wire behaves like a
(c) two times that on A (d) half that on A liquid is F
16. Hooke's law defines (a) ab d
(a) stress b
(b) bc a
(b) strain c
(c) modulus of elasticity (c) cd
(d) elastic limit
17. In case of steel wire (or a metal wire), the limit is reached (d) Oa O X
when 22. A steel wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support.
(a) the wire just break When loaded with a weight in air, it extends by la and when
(b) the load is more than the weight of wire the weight is immersed completely in water, the extension is
(c) elongation is inversely proportional to the tension reduced to lw. Then the relative density of material of the
(d) None of these weight is
18. A steel ring of radius r and cross sectional area A is fitted la
onto a wooden disc of radius R (R > r). If the Young’s (a) la / lw (b) la -lw
modulus of steel is Y, then the force with which the steel
ring is expanded is (c) l w /(l a - l w ) (d) l w / l a
(a) A Y (R/r) (b) A Y (R – r)/r 23. When an elastic material with Young’s modulus Y is
(c) (Y/A)[(R – r)/r] (d) Y r/A R subjected to stretching stress S, elastic energy stored per
19. Which of the following relation is true ? unit volume of the material is
9hY (a) YS / 2 (b) S2Y / 2
(a) 3Y = K (1 - s) (b) K=
Y+h 2
(c) S / 2Y (d) S / 2Y
05.Y - h 24. The ratio of shearing stress to the corresponding
(c) s = (6K + h)Y (d) s= shearing strain is called
h
(a) bulk modulus (b) Young's modulus
20. For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the fractional
(c) modulus of rigidity (d) None of these
æ DV ö
change in the object volume ç ÷ and its bulk modulus 25. The Young’s modulus of a perfectly rigid body is
è V ø (a) unity
(B) are related as
(b) zero
DV DV 1 (c) infinity
(a) µB (b) µ
V V B (d) some finite non-zero constant
DV DV
(c) µ B2 (d) µ B -2
V V
1. Two wires of same material and length but cross-sections 3. The Young’s modulus of brass and steel are respectively
in the ratio 1 : 2 are used to suspend the same loads. The 1010 N/m2. and 2 × 1010 N/m2. A brass wire and a steel wire
extensions in them will be in the ratio of the same length are extended by 1 mm under the same
force, the radii of brass and steel wires are RB and RS
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 respectively. Then
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 (a) RS = 2 R B (b) RS = R B / 2
5. A cube is subjected to a uniform volume compression. If 15. A massive stone pillar 20 m high and of uniform cross-
the side of the cube decreases by 2% the bulk strain is section rests on a rigid base and supports a vertical load of
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.03 5.0 × 105 N at its upper end. If the compressive stress in the
(c) 0.04 (d) 0.06 pillar is not to exceed 1.6 × 106 N m–2, what is the minimum
6. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is cross-sectional area of the pillar? Density of the stone
stretched by attaching a weight of 200N to the lower end. = 2.5 × 103 kg m–3. (Take g = 10 N kg–1)
The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. Then the elastic (a) 0.15 m2 (b) 0.25 m2
(c) 0.35 m 2 (d) 0.45 m2
energy stored in the wire is
(a) 0.2 J (b) 10 J 16. A circular tube of mean radius 8 cm and thickness 0.04 cm is
(c) 20 J (d) 0.1 J melted up and recast into a solid rod of the same length.
The ratio of the torsional rigidities of the circular tube and
7. A metal rod of Young's modulus 2 × 1010 N m–2 undergoes
the solid rod is
an elastic strain of 0.06%. The energy per unit volume stored
in J m–3 is (8.02) 4 - ( 7.98) 4 (8.02) 2 - (7.98) 2
(a) 3600 (b) 7200 (a) (b)
(0.8) 4 (0.8) 2
(c) 10800 (d) 14400
8. A force of 103 newton, stretches the length of a hanging (0.8) 2 (0.8) 2
wire by 1 millimetre. The force required to stretch a wire of (c) (d)
(8.02) 4 - ( 7.98) 4 (8.02) 3 - (7.98) 2
same material and length but having four times the diameter 17. From a steel wire of density r is suspended a brass block of
by 1 millimetre is density rb. The extension of steel wire comes to e. If the
(a) 4 × 103 N (b) 16 × 103 N
1 1 brass block is now fully immersed in a liquid of density rl,
(c) ´ 103 N (d) ´ 103 N e
4 16 the extension becomes e'. The ratio will be
9. A 2 m long rod of radius 1 cm which is fixed from one end is e'
given a twist of 0.8 radian. The shear strain developed will rb r b - rl
(a) (b)
be r b - rl rb
(a) 0.002 (b) 0.004 rb - r rl
(c) 0.008 (d) 0.016 (c) (d)
rl - r r b - rl
10. There are two wire of same material and same length while
the diameter of second wire is two times the diameter of 18. One end of a uniform wire of length L and of weight W is
first wire, then the ratio of extension produced in the wires attached rigidly to a point in the roof and W1 weight is
by applying same load will be suspended from looser end. If A is area of cross-section of
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 L
the wire, the stress in the wire at a height from the upper
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1 4
11. For a given material, the Young's modulus is 2. 4 times that end is
of rigidity modulus. Its Poisson's ratio is W1 + W W1 + 3W / 4
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.2 (a) (b)
a a
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.2
12. A cube at temperature 0ºC is compressed equally from all W1 + W / 4 4 W1 + 3W
(c) (d)
sides by an external pressure P. By what amount should its a a
temperature be raised to bring it back to the size it had 19. A beam of metal supported at the two edges is loaded at the
before the external pressure was applied. The bulk modulus centre. The depression at the centre is proportional to
of the material of the cube is B and the coefficient of linear (a) Y 2 (b) Y
expansion is a. (c) 1/Y (d) 1/Y 2
(a) P/B a (b) P/3 B a 20. An iron rod of length 2m and cross-sectional area of 50
(c) 3 p a/B (d) 3 B/P mm2 stretched by 0.5 mm, when a mass of 250 kg is hung
13. The compressibility of water is 4 × 10–5 per unit atmospheric from its lower end. Young’s modulus of iron rod is
pressure. The decrease in volume of 100 cm3 of water under 18 2
(a) 19.6 ´ 10 20 N / m 2 (b) 19.6 ´10 N / m
a pressure of 100 atmosphere will be
(a) 0.4 cm3 (b) 4 × 10–5 cm3 (c) 19.6 ´ 1010 N / m 2 (d) 19.6 ´1015 N / m 2
(c) 0.025 cm 3 (d) 0.004 cm3 21. A wire fixed at the upper end stretches by length l by
14. For the same cross-sectional area and for a given load, the applying a force F. The work done in stretching is
ratio of depressions for the beam of a square cross-section (a) 2Fl (b) Fl
and circular cross-section is
(a) 3 : p (b) p : 3 F Fl
(c) (d)
(c) 1 : p (d) p : 1 2l 2
250 PHYSICS
22. A metalic rod of length l and cross-sectional area A is made 31. Two wires A and B are of the same material. Their lengths
of a material of Young modulus Y. If the rod is elongated by are in the ratio of 1 : 2 and the diameter are in the ratio 2 : 1.
an amount y, then the work done is proportional to If they are pulled by the same force, then increase in length
1 will be in the ratio of
(a) y (b) (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
y
(c) 1 : 8 (d) 8 : 1
1 32. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same
(c) y 2 (d) 2 volume. However wire 1 has cross-sectional area A and
y
wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1
23. On stretching a wire, the elastic energy stored per unit
increases by Dx on applying force F, how much force is
volume is
needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount?
(a) Fl/2AL (b) FA/2L (a) 4 F (b) 6 F
(c) FL/2A (d) FL/2 (c) 9 F (d) F
24. When a pressure of 100 atmosphere is applied on a spherical 33. A rubber cord catapult has cross-sectional area 25 mm2
ball, then its volume reduces to 0.01%. The bulk modulus and initial length of rubber cord is 10 cm. It is stretched to 5
of the material of the rubber in dyne/cm2 is cm and then released to project a missile of mass 5 gm.
(a) 10 × 1012 (b) 100 × 1012
12 Taking Yrubber = 5 × 108 N/m2. Velocity of projected missile
(c) 1 × 10 (d) 10 × 1012
25. What per cent of length of wire increases by applying a is
stress of 1 kg weight/mm2 on it? (a) 20 ms–1 (b) 100 ms–1
(c) 250 ms –1 (d) 200 ms–1
(Y = 1 × 1011 N/m2 and 1 kg weight = 9.8 newton)
34. The potential energy U between two atoms in a diatomic
(a) 0.0067% (b) 0.0098%
molecules as a function of the distance x between atoms
(c) 0.0088% (d) 0.0078%
has been shown in the figure. The atoms are
26. K is the force constant of a spring. The work done in
increasing its extension from l1 to l2 will be
K
(a) K(l2 – l1) (b) (l2 + l1 )
2 O
K 2 2 U
(c) K (l22 - l12 ) (d) (l2 - l1 )
2
27. If a rubber ball is taken at the depth of 200 m in a pool, its
volume decreases by 0.1%. If the density of the water is
1 × 103 kg/m3 and g = 10m/s2, then the volume elasticity in A B C x
N/m2 will be
(a) 108 (b) 2 × 108 (a) attracted when x lies between A and B and are repelled
(c) 10 9 (d) 2 × 109 when x lies between B and C
28. The diagram below shows the change in the length X of a (b) attracted when x lies between B and C and are repelled
thin uniform wire caused by the application of stress F at when x lies between A and B
two different temperatures T1 and T2. The variation shown (c) are attracted when they reach B from C
suggests that (d) are repelled when they reach B from A
(a) T1 > T2 T2 35. The diagram shows a force - extension graph for a rubber
F
band. Consider the following statements :
(b) T1 < T2 T1
I. It will be easier to compress this rubber than expand it
(c) T2 > T1 II. Rubber does not return to its original length after it is
stretched
(d) T1 ³ T2 X
III. The rubber band will get heated if it is stretched and
29. A material has poisson’s ratio 0.50. If a uniform rod of it released
suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 10–3, then the percentage
change in volume is
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.4
(c) 0.2 (d) Zero Extension
30. A 5 metre long wire is fixed to the ceiling. A weight of 10 kg
is hung at the lower end and is 1 metre above the floor. The
wire was elongated by 1 mm. The energy stored in the wire Force
due to stretching is Which of these can be deduced from the graph?
(a) zero (b) 0.05 joule (a) III only (b) II and III
(c) 100 joule (d) 500 joule (c) I and III (d) I only
Mechanical Properties of Solids 251
36. A rod of length l and radius r is joined to a rod of length 43. When a 4 kg mass is hung vertically on a light spring that
l/2 and radius r/2 of same material. The free end of small rod obeys Hooke’s law, the spring stretches by 2 cms. The
is fixed to a rigid base and the free end of larger rod is given work required to be done by an external agent in stretching
a twist of q°, the twist angle at the joint will be this spring by 5 cms will be (g = 9.8 m/sec2)
(a) q/4 (b) q/2 (a) 4.900 joule (b) 2.450 joule
(c) 0.495 joule (d) 0.245 joule
(c) 5q/6 (d) 8q/48
44. The following four wires are made of the same material.
37. To break a wire, a force of 106 N/m2 is required. If the density Which of these will have the largest extension when the
of the material is 3 × 103 kg/m3, then the length of the wire same tension is applied ?
which will break by its own weight will be (a) Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm
(a) 34 m (b) 30 m (b) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm
(c) 300 m (d) 3 m (c) Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm
38. The upper end of a wire of diameter 12mm and length 1m is (d) Length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
clamped and its other end is twisted through an angle of 45. A steel rod of radius R = 10 mm and length
30°. The angle of shear is L= 100 cm is stretched along its length by a force F = 6.28 ×
104 N. If the Young’s modulus of steel is Y = 2 ×1011 N/m2,
(a) 18° (b) 0.18°
the percentage elongation in the length of the rod is :
(c) 36° (d) 0.36° (a) 0.100 (b) 0.314
39. A steel wire of uniform cross-section of 1mm2 is heated (c) 2.015 (d) 1.549
upto 50°C and clamped rigidly at its ends. If temperature of DIRECTIONS for Qs. 46 to 50 : These are Assertion-Reason
wire falls to 40°C, change in tension in the wire is (coefficient type questions. Each of these question contains two statements:
of linear expansion of steel is 1.1 × 10–5/°C and Young's Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Answer
modulus of elasticity of steel is 2 × 1011 N/m2 ) these questions from the following four options.
(a) 22 N (b) 44 N (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
(c) 88 N (d) 88 × 106 N correct explanation for Statement -1
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement -2 is True; Statement-2 is
40. In Searle's experiment to find Young's modulus the diameter
NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1
of wire is measured as d = 0.05cm, length of wire is
(c) Statement-1 is True, Statement- 2 is False
l = 125cm and when a weight, m = 20.0 kg is put, extension (d) Statement-1 is False, Statement -2 is True
in wire was found to be 0.100 cm. Find maximum permissible
46. Statement-1 Identical springs of steel and copper are equally
mgl stretched. More work will be done on the steel spring.
error in Young's modulus (Y). Use : Y = .
( p / 4) d 2 x Statement-2 Steel is more elastic than copper.
(a) 6.3% (b) 5.3% 47. Statement-1 Stress is the internal force per unit area of a
(c) 2.3% (d) 1% body.
41. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s modulus of steel Statement-2 Rubber is less elastic than steel.
and brass wires shown in the figure are a, b, and c, 48. Statement 1 : The stress-strain graphs are shown in the
respectively. The ratio between the increase in lengths of figure for two materials A and B are shown in figure. Young's
brass and steel wires would be modulus of A is greater than that of B.
Stress
A
b2 a B
(a)
2c
bc Brass
(b)
2a 2 2kg
Strain
2 Statement 2 : The Young's modules for small strain is,
ba Steel
(c) stress
2c Y= = slope of linear portion, of graph; and slope
4kg
strain
a of A is more than slope that of B.
(d) 49. Statement 1: Young’s modulus for a perfectly plastic body
2b2c is zero.
42. A uniform cube is subjected to volume compression. If each Statement 2: For a perfectly plastic body, restoring force is
side is decreased by 1%, then bulk strain is zero.
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.06 50. Statement 1: Strain causes the stress in an elastic body.
(c) 0.02 (d) 0.03 Statement 2: An elastic rubber is more plastic in nature.
252 PHYSICS
Exemplar Questions
x2 x
(a) (b)
1. Modulus of rigidity of ideal liquids is 2 L2 L
(a) infinity
x2 x2
(b) zero (c) (d)
L 2L
(c) unity
7. A rectangular frame is to be suspended symmetrically by
(d) some finite small non-zero constant value
two strings of equal length on two supports (figure). It can
2. The maximum load a wire can withstand without breaking,
be done in one of the following three ways;
when its length is reduced to half of its original length, will
(a) be double (b) be half
(c) be four times (d) remain same
3. The temperature of a wire is doubled. The Young's modulus
of elasticity (a) (b) (c)
(a) will also double (b) will become four times
The tension in the strings will be
(c) will remain same (d) will decrease
(a) the same in all cases (b) least in (a)
4. A spring is stretched by applying a load to its free end. The
(c) least in (b) (d) least in (c)
strain produced in the spring is
8. Consider two cylindrical rods of identical dimensions, one
(a) volumetric
of rubber and the other of steel. Both the rods are fixed
(b) shear
rigidly at one end to the roof. A mass M is attached to each
(c) longitudinal and shear of the free ends at the centre of the rods.
(d) longitudinal (a) Both the rods will elongate but there shall be no
5. A rigid bar of mass M is supported symmetrically by three perceptible change in shape
wires each of length l. Those at each end are of copper and (b) The steel rod will elongate and change shape but the
the middle one is of iron. The ratio of their diameters, if each rubber rod will only elongate
is to have the same tension, is equal to
(c) The steel rod will elongate without any perceptible
change in shape, but the rubber rod will elongate and
Yiron
(a) Ycopper / Yiron (b) the shape of the bottom edge will change to an ellipse
Ycopper
(d) The steel rod will elongate, without any perceptible
change in shape, but the rubber rod will elongate with
2
Yiron Yiron the shape of the bottom edge tapered to a tip at the
(c) 2 (d) Ycopper
Ycopper centre
6. A mild steel wire of length 2L and cross-sectional area A is NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions
stretched, well within elastic limit, horizontally between two 9. The following four wires are made of the same material.
pillars (figure ). A mass m is suspended from the mid-point Which of these will have the largest extension when the
of the wire. Strain in the wire is same tension is applied ? [2013]
(a) Length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm
2L
x (b) Length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm
(c) Length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm
m (d) Length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
Mechanical Properties of Solids 253
10. If the ratio of diameters, lengths and Young’s modulus of 12. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. The
steel and copper wires shown in the figure are p, q and s compressibility of water is 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1 and density of
respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in water is 103 kg/m3.What fractional compression of water
their lengths would be [NEET Kar. 2013] will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean ? [2015]
7q (a) 1.0 × 10–2 (b) 1.2 × 10–2
(a)
(5sp)
Steel (c) 1.4 × 10–2 (d) 0.8 × 10–2
5q 13. The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two
(b) 2m
(7 sp 2 ) wires of same length and of same area of cross section, one
of steel and another of brass are suspended from the same
7q Copper
(c) roof. If we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the
(5sp 2 ) 5m same level, then the weights added to the steel and brass
wires must be in the ratio of : [2015 RS]
2q
(d) (5sp) (a) 2:1 (b) 4 : 1
11. Copper of fixed volume ‘V; is drawn into wire of length ‘l’. (c) 1:1 (d) 1 : 2
When this wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’, the
14. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is 'B'. If it is subjected
extension produced in the wire is ‘Dl’. Which of the
to uniform pressure 'p', the fractional decrease in radius is
following graphs is a straight line? [2014]
1 B 3p
(a) Dl versus (b) Dl versus l2 (a)
3p
(b) [2017]
l B
1 p p
(c) Dl versus 2 (d) Dl versus l (c) (d)
l 3B B
254 PHYSICS
æ DL ö æ r ö
2 Þ r 2 = r22 - r12 Þ r 2 = ( r2 + r1 )(r2 - r1 )
Þ r12 DL1 = r2 2 DL 2 , çç 1 ÷÷ = çç 2 ÷÷ = 4
è DL 2 ø è r1 ø Þ r 2 = (8.02 + 7.98)(8.02 - 7.98)
DL1 : DL2 = 4 :1 Þ r 2 = 16 ´ 0.04 = 0.64 cm Þ r = 0.8 cm
11. (d) Y = 2h(1 + s) C r 4 - r 4 [8.02] 4 - [ 7.98]4
\ 1 = 2 1 =
2.4h = 2h(1 + s) Þ 1.2 = 1 + s Þ s = 0.2
C2 r4 [0.8] 4
17. (a) Weights without and with liquid proportional to rb
-P -PV and rb – rl.
12. (b) Bulk modulus B = = ....(1)
(DV / V) DV 18. (b)
-V 1 d
and DV = g V DT = 3 a.V.T or = ...(2) 19. (c)
DV 3a. T.
For a beam, the depression at the centre is given by,
From eqs. (1) and (2), B = P /(3a.T) or T = P
3aB æ fL ö
d=ç ÷
1 DV / V è 4Ybd3 ø
13. (a) K= = . Here, P = 100 atm, [f, L, b, d are constants for a particular beam]
B P
K = 4 × 10 and V = 100 cm3.
–5
1
Hence, DV = 0.4 cm3 i.e. d µ
Y
256 PHYSICS
250 ´ 9.8 28. (a) When same stress is applied at two different
-6 250 ´ 9.8 2
temperatures, the increase in length is more at higher
= 50 ´ 10
F/A = ´
20. (c) Y= ´ -6
´ 10 -3
temperature. Thus T1 > T2.
Dl / l 0.5 ´ 10 - 3 50 10 0. 5
29. (d)
2 1 1
30. (b) W = ´ F ´ l = mgl
Þ 19.6 ´ 10 N / m
10 2 2 2
21. (d) Work done by constant force in displacing the object 1
by a distance l. = ´ 10 ´ 10 ´ 1 ´ 10 -3 = 0.05 J
2
= change in potential energy 31. (c) We know that Young's modulus
1
= ´ stress × strain ×volume Y=
F
´
L
2 2 l
pr
1 F l Fl
= ´ ´ ´ A´ L = Since Y, F are same for both the wires, we have,
2 A L 2
22. (c) Volume V = cross sectional A × length l or V = Al 1 L1 1 L 2 l 1 r22 ´ L1 (D 2 / 2) 2 ´ L1
= or, = =
Elongation Y r12 l 1 r22 l 2 l 2 r12 ´ L 2 (D1 / 2) 2 ´ L 2
Strain = Original length = l
l D2 ´ L D 22 L 1
Stress or, 1 = 22 1 = ´ 2 =
Young’s modulus Y = l 2 D1 ´ L 2 (2 D 2 ) 2 2 L2 8
Strain
1 So, l 1 : l 2 = 1 : 8
Work done, W = ´ stress × strain × volume
2 32. (c) l
1 A
W = ´ Y ´ (strain) 2 ´ Al Y
2
Wire (1)
2
1 æ yö 1 æ YA ö 2
= ´Y ´ç ÷ø ´ Al = çè ÷ø y Þ W µ y
2
2 è l 2 l
3A Y
1 æ F öæ l ö Fl
23. (a) Energy stored per unit volume = ç ÷ç ÷ = –
2 è A øè L ø 2 AL l/3
Wire (2)
100 As shown in the figure, the wires will have the same
24. (c) K= = 106 atm
0.01/100 Young’s modulus (same material) and the length of
= 1011 N/m2 = 1012 dyne/cm2 the wire of area of cross-section 3A will be l/3 (same
25. (b) Stress = 1 kg wt/mm2 = 9.8 N/mm2 volume as wire 1).
= 9.8 × 106 N/m2. F/A
For wire 1, Y = ...(i)
Dl D x/l
Y = 1 ´ 10 N / m ,
11 2
´100 = ? F '/ 3 A
l For wire 2 , Y = ...(ii)
Dx /( l / 3)
Stress Stress
Y= = F l F' l
Strain Dl / l From (i) and (ii) , ´ = ´ Þ F ' = 9F
A Dx 3 A 3Dx
Dl Stress 9.8 ´ 106
\ = = 33. (c) Young’s modulus of rubber, Yrubber
l Y 1´ 1011 F l Dl
Dl = ´ Þ F = YA.
´100 = 9.8 ´ 10-11 ´ 100 ´ 106 A Dl l
l On putting the values from question,
= 9.8 × 10–3 = 0.0098 %
5 ´ 108 ´ 25 ´ 10 -6 ´ 5 ´ 10 -2
1 F=
26. (d) At extension l1, the stored energy = Kl12 10 ´ 10 - 2
2
1 2 = 25 ´ 25 ´ 10 2-1 = 6250 N
At extension l2, the stored energy = Kl2 kinetic energy = potential energy of rubber
2
Work done in increasing its extension from l1 to l2 1 1
1 mv 2 = F Dl
= K (l22 – l12 ) 2 2
2
FDl 6250 ´ 5 ´ 10-2
DP hrg 200 ´10 ´ 10 3 v= = = 62500
27. (d) K= = = = 2 ´109 m 5 ´10-3
DV / V DV / V 0.1/100 = 25 × 10 = 250 m/s
Mechanical Properties of Solids 257
34. (b) The atoms when brought from infinity are attracted l1 r Y1
due to interatomic electrostatic force of attraction. At 41. (d) Given, = a, 1 = b , =c
l2 r2 Y2
point B, the potential energy is minimum and force of
attraction is maximum. But if we bring atoms closer
than x = B, force of repulsion between two nuclei starts T T
and P.E. increases. Brass
Steel
P.E.
2g
x
C T 2g
Let Young’s modulus of steel be Y1, and that of brass
be Y2
A B
F1l1
35. (c) x \ Y1 = A Dl …(i)
1 1
F2l2
and Y2 = A Dl …(ii)
2 2
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii), we get
Y1 F1 A2 l1Dl2
= …(iii)
Y2 F2 A1l2 Dl1
F Force on steel wire from free body diagram
Fcom Fext
T = F1 = (2 g ) Newton
From the figure, it is clear that
Fcom < Fext. Force on brass wire from free body diagram
q¢ = 0
4 F2 = T1 = T + 2 g = 4 g Newton
phr q Now putting the value of F1, F2 in equation (iii), we
36. (d) r = C.q = = Constant
2L get
l/2
phr 4 (q - q0 ) ph(r / 2) 4 (q0 - q ') Y1 æ 2 g ö æ pr22 ö é l1 ù æ Dl2 ö 1 æ 1 ö æ Dl2 ö
Þ = = ç ÷ .ê ú . = .a
2l 2(l / 2) q0 Y2 çè 4 g ÷ø è pr12 ø ë l2 û çè Dl1 ÷ø 2 çè b2 ÷ø çè Dl1 ÷ø
(q - q0 ) q0 8 dV dL
Þ = Þ q0 = q 42.
3
(d) If side of the cube is L then V = L Þ =3
2 16 9 l V L
\ % change in volume = 3 × (% change in length)
= 3 × 1% = 3%
DV
\ Bulk strain = 0.03
q V
S 106 100
37. (a) L= = = = 34 m F 4 ´ 9.8
dg 3 ´ 103 ´ 10 3 43. (b) K = = = 19.6 ´ 102
rq 6mm ´ 30° x 2 ´ 10 -2
38. (b) rq = lf Þ f = = = 0.18°
l 1m 1
19.6 ´102 ´ (0.05)2 = 2.45 J
Work done =
Dl 2
39. (a) F = YA = YAaDq
l YA
= 2 × 1011 × (1 × 10–6) × 1.1 × 10–5 × (10) = 22 N 44. (d) F = ×l
L
mgl
40. (a) Y = ......... (1) L L
( p / 4) d 2 x So, extension, lµ µ 2 [Q F and Y are
Dm Dl Dd Dx A D
æ dY ö
çè ÷ = + +2 + constant]
Y ø max m l d x
100 200
m = 20.0 kg Þ Dm = 0.1 kg l1 µ µ 100 and l2 µ µ 50
2
l = 125cm Þ Dl = 1 cm. 1 22
d = 0.050 cm. Þ Dd = 0.001 cm 300 100 50
x = 0.100 cm. Þ Dx = 0.001 cm. l3µ µ and l4 µ µ 200
3 2 3 1
æ 0.1kg 1cm ö 4
+
æ dY ö ç 20.0kg 125cm ÷
çè ÷ø =ç ÷ ´ 100% = 6.3% L
Y max 0.001cm 0.001cm The ratio of is maximum for case (d).
ç +2 ´ + ÷ D2
è 0.05cm 0.100cm ø
Hence, option (d) is correct.
258 PHYSICS
Fl L
45. (a) Percentage elongation in the wire = If F and are constants.
AY DL
6.28 ´ 104 ´ (1) 1
= = 1
2
p(0.01) ´ 2 ´ 10 11 1000 So, D µ
Y
1 1
46. (a) Work done = ´ Stress ´ Strain = ´ Y ´ (Strain)2 Hence, we can find ratio as
2 2
Since, elasticity of steel is more than copper, hence Dcopper Yiron
more work has to be done in order to stretch the steel. =
47. (b) Stress is defined as internal force (restoring force) per Diron Ycopper
unit area of a body. Also, rubber is less elastic than
6. (a) Consider the given diagram
steel, because restoring force is less for rubber than
steel.
48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (a) L L
A C B
EXERCISE - 3 90°–q 90°–q
Exemplar Questions x
1. (b) As liquid is ideal so no. frictional force exists hence,
q q
tangential forces are zero so there is no stress
developed.
O
2. (d) As we know that,
m
Breaking force
Breaking stress = ..(i)
Area of cross-section So, change in length
When length of the wire changes (or by reducing half)
area of cross-section remains same. DL = ( A0 + B0 ) - ( AC + CB)
Hence, breaking force will be same because breaking = 2BO – 2AC
stress does not depend on length. = 2 [BO – AC] (\ AO = BO, AC = CB)
3. (d) As we know that, length of a wire when the temperature
increased = 2[( x2 + L2 )1/ 2 - L]
Lt = L0 (1 + aDT )
éæ x 2 ö1/ 2 ù
where DT is change in the temperature.
= 2 L êç1 + 2 ÷ - 1ú
L0 is original length, êçè L ÷ø ú
a is coefficient of linear expansion and ë û
Lt is length at temperature T.
Now, DL = Lt - L0 = L0 aDT é 1 x2 ù x2
DL » 2L ê1 + 2
- 1ú = [Q x << L]
Stress ë 2L û L
Now, Young's modulus (Y) =
Strain
FL0 FL0 1 DL x 2 / L x 2
= = µ Strain = = = 2
A ´ DL AL0 aDT DT 2L 2L 2L
1 7. (c) Let us consider the free body diagram of the
As, Y µ rectangular frame
DT
So, if temperature increass DT increases, hence
Young's modulus of elasticity (Y) decreases. Tsinq Tsinq
4. (c) When a spring is stretched by applying a load to its T
free end. Clearly the length and shape of the spring q q
changes. So strain produced when change in length Tcosq Tcosq
corresponds to longitudinal strain and change in shape
corresponds to shearing strain. m
5. (b) As we know that,
The Young's modulus
mg
Stress F / A F L
Y= = = ´
Strain DL / L A DL Net forces acting on frame will be zero.
F L 4 FL So, Balancing vertical forces
= ´ =
p( D / 2) 2
D L pD 2 DL 2T sinq – mg = 0 [T is tension in the string]
2T sinq = mg ...(i)
4 FL 4 FL
D2 = ÞD= Total horizontal force
pDLY pDLY
= T cos q - T cos q = 0
Mechanical Properties of Solids 259
= ç ÷ = ´ç ÷ ç ÷q
As mg is constant then DLC FC è DS ø YS LC 5 è pø èsø
1 7q
Tµ =
sin q (5sp 2 )
sin qmin = 0 Þ qmin = 0
F
No option matches with q = 0°
A Þ Dl = Fl
mg 11. (b) As Y = Dl
Tmin = AY
(since, sinqmax = 1)
2sin qmax l
V
But V = Al so A =
sin qmax = 1 Þ q = 90° l
So tension is all three cases are different rejects option Fl 2
(a) Therefore Dl = µ l2
VY
For minimum tension q must be 90° i.e. sin q = 1 Hence graph of Dl versus l2 will give a straight line.
Hence, tension is the least for the case (b). 12. (b) Compressibility of water,
8. (d) A mass M is attached at the centre or midpoint of rod K = 45.4 × 10–11 Pa–1
of rubber and steel. As the mass is attached to both density of water P = 103 kg/m3
the rods, both rod will be elongated as shown in depth of ocean, h = 2700 m
figures but due to different elastic properties of material DV
rubber changes shape also. We have to find =?
V
As we know, compressibility,
1 (DV / V)
K= = (P = rgh)
B P
M M
So, (DV/V) = Krgh
= 45.4 × 10–11 × 103 × 10 × 2700 = 1.2258 × 10–2
W l
13. (a) Young's modulus Y = .
(Rubber) (Steel) A Dl
W1 W2
=
As the Young's modulus of rigidity for steel, is larger Y1 Y2 [Q A, l, Dl same for both brass and steel]
DL
than rubber, so strain for rubber is larger than
L
steel for same stress.
A, l, Dl l, A, Dl
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions Y2 Y1
Brass Steel
YA L L
9. (d) F = × l! So, extension, lµ µ 2
L A D
[Q F and Y are constant] W1 Y1
= =2 [Ysteel/Ybrass = 2 given]
100 200 W2 Y2
l1 µ µ 100 and l2 µ µ 50
12 22 14. (c) Bulk modulus is given by
P DV P
300 100 50 B= or =
l3µ µ and l4 µ µ 200 æ DV ö V B
32 3 1 ç ÷
4 è V ø
DR P DR
L 3 = (here, = fractional decreases in radius)
The ratio of is maximum for case (d). R B R
D2
DR P
Hence, option (d) is correct. Þ =
R 3B
260 PHYSICS
Mechanical
10 Properties of Fluids
FLUIDS Hydrostatic pressure : The hydrostatic pressure at a depth h
Fluid is something that can flow. All liquids and gases are fluids. below the surface of a fluid is given by
The force exerted normally at a unit area of the surface of a fluid P = hrg
is called fluid pressure. where r is the density of the fluid, g acceleration due to gravity
and h is the depth of the liquid column.
F Gauge pressure : The pressure at any point in a fluid is equal to
i.e., P =
a the sum of the atmospheric pressure acting on its surface and the
Its S.I. unit is Nm–2 or Pascal. Its dimensions are [ML–1T–2]. hydrostatic pressure due to the weight of the fluid above that
point which is at a depth h below the surface of the fluid.
PASCAL'S LAW AND ITS APPLICATIONS
The gauge pressure is given by
Pascal's law : Pressure in a fluid in equilibrium is the same P = P0 + hrg
everywhere, if the effect of gravity is neglected. or, P – P0 = hrg
Another form of Pascal's law : The excess pressure, applied BUOYANCY AND ARCHIMEDES' PRINCIPLE
anywhere in a mass of confined incompressible fluid is Buoyancy
transmitted by the fluid in all directions without being If a body is partially or wholly immersed in a fluid, it experiences
diminished in magnitude. an upward force due to the fluid surrounding it. The phenomenon
Applications of Pascal's Law of force exerted by fluid on the body called buoyancy and the
Hydraulic lift : Its working is based on Pascal's law. A piston of force is called buoyant force or upthrust.
A body experiences buoyant force whether it floats or sinks, under
small cross-sectional area (a) exerts a force (f) on the liquid.
its own weight or due to other forces applied on it.
Archimedes' Principle
Applied force = f When any body is immersed (totally or partially) in a liquid it
Area = A Area = a appears to lose part of its weight and the apparent loss of weight
is equal to the weight of liquid displaced.
Let a body of weight W is immersed in a fluid and W' is upthrust
F = pA on it then
f = pa (i) if W > W', then body will sink.
(ii) if W = W', then the body floats with whole or some part of
its volume inside the fluid.
The pressure is transmitted undiminished to the larger cylinder Let V be the volume of a body of density d and V' be the
of cross-sectional area A. volume of liquid of density r displaced. If the body floats
f F A then Vd = V¢r
P= = ÞF = f
a A a d V'
\ = gives the fraction of the volume inside the liquid
Hydraulic brakes also work on pascal's law. r V
in which the body floats.
ATMOSPHERIC, HYDROSTATIC AND GUAGE PRESSURE
Also, body immersed in a fluid experiences an upward buoyant
Atmospheric pressure : The atmosphere exerts pressure on the
force equivalent to the weight of the fluid displaced by it.
earth's surface. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is given by
The proof of this principle is very simple. Imagine a body of
P0 = 1.01 × 105 Pa arbitrary shape completely immersed in a liquid of density r as
Mechanical Properties of Fluids 261
shown in the figure (a). A body is being acted upon by the forces (ii) If two bodies have equal upthrust when just immersed
from all directions. Let us consider a vertical element of height h in a liquid, both will have the same volume.
and cross-sectional area dA (as shown in the figure (b)). (iii) If a person floats on his back on the surface of water,
the apparent weight of person is zero.
13. The hydrometer can be used to measure density of the
h1 F1
dA liquid or fluid.
h2
h
Relative Density (or Specific Gravity)
F2
Liquids may be treated as incompressible. Hence their density
may be assumed to be constant throughout.
(a) (b) Weight of substance in air
Relative density =
The force acting on the upper surface of the element is F1 Weight of equal volume of water
(downward) and that on the lower surface is F2 (upward). Since
F2 > F1, therefore, the net upward force acting on the element is Weight of substance in air
=
dF = F2 – F1 Loss of weight in water
It can be easily seen from the figure (b), that Density of substance
=
F1 = (rgh1 )dA and F2 = (rgh 2 )dA so dF = rg(h)dA Density of water at 4º C
Also, h2 – h1 = h and d (dA) = dV Density in SI system = 1000 × density in the cgs system.
\ The net upward force is F = ò rgdV = rVg (i) The density of liquid of bulk modulus B at a depth h is
æ rgh ö
Hence, for the entire body, the buoyant force is the weight of the given by rh = r0 ç 1 + where r0 is the density of
volume of the fluid displaced. è B ÷ø
The buoyant force acts through the centre of gravity of the liquid on its surface and r is the average density of liquid.
displaced fluid. (ii) The density of liquid changes with pressure as
Keep in Memory æ DP ö
Ph = P0 ç 1 + ÷
è B ø
1. The pressure is perpendicular to the surface of the fluid. where DP = change in pressure and B = bulk modulus of
2. The upthrust on a body immersed in a liquid does not liquid.
depend on the mass, density or shape of the body. It only (iii) If two liquids of masses m1, m2 and densities r1, r2 are
depends on the volume of the body. mixed together, then the density of the mixture is given by
3. The weight of the plastic bag full of air is same as that of
the empty bag because the upthrust is equal to the weight m1 + m2
r=
of the air enclosed. m1 m2
+
4. The cross-section of the water stream from a top decreases r1 r2
as it goes down in accordance with the equation of And if m1 = m2 but different densities are mixed together,
continuity. then the density of the mixture is harmonic mean of the
5. We cannot sip a drink with a straw on the moon, because densities.
there is no atmosphere on the moon.
6. The line joining the centre of gravity and centre of 2r1r 2 1 1é1 1 ù
i.e., r = or = ê + ú
buoyancy is called central line. r1 + r 2 r 2 ë r1 r 2 û
7. Metacenter - is a point where the vertical line passing (iv) If two drops of same volume but different densities are
through the centre of buoyancy intersects the central line. mixed together, then the density of the mixture is the
8. The floating body is in stable equilibrium when the arithmetic mean of the densities.
metacenter is above the centre of gravity (centre of gravity
is below the centre of buoyancy). r1 + r 2 r1V0 + r2V0
i.e., r = (as r = )
9. The floating body is in the unstable equilibrium when the 2 V0 + V0
metacenter lies below the centre of gravity (centre of gravity SURFACE TENSION
is above the centre of buoyancy).
It is defined as the force per unit length acting at right angles
10. The floating body is in the neutral equilibrium when centre
on either side of an imaginary line drawn on the free surface of
of gravity coincides with the metacenter (centre of gravity
the liquid.
coincides with the centre of buoyancy).
F
11. The wooden rod cannot float vertically in a pond of water i.e., S =
because centre of gravity lies above the metacenter. l
12. (i) If a body just floats in a liquid (density of the body is The surface tension is also defined as the work required to
equal to the density of liquid) then the body sinks if it increase unit area of that liquid film.
is pushed downwards. Its SI unit is N/m or J/m2 and dimensions are [ML0T–2].
262 PHYSICS
S.T.
of water
S.T.=0
4°C Temp. C
Keep in Memory 4. For all those liquids which neither rise nor get depressed in
a capillary tube, the angle of contact is right angle (q = 90°),
1. The value of angle of contact lies between 0º and 180º. For
e.g. silver and water.
pure water and glass it is 0º, for tap water and glass it is 8º
5. Angle of contact depends on impurities, water proofing
and for mercury and glass it is 135º.
agent, surface in contact and temperature. Angle of contact
2. For all those liquids which wet the solid surface and which
qC µ T where T is the temperature.
rise up in a capillary tube, the angle of contact is an acute
angle (q < 90°), e.g. water and glass.
3. For all those liquids which do not wet a solid surface and Capillarity :
which depress in a capillary tube, the angle of contact is an The phenomenon of rise or fall of liquids in capillary tube is
obtuse angle (q > 90°), e.g. glass and mercury. known as capillarity.
Mechanical Properties of Fluids 263
h h
cos a = or h ¢ = . r1
h¢ cos a r
1 r2
According to Zurin's law capillary rise h µ
where r is the radius of the capillary tube. r
Keep in Memory Solution :
Let V1 and V2 be the volumes of the ball in the upper and
1. Work done in forming a liquid drop of radius R, surface lower liquids respectively. So V1 + V2 = V.
tension T is, W = 4pR2T. As ball is floating in the two liquids ; weight of the ball =
2. Work done in forming a soap bubble of radius R, surface upthrust on ball due to two liquids
tension T is, W = 2×4pR2T = 8pR2T. i.e., V r g = V1 r1 g + V2 r2 g ;
3. When n no. of smaller drops of liquid, each of radius r, or V r = V1 r1 + (V – V1) r2 ;
surface tension T are combined to form a bigger drop of
radius R then R = n 1/3 r . æ r - r2 ö
or V1 = çç ÷÷ V
4. The surface area of bigger drop = 4pR2 = 4pn2/3 r2. It is less è r1 - r 2 ø
than the area of n smaller drops.
V1 r - r 2
\ Fraction in the upper liquid = =
SHAPE OF LIQUID MENISCUS : V r1 - r2
The pressure on the concave side is always greater than the V1
pressure on the convex side. Fraction in the lower liquid = 1-
V
P0 = Atmospheric
r- r2 r1 - r
P0 = Atmospheric pressure = 1- =
r1 - r 2 r1 - r2
pressure
Example 2.
A A A piece of cork is embedded inside of block of ice which
Mercury
Water floats on water. What will happen to the level of water
when all the ice melts?
Solution :
q < 90º q > 90º Let , M = mass of the block of ice, m = mass of piece of cork
Concave meniscus Convex meniscus and V = Volume of water displaced.
PA=P0–2T/r PA=P0+2T/r Now (M + m) = V × 1 = V ...(1)
(r is radius of meniscus) When the ice melts, let it be converted into V ' c.c. of
Excess pressure of liquid drop and soap bubble : water.
(i) Excess of pressure for spher ical soap bubble is
Also M = V ' ´ 1 = V '
p = 4T/r and excess of pressure for liquid drop and air bubble
The piece of cork floats on the surface of water when all ice
in a liquid is p = 2T/r.
(ii) (a) Excess of pressure within a cylindrical liquid drop p = melts. Let the cork displaces a volume V '' c.c. of water..
T/R Then m = V" ´ 1 = V"
(b) Excess of pressure within a cylindrical soap bubble p If V1 be the volume of water displaced by melted ice and
= 2T/R cork, then
where T = surface tension, R = radius of the cylindrical
drop.
( M + m ) = V ' + V" = V1 ...(2)
264 PHYSICS
From eqns. (1) and (2), V = V1 The pressure at a depth d, in liquid P = hdg. Therefore, the
Hence, no change in the level of water. total pressure inside the air bubble is
Example 3. 2T
Two substances of densities r1 and r2 are mixed in equal Pin = Patm + hdg +
r
volume and the relative density of mixture is 4. When they
are mixed in equal masses, the relative density of the or Pin = 1.013 × 105 + 10 × 10–2 × 103 × 9.8 + 1460
mixture is 3. Determine the values of r1 and r2 . = 101300 + 980 + 1460
Solution : = 103740 = 1.037 × 105 Pa.
When the substances are mixed in equal volumes, then
Example 6.
Vr1 + Vr 2 = 2 V ´ 4 ... (1) A capillary of the shape as shown is dipped in a liquid.
When the two substances are mixed in equal masses, then Contact angle between the liquid and the capillary is 0°
m m 2m and effect of liquid inside the meniscus is to be neglected. T
+ = ...(2) is the surface tension of the liquid, r is radius of the meniscus,
r1 r 2 3
g is acceleration due to gravity and r is density of the
From eq. (1), r1 + r 2 = 8 ... (3) liquid then determine the height h in equilibrium.
1 1 2 r1 + r 2 2
From eqn. (2) r + r = or =
1 2 3 r1 r 2 3
h
8 2
or = or r1 r 2 = 12 . ...(4)
r1 r 2 3
2 1/ 2
Now r1 - r2 = [(r1 + r 2 ) - 4 r1 r 2 ]
= [64 - 48]1 / 2 = 4 ...(5) Solution :
Solving eqns. (3) and (5), we get r1 = 6 and ρ 2 = 2 ] As weight of liquid in capillary is balanced by surface tension,
Example 4. then T ´ 2pr = pr 2 h1rg (for a tube of uniform radius r)
r
A sealed tank containing a liquid of density r moves with
a horizontal acceleration a, as shown in fig. Find the
2T h1
difference in pressure between the points A and B. h1 =
rrg
l
But weight of liquid in tapered tube is more than uniform tube
C A
a of radius r, then in order to balance h < h 1.
h
B r
2T
h<
Solution : rrg
Since points A and C are in the same horizontal line but
separated by distance l and liquid tank is moving
horizontally with acceleration a, hence Example 7.
PC – PA = lra or PC = PA + lra A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift car with a
Points B and C are vertically separated by h maximum mass of 3000 kg. The area of cross-section of the
\ PB – PC = h r g
piston carrying the load is 425 cm2. What maximum pressure
or PB – (PA + l r a) = h r g
or PB – PA = h r g + l ra would the smaller piston have to bear ?
Solution :
Example 5.
Calculate the excess pressure within a bubble of air of Here mass of car = 3000 kg.
radius 0.1 mm in water. If the bubble had been formed 10 cm Area of cross section of larger piston
below the water surface when the atmospheric pressure = 425 cm2 = 425 × 10–4 m2.
was 1.013 × 105 Pa, then what would have been the total \ The maximum pressure that the smaller piston would
pressure inside the bubble? have to bear
Solution :
Excess pressure within air bubble Weight of car 3000 ´ 9.8
= =
Area of cross-section 425 ´ 10 -4
2T 2 ´ 73 ´ 10-3
= = = 1460 Pa
r 0.1 ´ 10 -3 = 6.92 ´ 10 5 Nm - 2
Mechanical Properties of Fluids 265
A æ 2 ö é (H1 - H 2 )´
çç ÷÷ ´ ê
( H1 - H 2 ) ùú Now viscous force on the drop
or t = a ´
( )( H1 - H 2 )úû
F = 6phrv
è g ø êë H1 + H 2
22
Þ F = 6´ ´ (1.8 ´ 10-5 ) ´ (2 ´ 10 -5 ) ´ 5.8 ´ 10 -2
7
=
A
a
´
æ 2ö
çç ÷÷ ´ ( H1 - H 2 ) = 3.93 × 10–19 N
ègø
268 PHYSICS
Mechanical Properties of Fluids 269
1. The constant velocity attained by a body while falling (a) mx y (x – y) (b) m/(y – x)
through a viscous medium is termed as
(a) critical velocity (b) terminal velocity æ1 1ö
(c) m çç - ÷÷ (d) (y – x)/x
(c) threshold velocity (d) None of these èy xø
2. The difference between viscosity and solid friction is/are 11. Consider a 1 c.c. sample of air at absolute temperature T0 at
(a) viscosity depends on area while solid friction does not sea level and another 1 c.c. sample of air at a height where
(b) viscosity depends on nature of material but solid the pressure is one-third atmosphere. The absolute
friction does not temperature T of the sample at the height is
(c) both (a) and (b) (a) equal to T0/3
(d) neither (a) nor (b) (b) equal to 3/T0
3. Water is not used in thermometer because (c) equal to T0
(a) it sticks to glass (d) cannot be determined in terms of T0 from the above data
(b) its shows anamalous expansion 12. A small ball (menu) falling under graivty in a viscous medium
(c) both (a) and (b) experiences a drag force proportional to the instantaneous
(d) neither (a) nor (b) speed u such that Fdrag = Ku . Then the terminal speed of
4. Toricelli’s theorem is used to find
the ball within the viscous medium is
(a) the velocity of efflux through an orifice.
(b) the velocity of flow of liquid through a pipe. K mg
(a) (b)
(c) terminal velocity mg K
(d) critical velocity
2
5. Gases do not posses mg æ mg ö
(c) (d) ç ÷
(a) density (b) surface tension K è K ø
(c) volume (d) viscosity
13. A cylinder is filled with non-viscous liquid of density d to a
6. Paint-gun is based on height h 0 and a hole is made at a height h 1 from the bottom
(a) Bernoulli’s theorem (b) Archimedes’ principle of the cylinder. The velocity of the liquid issuing out of the
(c) Boyle’s law (d) Pascal’s law hole is
7. Water is flowing through a horizontal pipe having a
restriction, then (a) 2 gh 0 (b) 2 g (h 0 - h1 )
(a) pressure will be greater at the restriction.
(c) dgh 1 (d) dgh 0
(b) pressure will be greater in the wider portion.
(c) pressure will be same throughout the length of the pipe. 14. The terminal velocity depends upon
(d) None of these 1 1
(a)1 (b) (c ) 3 (d) r
2
8. Fevicol is added to paint to be painted on the walls, because 2
r r r
(a) it increases adhesive force between paint and wall.
15. The velocity of efflux of a liquid through an orifice in the
(b) it decreases adhesive force between paint and wall
bottom of the tank does not depend upon
molecules.
(a) size of orifice
(c) it decreases cohesive force between paint molecules.
(b) height of liquid
(d) None of these
(c) acceleration due to gravity
9. A beaker containing a liquid of density r moves up with an
(d) density of liquid
acceleration a. The pressure due to the liquid at a depth h
below the free surface of the liquid is 16. At the boiling point of a liquid, surface tension
(a) h r g (b) h r (g – a) (a) is zero
(b) is infinite
æg+aö (c) is same as that at any other temperature
(c) h r (g + a) (d) 2h r g çç ÷÷
è g -a ø (d) cannot be determined
17. The surface energy of a liquid drop of radius r is proportional
10. The density of ice is x gram/litre and that of water is y gram/
to
litre. What is the change in volume when m gram of ice
1
melts? (a) r3 (b) r2 (c) r (d)
r
270 PHYSICS
18. A liquid is contained in a vessel. The liquid-solid adhesive 22. The rain drops falling from the sky neither injure us nor
force is very weak as compared to the cohesive force in the make holes on the ground because they move with
liquid. The shape of the liquid surface will be (a) constant acceleration
(a) horizontal (b) vertical (b) variable acceleration
(c) concave (d) convex (c) variable speed
19. Two liquids drops coalesce to form a large drop. Now, (d) constant terminal velocity
(a) energy is liberated 23. The lift of an air plane is based on
(b) energy is neither liberated nor absorbed (a) Torricelli's theorem
(c) some mass gets converted into energy (b) Bernoulli's theorem
(d) energy is absorbed (c) Law of gravitation
20. A man is sitting in a boat which is floating in pond. If the (d) conservation of linear momentum
man drinks some water from the pond, the level of water in 24. Surface tension may be defined as
the pond will (a) the work done per unit area in increasing the surface
(a) rise a little (b) fall a little area of a liquid under isothermal condition
(c) remain stationary (d) none of these (b) the work done per unit area in increasing the surface
21. A liquid is allowed to flow into a tube of truncated cone area of a liquid under the adiabatic condition
shape. Identify the correct statement from the following. (c) the work done per unit area in increasing the surface
(a) The speed is high at the wider end and high at the area of liquid under both isothermal and adiabatic condition
narrow end. (d) free surface energy per unit volume
(b) The speed is low at the wider end and high at the 25. A liquid does not wet the sides of a solid, if the angle of
narrow end. contact is
(c) The speed is same at both ends in a stream line flow. (a) Zero (b) Obtuse (more than 90°)
(d) The liquid flows with uniform velocity in the tube. (c) Acute (less than 90°) (d) 90° (right angle)
1. The reading of spring balance when a block is suspended (a) 0.7 m/s (b) 0.07 m/s
from it in air is 60 newton. This reading is changed to 40 (c) 0.007 m/s (d) 0.0007 m/s
newton when the block is submerged in water. The specific 7. A cylinder of height 20m is completely filled with water. The
gravity of the block must be therefore velocity of efflux of water (in ms–1) through a small hole on
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 3/2 the side wall or the cylinder near its bottom is
2. An ice-berg floating partly immersed in sea water of density
(a) 10 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 25.5 m/s (d) 5 m/s
1.03 g/cm3. The density of ice is 0.92 g/cm3. The fraction of
the total volume of the iceberg above the level of sea water 8. 8 mercury drops coalesce to form one mercury drop, the
is energy changes by a factor of
(a) 8.1% (b) 11% (c) 34% (d) 0.8% (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
3. A boat having a length of 3 metres and breadth 2 metres is 9. Water rises to a height of 10 cm in capillary tube and mercury
floating on a lake. The boat sinks by one cm when a man falls to a depth of 3.1 cm in the same capillary tube. If the
gets on it. The mass of the man is density of mercury is 13.6 and the angle of contact for
(a) 60 kg (b) 62 kg (c) 72 kg (d) 128 kg mercury is 135°, the approximate ratio of surface tensions of
4. The excess of pressure inside a soap bubble is twice the water and mercury is
excess pressure inside a second soap bubble. The volume (a) 1 : 0.15 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 6 (d) 1.5 : 1
of the first bubble is n times the volume of the second where
n is 10. A vessel with water is placed on a weighing pan and it reads
(a) 0.125 (b) 0.250 (c) 1 (d) 2 600 g. Now a ball of mass 40 g and density 0.80 g cm–3 is
5. The level of water in a tank is 5m high. A hole of area 1 cm 2 sunk into the water with a pin of negligible volume, as shown
is made in the bottom of the tank. The rate of leakage of in figure keeping it sunk. The weighting pan will show a
water from the hole (g = 10 m/s2) is reading
(a) 10–2 m3/s (b) 10–3 m3/s (a) 600 g
(c) 10–4 m3/s (d) 103 m3/s
(b) 550 g
6. A spherical ball of iron of radius 2 mm is falling through a
column of glycerine. If densities of glycerine and iron are (c) 650 g
respectively 1.3 × 103 kg/m3 and 8 × 103 kg/m3. h for glycerine
= 0.83 Nm–2 sec, then the terminal velocity is (d) 632 g Weighing pan
Mechanical Properties of Fluids 271
11. Water flows in a stream line manner through a capillary tube 19. If a water drop is kept between two glass plates, then its
of radius a, the pressure difference being P and the rate flow shape is
a
Q. If the radius is reduced to and the pressure is increased
2
to 2P, the rate of flow becomes
(a) (b)
Q Q
(a) 4Q (b) Q (c) (d)
2 8
12. A rain drop of radius 0.3 mm has a terminal velocity in air =
1 m/s. The viscosity of air is 8 × 10–5 poise. The viscous
force on it is (c) (d) None of these
(a) 45.2 × 10–4 dyne (b) 101.73×10–5 dyne
–4
(c) 16.95 × 10 dyne (d) 16.95 × 10–5 dyne 20. The fraction of a floating object of volume V0 and density
13. A big drop of radius R is formed by 1000 small droplets of d0 above the surface of liquid of density d will be
water. The radius of small drop is d0 d - d0
(a) (b)
R R R R d - d0 d
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 100 500 1000 d0 d 0d
(c) (d)
d + d0
14. 1 m3 water is brought inside the lake upto 200 metres depth d
from the surface of the lake. What will be change in the 21. An open vessel containing water is given a constant
volume when the bulk modulus of elastically of water is acceleration a in the horizontal direction. Then the free
22000 atmosphere? surface of water gets sloped with the horizontal at an angle
(density of water is 1 × 103 kg/m3 atmosphere pressure q, given by
= 105 N/m2 and g = 10 m/s2) g a
(a) q = cos -1 (b) q = tan -1
(a) 8.9 × 10–3 m3 (b) 7.8 × 10–3 m3 a g
(c) 9.1 × 10 m–4 3 (d) 8.7 × 10–4 m3 a g
(c) q = sin -1 (d) q = tan -1
15. Horizontal tube of non-uniform cross-section has radii of g a
0.1 m and 0.05 m respectively at M and N for a streamline
22. Two drops of the same radius are falling through air with a
flow of liquid the rate of liquid flow is
steady velocity of 5 cm per sec. If the two drops coalesce,
N the terminal velocity would be
(a) 10 cm per sec (b) 2.5 cm per sec
(c) 5 × (4)1/3 cm per sec (d) 5 ´ 3 cm per sec
M 23. A tank is filled with water upto a height H. Water is allowed
to come out of a hole P in one of the walls at a depth h below
(a) continuously changes with time the surface of water (see fig.) Express the horizontal distance
(b) greater at M than at N X in terms H and h.
(c) greater at N than at M
(d) same at M and N
h
16. There is a hole in the bottom of tank having water. If total P
pressure at bottom is 3 atm (1 atm = 105 N/m2) then the H
velocity of water flowing from hole is
(a) 400 m/s (b) 600 m/s
x
(c) 60 m/s (d) None of these
17. In the figure, the velocity V3 will be h
(a) X = h (H - h ) (b) X= (H - h )
2
A2 = 0.2 m2
V1 = 4 ms –1
V2 = 2 ms–1 (c) X = 2 h (H - h) (d) X = 4 h (H - h)
A1 = 0.2 m2 24. A body of density r' is dropped from rest at a height h into
A3= 0.4 m 2 V3 a lake of density r where r > r' neglecting all dissipative
(a) Zero (b) 4 ms–1 (c) 1 ms–1 (d) 3 ms–1 forces, calculate the maximum depth to which the body sinks
before returning to float on the surface :
18. 1 centipoise is equal to
(a) 1 kg m–1 s–1 (b) 1000 kg m–1 s–1 h hr' hr' hr
–1 –1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) 0.1 kg m s (d) 0.001 kg m–1 s–1 r - r' r r - r' r - r'
272 PHYSICS
25. Two capillary of length L and 2L and of radius R and 2R are 32. Two pieces of metals are suspended from the arms of a
connected in series. The net rate of flow of fluid through balance and are found to be in equilibrium when kept
them will be (given rate to the flow through single capillary, immersed in water. The mass of one piece is 32 g and its
density 8 g cm–3. The density of the other is 5 g per cm3.
pPR 4
X= ) Then the mass of the other is
8hL
(a) 28 g (b) 35 g (c) 21 g (d) 33.6 g
8 9 5 7 33. Figure shows a weigh-bridge, with a beaker P with water on
(a) X (b) X (c) X (d) X one pan and a balancing weight R on the other. A solid ball
9 8 7 5
Q is hanging with a thread outside water. It has volume 40
26. One drop of soap bubble of diameter D breaks into 27 drops cm3 and weighs 80 g. If this solid is lowered to sink fully in
having surface tension s. The change in surface energy is water, but not touching the beaker anywhere, the balancing
(a) 2psD2 (b) 4psD2 weight R' will be
(c) psD 2 (d) 8psD2
27. In case A, when an 80 kg skydiver falls with arms and legs
fully extended to maximize his surface area, his terminal Q
velocity is 60 m/s. In Case B, when the same skydiver falls
with arms and legs pulled in and body angled downward to R
minimize his surface area, his terminal velocity increases to P
80 m/s. In going from Case A to Case B, which of the
following statements most accurately describes what the
skydiver experiences?
(a) Fair resistance increases and pressure P increases (a) same as R (b) 40 g less than R
(b) Fair resistance increases and pressure P decreases (c) 40 g more than R (d) 80 g more than R
(c) Fair resistance decreases and pressure P increases 34. Figure here shows the vertical cross section of a vessel
(d) Fair resistance remains the same and pressure P increases filled with a liquid of density r. The normal thrust per unit
28. A ring is cut from a platinum tube 8.5 cm internal and 8.7 cm area on the walls of the vessel at the point P, as shown, will
external diameter. It is supported horizontally from the pan be
of a balance, so that it comes in contact with the water in a
glass vessel. If an extra 3.97. If is required to pull it away
from water, the surface tension of water is P
(a) 72 dyne cm–1 (b) 70.80 dyne cm–1
H h
(c) 63.35 dyne cm–1 (d) 60 dyne cm–1
29. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in a liquid. The
liquid rises to a height h. The corresponding mass is m. q
What mass of water shall rise in the capillary if the radius of
the tube is doubled? (a) hrg (b) Hrg
(a) m (b) 2m (c) 3m (d) 4m (c) (H – h) rg (d) (H – h) rg cosq
30. In a satellite moving round any planet, the gravitational 35. Two vessels A and B of cross-sections as shown in figure
force is effectively balanced. If an ice cube exists there, and contain a liquid up to the same height. As the temperature
it melts with passage of time, its shape will
rises, the liquid pressure at the bottom (neglecting expansion
(a) remain unchanged of the vessels) will
(b) change to spherical
(c) become oval-shaped with long-axis along the orbit
plane
(d) become oval-shaped with long axis perpendicular to
orbit plane A B
31. An egg when placed in ordinary water sinks but floats when
placed in brine. This is because
(a) increase in A, decrease in B
(a) density of brine is less than that of ordinary water
(b) increase in B, decrease in A
(b) density of brine is equal to that of ordinary water
(c) density of brine is greater than that of ordinary water (c) increase in both A and B
(d) None of these (d) decrease in both A and B
Mechanical Properties of Fluids 273
36. A beaker with a liquid of density 1.4 g cm–3 is in balance 42. Figure shows a capillary rise H. If the air is blown through
over one pan of a weighing machine. If a solid of mass 10 g the horizontal tube in the direction as shown then rise in
and density 8 g cm–3 is now hung from the top of that pan capillary tube will be
with a thread and sinking fully in the liquid without touching
the bottom, the extra weight to be put on the other pan for
balance will be
H
(a) 10.0 g
(b) 8.25 g
49. Statement 1 : Falling raindrops acquire a terminal velocity. can be considered to be acting at the centre of mass of the
Statement 2 : A constant force in the direction of motion object.
and a velocity dependent force opposite to the direction of Statement 2 : For a rigid body a force field distributed
motion, always result in the acquisition of terminal velocity. uniformly through its volume can be considered to be acting
50. Statement 1 : The buoyant force on a submerged rigid object at the centre of mass of the body.
2. Which of the following diagrams does not represent a 6. The wetability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on
streamline flow? (a) surface tension [2013]
(b) density
(c) angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
(d) viscosity
7. A fluid is in streamline flow across a horizontal pipe of
variable area of cross section. For this which of the following
statements is correct? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(a) (b) (a) The velocity is minimum at the narrowest part of the
pipe and the pressure is minimum at the widest part of
the pipe
(b) The velocity is maximum at the narrowest part of the
pipe and pressure is maximum at the widest part of the
pipe
(c) Velocity and pressure both are maximum at the
narrowest part of the pipe
(d) Velocity and pressure both are maximum at the widest
(c) (d)
part of the pipe
Mechanical Properties of Fluids 275
8. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius ‘r’ (c) water does not rise at all.
coalesce to form a single drop of radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. (d) Water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts
If ‘T’ is the surface tension of the liquid, then : [2014] overflowing like fountain.
æ1 1 ö 12. Two non-mixing liquids of densities r and nr(n > 1) are put
(a) energy = 4VT ç - ÷ is released in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder
è r Rø
of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder
æ1 1 ö floats with its axis vertical and length pL(p < 1) in the denser
(b) energy = 3VT ç + ÷ is absorbed liquid. The density d is equal to : [2016]
è r Rø
(a) {1 + (n + 1)p}r (b) {2 + (n + 1)p}r
æ1 1 ö (c) {2 + (n – 1)p}r (d) {1 + (n – 1)p}r
(c) energy = 3VT ç - ÷ is released
è r Rø
13. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially
(d) energy is neither released nor absorbed filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with water, is poured
9. A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof of a into one side until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the
house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. Assuming that the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water rises by
pressure inside the house is atmospheric pressure, the force 65 mm from its original level (see diagram). The density of
exerted by the wind on the roof and the direction of the the oil is [2017]
forcewill be (rair = 1.2 kg/m3) [2015]
(a) 4.8 × 105 N, upwards
Pa Pa
(b) 2.4 × 105 N, upwards
F
(c) 2.4 × 105 N, downwards A
E 10 mm
(d) 4.8 × 105 N, downwards Final water level
10. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius, R, one end 65 mm
of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the speed of the Oil D
Initial water level
liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid
65 mm
through the holes is : [2015 RS]
B C
2 2 2 2
VR VR V R VR Water
(a) 2 (b) 3 2 (c) (d)
nr n r nr n2r2
11. Water rises to a height 'h' in a capillary tube. If the length of
capaillary tube above the surface of water is made less than
'h' then : [2015 RS] (a) 425 kg m–3 (b) 800 kg m–3
(a) water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays (c) 928 kg m–3 (d) 650 kg m–3
there without overflowing
(b) water rises upto a point a little below the top and stays
there
276 PHYSICS
2r 2g 1
14. (d) Terminal velocity, v T = (r - s) , v T µ r 2 = volume × density = 3 ´ 2 ´ ´ 103 = 60 kg
9h 100
4T 4T
15. (a) v = velocity of efflux through an orifice = 2gH 4. (a) Given, = 2´ or r2 = 2r1
r1 r2
4 3 4 4
v=0 pr1 = n ´ pr23 = n ´ p( 2 r1 ) 3 or n = 1 = 0.125
3 3 3 8
H
5. (b) Velocity of efflux, v = 2gh ;
v volume of liquid flowing out per sec
10 ´ (-0.707 ) 1 4 4
= » pR 3 = 2 ´ pr 3 or R = 21/3 r
- 3.1 ´13.6 6 3 3
40 As v 0 µ r 2
10. (c) Volume of ball = = 50 cm3
0.8
v 01 R 2 (21 / 3 r ) 2
Downthrust on water = 50 g. \ = = = 22 / 3
Therefore reading is 650 g.
v0 r2 r2
4 or v 01 = v 0 ´ 2 2 / 3 = 5 ´ (4)1 / 3
æaö é
p(2P) ç ÷ pPa ù
4
23. (c) Vertical distance covered by water before striking
11. (d) è2ø = Q êQ Q = ú
Q' =
ëê 8hl úû
8hl 8 ground = (H – h). Time taken is, t = 2 ( H - h ) / g :
12. (a) F = 6 p h r n Horizontal velocity of water coming out of hole at P,
= 6 × 3.14 × (8 ×10–5) × 0.03 ×100 = 4.52 ×10–3 dyne u = 2 gh
13. (a)
P PV \ Horizontal range = ut = 2gh ´ 2(H - h) / g
14. (c) K = \ DV =
DV / V K = 2 h (H - h )
P = hrg = 200 × 103 × 10 N/m2
æ rö
K = 22000 atm = 22000 × 105 N/m2 24. (c) The effective acceleration of the body g ' = çç1 - ÷÷g
V = 1m3 è r' ø
200 ´ 103 ´ 10 ´ 1
DV = = 9.1 ´ 10 - 4 m3
5
22000 ´ 10 h
15. (d) According to principle of continuity, for a streamline
flow of fluid through a tube of non-uniform cross-
Now, the depth to which the body sinks
section the rate of flow of fluid (Q) is same at every
point in the tube. æ u 2 ö 2gh gh h ´r '
i.e., Av = constant Þ A1v1 = A2v2 h' = ç ÷= = =
ç 2g' ÷ 2g ' g' r - r'
Therefore, the rate of flow of fluid is same at M and N. è ø
5 N 8hL
16. (a) Pressure at the bottom of tank P = hrg = 3 ´ 10 25. (a) Fluid resistance is given by R =
m 2 pr4
Pressure due to liquid column When two capillary tubes of same size are joined in
parallel, then equivalent fluid resistance is
P1 = 3 ´ 105 - 1 ´ 105 = 2 ´ 105
8h L 8h ´ 2L æ 8hL ö 9
R S = R1 + R 2 = + = çç 4 ÷÷ ´
and velocity of water v = 2 gh pR 4 p (2R) 4 è pR ø 8
278 PHYSICS
3. (b) In streamline flow, the speed of liquid of each particle 7. (b) According to Bernoulli’s theorem,
at a point in a particular cross-section is constant, 1
between two cross-section of a tube of flow because P + rv 2 = constant and Avv = constant
2
AV = constant (law of continuity).
If A is minimum, v is maximum, P is minimum.
4. (a) As given that,
8. (c) As surface area decreases so energy is released.
Diameter at 1st section (d1) = 2.5.
Energy released = 4pR2T[n 1/3 – 1]
Diameter at 2nd section (d2) = 3.75.
where R = n 1/3r
According to equation of continuity,
for cross-sections A1 and A2. 3 é1 1 ù é1 1 ù
= 4pR T ê - ú = 3VT ê - ú
A1 v1 = A2 v2 ër R û ër R û
2 9. (b) According to Bernoulli’s theorem,
v1 A2 p(r22 ) æ r2 ö
= = =ç ÷ P +12 r v2 = P0 + 0
v2 A1 p(r12 ) è r1 ø
1 2
So, DP = rv P
æ d2 ö
2 2
ç ÷ æd ö
2
= è ø2 = ç 2 ÷
2 1 2
é d2 d1 ù F = DPA = rv A P0
æ d1 ö è d1 ø êQ r2 = 2 , r1 = 2 ú 2
ç ÷ ë û
è 2ø 1
= × 1.2 × 40 × 40 × 250
2
2 = 2.4 × 105 N (upwards)
æ 3.75 ö 9
=ç ÷ = 10. (a) Inflow rate of volume of the liquid = Outflow rate of
è 2.5 ø 4
volume of the liquid
\ v1 : v2 = 9 : 4
pR 2V VR 2
5. (c) We observed that meniscus of liquid is convex shape pR2V = npr2(v) Þ v = =
npr 2 nr 2
as shown in figure which is possible if only, the angle
of contact is obtuse. Hence, the combination will be of 11. (a) Water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays
case of mercury-glass (140°). Hence verifies the option there without overflowing.
(c). 12. (d) As we know,
Pressure P = Vdg d
convex r (1 – p)L
140°
nr pL
mercury
Thermal Properties
11 of Matter
TEMPERATURE It is the combination of following three laws :
The temperature of a body is that physical quantity which indicates (i) Boyle's law : When temperature is held constant, the pressure
how much hot or cold the body is? So temperature indicates the is inversely proportional to volume.
hotness or coldness of a body. 1
i.e., P µ ( at constant temperature)
The flow of heat is always from higher temperature to lower V
temperature. Temperature is a macroscopic concept. (ii) Charle's law : When the pressure is held constant, the volume
Two bodies are said to be in thermal equilibrium with each other, of the gas is directly porportional to the absolute temperature.
when no heat flows from one body to the other, that is when both i.e., V µ T (at constant pressure)
the bodies are at the same temperature. (iii) Avogadro's law : When the pressure and temperature are
Temperature measuring device : kept constant, the volume is directly proportional to the
Thermometer is a device to measure the temperature. number of moles of the ideal gas in the container.
Thermometers used for measuring very high temperatures are i.e., V µ n (at constant pressure and temperature)
called pyrometers. Absolute Temperature
Different types of temperature scales The lowest temperature of –273.16 °C at which a gas is supposed
to have zero volume and zero pressure and at which entire
molecular motion stops is called absolute zero temperature. A
Symbol Lower Upper No. of
Name of the new scale of temperature starting with –273.16°C by Lord Kelvin
for each fixed fixed divisions on
scale as zero. This is called Kelvin scale or absolute scale of temperature.
degree point point the scale
T(K) = t°C + 273.16
Reaumur ºR 0ºR 80ºR 80
Thermometric property : It is the property used to measure the
Celsius ºC 0ºC 100ºC 100
temperature. Any physical quantity such as length of mercury (in
Fahrenheit ºF 32ºF 212ºF 180
a glass capillary), pressure of a gas (at constant volume), electrical
Rankine Ra 460Ra 672Ra 212 resistance (of a metal wire), thermo emf (thermo-couple
Kelvin K 273K 373K 100 thermometer) which changes with a change in temperature can be
used to measure temperature.
* Lower fixed point (LFP) is the freezing point of water. The unknown temperature t on a scale by utilising a general
* Upper fixed point (UFP) is the boiling point of water. property X of the substance is given by
TºK = (tºC + 273) or tºC = (TK – 273)
æ X - X0 ö
Relationship between different temperature scales t=ç t ÷ ´100º C
è X 100 - X 0 ø
R C F - 32 Ra - 460 K - 273
= = = = Keep in Memory
80 100 180 212 100
The zero of the Kelvin scale is called absolute zero. The Kelvin 1. The mercury thermometer with cylindrical bulb are more
scale is often termed as the absolute scale. In common use the sensitive than those with spherical bulb.
absolute zero corresponds to –273ºC. However, its exact value is 2. Alcohol thermometer is preferred to the mercury thermometer
–273.16º C. due to the larger value of the coefficient of cubical expansion.
3. Properties that make mercury the ideal thermometric
IDEAL GAS EQUATION AND ABSOLUTE TEMPERATURE
substance are :
The equation, PV = nRT
(i) It does not stick to the glass walls
where, n = number of moles in the sample of gas (ii) Available in pure form
R = universal gas constant; (its value is 8.31 J mol–1 K–1), is (iii) Low thermal conductivity and low specific heat
known as ideal-gas equation (iv) Vapour Pressure is low
Thermal Properties of Matter 281
av(10 K ) ®
4. Gas thermometer is more sensitive than the mercury
–1
thermometer, because its coefficient of cubical expansion is
–5
much larger.
(For copper)
5. At the following temperatures different temperature scales
have the same reading :
(i) Fahreinheit and Reaumur at –25.6ºF = –25.6ºR 250 500
T (K)
(ii) Reaumur and Celsius at 0ºR = OºC
Keep in Memory
(iii) Celsius and Fahrenheit at –40ºC = –40ºF
(iv) Fahrenheit and Kelvin at 574.25ºF = 574.25K 1. During change in temperature, the mass does not change
6. The Celsius scale and the Kelvin cannot have the same but the density decreases due to increase in volume.
reading at any temperature. Therefore
7. Six’s thermometer measures minimum and maximum r0
r=
temperature during a day. It uses mercury as well as alcohol 1 + gDT
as the thermometric substances.
2. Relation between a, b and g
8. Normal human body temperature is 37ºC = 98.6ºF.
g = 3a and b = 2a
9. Clinical thermometers are much shorter than the laboratory
thermometers because they are used to measure a limited 3. Water has negative coefficient of volume expansion for
range (96º F to 100º F) of temperature. temperature range (0°C – 4°C). Therefore water contracts
10. Rapidly changing temperature is measured by using thermo when the temperature rises from 0°C to 4°C and then expands
electric thermometer. as the temperature increases further.
Density of water reaches a maximum value of 1000 kg m–3 at
11. The temperature inside a motor engine is measured using
platinum resistance thermometer. 4°C. This is the anomalous behaviour of water.
12. The radiation thermometers can measure temperature from
a distance.
Volume
and during the adiabatic process (ii) Latent heat of vaporisation : It is the quantity of heat required
Q = 0 Þ c = 0 (zero) to convert unit mass of liquid into vapour at its boiling
Specific heat of gas : The specific heat of a gas varies from zero to point.
infinity. It may have any positive or negative value. Latent heat of vaporisation of water is 536 cal/g.
Following of two specific heats of gas are more significant. Latent heat increases the intermolecular potential energy of the
(a) Molar specific heat at constant volume (CV) : It is the molecules while kinetic energy remains constant.
amount of heat required to raise the temperature of Different Processes of Phase Change or State Change
1 mole of a gas through 1K or 1°C at constant volume.
(i) Sublimation : It is the process of conversion of solids to
1 æ dQ ö gaseous state on heating. On cooling the vapours get
CV = ç
n è dT ÷ø converted back into solids.
(b) Molar specific heat at constant pressure (CP) : It is the (ii) Condensation : It is the process of conversion of gases/
amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of vapours to liquid state on cooling. On heating, these liquids
a gas through 1K or 1°C at constant pressure. are converted into vapours/gases.
1 æ dQ ö (iii) Boiling : It is the process of conversion of liquid to gaseous
CP = ç ÷ state on heating. It is a cooling process.
n è dT ø
(iv) Melting : It is the process in which solid gets converted
Mayer’s relation : CP – CV = R
[where R is a gas constant. (R = 8.314 Jmol –1K–1)] into liquid on heating.
(v) Evaporation : Conversion of liquid into gaseous state at all
Why CP is greater than CV ?
When heat is supplied to a gas at constant volume entirely used temperatures is called evaporation. It is a phenomenon that
to raise its temperature. When a gas is heated at constant pressure, occurs at the surface of the liquid.
some work is done in expansion of gas which is in addition to Melting and boiling occur at definite temperature called melting
raise its temperature and hence CP > CV. point and boiling point respectively. The liquid boils at a
THERMAL CAPACITY OR HEAT CAPACITY temperature, at which its vapour pressure is equal to the
It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of atmospheric pressure.
substance through 1ºC or 1K. How evaporation is different from boiling?
Thermal capacity = mass × specific heat. Evaporation is a slow process occurring at all the temperature at
This is the relation between sp. heat capacity and heat capacity. the surface of liquid while boiling is a fast process involving whole
Its SI unit is JK–1 CGS unit cal/°C. Its dimensions are [ML2T– of the liquid heated to a particular temperature called boiling point
2q –1 ]
of the liquid.
Water Equivalent
Keep in Memory
It is the mass of water in gram which would require the same
amount of heat to raise its temperature through 1ºC as the body 1. The heat capacity or thermal capacity depends on nature of
when heated through the same temperature. It is measured in the substance (specific heat capacity) and mass of quantity
gram. Hence of matter of the body.
Water equivalent of a body = mass of the body × specific heat
2. In case of melting and boiling, the temperature does not
Principle of Heat (or Calorimetry) change, only intermolecular potential energy of the system
When two bodies at different temperatures are placed in contact changes.
with each other then heat will flow from the body at higher
3. System are in thermal equilibrium when their temperature
temperature to the body at lower temperature until both reach to a
are same or average kinetic energy per molecule is same.
common temperature.
i.e. Heat lost by hot body = heat gained by cold body. 4. Internal energy is the sum of all energies in a system which
It follows the law of conservation of energy. includes energy of translational, rotational as well as
LATENT HEAT vibrational motion of the molecules.
5. The molar specific heat capacity depends on the molecular
It is defined as the amount of heat absorbed or given out by a
body during the change of state while its temperature remaining weight of the substance.
constant. 6. The temperature, volume or pressure of a system may remain
It is of two types : constant when it absorbs heat.
(i) Latent heat of fusion : It is the quantity of heat required to 7. When we press two block of ice together such that after
change unit mass of the solid into liquid at its melting point. releasing the pressure two block join this phenomenon is
Latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/g. called regelation.
284 PHYSICS
18. The Relative humidity between 50% and 60% gives (b) Convection : It is the process by which heat is transferred
comfortable feeling to human beings. from one place to another in a medium by the movement of
19. When the relative humidity is 100%, the reading of the dry particles of the medium. It occurs due to density difference.
and wet bulbs is same. This phenomenon occurs in fluids.
20. Smaller the difference in the temperature of dry and wet
(c) Radiation : It is the process by which heat is transferred
bulbs, larger is the relative humidity.
from one place to another without any intervening medium.
21. Water vapours are always seen around the ice, because the
temperature around it is less than the dew point. The light reaches from Sun to Earth by radiation process.
Keep in Memory
HEAT TRANSFER
Three modes of transmission of heat :
1. The equation
ΔQ æ ΔT ö is valid for steady state
(a) Conduction (b) Convection and (c) Radiation = KA ç ÷
(a) Conduction : In thermal conduction particles of body at Δt è Δx ø
higher temperature transmit heat to the particles at lower condition. The condition is said to occur when no part of
temperature by mutual contact (collision) only and not by heat is used up in raising the temperature of any part of
the movement of the particles. All solids are heated by cross-section of the solid.
conduction. Conduction cannot take place in vacuum. 2. On comparing equation (1) with the following equation used
T1 > T2 for flowing of charge on account of potential difference.
Dx V1 V2
Dq s
A DQ
Dt
l
DQ T1
Dq DV
Dt T2 We find : = sA
Dt l
Dx
Figure shows a solid of cross-section area A and thickness The role of resistance (thermal resistance) is played by
KA
Dx. The face are at different temperature T1 and T2 (T1 > T2) 3. Series combination of conductors
æ DQ ö
The rate of heat flow ç ÷ as found experimentally is T1 T T2
è Dt ø
given by K1, A1 K2, A2
DQ æ DT ö
µ Aç ÷ where DT = T1 - T2 l1 l2
Dt è Dx ø
Equivalent thermal conductivity :
Þ
ΔQ æ ΔT ö 2 K1 K 2
= KA ç ÷ …(1)
Keq =
Δt è Δx ø K1 + K 2
where K is proportionality constant called thermal
conductivity. A(T1 – T2 )
H=
It is a measure of how quickly heat energy can conduct l1 l
through the substance. + 2
K1 K 2
Coefficient of thermal conductivity (K) : The coefficient of thermal
conductivity, K, of a material is defined as the amount of heat that where H = heat flow per second
flowing per second through a rod of that material having unit 4. Parallel combination of conductors
length and unit area of cross-section in the steady state, when T1 T2
the difference of temperature between two ends of the rod is 1 ºC
and flow of heat is perpendicular to the end faces of the rod. K1, A1
Unit of coefficient of thermal conductivity in SI system is
watt/m-K K2, A2
Dimensions : [M L T–3 q–1] l
For a perfect conductor thermal conductivity K is infinite and
for a perfect insulator K is zero. Equivalent thermal conductivity :
In general, solids are better conductors than liquids and liquids K1 A1 + K 2 A2
are better conductors than gases. (Heat transfer through the Keq =
process of conduction is possible in liquids and gases also, if A2 + A2
they are heated from the top.) Metals are much better conductors
than non-metals. K1 K
T1 + 2 T2
A good conductor of heat is also a good conductor of electricity l1 l2
H=
The conduction of both heat and electricity is due to the movement K1 K 2
+
of free electrons. l1 l 2
Thermal Properties of Matter 287
1. The coefficient of thermal conductivity depends upon 10. A black body rediates energy at the rate of E watt per metre2
(a) temperature difference between the two surfaces. at a high temperature T K. when the temperature is reduced
(b) area of the plate to (T/2) K, the radiant energy will be
(c) material of the plate (a) E/16 (b) E/4
(c) E/2 (d) 2E
(d) All of these
11. The tempearture of an isolated black body falls from T1 to
2. The wavelength of radiation emitted by a body depends T2 in time t, then t is (Let c be a constant)
upon
(a) the nature of its surface æ 1 1ö æ 1 1 ö
(a) t = cç - (b) t = cç 2 - 2 ÷
(b) the area of its surface è T2 T1 ÷ø è T2 T1 ø
(c) the temperature of its surface
(d) All of the above æ 1 1 ö æ 1 1 ö
3. A vessel completely filled with a liquid is heated. If a and g (c) t = cç 3 - 3 ÷ (d) t = cç 4 - 4 ÷
represent coefficient of linear expansion of material of vessel è T2 T1 ø è T2 T1 ø
and coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid respectively, 12. Two straight metallic strips each of thickness t and length l
then the liquid will not overflow if are rivetted together. Their coefficients of linear expansions
(a) g = 3 a (b) g > 3 a are a1 and a2 . If they are heated through temperature DT,
(c) g < 3 a (d) g £ 3 a the bimetallic strip will bend to form an arc of radius
4. The fastest mode of transfer of heat is (a) t /{α1 + α 2 ) ΔT} (b) t /{( α 2 - α1 ) ΔT}
(a) conduction (b) convection (c) t (α1 - α 2 ) ΔT (d) t (α 2 - α1 ) ΔT
(c) radiation (d) None of these
13. Two solid spheres, of radii R1 and R2 are made of the same
5. In order that the heat flows from one part of a solid to material and have similar surfaces. The spheres are raised to
another part, what is required? the same temperature and then allowed to cool under
(a) Uniform density identical conditions. Assuming spheres to be perfect
(b) Temperature gradient conductors of heat, their initial rates of loss of heat are
(c) Density gradient
(a) R12 / R22 (b) R1 / R 2
(d) Uniform temperature
6. The sprinkling of water slightly reduces the temperature (c) R 2 / R1 (d)R22 / R12
of a closed room because 14. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly
(a) temperature of water is less than that of the room reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface
(b) specific heat of water is high is
(c) water has large latent heat of vaporisation (a) Ec (b) 2E/c
(d) water is a bad conductor of heat
7. Which of the following is not close to a black body? (c) E/c (d) E/c 2
(a) Black board paint (b) Green leaves 15. Which of the following graph correctly represents the
(c) Black holes (d) Red roses relation between ln E and ln T where E is the amount of
8. According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate of cooling of radiation emitted per unit time from unit area of body and T
a body is proportional to (Dq)n, where Dq is the difference of is the absolute temperature
the temperature of the body and the surroundings, and n is
equal to
(a) two (b) three (a) (b)
(c) four (d) one ln E
ln E
9. A metallic rod l cm long, A square cm in cross-section is ln T
ln T
heated through tºC. If Young’s modulus of elasticity of the
metal is E and the mean coefficient of linear expansion is a per
degree celsius, then the compressional force required to (c) (d)
prevent the rod from expanding along its length is
ln E ln E
(a) E A a t (b) E A a t/(1 + at) ln T
ln T
(c) E A a t/(1 – a t) (d) E l a t
Thermal Properties of Matter 291
16. For the construction of a thermometer, one of the essential 22 The rate of heat flow through the cross-section of the rod
requirements is a thermometric substance which shown in figure is (T2 > T1 and thermal conductivity of the
(a) remains liquid over the entire range of temperatures to material of the rod is K)
be meaured .
(b) has property that varies linearly with temperature r1 r2
(c) has a property that varies with temperature L
(d) obey Boyle's law
T1 T2
17. The temperature of stars is determined by
(a) Stefan’s law Kpr1r2 (T2 - T1 ) Kp(r1 + r2 )2 (T2 - T1 )
(b) Wien’s displacement law (a) (b)
L 4L
(c) Kirchhoff’s law
(d) Ohm’s law Kp(r1 + r1 ) 2 (T2 - T1 ) Kp(r1 + r1 ) 2 (T2 - T1 )
18. The temperature of the Sun is measured with (c) (d)
L 2L
(a) platinum thermometer
23. When a body is heated, which colour corresponds to high
(b) gas thermometer temperature
(c) pyrometer (a) red (b) yellow
(d) vapour pressure thermometer. (c) white (d) orange
19. Which of the following circular rods, (given radius r and 24. The two ends of a rod of length L and a uniform cross-
length l) each made of the same material and whose ends sectional area A are kept at two temperatures T1 and T2
are maintained at the same temperature will conduct most dQ
heat? (T1 > T2). The rate of heat transfer, through the rod in
dt
(a) r = 2r0; l = 2l0 (b) r = 2r0; l = l0 a steady state is given by
(c) r = r0; l = 2l0 (d) r = r0; l = l0
dQ k (T1 - T2 ) dQ
20. At a certain temperature for given wave length , the ratio of (a) = (b) = kLA (T1 - T2 )
dt LA dt
emissive power of a body to emissive power of black body
in same circumstances is known as dQ kA (T1 - T2 ) dQ kL (T1 - T2 )
(c) = (d) =
(a) relative emissivity (b) emissivity dt L dt A
(c) absorption coefficient (d) coefficient of reflection 25. Two rods of the same length and areas of cross-section A1
21. If a liquid is heated in weightlessness, the heat is transmitted and A2 have their ends at the same temperature. K1 and K2
through are the thremal conductivities of the two rods. The rate of
(a) conduction flow of heat is same in both rods if
(b) convection A1 A1
K1 K2
(c) radiation (a) = (b) =
A2 K2 A2 K1
(d) None of these, because the liquid cannot be heated in
weightlessness. (c) A1A2 = K1K2 (d) A1 K12 = A2 K22
1. The resistance of a resistance thermometer has values 2.71 4. If a bar is made of copper whose coefficient of linear
and 3.70 ohms at 10ºC and 100ºC respectively. The expansion is one and a half times that of iron, the ratio of
temperature at which the resistance is 3.26 ohm is force developed in the copper bar to the iron bar of identical
(a) 40ºC (b) 50ºC lengths and cross-sections, when heated through the same
(c) 60ºC (d) 70ºC temperature range (Young’s modulus of copper may be taken
2. The temperature of an iron block is 140ºF. Its temperature to be equal to that of iron) is
on the Celsius scale is (a) 3/2 (b) 2/3
(a) 60º (b) 160º
(c) 140º (d) 132º (c) 9/4 (d) 4/9
3. A pendulum clock is 5 seconds fast at temperature of 15ºC 5. A metallic bar is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC. The coeficient of
and 10 seconds slow at a temperature of 30ºC. At what linear expansion is 10–5 K–1. What will be the percentage
temperature does it give the correct time? (take time interval = increase in length?
24 hours) (a) 0.01% (b) 0.1%
(a) 18ºC (b) 20ºC (c) 1% (d) 10%
(c) 22ºC (d) 25ºC
292 PHYSICS
6. Steam is passed into 22 gm of water at 20ºC. The mass of 14. A mountain climber finds that water boils at 80ºC. The
water that will be present when the water acquires a temperature of this boiling water is...... Fahrenheit
temperatue of 90ºC (Latent heat of steam is 540 cal/g) is (a) 50º (b) 150º
(a) 24.83 gm (b) 24 gm (c) 176º (d) 200º
(c) 36.6 gm (d) 30 gm 15. A metal cube of length 10.0 mm at 0°C (273K) is heated to
7. A cylindrical rod of aluminium is of length 20 cms and radius 200°C (473K). Given : its coefficient of linear expansion is
2 cms. The two ends are maintained at temperatures of 0ºC 2 × 10–5 K–1. The percent change of its volume is
and 50ºC the coefficient of thermal conductivity is (a) 0.1 (b) 0.2
0.5 cal (c) 0.4 (d) 1.2
. Then the thermal resistance of the rod in
cm×sec × ºC 16. No other thermometer is suitable as a platinum resistance
cal thermometer to measure temperatures in the entire range of
is
sec × ºC (a) –50ºC to + 350ºC (b) –200ºC to + 600ºC
(a) 318 (b) 31.8 (c) 0ºC to 100ºC (b) 100ºC to 1500ºC
(c) 3.18 (d) 0.318 17. Calculate the surface temperature of the planet, if the energy
8. A metal ball of surface area 200 square cm, temperature 527ºC radiated by unit area in unit time is 5.67 ×104 watt.
is surrounded by a vessel at 27ºC. If the emissivity of the (a) 1273°C (b) 1000°C
metal is 0.4, then the rate of loss of heat from the ball is (c) 727°C (d) 727K
joule 18. In a thermocouple, the temperature of the cold junction and
approximately s = 5.67 ´ 10 -8
2 2 the neutral temperature are –40°C and 275°C respectively. If
m ´ sec´ K
the cold junction temperature is increased by 60°C, the
(a) 108 joule (b) 168 joule
neutral temperature and temperature of inversion
(c) 182 joule (d) 192 joule respectively become
9. The rate of radiation of a black body at 0ºC is E joule per sec. (a) 275°C, 530°C (b) 355°C, 530°C
Then the rate of radiation of this black body at 273ºc will be
(c) 375°C, 590°C (d) 355°C, 590°C
(a) 16 E (b) 8 E
19. In a surrounding medium of temperature 10°C, a body takes
(c) 4 E (d) E
7 min for a fall of temperature from 60°C to 40°C. In what time
10. Solar radiation emitted by sun resembles that emitted by a the temperature of the body will fall from 40°C to 28°C?
black body at a temperature of 6000 K. Maximum intensity is
(a) 7 min (b) 11 min
emitted at wavelength of about 4800 Å. If the sun were to
cool down from 6000 K to 3000 K, then the peak intensity (c) 14 min (d) 21 min
would occur at a wavelength 20. Two rods P and Q of same length and same diameter having
(a) 4800 Å (b) 9600 Å thermal conductivity ratio 2 : 3 joined end to end. If
temperature at one end of P is 100°C and at one and of Q
(c) 2400 Å (d) 19200 Å
0°C, then the temperature of the interface is
11. A bucket full of hot water is kept in a room and it cools from
(a) 40°C (b) 50°C
75ºC to 70ºC in T1 minutes, from 70ºC to 65ºC in T2 minutes
and from 65ºC to 60ºC in T3 minutes. Then (c) 60°C (d) 70°C
(a) T1 = T2 = T3 (b) T1 < T2 < T3 21. 100 g of ice is mixed with 100 g of water at 100ºC. What will
(c) T1 > T2 > T3 (d) T1 < T2 > T3 be the final temperature of the mixture ?
12. The maximum energy in the thermal radiation from a hot (a) 13.33ºC (b) 20ºC
source occurs at a wavelength of 11 ×10–5 cm. According (c) 23.33ºC (d) 40ºC
to Wien’s law, the temperature of this source (on Kelvin 22. A crystal has a coefficient of expansion 13×10–7 in one
scale) will be n times the temperature of another source (on direction and 231 × 10–7 in every direction at right angles to
Kelvin scale) for which the wavelength at maximum energy it. Then the cubical coefficient of expansion is
is 5.5 × 10–5 cm. The value n is (a) 462 × 10–7 (b) 244 × 10–7
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 475 × 10 –7 (d) 257 × 10–7
(c) 1/2 (d) 1 23. A glass flask of volume 1 litre is fully filled with mercury at
13. The temperature of a furnace is 2324ºC and the intensity is 0ºC. Both the flask and mercury are now heated to 100ºC. If
maximum in its radiation spectrum nearly at 12000 Å. If the the coefficient of volume expansion of mercury is 1.82 × 10–
intensity in the spectrum of a star is maximum nearly at 4/ºC, volume coefficient of linear expansion of glass is 10 ×
4800Å, then the surface temperature of the star is 10–6/ºC, the amount of mercury which is spilted out is
(a) 8400ºC (b) 7200ºC (a) 15.2 ml (b) 17.2 ml
(c) 6492.5ºK (d) 5900ºC (c) 19.2 ml (d) 21.2 ml
Thermal Properties of Matter 293
24. A rectangular block is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC. The (a) 4 : 7 (b) 7 : 4
percentage increase in its length is 0.10%. What will be the (c) 25 : 16 (d) 16 : 25
percentage increase in its volume?
33. A partition wall has two layers A and B, in contact, each made
(a) 0.03% (b) 0.10%
of a different material. They have the same thickness but the
(c) 0.30% (d) None of these thermal conductivity of layer A is twice that of layer B. If the
25. The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass steady state temperature difference across the wall is 60 K,
vessel is 153 × 10–6/ºC and in a steel vessel is 144 × 10–6/ºC. then the corresponding difference across the layer A is
If a for steel is 12 × 10–6/ºC, then, that of glass is
(a) 10 K (b) 20 K
(a) 9 × 10–6/ºC (b) 6 × 10–6/ºC
(c) 30 K (d) 40 K
(c) 36 × 10–6/ºC (d) 27 × 10–6/ºC
34. The spectral energy distribution of the sun (temperature
26. A beaker contains 200 gm of water. The heat capacity of the
beaker is equal to that of 20 gm of water. The initial 6050 K) is maximum at 4753 Å. The temperature of a star for
temperatue of water in the beaker is 20ºC. If 440 gm of hot which this maximum is at 9506 Å is
water at 92ºC is poured in it, the final temperature, neglecting (a) 6050 K (b) 3025 K
radiation loss, will be nearest to (c) 12100 K (d) 24200 K
(a) 58ºC (b) 68ºC 35. Two bodies A and B are placed in an evacuated vessel
(c) 73ºC (d) 78ºC maintained at a temperature of 27ºC. The temperature of A is
27. Steam at 100ºC is passed into 1.1 kg of water contained in a 327ºC and that of B is 227ºC. The ratio of heat loss from A
calorimeter of water equivalent 0.02 kg at 15ºC till the and B is about
temperature of the calorimeter and its contents rises to
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
80ºC.The mass of the steam condensed in kg is
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
(a) 0.130 (b) 0.065
(c) 0.260 (d) 0.135 36. The thermal capacity of 40g of aluminium (specific heat =
0.2 cal g–1 °C–1) is
28. A body of mass 5 kg falls from a height of 20 metres on the
ground and it rebounds to a height of 0.2 m. If the loss in (a) 40 cal °C–1 (b) 160 cal °C–1
potential energy is used up by the body, then what will be the (c) 200 cal °C–1 (d) 8 cal °C–1
temperature rise? 37. Which of the following temperatures is the highest?
(specific heat of material = 0.09 cal gm–1 ºC–1)
(a) 100K (b) –13°F
(a) 0ºC (b) 4ºC
(c) –20°C (d) –23°C.
(c) 8ºC (d) None of these
38. 5 kg of water at 10°C is added to 10 kg of water at 40°C.
29. 80 g of water at 30ºC are poured on a large block of ice at 0ºC.
Neglecting heat capacity of vessel and other losses, the
The mass of ice that melts is
equilibrium temperature will be
(a) 1600 g (b) 30 g
(a) 30°C (b) 25°C
(c) 150 g (d) 80 g
(c) 35°C (d) 33°C
30. Ice starts forming in a lake with water at 0ºC when the
atomspheric temperature is –10ºC. If the time taken for the 39. A beaker contains 200 g of water. The heat capacity of beaker
first 1 cm of ice to be formed is 7 hours, then the time taken is equal to that 20 g of water. The initial temperature of water
for the thickness of ice to change from 1 cm to 2 cm is in the beaker is 20°C . If 440 g of hot water at 92°C is poured
(a) 7 hours (b) 14 hours in, the final temperature, neglecting radiation loss, will be
(c) 21 hours (d) 3.5 hours (a) 58°C (b) 68°C
31. Two identical rods of copper and iron are coated with wax (c) 73°C (d) 78°C
uniformly. When one end of each is kept at temperature of 40. The rectangular surface of area 8 cm × 4 cm of a black body
boiling water, the length upto which wax melts are 8.4 cm at temperature 127°C emits energy E per second. If the length
amd 4.2 cm, respectively. If thermal conductivity of copper
and breadth are reduced to half of the initial value and the
is 0.92, then thermal conductivity of iron is
temperature is raised to 327°C, the rate of emission of energy
(a) 0.23 (b) 0.46 becomes
(c) 0.115 (d) 0.69
3 81
32. Two vessels of different materials are similar in size in every (a) E (b) E
8 16
respect. The same quantity of ice filled in them gets melted
in 20 min and 35 min, respectivley. The ratio of coefficients 9 81
of thermal conduction of the metals is (c) E (d) E
16 64
294 PHYSICS
41. Two rods of same length and transfer a given amount of 46. A black body at 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 7 cals/
heat 12 second, when they are joined as shown in figure (i). cm2s. At a temperature of 727°C, the rate of heat radiated in
But when they are joined as shwon in figure (ii), then they the same units will be
will transfer same heat in same conditions in (a) 50 (b) 112 (c) 80 (d) 60
47. The top of an insulated cylindrical container is covered by
a disc having emissivity 0.6 and conductivity 0.167
WK–1m–1 and thickness 1 cm. The temperature is maintained
l by circulating oil as shown in figure. Find the radiation loss
Fig. (i) to the surrounding in Jm–2s–1 if temperature of the upper
surface of the disc is 27°C and temperature of the
surrounding is 27°C.
l l
Fig. (ii)
(a) 24 s (b) 13 s Oil out
(c) 15 s (d) 48 s
42. A slab consists of two parallel layers of copper and brass of
the same thickness and having thermal conductivities in Oil in
the ratio 1 : 4. If the free face of brass is at 100°C and that of
(a) 595 Jm–2s–1 (b) 545 Jm–2s–1
copper at 0°C, the temperature of interface is
(c) 495 Jm s –2 –1 (d) None of these
(a) 80°C (b) 20°C
48. Two marks on a glass rod 10 cm apart are found to increase
(c) 60°C (d) 40°C their distance by 0.08 mm when the rod is heated from 0°C to
43. 540 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 540 g of water at 80°C. The 100°C. A flask made of the same glass as that of rod measures
final temperature of mixture is a volume of 1000 cc at 0°C. The volume it measures at 100°C
(a) 0°C (b) 40°C in cc is
(c) 80°C (d) less than 0°C (a) 1002.4 (b) 1004.2
44. Three identical rods A, B and C of equal lengths and equal (c) 1006.4 (d) 1008.2
diameters are joined in series as shown in figure. Their DIRECTIONS for Qs. 49 to 50 : These are Assertion-Reason
thermal conductivities are 2k, k and k/2 respectively. The type questions. Each of these question contains two statements:
temperatures at two junction points are Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Answer
these questions from the following four options.
T1 T2
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
100°C A B C 0°C
correct explanation for Statement -1
2k k 0.5°C (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement -2 is True; Statement-2 is
(a) 85.7, 57.1°C (b) 80.85, 50.3°C NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1
(c) 77.3, 48.3°C (d) 75.8, 49.3°C (c) Statement-1 is True, Statement- 2 is False
45. Which one of the following graphs best represents the ways (d) Statement-1 is False, Statement -2 is True
in which the total power P radiated by a black body depends 49. Statement 1 : The equivalent thermal conductivity of two
upon the thermodynamic temperature T of the body? plates of same thickness in series is less than the smaller
value of thermal conductivity.
Statement 2 : For two plates of equal thickness in series the
P P
equivalent thermal conductivity is given by
1 1 1
= +
(a) (b) K K1 K 2
O T O T 50. Statement 1 : As the temperature of the black body
increases, the wavelength at which the spectral intensity
P P ( El ) is maximum decreases.
Statement 2 : The wavelength at which the spectral intensity
(c) (d) will be maximum for a black body is proportional to the fourth
O T O T power of its absolute temperature.
Thermal Properties of Matter 295
11. Two metal rods 1 and 2 of same lengths have same 17. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely.
temperature difference between their ends. Their thermal Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the
conductivities are K1 and K2 and cross sectional areas A1 ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its
and A2, respectively. If the rate of heat conduction in rod 1 fall. The value of h is : [2016]
is four times that in rod 2, then [NEET Kar. 2013] 5
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 10 J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]
(a) K1A1 = K2A2 (b) K1A1 = 4K2A2 (a) 34 km (b) 544 km
(c) K1A1 = 2K2A2 (d) 4K1A1 = K2A2 (c) 136 km (d) 68 km
12. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first 18. Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are
5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes. The temperature
a1 and a2. Lengths of brass and steel rods are l1 and l 2
of the surroundings is: [2014]
(a) 45°C (b) 20°C respectively. If (l 2 - l1 ) is maintained same at all
(c) 42°C (d) 10°C temperatures, which one of the following relations holds
good ? [2016]
13. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When
water acquires a temperature of 80°C, the mass of water (a) a1 l 22 =a2 l12 (b) a1 l 2 =a2 l1
present will be: [2014]
– 1 – 1
[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g °C and latent heat (c) a1 l 2 =a2 l1 (d) a1l1 = a 2l 2
of steam = 540 cal g– 1] 19. A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of
(a) 24 g (b) 31.5 g radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U1,
(c) 42.5 g (d) 22.5 g at wavelength 500 nm is U2 and that at 1000 nm is U3. Wien's
constant, b = 2.88 × 106 nmK. Which of the following is
14. On observing light from three different stars P, Q and R, it
correct ? [2016]
was found that intensity of violet colour is maximum in the
spectrum of P, the intensity of green colour is maximum in (a) U1 = 0 (b) U3 = 0
the spectrum of R and the intensity of red colour is maximum (c) U1 > U2 (d) U2 > U1
in the spectrum of Q. If TP, TQ and TR are the respective 20. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450
absolute temperature of P, Q and R, then it can be concluded watt power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and the
from the above observations that [2015] temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be :
(a) TP > TR > TQ (b) TP < TR < TQ (a) 450 (b) 1000 [2017]
(c) TP < TQ < TR (d) TP > TQ > TR (c) 1800 (d) 225
15. The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures 21. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded together
100°C and 110°C. The rate of heat flow in the rod is found to as shown in figure. Their thermal conductivities are K1 and
be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 200°C K2. The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be :
and 210°C, the rate of heat flow will be [2015]
(a) 16.8 J/s (b) 8.0 J/s [2017]
A K1
(c) 4.0 J/s (d) 44.0 J/s T1 T2
16. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is B K2
5 × 10-4 K-1. The fractional change in the density of glycerine
for a rise of 40°C in its temperature, is: [2015 RS]
d
(a) 0.020 (b) 0.025
(c) 0.010 (d) 0.015 3(K1 + K 2 )
(a) (b) K1 + K2
2
K1 + K 2
(c) 2 (K1 + K2) (d)
2
Thermal Properties of Matter 297
1
\ 5= a (T - 15 ) ´ 86400 F - 32 80
2 14. (c) =
9 5
1
and 10 = a (30 - T ) ´ 86400 F – 32 = 144 or F = 176ºF.
2 15. (d) Percentage change in volume = gt × 100
4. (a) F = Y a t A or F µ a
= 3at ´ 100 = 300at = 300 ´ 2 ´ 10 -5 ´ 200 = 1.2
(Q Y t A is same for both copper and iron) 16. (b)
or FC µ α C and FΙ µ α Ι 17. (c) According to Stefan's Boltzmann law, the energy
F 3/2 3 radiated per unit time E = sAT4.
\ C = = \ 5.67 × 104 = 5.67 × 10–8 × 1 × T4 (\ A = 1 m2)
FI 1 2
1/ 4
Δl æ 5.67 ´ 104 ö
5. (b) = α Δ T = 10 -5 ´ 100 = 10 -3 or, T = ç = 1000K
l ÷
è 5.67 ´ 10 –8 ø
Δl or , T = 1000 – 273 = 727°C.
´ 100% = 10 -3 ´ 100 = 10 - 1 = 0.1%
l 18. (a) When the temperature of cold junction is increased,
6. (a) Let m be the mass of steam condensed. Then the neutral temperature remains constant for a given
m × 540 + m × 10/2 = 22 × 70 thermocouple and it is independent of the temperature
\ m = 2.83 gm of the cold junction.
Now, total mass = 22 + 2.83 = 24.83 gm \ qn = 275°C, qi – qn = qn – qc
7. (d) Thermal resistance R =l/KA \ qi = 2qn – qc = 530°C.
Where l =20cm. & A(cylindrical rod) 19. (a) According to Newton's law of cooling,
=pr2 = 40pcm2
q1 - q 2 éq + q ù
20 cal = K ê 1 2 - q0 ú
So R = = 0.318 t ë 2 û
0.5 ´ 40p sec ´º C
where q0 is the surrounding temperature.
8. (c) According to Stefan’s Law, the rate of loss of heat is
60 - 40 æ 60 + 40 ö
Q \ = Kç - 10÷
= sA (T14 - T24 ) ´ e 7 è 2 ø
t
here s = 5.67 × 10–8J/m2 × sec.K2, 20 1
T1= 527+273 = 800K, Þ = 40K Þ K =
7 14
T2 = 27 + 273 = 300K & A = 200×10–4m2
40 - 28 é 40 + 28 ù 12
\ = Kê - 10ú Þ = 24K
So. Q = 5.67 ´ 10 -8 ´ 2 ´ 10 -2 t ë 2 û t
t
[(800)4 - (300)4 ] ´ 0.4 12 12 ´ 14
or t = = = 7 min
@ 182 joule 24K 24
9. (a) According to Stefan’s Law 20. (a) Let q be temperature of interface.
energy radiated per sec E = sAT4 K P A(100 - q) K Q A(q - 0)
(here e = 1 for black body) \ =
l l
for first case E = sA(273)4
for second case E1=sA(546)4 so E1=16E KP q 2 q
\ K = 100 - q Þ =
10. (b) According to Wein's displacement law, λm T = b. Q 3 100 - q
where b =2.884 × 10–3 mK. or, 200 – 2q = 3q or, 5q = 200 or, q = 40°C
21. (a) Let the final temperature of mixture be T.
So l m1 T1 = l m2 T2
Then 100 × 80 + 100 (T – 0) ×½
or 4800 × 6000 = l m 2 ´ 3000 or l m2 = 9600A° (as specific heat of ice is 0.5 cal/g C° and specific heat
of water is 1 cal/gC°)
11. (b) The time of cooling increases as the difference between = 100 × 1 × (100 – T)
the temperature of body & surrounding is reduced. So Solving, we get T = 13.33ºC.
T1 < T2 < T3 (according to Newton’s Law of cooling).
22. (a) g = a1 + a 2 + a 3
12. (c) 11.0 ´ 10 -5 T1 = 5.5 ´ 10 -5 T2
T1 1 = 13 ´ 10 - 7 + 231 ´ 10 - 7 + 231 ´ 10 - 7
=
T2 2 = 475 ´ 10 - 7
13. (c)
Thermal Properties of Matter 299
So, (γ app + γ vessel ) glass = (γ app + γ vessel ) steel E1 s (T14 - T04 ) (600 ) 4 - (300 ) 4
35. (a) = =
E 2 s( T24 - T04 ) (500 ) 4 - (300 ) 4
(Q g real is same in both cases)
36. (d) Thermal capacity = 40 × 0.2 = 8 cal °C –1
or 153 ´ 10 - 6 + (γ vessel ) glass 37. (b) –13°F is (13 + 32)° below ice point on F scale.
= 144 ´ 10 - 6 + ( g vessel ) steel 38 (a) Mass ratio 1 : 2; hence DT ratio 2 : 1. Therefore
equilibrium temp is 30°C.
Further (γ vessel ) steel 39. (b) Heat capacity of cold : hot =1 : 2
-6 -6
= 3a = 3 ´ (12 ´ 10 ) = 36 ´ 10 /ºC 1
So final temp. is × (2 × 92 + 1 × 20) = 68°C.
3
\ 153 ´ 10 - 6 + (γ vessel ) glass
3
40. (d) E = s ´ area ´ T 4 ; T increases by a factor .
= 144 ´ 10 - 6 + 36 ´ 10 - 6 2
1
Solving we get ( g vessel )glass = 27 ´ 10-6/ºC Area increases by a factor .
4
g glass l 2l
or a = = 9 ´ 10-6/ºC 41. (d) t µ , t ' µ
3 A A/2
26. (b) Let the final temperature be T. 42. (a) 4K (100 - q) = K(q - 0) Þ 400 - 4q = q
Then 200 × 1 × (T – 20) + 20 × (T – 20)
Þ q = 80°C
= 440 (92 – T)
Solving it, we get T = 68ºC. 43. (a) 540 × 80 + 540 q = 540 (80 – q)
Þ 80 + q = 80 - q Þ 2q = 0 Þ q = 0°
27. (a) mL + m(100 - 80)
44. (a)
= 1.1´ 1´ (80 – 15) + 0.02 ´ (80 - 15) 45. (c) The total power radiated by a black body of area A at
m ´ 540 + 20 m = 71.5 + 1.30 temperature TK is given by P = AsT4
Where s = Stefan's constant
560 m = 72.80 \ m = 0.130 = 5.7 × 10–8 W m–2 K–4
28. (d) W = W1 - W2 = mgh - mg h ¢ = mg (h - h ¢) Which is best represented in graph. (c)
1 1 1 2 K t A - (LEP) A t B - (LEP) B
= + = Þ KR = =
KR K K K 2 (UFP) A - (LFP) A (UFP) B - (LFP) B
Which is less than K. where , LFP - Lower fixed point, UFP - Upper fixed
If K1 > K 2 suppose K1 = K 2 + x point.
1 1 1 K + K1 (+A) B (+ B)
= + = 2 180
K K1 K 2 K1K 2 C
Temperature (°A)
1 K2 + K2 + x 2 DtA = 150°
Þ = Þ K = K 2 + K 2x
K (K 2 + x)K 2 2K 2 + x 90°–q
q
2
K + K2x O
Now, K 2 - K = K 2 - 2 30°
2K 2 + x DtB = 100°
2K 2 2 + K 2 x - K 2 2 - K 2 x K 22 O Temperature (°B) 100
= = = positive
( 2K 2 + x ) 2K 2 + x t A - 30 t -0
So, K2 > K, so the value of K is smaller than K2 and K1. So, = B
180 - 30 100 - 0
50. (c) From Wein's law lmT = constant i.e. peak emission
1 t A - 30 tB
wavelength lm µ . =
T 150 100
Hence as T increases lm decreases. 4. (a) As we know that, the Buoyant force (F) on a body
volume (V) and density of (r), when immersed in liquid
EXERCISE - 3
of density (rl) is = V ' rl g
Exemplar Questions
where V ' = volume of displaced liquid by dipped body
1. (d) If strips of aluminium and steel are fixed together on (V).
metallic strip and both are heated then (aAl > asteel) Let volume of the sphere is V and r is its density, then
aluminium will exapnd more because the metallic strip we can write buoyant force
with higher coefficient of linear expansion (aAl) will F = V rs G
expand more Thus it should have larger radius of
curvature. Hence, aluminium will be on convex side. F µ rl (for liquid)
Aluminium F4°C r4°C
= >1
F0°C r0°C
(Q r4°C > r0°C )
F4°C > F0°C
q Steel
Hence, buoyancy will be less in water at 0°C than that
in water at 4°C .
O
Thermal Properties of Matter 301
L m
T
Sphere Cube Plate
Pendulum As thickness of the plate is least so, surface area of the
So, Time period of pendulum plate is maximum.
We know that, according to Stefan's law of heat loss
L
T = 2p H µ AT 4
g where, A is surface area of object and T is temperature.
So, Hsphere : Hcube : Hplate
Tµ L = Asphere : Acube : Aplate
Hence on increasing temperature, time period (T) also So area of circular plate is maximum.
increases. For sphere, as the sphere is having minimum surface
6. (a) As we know that when the temperature increases area.
vibration of molecules about their mean position Hence, the sphere cools slowest and circular plate will
increases hence the kinetic energy associated with cool faster.
random motion of molecules increases.
Past Years (2013-2017) NEET/AIPMT Questions
7. (d) Let the radius of the sphere is R. As the temperature
increases radius of the sphere increases as shown. 9. (a) Wein’s displacement law
According to this law
1
lmax µ
T
or, lmax × T = constant
R So, as the temperature increases l decreases.
10. (b) From question,
dV Dr = (998 – 992) kg/m3 = 6 kg/m3
998 + 992
r= kg/m 3 = 995 kg/m3
4 3 2
Original volume V = pR m
3 r=
V
Coefficient of linear expansion = a
Coefficient of volume expansion = 3a Dr DV Dr DV
Þ =- Þ =
r V r V
DV
As we know that Y = \ Coefficient of volume expansion of water,
V Dt
By putting the value of V, increase in the volume 1 DV 1 Dr 6
= = » 3 ´10 -4 / °C
V Dt r Dt 995 ´ 20
Þ DV = 3V aDt = 4pR3aDt
11. (b) Q1 = 4Q2 (Given)
8. (c) Loss of heat temperature on cooling temperature
increase depend on material of object surface area K1 A1Dt K A Dt
exposed to surrounding and temperature difference Þ =4 2 2 Þ K1A1 = 4K2A2.
L L
between body and surrounding.
12. (a) Let the temperature of surroundings be q0
Let us consider the diagram where all the three objects
By Newton's law of cooling
are heated to same temperature T. As we know that
density q1 - q 2 é q + q2 ù
= kê 1 - q0 ú
mass t ë 2 û
r=
volume 70 - 60 é 70 + 60 ù
where r is same for all the three objects hence, volume Þ = kê - q0 ú
5 ë 2 û
will also be same.
Þ 2 = k [65 – q0] ...(i)
302 PHYSICS
60 - 54 é 60 + 54 ù 4L 4 ´ 3.4 ´105
Similarly, =kê - q0 ú Þ h= = = 136 km .
5 ë 2 û g 10
6 18. (d) From question, (l2 – l1) is maintained same at all
Þ = k [57 – q0] ...(ii) temperatures hence change in length for both rods
5
should be same
By dividing (i) by (ii) we have i.e., Dl1 = Dl2
10 65 - q0 As we know, coefficient of linear expansion,
= Þ q0 = 45º
6 57 - q0 Dl
a=
13. (d) According to the principle of calorimetry. l 0 DT
Heat lost = Heat gained l1a1DT = l2a2DT
mLv + mswDq = mwswDq l1a1 = l2a2
Þ m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 80) 19. (d) According to wein's displacement law, maximum amount
= 20 × 1 × (80 – 10) b
of emitted radiation corresponding to lm =
Þ m = 2.5 g T
Therefore total mass of water at 80°C 2.88 ´106 nmK
= (20 + 2.5) g = 22.5 g lm = = 500 nm
5760K
14. (a) From Wein’s displacement law
lm × T = constant U2
P – max. intensity is at violet U
Þ lm is minimum Þ temp maximum Emitted
(radiation) wave length K
R – max. intensity is at green 250 nm 1000 nm
Þ lm is moderate Þ temp moderate 500 nm
Q – max. intensity is at red Þ lm is maximum Þ temp. From the graph U1 < U2 > U3
minimum i.e., Tp > TR > TQ 20. (c) Given r1 = 12 cm , r2 = 6 cm
15. (c) As the temperature difference DT = 10°C as well as the T1 = 500 K and T2 = 2 × 500 = 1000 K
thermal resistance is same for both the cases, so thermal P1 = 450 watt
current or rate of heat flow will also be same for both Rate of power loss P µ r 2 T 4
the cases.
16. (a) From question, P1 r12 T14
=
Rise in temperature Dt = 40°C P2 r22 T24
Dr r22T2 4
Fractional change in the density =? P2 = P1
r0
r12T14
Coefficient of volume expansion Solving we get, P2 = 1800 watt
g = 5 × 10–4K–1 21. (d) Heat current H = H1 + H2
r = r0 (1 –gDt) K A(T1 - T2 ) K 2 A(T1 - T2 )
= 1 +
Dr d d
Þ = gDT = (5 × 10–4) (40) = 0.02
r0 K EQ 2A(T1 - T2 ) A(T1 - T2 )
= [K1 + K 2 ]
17. (c) According to question only one-quarter of the heat d d
produced by falling piece of ice is absorbed in the Hence equivalent thermal conductivities for two rods
melting of ice. k1 + k 2
of equal area is given by K EQ =
mgh 2
i.e., = mL
4
12 Thermodynamics
THERMAL EQUILIBRIUM AND ZEROTH LAW OF (c) Internal energy : The internal energy of a gas is sum of
THERMODYNAMICS internal energy due to moleculer motion (called internal
Thermal Equilibrium kinetic energy UK) and internal energy due to molecular
Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium with each other configuration (called internal potential energy UP.E.)
if they have the same temperature.
i.e., U = UK + UP.E. ……(1)
Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
If objects A and B are separately in thermal equilibrium with a (i) In ideal gas, as there is no intermolecular attraction,
third object C then objects A and B are in thermal equilibrium hence
with each other. 3n
FIRST LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS U = UK = RT ……(2)
First law of thermodynamics gives a relationship between 2
heat, work and internal energy. (for n mole of ideal gas)
(a) Heat : It is the energy which is transferred from a system to (ii) Internal energy is path independent i.e., point function.
surrounding or vice-versa due to temperature difference (iii) In cyclic process, there is no change in internal energy
between system and surroundings. (shown in fig.)
(i) It is a macroscopic quantity. i.e., dU = Uf – Ui = 0
(ii) It is path dependent i.e., it is not point function.
Þ Uf = Ui
(iii) If system liberates heat, then by sign convention it is
taken negative, If system absorbs heat, it is positive.
(b) Work : It is the energy that is transmitted from one system
to another by a force moving its points of application. The
expression of work done on a gas or by a gas is
V2
W = ò dW = ò PdV
V1
(ii) In cyclic process heat given to the system is equal to work For ideal gas, dQ = 0
done (area of cycle). dU = mCVdT (for any process)
(iii) In isothermal process temperature T is constant and work
V2 V2 K
done is dW = òV1
PdV = ò
V1 Vg
dV
V2 V2
dW = òV1
PdV = nRT Log e
V1
(where PVg = K = constant)
T = constant
Graphs of thermodynamic processes : 4. For isochoric process, the P–V, V–T and P–T graphs :
1. In the figure (i) P–V graph the process ab is isothermal, bc
is isobaric and ca is isochoric. 2 2
P
T
P a 1 1
V V
c b
2
P
V
Fig (i)
1
P T
c b
V
T
Fig.(ii)
T
2. Figure below shows P – V diagrams for two processes. 6. For isothermal process, the P – V, V – T and P – T graphs :
P V
P I
II V T
c o mp re s s io n
T1
Ad ia b a tic
A heat engine is a device which converts heat energy into
expa n s io n
Adia b a tic
mechanical energy. B
P D
T2
Hot Q1 Q2 Cold
Working Isothermal C
Reservoir Reservoir Q2
Substance compression
T1 T2 V1 V2
V
Efficiency of Carnot engine,
æV ö æV ö
µRT1 In ç 2 ÷ + µRT2 In ç 4 ÷
W è V1 ø è V3 ø
Work (W) = Q1 – Q2 h= =
Q1 æV ö
µRT1 In ç 2 ÷
Efficiency of heat engine is given by è V1 ø
The points B and C are connected by an adiabatic path as
Work done (W ) are the points D and A. Hence, using this eqn. and the
Efficiency η =
Heat taken from source (T1 ) adiabatic gas eqn.
Q2 T
T1V2(g – 1) = T2 V3(g – 1) and T1V1(g – 1) = T2 V4(g – 1).
= 1- = 1- 2 V2 V3
Q1 T1 Combination of the above eqns. gives V = V , and,
1 4
where Q2 = amount of heat rejected per cycle to the sink T1 - T2 Q1 - Q2
(of temp T2) h= =
T1 Q1
Q1 = amount of heat energy absorbed per cycle from the source
Q2 T2
(of temp T1). or, h = 1 - Q = 1 - T .
The efficiency of heat engine h is never greater than unity, 1 1
h =1 only for ideal engine & for practical heat engine h < 1. The percentage efficiency of Carnot’s engine,
T -T Q - Q2
REFRIGERATOR AND HEAT PUMP : h = 1 2 ´ 100% or, h = 1 ´ 100%
T1 Q1
Refrigerator or heat pump is a heat engine running in backward
The efficiency of a Carnot engine is never 100% because it
direction i.e. working substance (a gas) takes heat from a cold
is 100% only if temperature of sink T2 = 0 which is impossible.
body and gives out to a hotter body with the use of external
Q T Q Q
energy i.e. electrical energy. A heat pump is the same as a In a Carnot cycle, 2 = 2 or 1 = 2 .
refrigerator. Q1 T1 T1 T2
Thermodynamics 307
w2 Q 2 T2
DS = K log e As = ;
w1 is the microscopic form of entropy, where Q1 T1
Example 4. Example 6.
When a system is taken from state a to state b, in fig. along A Carnot engine working between 300 K and 600 K has a
the path a ® c ® b, 60 J of heat flow into the system, and work output of 800 J per cycle. What is the amount of heat
30 J of work are done : energy supplied to the engine from source per cycle?
(i) How much heat flows into the system along the path Solution :
a ® d ® b if the work is 10 J. W = 800 J, T1 = 600 K, T2 = 300 K
(ii) When the system is returned from b to a along the
curved path, the work done by the system is –20 J. T1 W 300 800 800
\ h=1– = =1- = or 0.5 =
Does the system absorb or liberate heat, and how T2 Q1 600 Q1 Q1
much?
Heat energy supplied by source,
(iii) If, Ua = 0 and Ud = 22 J, find the heat absorbed in the
process a ® d and d ® b. 800
Q= = 1600 joule per cycle
0.5
P Example 7.
c b
The temperatures T1 and T2 of the two heat reservoirs in
an ideal Carnot engine are 1500°C and 500°C respectively.
Which of the following : increasing T1 by 100°C or
decreasing T 2 by 100°C would result in a greater
a d
improvement in the efficiency of the engine?
Solution :
V
T2
Solution : The efficiency of a Carnot's engine is given by h = 1 -
T1
For the path a ® c ® b
dU = dQ – dW = 60 – 30 = 30 J or Ub – Ua = 30 J Given T1 = 1500°C = 1500 + 273 = 1773 K and
T2 = 500°C = 500 + 273 = 773 K.
(i) Along the path a ® d ® b
When the temperature of the source is increased by 100°C,
dQ = dU + dW = 30 + 10 = 40 J
keeping T2 unchanged, the new temperature of the source
(ii) Along the curved path b – a is
dQ = (Ua – Ub) + W = (–30) + (–20) = –50 J, T´1 = 1500 + 100 = 1600°C = 1873 K. The efficiency becomes
heat flows out the system
T2 773
(iii) Qad = 32 J; Qdb = 8 J h´= 1 - = 1- = 0.59
T´1 1873
Example 5.
Two samples of a gas initially at same temperature and On the other hand, if the temperature of the sink is decreased
pressure are compressed from a volume V to V/2. One sample by 100°C, keeping T1 unchanged, the new temperature of
is compressed isothermally and the other adiabatically. In the sink is T´2 = 500 – 100 = 400°C = 673 K. The efficiency
which sample is the pressure greater? now becomes
Solution :
T´2 673
Let initial volume, V1 = V and final volume, V2 = V/2 h´´= 1 - = 1- = 0.62
T1 1773
Initial pressure, P1 = P ; final pressure, P2 = ?
For isothermal compression Since h´´ is greater than h´, decreasing the temperature of
the sink by 100°C results in a greater efficiency than
P1V1 PV increasing the temperature of the source by 100°C.
P2V2 = P1V1 or P2 = = = 2P
V2 V/2 Example 8.
Calculate the work done when 1 mole of a perfect gas is
For adiabatic compression
compressed adiabatically. The initial pressure and volume
g g of the gas are 105 N/m2 and 6 litre respectively. The final
æV ö æ V ö
P2' V2g = P1V1g or P2' = P1 ç 1 ÷ = P ç volume of the gas is 2 litres. Molar specific heat of the gas
è V2 ø è V / 2 ÷ø
at constant volume is 3R/2. [(3)5/3 = 6.19]
or P2´ = 2gP Solution :
Since g > 1 \ 2g > 2 \ P2' > P2 For an adiabatic change PVg = constant
Pressure during adiabatic compression is greater than the P1V1g = P2V2g
pressure during isothermal compression.
Thermodynamics 309
3 P0
Cv = R
2
(a) P0 (b)
3 5
CP = CV + R = R + R = R ; V0/2 V0 V V0/2 V0 V
2 2 2V0 2V0
CP (5 / 2) R 5 P V
g= = =
CV (3 / 2) R 3 V0
P0
é 2 ´ 102 ´ 3 ù P
= -ê (6.19 - 3) ú
ëê 2 ûú A
P0
= – 3 × 102 × 3.19 = – 957 joule C
P0/2 B
[–ve sign shows external work done on the gas]
Example 9.
T0/4 T0
A refrigerator is to maintain eatables kept inside at 90C. If
room temperature is 360C, calculate the coefficient of Example 11.
performance. A Carnot’s heat engine works with an ideal monatomic
gas, and an adiabatic expansion ratio 2. Determine its
Solution :
efficiency.
Here, T1 = 36°C = 36 + 273 = 309 K, Solution :
T2 = 10°C = 10 + 273 = 283 K V3
Given, r = V = 2 and g for a monatomic gas = 5/3.
T2 283 283 2
COP = = = = 10.9
T1 - T2 309 - 283 26 g -1
æ 1ö
Example 10. Using, h = 1 - ç ÷
è rø
One mole of an ideal gas at pressure P0 and temperature
we have, the required efficiency
T0 is expanded isothermally to twice its volume and then
5
compressed at constant pressure to (V0/2) and the gas is -1
æ 1ö 3
brought back to original state by a process in which P µ V h = 1- ç ÷ = 1 - 0.63 = 0.37 or 37%
è 2ø
(Pressure is directly proportional to volume). The correct
representation of process is
310 PHYSICS
Thermodynamics 311
1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding first law of 10. One mole of an ideal gas at temperature T was cooled
thermodynamics? P
(a) It is a restatement of principle of conservation of isochorically till the gas pressure fell from P to . Then,
n
energy. by an isobaric process, the gas was restored to the initial
(b) It is applicable to cyclic processes temperature. The net amount of heat absorbed by the gas
(c) It introduces the concept of entropy in the process is
(d) It introduces the concept of internal energy RT
2. Choose the incorrect statement related to an isobaric (a) nRT (b)
n
process.
(c) RT (1 – n–1) (d) RT (n – 1)
V 11. Ice contained in a beaker starts melting when
(a) = constant
T (a) the specific heat of the system is zero
(b) W = PDV (b) internal energy of the system remains constant
(c) Heat given to a system is used up in raising the (c) temperature remains constant
temperature only. (d) entropy remains constant
(d) DQ > W 12. A uniform sphere is supplied heat electrically at the centre
3. The internal energy of an ideal gas does not depend upon at a constant rate. In the steady state, steady temperatures
(a) temperature of the gas are established at all radial locations r, heat flows outwards
(b) pressure of the gas radial and is ultimately radiated out by the outer surface
isotropically. In this steady state, the temperature gradient
(c) atomicity of the gas
varies with radial distance r according to
(d) number of moles of the gas.
(a) r–1 (b) r–2
4. During isothermal expansion, the slope of P-V graph –3
(c) r (d) r–3/2
(a) decreases (b) increases
13. For an ideal gas graph is shown for three processes. Process
(c) remains same (d) may increase or decrease 1, 2 and 3 are respectively.
5. During melting of ice, its entropy
(a) increases (b) decreases Work done (magnitude)
(c) remains same (d) cannot say
6. Which of the following processes is adiabatic ? 3
(a) Melting of ice 2
(b) Bursting of tyre
(c) Motion of piston of an engine with constant speed 1
DT
(d) None of these Temperature change
7. At a given temperature the internal energy of a substance
(a) in liquid state is equal to that in gaseous state. (a) Isobaric, adiabatic, isochoric
(b) in liquid state is less than that in gaseous state. (b) Adiabatic, isobaric, isochoric
(c) in liquid state is more than that in gaseous state. (c) Isochoric, adiabatic, isobaric
(d) is equal for the three states of matter. (d) Isochoric, isobaric, adiabatic
8. Air conditioner is based on the principle of 14. The efficiency of carnot engine when source temperature
(a) Carnot cycle is T1 and sink temperature is T2 will be
(b) refrigerator T1 - T2 T2 - T1
(c) first low of thermodynamics (a) (b)
T1 T2
(d) None of these
T1 - T2 T1
9. A mass of ideal gas at pressure P is expanded isothermally (c) (d)
T2 T2
to four times the original volume and then slowly
compressed adiabatically to its original volume. Assuming 15. In the equation PVg = constant, the value of g is unity. Then
g to be 1.5, the new pressure of the gas is the process is
(a) 2 P (b) P (a) isothermal (b) adiabatic
(c) 4 P (d) P/2 (c) isobaric (d) irreversible
312 PHYSICS
16. For adiabatic processes (Letters have usual meanings) (a) D Q = D U + DW (b) DQ = DU - DW
(a) PgV = constant (b) TgV = constant
(c) DQ = DW - DU (d) DQ = – DW - DU
(c) TVg–1 = constant (d) TVg = constant
22. The work done in which of the following processes is equal
PV to the internal energy of the system?
17. The gas law = constant is true for
T (a) Adiabatic process (b) Isothermal process
(a) isothermal changes only (c) Isochoric process (d) None of these
(b) adiabatic changes only 23. Which of the following processes is reversible?
(c) both isothermal and adiabatic changes (a) Transfer of heat by conduction
(d) neither isothermal nor adiabatic change (b) Transfer of heat by radiation
18. When heat is given to a gas in an isothermal change, the (c) Isothermal compression
result will be (d) Electrical heating of a nichrome wire
(a) external work done 24. In thermodynamic processes which of the following
(b) rise in temperature statements is not true?
(c) increase in internal energy (a) In an isochoric process pressure remains constant
(d) external work done and also rise in temperature (b) In an isothermal process the temperature remains
19. Volume of one mole gas changes according to the V = a/T. constant
If temperature change is DT, then work done will be (c) In an adiabatic process PVg = constant
(a) RDT (b) – RDT
(d) In an adiabatic process the system is insulated from
R the surroundings
(c) DT (d) R (g – 1) DT
g -1 25. Monatomic, diatomic and polyatomic ideal gases each
20. In changing the state of thermodynamics from A to B state, undergo slow adiabatic expansions from the same initial
the heat required is Q and the work done by the system is volume and same initial pressure to the same final volume.
W. The change in its internal energy is The magnitude of the work done by the environment on
(a) Q + W (b) Q – W the gas is
Q -W (a) the greatest for the polyatomic gas
(c) Q (d) (b) the greatest for the monatomic gas
2
21. If DQ and DW represent the heat supplied to the system (c) the greatest for the diatomic gas
and the work done on the system respectively, then the (d) the question is irrelevant, there is no meaning of slow
first law of thermodynamics can be written as adiabatic expansion
1. A gas at 27ºC and pressure of 30 atm. is allowed to expand to (a) 7.5 × 105 joule (b) 7.5 × 105 erg
atmospheric pressure and volume 15 times larger. The final (c) 12 × 105 joule (d) 6 × 105 joule
temperature of the gas is
(a) – 123ºC (b) +123ºC 3. A refrigerator works between 0ºC and 27ºC. Heat is to be
(c) 273ºC (d) 373ºC removed from the refrigerated space at the rate of 50 kcal/
2. A system changes from the state (P1, V1) to (P2, V2) as minute, the power of the motor of the refrigerator is
shown in the figure. What is the work done by the system? (a) 0.346 kW (b) 3.46 kW
(c) 34.6 kW (d) 346 kW
5
6×105 (P2, V2) 4. A perfect gas goes from a state A to another state B by
2
5×105
Pressure in N/m
5. The temperature of 5 moles of a gas which was held at 15. The temperature at which speed of sound in air becomes
constant volume was changed from 100º to 120ºC. The double of its value at 27° C is
change in the internal energy of the gas was found to be 80 (a) 54°C (b) 327°C
joule, the total heat capacity of the gas at constant volume (c) 927°C (d) None of these
will be equal to 16. 1 gm of water at a pressure of 1.01 × 105 Pa is converted into
(a) 8 joule per K (b) 0.8 joule per K steam without any change of temperature. The volume of 1
(c) 4.0 joule per K (d) 0.4 joule per K g of steam is 1671 cc and the latent heat of evaporation is
540 cal. The change in internal energy due to evaporation
6. A polyatomic gas (g = 4/3) is compressed to 1/8th of its
of 1 gm of water is
volume adiabatically. If its initial pressure is P0, its new
(a) » 167 cal (b) » 500 cal
pressure will be
(c) 540 cal (d) 581 cal
(a) 8P0 (b) 16P0 17. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature of 13ºC.
(c) 6P0 (d) 2P0 The coefficient of performance of the engine is 5. The
7. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with reservoir temperature of the air (to which heat is rejected) is
temperatures of 100ºC and –23ºC will be (a) 320ºC (b) 39ºC
(c) 325 K (d) 325ºC
100 + 23 100 - 23
(a) (b) 18. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at a constant
100 100 pressure of one atmosphere from 0ºC to 100ºC. Then the
work done by the gas is
100 + 23 100 - 23
(c) (d) (a) 6.56 joule (b) 8.32 × 102 joule
373 373 2
(c) 12.48 × 10 joule (d) 20.8 × 102 joule
8. By what percentage should the pressure of a given mass of 19. The pressure inside a tyre is 4 times that of atmosphere. If the
a gas be increased so as to decrease its volume by 10% at tyre bursts suddenly at temperature 300 K, what will be the
a constant temperature? new temperature?
(a) 8.1 % (b) 9.1 % (a) 300 (4)7/2 (b) 300 (4)2/7
(c) 300 (2) 7/2 (d) 300 (4)–2/7
(c) 10.1 % (d) 11.1 %
9. A gas has pressure P and volume V. It is now compressed 20. A monatomic ideal gas expands at constant pressure, with
heat Q supplied. The fraction of Q which goes as work
adiabatically to 1/32 times the original volume. Given that
done by the gas is
(32)1.4 = 128, the final pressure is (g = 1.4)
(a) P/128 (b) P/32 2
(a) 1 (b)
(c) 32 P (d) 128 P 3
10. At 27ºC a gas is compressed suddenly such that its pressure 3 2
(c) (d)
becomes (1/8) of original pressure. Final temperature will 5 5
be (g = 5/3) 21. A carnot’s engine takes 300 calories of heat at 500 K and
rejects 150 calories of heat to the sink. The temperature of
(a) 450 K (b) 300 K
the sink is
(c) –142ºC (d) 327ºC (a) 1000 K (b) 750 K
11. A diatomic gas initally at 18ºC is compressed adiabatically (c) 250 K (d) 125 K
to one eighth of its original volume. The temperature after 22. The source and sink temperatures of a Carnot engine are
compression will be 400 K and 300 K, respectively. What is its efficiency?
(a) 18ºC (b) 887ºC (a) 100% (b) 75%
(c) 327ºC (d) None of these (c) 33.3% (d) 25%
12. Absolute zero is obtained from 23. The volume of a gas is reduced adiabatically to 1/4 of its
volume at 27ºC. If g = 1.4 the new temperature is
1 graph
(a) P–V graph (b) P- (a) (300) 20.4 K (b) (300) 21.4 K
V (c) 300 (4) K0.4 (d) 300 (2)1.4 K
(c) P–T graph (d) V–T graph 24. In pressure-volume diagram, the isochoric, isothermal,
13. An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between isobaric and iso-entropic parts respectively, are
227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 × 104 cals of heat at higher
A B
temperature. Amount of heat converted to work is
(a) 4.8 × 104 cal (b) 6 × 104 cal
(c) 2.4 × 104 cal (d) 1.2 × 104 cal C
14. Three moles of an ideal gas kept at a constant temperature P
D
at 300 K are compressed from a volume of 4 litre to 1 litre.
The work done in the process is
V
(a) – 10368 J (b) –110368 J (a) BA, AD, DC,CB (b) DC, CB, BA, AD
(c) 12000 J (d) 120368 J (c) AB, BC, CD, DA (d) CD, DA, AB, BC
314 PHYSICS
25. Two cylinders fitted with pistons contain equal amount of 33. Figure shows the variation of internal energy (U) with the
an ideal diatomic gas at 300 K. The piston of A is free to pressure (P) of 2.0 mole gas in cyclic process abcda. The
move, while that of B is held fixed. The same amount of heat temperature of gas at c and d are 300 K and 500 K. Calculate
is given to the gas in each cylinder. If the rise in temperature the heat absorbed by the gas during the process.
of the gas in A is 30 K, then the rise in temperature of gas in
B is U
(a) 30 K (b) 18 K a d
(c) 50 K (d) 42 K
26. A Carnot engine works first between 200°C and 0°C and
then between 0°C and –200°C. The ratio of its efficiency in
b c
the two cases is
(a) 1.0 (b) 0.577
P
(c) 0.34 (d) 0.68 P0 2P0
27. A Carnot’s engine works as a refrigerator between 250 K
and 300 K. If it receives 750 calories of heat from the reservoir (a) 400 R ln 2 (b) 200 R ln 2
at the lower temperature, the amount of heat rejected at the (c) 100 R ln 2 (d) 300 R ln 2
higher temperature is 34. The figure shows the P-V plot of an ideal gas taken through
(a) 900 calories (b) 625 calories a cycle ABCDA. The part ABC is a semi-circle and CDA is
(c) 750 calories (d) 1000 calories half of an ellipse. Then,
28. A Carnot engine is working between 127°C and 27°C. The
increase in efficiency will be maximum when the temperature
P A
of 3
(a) the source is increased by 50°C
(b) the sink is decreased by 50°C
2D
(c) source is increased by 25°C and that of sink is B
decreased by 25°C
1
(d) both source and sink are decreased by 25°C each. C
29. During an adiabatic process an object does 100J of work
0
and its temperature decreases by 5K. During another 1 2 3 V
process it does 25J of work and its temperature decreases
by 5K. Its heat capacity for 2nd process is (a) the process during the path A ® B is isothermal
(a) 20 J/K (b) 24 J/K (b) heat flows out of the gas during the path B ® C ® D
(c) 15 J/K (d) 100 J/K
(c) work done during the path A ® B ® C is zero
30. The internal energy change in a system that has absorbed
(d) positive work is done by the gas in the cycle ABCDA
2 kcals of heat and done 500 J of work is
35. A thermodynamic system goes from states (i) P1, V to 2P1,
(a) 6400 J (b) 5400 J
V (ii) P, V1 to P, 2V1. Then work done in the two cases is
(c) 7900 J (d) 8900 J
(a) zero, zero (b) zero, PV1
2
31. In an adiabatic process, the pressure is increased by %. (c) PV1, zero (d) PV1, P1V1
3
36. For an isothermal expansion of a perfect gas, the value of
3
If g = , then the volume decreases by nearly DP
2 is equal to
P
4 2
(a) % (b) %
9 3 DV DV
(a) – g1/ 2 (b) –
9 V V
(c) 1% (d) %
4
DV DV
32. A closed gas cylinder is divided into two parts by a piston (c) –g (d) – g2
held tight. The pressure and volume of gas in two parts V V
respectively are (P, 5V) and (10P, V). If now the piston is left 37. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K
free and the system undergoes isothermal process, then does 6R joules of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific
the volumes of the gas in two parts respectively are heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant
(a) 2V, 4V (b) 3V, 3V volume is 5/3, the final temperature of gas will be
10 20 (a) (T – 4) K (b) (T + 2.4) K
(c) 5V, V (d) V, V
11 11 (c) (T – 2.4) K (d) (T + 4) K
Thermodynamics 315
38. If DU and DW represent the increase in internal energy If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat a absorbed by the gas along
and work done by the system respectively in a the three processes and DU1, DU2, DU3 indicate the change
thermodynamical process, which of the following is true? in internal energy along the three processes respectively,
then
(a) DU = - DW , in an adiabatic process
(a) Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and DU1 = DU2 = DU3
(b) DU = DW , in an isothermal process (b) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and DU1= DU2 = DU3
(c) DU =DW , in an adiabatic process (c) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and DU1 > DU2 > DU3
(d) DU = - DW , in an isothermal process (d) Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and DU1> DU2 > DU3
39. During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does 44. Choose the correct relation between efficiency h of a
–150 J of work against its surroundings. This implies that Carnot engine and the heat absorbed (q1) and released
(a) 150 J heat has been removed from the gas by the working substance (q2).
(b) 300 J of heat has been added to the gas q2 q1
(c) no heat is transferred because the process is isothermal (a) h = 1 + (b) h = 1 +
q1 q2
(d) 150 J of heat has been added to the gas
40. When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0°C, the
q1 q2
resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat of ice to (c) h = 1 - (d) h = 1-
be 80 cal/°C, is q2 q1
(a) 273 cal/K (b) 8 × 104 cal/K 45. In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between
(c) 80 cal/K (d) 293 cal/K pressure P1 and P2 ?
41. A mass of diatomic gas (g = 1.4) at a pressure of 2
atmospheres is compressed adiabatically so that its V
temperature rises from 27°C to 927°C. The pressure of the
gas in final state is P2
(a) 28 atm (b) 68.7 atm P1
(c) 256 atm (d) 8 atm
42. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle ABCD q2
as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas during the q1
cycle is T
p II
P A B
V 3V A B
Volume I
(a) 2 PV (b) 4 PV v
1 (a) relation between DU1 and DU2 can not be determined
(c) PV (d) P V
2 (b) DU1 = DU2
43. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different (c) DU1 < DU2
processes as indicated in the P-V diagram :
(d) DU1 > DU2
47. Which of the following statements about a thermodynamic
process is wrong ?
A 1
P 2 (a) For an adiabatic process DEint = – W
3 B (b) For a constant volume process DEint = + Q
(c) For a cyclic process DEint = 0
(d) For free expansion of a gas DEint > 0
V
316 PHYSICS
48. In a Carnot engine efficiency is 40% at hot reservoir (b) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
temperature T. For efficiency 50%, what will be the correct explanation for Statement-1
temperature of hot reservoir? (c) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
a correct explanation for Statement-1
2 (d) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(a) T (b) T
3 49. Statement-1 : At a given temperature the specific heat of a
gas at constant volume is always greater than its specific
4 6 heat at constant pressure.
(c) T (d) T
5 5 Statement-2 : When a gas is heated at constant volume
some extra heat is needed compared to that at constant
Directions for Qs. (49 to 50) : Each question contains
pressure for doing work in expansion.
STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
(ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following. 50. Statement -1 : If an ideal gas expands in vacuum in an
insulated chamber, DQ, DU and DW all are zero.
(a) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true Statement-2 : Temperature of the gas remains constant.
Exemplar Questions T T
1. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the
same initial state (figure). Four processes are adiabatic, 2 1 1 2
isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. Out of 1, 2, 3 and 4 which
(iii) (iv)
one is adiabatic?
p p
4
(a) (iv) (b) (ii)
p 3 (c) (iii) (d) (i)
2 4. An ideal gas undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown
1 in given p-V diagram. The amount of work done by the gas
is
V
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1 p
2. If an average person jogs, he produces 14.5 × 103 cal/min. D C
2p0
This is removed by the evaporation of sweat. The amount
of sweat evaporated per minute (assuming 1 kg requires p0
580 × 103 cal for evaporation) is A B
(a) 0.025 kg (b) 2.25 kg
(c) 0.05 kg (d) 0.20 kg V
V0 3V0
3. Consider p-V diagram for an ideal gas shown in figure.
p 1
(a) 6p0V0 (b) –2p0 V0
p=
constant (c) +2p0V0 (d) +4p0V0
V
5. Consider two containers A and B containing identical gases
2 at the same pressure, volume and temperature. The gas in
V container A is compressed to half of its original volume
Out of the following diagrams, which figure represents the isothermally while the gas in container B is compressed to
T-p diagram? half of its original value adiabatically. The ratio of final
T T pressure of gas in B to that of gas in A is
2 2
g-1
g-1
æ1ö
(a) 2 (b) ç ÷
è2ø
(i) 1 (ii) 1
2 2
æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
p p (c) ç ÷ (d) ç ÷
è 1- g ø è g -1 ø
Thermodynamics 317
2×104 Pa
p A
a b
–
2 × 10 3 m3 4 × 10–3 m3
V V
318 PHYSICS
In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system and in (c) Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will
process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat require the same amount of work.
absorbed by the system in the process AC will be [2015] (d) Which of the case (whether compression through
(a) 500 J (b) 460 J isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more
(c) 300 J (d) 380 J work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
1 19. A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to
15. A carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat engine, remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep
10
the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The
is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is
power required is: (Take 1 cal = 4.2 joules) [2016]
10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at
lower temperature is :- [ 2015, 2017] (a) 2.365 W (b) 23.65 W
(a) 90 J (b) 99 J (c) 236.5 W (d) 2365 W
(c) 100 J (d) 1 J 20. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following
diagram : [2017]
16. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the
P
inside temperature of freezer is –20°C, then the temperature
of the surroundings to which it rejects heat is [2015 RS] IV
i f
(a) 41°C (b) 11°C I III
II f
(c) 21°C (d) 31°C f 700k
f 500k
17. An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by 300k V
means of several processes. Which of the process results Match the following
in the maximum work done on the gas? [2015 RS] Column-1 Column-2
(a) Isobaric (b) Isochoric P. Process I A. Adiabatic
(c) Isothermal (d) Adiabatic Q. Process II B. Isobaric
R. Process III C. Isochoric
18. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume.
The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic S. Process IV D. Isothermal
process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then : (a) P ® C, Q ® A, R ® D, S ® B
[2016] (b) P ® C, Q ® D, R ® B, S ® A
(c) P ® D, Q ® B, R ® A, S ® C
(a) Compressing the gas isothermally will require more
work to be done. (d) P ® A, Q ® C, R ® D, S ® B
(b) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will
require more work to be done.
Thermodynamics 319
273 50,000 TL W
= \ 1- =
300 - 273 W TH QS
27 ´ 50, 000 æ T ö
W= cal/min
273 Þ W = QS ç1 - L ÷
è TH ø
W 4.2 ´ 27 ´ 50, 000
P= = Joule/sec
t 60 ´ 273 æ 127 + 273ö
= 6 ´ 104 ç1 -
= 346 watt = 0.346 kW è 227 + 273÷ø
4. (d) dU = dQ - dW = (8 ´ 10 5 - 6.5 ´ 10 5 ) = 1.5 ´105 J = 1.2 ´ 104 cal
14. (a) Work done in an isothermal process is given by
dW = dQ - dU == 10 5 - 1.5 ´ 10 5 = - 0.5 ´ 10 J
5
L T or T1 - 260 = 52
13. (d) We know that efficiency of carnot engine = I - T
H
T1 = 312 K,
Work output
Also, Efficiency of Heat engine = T2 = 312 - 273 = 39º C
Heat input
Thermodynamics 321
5R W 2 200
=
For monatomic gas, C p = . Þ = 473
2 Q 5
Q2 T Q T h 200 273
21. (c) h = 1- = 1- 2 Þ 2 = 2
Q1 T1 Q1 T1 = ´
h ' 473 200
Q 2 ´ T1 150 ´ 500 = 0.577
So T2 = = = 250K
Q1 300
750 250
27. (a) =
T W 300 - 250
22. (d) Efficiency, η = 1 – 2
T1 Heat rejected = 750 + 150 = 900 cal.
T1 (source temp.) = 400 K T1 - T2
T2 (sink temp.) = 300 K 28. (b) T1
is maximum in case (b).
300 1 29. (c) For adiabatic process, dU = – 100 J
\h=1 – = = 25%
400 4 which remains same for other processes also.
(1.4 -1) Let C be the heat capacity of 2nd process then
æVö
23. (c) (300) V (1.4-1) = T2 . ç ÷ – (C) 5 = dU + dW
è4ø
= – 100 + 25 = – 75
T2 = (300 ) ( 4) 0.4 \ C = 15 J/K
24. (d) From C to D, V is constant. So process is isochoric. 30. (c) According to first law of thermodynamics
From D to A, the curve represents constant Q = DU + W
temperature. So the process is isothermal. DU = Q – W
From A to B, pressure is constant . So, the process is = 2 × 4.2 × 1000 – 500
isobaric. = 8400 –500 = 7900 J
BC represents constant entropy. 31. (a) PV3/2 = K
322 PHYSICS
43. (a) Initial and final condition is same for all process EXERCISE - 3
DU1 = DU2 = DU3
Exemplar Questions
from first law of thermodynamics
DQ = DU + DW 1. (c) For the straight line in the graph denoted by 4, that
Work done shows pressure is constant, so curve 4 represents an
DW1 > DW2 > DW3 (Area of P.V. graph) isobaric process.
So DQ1 > DQ2 > DQ3
W
44. (d) Efficiency h = and W = q1 – q2 4
q1
p 3
q – q2 q
\ h= 1 = 1- 2 2
q1 q1 1
V
45. (b) P1 > P2
For the straight line in graph denoted by 1, that shows
P2 volume is constant, so curve 1 represents isochoric
process. Out of curves 3 and 2, curve 2 is steeper.
P1 Hence, curve 2 is adiabatic and curve 3 is isothermal.
V
2. (a) As we know that amount of sweat evaporated/minute
q2 Sweat produced/ minute
=
q1 T Number of calories required for evaporation/kg
1 5/3
= × 5 × 10–3 × 4 × 105 = 1000 J 3 æ 1ö P
2 Þ P3 = ç ÷ =
2 è 8ø 64
Thermodynamics 325
1
15. (a) Given, efficiency of engine, h =
10 V
work done on system W = 10J
Coefficient of performance of refrigerator 18. (b) Wext = negative of area with volume-axis
W(adiabatic) > W(isothermal)
1 9
1-
Q 1- h 10 = 10 P
b= 2 = =
W h 1 1 =9
10 10 Adiabatic
13 Kinetic Theory
2 Y Y
or P= E ....(v)
3
where E is translational kinetic energy per unit volume of
the gas. It is clear that pressure of ideal gas is equal to 2/3 X X
of translational kinetic energy per unit volume.
Z Z
Diatomic Triatomic
Kinetic interpretation of temperature : From eqn. (iv), we get
1 In polyatomic gas molecules such as CO2, it can rotate about any
PV = MC 2 of three coordinate axes. It has six degree (three translational
3
+three rotational) of freedom. At high temperature the molecule
For 1 mole of a gas at temperature T :
can vibrate also and degree of freedom due to vibration also
1 arises, but we neglect it.
PV = RT so mC 2 = RT
3
328 PHYSICS
T1 T2 > T1 d 2kT kT
Ζ N(v)∴ < 0 Þ vp <
unit speed interval
ò
¥
N (v)vdv (v r.m.s )He (3KTHe / m He ) THe m H
i.e., v= o (where summation is replaced by = = ´
N (v r.m.s )H 3KTH / m H TH m He
integration because N is large)
THe ´ 1 5 1 THe
= Þ =
8kT kT 273 ´ 4 7 2 273
hv = = 1.59 ....(1)
pm m or THe = 557.14º K = 284.14º C
330 PHYSICS
40 ´ 50 = 25 l Keep in Memory
=
80
Volume of the gas (at 80 atmospheric pressure) which has 1. Brownian motion, provides a direct evidence for the
escaped = 50 – 25 = 25 l existance of molecules and their motion. The zig-zag motion
of gas molecules is Brownian motion.
Mass of gas escaped 25 1
\ Original mass of gas = 50 = 2 2. Average speed v =
8k B T
=
8 RT
=
8PV
πm πM πM
Again using Boyle’s law, 3. Root mean square speed,
1 × V = 80 × 25 or V = 2000 litre
3k BT 3RT 3PV
Example 4. vrms = = =
m M M
In Vander Wal’s equation the critical pressure Pc is given
by 2k BT 2 RT 2 PV
4. Most probable speed Vmp = = =
m M M
a 27a b2
(a) 3b (b) 2
(c) (d) 5. Vrms : V : Vmp = 1.73 : 1.60 : 1.41
27 b b2 a
Vrms > V > Vmp.
Kinetic Theory 331
332 PHYSICS
16. A gas mixture consists of molecules of type 1, 2 and 3, with (a) 2 P (b) P
molar masses m1 > m2 > m3. vrms and K are the r.m.s. speed (c) P/2 (d) 4 P
and average kinetic energy of the gases. Which of the 21. The perfect gas equation for 4 gram of hydrogen gas is
following is true? (a) PV = RT (b) PV = 2RT
(a) (vrms)1 < (vrms)2 < (vrms)3 and ( K )1 = ( K ) 2 = ( K )3 1
(c) PV= RT
T (d) PV = 4RT
2
(b) (vrms)1 = (vrms)2 = (vrms)3 and ( K )1 = ( K ) 2 > ( K )3
22. Maxwell's laws of distribution of velocities shows that
(c) (vrms)1 > (vrms)2 > (vrms)3 and ( K )1 < ( K ) 2 > ( K )3 (a) the number of molecules with most probable velocity
is very large
(d) (vrms)1 > (vrms)2 > (vrms)3 and ( K )1 < ( K ) 2 < ( K ) 3 (b) the number of molecules with most probable velocity
17. A sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume of V at a pressure is very small
(c) the number of molecules with most probable velocity
P and absolute temperature. T. The mass of each molecule
is zero
is m. The equation for density is (d) the number of molecules with most probable velocity
(a) m k T (b) P/k T is exactly equal to 1
(c) P/(k T V) (d) P m/k T 23. According to kinetic theory of gases, which one of the
following statement(s) is/are correct?
18. The value of critical temperature in terms of van der Waal’s (a) Real gas behave as ideal gas at high temperature and
constant a and b is given by low pressure.
8a a (b) Liquid state of ideal gas is impossible
(a) Tc = (b) Tc = (c) At any temerature and pressure, ideal gas obeys
27 R b 27 bR
Boyle's law and charles' law
a –a (d) The molecules of real gas do not exert any force on
(c) Tc = (d) Tc = one another.
2R b Rb
24. For hydrogen gas Cp – C v = a and for oxygen gas
19. At room temperature, the rms speed of the molecules of a Cp – Cv = b. So, the relation between a and b is given by
certain diatomic gas is found to be 1930 m/s. The gas is (a) a = 16 b (b) 16 a = b
(a) H2 (b) F2 (c) a = 4 b (d) a = b
(c) O2 (d) Cl2 25. The relation between the gas pressure P and average kinetic
20. Two gases A and B having the same temperature T, same energy per unit volume E is
pressure P and same volume V are mixed. If the mixture is at 1
the same temperature T and occupies a volume V, the (a) P = E (b) P = E
2
pressure of the mixture is 3 2
(c) P = E (d) P = E
2 3
1. If the critical temperature of a gas is 100ºC, its Boyle 5. If one mole of a monatomic gas (g = 5/3) is mixed with one
temperature will be approximately mole of a diatomic gas (g = 7/3), the value of g for the mixture
(a) 337.5ºC (b) 500ºC is
(c) 33.3ºC (d) 1000ºC (a) 1.40 (b) 1.50
2. The r.m.s. velocity of oxygen molecule at 16ºC is
(c) 1.53 (d) 3.07
474 m/sec. The r.m.s. velocity in m/s of hydrogen molecule
at 127ºC is 6. The molecules of a given mass of gas have a root mean
(a) 1603 (b) 1896 square velocity of 200m s–1 at 27°C and 1.0 × 105 N m–2
(c) 2230.59 (d) 2730 pressure. When the temperature is 127°C and the pressure
3. The gases are at absolute temperature 300ºK and 350ºK 0.5 × 105 Nm–2, the root mean square velocity in ms–1, is
respectively. The ratio of average kinetic energy of their
molecules is 400
(a) 7 : 6 (b) 6 : 7 (a) (b) 100 2
3
(c) 36 : 49 (d) 49 : 36
4. The total degree of freedom of a CO2 gas molecule is
100 2 100
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) (d)
(c) 5 (d) 4 3 3
334 PHYSICS
7. If masses of all molecule of a gas are halved and their speed 18. The temperature at which the root mean square velocity of
doubled then the ratio of initial and final pressure will be the gas molecules would become twice of its value at 0°C is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (a) 819°C (b) 1092°C
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 (c) 1100°C (d) 1400°C
8. On a particular day, the relative humidity is 100% and the 19. At what temperature is the r.m.s. velocity of a hydrogen
room temperature is 30ºC, then the dew point is molecule equal to that of an oxygen molecule at 47ºC
(a) 70ºC (b) 30ºC
(a) 80 K (b) –73 K
(d) 100ºC (d) 0ºC
9. The velocity of the molecules of a gas at temperature 120 K (c) 3 K (d) 20 K
is v. At what temperature will the velocity be 2 v? 20. One litre of oxygen at a pressure of 1 atm, and 2 litres of
(a) 120 K (b) 240 K (c) 480 K (d) 1120 K nitrogen at a pressure of 0.5 atm. are introduced in the vessel
10. The density of a gas is 6 × 10–2 kg/m3 and the root mean of 1 litre capacity, without any change in temperature. The
square velocity of the gas molecules is 500 m/s. The total pressure would be
pressure exerted by the gas on the walls of the vessel is (a) 1.5 atm. (b) 0.5 atm.
(a) 3 2 (b) –4 2
5×10 N /m 1.2×10 N/m (c) 2.0 atm. (d) 1.0 atm.
21. The air in a room has 15 gm of water vapours per cubic
(c) 0.83×10 –4 N /m 2 (d) 30 N / m 2
metre of its volume. However for saturation one cubic metre
11. The temperature of the mixture of one mole of helium and of volume requires 20 gm of water vapour then relative
one mole of hydrogen is increased from 0°C to 100°C at
humidity is
constant pressure. The amount of heat delivered will be
(a) 600 cal (b) 1200 cal (a) 50% (b) 75%
(c) 1800 cal (d) 3600 cal (c) 20% (d) 25%
12. Helium gas is filled in a closed vessel (having negligible 22. A vessel contains air at a temperature of 15ºC and 60% R.H.
thermal expansion coefficient) when it is heated from 300 K What will be the R.H. if it is heated to 20ºC? (S.V.P. at 15ºC is
to 600 K, then average kinetic energy of helium atom will be
12.67 & at 20ºC is 17.36mm of Hg respectively)
(a) 2 times (b) 2 times
(a) 262% (b) 26.2%
(c) unchanged (d) half
13. One mole of a gas occupies 22.4 lit at N.T.P. Calculate the (c) 44.5% (d) 46.2%
difference between two molar specific heats of the gas. 23. To what temperature should be the hydrogen at 327°C be
J = 4200 J/kcal. cooked at constant pressure so that the root mean square
(a) 1.979 k cal/kmol K (b) 2.378 k cal/kmol K velocity of its molecules becomes half of its previous value
(c) 4.569 kcal/kmol K (d) 3.028 k cal/ kmol K (a) –123°C (b) 120°C
14. Four molecules have speeds 2 km/sec, 3 km/sec, 4 km/sec (c) –100°C (d) 0°C
and 5 km/sec. The root mean square speed of these 24. If pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased
molecules (in km/sec) is by 0.4% when heated by 1ºC, the initial temperature must
(a) 54 / 4 (b) 54 / 2 be
15. The density of air at pressure of 105 Nm–2 is 1.2 kg m–3. (c) 2500 K (d) 25ºC
Under these conditions, the root mean square velocity of 25. N molecules, each of mass m, of gas A and 2 N molecules,
the air molecules in ms–1 is each of mass 2 m, of gas B are contained in the same vessel
(a) 500 (b) 1000 which is maintained at a temperature T. The mean square of
(c) 1500 (d) 3000 the velocity of molecules of B type is denoted by v2 and
16. How many degrees of freedom are associated with 2 grams the mean square of the X component of the velocity of A
of He at NTP ? type is dentoed by w2, w2/v2 is
(a) 3 (b) 3.01 × 1023
23 (a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 9.03 × 10 (d) 6
17. If 2 mole of an ideal monatomic gas at temperature T0 is (c) 1/3 (d) 2/3
mixed with 4 moles of another ideal monatomic gas at 26. At what temperature, pressure remaining constant, will the
temperature 2T0, then the temperature of the mixture is r.m.s. velocity of a gas be half of its value at 0ºC?
5 3 4 5 (a) 0ºC (b) –273ºC
(a) T0 (b) T0 (c) T0 (d) T0
3 2 3 4 (c) 32ºC (d) –204ºC
Kinetic Theory 335
27. Graph of specific heat at constant volume for a monatomic 34. Two monatomic ideal gases 1 and 2 of molecular masses
gas is m1 and m2 respectively are enclosed in separate containers
kept at the same temperature. The ratio of the speed of
Y Y sound in gas 1 to that in gas 2 is given by
3R
m1 m2
(a) cv (b) cv (a) (b)
m2 m1
X O X
O T
T
m1 m2
(c) m2
(d)
m1
Y 3 Y
—R
2 35. If the potential energy of a gas molecule is
(c) cv (d) cv U = M/r6 – N/r12, M and N being positive constants, then
X X the potential energy at equilibrium must be
O O
T T (a) zero (b) M2/4N
28. The order of magnitude of the number of nitrogen molecules (c) N2/4M (d) MN2/4
in an air bubble of diameter 2 mm under ordinary conditions is 36. Air is pumped into an automobile tube upto a pressure of
(a) 105 (b) 109 200 kPa in the morning when the air temperature is 22°C.
(c) 1013 (d) 1017 During the day, temperature rises to 42°C and the tube
29. At identical temperatures, the rms speed of hydrogen expands by 2%. The pressure of the air in the tube at this
molecules is 4 times that for oxygen molecules. In a mixture temperature, will be approximately
of these in mass ratio H2 : O2 = 1:8, the rms speed of all molecules (a) 212 kPa (b) 209 kPa (c) 206 kPa (d) 200 kPa
is n times the rms speed for O2 molecules, where n is 37. Work done by a system under isothermal change from a
(a) 3 (b) 4/3 volume V1 to V2 for a gas which obeys Vander Waal's
(c) (8/3) 1/2 (d) (11)1/2
æ an 2 ö
30. In Vander Waal’s equation the critical pressure Pc is given by equation (V - bn) ç P + ÷ = nRT is
ç V ÷
è ø
a
(a) 3 b (b)
27 b 2 æ V - nb ö 2 æ V1 - V2 ö
(a) nRT log e ç 2 ÷ + an ç ÷
è V1 - nb ø è V1V2 ø
27 a b2
(c) (d)
b2 a æ V - nb ö 2 æ V1 - V2 ö
(b) nRT log10 ç 2 ÷ + an ç ÷
31. 1 mole of a gas with g = 7/5 is mixed with 1 mole of a gas with è V1 - nb ø è V1V2 ø
g = 5/3, then the value of g for the resulting mixture is
(a) 7/5 (b) 2/5 æ V - nb ö 2 æ V1 - V2 ö
(c) nRT loge ç 2 ÷ + bn ç ÷
(c) 24/16 (d) 12/7 è V1 - nb ø è V1V2 ø
32. N molecules, each of mass m, of gas A and 2 N molecules,
each of mass 2 m, of gas B are contained in the same vessel æ V - nb ö 2 æ V1V2 ö
which is maintained at a temperature T. The mean square (d) nRT log e ç 1 ÷ + an ç ÷
V
è 2 - nb ø è V1 – V2 ø
velocity of molecules of B type is denoted by V2 and the
38. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of
mean square velocity of A type is denoted by V1, then V1 Argon at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational moles,
V2
is the total internal energy of the system is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (a) 4 RT (b) 15 RT
(c) 1/3 (d) 2/3 (c) 9 RT (d) 11RT
33. An ideal gas is found to obey an additional law VP2 = 39. The molar heat capacities of a mixture of two gases at
constant. The gas is initially at temperature T and volume constant volume is 13R/6. The ratio of number of moles of
V. When it expands to a volume 2 V, the temperature becomes the first gas to the second is 1 : 2. The respective gases may
be
(a) T/ 2 (b) 2 T
(a) O2 and N2 (b) He and Ne
(c) 2T 2 (d) 4 T (c) He and N2 (d) N2 and He
336 PHYSICS
40. A graph is plotted with PV/T on y-axis and mass of the gas
PV PV
along x-axis for different gases. The graph is
(a) a straight line parallel to x-axis for all the gases
(a) (b)
(b) a straight line passing through origin with a slope
having a constant value for all the gases V V
(c) a straight line passing through origin with a slope
PV PV
having different values for different gases
(d) a straight line parallel to y-axis for all the gases
(c) (d)
41. Four mole of hydrogen, two mole of helium and one mole of
water vapour form an ideal gas mixture. What is the molar V V
specific heat at constant pressure of mixture? 46. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas
is (7/2)R. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to
16 7 23 that at constant volume is
(a) R (b) R (c) R (d) R
7 16 7 (a) 5/7 (b) 9/7 (c) 7/5 (d) 8/7
42. An ideal gas is taken through a process in which the pressure DIRECTIONS for Qs. 47 to 50 : Each of these question
and the volume are changed according to the equation contains two statements: STATEMENT-1 (Assertion) and
P = kV. Molar heat capacity of the gas for the process is STATEMENT-2 (Reason). Answer these questions from the
R following four options.
(a) C = Cv + R (b) C = Cv + (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
2
R correct explanation for Statement -1
(c) C = Cv – (d) C = Cv + 2R (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement -2 is True; Statement-2 is
2
43. A vessel has 6g of hydrogen at pressure P and temperature NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1
500K. A small hole is made in it so that hydrogen leaks out. (c) Statement-1 is True, Statement- 2 is False
How much hydrogen leaks out if the final pressure is P/2 (d) Statement-1 is False, Statement -2 is True
and temperature falls to 300 K ? C
47. Statement 1 : The ratio V for a monatomic gas is less
(a) 2g (b) 3g (c) 4g (d) 1g CP
than for a diatomic gas.
44. Figure shows a parabolic graph between T and 1/V for a
Statement 2 : The molecules of a monatomic gas have more
mixture of a gas undergoing an adiabatic process. What is
degrees of freedom than those of a diatomic gas.
the ratio of Vrms of molecules and speed of sound in mixture?
48. Statement 1 : Air pressure in a car tyre increases during
T driving.
(a) 3/ 2 Statement 2 : Absolute zero temperature is not zero energy
temperature.
(b) 2 2T0 49. Statement 1 : The total translational kinetic energy of all
T0 the molecules of a given mass of an ideal gas is 1.5 times the
product of its pressure and its volume.
(c) 2/3 Statement 2 : The molecules of a gas collide with each other
1/V
1/V0 4/V0
and the velocities of the molecules change due to the
collision.
(d) 3
50. Statement 1 : Mean free path of a gas molecules varies
inversely as density of the gas.
45. Which one the following graphs represents the behaviour
Statement 2 : Mean free path varies inversely as pressure
of an ideal gas ?
of the gas.
Kinetic Theory 337
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions The change in internal energy of the gas during the
9. In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between transition is: [2015]
pressure P1 and P2 ? V [2013] (a) – 20 kJ (b) 20 J
(a) P2 > P1 P2 (c) –12 kJ (d) 20 kJ
(b) P2 < P1 P1 15. Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at
(c) Cannot be predicted q2
the same temperature. The pressure of A being twice that of
q1 B. Under such conditions, the density of A is found to be
(d) P2 = P1 T 1.5 times the density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of
10. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature A and B is : [2015 RS]
of 1g of Helium at NTP, from T1K to T2K is [2013]
3
3 (a) (b) 2
(a) N k (T – T1) 4
2 a B 2
3 1 2
(b) N k (T – T1) (c) (d)
4 a B 2 2 3
16. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The specific heat
3 T
(c) Nk 2 capacity of the gas at constant volume is 5.0JK–1. If the
4 a B T1
speed of sound in this gas at NTP is 952 ms–1, then the
heat capacity at constant pressure is (Take gas constant R
3
(d) N k (T – T1) = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1) [2015 RS]
8 a B 2
(a) 7.5 JK–1 mol–1
11. In a vessel, the gas is at a pressure P. If the mass of all the
(b) 7.0 JK–1 mol–1
molecules is halved and their speed is doubled, then the
resultant pressure will be [NEET Kar. 2013] (c) 8.5 JK–1 mol–1
(a) 4P (b) 2P (d) 8.0 JK–1 mol–1
(c) P (d) P/2 17. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity
12. The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius ‘r’) is of 200 ms–1 at 27°C and 1.0 × 105 Nm–2 pressure. When the
inversely proportional to : [2014] temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, 127°C
(a) r3 (b) r2 and 0.05 × 105 Nm–2, the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in
ms–1 is : [2016]
(c) r (d) r
400
Cp (a) 100 2 (b)
13. The ratio of the specific heats C = g in terms of degrees 3
v
P(in kPa) 2 B
4 6
V(in m3)
Kinetic Theory 339
5. (c) Let g1 and g2 denote the ratio of two specific heats of 13. (a) V = 22.4 litre = 22.4 × 10–3 m3, J = 4200 J/kcal
gas 1 and gas 2 respectively when they are mixed in by ideal gas equation for one mole of a gas,
the ratio of n1 and n2 mole. The resultant value of g is
the weighted mean of g1 and g2 i.e., PV 1.013 ´ 105 ´ 22.4 ´ 10 -3
R= =
T 273
n1 g1 + n 2 g 2 1(5 / 3) + 1 (7 / 5)
g= =
n1 + n 2 1+1 R 1.013 ´ 105 ´ 22.4
Cp - C v = = = 1.979 kcal/kmol K
J 273 ´ 4200
25 + 21 46
= = = 1 .53 1/ 2
15 ´ 2 30 é (2) 2 + (3) 2 + (4) 2 + (5) 2 ù é 54 ù
14. (a) vrms =ê ú = ê 4ú
4 ë û
c2 400 2 2 400 ëê ûú
6. (a) = = Þ c2 = ´ 200 = ms -1
c1 300 3 3 3
3P 3 ´ 105
15. (a) c= = = 500 ms -1
1 mNv 2rms r 1.2
7. (b) Since P =
3 V
2 1
since m is halved & speed is doubled so pressure 16. (c) Moles of He = =
4 2
become twice.
1
S.V.P at dew point Molecules = ´ 6.02 ´ 1023 = 3.01 × 1023
8. (b) Relative humidity (R.H) = 2
S.V.P at room temp.
As there are 3 degrees of freedom corresponding to 1
since here R.H is 100% molecule of a monatomic gas.
Þ room temp. = dew point = 30ºC \ Total degrees of freedom = 3 × 3.01 × 1023
= 9.03 × 1023
v' T' 17. (a) Let T be the temperature of the mixture, then
9. (c) vµ T \ =
v T U = U1 + U2
2 T' f
Given v' =2 v or, = Þ (n1 + n 2 ) RT
1 T 2
P1V1 2 1
24. (a) = constant for one mole 29. (d) Molecule number ratio is H 2 : O 2 = : .
T1 3 3
P1 2 æ 2ö + 1 æ 1ö
& = constant for constant volume That gives (c rms ) = 16 times the
T1 è 3ø è 3ø
value for O2.
P1 1.004P1
so = Þ T1 = 250 K 30. (b) The Vander waal’s equation of state is
T1 (T1 + 1)
æ a ö
çç P + ÷÷( V - b ) = RT or P = RT - a
3 V2
25. (d) Total K.E. of A type molecules = mw 2 è ø V - b V2
2
At the critical point, P = Pc, V = Vc, and T = Tc
Total K.E. of A type of molecule is
RTc a
K.E A =
1
2
[
m ( v r.ms ) 2x + ( v r.ms ) 2y + ( v r.ms ) 2z ] \ Pc = -
Vc - b Vc2
....(i)
342 PHYSICS
3R 5R 3P Pg
Possible values are, C v1 = , Cv2 = Also v rms = and vsound =
2 2 r r
\ Gases are monatomic (like He) and diatomic
(like N2)
v rms 3
Þ = = 2
PV æ mö PV æ R ö vsound g
40. (c) = nR = ç ÷ R or =ç ÷ m
T è M ø T è Mø
45. (b) For an ideal gas PV = constant i.e. PV doesn’t vary
PV with V.
i.e. versus m graph is straight line passing
T 7
through origin with slope R/M, i.e. the slope depends 46. (c) Molar specific heat at constant pressure CP = R
2
on molecular mass of the gas M and is different for
different gases. 7 5
Since, CP – CV = R Þ CV – CP – R = R–R= R
5 2 2
41. (d) Cv for hydrogen = R
2 CP (7 / 2) R 7
\ = = .
3R CV (5 / 2) R 5
Cv for helium =
2 47. (c) For monatomic gas, f = 3,
6R Cv 3
Cv for water vapour = = 3R 3R 5R
2 Cv = , Cp = ; C =5
2 2 p
5 3
4 ´ R + 2 ´ R + 1 ´ 3R For diatomic gas, f = 5
2 2 16
\ (Cv)mix = = R
4 + 2 +1 7 5R 7R Cv 5
\ Cp = Cv + R
Cv = , Cp = ; C =7
2 2 p
EXERCISE - 3 T V æ 1ö
Vµ as n, R are constant µ ç ÷
Exemplar Questions p T è pø
1. (b) As the relative velocity of molecule with respect to Slope of the V – T graph,
the walls of container does not change in rocket, due
dV nR
to the mass of a molecule is negligible with respect to m= = [m = slope of V – t graph]
the mass of whole system and system of gas moves dT p
as a whole and (g = 0) on molecule energy where.
dV 1 1
Hence pressure of the gas inside the vessel, as µ or m µ [Q nR = constant]
dT p p
observed by us, on the ground remain the same.
2. (d) Pressure on the wall due to force exerted by molecule 1
on walls due to its rate of transfer of momentum to So, p µ
m
wall.
In an ideal gas, when a molecule collides elastically p1 m2
with a wall, the momentum transferred to each molecule
hence, =
p2 m1
will be twice the magnitude of its normal momentum is
2 mv. For the wall EFGH, absorbs those molecules. where, m1 is slope of the graph corresponding to p1
Which strike to it so rate of change in momentum to it and similarly m2 is slope corresponding to p2. So slope
become only mv so the pressure of EFGH would half of p1 is smaller than p2. Hence, (p1 > p2).
of ABCD. 6. (d) Pressure exerted by gas is due to rate of change of
3. (b) Boyle's law is applicable at constant temperature and momentum (p) imparted by particles to wall.
temperature remains constant in isothermal process. When the molecules breaks into atoms, the number of
For ideal gas, pV = nRT = constant moles would become twice.
So, pV = constant (at constant temperature) From ideal gas equation,
1 pV = nRT
pµ where, p = Pressure of gas, n = Number of moles
V
So, this process can be called as isothermal process. R = Gas constant, T = temperature
4. (c) Let us consider the given diagram where an ideal gas As gases breaks number of moles becomes twice of
is contained in a cylinder, having a piston of mass M. initial, so n2 = 2n1
The pressure on gas does not change. So, p µ nT
M p2 n2T2 (2n1 )(3000)
pa or p = n T = n (300) = 20
1 1 1 1
So, p2 = 20p1
pa Mg/A Hence, final pressure of the gas would be 20 times to
p the initial pressure.
7. (b) For a function f1(v) the number of molecules (n) which
A p will have their speeds between v and v + dv.
For each function f1(v) and f2(v) number of molecules
The pressure inside the gas will be remain same 1 mole each but due to mass difference
p = pa + Mg /A their speed will be different.
where, pa = atmospheric pressure Hence both gases of each function f1(v) and f2(v) will
A = area of cross-section of the piston. obey the Maxwell's distribution law separately.
Mg = weight of piston 8. (d) As we know that an ideal gas equation,
Hence, p = constant. pV = nRT
As the piston and cylinder is frictionless so the where, n = Number of moles, p = Pressure,
equation for ideal gas V = Volume, R = Gas constant,
pV = nRT, volume (V) increases at constant pressure. T = Temperature
as p, R, n are constant so, pV
V µT n=
RT
so on increasing temperature of system its volume If n, R are constant for the system or as number of
increased but p will remain constant. moles of the gas remains fixed, hence, we can write
5. (a) As we know that an ideal gas equation,
as the pressure and quantity of gas in system are pV
= constant
constant T
p1V1 p2V2
æ nR ö or =
pV = nRT Þ V = ç ÷T RT1 RT2
è p ø
Kinetic Theory 345
14 Oscillations
(vi) Total phase angle : The total angle (wt + q) is known as total (ii) Potential energy : A particle in S.H.M. possesses potential
phase angle. energy due to its displacement from the mean position.
Characteristics of S.H.M. 1 2 1
P.E . =ky = mw2 y 2
(i) Displacement : The displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is 2 2
given by (iii) Total mechanical energy
y = A sin(wt + f ) E = K.E. + P.E.
where A is amplitude, w is angular frequency and (wt + f) is 1 1
called the phase of the particle at any instant t. = mw 2 (A 2 - y2 ) + mw 2 y2
2 2
1 1
E= mw2 A2 = kA 2
+A 2 2
(iv) The curves representing KE, PE and total energy are shown
Displacement
3T/4 T
(0,0) in figure.
T/4 T/2
Total energy
–A E = K.E. + P.E.
Time (t)
P.E.
Energy
(ii) Velocity : The velocity of a particle in S.H.M. is given by
dy K.E.
= Aw cos(w t + f) or, v = w A 2 - y 2
dt –A O +A
Displacement
At y = 0 (at mean position), vmax = w A
Keep in Memory
T/4 x x
T/2 3T/4 T
Time (t)
8. Geometrically the projection of the body undergoing
uniform circular motion on the diameter of the circle is
Energy in S.H.M. : SHM.
(i) Kinetic energy : A particle in S.H.M. possesses kinetic l
energy by virtue of its motion. 9. In a non-inertial frame. T = 2p
g eff
1 2 1 g eff = (g - a y ) 2 + a 2x
K .E. = mv = mw2 ( A2 - y 2 )
2 2
348 PHYSICS
SOME SYSTEMS EXECUTING S.H.M. Let a bob of mass m is displaced from its, equilibrium position
Case 1 Spring mass system : and released, then it oscillates in a vertical plane under gravity.
(i) When two springs having force constants k1 and k2 Let q be the angular displacement at any time t, then
connected in parallel, then corresponding linear displacement along the arc is
x = l q.
It is clear from the diagram that mg sinq, is the restoring force
k1 k2 acting on m tending to return it to mean position. So from
Newton’s second law
M md 2 x
F= = - mg sin q ...(i)
dt 2
The force constant of the combination is
where negative sign indicates that restoring force mg sin q (= F)
k = k1 + k2 and hence T = 2p[M/(k1 + k2)]1/2
is opposite to displacement q. If q is very small, then
(ii) When two springs of force constants k 1 and k2 are
sin q » q, so from equation (i)
connected in series, then
md 2 x x
= - mg sin q = - mg or ...(ii)
k1 dt 2 l
where w2 = g/l.
This is the equation of S.H.M. of the bob with time period
k2
2p ælö
M T= = 2p ç ÷ OM
w ègø
The force constant of the combination is How to find the time period of a body undergoing S.H.M.?
1/k = 1/k1 + 1/k2. i.e., Step 1 : First, find the equilibrium position. Equilibrium position
m will be one for which SF = 0 and St = 0
k = k1k2/(k1 + k2) Hence T = 2p Step 2 : Displace the body , from the equilibrium position by x.
K
(iii) If two mass M1 and M2 are connected at the two ends of Find the restoring force acting on the body F = –kx (for translation)
the spring, then their period of oscillation is given by Find the restoring torque acting on the body t = - kq (for
M1 M2 rotational)
md 2 x
M1M 2 Step 3 : Since F = ma =
T = 2p[m/k)]1/2 where m = is the reduced mass. dt 2
M1 + M 2
(iv) When the length of spring increases, spring constant md 2 x
\ Use = - kx ... (i) for translational
decreases. If the length of spring becomes n times, its spring dt 2
1 md 2 x
constant becomes times and therefore time period will = - kq … (ii) for rotational
n dt 2
be increased by n times.
m
(v) If we divide the spring into n equal parts, the spring Step 4 : T = 2p (for translational)
k
constant of each part becomes n k. Hence time period when
the same mass is suspended from each part is: I
T = 2p (for rotational) where, I = moment of inertia
1/ 2 k
éM ù
T = 2p ê ú
ë nk û COMMON DEFAULT
Case 2 Simple pendulum : A simple pendulum consists of a
Incorrect. The time period of spring mass-system is
point mass suspended by a weightless inextensible cord from a
rigid support. dependent on the value of g.
Correct. Time period of spring-mass system shifts only the
equilibrium position. It does not change the time period.
q Because of this reason, time period of spring mass system
l l remains same on plains / mountains / in satellites.
Incorrect. The time taken to cover half the amplitude form
x =lq
T
equilibrium position is .
mg sinq mg mg cosq 8
Oscillations 349
4. Time period of a simple pendulum in a train accelerating or 11. If a ball of radius r oscillates in a bowl of radius R, then its
retarding at the rate a is given by 1/ 2
éR - rù
1/ 2 time period is given by : T = 2pê ú
é ù ë g û
l
T = 2pê ú
ê 2 2 ú 12. If a disc of radius r oscillates about a point at its rim, then its
ë g +a û
1/ 2
5. If a simple pendulum whose bob is of density do is made to érù
time period is given by: T = 2pê ú
oscillate in a liquid of density d, then its time period of ëgû
vibration in liquid will increase and is given by It behaves as a simple pendulum of length r.
13. The graph between the length of a simple pendulum and its
l
T = 2p (where d0 > d) time period is a parabola.
æ d ö 14. The graph between the length of a simple pendulum and
çç1 - ÷÷g
è d o ø the square of its time period is a straight line.
15. The graph between l & T and between l & T2 intersect at
6. The time period of a simple pendulum in a vehicle moving T = 1 second.
along a circular path of radius r and with constant velocity 16. The time period of the mass attached to spring does not
1/ 2 change with the change in acceleration due to gravity.
é l ù
V is given by, T = 2p ê ú 17. If the mass m attached to a spring oscillates in a non viscous
4
ê V + g2 ú liquid density s, then its time per iod is given
ê r2 ú
ë û -1 / 2
é m æ s öù
7. If T1 and T2 are the time periods of a body oscillating under by T = 2 p ê çç1 - ÷÷ú
the restoring force F1 and F2 then the time period of the ë k è r øû
r r r
body under the influence of the resultant force F = F1 + F2 where k = force constant and r is density of the mass
suspended from the spring.
T1 T2 18. The length of second pendulum (T = 2 sec) is 99 cm
will be T =
T12 + T2 2
Physical Pendulum
8. (a) The percentage change in time period of simple
Trestoring = – mgd sin q
pendulum when its length changes is
d
If q is small, sin q » q
DT 1 æ Dl ö q
´ 100 = ç ÷ ´ 100% \ Trestoring = – mgdq cm
T 2è l ø
I mg
(b) The percentage change in time period of simple
And T = 2p
pendulum when g changes but l remains constant is mgd
DT 1 æ Dg ö Let a test-tube of radius r, carrying lead shots of mass m is held
´100 = çç ÷ ´100 % vertically when partly immersed in liquid of density r. On pushing
T 2 è g ÷ø
the tube little into liquid and let it executes S.H.M. of time period
(c) The percentage change in time peirod of simple
pendulum when both l and g change is m
T = 2p
p r 2r g
DT 1 æ Dl Dg ö
´ 100 = çç + ÷ ´100% Conical Pendulum
T 2è l g ÷ø When the bob of a simple pendulum moves in a horizontal circle
9. If a wire of length l , area of cross-section A, Young’ss it is called as conical pendulum.
modulus Y is stretched by suspending a mass m, then the
S
TA
mass can oscillate with time period: T = 2p q
ml T
10. If a simple pendulum is suspended from the roof of
compartment of a train moving down an inclined plane of r
inclination q, then the time period of oscillations
1/ 2 If l is the length of the pendulum and the string makes an angle
é l ù
T = 2pê ú l cos q
ë g cos q û q with vertical then time period, T = 2p
g
Oscillations 351
Torsional Pendulum In this case electric force qE and gravity force are
It is an arrangement which consists of a heavy mass suspended opposite.
from a long thin wire whose other and is clamped to a rigid support. 5. A pendulum clock slows down in summer and goes faster
Time period in winter.
I 6. Potential energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is equal to
T = 2p average force × displacement.
C
where I = moment of inertia of body about the suspension wire 0+ F æ 0 + mw2 x ö
as axis of rotation. i.e., U P = éê ù ç
úx = ç
÷ x = 1 mw2 x 2 .
ë 2 û 2 ÷ 2
C = restoring couple per unit thirst. è ø
7. If the total energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is E, then
Keep in Memory its potential energy at displacement x is
1. The displacement, velocity and acceleration of S.H.M. vary x2 æ x 2 ö÷
simple harmonically with the same time period and UP = E and kinetic energy U k = ç1 - E
A2 ç A2 ÷
frequency. è ø
2. The kinetic energy and potential energy vary periodically
but not simple harmonically. The time period of kinetic
energy or potential energy is half that of displacement, FREE, DAMPED, FORCED OSCILLATIONS AND
velocity and acceleration. RESONANCE
3. The graph between displacement, velocity or acceleration Free Oscillation
and t is a sine curve. But the graph between P.E. or K.E. of
S.H.M. and time t is parabola. If a system oscillates on its own and without any external
influence then it is called as free oscillation.
dx
x=A sin wt v= = Aw cos wt Frequency of free oscillation is called natural frequency. The
Displacement
dt
equation for free S.H.M. oscillation
Velocity
t t md 2 x
= Frestoring force = –kx, where k is constant.
dt 2
d2 x The differential equation of harmonic motion in absence of
a= = -w2 x
Acceleration
d2x
t + w02 x = 0 , where w0 is natural frequency of body..
dt 2
The time period is
2p m
T= = 2p
K.E., P.E. E
2 2
w0 k
E=½ mw A
1
P.E. = mw2 x 2 Damped Oscillation
2 ½E
1
K.E. = mw2 (A 2 - x 2 )
Oscillation performed under the influence of frictional force is
x 2 called as damped oscillation.
–A O +A
(a) In case of damped oscillations the amplitude goes on
4. (a) If the bob of simple pendulum is -vely charged and a decreasing and ultimately the system comes to a rest.
+vely charged plate is placed below it, then the
effective acceleration on bob increases and x
consequently time period decreases.
l
Time period, T = 2p qE
t
g+
m
In this case electric force q E and gravity force act in
same direction. (b) The damping force (Fdamping µ – v Þ Fdamping = – bv) is
(b) If the bob of a simple pendulum is -vely charged and proportional to the speed of particle. Hence the equation of
is made to oscillate above the -vely charged plate, dV
then the effective acceleration on bob decreases and motion m = -kx - bv
dt
l where b is positive constant and is called damping
the time period increases. T = 2 p
qE coefficient. Then the differential equation of a damped
g-
m harmonic oscillation is
352 PHYSICS
d2x dx f0
+ 2C + w02 x = 0 ...(i) x= sin(pt - q)
2 dt
dt é(w 20 - p 2 ) + 4c 2 p 2 ùû
ë
k
where 2 C = b/m (C is damping constant) & = w20 , the
m 2cp
natural frequency of oscillating particle i.e., its frequency where tan q = & p is the frequency of external periodic
in absence of damping. w - p2
2
t
æmö æ 0.25 ö
Now T = 2 p ç ÷ = 2 ´ 3.14 ç ÷ = 0.628 second.
A= –A0e
–c t èKø è 25 ø
Example 2.
Forced Oscillation and Resonance : What will be the force constant of the spring system shown
The oscillation of a system under the action of external periodic in fig?
force is called forced oscillation.
k1
External force can maintain the amplitude of damped oscillation. (a) + k2
When the frequency of the external periodic force is equal to the 2
natural frequency of the system, resonance takes place.
-1 k1 k1
The amplitude of resonant oscillations is very very large. In the é 1 1 ù
absence of damping, it may tend to infinity. (b) ê + ú
ë 2k1 k 2 û
At resonance, the oscillating system continuously absorbs
energy from the agent applying external periodic force.
é 1 1 ù k2
In case of forced oscillations, the total force acting on the system
(c) ê 2k + k ú
bdx ë 1 2û
is F = - kx - + F0 sin pt …… (i)
Re storting dt Ext periodic
force Damping force -1
force é2 1 ù
Then by Newton’s second law : (d) ê + ú
k
ë 1 k 2û
d2x dx
Þ m = - kx - b + F0 sin pt Solution : (b)
2 dt
dt Two springs of force constants k1 and k2 are in parallel.
d 2x dx Hence
or + w20 x = f 0 sin b t
+ 2C …… (ii)
2 dt
dt k ¢ = k1 + k1 = 2 k1
b 2 k F
where 2C = , w0 = , f 0 = 0 The third spring is in series with spring of force constant
m m m
The equation (ii) is the differential equation of motion of forced k¢.
harmonic oscillator.
The amplitude at any time t is
Oscillations 353
-1 æAxö æ Ax ö 1 æ PA ö
1 é 1 1 ù é 1 1 ù F = -P ç ÷ \ a = -P ç ÷ = -çç ÷÷ x
\ =ê + ú or k = ê + ú è h ø è h ø M è Mh ø
k ë 2k1 k 2 û ë 2 k1 k 2 û
PA 2p æ M hö
Example 3. This gives, w 2 = or T = = 2p
Mh w çè P A ÷ø
A particle starts with S.H.M. from the mean position as
shown in figure below. Its amplitude is A and its time period Example 5.
is T. At one time, its speed is half that of the maximum A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude A and time
speed. What is this displacement at that time ?
period T. Determine the time required by it to travel from
2A A
(a) x = A to x = .
3 2
3A Solution :
(b)
2 æ 2p ö
2A For S.H.M., x = A sin ç t÷
è T ø
(c)
3
æ 2p ö
3A When x = A, A = A sin ç .t ÷
(d) è T ø
2
Solution : (b) æ 2p ö æ 2p ö æpö
\ sin ç .t ÷ = 1 Þ sin ç .t ÷ = sin ç ÷ Þ t = (T/4)
è T ø è T ø è2ø
We know that v = ω[A 2 - x 2 ]1/ 2
A A æ 2p ö
1/ 2 When x = and = A sin ç .t ÷
é v2 ù 2 2 è T ø
\ x = ê A2 - ú
ëê ω2 ûú p æ 2p ö
or sin = sin ç t ÷ or t = (T/12)
v max Aω 6 è T ø
Given that v = = . Now, time taken to travel from
2 2
x = A to x = A/2 = T/4 – T/12 = T/6
1/ 2
é 2 A 2 w2 ù 3 Example 6.
so, êA - 2
ú = .A Calculate the increase in velocity of sound for 1ºC rise of
ëê 4 w ûú 2
temperature, if the velocity of sound at 0ºC is 332 m/sec.
Example 4. Solution :
A cylindrical piston of mass M slides smoothly inside a
long cylinder closed at one end, enclosing a certain mass v1 æT ö æ 273 + t ö
= ç t÷ = ç ;
of gas. The cylinder is kept with its axis horizontal. If the v0 è T0 ø è 273 ÷ø
piston is disturbed from its equilibrium position, it
1/2
oscillates simple harmonically. The period of oscillation æ t ö æ t ö
\ v1 = v0 ç1 + = v0 ç 1 +
will be è 273÷ø è 2 ´ 273 ÷ø
h
æ t ö æ t ö
= v0 ç1 + ÷ = v0 + v0 ç
M è 546 ø è 546 ø÷
P A
æ t ö
\ vt - v0 = v0 ç = 0.61 m/sec.
è 546 ÷ø
æ Mh ö æ MA ö (As v0 = 332 m/sec and Dt = 1ºC)
(a) T = 2π ç ÷ (b) T = 2π ç ÷
è PA ø è Ph ø Example 7.
Which one of the following equations does not represent
æ M ö S.H.M.; where x = displacement and t = time. Parameters
(c) T = 2π ç ÷ (d) T = 2π (M P h A)
è PAh ø a, b and c are the constants of motion
Solution : (a) (a) x = a sin bt
We know that P V = R T (b) x = a cos bt + c
\ VDP + P DV = 0 or DP = P (DV / V) (c) x = a sin bt + c cos bt
F æ Ax ö æxö (d) x = a sec bt + c cosec bt
or A = -P çç ÷÷ = -P ç ÷ Solution : (d)
è Ah ø èhø
Sec bt is not defined for bt = p/2.
354 PHYSICS
A (3/4)l l/4
m
60º
Solution :
l
The stiffness of a spring is inversely proportional to its
C B length. Therefore the stiffness of each part is
O 4
k1 = k and k2 = 4k
3
OC = h = (l – l cos q) = (l – l cos 60º) = l /2
k1 = (4/3)k k2 = 4k
If v is the velocity of bob at position B, then using law of
m
conservation of energy, we have,
1 1 m
m ´ 9 = m v 2 + mg l (1 - cos θ) Time period, T = 2p
2 2 k1 + k 2
1 1 3m p 3m
or m v 2 = m ´ 9 - mg l (1 - cos θ) or T = 2p =
2 2 16k 2 k
Oscillations 355
356 PHYSICS
4. A tunnel has been dug through the centre of the earth and 13. Three masses of 500 g, 300 g and 100 g are suspended at
a ball is released in it. It executes S.H.M. with time period the end of a spring as shown, and are in equilibrium. When
(a) 42 minutes (b) 1 day the 500 g mass is removed, the system oscillates with a
(c) 1 hour (d) 84.6 minutes period of 2 second. When the 300 g mass is also removed,
5. A particle of mass 1 kg is moving in S.H.M. with an it will oscillate with a period of
amplitude 0.02 and a frequency of 60 Hz. The maximum
force acting on the particle is (a) 2 s
(a) 144 p2 (b) 188 p2
(c) 288 p 2 (d) None of these
(b) 4 s
6. The length of a second’s pendulum at the surface of earth
is 1 m. The length of second’s pendulum at the surface of
moon where g is 1/6th that at earth’s surface is (c) 8 s
(a) 1/6 m (b) 6 m 500 g
(c) 1/36 m (d) 36 m 300 g
(d) 1 s 100 g
7. The displacement of a S.H.M. doing particle when
K.E. = P.E. (amplitude = 4 cm) is 14. If the mass shown in figure is slightly displaced and then
(a) 2 2 cm (b) 2 cm let go, then the system shall oscillate with a time period of
1 m
(c ) cm (d) (a) 2p
2 cm 3k
2 k
8. The equation of SHM of a particle is A + 4p2x = 0 where a is 3m
instantaneous linear acceleration at displacement x. The (b) 2p
2k
frequency of motion is
(a) 1 Hz (b) 4p Hz 2m k k
(c) 2p
1 3k
(c) Hz (d) 4 Hz
4 3k
(d) 2p m
é pt ù m
9. y = 2 (cm) sin ê + fú what is the maximum acceleration of
ë2 û 15. Two oscillators are started simultaneously in same phase.
the particle doing the S.H.M. After 50 oscillations of one, they get out of phase by p, that
is half oscillation. The percentage difference of frequencies
p p2
(a) cm/s2 (b) cm/s2 of the two oscillators is nearest to
2 2
(a) 2% (b) 1%
p2 p
(c) cm/s2 (d) cm/s2 (c) 0.5% (d) 0.25%
4 4
10. A simple pendulum has time period 't'. Its time period in a 16. Two wires are kept tight between the same pair of supports.
lift which is moving upwards with acceleration 3 ms–2 is The tensions in the wires are in the ratio 2 : 1, the radii are in
the ratio 3 : 1 and the densities are in the ratio 1 : 2. The ratio
9. 8 12.8 of their fundamental frequencies is
(a) t (b) t
12.8 9. 8 (a) 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 4
9.8 6. 8 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 2 : 6
(c) t (d) t
6. 8 9.8 17. The time period of the oscillating system (see figure) is
11. Two particles are oscillating along two close parallel straight m
lines side by side, with the same frequency and amplitudes. (a) T = 2p
k1k 2 k1
They pass each other, moving in opposite directions when
their displacement is half of the amplitude. The mean
m
positions of the two particles lie on a straight line (b) T = 2p
k1 + k 2 k2
perpendicular to the paths of the two particles. The phase
difference is
(a) 0 (b) 2p/3 (c) T = 2p mk1k 2 M
(c) p (d) p/6 (d) None of these
12. If a simple pendulum of length l has maximum angular
18. A particle of mass 10 gm is describing S.H.M. along a straight
displacement q, then the maximum K.E. of bob of mass m is
line with period of 2 sec and amplitude of 10 cm. Its kinetic
1 energy when it is at 5 cm from its equilibrium position is
(a) ml / g (b) mg / 2l
2 (a) 37.5p 2 erg (b) 3.75p 2 erg
(c) mgl (1 - cos q) (d) mgl sin q/2 (c) 375p 2 erg (d) 0.375p 2 erg
Oscillations 359
19. A boy is executing simple Harmonic Motion. At a pendulum of shorter length has completed oscillations
displacement x its potential energy is E 1 and at a [nT1=(n–1)T2, where T1 is time period of shorter length &
displacement y its potential energy is E2. The potential T2 be time period of longer wavelength and n are no. of
energy E at displacement (x + y) is oscillations completed]
(a) 5 (b) 1
(a) E = E1 - E2 (b) E = E1 + E2
(c) 2 (d) 3
(c) E = E1 + E2 (d) E = E1 - E2 28. A clock which keeps correct time at 20ºC, is subjected to
40ºC. If coefficient of linear expansion of the pendulum is
20. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion having time
period T. The time taken in 3/8th oscillation is
12 × 10–6 per ºC. How much will it gain or loose in time ?
(a) 10.3 seconds/day (b) 20.6 seconds/day
3 5 (c) 5 seconds/day (d) 20 minutes/day
(a) T (b) T
8 8 29. A mass is suspended separately by two different springs
5 7 in successive order then time periods is t 1 and t 2
(c) T (d) T respectively. It is connected by both springs as shown in
12 12
fig. then time period is t0, the correct relation is
21. Two particles are executing S.H.M. of same amplitude and
frequency along the same straight line path. They pass
each other when going in opposite directions, each time
their displacement is half of their amplitude. What is the k1 k2
phase difference between them ?
(a) 5 p/6 (b) 2 p/3
m
(c) p/3 (d) p/6
22. Lissajous figure obtained by combining x = a sin wt and (a) t 02 = t 12 + t 22 (b) t 0-2 = t 1-2 + t 2-2
y = a sin (wt + p/4) will be a/an
(c) t 0-1 = t1-1 + t -2 1 (d) t 0 = t1 + t 2
(a) ellipse (b) straight line
30. When an oscillator completes 100 oscillations its amplitude
(c) circle (d) parabola
23. A simple spring has length l and force constant K. It is cut 1
reduces to of its initial value. What will be its amplitude,
into two springs of lengths l1 and l2 such that l1 = n l2 3
(n = an integer). The force constant of spring of length l1 is when it completes 200 oscillations ?
(a) K (1 + n) (b) (K/n) (1 + n) 1 2
(c) K (d) K/(n + 1) (a) (b)
8 3
24. The spring constant from the adjoining combination of
springs is 1 1
(c) (d)
6 9
2K 31. A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light spring of
force constant k and unstretched length l. The system is
m rotated about the other end of the spring with an
angular velocity w, in gravity free space. The increase in
K K length of the spring will be
w
(a) K (b) 2 K k
(c) 4 K (d) 5 K/2 m
25. A Second’s pendulum is placed in a space laboratory
orbiting around the earth at a height 3 R from the earth’s
surface where R is earth’s radius. The time period of the mw2 l mw2 l
pendulum will be (a) (b)
k k - mw2
(a) zero (b) 2 3 mw 2 l
(c) (d) None of these
(c) 4 sec (d) infinite k + mw2
26. A simple pendulum attached to the roof of a lift has a time 32. Frequency of oscillation is proportional to
period of 2s in a stationary lift. If the lift is allowed to fall k 2k
freely the frequency of oscillations of pendulum will be m
(a) zero (b) 2 Hz
(c) 0.5 Hz (d) infinity 3k k
(a) (b)
27. Two simple pendulums of length 0.5 m and 20 m respectively m m
are given small linear displacement in one direction at the
same time. They will again be in the phase when the 2k m
(c ) (d)
m 3k
360 PHYSICS
mg é 2kh ù m 2L
(b) ê 1+ - 1ú
k ë mg û h M k
(a) w0 = (b) w 0 =
3k 3M
mg é 2kh ù
(c) ê 1+ + 1ú
k ë mg û k 3k k
(c) w0 = (d) w 0 =
M 2M
mg é kh ù 40. A particle of mass is executing oscillations about the origin
(d) ê 1+ - 1ú
k ë mg û on the x-axis. Its potential energy is V(x) = k | x |3, where k is
a positive constant. If the amplitude of oscillation is a, then
35. The graph shown in figure represents
its time period T is
Velocity
(a) S.H.M.
1
(b) circular motion (a) proportional to (b) proportional to a
a
(c) rectillinear motion 3
–a O +a Displacement
(d) uniform circular motion (c) independent a 2 (d) None of these
41. A circular hoop of radius R is hung over a knife edge. The
36. The time period of a simple pendulum of infinite length is period of oscillation is equal to that of a simple pendulum
(Re = radius of Earth) of length
(a) R (b) 2R
Re 2R e
(a) T = 2p (b) T = 2p 3R
g g (c) 3R (d)
2
42. In the figure shown, the spring is light and has a force
Re
(c) T = 2p (d) T = ¥ constant k. The pulley is light and smooth and the strring
2g is light . The suspended block has a mass m. On giving a
37. A block rests on a horizontal table which is executing SHM slight displacement vartically to the block in the downward
in the horizontal plane with an amplitude 'a'. If the coefficient direction from its equilibrium position the block executes
of friction is 'm', then the block just starts to slip when the S.H.M. on being released with time period T. Then
frequency of oscillation is
m
(a) T = 2p
1 mg mg k
(a) (b)
2p a a
m
(b) T = 2p
a 2k
a
(c) 2p (d) mg
mg 2m
(c) T = 2p
38. On Earth, a body suspended on a spring of negligible mass k
causes extension L and undergoes oscillations along length m
of the spring with frequency f. On the Moon, the same m
(d) T = 4p
quantities are L/n and f ' respectively. The ratio f '/f is k
Oscillations 361
43. A body of mass m falls from a height h onto a pan (of (a) 1.05 s (b) 0.52 s
negligible mass) of a spring balance as shown. The spring (c) 0.25 s (d) 0.03 s
also possesses negligible mass and has spring constant k.
47. A forced oscillator is acted upon by a force F = F0 sin wt.
Just after striking the pan, the body starts socillatory motion
in vertical directioin of amplitude A and energy E. Then 55
The amplitude of oscillation is given by .
mg 2
A= m 2w - 36w + 9
(a)
k The resonant angular frequency is
mg 2kh (a) 2 unit (b) 9 unit
(b) A= 1+ h
k mg (c) 18 unit (d) 36 unit
48. A straight rod of negligible mass is mounted on a frictionless
1 pivot and masses 2.5 kg and 1 kg are suspended at
(c) E = mgh + kA 2
2 distances 40 cm and 100 cm respectively from the pivot as
2 shown. The rod is held at an angle q with the horizontal
æ 2mg ö and released. Then
(d) E = mgh + ç
è 2k ÷ø
44. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which undergoes
vertical simple harmonic motion of angular frequency w. 100cm
The amplitude of oscillation is gradually increased. The 40cm
coin will leave contact with the platform for the first time q
(a) at the mean position of the platform 1 kg
g
(b) for an amplitude of
w2
2.5kg
2
g
(c) for an amplitude of
w2 /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////
(d) at the highest position of the platform
45. A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing S.H.M. of (a) the rod executes periodic motion about horizontal
amplitude of 0.1 m. When the particle passes through the position after the release
mean position, its kinetic energy is 8 × 10–3 Joule. Obtain (b) the rod remains stationary after the release.
the equation of motion of this particle if this initial phase of
(c) the rod comes to rest in vertical position with 2.5 kg
oscillation is 45º.
mass at the lowest point
æ pö (d) the rod executes periodic motion about vertical
(a) y = 0.1sin ç ±4t + ÷
è 4ø position after the release
DIRECTIONS for Qs. (49-50) : Each question contains
æ pö
(b) y = 0.2sin ç ±4t + ÷ STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
è 4ø (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following-
æ pö (a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(c) y = 0.1sin ç ±2t + ÷
è 4ø (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
correct explanation for Statement-1
(d) æ pö
y = 0.2sin ç ±2t +÷ (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
è 4ø a correct explanation for Statement-1
46. A body of mass 0.01 kg executes simple harmonic motion (d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
about x = 0 under the influence of a force as shown in
figure. The time period of S.H.M. is 49. Statement 1 : The graph between velocity and displacement
for a harmonic oscillator is an ellipse.
F(N)
Statement -2 : Velocity does not change uniformly with
displacement in harmonic motion.
80 50. Statement -1 : If the amplitude of a simple harmonic
0.2 x(m) oscillator is doubled, its total energy becomes four times.
–0.2
Statement -2 : The total energy is directly proportional to
–80 the square of the amplitude of vibration of the harmonic
oscillator.
362 PHYSICS
Exemplar Questions elastic support as shown in figure. A and C are of the same
length, while B is smaller than A and D is larger than A. If A
1. The displacement of a particle is represented by the is given a transverse displacement,
æp ö (a) D will vibrate with maximum amplitude
equation y = 3cos ç - 2wt ÷ . The motion of the particle
è4 ø (b) C will vibrate with maximum amplitude
is
(c) B will vibrate with maximum amplitude
(a) simple harmonic with period 2p/w
(d) All the four will oscillate with equal amplitude
(b) simple harmonic with period p/w
(c) periodic but not simple harmonic 8. Figure shows the circular motion of a particle. The radius of
(d) non-periodic the circle, the period, sense of revolution and the initial
position are indicated on the figure. The simple harmonic
2. The displacement of a particle is represented by the
equation y = sin3 wt. The motion is motion of the x-projection of the radius vector of the rotating
particle P is
(a) non-periodic y
(b) periodic but not simple harmonic æ 2 pt ö p(t = 0)
(c) simple harmonic with period 2p/w (a) x(t ) = B sin ç ÷ T = 30s
è 30 ø
(d) simple harmonic with period p/w B
æ pt ö x
3. The relation between acceleration and displacement of four (b) x ( t ) = B cos ç ÷
particles are given below è 15 ø
(a) ax = +2x (b) ax = +2x2 æ pt p ö
(c) ax = –2x 2 (d) ax = –2x (c) x(t ) = B sin ç + ÷
è 15 2 ø
Which, one of the particle is exempting simple harmonic
motion? æ pt p ö
(d) x(t ) = B cos ç + ÷
4. Motion of an oscillating liquid column in a U-tube is è 15 2 ø
(a) periodic but not simple harmonic 9. The equation of motion of a particle is x = a cos(at)2. The
(b) non-periodic motion is
(c) simple harmonic and time period is independent of the (a) periodic but not oscillatory
density of the liquid (b) periodic and oscillatory
(d) simple harmonic and time period is directly proportional
(c) oscillatory but not periodic
to the density of the liquid
(d) neither periodic nor oscillatory
5. A particle is acted simultaneously by mutually perpendicular
simple harmonic motion x = a cos wt and y = a sin wt. The 10. A particle executing SHM maximum speed of 30 cm/s and a
trajectory of motion of the particle will be maximum acceleration of 60 cm/s2. The period of oscillation
(a) an ellipse (b) a parabola is
(c) a circle (d) a straight line p
6. The displacement of a particle varies with time according to (a) p sec (b) sec
2
the relation y = a sin wt + b cos wt.
p
(a) The motion is oscillatory but not SHM (c) 2p sec (d) sec
(b) The motion is SHM with amplitude a + b t
(c) The motion is SHM with amplitude a2 + b2
Past Years (2013-2017) NEET/AIPMT Questions
(d) The motion is SHM with amplitude a +b 2 2
11. A particle of mass m oscillates along x-axis according to
7. Four pendulums A, B, C and D are suspended from the equation x = a sin wt. The nature of the graph between
same momentum and displacement of the particle is
[NEET Kar. 2013]
G G
(a) straight line passing through origin
(b) circle
(c) hyperbola
C B A (d) ellipse
D
Oscillations 363
12. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is 14. When two displacements represented by y1 = asin(wt) and
represented by the equation, y2 = b cos(wt) are superimposed the motion is: [2015]
X = A cos (wt) a
where X = displacement at time t (a) simple harmonic with amplitude
b
w = frequency of oscillation
Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the (b) simple harmonic with amplitude a2 + b2
variation of ‘a’ with ‘t’? [2014]
(a + b)
(c) simple harmonic with amplitude
a 2
(a) O (d) not a simple harmonic
T t 15. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. Its maximum
acceleration is a and maximum velocity is b.
Then its time period of vibration will be : [2015 RS]
a
a b2
(b) O (a) (b)
T t b a
2pb b2
(c) (d)
a a2
a
(c) 16. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an
O
T t amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at 2 cm from the
mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that
of its acceleration. Then its time period in seconds is [2017]
a 5 4p
(a) (b)
(d) O 2p 5
T t
2p 5
(c) (d)
13. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its 3 p
velocities at distances x1 and x2 from the mean position 17. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2
are V1 and V2, respectively. Its time period is [2015]
: 3. They are connected in series and the new force constant
is k'. Then they are connected in parallel and force constant
x 22 – x12 V12 + V22
(a) 2p (b) 2p is k¢¢ . Then k' : k¢¢ is [2017]
V12 – V22 x12 + x 22 (a) 1 : 9 (b) 1 : 11
(c) 1 : 14 (d) 1 : 6
V12 – V22 x12 – x 22
(c) 2p (d) 2p
x12 – x 22 V12 – V22
364 PHYSICS
(since vmax = v) dx a
= 2 w sin 2 wt
dt 2
displacement x
12. (b) T = 2π = 2p b x = 2p/ b d2x 4w2 a
acceleration Þ = × cos 2 wt
dt 2 2
11. (a) P.E. of body in S.H.M. at an instant,
w
This represents an S. H. M. of frequency =
1 1 p
U= m w 2 y 2 = ky 2
2 2
m
If the displacement, y = (a – x) then 25. (d) T = 2 p
K
1 1
U= k(a - x)2 = k(x - a) 2 T1 M1
2 2 \ =
T2 M2
13. (c) P.E. changes from zero to maximum twice in each
vibration so its time period is T/2 M2 2M
dx \ T2 = T1 M1 = T 1
(a) Velocity, v = M
14. = -A w sin (w t + p / 4)
dt
T2 = T1 2 = 2 T (where T1 =T)
Velocity will be maximum, when
EXERCISE - 2
wt + p/4 = p/2 or wt = p/2 – p/4 = p/4 or t
= p/4w 1. (a) v = w a 2 - y2
15. (d) Tension is maximum at the mean position.
At x= 0, v = w a 2 - o2 = wa.
16. (a) A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-
section 2
a æ aö 3a 2
At x = , v ' = w a2 - ç ÷ = w
A floats in a liquid of density r. If it is given a small 2 è 2ø 4
vertical displacement from equilibrium. It undergoes
oscillations with a time period T then : T µ m. v' 3
\ =
v 2
4p 2
17. (c) &&
y = w2 y, w2 = 1, = 1 or T 2 = 4p 2 3 3pa 3pa æQ w = 2p ö
T2 or v' = wa = wa = ç ÷
2 2 T è Tø
or T = 2p second.
18. (a) At displacement ± a, the velocity is zero. At zero 2. (c) v max = 100 = a w ; w = 100/a = 100/10 = 10 rad/s
displacement, velocity is maximum. v2 = w2 (a2 – y2) or 502
19. (a) The amplitude is a maximum displacement from the = 102 (102 – y2) or 25 = 100 – y2
mean position.
or y = 75 = 5 3 cm.
Oscillations 365
M 1 1
3. (b) T = 2p
k
10. (a) tµ
9.8
, t' µ
12.8
(Q g ' = 9.8 + 3 = 12.8)
R 64 ´ 106 22 8 ´ 10 3 1
4. (d) T = 2p = 2p = 2 ´ ´ sin (wt + d) =
g 9.8 7 7´ 2 2
p
Þ wt + d =
2 ´ 22 ´ 8 ´ 1000 6
= min = 84.6 min
49 ´ 60 p
or f1 =
5. (c) Max. force = mass × max. acceleration 6
= m 4 p2 n2 a = 1 × 4 ×p2 × (60)2 × 0.02 = 288 p2 For second particle,
l
; 2 = 2p l = 2p l¢
T = 2p 1
6. (a) A
g g (g / 6 )
A
Time period will remain constant if on moon, 2 x = A/2
l' = l/6 = 1/6 m x=0
7. (a) Kinetic energy,
p 5p
( )
1 1 f2 = p - =
K.E = mv2 = mw2 A 2 - x 2 6 6
2 2
\ f = f2 - f1
Potential energy,
4p 2p
1 1 = =
P.E = kx 2 = mw 2 x 2 6 3
2 2 12. (c) When the bob moves from maximum angular
putting, K.E = P.E displacement q to mean position, then the loss of
gravitational potential energy is mgh
1
2
( 1
)
mw2 A 2 - x 2 = mw2 x 2 Þ A 2 = 2x 2
2
where h = l (1 - cos q)
A 400 100
x= = 2 2 cm. 13. (d) T = 2p , T ' = 2p
2 k k
1 2T 1 T 1 (n + 1)
n= , n' = \ = or k = (n + 1) K
16. (a) l (3D) pr lD p(2r) K k
The spring of length l1 (= n l2) will be equivalent to n
n 2 2 springs connected in series where spring constant
\ = ´ 2=
n' 3 3 k
k¢ = = (n + 1) K / n & spring constant of length l2
17. (b) n
1 is K(n+1).
2 2 2
18. (c) Kinetic energy K = mw (a - y ) 24. (c) Here all the three springs are connected in parallel to
2
mass m. Hence equivalent spring constant
1 æ 2p ö
2 k = K + K + 2 K = 4 K.
= ´ 10 ´ ç ÷ [102 - 52 ] = 375 p 2 erg 25. (d) The second pendulum placed in a space laboratory
2 è 2ø
orbiting around the earth is in a weightlessness state.
1 2 2 E1 1 2 E2 Hence g = 0 so T = ¥
19. (b) E1 = kx Þ x = , E2 = ky 2 Þ y = 26. (a) When lift is falling freely, the effective acceleration
2 k 2 k
due to gravity inside the lift is zero i.e. g' = g – g = 0.
1 2E Therefore time period will be infinity and frequency is
and E = k ( x + y )2 Þ x + y =
2 k zero
2 E1 2 E2 2E 27. (b) Let T1, T2 be the time period of shorter length and
Þ + = Þ E1 + E2 = E longer length pendulums respectively. As per question,
k k k
n T1 = (n – 1) T2 ;
T
20. (c) Time to complete 1/4th oscillation is s. Time to
4 0 .5 20
so n 2 p = ( n - 1) 2 p
1 g g
complete th vibration from extreme position is
8
obtained from or n = (n - 1) 40 » (n - 1) 6
a 2p T Hence n = 6/5 » 1
y = = a cos w t = a cos t or t = s
2 T 6
So time to complete 3/8th oscillation l DT 1
28. (a) T = 2p ; = 2 p ´ (l / g) -1/ 2 ´ Dl / l
T T 5T g T 2
= + =
4 6 12
l + Dl
21. (b) y = a sin (wt + f) ; when y = a/2, (Q T + DT = 2p )
g
a
then= a sin (w t + f ) DT 1 Dl 1
2 \ = = a Dq
5p T 2 l 2
1 p
or sin (w t + f) = = sin or sin
2 6 6 1 -6 -5
= ´12 ´ 10 ´ (40 - 20) = 12 ´10
So phase of two particles is p/6 and 5 p/6 radians 2
Hence phase difference = (5 p/6) – p/6 = 2 p/3 –5
22. (a) sin wt = x/a and D T = T ´ 12 ´ 10 -5 = 24 × 60 × 60 × 12 × 10
= 10.3 s/day
cos wt = 1 - sin 2 wt = 1 - x 2 / a 2
m 4 p2m 4 p2 m
y = sin (wt + p/4) 29. (b) t 1 = 2p or t12 = or k1 = 2
k1 k1 t1
= sin wt cos p/4 + cos wt sin p/4
x 1 æ ö 1
= ´ + ç 1- x2 / a2 ÷´ 4 p2m 4p 2 m
a 2 è ø 2 Similarly, k 2 = and (k1 + k 2 ) =
t 22 t 02
2 2
or 2 y= x+ a -x
4 p2m 4 p 2m 4 p2m 1 1 1
or 2 y 2 = x 2 + (a 2 - x 2 ) + 2 x a 2 - x 2 \ = + or = +
t 02 t12 t 22 t 02 t12 t 22
2 2 2
= a +2x a - x 30. (d) It is a damped oscillation, where amplitude of
It is an equation of an ellipse.
23. (b) Let k be the force constant of spring of length l2. oscillation at time t is given by A = a 0 e - γ t
Since l1 = n l2, where n is an integer, so the spring is where a0 = initial amplitude of oscillation
made of (n + 1) equal parts in length each of length l2. g = damping constant.
Oscillations 367
a0
As per question, = a 0 e - γ 100 / ν …… (i) mg m 2g 2 2mgh
3 or x= ± +
(where n is the frequency of oscillation) k k2 k
mw2 l
\ mw2 (l + x) = kx or x =
k - mw2 A
x
B
q q
k 2k
32. (a) mg
x
Re
Let mass is displaced towards left by x then force on
mass = – kx – 2kx = – 3kx
[negative sign is taken because force is opposite to The direction of the Earth's gravitational field is radial
the direction of motion] GM e m
Now, F = = mg
3k R e2
Þ F = - 3kx = -mw x Þ w =
2 .
m
x GM e m
w 1 3k Fx = -F cos q = -F =- x = –kx
f= = . Re R 3e
2 p 2p m
Thus it is propotional to 3k / m GM e m
where k =
33. (a) Maximum velocity can be found out by energy R e3
conservation. Time period of a simple harmonic oscillator,
1
mgh = mv 2 or v max = 2gh ; m m
2 T = 2p = 2p
v max gh
k GM e m / R 3e
= v' =
2 2
Re
1
mgh = m( v ' ) 2 + mgh ' ; GM e Re
2 or T = 2p = 2p
1 mgh R e2 g
mgh = + mgh '
2 2
37. (a) For the block is about to slip, mg = w 2 a
3mgh 3h
Þ = mgh ' or h ' =
4 4 mg
34. (b) Loss in PE of mass = gain in PE of the spring or Þ w =
a
1 2
\ mg (h + x) = kx
2 mg 1 mg
Þ 2pν = Þν=
a 2p a
kx 2 – 2mgx – 2mgh = 0
38. (d) Oscillations along spring length are independent of
2mg ± 4 m 2 g 2 - 4k (-2mgh) gravitation.
Þ x=
2k
368 PHYSICS
1 4 æ xö
39. (c ) I = M(2L) 2 = ML2 Þ 2T = k ç x 0 ÷
3 3 è 2ø
Force applied by the spring is F = – kx
kx
Þ F = – k (2Lq) Þ (T - T0 ) =
4
(q is the angular displacement from the equilibrium
position). Further m m
r r Þ Time period = 2 p = 4p
k k
t =| l ´ F |= 4L2 k sin q = -4L2 kq
4
..
Also, t = Ia = I q = -4L2 kq 1 2
43. (b) mg(h + y) = ky
..
2
3k
Þ q+ q=0
M mg mg 2kh
Þ y= ± 1+
k k mg
3k
Þ w0 = At equilibrium
M
mg = ky0
40. (a) V(x) = k | x |3
mg
dV(x) Þ y0 =
since, F = - = -3k | x |2 …… (i) k
dx
x = a sin (wt) mg 2kh
Þ Amplitude A = y – y0 = 1+
This equation always fits to the differential equation k mg
Energy of oscillation is
d2 x 2
= -w2 x or m d x = -mw 2 x
dt 2 dt 1 æ mg ö
2
E = kA 2 = mgh + ç
Þ F = – mw2x …… (ii) 2 è 2k ÷ø
Equations (i) and (ii) give 44. (b) For block A to move in S.H.M.
2 2
-3k | x | = - mw x N
A
3kx 3ka
Þ w= = [sin(wt)]1/ 2
m m
mg x
mean
Þ wµ a position
1 mg – N = mw2x
Þ Tµ
a where x is the distance from mean position
For block to leave contact N = 0
2R l
41. (b) T = 2p = 2p
g g g
Þ mg = mw2 x Þ x =
w2
42. (d) Let the extension in the spring be x0 at equilibrium. If
F0 be the tension in the string then F0 = kx0. Further if 45. (a) The displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is given by
T0 is the tension in the thread then T0 = mg and y = a sin (wt + f)
2T0 = kx0.
dy
Let the mass m be displaced through a slight velocity = = wa cos (wt + f)
dt
displacement x downwards. Let the the new tension in
the string and spring be T and F respectively. The velocity is maximum when the particle passes
through the mean position i.e.,
æ xö æ dy ö
Þ F = ç x 0 ÷ and F = 2T çè ÷ø
è 2ø dt max = w a
Oscillations 369
The kinetic energy at this instant is given by A simple harmonic motion is always periodic. So motion
2 is periodic simple harmonic.
1 æ dy ö 1
mç ÷ = mw2 a2 = 8 × 10–3 joule From the given equation,
2 è dt ø max 2
æp ö
1 y = 3cos ç - 2wt ÷
or × (0.1) w2 × (0.1)2 = 8 × 10–3 è4 ø
2
Solving we get w = ± 4 Compare it by standard equation
Substituting the values of a, w and f in the equation of y = a cos(wt + f)
S.H.M., we get
y = 0.1 sin (± 4t + p /4) metre. So, w ' = 2w
80 2p 2p p
46. (d) Slope of F - x curve = – k = - Þ k = 400 N/m, = 2w Þ T ' = =
0.2 T' 2w w
m p
Time period, T = 2p = 0.0314 sec. Hence, the motion is SHM with period .
k w
47. (b) At resonance, amplitude of oscillation is maximum
2. (b) A motion will be harmonic if a µ displacement and a
Þ 2w2 – 36w + 9 is minimum
simple harmonic motion is always periodic but all
Þ 4w – 36 = 0 (derivative is zero)
Þ w= 9 simple harmonic motion are periodic but all periodic
are not harmonic.
48. (b) Torque about hinge
As given equation of motion is
2.5 g × 0.40 cos q – 1g × 1 cos q = 0
49. (c) 50. (b) y = sin 3 wt
é æp öù dy
= 3(-2w) ê - sin ç - 2wt ÷ú 4 = 3w cos wt - 4 ´ [3w cos 3wt ]
ë è4 øû dt
Again, differentiating both side w.r.t. t
æp ö
= 6w sin ç - 2wt ÷
è4 ø d2y
4´ = -3 w 2 sin wt + 36 w sin 3wt
So, acceleration, dt 2
dv d é æp öù
a= = 6w sin ç - 2wt ÷ ú d 2 y -3 w 2 sin wt + 36 w sin 3wt
dt dt êë è 4 øû a= =
dt 2 4
æp ö
= (6w) ´ (-2w) cos ç - 2wt ÷ æ d2y ö
è4 ø So, çç 2 ÷÷ is not directly proportional to y.
è dt ø
é æp öù
= -4w2 ê3cos ç - 2wt ÷ú So motion is not harmonic.
ë è4 øû
y(t ) = sin 3 wt ,
a = -4w2 y
In simple harmonic motion acceleration (or force) is y (t + T ) = sin 3 (wt + T )
directly proportional to the negative of displacement
of particle é 2p ù
Þ as acceleration, a µ - y = sin 3 ê (t + T ) ú
ëT û
Hence, due to negative sign motion is simple harmonic
motion (SHM.) = sin3 (2p + wt ) = sin 3 wt
370 PHYSICS
8. (a) As the particle (P) is executing circular motion with Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
radius B. w(wa) = 60 Þ w(30) = 60
Let particle P is at Q at instant any (t), foot of w = 2 rad/s
perpendicular on x axis is at R vector OQ makes Ðq ,
with its zero position not P displacement of particles 2p
= 2 rad/s
for O to R. T
Consider angular velocity of the particle executing T = p sec
circular motion is w and when it is at Q makes and Past Years (2013-2017) NEET/AIPMT Questions
angle q as shown in the diagram.
v2 y2
y 11. (d) As + = 1 This is the equation of ellipse.
a 2w 2 a 2
p(t=0) Hence the graph is an ellipse. P versus x graph is
r Q similar to V versus x graph.
q q
90–q
x 12. (c) Displacement, x = A cos (wt) (given)
O
BR dx
= - Aw sin (wt)
Velocity, v =
dt
dv
Acceleration, a = = - Aw 2 cos wt
Clearly, q = wt dt
Hence graph (c) correctly dipicts the variation of a
Now, we can write with t.
OR = OQ cos(90 – q) (Q OR = X ) 13. (a) As we know, for particle undergoing SHM,
x = OQ sin q = OQ sin wt V = w A2 – X2
V12 = w2 (A 2 – x12 )
= r sin wt [Q OQ = r ]
V22 = w2 (A 2 – x 22 )
2p æ 2p ö
\ x = B sin t = B sin ç t ÷ Substracting we get,
T è 30 ø
V12 2 V22
æ 2p ö + x1 = + x 22
x = B sin ç t ÷ w2 w2
è 30 ø
V12 – V22
Hence, this equation represents SHM. Þ 2
= x 22 – x12
w
9. (c) According to the question, V12 – V22
Þ w =
x = a cos(at )2 x 22 – x12
is a cosine function, so it is an oscillatory motion. x 22 – x12
Þ T = 2p
Now, at, t = (t + T). The equation of motion of particle V12 – V22
14. (b) The two displacements equations are y1 = a sin(wt)
x(t + T ) = a cos[a(t + T )]2 [Q x(t ) = a cos(at )2 ]
æ pö
2 2 and y2 = b cos(wt) = b sin ç wt + ÷
= a cos[at + aT + 2atT ] ¹ x (t ) è 2ø
yeq = y1 + y2
where, T is supposed as period of the function w(t).
Hence, it is oscillatory but not periodic. æ pö
= a sinwt + b coswt = a sinwt + b sin ç wt + ÷
10. (a) Let us consider a equation of an SHM is represented è 2ø
by y = a sin wt Since the frequencies for both SHMs are same,
resultant motion will be SHM.
dy
v= = aw cos wt p
dt Now Aeq = a 2 + b 2 + 2ab cos
2
(v )max = aw = 30 cm/sec (given) ...(i)
b Þ Aeq = a 2 + b2
dv
Acceleration (a) = = - aw 2 sin wt
dt
15. (c) As, we know, in SHM 17. (b) Let l be the complete length of the spring.
Maximum acceleration of the particle, a = Aw2 l l l
Maximum velocity, b = Aw Length when cut in ratio, 1 : 2 : 3 are , and
6 3 2
a 1
Þ w=
b Spring constant (k) µ
length (l)
2p 2pb é 2p ù Spring constant for given segments
Þ T=
w
=
a êëQ w = T úû
k1 = 6k, k2 = 3k and k3 = 2k
16. (b) Given, Amplitude A = 3 cm When they are connected in series
Which particle is at x = 2 cm 1 1 1 1
= + +
According to question, magnitude of velocity k ' 6k 3k 2k
= acceleration
1 6
Þ =
w A 2 - x 2 = xw2 k ' 6k
\ Force constant k' = k
2 2 æ 2p ö And when they are connected in parallel
(3) - (2) = 2 ç ÷
è T ø k" = 6k + 3k + 2k
4p 4p Þ k" = 11k
5= Þ T= Then the ratios
T 5
k' 1
= i.e., k' : k" = 1 : 11
k " 11
15 Waves
Differential equation of wave motion : (ii) The speed of transverse waves on stretched string is given
by
d2y 1 d2 y
= T
dx2 v 2 dt 2 v=
m
Relation between wave velocity and particle velocity :
where T is the tension in the string and m is the mass per
The equation of a plane progressive wave is unit length of the string.
y = A sin(wt - kx ) ... (i) Speed of Longitudinal Waves :
The particle velocity The speed of longitudinal waves in a medium of elasticity E and
dy density r is given by
vp = = Aw cos(w t - kx) ... (ii)
dt E
v=
Slope of displacement curve or strain r
dy For solids, E is replaced by Young's modulus (Y)
= - Ak cos( w t - kx ) ... (iii)
dx Y
vsolid =
Dividing eqn. (ii) by (iii), we get r
dy dt w For liquids and gases, E is replaced by bulk modulus of
= elasticity (B)
-dy dx k
B
vp æ w ö vliquid/gas =
Þ =v çè since = v, wave velocity÷ r
-dy dx k ø
The density of a solid is much larger than that of a gas but the
elasticity is larger by a greater factor.
dy
Þ v p = - v. vsolid > vliquid > vgas
dx
Speed of Sound in a Gas :
i.e., Particle velocity = – wave velocity × strain. Newton's formula.
Particle velocity changes with the time but the wave velocity is
constant in a medium. P
v=
Relation between phase difference, path difference and time r
difference : where P is the atmospheric pressure and r is the density of air at
• Phase difference of 2p radian is equivalent to a path STP.
difference l and a time difference of period T. Laplace's correction
2p gP
• Phase difference = × path difference v=
l r
2p l where g is the ratio of two specific heats Cp and Cv
f= ´x Þ x = ´f
l 2p Power and Intensity of Wave Motion :
If a wave is travelling in a stretched string, energy is transmitted
2p
• Phase difference = × time difference along the string.
T
Power of the wave is given by
2p T
1 2 2
f= ´t Þ t = ´f
P= mw A v where m is mass per unit length.
T 2p
2
T Intensity is flow of energy per unit area of cross section of the
• Time difference = × path difference string per unit time.
l
T l 1 2 2
t= ´ x Þ x = ´t Intensity I = rw A v
l T 2
Principle of Superposition of Waves :
Speed of Transverse Waves :
If two or more waves arrive at a point simultaneously then the
(i) The speed of transverse waves in solid is given by
net displacement at that point is the algebraic sum of the
h displacement due to individual waves.
v=
r y = y1 + y2 + ............... + yn.
where y1, y2 .......... yn are the displacement due to individual
where h is the modulus of rigidity of the solid and r is the
waves and y is the resultant displacement.
density of material.
Waves 375
INTERFERENCE OF WAVES When sound wave is reflected from a rigid boundary or denser
When two waves of equal frequency and nearly equal amplitude medium, the wave suffers a phase reversal of p but the nature
travelling in same direction having same state of polarisation does not change i.e., on reflection the compression is reflected
in medium superimpose, then intensity is different at different back as compression and rarefaction as rarefaction.
points. At some points intensity is large, whereas at other points When sound wave is reflected from an open boundary or rarer
it is nearly zero. medium, there is no phase change but the nature of wave is
Consider two waves changed i.e., on reflection, the compression is reflected back as
y1 = A1sin (wt – kx) and rarefaction and rarefaction as compression.
y2 = A2 sin (wt – kx + f)
By principle of superposition Keep in Memory
y = y1 + y2 = A sin (wt – kx + d) (i) For a wave, v = f l
where, A2 = A12 + A22 + 2A1A2 cos f, (ii) The wave velocity of sound in air
A2 sin f E Yr gRT
and tan d = v= = =
A1 + A2 cos f r r M
As intensity I µ A2 dx
(iii) Particle velocity is given by v p = . It changes with time.
So, resultant intensity I = I1 + I2 + 2 I1 I 2 cos f dt
The wave velocity is the velocity with which disturbances
For constructive interference (maximum intensity) :
w
Phase difference, f = 2np travel in the medium and is given by v w = .
k
and path difference = nl
(iv) When a wave reflects from denser medium the phase change
where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ...
is p and when the wave reflects from rarer medium, the
Þ Amax = A1 + A2 and Imax = I1 + I2 + 2 I1I2 phase change is zero.
(v) In a tuning fork, the waves produced in the prongs is
= ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 transverse whereas in the stem is longitudinal.
For destructive interference (minimum intensity) : (vi) A medium in which the speed of wave is independent of the
Phase difference, f = (2n + 1)p, frequency of the waves is called non-dispersive. For
example air is a non-dispersive medium for the sound waves.
l
and path difference = ( 2n - 1) ; where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, ... (vii) Transverse waves can propagate in medium with shear
2 modulus of elasticity e.g., solid whereas longitudinal waves
Þ Amin = A1 – A2 and Imin = I1 + I2 – 2 I1I 2 need bulk modulus of elasticity hence can propagate in all
media solid, liquid and gas.
= ( I1 – I 2 ) 2 Energy Transported by a Hormonic Wave Along a String :
Results : Kinetic energy of a small element of length dx is
(1) The ratio of maximum and minimum intensities in any 2
interference wave form. 1 æ ¶y ö
dk = (m dx )ç ÷ where m = mass per unit length
2 2
2 è ¶t ø
I max æ I1 + I 2 ö æ A1 + A2 ö
=ç ÷ =ç 1
I min è I1 - I 2 ø è A1 - A2 ÷ø dk = ém w2 A2 cos 2 (kx - wt ) ù dx
2ë û
(2) Average intensity of interference in wave form : and potential energy stored
I max + I min 1 æ ¶y ö 1
2
Iav =
2 dU = (T dx) ç ÷ = m w2 A2 cos 2 (kx - wt )dx
2 è ¶x ø 2
Put the value of Imax and Imin Example 1.
or Iav = I1 + I2 The displacement y (in cm) produced by a simple harmonic
If A = A1 = A2 and I1 = I2 = I wave is given by y = (10/p) sin (2000 pt – px /17). What will
then Imax = 4I, Imin = 0 and Iav = 2I be the periodic time and maximum velocity of the particles
(3) Condition of maximum contrast in interference wave form in the medium?
A1 = A2 and I1 = I2 Solution :
then Imax = 4I and Imin = 0
10 æ px ö 10 æ x ö
For perfect destructive interference we have a maximum y= sin ç 2000pt - ÷ or y = sin 2 pç1000 t - ÷
contrast in interference wave form. p è 17 ø p è 34 ø
The standard equation of S.H.M. is,
Reflection of Waves :
A mechanical wave is reflected and refracted at a boundary é t xù
y = a sin 2 p ê - ú ;
separating two media according to the usual laws of reflection ëT l û
and refraction.
376 PHYSICS
æ dy ö rair
Þç ÷ = 20,000 cm / s = 200 m / s (as vmax = Aw) or vH = vair ´ = 332 ´
16
= 1328 m/s
è dt ø max rH 1
Example 2. (b) In terms of temperature and molecular weight
A progressive wave of frequency 500 Hz is travelling with v Ne g Ne M W
a velocity of 360 m/s. How far apart are two points 60o out = ´ [as TN = TW]
vW M Ne g W
of phase?
Now as neon is monatomic (g = 5/3) while water vapours
Solution :
polyatomic (g = 4/3) so
We known that for a wave v = f l
v 360 v Ne ( 5 / 3) ´ 1.8 ´ 10-2 5 1.8
so l = = ´
f 500
= 0.72 m vW = ( 4 / 3) ´ 2.02 ´ 10-2
=
4 2.02
= 1.05
DP
But by definition B= –V
DV
DP V( -DP)
so –V = v2r, i.e., DV =
DV rv 2
Here DP = H2rg – H1rg = (75 – 200) ´ 13.6 ´ 981
= –1.667 ´ 106 dyne/cm2
s o DV =
(6 ´ 10 )(1.667 ´ 10 ) = 0.75 cc
3 6 Let two sound waves of frequencies n 1 and n2 are propagating
simultaneously and in same direction. Then at x=0
0.81 ´ (1.280 ´ 10 ) 5 2
y1 = A sin 2p n1t, and y2 = A sin 2p n2t,
For simplicity we take amplitude of both waves to be same.
Example 4. By principle of superposition, the resultant displacement at any
(a) Speed of sound in air is 332 m/s at NTP. What will be instant is
the speed of sound in hydrogen at NTP if the density y = y1 + y2 = 2A cos 2p nAt sin 2p navt
of hydrogen at NTP is (1/16) that of air? n1 - n 2
n + n2
(b) Calculate the ratio of the speed of sound in neon to that where n av = 1 , nA =
2 2
in water vapour at any temperature. [Molecular weight of
Þ y = Abeat sin 2p navt ..................(i)
neon = 2.02 ´ 10–2 kg/mol and for water vapours = 1.8 ´
10–2 kg/mol] It is clear from the above expression (i) that
Waves 377
(ii) If source and observer both move towards each other. Solution :
In this case, we can assume that both the source and
æ V + V0 ö observer are moving towards each other with velocity v. If
n3¢ = ç ÷ n0 ;
è V - Vs ø c be the velocity of signal, then
æc+vö æ (c + v) (c - v) ö
When the wind blows in the direction of sound, then in all above n¢ = ç ÷n or n¢ = ç ÷n
formulae V is replaced by (V + W) where W is the velocity of wind. èc-vø ç (c - v) 2 ÷
è ø
If the wind blows in the opposite direction to sound then V is replaced
by (V – W). (c2 - v2 ) c2
or n ¢ = Þ n¢ = n; (as c >> v)
Keep in Memory c 2 + v2 - 2c v c 2 - 2cv
æ c ö
1. The motion of the listener causes change in number of \ n ¢ = çç ÷÷ n
waves received by the listener and this produces an apparent è c- 2v ø
change in frequency. STATIONARY OR STANDING WAVES
2. The motion of the source of sound causes change in When two progressive waves having the same amplitude, velocity
wavelength of the sound waves, which produces apparent and time period but travelling in opposite directions
change in frequency. superimpose, then stationary wave is produced.
3. If a star goes away from the earth with velocity v, then the Let two waves of same amplitude and frequency travel in opposite
frequency of the light emitted from it changes from n to n'. direction at same speed, then
n' = n (1–v/c), where c is the velocity of light and y1 = A sin (wt –kx) and
y2 = A sin (wt + kx)
Dn v Dl v By principle of superposition
= or = where Dl is called Doppler’s shift.
n c l c y = y1 + y2 = (2A cos kx) sin wt ...(i)
If wavelength of the observed waves decreases then the y = A s sin ωt
object from which the waves are coming is moving towards
It is clear that amplitude of stationary wave As vary with position
the listener and vice versa. (a) As = 0, when cos kx = 0 i.e., kx = p/2, 3p/2............
Example 7. i.e., x = l/4, 3l/4...................[as k = 2p/l]
Two engines cross each other travelling in opposite These points are called nodes and spacing between two
direction at 72 km/hour. One engine sounds a whistle of nodes is l/2.
frequency 1088 cps. What are the frequencies as heard by (b) As is maximum, when cos kx is max
an observer on the other engine before and after crossing. i.e., kx = 0, p , 2p, 3p i.e., x = 0, ll/2, 2l/2....
Take the speed of sound as 340 m/s. It is clear that antinode (where As is maximum) are also
Solution : equally spaced with spacing l/2.
The apparent frequency before crossing, (c) The distance between node and antinode is l/4 (see figure)
Antinode Node Antinode
æ v + v0 ö
n ¢ = n çç ÷ 2A
÷
è v - vs ø
segment 1 segment 2 segment 3
Here Vo = 72 km/hour = 20 m/s x
o
vs = 72 km/hour = 20 m/s
l /2
æ 340 + 20 ö l /4
360
\ n ¢ = 1088 ´ ç ÷ = 1088 ´ = 1224 Hz
è 340 - 20 ø 320 Keep in Memory
The apparent frequency after crossing 1. When a string vibrates in one segment, the sound produced
is called fundamental note. The string is said to vibrate in
æ v - v0 ö æ 340 - 20 ö
n '' = n ç ÷ = 1088 ´ ç ÷ fundamental mode.
è v + v s ø è 340 + 20 ø 2. The fundamental note is called first harmonic, and is given
32 v
= 1088 ´ = 967.11 Hz by n 0 = , where v = speed of wave.
36 2l
Example 8. 3. If the fundamental frequency be n 0 then 2 n 0 , 3 n 0 , 4 n 0
A rocket is going towards moon with a speed v. The ... are respectively called second third, fourth ... harmonics
astronaut in the rocket sends signals of frequency n respectively.
towards the moon and receives them back on reflection 4. If an instrument produces notes of frequencies
from the moon. What will be the frequency of the signal
n1 , n 2 , n 3 , n 4 .... where ν1 < ν 2 < ν3 < ν 4 ....., then n 2 is
received by the astronaut? (Take v << c)
Waves 379
called first overtone, n3 is called second overtone, n 4 is Similarly the frequency of third harmonic or first overtone (IInd
called third overtone ... so on. harmonic absent) is (see fig. b)
5. Harmonics are the integral multiples of the fundamental
3v
frequency. If n0 be the fundamental frequency, then nn 0 is n c2 =
4l
the frequency of nth harmonic.
6. Overtones are the notes of frequency higher than the 5v 7v
Similarly n c3 = , n c4 = ........
fundamental frequency actually produced by the instrument. 4l 4l
7. In the strings all harmonics are produced. End Correction
Stationary Waves in an Organ Pipe : It is observed that the antinode actually occurs a little above the
In the open organ pipe all the harmonics are produced. open end. A correction is applied for this which is known as end
In an open organ pipe, the fundamental frequency or first correction and is denoted by e.
v (i) For closed organ pipe : l is replaced by l+ e where
harmonic is n0 = , where v is velocity of sound and l is the
2l e = 0.3D, D is the diameter of the tube.
length of air column [see fig. (a)] (ii) For open organ pipe: l is replaced by l + 2e where
(a) (b) e = 0.3D
In resonance tube, the velocity of sound in air given by
l l v = 2ν ( l2 - l1 )
n n
3l 3L e e
l= ,l= A
2 3
Similarly the frequency of second harmonic or first overtone is l1
2v
[see fig (b)], n01 =
2l l2
Similarly the frequency of third harmonic and second overtone
3v
is, [(see fig. (c)] n02 =
2l
4v 5v
Similarly n03 = , n04 = ..................
2l 2l
In the closed organ pipe only the odd harmonics are produced. In
a closed organ pipe, the fundamental frequency (or first Let l1 and l2 are lengths of first and second resonances then
harmonic) is (see fig. a)
l 3l
v l1 + e = and l 2 + e =
nc = 4 4
4l
v
First or First Fundamental n= 2l A
2l N N
Fundamental tone
Second 3n 2l
Third Third overtone 3
First or v
First Fundamental n= 4l
Fundamental 4l
tone
Second 5n 4l
Third fifth overtone 5
CHARACTERISTICS OF SOUND The time gap between the initial direct note and the reflected note
1. A musical sound consists of quick, regular and periodic upto the minimum audibility level is called reverberation time.
succession of compressions and rarefactions without a Sabine Reverberation Formula for Time
sudden change in amplitude. Sabine established that the standard period of reverberation viz.,
2. A noise, consists of slow, irregular and a periodic succession the time that the sound takes to fall in intensity by 60 decibels or
of compressions and rarefactions, that may have sudden to one millionth of its original intensity after it was stopped, is
changes in amplitude. 0.05V
given by T =
3. (i) Pitch, (ii) loudness and (iii) quality are the characteristics å a i Si
of musical sound.
4. Pitch depends on frequency, loudness depends on intensity where V = volume of room, å a i Si = a1 S1 + a2 S2 + ....
and, quality depends on the number and intensity of S1, S2 .... are different kinds of surfaces of room and
overtones. a1 , a2 .... are their respective absorption coefficient.
The above formula was derived by Prof C. Sabine.
5. The ratio of the frequencies of the two notes is called the
interval between them. For example interval between two Shock waves : The waves produced by a body moving with a
notes of frequencies 512 Hz and 1024 Hz is 1 : 2 (or 1/2). speed greater than the speed of sound are called shock waves.
6. Two notes are said to be in unison if their frequencies are These waves carry huge amount of energy. It is due to the shock
wave that we have a sudden violent sound called sonic boom
equal, i.e., if the interval between them is 1 : 1.
when a supersonic plane passes by.
Some other common intervals, found useful in producing
The rate of speed of the source to that of the speed of sound is
musical sound are the following:
called mach number.
Octave (1 : 2), majortone (8 : 9), minortone (9 : 10) and
Intensity of sound : The sound intensities that we can hear range
semitone (15 : 16)
from 10–12 Wm–2 to 103 Wm–2. The intensity level b, measured
7. Major diatonic scale : It consists of eight notes. The
consecutive notes have either of the following three I
in terms of decibel (dB) is defined as b = 10 log
intervals. They are 8 : 9 ; 9 : 10 and 15 : 16. I0
Acoustics : The branch of physics that deals with the process of
where I = measured intensity, I0 = 10–12 Wm–1
generation, reception and propagation of sound is called
At the threshold b = 0
acoustics.
Acoustics may be studied under the following three subtitles. 1
At the max b = 10 log = 120 dB
(a) Electro acoustics. This branch deals with electrical sound 10 -12
production with music. Lissajous Figures: when two simple harmonic waves having
(b) Musical acoustics. This branch deals with the relationship vibrations in mutually perpendicular directions superimpose
of sound with music. on each other, then the resultant motion of the particle is along
(c) Architectural acoustics. This branch deals with the design a closed path, called the Lissajous figures. These figures can be
and construction of buildings. of many shapes depending on
REVERBERATION (i) ratio of frequencies or time periods of two waves
Multiple reflections which are responsible for a series of waves (ii) ratio of amplitude of two waves
falling on listener’s ears, giving the impression of a persistence (iii) phase difference between two waves.
or prolongation of the sound are called reverberations.
382 PHYSICS
1. Frequencies of sound produced from an organ pipe open 12. What is the effect of increase in temperature on the
at both ends are frequency of sound produced by an organ pipe?
(a) only fundamental note (b) only even harmonics (a) increases (b) decreases
(c) only odd harmonics (d) even and odd harmonics (c) no effect (d) erratic change
2. The fundamental frequency of an organ pipe is 512 Hz. If its 13. Shock waves are produced by objects
length is increased, then frequency will (a) carrying electric charge and vibrating
(a) decrease (b) increase (b) vibrating with frequency greater than 20000 Hz
(c) remains same (d) cannot be predicted
(c) vibrating with very large amplitude
3. The property of a medium necessary for wave propagation is
(a) inertia (b) elasticity (d) moving with a speed greater than that of sound in the
(c) low resistance (d) All of the above medium
4. Doppler’s effect is not applicable for 14. The speed of sound in a medium depends on
(a) audio waves (b) electromagnetic waves (a) the elastic property but not on the inertia property
(c) shock waves (d) None of these (b) the inertia property but not on the elastic property
5. Two sound waves of equal intensity I produce beats. The (c) the elastic property as well as the inertia property
maximum intensity of sound produced in beats will be
(d) neither the elastic property nor the inertia property
(a) I (b) 2I (c) 3I (d) 4I
15. Consider the three waves z 1, z2 and z3 as
6. Two sinusoidal plane waves of same frequency having z1 = A sin (kx – wt)
intensities I0 and 4 I0 are travelling in the same direction. z2 = A sin (kx + wt)
The resultant intensity at a point at which waves meet with z3 = A sin (ky – wt)
a phase difference of zero radian is Which of the following represents a standing wave?
(a) I0 (b) 5 I0 (a) z1 + z2 (b) z2 + z3
(c) 9 I0 (d) 3 I0 (c) z3 + z1 (d) z1 + z2 + z3
16. Each of the properties of sound listed in column A primarily
7. If the intensities of two interfering waves be I1 and I2, the
depends on one of the quantitites in column B. Choose the
contrast between maximum and minimum intensity is
matching pairs from two columns
maximum, when Column A Column B
(a) I1 > > I2 (b) I1 << I2 Pitch Waveform
(c) I1 = I2 (d) either I1 or I2 is zero Quality Frequency
8. Sound waves of length l travelling with velocity v in a Loudness Intensity
medium enter into another medium in which their velocity (a) Pitch-wave form; Quality-frequency; Loudness-
is 4 v. The wavelength in 2nd medium is intensity
(a) 4λ (b) l (b) Pitch-frequency; Quality-wave form; Loudness-
(c) l/4 (d) 16 l intensity
(c) Pitch-intensity; Quality-wave form; Loudness-
9. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a
frequency
region at the same time in the same direction. The sum of (d) Pitch-wave form; Quality-intensity; Loudness-
the maximum and minimum intensities is frequency
(a) 2 (I1 + I2) (b) I1 + I2 17. Three transverse waves are represented by
(c) ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 (d) ( I1 - I 2 ) 2 y1 = A cos ( kx - w t )
y 2 = A cos ( kx + w t )
10. An open and closed organ pipe have the same length. The
y 3 = A cos (ky - wt )
ratio of pth mode of frequency of vibration of two pipes is
(a) 1 (b) p The combination of waves which can produce stationary
waves is
2p (a) y1 and y2 (b) y2 and y3
(c) p (2p + 1) (d)
( 2 p - 1) (c) y1 and y3 (d) y1, y2 and y3
11. Sound waves are not transmitted to long distances 18. Which of the following changes at an antinode in a
because, stationary wave?
(a) they are absorbed by the atmosphere (a) Density only
(b) they have constant frequency (b) Pressure only
(c) the height of antenna required, should be very high (c) Both pressure and density
(d) velocity of sound waves is very less (d) Neither pressure nor density
Waves 385
1. The equation of a plane progressive wave is 2. If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude, on
é xù superposition, produce a resultant disturbance of the same
y = 0 .9 sin 4 p ê t - ú . When it is reflected at a rigid
ë 2û amplitude, the wave differ in phase by
2 (a) p (b) 2 p/3
support, its amplitude becomes of its previous value.
3 (c) Zero (d) p/3
The equation of the reflected wave is
3. Two tones of frequencies n 1 and n 2 are sounded together.
é xù
(a) y = 0 .6 sin 4 p ê t + ú The beats can be heard distinctly when
ë 2û
(a) 10 < (n1 – n 2) < 20 (b) 5 < (n1 – n 2) > 20
é xù (c) 5 < (n1 – n 2) < 20 (d) 0 < (n1 – n 2) < 10
(b) y = - 0.6 sin 4 p ê t + ú
ë 2û 4. The equation of a spherical progressive wave is
é xù (a) y = a sin wt (b) y = a sin (wt - kr )
(c) y = - 0.9 sin 8p ê t - ú
ë 2û
a a
(c) y= sin (wt - kr ) (d) y = sin (w t - kr )
é xù 2 r
(d) y = - 0.6 sin 4 p ê t + ú
ë 2û
386 PHYSICS
5. The velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. The r.m.s. velocity (a) 117.7 cm (b) 92.9 cm
of air molecules (g = 1.4) is approximately equal to (c) 115.5 cm (d) 113.5 cm
(a) 400 m/s (b) 471.4 m/s 17. A fork of frequency 256 Hz resonates with a closed organ
(c) 231 m/s (d) 462 m/s pipe of length 25.4 cm. If the length of pipe be increased by
6. The velocity of sound in hydrogen is 1224 m/s. Its velocity 2 mm, the number of beats/sec. will be
in a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen containing 4 parts by (a) 4 (b) 1
volume of hydrogen and 1 part oxygen is (c) 2 (d) 3
(a) 1224 m/s (b) 612 m/s 18. A distant star which is moving away with a velocity of 106
(c) 2448 m/s (d) 306 m/s m/sec is emitting a red line of frequency 4.5 × 1014 Hz. The
7. A person standing symmetrically between two cliffs claps observed frequency of this spectral line is
his hands and starts hearing a series of echoes at intervals (a) 4.5 × 108 Hz (b) 4.485 × 1014 Hz
of 1 sec. If speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, the distance 14
(c) 4.515 × 10 Hz (d) 4.5 × 1014 Hz
between the parallel cliffs must be 19. The speed of sound in air under ordinary conditions is
(a) 340 m (b) 680 m around 330 m s–1. The speed of sound in hydrogen under
(c) 1020 m (d) 170 m similar conditions will be (in m s–1) nearest to
8. An echo repeats two syllables. If the velocity of sound is (a) 330 (b) 1200
330 m/s, then the distance of the reflecting surface is (c) 600 (d) 900
(a) 66.0 m (b) 33.0 m 20. A wave disturbance in a medium is described by
(c) 99.0 m (d) 16.5 m
9. At room temperaturre, velocity of sound in air at 10 æ pö
y( x , t ) = 0.02 cos ç 50pt + ÷ cos(10px ) where x and y are
atmospheric pressure and at 1 atmospheric pressure will be è 2ø
in the ratio
in metre and t is in second. Which of the following is correct?
(a) 10 : 1 (b) 1 : 10
(a) A node occurs at x = 0.15 m
(c) 1 : 1 (d) cannot say
10. A series of ocean waves, each 5.0 m from crest to crest, (b) An antinode occurs at x = 0.3 m
moving past the observer at a rate of 2 waves per second, (c) The speed wave is 5 ms–1
what is the velocity of ocean waves? (d) The wavelength is 0.3 m
(a) 2.5 m/s (b) 5.0 m/s 21. Two waves represented by y1 = a sin wt and
(c) 8.0 m/s (d) 10.0 m/s
11. If the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity in beats is 49, p
y 2 = a sin(wt + f) with f = are superposed at any point
then the ratio of amplitudes of two progressive wave trains 2
is at a particular instant. The resultant amplitude is
(a) 7 : 1 (b) 4 : 3 (a) a (b) 4a
(c) 49 : 1 (d) 16 : 9
(c) 2a (d) zero
12. There are three sources of sound of equal intensities and
frequencies 400, 401 and 402 vibrations per second. The 22. If the speed of a transverse wave on a stretched string of
number of beats/sec is length 1 m is 60 m/s, what is the fundamental frequency of
(a) 0 (b) 1 vibration?
(c) 3 (d) 2 (a) 10 Hz (b) 30 Hz
13. A fork of unknown frequency gives four beats/sec when (c) 40 Hz (d) 70 Hz
sounded with another of frequency 256. The fork is now 23. The equation of a progressive wave is
loaded with a piece of wax and again four beats/sec are
heard. Then the frequency of the unknown fork is é t x ù
y = 0.02 sin 2pê - ú
(a) 256 Hz (b) 252 Hz ë 0.01 0.30 û
(c) 264 Hz (d) 260 Hz Here x and y are in metre and t is in second. The velocity of
14. If there are six loops for 1 m length in transverse mode of propagation of the wave is
Melde’s experiment., the no. of loops in longitudinal mode (a) 300 m s–1 (b) 30 m s–1
under otherwise identical conditions would be (c) 400 m s–1 (d) 40 m s–1
(a) 3 (b) 6 24. The equation Y = 0.02 sin (500pt) cos (4.5 x) represents
(c) 12 (d) 8 (a) progressive wave of frequency 250 Hz along x-axis
15. The apparent wavelength of the light from a star moving (b) a stationary wave of wavelength 1.4 m
away from the earth is 0.2% more than its actual wavelength. (c) a transverse progressive wave of amplitude 0.02 m
Then the velocity of the star is (d) progressive wave of speed of about 350 m s–1
(a) 6 × 107 m/sec (b) 6 × 106 m/sec 25. The intensity level of sound wave is said to be 4 decibel. If
5
(c) 6 × 10 m/sec (d) 6 × 104 m/sec the intensity of wave is doubled, then the intensity level of
16. In a resonance column, first and second resonance are sound as expressed in decibel would be
obtained at depths 22.7 cm and 70.2 cm. The third resonance (a) 8 (b) 16
will be obtained at a depth (c) 7 (d) 14
Waves 387
46. A source of sound produces waves of wavelength 60 cm (a) 7.5 units (b) 1.5 units
when it is stationary. If the speed of sound in air is 320 m s– (c) 22.5 units (d) 30 units
1 and source moves with speed 20 m s–1, the wavelength of 54. A wave travelling along the x-axis is described by the
sound in the forward direction will be nearest to equation y(x, t) = 0.005 cos (a x – bt). If the wavelength and
(a) 56 cm (b) 60 cm the time period of the wave are 0.08 m and 2.0s, respectively,
(c) 64 cm (d) 68 cm then a and b in appropriate units are
47. A person carrying a whistle emitting continuously a note 0.08 2.0
of 272 Hz is running towards a reflecting surface with a (a) a = 25.00 p , b = p (b) a = ,b =
speed of 18 km h–1. The speed of sound in air is 345 m s–1. p p
The number of beats heard by him is 0.04 1.0 p
(c) a = ,b = (d) a = 12.50p, b =
(a) 4 (b) 6 p p 2.0
(c) 8 (d) zero 55. Where should the two bridges be set in a 110cm long wire
48. In the sonometer experiment, a tuning fork of frequency so that it is divided into three parts and the ratio of the
256 Hz is in resonance with 0.4 m length of the wire when frequencies are 3 : 2 : 1 ?
the iron load attached to free end of wire is 2 kg. If the load (a) 20cm from one end and 60cm from other end
is immersed in water, the length of the wire in resonance (b) 30cm from one end and 70cm from other end
would be (specific gravity of iron = 8) (c) 10cm from one end and 50cm from other end
(a) 0.37 m (b) 0.43 m (d) 50cm from one end and 40cm from other end
(c) 0.31 m (d) 0.2 m 56. A source X of unknown frequency produces 8 beats per
49. A longitudinal wave is represented by second with a source of 250 Hz and 12 beats per second
æ xö with a source of 270 Hz. The frequency of the source X is
x = x 0 sin 2pç nt - ÷ (a) 242 Hz (b) 258 Hz
è lø
(c) 282 Hz (d) 262 Hz
The maximum particle velocity will be four times the wave 57. An isotropic point source S of sound emits constant power.
velocity if Two points A and B separated by a distance r are situated
px 0
(a) l = (b) l = 2px 0 near the source as shown in figure. The difference of the
4 intensity level of sound at the points A and B is about
px
(c) l = 0 (d) l = 4px 0 r r
2
50. Two strings A and B, made of same material, are stretched
S A B
by same tension. The radius of string A is double of radius
of B. A transverse wave travels on A with speed vA and on (a) 3 dB (b) 2 dB
B with speed vB. The ratio vA / vB is (c) 6 dB (d) 12 dB
(a) 1/2 (b) 2 58. A thick uniform rope of length L is hanging from a rigid
(c) 1/4 (d) 4 support. A transverse wave of wavelength l0 is set up at
51. A sonometer wire of length l vibrates in fundamental mode the middle of rope as shown in figure. The wavelength of
when excited by a tuning fork of frequency 416 Hz. If the the wave as it reaches to the topmost point is
length is doubled keeping other things same, the string will /////////////////
(a) vibrate with a frequency of 416 Hz
L
(b) vibrate with a frequency of 208 Hz
(c) vibrate with a frequency of 832 Hz
(d) stop vibrating
l0
100 (a) 2l0 (b) 2l 0 (c) (d) l0
52. A source of sound is travelling at m s–1 along a road, 2
3 59. Wave pulse on a string shown in figure is moving to the
towards a point A. When the source is 3 m away from A, a
person standing at a point O on a road perpendicular to the right without changing shape. Consider two particles at
track hears a sound of frequency n'. The distance of O from positions x1 = 1.5m and x2 = 2.5m. Their transverse velocities
A at that time is 4 m. If the original frequency is 640 Hz, then at the moment shown in figure are along directions
y
the value of n' is (given : velocity of sound = 340 m s–1)
100 ms –1
(a) 620 Hz A 3m 3 S
q
(b) 680 Hz v
4m
(c) 720 Hz
x(m)
(d) 840 Hz 1 2 3 4 5 6
O
53. The equation of a stationary wave is : (a) positive y-axis and positive y-axis respectively
æ px ö (b) negative y-axis and positive y-axis respectively
y = 4 sinç ÷ cos (96pt ) . The distance between a node
è 15 ø (c) positive y-axis and negative y-axis respectively
and its next antinode is (d) negative y-axis and negative y-axis respectively
Waves 389
60. The transverse wave represented by the equation (a) decreases by a factor 10
(b) increases by a factor 20
æpö
y = 4 sin ç ÷ sin (3x - 15 t ) has (c) increases by a factor 10
è6ø (d) decreases by a factor 20
(a) amplitude = 4 69. Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T
have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional
p
(b) wavelength = 4 increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to
3 occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate
(c) speed of propagation = 5 together would be
p (a) 0.02 (b) 0.03 (c) 0.04 (d) 0.01
(d) period = 70. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/s. For a particular
15
sound wave in air, a path difference of 40 cm is equivalent
61. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first to phase difference of 1.6p. The frequency of this wave is
overtone and another pipe P2 open at both ends vibrating
(a) 165 Hz (b) 150 Hz
in third overtone are in resonance with a given tuning fork.
(c) 660 Hz (d) 330 Hz
The ratio of the length of P1 to that of P2 is
71. Two sources of sound placed close to each other are
(a) 8/3 (b) 3/8
emitting progressive waves given by y1 = 4 sin 600 pt and
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/3
y2 = 5 sin 608 pt. An observer located near these two sources
62. A car is moving towards a high cliff. The car driver sounds of sound will hear
a horn of frequency f. The reflected sound heard by the (a) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between
driver has as frequency 2f. If v be the velocity of sound, waxing and waning.
then the velocity of the car, in the same velocity units, will
(b) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between
be
waxing and waning
(a) v /2 (b) v /Ö2
(c) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between
(c) v /3 (d) v /4
waxing and waning
63. The phase difference between two waves, represented by
(d) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between
y1 = 10–6 sin{100 t + (x/50) + 0.5} m waxing and waning
y2 = 10–6 cos{100 t + (x/50)} m Directions for Qs. (72 to 75) : Each question contains
where x is expressed in metres and t is expressed in STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
seconds, is approximately (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following-
(a) 1.5 radians (b) 1.07 radians (a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(c) 2.07 radians (d) 0.5 radians (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
64. Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves correct explanation for Statement-1
given by Y1 = 4 sin 500 pt and Y2 = 2 sin 506 pt. Number of (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
beats produced per minute is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(a) 360 (b) 180 (d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(c) 60 (d) 3 72. Statement 1 : All points on a wavefront vibrate in same
65. A transverse wave is represented by y = A sin ( w t – kx). phase with same frequency.
For what value of the wavelength is the wave velocity equal Statement 2 : Two sources are said to be coherent if they
to the maximum particle velocity? produce waves of same frequency with a constant phase
pA difference.
(a) (b) p A (c) 2pA (d) A 73. Statement 1 : A transverse waves are produced in a very
2
66. A tuning fork of freqqency 512 Hz makes 4 beats per second long string fixed at one end. Only progressive wave is
with the vibrating string of a piano. The beat frequency observed near the free end.
decreases to 2 beats per sec when the tension in the piano Statement 2 : Energy of reflected wave does not reach the
string is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano free end.
string before increasing the tension was 74. Statement 1 : Two waves moving in a uniform string having
(a) 510 Hz (b) 514 Hz (c) 516 Hz (d) 508 Hz uniform tension cannot have different velocities.
67. Two waves are represen ted by the equations Statement 2 : Elastic and inertial properties of string are
y1 = a sin (wt + kx + 0.57) m and y2 = a cos (wt + kx) m, where same for all waves in same string. Moreover speed of wave
x is in meter and t in sec. The phase difference between in a string depends on its elastic and inertial properties only.
them is
(a) 1.0 radian (b) 1.25 radian 75. Statement 1 : Doppler formula for sound wave is symmetric
(c) 1.57 radian (d) 0.57 radian with respect to the speed of source and speed of observer.
68. Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm air and at Statement 2 : Motion of source with respect to stationary
3500 m/s through brass. The wavelength of a 700 Hz observer is not equivalent to the motion of an observer
acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air with respect to stationary source.
390 PHYSICS
Exemplar Questions æ xö
1. Water waves produced by a motorboat sailing in water are (c) y = 0.4sin 2p ç t + ÷
è 2ø
(a) neither longitudinal nor transverse
æ xö
(b) both longitudinal and transverse (d) y = -0.4 sin 2p ç t - ÷
(c) only longitudinal è 2ø
(d) only transverse 9. A string of mass 2.5 kg is under tension of 200 N. The
2. Sound waves of wavelength l travelling in a medium with a length of the stretched string is 20.0 m. If the transverse
speed of v m/ s enter into another medium where its speed jerk is struck at one end of the string, the disturbance will
in 2v m/s. Wavelength of sound waves in the second reach the other end in 200 N = T
medium is
l (a) 1 s
(a) l (b) (b) 0.5 s
2
(c) 2l (d) 4 l (c) 2 s 20 m
3. Speed of sound wave in air (d) data given is insufficient
(a) is independent of temperature 10. A train whistling at constant frequency is moving towards
(b) increases with pressure a station at a constant speed v. The train goes past a
(c) increases with increase in humidity stationary observer on the station. The frequency n' of the
(d) decreases with increase in humidity sound as heard by the observer is plotted as a function of
4. Change in temperature of the medium changes time t (figure). Identify the expected curve.
(a) frequency of sound waves n n
(b) amplitude of sound waves
(c) wavelength of sound waves
(d) loudness of sound waves
5. With propagation of longitudinal waves through a medium, (a) t (b) t
the quantity transmitted is
n n
(a) matter
(b) energy
(c) energy and matter
(d) energy, matter and momentum
(c) t (d) t
6. Which of the following statements are true for wave motion?
(a) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through Past Years (2013-2017) NEET/AIPMT Questions
all mediums
11. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then
(b) Longitudinal waves can propagate through solids only
which of the following statements is not true ? [2013]
(c) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate through
solids only (a) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be
(d) Longitudinal waves can propagate through vacuum generated
7. A sound wave is passing through air column in the form of (b) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be
compression and rarefaction. In consecutive compressions generated
and rarefactions, (c) Pressure change will be maximum at both ends
(a) density remains constant (d) Antinode will be at open end
(b) Boyle's law is obeyed 12. A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when
(c) bulk modulus of air oscillates sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The
(d) there is no transfer of heat second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives
8. Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by five beats per second, when sounded with a source of
æ xö frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is [2013]
y = 0.6sin 2p ç t - ÷ . On reflection from a denser medium
è 2ø (a) 246 Hz (b) 240 Hz
2 (c) 260 Hz (d) 254 Hz
its amplitude becomes of the amplitude of the incident
3 13. A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement
wave. The equation of the reflected wave is along y-direction as 1m, wavelength 2p m and frequency
æ xö 1
(a) y = 0.6sin 2p ç t + ÷ Hz is represented by [2013]
è 2ø p
æ xö (a) y = sin (2px – 2pt) (b) y = sin (10px – 20pt)
(b) y = -0.4sin 2p ç t + ÷ (c) y = sin (2px + 2pt) (d) y = sin (x – 2t)
è 2ø
Waves 391
14. The length of the wire between two ends of a sonometer is (a) 103 Hz
100 cm. What should be the positions of two bridges below
the wire so that the three segments of the wire have their (b) 106 Hz
fundamental frequencies in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5?
1500 2000 (c) 97 Hz
(a) cm, cm [NEET Kar. 2013] 60°
23 23 O
(d) 100 Hz S
1500 500
(b) cm, cm 21. A string is stretched between two fixed points separated
23 23 by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have resonant frequencies of
1500 300 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant frequencies
(c) cm, cm
23 23 between these two. The lowest resonant frequency for this
string is : [2015 RS]
300 1500
(d) cm, cm (a) 205 Hz (b) 10.5 Hz
23 23
15. Two sources P and Q produce notes of frequency 660 Hz (c) 105 Hz (d) 155 Hz
each. A listener moves from P to Q with a speed of 1 ms–1. 22. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away
If the speed of sound is 330 m/s, then the number of beats from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15ms–1. Then,
heard by the listener per second will be [NEET Kar. 2013] the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo
(a) zero (b) 4 reflected from the cliff is : [2016]
(c) 8 (d) 2 (Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms–1)
16. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of three
(a) 765 Hz (b) 800 Hz
segments into which a string is divided, then the original
fundamental frequency n of the string is given by : [2014] (c) 838 Hz (b) 885 Hz
23. A uniform rope of length L and mass m 1 hangs vertically
1 1 1 1 from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the
(a) = + +
n n1 n 2 n 3 free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength l1 is
1 1 1 1 produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of
(b) = + + the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is l2 the ratio
n n1 n2 n3
l2/l1 is [2016]
(c) n = n1 + n 2 + n 3
m1 m1 + m 2
(d) n = n1 + n2 + n3 (a) m2 (b) m2
17. The number of possible natural oscillation of air column in
a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm whose frequencies
lie below 1250 Hz are : (velocity of sound = 340 ms–1) m2 m1 + m 2
(c) m1 (d) m1
(a) 4 (b) 5 [2014]
(c) 7 (d) 6 24. An air column, closed at one end and open at the other,
18. A speeding motorcyclist sees trafic jam ahead of him. He resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of
slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds that traffic has eased
the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column
and a car moving ahead of him at 18 km/hour is honking at
resonating with the same tuning fork is : [2016]
a frequency of 1392 Hz. If the speeds of sound is 343 m/s,
the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be : (a) 66.7 cm (b) 100 cm
(a) 1332 Hz (b) 1372 Hz [2014] (c) 150 cm (d) 200 cm
(c) 1412 Hz (d) 1464 Hz 25. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and
19. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the
20 cm is equal to the second overtone of an organ pipe fundamental frequency of the system? [2017]
open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at (a) 20 Hz (b) 30 Hz
both the ends is [2015] (c) 40 Hz (d) 10 Hz
(a) 100 cm (b) 120 cm 26. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other
(c) 140 cm (d) 80 cm with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s respectively. The driver
20. A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The
and an observor O are located at some distance from each frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity
other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms–1 at an of sound 340 m/s] :- [2017]
angle of 60° with the source observer line as shown in the
(a) 361 Hz (b) 411 Hz
figure. The observor is at rest. The apparent frequency
observed by the observer is (velocity of sound in air (c) 448 Hz (d) 350 Hz
330 ms–1) [2015 RS]
392 PHYSICS
= I 0 + 4 I 0 + 2 I 0 4 I 0 cos0º = 9 I 0
When f = p, I = I0
When f = p/2, I = 5 I0 (i) For spherical wave front Þ S = 4pr2(surface)
7. (c) The contrast will be maximum, when I1 = I2 i.e. æ P öæ 1 ö 1
a = b. In that event, Imin = (a – b)2 = 0, where a and b are So I = ç ÷ ç ÷ Þ I µ
2
è 4π ø è r ø r2
the amplitudes of interfering waves.
8. (a) From v = n l, we find l µ v because freq. n is constant. 1
Therefore, new wavelength = 4 l. Since I a (Amplitude A)2 Þ A µ
r
9. (a) Here, I max = I1 + I 2 + 2 I1 I 2 cos 0º
2 Dl 0.2
1. (b) Amplitude of reflected wave = ´ 0 .9 = 0 .6 15. (c) v= ´c = ´ 3 ´ 10 8 = 6 × 105 m/s
3 l 100
It would travel along negative direction of x-axis, and
l
on reflection at a rigid support, there occurs a phase 16. (a) l1 + x = = 22.7 equation (1)
change of p. 4
2. (b) As R 2 = a 2 + b 2 + 2 a b cos f 3l
l2 + x = = 70.2 equation (2)
4
1 2p
\ a 2 = a 2 + a 2 + 2 a 2 cos f , cos f = - ,f= 5λ
2 3 l3 + x = equation (3)
4
3. (d) As number of beats/sec = diff. in frequencies has to
be less than 10, therefore 0 < (n 1 –n2) < 10 From equation (1) and (2)
4. (d) In the spherical source, the amplitude A of wave is
l 2 - 3 l 1 70 .2 - 68 .1 2 .1
x= = = = 1 .05 cm
1 2 2 2
inversely proportional to the distance r i.e., A µ
r
Where r is distance of source from the point of l3 + x
From equation (2) and (3) =5
consideration. l1 + x
30. (c)
v 4.5 ´ 1014 ´ 10 6
18. (b) D n = n ´ = = 1.5 × 1012 Hz
c 3 ´ 108 æ I ö
31. (d) 10 logçç I ÷÷ = 10 ´ 12 log10 10 = 120 dB
\ n¢ = n - Dn = 4.5 × 1014 – 1.5 × 1012 è 0ø
= 4.485 × 1014 Hz
I 10-6
v1 r 32. (c) 10log = 10log = 10log106 = 60dB
19. (b) = 2 I0 10-12
v2 r1
20. (c) Comparing it with y (x, t) = A cos (wt + p/2) cos kx. 33. (c) Two possible frequencies of B are 256 ± 4 = 260 or
If kx = p/2, a node occurs ; \ 10 px = p/2 Þ x = 0.05 m 252. When A is loaded its frequency reduces from 256
If kx = p, an antinode occurs Þ 10px = p to 248 say which would produce 4 beats/sec only if
Þ x = 0.1 m freq. of B is 252
50p 1
Also speed of wave w / k = = 5m / s and 5
10p 34. (a) Here, m = kg/m = kg/m
20 4
l = 2p / k = 2p / 10p = 0.2 m Tension in the middle of wire
5 5
21. (c) Resultant amplitude is a 2 + a 2 i.e. 2a T = weight of half the wire = ×g= × 10 N
2 2
v 60 = 25 N
22. (b) n= = = 30 Hz
2l 2 ´ 1 25
As v = T / m \ v = = 10 m / s
2p 2p 1/ 4
23. (b) w= and k =
0.01 0.30 v
35. (a) For open pipe, n = , where n0 is the fundamental
w 2p 0.30 2l
v= = ´ = 30 m s -1
k 0.01 2p frequency of open pipe.
24. (b) Equation is of stationary wave. Comparing with the v 330 11
standard equation \ l = 2 n = 2 ´ 300 = 20
æ 2p ö æ 2p ö
y = 2A sin çè ÷ø t cos çè ÷ø x As freq. of 1st overtone of open pipe = freq. of 1st
T l
overtone of closed pipe
2p 2p
= 4.5 or l = = 1.4m v v 3l 3 11
l 4.5 \ 2 =3 Þ l' = = ´ = 41 .25 cm
2l 4 l¢ 4 4 20
25. (c) Intensity doubles, dB level increases by 3 dB.
v
26. (b) y = A sin 2 (kx - wt ) 36. (b) = 412 , when cut into two equal pieces, frequency
4l
A of closed pipe of half the length
Þy= [1 - cos 2(kx - wt )]
2
v 2v
w = = = 2 ´ 412 = 824 Hz
w' = 2w, 2pn ' = 2w, n ' = 4 (l / 2) 4 l
p
frequency of open pipe of half the length
240
27. (c) 256 = n ´ = 4n Þ n = 64 v
60 = 2 (l / 2) = 4 ´ 412 = 1648 Hz
28. (c)
37. (b) As passenger is a part of moving train, there is no relative
gRT motion between source and listener. Therefore, n' = n =
29. (N) The speed of sound in a gas is given by v =
M 200 Hz
vO2 g O2 M He 1.4 4 p
\ = ´ = ´ = 0.3237 38. (c) x = 4(cos pt + sin pt) = 4[sin( - pt )] + sin pt ]
v He M O2 g He 32 1.67 2
vO2 é æ p ö æ p öù
\ v He =
460
= = 1421 m / s ê ç pt - - pt ÷ ç pt - + pt ÷ ú
= 4 ê 2 ´ sin ç 2 ÷ cos ç 2 ÷ú
0.3237 0.3237
ê ç 2 ÷ ç 2 ÷ú
None of the option is correct. ç ÷ ç ÷
êë è ø è ø úû
Waves 395
l/ 4 l l/ 4 d é æ x öù
v = dt ê x 0 sin 2pç nt - l ÷ú
3ν ë è øû
Þ n2 =
2l 2
For 1st overtone of organ pipe open at one end æ xö
= 2 pnx 0 cos 2pç nt - ÷
l1 è lø
l
l/ 2 l/ 4 Wave velocity = = nl
T
3ν
Þ n1 =
4l1 2pnx 0 px 0
Given, 2pnx 0 = 4nl Þ l = =
4n 2
3n 3n l 1
Given n1 = n 2 Þ = or 1 =
2l 2 4l1 l2 2 vA D B 1
50. (a) = =
42. (b) Let the fundamental frequency of organ pipe be f v B DA 2
Case I : f = 200 ± 5 = 205 Hz or 195 Hz 51. (a) Since Tension and mass per unit length remains
unchanged, the frequency will be obtained in different
mode.
52. (b) Effective value of velocity of source,
100 100 3
vs = cos q = ´ = 20 m s -1
3 3 5
396 PHYSICS
P
100 m s–1 57. (c) Intensity at A, IA = ;
3 3 4pr 2
q P
intensity at B, IB =
4p (2r) 2
4
5 IA
Sound level at A, SA = 10log ;
I0
IB
Sound level at B, SB = 10 log
I0
v
n' = n Difference of sound level at A and B is
v - vs
IA I æI ö
340 SA - SB = 10log - 10 log B = 10log ç A ÷
Þ n' = ´ 640 Hz = 680 Hz I0 I0 è IB ø
340 - 20
= 10 log 4 = 20 log 2 » 6 dB
p 2p p 58. (b) Speed of pulse at a distance x /////////////////
53. (a) k = Þ = Þ l = 30 units v
15 l 15 from bottom, v = gx .
Distance between node and next antinode
While traveling from mid point x
l 30 to the top, frequency remains
= = = 7.5 units
4 4 unchanged.
54. (a) y(x, t) = 0.005 cos (ax - bt) (Given) v1 v2 g (L / 2) gL
= = Þ l 2 = 2l 0
Comparing it with the standard equation of wave l1 l 2 Þ l0 l2
y(x, t) = a cos (kx - wt) we get
59. (b) y
k=a and w = b
2p 2p
But k = and w =
l T
2p 2p
Þ =a and =b
l T
x(m)
Given that l = 0.08 m and T = 2.0s
2p 2p Dotted shape shows pulse position after a short time
\ a= = 25p and b = =p interval. Direction of the velocities are decided
0.08 2
according to direction of displacements of the
l1 l2 l3
55. (a) particles.
60. (c) Compare the given eqn. with the standard form
110 cm
n1 : n2 : n3 = 3 : 2 : 1 é 2 px 2 pt ù
y = a 0 sin ê -
1 ë l T úû
nµ
l 2p
2p
1 1 1 = 3 , l = 2p / 3 and T = 15
l1 : l 2 : l 3 = : : = 2 : 3 : 6 l
3 2 1
l1 + l 2 + l 3 = 110 T = 2 p/15
Þ 2x + 3x + 6x = 110 Þ x = 10 l 2p/3
Speed of propagation, v = = =5
\ The two bridges should be set at 2x i.e, 20 cm from T 2 p / 15
one end and 6x i.e, 60 cm from the other end.
56. (b) nX = 258 Hz or 242 Hz v v l c 3v 2 3
61. (b) 3 ´ = 4´ or = ´ =
nX = 258 Hz or 282 Hz 4l c 2l0 l0 4 4v 8
Þ frequency is 258 Hz 62. (c) Let f ' be the frequency of sound heard by cliff.
The total momentum will be zero and hence velocity
will be zero just after collision. The pull of earth will νf
\f¢= ......(1)
make it fall down. v - vc
Waves 397
Now for the reflected wave cliff. acts as a source 68. (c) We have, v = nl
f ¢ (v + v c ) Þ v µ l (as n remains constant)
\2 f ¢ = ......(2)
Thus, as v increases 10 times, l also increases 10 times.
v
69. (a) For fundamental mode,
(v + v c ) f
2f = v
Þ 2v – 2 vc = v + vc or = v c
v - vc 3
1 T
f=
–6 2l m
63. (b) y1 = 10 sin (100 t + x/50 + 0.5)m
= 10–6 cos (100 t + x/50 – p/2 + 0.5)m Taking logarithm on both sides, we get
y2 = 10–6 cos (100 t + x/50)m æ 1ö æ Tö
log f = log ç ÷ + log ç ÷
\ f = p/2 – 0.5 = 1.07 rad è 2l ø è mø
64. (b) Equation of progressive wave is given by
Y = A sin2pf t æ1 ö 1 æTö
= log çè ÷ø + log ç ÷
Given Y1 = 4sin500 pt and Y2 = 2sin506pt. 2l 2 èmø
Comparing the given equations with equation of
æ1ö 1
progressive wave, we get or log f = log ç ÷ + [log T - log m]
è 2l ø 2
2f1 = 500, Þ f1 = 250
2f2 = 506 Þ f2 = 253 Differentiating both sides, we get
Beats = f2– f1 = 253 – 250 = 3 beats/sec df 1 dT
= (as l and m are constants)
= 3 × 60 = 180 beats/minute. f 2 T
65. (c) y = A sin ( w t–kx) dT df
Particle velocity, Þ = 2´
T f
dy Here df = 6
vp = = A w cos ( w t – kx)
dt f = 600 Hz
\ vp max = A w dT 2 ´ 6
\ = = 0.02
w T 600
wave velocity =
k D x 2 p (0.4)
l
w 70. (c) From Dx = Df , l = 2 p = = 0. 5 m
\ Aw = 2p Df 1 .6 p
k
1 2p v 330
i. e., A = But k = n= = = 660 Hz
k l l 0 .5
\ l=2pA 71. (d) 2p f1 = 600 p
66. (d) The frequency of the piano string = 512 + 4 = 516 or f1 = 300 ... (1)
508. When the tension is increased, beat frequency 2p f2 = 608 p
decreases to 2, it means that frequency of the string is f2 = 304 ...(2)
508 as frequency of string increases with tension. |f1 – f2| = 4 beats
67. (a) Here, y1 = a sin (wt + kx + 0.57)
and y2 = a cos (wt + kx) I max ( A1 + A2 )2 (5 + 4)2 81
= = =
I m.n ( A1 + A2 )2 (5 - 4)2 1
ép ù
= a sin ê + (wt + kx) ú
ë2 û where A1, A2 are amplitudes of given two sound wave.
Phase difference, Df = f2– f1 72. (c) 73. (b)
74. (d) Two waves moving in uniform string with uniform
p
= - 0.57 tension shall have same speed and may be moving in
2 opposite directions. Hence both waves may have
velocities in opposite direction. Hence statement-1 is
3.14
= - 0.57 false.
2
75. (d) Statement-2 is true, Statement-1 is false. In doppler for
= 1.57 – 0.57 sound wave effect due to observer and source motion
= 1 radian are different.
398 PHYSICS
125 25 ´ 5 2p 2p
t = 20 ´ = 20 ´ k= = =1 [Q l = 2 p]
2 ´ 105 2 ´105 l 2p
\ Y = 1 sin (2t – x + f) [Q A = 1 m]
1
= 20 ´ 25 ´ 1 T
0.4 ´ 105 14. (a) From formula, f =
x m
1 20 ´ 5 1
= 20 ´ 5 = Þ µl
4 ´ 10 4 2 ´102 f
1 1 1 1
t= = 0.5 sec. \ l1 : l2 : l3 = : :
2 f1 f 2 f3
10. (c) When observer is at rest and source of sound is moving = f2 f3 : f1 f3 : f1 f2 [Given: f1 : f2 : f3 = 1 : 3 : 5]
towards observer then observed frequency n'. = 15 : 5 : 3
Let the original frequency of the source is n0. Therefore the positions of two bridges below the wire are
Let the speed of sound wave in the medium is v. 15 ´ 100 15 ´100 + 5 ´100
cm and cm
As observer is stationary 15 + 5 + 3 15 + 5 + 3
æ v ö 1 1 1 1
Apparent frequency n '' = ç ÷ n0 (n '' < n0 ) so = + +
è v + vs ø n n1 n 2 n 3
Hence, frequencies in both cases are same and n' > n''. 17. (d) In case of closed organ pipe frequency,
so graph (c) verifies. v
fn = (2n + 1)
Past Years (2017-2013) NEET/AIPMT Questions 4l
for n = 0, f0 = 100 Hz
11. (c) Pressure change will be minimum at both ends. In fact, n = 1, f1 = 300 Hz
pressure variation is maximum at l/2 because the dis-
n = 2, f2 = 500 Hz
placement node is pressure antinode.
n = 3, f3 = 700 Hz
12. (d) When sounded with a source of known frequency
n = 4, f4 = 900 Hz
fundamental frequency
n = 5, f5 = 1100 Hz
= 250 ± 4 Hz = 254 Hz or 246 Hz
n = 6, f6 = 1300 Hz
2nd harmonic if unknown frequency (suppose) 254
Hz = 2 × 254 = 508 Hz Hence possible natural oscillation whose frequencies
< 1250 Hz = 6(n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5)
As it gives 5 beats
18. (c) According to Doppler's effect
\ 508 + 5 = 513 Hz
Apparent frequency
Hence, unknown frequency is 254 Hz
13. (d) As Y = A sin (wt – kx + f) æ v + v0 ö æ 343 + 10 ö
n¢ = n ç ÷ = 1392 ç ÷.
2p 1 è v + v s ø è 343 + 5 ø
w = 2pf = =2 [Q f = ]
p p = 1412 Hz
400 PHYSICS
19. (b) Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe 22. (c) According to Doppler's effect in sound
V
Vc =
4lc Observer source 15 m/s
Fundamental frequency of open organ pipe
V Apparent frequency,
V0 = 2l
0 v
n' = v - v n 0
3V s
Second overtone frequency of open organ pipe = 2l
0
=
330
(800 ) = 330 ´ 800 = 838 Hz
From question, 330 - 15 315
The frequency of sound observer hears in the echo
V 3V
= reflected from the cliff is 838 Hz.
4lc 2l0 23. (b) From figure, tension T1 = m2g
Þ l0 = 6lc = 6 × 20 = 120 cm T2 = (m1 + m2)g
Rigid support
20. (a) Here, original frequency of sound, f0 = 100 Hz As we know
Speed of source Vs = 19.4 cos 60° = 9.7 Velocity µ T So, T2
19.4 lµ T m1
L
l1 T
Þ = 1 T1
l2 T2
m2
l2 m1 + m2
Þ =
60° l1 m2
S O
19.4 cos 60° = 9.7 24. (c) For a closed organ pipe first minimum resonating
length
From Doppler's formula
l
L1 = = 50 cm
æ V - V0 ö 4
f1 = f0 ç ÷ \ Next or second resonating length, L2
è V - Vs ø
3l
= = 150 cm
æ V-0 ö 4
f1 = 100 ç ÷
è V - ( +9.7) ø
25. (a) Difference in two successive frequencies of closed
V 100 pipe
f1 = 100 =
æ 9.7 ö æ 9.7 ö 2v
V ç1 - ÷ ç1 - ÷ = 260 – 220 = 40 Hz
è V ø è 330 ø 4l
= 103Hz 2v
Apparent frequency f1 = 103 Hz or = 40 Hz
4l
21. (c) In a stretched string all multiples of frequencies can
be obtained i.e., if fundamental frequency is n then v
higher frequencies will be 2n, 3n, 4n ... Þ = 20Hz
4l
75 cm Which is the fundamental frequency of system of
closed organ pipe.
26. (c) As we known from Doppler's Effect
+ F force
F
The force of attraction or repulsion between two point charges
Repuls
+
force
Both electric and gravitational forces follow inverse (ii) Surface charge distribution : If a charge Q is uniformly
distributed on a surface of area A, the surface charge density
square law.
s , is defined by the following equation
Vector Form of Coulomb’s Law : Q
uuur s = , s has unit coulomb / m2
1 q1q 2 uur 1 q1q 2 A
F12 = r12 = rˆ12
4pe 0 k r3 4pe 0 k r 2
(1) Fix the origin of the coordinate system on charge q. Keep in Memory
(2) Draw the forces on q due to the surrounding charges
considering one charge at a time. 1. When the distance between the two charges placed in
(3) Resolve the force in x and y-axis respectively and vacuum or a medium is increased K-times then the force
between them decreases K2-times. i.e., if F0 and F be the
find SFx and SFy initial and final forces between them, then
Fo
(4) The resultant force is F = (SFx )2 + (SFy )2 and the F=
K2
SFx 2. When the distance between the two charges placed in
direction is given by tan q = .
SFy vacuum or a medium is decreased K-times then the force
between them increases K2-times. i.e., if Fo and F be the
Calculation of electric force in some situations : initial and final forces then
(a) Force on one charge due to two other charges : F = K2Fo
Resultant force on q due to q1 and q2 are obtained by 3. When a medium of dielectric constant K is placed between
vector addition of individual forces the two charges then the force between them decreases by
K-times. i.e., if Fo and F be the forces in vacuum and the
q1
medium respectively, then
Fo
F=
K
F1 F 4. When a medium of dielectric constant K between the
charges is replaced by another medium of dielectric constant
+q q K' then the force decreases or increases by (K/K') times
F2 q2 according as K' is greater than K or K' is less than K.
r r r Example 1.
F = F1 + F2
If we supply a charge to a soap bubble then it will expand.
r r r Why?
F = | F1 |2 + | F2 |2 Solution :
r Since we know like charges repel and try to get away from
|F | each other which is at outer surface of the conductor. So a
The direction of F is given by tan q = r1
| F2 | soap bubble expand.
(b) Force due to linear charge distribution :
Example 2.
Let AB is a long (length l) thin rod with uniform
Calculate the net charge on a substance consisting of
distribution of total charge Q.
(a) 5 × 1014 electrons (b) a combination of 7 × 1013
dx a protons and 4 × 1013 electrons.
•q Solution :
A dQ B
(a) The charge of one electron is –1.6×10–19C. So net
x
charge on a substance consisting of 5 × 1014 electrons
We calculate force of these charges i.e. Q on q which is
is situated at a distance a from the edge of rod AB. 5 × 1014 × (–1.6 × 10–19C) = -8 ´ 10 -5 C = -80mC.
Let, dQ is a small charge element in rod AB at a distance (b) Similarly the net charge on a substance consisting of a
x from q . combination of 7 × 1013 protons and 4 × 1013 electron
The force on q due to this element will be is
q dQ q mdx [7 ´ 1013 ´ (1.6 ´ 10 -19 C)] + [ 4 ´ 1013 (-1.6 ´ 10 -19 - C]
dF = =
4pe o x 2 4pe o x 2 = + 4.8 mC.
(Q the charge on one proton is + 1.6 × 1019C)
where m is linear charge density i.e., m = Q / l.
Example 3.
l+ a l+a Two protons in a molecule is separated by a distance
q µ
so, F = ò dF = ò . dx
4p Îo x 2
3 × 10–10 m. Find the electrostatic force exerted by one
a a proton on the other.
l+ a
Solution :
qµ 1
=
4p Î0 ò 2
dx newton
3 ´ 10 -10 m
a x
–19 –19
1.6 × 10 C 1.6 × 10 C
Electric Charges and Fields 405
r F
( r ) from that charge is defined as
ur (vi) Where the electric lines of force are
uur F q0
E = (a) close together, the field is strong (see fig.1)
q0 r (b) far apart, the field is weak (see fig.2)
ur
uur F 1 q
E (r) = Limit = ˆr Electric field lines
q0 ® 0 q 0 4pe r 2 q
O Strong field
where E1 , E 2 , E 3 ,........ are the electric field intensities due to (vii) Electric lines of force generate or terminate at charges
/surfaces at right angles.
charges q1, q2, q3 ......respectively.
ELECTRIC LINES OF FORCE -
- -
These are the imaginary lines of force and the tangent at any -
point on the lines of force gives the direction of the electric field
- -
at that point. - -
Properties of Electric Lines of Froce -
- -
(i) The lines of force diverge out from a positive charge and -
converge at a negative charge. i.e. the lines of force are
always directed from higher to lower potential. d
Fixed point charge
near infinite metal plate
Non conducting sphere (dq is small charge element) (ii) A circular ring of radius R with uniformly distributed charge
r Qx
E =k Q +
2 2 3/2
(R + x )
R P R E
Continuous Q x P
charge When x >> R, E = k
distribution x2
[The charge on ring behaves +
dq = ldl (line charge density) as point charge]
= s ds (surface charge density) R Q
= rdv (volume charge density) E is max when x = ± . Also Emax =
2 6 3pe 0 R 2
The net field strength due to entire charge distribution is given
by (iii) A circular disc of radius R with uniformly distributed
uur 1 dq ^ charge with surface charge density s
E =
4pe ò r2
r
Special case :
E' K'
=
p E K
For Infinite length of charge, a = b =
2 4. The electric field intensity at a point due to a ring with
uniform charge distribution doesn't depend upon the radius
2 kl
\ Ex = and E y = 0 of the ring if the distance between the point and the centre
x of the ring is much greater than the radius of the ring. The
(vi) Due to a spherical shell of uniformly distributed charges ring simply behaves as a point charge.
with surface charge density s 5. The electric field intensity inside a hollow sphere is zero
æ KQ ö
+
Q +
+
+ KQ
+ (= ; x being the distance of the point from the centre of
+ R x2
+ the sphere).
R x
+
+ 6. The electric field intensity at a point outside a hollow sphere
+
Ein = 0 (x < R) (or spherical shell) does not depend upon the radius of the
sphere. It just behaves as a point charge.
Q s
Esurface = k = (x = R) 7. The electric field intensity at the centre of a non-conducting
R 2 e0 solid sphere with uniform charge distribution is zero. At
other points inside it, the electric field varies directly with
Q
Eout = k the distance from the centre (i.e. E µ x; x being the distance
x2 of the point from the centre). On the surface, it is constant
(vii) Due to a solid non conducting sphere of uniformly
but varies inversely with the square of the distance from
distributed charges with charge density r
1
E the centre (i.e. E µ 2 ). Note that the field doesn't depend
x
on the radius of the sphere for a point outside it. It simply
R behaves as a point charge.
8. The electric field intensity at a point on the axis of non-
conducting solid cylinder is zero. It varies directly with the
x
Qx distance from the axis inside it (i.e. E µ x). On the surface, it
Ecentre = 0 Ein = k is constant and varies inversely with the distance from the
R3
Q Q 1
Esurface = k Eout =k 2 axis for a point outside it (i.e. E µ ).
2 x
R x
(viii) Due to a solid non-conducting
cylinder with linear charge denisty l MOTION OF A CHARGED PARTICLE IN AN ELECTRIC
2l x FIELD
Eaxis = 0, E in = k 2 ,
R Let a charged particle of mass m and charge q be placed in an
2l 2l R uniform electric field E , then electric force on the charge particle
E surface = k , E out = k is
R x uur uur
F = qE
uur
ur qE
1 \ acceleration, a = (constant)
In above cases, k = m
4p Î0 (a) The velocity of the charged particle at time t is,
Keep in Memory qE
v = u + at = at = t (Particle initially at rest)
m
1. If the electric lines of force are parallel and equally spaced, qE
the field is uniform. or v = t
m
2. If E0 and E be the electric field intensity at a point due to a 1 1 qE 2
point charge or a charge distribution in vacuum and in a (b) Distance travelled by particle is S = at 2 = t
2 2 m
medium of dielectric constant K then
E = KE0 1 q 2 E 2t 2
3. If E and E' be the electric field intensity at a point in the two (c) Kinetic energy gained by particle, K = mv 2 =
2 2m
media having dielectric constant K and K' then
Electric Charges and Fields 409
O X P
U
E
S Q
Let E = E ˆj and the particle enters the field with speed u along
x-axis. R
qE
Acceleration along Y-axis, a y = The workdone by the field in the above case is given by
m
the expression
The initial component of velocity along y-axis is zero. Hence the
deflection of the particle along y-axis after time t is (a) q E A (b) – q E A
1 qE 2 1 2 2
y = u yt + . t = 0 + a yt2 ; (c) q E A 2 (d) q E [(2 a) + b ]
2 m 2
Solution : (b)
\y = .
1 qE 2
t …… (i) r r r r
2 m W = F.S = q E i .S
Distance covered by particle in x-axis, r r r
x = ut …… (ii) (Q acceleration ax = 0) Now WP®Q= q E i · (a i + b j ) = q E a
Eliminating t from equation (i) & (ii), r r r
WQ®R = q E i · (– a i + b j ) = – q E a
qE x 2
y= . i.e. y µ x2. (workdone against field is taken as negative)
2m u 2 r r r
This shows that the path of charged particle in perpendicular WR®S = q E i · (– a i + b j ) = – q E a
field is parabola.
If the width of the region in which the electric field exists be l W = WP® Q + WQ + R + WR ®S
then = q E a - q E a - q E a = -q E a
(i) the particle will leave the field at E vy
a distance from its original path q Example 9.
in the direction of field, given by vx Calculate the electric field strength required to just
y
2 support a water drop of mass 10–7 kg and having charge
qE l u
y= . 1.6 × 10–19 C.
2m u 2 l
Solution :
(ii) The particle will leave the region in the direction of the
tangent drawn to the parabola at the point of escape. Here, m = 10–7 kg, q = 1.6 × 10–19 C
(iii) The velocity of the particle at the point of escape is given Step 1 : Let E be the electric field strength required to
by support the water drop.
v = v 2x + v 2y , where v x = u and Force acting on the water drop due to electric field E is
F = qE = 1.6 × 10–19 E
qE
vy = u y + a yt = 0 + t Weight of drop acting downward,
m
W = mg = 10–7 × 9.8 newton.
qEt qEl æ lö
= = çèQ t = ÷ø Step 2 : Drop will be supported if F and W are equal and
m mu u opposite.
æ qE l ö
2 i.e., 1.6 × 10–19 E = 9.8 × 10–7
\ v = u2 + ç ÷
è mu ø 9.8 ´ 10 -7
(iv) The direction of the particle in which it leaves the field is or E=
given by 1.6 ´ 10 -19
vy qEl qEl = 6.125 × 1012 N C–1.
tan q = = = Example 10.
vx mu.u mu 2
Can a metal sphere of radius 1cm hold a charge of
æ qE l ö
Þ q = tan -1 ç ÷ 1 coulomb.
è mu 2 ø
410 PHYSICS
x p
+q
qE q
î ˆj k̂ 2l –q p +q
Then t = p x py pz
qE q
Ex Ey Ez 1 p 1
–q E E= 3cos 2 q + 1 ; tan b = tan q
4p Î0 x 3 2
The work done in rotating the dipole from equilibrium through Electric field intensity due to a point charge varies inversely as
an angle dq is given by cube of the distance and in case of quadrupole it varies inversely
dW = td q = pE sin q d q as the fourth power of distance from the quadrupole.
and from q1 ® q2, Electric Force between Two Dipoles
The electrostatic force between two dipoles of dipole moments
q2 q2
p1 and p2 lying at a seperation r is
W= ò dW = ò pE sin q dq 1 6 p1 p2
q1 q1 F= when dipoles are placed co-axially
4p Î0 r 4
If q1 = 0 i.e., equilibrium position, then
1 3 p1 p2
q2
F= when dipoles are placed perpendicular to
4p Î0 r 4
W= ò pE sin qdq = pE(1 - cos q2 ) each other.
0
Keep in Memory
Workdone in rotating an electric dipole in uniform electric field
from q1 to q2 is W = pE (cosq1 – cosq2) 1. The dipole moment of a dipole has a direction from the
negative charge to the positive charge.
Potential energy of an electric dipole in an electric field is,
2. If the separation between the charges of the dipole is
increased (or decreased) K-times, the dipole moment
U = – p .E i.e. U = –pE cosq
increases (or decreases) by K-times.
r r 3. The torque experienced by a dipole placed in a uniform
where q is the angle between E and p .
electric field has value always lying between zero and pE,
We can also write where p is the dipole moment and E, the uniform electric
U = p x E x + p y E y + pz E z field. It varies directly with the separation between the
charges of the dipole.
Electric Charges and Fields 411
4. The work done in rotating a dipole in a uniform electric field Since net force is zero, the centre of mass will not move but
varies from zero (minimum) to 2pE (maximum). Also , it varies the dipole will rotate about the centre of mass due to torque
directly with the separation between the charges of the t = qE (a / 4) sin q + qE (3a / 4) sin q
dipole.
t = q Ea sin q …… (1)
5. The potential energy of the dipole in a uniform electric field
always lies between +pE and –pE. d 2q
6. The electric field intensity at a point due to an electric dipole Also, t = Icma = – I cm …… (2)
dt 2
varies inversely with the cube of the distance of the point
from its centre if the distance is much greater than the length For small oscillations sin q = q
of the dipole. d 2q
7. The electric field at a point due to a small dipole in end-on Þ I cm = - qEa sin q = –qEaq;
position is double of its value in broad side-on position, dt 2
i.e. EEnd-on = 2EBroad side-on From eq. (1) & (2),
8. For a small dipole, the electric field tends from infinity at a
point very close to the axis of the dipole to zero at a point at d 2q æ qEa ö
= -ç q
infinity. dt2
è Icm ÷ø
9. The force between two dipoles increases (or decreases) by
K4 -times as the distance between them decreases (or æ aö
2
æ 3a ö
2
9 2 ´ (25 ´ 10 -2 ) ´ (5 ´ 10 -5 )
Eaxial = (9 ´ 10 ) ´
10 -8 [(25) 2 - (5) 2 ]2
For uniform electric field when the angle between the area vector
= 3.25 ´ 10 7 NC -1 and electric field is not constant throughout the area
Example 12. n^
Consider two objects of masses M and 3M seperated by a E
distance l . Charge q and –q are placed on them dA
respectively and they are lying in an electric field E.
Find the angular frequency of oscillation (S.H.M.)
Solution :
(3M)
qE uur uur uur uur
d f = E × dA Þ f = ò E × dA Þ f = ò EdA cos q = E ò dA cos q
a/4
3Ma + 0 3 q
x cm = = a O
4M 4 3a Keep in Memory
4
2. The electric flux has values lying between –EA and +EA,
where E and A are the electric field and the area of cross- A
section of the surface. +q
–q
GAUSS'S LAW
It states that, the net electric flux through a closed surface in
vacuum is equal to 1/eo times the net charge enclosed within Q in
the surface. i.e., f = ò E. dS = = 0 because Qin = – q + q = 0
eo
r uur rr Qin
i.e., j = Ñ
ò E.dA = Ñò E.ndA = e o
Applications of Gauss’s Law :
s (i) To determine electric field due to a point charge :
where Qin represents the net charge inside the gaussian surface S.
. .. . . r
........................................ E
.. .................. ......... .... Q dA
.. ..dA.... .............. ..
n
.. . .. .. . .... . E
Gaussian
surface
........ ........... .. ...
.. ........ .. . . The point charge Q is at the centre of spherical surface
. .......... Gaussian
surface
shown in figure. Gaussian surface and E is parallel to d A
(direction normal to Gaussian surface ) at every point on
Closed surface of irregular shape which enclosed total charge Qin the Gaussian surface.
ur ur Q
In principle, Gauss's law can always be used to calculate the so, fc = Ñò E.dA = Ñò EdA = eo
electric field of a system of charges or a continuous distribution
of charge . But in practice it is useful only in a limited number of
( )
Q
situation, where there is a high degree of symmetry such as ÞE= Q A = 4pr 2
4pe o r 2
spherical, cylindrical etc.
(i) The net electric flux through any closed surface depends (ii) To determine electric field due to a cylindrically symmetric
only on the charge inside that surface. In the figures, the charge distribution :
net flux through S is q1/eo, the net flux through S’ is (q2 +q3 We calculate the electric
)/eo and the net flux, through S" is zero. field at a distance r from a Gaussian
uniform positive line + surface
+
charge of infinite length + E
q2 whose charge per unit l + dA
q3 length is l = constant. The +
q1 flux through the plane +
S" + E
S S' surfaces of the Gaussian +
(a) (b) (c) r
(ii) A point charge Q is located outside a closed surface S. In cylinder is zero, since E is dA
this case note that the number of lines entering the surface r
parallel to the plane of end surface ( E is perpendicular to
equals to the number of lines leaving the surface. In other r
words the net flux through a closed surface is zero, if there dA ). The total charge inside the Gaussian suface is l l,
is no charge inside. where l is linear charge density and l is the length of cylinder.
= 0 + E . 2A
S
Qin ll l
(iii) The net flux across surface A is zero 2E . p r l = = or E =
eo eo 2pe o r
Electric Charges and Fields 413
Keep in Memory
Example 13.
A B C
A charge q is enclosed in a cube. What is the electric flux
Solution :
associated with one of the faces of cube?
According to Gauss’s law, the electric flux linked with a
Solution :
closed surface depends only on net charge enclosed by
According to Gauss’s theorem, that surface. It does not depend on the shape and size of
1 that closed surface. Hence electric flux linked in above three
Total electric flux f= × total enclosed charge figures are same i.e., fA = fB = fC.
eo
Example 16.
1
= ´q. A point charge +q is placed at mid point of a cube of side
eo ‘L’. What is the electric flux emerging from the cube ?
Since cube has six faces, hence electric flux linked with Solution :
each face = (1/6f) = q/6eo.
According to Gauss’s law,
Example 14.
q
The following figure shows a surface S which is enclosing fnet closed surface =
eo
–2q charge. The charge +q is kept outside the surface S.
Calculate the net outward/ inward flux from the surface Net charge enclosed by closed surface
=
S. eo
CONCEPT MAP
414
Surface charge
charge
density =
area By induction
Coulomb’s Law
Linear charge Volume charge 1 q1q2
Distribution F= Methods of charging By conduction
charge charge 4p Î0 r 2 By friction
density = of charge density =
length volume 1
= 9 ´ 109 Nm2 C -2
4p Î0
charge
Electric Charges and Fields 415
1. The electric field strength at a distance r from a charge q is 10. Identify the wrong statement in the following. Coulomb's
E. What will be electric field strength if the distance of the law correctly describes the electric force that
observation point is increased to 2 r? (a) binds the electrons of an atom to its nucleus
(a) E/2 (b) E/4 (b) binds the protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an
(c) E/6 (d) None of these atom
2. The surface density on the copper sphere is s. The electric (c) binds atoms together to form molecules
field strength on the surface of the sphere is (d) binds atoms and molecules together to form solids
(a) s (b) s/2 11. An infinite parallel plane sheet of a metal is charged to
(c) Q / 2eo (d) Q / eo charge density s coulomb per square metre in a medium of
3. What is the angle between the electric dipole moment and dielectric constant K. Intensity of electric field near the
the electric field due to it on the axial line? metallic surface will be
(a) 0º (b) 90º s s
(a) E = (b) E =
(c) 180º (d) None of these eo K 2e o
4. In a region of space having a uniform electric field E, a
s Ks
hemispherical bowl of radius r is placed. The electric flux f (c) E= (d) E=
through the bowl is 2e o K 2e o
(a) 2pRE (b) 4pR2E r
2
12. In a medium of dielectric constant K, the electric field is E .
(c) 2pR E (d) pR2E
If Î0 is permittivity of the free space, the electric
5. A cylinder of radius R and length l is placed in a uniform
electric field E parallel to the axis of the cylinder. The total displacement vector is
flux over the curved surface of the cylinder is r r
KE E
(a) zero (b) pR2E (a) (b)
Î0 K Î0
(c) 2pR2E (d) E / pR2
6. An electric dipole when placed in a uniform electric field E r
Î0 E r
will have minimum potential energy if the dipole moment (c) (d) K Î0 E
makes the following angle with E. K
(a) p (b) p/2 13. Two conducting spheres of radii r 1 and r2 are charged to
the same surface charge density. The ratio of electric fields
(c) zero (d) 3 p/2
near their surface is
7. At the centre of a cubical box + Q charge is placed. The
value of total flux that is coming out a wall is r22 / r12
(a) r12 / r22 (b)
(a) Q / eo (b) Q / 3eo
(c) Q / 4eo (d) Q / 6eo (c) r1 / r2 (d) 1 : 1
8. If a charge is moved against the coulomb force of an electric 14. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open end of a
field, then cylindrical vessel. The flux of the electric field through the
(a) work is done by the electric field surface of the vessel is
(b) energy is used from some outside source
(c) the strength of the field is decreased q
(d) the energy of the system is decreased
9. The charge given to any conductor resides on its outer
surface, because
(a) the free charge tends to be in its minimum potential (a) zero (b) q/e o
energy state (c) q/2eo (d) 2q/eo
(b) the free charge tends to be in its minimum kinetic energy 15. Two thin infinite parallel sheets have uniform surface
state densities of charge + s and – s. Electric field in the space
(c) the free charge tends to be in its maximum potential between the two sheets is
energy state. (a) s/eo (b) s/2eo
(d) the free charge tends to be in its maximum kinetic energy (c) 2s/eo (d) zero
state
416 PHYSICS
16. The E-r curve for an infinite linear charge distribution will 21. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of force
be constant K, the maximum force of attraction between two
charges, separated by a distance
(a) decreases K-times (b) increases K-times
(a) E (b) E
1
(c) remains unchanged (d) becomes times
r r K2
22. A point Q lies on the perpendicular bisector of an electrical
dipole of dipole moment p. If the distance of Q from the
(c) E (d) E dipole is r (much larger than the size of the dipole), then
the electric field at Q is proportional to
r r (a) p–1 and r–2 (b) p and r–2
r 2 –3
17. If a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric (c) p and r (d) p and r–3
r 23. A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a
field E , then torque acting on it is given by
r rr r r r uniform electric field E and then released. The kinetic energy
(a) t = p.E (b) t = p ´ E attained by the particle after moving a distance y is
r r r r r r
(c) t = p + E (d) t = p - E (a) q E y2 (b) q E2 y
18. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of (c) q E y (d) q2 E y
radius R. If the radius is doubled, then the outward electric
24. Intensity of an electric field (E) depends on distance r, due
flux will
to a dipole, is related as
(a) increase four times (b) be reduced to half
(c) remain the same (d) be doubled 1 1
19. What is the value of E in the space outside the sheets? (a) Eµ (b) Eµ
(a) s/eo (b) s/2eo r r2
(c) E ¹ 0 (d) 2s/eo
1 1
20. Two charges are at a distance d apart. If a copper plate of (c) Eµ 3 (d) Eµ
d r r4
thickness is kept between them, the effective force will
2 25. The formation of a dipole is due to two equal and dissimilar
be point charges placed at a
(a) F/2 (b) zero (a) short distance (b) long distance
(c) 2F (d) 2F (c) above each other (d) none of these
1. The electric field intensity just sufficient to balance the (a) 3 newton per coulomb
earth’s gravitational attraction on an electron will be: (given (b) 4 netwon per coulomb
mass and charge of an electron respectively are (c) 5 newton per coulomb
9.1 ´10-31 kg and 1.6 ´ 10-19 C .) (d) None of these
4. From a point charge, there is a fixed point A. At A, there is
(a) –5.6 × 10–11 N/C (b) –4.8 × 10–15 N / C an electric field of 500 V/m and potential difference of 3000
(c) –1.6 × 10–19 N/C (d) –3.2 × 10–19 N / C V. Distance between point charge and A will be
2. The insulation property of air breaks down when the electric (a) 6 m (b) 12 m
field is 3 × 106 Vm–1. The maximum charge that can be (c) 16 m (d) 24 m
given to a sphere of diameter 5 m is approximately 5. If electric field in a region is radially outward with magnitude
E = Ar, the charge contained in a sphere of radius r centred
(a) 2 × 10–2 C (b) 2 × 10–3 C at the origin is
(c) 2 × 10–4 C (d) 2 × 10–5 C
1
3. There is an electric field E in X-direction. If work done in (a) A r3 (b) 4peoAr3
4 p eo
moving a charge 0.2 C through a distance of 2m along a line
making an angle of 60 degree with X-axis is 4.0 joule, what 1 A 4 p eo A
(c) (d)
is the value of E? 4 p e o r3 r3
Electric Charges and Fields 417
6. A hollow insulated conduction sphere is given a positive 14. Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a
charge of 10 mC. What will be the electric field at the centre distance of 16 cm. They do not experience any force. The
of the sphere if its radius is 2 metres? q
(a) Zero (b) 5 mCm–2 value of is
m
(c) 20 mCm –2 (d) 8 mCm–2
7. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and pe0
(a) l (b)
its dipole moment is p. It is placed in uniform electric field E. G
If its dipole moment is along the direction of the field, the G
force on it and its potential energy are respectively. (c) (d) 4pe0 G
4pe 0
(a) q.E and max. (b) 2 q.E and min.
(c) q.E and min (d) zero and min. 15. The spatial distribution of electric field due to charges
8. If the dipole of moment 2.57 × 10–17 cm is placed into an (A, B) is shown in figure. Which one of the following
electric field of magnitude 3.0 × 104 N/C such that the fields statements is correct ?
lines are aligned at 30° with the line joining P to the dipole,
what torque acts on the dipole?
(a) 7.7 × 10–13 Nm (b) 3.855 × 10–13 Nm A B
(c) 3.855 × 10 Nm –15 (d) 7.7 × 10–15 Nm
9. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric
field of intensity 2 × 105 NC–1, It experiences a torque of (a) A is +ve and B –ve, |A| > |B|
4 Nm. Calculate the charge on the dipole if the dipole length (b) A is –ve and B +ve, |A| = |B|
is 2 cm. (c) Both are +ve but A > B
(a) 8 mC (b) 4 mC (d) Both are –ve but A > B
(c) 8 mC (d) 2 mC 16. A drop of oil of density r and radius r carries a charge q
10. Charge Q is distributed to two different metallic spheres when placed in an electric field E, it moves upwards with a
having radii R and 2R such that both spheres have equal velocity v. If r0 is the density of air, h be the viscosity of
surface charge density, then charge on large sphere is the air, then which of the following force is directed
upwards?
4Q Q
(a)
5
(b)
5 (a) q E (b) 6π ηr v
4 3
3Q 5Q (c) p r (r - r 0 )g (d) None of these
(c) (d) 3
5 4 17. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are placed at
11. Two point charges q1 = 4mC and q2 = 9 mC are placed 20 cm each corner as shown as fig. The electric intensity at centre
apart. The electric field due to them will be zero on the line O will be
joining them at a distance of
(a) 8 cm from q1 (b) 8 cm form q2 +q A
80 80
(c) cm from q1 (d) cm from q 2
13 13 r
12. Three charge q, Q and 4q are placed in a straight line of O
1 r r
length l at points distant 0, and l respectively from one
2 +q +q
end. In order to make the net froce on q zero, the charge Q B C
must be equal to 1 q 1 q
(a) –q (b) – 2q (a) (b)
4 p Îo r 4 p Îo r 2
-q
(c) (d) q 1 3q
2 (c) (d) zero
4 p Îo r 2
13. Among two discs A and B, first have radius 10 cm and charge
18. An electric dipole is placed along the x-axis at the origin O.
10–6 µC and second have radius 30 cm and charge 10–5µC.
A point P is at a distance of 20 cm from this origin such that
When they are touched, charge on both q A and q B
OP makes an angle p/3 with the x-axis. If the electric field at
respectively will, be
P makes an angle q with the x-axis, the value of q would be
(a) q A = 2.75 μC, q B =3.15 μC æ 3ö
p p
(a) (b) + tan -1 ç ÷
(b) q A = 1.09 μC, q B = 1.53μC 3 ç ÷
3 è 2 ø
(c) q A = q B = 5.5 μC æ 3ö
(d) tan -1çç ÷
2p
(c) ÷
(d) None of these 3 è 2 ø
418 PHYSICS
19. A simple pendulum has a length l , mass of bob m. The bob 24. An electric dipole of moment P is placed in a uniform
is given a charge q. The pendulum is suspended between
the vertical plates of the charged parallel plate capacitor. If electric field E such that P points along E . If the dipole
E is the field strength between the plates, then time period is slightly rotated about an axis perpendicular to the plane
T equal to
containing E and P and passing through the centre of
+ -
the dipole, the dipole executes simple harmonic motion.
Consider I to be the moment of inertia of the dipole about
the axis of rotation. What is the time period of such
oscillation?
(a) (pE / I) (b) 2p ( I / pE)
+ -
(c) 2p ( I / 2pE) (d) None of these
25. There exists a non-uniform electric field along x-axis as
l l shown in the figure below. The field increases at a uniform
(a) 2p (b) 2p
g qE rate along +ve x-axis. A dipole is placed inside the field as
g+
m shown. Which one of the following is correct for the dipole?
(c) l (d) l
2p 2p –q
qE 2 a
g- 2 æ qE ö
m g +ç ÷ +q x-axis
èmø
20. Two identical thin rings, each of radius a meter, are coaxially
placed at a distance R meter apart. If Q1 coulomb and Q2 (a) Dipole moves along positive x-axis and undergoes a
coulomb are respectively the charges uniformly spread on clockwise rotation
the two rings, the work done in moving a charge q coulomb (b) Dipole moves along negative x-axis and undergoes a
from the centre of one ring to that of the other is clockwise rotation
(c) Dipole moves along positive x-axis and undergoes a
q(Q1 - Q2 )( 2 - 1) anticlockwise rotation
(a) Zero (b) (d) Dipole moves along negative x-axis and undergoes a
4 2 pe0 a
anticlockwise rotation
q(Q1 + Q 2 )( 2 + 1) 26. The electric dipole is situated is an electric field as shown
q 2(Q1 + Q 2 )
(c) (d) in fig 1. The dipole and electric field are both in the plane of
4pe 0a 4 2pe 0 a the paper. The dipole is rotated about an axis perpendicular
21. A metallic sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. The to plane of paper passing through A in anticlockwise
line of force follow the path (s) shown in the figure as direction. If the angle of rotation (q) is measured with respect
to the direction of electric field, then the torque (t)
1 1 experienced by the dipole for different values of the angle
2 2
of rotation q will be represented in fig. 2, by
3 3
4 4 +q
(a) 1 (b) 2 q E
(c) 3 (d) 4
22. A soap bubble is given negative charge, its radius will
(a) increase (b) decrease –q
(c) remain unchanged (d) fluctuate
23. A and B are two identically spherical charged bodies which Fig. 1
repel each other with force F, kept at a finite distance. A t (1) (2) (3) (4)
third uncharged sphere of the same size is brought in contact
with sphere B and removed. It is then kept at mid point of A
3p
and B. Find the magnitude of force on C. O p 2p
F F
(a) (b)
2 8 Fig. 2
(c) F (d) Zero (a) curve (1) (b) curve (2)
(c) curve (3) (d) curve (4)
Electric Charges and Fields 419
27. Force between two identical charges placed at a distance (a) For spherical region r £ R0 total electrostatic energy
of r in vacuum is F. Now a slab of dielectric of dielectric
stored is zero
contrant 4 is inserted between these two charges. If the
thickness of the slab is r/2, then the force between the (b) Within r = 2R0 total charge is q.
charges will become
(c) There will be no charge anywhere except at r = R0
3
(a) F (b) F (d) None of these
5
32. A solid sphereical conductor of radius R has a spherical
4 F cavity of radius a (a < R) at its centre. A charge + Q is kept
(c) F (d)
9 2 at the centre. The cahrge at the inner surface, outer and at a
28. A charge +q is at a distance L/2 above a square of side L. position r (a < r < R) are respectively
Then what is the flux linked with the surface? (a) + Q, – Q, 0 (b) – Q, + Q, 0
q 2q (c) 0, – Q, 0 (d) + Q , 0, 0
(a) 4e 0 (b) 3e 0 33. A glass rod rubbed with silk is used to charge a gold leaf
electroscope and the leaves are observed to diverge. The
q 6q
(c) (d) electroscope thus charged is exposed to X-rays for a short
6e 0 e0 period. Then
29. Positive and negative point charges of equal magnitude (a) the divergence of leaves will not be affected
æ aö -a ö (b) the leaves will diverge further
æ
are kept at ç 0, 0, ÷ and ç 0, 0, ÷ respectively. The work (c) the leaves will collapse
è 2 ø è 2 ø
done by the electric field when another positive point charge (d) the leaves will melt
is moved from (–a, 0, 0) to (0, a, 0) is 34. A solid conducting sphere of radius a has a net positive
(a) positive charge 2Q. A conducting spherical shell of inner radius b
(b) negative and outer radius c is concentric with the solid sphere and
(c) zero has a net charge – Q. The surface charge density on the
(d) depends on the path connecting the initial and final inner and outer surfaces of the spherical shell will be
positions
r 2Q Q
30. A short electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed at a (a) - 2
,
4pb 4pc 2
distance r from the centre of a solid metallic sphere of radius
a (<< r) as shown in the figure. The electric field intensity at a
Q Q
the centre of sphere C due to induced charge on the sphere (b) - , b
4pb2 4pc 2 c
is
–q O +q Q
a (c) 0,
C 4pc 2
(d) None of these
35. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in between charged
r plates as shown. The lines of force look like
1 2p +++++++ +++++++
(a) zero (b) along CO
4pe 0 r 3
1 2p 1 p
(c) along OC (d) along CO – –––– –– – –––– ––
4pe 0 r 3 4pe0 r3 A B
31. The electrostatic potential (fr) of a spherical symmetric
system kept at origin, is shown in the figure, and given as +++++++ +++++++
q
fr = (r ³ R0 ) fr
4pe 0 r
– –––– –– – –––– ––
q C D
fr = (r £ R0 )
4pe 0 R0 R0 r (a) A (b) B
Which of the following option(s) is/are incorrect (c) C (d) D
420 PHYSICS
36. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two 42. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given
equal charges Q such that the system is in equilibrium then charges of –1×10–2 C and 5×10–2 C, respectively. If these
the value of q is are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the
(a) Q/2 (b) –Q/2 bigger sphere is
(a) 2 × 10–2 C (b) 3 × 10–2 C
(c) Q/4 (d) –Q/4 (c) 4 × 10 C –2 (d) 1 × 10–2 C
37. The electric intensity due to a dipole of length 10 cm and 43. An electric dipole of moment ´p´ is placed in an electric
having a charge of 500 mC, at a point on the axis at a distance field of intensity ´E´. The dipole acquires a position such
20 cm from one of the charges in air, is that the axis of the dipole makes an angle q with the direction
(a) 6.25 × 107 N/C (b) 9.28 × 107 N/C of the field. Assuming that the potential energy of the dipole
to be zero when = 90°, the torque and the potential energy
(c) 13.1 × 1011 N/C (d) 20.5 × 107 N/C
of the dipole will respectively be
38. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated (a) p E sin q, – p E cos q (b) p E sin q, –2 p E cos q
by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between the (c) p E sin q, 2 p E cos q (d) p E cos q, – p E cos q
ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be 44. Figure shows two charges of equal magnitude separated by
(e being the charge of an electron) a distance 2a. As we move away from the charge situated at
x = 0 to the charge situated at x = 2a, which of the following
4pe 0 Fd 2 4pe0 Fe 2 graphs shows the correct behaviour of electric field ?
(a) (b) +q +q
e2 d2
x=0 x=a x = 2a
4pe0 Fd 2 4pe 0 Fd 2
(a) y (b) y
(c) (d) ®
e2 q2 ®
E E
39. A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is
placed in a uniform electric field E (volt/m) acting along the
O x
same plane at an angle q with the horizontal side of the a 2a O a 2a
x
square as shown in Figure. The electric flux linked to the
surface, in units of volt. m, is
E
y
(c) y (d)
q ®
® E
E
O x O x
a 2a a 2a
46. Statement-1 : A deuteron and an a-particle are placed in an 48. Statement-1 : The positive charge particle is placed in front
electric field. If F1 and F2 be the forces acting on them and of a spherical uncharged conductor. The number of lines of
a1 and a2 be their accelerations respectively then, a1 = a2. forces terminating on the sphere will be more than those
Statement-2 : Forces will be same in electric field. emerging from it.
47. Statement-1 : Four point charges q1, q2, q3 and q4 are as Statement-2 : The surface charge density at a point on the
shown in figure. The flux over the shown Gaussian surface sphere nearest to the point charge will be negative and
depends only on charges q1 and q2. maximum in magnitude compared to other points on the
sphere.
49.. Statement-1 : A uniformly charged disc has a pin hole at its
centre. The electric field at the centre of the disc is zero.
Statement-2 : Disc can be supposed to be made up of many
rings. Also electric field at the centre of uniformly charged
ring is zero.
50. Statement-1 : When a conductor is placed in an external
electrostatic field, the net electric field inside the conductor
becomes zero after a small instant of time.
Statement-2 : Electric field at all points on Gaussian surface Statement-2 : It is not possible to set up an electric field
depends only on charges q1 and q2. inside a conductor.
q3 q3 +q
+q
(a) shall increase along the positive x-axis
(b) shall decrease along the positive x-axis
(iii) (iv)
(c) shall point along the negative x-axis
(a) in Fig. (iv) is the largest
(d) shall increase but the direction changes because of
the intersection of Q with q2 and q3 (b) in Fig. (iii) is the least
2. A point positive charge is brought near an isolated conducting (c) in Fig. (ii) is same as Fig. (iii) but is smaller than Fig. (iv)
sphere (figure). The electric field is best given by (d) is the same for all the figures
4. Five charges q1, q2, q3,q4, and q5 are fixed at their positions
+q +q
as shown in Figure, S is a Gaussian surface. The Gauss’ law
+q +q q
is given by ò E.dS = . Which of the following statements
s e0
is correct?
q1
q2
q3
q5 q4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
422 PHYSICS
(c) The dipole will experience a force towards left (c) pE (d) infinity
(d) The dipole will experience a force upwards 11. The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward
and is given by E = Aa. A charge contained in a sphere of
6. A point charge + q is placed at a distance d from an isolated
radius 'a' centred at the origin of the field, will be given by
conducting plane. The field at a point P on the other side of
the plane is (a) A e0 a2 (b) 4 pe0 Aa3 [2015]
(c) e0 Aa 3 (d) 4 pe0 Aa 2
(a) directed perpendicular to the plane and away from
12. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common
the plane
point by two massless strings of lengths l, are initially at a
(b) directed perpendicular to the plane but towards the distance d (d << l ) apart because of their mutual repulsion.
plane The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a
(c) directed radially away from the point charge constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other
(d) directed radially towards the point charge. with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance
7. A hemisphere is uniformely charged positively. The electric x between the spheres, as : [2016]
field at a point on a diameter away from the centre is directed 1
(a) perpendicular to the diameter (a) vµ x2 (b) vµx
(b) parallel to the diameter 1
- -1
(c) at an angle tilted towards the diameter (c) v µ x 2 (d) v µ x
(d) at an angle tilted away from the diameter 13. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ
slightly. One of them is – e, the other is (e + De). If the net of
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions
electrostatic force and gravitational force between two
8. Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than
a common point by strings of equal length. The equilibrium atomic size) apart is zero, then De is of the order of [Given
separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly mass of hydrogen mh = 1.67 × 10–27 kg] [2017]
clamped at half the height. The equilibrium separation (a) 10–23C (b) 10–37 C
between the balls now become [2013] (c) 10–47 C (d) 10–20 C
Electric Charges and Fields 423
e Fm 1 F
[Where dielectric constant, K = ] \ = Þ Fm = air (decreases K-times)
e0 Fair K K
= 2 ´ 10-3 C q q'
s= and s =
3. (d) Work done, W = F s cosq = (q E) s cos q 4pR 2 4p (2R) 2
4. (a) Given : Electric field (E) = 500 V/m Given s = s'
and potential difference (V) = 3000 V.
q q'
We know that electric field \ = or, q' = 4q
2
4 pR 4 p(2R) 2
V 3000 From eq. (i), q' = Q – q or, 4q = Q – q
(E) = 500 = or d = = 6m
d 500 or, Q = 5q …(ii)
[where d = Distance between point charge and A]
Q 4Q
q q \ q' = Q – q = Q - = .
5. (b) E = Þ Ar = Þ q = 4pe o Ar3 5 5
2
4 pe o r 4p Î0 r 2 11. (a) EP = 0
6. (a) Charge resides on the outer surface of a conducting
hollow sphere of radius R. We consider a spherical 4 9 20 - x 3
Þ = Þ =
2 2 x 2
surface of radius r < R. x (20 - x)
By Gauss theorem Þ 40 – 2x = 3x Þ x = 8 cm
+++ +++
+
+ + 12. (a) (Fnet )q = 0
+
+ +
+ R
+ +
+ + Qq 4q 2
+
O S + Þ k +k =0
+ r + ælö
2
l2
+ E + ç ÷
+
+ +
+ è2ø
++ + +
+ +
l/2 l/2
rr 1 1
ò E.ds = ´ charge enclosed or E ´ 4pr 2 = ´0 q Q 4q
s e0 e0
ÞE = 0 1
where k =
i.e electric field inside a hollow sphere is zero. 4pe0
7. (d) When the dipole is in the direction of field then net Þ 4Qq + 4q2 = 0 Þ Q = – q
force is qE + (–qE) = 0
13. (c) The charge on disc A is 10–6 mC. The charge on
E
disc B is 10 × 10–6 mC. The total charge on both =
–q a q
11 mC. When touched, this charge will be distributed
and its potential energy is minimum = – p.E. equally i.e. 5.5 mC on each disc.
= – qaE
Electric Charges and Fields 425
r r Surface tension decreases after electrification of
14. (d) They will not experience any force if | FG |=| Fe |
æ 1ö
m2 1 q2 q bubble and therefore pressure decreases. ç P µ ÷
ÞG = . Þ = 4pe 0 G è rø
-2 2 -
4 pe0 (16 ´ 10 )2 2 m
(16 ´ 10 )
means radius increases. In equation (A ), q 2 is not
15. (a) Since lines of force starts from A and ends at B, so A is
+ve and B is –ve. Lines of forces are more crowded affected by positive or negative charge hence, whether
near A, so A > B. it is given a positive or a negative charge it always
expands in radius.
16. (a) Force due to electric field (F = q E) acts upwards.
23. (c) Initial force between the two spheres carrying charge
17. (d) Unit positive charge at O will be repelled equally by
(say q) is
three charges at the three corners of triangle.
r
By symmetry, resultant E at O would be zero. 1 q2
F= (r is the distance between them)
p 4pe 0 r 2
18. (b) From figure, q = + a , where
3 Further when an uncharged sphere is kept in touch
with the sphere of charge q, the net charge on both
E 2 æ p sin q ö æ 4p Î0 r 3 ö 1
tan a = =ç ÷ç ÷ = tan q q+0 q
E1 è 4 p Î0 r 3 ø è 2p cos q ø 2 become = . Force on the 3rd charge, when
2 2
æ pö 1 p 3 placed at center of the 1st two
tan ç q - ÷ = tan =
è 3 ø 2 3 2 r/2 r/2
p æ 3ö
or q- = tan -1 ç ÷ 1 3 2
3 è 2 ø q q/2 q/2
æ 3ö
or a = tan -1 ç ÷
ç 2 ÷ æqö æqö
2
è ø qç ÷ ç ÷
1 è2ø - 1 è2ø
æ 3ö F3 =
p 4pe 0 æ r ö 2 4pe 0 æ r ö 2
or q = + tan -1ç ÷
3 ç 2 ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷
è ø è2ø è2ø
E E
a 1 1 q2 1 q2
E2 p/3 = [2 - 1] = =F
4pe 0 r 2 4pe 0 r 2
P
24. (b) The dipole experiences a torque pE sin q tending to
p /3 bring itself back in the direction of field.
–q O
+q Therefore, on being released (i.e. rotated) the dipole
oscillates about an axis through its centre of mass and
19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (d)
perpendicular to the field. If I is the moment of inertia
22. (a) For a soap bubble (electrified) of the dipole about the axis of rotation, then the
4T equation of motion is I.d 2 q / dt 2 = -pE sin q
excess pressure = P = Pi - P0 =
r
T = surface tension, r = radius. For small amplitude sin q » q
Force due to excess pressure balances surface tension. Thus d 2 q / dt 2 = -(pE / I).q = -w 2 q
When bubble is charged
4T where w = ( pE / I) .
Pexcess = Pelectrosta tic +
r This is a S.H.M., whose period of oscillation is
s2 1 q2 T = 2p / w = 2p ( I / pE) .
Pelectrostatic = - =-
2e 0 2e 0 16p 2 r 4 25. (d) The dipole is placed in a non-uniform field, therefore a
force as well as a couple acts on it. The force on the
4é q2 ù negative charge is more (F µ E) and is directed along
Pexcess = êT - ú ....... ( A ) negative x-axis. Thus the dipole moves along negative
r ëê 128p 2 e 0 r 3 ûú
x-axis and rotates in an anticlockwise direction.
426 PHYSICS
E 1q 30. (b) a
–q O
–q q C
a
E
+q E2q
r
Electric field at C due to electric dipole
26. (b) t = pE sin q , this is given by the second curve.
1 2p
= along OC
1 q2 4pe 0 r 3
27. (c) In vacuum, F = …(i)
4pe0 r 2
Electric field at C due to induced charge must be equal
Suppose, froce between the chrages is same when and opposite to electric field due to dipole as net field
charges are r¢ distance apart in dielectric. at C is zero.
31. (a, b, c, d)
1 q2 The potential shown is for charged spherical
\ F' = …(ii)
4pe0 kr '2 conductor.
From (i) and (ii), kr'2 = r2 or, r = kr ' 32. (b) The charge at the inner surface, outer surface and
inside the conductor at P = (– Q, + Q, 0) as shown in
In the given situation, force between the charges
the figure
would be
+Q +
1 q2 4 q2 4F + r
F' = = = +
4pe0 æ r rö
2 9 4pe0 r 2 9 –Q P
ç + 4 ÷ + +
è2 2ø +Q
q +
+
L/2 +
q 33. (b) Charge on glass rod is positive, so charge on gold
L L/2 leaves will also be positive. Due to X-rays, more
28. (c)
electrons from leaves will be emitted, so leaves
L L
becomes more positive and diverge further.
L
The given square of side L may be considered as one Charge
of the faces of a cube with edge L. Then given charge 34. (a) Surface charge density (s) =
Surface area
q will be considered to be placed at the centre of the
– Q + 2Q = Q
cube. Then according to Gauss's theorem, the -2Q
magnitude of the electric flux through the faces (six) So sinner = –2Q
4pb2
of the cube is given by a b
f = q/e0 Q
and sOuter = c
Hence, electric flux through one face of the cube for +2Q
4pc 2
the given square will be
1 q
f' = f = 35. (c) Electric lines of force never intersect the conductor.
6 6e 0
They are perpendicular and slightly curved near the
29. (c) The charges make an electric dipole. A and B points surface of conductor.
lie on the equitorial plane of the dipole. There fore 36. (d) Let q charge is situated at the mid position of the line
potential at A = potential at B = 0 AB. The distance between AB is x. A and B be the
W = Q (VA – VB) = q × 0 = 0 positions of charges Q and Q respectively.
Y A C B
B (0, a, 0) –Z Q Q
–q x q x
(0, 0,–a/2) 2 2
A X x
(–a, 0, 0) +q
(0, 0, a/2) x x
Let AC = , BC =
Z 2 2
Electric Charges and Fields 427
EXERCISE - 3 3. (d) By Gauss’s law : The total of the electric flux out of a
closed surface is equal to the charge enclosed devided
Exemplar Questions
Q
1. (a) The force on q1 depend on the force acting between by the permittivity i.e., f = .
e0
q1 and q2 and q1 and q3 so that the net force acting
on q1 by q2 and q1 by q3 is along the + x-direction, so Thus, electric flux through a surface doesn’t depend
the force acting between q1, q2 and q1, q3 is attractive on the shape, size or area of a surface but it depends
force as shown in figure : on the number of charges enclosed by the surface. So
+q2
all the given figures have same electric flux as all of
them also has same single positive charge.
q1 x 4. (b) Gauss's law states that total electric flux of an enclosed
+q1 q
surface is given by, Ñò E.dS = , includes the sum of
+q3 s
e0
The attractive force between these charges states that all charges enclosed by the surface.
q1 is a negative charge (since, q2 and q3 are positive). The charges may be located anywhere inside the
Then the force acting between q 1 and charge Q surface, and out side the surface. Then, the electric
(positive) is also know as attractive force and then the field on the left side of equation is due to all the charges,
net force on q1 by q2, q3 and Q are along the same both inside and outside S.
direction as shown in the figure.
So, E on LHS of the above equation will have a
contribution from all charges while q on the RHS will
+q2
have a contribution from q2 and q4 only.
+Q 5. (c) The electric field lines, are directed away from
x
–q1 (x, 0) positively charged source and directed toward
+q3 negatively charged source. In electric field force are
directly proportional to the electric field strength hence,
The figure shows that the force on q1 shall increase higher the electric field strength greater the force and
along the positive x-axis due to the positive charge Q. vice-versa.
2. (a) If a positive point charge is brought near an isolated The space between the electric field lines is increasing,
conducting sphere without touching the sphere, then from left to right so strength of electric field decreases
the free electrons in the sphere are attracted towards with the increase in the space between electric field
the positive Charge and electric field passes through
lines. Then the force on charges also decreases from
a charged body. This leaves an excess of positive
charge on the (right) surface of sphere due to the left to right.
induction process. Thus, the force on charge – q is greater than force on
Both type of charges are bound in the (isolated charge +q in turn dipole will experience a force towards
conducting) sphere and cannot escape. They, left.
therefore, reside on the surface. 6. (a) When a positive point charge +q is placed near an
Thus, the left surface of sphere has an excess of isolated conducting plane, some negative charge
negative charge and the right surface of sphere has developes on the surface of the plane towards the
an excess of positive charge as shown in figure.
charge and an equal positive charge developes on
attracted negative opposite side of the plane. This is called induction
charge process and the electric field on a isolated conducting
+
+ plane at point is directly projected in a plane
+
+q + perpendicular to the field and away from the plane.
+
7. (a) Consider a point on diameter away from the centre of
An electric field lines start from positive charge and
ends at negative charge. hemisphere uniformly positively charged, then the
electric field is perpendicular to the diameter and the
Also, electric field line emerges from a positive charge,
in case of single charge and ends at infinity shown in component of electric intensity parallel to the diameter
figure (a). cancel out.
Electric Charges and Fields 429
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions 11. (b) Net flux emmited from a spherical surface of radius a
according to Gauss’s theorem
8. (a) q
fnet = in
e0 qin
or, (Aa) (4pa2) = e
0
So, qin = 4pe0 A a3
Fe O
2
12. (c) From figure tan q = mg ; q
kq
Fe r/2 q
2 l
From figure, tan q = Þ = r kq 2 x
mg y
mg =
x mg 2l
2
q q
kq 2 or x3 µ q2 …(1)
[Q F = from coulomb’s law] x
r2 or x3/2 µ q …(2)
Differentiating eq. (1) w.r.t. time
y r' 1
Þ r3 µ y Þ r'3 µ Þ = 1/3 dx dq dq
2 r 2 3x2 µ 2q but is constant
dt dt dt
r so x2(v) µ q Replace q from eq. (2)
Þ r' = 3
2 x2(v) µ x3/2 or v µ x–1/2
9. (b) The system of three charges will be in equilibrium. 13. (b) According to question, the net electrostatic force (FE)
A q B = gravitational force (FG)
r O r FE = FG
Q Q
For this, force between charge at A and B + force 1 De 2 Gm2
between charge at point O and either at A or B is zero. or =
4pe0 d 2 d2
KQ 2 KQq
i.e., + =0 G æ 1 9ö
r 2
(r / 2) 2 Þ De = m ç 4pe = k = 9 ´10 ÷
K è 0 ø
By solving we get,
q= -
Q 6.67 ´ 10-11
. = 1.67 × 10–27
4 9 ´ 109
10. (c) When electric dipole is aligned parallel
De » 1.436 × 10–37 C
q = 0° and the dipole is rotated by 90° i.e.,
q = 90°.
Energy required to rotate the dipole
W = Uf – Ui = (–pE cos 90°) – (–pE cos 0°)
= pE.
430 PHYSICS
Electrostatic Potential
17 and Capacitance
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL
Electric potential at a point in an electric field is defined as the r
amount of work done in bringing a unit positive test charge P
from infinity to that point along any arbitrary path. (Infinity is
taken as point of zero potential). It is denoted by V ; dq
R
work done in bringing unit positive
W test charge from infinity to some point dq dq
V= = i.e. V = ò dV = ò where dV =
q0 unit positive test charge 4pe o r 4pe o r
Its SI unit is JC–1 or volt. It is a scalar quantity. Potential due to a System of Charges
Also, electric potential at any point in an electric field is defined The electric potential due to a system of charges q 1, q2, ...qn is
r V = V1 + V2 + ... + Vn
as the negative line integral of the electric field vector E from a
point infinitely away from all charges to that point 1 æ q1 q2 q ö 1 qi
r uur uur
= .ç +
4pe è r1 r2
+ ... + n ÷ =
rn ø 4pe
å ri
i.e. V = - ò E .dr P +lC where ri is the point from charge qi and e is the permitivity of
¥
medium in which the charges are situated.
Potential due to a Point Charge Potential at any point P due to a point chage q at a distance
The electric potential due to a point charge q at separation r is (r1 + r2) where r1 is the thickness of medium of dielectric constant
given by x1 and r 2 is the thickness of the medium of dielectric constant k2
r1 r2
1 q
V= .
4pe r
q K1 P
(Please note that we have to write q with its sign in this formula) K2
4F potential difference between two points is the work done in
bringing unit positive charge from one point to another. q 1
V =k where k =
r1 K1 + r2 K2 4 p Î0
Q B A
Relation between electric field and potential
rB
The relation between electric field (E) and potential (V) is
rA
dV
E=-
B
-Q æ l l ö dr
VAB = VB – VA = - ò E.dr = . ç - ÷ J/C For 3-D we can write
4peo è rB rA ø
A
¶V ¶V ¶V
Ex = - , Ey = - and E z = -
Electric Potential due to Continuous Charge ¶x ¶y ¶z
Distribution So electric field is equal to negative potential gradient.
The potential due to a continuous charge distribution is the sum In this relation negative sign indicates that in the direction of
of potentials of all the infinitesimal charge elements in which the electric field, potential decreases. Consider two points A and B
distribution may be divided. situated in a uniform electric field at a distance d then,
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 431
A r3 r1
Starting
point
Q3 Q2
W r2
so, VAB = VB - VA = AB 1 é Q1 Q 2 Q 2 Q3 Q 3 Q1 ù
Q U= ê + + ú
has the same value for any path between A and B and V B and VA 4p Î0 ë r1 r2 r3 û
are unique for the points A and B. Keep in Memory
We cannot find the absolute value of potential 1. For an assembly of n charges [Total number of intersection
therefore conventionally, we take infinity as the point of zero n n (n - 1)
potential. If need arises, we can assume any point to be the point C2 = ] the potential energy is
2
of zero potential and find the potential of other points on this
basis. é ù
1ê q iq j ú
n
A dU
Also F = - =0
dx
1 3. The energy required to take away the charges of a dipole at
2
dl q2
infinite distance U = k
2l
4. The work done when a charge q is moved across a potential
Q difference of V volt is given by W = qV
B 5. When one electronic charge (1.6×10–19 coulomb i.e., charge
of electron) is moved across one volt the work done is
Calculation of external work done against the field and a point charge called one electron volt (eV). Thus
Q in moving a test charge q from A to B. For a conservative field the 1eV = (1 volt) × (1.6×10–19 coulomb) = 1.6×10–19 joule.
work done by any path is same. The sectional force is – qE.
432 PHYSICS
EQUIPOTENTIAL SURFACE (iv) A finite length of charge with linear charge density l
It is that surface where the potential at any point of the surface
has the same value. The electric lines of force and the x
+ + + + + + + æ x + Lö
equipotential surface are mutually perpendicular to each other. V = k l loge ç
No work is done in moving a charge from one point to other on an L P è x ÷ø
equipotential surface. Work is done in moving a charge from one
equipotential surface to another. (v) Due to a spherical shell of uniformly distributed charge
with surface charge density s
V1 Q ++ + +
V1 > V2 r1 + +
V2 V +
+
o +q +
+ +
r2 R
+ +
x=R x + +
+ + +
Spherical equipotential surface
for point charge
Q Q Q
Vin = k , Vsurface = k , Vout = k
R R x
V = V2
V = V1 (vi) Due to a solid sphere of uniformly distributed charge with
volume charge density r.
Q
V
R
Plane equipotential surface for uniform field
x=R x
· Equipotential surface do not cut each other.
· The density of the equipotential lines gives an idea of the 3Q kQ(3R2 - r 2 )
Vcentre = k , Vin =
strength of electric field at that point. Higher the density, 2R 2 R3
larger is the field strength.
Potential Due to Various Charge Distribution Q Q
Vsurface = k , Vout = k
(i) Electric potential due to isolated point charge R x
Potential due to Electric dipole
x ( + q) (a) Along axial line :
V =k
+q x
P x
(ii) A circular ring of radius R with uniformly distributed charge Q –q +q
2l P
Q
++ + +
+ p
+ + Vaxial = k
+ R + kQ x - l2
2
+ + V=
+ + x P R2 + x2 kp
+ + when x > > l Vaxial =
+
+ + ++ x2
(b) Along equatorial line :
· Potential V does not depend on the way of charge
distriubution on the ring (uniform / non-uniform). Veq = zero
(iii) A circular disc of radius R with uniformly distributed charge (c) At any point from the dipole :
with surface charge density s P
Q x
+ + p cos q q
+ R ++ s é 2 V =k
+ V= R + x2 - xù ( x 2 - l 2 cos 2 q) –q +q
+ +++ x P 2e 0 êë úû
++ p
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 433
++ ++
++ ++
and R2 . The space between two
++
++
where t is the thickness of the dielectric with dielectric constant K.
conductors is filled by a dielectric R O
1
of dielectric constant K.
++ ++
Keep in Memory ++
1. The unit farad is quite a big unit for practical purposes. (a) When outer conductor is earthed,
Even the capacitance of a huge body like earth is 711 mF. Capacitance of spherical capacitor,
2. A capacitor is a device which stores charges and produces 4p Î0 R1R2
electricity whenever required. C= (without dielectric)
R2 - R1
3. If the two plates of a capacitor is connected with a
(4pe o K ) R1R2
conducting wire, sparking takes place which shows that C= (with dielectric)
electrical energy is converted into heat and light energy. ( R2 - R1 )
4. A capacitor allows A.C. but doesn’t allow D.C. to pass (b) When inner sphere is earthed,
through it. 4pe o K R1R2
C= + 4pe o R2
5. The capacitance of a capacitor increases with insertion of a R2 - R1
dielectric between its plates and decreases with increase in This is because the combination behaves as two capacitors
the separation between the plates. in parallel, one is a capacitor formed by two concentric
6. The capacitance of a capacitor increases K times if a medium spherical shells and the other is an isolated spherical shell
of dielectric constant K is inserted between its plates. of radius R2.
7. The energy of a capacitor for a particular separation between CYLINDRICAL CAPACITOR
the plates is the amount of work done in separating the two
It consists of two-coaxial cylindrical conductors of radii R1 and R2,
plates to that separation if they are made to touch to each
the outer surface of outer conductor being earthed. The space
other.
between the two is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K.
8. The loss of energy when the two charged conductors are
connected by a wire doesn’t depend on the length of the R1
wire.
Example 4
–+ +–
A parallel plate capacitor is maintained at a certain potential –+ +–
difference. When a 3 mm slab is introduced between the plates, –+ A +–
K B
l –+ +–
in order to maintain the same potential difference, the distance –+ +–
between the plates is increased by 2.4 mm. Find the dielectric –+ +–
–+ +–
constant of the slab. –+ +–
Solution : –+ +–
The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor in air is given by
e A
C= 0 ... (1) R2
d
436 PHYSICS
Area A1
Area A2
Area A3
the whole space of parallel
A B plate capacitor
C1 C2 C3
d –
V1 V2 V3 e o (K 1 A 1 + K 2 A 2 + K 3 A 3 + ....)
C=
V d
(ii) The charges of individual capacitor are equal. 3. When five capacitors are connected in wheatstone bridge
(iii) The potential difference is shared by the capacitors in the
inverse ratio of their capacities C1 C3
arrangement as shown, such that = , the bridge is
i.e. Q = C1V1 = C2 V2 = C3 V3 C2 C4
Hence V = V1 + V2 + V3 balanced and C5 becomes ineffective. No charge is stored
on C5. Therefore C1, C2 and C3, C4 are in series. The two
(iv) The equivalent capacitance (C) between A and B is
series combinations are in parallel between A and C. Hence
1 1 1 1 1 equivalent capacitance can be calculated.
= + + + ..... + B
C C1 C 2 C 3 Cn
Parallel Combination C1 C2
q1
(i) In this arrangement, +ve plates + – c1
of all the condensers are +– A C5 C
connected to one point and q2
negative plates of all the A c
+– 2 B
condensers are connected to Q + – C3 C4
the other point. q3
(ii) The Potential difference +– c D
across the individual capacitor +– 3
is same.
V RELATION BETWEEN THREE ELECTRIC VECTORS
(iii) The total charge shared by the individual capacitor is in
direct ratio of their capacities
ur ur r
D , P AND E
q q q
i.e. V = 1 = 2 = 3 If an electric field E is applied across a parallel plate capacitor
C1 C 2 C3 filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K (or permittivity e),
Hence, Q = q1 + q2 + q3 then
(iv) The equivalent capacitance between A and B is Polarisation P = induced charge per unit area (opposite to free
Ceq = C1 + C2 + C3 + ........+ Cn q'
charge) =
Keep in Memory A
Electric displacement D = eE = eo E + P
1. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor having a
i.e. Polarisation P = (e – eo) E = (Keo – eo) E
number of slabs of thickness t1, t2, t3 .... and dielectric
constant K1, K2, K3 .... respectively between the plates is Electric susceptibility, c e = P / E
Relation between dielectric constant K and electric susceptibility
eo A ce is
C=
æ t1 t t ö
çç + 2 + 3 + .....÷÷ ce
K K K K = 1+
è 1 2 3 ø e0
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 437
1
U= KC 0 V 2 = KE 0
2
V R C
E= = E0
d Q0 q
Then = =C
Effect of filling a dielectric in a capacitor after V0 V
disconnection of battery dq
and i = current in the circuit at time ‘t’ =
+Q –Q dt
+Q –Q
At time ‘t’ by Kirchhoff’s law
V dq q dq 1
V0 - R - =0 i.e. = dt
Capacitance C0 C = K C0 dt C CV0 - q CR
Integrating and putting in the initial condition q = 0 at t = 0,
Charge Q0 Q = Q0 we get
Q0 Q 0 V0 é 1 ù
– t
P.D V0 = V= = q = CV0 ê1 – e CR ú
C0 C K ê ú
ë û
1 2 2
1 V U0
Potential energy U0 = C0V0 U= KC 0 0 = Special cases :
2 2 K K
(i) At t = 0, q = 0.
(ii) When t increases, q increases.
CHARGING AND DISCHARGING A CAPACITOR
é -
1 ù
t
Charging a Capacitor (iii) As t ® ¥ , q ® Q = CV \ q = Q ê 1 - e CR ú
0 0 0
When an uncharged capacitor is connected across a source of ëê ûú
constant potential difference such as a cell, it takes a finite time (iv) At t = CR [‘CR’ has dimensions of time]
to get fully charged, although this time interval may be small.
é 1ù
This time-interval depends on the capacity of the capacitor and q = Q 0 ê1 - ú = 0.631Q 0
the resistance in the circuit. ë eû
This value of t = CR is called the ‘time constant’ of the (CR)
During the period of charging :
circuit.
1. The charge on the capacitor increases from ‘zero’ to the
final steady charge. Discharging of a Capacitor
2. The potential difference developed across the capacitor If after charging the capacitor, the source of constant potential
opposes the constant potential difference of the source. difference is disconnected and the charged capacitor is shorted
through a resistance ‘R’, then by Kirchhoff’s law, at time ‘t’ from
3. The charge on the capacitor ‘grows’ only as long as the
the instant of shorting,
potential difference of source is greater than the potential
difference across the capacitor. This transport of the charge q dq
+R =0
from the source to the capacitor constitutes a transient C dt
438 PHYSICS
Putting, In equilibrium, Pi + Pe = PO + PT
(i) the initial condition, q = Q0 at t = 0 and or, Pi – PO = PT – Pe
(ii) the final condition, q = 0 at t ® ¥ , or, Pexcess = PT – Pe
the solution to the above equation is
4T s 2
\ Pexcess = -
Q– 0 r 2e o
– 1 t Where T = surface tension of soap solution,
q = Q 0 e CR q s = surface charge density of bubble.
If Pi = PO then Pi – PO = PT – Pe = 0 or PT = Pe
2
t 4T s 2 1 æ q ö
= = ç ÷
Keep in Memory r 2e o 2e o çè 4 pr 2 ÷ø
Hence for maintaining the equilibrium of charged soap
1. If n small drops each having a charge q, capacity ‘C’ and
8e o T
potential V coalesc to form a big drop, then bubble, s =
(i) the charge on the big drop = nq r
(ii) capacity of big drop = n1/3 C q = 8p r 2e o rT
(iii) potential of big drop = n2/3 V 3. Force of attraction between the plates of a parallel plate
(iv) potential energy of big drop = n5/3 U
(v) surface density of charge on the big drop = n1/3 × q2
capacitor =
surface density of charge on one small drop. 2e o AK
2. Charged soap bubble : Four types of pressure act on a where, A = area of the plates of capacitor and
charged soap bubble. K = dielectric constant of the medium filled between the
(i) Pressure due to air outside the bubble PO, acting plates.
inwards. In terms of electric field, the force of attraction
(ii) Pressure due to surface tension of soap solution PT, 1
acting inwards. F = e 0 KE 2
2
(iii) Pressure due to air inside the bubble, P i, acting 4. Uses of capacitor :
outwards. = In LC oscillators = As filter circuits
s2 = Tuner circuit in radio etc.
(iv) Electric pressure due to charging, Pe = , acting 5. The total energy stored in an array of capacitors
2e o
(in series or in parallel) is the sum of the individual energies
outwards. stored in each capacitor.
C1 = K1 C1 = K1 0 1 1 1
K1 K1 d/2 d/2 = +
(i) d º Ae 0 Ae 0 Ceq C1 C 2
K2 K2 C2 = K 2 C2 = K 2
d/2 d/2
– –
é d d ù
êë d = 2 + 2 and area of each plate = A úû
++
+ æA ö
K K1 Kç æ Aæç ÷Aöeeö÷0e æA ö
1 ç12 ÷ 0 0
K2ç ÷e 0
(ii) d K1 K2 K2
Cº1 C=C1 1== è è è2 ø2ø ø C 2 = è2 ø
; C eq= C +1 C 2
dd d d
– ––
+
+ K 2 (A / 2)e 0
C2 =
K2 K (A / 2)e 0 d/ 2 C 2 C3
(iii) K1 º C1 = 1 Ceq = C1 +
d d K 3 (A / 2)e 0 C 2 C3
K3 C3 =
d/ 2
– –
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 439
+ Ae 0
C1 = K1
+ d/2
K1 1 1 1
d K 2e 0 (A / 2) K 3e 0 (A / 2) = +
(iv) K2 K3 = º C2 = C3 = Ceq C1 C 2 + C 3
d/2 d/2
–
–
C
1 2
1
+ 2 A+ 3C 2 –B
(v) ºA º
–
3 B
C
3 4
4
Ceq = C + C + C = 3C
+– +– +– +– 1 C
2 1 2
– A + –
(vi) A Bº
= =º A
B B
C
3
4 4 3
+ + + +
Ceq = C + C = 2C
2 3
C
(+) A A + –
– – – –1 º B
A
+ + + + C C
+ + + +2
(vii) º 2 1 4 3
– – – –3
– – – – 1 1 3C
= C+ or, C eq =
+ + + + C eq 1 1 2
(–) B 4 +
B C C
SOME ME THODS OF FINDING EQUIVALENT Method 2 : Using Symmetry
CAPACITANCE C
C
2
C C
2 mF C
C C
A X Y = 2
2 mF 3 mF A B A B
A B Þ
A B Þ
C C C
26 13 mF 4
mF mF 2
19 3 3 D DC
B
2
440 PHYSICS
B
A C5 High voltage electrode
B
C4 +
C3
D Belt
C1 C 2
If C = C then the wheatstone bridge is balanced. In this case
3 4
there will be no charge accumulation in C5 when battery is
Insulator
attached across A and B. Therefore the equivalent circuit is the
A
capacitance C1 and C2 are in series. Similarly C3 and C4 is in
series. Therefore the equivalent capacitance occurs between A
and B is
1 1 1 Grounded grid
= +
C eq C 1 +C 2 C 3 + C 4
Schematic diagram of a Van de Graaf generator. Charge is transferred
The other forms of wheatstone bridge are : to hollow conductor at the top by means of a rotating belt. The charge is
C1 deposited on the belt at point A and is transferred to hollow conductor
C2 B at point B.
A C5 The high voltage electrode is a hollow conductor mounted on an
C3
insulating medium. The belt is charged at A by means of corona
C4
discharge between comb-like metallic needles and a grounded
or
grid. The needles are maintained at a positive potential of typically
104 eV. The positive charge on the moving belt is transferred to
C5 C1 the high voltage electrode by second comb of needles at B.
C2
Since the electric field inside the hollow conductor is negligible,
C4 the positive charge on the belt easily transfers to the high- voltage
electrode, regardless of its potential. We can increase the potential
B A
of the high voltage electrode until electrical discharge occur
C3 through the air . The “ breakdown” voltage of air is about 3 × 10 6 V/m.
Method 4 : If none of the above method works, then we can use Example 5
the method of Kirchhoff’s laws - junction law and loop law.
Obtain equivalent capacitance of the following network
SHARP POINT ACTION (CORONA DISCHARGE)
as shown in fig. For a 300 volt supply, determine the
When the electric field (s / e 0 ) on a point on the surface of a charge and voltage across each capacitor.
conductor exceeds the electric strength of air, then the air becomes
conducting and the surface of conductor loses charge. This action C1
occurs usually at the sharp points of a conductor as here s is
high, thus creating high electric field. This phenomenon is also C2 100 pF C3
called corona discharge.
VAN DE GRAAF GENERATOR 200 pF 200 pF +
300 V
C4
R.J. Van de Graff in 1931 designed an electrostatic generator –
capable of generating very high potential of the order of 5 × 106 V,
which was then made use of an accelerating charged particles so 100 pF
as to carry out nuclear reactions.
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 441
Solution :
As it is clear from fig, C2 and C3 are in series. total ch arg e q 20 p R 2 s 5 Rs
V= = = =
total capacity C 12 p e o R 3 eo
1 1 1 1 1
\ = + = + Now, charge on bigger sphere,
Cs C2 C3 200 200
5 Rs 40 p R 2 s
2 1 q2' = C2 V = 4 p e o (2 R ) ´ =
= = Þ Cs = 100pF 3e o 3
200 100
Now, Cs and C1 are in parallel. \ Surface density of charge
Cp = Cs + C1 = 100 + 100 = 200 pF.
q '2 40 p R 2 s 5
Again, Cp and C4 are in series. Their combined capacitance s '2 = = = s.
surface area 3 (4 p) (2 R ) 2 6
C is
1 1 1 1 1 3 Example 7
= + = + =
C C p C 4 200 100 200 Two insulated metal spheres of radii 10 cm and 15 cm
charged to a potential of 150 V and 100 V respectively,
200 are connected by means of a metallic wire. What is the
C= = 66.7 pF = 66.7 ´ 10 -12 F
3 charge on the first sphere?
As Cp and C4 are in series. Solution :
\ Vp + V4 = 300 volt. Here, r1 = 10 cm, r2 = 15cm
Charge on C4, V1 = 150 V, V2 = 100 V
200 Common potential
q 4 = CV = ´ 10 -12 ´ 300 = 2 ´ 10 -8 C.
3
Potential difference across C4: C1V1 + C 2 V2
V=
C1 + C 2
q4 2 ´10 -8
V4 = = = 200 volt. 4 p Î0 (r1 V1 + r2 V2 )
C 4 100 ´10 -12 =
4 p Î0 (r1 + r2 )
V p = 300 - V 4 = 300 - 200 = 100 volt . = 120 volt
Potential difference across C1 = V1 = Vp = 100 volt.
Charge on
C1, q1 = C1 V1 = 100 × 10–12 × 100 = 10–8 C q1 = C1V
Potential difference across C2 and C3 in series = 100 volt
V2 = V3 = 50 volt = 4 p Î0 r1 V
Charge on 10-1
C2 = q2 = C2V2 = 200 × 10–12 × 50 = 10–8 C = ´ 12C
9 ´ 109
Charge on
12
C3 = q3 = C3V3 = 200 × 10–12 × 50 = 10–8 C = ´ 3 ´ 109 esu = 4esu
9 ´ 109
Example 6
Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R and 2 R are Example 8
charged such that both of these have same charge density Consider a parallel plate capacitor of capacity 10 mF
s. The spheres are located far away from each other, and with air filled in the gap between the plates. Now one half
connected by a thin conducting wire. Find the new charge of the space between the plates is filled with a dielectric of
density on the bigger sphere. dielectric constant K = 4 as shown in fig.
Solution :
Charge on smaller sphere, q1 = 4pR2s
Charge on bigger sphere, q2 = 4p(2R)2s = 1pR2s K=4
\ Total charge, q = q1 + q2 = 20pR2s
Combined capacity of two spheres,
C = C1 + C2 = 4peoR + 4peo (2R) = 12peoR
The capacity of the capacitor changes to
After contact, charge is exchanged and a common potential (a) 25 mF (b) 20 mF
V is reached. (c) 40 mF (d) 5 mF
442 PHYSICS
Without dielectric, C 0 =
d 50
- æ 1ö
With dielectric as shown, = (2 ´ 10-6 )(e 10 ) = (2 ´ 10-6 ) ç 5 ÷
èe ø
K1e o A K 2e o A
C1 = = 2K1C 0 ; C2 = = 2K 2C 0 ; = 1.348 × 10–8 C (Q e = 2.718)
d/2 d/2
CONCEPT MAP
Electrostatic potential
At a point on the surface Electric potential due to a point charge
Electric potential due to a dipole q
or inside the spherical shell due to a charged V= K
1 q conducting spherical r
V= (r £ R)
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
1. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a certain voltage. 10. A positive point charge q is carried from a point B to a point
Now, if the dielectric material (with dielectric constant k) is A in the electric field of a point charge + Q at O. If the
removed then the permitivity of free space is e0, the work done in the process
is given by
(a) capacitance increases by a factor of k
(b) electric field reduces by a factor k qQ æ1 1 ö qQ æ1 1 ö
(a) ç + ÷ (b) ç - ÷
(c) voltage across the capacitor decreases by a factor k 4 p eo è a b ø 4 p eo è a b ø
(d) None of these qQ æ 1 1 ö qQ æ 1 1 ö
çç - ÷ çç + ÷÷
(c)
4 p eo 2 2÷ (d)
4 p eo è a 2
2. Two identical conducting balls having positive charges q1 èa b ø b2 ø
and q2 are separated by a distance r.If they are made to 11. Two concentric, thin metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2
touch each other and then separated to the same distance, (R1 > R2) bear charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. Then the
the force between them will be potential at distance r between R 1 and R 2 will be
(a) less than before (b) same as before
æ 1 ö
(c) more than before (d) zero çè k = 4pe ÷ø
0
3. A sphere of radius R has uniform volume charge density.
The electric potential at a points (r <R) is æ Q + Q2 ö æQ Q ö
(a) kç 1 ÷ø (b) kç 1 + 2 ÷
(a) due to the charge inside a sphere of radius r only è r è r R2 ø
(b) due to the entire charge of the sphere
æQ Q ö æQ Q ö
(c) due to the charge in the spherical sheel of inner and (c) kç 2 + 1÷ (d) kç 1 + 2 ÷
outer radii r and R, only è r R1 ø è R1 R 2 ø
(d) independent of r 12. Force between two plates of a capacitor is
4. Eight drops of mercury of equal radius and possessing equal
(a)
Q
(b) Q2
charge combine to form a big drop. The capacitance of bigger
eoA 2 eo A
drop as compared to each small drop is
(a) 16 times (b) 8 times
Q2
(c) 4 times (d) 2 times (c) (d) None of these
eoA
5. The capacitance of a metallic sphere is 1mF , then it’s radius
13. An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential
is nearly
differenceof 106 volt. Its kinetic energy will be
(a) 1.11 m (b) 10 m (a) 1 MeV (b) 2 MeV (c) 4 MeV (d) 8 MeV
(c) 9 km (d) 1.11 cm 14. Two capacitors of capacitances C1 and C2 are connected in
6. Three charges 2 q, – q and – q are located at the vertices of parallel across a battery. If Q1 and Q2 respectively be the
an equilateral triangle. At the centre of the triangle
Q1
(a) the field is zero but potential is non-zero charges on the capacitors, then will be equal to
Q2
(b) the field is non-zero, but potential is zero
(c) both field and potential are zero
C2 C1 C12 C 22
(d) both field and potential are non-zero (a) (b) (c) (d)
7. Two conducting spheres of radii r 1 and r 2 are equally C1 C2 C 22 C12
charged. The ratio of their potentials is 15. A system of two parallel plates, each of area A, are separated
(a) r1 / r2 (b) r2 / r1 (c) r12 / r22 (d) r22 / r12 by distances d1 and d2. The space between them is filled
with dielectrics of permittivities e1 and e2. The permittivity
8. The electric potential due to a small electric dipole at a large
of free space is e0. The equivalent capacitance of the system
distance r from the centre of the dipole is proportional to
is
(a) r (b) 1/r (c) 1/r2 (d) 1/r3
9. An electron of mass m and charge e is accelerated from rest e1e2 A e1e 2 e0 A
through a potential difference V in vacuum. Its final speed (a) e2d1+e1d2 (b) e1d1+e 2d 2
will be
2e V eV e0 A e0 A
(a) (b) (c) e V/2m (d) e V/m (c) e1d1+e2d2 (d) e1d 2 +e2d1
m m
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 445
16. A large insulated sphere of radius r charged with Q units of 21. A parallel plate condenser with oil between the plates
electricity is placed in contact with a small insulated (dielectric constant of oil K = 2) has a capacitance C. If the
uncharged sphere of radius r´ and is then separated. The oil is removed, then capacitance of the capacitor becomes
charge on smaller sphere will now be
(a) Q (r' + r) (b) Q (r + r') C C
(a) 2C (b) 2 C (c) (d)
Q Qr' 2 2
(c) (d)
r '+ r r '+ r 22. An air capacitor C connected to a battery of e.m.f. V acquires
17. The capacitance of the capacitor of plate areas A1 and A2 a charge q and energy E. The capacitor is disconnected
(A1 < A2) at a distance d, as shown in figure is from the battery and a dielectric slab is placed between the
Î0 (A1 + A 2 ) plates. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) A2 (a) V and q decrease but C and E increase
2d A1
(b) V remains unchange, but q, E and C increase
Î0 A 2 (c) q remains unchanged, C increases, V and E decrease
(b)
d (d) q and C increase but V and E decrease.
Î0 A1A 2 23. Two parallel metal plates having charges + Q and – Q face
(c) each other at a certain distance between them. If the plates
d
are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the electric field
Î0 A1 d between the plates will
(d)
d (a) remain same (b) become zero
18. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of force (c) increases (d) decrease
constant K, the maximum force of attraction between two 24. A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field E(V/
charges, separated by a distance m) in the space between the plates. If the distance between
(a) decreases K-times (b) increases K-times the plates is d(m) and area of each plate is A(m2) the energy
1 (joules) stored in the condenser is
(c) remains unchanged (d) becomes times
K2 1
(a) E2Ad/ Î0 (b) Î0 E 2
19. A conductor carries a certain charge. When it is connected 2
to another uncharged conductor of finite capacity, then the
1
energy of the combined system is (c) Î0 EAd (d) Î E 2 Ad
(a) more than that of the first conductor 2 0
(b) less than that of the first conductor 25. Which of the following figure shows the correct
(c) equal to that of the first conductor equipotential surfaces of a system of two positive charges?
(d) uncertain
20. The magnitude of the electric field E in the annular region (a) (b)
of a charged cylindrical capacitor + + + +
(a) is same throughout
(b) is higher near the outer cylinder than near the inner
cylinder
(c) (d)
1
(c) varies as , where r is the distance from the axis + +
r + +
1
(d) varies as 2 , where r is the distance from the axis
r
1. The positive terminal of 12 V battery is connected to the (a) zero (b) 10 V (c) 4 V (d) 10/3 V
ground. Then the negative terminal will be at 3. Find the dipole moment of a system where the potential
(a) – 6 V (b) + 12 V (c) zero (d) – 12 V 2.0 × 10–5 V at a point P, 0.1m from the dipole is 3.0 × 104.
2. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that (Use q = 30°).
the potential on its surface is 10 V. The potential at a distance (a) 2.57 × 10–17 Cm (b) 1.285 × 10–15 Cm
of 2 cm from the centre of the sphere is (c) 1.285 × 10–17 Cm (d) 2.57 × 10–15 Cm
446 PHYSICS
4. A battery of e.m.f. V volt, resistors R1 and R2, a condenser 10. Two capacitors when connected in series have a
C and switches S1 and S2 are connected in a circuit shown. capacitance of 3 mF, and when connected in parallel have a
The condenser will get fully charged to V volt when capacitance of 16 mF. Their individual capacities are
(a) 1 mF, 2 mF (b) 6 mF, 2 mF
(c) 12 mF, 4 mF (d) 3 mF, 16 mF
R1 S1 S2 R2
11. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser is 10 mF, when
the distance between its plates is 8 cm. If the distance
between the plates is reduced to 4 cm, then the capacity of
V C this parallel plate condenser will be
(a) 5 mF (b) 10 mF (c) 20 mF (d) 40 mF
12. The capacitor, whose capacitance 6mF 6mF 3mF
is 6, 6 and 3mF respectively are
(a) S1 and S2 are both closed connected in series with 20 volt
(b) S1 and S2 are both open line. Find the charge on 3mF.
(c) S1 is open and S2 is closed (a) 30 mc
(b) 60 mF
(d) S1 is closed and S2 is open
(c) 15 mF 20mF
5. The electric potential at the surface of an atomic nucleus (d) 90 mF
(Z = 50) of radius of 9 × 10–15 m is 13. Four metallic plates each with a surface area of one side A,
(a) 80 V (b) 8 × 106 V (c) 9 V (d) 9 × 105 V are placed at a distance d from each other. The two outer
6. Three point charges +q , + 2q and – 4q where q = 0.1 mC, are plates are connected to one point A and the two other inner
placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm plates to another point B as shown in the figure. Then the
as shown in figure. The potential energy of the system is capacitance of the system is
– 4q
A B
10
cm
cm
e0A 2e 0 A 3e 0 A 4e 0 A
10
17. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates is 26. Capacitance (in F) of a spherical conductor with radius 1 m
charged to a potential difference of 500V and then insulated. is
A plastic plate is inserted between the plates filling the (a) 1.1 × 10–10 (b) 106
whole gap. The potential difference between the plates now (c) 9 × 10–9 (d) 10–3
becomes 75V. The dielectric constant of plastic is 27. Two metal pieces having a potential difference of 800 V are
(a) 10/3 (b) 5 (c) 20/3 (d) 10 0.02 m apart horizontally. A particle of mass 1.96 × 10–15 kg
18. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have an area of is suspended in equilibrium between the plates. If e is the
90 cm2 each and are separated by 2.5 mm. The capacitor is elementary charge, then charge on the particle is
charged by a 400 volt supply. How much electrostatic (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 0.1 (d) 3
energy is stored by the capacitor? 28. Identical charges – q each are placed at 8 corners of a cube
(a) 2.55 × 10–6 J (b) 1.55 × 10–6 J of each side b. Electrostatic potential energy of a charge
(c) 8.15 × 10–6 J (d) 5.5 × 10–6 J + q which is placed at the centre of cube will be
19. From a supply of identical capacitors rated 8 mF, 250V, the - 4 2 q2 - 8 2 q2
minimum number of capacitors required to form a composite (a) (b)
16 mF, 1000V is p eo b p eo b
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 16 (d) 32
- 4 q2 - 8 2 q2
20. Calculate the area of the plates of a one farad parallel plate (c) (d)
capacitor if separation between plates is 1 mm and plates 3 p eo b p eo b
are in vacuum 29. A charge +q is fixed at each of the points x = x0, x = 3x0,
(a) 18 × 108 m2 (b) 0.3 × 108 m2 x = 5x0, .... upto ¥ on X-axis and charge –q is fixed on each
(c) 1.3 × 10 m 8 2 (d) 1.13 × 108 m2 of the points x = 2x0, x = 4x0, x = 6x0, .... upto ¥ . Here x0 is
21. A one microfarad capacitor of a TV is subjected to 4000 V a positive constant. Take the potential at a point due to a
potential difference. The energy stored in capacitor is Q
(a) 8 J (b) 16 J charge Q at a distance r from it to be . Then the
4pe 0 r
(c) 4 × 10–3 J (d) 2 × 10–3 J potential at the origin due to above system of charges will be
22. Two capacitors, C1 = 2mF and C2 = 8 mF are connected in q
series across a 300 V source. Then (a) zero (b)
8pe 0 x 0 log e 2
(a) the charge on each capacitor is 4.8×10–4 C
(b) the potential difference across C1 is 60 V q log e 2
(c) infinity (d)
(c) the potential difference across C2 is 240 V 4pe 0 x 0
(d) the energy stroed in the system is 5.2 × 10–2 J 30. Two equally charged spheres of radii a and b are connected
23. Two capacitors C1 and C2 = 2C1 are Q C1 together. What will be the ratio of electric field intensity on
connected in a circuit with a switch between their surfaces?
them as shown in the figure. Initially the
switch is open and C1 holds charge Q. The R a a2 b b2
(a) (b) (c ) (d)
switch is closed. At steady state, the charge b b2 a a2
on each capacitor will be 31. In a hollow spherical shell, potential (V) changes with respect
Q 2Q
C2= 2C1 to distance (s) from centre as
(a) Q, 2Q (b) ,
3 3 (a) (b)
3Q 2Q 4Q
(c) ,3Q (d) , V V
2 3 3
24. Two capacitors of capacitance C are connected in series. If
one of them is filled with dielectric substance k, what is the S S
effective capacitance ?
(c) (d)
kC
(a) (b) C(k + 1)
(1 + k ) V V
2kC
(c) (d) None of these S S
1+ k 32. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected to
25. The potential at a point x (measured in m m) due to some a battery and is charged to a potential difference V. Another
charges situated on the x-axis is given by V(x) = 20/(x2 – 4) capacitor of capacitance 2C is similary charged to a potential
volt difference 2V. The charging battery is now disconnected
The electric field E at x = 4 m m is given by and the capacitors are connected in parallel to each other in
(a) (10/9) volt/ m m and in the +ve x direction such a way that the positive terminal of one is connected to
(b) (5/3) volt/ m m and in the –ve x direction the negative terminal of the other. The final energy of the
configuration is
(c) (5/3) volt/ m m and in the +ve x direction
3 25 9
(d) (10/9) volt/ m m and in the –ve x direction (a) zero (b) CV 2 (c) CV 2 (d) CV 2
2 6 2
448 PHYSICS
33. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is surrounding 40. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is Ca (Fig. a). A
by an uncharged concentric conducting hollow spherical dielectric of dielectric constant K is inserted as shown in
shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of fig (b) and (c). If Cb and Cc denote the capacitances in fig
the solid sphere and that of the outer surface of the hollow (b) and (c), then
shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge of – 3Q, the new d/2
potential difference between the same two surfaces is d
(a) V (b) 2 V (c) 4 V (d) – 2 V K
34. In the electric field of an point charge A Ca Cb
(a) (b)
q, a certain charge is carried from point
A to B, C, D and E. Then the work +
done is q d K (c)
(a) least along the path AB B E
(b) least along the path AD C D Cc
(c) zero along any one of the path AB, AC, AD andAE (a) both Cb, Cc > Ca (b) Cc > Ca while Cb > Ca
(d) least along AE (c) both Cb, Cc < Ca (d) Ca = Cb = Cc
35. A circuit is connected as shown in the figure with the switch 41. In the circuit shown, which of the following statements is
S open. When the switch is closed, the total amount of true if V1 (potential across C1) is 30 V and V2 (potential
charge that flows from Y to X is across C2) is 20 V?
3mF 6mF V1 = 30V V2 = 20V
X
S1 S3 S2
C1 = 2pF C 2 = 3pF
S
3W 6W
Y (a) With S1 closed, V1 = 15 V, V2 = 25 V
(b) With S3 closed, V1 = V2 = 25 V
9V (c) With S1 and S2 closed, V1 = V2 = 0
(a) 0 (b) 54 mC (c) 27mC (d) 81 mC (d) With S1 and S3 closed, V1 = 30 V, V2 = 20 V
36. If a slab of insulating material 4 × 10–5 m thick is introduced 42. A parallel plate capacitor is located horizontally such that
between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, the distance one of the plates is submerged in a liquid while the other is
between the plates has to be increased by 3.5 × 10–5 m to above the liquid surface. When plates are charged the level
restore the capacity to original value. Then the dielectric of liquid
constant of the material of slab is (a) rises
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 10 (b) falls
37. Three capacitors each of capacity 4mF are to be connected
(c) remains unchanged
in such a way that the effective capacitance is 6 mF. This can
(d) may rise or fall depending Changed Liquid
be done by
(a) connecting two in parallel and one in series on the amount of charge
43. Two small conductors A and B are given charges q 1 and
(b) connecting all of them in series
q2 respectively. Now they are placed inside a hollow metallic
(c) connecting them in parallel conductor C carrying a charge Q. If all the three
(d) connecting two in series and one in parallel conductors A, B and C are connected by a conducting wire
38. If we increase ‘d’ of a parallel plate condenser to ‘2d’ and fill as shown, the charges on A, B and C will be respectively
wax to the whole empty space between its two plate, then
Q
capacitance increase from 1pF to 2pF. What is the dielectric
A
constant of wax?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 4 (d) 8 q1 C
39. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b (b > a)
are placed concentrically in air. B is given charge +Q and A q2 B
is earthed. The equivalent capacitance of the system is
ab q1 + q 2 q1 + q 2
+ + B (a) , ,Q
4pe 0
+
(a) +
+
2 2
b-a
+
+
b Q + q1 + q 3 Q + q1 + q 2 Q + q1 + q 2
+ + + +
A– (b) , ,
+ + + +
(b) 4pe 0 (a + b) – –
3 3 3
(c) 4pe 0 b – a O –
– – (c) q1 + q 2 + Q , q1 + q 2 + Q , 0
– 2 2
æ b2 ö
+
4pe 0 ç ÷ (d) 0, 0, Q + q1 + q2
+
(d)
+
ç b -a ÷ + +
+ +
+
è ø
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 449
44. Between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor dielectric 47. Two vertical metallic plates carrying equal and opposite
plate is introduced just to fill the space between the plates. charges are kept parallel to each other like a parallel plate
The capacitor is charged and later disconnected from the capacitor. A small spherical metallic ball is suspended by a
battery. The dielectric plate is slowly drawn out of the long insulated thread such that it hangs freely in the centre
capacitor parallel to plates. The plot of the potential of the two metallic plates. The ball, which is uncharged, is
difference V across the plates and the length of the dielectric taken slowly towards the positively charged plate and is
plate drawn out is made to touch that plate. Then the ball will
(a) stick to the positively charged plate
(a) V (b) V (b) come back to its original position and will remain there
(c) oscillate between the two plates touching each plate
in turn
(d) oscillate between the two plates without touch them
48. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacitances C and 2C are
connected in parallel and charged to a potential difference V.
x x
The battery is then disconnected and the region between the
plates of the capacitor C is completely filled with a material fo
(c) V (d) V dielectric constant K. The potential difference across the
capacitors now becomes
3V V 3
(a) (b) KV (c) (d)
K+2 K KV
49. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery. The
x x quantities charge, voltage, electric field and energy
associated with this capacitor are given by Q0, V0, E0, and
45. Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 are connected to a battery
U0 respectively. A dielectric slab is now introduced to fill
as shown. With symbols having their usual meanings, the
the space between the plates with the battery still in
correct conditions are
connection. The corresponding quantities now given by
V Q, V, E and U are related to the previous ones as
Q2 2 C 2
V1 (a) Q > Q0 (b) V > V0 (c) E > E0 (d) U < U0
Q1 C1 50. The effective capacitance of combination of combination of
Q3 C3
equal capacitors between points A and B shown in figure is
V3 C C
V
C C C
(a) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and V1 = V2 = V C C
A B
(b) V1 = V2 = V3 = V
(c) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 = V2 C C C
(d) Q2 = Q3 and V2 = V3
46. Figure (i) shows two capacitors connected in series and
connected by a battery. The graph (ii) shows the variation C
of potential as one moves from left to right on the branch (a) C (b) 2C (c) 3C (d)
2
AB containing the capacitors. Then 51. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate separation
d is charged to potential difference V and then the battery
C1 C2 is disconnected. A slab of dielectric constant K is then
V
A B inserted between the plates of capacitor so as to fill the
space between the plates. If Q, E and W denote respectively,
the magnitude of charge on each plate electric field between
the plates (after the slab is inserted), and work done on the
E system, in question, in the process of inserting the slab,
(i) (ii) then which is wrong ?
e 0 AV e 0 KAV
(a) C1 = C2 (a) Q= (b) Q=
(b) C1 < C2 d d
(c) C1 > C2 V e 0 AV 2 æ 1ö
(d) C1 and C2 cannot be compared (c) E= (d) W= çè1 - ÷ø
Kd 2d K
450 PHYSICS
52. In the circuit given below, the charge in mC, on the capacitor 59. In the given circuit with steady current, the potential drop
having 5 mF is across the capacitor must be
A V R B
3mF 2mF
e d
C
5mF V
f c
4mF
a + b 2V 2R
6V
6kq 2 -6kq 2 12kq2 61. A dielectric slab of thickness d is inserted in a parallel plate
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero capacitor whose negative plate is at x = 0 and positive plate
L L L
is at x = 3d. The slab is equidistant from the plates. the
56. Two identical particles each of mass m and having charges
– q and +q are revolving in a circle of radius r under the capacitor is given some charge. As one goes from 0 to 3d
influence of electric attraction. Kinetic energy of each (a) the magnitude of the electric field remains the same
(b) the direction of the electric field remains the same
æ 1 ö (c) the electric potential decreases continuously
particle is ç k =
è 4pe 0 ÷ø (d) the electric potential increases at first, then decreases
and again increases
(a) kq2/4r (b) kq2/2r (c) kq2/8r (d) kq2/r
62. In the given circuit if point C is connected to the earth and
57. Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R and total
charge as indicated. The net electric potential at the centre a potential of +2000V is given to the point A, the potential
of curvature is at B is
Q +Q
(a) 2pe R 10mF 10mF
0
5mF
Q 45° C
(b) A
4pe 0 R 30° B
–2Q
2Q
(c) 10mF
pe0 R R
Q +3Q (a) 1500V (b) 1000 V (c) 500 V (d) 400 V
(d) pe0 R 63. A 4 mF capacitor, a resistance of 2.5 MW is in series with
58. If the potential of a capacitor having capacity 6 mF is increased 12V battery. Find the time after which the potential difference
from 10 V to 20 V, then increase in its energy will be across the capacitor is 3 times the potential diference across
(a) 4 × 10–4 J (b) 4 × 10–4 J the resistor. [Given In (b) = 0.693]
(c) 9 × 10–4 J (d) 12 × 10–6 J (a) 13.86s (b) 6.93 s (c) 7s (d) 14 s
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 451
64. If a capacitor 900 µF is charged to 100 V and its total energy 70. A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to C1 = C,
is transferred to a capacitor of capacitance 100 µF then its C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C and C4 = 4C are conducted to a battery as
potential is shown in the figure. The ratio of the charges on C2 and C4 is
(a) 200 V (b) 30 V (c) 300 V (d) 400 V
65. What is the effective capacitance between points X and Y?
C1 = 6mF
(a) 24 mF
(b) 18 mF C3 = 6m F C5 = 20m F C2 = 6m F
X Y
(c) 12 mF A C B D
C4 = 6m F
(d) 6 mF
66. In a parallel plate capacitor, the distance between the plates
is d and potential difference across plates is V. Energy
stored per unit volume between the plates of capacitor is (a) 4/7 (b) 3/22 (c) 7/4 (d) 22/3
71. A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value C1, is
Q2 1 V2
(a) (b) e0 charged by a source of potential difference 4 V. When
2V 2 2 d2 another parallel combination of n2 capacitors, each of value
1 V2 C2, is charged by a source of potential difference V, it has
1 V2
(c) (d) e0 the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first combination
2 e 0d 2 2 d has. The value of C2 , in terms of C1, is then
67. A capacitor C1 is charged to a potential difference V. The
2 C1 n2 n2 16 C1
charging battery is then removed and the capacitor is (a) (b) 16 n C1 (c) 2 C1 (d)
connected to an uncharged capacitor C2. The potential n1 n2 1 n1 n1 n2
difference across the combination is 72. A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential
VC1 æ C ö difference of V1. The plates of the condenser are then
(a) (b) Vçç1 + 2 ÷÷ connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L. The current
(C1 + C 2 ) è C1 ø
through the inductor when the potential difference across
æ C ö VC 2 the condenser reduces to V2 is
(c) Vçç1 + 1 ÷÷ (d)
è C2 ø (C1 + C 2 )
1/ 2 1/ 2
68. As per this diagram a point charge +q is placed at the origin æ C(V12 - V22 ) ö æ C (V1 - V2 ) 2 ö
(a) çè ÷ø (b) çè ÷ø
O. Work done in taking another point charge L L
– Q from the point A [coordinates (0, a)] to another point B
[coordinates (a, 0)] along the straight path AB is C(V12 - V22 ) C (V1 - V2 )
(a) zero (c) (d)
L L
æ - qQ 1 ö DIRECTIONS (for Qs. 73 to 75) : Each question contains
ç ÷
(b) ç 4 pe 2 ÷ 2 a y STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
è 0 a ø
A (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following-
æ qQ 1 ö a (a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
ç ÷
(c) ç 4 pe 2 ÷. 2 (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
è 0 a ø
correct explanation for Statement-1
æ qQ 1 ö O x (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
ç ÷ B
(d) ç . 2 a
2÷ a correct explanation for Statement-1
è 4 pe 0 a ø
(d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
69. Two charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart, as shown in
73. Statement 1 : Each of the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor
the figure. A third charge q3 is moved along the arc of a
is given equal positive charge Q. The charges on the facing
circle of radius 40 cm from C to D. The change in the
surfaces will be same.
q3
potential energy of the system is k , , where k is Statement 2 : A negative charge (–Q) will be induced on
4p Î0
each of the facing surfaces.
q3 74. Statement 1 : Electric potential and electric potential energy
C
are different quantities.
Statement 2 : For a system of positive test charge and
40 cm point charge electric potential energy = electric potential.
q2
75. Statement I : Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each
q1
other.
A 30 cm B D Statement II : Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to
(a) 8q1 (b) 6q1 (c) 8q2 (d) 6q2 each other.
452 PHYSICS
field ‘E’ between the plates with distance ‘d’ as measured 12. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as V(x, y, z) =
from plate P is correctly shown by : [2014] 6 xy – y + 2yz, the electric field (in N/C) at point (1, 1, 0) is :
[2015 RS]
P + – Q
+ –
+ – (a) - (6iˆ + 5jˆ + 2k)
ˆ (b) - (2iˆ + 3jˆ + k)
ˆ
+ –
+ –
+
+
–
– (c) - (6iˆ + 9ˆj + k)
ˆ (d) -(3iˆ + 5jˆ + 3k)
ˆ
+ –
+ – 13. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity 'C' distance of
K1 K2 separation between plates is 'd' and potential difference 'V'
is applied between the plates. Force of attraction between
(a) (b) the plates of the parallel plate air capacitor is : [2015 RS]
E C2 V 2 C2 V 2
E CV 2 CV 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2d d 2d 2 2d 2
0 14. 1 2
d 0
d
E V
E
2m F 8m F
(c) (d)
0
d 0 d A capacitor of 2mF is charged as shown in the diagram.
When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage
9. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The of its stored energy dissipated is : [2016]
electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the (a) 0% (b) 20%
sphere respectively are: [2014] (c) 75% (d) 80%
Q 15. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed
(a) Zero and
4p e 0 R 2 and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in
Q parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system:
(b) and Zero (a) decreases by a factor of 2 [2017]
4p e 0 R
(b) remains the same
Q Q (c) increases by a factor of 2
(c) and (d) increases by a factor of 4
4p e 0 R 4p e 0 R 2 16. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials. [2017]
(d) Both are zero 20V 40V 20V 40V
10. In a region, the potential is represented by
V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and x, y, z
are in metres. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2 (a) A B (b) A B
coulomb situated at point (1, 1, 1) is : [2014]
(a) 6 5 N (b) 30 N 10 V 30V
10 V 30V
10V 30V 40V
(c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N
20V
11. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected
to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric (c) A B (d) A B
slab of dielectric constant K, which can just fill the air gap
of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Which of the following 10V
is incorrect ? [2015] 20V 40V 30V
(a) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times. A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram.
(a) In all the four cases the work done is the same
1 æ1 ö
(b) The chance in energy stored is CV 2 ç – 1÷ (b) Minimum work is required to move q in figure (a)
2 èK ø
(c) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved. (c) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (b)
(d) The potential difference between the plates decreases
K times. (d) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (c)
454 PHYSICS
1 2 eV Q 0
m n2 = eV \ n= 16. (d) Common potential, V = +
2 m 4 pe 0 r 4 pe 0 r
10. (b) WBA = q (VA - VB ) Q+0
=
é1 1ù 4 pe 0 (r + r ')
é Q Q ù = qQ
=q ê - ú 4 p e0 êa - bú \ charge on smaller sphere of radius r' is
ë 4 p e0 a 4 p e 0 b û ë û
Q r¢
4 pe 0 r¢ ´ V =
r + r¢
Q2 Q1 Î0 A
11. (c) R1 17. (d) C=
R2 d
r A ® common area, Here A = A1
1 q1q 2
18. (a) In air Fair =
4pe 0 r 2
Q2 Q1
Vr = + 1 q1q 2
4pe 0 r 4pe 0 R1
In medium Fm =
4pe 0 Kr 2
1 æ Q 2 Q1 ö
Vr = ç + ÷ Fm 1 F
4pe0 è r R1 ø \ = Þ Fm = air (decreases K-times)
Fair K K
12. (b) The magnitude of electric field by any one plate is
19. (b) Energy will be lost during transfer of charge (heating
Q –Q effect).
s Q
or E l 1
2e o 2Ae o 20. (c) Eµ hence E µ
2pe 0 r r
Q2 21. (d) When oil is placed between space of plates
Now force magnitude is Q E i.e. F = 2 Ae 0
2Ae o C= ... (1)
d
13. (b) Charge on a particle, q = 2 e. é KAe 0 ù
K.E. = work done = q × V = 2e × 106 V = 2 MeV. êQ C = d , where K = 2ú
ë û
14. (b) In parallel, potential is same, say V
Ae 0
Q1 C1V C1 When oil is removed C' = ............. (2)
= = d
Q 2 C2V C2 on comparing both equation, weget C' = C/2
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 455
C1 - C 2 = (C1 + C 2 ) 2 - 4 C1 C 2
= 16 2 - 4 ´ 48 = 64 = 8
C1 + C2 = 16 mF
C1 - C2 = 8 mF
EXERCISE - 2 Þ 2C1 = 24mF Þ C1 = 12mF
1. (d) When negative terminal is grounded, positive terminal 48
of battery is at +12 V. When positive terminal is \ C2 = = 4 mF
12
grounded, the negative terminal will be at –12 V. 11. (c) C = 10 mF ; d = 8 cm
2. (b) Potential at any point inside the sphere = potential at C' = ? ; d' = 4 cm
the surface of the sphere = 10V.
A Î0 1
Þ Ca
3. (a)
Vr 2
= qd =
( )
2.0 ´10-5 V ( 0.1m)
2
v=
C1V1 + C2 V2
ÞU=
( 4.8 ´ 10 ) -4 2
æ 1 ö
C1 + C2 çè ÷
2 1.6 ´ 10 -6 ø
q Þ U = 3 × 2.4 × 10–2 J
17. (c) V0 =
C0 Þ U = 7.2 × 10–2 J
23. (b) In steady state, both the capacitors are at the same
q V C0 potential,
V= Þ =
C V0 C
Q1 Q 2 Q Q
i.e., = or 1 = 2 or Q2 = 2Q1
C0 500 20 C1 C2 C 2C
Þ = =
C 75 3 Also Q1 + Q2 = Q
20
By definition, C = kC0 Þ k = \ Q1 =
Q
, Q2 =
2Q
3 3 3
18. (a) Here, A = 90 cm² = 90 × 10–4 m2;
d = 2.5 mm = 2.5 × 10–3 m; V = 400 volt 24. (a)
20
e 0 A 8.854 ´ 10-12 ´ 90 ´ 10-4 25. (a) Here, V(x) = 2 volt
C= = x -4
d 2.5 ´ 10 -3
–11
= 3.187 × 10 F dV d æ 20 ö
We know that E = - =- ç ÷
1 1 dx dx è x 2 - 4 ø
W = CV 2 = ´ 3.187 ´ 10-11 ´ ( 400 )
2
2 2
= 2.55 × 10–6 J 40x
or, E = +
19. (d) Let ‘n’ such capacitors are in series and such ‘m’ such (x - 4) 2
2
branch are in parallel.
At x = 4 mm ,
\ 250 × n = 1000 \ n = 4 … (i)
40 ´ 4 160 10
8
´ m = 16 E= + =+
= + volt / mm.
Also
n (42 - 4) 2 144 9
r
16 ´ n Positive sign indicates that E is in +ve x-direction.
m= =8 … (ii) 26. (a) Capacitance of spherical conductor = 4pe0a
8
\ No. of capacitor = 8 ´ 4 = 32 where a is radius of conductor.
1 1
e0 A Therefore, C = ´1 = ´10 -9
20. (d) For a parallel plate capacitor C= 9 ´ 10 9 9
d
Cd 1 ´ 10 -3 = 0.11´10 -9 F = 1.1 ´ 10-10 F
\ A= e = = 1.13 × 108 m2
0 8.85 ´ 10 -12 V
This corresponds to area of square of side 10.6 km 27. (d) In equilibrium, F = q E = ( n e) = mg
d
which shows that one farad is very large unit of
capacitance. mg d 1.96 ´ 10 -15 ´ 9.8 ´ 0.02
n= = =3
21. (a) E=
1 1
CV 2 = ´ 1 ´ 10-6 ´ (4000) 2 = 8 J. eV 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 800
2 2
28. (c) Length of body diagnonal = 3b
2´8
22. (a) Cs = = 1.6mF \ Distance of centre of cube from each corner,
2+8
Since, Q = Cs V = 1.6 × 10–6 × 300 3
Q = 4.8 × 10–4 C r= b
2
Total P.E. of charge + q at the centre
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 457
8 q ( -q ) - 8q 2 - 4 q2 33. (a) V2
= = =
4 pe o r 4 pe o ( 3 b / 2) pe o 3 b Q r1 V1
29. (d) Potential at origin r2
= (V1 + V3 + V5 + .....) – (V2 + V4 + V6 + .....)
Situation 1 :
q é 1 1 1 ù
Þ ê - + .....¥ú Q Q é1 1 ù
4pe 0 ë x 0 2x 0 3x 0 û V1 - V2 = V = K - K = KQ ê - ú
r1 r2 ë r1 r2 û
q é 1 1 1 ù Situation 2 :
Þ ê1 - 2 + 3 - 4 .....¥ ú
4 pe 0 x 0 ë û
é KQ 3KQ ù é KQ 3KQ ù
V '1 - V '2 = V ' = ê - ú-ê - ú
q q
Þ log e (1 + 1) Þ log e 2 ë r1 r2 û ë r2 r2 û
4pe 0 x 0 4pe 0 x 0
é1 1 ù
= KQ ê - ú = V
ë r1 r2 û
a b
30. (c) 34. (c) Since, all A, B, C, D and E lie on an equipotential surface
so,
W= 0
Let charge on each sphere = q 35. (c) When steady state is reached, the current I coming
when they are connected together their potential will from the battery is given by
be equal . 3mF 6mF
Now let charge on a = q1 and on b = 2q - q1 X
+Q1 –Q1 +Q2 –Q2
1 q1 1 2q - q1
Þ Va = Vb or = S
4peo a 4pe o b 3W 6W
q1 a
Þ = Y
2q - q1 b
1. q1 9V
9 = I (3 + 9) Þ I = 1A
Ea 4peo a 2 æ q1 ö b 2 Þ potential difference across 3 W resistance = 3V
= =ç ÷ a b2 b
Eb 1 q 2 è 2q - q1 ø a 2 = . 2 = and potential difference across 6 W resistance
b a a
4peo b2 = 6V
Þ p.d. across 3 mF capacitor = 3V
= b:a and p.d. across 6mF capacitor = 6V
31. (b) In shell, q charge is uniformly distributed over its \ Charge on 3 mF capacitor, Q1 = 3 × 3 = 9 mC
surface, it behaves as a conductor. Charge on 6mF capacitor, Q2 = 6 × 6 = 36 mC
+
+ Þ Charge (–Q1) is shifted from the positive plate of
+ q 6mF capacitor. The remaining charge on the positive
R plate of 6 mF capacitor is shifted through the switch.
+ +
\ Charge passing through the switch
+ +
= 36 – 9 = 27 mC
+
q æ 1ö
V= potential at surface = and inside 36. (a) As x = t ç1 - ÷ , where x is the addition distance of
4pe 0 R è Kø
plate, to restore the capacity of original value.
q
V= æ 1ö
4pe 0 R \ 3.5 ´ 10 -5 = 4 ´ 10 -5 ç1 - ÷ .
è K ø
Because of this it behaves as an equipotential surface.
32. (b) Energy stored, Solving, we get, K = 8.
1 1 3 C1 ´ C 2 4´ 4
U= Caq V 2net = (3C)V 2 = CV 2 37. (d) For series C' = = = 2mF
2 2 2 C1 + C 2 4 + 4
+ C
– For parallel Ceq = C'+ C2 = 2 + 4 = 6mF
V
A B
2V
– +
2C
458 PHYSICS
Ke o A q qd
38. (b) C= V= =
d C b Î0 [l + x(K - 1)]
1´ Î0 A as x decreases, V increases.
1 ´ 10-12 = .......... (1)
d 45. (c) C2 and C3 are parallel so V2 = V3
K ´ Î0 A C1 and combination of C2 & C3 is in series.
2 ´ 10 -12 = .......... (2)
2d So, V = V2 + V1 or V = V3 + V1
(2) K and also Q1 = Q2 + Q3
Þ = 2 or K = 4
(1) 2 46. (c) Since, potential difference across C2 is greater than C1.
39. (d) The charge Q given to outer sphere distributes as é q ù
Q1 outside and Q2 inside which induces charge – Q2 Þ C1 > C2 êQ V = and q is same in series ú
on outside of inner sphere, + Q2 on inside of inner ë C û
sphere which is earthed. 47. (c) The ball on touching plate A will
The inside of outer and the inner sphere constitute a get positively charged. It will be A B
ab repelled by A and get attracted
spherical condenser having capacitance 4p Î0 + –
towards B. After touching B it +
b-a + +
+ + –
and the outside of the outer constitutes an isolated will get negatively charged. It + + +
–
will now be repelled by B and + –
sphere of capacitance 4p Î0 b . get attracted towards A. + –
\ the effective capacitance is Thus it will remain oscillating + –
ab and at the extreme position touch the plates.
4p Î0 + 4 p Î0 b
b-a 48. (a) Initial charge on first capacitor is CV = Q1.
é a ù éa + b - a ù Initial charge on second capacitor is 2CV = Q2.
= 4 p Î0 b ê + 1ú = 4 p Î0 bê ú
ë b - a û ë b-a û Final capacitance of first capacitor is KC
If V' is the common potential then
b2
C = 4 p Î0
b-a Q1 + Q 2 CV + 2CV 3V
V¢ = V¢ = =
Î A Î0 A 2 Î0 A (1 + K ) C1¢ + C 2 Þ KC + 2C 2+ K
40. (a) Ca = 0 and Cb = =
d d d d 49. (a) Since battery is still in connection, so,
+
2 2K V = V0
A A Þ Q0 = C0V0 and Q = kC0V0
Î0 Î0 K Î A
and C c = 2 + 2 = 0 (1 + K) Þ Q = kQ0
d d 2d
Since, k > 1
Î0 A Þ Q > Q0
or C b = 2(1 + K ) > C a
d
1
Î0 A 1 + K Also, U 0 = Q 0 V0 and
or C c = > Ca \ C b and C c > C a . 2
d 2
41. (d) When S1 and S3 is closed V1 = 30 V and potential 1
U= QV = kU0 {\ Q = kQ0 and V = V0 }
drop across C2 becomes 20 V. 2
42. (a) The molecules of liquid will convert into induced
Hence, U > U0
dipole, get oriented along the electric field produced
between the plates and rise due to force of attraction.
C C
43. (d) Charge given to a hollow conductor resides only on
the outer surface.
(l - x )b Î0 Kxb Î0 50. (b) A C C B
44. (b) C = C1 + KC2 = +
d d C C
b d
b Î0
= [l - x + Kx]
d C C
b Î0 The figure shows two independent balanced
C= [l + x(K - 1)] l
d wheatstone Brides connected in parallel each having
x K a capacitance C. So,
Cnet = CAB = 2C
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 459
e 0 AV 1
=
Since, Q = C0 V Þ Q = 2
d
é (-3q) q (q) ´ (q) ù 2
V E V 55. (b) Ui = k ê ´ 3+ ´ 3ú = -6kq
Further, E 0 = and E = 0 Þ E = ë L L û L
d K Kd
Uf = 0
1 2 Work done by electric field = – Change in potential energy
Also, if Ui is the initial energy, then Ui = C 0 V
2
-6kq 2
After the introduction of slab if Uf be the final energy, = Ui – Uf =
then L
2 56. (c)
1 1 æ Vö
2
U f = CVslab = ( KC0 ) ç ÷ r
2 2 è Kø –q +q
O
1 C0 V 2
Þ Uf = Þ DU = U 2 - U1
2 K
mv2 kq 2 kq 2
1 æ1 ö = ; mv2 =
Þ DU = C V 2 ç - 1÷ r (2r) 2
4r
2 0 èK ø
Kinetic energy of each particle
Since, work done = Decrease in Potential Energy
Þ W = -DU 1 kq2
= mv2 =
2 8r
1 e 0 AV 2 æ 1ö
ÞW= çè1 - ÷ø 1 Q 1 æ -2Q ö
2 d K 57. (a) V = V1 + V2 + V3 = . + ç ÷
52. (b) Potential difference across the branch de is 6 V. Net 4p Î0 R 4p Î0 è R ø
capacitance of de branch is 2.1 µF 1 æ 3Q ö 1 æ 2Q ö
So, q = CV + çè ÷ø = ç ÷
4p Î0 R 4p Î0 è R ø
Þ q = 2.1 × 6 µC
Þ q = 12.6 µ C 58. (c) Capacitance of capacitor (C) = 6 mF = 6 × 10–6 F;
Potential across 3 µF capacitance is Initial potential (V1) = 10 V and final potential
(V2) = 20 V. The increase in energy (DU)
12.6
V= = 4.2 volt 1 1 -6 2 2
3 = C( V22 - V12 ) = ´ (6 ´ 10 ) ´ [( 20) - (10) ]
2 2
Potential across 2 and 5 combination in parallel is
6 – 4.2 = 1.8 V = (3 ´10 -6 ) ´ 300 = 9 ´10 - 4 J .
So, q' = (1.8) (5) = 9 µC 59. (b) As the capacitors offer infinite resistance to steady
53. (a) Whenever a charge (+50 nC) is kept inside a hollow current so, the equivalent circuit is
metallic spherical shell, it induces an equal and
V R
opposite charge on the inner surface and an equal A B
and same type of charges on the outer surface.
\ Inside, induced charge is – 50 nC and outside, +50 V VC
nC – 150 nC already present. 2R A B
54. (a) Required ratio
2V I
1
Energy stored in capacitor CV 2 Using ohm’s law, current in circuit is
= = 2 ,
Workdone by the battery Ce 2 V
2V – V = I (2R + R) Þ I =
where C = Capacitance of capacitor 3R
V = Potential difference, The voltage drop across
e = emf of battery V 4
VAB = 2V - ´ 2R = V
3R 3
460 PHYSICS
4 C1 = 6mF
VAB = V = V + VC 65. (d)
3
C3 C5 6mF
1 X A Y
Þ Voltage drop across C = V.. 6mF 20mF C2
3
C4
60. (a) The electrostatic pressure at a point on the surface of
6mF
s2 Equivalent circuit
a uniformly charged sphere =
2 Î0
6mF C2
s2 6mF
\ The force on a hemispherical shell = ´ pR 2 C1
m
6F
2 Î0
X C5 20mmF
6F Y
61. (c) Even after introduction of dielectric slab, direction of
electric field will be perpendicular to the plates and C3 6mF
directed from positive plate to negative plate. 6mF C4
s
Further, magnitude of electric field in air =
e0 C C
1 2
As C = C
s 3 4
Magnitude of electric field in dielectric =
K e0 Hence no charge will flow through 20mF
Similarly electric lines always flows from higher to lower C1 C2 C'
potential, therefore, electric potential inceases
continuously as we move from x = 0 to x = 3d.
X Y ÞX Y
(–) (+)
C3 C4 C''
C1 and C2 are in series, also C3 and C4 are in series.
Hence C' = 3 mF, C'' = 3 mF
C' and C'' are in parallel hence net capacitance
x =0 x = d x=2d x =3d = C' + C'' = 3 + 3 = 6 mF
62. (c) The given circuit can be redrawn as follows 66. (c) Energy stored per unit volume
5mF 15mF 2
A C 1 1 æVö 1 V2 æ Vö
B = e0 E 2 = e0 ç ÷ = e0 çQ E = ÷
2 2 èdø 2 d2 è dø
67. (a) Charge Q = C1V
Total capacity of combination (parallel) C = C1+ C2
2000V
Q C1V
æ 15 ö P.D. = =
(VA – VB) = ç ÷ ´ 2000 Þ V A – VB = 1500V C C1 + C 2
è 5 + 15 ø
Þ 2000 – VB = 1500V Þ VB = 500V 68. (a) We know that potential energy of two charge system
–
t t
is given by U = 1 q1q 2
V 1
63. (a) VR = 0 = V0 e RC Þ =e 10 4 p Î0 r
4 4
According to question,
t
t 1 ( +q )( -Q) 1 Qq
Þ4 =e Þ log e 4 = Þ t = 10log 4 = 13.86 s
10
UA = 4 p Î =-
10 0 a 4 pe 0 a
(RC = 2.5 × 106 × 4 × 10–6 = 10)
1 ( +q )( -Q) 1 Qq
1 1 and UB = 4 p Î =-
64. (c) C1V12 = C 2 V22 0 a 4 pe 0 a
2 2
DU = UB–UA = 0
because total energy is transferred (given). When known that for conservative force,
1 1 W = –DU = 0
\ ´ 900 ´ 10 -6 ´ 1002 = ´ 100 ´ 10 -6 ´ V 2 69. (c) We know that potential energy of discrete system of
2 2
\ V2 = 90000 Þ V = 300 V.. charges is given by
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 461
dV capacitor
Electric field intensity E = 0 then =0 K K (d + d )
dr K= 1 2 1 2
This imply that V = constant K1d 2 + K 2 d1
Thus, E = 0 inside the charged conducting sphere NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions
then the constant electrostatic potential 100V at every
where inside the sphere and it verifies the shielding 7. (a) Potential at B, VB is maximum
effect also. VB > VC > VA
5. (a) Here we have to findout the shape of equipotential As in the direction of electric field potential decreases.
surface, these surface are perpendicular to the field 1
lines, so there must be electric field which can not be 8. (c) Electric field, E µ
K
without charge.
As K1 < K2 so E1 > E2
So, the collection of charges, whose total sum is not
Hence graph (c) correctly dipicts the variation of
zero, with regard to great distance can be considered
as a point charge. The equipotentials due to point electric field E with distance d.
charge are spherical in shape as electric potential due 9. (b) Due to conducting sphere
to point charge q is given by At centre, electric field E = 0
q Q
V= Ke And electric potential V =
r 4p Î0 R
This suggest that electric potentials due to point charge r ¶V $ ¶V $ ¶V $
is same for all equidistant points. The locus of these 10. (d) E=- i- j- k
equidistant points which are at same potential, form ¶x ¶y ¶z
spherical surface.
= -[(6 - 8y)iˆ + (-8x - 8 + 6z)ˆj + (6y)k]
ˆ
The lines of field from point charge are radial. So the r
equipotential surface perpendicular to field lines from At (1, 1, 1), E = 2i$ + 10j$ - 6k$
a sphere. r
6. (c) The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor filled with Þ (E) = 22 + 102 + 62 = 140 = 2 35
r
dielectric of thickness d1 and dielectric constant K1 is \ F = qE = 2 ´ 2 35 = 4 35
KeA
C1 = 1 o Q
d1 11. (c) Capacitance of the capacitor, C =
Similarly, capacitance of parallel plate capacitor filled V
with dielectric of thickness d2 and dielectric constant After inserting the dielectric, new capacitance
K2 is C1 = K.C
K 2 eo A New potential difference
C2 =
d2 V
Since both capacitors are in series combination, then V1 =
K
the equivalent capacitance is
1 1 1 1 2 Q2
= + ui = cv = (Q Q = cv)
C C1 C 2 2 2C
K1e 0 A K 2 e 0 A
Q 2 Q 2 C2 V 2 æ ui ö
C1C2 d1 d2 uf = = = =ç ÷
or C= = Ke A K e A 2f 2kc 2KC è k ø
C1 + C2 1 0 + 2 0
d1 d2 1 2ì1 ü
Du = uf – ui = cv
í – 1ý
K1K 2 e 0 A 2 îk þ
C= ... (i)
K1d 2 + K 2d1 As the capacitor is isolated, so change will remain
So multiply the numerator and denominator of equation conserved p.d. between two plates of the capacitor
(i) with (d1 + d2) Q V
K1K 2 e 0 A (d + d ) L= =
C= ´ 1 2 KC K
( K1d 2 + K 2d1 ) ( d1 + d 2 ) 12. (a) Potential in a region
V = 6xy – y + 2yz
K1K 2 ( d1 + d 2 ) e0A
= ´ ... (ii) As we know the relation between electric potential
( K1d 2 + K 2d1 ) ( d1 + d 2 )
ur -dV
So, the equivalent capacitances is and electric field is E =
dx
Ke 0 A
C= ... (iii)
(d1 + d 2 ) ur æ ¶V ˆ ¶V ˆ ¶V ˆ ö
Comparing, (ii) and (iii), the dielectric constant of new E = ç ¶x i + ¶y j + ¶z k ÷
è ø
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance 463
18
ELECTRIC CURRENT
Current Electricity
From above two eqs. it is clear that R = 1/K. (ii)Resistance is the property of object while resistivity is
If a substance follows Ohm’s law, then a linear relationship exists the property of material.
between V & I as shown by figure 1. These substance are called Materials and their resistivity
Ohmic substance. Some substances do not follow Ohm’s law,
Material Resistivity (r) (at 0°c)
these are called non-ohmic substance (shown by figure 2) (in W m)
Diode valve, triode valve and electrolytes, thermistors are some
(i) Silver 1.6 × 10–8
examples of non-ohmic conductors.
(ii) Copper 1.7 × 10–8
V V (iii) Aluminium 2.8 × 10–8
(iv) Tungsten 5.2 × 10–8
I (v) Platinum 10.6 × 10–8
(vi) Manganin 42 × 10–8
q (vii) Carbon 35 × 10–6
I (viii) Germanium .46
Ohmic conductor Non-linear conductor
or linear conductor or non-ohmic conductor (ix) Silicon 2300
Fig. 1 Fig. 2 (x) Glass ~ 1013
(xi) Mica ~ 2 × 1015
Slope of V-I Curve of a conductor provides the resistance of the
conductor COMMON DEFAULT
l
V Since R = r Þ Rµl
slope = tan q = A
I It is incorrect to think that if the length of a resistor is doubled
The SI unit of resistance R is volt/ampere = ohm (W) its resistance will become twice.
Electrical Resistance If you look by an eye of physicist you will find that when l
On application of potential difference across the ends of a change, A will also change. This is discussed in the following
conductor, the free e–s of the conductor starts drifting towards article.
the positive end of the conductor. While drifting they make Case of Reshaping a Resistor
collisions with the ions/atoms of the conductor & hence their On reshaping, volume of a material is constant.
motion is obstructed. The net hindrance offered by a conductor i.e., Initial volume = final volume
to the flow of free e–s or simply current is called electrical or, Ai li = Af lf ... (i)
resistance. where li, Ai are initial length and area of cross-section of resistor
It depends upon the size, geometry, temperature and nature of and lf, Af are final length and area of cross-section of resistor.
the conductor. If initial resistance before reshaping is Ri and final resistance
after reshaping is Rf then
Resistivity : For a given conductor of uniform cross-section A
and length l, the electrical resistance R is directly proportional to l
r i
length l and inversely proportional to cross-sectional area A Ri Ai l A
= = i ´ f ... (ii)
Rf l l f Ai
l rl RA r f
i.e., R µ or R = or ρ = Af
A A l 2
r is called specific resistance or electrical resistivity. R i æ li ö
From eqs. (i) and (ii), =ç ÷ Þ R µ l2
R f çè lf ÷ø
m
Also, r = This means that resistance is proportional to the square of the
ne 2t
length during reshaping of a resistor wire.
The SI unit of resistivity is ohm - m. 2
R i æ Af ö 1
1 Also from eqs. (i) and (ii), = çç ÷÷ Þ R µ
Conductivity(s) : It is the reciprocal of resistivity i.e. s = . R f è Ai ø A2
r
This means that resistance is inversely proportional to the square
The SI unit of conductivity is Ohm–1m–1 or mho/m. of the area of cross-section during reshaping of resistor.
Ohm’s law may also be expressed as, J = sE Since A = p r2 (for circular cross-section)
where J = current density and E = electric field strength 1
\R µ 4
ne 2 t r
Conductivity, s = where n is free electron density, t is where r is radius of cross section.
m
Effect of Temperature on Resistance and Resistivity
relaxation time and m is mass of electron.
Resistance of a conductor is given by Rt = R0 (1 + aDt)
(i) The value of r is very low for conductor, very high for
insulators & alloys, and in between those of conductors & Where a = temperature coefficient of resistance and Dt = change
insulators for semiconductors. in temperature
Current Electricity 467
For metallic conductors : If r1 and r2 be resistivity of a SERIES AND PARALLEL COMBINATION OF RESISTORS
conductor at temperature t1 and t2, then
Resistances in Series
r2 = r1 (1 + a D T) R1 R2
where a = temperature coefficient of resistivity and When a number of resistances are
where DT = t2 – t1 = change in temperature joined end to end so that same current
The value of a is positive for all metallic conductors. flows through each, resistor when some I V1 V2
\ r2 > r1 potential difference is applied across V
In other words, with rise in temperature, the positive ions of the the combination, the conductor are
metal vibrate with higher amplitude and these obstruct the path said to be connected in series.
of electrons more frequently. Due to this the mean path decreases The equivalent resistance in series is given by
and the relaxation time also decreases. This leads to increase in (Req)s = R1 + R2 + ...+ Rn
resistivity.
Equivalent resistance of same
1 -1 R1 R2
Please note that the value of a for most of the metals is K resistances connected in series
273
is always greater than the V1 V2
For alloys : In case of alloys, the rate at which the resistance
greatest of individual resistance.
changes with temperature is less as compared to pure metals.
For example, an alloy manganin has a resistance which is Potential division rule in series
30-40 times that of copper for the same dimensions. combination :
V
Also the value of a for manganin is very small » 0.00001°C–1.
VR1 VR 2
Due to the above properties manganin is used in preparing wires V1 = ; V2 =
for standard resistance (heaters), resistance boxes etc. R1 + R 2 R1 + R 2
Please note that eureka and constantan are other alloys for which
Resistances in Parallel
r is high. These are used to detect small temperature, protect
picture tube/ windings of generators, transformers etc. Two or more resistors are said to be connected in parallel if the
For semiconductors : The resistivity of semi-conductors same potential difference exits across all resistors.
I1 R1
decreases with rise in temperature. For semi conductor the value
I
of a is negative. R2
m I2
r=
ne 2 t
With rise in temperature, the value of n increases. Please note
that t decreases with rise in temperature. But the value of increase V
in n is dominating for the value of r in this case. The equivalent resistance is given by
For electrolytes : The resistivity decreases with rise in
1 1 1 1
temperature. This is because the viscosity of electrolyte decreases = + + ... +
with increase in temperature so that ions get more freedom to (R eq )p R1 R 2 Rn
move.
The equivalent resistance in a parallel combination is always less
For insulators : The resistivity increases nearly exponentially
than the value of the least individual resistance in the circuits.
with decrease in temperature. Conductivity of insulators is almost
zero at 0 K. Current division rule in parallel combination
Superconductors : There are certain materials for which the IR 2 IR1
resistance becomes zero below a certain temperature. This I1 = ; I2 =
R1 + R 2 R1 + R 2
temperature is called the critical temperature. Below critical
temperature the material offers no resistance to the flow of e–s. In a given combination of resistors, when you want to detect
The material in this case is called a superconductor. The reason whether the resistances are in series or in parallel then see that if
for super conductivity is that the electrons in superconductors the same current flows through two resistors then these are in
are not mutually independent but are mutually coherent. This series and if same potential difference is there across two resistors
coherent cloud of e–s makes no collision with the ions of super- then these are in parallel potential diff across each resistor is the
conductor and hence no resistance is offered to the flow of e–s
same & is equal to the applied potential difference.
For example, R = 0 for Hg at 4.2 K and R = 0 for Pb at 7.2 K. These
substances are called superconductors at that critical temperature. HOW TO FIND EQUIVALENT RESISTANCE ?
Super conductors ar e used (a) in making very strong Successive Reduction
electromagnets, (b) to produce very high speed computers This method is applicable only when the resistors can be clearly
(c) in transmission of electric power (d) in the study of high
identified as in series or parallel. Let us take some example to find
energy particle physics and material science.
resistance between ends A and B
468 PHYSICS
3W 3W 33 W 3W
6W 3W
Ex. (i) 3W = 6W 6W 3W = 6W
6W
3W 33 W 3W
6W 66 W 6W
A 3W B AA 33 W B
B 3W B A 3W B
6W
3W 3W 2W
= =
A 3W B A 3W B
7
10 10
5
Ex. (ii) 3 5 5
5 5
10 = 10 = A B
= =
A B A B A B
10 A B 10
10 10
Ex. (iii) =
= =
Ex. (iv) = = =
Please note that all points on the circumference are at same potential as there is no resistance on circumference.
Ex. (vi) Infinite series : one unit to the sum of infinite units, then it will be
approximately the same.
r r
X´r
B \ X = 2r +
to ¥ r r X+r
r r A Solve the equation as a normal algebraic equation to find
X.
Using Symmetry of the Circuit
We observe that there is a repetitive unit extending to infinity Axis symmetry :
on left hand side. We assume that the equivalent resistance
Ex.(i) The circuit shown in figure is symmetrical about XAEBY
of all the unit except one (shown dotted) is equal to X ohm.
axis. This is because the upper part of the axis is the mirror
The equivalent circuit will be as shown below.
image of lower part (resistors and current direction both)
B C
r
r
r r r
X r r
X A E B Y
r r
r A r
The equivalent resistance across A and B is D
X´r \ IAC = IAD;ICB = IDB ;
R AB = r + +r IAE = IEB ( Q VC < VE < VD wheatstone
X+r
Please note that RAB can be taken as X because if you add bridge principle)
Current Electricity 469
Þ ICE = IED = 0 The diagram given above is symmetrical but the positions
Therefore the circuit can be redrawn. It is now easier to find of the resistances are shifted. Let I be the current in the
resistance between X and Y. circuit from A. The same leaves the circuit at C. Let current
in AB, AD and AE be I1 , I2 and I3 respectively. Since the
C
same current flows in AE and EC, the detached equivalent
r r circuit can be drawn as
r r B
X A E B Y 10 W 5W
I1 2.5 W
r r X I A I2 E D Y
2.5 W I1
5W 10 W
D I3
Ex.(ii) The circuit shown is symmetrical about axis XY. Therefore C
VB = VH ; VC = VI = VG; VD = VF
5W 5W
C
Keep in Memory
r r D
B Equivalent resistance between A and B of the resistors connected
r r as shown in the figure
r r
X A r r I r r EY
R1 R2
H r r F
A B
G
Therefore the circuit can be redrawn as R2 R1
r r
r Wheatstone bridge
r r r
R 1 (R1 + 3R 2 )
B C D
I R AB =
X
r
H r G r F r Y R 2 + 3R 1
r r
3. Path symmetry :
Ex.(iii) The circuit is asymmetric about the dotted line All paths from one point to another which have the same
\ IBG = IGC; IFG = IGE and IAG = IGB setting of resistances have the same amount of currents.
Example :
B C B C
r I1 I1 I
I1
A r r r
r D I A I1 D
X r r r r Y
r G I – 2I1
F r E I – 2I1
F
Therefore the equivalent circuit is G
B r C E H
r Twelve wires each having resistance r are joined to form a cube.
A r r r We have to find the equivalent resistance across A and B.
D
X r r r r Y By path symmetry, IAB = IBC = IAD = IDC = I
r \ IAE = I– 2I1 Þ IGC = I– 2I1,
F E Since current in AB = current in BC
2. Shifted symmetry : Þ IBF = 0
Also IAD = IDC Þ IDH = 0
B The equivalent circuit will be as shown. The resistance now clearly
visible as in series and in parallel.
R1 R2
2.5 W r
I1 I2 r I
I3 5 W 5W r
I r
X I A E C Y r
2.5 W I1
I2 r
R2 R1 r
r
r
D r
470 PHYSICS
3W 2W 2W Multiplier
= Significant
2W 2W 9W 9W
digits
3W 3W 9W
2W 2W (iii) The colour bands are always read left to right from the end
X Y X Y that has the bands closest to it.
If none of the above method works then we may use Kirchhoff’s (iv) (a) The first and second colour bands, represent the first
method which will be discussed later and second significant digits respectively, of the
resistance value.
COMMON DEFAULTS
(b) The third colour band is for the number of zeros that
1. Resistors are not just in series or in parallel if they look so follow the second digit.
geometrically, e.g. the resistors in the diagram are not in (c) In case the third band is gold or silver, it represents a
parallel but in series. multiplying factor of 0.1 or 0.01.
A (d) The fourth band represents the manufacture’s
tolerance. It is a measure of the precision with which
the resistor was made.
(e) If the fourth band is not present, the tolerance is
assumed to be ± 20%.
B
These resistors across A and B are in series, as same current (v) Standard value of colour codes for carbon resistors
passes through them.
Colour Digit Multiplier Tolerance
2. This is a common thinking that current which comes out
from the positive terminal of a battery is used up till it reaches Black 0 100 = 1
the negative terminal. But infact the current remains the Brown 1 101 = 10
same in a branch. In fact a potential drop takes place across Red 2 102
a resistor. Orange 3 103
B 5W C
Yellow 4 104
Green 5 105
1 amp 1 amp
Blue 6 106
Violet 7 107
A +5V 0V D
Current Electricity 471
This shows that power consumed by n equal resistances in 14. A lead-acid secondary cell is discharged if the relative
parallel is n2 times that of power consumed in series if density of electrolyte drop to 1.18 and e.m.f. of 1.8V.
voltage remains same. 15. Hot wire galvanometer is based on heating effect of current.
4. In parallel grouping of bulbs across a given source of voltage, Its deflection q is directly proportional to the heating effect
the bulb of greater wattage will give more brightness and will (i.e. I2). It works on A.C. as well as D.C.
allow more current through it, but will have lesser resistance 16. Two wires of same material and same length but having
and same potential difference across it. different diameters connected in parallel produce more heat
5. For a given voltage V, if resistance is changed from R to than when connected in series. i.e., Hparallel>Hseries.
R/n, power consumed changes from P to nP. 17. If t1and t2 be the time taken by two heaters to boil a given
P = V2 / R; when R´ = R/n, mass of a liquid, then the time taken to boil the same amount
then P´ = V2 / (R/n) = n V2 / R = nP. of the liquid, when both heaters are connected in parallel is
6. Filament of lower wattage bulb is thinner than that of higher given by
wattage bulb i.e. filament of 60 watt bulb is thinner than
that of 100 watt bulb. t1t2
tp <
7. If I is the current through the fuse wire of length l, radius r, t1 ∗ t2 .
specific resistance r and Q is the rate of loss of heat per 18. If t1and t2 be the time taken by two heaters to boil a given
unit area of a fuse wire, then at steady state, amount of a liquid, then the time taken to boil the same
I 2rl amount of the liquid, when both heaters are connected in
I2R = QA or = Q ´ 2prl series is given by
pr 2
ts = t1 + t2 .
2p 2 Q 3 19. If I be the current at which a fuse wire of radius R blows,
or I2 = r Þ I a r 3/ 2
r
Hence current capacity of a fuse is independent of its length
I2
then 3 constant. i.e., for two fuse wires of radii R1and R2
and varies with its radius as r3/2. R
8. If t1 and t2 are the time taken by two different coils for and maximum bearing current I1, and I2, we have
producing same heat with same supply, then
(i) If they are connected in series to produce same heat, I12 I22
3
< .
time taken, t = t1 + t2 R1 R23
(ii) If they are connected in parallel to produce same heat,
20. If the two resistors R1and R2 are first connected in series
t1 t 2 and then parallel then the ratio of heat produced in the two
time taken is, t =
t1 + t 2 cases (series to parallel) is given by
9. When a bulb glows the temperature of the filament is of the
Hs (R1 ∗ R2 )2
order of 3000K. <
10. To avoid lengthy calculations use P = I2R in series Hp R1 R2
Example 4. Solution :
A cylindrical copper rod is reformed to twice its original 8W, 16W, and 16W resistances are connected in parallel.
length with no change in volume. The resistance between Their equivalent resistance is given by R’
its ends before the change was R. Now its resistance will 1 1 1 1 2 +1+ 1 4
be = + + = =
(a) 8 R (b) 6 R R ' 8 16 16 16 16
(c) 4 R (d) 2 R \ R’ = 4W.
Solution : (c) This is in series with 20W. So upper part of AB has a resistance
4 + 20 = 24 W ...(1)
r l1 ...(1) For lower part, 9W and 18W resistances are connected in
R=
pr12 parallel. Their equivalent resistance R” is given by
Now the rod is reformed such that 1 1 1 2 +1 3
= + = = Þ R ¢¢ = 18 / 3 = 6W
l2 = 2l1 and pr12l 1 = pr22l 2 (no change in volume) R ¢¢ 9 18 18 18
This is in series with 6W. So the resistance of lower part of
or (r12 / r22 ) = (l 2 / l 1 ) AB is 6 + 6 = 12W ...(2)
The upper and lower parts of AB are in parallel. Hence the
rl2 equivalent resistance between A and B is given by
\ R2 = ...(2)
pr22 1 1 1 1+ 2 3
= + = = Þ R = 24/3 = 8W
From eqns. (1) and (2), we get R 24 12 24 24
R l r2 l l 1 1
< 1 ≥ 22 < 1 ≥ 1 < ≥ Example 7.
R2 l 2 r1 l2 l2 2 2 A wire has a resistance of 10W. It is stretched by one-tenth
\ R2 = 4 R of its original length. Then its resistance will be
Example 5. (a) 10W (b) 12.1W
A copper wire is stretched to make 0.1% longer. What is (c) 9W (d) 11W
the percentage change in its resistance? Solution : (b)
Solution : Here volume remains constant. Thus
rl V1 = V2 Þ l1 ´ A1 = l 2 ´ A2
The resistance R of a wire is given by R = , where
A
r = specific resistance 102
(pr12 )
pr12 l = pr22 (11l / 10) or pr2 =
Let d and m be the density and mass of the wire, respectively 11
then A l d = m or A = m/ld {Q When wire is stretched by 1/10 of its original length,
r l ´l d r l2 d æ r d ö 2 the new length of wire becomes (11l/10)}
\ R= = =ç ÷´ l
m m èmø l2
Let the new resistance be R2. Then R2 = r .
Taking log, of both sides, we get A2
æ rd ö
loge R = log e ç ÷ + 2e loge l æ 11 ö
r.ç l ÷
è mø
10 ø (11 / 10)rl
R2 = è =
dR 2 dl æ rd ö pr22 (10 / 11)pr12
Differentiating = çèQ = constant ÷
ø
R l m
dR æ dl ö (11 / 10) é rl ù (11 / 10) 121
´100 = 2ç ´100 ÷% = 2 ´ (0.1) = (10 / 11) ê 2 ú = (10 / 11) ´10 = 10 = 12.1W
R è l ø p
ëê 1 ûú
r
\ Percentage change in resistance = 2×(0.1) % = 0.2%
So the resistance increases by 0.2%. Example 8.
What will be the equivalent resistance between the two
Example 6.
Determine the equivalent resistance of the arrangement points A and D of fig?
10W 10W 10W
of resistances shown in fig between the points A and B. A C
8W R1 R2
16W R6 10W R3 10 W
R5 R4
16W 20W B D
A B 10W 10W 10W
Solution :
9W Resistances R2 and R3 are in series.
6W
18W
\ R' = R2 + R3 = 10 + 10 = 20 W
474 PHYSICS
Short Circuiting 1 2 n
1
When the terminals of an emf device are connected with a E r E r E r
I
m
r r r
r E E E
Equivalent emf
E1 E 2 E
+ + ........+ n
r1 r2 rn R
E AB =
1 1 1 E 2R
2
Power P = I 2 R = æç
+ + ..... E ö
r1 r2 rn ÷ R=
èR+rø (R + r ) 2
Equivalent internal resistance dP
For maximum power across the resistor, =0
1 1 1 1 dR
= + + .........+ On solving, we get R = r
R AB r1 r2 rn
This is the condition for maximum power dissipation.
Mixed Grouping of Cells : (iii) If identical cells are connected in a loop in order, then emf
between any two points in the loop is zero.
If the cells are connected as shown below then they are said to (iv) If n identical cells are connected in series and m are wrongly
be in mixed grouping. connected then Enet = nE – 2mE
Current Electricity 477
algebraic sum of the net Peltier emf and the net Thomson
emf developed in the loop.
sA(T–T0)
O To Tn Ti A
Temp. difference (pAB)T
With temperature difference T between hot and cold junctions,
the thermo-e.m.f. is given by B (pAB)T0
E = aT + bT2
where a and b are Seebeck co-efficients T sB(T–T0) T0
At Tn, (dE/dT) = 0 EAB = (pAB )T - (pAB )To + s A (T - To ) - s B (T - To )
\ Tn = – a/2b and Ti = – a/b, when To = 0 2. If S, p and s are the Seebeck coefficient, Peltier coefficient,
S = dE/dT is called thermo-electric power. and Thomson coefficient respectively then it is found that
Current Electricity 479
Solution :
dE p
(i) S= =
dT T é T 2 T Tr T Tr Tr2 ù
E = k êT T0 - - - Tr T0 + - ú
ëê 2 2 2 2 úû
d2E d æ dE ö TdS
(ii) s = -T = -T ç ÷=-
dT 2 dT è dT ø dT dE é T T ù
Hence = k êT0 - T - r + r ú = k ( T0 - T )
3. For Peltier effect or Thomson effect, the heat evolved or dT ë 2 2û
absorbed is directly proportional to current. But for Joule's At temperature T = T0 /2,
law of heating, the heat produced is directly proportional to Thermoelectric power = k (T0 - T0 / 2) = k T0 / 2.
the square of the current flowing through it.
KIRCHOFF’S LAWS AND ELECTRICAL CIRCUIT
4. Thermo-emf set up in a thermocouple when its junctions
Many practical combination of resistors cannot be reduced to
are maintained at temperature T1 and T3 (i.e. E TT3 ) is equal simple series, parallel combinations. For example the resistors in
1
the figure are neither in series nor in parallel.
to the sum of the emfs set up in a thermocouple when its
junctions are maintained first at temperature T1 and T2 (i.e. e
a R1
T T
E T2 ) and then at T2 & T3 (i.e. E T32 ) i.e. E T3 = E T2 + E T3 R5 R1
1 T1 T1 T2
f d
It is called law of intermediate temperature. E R2
b R2
Example 22. I2 I1
The temperature of inversion of a thermocouple is 620ºC c
and the neutral temperature is 300ºC. What is the I
temperature of cold junction ? The use of Ohm’s law is not sufficient to solve such problems.
Solution : Kirchoff’s laws are used in such cases.
Let Ti,Tn and Tc be the temperature of inversion, neutral
temperature and temperature of cold junction We will often use the term junction and loop, so let us first
respectively, then understand the meaning of these words. A junction in a circuit
Ti – Tn = Tn – Tc is a point where three or more conductors meet. A loop is a
\ 620 – 300 = 300 – Tc Þ 320 = 300 – Tc closed conducting path. In the above figure e, f, d, c are junctions.
\ Tc = 300 – 320 = – 20ºC a, b, are not junctions. The various loops are efde, cdfc, eabcf
Example 23. and eabcde.
The temperature of cold junction of a thermocouple is 0ºC (i) Kirchoff’s junction law : (Based on conservation of
and the temperature of hot junction is TºC. The thermo charge) At any junction, the sum of currents entering the
e.m.f. is given by E = 16 T – 0.04 T2 m volt junction must be equal to the sum of currents leaving it.
Find (a) the neutral temperature and (b) the If this is not so, charges will accumulate at the junction.
temperature of inversion This cannot happen as this would mean high/low potential
Solution : maintained at a point in a wire without external influence.
Given that E = 16T – 0.04T2
When we apply this rule at junction c, we get I = I 1 + I2
dE (ii) Kirchoff’s loop law : (Based on energy conservation)
\ = 16 - 2 ´ 0.04T
dT The algebraic sum of changes in potential around any
(a) At neutral temperature, dE/dT = 0 closed loop of a circuit must be zero.
\ 16 – 2×0.04 Tn = 0 or 16 = 0.08 Tn Sign convention for using loop law. If we move a loop element
16 (resistor, emf device, capacitor, inductor etc.) in the direction of
or Tn =
= 200º C increasing potential, we take the potential difference positive
0.08
(b) At the temperature of inversion, E = 0 and vice-versa.
\ 16 Ti – 0.04 Ti2 = 0 or 16 – 0.04 Ti = 0 Travel
or 16 = 0.04 Ti – + p.d = +E
E
16
\ Ti = = 400º C Travel
0.040 p.d = –E
Example 24. +E –
One junction of a certain thermocouple is at a fixed H.P. L.P.
temperature Tr and the other junction is at a temperature p.d = – IR
T. The electromotive force for this is expressed by, I R
Travel
é 1 ù
E = k (T - Tr ) êT0 - (T + Tr ) ú . L. P. H.P
ë 2 û p.d = +IR
R I
At, temperature T = T0/2. Determine the thermoelectric
power. Travel
480 PHYSICS
Problem Solving Tactic for Using Kirchoff’s Law + E2 – I1R4 – (I1 + I2) R3 = 0
(i) Draw a circuit diagram large enough to show all resistors, For loop afeda, moving the loop in clockwise direction we get –
emf device, capacitors, currents clearly. E1 – I2 R1 – I2R2 – (I1 + I2)R3 = 0
(ii) Take into account the resistance of voltmeter/ammeter/
Node method to apply Kirchoff’s law (Open loop method)
internal resistance of a cell (if given).
(iii) Assume the direction of current in all branches. It may be Step 1 : We select a reference node and assume its potential
noted here that one branch has only one direction of to be (zero/x)V
current. Step 2 : We calculate the voltage of other selected points w.r.t.
It is best to use junction law simultaneously while drawing the reference node
currents. This helps to reduce the number of unknown Step 3: We find some independent node (whose voltage is
quantities. not known). We apply Kirchoff’s law to find the
relevant values.
E2 a E1 Example 25.
b f
R2 I2 Find current through branch BD
loop
loop R1 A 1W B 2W
n R3 C
direction
dir
I1+ I2 5V
15V
c d I2 R e
3W
R4 I1 2
Fig 1
D
E2 a E1 Solution :
b f
I1 I2
Let VD = 0V
\ VA = +5V and VC = + 15 V
R3 R1 Let the voltage of B = VB
Applying Kirchhoff’s junction law at B
I3 5 - VB 15 - VB 0 - VB
+ + = 0 Þ VB = 6.82 Volt
c R4 I1 d R2 I2 e 1 2 3
Fig 2 6.82 - 0
Current through BD = = 2.27 A
3
In the above circuits we arbitrarily assumed the direction Example 26.
of current I1 in branch abcd as anti-clockwiswe and the Calculate the currents I1, I2 and I3 in the circuit shown in
direction of current I2 in branch afed as clockwise. figure.
In figure 1 we have two unknown currents (I1, I2) whereas
figure 2 we have three unknown currents (I1, I2 and I3).
The first figure is a better option for solving problems. In
figure 1 we used junction rule at d simultaneously while
labelling currents.
(iv) In a branch containing a capacitor, the current is zero when
d.c is applied and steady state conditions are achieved.
(v) Now we need as many independent equations as there are
conditions unknowns. If we have to find a particular Solution :
unknown, we should ensure that, the unknown appears in Junction rule at C yields
one of the equations made by us. I1 + I2 – I3 = 0 i.e., I1 + I2 = I3 .... (1)
while loop for meshes a and b yields respectively :
(vi) For making equations choose the loop and travel the loop –14 – 4I2 + 6I1 – 10 = 0
completely. We may travel the loop in clockwise or anti- i.e., 3I1 – 2I2 = 12 .... (2)
clockwise direction. While using second law use sign and, 10 – 6I1 – 2I3 = 0
conventions properly. i.e., 3I1 + I3 = 5 .... (3)
(vii) Solve the equations formed to find the unknown quantities. Substituting I3 from equation (1) in (3)
If any value of current comes out to be negative then that 4I1 + I2 = 5
particular current is in the opposite direction to that Solving equations (2) and (4) for I1 and I2, we find
assumed. I1 = 2A and I2 = –3A
And hence equation (1) yields, I3 = –1A
Applications The fact that I2 and I3 are negative implies that actual
Let us use second law in the loop abcda of figure 1 taking the direction of I2 and I3 are opposite to that shown in the
loop in anti-clockwise direction starting from a. circuit.
Current Electricity 481
WHEATSTONE BRIDGE 1
The condition for balanced wheatstone bridge D
EAB = (pAB )T - (pAB )To + s A (T - To ) - s B (T - To )
A r B r C r
B 2
P Q
P Correct In the diagram, the three resistors are in parallel.
A G C The potential at A is equal to the potential at C.
Current flows in wire 1 but there is no potnetial
R S drop across A and C.
O Incorrect If potential difference between the points is zero,
D there is zero current between the two points.
P Coorect There is no p.d. between A and C still current
E flows in segment 1.
P R Example 27.
P Q
= also = Calculate the effective resistance between A and B in the
Q S R S following network.
Note that when battery and galvanometer of a Wheatstone bridge 3W
is interchanged, the balance position remains undisturbed, while
sensitivity of the bridge changes. 2W
In the balanced condition, the resistance in the branch BD may D B
A
be neglected C 7W 6W C
Example : Resistance connected to BC may be neglected.
Solution : 4W
2W
2W The circuit can be redrawn as
A
B 2W C 2W D;
C
2W
P=2W Q=3W
2W 2W
A 7W B
2W
2W A B
R=4W S=6W
2W
D
In a Wheatstone bridge, the deflection in a
galvanometer does not change, if the battery and the P R 2
galvanometer are interchanged Here = = so bridge is balanced
Q S 3
Measuring temperature with the help of Wheatstone bridge So the resistance between c and d is non useful.
P Q Equivalent resistance = (P + Q) (R + S)
At balancing =
R + DR S(1 + aDT ) (P + Q)(R + S) (2 + 3)(4 + 6)
R eq = =
P+Q+ R +S 2 + 3+ 4+ 6
P Q 5 ´ 10 10
= = W
15 3
G
Even if not able to observe balanced wheatstone bridge try
to observe symmetry in network and use plane cutting
R
S
method.
DR Example 28.
When P = Q then DR = S a DT [Q R » S] Find the potential difference between the points A and B
in fig.
DR 5W 5W B
\ DT =
Sa
COMMON DEFAULT
O Incorrect If the current flows in a wire, there has to be a 5W + –2V 5W
potential difference. The potential drop takes
place only when current passes through a
resistor. A 5W 5W
482 PHYSICS
Solution : POTENTIOMETER :
The upper three resistances of the cell are in series. Their Principle : The p.d. across a resistance wire is directly
equivalent resistance is 15W. Similarly lower three proportional to its length provided I, r and A are constant.
resistances are in series. Their equivalent resistance is also
l
15W. The upper and lower equivalent resistances are V = IR = I r
A
connected in parallel. So, resultant resistance of the circuit
is given by Þ V a l [ I, r and A are constant]
Working : PQ is the resistance wire of potentiometer generally
1 1 1 2 15 made up of constantan or nichrome. One end P is connected to
= + = or R = W
R 15 15 15 2 the positive terminal of the battery B while negative terminal is
connected to Q through a Rheostat (Rh) and key (K). This is the
2 4 main circuit.
Current from the cell, i = = amp.
(15 / 2) 15 A cell whose emf has to be measured is also connected to the
potential wire in such a way that the positive terminal is connected
In order to calculate potential difference between points A
with P and negative terminal is connected to a galvanometer and
and B, see fig.
then to a jockey (J) which is free to slide along the wire
B K Rh
2V
5W 5W 5W
E C A
A
F D
5W 5W B 5W
A C
P
IB J Q
Half of the current goes to each part i.e., current in each
part is (2/15) amp. Consider the loop AEFDCA, we have IE
E
2 2 2 There is a potential drop along PQ.
VAB = - ´ 5 + ´ 5 + ´ 5 = VA - VB The potential drop per unit length along PQ is called potential
15 15 15
gradient.
2 2 2 4 When the jockey is pressed on some point, current flows from E
= ´ 5 = volt or VA = 2 - ´ 5 = volt ,
15 3 15 3 to P (Þ). Also current that comes from B after reaching P divides
into two parts. One part moves towards A and the other towards
2 2 2 E (®). Three cases may arise.
VB = 2 - ´ 10 = volt so VAB = VA - VB = volt
15 3 3 (a) IB > IE. This happens when VPC > E. One side deflection in
galvanometer
METER BRIDGE OR SLIDE WIRE BRIDGE
(b) IB = IE. This happens when VPC = E, Zero deflection in
Principle: Based on balanced Wheatstone bridge principle.
galvanometer
Use : To find unknown resistance
(c) IB < IE . This happens when VPA < E. Other side defection
Working : Let P be the unknown resistance.
in galvanometer
P Q
• At null point since no current flows through E therefore it is
said to be in the condition of open circuit.
• More is the length of potentiometer, higher is the sensitivity of
100– l potentiometer and smaller is the potential gradient.
l
• Potentiometer will work only when B > E. Also the positive
G
terminal of the batteries is connected at P. If any of the above
conditions is not followed, we do not get a null point.
E1 l1
Uses : (i) Comparison of emfs of cells E = l
2 2
At balance point
P Q ælö
= (ii) To find internal resistance of a cell r = ç ÷ R
l 100 - l
è l' ø
Q is known and l can be calculated. emf can be measured by potentiometer and not voltmeter.
Current Electricity 483
Example 29.
Copper strip
A 10 m long wire AB of uniform area of cross-section and
20W resistance is used as a potentiometer wire. This wire 100 x
is connected in series with a battery of 5V and a resistor
of 480W. An unknown emf is balanced at 600 cm of the G Copper
wire as shown in the figure. A B strip
1 2
5V 480 W
r
E
600 cm Sol. Q Wheatstone bridge is in balanced condition
A J B
100
G 100 x
E
Calculate :
(i) The potential gradient for the potentiometer wire
(ii) The value of unknown emf E
1 2
Solution :
(i) V = 5V 480 W I 100x
100 100 + x l1
so = and Q l = 2
I l1 l2 2
A B Þ x = 100 W
Applying Ohm’s law MEASURING INSTRUMENTS
V = I (RAB + 480) Galvanometer
5 It is an instrument used to detect small currents in a circuit.
5 = I (20 + 480) [RAB = 20 W (given)] Þ I = = 0.01A
The current required for full scale deflection in the galvanometer
500
Potential gradient of potentiometer wire is called full scale deflection current and is denoted by Ig.
Current sensitivity of a galvanometer.
VAB 0.2
< < < 0.02Vm,1 It is defined as the deflection produced in the galvanometer,
l AB 10
when unit current flows through it.
(ii) With reference to the current given in question, the emf E
and the potential drop across AJ should be equal for the q NBA
Current sensitivity, IS = = and its unit is rad A–1
balancing : E = (potential gradient of potentiometer wire) I C
× balancing length = 0.02 × 6 = 0.12 V Current sensitivity can be increased either by decreasing C i.e.
Example 30.
restoring torque per unit twist or increasing B.
A uniform potential gradient is established across a
potentiometer wire. Two cells of emf E1 and E2 connected Voltage sensitivity of a galvanometer
to support and oppose each other are balanced over It is defined as the deflection produced in the galvanometer when
l1 = 6m and l2 = 2m. Find E1/E2. a unit voltage is applied across the two terminals of the
Solution : galvanometer.
E1 + E2 = xl1 = 6x and E1 – E2 = 2x
q q NBA
E1 + E 2 6 E1 2 Voltage sensitivity VS = = = , its unit is rad V–1
= or = V IR CR
E1 - E 2 2 E2 1
Example 31. Ammeter
In a practical wheatstone bridge circuit as shown, when Ammeter is used to measure current in a circuit. Ammeter is
one more resistance of 100 W is connected is parallel with always connected in series in the circuit as shown.
unknown resistance ‘x’, then ratio l1 / l 2 become ‘2’. l1 I
A
is balance length. AB is a uniform wire. Find the value of' R ext
x'.
484 PHYSICS
I a Rext b Cq
I=
V NAB sin a
For this, we connect a large resistance R in series with the C = torsional rigidity of suspension wire.
galvanometer. For galvanometer with concave pole-pieces – radial
The potential difference which has to be measured is across the magnetic field is produced, a = 90°
external resistance i.e. across points a and b.
I = (C / NAB)q or I = Kq
Let it be V. Then
V = Ig (G + R) All galvanometers used in practice have concave
where V is the maximum potential difference that the voltmeter pole-pieces, for making the radial magnetic field.
can measure and R is the large resistance connected in series
with the galvanometer Example 34.
The resistance of the voltmeter will be RV = G + R A galvanometer has a resistance of 30 W and current of
Since R is a large resistance. Therefore resistance of 2 mA is needed to give full scale deflection. What is the
voltmeter is very large. resistance needed and how is it to be connected to convert
An ideal voltmeter is one which has infinite resistance. the galvanometer
The range of voltmeter can be increased and decreased. (a) into an ammeter of 0.3 ampere range
(b) into voltmeter of 0.2 volt range
Current Electricity 485
Colour coding of
On length ()l and Resistance R = AB
area of cross-section (A) Resistance (R)Obstruction × C ± D% A, B – First
to flow offered of electrons
R µ lü two significant figures
ï l of resistance C-multiplier
1 ýR = r
µ ï A D-tolerance
Aþ Ohm's law if the physical
r = resistivity Dependence of conditions remain same,
resistance Grouping of resistance
current I µ V Þ V = IR
R-electric resistance
On temperature
Rt = R 0(1 + µt)
Series grouping of Parallel grouping of
Conductivity (s) resistances Equivalent resistances Equivalent
Reciprocal of resistance Current density (J) Electric Current (I) The time resistance, Rs= R 1 + resistance,
1 Current per unit cross rate of flow of charge (Q) R2 +...+ Rn 1 1 1 1
s= sectional area (A) = + +...+
r through any cross-section R P R1 R 2 Rn
r I E Q
J= =r I= t
A
Drift velocity (Vd ) Mobitity (m)
2nd law Loop Average uniform velocity Drift velocity per
lst law Junction law rule Algebraic CURRENT ELECTRICITY acquired by free electrons unit electric field
Algebraic sum of sum of changes in i V
Vd = m= d
all the current potential around neA E
meeting at a junction any closed loop is
is zero i.e. S I = 0 zero.
Electric cell source of energy that
maintains continuous flow of charge Groupings of cells
in a circuit
Q S 100 – l S
Current Electricity 487
1. The emf developed by a thermocouple is measured with (c) the potential draws no current during measurement.
the help of a potentiometer and not by a moving coil (d) range of the voltmeter is not as wide as that of the
millivoltmeter because potentiometer.
(a) the potentiometer is more accurate than the voltmeter 8. The infinity resistance plug in a post-office box has
(b) the potentiometer is more sensitive than voltmeter (a) an air gap only
(c) the potentiometer makes measurement without (b) a resistance coil of infinite resistance
drawing any current from the thermocouple (c) largest resistance available in box
(d) measurement using a potentiometer is simpler than (d) resistance of the coil 5000 W
with a voltmeter 9. In an household electric circuit, which of the following is/
2. Three copper wires of lengths and cross sectional areas are are correct?
(l, A), (2 l, A/2) and (l/2, 2A). Resistance is minimum in (A) All electric appliances drawing power are joined in
(a) wire of cross-sectional area A/2 parallel
(B) A switch may be either in series or in parallel with the
(b) wire of cross-sectional area A appliance which it controls
(c) wire of cross-sectional area 2A (C) If a switch is in parallel with an appliance, it will draw
(d) same in all the three cases power when the switch is in the ‘off’ position (open)
3. When a current I is set up in a wire of radius r, the drift (D) If a switch is in parallel with an appliance, the fuse will
blow (burn out) when the switch is put ‘on’ closed.
velocity is vd. If the same current is set up through a wire of
(a) A, D (b) A, C, D
radius 2 r, the drift velocity will be (c) B, C, D (d) A, B, D
(a) 4 vd (b) 2 vd 10. Two identical fuses are rated at 10 A. If they are joined
(c) vd/2 (d) vd/4
(A) in parallel, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 20 A
4. In the given circuit, as the sliding contact C is moved from
(B) in parallel, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 5 A
A to B
(C) in series, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 10 A
V (D) in series, the combination acts as a fuse of rating 20 A
Select the correct options.
C
A B (a) A, B (b) A, C
(c) B, D (d) B, C, D
A
11. The resistance of the coil of an ammeter is R. The shunt
(a) the readings of both the ammeter and the voltmeter required to increase its range n-fold should have a
remain constant resistance
(b) the reading of both the ammeter and the voltmeter R R
increase (a) (b)
n n -1
(c) the reading of the ammeter remains constant but
that of the voltmeter increases R
(c) (d) nR
(d) the reading of the ammeter remains constant but n +1
that of the voltmeter decreases 12. A cell of internal resistance r is connected across an
5. Potentiometer measures potential more accurately because external resistance nr. Then the ratio of the terminal voltage
(a) it measures potential in open circuit to the emf of the cell is
(b) it uses sensitive galvanometer for null deflection
(c) it uses high resistance potentiometer wire 1 1 n n -1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(d) it measures potential in closed circuit n n +1 n +1 n
6. Coils in the resistance boxes are made from doubled up 13. A battery of e.m.f. 10 V and internal resistance 0.5 W is
insulated wires connected across a variable resistance R. The value of R
(a) to cancel the effect of self induction for which the power delivered in it is maximum is given by
(b) to nullify the heating effect (a) 0.5 W (b) 1.0 W (c) 2.0 W (d) 0.25 W
(c) to nullify the Peltier effect
14. An ammeter has a resistance of G ohm and a range of I amp.
(d) to reduce effective length of the wire The value of resistance used in parallel to convert it into an
7. For measuring voltage of any circuit, potentiometer is ammeter of range nI amp is
preferred to voltmeter because
(a) nG (b) (n – 1)G
(a) the potentiometer is cheap and easy to handle.
(b) calibration in the voltmeter is sometimes wrong . (c) G/n (d) G/(n – 1)
488 PHYSICS
15. A current source drives a current in a coil of resistance R1 21. A 4 ohm resistance wire is bent through 180º at its mid point
for a time t. The same source drives current in another coil and the two halves are twisted together. Then the resistance
of resistance R2 for same time. If heat generated is same, is
find internal resistance of source. (a) 1 W (b) 2 W (c) 5 W (d) 8 W
22. Is it possible that any battery has some constant value of
R1R 2 e.m.f but the potential difference between the plates is zero?
(a) (b) R1 + R 2
R1 + R 2 (a) No
(b) Yes, if another identical battery is joined in series.
(c) zero (d) R 1R 2 (c) Yes, if another identical battery is joined in
opposition in series.
16. Two electric bulbs whose resistance are in the ratio 1 : 2 are (d) Yes, if another similar battery is joined in parallel.
arranged in parallel to a constant voltage source. The 23. Which of the following in electricity is analogous to
powers dissipated in them have the ratio momentum mv in dynamics ?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 (a) IV (b) I L (c) QL (d) IQ
17. Who among the following scientists made the statement ? 24. You are given a resistance coil and a battery. In which of
“Chemical change can produce electricity”. the following cases is largest amount of heat generated ?
(a) Galvani (b) Faraday (a) When the coil is connected to the battery directly
(b) When the coil is divided into two equal parts and
(c) Coulomb (d) Thompson
both the parts are connected to the battery in parallel
18. Which of the following is not reversible ? (c) When the coil is divided into four equal parts and all
(a) Joule effect (b) Peltier effect the four parts are connected to the battery in parallel
(c) Seebeck effect (d) Thomson effect (d) When only half the coil is connected to the battery
19. In which of the following the power dissipation is 25. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its
proportional to the square of the current ? length and radius are both doubled, then
(a) Peltier effect (b) Joule's effect (a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both
remain unchanged
(c) Thomson effect (d) None of the above
(b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific
20. When current is passed through a junction of two dissimilar resistance will be halved
metals, heat is evolved or absorbed at the junction. This (c) the resistance will be halved and the specific
process is called resistance will remain unchanged
(a) Seebeck effect (b) Joule effect (d) the resistance will be halved and the specific
(c) Petlier effect (d) Thomson effect resistance will be doubled
1. A given resistor has the following colour scheme of the 5. A primary cell has an e.m.f. of 1.5 volt. When short-circuited
various strips on it : Brown, black, green and silver. Its it gives a current of 3 ampere. The internal resistance of the
value in ohm is cell is
(a) 1.0 ´ 10 4 ± 10% (b) 1.0 ´ 105 ± 10% (a) 4.5 ohm (b) 2 ohm
(c) 0.5 ohm (d) (1/4.5) ohm
(c) 1.0 ´ 10 6 ± 10% (d) 1.0 ´ 10 7 ± 10% 6. Two wires A and B of the same material, having radii in the
2. If R1 and R2 are respectively the filament resistances of a ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the ratio 4 : 1. The ratio of
200 watt bulb and a 100 watt bulb designed to operate on drift speed of electrons in A and B is
the same voltage (a) 16 : 1 (b) 1 : 16
(a) R1 is two times R2 (b) R2 is two times R1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
(c) R2 is four times R1 (d) R1 is four times R2 7. A torch bulb rated as 4.5 W, 1.5 V is connected as shown in
3. A conductor carries a current of 50 m A. If the area of cross- fig. The e.m.f. of the cell, needed to make the bulb glow at
section of the conductor is 50 mm2, then value of the current full intensity is
density in Am–2 is 4.5 W,
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 1.5V
(c) 10–3 (d) 10–6 2E/9
4. A cell when balanced with potentiometer gave a balance
length of 50 cm. 4.5 W external resistance is introduced in E/9
the circuit, now it is balanced on 45 cm. The internal 0.33 W
resistance of cell is E/3
(a) 0.25 W (b) 0.5 W E, r = 2.67 W
(a) 4.5 V (b) 1.5 V
(c) 1.0 W (d) 1.5 W (c) 2.67 V (d) 13.5 V
Current Electricity 489
8. A flow of 107 electrons per second in a conducting wire 19. If the resistance of a conductor is 5W at 50º C & 7W at
constitutes a current of 100º C, then mean temperature coefficient of resistance (of
material) is
(a) 1.6 ´ 10 -26 A (b) 1.6 ´ 10 26 A
(a) 0.013/ ºC (b) 0.004/ ºC
(c) 1.6 ´ 10 -12 A (d) 1.6 ´ 1012 A (c) 0.006/ ºC (d) 0.008/ ºC
9. A 100-W bulb and a 25-W bulb are designed for the same 20. If negligibly small current is passed though a wire of length
voltage. They have filaments of the same length and 15 m & resistance of 5W, having uniform cross section of
material. The ratio of the diameter of the 100-W bulb to that 6 × 10–7 m2, then coefficient of resistivity of material is
of the 25-W bulb is (a) 1×10–7W–m (b) 2×10–7W–m
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 –7
(c) 3×10 W–m (d) 4×10–7W–m
(c) (d) 1 : 2 21. A potentiometer consists of a wire of length 4m and
2 :1
resistance 10W. It is connected to a cell of e.m.f. 3V. The
10. In a metre bridge, the balancing length from the left end potential gradient of wire is
(standard resistance of one ohm is in the right gap) is found to (a) 5V/m (b) 2V/m
be 20 cm. The value of the unknown resistance is
(c) 5V/m (d) 10V/m
(a) 0.8 W (b) 0.5 W
22. The four wires from a larger circuit intersect at junction A
(c) 0.4 W (d) 0.25 W as shown. What is the magnitude and direction of the
11. An electric fan and a heater are marked as 100 W, 220 V and current between points A and B ?
1000 W, 220 V respectively. The resistance of heater is 4A
(a) equal to that of fan (b) lesser than that of fan
(c) greater than that of fan (d) zero A B
5A
]
12. In a neon gas discharge tube Ne+ ions moving through a
cross-section of the tube each second to the right is 2.9 × 6A
1018, while 1.2 × 1018 electrons move towards left in the (a) 2 A from A to B (b) 2A from B to A
same time; the electronic charge being 1.6 × 10–19 C, the (c) 3A from A to B (d) 2A from B to A
net electric current is 23. Potentiometer wire of length 1 m is connected in series with
(a) 0.27 A to the right (b) 0.66 A to the right 490W resistance and 2 V battery. If 0.2 mV/cm is the potential
(c) 0.66 A to the left (d) zero gradient, then resistance of the potentiometer wire is
13. A capacitor of 10m F has a pot. difference of 40 volts across (a) 4.9 W (b) 7.9 W (c) 5.9 W (d) 6.9 W
it. If it is discharged in 0.2 second, the average current 24. The deflection in a galvanometer decreases from 25 divisions
to 5 divisions when a resistor of 20W is connected in series.
during discharge is
Find resistance of galvanometer.
(a) 2 m A (b) 4 m A
(a) 4 W (b) 5 W (c) 6 W (d) 7 W
(c) 1 m A (d) 0.5 m A
25. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. A
14. The amount of charge Q passed in time t through a cross-
current of 4 × 10–4 ampere gives a deflection of one division.
section of a wire is Q = 5 t2 + 3 t + 1. To convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range
The value of current at time t = 5 s is of 25 volts, it should be connected with a resistance of
(a) 9 A (b) 49 A (a) 2450 W in series. (b) 2500 W in series.
(c) 53 A (d) None of these (c) 245 W in series. (d) 2550 W in series.
15. A wire X is half the diameter and half the length of a wire Y 26. In the equation AB = C, A is the current density, C is the
of similar material. The ratio of resistance of X to that of Y is electric field, Then B is
(a) 8 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 (a) resistivity (b) conductivity
16. 2, 4 and 6 S are the conductances of three conductors. (c) potential difference (d) resistance
When they are joined in series, their equivalent conductance 27. A dynamo develops 0.5 A at 6 V. The energy which is
will be
generated in one second is
(a) 12 S (b) (1/12) S
(a) 0.083 J (b) 3 J
(c) (12/11) S (d) (11/12) S
17. 2, 4 and 6 S are conductances of three conductors. When they (c) 12 J (d) None of these
are joined in parallel, their equivalent conductance will be 28. In an electroplating experiment, m g of silver is deposited
(a) 12 S (b) (1/12) S when 4 A of current flows for 2 minutes. The amount in g of
(c) (12/11) S (d) (11/12) S silver deposited by 6 A of current for 40 seconds will be
18. Two identical cells connected in series send 1.0A current (a) 4 m (b) 2 m (c) m/2 (d) m/4
through a 5 W resistor. When they are connected in parallel, 29. A steady current of 5 A is maintained for 45 minutes. During
they send 0.8 A current through the same resistor. What is this time it deposits 4.572 g of zinc at the cathode of voltameter.
the internal resistance of the cell? E.C.E. of zinc is
(a) 0.5 W (b) 1.0 W (c) 1.5 W (d) 2.5 W (a) 3.387 × 10–4 g/C (b) 3.387 × 10–4 kg/C
–4
(c) 3.384 × 10 kg/C (d) 3.384 × 10–3 kg/C
490 PHYSICS
30. What is the equivalent resistance between the points A (a) 8 minutes (b) 10 minutes
and D in given figure? (c) 12 minutes (d) 15 minutes
40. An electric lamp is marked 60 W, 220 V. The cost of kilo
watt hour of electricity is Rs. 1.25. The cost of using this
lamp on 220 V for 8 hours is
(a) Re 0.25 (b) Re 0.60
(c) Re 1.20 (d) Re 4.00
(a) 10 W (b) 20 W 41. If current flowing in a conductor changes by 1% then power
consumed will change by
(c) 30 W (d) 40 W
(a) 10% (b) 2% (c) 1% (d) 100%
31. Two wires of same metal have the same length but their
cross-sections are in the ratio 3 : 1. They are joined in series. 42. If nealy 105 coulomb are liberated by 1gm equivalent of
The resistance of the thicker wire is 10 W. The total aluminium, then amount of aluminium (equivalent weight 9)
resistance of the combination is deposited through electrolysis in 20 minutes by a current
(a) 5/2 W (b) 40/3 W of 50 ampere will be :
(c) 40 W (d) 100 W (a) 0.6 gm. (b) 0.09 gm (c) 5.4 gm (d) 10.8 gm
32. The resistance of a wire at room temperature 30°C is found 43. Three equal resistors, connected across a source of e.m.f.
to be 10 W. Now to increase the resistance by 10%, the together dissipate 10 watt of power. What will be the power
temperature of the wire must be [ The temperature coefficient dissipated in watts if the same resistors are connected in
of resistance of the material of the wire is 0.002 per °C] parallel across the same source of e.m.f.
(a) 36°C (b) 83°C (c) 63°C (d) 33°C (a) 10 (b) 10/3 (c) 30 (d) 90
33. A potentiometer wire, 10 m long, has a resistance of 40W. It 44. A wire of radius r and another wire of radius 2r, both of
is connected in series with a resistance box and a 2 V storage same material and length are connected in series to each
cell. If the potential gradient along the wire is 0.1 m V/cm, other. The combination is connected across a battery. The
the resistance unplugged in the box is ratio of the heats produced in the two wires will be
(a) 260 W (b) 760 W (a) 4.00 (b) 2.00 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.25
(c) 960 W (d) 1060 W 45. The electrochemical equivalent of a metal is 3.3 × 10–7 kg
34. If R1 and R2 are the filament resistances of 200 W and a 100 per coulomb. The mass of the metal liberated at the
W bulb respectively both designed to run at the same cathode when a 3 A current is passed for 2 seconds will
voltage, then be
(a) R2 is four times of R1 (b) R1 is four times of R2 (a) 19.8 × 10–7 kg (b) 9.9 × 10–7 kg
(c) R2 is two times of R1 (d) R1 is two times of R2 (c) 6.6 × 10 kg–7 (d) 1.1 × 10–7 kg
35. Two heating wires of equal length are first connected in 46. An electrical cable of copper has just one wire of radius 9
series and then in parallel to a constant voltage source. mm. Its resistance is 5 ohm. This single copper wire of the
The rate of heat produced in two cases is (parallel to series) cable is replaced by 6 different well insulated copper wires
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1 each of radius 3 mm. The total resistance of the cable will
36. Two identical batteries each of e.m.f. 2 V and internal now be equal to
resistance 1 W are available to produce heat in an external
(a) 7.5 ohm (b) 45 ohm
resistance by passing a current through it. The maximum
power that can be developed across R using these batteries (c) 90 ohm (d) 270 ohm
is 47. In an experiment to measure the internal resistance of a cell,
(a) 3.2 W (b) 2.0 W (c) 1.28 W (d) 8/9 W by a potentiometer, it is found that the balance point is at a
37. A heater of 220 V heat a volume of water in 5 minutes time. length of 2 m, when the cell is shunted by a 5 W resistance
A heater of 110 V heats the same volume of water in and is at a length of 3 m when the cell is shunted by a 10 W
(a) 5 minutes (b) 8 minutes resistance. The internal resistance of the cell is then
(c) 10 minutes (d) 20 minutes (a) 1.5 W (b) 10 W
38. The internal resistance of a primary cell is 4W. It generates (c) 15 W (d) 1 W
a current of 0.2 A in an external reistance of 21 W. The rate 48. To get maximum current in a resistance of 3 ohms, one can
of chemical energy consumed in providing the current is use n rows of m cells (connected in series) connected in
(a) 0.42 J s–1 (b) 0.84 J s–1 parallel. If the total number of cells is 24 and the internal
(c) 1 J s–1 (d) 5 J s–1 resistance of a cell is 0.5 ohms then
39. Water boils in the electric kettle in 15 minutes after switching (a) m = 12, n = 2 (b) m = 8, n = 3
on. If the length of heating wire is decreased to 2/3 of its (c) m = 2, n = 12 (d) m = 6, n = 4
initial value, then the same amount of water will boil with 49. Each of the resistance in the network shown in fig. is equal
the same supply voltage in to R. The resistance between the terminals A and B is
Current Electricity 491
63. Determine the current in 2W resistor. 68. The numerical value of charge on either plate of capacitor C
2W shown in figure is
3W (a) CE
1W CER1
(b)
R1 + r
6V 2.8 W
C R2
CER 2 ||
(c)
(a) 1 A (b) 1.5 A (c) 0.9 A (d) 0.6 A R2 + r
R1
64. Twelve resistors each of resistance 16 W are connected in
the circuit as shown. The net resistance between AB is CER1
(d) E
R2 + r r
(a) 0.6 A
(b) 0.9 A
(a) 1 W (b) 2 W (c) 3 W (d) 4 W
65. A battery of e.m.f E and internal resistance r is connected (c) 1.2 A
to a variable resistor R as shown. Which one of the
following is true ?
E r (d) 1.5 A
70. In the network shown, each resistance is equal to R. The
R equivalent resistance between adjacent corners A and D is
(a) R
(a) Potential difference across the terminals of the battery
is maximum where R = r 2
(b) R
(b) Power delivered to resistor is maximum when 3
R= r
(c) Current in the circuit is maximum when R = r 3
(d) Current in the circuit is maximum when R >> r (c) R
66. There is an infinite wire grid with cells in the form of 7
equilateral triangles. The resistance of each wire between
neighbouring joint connections is R0. The net resistance 8
(d) R
of the whole grid between the points A and B as shown is 15
71. Resistances 1 W, 2 W and 3 W are connected to form a
A B triangle. If a 1.5 V cell of negligible internal resistance is
connected across the 3 W resistor, the current flowing
through this resistor will be
R0 R0 R0
(a) R0 (b) (c) (d) (a) 0.25 A (b) 0.5 A
2 3 4 (c) 1.0 A (d) 1.5 A
67. Twelve indentical resistors each of value 1 W are connected
72. Seven resistances, each of value 20 W, are connected to a 2
as shown. Net resistance between C and D (R) is
V battery as shown in the figure. The ammeter reading will
C
be
7
(a) R= W
6 G
4 2V
(b) R= W A E
3 B
F A
(c) R =1 W
H
3 (a) 1/10 A (b) 3/10 A
(d) R= W
4 (c) 4/10 A (d) 7/10 A.
D
Current Electricity 493
73. In the circuit shown below, if the resistance of voltmeter is 80. The thermo e.m.f. E in volts of a certain thermocouple is
4 kW, then the error in the reading of voltmeter will be found to vary with temperature T of hot junction while cold
junction is kept at 0ºC
T2
E = 40 T -
20
The neutral temperature of the couple is
(a) 100ºC (b) 200ºC (c) 400ºC (d) 800ºC
81. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W are manufactured to operate
on 220 V line. The ratio of heat produced in 500 W and 200
(a) 50% (b) 68% (c) 17% (d) 33.3% W, in two cases, when firstly they are connected in parallel
74. In the circuit , the galvanometer G shows zero deflection. If and secondary in series will be
the batteries A and B have negligible internal resistance,
the value of the resistor R will be 5 2 5 5 2 5 2 2
(a) : (b) : (c) : (d) :
2 5 2 2 5 2 5 5
500 W
G 82. A wire of resistance 20 W is covered with ice and a voltage
2V of 210 V is applied across the wire, then rate of melting the
12V R
ice is
B A
(a) 0.85 g/s (b) 1.92 g/s
(c) 6.56 g/s (d) All of these
(a) 100 W (b) 200W 83. Two identical batteries, each of e.m.f. 2 volt and internal
(c) 1000 W (d) 500 W resistance 1.0 ohm are available to produce heat in a
resistance R = 0.5 W, by passing a current through it. The
75. A fuse wire with a radius of 1 mm blows at 1.5 A. If the fuse
maximum power that can be developed across R using these
wire of the same material should blow at 3.0 A, the radius of
batteries is
the wire must be
(a) 41/3 mm (b) 2 mm 1W 2V
(c) 0.5 mm (d) 8.0 mm
76. A 4 m F conductor is charged 50 volts and then its plates 1W 2V
are joined through a resistance of 1 k W. The heat produced
in the resistance is
(a) 0.16 J (b) 1.28 J (c) 0.64 J (d) 0.32 J
77. The thermo e.m.f. of a thermocouple is given by
E = 2164 t – 6.2 t2. The neutral temperature and a temperature 0.5W
of inversion are
(a) 1.28 W (b) 2.0 W (c) 8/9 W (d) 3.2 W
(a) 349, 174.5 (b) 174.5, 349
84. The thermo e.m.f. of a thermocouple is 25mV/ºC at room
(c) 349, 698 (d) 698, 349
78. One junction of a certain thermocouple is at a fixed temperature. A galvanometer of 40 ohm resistance, capable
temperature Tr and the other junction is at a temperature T. of detecting current as low as 10–5 A, is connected with the
The electormotive force for this is expressed by, thermocouple. The smallest temperature difference that can
be detected by this system is
é 1 ù (a) 12ºC (b) 0ºC (c) 20ºC (d) 16ºC
E = k (T - Tr ) êT0 - (T + Tr ) ú
ë 2 û 85. Two different metals are joined end to end. One end is kept
At temperature T = T0/2, the thermo electric power is at constant temperature and other end is heated to a very
(a) k T0/2 (b) k T0 high temperature. The graph depicting the thermo e.m.f. is
k T02 1 2
(c) (d) k (T0 - Ti )
2 2
79. The e.m.f. developed in a thermo-couple is given by (a) (b)
1
E = a T + bT2 T T
2
where T is the temperature of hot junction, cold junction
being at 0ºC. The thermo electric power of the couple is
b
(a) a+ T (b) a + b T (c) (d)
2
a T 2 b T3
(c) + (d) a / 2 b
2 6
494 PHYSICS
86. The cold junction of a thermocouple is maintained at 10ºC. 96. In the circuit shown in figure, the 5W resistance
No thermo e.m.f. is developed when the hot junction is develops 20.00 cal/s due to the current flowing through it.
maintained at 530ºC. The neutral temperature is The heat developed in 2 W resistance (in cal/s) is
(a) 260ºC (b) 265ºC (c) 270ºC (d) 520ºC
87. Three equal resistors connected across a source of e.m.f.
together dissipate 10 watt of power. What will be the power
dissipated in watts if the same resistors are connected in
parallel across the same source of e.m.f.?
(a) 23.8 (b) 14.2 (c) 11.9 (d) 7.1
10 97. A heating coil is labelled 100 W, 220 V. The coil is cut in half
(a) 10 (b) (c) 30 (d) 90
3 and the two pieces are joined in parallel to the same source.
88. An electric heating element in vacuum is surrounded by a The energy now liberated per second is
cavity at constant temperature of 227ºC; it consumes 60W (a) 25 J (b) 50 J (c) 200 J (d) 400 J
of power to maintain a temperature of 727ºC. What is the 98. Five resistances have been connected as shown in the
power consumed by the element to maintain a temperature figure. The effective resistance between A & B is
of 1227º C?
(a) 101 W (b) 304 W (c) 90 W (d) 320 W 3W 4W
89. Silver and copper voltameters are connected in parallel A 7W B
with a battery of e.m.f 12 V. In 30 minute 1 g of silver and
6W 8W
1.8 g of copper are liberated. The energy supplied by the
battery is (a) 14/3W (b) 20/3W
[ ZAg = 11.2 × 10–4gc–1; ZCu = 6.6 × 10–4 gc–1] (c) 14W (d) 21W
(a) 720 J (b) 2.41 J 99. If specific resistance of a potentiometer wire is 10–7Wm
(c) 24.12 J (d) 4.34 × 104 J current flowing through it, is 0.1 amp and cross sectional
90. A 5–ampere fuse wire can withstand a maximum power area of wire is 10–6 m2, then potential gradient will be
of 1 watt in the circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is (a) 10–2 volt/m (b) 10–4 volt/m
–6
(c) 10 volt/m (d) 10–8 volt/m
(a) 0.04 W (b) 0.2 W (c) 5 W (d) 0.4 W
91. In the Seebeck series Bi occurs first followed by Cu and Fe 100. If 25W, 220 V and 100 W, 220 V bulbs are connected in
among other. The Sb is the last in the series. If z1 be the series across a 440 V line, then
thermo emf at the given temperature difference for Bi – Sb (a) only 25W bulb will fuse
thermocouple and z, be that for Cu-Fe thermocouple, which (b) only 100W bulb will fuse
of the following is true? (c) both bulbs will fuse
(a) z1 = z2 (b) z1 < z2 (c) z1 > z2 (d) None of these
(d) Data is not sufficient to predict it. 101. An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one of the
92. 50 electric bulbs are connected in series across a 220 V coils is connected to an a.c. source, the water in the kettle
supply and the illumination produced is I1. 5 bulbs are boils in 10 minutes. When the other coil is used the water
fused. If the remaining 45 are again connected in series, boils in 40 minutes. If both the coils are connected in parallel,
the illumination produced is I2. Which of the following is the time taken by the same quantity of water to boil will be
true ? (a) 15 min (b) 8 min (c) 4 min (d) 25 min
(a) I1 = I2 (b) I1 < I2 (c) I1 > I2 102. Two 220 volt, 100 watt bulbs are connected first in series
(d) It will depend on the resistance of each bulb. and then in parallel. Each time the combination is connected
93. A leclanche cell supplies a current of one ampere for ten to a 220 volt a.c. supply line. The power drawn by the
minutes. The electreochemical equivalent of hydrogen = combination in each case respectively will be
0.00001014 gram per coulomb. The mass of hydrogen (a) 50 watt, 200 watt (b) 50 watt, 100 watt
liberated is : (c) 100 watt, 50 watt (d) 200 watt, 150 watt
(a) 0.00625 g (b) 0.01248 g 103. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current
(c) 0.01872 g (d) 0.02496 g. of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 W is
94. Three equal resistors connected across a source of e.m.f. (a) 0.5 W (b) 0.8 W
together dissipate 10 watt of power. What will be the power (c) 1.0 W (d) 0.2 W
dissipated in watt if the same resistors are connected in parallel 104. Five equal resistances each of resistance R are connected
across the same source of e.m.f.? as shown in the figure. A battery of V volts is connected
(a) 10/3 (b) 10 (c) 30 (d) 90 between A and B. The current flowing in AFCEB will be
95. Two 1000 W heaters when connected in parallel across C
2V 3V
220 V supply produced heat QP in time t. If they are (a) (b)
connected in series across the same power supply the heat R R
R
produced in the same time is QS. What is QP/QS? V V R F
R
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25. (c) (d) A
R 2R R B
D E
R
Current Electricity 495
105. A battery is charged at a potential of 15V for 8 hours when (c) (d)
the current flowing is 10A. The battery on discharge e V
supplies a current of 5A for 15 hour. The mean terminal V
voltage during discharge is 14V. The “Watt-hour”
efficiency of the battery is
(a) 87.5% (b) 82.5% (c) 80% (d) 90% 0
R 0
106. When three identical bulbs of 60 watt, 200 volt rating are R
connected in series to a 200 volt supply, the power drawn 113. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted
by them will be into an ammeter of 25 ampere range. The value (in ohm) of
(a) 20 watt (b) 60 watt (c) 180 watt (d) 10 watt necessary shunt will be
107. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220 V. It (a) 0.001 (b) 0.01
is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the resistance of a 60 W (c) 1 (d) 0.05
bulb for use in India is R, the resistance of a 60 W bulb for 114. In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible
use in USA will be resistances. For VA = 12V, R1 = 500W and R = 100W the
(a) R/2 (b) R (c) 2R (d) R/4 galvanometer (G) shows no deflection. The value of VB is
108. For the network shown in the figure the value of the current
R1
i is
G
9V
(a)
35
18V VA R VB
(b)
5
5V
(c) (a) 4 V (b) 2 V
9
5V
(c) 12 V (d) 6 V
(d) 115. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 Volt-100 Watt drops by
18
2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value by
109. In producing chlorine by electrolysis 100 kW power at 125
which the power would decrease is
V is being consumed. How much chlorine per minute is
(a) 20% (b) 2.5%
liberated? (E.C.E. of chlorine is 0.367×10–6 kg / C)
(a) 1.76 × 10–3 kg (b) 9.67 × 10–3 kg (c) 5% (d) 10%
(c) 17.61 × 10 kg–3 (d) 3.67 × 10–3 kg 116. A wire of resistance 4 W is stretched to twice its original
110. In the circuit shown in the figure, if potential at point A is length. The resistance of stretched wire would be
taken to be zero, the potential at point B is (a) 4 W (b) 8 W
(c) 16 W (d) 2 W
R1 D 2V
117. The resistance of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a
1A B
Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90
ohm, respectively. The e.m.f. and internal resistance of the
2A cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer
R2
resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0.1 A
A (c) 2. 0 A (d) 1. 0 A
1V 1A C 2A
(a) –1V (b) + 2V Directions for Qs. (118 to 125) : Each question contains
(c) –2V (d) + 1V STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
111. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following-
Watts. The value of R is (a) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
R
(a) 20 W correct explanation for Statement-1
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
(b) 15 W
5W a correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) 10 W (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(d) 30 W 10V (d) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
112. Cell having an emf e and internal resistance r is connected 118. Statement 1 : When a battery is short-circuited, the terminal
across a variable external resistance R. As the resistance R voltage is zero.
is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is Statement 2 : In the situation of a short-circuit, the current
given by
is zero
(a) (b) 119. Statement 1 : A current flows in a conductor only when
e e
V there is an electric field within the conductor.
V
Statement 2 : The drift velocity of electron in presence of
electric field decreases.
0 0
R R
496 PHYSICS
120. Statement 1 : Voltmeter is much better than a potentiometer 123. Statement 1 : Resistance of 50W bulb is greater than that
for measuring emf of cell. of 100 W.
Statement 2 : A potentiometer draws no current while Statement 2 : Resistance of bulb is inversely proportional
measuring emf of a cell. to rated power.
121. Statement 1 : When current through a bulb decreases by 124. Statement 1 : 40 W tube light give more light in comparison
0.5%, the glow of bulb decreases by 1%. to 40 w bulb.
Statement 2 : Glow (Power) which is directly proportional Statement 2 : Light produced is same from same power.
to square of current. 125. Statement 1: In a simple battery circuit, the point of the
122. Statement 1 : Long distance power transmission is done lowest potential is negative terminal of the battery.
at high voltage. Statement 2: The current flows towards the point of the
Statement 2 : At high voltage supply power losses are higher potential, as it does in such a circuit from the negative
less. to the positive terminal.
Exemplar Questions (c) The first portion of 50 cm of wire itself should have a
1. Consider a current carrying wire (current I) in the shape of potential drop of 10 V
a circle. (d) Potentiometer is usually used for comparing resistances
(a) source of emf and not voltages
(b) electric field produced by charges accumulated on the 5. A metal rod of length 10 cm and a rectangular cross-section
surface of wire 1
of 1cm × cm is connected to a battery across opposite
(c) the charges just behind a given segment of wire which 2
push them just the right way by repulsion faces. The resistance will be
(d) the charges ahead (a) maximum when the battery is connected across 1 cm ×
2. Two batteries of emf e1 and e2(e2 > e1 ) and internal 1
resistances r1 and r2 respectively are connected in parallel cm faces
as shown in figure. 2
(a) Two equivalent emf eeq of the two cells is between e1 (b) maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm ×
and e2, i.e., e1 < eeq < e2 1 cm faces
(b) The equivalent emf eeq is smaller than e1 (c) maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm ×
(c) The eeq is given by eeq = e1 + e2 always 1
(d) eeq is independent of internal resistances r1 and r2 cm faces
2
e1 (d) same irrespective of the three faces
r1
6. Which of the following characteristics of electrons
A B determines the current in a conductor?
r2 (a) Drift velocity alone
e2
(b) Thermal velocity alone
3. A resistance R is to be measured using a meter bridge, (c) Both drift velocity and thermal velocity
student chooses the standard resistance S to be 100W. He (d) Neither drift nor thermal velocity
finds the null point at l1 = 2.9 cm. He is told to attempt to
improve the accuracy. NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions
Which of the following is a useful way? 7. A wire of resistance 4 W is stretched to twice its original
(a) He should measure I1 more accurately length. The resistance of stretched wire would be [2013]
(b) He should change 5 to 1000W and repeat the experiment (a) 4 W (b) 8 W
(c) He should change S to 3W and repeat the experiment (c) 16 W (d) 2 W
(d) He should given up hope of a more accur ate
8. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current
measurement with a meter bridge
of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 W is [2013]
4. Two cells of emfs approximately 5 V and 10 V are to be
accurately compared using a potentiometer of length 400 (a) 0.5 W (b) 0.8 W
cm. (c) 1.0 W (d) 0.2 W
(a) The battery that runs the potentiometer should have 9. The resistance of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a
voltage of 8V Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90
(b) The battery of potentiometer can have a voltage of 15 ohm, respectively. The e.m.f. and internal resistance of the
V and R adjusted so that the potential drop across the cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer
wire slightly exceeds 10 V resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be
Current Electricity 497
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0.1 A [2013] 15. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one
(c) 2. 0 A (d) 1. 0 A city to another city through copper wires. The fall of
potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km
10. A 12 cm wire is given a shape of a right angled triangle ABC
is 0.5 W. The power loss in the wires is : [2014]
having sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm as shown in the figure.
(a) 19.2 W (b) 19.2 kW
The resistance between two ends (AB, BC, CA) of the
(c) 19.2 J (d) 12.2 kW
respective sides are measured one by one by a multi-meter.
16. The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5W
The resistances will be in the ratio of [NEET Kar. 2013]
and RW, respectively. When the resistance R is shunted
A with an equal resistance, the new balance point is at 1.6 l1.
The resistance ‘R’ is : [2014]
3 cm 5 cm
5W RW
B C
4 cm
(a) 3 : 4 : 5 (b) 9 : 16 : 25
(c) 27 : 32 : 35 (d) 21 : 24 : 25 G
11. Two rods are joined end to end, as shown. Both have a
cross-sectional area of 0.01 cm2. Each is 1 meter long. One A B
l1 100 – l1
rod is of copper with a resistivity of 1.7 × 10–6 ohm-centimeter,
the other is of iron with a resistivity of 10–5 ohm-centimeter. (a) 10W (b) 15W
How much voltage is required to produce a current of 1 (c) 20W (d) 25W
ampere in the rods? [NEET Kar. 2013] 17. Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross section
V a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity
which remains constant along the conductor is : [2015]
(a) current (b) drift velocity
(c) electric field (d) current density
18. A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8W.
The resistance that must be connected in series with the
Cu Fe wire and an accumulator of e.m.f. 2V, so as to get a potential
(a) 0.117 V (b) 0.00145 V gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is [2015]
(c) 0.0145 V (d) 1.7 × 10–6 V (a) 40 W (b) 44 W
12. Ten identical cells connected in series are needed to heat a (c) 48 W (d) 32 W
wire of length one meter and radius ‘r’ by 10ºC in time ‘t’. 19. A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5 R and 3R
How many cells will be required to heat the wire of length respectively as shown in the figure. When some potential
two meter of the same radius by the same temperature in difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter readings
time ‘t’? [NEET Kar. 2013] are VA, VB and VC respectively. Then [2015]
(a) 10 (b) 20
B
(c) 30 (d) 40
13. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the A
X Y
internal resistance of a given cell. The main battery used C
across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a
negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire itself (a) VA ¹ VB = VC (b) VA = VB ¹ VC
is 4m long, When the resistace R, connected across the (c) VA ¹ VB ¹ VC (d) VA = VB = VC
given cell, has values of 20. A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30V and a
(i) infinity (ii) 9.5W resistance 40.8W all connected in series. If the ammeter has
The balancing lengths’, on the potentiometer wire are found a coil of resistance 480W and a shunt of 20W, the reading in
to be 3 m and 2.85 m, respectively. The value of internal the ammeter will be: [2015 RS]
resistance of the cell is [2014] (a) 0.25 A (b) 2A
(a) 0.25W (b) 0.95W (c) 1 A (d) 0.5 A
21. Two metal wires of identical dimension are connected in
(c) 0.5W (d) 0.75W
series. If s1 and s2 are the conductivities of the metal wires
14. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination
galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the is : [2015 RS]
resistance of ammeter will be : [2014]
s1 + s 2 s1 + s 2
1 499 (a) (b)
(a) G (b) G 2s1s2 s1s 2
499 500
1 500 s1s 2 2s1s2
(c) G (d) G (c) (d) s + s
500 499 s1 + s 2 1 2
498 PHYSICS
22. A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance r are 24. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential
connected in series with a battery of e.m.f. E0 and a resistance difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected
in series first to support one another and then in opposite
r1. An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length l of the direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10
potentiometer wire. The e.m.f. E will be given by: [2015 RS] cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The
ratio of emf's is : [2016]
E0r l E 0l (a) 5 : 1 (b) 5 : 4
(a) . (b)
(r + r1 ) L L (c) 3 : 4 (d) 3 : 2
25. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make
LE 0 r LE 0 r electrical measurements of E.M.F. because the method
(c) (d) involves [2017]
(r + r1 )l lr1
(a) Potential gradients
23. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time (b) A condition of no current flow through the
galvanometer
t as Q = at – bt2, where a and b are positive constants. The
(c) A combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances
total heat produced in R is: [2016] (d) Cells
26. The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted and
a 3R a 3R stretched to 'n' times its original length, its new resistance
(a) (b)
6b 3b will be :- [2017]
R
a 3R a 3R (a) (b) n2R
(c) (d) n
2b b R
(c) (d) nR
n2
Current Electricity 499
Þ R1 (R + R 2 ) 2 = R 2 (R + R1 ) 2 R 2 P1 200
\ = = =2 ( Q V = constant)
R1 P2 100
2
Þ R R1 + R 1R 22 + 2RR 1R 2
R 2 = 2 R1
2 2
= R R 2 + R 1 R 2 + 2RR 1 R 2 ?
500 PHYSICS
(1.5) 2 1 1 1 1
7. (d) Resistance of bulb R b = = 0.5 W In parallel; = + + = 2 + 4 + 6 = 12
4.5 R p R1 R 2 R 3
E E
Current drawn from battery = = 1
2.67 + 0.33 3 \ sp = = 12 S
Rp
2 E 2E
Share of bulb = ´ = 18. (d) Case (I) : E + E = (r + r + 5) 1 or 2 E = 2 r + 5 ...(i)
3 3 9
æ r´r ö ær ö
æ 2E ö
2 Case (II) : E = ç + 5 ÷ ´ 0.8 or E = ç + 5 ÷ 0.8
\ ç ÷ ´ 0.5 = 4.5 or E = 13.5 V.. è r + r ø è 2 ø
è 9 ø
or E = 0.4 r + 4.0 ...(ii)
8. (c) I = q / t = 10 7 ´1.6 ´10 -19 / 1 = 1.6 ´ 10 -12 A Multiplying (ii) by 2 and equating with (i), we get
3
R1 V 2 / P1 P2 2 r + 5 = 0.8 r + 8 or 1.2 r = 3 or r = = 2.5
9. (b) = = 1.2
R 2 V 2 / P2 P1
19. (a) [Hint Þ Rt = Ro (1 + a t)]
5W = R0 (1 + a × 50) and 7W = R0 (1 + a × 100)
rl / p(d1 / 2) 2 d 2 100W
= = 2 = 5 1 + 50a 2
rl / p(d 2 / 2) 2 d12 25W or = or a = = 0.0133/ °C
7 1 + 100a 150
d 2 10 2
Þ = = 20. (b) (Hint Þ r = R .A = Coefficient of resistivity)
d1 5 1
l
P l
10. (d) = or P = l ´ Q = 20 ´ 1 = 0.25W. 21. (a) Hint : Potential gradient =
Pot.Difference VA - VB
=
Q (100 - l ) 100 - l 80 length of wire l
11. (b) As R µ V2/P or R µ 1/P, so resistance of heater is less 22. (c) Kirchhoff’s junction rule states that the algebraic sum
than that of fan. of all currents into and out of any branch point is zero :
SI = 0. By convention, the sign of current entering a
12. (b) Current, I = (2.9 ´ 1018 + 1.2 ´1018 ) × 1.6 × 10–19 junction is positive and current leaving a junction is
towards right. negative.
4A + 5 A – 6A + IAB = 0, therefore IAB = – 3A. The wire
q CV (10 ´ 106 ) ´ 40 between points A and B carries a current of 3A away
13. (a) Current I = = = = 2 ´ 10 -3 A
t t 0. 2 from the junction.
23. (a) Pot. gradient = 0.2mV/cm
dQ
14. (c) I = = 10t + 3
dt 0.2 ´ 10 - 3
= = 2 ´ 10 - 2 V / m
At t = 5s, I = 10 × 5 + 3 = 53 A 10 - 2
24. (b) Case (I) : When resistor is not connected 32. (b) Rt = R0 (1 + at)
Using V = IR Þ V = 25 (R G ) .............. (i) Initially, R0 (1 + 30a) = 10 W
Finally, R0 (1 + at) = 11 W
Case (II) : When resistor is connected
11 1 + at
V = 5(20 + R G ) = 100 + 5 R G ............. (ii) \ =
10 1 + 30a
From (i) and (ii), 20 R G = 100 Þ R G = 5 W or, 10 + (10 × 0.002 × t) = 11 + 330 × 0.002
25. (a) Rg = 50W, Ig = 25 × 4 × 10–4W = 10–2 A
1.66
Range of V = 25 volts or, 0.02t = 1 + 0.66 = 1.066 or t = = 86°C.
0.02
V = Ig(HR + Rg)
33. (b) Potential gradient along wire
V
\ HR = - R g = 2450W potential difference along wire
Ig =
length of wire
R
A B I ´ 40
or, 0.1 ´10 -3 = V / cm
1000
Ig HR Rg
1
26. (a) J = sE Þ J r = E or, Current in wire, I= A
400
J is current density, E is electric field
so B = r = resistivity. 2 1
or, = or R = 800 - 40 = 760 W
27. (b) Energy produced = V I t = 6 × 0.5 × 1 = 3.0 J. 40 + R 400
28. (c) Mass of substance deposited 34. (c) As R= V2/P or R µ 1/P
m = Z I t = Z ´ 4 ´ (2 ´ 60) = 480 Z and so R2/R1 = P1 /P2 = 200/100 = 2
m ¢ = Z ´ 6 ´ 40 = 240 Z or m ¢ = m / 2. or R2 = 2 R1.
29. (a) Electrochemical equivalent, 35. (b) If R is the resistance of each wire, total resistance in
m 4.572 series = R + R = 2 R; and total resistance in parallel
Z= = = 3.387 ´ 10 -4 g/C.
Ι t 5 ´ 45 ´ 60 R´R R
= = .
30. (c) The effective circuit will be as shown in the figure. R +R 2
Heat produced per second (= V2/R) will be four times
in parallel than in series.
36. (b) For maximum current, the two batteries should be
connected in series. The current will be maximum when
external resistance is equal to the total internal
resistance of cells i.e. 2 W. Hence power developed
across the resistance R will be
Effective resistance of R2 and R4 in series, 2
æ 2E ö 2´2 ö
R' = 10 + 10 = 20 W. 2
= I R = çç ÷÷ R = æç ÷ ´ 2 = 2 W.
Effective resistance of R3 and R5 in series, è R + 2 r ø è +2ø
2
R'' = 10 + 10 = 20 W
Net total resistance of R' and R'' in parallel is V2t
37. (d) Heat produced, H = . When voltage is halved,
20 ´ 20 R
R1 = = 10W.
20 + 20 the heat produced becomes one fourth. Hence time
\Total resistance between A and D taken to heat the water becomes four time.
= 10 + 10 + 10 = 30 W. 38. (c) Chemical energy consumed per sec
31. (c) Resistance of a wire = rl / A. = heat energy produced per sec.
For the same length and same material,
= Ι2 (R + r) = (0.2)2 (21 + 4) = 1Js -1 .
R 2 A1 3
= = or, R 2 = 3R1
R1 A 2 1 V2 V2
39. (b) H= ´ 15 ´ 60 = ´t
The resistance of thick wire, R1 = 10 W R (2/3)R
The resistance of thin wire = 3R1 = 3 × 10 = 30 W.
Total resistance = 10 + 30 = 40W. 2
or t = ´ 15 ´ 60 = 600 s = 10 minutes.
3
502 PHYSICS
r´l r´l 1 1 1 2 1
R2 = = 2 = + = =
A2 ...(2) R¢ 2 R 2 R 2 R R
p r2
i.e., R ¢ = R
From eqs. (1) and (2), we get 50. (a) The given figure is a circuit of balanced Wheatstone’s
bridge. Point B and D would be at the same potential
R1 r2 2 5 (3 ´103 ) 2 i.e., potential difference between these points is zero.
= or =
R 2 r12 R 2 (9 ´10 -3 ) 2 ; R 2 = 45 W 51. (c) With each rotation, charge Q crosses any fixed point
P near the ring. Number of rotations per second = w/2p.
These six wires are in parallel. Hence the resistance of
Qw
the combination would be R 2 = 7.5 W \ charge crossing P per second = current =
2p
47. (b) In case of internal resistance measurement by 52. (b) Let the edges be 2l, a, and l, in decreasing order.
potentiometer,
V1 l1 {E R 1 /(R1 + r )} R 1 (R 2 + r) 2l 2r l r
= = = R max = r = , R min = r = ;
V2 l 2 {E R 2 /(R 2 + r )} R 2 (R 1 + r) al a 2 la 2 a
55. (b) Resistance of the wire of a semicircle = 12/2 = 6W and 40I1 + 40I 2 - 40 - 80 + 40I 2 = 0
For equivalent resistance between two points on any or , 40I1 + 80I 2 = 120 or , 4I1 + 8I 2 = 12
diameter, 6W and 6W are in parallel. or , 2I1 + 4I 2 = 6..............(v )
or
(iv ) - (v ) gives 5I1 = -2 I1 = -0.4 A
If a wire of resistance R is bent in the form of a circle,
60. (c) Length of wire = 100cm.
the effective resistance between the ends of a diameter
= R/4. 2V = voltage of battery, 1V = voltage of a cell
When current flows along wire electric potential falls
2 1 continuously along wire.
56. (d) Current in the potentiometer, I = = A.
8 + 7 +1 8
V 2V
1 100cm
Voltage drop across potentiometer wire = ´ 8 = 1 V
8 A B
\ Potential gradient of potentiometer wire E 1V
1
= = 0.25 V / m
4
E
R1 æ l1 ö
2
R æ 1ö
2 Potential gradient = fall in potential length, K =
57. (c) = Þ = ç ÷ l
R 2 èç l 2 ø÷ R ¢ è 2ø because in null point position, E = V
Þ R ¢ = 4R or DR = 3R E1 l1 R1
\ = = ..............(1)
\ % change in resistance of wire E 2 l2 R 2
5x x 7x 12
- - =3 - = 3 Þ or x = - R/3
4 2 4 7
12 R/3 R/3
- +8
7 44 11
So current in 4K will be = = = 1.57 A
4 28 7
A R/3 B
62. (b) The equivalent circuit can be redrawn as 3R R
´
R2
R R Rnet between AB = 3 3 = = 4W
3R R 4R
R R +
3 3
A· · B º ·
R R 2R
R R E E
65. (b,c) I = =
R + r ( R - r )2 + 2 R r
R R
5R / 8
º º º I is maximum when R = r
2R / 3
R 5R / 3 P = I 2 R , when I is max, P is also max.
63. (c) At steady state the capacitor will be fully charged and Pmax = I 2max R .
thus there will be no current in the 1W resistance. So 66. (c) By principle of symmetry and superposition,
the effective circuit becomes I R
2´ ´ R 0 = I R eq. Þ R eq. = 0
2W 6 3
I1 I
A B (Current in AB is due to division in current entering
6
I2 3W
I
at A and current is due to current returning from
I 6
infinity of grid).
6V 2.8W 67. (d) Current in arm AE and FB is zero.
So,
Net current from the 6V battery,
A
6 6 3
I= = = = 1.5A
æ 2 ´ 3 ö 2.8 1.2 + 2.8 2
ç ÷+ E
è 2+3ø 1
12 1
Again, i = =
500 + R 50
Þ 500 + R = 600 Þ R = 100 W
75. (a) The temperature of the wire increases to such a value
at which, the heat produced per second equals heat
lost per second due to radiation i.e.
æ rl ö
I 2 çç 2 ÷÷ = H ´ 2 p r l , where H is heat lost per
è pr ø
Their effective resistance R1 = 2R ´ R = 2 R second per unit area due to radiation. Hence, I 2 µ r 3
2R ´ R 3
The resistance of arms AB, BC and CD is I12 r13
so = or r2 = r1 (I 2 / I1 )2 / 3
2 8 I 22 r23
R2 = R + R + R = R
3 3 = 1´ (3.0 / 1.5) 2 / 3 = 41/ 3 mm.
The resistance R1 and R2 are in parallel. The effective
1
resistance between A and D is 76. (d) The energy stored in the capacitor = CV 2 ; This
2
2 8 energy will be converted into heat in the resistor.
R´ R
R1 ´ R 2 3 3 = 8 R. 77. (b) At neutral temperature, dE/dt = 0;
R3 = =
R1 + R 2 2 8 15 so 2164 – 6.2 × 2 × tn = 0
R+ R
3 3 or tn = 174.5ºC.
71. (b) Equivalent resistance between A and B = series At temperature of inversion, E = 0
combination of 1 W and 2 W in parallel with 3 W Þ 2164 ti – 6.2 t i2 = 0 Hence ti = 349ºC.
resistor..
é T 2 TTr TT T 2 ù
78. (a) E = k ê TT0 - - - Tr T0 + r + r ú
ë 2 2 2 2 û
dE é T T ù
Hence = k êT0 - T - r + r ú = k (T0 - T )
dT ë 2 2û
At temp.T = T0 /2,
thermoelectric power = k (T0 – T0 /2) = k T0 /2.
506 PHYSICS
dE R
79. (b) Thermo-electric power S = = a + bT \ Equivalent resistance R ¢ =
dT 3
V 2 30R
T2 \ Power = = = 90 W
80. (c) Given E = 40T – . At neutral temperature, R¢ R / 3
20
H
dE T 88. (d) P= = s (T14 - T2 4 )
= 0 or 40 - = 0 or T = 400o C. t
dT 10
T1 = 727 + 273 = 1000 K, T2 = 227 + 273 = 500 K,
H P t P 500 5 P = 60 watt
81. (a) In parallel, 1 = 1 = 1 = =
H 2 P2 t P2 200 2 In the second case, T1' = 1227 + 273 = 1500 K,
T2 ' = 500 K, P' = ?
H1 I 2 R 1 t R 1 V 2 /P1
In series, = = =
H 2 I 2 R 2 t R 2 V 2 /P2 P¢ (1500)4 - (500) 4 (500)4 [3 4 - 1] 80
= =
P (1000)4 - (500)4 (500)4 [2 4 - 1] Þ 15
P2 200 2
= = = .
80
P1 500 5 Þ P' = 60 ´ = 320 watt.
15
V2 t 89. (d) mCu = ZCuICut
82. (c) H = m L = V 2 t / RJ or m =
JRL mAg = ZAgIAgt
(210) 2 ´ 1 m Cu m Ag
= = 6.56 g / s. I = I Cu + I Ag = +
4.2 ´ 20 ´ 80 Z Cu t Z Ag t
1´1 ém
83. (b) Total internal resistance of two cells = = 0.5 W . m Ag ù
1+1 Pt = Energy = VIt = V ê Cu + ú
Since internal resistance of coil is equal to external ëê Z Cu Z Ag ûú
resistance (= 0.5 W), hence power developed is
maximum by cells in circuit. é 1.8 1 ù
= 12 ê -4
+ -4 ú
2 ë 6.6 ´ 10 11.2 ´ 10 û
Current through R = = 2A
0.5 + 0.5 =12 × 104 [0.362] = 4.34 × 104J.
Power = (2) 2 ´ 0.5 = 2 W. 90. (a) P 1
R = 2 = = 0.04W
I 25
Vg 4 ´10 -4
84. (d) Vg = R g I g = 40´10-5 V ; q = = = 16º C. 91. (c)
V 25 ´10 - 6
92. (b) Resistance of 45 bulbs in series is less than that of 50
85. (d) At the heighest point O bulbs. Since illumination is proportional to the heat
æ V2 t ö
produced çç R ÷÷ , therefore it will be more with 45
E è ø
bulbs.
B A 93. (a) m = ZIt = 0.0000104 × 1 × 600 g
temperature
E= maximum and A shows temperature of inversion 94. (d) Rs = 3R and R P =
R
at which emf changes in sign. 3
86. (c) Neutral temperature,
q + q 0 530 + 10 V2
qn = i = = 270º C. PS = = 10W and
2 2 3R
87. (d) In series, Equivalent resistance = 3R PP = V2 /(R / 3) = 3V2/R = 9PS = 90 W.
95. (a) PP = P1 + P2 and PS = P1 P2 / (P1 + P2)
V2 V2
Power = Þ 10 = Þ V2 = 30R Heat produced = Pt.
3R 3R
Q P Pp 2000 W
In parallel,
1 1 1 1
= + + =
3 Hence, = = = 4.
R¢ R R R R QS PS 500 W
Current Electricity 507
96. (b) Let I1 be the current throug 5 W resistance, I2 through 103. (a)
(6 + 9) W resistance. Then as per question, 104. (d) A balanced Wheatstone’s bridge exists between
A & B. Req = R
I12 ´ 5 = 20 or, I1 = 2A.
current through circuit is V/R
Potential difference across C and D = 2 × 5 = 10V current through AFCEB = V/2R
10 2 105. (a) Efficiency is given by
Current I 2 = = A.
6+9 3 output Power 5 ´ 15 ´ 14
h= = = 8.75 or 87.5 %
Heat produced per second in 2 W input Power 10 ´ 8 ´ 15
2
æ8ö 1 1 1 1 1 3
= I2 R ç ÷ ´ 2 = 14.2cal / s. 106. (a) = + + or = Þ Peq = 20 watt.
è 3ø Peq P1 P2 P3 Peq 60
97. (d) Power of heating coil = 100 W and voltage
(V) = 220 volts. When the heating coil is cut into two V2 V 2 (220) 2 4(110) 2
107. (d) P= ÞR = = = ;
equal parts and these parts are joined in parallel, then R P 60 60
the resistance of the coil is reduced to one-fourth of (110) 2 R
the previous value. Therefore energy liberated per R¢ = =
60 4
second becomes 4 times i.e., 4 × 100 = 400 J.
108. (d) It is balanced Wheatstone bridge. Hence bridge 4W
98. (a) Hint : The wheatstone bridge is balanced, when can be eliminated.
3 4 V 5V
P/Q = R/S, In the this case= , so bridge is balanced 6 ´ 9 18
6 8 \ R eq = = \ I = R = 18
6+9 5 eq
& 7W resistance is not effective)
P 100 ´103 105
V - VB i ´ r 0.1 ´ 10-7 109. (c) I = = A= A
99. (a) Potential gradient = A = = V 125 60
l A 10-6
E.C.E. = 0.367 × 10–6 kg C –1
-2 Charge per minute
= 10 V/m
100. (a) As for an electric appliance R = (Vs2 /P) , so for same 105 ´ 60 6 ´106
= (I × 60) C = C= C
specified voltage Vs , 125 125
R 25 100 6 ´ 106
= = 4 i.e, R = 4R with R
25 100 = R \ Mass liberated = ´ 0.367 ´10-6
R100 25 125
Now, in series potential divides in proportion to
resistance. 6 ´ 1000 ´ 0.367 ´10-3
=
125
R1 4
So, V1 = V i.e., V25 = 5 ´ 440 = 352V = 17.616 × 10–3 kg
(R1 + R 2 ) 110. (d) Current from D to C = 1A
\ VD – VC = 2 × 1 = 2V
R2 1
and, V2 = V i.e., V100 = ´ 440 = 88V VA = 0 \ VC = 1V, \ VD – VC = 2
(R 1 + R 2 ) 5
Þ VD – 1 = 2 \ VD = 3V
From this it is clear that voltage across 100 W bulb \ VD – VB = 2 \ 3 – VB = 2 \ VB = 1V
(= 88 V) is lesser than specified (220 V) while across 25 111. (c) The power dissipated in the circuit.
W bulb (=352 V) is greater than specified (220 V), so
25 W bulb will fuse. V2
P= ...(i)
10 ´ 40 400 Req
101. (b) Time = = = 8 min
10 + 40 50 v = 10 volt
1 1 1 1 5+ R
102. (a) Power µ = + =
Resistance Req R 5 5R
In series combination, Resistance doubles
Hence, Power will be halved. æ 5R ö
Req = çè ÷
In parallel combination, resistance halved 5 + Rø
Hence, power will be double. P = 30 W
508 PHYSICS
Substituting the values in equation (i) Since deflection in galvanometer is zero so current
will flow as shown in the above diagram.
(10) 2
30 = VA 12 12
æ 5R ö current I = = =
çè ÷ R1 + R 500 + 100 600
5 + Rø
15 R 12
= 10 Þ 15R = 50 + 10R So VB = IR = ´ 100 = 2V
5+ R 600
5R = 50 Þ R = 10 W 115. (c) Resistance of bulb is constant
112. (c) The current through the resistance R
V2 Dp 2DV DR
æ e ö P= Þ = +
I =ç R p V R
è R + r ÷ø
The potential difference across R Dp
= 2 × 2.5 + 0 = 5%
p
æ e ö
V = IR = ç R
è R + r ÷ø
rl
116. (c) Resistance R =
I e r A
Q l¢ = 2 l
A
\ A¢ =
2
R 2l
\ R¢ r A = 4R = 4 × 4 W = 16 W
2
e e
V= V Therefore the resistance of new wire becomes 16 W
æ rö 117. (a) Given : V = 7 V
çè1 + ÷ø P Q
R r = 5W
0
R
when R = 0, V = 0, 40 ´ 120
R = ¥, v = e Req = W 5W
40 + 120
Thus V increases as R increases upto certain limit, but
it does not increase further. 7V
V 7
113. (a) Galvanometer is converted into ammeter, by connected I= =
R 40 ´ 120
a shunt, in parallel with it. 5+
40 + 120
G
I 7 1
= = = 0.2 A.
5 + 30 5
118. (c) In the case of a short-circuited battery, the current
9. (a) Given : V = 7 V 14. (c) As 0.2% of main current passes through the
r = 5W
998
P Q galvanometer hence I current through the
1000
shunt.
998I
1000 S
5W
7V
40 ´ 120 G
Req = W I 2I
40 + 120 1000
V 7
I= = æ 2I ö æ 998I ö G
R 5+
40 ´ 120 ç ÷G = ç ÷S Þ S =
è 1000 ø è 1000 ø 499
40 + 120
Total resistance of Ammeter
7 1
= = = 0.2 A. æ G ö
5 + 30 5 ç ÷G
10. (c) Resistance is directly proportional to length SG è 499 ø G
R= = =
S+G æ G ö 500
1 1
= +
1 (4 + 5) + 3 ç ÷+G
= è 499 ø
R AB 3 4 + 5 (3)(4 + 5)
15. (b) Total resistance R = (0.5 W/km) × (150 km)
3 ´ (4 + 5) 27 = 75 W
RAB = =
3 + (4 + 5) 12 Total voltage drop = (8 V/km) × (150 km)
Similarly, = 1200 V
4 ´ (3 + 5) 32 (DV)2 (1200) 2
RBC = = Power loss = = W
4 + (3 + 5) 12 R 75
= 19200 W = 19.2 kW
5 ´ (3 + 4) 35 16. (b) This is a balanced wheatstone bridge condition,
RAC = =
5 + (3 + 4) 12
5 l1 5 1.6l1
\ RAB : RBC : RAC = 27 : 32 : 35 = and =
R 100 - l1 R / 2 100 - 1.6l1
11. (a) Copper rod and iron rod are joined in series.
Þ R = 15 W
l æ lö 17. (a) Here, metallic conductor can be considered as the
\ R = RCu + RFe = (r1 + r2) çèQ R = r ÷ø
A A combination of various conductors connected in
From ohm’s law V = RI series. And in series combination current remains
= (1.7 × 10–6 × 10–2 + 10–5 × 10–2) ¸ 0.01 × 10–4 volt same.
= 0.117 volt (Q I = 1A)
12. (b) Resistance is directly proportionl to length of the wire.
As length is doubled so mass is doubled and i
resistance is doubled.
We have
V
(10E )2 (nE )2 t 18. (d) Total potential difference across potentiometer wire
= t mS DT , Now= (2m)S DT
R 2R = 10–3 × 400 volt = 0.4 volt
1mv
n2 E 2t 102 E 2t potential gradient =
Þ =2 cm
2R R v
Þ n = 20 = 10–3 v/cm = 10–1 m
13. (c) Internal resistance of the cell,
Let resistance of RW connected in series.
æ E-Vö æ l1 - l 2 ö
r= ç ÷R = ç ÷R 2V
è V ø è l2 ø
i
æ 3 - 2.85 ö +0.4V
=ç ÷ ´ (9.5) W = 0.5 W
è 2.85 ø RW 8W
Current Electricity 511
2 10 –1 ´ 4 1 V
So, = = 22. (a) EMF, E = Kl where K = potential gradient
R +8 8 20 L
Þ R + 8 = 40 or, R = 32 W
V iR æ E 0 r ö l
19. (d) Effective resistance of B and K= = =ç
L L è r + r1 ÷ø L
R B × R C 1.5R ´ 3R 4.5R 2
= = = =R
R B + R C 1.5R + 3R 4.5R E 0 rl
So, E = Kl =
i.e., equal to resistance of voltmeter A. (r + r1 )L
1.5R 23. (a) Given: Charge Q = at – bt2
A B ¶Q a
\ Current i= = a – 2bt {for i = 0 Þ t= }
¶t 2b
R C From joule's law of heating, heat produced
3R dH = i2Rdt
In parallel potential difference is same so, a /2b
VB = VC and in series current is same
So, VA = VB = VC
H= ò ( a - 2bt )2 Rdt
0
20. (d) From circuit diagram
a
20W
( )3 2b a 3R
H = a - 2bt R =
-3 ´ 2b 0 6b
A 24. (d) When two cells are connected in series i.e., E 1 + E2
480W the balance point is at 50 cm. And when two cells are
40.8W connected in opposite direction i.e., E1 – E2 the balance
point is at 10 cm. According to principle of potential
E1 + E 2 50
=
E = 30V E1 - E 2 10
480 ´ 20 2E1 50 + 10 E1 3
Resistance of ammeter = = 19.2W. = =
480 + 20 Þ Þ
2E 2 50 - 10 E2 2
Total resistance R = 40.8 + 19.2 = 60W
25. (b) Reading of potentiometer is accurate because during
V
Reading in the ammeter i = taking reading it does not draw any current from the
R
circuit.
30
= = 0.5A rl
40.8 + 19.2 26. (b) We know that, R =
21. (d) In figure, two metal wires of identical dimension are A
connected in series
rl 2
or R = Þ R µ l2
A s2 Volume
s1
According to question l2 = nl1
l l 2 2
R2 n l1
l l leq = 2
Req = + = R1 l1
s1A s2 A seq Aeq
R2
= n2
2l l æ s1 + s2 ö or,
R1
= ç ÷
seq A A è s1s 2 ø
Þ R2 = n2R1
2s1s2
\ seq = s + s
1 2
512 PHYSICS
Moving Charges
19 and Magnetism
OERSTED EXPERIMENT Comparison between electric field and magnetic field
In 1802 Gian Domenico Romagnosi, an Italian lawyer and judge, Electric field Magnetic field
found that a steady electric current flowing in wire affected a 1. Source is an electric 1. Source is a current element
uur
magnetic needle placed near it. He published his observation in a charge (q). ( Idl ) .
local newspaper (called Gazetta di Trentino). But nobody noticed 2. Isolated charge exists 2. Isolated poles do not exist.
this phenomenon. 3. Electric field at a point 3. Magnetic field at a point due to
due to a point charge is a current element is perpendicular
In 1820 Hans Christian Oersted (a Danish Physicist) rediscovered in the plane containing to the plane containing the point
this phenomenon. He noted that a magnetic compass needle, the point and the charge. and the current element.
brought close to a straight wire carrying a steady electric current, 4. It obeys inverse square 4. It also obeys inverse square law
law (a long range force). (a long range force).
aligned
r itself perpendicular to the wire i.e., the direction of magnetic 5. It obeys principle of 5. It also obeys principle of
field B is tangential to a circle which has the wire as centre, and superposition as the field superposition.
which has its plane perpendicular to the wire (Fig 1-a). Oersted is linear related to charge.
also noticed that on reversing the direction of current; the direction 6. Angle dependence is not 6. Angle dependence is present.
present.
of magnetic field is reversed. 7. Line of electric lines of force 7. Lines of magnetic lines of
do not form closed loops. force form closed loops.
8. Electric field changes 8. Magnetic field does not
kinetic energy of a charged change kinetic energy of a
i particle. charged particle.
9. A charged particle whether 9. A charged particle at rest
B at rest or in motion in an do not experience force
electric field experiences due to magnetic field.
B a force due to electric field.
i
Elucidation
Magnetic field in the case of infinitely long wire
Magnetic field Magnetic field
going into the page coming out of the page. p/2
m0I
Magnetic Field due to Various Current Carrying
dB = ò 4pa
cos qdq I
-p / 2
Conductors
Magnetic field due to finite sized conductor : r m I( - kˆ) a
ÞB= 0
2 pa
^ Magnetic field near the end of a long conductor :
j
I
q1 ^
a i
O q2 P m0I
B = I
(at P) 4pa
^
k a
P
r m I Elucidation
B(at P) = 0 (sin q1 + sin q 2 ) ( - k)
ˆ
r = a cosec q, l = a cot q, A
2 pa 2
dl = a cosec q dq
ur q
m 0 2I
ÞB= (sin q1 + sin q 2 ) r m 0 dl ´ r r
4p a dB = 3
I
4pr
Elucidation l 90°
m Ia cosec 2 qdqˆj ˆj)
ur m I r r = 0 3 ´ (aj – a cot q P
4pr
( )
dB = 0 3 d l ´ r r = a sec q, l = a tanq 4pa cosec2 q
uur
O a
m I cos ec q ˆ Þ dB = m 0 I sin qdq ( -k) ˆ
r = 0 dq( -k)
Þ dl = a sec2 q dq Þ d l = a sec2 qdqˆj 4pa cos ec q 3
4pa
ur uur m 0 I
r = -a tan qˆj + aiˆ B = ˆ = æ m 0 I - 0ö ( - k)
[ - cos q]pp /2 (- k) ˆ
çè ÷ø
4 pa 4 pa
ur m Ia sec 2 qdq m0I
Þ dB = 0 3 3 ˆj ´ ( -a tan qˆj + ai)
ˆ ÞB = (- k̂ )
4pa sec q 4pa
Magnetic field due to a current carrying coil :
m 0 I sec 2 qdq m 0 I cos qdq (i) Magnetic field at a point on the axis of symmetry of a
= (-k̂) = (-k̂)
4pa sec q 3 4pa circular coil, at a distance “x” from its centre :
q2 q2 B = m0NI a2/2(a2 + x2)3/2
m 0I m I
\B = ò 4 pa
cos qdq = 0
4pa ò cos qdq or, B =
mo 2pNIa2 a
- q1 ( - q1 ) 4p (a2 + x2 )3/ 2 I
x
m0I N = total number of turns
ÞB= [sin q 2 + sin q1 ] (Pointing into the plane of paper)
4 pa a = coil radius
Magnetic field near the end of a finite sized conductor : r
The direction of B is given by Right hand screw rule.
Right hand screw rule : If direction of rotation of right handed
ur screw-head is the directon of current in a circular conductor then
mI
B = 0 sin q I the direction of its advance is the direction of magnetic field. This
(at P) 4pa
is applicable even if the current, magnetic field are interchanged, as
a q
in case of current flowing through a straight conductor.
P
514 PHYSICS
r r
r = - a + xiˆ = xiˆ - a sin qˆj + a cos qkˆ n is the number of turns per unit length of solenoid.
Also we have l = rq Þ dl = rdq . (v) Magnetic field in the endless solenoid (toroid) is same
throughout and is m0nI.
Now d l ^ a at any instant
(vi) Magnetic field outside a solenoid or toroid is zero.
uur m0I ur r
\ d l = dl(sin qk̂ + cos qˆj) , dB =
4pr3
dl ´ r ( ) AMPERE’S CIRCUITAL LAW
uur m Irdq The line integral of magnetic field across a closed loop is equal to
Þ dB = 0 3 (sin qkˆ + cos qˆj) ´ (xiˆ - a sin qˆj + a cos qk) ˆ 40 times the net correct inside the loop
4pr uur uur
=
m 0 Irdq
(x sin qˆj + a sin 2 qˆi + x cos qkˆ + a cos 2 qˆi)
i.e., Ñò B .dl = m0 I
2 2 3/2
4p(x + a ) where I is the net current inside the loop.
m 0 Irdq (1) The direction of the magnetic field at a point on one side of
= [x(sin qˆj + cos qk)ˆ + ai]ˆ
4p(x 2 + a 2 )3/2 a conductor of any shape is equal in magnitude but opposite
uur uur in direction of the field at an equidistant point on the other
Þ B = ò dB
side of the conductor.
m 0 Ia 2p (2) If the magnetic field at a point due to a conductor of any
= 2 2 3/2
[x | - cos qˆj + sin qkˆ |0 +a(2p - 0)i]
ˆ
4p(x + a ) shape is Bo if it is placed in vacuum then the magnetic field
uur ˆ
m I2pa(i) at the same point in a medium of relative permeability mr is
0
B = given by B = mr Bo .
4p(x 2 + a 2 )3/2
If number of turns of coil are N, then (3) If the distance between the point and an infinitely long
conductor is decreased (or increased) by K-times then the
r m0 I2pNa (i) ˆ ˆ
m 0 INa(i)
|B|= = magnetic field at the point increases (or decreases) by K-
2 2 3/2 2 2 3/2
4p(x + a ) 2(x + a ) times.
m 2pNIa (4) The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius
Þ B= 0 2
4p (x + a 2 )3/2 smaller than other similar coil with greater radius is more
than that of the latter.
m0 2pNI
(ii) At the centre of a circular coil, B = m0NI / 2a = (5) For two circular coils of radii R1 and R2 having same current
4p a
and same number of turns, we have
(iii) Magnetic field at the centre of a circular arc carrying
current B1 R2
= , where B1 and B2 are the magnetic fields at their
B2 R1
ur m I q m Iq q centres.
B = 0 ´ (- kˆ) Þ B = 0
( at P ) 2a 360 4p a P (6) The magnetic field at a point outside a thick straight wire
a
carrying current is inversely proportional to the distance
where q is in radian. r but magnetic field at a point inside the wire is directly
In this case the direction of magnetic field B is into the proportional to the distance.
page.
Moving Charges and Magnetism 515
Keep in Memory m 0 2 Ix
B inside = for x < R
4p R 2
1. If in a coil the current is clockwise, it acts as a South-pole. If R
m 0 2I
the current is anticlockwise, it acts as North-pole. B surface = for x = R
4p R
x P
m 0 2I
B outside = for x > R
4p x
ur
4. Graph of magnetic field B versus x
2. No magnetic field occurs at point P, Q and R due to a thin
current element Idl . B
Idl
R P Q
x
3. Magnetic field intensity in a thick current carrying conductor
at any point x is 5. Magnetic field is zero at all points inside a current carrying
hollow conductor.
Magnitude and direction of magnetic field due to different configuration of current carrying conductor.
I O I
516 PHYSICS
5. Straight wire & semi-circular loop At the centre. m 0 pI Normal to the plane of paper,
B= inwards.
4p a
a
I O I
6. Circular loop At the centre of loop. m 0 é 2pI 2I ù Normal to the plane of
B= - ú
I 4p êë a aû paper, inwards.
O
a
I I
7. Two concentric circular arcs At the common centre. m0 é1 1ù Normal to the plane of paper,
B= Iq -
4p êë a b úû outwards.
b
a
q
O
8. Semi-circular area and straight At the centre of the semi- m 0 pI m 0 I Normal to the plane of paper,
B= +
conductors circle. 4p r 4p r outwards.
r
I O
I
9. Two concentric coils mutually At the common centre. According to law of vectors
B = B12 + B 22
normal to each other. addition.
B1 where
I2 m 2p n1I
B B1 = 0
4p a
a B2 m 0 2p n 2 I
O B2 =
4p b
n1 I1
b
Solution : Solution :
The magnetic field on the axis of a current i carrying coil of Magnetic induction at O due to coil Y is given by
turns n, radius r and at a distance h from the centre of the
m0 2p I ( 2 r ) 2
coil BY = ´ ...(1)
4p [(2r ) 2 + (d) 2 ]3 / 2
m 2pnir 2
B= 0 ´ .....(1) Similarly, the magnetic induction at O due to coil X is given
4p ( r 2 + h 2 ) 3 / 2 by
The field at the centre is given by
m0 2p I ( r ) 2
m 2pi ´ n BX = ´ ...(2)
B centre = 0 ´ ....(2) (Q at centre h = 0) 4p [(r) 2 + (d / 2) 2 ]3 / 2
4p r
BY 1
B r3 From eqs. (1) and (2), =
= 2 BX 2
B centre (r + h 2 ) 3/ 2
Example 4.
r3 1 A cell is connected between two points of a uniformly thick
= 3/2 = circular conductor. i1 and i2 are the currents flowing in
é h2 ù æ 3 h2 ö
r 3 ê1 + 2 ú ç1 + ÷ two parts of the circular conductor of radius a. What will
r û ç 2 r2 ÷
ë è ø be the magnetic field at the centre of the loop?
æ 3 Solution :
h 2 ö÷
or B ç1 + = Bcentre Let l1, l2 be the lengths of the two parts PRQ and PSQ of the
ç 2 r 2 ÷ø
è conductor and r be the resistance per unit length of the
conductor. The resistance of the portion PRQ will be R1 = l1r
3 h2
\ (B centre - B) / B =
2 r2 i2
Example 2.
S O Q
In fig., there are two semi-circles of radii r1 and r2 in which
a current i is flowing. Find the magnetic induction at i1
P
centre O. R
r1 i
The resistance of the portion PSQ will be R2 = l2r
O Pot. diff. across P and Q = i1R1 = i2R2
r2
Solution : or i1l1r = i2l2r or i1l1 = i2l2 …… (i)
Magnetic field induction at the centre O due to currents
m0 p i m 0 p i
B = B1 + B2 = ´ + ´ through circular conductors PRQ and PSQ will be
4p r1 4p r2
m0 i1l1 sin 90º m 0 i 2 l 2 sin 90º
B1 – B2 = - =0
m 0 i é 1 1 ù m 0 i é r1 + r2 ù 4p r2 4p r2
= 4 êr + r ú = 4 ê r r ú
ë 1 2û ë 12 û Example 5.
Example 3. A current passing through a circular coil of two turns
Two circular coils X and Y having equal number of turns and produces magnetic field B at its centre. The coil is then
carry equal currents in the same sense and subtend same rewound so as to have four turns and the same current is
solid angle at point O. If the smaller coil X is midway between passed through it.The magnetic field at its centre now is
O and Y, then if we represent the magnetic induction due to B B
(a) 2 B (b) (c) (d) 4 B
bigger coil Y at O as BY and due to smaller coil X at O as BX 2 4
Solution : (d)
BY
then find . m 0 2 pnI n
BX B= i.e. B µ ;
4p r r
d
Given, L = 2pr1 × 2 = 2pr2 ×4 ; r1/r2 = 4/2 = 2
d/2
2r B2 n 2 r1 4
r = ´ = ´2 = 4 or B2 = 4B1 = 4B.
B1 n1 r2 2
O
Y X
Example 6.
Compute the flux density in air at a point of 9 cm from the
long straight wire carrying a current of 6A.
518 PHYSICS
Keep in Memory T1
Torsional
head
1. No force acts on a charged particle if it enters a magnetic Phosphor
field in a direction parallel or antiparallel to the field. bronze wire
2. A finite force acts on a charged particle if it enters a uniform M Mirror
magnetic field in a direction with finite angle with the field. Soft iron core
3. If two charged particles of masses m1and m2 and charges P Q
q1 and q2 are projected in a uniform magnetic field with
same constant velocity in a direction perpendicular to the L N S
N S
field then the ratio of their radii (R1: R2) is given by S R
R1 m1 q 2
= ´ Spring Showing radial
R 2 m 2 q1 field
4. The force on a conductor carrying current in a magnetic T2
field is directly proportional to the current, the length of It essentially consists of a rectangular coil PQRS or a cylindrical
conductor and the magnetic field. coil of large number of turns of fine insulated wire wound over a
5. If the distance between the two parallel conductors is non-conducting frame of ivory or bamboo. This coil is suspended
decreased (or increased) by k-times then the force between by means of phosphor bronze wire between the pole pieces of a
them increases (or decreases) k-times.
powerful horse shoe magnet NS. The poles of the magnet are
6. The momentum of the charged particle moving along the
curved to make the field radial. The lower end of the coil, is attached
direction of magnetic field does not change, since the force
to a spring of phosphor-bronze wire. The spring and the free ends
acting on it due to magnetic field is zero.
of phosphor bronze wire are joined to two terminals T 2 and T1
7. Lorentz force between two charges q1 and q2 moving with
velocity v1, v2 separated by distance r is given by: respectively on the top of the case of the instrument. L is a soft
iron core. A small mirror M is attached on the suspension wire.
m (q v ) (q v )
Fm = 0 . 1 1 2 2 2 Using lamp and scale arrangement, the deflection of the coil can
4p r
8. If the charges move, the electric as well as magnetic fields be recorded. The whole arrangement is enclosed in a non-metallic
are produced. In case the charges move with speeds case.
comparable to the speed of light, magnetic and electric force Theory : Let the coil be suspended freely in the magnetic field.
between them would become comparable. Suppose, n = number of turns in the coil
9. A current carrying coil is in stable equilibrium if the magnetic A = area of the coil
r r B = magnetic field induction of radial magnetic field in which
dipole moment M , is parallel to B and is in unstable the coil is suspended.
r r
equilibrium when M is antiparallel to B . Here, the magnetic field is radial, i.e., the plane of the coil always
10. Magnetic moment is independent of the shape of the loop. remains parallel to the direction of magnetic field, and hence the
It depends on the area of the loop. torque acting on the coil
11. A straight conductor and a conductor of any shape in the t = niAB … (1)
same plane and between the same two end points carrying Due to this torque, the coil rotates. As a result, the suspension
equal current in the same direction, when placed in the same wire gets twisted. Now a restoring torque is developed in the
magnetic field experience the same force. suspension wire. The coil will rotate till the deflecting torque acting
12. There is net repulsion between two similar charges moving on the coil due to flow of current through it is balanced by the
parallel to each other inspite of attractive magnetic force restoring torque developed in the suspension wire due to twisting.
between them. This is because of electric force of repulsion Let C be the restoring couple for unit twist in the suspension wire
which is much more stronger than the magnetic force. and q be the angle through which the coil has turned. The couple
13. The speed of the charged particle can only be changed by for this twist q is Cq.
an electric force. In equilibrium, deflecting couple = restoring couple
\ ni AB = Cq or i = Cq/ (nAB)
MOVING COIL GALVANOMETER
or i = Kq (where C/nAB = K) … (2)
The moving coil galvanometer was first devised by Kelvin and K is a constant for galvanometer and is known as
later on modified by D’Arsonaval. This is used for detection and galvanometer constant.
measurement of small electric current. Hence i µ q
The principle of a moving coil galvanometer is based on the fact
Therefore, the deflection produced in the galvanometer is directly
that when a current carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field, it
proportional to the current flowing through it.
experiences a torque. Current sensitivity of the galvanometer : The current sensitivity
Construction: A moving coil ballistic galvanometer is shown in of a galvanometer is defined as the deflection produced in the
figure. galvanometer when a unit current is passed through it.
Moving Charges and Magnetism 521
19.1
We know that, niAB = Cq Explanation : Let us consider a conductor carrying current in +X
q nAB direction. The magnetic field is applied along +Y direction.
\ Current sensitivity, is = = Consider two points P1 and P2 on the conductor and connect a
i C
where C = restoring couple per unit twist voltmeter between these points. If no magnetic field is applied
The SI unit of current sensitivity is radian per ampere or deflection across the conductor, then the points P1 and P2 will be at same
per ampere. potential and there will be no deflection in the galvanometer.
Voltage sensitivity of the galvanometer : The voltage sensitivity However, if a magnetic field is applied as shown in the figure,
of the galvanometer is defined as the deflection produced in the then the Lorentz force acts on electrons as shown in the figure.
galvanometer when a unit voltage is applied across the terminals
® ®
of the galvanometer. The Lorentz force on electrons Fm = –e (vd ´ B) acts in the
q
\ Voltage sensitivity, Vs = downwards direction.
V Now there may be two cases:
If R be the resistance of the galvanometer and a current is passed
Case I : If the charge particles are negatively charged, then
through it, then
these negative charges will accumulate at the point P2 and
V = iR
therefore P2 will be at lower potential than P1.
q nAB
\ Voltage sensitivity, Vs = i R = CR Case II : If the charged particles are positively charged, then the
point P2 will be at higher potential than P1.
The SI. unit of voltage sensitivity is radian per ampere or deflection
Magnitude of hall voltage :
per ampere.
Conditions for sensitivity : A galvanometer is said to be more Let w be width and A be the cross-sectional area of the conductor.
sensitive if it shows a large deflection even for a small value of If e is magnitude of charge or the current carrier (electron or
current. hole).
The force on the current carrier due to magnetic field B,
nAB
We know that, q= i Fm = Bevd
C
Here, vd is drift velocity of the current carries.
For a given value of i, q will be large if (i) n is large, (ii) A is large,
Due to the force Fm, the opposite charges build up at the points
(iii) B is large, and (iv) C is small.
P1 and P2 of the conductor.
Regarding above factors, n and A cannot be increased beyond a
certain limit. By increasing n, the resistance of the galvanometer If VH is Hall voltage developed across the two faces, then the
will increase and by increasing A, the size of the galvanometer will strength of electric field due to Hall voltage is given by
increase. So, the sensitivity will decrease. Therefore, B is increased. VH
The value of B can be increased by using strong horse shoe EH = .
w
magnet. Further, the value of C can be decreased. The value of C
for quartz and phosphor-bronze is very small. So, the suspension Here w = P1P2.
wire of quartz or phosphor-bronze is used. The value of C is further This electric field exerts an electric force on the current carries in
decreased if the wire is hammered into a flat strip. a direction opposite to that of magnetic force. The magnitude of
HALL EFFECT VH
When a current passes through a slab of material in the presence this force is Fe = E H e = e
w
of a transverse magnetic field, a small potential difference is
In equilibrium condition, Fe = Fm,
established in a direction perpendicular to both, the current
flow and the magnetic field. This effect is called Hall effect VH
The voltage thus developed is called Hall voltage. or e = B e vd, or VH = B vd w
w
Z j
P1 V Now, drift velocity of current carrier is given by, vd =
ne
Keep in Memory B
1. Hall effect can determine nature of current (charge) carriers in Q R
the material. i.e. whether the charge is +ve or –ve.
I2 = 15A
I1 = 15A
I1 = 25A
bBI
2. Hall voltage VH =
neA
where n is the density of charge carriers r1
Z P S
r2
A
PS = 10 cm = 10 × 10–2 m
I Distance of PQ from AB,
b I O Y r1 = 2.0 cm = 2.0 × 10–2 m
VH
Distance of RS from AB,
r2 = 2.0 + 10 = 12.0 cm = 12.0 × 10–2 m
X B
Current through long wire AB, I1 = 25 A
b = thickness of plate, B = magnetic field, I = current flowing Current through rectangular loop, I2 = 15 A
through plate, A = area of cross-section of plates
m 0 2 I1 I 2
Example 12. \ Force on the arm PQ, F1 = ´ length PQ
4p r1
Two particles X and Y having equal charges, after being
accelerated throught the same potential difference, enter
10 -1 ´ 2 ´ 25 ´15 ´ 25 ´10 -2
a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular F1 =
paths of radii R1 and R2 respectively. Find the ratio of 2.0 ´ 10 -2
mass of X to that of Y. = 9.375 × 10–4 (towards AB)
Solution : Force on the arm RS,
1 m 2I I
mv 2 = qV F2 = 0 1 2 ´ length RS
2 4 p r2
Solution : Solution :
B = 0.02 T, N = 10 turns n = 10 × 1029 m–3, A = 2.0 mm2 = 2 × 10–6 m2
I = 5.0A, B = 0.15 T, F = ?.
A = 1 × b= 0.1 × 0.05 = 0.005 m2
I
I = 5A I = nevA or v =
nev
Torque = BINA = 0.02 × 5 × 10 × 0.005
Be ´ I BI 0.15 ´ 5
= 0.005 Nm = 5 × 10–3Nm F = Bev = = =
neA nA 1.0 ´ 10 29 ´ 2 ´ 10 -6
New value of the torque when the plane of the vertical coil –24
= 3.75×10 N
was at 60° to the magnetic field. Example 18.
= BINA cos q = 5 × 10–3 cos 60° If the coil of a moving coil galvanometer having 10 turns
and of resistance 4W is removed and is replaced by a second
1 coil having 100 turns and of resistance 160W. Calculate
= 5× 10–3 × = 2.5 × 10–3 Nm.
2 (a) the factor by which the current sensitivity changes and
Example 16. (b) the factor by which the voltage sensitivity changes.
A rectangular coil of 50 turns hungs vertically in a uniform Solution :
magnetic field of magnitude 10–2 T, so that the plane of the Given : N1 = 10 turns, R = 4W
coil is parallel to the field, the mean height of the coil is N2 = 100 turns, R2 = 160W
5cm and its mean width is 2cm. Calculate the strength of æ q ö N AB
the current the must pass through the coil in order to (a) Current sensitivity with the Ist coil, ç ÷ = 1
è I ø1 C
deflect it 30° if the torsional constant of the suspension is
10–9 Nm per degree. æ qö N AB
Current sensitivity with the 2nd coil ç ÷ = 2
Solution : è Iø2 C
N = 50 turns, B = 10–2T, π = 30° æ qö
C = 10–9 Nm per degree, çè ÷ø
I 2 N 2 100
A = 5 × 2 cm2 = 10 × 10–4 m2 = 10–3 m2 \ = = = 10
æ qö N1 10
Torque = BINA cos q = Cq çè ÷ø
I 1
Cq 10 -9 ´ 30 æ q ö N AB
\ I= = -2 = 6.9 × 10 -5 (b) Voltage sensitivity with the Ist coil ç ÷ = 1
BNA cos q 10 ´ 50 ´ 10 -3 cos 30o è V ø 1 CR1
A = 69mA æ qö N AB
Voltage sensitivity with the 2nd coil ç ÷ = 2
Example 17. è Vø 2 CR 2
A copper wire has 1.0 × 1029 free electrons per cubic metre,
æ qö
a cross sectional area of 2.0 mm2 and carries a current of çè ÷ø
v 2 N 2 R1 100 4 1
5.0A. Calculate the force acting on each electron if the \ = = ´ =
wire is now placed in a magnetic field of flux density 0.15 æ qö N1 R 2 10 160 4
çè ÷ø
T which is perpendicular to the wire (e=1.6 × 1019C) v 1
524
CONCEPT MAP
Galvanometer to ammeter Magnetic field due to Direction of magnetic field-Depends Magnetic field due to
conversion : Low resistance a straight current carrying upon the direction of current. Right a solenoid. Inside a long
or shunt connected in parallel conductor of infinite lenght hand thumb rule-Thumb points in the solenoid B = µnI
0
æ Ig ö m I direction of current, curling of fingers At a point on one end
S =ç ÷G B= 0 represents direction of magnetic field . m nI
ç I – Ig ÷ 2pR B= 0
è ø
2
Motion of a charged
particle in a uniform Force acting on a
magnetic field follows charged particle
On the axis of At the centre
a circular path, radius moving in a uniform
circular loop of circular loop
magnetic field
m 0 NIa 2 mNI MV sin q
B= B= r= F = qVB sin q= q(V × B)
2(r 2 + a 2 )3/2 2R Bq
1. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic 9. In cyclotron the gyro radius is
field. The coil will orient so that its plane becomes (a) proportional to momentum
(a) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field (b) proportional to energy
(b) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the magnetic field
(c) inversely proportional to momentum
(c) parallel to the magnetic field
(d) inversely proportional to energy
(d) perpendicular to the magnetic field
10. The current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer
2. An electron enters a region where magnetic field (B) and
depends on
electric field (E) are mutually perpendicular, then
(a) it will always move in the direction of B (a) the number of turns in the coil
(b) it will always move in the direction of E (b) moment of inertia of the coil
(c) it always possesses circular motion (c) current sent through galvanometer
(d) it can go undeflected also (d) eddy current in Al frame
3. A current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field 11. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A & number of turns N,
experiences maximum force when angle between current and then magnetic moment of the coil is M is equal to
magnetic field is
(a) NiA (b) Ni/A (c) Ni / A (d) N2Ai
(a) 3 p/4 (b) p/2 (c) p/4 (d) zero –2
12. 1 Wbm is equal to
4. Two concentric circular coils of ten turns each are situated
in the same plane. Their radii are 20 and 40 cm and they carry (a) 104 G (b) 102 G (c) 10– 2 G (d) 10–4 G
respectively 0.2 and 0.4 ampere current in opposite direction. 13. The radius of motion of a charged particle oscillating in a
The magnetic field in weber/m2 at the centre is magnetic field is
(a) m0/80 (b) 7m0/80 (c) (5/4) m0 (d) zero mB mv
5. A wire of length L metre carrying a current I ampere is bent (a) (b)
qv qB
in the form of a circle. Its magnitude of magnetic moment
will be mq qv
(c ) (d)
(a) IL/4p (b) I2L2/4p (c) IL2/4p (d) IL2/8p vB mB
6. Two straight long conductors AOB and COD are 14. Magnetic effect of current was discovered by
perpendicular to each other and carry currents I1 and I2. (a) Faraday (b) Oersted
The magnitude of the magnetic induction at a point P at a (c) Kirchhoff (d) Joule
distance a from the point O in a direction perpendicular to 15. In cyclotron the charged particle may be accelerated upto
the plane ABCD is energies
m0 m0 (a) Several eV (b) MeV
(a) ( I1 + I 2 ) (b) (I1 - I 2 )
2pa 2pa (c) BeV (d) Kev
1 16. In cyclotron the resonance condition is
m0 2 2 2 m 0 I1 I 2
(c) (I1 + I 2 ) (d) (a) the frequency of revolution of charged particle is
2pa 2 p a I1 + I 2 equal to the frequency of A.C. voltage sources
7. A proton, deutron and an a-particle enter a magnetic field (b) the frequency of revolution of charged particle is
perpendicular to field with same velocity. What is the ratio of equal to the frequency of applied magnetic field
the radii of circular paths? (c) the frequency of revolution of charged particle is
(a) 1 : 2 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 : 1 equal to the frequency of rotation of earth
(c) 1 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 1 (d) the frequency of revolution of charged particle,
8. If an electron and a proton having same momenta enter frequency of A.C. source and frequency of magnetic
perpendicular to a magnetic field, then field are equal
(a) curved path of electron and proton will be same 17. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction
(ignoring the sense of revolution) attract each other because of
(b) they will move undeflected (a) mutual inductance between them
(c) curved path of electron is more curved than that of the (b) potential difference between them
proton (c) electric forces between them
(d) path of proton is more curved
(d) magnetic forces between them
526 PHYSICS
18. If we double the radius of a coil keeping the current through 22. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic
it unchanged, then the magnetic field at any point at a large field B along its axis. If the current is double and the number
distance from the centre becomes approximately of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic
(a) double (b) three times field is
(c) four times (d) one-fourth (a) 4 B (b) B/2
19. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, one needs to (c) B (d) 2 B
connect a
23. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is
(a) low resistance in parallel
moved in a magnetic field depends on
(b) high resistance in parallel
(c) low resistance in series (a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
(d) high resistance in series. (b) initial magnetic flux only
20. If a current is passed through a spring then the spring will (c) the total change in magnetic flux
(a) expand (b) compress (d) final magnetic flux only
(c) remains same (d) None of these. 24. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the form of
21. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a (a) electric field (b) magnetic field
direction perpendicular to it. Then the
(c) dielectric strength (d) heat
(a) velocity remains unchanged
25. Tesla is the unit of
(b) speed of the particle remains unchanged
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged (a) magnetic flux (b) magnetic field
(d) acceleration remains unchanged (c) magnetic induction (d)magnetic moment
1. A portion of a conductive wire is bent in the form of a 4. An electron (mass = 9 × 10–31 kg, charge = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
semicircle of radius r as shown below in fig. At the centre of moving with a velocity of 106 m/s enters a magnetic field. If it
semicircle, the magnetic induction will be describes a circle of radius 0.1m, then strength of magnetic
field must be
i (a) 4.5 × 10–5 T (b) 1.4 × 10–5 T
r (c) 5.5 × 10–5 T (d) 2.6 × 10–5 T
i 5. An electron moving with kinetic energy 6×10–16 joules
O
enters a field of magnetic induction 6 × 10–3 weber/m2 at
(a) zero (b) infinite right angle to its motion. The radius of its path is
(a) 3.42 cm (b) 4.23 cm
μ0 π i μ0 πi
(c) . gauss (d) . tesla (c) 5.17 cm (d) 7.7 cm
4π r 4π r 6. An electron moves in a circular arc of radius 10 m at a contant
2. A helium nucleus makes a full rotation in a circle of radius speed of 2 × 107 ms–1 with its plane of motion normal to a
0.8 meter in 2 sec. The value of the magnetic field induction magnetic flux density of 10–5 T. What will be the value of
B in tesla at the centre of circle will be specific charge of the electron?
(a) 2 × 104 C kg–1 (b) 2 × 105 C kg–1
(a) 2 ´ 10 -19 m 0 (b) 10 -19 / m 0 (c) 5 × 106 C kg–1 (d) 2 × 1011 C kg–1
7. A current of 3 A is flowing in a linear conductor having a
(c) 10 -19 m 0 (d) 2 ´ 10 -20 / m 0 length of 40 cm. The conductor is placed in a magnetic field
of strength 500 gauss and makes an angle of 30º with the
3. A solenoid of length 1.5 m and 4 cm diameter possesses 10
direction of the field. It experiences a force of magnitude
turns per cm. A current of 5A is flowing through it, the
magnetic induction at axis inside the solenoid is (a) 3 × 10–4 N (b) 3 × 10–2 N
(c) 3 × 102 N (d) 3 × 104 N
(m 0 = 4 p ´ 10 - 7 weber amp -1 m - 1 ) 8. A cathode ray beam is bent in a circle of radius 2 cm by a
magnetic induction 4.5 × 10–3 weber/m2. The velocity of
(a) 4 p ´ 10 - 5 gauss (b) 2 p ´ 10 -5 gauss electron is
(a) 3.43 × 107 m/s (b) 5.37 × 107 m/s
(c) 4 p ´ 10 -5 tesla (d) 2 p ´ 10 -5 tesla (c) 1.23 × 107 m/s (d) 1.58 × 107 m/s
Moving Charges and Magnetism 527
a O
r r
(c) B (d) B m0 I 2m 0 1
(a) (b)
ap ap
m 01 2 2 m0 I
(c) (d)
2 ap ap
20. Protons and a-particles of equal momenta enter a uniform
r r
magnetic field normally. The radii of their orbits will have
15. A current of I ampere flows in a wire forming a circular arc of
the ratio.
radius r metres subtending an angle q at the centre as shown.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 4
The magnetic field at the centre O in tesla is
21. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged
I particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed
v. The time period of the motion
q
(a) depends on both R and v
(b) is independent of both R and v
O
(c) depends on R and not v
(d) depends on v and not on R
528 PHYSICS
22. What is cyclotron frequency of an electron with an energy 31. In fig, what is the magnetic field induction at point O
of 100 e V in the earth's magnetic field of 1 × 10–4 weber / m2 m0 i
if its velocity is perpendicular to magnetic field? (a) i
4pr
(a) 0.7 MHz (b) 2.8 MHz
(c) 1.4 MHz (d) 2.1 MHz m0 i m0 i
(b) +
23. A circular loop of area 0.02 m2 carrying a current of 10A, is 4r 2pr
held with its plane perpendicular to a magnetic field m0 i m0 i
induction 0.2 T. The torque acting on the loop is (c) + r
4r 4pr
(a) 0.01 Nm (b) 0.001 Nm O
(c) zero (d) 0.8 Nm m0 i m0 i
24. Two thin, long, parallel wires, separated by a distance ‘d’ (d) 4 r - 4 p r
carry a current of ‘i’ A in the same direction. They will 32. The field B at the centre of a circular coil of radius r is p times
2 that due to a long straight wire at a distance r from it, for
(a) repel each other with a force of m 0 i /(2pd) equal currents. Fig. shows three cases:
(b) attract each other with a force of m 0 i 2 /(2pd)
P
(c) repel each other with a force of m 0 i 2 /(2pd 2 ) P P
(a) (b) (c)
(d) attract each other with a force of m 0 i 2 /(2pd 2 )
in all cases the circular part has radius r and straight ones are
25. A horizontal overhead powerline is at height of 4m from infinitely long. For same current the field B at the centre P in
the ground and carries a current of 100A from east to west. cases 1, 2, 3 has the ratio
The magnetic field directly below it on the ground is
(m0 = 4p × 10–7 Tm A–1) æ p ö p æ 3p 1 ö
(a) ç- ÷: : ç - ÷
(a) 2.5×10–7 T southward (b) 5 × 10–6 T northward è 2ø 2 è 4 2ø
(c) 5 × 10–6 T southward (d) 2.5 × 10–7 T northward
æ p ö æ p ö æ 3p 1 ö
26. If an electron describes half a revolution in a circle of radius (b) ç - + 1÷ : ç + 1÷ : ç + ÷
r in a magnetic field B, the energy acquired by it is è 2 ø è2 ø è 4 2ø
1 p p 3p
(a) zero (b) mv 2 (c) - : :
2 2 2 4
1 æ p ö æ p 1 ö æ 3p 1 ö
(c) mv 2 (d) p r ´ Bev
4 (d) çè - - 1÷ø : çè + ÷ø : çè + ÷ø
2 4 4 4 2
27. The orbital speed of electron orbiting around a nucleus in a 33. An infinite straight conductor carrying current 2 I is split
circular orbit of radius 50 pm is 2.2 × 106 ms–1. Then the into a loop of radius r as shown in fig. The magnetic field at
magnetic dipole moment of an electron is the centre of the coil is
(a) 1.6 × 10–19 Am2 (b) 5.3 × 10–21 Am2
(c) 8.8 × 10 Am–24 2 (d) 8.8 × 10–26 Am2 m 0 2 (p + 1) I
(a)
28. A deutron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular 4p r
orbit of radius 0.5m, in a plane perpendicular to magnetic m 0 2 ( p - 1) 2I 2I
r (b) O
field B . The kinetic energy of a proton that discribes a 4p r
circular orbit of radius 0.5m in the same plane with the same
r m 0 ( p + 1)
magnetic field B is (c)
4p r I
(a) 200 keV (b) 50 keV (c) 100 keV (d) 25 keV (d) zero
29. A proton and an a-particle enter a uniform magnetic field 34. A long wire is bent into shape ABCDE as shown in fig., with
perpendicularly with the same speed. If proton takes 25 m BCD being a semicircle with centre O and radius r metre. A
second to make 5 revolutions, then the time period for the current of I amp. flows through it in the direction
a-particle would be A ® B ® C ® D ® E. Then the magnetic induction at the
(a) 50 m sec (b) 25 m sec point O of the figure in vacuum is
(c) 10 m sec (d) 5 m sec
30. A cell is connected between two points of a uniformly thick é I I ù
(a) m0 ê + ú B
circular conductor and i1 and i2 are the currents flowing in ë 2 p r 4 rû A
two parts of the circular conductor of radius a. The magnetic I
I
field at the centre of the loop will be é I I ù B × O r C
m0 (b) m 0 ê - ú
(I1 - I 2 ) ë 2 p r 4 rû I
(a) zero (b) E
4p D
(c) m0 I / 4 r
m0 m0
(c) ( I1 + I 2 ) (d) ( I1 + I 2 ) (d) m0 I / p r
2a a
Moving Charges and Magnetism 529
47. A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform 52. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The
magnetic field acting in ther plane of the loop. If the force on ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency f Hz.
one arm of the loop is F , the net force on the remaining The magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of the
three arms of the loop is ring is
r r m 0 qf m0 q m 0q m 0 qf
(a) 3 F (b) – F (a) (b) (c) (d)
r 2f R 2pf R 2 pR
r 2R
(c) – 3 F (d) F 53. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with
48. A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts their planes at right angles to each other. The currents
each of radius R, one lying in the x-y plane and the other in flowing in them are I and 2 I, respectively. The resultant
x-z plane. If the current in the loop is i., the resultant magnetic magnetic field induction at the centre will be
field due to the two semicircular parts at their common centre is
m0 i m 0i 5m 0 I 3m0 I m0I m0I
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) 2R 2R 2R R
2R 2 2R
54. An alternating electric field, of frequency v, is applied across
m 0i m 0i the dees (radius = R) of a cyclotron that is being used to
(c) (d)
2R 4R accelerate protons (mass = m). The operating magnetic field
49. A current carrying loop in the form of a right angle isosceles (B) used in the cyclotron and the kinetic energy (K) of the
triangle ABC is placed in a uniform magnetic field acting proton beam, produced by it, are given by
along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm BC is F, what is
the force on the arm AC? (a) mn and K = 2mp2n2R2
r B=
(a) - 2 F A e
r
(b) - F 2pm n
(b) B= and K = m2pnR2
r e
(c) F
r B C
(d) 2F (c) 2pmn and K = 2mp2n2R2
B=
50. A uniform electric field and uniform magnetic field are acting e
along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is
projected in the region such that its velocity is pointed along mn
(d) B= and K = m2pnR2
the direction of fields, then the electron e
(a) will turn towards right of direction of motion 55. A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a
(b) speed will decrease circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic field. What
(c) speed will increase should be the energy of an a-particle to describe a circle of
(d) will turn towards left direction of motion same radius in the same field?
51. A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is placed in a (a) 2 MeV (b) 1 MeV
horizontal plane near a long straight conductor carrying a
(c) 0.5 MeV (d) 4 MeV
steady current I1 at a distance d from the conductor as
shown in figure. The loop will experience 56. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field
requires 3 J of work to turn it through 60°. The torque
I1
needed to maintain the needle in this position will be
d I
3
(a) 2 3J (b) 3J (c) 3J (d) J
2
57. A current loop in a magnetic field
I (a) can be in equilibrium in one orientation
(b) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, both the
(a) a net repulsive force away from the conductor
equilibrium states are unstable
(b) a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the
horizontal plane (c) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable
(c) a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal while the other is unstable
plane (d) experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or
(d) a net attractive force towards the conductor non-uniform in all orientations
Moving Charges and Magnetism 531
58. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a (b) start moving in a circular path Y–Z plane
direction perpendicular to it. Then the (c) retard along X-axis
(a) velocity remains unchanged (d) move along a helical path around X-axis
(b) speed of the particle remains unchanged 66. The magnetic field at a distance r from a long wire carrying
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged current i is 0.4 tesla. The magnetic field at a distance 2r is
(a) 0.2 tesla (b) 0.8 tesla
(d) acceleration remains unchanged
(c) 0.1 tesla (d) 1.6 tesla
59. Electron move at right angle to a magnetic field of 1.5 × 10–
2 tesla with speed of 6 × 107 m/s. If the specific charge of the
67. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of
1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2
electron is 1.7 × 1011 C/kg. The radius of circular path will be tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of
(a) 3.31 cm (b) 4.31cm the wire. The force on the wire is
(c) 1.31 cm (d) 2.35 cm (a) 2.4 N (b) 1.2 N
60. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant (c) 3.0 N (d) 2.0 N
current i. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field B such that 68. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 900 W. In
B is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magnetic order to send only 10% of the main current through this
force acting on the loop is : galvanometer, the resistance of the required shunt is
(a) ir B (b) 2priB (a) 0.9 W (b) 100 W (c) 405 W (d) 90 W
(c) zero (d) priB 69. A uniform magnetic field acts at right angles to the direction
61. An infinitely long straight wire contains a uniformly of motion of electron. As a result, the electron moves in a
continuous current of 10A. The radius of the wire is 4× 10 – circular path of radius 2cm. If the speed of electron is
2 m. The magnetic field at 2 × 10 –2 m from the centre of the doubled, then the radius of the circular path will be
wire will be: (a) 2.0 cm (b) 0.5 cm
(a) 0 (b) 2.5 × 10 – 5 T (c) 4.0 cm (d) 1.0 cm
70. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed
(c) 5.0 × 10 – 5 T (d) none of these.
v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the
62. A proton moving vertically downward enters a magnetic
circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to
field pointing towards north. In which direction proton will
deflect?
B B
(a) East (b) West (a) (b)
v v
(c) North (d) South
r v v
63. When a charged particle moving with velocity v is subjected (c) (d)
ur B B
to a magnetic field of induction B , the force on it is non-
zero. This implies that 71. The magnetic induction at a point P which is at a distance of
r ur 4 cm from a long current carrying wire is 10 –3 T. The field of
(a) angle between v and B is necessarily 90° induction at a distance 12 cm from the current will be
r ur
(b) angle between v and B can have any value other (a) 3.33 × 10–4 T (b) 1.11 × 10–4 T
than 90° (c) 3 × 10–3 T (d) 9 × 10–3 T
r ur
(c) angle between v and B can have any value other Directions for Qs. (72 to 75) : Each question contains
than zero and 180° STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
r ur (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following.
(d) angle between v and B is either zero or 180° (a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
64. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
field, then correct explanation for Statement-1
(a) torque is formed (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
(b) e.m.f is induced a correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct (d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(d) none of the above 72. Statement 1 : If the current in a solenoid is reversed in
65. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction is subjected direction while keeping the same magnitude, the magnetic
to a field of magnetic induction in negative X-direction. As field energy stored in the solenoid decreases.
a result, the charge will Statement 2 : Magnetic field energy density is proportional
(a) remain unaffected to square of current.
532 PHYSICS
16. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. (a) 4.55 mJ (b) 2.3 mJ
The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. (c) 1.15 mJ (d) 9.1 mJ
The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B', at radial distances 19. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed
a perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same current 'I
and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is :[2016] along the same direction is shown in fig. Magnitude of force
2
per unit length on the middle wire 'B' is given by [2017]
1 1
(a) (b)
4 2 B d C
(c) 1 (d) 4 90°
17. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows
through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the d
solenoid is 4 × 10–3 Wb. The self inductance of the solenoid
is : [2016]
A
(a) 4H (b) 3H
(c) 2H (d) 1H
2m 0 i 2 2m0 i 2
18. A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 (a) (b)
pd pd
cm carries a current of 85 mA and subjected to magnetic field
of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the coil by 180º m0 i 2 m0i2
against the torque is [2017] (c) (d)
2pd 2 pd
Moving Charges and Magnetism 535
B1 I1 R 2 2
Hence, B = R × I = 2 = 1 F m 0 i1 i 2 m 0i 2
= =
2 1 2 l 2 pd 2 pd
12. (c) Torque on loop t = nIAB cos q; Here q = 90º
\ t = 0. (attractive as current is in the same direction)
25. (c) The magnetic field is
m 2I I 10-7 ´ 2 ´10 ´ 2
13. (b) F= 0 1 2 ´l = ´ 2 = 8 ´10-5 N m0 2I 2 ´ 100
4p r 0.1 B= = 10-7 ´ = 5 × 10–6 T
14. (c) 4p r 4
µ0 I q m Iq W N
15. (a) B= ´ = 0
2r 2p 4 pr 100A
16. (d) No magnetic force acts on the electron and force due
to electric field will act opposite to its initial direction
of motion. Hence its velocity decreases in magnitude. 4m
17. (d) Since no current is enclosed inside the hollow S E
conductor. Hence Binside = 0. Ground
1 2mV B
18. (c) r= According to right hand palm rule, the magnetic field is
B q
directed towards south.
26. (a) Since magnetic force is always perpendicular to the
R1 mx
= velocity of electron, so it can only change the direction
R2 my of velocity of electron, but it (the magnetic force) cannot
accelerate or deaccelerate the electron.
2 27. (c) Magnetic dipole moment
m x æ R1 ö
Þ =ç ÷ e e erv
my è R2 ø m = iA = ´ pr 2 = ´ pr 2 = .
T (2 pr / v) 2
19. (d) Btotal = 4Bside
1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 50 ´ 10-12 ´ 2.2 ´ 106
m0 I é p pù =
Btotal = 4 ê sin + sin ú 2
æa ö 4 4û
2p ç ÷ ë = 8.8 ´ 10-24 Am2 .
è2ø
2m d E d 2m p E p
2 2m0 I 28. (c) So rdeutron = ; rproton =
Btotal = Bq Bq
ap
For same radius, B and q
mv p rp q a 2e 2
r= = Þ = = = md 2
20. (b)
qB qB ra q p e 1 mp Ep = mdEd Þ E p = E d = ´ 50 = 100keV
mp 1
21. (b) In a uniform magnetic field, a charged particle is moving 29. (c) Time taken by proton to make one revolution
in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. 25
= = 5 m sec .
mv2 mv 5
\ = Bqv or, R = .....(1)
R Bq 2 pm T m q
As T = ; so 2 = 2 ´ 1
qB T1 m1 q 2
2pR 2pmv 2pm m 2 q1 5 ´ 4 m1 q
Time period, T = = = .....(2) or T2 = T1 = ´ = 10 m sec.
v Bqv Bq m1 q 2 m1 2q
Time period T does not depend on both R and v 30. (a) Let l1, l2 be the lengths of the two parts PRQ and PSQ of
because when v is changed, R is also changed the conductor and r be the resistance per unit length of
proportionately and for period, it is R/v that is taken. the conductor. The resistance of the portion PRQ will be
22. (b) 23. (c) R1 = l1 r
24. (b) I2
i i
F
S O Q
R
P I1
Moving Charges and Magnetism 537
m 0 In 2m I 1 r
B¢ = = 0 (where n = 2) = i 2 xB´ = ixB = | F |
l l 2
2p
4p 2 The direction of the force on AC is perpendicular to
the plane of the paper and going out of it. Hence, force
æ m0I ö r
on putting the value of B Þ B¢ = 4ç ÷ = 4B on AC = - F
è l ø r
r
Ù 50. (b) v and B are in same direction so that magnetic force
46. (a) The direction of B is along ( - k ) on electron becomes zero, only electric force acts. But
\ The magnetic force force on electron due to electric field is opposite to the
direction of velocity.
F = Q( v ´ B) = Q( v î ) ´ B(- k̂ ) = QvBĵ
Þ along OY.. I1
47. (b) The force on the two arms parallel to the field is zero. 51. (d)
F1
< I
<
<
F F3 F4
B
–F
< F2
2
2 53. (a)
æ m iö æ m iö m 0i m i
= ç 0 ÷ +ç 0 ÷ = 2. = 0 B2
è 4R ø è 4R ø 4R 2 2 R
49. (b) Let a current i be flowing in the loop ABC in the
B1
direction shown in the figure. If the length of each of
the sides AB and BC be x then
r
| F| = i x B
p 2 (2pmuR )2 m 0 ir -7 2 ´ 10 -2
K.E. = = = 2p2mu2R2 61. (b) B= . 2 = 2 ´ 10 ´ 10 ´
2m 2m 2p R (4 ´ 10 - 2) 2
55. (b) According to the principal of circular motion in a
magnetic field = 2.5 ´ 10-5 T
62. (a) Proton will represent the direction of current, so the direction
mv 2 of current is vertically downward. By Fleming's left hand
Fc = Fm Þ = qVB rule, force acting on the proton in east direction.
R r urur
63. (c) As F = qVBsin q
mv P 2 m.k
Þ R= = = F is zero for sin 0° or sin 180° and is non-zero for angle
ur ur
qB qB qB between V and B any value other than zero and 180°.
64. (a) A current carrying coil has magnetic dipole moment.
Ra =
2(4 m) K '
r r
2qB Hence, a torque pm ´ B acts on it in magnetic field.
65. (a) The force acting on a charged particle in magnetic field
R K is given by
= r r r
Ra K' F = q ( v ´ B ) or F = qvB sin q,
When angle between v and B is 180°,
but R = Ra (given)
F=0
Thus K = K¢ = 1 MeV
56. (b) According to work energy theorem mi 1
66. (a) B = 0 or B µ
W =Ufinal – Uinitial = MB (cos 0 – cos 60°) 2pr r
When r is doubled, the magnetic field becomes half,
MB
W= = 3J ...(i) i.e., now the magnetic field will be 0.2 T.
2 67. (b) F = Bil = 2 ×1.2 × 0.5 = 1.2 N
r r æ ö 68. (b) Ig = 0.1I, Is = 0.9 I ; S = Ig R g / Is
t = M ´ B = MB sin 60° = ç MB 3 ÷ ...(ii)
è 2 ø
= 0.1 ´ 900 / 0.9 = 100 W.
From equation (i) and (ii) mv
69. (c) r = or r µ v
2 3´ 3 qB
t= = 3J
2 As v is doubled, the radius also becomes double.
57. (c) A current loop in a magnetic field is in equilibrium in Hence, radius = 2 × 2 = 4 cm
two orientations one is stable and another unstable. mv v
r uur ur 70. (d) r= Þrµ
Q t = M ´ B = M B sin q qB B
If q = 0° Þ t = 0 (stable) m0 I 1
If q = p Þ t = 0 (unstable) 71. (a) B= ÞBµ
2 pr r
As the distance is increased to three times, the magnetic
induction reduces to one third. Hence,
1
B = ´ 10 -3 tesla = 3.33 ´ 10 -4 tesla
3
72. (a) Reversing the direction of the current reverses the
direction of the magnetic field. However, it has no effect
on the magnetic-field energy density, which is
Do not experience a torque in some orientations proportional to the square of the magnitude of the
Hence option (c) is correct. magnetic field.
540 PHYSICS
r r 0 is now bent so that it now lies in the y-z plane, the
73. (c) Due to electric field, the force is F = qE in the direction
magnitudes of magnetic field moment of each
r r r
of E . Since E is parallel to B , the particle velocity vr semicircular loop of radius R lie in the x-y plane and the
r r r y-z plane is M' = I(pr2)/4 and the direction of magnetic
(acquired due to force F ) is parallel to B . Hence B
r field moments are along z-directlon and x-direction
will not exert any force since vr ´ B = 0 and the motion respectively.
r Then resultant is :
of the particle is not affected by B .
74. (b) Neutrons are neutral. Mnet = M ¢ 2 + M ¢ 2 = 2 M¢ = 2 I ( pr 2 ) 4
I1 2p - q So, Mnet < M or M diminishes.
75. (d) = Þ I1q = I2 (2p - q) ........... (1)
I2 q Hence, the magnitude of magnetic moment is now
diminishes.
q m 0 I1 2p - q m 0 I 2
B1 = . and B2 = . 4. (d) Magnetic Lorentz force :
2p 2R 2p 2R
F = qVB sin q
Using (1), we get B1 = B2.
Magnetic Lorentz force electron is projected with
EXERCISE - 3 uniform velocity along the axis of a current carrying
long solenoid F = –qvB sin 180° = 0(q = 0°) as magnetic
Exemplar Questions
field and velocity are parallel and electric field is zero (E
1. (d) As we know that the uniqueness of helical path is = 0) due to this magnetic field (B) perpendicular to the
determined by its pitch direction of motion (V). So it will not affect the velocity
of moving charge particle. So the electron will continue
2p mv cos q
P(Pitch) = to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the
Bq solenoid
Where q is angle of velocity of charge particle with x- 5. (a) There is crossed electric and magnetic field between
axis dees so the charged particle accelerates by electric field
For the given pitch d correspond to charge particle, we between dees towards other dees.
have So, the charged particle undergoes acceleration as
q 2pv cos q (i) speeds up between the dees because of the oscillating
= = constant electric field.
m BP
If motion is not helical, (q = 0) (ii) speed remain the same inside the dees because of the
As charged particles traverse identical helical paths in magnetic field but direction undergoes change
a completely opposite direction in a same magnetic continuously.
field B, LHS for two particles should be same and of Hence, the charge particle accelerates inside and
opposite sign. between Dees always.
30° B
O r 60°
15. (a) The direction of current in conductor 17. (d) Here, number of turns n = 100; current through the
Y FBC solenoid i = 4A; flux linked with each turn = 4 × 10–3
B C Wb
FAB FCD
\ Total flux linked, and total
I i L = 1000[4 × 10–3] = 4 Wb
A L D ftotal = 4 Þ L i = 4
X Þ L= 1H
FAD
XY and AB is same 18. (d) Work done, W = MB(cosq1–cosq2)
\ FAB = ilB (attractive) When it is rotated by angle 180° then
W = MB (cos0° – cos 180°) = MB (1 + 1)
m0 I m iI
(¬) = 0 ( ¬) W = 2MB
FAB = i(L). 2p æç ö÷
L p
è 2ø W = 2 (NIA) B
= 2 × 250 × 85 × 10–6[1.25 × 2.1 × 10–4] × 85 × 10–2
FBC opposite to FAD
FBC () and FAD (¯) = 9.1 mJ
Þ cancels each other 19. (c) Force per unit length between two parallel current car-
FCD = ilB (repulsive) rying conductors,
m0 I m iI m 0 i1i 2
FCD = i(L) (®) = 0 ( ®) F=
æ 3L ö 3p 2pd
2p ç ÷
è 2 ø Since same current flowing through both the wires
Therefore the net force on the loop
ii = i2 = i
Fnet = FAB + FBC + FCD + FAD
mo iI mo iI 2mo iI m0i2
Þ Fnet = - = so F1 = = F2
p 3p 3p 2pd
16. (c) For points inside the wire i.e., (r < R)
F1[due to wire A]
m0 Ir
Magnetic field B =
2pR 2
For points outside the wire (r > R)
m0I F2[due to wire C]
Magnetic field, B' =
2 pR
\ Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle
m0 I ( a / 2 ) wire 'B'
B 2 pa 2 = 1:1 m0 i 2
\ = m0 I Fnet = F12 + F22 =
B' 2pd
2 p ( 2a )
Magnetism and
20 Matter
NATURAL MAGNET MAGNETIC FIELD
A natural magnet is an ore of iron (Fe3 O4) which The space around a magnet within which its influence can be
(i) attracts small pieces of iron, cobalt and nickel towards it. experienced is called its magnetic field.
(ii) when suspendeded freely, comes to rest along north-south Uniform magnetic field : A uniform magnetic field is one where the
direction. strength of the magnetic field is the same at all points of the field. In
The magnets which are obtained artificially are called artificial a uniform field, all the magnetic lines of force are parallel to one
magnets, e.g. a bar magnet, a magnetic needle, horse shoe magnet another. But in non-uniform magnetic field the strength of
etc. magnetic field is not same at all points of the field and also the
BAR MAGNET magnetic lines of force are not parallel.
A bar magnet consists of two equal and opposite magnetic poles Atom as a Magnetic Dipole
separated by a small distance. Poles are not exactly at the ends. Every atom of a magnetic material behaves as a magnetic dipole,
The shortest distance between two poles is called effective length because electrons in the atom revolve round the nucleus. The
(Le) and is less than its geometric length (Lg). magnetic moment M associated with an atomic dipole as
For bar magnet Le = 2l and Le =(5/6) Lg. neh
M= = nm B
For semicircular magnet Lg = pR and Le = 2R. 4pm
eh
where n = 1, 2, 3 ..... denotes the no. of orbits and m B = .
4pm
–24
Least value of dipole moment of atom = 9.27 × 10 Am . 2
S N
Le =2l m B is called Bohr magneton.
Lg Most of the magnetic moment is produced due to electron spin,
Bar magnet
the contribution of the orbital revolution is very small.
Properties of Magnets MAGNETIC LINES OF FORCE
(i) Attractive property : A magnet attracts small pieces of iron, Magnetic line of force is an imaginary curve the tangent to which
cobalt, nickel, etc. and other magnetic subsances. at a point gives the direction of magnetic field at that point or
(ii) Directive property : A freely suspended magnet aligns itself the magnetic field line is the imaginary path along which an
nearly in the geographical north-south direction. isolated north pole will tend to move if it is free to do so.
(iii) Law of magnetic poles : Like magnetic poles repel, and unlike Properties of Magnetic Lines of Force
magnetic poles attract each other. (i) Magnetic lines of force are hypothetical lines use to depict
According to Gauss’s theorem in magnetism, surface magnetic field in a region and understand certain
integral of magnetic field intensity over a surface (closed or phenomenon in magnetism.
uur ur uur ur
open) is always zero i.e. Ñò B .d s (or ò B .d s ) = 0. Direction of magnetic
lines outside the body
This theorem establishes that the poles always exist in equal of magnet (from north
and unlike pairs. pole to south pole)
(iv) Magnetic poles exist in pairs : Isolated magnetic poles do
not exist. If we break a magnet into two pieces, we get two N S Direction of magnetic
lines inside the body
smaller dipole magnets. Magnetic field lines of magnet (from south
(v) Repulsion is a sure test of magnetism. in a bar magnet pole to north pole)
544 PHYSICS
(ii) Tangent to field line at a point gives us the direction of Magnetic length : The shortest distance between the two poles
uur
magnetic field intensity B at that point. No two magnetic of a magnet is called its magnetic length. It is less than the
lines of force can intersect each other because magnetic geometrical length of the magnet. This magnetic length is also
field will have two directions at the point of intersection. called an effective length.
(iii) Magnetic lines of force are continuous curve from north to
south, outside the body of the magnet and from south to Geometrical length
north inside the body of the magnet.
Magnetic length
(iv) The number of lines originating or terminating on a pole is = 0.84 S N
Geometrical length
proportional to its pole strength.
Magnetic flux = number of magnetic lines of force Magnetic length
= µ0 × m
Where µ0 is number of lines associated with unit pole. MAGNETIC MOMENT
(v) The number of lines of force per unit area at a point gives The magnetic moment of a magnet in magnitude is equal to the
magnitude of field at that point. The crowded lines show a product of pole strength with effective length (i.e. magnetic
strong field while distant lines represent a weak field.
length). Its direction is along the axis of magnet from south pole
(vi) The magnetic lines of force have a tendency to contract
to north pole.
longitudinally like a stretched elastic string producing
r r r
attraction between opposite pole. M = m ´ 2 l ´ (n) Þ | M |= 2ml
If the same bar magnet is bent in a semicircle then
N S 2l
pr = 2l Þ r =
p
2l 4l 2 M
M ¢ = m ´ 2r = m ´ 2 ´ = m´ =
S N X N p p p
r
Where m is pole strength, 2l is effective length and n is unit
vector having a direction from S-pole to N-pole.
n (attraction) Lateral expansion (repulsion)
r
The SI unit of M is A m2, which is equivalent to J/T..
(viii) The region of space with no magnetic field has no lines of
Circular current loop as a magnet : A small plane loop of current
force. At neutral point where resultant field is zero there
behaves as a magnet with a definite dipole moment given by
cannot be any line of force.
uuur
SOME TERMS RELATED TO MAGNETISM M = I Anˆ
Magnetic poles : These are the regions of apparently concentrated
where A is the area of the loop, I the current in the loop and n̂ is
magnetic strength where the magnetic attraction is maximum.
It means that pole of a magnet is located not at a point but over a a unit vector perpendicular to the plane of the loop, and its direction
region. Magnetic poles exist in pairs. An isolated magnetic pole is decided by the sense of flow of current I using the Fleming’s
(north or south) does not exist. If a magnet is cut into two pieces, right hand rule.
then instead of obtaining separate N-pole and S-pole, each of the Relation between magnetic moment and angular momentum
two parts are found to behave as complete magnets.
Magnetic axis : The line passing through the poles of a magnet is uuur q uur
M = L
called its magnetic axis. 2m
Magnetic equator : The line passing through the centre of the
Where q is the total charge on a body of mass m rotaing about a
magnet and at right angles ot the magnetic axis is called the
fixed axis.
magnetic equator of the magnet.
Magnetism and Matter 545
Magnetic moment, pole strength and effective length when a magnet is cut
Magnet placed after Pole strength Effective length Magnetic moment
cutting after cutting
N S Breadth
m 2l M = 2ml
Length
N S m M
m/2 2l M1 = .2l =
X X´ 2 2
M
S N m l M 2 = ml =
2
Y´
N S ml M
m/2 l M3 = =
X X´ 2 4
Y´
2l
m 2l M = m ´ 2l
m m
COULOMB’S LAW OF MAGNETIC FORCE A magnet of dipole moment M suspended freely in a magnetic
It states that : field B experiences a torque t given by
ur uuur uur
(i) The force of attraction or repulsion between two magnetic t = M ´ B ; t = MB sin q
poles is directly proportional to the product of their pole uur ur
strengths. where q is the angle between M and B
r
(ii) The force of attraction or repulsion between two magnetic It is clear from the expression that | tmax |= MB
poles is inversely proportional to the square of the distance i.e., when dipole is perpendicular to field the torque is maximum
between them. This law is also known as inverse square law. and when they are parallel, the torque is minimum
r
1 m m m (for q = 0 or 180º ® | t | = 0 ).
i.e., F µ m1m2 and F µ r or, F = 0 . 1 2 The net force acting on a bar magnet placed
4p r 2 ® in a uniform magnetic field is zero
where m1 and m2 are the pole strengths of the two magnetic ® in a non-uniform magnetic field is non-zero
poles, r is the distance between them and m0 is the Let the length of a bar magnet be 2l and pole strength be m,
permeability of free space. the magnetic field is B, and the angle between B and bar
Unit magnetic pole : A unit magnetic pole may be defined as the magnet is q. Force on north pole is mB along the field and
pole which when placed in vacuum at a distance of one metre from that on south pole is mB opposite to the field.
an identical pole, repels it with a force of 10–7 newton. B mB
TORQUE ON A MAGNET IN A MAGNETIC FIELD N
q
m(North pole)
N mB
B O
Bar magnet at lsinq
q
an angle q. with S
S the magnetic field B
mB m (South pole) 2l
mB
546 PHYSICS
S M
U = – MB (min)
U=0 q = 0° +m
q = 90° Stable equilibrium N mB
q
B B
mB S
–m
Freely suspended bar
N M S magnet, at an angle q
with the magnetic field B
1 MB I
n= , \ Time period , T = 2 p
U = + MB (max) 2p I MB
q = 180° MAGNETIC FIELD DUE TO A BAR MAGNET
Unstable equilibrium (i) Magnetic field intensity B1 due to a bar magnet at any point
Work done in Rotating a Uniform Magnetic Dipole
m0 2 Md
in a Magnetic Field on the axial line of the magnet is B1 =
4 p (d 2 - l 2 ) 2
Work done in deflecting the dipole through an angle q is,
W = MB (1 – cos q) B1
S N
If q = 0, cos q = 1 then W = MB (1 – 1) = 0
P
If q = 90°, cos q = 0 then W = MB
If q = 180°, cos q = –1, then W = 2MB 2l
d
Magnetism and Matter 547
where d = distance of the point from the centre of the magnet. MAGNETIC POTENTIAL
The direction of B1 is along SN. The magnetic potential at a point is defined as the work done in
m m carrying a unit N-pole from infinity to that point against the
BN = 0 field. It may also be defined as the quantity whose space rate of
4 p (d - l ) 2 where, m is pole strength.
variation in any direction gives the intensity of the magnetic field
BN is magnetic field due to north pole, it is directed away from the
magnet. dV B
i.e., B=-
m m dx
BS = 0
4p (d + l) 2 it is directed towards the magnet. (i) Magnetic potential due to a point dipole, at a distance r
from the pole of strength m is given by
m0m é 1 1 ù m m
\ B = BN - BS Þ B = ê - ú V B = 0 . (joule/Wb)
4 p êë (d - l) 2
(d + l) 2 úû 4p r
B due to a pole of Pole strength m at a distance r is given by
m 0 m (4ld ) m0 2 Md
= = [Q M = m(2L)]
4p ( d 2 - l 2 ) 2 4p ( d 2 - l 2 ) 2 m0 m
B=
4p r 2
0 m 2M
If d > > l, B = 4p 3 Now V0 at A is the work done is bringing a unit pole from
d
infinity to A.
(ii) Magnetic field intensity (B 2) due to A bar magnet at any
point on the equatorial line of the bar magnet is r
m 0m
\ VA - V¥ = ò a dr Þ V A = m 0m
m M 4pr 2
4 pr
B2 = 0 ¥
4 p ( d 2 + l 2 )3 / 2
The direction of B2 is along a line parallel to NS. (ii) Potential due to a magnetic dipole at a point in end-side on
m0 æ m ö
P position is VB = .ç ÷ , where M = 2ml.
B 4p è r 2 - l 2 ø
S N
d
O
P
S r
O N
2l
m m
m m NP m m PS
If l2 < < r2 then VB = 0
BN = 0 , BS = 0 4p r 2
4p NP 3 4p PS3
(iii) Potential due to a magnetic pole at a point in the broad side-
Now, NP = PS = (d2 + l2 )3/ 2 on position. Net potential at P = 0. The potential at any point
uur uuur uuur lying on the magnetic equator of a magnet is zero in CGS
Resultant field at P is, B = BN + BS and MKS system.
m m m m P
ÞB = 0. ( NP + PS) = 0 . ( NS)
4p ( d 2 + l 2 ) 3 / 2 4 p (d 2 + l 2 ) 3 / 2
r
m 2ml m M
| B |= 0 = 0
4 p (d + l )
2 2 3 / 2 4p ( d + l 2 ) 3 / 2
2
N S
uur m 0 M
If d > > l, | B |= 4p 3 2l
d
(iv) The magnetic potential at a point lying on a line passing
The magnetic field at any point having polar coordinates (r, q) through the centre and making angle q with the axis
relative to centre of magnet or loop
m 0 M cos q
m0 M VB = and for small dipole, r >> l
B= (1 + 3 cos 2 q ) and direction is given by 4p (r 2 - l 2 )
4p r 3
1 m0 M cos q
tan a = tan q VB =
2 4p r2
548 PHYSICS
Example 1. Example 5.
Two identical thin bar magnets each of length l and pole The time period of oscillation of a magnet in a vibration
strength m are placed at right angles to each other, with magnetometer is 1.5 sec. What will be the time period of
north pole of one touching south pole of the other, then oscillation of another magnet similar in size, shape and
find the magnetic moment of the system. mass but having 1/4 magnetic moment than that of the 1st
N1 magnet oscillating at the same place?
Solution :
T2 M1 M1
= = =2; \ T2 = 2 T1 = 3 s .
2 T1 M2 1
M1
4
Example 6.
S1 The time period of oscillation of a magnet is 2 sec. When it
N2 S2 is remagnetised so that its pole strength is 4 times, what
will be its period?
Solution : Solution :
Initial magnetic moment of each magnet = m × l.
As is clear from fig., S1 and N2 neutralize each other. T2 M1 m1 ´ 2 l T2 m1 1
= = = =
Effective distance between T1 M2 m 2 ´ 2 l ; T1 4 m1 2 ; T2 = 1 sec.
N1 and S2 = l 2 + l2 = l 2 \ M ¢ = ml 2 . Example 7.
Example 2. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period
A steel wire of length l has a magnetic moment M. It is then of oscillation of 4s. If it is broken into two equal halves,
bent into a semi-circular arc. Find the new magnetic what will be the period of oscillation of each half ?
moment. Solution :
Solution : For each half, mass is half and length is half;
Let d be the diameter of semi-circle.
\ l = (p d/2) or d = (2 l/p) m l2
As M.I. = \ M.I. becomes 1/8th.
New magnetic moment = m × d = m × (2 l/p) 12
= 2m l/p = (2 M/p) Also M becomes 1/2
Example 3.
Work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M by an As T = 2 p M.I. / MB
angle 90º from the magnetic meridian is n times the
corresponding work done to turn through an angle of 60º, 1/ 8 1
\ T becomes times = times
where n is 1/ 2 2
(a) 1/2 (b) 2
(c) 1/4 (d) 1 1
New time period = ´ 4s = 2s
Solution : (b) 2
W1 = – MB (cos 90º – cos 0º) = MB EARTH’S MAGNETISM
W2 = – MB (cos 60º – cos 0º)
Magnetic field of earth extends nearly upto five times the radius
æ1 ö 1 1 of earth i.e., 3.2 × 104 km.
= - MB ç - 1÷ = MB = W1
è2 ø 2 2 The magnetic field of earth is fairly uniform and can be represented
As W1 = n W2 ; \ n =2 by equidistant parallel lines.
Example 4. NG
In a hydrogen atom, an electron revolves with a frequency Magnetic axis Sm
Magnetic equator
of 6.8 × 109 megahertz in an orbit of diameter 1.06 Å. What
will be the equivalent magnetic moment? Geographic equator
Solution : Earth's magnetic
n = 6.8 × 109 MHz = 6.8 × 1015 Hz, Imaginary lines of force
bar magnet in
1.06 the core of Earth
r= = 0.53 Å = 0.53 × 10–10 m
2 to depict earth's
magnetic field
æ e ö 2 2 SG Nm
M = IA = ç ÷pr = enpr
è 1/ n ø Geographic axis
22 Geographic meridian : The geographic meridian at a place is the
= (1.6 ´ 10 -19 ) (6.80 ´ 1015 ) ´ (0.53 ´10 -10 ) 2
7 vertical plane passing through the geographic north & south at
= 9.7 ´10 - 24 A m 2 that place.
Magnetism and Matter 549
is placed with its north pole towards geographic north, neutral Example 9.
points lie on equatorial line of the magnet. At each neutral point,
If q1 and q2 are angles of dip in two vertical planes at
m0 M
B2 = =H right angle to each other and q is true dip then prove
4p (d 2 + l 2 )3/ 2
cot2q = cot2q1 + cot2q2.
where H = horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field.
Solution :
When the bar magnet is placed with its north pole towards
If the vertical plane in which dip is q1 subtends an angle a
geographic south, the neutral points lie on the axial line of the
with meridian than other vertical plane in which dip is q2 and
magnet. At each neutral point,
is perpendicular to first will make an angle of 90° – a with
m M
B1 = 0 =H magnetic meridian. If q1 and q2 are apparent dips then
4p ( d - l 2 ) 2
2
where B0 = magnetic induction in vacuum produced by The characteristics of paramagnetic substances are
magnetising field (a) They are attracted by a strong magnet
Bm = magnetic induction due to magnetisation of material. (b) Their susceptibility is positive but very small ( c > 0)
But B0 = m0H and Bm = m0 I m Þ B = m 0 [H + I m ] (c) Their relative permeability is slightly greater than unity.
(m > 1)
Im
\ B = m 0 H [1 + ] = B0 [1 + c] ; \ B / B0 = [1 + c] (d) Their susceptibility and permeability do not change
H with the variation of magnetising field.
mH (e) Their susceptibility is inversely proportional to
\ B / B0 = = m / m0 = µr, the relative magnetic permeability
temperature, æç i.e. c a ö÷ .
m0 H 1
è Tø
\ m r =1 + c (f) They are found in those material which have atoms
This is required relation. containing odd number of electrons
3. Ferromagnetic Substances : These are the substances which
CLASSIFICATION OF MATERIALS are strongly magnetised by relatively weak magnetising
According to the behaviour of substances in magnetic field, they field in the same sense as the magnetising field. The
are classified into three categories: examples are Ni, Co, iron and their alloys.
1. Diamagnetic Substances : These are the substances which The characteristics of ferromagnetic substances are
when placed in a strong magnetic field acquire a feeble (a) They are attracted even by a weak magnet.
magnetism opposite to the direction of magnetising field. (b) The susceptibility is very large and positive.
The examples are copper, gold, antimony, bismuth, alcohol, ( c >> 0)
water, quartz, hydrogen, etc.
(c) The relative permeability is very high (of the order of
hundreds and thousands). (m >> 1)
N S (d) The intensity of magnetisation is proportional to the
N S magnetising field H for smaller values, varies rapidly
for moderate values and attains a constant value for
larger values of H.
N S (e) The susceptibility of a ferromagnetic substance is
Bo
inversely proportional to temperature i.e., c µ1/ T
Diamagnetic
C
B<B0 Þ c = ; C = curie constant .
T
This is called Curie law. At a temperature called curie
r temperature, ferromagnetic substance becomes
Behaviour of diamagnetic substance in an external magnetic field Bo paramagnetic. The curie temperatures for Ni, Fe and
The characteristics of diamagnetic substances are Co are 360ºC, 740ºC and 1100ºC respectively.
(a) They are feebly repelled by a strong magnet (f) They are found in those material which have domains
(b) Their susceptibility is negative (i.e. c < 0) and can be converted into strong magnets
(c) Their relative permeability is less than 1. (i.e. mr < 1) Keep in Memory
(d) Their susceptibility is independent of magnetising field
and temperature (except for Bismuth at low 1. Diamagnetism is universal. It is present in all materials. But
it is weak and hard to detect if substance is para or
temperature)
feromagnetic.
2. Paramagnetic Substances : These are the materials which 2. I – H curve for different materials
when placed in a strong magnetic field acquire a feeble
magnetism in the same sense as the applied magnetic field. I Ferromagnetic
The examples are platinum, aluminium, chromium, Paramagnetic
manganese, CuSO4, O2, air, etc.
D iama
g netic H
N S
N S 3. Curve for magnetic susceptibility and temperature for a
paramagnetic and ferromagnetic material.
X
N S
Bo 1
Paramagnetic cµ
B > B0 T
r T
Behaviour of paramagnetic substance in an external field Bo
552 PHYSICS
Formula for current : If a current passing through the coil of n and net M.Ι ¢ = M.Ι + M.Ι = 2M.Ι
turns and mean radius r of a tangent galvanometer placed in
magnetic meridian causes a deflection q in the magnetic needle 2 M.I. 2 M.I.
kept at the centre of the coil, then \ T ¢ = 2p = 2´ ....(1)
M 2H MH
æ 2rH ö 2rH When one of the magnets is taken away,
I=ç tan q ; I = K tanq where K = and is called the
è m 0 n ÷ø m0 n M² = M, MI² = MI,
reduction factor. M.Ι
\ T¢¢ = 2p ...(2)
MH
DEFLECTION MAGNETOMETER
Divide eqn. (2) by (1),
It's working is based on the principle of tangent law.
(a) Tan A Position : In this position the magneto- meter is set T ¢¢ 1 T¢ 4
= or T ¢¢ = = = 3 .34 s
perpendicular to magnetic meridian so that, magnetic field T ¢ ( 2)1 / 4 ( 2) 1/ 4
2 1/ 4
due to magnet is in axial position and perpendicular to earth’s
field and hence Examples 13.
The magnetic needle of an oscillation magnetometer makes
m0 2Md
= H tan q 10 oscillations per minute under the action of earth’s
4p (d 2 - l2 )2 magnetic field alone. When a bar magnet is placed at some
where d = distance of needle from centre of magnet and distance along the axis of the needle, it makes 14
2l = length of magnet. oscillations per minute. If the bar magnet is turned so that
(b) TanB position : The arms of magnetometer are set in its poles interchange their positions, then what will be the
magnetic meridian, so that the field is at equatorial position new frequency of oscillation of the needle?
m0 M 1 MH
and hence, H tan q = Sol. 10 = ...(i)
4p ( d 2 - l 2 )3 / 2 2p I
Magnetic field of earth extends nearly upto five times the
1 M (H + F)
radius of earth i.e., 3.2 × 104 km. 14 = ...(ii)
2p I
The magnetic field of earth is fairly uniform and can be
represented by equidistant parallel lines.
1 M (H - F) ...(iii)
VIBRATION MAGNETOMETER n=
2p I
It is an instrument for comparing the magnetic moments of two
magnets and for comparing their magnetic fields. 14 H+F F 7
Divide eqs. (ii) by (i), = = 1+ =
10 H H 5
The time period of a bar magnet vibrating in the vibration
magnetometer kept in magnetic meridian is given by F 24
\ =
4p I2 H 25
I
T = 2p \ M = n H-F F 1
MH T 2H Divide eqs. (iii) by (i), = = 1- =
10 H H 5
æ m(l 2 + b2 ) ö
where I = ç 10
÷ is the moment of inertia of the vibrating or, n= = 2 vibs /minute.
è 12 ø 5
magnet, m = mass of magnet, l = length of magnet, b = breadth of Example 14.
magnet. The period of oscillation of a magnet in a vibration
Example 12. magnetometer is 2 sec. What will be the period of oscillation
A vibration magnetometer consists of two identical bar of a magnet whose magnetic moment is four times that of
magnets, placed one over the other, such that they are the first magnet?
mutually perpendicular and bisect each other. The time
æ Ι ö
period of oscillation in a horizontal magnetic field is 4 Sol. T = 2p ç
second. If one of the magnets is taken away, find the period è M BH ÷ø
of oscillation of the other in the same field.
æ Ι ö 1é Ι ù
Sol. For a vibration magnetometer, we know that T = 2p I / MH T ' = 2p ç ÷ = ê2p ú
è 4M BH ø 2 ë (M BH ) û
Let M be the magnetic moment and M.I, moment of inertia
of each magnet, 1
= ´ 2 = 1 second.
\ M¢ = M2 + M2 = M 2 2
554 PHYSICS
Example 15.
A magnet is suspended in such a way that it oscillates in æ Ι ö
T1 = 3 = 2p ç
the horizontal plane. It makes 20 oscillations per minute è M B1 cos 30 ÷ø
at a place where dip angle is 30º and 15 oscillations per
minute at a place where dip angle is 60º. What will be the
æ Ι ö
ratio of the total earth’s magnetic field at the two places? and T2 = 4 = 2p ç
Sol. Let the total magnetic fields due to earth at the two places è M B2 cos 60º ÷ø
be B1 and B2. If horizontal components be (BH)1 and (BH)2
respectively, then 1/ 2
3 æ B 2 cos 60 ö B1 16 cos 60
\ =ç ÷ or = ´
(BH)1 = B1 cos 30º and (BH)2 = B2 cos 60º 4 çè B1 cos 30 ÷ø B2 9 cos 30
Here T1 = 3 sec. and T2 = 4 sec.
B1 16 1 2 16
or = ´ ´ = or B1 : B2 = 16 : 9 3
B2 9 2 3 9 3
CONCEPT MAP
Directive
Magnet field due A freely suspended magnet always
to a bar magnet points in north-south direction
Force between two
Magnetism and Matter
magnetic poles
At a point on axial At a point on equatorial
m 2M m M m 0 m1m2
line B = 0 3 line B = 0 2 2 F=
4p d 4p (r + l )3 / 2 4p r 2
are negative inside the magnet angle each other of the net magnetic field
556 PHYSICS
1. The main difference between electric lines of force and (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
magnetic lines of force is (c) 1 : 1 (d) None of these
(a) electric lines of force are closed curves whereas magnetic 11. A watch glass containing some powdered substance is
lines of force are open curves placed between the pole pieces of a magnet. Deep concavity
(b) electric lines of force are open curves whereas magnetic is observed at the centre. The substance in the watch glass
lines of force are closed curves is
(c) magnetic lines of force cut each other whereas electric (a) iron (b) chromium
lines of force do not cut (c) carbon (d) wood
(d) electric lines of force cut each other whereas magnetic 12. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a
lines of force do not cut paramagnetic and a diamagnetic substance respectively. A
2. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns N, magnet when brought close to them will
then magnetic moment of the coil, M is (a) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
(b) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
Ni Ni (c) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly
(a) NiA (b) (c) (d) N2Ai
A A (d) attract all three of them
3. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If 13. A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earth’s magnetic field
the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature, then with a period T. What happens to its period and motion if
it will show its mass is quadrupled?
(a) anti ferromagnetism (b) no magnetic property (a) Motion remains S.H. and period remains nearly
(c) diamagnetism (d) paramagnetism constant
4. The line on the earth surface joining the point where the field T
(b) Motion remains S.H. with time period =
is horizontal, is called 2
(a) magnetic equator (b) magnetic line (c) Motion remains S.H. with time period = 2T
(c) magnetic axis (d) magnetic inertia (d) Motion remains S.H. with time period = 4T
5. When a ferromagnetic material is heated to temperature above 14. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M are placed
its Curie temperature, the material in a vibration magnetometer, with the identical poles in the
same direction. The time period of vibration is T1. If the
(a) is permanently magnetized
magnets are placed with opposite poles together and vibrate
(b) remains ferromagnetic
with time period T2, then
(c) behaves like a diamagnetic material
(a) T2 is infinite (b) T2 = T1
(d) behaves like a paramagnetic material
6. The force between two short bar magnets with magnetic (c) T2 > T1 (d) T2 < T1
moments M1 and M2 whose centres are r metres apart is 8 N
when their axes are in same line. if the separation is increased 15. If horizontal and vertical components of earths magnetic
to 2 r, the force between them in reduced to field are equal, then angle of dip is
(a) 4 N (b) 2 N (c) 1 N (d) 0.5 N (a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 90°
7. The magnet of pole strength m and magnetic moment M is 16. The magnetic materials having negative magnetic
cut into two pieces along its axis. Its pole strength and susceptibility are
magnetic moment now becomes (a) non-magnetic (b) para magnetic
(c) dia magnetic (d) ferro magnetic
m M M m 17. For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external
(a) , (b) m, (c) , M (d) m, M
2 2 2 2 electric arc, it should be
8. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M and length L is cut (a) wrapped with insulation around it when passing
into two equal parts each of length L/2. The magnetic moment current through it
of each part will be (b) placed inside an iron can
(c) surrounded with fine copper sheet
(a) M (b) M/4 (c) 2M (d) M/2 (d) placed inside an aluminium can
9. A superconductor exhibits perfect : 18. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south
(a) ferrimagnetism (b) ferromagnetism pole of a bar magnet, it is
(c) paramagnetism (d) diamagnetism (a) attracted by the poles
10. In end on and broadside on position of a deflection (b) repelled by the poles
magnetometer, if q1 and q2 are the deflections produced by (c) repelled by north pole and attracted by the south pole
(d) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south
short magnets at equal distances, then tan q1/ tanq2 is
pole
Magnetism and Matter 557
1. A bar magnet 8 cms long is placed in the magnetic merdian (a) 1 × 10–5 N m (b) 1.5 × 10–5 N m
with the N-pole pointing towards geographical north. Two –5
(c) 2 × 10 N m (d) 2.5 × 10–5 N m
netural points separated by a distance of 6 cms are obtained 6. When 2 ampere current is passed through a tangent
on the equatorial axis of the magnet. If horizontal component
galvanometer, it gives a deflection of 30º. For 60º deflection,
of earth’s field = 3.2 × 10–5 T, then pole strength of magnet
the current must be
is
(a) 5 ab-amp × c (b) 10 ab-amp × cm (a) 1 amp. (b) 2 3 amp.
(c) 2.5 ab-amp × cm (d) 20 ab-amp × cm
2. Two tangent galvanometers having coils of the same radius (c) 4 amp. (d) 6 amp.
are connected in series. A current flowing in them produces 7. A curve between magnetic moment and temperature of
deflections of 60º and 45º respectively. The ratio of the number magnet is
of turns in the coils is
3 +1 3 +1 3 (a) M (b) M
(a) 4/3 (b) (c) (d)
1 3 -1 1
3. Two identical magnetic dipoles of magnetic moments
1.0 A-m2 each, placed at a separation of 2 m with their axis
perpendicular to each other. The resultant magnetic field at
point midway between the dipole is T T
O O
(a) 5 × 10–7 T (b) 5 × 10–7 T
(c) 10 T–7 (d) 2 × 10–7 T
4. Two isolated point poles of strength 30 A-m and 60 A-m are (c) M (d) M
placed at a distance of 0.3m. The force of repulsion is
(a) 2 × 10–3 N (b) 2 × 10–4 N
(c) 2 × 10 N 5 (d) 2 × 10–5 N
5. The magnetic moment of a magnet is 0.1 amp × m2. It is
suspended in a magnetic field of intensity 3 × 10–4 weber/m2. T T
The couple acting upon it when deflected by 30º from the O O
magnetic field is
558 PHYSICS
8. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (x) with temperature 12. A thin bar magnet of length 2 l and breadth 2 b pole strength
for a diamagnetic substance is best represented by m and magnetic moment M is divided into four equal parts
with length and breadth of each part being half of original
(a) (b) magnet. Then the pole strength of each part is
(a) m (b) m/2 (c) 2 m (d) m/4
13. In the above question, magnetic moment of each part is
O T O T (a) M/4 (b) M (c) M/2 (d) 2 M
14. Two points A and B are situated at a distance x and 2x
respectively from the nearer pole of a magnet 2 cm long. The
ratio of magnetic field at A and B is
(c) (d) (a) 4 : 1 exactly (b) 4 : 1 approximately
(c) 8 : 1 approximately (d) 1 : 1 approximately
15. If a magnet is suspended at angle 30º to the magnetic meridian,
the dip needle makes an angle of 45º with the horizontal.
The real dip is
T O T
O (a) tan -1 ( 3 / 2 ) (b) tan -1 ( 3 )
9. At a temperatur of 30°C, the susceptibility of a ferromagnetic
(c) tan -1 ( 3 / 2) (d) tan -1 (2 / 3 )
material is found to be c . Its susceptibility at 333°C is
(a) c (b) 0.5 c (c) 2 c (d) 11.1 c 16. Two bar magnets of the same mass, same length and breadth
but having magnetic moments M and 2M are joined together
10. Of the following fig., the lines of magnetic induction due to
pole for pole and suspended by a string. The time period of
a magnet SN, are given by
assembly in a magnetic field of strength H is 3 seconds. If
now the polarity of one of the magnets is reversed and
N N
combination is again made to oscillate in the same field, the
time of oscillation is
(a) 3 sec (b) 3 3 sec
(c) 3 sec (d) 6 sec
17. A compass needle placed at a distance r from a short magnet
S S in Tan A position shows a deflection of 60º. If the distance is
(1) (2) increased to r (3)1/3, then deflection of compass needle is
N N 1
(a) 30º (b) 60´ 3 3
2 3
(c) 60´ 3 3 (d) 60´ 3 3
18. Two short magnets have equal pole strengths but one is
S S twice as long as the other. The shorter magnet is placed 20
(3) (4)
cms in tan A position from the compass needle. The longer
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 magnet must be placed on the other side of the magnetometer
11. The B – H curve (i) and (ii) shown in fig. associated with for no deflection at a distance equal to
(a) 20 cms (b) 20 (2)1/3 cms
B
(i) (c) 20 (2)2/3 cms (d) 20 (2)3/3 cms
(ii) 19. A dip needle lies initially in the magnetic meridian when it
shows an angle of dip q at a place. The dip circle is rotated
H through an angle x in the horizontal plane and then it shows
an angle of dip q'.
tan q '
Then is
(a) (i) diamagnetic and (ii) paramagnetic substance tan q
(b) (i) paramagnetic and (ii) ferromagnetic substance
1 1 1
(c) (i) soft iron and (ii) steel respectively (a) (b) (c) (d) cos x
cos x sin x tan x
(d) (i) steel and (ii) soft iron respectively
Magnetism and Matter 559
20. A dip circle is so set that its needle moves freely in the 29. The net magnetic moment of two identical magnets each of
magnetic meridian. In this position, the angle of dip is 40º. magnetic moment M0, inclined at 60° with each other is
(a) M 0 N
Now the dip circle is rotated so that the plane in which the
needle moves makes an angle of 30º with the magnetic
(b) 2 M0
meridian. In this position, the needle will dip by an angle
(a) 40º (b) 30º (c) 3 M0
60°
(c) more than 40º (d) less than 40º (d) 2M0 S N
21. Work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M by 30. A magnetic needle vibrates in a vertical plane parallel to the
an angle of 90º from the mgnetic meridian is n times the magnetic meridian about a horizontal axis passing through
corresponding work done to turn through an angle of 60º, its centre. Its frequency is n. If the plane of oscillation is
where n is turned about a vertical axis by 90°C, the frequency of its
oscillation in vertical plane will be
(a) 1/2 (b) 2 (c) 1/4 (d) 1
(a) n (b) zero
22. Two magnets are held together in a vibration magnetometer (c) less than n (d) more than n
and are allowed to oscillate in the earth’s magnetic field with 31. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period of
like poles together. 12 oscillations per minute are made but oscillation of 4 s. If it is broken into two halves (each having
for unlike poles together only 4 oscillations per minute are half the original length) and one of the pieces is suspended
executed. The ratio of their magnetic moments is similarly. The period of its oscillation will be
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 4 (a) 4 s (b) 2 s
(c) 0.5 s (d) 0.25 s
23. At a certain place, horizontal component is 3 times the
32. A steel wire of length l has a magnetic moment M. It is bent
vertical component. The angle of dip at this place is in L-shape (Figure). The new magnetic moment is
(a) 0 (b) p/3 (a) M
(c) p/6 (d) None of these
M
24. A freely suspended magnet oscillates with period T in earth’s (b) l
horizontal magnetic field. When a bar magnet is brought 2 2
near it, such that the magnetic field created by bar magnet is
M
in same direction as earth’s horizontal magnetic field, the (c) l
2 2
T
period decreases to . The ratio of the field of the magnet (d) 2M
2
F to the earth’s magnetic field (H) is 33. The time period of oscillation of a magnet in a vibration
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 9 : 1 magnetometer is 1.5 sec. The time period of oscillation of
25. If relative permeability of iron is 2000. Its absolute another magnet similar in size, shape and mass but having
permeability in S.I. units is 1/4 magnetic moment than that of the 1st magnet oscillating
(a) 8p × 10–4 (b) 8p × 10–3 at the same place will be
(c) 800/p (d) 8p × 109/p (a) 0.75 sec (b) 1.5 sec
26. A steel wire of length l has a magnetic moment M. It is then (c) 3.0 sec (d) 6.0 sec
bent into a semicircular arc. The new magnetic moment is 34. Time periods of vibation of two bar magnets in sum and
M 2M 3M 4M difference positions are 4 sec and 6 sec respectively. The
(a) (b) (c) (d)
p p p p ratio of their magnetic moments M1 / M2 is
27. The magnetic moment of atomic neon is equal to (a) 6 : 4 (b) 30 : 16
1 3 (c) 2 . 6 : 1 (d) 1 . 5 : 1
(a) zero (b) µB (c) µB (d) µB 35. Horizontal component of earth's field at a height of 1 m from
2 2
the surface of earth is H. Its value at a height of 10 m from
28. Torques t1 and t 2 are required for a magnetic needle to
surface of earth is
remain perpendicular to the magnetic fields at two different
places. The magnetic fields at those places are B1 and B2 (a) H/10 (b) H/9
(c) H/100 (d) H
B1
respectively; then ratio is 36. If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, the field in the core
B2
compared to that in empty core will be slightly
t2 t1 (a) greater (b) smaller
(a) (b)
t1 t2 (c) equal (d) None of these
37. The relative permeability of a medium is 0.075. What is its
t1 + t 2 t1 - t 2 magnetic susceptibility?
(c) (d)
t1 - t 2 t1 + t 2 (a) 0.925 (b) – 0.925 (c) 1.075 (d) –1.075
560 PHYSICS
T2 = 2p
K
= 2p
K EXERCISE - 2
(2M - M) H MH
6
Obviously T2 > T1 1. (a) Here, 2l = 8 cm , l = 4 cm , d = = 3 cm .
2
At neutral point,
B
15. (b) tan q = V = 1, BV = BH m0 M
BH H =B=
4 p (d 2 + l 2 )3 / 2
q = tan -1 (1) = 45°
M M
= 10 - 7 =
16. (c) cm is negative for diamagnetic materials. (5 ´ 10 -2 3
) 1250
17. (b) The iron can produces a magnetic screening for the
equipment as lines of magnetic force can not enter iron \ M = 1250 H = 1250 ´ 3.2 ´ 10 -5 Am 2
enclosure.
Magnetism and Matter 563
m 0 2 M 10-7 ´ 2 ´ 1 T22 2M + M
\ B1 = = = 2 ´ 10-7 16. (b) = =3 \ T2 = T1 3 = 3 3 s.
4 p d3 13 T12 2M - M
m M
and B2 = 0 3 = 10-7 tan q 2 d13 r3 1
4p d 17. (a) = 3 = =
tan q1 d 2 [r (3)1/ 3 ]3 3
ml M
I , So, M' = =
24. (c) T1 = 2p 2 2
HM
I T2 M1 M1
T2 = 2p 33. (c) = = =2
(H + F)M T1 M2 1
M1
4
T12 H+F T2 4 \ T2 = 2T1 = 3 s
= = = Þ H + F = 4H
T22 H 2
T /4 1
M1 T22 + T12 62 + 42 52
Þ 3H = F 34. (c) = = = = ( 2.6 ) :1
M 2 T22 - T12 62 - 42 20
25. (a) m = m0 mr = (4 p´10-7 ) ´ 2000 = 8 p´10 -4 S.I. units
35. (d) The value of H is fairly uniform.
26. (b) Let pole strength = m 36. (b) Field in the core with Bismuth will be smaller because
So, M = ml
bismuth is diamagnetic.
When wire is in form of arc, then the distance between
2l 37. (b) From m r = 1 + c m ;
poles =
p
Magnetic suscaptibility, c m = m r - 1
m 2l 2M
So, M ' = = cm = 0.075 - 1 = - 0.925.
p p
27. (a) Magnetic moment is cancelled and mnet = 0. 38. (b) For a diamagnetic material, the value of µr is less than
28. (c) t = MB sin q (q = 90°) one. For any material, the value of Îr is always greater
than 1.
B1 t1
t = MB Þ = (since magnetic moment is same) 39. (a) Intensity of magnetisation
B2 t2
M 1.2
29. (c) Mnet = M 20 + M02 + 2M 02 cos 60 ° Ιm = = = 4 ´ 104 A m -1
V (15 ´ 2 ´ 1)10-6
I T
So, T ' = 2p Þ T' = = 2 sec .
4MB 2
32. (b) Magnetic moment, M = ml
D
M B C
= m , where m is the polestrength. l
l
Magnetism and Matter 565
t EXERCISE - 3
\ A= = 1/2 (BC) (AD)
iB Exemplar Questions
2
1 1 ælö 3 2 1. (c) Toroid is a hollow circular ring on which a large number
But (BC)(AD) = (l ) l 2 - ç ÷ = l
2 2 è 2ø 4 of turns of a wire are closely wound. Thus, in this case
magnetic field is only confined inside the body of toroid.
3 2 t So no magnetic field outside the toroid and magnetic
Þ (l ) =
4 Bi field only inside the toroid.
1 In case of toroid, the magnetic field is in the form of
æ t ö2 concentric magnetic lines of force and there is no
\ l = 2ç ÷
è 3 B.i ø magnetic field outside the body of toroid. This is
because the loop encloses no current. Thus, the
43. (b) magnetic moment of toroid is zero.
44. (d) Time period of a vibration magnetometer, In other case, if we take r as a large distance outside
1
1 T1 B2 the toroid, then mµ 3 . Which is not possible.
Tµ Þ = r
B T2 B1 2. (a) Magnetic declination is an angle between angle of
magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian.
B1 As the earth’s magnetism, the magnetic field lines of
Þ T2 = T1 the earth resemble that of a hypothetical magnetic
B2
dipole located at the centre of the earth.
The axis of the dipole does not coincide with the axis of
24 ´10-6 rotation of the earth but is presently tilted by 11.3°
=2 = 4s
6 ´ 10-6 (approx) with respect to geographical of axis earth. This
results into two situations as given in the figure.
45. (b) Force on a charged particle is given by F = qvB. Here N N
v = 0 and also resultant B is zero. 11
.3
º
.3
\ Force = 0 S º S
11
W E W E
46. (a) For stable equilibrium N
11.3º N
U = –MB = – (0.4) (0.16) = – 0.064 J
S S
47. (c) The susceptibility of ferromagnetic substan ce
decreases with the rise of temperature in a complicated So, the declination varies between 11.3° W to 11.3° E .
manner. After Curies point in the susceptibility of 3. (d) We know that a permanent magnet is a substance which
ferromagnetic substance varies inversely with its at room temperature retain ferromagnetic property for a
absolute tempearture. Ferromagnetic substance obey’s long period of time. The individual atoms in a
Curie’s law only above its Curie point. ferromagnetic material possess a dipole moment as in a
paramagnetic material. However, they interact with one
48. (b) A magnetic field is produced by the motion of electric
another in such a way that they spontaneously align
charge. Since motion is relative, the magnetic field is themselves in a common direction over a macroscopic
also relative. volume i.e., domain.
49. (d) A paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation Hence, in a permanent magnet at room temperature,
when cooled, this is because at lower temperature, the domains are all perfectly aligned.
tendency to disrupt the alignment of dipoles (due to 4. (b) The electric field lines, do not form a continuous path
magnetising field) decreases on account of reduced while the magnetic field lines form the closed paths.
random thermal motion.
q
50. (b) Electromagnets are magnets, which can be turnd on
and off by switching the current on and off.
Gauss’s law states that, Ñò E.ds = e
s 0
for electrostatic
As the material in electromagnets is subjected to cyclic field. So, it does not contradict for electrostatic fields as
changes (magnification and demangetisation), the the electric field lines do not form closed continuous
hysteresis loss of the material must be small. The path.
material should attain high value of I and B with low According to Gauss’ law in magnetic field,
Ñò E.ds = 0
value of magnetising field intensity H. As soft iron has
small coercivity, so it is a best choice for this purpose. s
566 PHYSICS
H2
r 30º 30º or = cot 2 q1 + cot 2 q 2
60º V2
i.e., cot 2 q = cot 2 q1 + cot 2 q2
Electromagnetic
21 Induction
THE EXPERIMENTS OF FARADAY AND HENRY When the bar magnet is pushed towards the coil, the pointer in
The discovery and understanding of electromagnetic induction the galvanometer G deflects.
are based on a long series of experiments carried out by Faraday Current is induced in coil C1 due to motion of the current carrying
and Henry. These experiments are illustrated by the following coil C2
figures.
6. Increases the speed of the magnet. The deflection in the galvanometer increases.
7. Increase the strength of the magnet. The deflection in the galvanometer increases.
8. Increase the diameter of the coil. The deflection in the galvanometer increases.
9. Fix the speed of the magnet but The deflection in the galvanometer increases.
repeat the experiment with the
magnet closer to the coil.
10. Move the magnet at an angle to Deflection decreases, it is maximum when the magnet moves perpendicular to the
the plane of the coil. plane of the coil and is zero when the magnet moves parallel to the plane of the coil.
11. Increase the number of turns of Magnitude of current increases.
the coil.
Case (ii) In disc: Induced e.m.f generated in a disc rotating with (b) the direction of induced current in the loop will
a constant angular velocity in a perpendicular magnetic be anti-clockwise so that it may oppose the
field increase of magnetic flux in the loop in upward
Br 2 w direction.
e = –BAf = -Bpr 2 f = - A B
2
where A = area of disc = pr2, r = radius of disc, P
w = angular velocity of disc.
Case (iii) In two coils: When two coils are arranged as shown in
O
the figure
P
Q Case (vi) Magnet dropped freely in long vertical copper tube:
The resistance of copper tube is quite negligible and
+ - hence maximum induced current are generated in it
K due to the motion of the magnet. Due to these induced
current the motion of magnet is opposed to maximum.
(a) if key K is closed then current in P will flow in Consequently the acceleration of the magnet will be
clockwise direction and consequently induced zero (a = g – g = 0).
current in Q will flow in anticlockwise direction.
S
(see fig. a)
(b) when key K is opened then current in P falls from
maximum to zero and consequently induced
current in Q will flow in clockwise direction. (see N
g
fig. b)
g
P P a= g–g =0
Q Q
O Case (vii) Magnet dropped freely into a long solenoid of copper
O wire: The resistance of copper solenoid is much higher
than that of copper tube. Hence the induced current
in it, due to motion of magnet, will be much less than
(a) (b)
that in the tube. Consequently the opposition to the
Case (iv) In three coils arranged coaxially : Three coils P, Q motion of magnet will be less and the magnet will fall
and R are arranged coaxially as shown in figure. Equal with an acceleration (a) less than g. (i.e. a < g).
currents are flowing in coils P and R . Coils Q and R are S
fixed. Coil P is moved towards Q. The induced current
in Q will be in anti-clockwise direction so that it may
oppose the approach of P according to Lenz’s law. As
the face of P towards Q is a south pole hence plane of
Q towards P will also be a south pole. N
Induced current
a <g
P Q R Axis
Observer
coils Case (viii) Motional EMF: Induced emf in a conducting rod moving
As there is no relative motion between Q and R, hence perpendicular through a uniform magnetic field as
no current is induced in Q due to R. shown
Case (v) Current increases in straight conductor : When × ++× × ×
current in the straight conductor is increased then
(a) the direction of induced current in the loop will
be clockwise so that it may oppose the increase of ×l × × B
×
magnetic flux in the loop in downward direction. v
P
× –– × × ×
The induced emf produced across the rod
O l
r r
e = Blv = ò(v ´ B).dl
0
Special case : If the rod moves in the magnetic field making an The induced emf or current I is shown which is in
angle q with it, then induced emf e = Bn vl = Bvl sin q . accordance to Lenz’s law. Here the varying magnetic field
at the location of loop (due to the movement of magnet)
COMMON DEFAULT
creates an electric field.
û Incorrect. When there is no change in magnetic flux no
induced current is produced.
We should remember certain points regarding the induced
electric field produced due to changing magnetic field.
ü Correct. Consider the case (viii) discussed above. There is
no change in the magnetic flux throgh the rod, still induced · Induced electric field lines form closed loops (different
emf is produced. from the electric field lines used to depict electric field
Case (ix) A straight conductor (slider) moving with velocity v produced due to charges)
on a U shaped wire placed in a uniform magnetic field. · Induced electric field is non-conservative in nature
Blv (again a difference from the electric field produced by
The induced current produced is I = electric charges)
R
Case (x) When a rectangular loop perpendicular to the magnetic
df
field is pulled out, then forces F1 and F3 being equal Mathematically, e = ò E .dl = - ¹0
dt
and opposite cancel out.
2 1
= B w (l / 2 ) = B wl2
Stationary loop 2
Electromagnetic Induction 571
Example 2. b
A conductor of length 10 cm is moved parallel to itself with
a speed of 10 m/s at right angles to a uniform magnetic
induction 10–4 Wb/m². What is the induced e.m.f. in it?
Solution : c a
Given : l = 10 cm = 0.1 m, v = 10 m/s
B = 10–4 Wb/m2 Fig. 3
e.m.f. induced in conductor
e = B l V = 10–4 × 0.1 × 10 = 10–4 V
Example 3.
A metal rod of length 1 m is rotated about one of its ends in
a plane right angles to a field of inductance 2.5 × 10–3 a b
Fig. 4
Wb/m². If it makes 1800 revolutions/min. Calculate induced
e.m.f. between its ends.
Solution :
Given : l = 1m, B = 5 × 10–3 Wb/m2
1800
f= = 30 rotations/sec
60 Decreasing at
I a stead rate
In one rotation, the moving rod of the metal traces a circle of
radius r = l Fig.5
\ Area swept in one rotation = pr2 Solution :
df d dA Bpr 2 Applying Lenz’s law
= ( BA ) = B. = = B f p r2
dt dt dt T Fig. (1) along a ® b
= (5 × 10–3) × 3.14 × 30 × 1 = 0.471 V Fig. (2) along b ® a
\ e.m.f. induced in a metal rod = 0.471 V Fig. (3) along c ® a
Example 4. Fig. (4) along a ® b
A coil having 100 turns and area 0.001 metre2 is free to Fig. (5) no induced current since field lines lie in the plane
rotate about an axis. The coil is placed perpendicular to a of the loop.
magnetic field of 1.0 weber/metre2. If the coil is rotate
rapidly through an angle of 180°, how much charge will
flow through the coil? The resistance of the coil is 10 ohm. EDDY CURRENTS
Solution : The induced circulating currents produced in a metal itself due
The flux linked with the coil when the plane of the coil is to change in magnetic flux linked with the metal are called
perpendicular to the magnetic field is eddy currents. These currents were discovered by Foucault, so
f = nAB cos q = nAB. they are also known as Foucault Currents.
Change in flux on rotating the coil by 180° is The direction of eddy currents is given by Lenz’s law.
df = nAB – (–nAB) = 2nAB Eddy currents produced in a metallic block moving in a
non-uniform magnetic field is shown in fig.
df
\ induced charge =
R
2nAB 2 ´ 100 ´ 0.001 ´ 1
= =
dt 10
= 0.01 coulomb
Example 5.
Predict the direction of induced current in the situations
described by the following fig. (1) to (5).
In a moving coil galvanometer, damping is necessary 2. The self inductance is a measure of the coil to oppose the
to avoid oscillation of display needle. This is brought into practice flow of current through it. The role of self-inductance in an
with the help of eddy currents. The winding of the coil of electrical circuit is the same as that of the inertia in
galvanometer is done on a metallic frame. When the coil rotates mechanics. Therefore it is called electrical inertia.
the magnetic flux linked with the metallic frame changes due to 3. The magnetic energy density (energy stored per unit
which eddy currents are developed which oppose the rotation of B2
the coil. This is called dead beat galvanometer. volume) in a solenoid =
2m 0
SELF INDUCTANCE AND MUTUAL INDUCTANCE
Self Inductance Mutual Inductance
The property of a coil by virtue of which the coil opposes any Mutual induction is the property of two coils by virtue of which
change in the strength of the current flowing through it, by each opposes any change in the strength of current flowing
inducing an e.m.f. in itself is called self inductance. through the other by developing an induced e.m.f.
Coil Second
First coil coil
Direction of
induced e.m.f. Mutual
(e)
K induction
Keep in Memory When the armature coil ABCD rotates in the magnetic field
provided by the strong field magnet, it cuts the magnetic lines of
1. Coefficient of self inductance of two coils in series : force. Thus the magnetic flux linked with the coil changes and
hence induced emf is set up in the coil. The direction of the
L1 L2 Ls = L1 + L2 induced emf or the current in the coil is determined by the
The effective self inductance is Ls = L1 + L2 Fleming’s right hand rule.
If M is the coefficient of mutual inductance between the The current flows out through the brush B1 in one direction of
two coils when they have flux linkage in the same sense,then half of the revolution and through the brush B2 in the next half
L = L1 + L2 + 2M revolution in the reverse direction. This process is repeated.
Therefore, emf produced is of alternating nature.
L1
Ndf
e=- = NBAw sin wt = e 0 sin wt , where e0 = NBAw
dt
L1 L2 e e
L2 I = = 0 sin wt = I0 sin wt , R ® resistance of the circuit
R R
And for flux linkage in opposite direction
DC MOTOR
L = L1 + L2 – 2M
2. Coefficient of self inductance of two coils in parallel : A D.C. motor converts direct current energy from a battery into
mechanical energy of rotation.
L1
Principle : It is based on the fact that when a coil carrying current
Lp is held in a magnetic field, it experiences a torque, which rotates
the coil.
Working :
L2
1 1 1 B C C B
= +
L p L1 L 2
(i) The coefficient of coupling between two coils having N S N S
self inductance L1 & L2 and coefficient of mutual
inductance M is A D D A
B1 B2 B1 B2
±M
K= R1 R2 R2 R1
L1 L 2
(ii) Generally the value of K is less than 1. V V
(iii) If K is 1, then the coupling of two coils is tight while if
K < 1, then coupling is loose. The battery sends current through the armature coil in the
· Inductance is pure geometrical factor,and is direction shown in fig. Applying Fleming’s left hand rule, CD
experiences a force directed inwards and perpendicular to the
independent of current or applied e.m.f.
plane of the coil. Similarly, AB experiences a force directed
· If the angle between the axis of two closely placed outwards and perpendicular to the plane of the coil. These two
coil is q then M µ cos q . forces being equal, unlike and parallel form a couple. The couple
AC GENERATOR/DYNAMO/ALTERNATOR rotates the armature coil in the anticlockwise direction. After the
coil has rotated through 180°, the direction of the current in AB
An electrical machine used to convert mechanical energy into and CD is reversed, fig. Now CD experiences an outward force
electrical energy is known as AC generator/alternator or and AB experiences an inward force. The armature coil thus
dynamo. continues rotating in the same i.e., anticlockwise direction.
Principle : It works on the principle of electromagnetic induction, Efficiency of the d.c. motor : Since the current I is being supplied
i.e., when a coil is rotated in uniform magnetic field, an induced to the armature coil by the external source of e.m.f. V, therefore,
emf is produced in it.
Input electric power = VI
Working : According to Joule’s law of heating,
B C Power lost in the form of heat in the coil = I2 R
If we assume that there is no other loss of power, then
Power converted into external work
N S i.e., Output mechanical power = VI – I2 R = (V – IR) I = EI
A D
\ Efficiency of the d.c. motor
B1
R1 Output mechanical power
h=
RL Output Input electric power
R2 EI E Back e.m. f .
B2 or h= = =
VI V Applied e.m. f .
574 PHYSICS
perpendicular to each other flux linked with the µ rate of change of –df
2
then if thumb ® direction circuit changes an emf is magnetic flux e = dt
of motion; forefinger ® induced in the circuit
direction of magnetic field Magnetic flux
then central finger ®induced fB = B.A=BA cos q
current
Lenz's law Direction
of induced emf or current
Faraday's laws of is always in such a way
electromagnetic that it opposes cause due
Induction Ac Generator or Dynamo
Induced current in a coil rotated Produces electrical energy to which it is produced. It
in uniform magnetic field from mechanical energy. It is in accordance with
works on EMI principle conservation of energy
NBA w sin wt
I=
R ELECTROMAGNETIC
INDUCTION (EMI)
Generation of current or emf
by changing magnetic field
Eddy current Induced, Mutual Inductance Induced
when magnetic flux linked emf in a circuit due to change
with the conductor changes in magnetic flux in its
Inductance A measure
neighbouring circuit. Coefficients
of the ratio of the flux
of mutual inductance
to the current f
M=
I
18. A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a 21. If the number of turns per unit length of a coil of solenoid is
large square loop of side L (L >> l ). The loop are coplanar doubled, the self-inductance of the solenoid will
and their centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the (a) remain unchanged(b) be halved
system is proportional is (c) be doubled (d) become four times
22. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is
l l2 L L2 moved in a magnetic field depend on
(a) (b) (c) (d)
L L l l (a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
19. As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked to the (b) initial magnetic flux only
closed loop shown in the figure, an e.m.f. V volt is induced (c) the total change in magnetic flux
in the loop. (d) final magnetic flux only
23. Lenz’s law is consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) energy (b) momentum
(c) charge (d) mass
24. If rotational velocity of a dynamo armature is doubled, then
induced e.m.f. will become
(a) half (b) two times
The work done (in joule) in taking a charge Q coulomb once (c) four times (d) unchanged
along the loop is 25. Choke coil works on the principle of
(a) QV (b) 2QV (c) QV/2 (d) zero (a) transient current (b) self induction
20. A wire loop is rotated in a uniform magnetic field about an (c) mutual induction (d) wattless current
axis perpendicular to the field. The direction of the current
induced in the loop reverses once each
(a) quarter revolution (b) half revolution
(c) full revolution (d) two revolutions
1. A current i = 2 sin (pt/3) amp is flowing in an inductor of 2 4. A generator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal resistance
henry. The amount of work done in increasing the current of 4000 hm. Its terminals are connected to a load of 4000
from 1.0 amp to 2.0 amp is ohm. The voltage across the load is
(a) 1 J (b) 2 J (c) 3 J (d) 4 J (a) 220 volt (b) 440 volt
2. Fig shown below represents an area A = 0.5 m2 situated in a (c) 200 volt (d) 400 volt
uniform magnetic field B = 2.0 weber/m2 and making an 5. When the current in a coil changes from 2 amp. to 4 amp. in
angle of 60º with respect to magnetic field. 0.05 sec., an e.m.f. of 8 volt is induced in the coil. The
coefficient of self inductance of the coil is
(a) 0.1 henry (b) 0.2 henry
B (c) 0.4 henry (d) 0.8 henry
60 6. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m rotated about its centre with
10 revolutions per second in a uniform magnetic field of 0.1
tesla with its plane perpendicular to the field. The e.m.f.
induced across the radius of disc is
The value of the magnetic flux through the area would be p 2p
equal to (a) volt (b) volt
10 10
(a) 2.0 weber (b) 3 weber (c) p ´10 -2 volt (d) 2p ´ 10 -2 volt
(c) 3 / 2 weber (d) 0.5 weber
7. A coil has 200 turns and area of 70 cm2. The magnetic field
3. In a coil of area 10 cm2 and 10 turns with magnetic field
perpendicular to the plane of the coil is 0.3 Wb/m2 and take 0.1
directed perpendicular to the plane and is changing at the
sec to rotate through 180º.The value of the induced e.m.f. will
rate of 108 Gauss/second. The resistance of the coil is 20W.
be
The current in the coil will be
(a) 0.5 A (b) 5 A (a) 8.4 V (b) 84 V
(c) 50 A (d) 5 × 108 A (c) 42 V (d) 4.2 V
578 PHYSICS
8. If a current increases from zero to one ampere in 0.1 second The current induced in the loop is
in a coil of 5 mH, then the magnitude of the induced e.m.f.
will be Bl v Bl v
(a) clockwise (b) anticlockwise
(a) 0.005 volt (b) 0.5 volt R R
(c) 0.05 volt (d) 5 volt
9. A 100 millihenry coil carries a current of 1 ampere. Energy 2Blv
(c) anticlockw ise (d) zero
stored in its magnetic field is R
(a) 0.5 J (b) 1 J (c) 0.05 J (d) 0.1 J 19. The two rails of a railway track, insulated from each other
10. The armature of a dc motor has 20W resistance. It draws a and the ground, are connected to millivoltmeter. What is
current of 1.5 A when run by a 220 V dc supply. The value the reading of the millivoltmeter when a train passes at a
of the back emf induced in it is speed of 180 km/hr along the track, given that the vertical
(a) 150 V (b) 170 V (c) 180 V (d) 190 V component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.2 × 10–4 wb/m2 and
11. In the figure the flux through the loop perpendicular to the rails are separated by 1 metre
plane of the coil and directed into the paper is varying (a) 10–2 volt (b) 10mV
according to the relation f = 6t2 + 7t + 1 where f is in
(c) 1 volt (d) 1mV
milliweber and t is in second. The magnitude of the emf
induced in the loop at t = 2 s and the direction of induce 20. A long solenoid having 200 turns per cm carries a current of
current through R are Ä Ä Ä Ä Ä
1.5 amp. At the centre of it is placed a coil of 100 turns of
Ä Ä Ä Ä Ä cross-sectional area 3.14 × 10–4 m2 having its axis parallel to
(a) 39 mV; right to left the field produced by the solenoid. When the direction of
Ä Ä Ä Ä Ä
(b) 39 mV; left to right Ä Ä Ä Ä Ä current in the solenoid is reversed within 0.05 sec, the induced
(c) 31 mV; right to left Ä Ä Ä Ä Ä e.m.f. in the coil is
(d) 31 mV; left to right (a) 0.48 V (b) 0.048 V
R
12. A coil having 500 square loops each of side 10 cm is placed (c) 0.0048 V (d) 48 V
normal to a magnetic field which increases at the rate of 21. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005H. The current
1 Wb/m2. The induced e.m.f. is changes in first coil according to equation I = I0 sin wt
(a) 0.1 V (b) 5.0 V (c) 0.5 V (d) 1.0 V where I0 = 10A and w = 100p radian/sec. The max. value of
13. A circular coil and a bar magnet placed nearby are made to e.m.f. in second coil is
move in the same direction. If the coil covers a distance of (a) 2p (b) 5p
1 m in 0.5. sec and the magnet a distance of 2 m in 1 sec, the (c) p (d) 4p
induced e.m.f. produced in the coil is 22. A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one of
(a) zero (b) 0.5 V (c) 1 V (d) 2 V. its ends at angular velocity 5 radians per second. If the
14. Magnetic flux f in weber in a closed circuit of resistance horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is
10W varies with time f (sec) as f = 6t2 – 5t + 1. The magnitude 0.2 × 10–4T, then the e.m.f. developed between the two ends of
of induced current at t = 0.25s is the conductor is
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0.6 A (c) 1.2 A (d) 0.8 A (a) 5 mV (b) 50 mV
15. The current in a coil of L = 40 mH is to be increased uniformly (c) 5 mV (d) 50mV
from 1A to 11A in 4 milli sec. The induced e.m.f. will be
23. Two identical induction coils each of inductance L are
(a) 100 V (b) 0.4 V (c) 440 V (d) 40 V jointed in series are placed very close to each other such
16. The self inductance of the motor of an electric fan is 10 H. that the winding direction of one is exactly opposite to that
In order to impart maximum power at 50 Hz, it should be of the other, what is the net inductance?
connected to a capacitance of
(a) L2 (b) 2 L
(a) 8 mF (b) 4 mF (c) 2 mF (d) 1 mF (c) L /2 (d) zero
17. The flux linked with a coil at any instant 't' is given by 24. A thin circular ring of area A is held perpendicular to a
f = 10t2 – 50t + 250. The induced emf at t = 3s is uniform magnetic field of induction B. A small cut is made in
(a) –190 V (b) –10 V (c) 10 V (d) 190 V the ring and a galvanometer is connected across the ends
18. A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves such that the total resistance of the circuit is R. When the
in its plane with a uniform velocity v perpendicular to one ring is suddenly squeezed to zero area, the charge flowing
of its side. A magnetic induction B constant in time and through the galvanometer is
space, pointing perpendicular and into the plane of the
loop exists everywhere. BR AB
(a) (b)
x x x x x x A R
x x x x x x x x
x x x x x vx B B2 A
x x x x x (c) ABR (d)
x x x x x x R2
Electromagnetic Induction 579
25. Consider the situation shown. The wire AB is sliding on 31. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on a
fixed rails with a constant velocity. If the wire AB is replaced table without touching each other. Loop A carries a current
by semi-circular wire, the magnitude of induced e.m.f. will which increases with time. In response the loop B
Ä Ä Ä A Ä Ä (a) remains stationary
Ä Ä Ä Ä Ä (b) is attracted by loop A
Ä Ä vÄ Ä Ä R (c) is repelled by loop A
Ä Ä Ä Ä Ä
(d) rotates about is CM with CM fixed
32. A square loop of side a is rotating about its diagonal with
r
Ä Ä Ä B Ä Ä
angular velocity w in a perpendicular magnetic field B . It
(a) increase has 10 turns. The emf induced is
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) increase or decrease depending on whether the semi-
circle buldges towards the resistance or away from it. × × × ×B
26. A coil is wound on a frame of rectangular cross-section. If
all the linear dimensions of the frame are increased by a
factor 2 and the number of turns per unit length of the coil a
remains the same, self-inductance of the coil increases by
(a) B a2 sin wt (b) B a2 cos wt
a factor of
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16 (c) 5 2 B a2 (d) 10 B a2 sin wt
27. A horizontal telegraph wire 0.5 km long running 33. In fig., final value of current in 10W resistor, when plug of
east and west in a part of a circuit whose resistance is 2.5 key K is inserted is
1H
W. The wire falls to g = 10.0 m/s2 and B = 2 × 10–5 weber/
3
m 2 , then the current induced in the circuit is (a) A
10
(a) 0.7 amp (b) 0.04 amp
3 10 W
(c) 0.02 amp (d) 0.01 amp (b) A
28. A conductor of length 0.4 m is moving with a speed of 20 30 W
37. A varying current in a coil change from 10A to zero in 0.5 43. A coil of resistance 400W is placed in a magnetic field. If
sec. If the average e.m.f induced in the coil is 220V, the self- the magnetic flux f (wb) linked with the coil varies with time
inductance of the coil is t (sec) as f = 50t2 + 4. The current in the coil at t = 2 sec is
(a) 5 H (b) 6 H (c) 11 H (d) 12 H (a) 0.5 A (b) 0.1 A (c) 2 A (d) 1 A
38. In an inductor of self-inductance L = 2 mH, current changes 44. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a
with time according to relation i = t2e–t. At what time emf is bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb decreases
zero? when
(a) 4s (b) 3s (c) 2s (d) 1s (a) number of turns in the coil is reduced
39. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes (b) a capacitance of reactance XC = XL is included in
by an amount Df in a time Dt. Then the total quantity of the same circuit
electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during (c) an iron rod is inserted in the coil
the time Dt is represented by (d) frequency of the AC source is decreased
Df 1 Df 45. A magnetic field of 2 × 10–2 T acts at right angles to a coil of
(a) Q = R. (b) Q= .
Dt R Dt area 100 cm2, with 50 turns. The average e.m.f. induced in
Df Df the coil is 0.1 V, when it is removed from the field in t sec.
(c) Q= (d) Q =
R Dt The value of t is
40. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic (a) 10 s (b) 0.1 s
field, B = 0.025 T with its plane perpendicular to the loop. (c) 0.01 s (d) 1 s
The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate 46. A rectangular coil of 20 turns and area of cross-section 25
of 1 mm s–1. The induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2 cm, is sq. cm has a resistance of 100W. If a magnetic field which is
(a) 2pm V (b) pm V perpendicular to the plane of coil changes at a rate of 1000
tesla per second, the current in the coil is
p
(c) mV (d) 2 m V (a) 1 A (b) 50 A
2
41. The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the (c) 0.5 A (d) 5 A
figure. The variation of induced emf with time would be DIRECTIONS for Qs. (47 to 50) : Each question contains
STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
i
(ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following.
(a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(b) Statement -2 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
correct explanation for Statement-1
0 t (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
T/4 T/2 3T/4 T
a correct explanation for Statement-1
emf emf
(d) Statement -2 is true, Statement-2 is false
T/4 47. Statement 1 : An induced emf appears in any coil in which
(a) 0 t (b) 0 t
T/2 3T/4 T T/4 T/2 3T/4 T the current is changing.
Statement 2 : Self induction phenomenon obeys Faraday's
emf law of induction.
emf
48. Statement 1 : Lenz's law violates the principle of
T/4 T/2 3T/4 T T/2 3T/4 T t conservation of energy.
(c) 0 t (d) 0
T/4 Statement 2 : Induced emf always opposes the change in
magnetic flux responsible for its production.
42. In a coil of resistance 10 W, the i(amp) 49. Statement 1 : When number of turns in a coil is doubled,
induced current developed by coefficient of self-inductance of the coil becomes 4 times.
changing magnetic flux through 4 Statement 2 : This is because L µ N2.
it, is shown in figure as a 50. Statement 1 : An induced current has a direction such that
function of time. The the magnetic field due to the current opposes the change in
magnitude of change in flux t(s) the magnetic flux that induces the current.
0 0.1
through the coil in weber is Statement 2 : Above statement is in accordance with
(a) 8 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 4 conservation of energy.
Electromagnetic Induction 581
v
r
P R
18. (d) Since the magnetic field is uniform the flux f through the
1 1
6. (c) e.m.f. induced = BR 2 w = B R 2 (2 p n) square loop at any time t is constant, because
2 2 f = B × A = B × L2 = constant
1 df
= ´ (0.1) ´ (0.1) 2 ´ 2 p ´ 10 = (0.1)2 p volts \ e =- = zero
2 dt
7. (a) Change in flux = 2 B A N
19. (d) ε=B l v = (0.2 ´10-4 ) (1) (180 ´ 5 / 18) = 10-3 V = 1 mV
-4
2 ´ 0.3 ´ 200 ´ 70 ´10
\ Induced e.m.f. =
0.1 20. (b) B = m 0 n i = (4 p ´ 10-7 ) (200 ´10 -2 ) ´1.5
= 3.8 × 10–2 Wb / m2
8. (c) e = (5 ´10 -3 ) (1 / 0.1) = 0.05 V .
Magnetic flux through each turn of the coil
9. (c) Energy stored U is given by
f = BA = (3.8 × 10–2) (3.14 × 10–4) = 1.2 × 10–5 weber
1 2 1
U= L i = ´ (100 ´ 10 -3 ) (1) 2 = 0.05 J. When the current in the solenoid is reversed, the
2 2 change in magnetic flux
10. (d)
= 2 ´ (1.2 ´ 10-5 ) = 2.4 ´10 -5 weber
2 df
11. (d) f = 6t + 7 t + 1 Þ = 12t + 7
dt df 2.4 ´ 10 -5
Induced e.m.f. = N = 100 ´ = 0.048 V.
At time, t = 2 sec. dt 0.05
df M
= 24 + 7 = 31 volt 21. (b) ε= dI=0.005×I 0 cos ωt× ω
dt dt
Direction of current is from left to right according to and e max = 0.005 × I0 × w = 5 p
Flemmings right hand rule.
22. (b) l = 1m, w = 5 rad/s, B = 0.2 ´ 10 -4 T
df d dB
12. (b) e= = ( NBA ) = NA = 500×10–2 × 1 = 5.0 V -4
dt dt dt Bωl 0.2 ´ 10 ´ 5 ´1
e= = = 50mV
1 2 2
13. (a) Vel. of coil = = 2m / s 23. (d) When two inductance coil are joined in series, such that the
0.5
winding of one is exactly opposite to each other the emf
2 produced in the two coils are out of phase such that they
velocity of magnet = = 2m / s.
cancel out.
1
As they are made to move in the same direction, their - df
relative velocity is zero. Therefore, induced e.m.f. = 0. 24. (b) The individual emf produced in the coil e =
dt
14. (a) e=
- df -d 2
dt
=
dt
( )
6t - 5t + 1 = -12t + 5 \ The current induced will be i =
|e|
R
Þi=
1 df
R dt
e = – 12 (0.25) + 5 = 2 volt
dq dq 1 df 1 BA
e 2 But i = Þ = Þ ò dq = ò df Þ q =
i = = = 0.2A. dt dt R dt R R
R 10 25. (c) E.m.f. will remain same because change in area per unit
-3 time will be same in both cases.
LdI 40 ´10 (11 - 1)
15. (a) e= = = 100V 2 2
dt 4 ´10-3 26. (b) Self inductance = m 0 n AL = m 0 n (l ´ b) ´ L
16. (d) For maximum power, X L = X C , which yields n = Total number of turns/length
L = Length of inductor
1 1 l = Length of rectangular cross section
C= =
2 2 b = breadth of rectangular cross-section
( 2pn ) L 4 p ´ 50 ´ 50 ´ 10
So, when all linear dimensions are increased by a factor
\ C = 0.1´ 10 -5 F = 1mF of 2. The new self inductance becomes L' = 8L.
17. (b) f = 10t 2 - 50t + 250 e 1 df
27. (c) i = =
R R dt
df
e=- = - (20 t - 50)
dt Here df = B × A = (2 ´ 10 -5 ) ´ (0.5 ´ 10+3 ´ 5)
e t =3 = -10 V dt = time taken by the wire to fall at ground
Electromagnetic Induction 585
e 100 ´ 2 and B = B0 ( ˆi + kˆ )
= =+ = + 0.5Amp
R 400
Now, f = B.A = B0( iˆ + kˆ ) × ( L2 kˆ + L2ˆi )
44. (c) By inserting iron rod in the coil,
= 2 B0L2 Wb
L z I ¯ so brightness ¯ 3. (b) Induced current flow only when circuit is complete
-(f 2 - f1 ) -(0 - NBA) NBA and there is a variation about circuit this problem is
45. (b) e= = =
t t t associated with the phenomenon of electromagnetic
induction.
NBA 50 ´ 2 ´ 10 –2 ´ 10 –2
t= = = 0.1 s If there is a symmetry in magnetic field of cylindrical
e 0.1 bar magnet is rotated about its axis, no change in flux
nAdB linked with the circuit takes place, consequently no
e emf induces and hence, no current flows in the ammeter
46. (c) i = = dt
R R (A).
EXERCISE - 3
Exemplar Questions S
w
1. (c) As we know that, the magnetic flux linked with uniform
surface of area A in uniform magnetic field is
f = B.A 4. (d) When the coil A stops moving the current in B b ecome
The direction of A is perpendicular to the plane of ze ro, it possible only if the current in A is constant. If
square and square line in x-y plane in a region. the current in A would be variable, there must be an
A = L2k induced emf (current) in B even if the A stops moving.
So there is a constant current in same direction or
As given that, B = B0 ( 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ ) counter clockwise direction in A as in B by lenz's law.
5. (a) By Lenz's law, at (t = 0) the current in B is counter-
f = B.A= B0 ( 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ ) .L kˆ
2
So, clockwise and the coil A is considered above to it. The
= 4B0 L2 Wb counterclockwise flow of the current in B is equivalent
to north pole of magnet and magnetic field lines are
2. (b) The loop can be considered in two planes, Plane of emanating upward to coil A.
ABCDA lies x-y plane whose area vector A1 = |A| k̂ , When coil A start rotating at t = 0, the current in A is
A1 = L2 k̂ constant along clockwise direction by Lenz’s rule. As
whereas plane of ADEFA lies in y-z plane whose area flux changes across coil A by rotating it near the N-
vector A2 = |A| î , A2 = L2 î . pole formed by flowing current in B, in anticlockwise.
Then the magnetic flux linked with uniform surface of 6. (b) The self-inductance of a long solenoid of cross-
area A in uniform magnetic field is sectional area A and length l, having n turns per unit
length, filled the inside of the solenoid with a material
Y of relative permeability is given by
(0,L,0) D (L,L,0) L = µrµ0n2 Al
C
E L \ n = N/l
(0,L,L) L
L
A B (L,0,0)
X é N 2 .A ù
L = µrµ0 ê ú .l
F
(0,0,0)
ë l.l û
Z (0,0,L)
æ 1ö
f = B.A L = µrµ0 [N2A/l] çè L µ A, L µ ÷ø
l
A = A1 + A2 = ( L2 kˆ + L2 iˆ ) As µr and N are constant here so, to increase L for a
coil, area A must be increased and l must be decreased.
Electromagnetic Induction 587
22 Alternating Current
ALTERNATING AND DIRECT CURRENT The root mean square (rms) value of AC is
An alternating current (A.C.) is one which periodically changes I0
in magnitude and direction. It increases from zero to a maximum I rms =
value, then decreases to zero and reverses in direction, increases 2
to a maximum in this direction and then decreases to zero. where I0 is the peak or maximum value of alternating current.
The source of alternating emf may be a dynamo or an electronic The rms value of alternating current can also be defined as the
oscillator. direct current which produces the same heating effect in a given
The alternating emf E at any instant may be expressed as resistor in a given time as is produced by the given A.C. flowing
E = E0 sinwt through same resistor for the same time. Due to this reason the
where w is the angular frequency of alternating emf and E0 is the rms value of current is also known as effective or virtual value of
peak value of emf. current.
I I0 I0
(A.C.) \ Ieffective = I virtual = Irms =
2
Similarly the rms value of alternating voltgae is called the effective
T=0 T T 3T t or virtual value of alternating voltage (or emf).
— –—
2 2
E0
\ E effective = E virtual = E rms =
Direct current (D.C.) is that current which may or may not 2
change in magnitude but it does not change its direction. Keep in Memory
(1) Time period : The time taken by A.C. to go through one
cycle of changes is called its period. It is given as T = p
I 2
(D.C.) w
(2) Phase : It is that property of wave motion which tells us
the position of the particle at any instant as well as its
t
direction of motion. It is measured either by the angle which
Advantages of A.C. over D.C. the particle makes with the mean position or by fraction of
(i) The generation of A.C. is cheaper than that of D.C. time period.
(ii) Alternating voltage can be easily stepped up or stepped (3) Phase angle : Angle associated with the wave motion (sine
down by using a transformer. or cosine) is called phase angle.
(iii) A.C. can be easily converted into D.C. by rectifier. D.C. is (4) Lead : Out of the current and emf the one having greater
converted to A.C. by an inverter. phase angle will lead the other e.g., in equation
(iv) A.C. can be transmitted to a long distance without æ pö
i = i0 sin ç wt + ÷ and e = e0 sin wt,
appreciable loss. è 2ø
AVERAGE AND RMS VALUE OF ALTERNATING p
the current leads the emf by an angle .
CURRENT 2
The average value of AC over one full cycle is zero since there are (5) Lag : Out of current and emf the one having smaller phase
equal positive and negative half cycles. angle will lag the other. In the above equations, the emf
The average current for half cycle is 2I0 /p where I0 is the peak p
lags the current by .
value of current. 2
Alternating Current 589
E E VR VC
I
or
I 3p
p/2 2p wt
E = E0 sin w t
Circuit Containing Resistance and Inductance in Let I be the current flowing in the circuit, VR the potential
Series (LR Series Circuit) difference across resistance and VC the potential difference across
Consider a circuit containing resistance R and inductance L in capacitance.
series having an alternating emf E = E0 sin wt. Phasor diagram
R L VR
I
f
VR VL
E = E0 sin w t E
VC
Let I be the current flowing in the circuit and VR (= IR) the potential
difference across resistance and V L (= wL.I) the potential From phasor diagram the resultant emf is given by
difference across inductance. E = ( VR2 + VC2 ) = ( RI ) 2 + ( X C I ) 2 ]
The current I and the potential difference VR are always in phase
but the potential difference VL across inductance leads the current \ Impedance, Z = E / I = (R 2 + X 2C ) , where
I by an anlgle p/2. æ 1 ö
XC = ç ÷
Phasor diagram è wC ø
E The potential difference VR and current I are in same phase and
E= V 2R + V 2L
the potential difference VC lags behind the current I (and hence
VL VR) by angle p/2
The current leads the applied emf by an angle f given by
f V X I X
tan j = C = C = C
I VR RI R
VR
From phasor diagrom, resultant voltage is given by, æX ö æ 1/ wC ö æ 1 ö
or tan f = ç C ÷ Þ f = tan -1 ç = tan -1 ç
è R ø è R ÷ø è wCR ÷ø
2 2 2 2
E= (VR + VL ) = (RI ) + (wL.I ) Graph of emf or current versus wt
Graph of emf or current versus wt emf
emf
Current E
E
or
or I
I wt
wt
Current
Alternating Current 591
VL VC
Let I be the current flowing in circuit, VL the potential difference \ Resultant applied emf, E = [VR2 + ( VC - VL ) 2 ]
across inductance L and VC the p.d. across capacitance C.
Phasor diagram :
i.e., E= {(R I) 2
+ (I X C - I X L ) 2 }
Y O X VL
VL > VC
E
VC – VL
E=VC–VL
p/2
p/2
I
\ Impedance, Z =
E
I
{
= R2 + ( X C - X L ) 2 }
VL – VC The phase leads of current over applied emf is given by
VC > VL
O X Y' VC
VC - VL I X C - I X L X C - X L
The p.d. VC lags behind the current by angle p/2 and the p.d. VL tan j = = =
VR RI R
leads the current by angle p/2.
\ Resultant applied emf, E = VC – VL = XCI – XLI æ X - XL ö
i.e., j = tan -1 ç C ÷ø
\ Reactance of circuit, è R
æ 1 ö It is concluded that :
X = E / I = XC - X L = ç - wL÷
è wC ø (a) If XC > XL, the value of f is positive, i.e., current leads the
The current leads applied emf by f = p / 2 . applied emf.
(b) If XC < XL, the value of f is negative, i.e., current lags
1 1
In case of XC = XL, Z = 0, then = wL or w = behind the applied emf.
wC ( LC ) (c) If XC = XL, the value of f is zero, i.e., current and emf are in
1 same phase. This is called the case of resonance and
\ Frequency f = w / 2p == resonant frequency for condition XC = XL, is given by :
2p ( LC )
At certain frequency the impedance of the circuit is minimum and Z
E/R
the current is maximum.
Current
This frequency is called the resonant frequency.
E
Circuit Containing Resistance, Inductance and
2R
Capacitance in Series (Series LCR Circuit)
Consider a circuit containing a resistance R, inductance L and R
f
capacitance C in series having an alternating emf fo O fo
E = E0 sin wt. Frequency
R L C 1 1
= wL i.e., w =
wC LC
VR VL VC 1
\ fo = w / 2p = 2 p ( LC ) .
Thus the resonant frequency depends on the product of L
E = E0 sin w t and C and is independent of R.
At resonance, impedance is minimum, Zmin = R and current
Let I be the current flowing in circuit. VR, VL and VC are respective E E
potential differences across resistance R, inductance L and is maximum I max = =
capacitance C. Z min R
592 PHYSICS
Z R 2 + w 2 L2 L
The impedance at resonance, Z = =
R RC
In parallel resonant circuit the impedance is maximum and the
current is minimum.
Zmin = R 1
R If R ® 0 , then f r = and Z ® ¥ .
2p (LC)
w Q - FACTOR
w =w 0=2p f0
Resonance frequency The sharpness of tuning at resonance is measured by
Circuit impedence in series RLC circuit Q-factor or quality factor of the circuit and is given by
Rapid fall of current 1 L
in A in comparison Q=
R C
to B curve
I Higher the value of Q-factor, sharper is the resonance i.e. more
Imax rapid is the fall of current from maximum value (I0) with slight
Small R higher change in frequency from the resonance value.
A Q i.e., sharper resonance
B It is clear from the figure that at low value of q, the resonance is
High R, small Q i.e., poor. However the bandwidth increases
no sharp resonance
I High Q
w
w =w0=2pf0
Resonance frequency
Current amplitude in series RLC circuit Low Q
It is interesting to note that before resonance the current
leads the applied emf, at resonance it is in phase, and after
resonance it lags behind the emf. LCR series circuit is also w0 w
called as acceptor circuit and parallel LCR circuit is called The figure given below explains the concept of bandwidth and
rejector circuit. cut-off frequency.
Imax
COMMON DEFAULT
O Incorrect. Adding impedances / reactances /resistors
algebrically.
0.707 Imax Band width 0.707 Imax
In this expression cos f is known as power factor. The value of 2. For resonance to occur, the presence of both L and C
cos f depends on the nature of the circuit. For L, C and elements in the circuit is a must.
L-C circuit, the power factor is zero ( Q f = 90º); for R-circuit 3. In series resonant circuit, current is maximum at resonance.
cos f = 1 (Q f = 0) and for all other circuit cos f = R/Z, where
In a parallel resonant circuit, current is minimum (or zero)
Z = impedance.
at resonance but p.d across the combination is maximum.
If R = 0, cos f = 0 and Pav = 0 i.e., in a circuit with no resistance, the
power loss is zero. Such a circuit is called the wattless circuit 4. To depict oscillatory motion mathematically we may use
and the current flowing is called the wattless current. sines, cosines or their linear combination. This is because
Power is of two types changing the zero position transforms one into another.
5. While adding voltage across different elements in an a.c.
(i) Reactive power Preactive = Vrms I rms sin f circuit we should take care of their phases.
This is also called wattless power. 6. The average current over a complete cycle in an a.c circuit
It is not read by energy meter is zero but the average power is not zero.
(ii) Active power Pactive = Vrms I rms cos f 7. An inductor offers negligibly low resistance path to d.c.
It is read by energy meter and a resistive path for a.c.
8. A capacitor acts as a block for d.c and a low resistance path
Half Power Points to a.c.
The values of w at which the average power is half of its maximum
value (at resonant frequency) are called half power points.
9. Inductive reactance Capacitive reactance
X L = wL = 2pfL 1 1
Pav XC = =
Þ XL µ f wC 2pfC
Small R 1
higher Q Þ XC µ
Dw f
Current through pure Current through pure
Large R,
inductor lags behind capacitor leads
low Q
emf by 90° emf by 90°
w 1 w0= wr w 2 w For d.c f = 0 \ X L = 0 For d.c f = 0 Þ X C = ¥
For a.c as f increases For a.c as f increases
Plot of average power versus frequency for a series RLC circuit. X L increases XC decreases
The upper curve is for a small R & lower broad curve is for large
value of R.
It is clear from the figure that for smaller R, value of Q0 is high (Q0
is Quality factor of circuit) & hence sharper resonance i.e. greater
rate of fall of average power maximum average power Pav changes 10. Series Resonant circuit Parallel resosant circuit
with slight change in frequency from resonant frequency. 1 1
XL = XC =
w0 X L XC
The Quality factor, Q0 is defined as, Q0 =
Dw 1 1 1 R2
nr = nr = -
Where Dw = w2 – w1 and w2 & w1 are half power points. 2 p LC 2 p LC L2
2
R w0 L 1 1 æ 1 ö
Now, since Dw » ; so Q 0 » Z = R 2 + (X L - X C )2 = + Cw -
2 ç ÷
L R Z R è Lw ø
wo w
Whereas w1 = w0 - ; w2 = w0 + 0
Q0 Q0 11. The principle of electric meter is heating effect of current.
These meters give the reading of Irms. It is important to note
æ 1 ö that these meters can measure D.C. as well as A.C.
In concise term, we can write as, w = w r çç1 ± ÷
÷
è Q0 ø 12. D.C. flows through the cross-section of the conductor
whereas A.C. flows mainly along the surface of the
Keep in Memory conductor. This is also known as Skin Effect. The skin
effect is directly proportional to the frequency.
1. Unless mentioned otherwise, all a.c. currents and voltages
are r.m.s. values.
594 PHYSICS
Solution :
E
(a) Here, C = 100 mF = 100 × 10–6 F, R = 40 W,
Vrms = 110 V, f = 60 Hz K
Peak voltage, V0 = 2 . Vrms = 100 2 = 155.54 V
I
1
Circuit impedance, Z = R2 + a
b L
c
2 2
w C R
dI
2 1 so if rate of change of current with time =
= 40 + dt
(2 ´ p ´ 60 ´ 100 ´ 10 -6 ) 2 then due to phenomenon of self induction, induced emf across
dI
= 1600 + 703.60 = 2303.60 = 48 W inductance = - L
dt
Hence, maximum current in coil, Potential difference across the resistance = IR
During growth of current in L-R circuit, if we applying Kirchhoff’s
V0 155.54 loop rule then
I0 = = = 3.24 A
Z 48 æ dI ö
(b) Phase lead angle (for current), E + ç - L ÷ = IR
è dt ø
1 1 On solving it we get the value of current at any time t during
q = tan -1 = tan -1 æ - tö
R
wCR 2 ´ 3.14 ´ 60 ´ 100 ´ 10-6 ´ 40
growth of current in LR-circuit. I = I0 ç1 - e L ÷
= tan–1 0.66315 = 33° 33’ (taken 33.5°) çè ÷ø
Example 8.
30.0 µF capacitor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz source.
Find the capacitive reactance and the current (rms and t
tL
peak) in the circuit. If the frequency is doubled, what
Time Constant
happens to the capacitive reactance and the current?
L
Solution : has dimensions of time. It is called inductive time constant of
R
1 LR-circuit.
The capacitive reactance is XC = = 106W R L
2 pfC L - . æ e - 1ö
At t = ; I = I0 (1 - e L R ) = I0 (1 – e–1) = I0 ç
Vrms R è e ÷ø
The rms current is Irms = = 2.08A
XC æ 2.71 - 1ö
= I0 çè ÷ = 0.632 I0
2.71 ø
The peak current is Im = 2Irms = 2.96A The inductive time constant of an LR-circuit is the time in which
the current grows from zero to 0.632 (or 63.2%) of its maximum
This current oscillates between 2.96A and – 2.96A and is value. When t ® ¥.
ahead of the voltage by 90º.
æ - .¥ ö
R
If the frequency is doubled, the capacitive reactance is
halved and consequently, the current is doubled. è ø
(
I = I0 ç1 - e L ÷ = I0 I - e -¥ = I 0 (1 - 0 ) )
VARYING CURRENT Potential difference across resistance :
æ - tö
R
dI
When the key in a D.C. circuit (containing a D.C. source of emf, VR = E ç1 - e L ÷ ; VL = L E
inductance coil, resistance and capacitor) is closed or opened, è ø dt
the current in the circuit varies. This is known as varying current -
R
t VL
as it varies w.r.t. time and takes a final value after a short while. I = I0 - I0 e L ;
Growth of Current R
dI - t æ Rö t
If K is closed at t = 0 so at t = 0, current in the circuit I = 0 = 0 – I0 e L ç - ÷
dt è Lø
After closing the key K at time t let current in the circuit = I R
- t
and for small time in the circuit, current varies with time, VL = E e L
596 PHYSICS
VL
0.37 I0
tL t
L
Again, dimensions of are same as that of time
R
The inductive time constant of the LR-circuit can also be defined Refer figure (a) : The capacitor is charged to a potential difference
by using equation V such that charge on capacitor q0 = CV
L Here q0 is the maximum charge on the capacitor. At time t = 0, it is
Setting t = in equation., we get connected to an inductor through a switch S. At time t = 0, switch
R
R L
S is closed.
- . 1
I = I0 e LR = I 0 e -1 = I0 or I @ 0.37 I0. Refer figure (b) : When the switch is closed, the capacitor starts
e discharging. Let at time t charge on the capacitor is q (< q0) and
As t ® ¥, I®0 since, it is further decreasing there is a current i in the circuit in
VR = IR the direction shown in figure.
The potential difference across capacitor = potential difference
E across inductor,
q æ di ö
or Vb – Va = Vc – Vd \ = Lç ÷ ...(i)
C è dt ø
Now, as the charge is decreasing,
VR æ -dq ö di d 2q
i=ç =- 2
è dt ÷ø or
dt dt
0 t
Alternating Current 597
RC Circuit RMS value of alternating Mean or average value of Peak current (I)0 and voltage V :0 The
Current: I = I0sin (tw+ ) f current and voltage alternating current and voltage
maximum value of current and voltage
Voltage: V= VR2 +VC2 I V 2I 2V0
I rms = 0 Vrms = 0 Imean = 0 Vmean = I0= 2 Irms V0 = 2 Vrms
2 2 π π
Impedance: Z= R 2 +XC2
– 1 Step-up transformer
Phase difference: tan 1
wCR N E Ip
R2 K > 1 K= s = s =
Power factor: cos f = N p E p Is
R 2 +X2C Transformer Device Changes
Leading quantity: Current Alternating current(I)
and alternating voltage (V) a low voltage of high current
I = I0sin t;wV = V sin0 t w into a high voltage of low
current and vice-versa
Step-down transformer
LC Circuit N p E p Is
æ pö K<1 K= = =
Current: I = Isin
0 çè wt ± ÷ø N s Es I p
2 ALTERNATING CURRENT
Voltage: V= VL– V C Direction of current
Power in an Ac. Circuit LCR series Circuit
Impedance : Z = XL– X C Changes alternatively and
its magnitude changes Pav =Vrmsrms
I cos q f
Current : I = I0sin (t w± ): Voltage:
Phase difference: f= 90º
Power factor : cos f = 0 continuously V= R 2 +(VL –VC )2
Leading quantity: ;
Either voltage or current Impedance Z = R 2 +(X L – XC )2
X L –XC
Phase difference
R
LR Circuit AC Circuit Þ =R
At resonance XL= X CZmin
Current: I = Isin
0 (tw+ ) f R Quality factor
Band-width: Dw = ;
Voltage : V = V 2 + V2 L
R L 1 L
Q=
2 R C
Impedance: Z= R +X2L
wL
Phase difference: f = tan –1 Inductive (L) Circuit Capacitive (C) Circuit
R Resistive (R) Circuit
R æ pö Current : I = I0sin (tw+ /2)p Current : I = I0sin t w
Power factor : cos f = Current : I = I0sin ç wt – ÷
è 2ø Phase difference between V and Phase difference between V and I :
R 2 +X 2L Phase difference between
I : f= 90º or – /2pPower factor : f = 0º Power factor: cos f= 1
Leading quantity : voltage V and I : f= 90º or /2p
cos f= 0 Power : P = 0 Power : P = V0 I0
Power factor : cos f= 0
Phasor : Current leads the voltage 2
Power : P = 0 Phasor : Current and voltage
Phasor : Voltage leads the by p /2
both in same phase
current by p/2
PHYSICS
Alternating Current 599
1. The resistance of a coil for dc is in ohms. In ac, the resistance 11. Which of the following will have the dimensions of time
will (a) LC (b) R/L (c) L/R (d) C/L
(a) be zero (b) decrease 12. In an oscillating LC circuit the max. charge on the capacitor
(c) increase (d) remain same is Q. The charge on capacitor when the energy is stored
equally between electric and magnetic field is
2. In an a.c. circuit, the r.m.s. value of current, Irms is related to
the peak current, I0 by the relation (a) Q/2 (b) Q/ 3 (c) Q / 2 (d) Q
(a) I rms = 2 I 0 (b) I rms = p I 0 13. The power factor of an AC circuit having resistance (R) and
inductance (L) connected in series and an angular velocity
1 1 w is
(c) I rms = I0 (d) I rms = I0 (a) R/wL (b) R/(R2 + w2L2)1/2
p 2
(c) wL/R (d) R/(R2 – w2L2)1/2
3. In a RLC circuit capacitance is changed from C to 2 C. For 14. A.C. power is transmitted from a power house at a high
the resonant frequency to remain unchanged, the voltage as
inductance should be changed from L to (a) the rate of transmission is faster at high voltages
(a) 4 L (b) 2 L (c) L/2 (d) L/4 (b) it is more economical due to less power loss
4. An LCR series circuit, connected to a source E, is at (c) power cannot be transmitted at low voltages
resonance. Then the voltage across (d) a precaution against theft of transmission lines
(a) R is zero 15. In a pure capacitive A.C. circuit current and voltage differ in
(b) R equals applied voltage phase by
(a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 90° (d) 180°
(c) C is zero
16. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(d) L equals applied voltage
(a) In LCR series ac circuit, as the frequency of the source
5. In a LCR circuit at resonance which of these will effect the increases, the impedence of the circuit first decreases
current in circuit and then increases.
(a) R only (b) L and R only (b) If the net reactance of an LCR series ac circuit is same
(c) R and C only (d) all L, C and R as its resistance, then the current lags behind the voltage
6. Fleming's left and right hand rules are used in by 45°.
(a) DC motor and AC generator (c) At resonance, the impedence of an ac circuit becomes
(b) DC generator and AC motor purely resistive.
(c) DC motor and DC generator (d) Below resonance, voltage leads the current while above
it, current leads the voltage.
(d) Both rules are same, any one can be used
17. Resonance frequency of LCR series a.c. circuit is f0. Now
7. The time taken by the current to rise to 0.63 of its maximum the capacitance is made 4 times, then the new resonance
value in a d.c. circuit containing inductance (L) and frequency will become
resistance (R) depends on (a) f0/4 (b) 2f0 (c) f0 (d) f0/2.
L 18. A capacitor has capacitance C and reactance X, if
(a) L only (b) R only (c) (d) LR capacitance and frequency become double, then reactance
R
will be
8. A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to a source of
(a) 4X (b) X/2 (c) X/4 (d) 2X
alternating current. If its frequency is increased, while
19. In a series resonant circuit, having L,C and R as its elements,
keeping the voltage of the source constant, then bulb will
the resonant current is i. The power dissipated in circuit at
(a) give more intense light resonance is
(b) give less intense light
(c) give light of same intensity before i2R
(a) (b) zero
(d) stop radiating light (wL -1/ wC)
9. In LCR circuit if resistance increases quality factor (c) i2 wL (d) i2 R.
(a) increases finitely (b) decreases finitely Whereas w is angular resonant frequency
(c) remains constant (d) None of these 20. An inductance L having a resistance R is connected to an
10. In an A.C. circuit with phase voltage V and current I, the alternating source of angular frequency w. The Quality factor
power dissipated is Q of inductance is
(a) VI (b) V2I (c) VI2 (d) V2I2 (a) R/ wL (b) (wL/R)2 (c) (R /wL)½ (d) wL/R
600 PHYSICS
21. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to (a) contact is made or broken
(a) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents (b) contact is made
(b) make it light weight (c) contact is broken
(c) make it robust and sturdy (d) won't become bright at all
(d) increase secondary voltage 24. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the form of
22. The time constant of C–R circuit is (a) electric field (b) magnetic field
(a) 1/CR (b) C/R (c) dielectric strength (d) heat
(c) CR (d) R/C 25. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an
alternating voltage source of frequency f. The current leads
23. In the circuit of Fig, the bulb will become suddenly bright if the voltage by 45°. The value of C is
L B
1 1
(a) (b)
pf ( 2pfL - R ) 2pf (2pfL - R)
+ 1 1
– (c) (d)
K pf (2pfL + R) 2pf (2pfL + R)
B
1. In an A.C. circuit, the current flowing in inductance is the power dissipated in the circuit is
I = 5 sin (100 t – p/2) amperes and the potential difference is (a) 104 watt (b) 10 watt (c) 2.5 watt (d) 5.0 watt
V = 200 sin (100 t) volts. The power consumption is equal to 7. The primary winding of a transformer has 100 turns and its
(a) 1000 watt (b) 40 watt secondary winding has 200 turns. The primary is connected
(c) 20 watt (d) Zero to an A.C. supply of 120 V and the current flowing in it is 10
2. If resistance of 100W, and inductance of 0.5 henry and A. The voltage and the current in the secondary are
(a) 240 V, 5 A (b) 240 V, 10 A
capacitance of 10 × 106 farad are connected in series through
(c) 60 V, 20 A (d) 120 V, 20 A
50 Hz A.C. supply, then impedance is
8. A step down transformer is connected to 2400 volts line and
(a) 1.8765 W (b) 18.76 W 80 amperes of current is found to flow in output load. The
(c) 187.6 W (d) 101.3 W ratio of the turns in primary and secondary coil is 20 : 1. If
3. Using an A.C. voltmeter the potential difference in the transformer efficiency is 100%, then the current flowing in
electrical line in a house is read to be 234 volt. If the line the primary coil will be
frequency is known to be 50 cycles/second, the equation (a) 1600 amp (b) 20 amp
for the line voltage is (c) 4 amp (d) 1.5 amp
(a) V = 165 sin (100 p t) (b) V = 331 sin (100 p t) 9. In the circuit shown in fig, the resonant frequency is
(c) V = 220 sin (100 p t) (d) V = 440 sin (100 p t) (a) 75 kc/s 5mF
4. An inductance of negligible resistance whose reactance is 22 (b) 750 kc/s
W at 200 Hz is connected to 200 volts, 50 Hz power line. The (c) 7.5 kc/s 0.1H 5W
value of inductance is (d) 75 mc/s
(a) 0.0175 henry (b) 0.175 henry
(c) 1.75 henry (d) 17.5 henry 10. An alternating voltage E (in volts) = 200 2 sin 100 t is
5. An inductive circuit contains resistance of 10 ohms and an connected to one micro farad capacitor through an a.c.
inductance of 2 henry. If an A.C. voltage of 120 Volts and ammeter. The reading of the ammeter shall be
frequency 60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the current would (a) 100 mA (b) 20 mA (c) 40 mA (d) 80 mA
11. The r.m.s value of an a.c. of 50 Hz is 10 amp. The time taken
be nearly
by the alternating current in reaching from zero to maximum
(a) 0.32 Amp (b) 0.16 Amp
value and the peak value of current will be
(c) 0.48 Amp (d) 0.80 Amp (a) 2 × 10–2 sec and 14.14 amp
6. In an a.c. circuit V and I are given by (b) 1 × 10–2 sec and 7.07 amp
V = 100 sin (100 t) volts (c) 5 × 10–3 sec and 7.07 amp
I = 100 sin (100 t + p/3) mA (d) 5 × 10–3 sec and 14.14 amp
Alternating Current 601
12. The frequency of A.C. mains in India is 22. An alternating voltage V = V0 sin wt is applied across a
(a) 30 c/s (b) 50 c/s circuit. As a result, a current I = I0 sin (wt – p/2) flows in it.
(c) 60 c/s (d) 120 c/s The power consumed per cycle is
13. A 12 W resistor and a 0.21 henry inductor are connected in (a) zero (b) 0.5 V0I0
series to an a.c. source operating at 20 volt, 50 cycle. The (c) 0.707 V0I0 (d) 1.414 V0I0
phase angle between the current and source voltage is 23. In an A.C. circuit, a resistance of R ohm is connected in
(a) 30º (b) 40º (c) 80º (d) 90º series with an inductance L. If phase angle between voltage
and current be 45°, the value of inductive reactance will be
14. A step down transformer reduces 220 V to 110 V. The primary
(a) R/4
draws 5 ampere of current and secondary supplies 9 ampere.
The efficiency of transformer is (b) R/2
(c) R
(a) 20% (b) 44% (c) 90% (d) 100%
(d) cannot be found with given data
15. An alternating current is given by
24. The ratio of mean value over half cycle to r.m.s. value of
i = i1 coswt + i2 sinwt
A.C. is
The rms current is given by
(a) 2 : p (b) 2 2 : p (c) 2 :p (d) 2 :1
i1 + i 2 i1 + i 2
(a) (b) 25. For the circuit shown in the fig., the current through the
2 2 inductor is 0.9 A while the current through the condenser is
C
0.4 A. Then
i12 + i 22 i12 + i 22
(c) (d) (a) current drawn from
2 2 generator I = 1.13 A
L
16. The impedance in a circuit containing a resistance of 1 W (b) w = 1/(1.5 L C)
and an inductance of 0.1 H in series, for AC of 50 Hz, is (c) I = 0.5 A
(d) I = 0.6 A
~
(a) 100 10 W (b) 10 10 W V = V0 sin wt
26. In series combination of R, L and C with an A.C. source at
(c) 100W (d) 10W resonance, if R = 20 ohm, then impedence Z of the
17. The primary winding of transformer has 500 turns whereas combination is
its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is connected to (a) 20 ohm (b) zero (c) 10 ohm (d) 400 ohm
an A.C. supply of 20 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have an 27. In an LR circuit f = 50 Hz, L=2H, E=5 volts, R=1 W then
output of energy stored in inductor is
(a) 2 V, 5 Hz (b) 200 V, 500 Hz (a) 50 J (b) 25 J
(c) 2V, 50 Hz (d) 200 V, 50 Hz (c) 100 J (d) None of these
18. Determine the rms value of the emf given by 28. A capacitor in an ideal LC circuit is fully charged by a DC
E (in volt) = 8 sin ( w t) + 6sin (2 w t) source, then it is disconnected from DC source, the current
in the circuit
(a) 5 2 V (b) 7 2 V (c) 10 V (d) 10 2 V
(a) becomes zero instantaneously
19. A transformer is used to light a 140 W, 24 V bulb from a (b) grows , monotonically
240 V a.c. mains. The current in the main cable is 0.7 A. The
(c) decays monotonically
efficiency of the transformer is
(d) oscillate infinitely
(a) 63.8 % (b) 83.3 % (c) 16.7 % (d) 36.2 %
29. In a circuit inductance L and capacitance C are connected
20. In the given circuit, the current drawn from the source is as shown in figure. A1 and A2 are ammeters.
A1 C
V = 100x sin(100pt )
R1
X C = 20W
X L =10W
R = 20W
L A2
~
R2
K
Battery
(a) 20 A (b) 10 A (c) 5 A (d) 5 2 A When key K is pressed to complete the circuit, then just
after closing key (K), the readings of A1 and A2 will be
21. An AC voltage source has an output of V = 200sin 2pft .
(a) zero in both A1 and A2
This source is connected to a 100 W resistor. RMS current
(b) maximum in both A1 and A2
in the resistance is
(c) zero in A1 and maximum in A2
(a) 1.41 A (b) 2.41 A (c) 3.41 A (d) 0.71 A
(d) maximum in A1 and zero in A2
602 PHYSICS
30. The tuning circuit of a radio receiver has a resistance of 36. In the question 86, if the switch is opened after the capacitor
50 W , an inductor of 10 mH and a variable capacitor. A has been charged, it will discharges with a time constant
1 MHz radio wave produces a potential difference of 1
(a) RC (b) 2RC (c) RC (d) RC ln 2
0.1 mV. The values of the capacitor to produce resonance is 2
(Take p2 = 10) 37. An alternating voltage of 220 V, 50 Hz frequency is applied
(a) 2.5 pF (b) 5.0 pF (c) 25 pF (d) 50 pF across a capacitor of capacitance 2 µF. The impedence of
31. Which one of the following curves represents the variation the circuit is
of impedance (Z) with frequency f in series LCR circuit? p 1000 5000
Z Z (a) (b) (c) 500 p (d)
5000 p p
(a) (b) 38. An inductive coil has a resistance of 100 W. When an a.c.
signal of requency 1000 Hz is fed to the coil, the applied
voltage leads the current by 45°. What is the inductance of
the coil ?
f f
Z (a) 10 mH (b) 12 mH (c) 16 mH (d) 20mH.
Z
39. The primary of a transformer has 400 turns while the
(c) (d) secondary has 2000 turns. If the power output from the
secondary at 1000 V is 12 kW, what is the primary voltage?
(a) 200 V (b) 300 V (c) 400 V (d) 500 V
40. An inductor of self inductance 100 mH and a resistor of
f f
resistance 50W, are connected to a 2 V battery. The time
32. Two coils A and B are connected in series across a 240 V, 50
required for the current to half its steady value is
Hz supply. The resistance of A is 5 W and the inductance of (a) 2 milli second (b) 2 ln (0.5) milli second
B is 0.02 H. The power consumed is 3 kW and the power (c) 2 ln (3) milli second (d) 2 ln (2) milli second
factor is 0.75. The impedance of the circuit is 41. The instantaneous voltage through a device of impedance
(a) 0.144 W (b) 1.44 W (c) 14.4 W (d) 144 W 20 W is e = 80 sin 100 pt. The effective value of the current is
33. In LCR series circuit fed by a DC source, how does the (a) 3 A (b) 2.828 A (c) 1.732 A (d) 4 A
amplitude of charge oscillations vary with time during 42. A transformer has an efficiency of 80%. It works at 4 kW
discharge ? and 100 V. If secondary voltage is 240 V, the current in primary
q q coil is
(a) 0.4 A (b) 4 A (c) 10 A (d) 40 A
(a) qo (b) 43. The primary winding of transformers has 500 turns whereas
its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is connected to
an A.C. supply of 20 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have an
t t output of
O O
(a) 2V, 5Hz (b) 200 V, 500 Hz
q q
(c) 2V, 50 Hz (d) 200 V, 50Hz
qo 44. A step up transformer operates on a 230 V line and supplies
(c) qo (d) a current of 2 ampere. The ratio of primary and secondary
winding is 1:25 . The current in primary is
(a) 25 A (b) 50 A (c) 15 A (d) 12.5 A
t O t 45. A step-up transformer has transformation ratio of 3 : 2. What
O
34. A steady potential difference of 10 V produces heat at a rate is the voltage in secondary, if voltage in primary is 30 V?
x in a resistor. The peak value of the alternating voltage (a) 45 V (b) 15 V (c) 90 V (d) 300 V
x 46. In an experiment, 200 V A.C. is applied at the ends of an
which will produce heat at a rate in the same resistor is LCR circuit. The circuit consists of an inductive reactance
2
(XL ) = 50 W, capacitive reactance (XC ) = 50 W and ohmic
(a) 5 V (b) 5 2 V (c) 10 V (d) 10 2 V resistance (R) = 10 W. The impedance of the circuit is
35. In the circuit shown, when the switch is closed, the capacitor (a) 10W (b) 20W (c) 30W (d) 40W
charges with a time constant C R 47. In a region of uniform magnetic induction
(a) RC B = 10–2 tesla, a circular coil of radius 30 cm and resistance
(b) 2RC p2 ohm is rotated about an axis which is perpendicular to the
1 direction of B and which forms a diameter of the coil. If the
(c) RC coil rotates at 200 rpm the amplitude of the alternating current
2 +
induced in the coil is
(d) RC ln 2 B
(a) 4p2 mA (b) 30 mA (c) 6 mA (d) 200 mA
Alternating Current 603
48. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
300 volt each. The reading of the voltmeter V3 and ammeter correct explanation for Statement-1
A are respectively (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
L C R = 100 W a correct explanation for Statement-1
(d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
V1 V2 V3 49. Statement - 1 : A capacitor blocks direct current in the steady
A state.
~ Statement - 2 : The capacitive reactance of the capacitor is
220 V, 50 Hz inversely proportional to frequency f of the source of emf.
50. Statement - 1 : In the purely resistive element of a series
(a) 150 V and 2.2 A (b) 220 V and 2.2 A
LCR, AC circuit the maximum value of rms current increases
(c) 220 V and 2.0 A (d) 100 V and 2.0 A
with increase in the angular frequency of the applied emf.
Directions for Qs. (49 to 50) : Each question contains 2
STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer e max æ 1 ö
Statement - 2 : Imax = , z = R 2 + ç wL - ÷ ,
(ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following- z è wC ø
(a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true where Imax is the peak current in a cycle.
10. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200V 13. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 mF and a resistor 40W are
and 3kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil connected in series across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340 t.
is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current The power loss in A.C. circuit is : [2016]
in the primary coil respectively are : [2014] (a) 0.51 W (b) 0.67 W
(a) 300 V, 15A (b) 450 V, 15A (c) 0.76 W (d) 0.89 W
14. A small signal voltage V(t) = V0 sin wt is applied across an
(c) 450V, 13.5A (d) 600V, 15A
ideal capacitor C : [2016]
11. A resistance 'R' draws power 'P' when connected to an AC (a) Current I (t), lags voltage V(t) by 90°.
source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the (b) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume
resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes any energy from the voltage source.
'Z', the power drawn will be [2015] (c) Current I (t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
R æRö (d) Current I (t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°.
(a) P (b) Pç ÷ 15. Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors
Z èZø
with resistance R = 9.0 W each, two identical inductors with
2
æRö inductance L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf e
(c) P (d) P ç ÷ = 18 V. The current 'i' through the battery just after the
èZø
12. A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating voltage switch closed is [2017]
source. Consider two situations: [2015 RS]
(A) When capacitor is air filled. R R
+ L
(B) When capacitor is mica filled. e–
Current through resistor is i and voltage across capacitor is
R L C
V then :
(a) Va > Vb (b) ia > ib
(a) 0.2 A (b) 2A
(c) Va = Vb (d) Va < Vb (c) 0 (d) 2 mA
Alternating Current 605
EXERCISE - 2 w L 2 p ´ 50 ´ 0.21
tan f = = = 5. 5
1. (d) Power, P = Ι r.m.s ´ Vr.m.s ´ cos f R 12
In the given problem, the phase difference between f = tan -1 5.5 = 80º
voltage and current is p/2. Hence
Es I s 110 ´ 9
P = Ι r.m.s ´ Vr.m.s ´ cos(p / 2) = 0. 14. (c) h= \h= = 0.9 ´ 100% = 90%
Ep I p 220 ´ 5
2
æ 1 ö 15. (c) 16. (b)
2. (c) Z = R 2 + çç w L - ÷
è w C ÷ø 17. (d) The transformer converts A.C. high voltage into A.C.
Here R = 100 W, L = 0.5 henry, C = 10 × 106 farad low voltage, but it does not cause any change in
frequency.
w = 2 p p = 100 p.
3. (b) V= V0 sin w t E s Ns N 5000
= Þ Es = s Ep = ´ 20 = 200V
Voltage in r.m.s. value Ep Np Np 500
V0 = 2 ´ 234 V = 331 volt Thus output has voltage 200 V and frequency 50 Hz.
18. (a) E = 8 sin wt + 6 sin 2wt
and w t = 2 p n t = 2 p ´ 50 ´ t = 100 p t
Thus, the equation of line voltage is given by Þ E peak = 8 2 + 6 2 = 10 V
V = 331 sin (100 p t)
4. (a) XL = w L = 2 p n L 10
E rms = =5 2 V
2
XL 22 ´ 7
\ L= = H = 0.0175H
2 p n 2 ´ 22 ´ 200 19. (b) Power of source = EI = 240 × 0.7 = 166
5. (b) 140
Þ Efficiency = Þ h = 83.3%
166
1
6. (c) P = Vr.m.s ´ I r.m.s ´ cos f = V0 I 0 cos f 20. (d) 21. (a)
2
22. (a) The phase angle between voltage V and current I is
1
= ´ 100 ´ (100 ´ 10 - 3 ) cos p / 3 = 2.5 W p/2. Therefore, power factor cos f = cos (p/2) = 0. Hence
2
the power consumed is zero.
Es n æn ö wL X L
7. (a) = s or E s = E p ´ ç s ÷ 23. (c) tan f = =
Ep np ç np ÷ R R
è ø
Given f = 45°. Hence XL = R.
æ 200 ö
\ E s = 120 ´ ç ÷ = 240 V 24. (b) We know that Ι r m s = Ι 0 / 2 and Ι m = 2 Ι 0 / p
è 100 ø
Ιm 2 2
Ιp n æ np ö æ 100 ö \ =
= s or Ι s = Ι p ç ÷ \ Is = 10 ç = 5 amp p
Ιs n p è sø
n è 200 ÷ø Ιrms
25. (c) The current drawn by inductor and capacitor will be in
Ιs n p 80 20 opposite phase. Hence net current drawn from
8. (c) = ; = or Ι p = 4 amp.
Ιp ns Ιp 1 generator
9. (a) = IL – IC = 0.9 – 0.4 = 0.5 amp.
26. (a)
E æE ö
10. (b) Ι= = E w C = çç 0 ´ w C ÷÷
XC è 2 ø
27. (d) L = 2H , E = 5 volts, R = 1W
æ 200 ö 64 447
Z 4 4 48
\ I = 120 ´ ç = 240V = 20 ´10 -3 amp.
è 100 ÷ø
R L
11. (d) 12. (b)
13. (c) The phase angle is given by E
Alternating Current 607
1 2 E 35. (a) The resistance in the middle plays no part in the charging
Energy in inductor = LI I = process of C, as it does not alter either the potential
2 Z
difference across the RC combination or the current
5 5 through it.
I= =
R 2 + ( wL ) 1 + 4p 2 ´ 50 2 ´ 4
2 36. (b) C discharges through both resistance in series.
37. (d) Impedence of a capacitor is XC = 1/wC
5 5
= =
200p 1 1 5000
1 + ( 200p )
2
XC = = -
= .
2pfC 2p´ 50 ´ 2 ´ 10 6 p
1 5´5 38. (c)
Energy = ´2´ = 6.33 × 10–5 joules
2 200 ´ 200 p 2 39. (a) NP = 400, NS = 2000 and VS = 1000 V.
28. (a) In ideal condition of LC circuit R = 0 and LC oscillation VP N P VS ´ N P 1000 ´ 400
= of, VP = = = 200V.
continue indefinitely. Energy being shunted back and VS NS NS 2000
forth between electric field of capacitor and magnetic
field of inductor. As capacitor is fully charged current 40. (d) The time constant of the circuit is
1 q0 2 L 100 ´10-3
in L is zero and energy is stored in electric t= = = 2 ´10-3 s= 2 milli second.
2 C R 50
field. Then capacitor begins to discharge through L Current at time t is given by I = I 0e–t/t
causing a current to flow and build up a magnetic where I0 is the steady current. Therefore, time for I to
field, around L. Therefore, energy stored.
fall to I0/2 is
1 2
Now in L = LI 0 when C is fully discharged, V 1
e – t/ t =
2 or, et/t = 2, t = tln(2) = 2ln(2) milli second.
across the plate reduces to zero. 2
41. (b) Given equation, e = 80 sin 100pt …(i)
\ Electric field energy is transferred to magnetic
field and vice-versa. Standard equation of instantaneous voltage is given
29. (d) Initially there is no D.C. current in inductive circuit by e = em sinwt …(ii)
and maximum D.C.current is in capacitive current. Compare (i) and (ii), we get em = 80 V
Hence, the current is zero in A2 and maximum in A1. where em is the voltage amplitude.
30. (a) L = 10 mHz = 10–2 Hz em
f = 1MHz = 106 Hz Current amplitude Im = where Z = impendence
Z
1 1 = 80/20 = 4 A.
f= ; f2 = 2
2p LC 4p LC 4 4 2
I r.m.s = = = 2 2 = 2.828 A.
2 2
10 -12
Pi 4000
ÞC=
1
=
1
= = 2.5 pF
42. (d) As E p Ι p = Pi \ Ιp = = = 40 A.
Ep 100
4p 2 f 2 L 4 ´ 10 ´ 10 - 2 ´ 1012 4
31. (c) Impedance at resonant frequency is minimum in series 43. (d)
LCR circuit. np Ep 1
44. (b) = =
2 ns Es 25
æ 1 ö
So, Z = R 2 + ç 2 pfL - ÷ \ E s = 25E p
è 2pfC ø
E S ´ IS
When frequency is increased or decreased, Z But Es Is = E p I p Þ I p = Þ I p = 50A
increases. Ep
NS
E 2v cos f 45. (a) Transformation ratio k =
32. (c) P= NP
Z
VS NS N
Since = \ VS = S ´ VP
(240) 2 (0.75) VP N P NP
P = 3000 = d Þ Z = 14.4W
Z
3
33. (c) 34. (c) VS = ´ 30 = 45V
2
608 PHYSICS
46. (a) Given : Supply voltage (Vac) = 200 V So, Xint = Xext
Inductive reactance (XL) = 50 W Xg = (XL) = –XL
Capacitive reactance (XC) = 50 W Hence, XL = –Xg (Reactance in external
circuit)
Ohmic resistance (R) = 10 W.
3. (c) As we know that,
We know that impedance of the LCR circuit The voltmeter in AC reads rms values of voltage
(Z) = {(X L - X C ) 2 + R 2 } = {(50 - 50) 2 + (10) 2 } = 10 W Irms = 2I0 and Vrms = 2v0
The voltmeter in AC circuit connected to AC mains
E0 nBAw
47. (c) I0 = = reads mean value (<v2>) and is calibrated in such a
R R way that it gives rms value of <v2>, which is multiplied
Given, n = 1, B = 10–2 T, by form factor Ö2 to give rms value Vrms.
A = p(0.3)2m2, R = p2 4. (b) As we know that,
f = (200/60) and w = 2p(200/60) The resonant frequency in an L-C-R series circuit is
Substituting these values and solving, we get 1
n0 =
I0 = 6 × 10–3 A = 6mA 2p LC
48. (b) As VL = VC = 300 V, resonance will take place So, to reduce n0 either increase L or increase C.
\ VR = 220 V To increase capacitance, another capacitor must be
connect in parallel with the first capacitor.
220 5. (c) As we know that, Quality factor (Q) of an
Current, I = = 2.2 A
100 L-C-R circuit must be higher so Q is
\ reading of V3 = 220 V 1 L
and reading of A = 2.2 A Q=
R C
49. (b) 50. (c) where R is resistance, L is inductance and C is
capacitance of the circuit.
EXERCISE - 3 So, for higher Q, L must be large, and C and R should
Exemplar Questions be low.
Hence, option (c) is verify.
1. (b) As given that, v = 50 Hz, Irms = 5A
6. (c) As given that,
1 XL = 1W, R = 2W, Erms = 6V, Pav = ?
t= s
300 The average power dissipated in the L, R, series circuit
I0 with AC source
As we know that Irms = Then Pav= Erms Irms cos f ... (i)
2
I0 E rms
I0 = Peak value = 2.Irms = 2 ´5 Irms = =
2 Z
I0 = 5 2A
1 Z= R 2 + X L2 = 4 +1 = 5
at, t = sec , I = I0 sinwt = 5 2 sin 2pvt
300
6
1 Irms = A
= 5 2 sin 2 p ´ 50 ´ 5
300
p 3 R 2
I = 5 2 sin = 5 2´ = 5 3 2 Amp cos f = =
3 2 Z 5
æ p 3ö By putting the value of Irms, Erms, cos f in equation (i),
çè\ sin = ÷ then,
3 2 ø
æ 3ö 6 2 72
I = ç 5 ÷ Amp Pav = 6 ´ ´ =
ç 2÷ 5 5 5 5
è ø
2. (c) To deliver maximum power from the generator to the 72
load, total internal reactance must be equal to conjugate = = 14.4 watt
5
of total external reactance.
Alternating Current 609
Electromagnetic
23 Waves
DISPLACEMENT CURRENT (ii) Gauss's law for magnetism : It states that the net magnetic
It is that current which comes into play in a region, where electric flux through a closed surface is zero. It means that number
field (and hence the electric flux) is changing with time. of magnetic field lines that enter a closed volume must be
df equal to number of field lines leaving that volume
The displacement current is given by, I D = eo E
r r
Ñò
dt
where e o = absolute permittivity (or permitivity of free space) and i.e., B.dA = 0
dfE It means that magnetic mono pole cannot exists in nature.
= rate of change of electric flux. r r
dt The differential form of this law is Ñ.B = 0
In case of a steady electric flux linked with a region, the (iii) Faraday’s law : This law states that the line integral of the
displacement current is maximum.
electric field around any closed path (which equals the e.m.f.)
The current in the electric circuit which arises due to flow of
equals the rate of change of magnetic flux through any
electrons in the connecting wires of the circuit, in a defined
surface area bounded by that path.
closed path is called conduction current.
r r d fm
MAXWELL’S MODIFICATION OF AMPERE’S CIRCUITAL
LAW
i.e., Ñò E.d l = dt
The consequence of this law is that, if we keep any
In 1864, Maxwell showed that Ampere’s circuital law is logically conducting loop in a time varying magnetic field, then an
inconsistent for non-steady currents. He modified Ampere’s law induced current, flows in that conducting loop. The
ur uuur æ df ö r r
as
Ñò B.d l = m 0 ç I + e 0 E ÷ (Sum of conduction current and
è dt ø differential form of this law is Ñ ´ E = -
dB
dt
displacement current) This law decribes a relationship between an electric field
The term I d = e 0 (dfE / dt) is displacement current. It is that and a changing magnetic flux.
current which comes into existence, in addition to the conduction (iv) Modified Ampere-Maxwell law : It states that “ the line
current, whenever the electric field and hence the electric flux integral of magnetic field around any closed path is
changes with time. determined by the sum of the net conduction current through
Maxwell’s Equation that path and the rate of change of electric flux through any
Maxwell found that all the basic principles of electromagnetism can surface bounded by that path
r r df
be formulated in terms of four fundamental equations, called
Maxwell’s equation. These are :
i.e., Ñò B.dS = m 0 I + e om 0 e
dt
(i) Gauss's law for electrostatics : According to Gauss's law It describes the relationship between magnetic and electric
the total electric flux through any closed surface is equal to fields and electric current. The differential form of this law is
the net charge inside that surface divided by eo r r dE
Ñ ´ B = m0 J + m0 E0
r uur Q dt
i.e., Ñò E.dA =
eo ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
This law relates the electric field to charge distribution, Maxwell-on the basis of four basic equations of electromagnetism
whereas electric field lines orignate from positive (+ive) theoretically predicted the existence of electromagnetic waves.
charge and terminate on negative (–ive) charge. The An electromagentic wave is the one constituted by oscillating
r r r electric and magnetic fields which oscillate in two mutually
differential form of this law is Ñ.E = perpendicular planes. The wave itself propagates in a direction
e0
where r is volume charge density and eo is the permittivity perpendicular to both of the directions of oscillations of electric
of free space. and magnetic fields.
Electromagnetic Waves 611
1 1 2 1 2 1 2 2
c= = 3 ´ 108 ms -1 Also, u E = e o E0 = e o (c B0 ) = e o c B0
4 4 4
m0 eo
1 e o B02 B2
1 2 = = 0 = uB
(iv) The energy density of electric field is e o E and that of 4 e o m 0 4m 0
2
\ Total average energy density
1 B2
magnetic field is , so the energy density of the
2 m0 1 B2
= uE + uB = 2uE = 2uB = e o E02 = 0
2 2m 0
1é 2 B
2ù
5. Poynting vector: When an electromagnetic wave advances,
electromagnetic wave is u = êe o E + ú
2 ëê m 0 ûú
the electromagnetic energy flows in the direction E ´ B .
where E and B are the instantaneous values of the electric The total energy flowing perpendicularly per second per
and magnetic field vectors. unit area into the space in free space is called a poynting
ur
E 1 vector S where S = ce o (E ´ B ) = ( E ´ B ) / m 0 .
(v) The ratio = c = .
B m0 eo
uur 1 EB
Production of Electromagnetic Waves S =|S | = E B sin 90° =
m0 m0
An accelerated charge emits electromagnetic waves. An oscillating
The SI unit of S is watt/m2
charge, as in an LC-circuit has non-zero acceleration, it continues
to emit electromagnetic waves. The frequency of electromagnetic 6. The intensity of a sinusoidal plane electromagnetic wave is
waves is the same as that of the oscillating charge. defined as average value of poynting vector taken over one
Hertz’s experiment : In 1888, Hertz succeeded in experimentally cycle. Thus,
confirming the existence of electromagnetic waves. By using
1 æ E0 ö æ B0 ö E0 B0 E 2 c B0 2
oscillator LC-circuits, he not only produced and detected I = Sav = ç ÷ ç ÷ = = 0 =
m0 è 2 ø è 2 ø 2 m0 2 m 0c 2 m 0
electromagnetic waves, but also demonstrated their properties of
reflection, refraction and interference and established beyond 7. Radiation pressure : The pressure exerted by electromagnetic
doubt that light radiation has wave nature. waves is called as radiation pressure (P). When an
r
Keep in Memory electromagnetic wave with Poynting vector S is incident on a
1. The amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields in free space, perfectly absorbing surface, then radiation pressure on surface
r
E0 S
in electromagnetic waves are related by E0 = cB0 or C = is P = .
B0 c
4 Visible light –7
4 × 10 to 7 × 10
–7 14
8 × 10 to 4 × 10
14 Excitation of valency The eye, photocells,
electron photographic film
5 Infrared –7
7 × 10 to 3 × 10
–5 14
4 × 10 to 1 × 10
13 Excitation of atoms and Thermopiles, bolometer
molecules
6 Heat radiations –5
10 to 10
–1 13
3 × 10 to 3 × 10
9 Hot bodies
7 Micro-waves –3
10 to 0.3
11
3 × 10 to 1 × 10
9 Oscillating current in Point contact diodes
special vacuum tube
8 Ultra high –1
1 × 10 to 1
9 8
3 × 10 to 3 × 10 Oscillating circuit
frequency
9 Very high radio 1 to 10 8 7
3 × 10 to 3 × 10 Oscillating circuit
frequency
10 Radio frequency 10 to 104 7 4
3 × 10 to 3 × 10 Oscillating circuit Receiver's aerial
11 Power 5 × 106 to 6 × 106 60 to 50 Weak radiations from
frequency a.c. circuit
Example 1. 2 pc 2p ´ 3 ´ 108
In a plane electromagnetic wave the electric field varies w = 2pn = = = p ´ 1011 rad / s.
l 6 ´ 10 -3
with time having an amplitude 1 Vm–1. The frequency of The maximum magnetic field,
wave is 0.5 × 1015 Hz. The wave is propagating along
E 33
Z-axis. What is the average energy density of (i) electric B0 = 0 = = 11´ 10 -8 T
c 8
field (ii) magnetic field (iii) total field. (iv) What is amplitude 3 ´ 10
The equation for the electric field, along y-axis in the
of magnetic field?
electromagnetic wave is
Solution :
(i) Average energy density of electric field æ xö
E y = E 0 sin wç t - ÷ = 33 sin p ´ 1011 ( t - x / c)
2
é E0 ù è cø
1 1 æ E0 ö
êQ E =
2 ç ÷
U E = eoE = eo ç ÷ ú The equation for the magnetic field along z-axis in the
2 2 è 2ø ë 2û electromagnetic wave is
1 1
= e o E 02 = ´ (8.854 ´10 -12 ) ´12 = 2.21´ 10 -12 Jm -3 . æ xö
4 4 B z = B 0 sin wç t - ÷ = 11´ 10 -8 sin p ´ 1011 ( t - x / c)
(ii) Average energy density of magnetic field, è cø
UB = Average energy density of electric field Example 3.
= 2.21 × 10–12 Jm–3 If ε o and m0 represent the permittivity and permeability of
(iii) Total average energy density U = UE + UB = 2 UE vacuum and ε and m represent the permittivity and
= 2 × 2.21 ×10–12 = 4.42 × 10–12 Jm–3 permeability of medium, then refractive index of the medium
(iv) Amplitude of magnetic field, B0 = E0/c is given by
= 1/(3 × 108) = 3.33 × 10–9 T μ 0ε o με ε μ 0ε o
Example 2. (a) (b) (c) (d)
με μ 0ε o μ 0ε o μ
A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in the
Solution : (b)
x-direction has a wavelength of 6.0 mm. The electric field
is in the y-direction and its maximum magnitude is 33 Vm–1. 1
Q Velocity of light in medium c =
Write suitable equations for the electric and magnetic fields me
as a function of x and t. c 0 1/ m0 eo me
Solution : \ Refractive index = = =
c 1 / me m 0e o
Here, l = 6.00 mm = 6 × 10–3 m; E0 = 33 V/m.
Electromagnetic Waves 613
Example 4. The study of X-rays has revealed the atomic structure and
The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given crystal structure.
by B = 2 × 10–7 sin (0.5× 103 x +1.5 × 1011t) T. 7. The study of g-rays provides us valueable information
(a) What is the wavelength and frequency of the wave? about the structure of the atomic nuclei
(b) Write an expression for the electric field. 8. Super high frequency electromagnetic waves (3000 to
Solution : 30,000 MHz) are used in radar and satellite communication.
(a) Comparing the given equation with 9. Electromagnetic waves (frequency 50 to 60 Hz) are ued for
é æ x t öù lighting. These are weak waves having wavelength
B = B0 sin ê 2p ç + ÷ ú 5 × 106 to 6 × 106 m and can be produced from A.C. circuits.
ë è l Tøû
2p Keep in Memory
we get, l = m = 1.26 cm
0.5 ´ 103 1. Green house effect : It is the phenomenon which keeps the
1
and = n = (1.5 ´ 1011 ) / 2p = 23.9 GHz earth’s surface warm at night. The earth absorbs solar radiation
T and reflects back only infrared rays due to its low temperature.
(b) E0 = B0c = 2 × 10–7 T × 3 × 108 m/s = 6 × 101 V/m These rays are reflected back by the clouds and the gas molecules
The electric field component is perpendicular to the of the lower atmosphere. This keeps the earth’s surface warm at
direction of propagation and the direction of magnetic night.
field. Therefore, the electric field component along the z-
axis is obtained as PROPAGATION OF RADIO WAVES THROUGH THE
Ez = 60 sin (0.5 × 103x + 1.5 × 1011 t) V/m ATMOSPHERE
Example 5. It takes place in three ways :
A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels (i) Ground wave propagation,
in free space along the x-direction. At a particular point in
r (ii) Sky wave propagation and
r
space and time, E = 6.3 ˆj V / m . What is B at this point ? (iii) Space wave propagation.
Solution : (i) Ground wave propagation : When the radio wave travel
r directly from one point to another following the surface of
The magnitude of B is
the earth, it is called ground or surface wave. This type of
E 6.3 V / m transmission is possible only with waves of wavelengths
B= = = 2.1 ´ 10 -8 T
c 3 ´ 108 m / s above 200 m or frequencies below 1500 k Hz.
r (ii) Sky wave propagation : When a radiowave is directed
To find the direction, we note that E is along y-direction towards the sky and is reflected by the ionosphere towards
and the wave propagates along x-axis. Therefore, B should desired location on the earth, it is called sky wave. This
be in a direction perpendicular to both x- and y-axes. Using method is useful for the transmission of waves of
r r
vector algebra, E ´ B should be along x-direction. wavelengths less than 200 m or frequencies above 1500 k
r r Hz upto 30 MHz.
Since, (+ ˆj) ´ (+ k)
ˆ = i.B
ˆ , B is along the z-direction.
(iii) Space wave propagation : For the transmission of television
r signals (frequencies in the range 100-200 M Hz), space
Thus, B = 2.1 ´ 10 -8 kT
ˆ
wave propagation method is used, in which the wave travels
USES OF ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
directly from a high transmitting antenna to the receiving
The following are some of the uses of electromagnetic waves
antenna. The relation between the height ‘h’ of the
1. Radio waves are used in radio and T.V. communication
transmitting antenna above the ground level and the distance
systems.
2. Microwaves are used in microwave oven. ‘d’ upto which TV signal can be received is d = 2hR
3. Infrared radiations are used (a) in revealing the secret = range of a TV tower where R is the radius of the earth.
writings on the ancient walls (b) in green houses to keep the Example 6.
plants warm (c) in warfare, for looking through haze, fog or A TV tower has a height of 100 m. How much population
mist as these radiations can pass through them. is covered by the TV broadcast if the average population
4. Ultraviolet radiations are used in the detection of invisible density around the tower is 1000 km–2 ?(radius of the
writing, forged documents, finger prints in forensic earth = 6.37 × 106 m)
laboratory and to preserve the food stuffs. Solution :
5. The study of infrared, visible and ultraviolet radiations help Height of twoer h = 100 m
us to know through spectra, the structure of the molecules Radius of the earth R = 6.37 × 106m
and arrangement of electrons in the external shells.
6. X-rays can pass through flesh and blood but not through d = 2 hR = 2 ´ 100 ´ 6.37 ´ 106
bones. This property of X-rays is used in medical diagnosis, Population covered = p d 2 × population density
after X-rays photographs are made. Solving we get population covered = 40 lakh.
614
CONCEPT M AP
Radio waves
Radiation pressure exerted Energy associated Do not require
Wavelength > 0.1 m
by an electromagnetic wave with an electromagnetic any material
Uses: in telecommu-
energy associated wave medium for
nication
with em waves (u) 1 1 B2 propagation
P= u= e0 E 2 +
speed of light in vacuum(c) 2 2 m0 Produced
Microwave
Wavelength 0.1 m to1 mm by accelerated
Uses : in microwave charge
oven, RADAR Travels with
speed of light
in free space
Infra -red Characteristics
Different types of 1
Wavelength 1 mm to 700 mm of electromagnetic C=
electromagnetic waves
Uses : treat muscular strain waves m0 e 0
= 3 ´108 m/s
g-rays Oscillating
–3
Wavelength : 1 nm to 10nm electric and magnetic
Uses : Medical diagnosis fields are in phase and
Conduction current Displacement current (I)D their magnitudes
g-rays Arises due to flow of Due to time varying bear constant ratio
–3 electrons in a definite electric field
Wavelength : < 10nm C=
E0
Uses : in medical science closed path df B0
ID = e0 E
information on nuclear dt
structure
PHYSICS
Electromagnetic Waves 615
22. Radio waves diffract around building although light waves 24. Approximate height of ozone layer above the ground is
do not. The reason is that radio waves (a) 60 to 70 km (b) 59 km to 80 km
(a) travel with speed larger than c
(c) 70 km to 100 km (d) 100 km to 200 km
(b) have much larger wavelength than light
(c) are not electromagnetic waves 25. Biological importance of ozone layer is
(d) None of these (a) it stops ultraviolet rays
23. All components of the electromagnetic spectrum in vacuum (b) ozone layer reduce green house effect
have the same
(c) ozone layer reflects radio waves
(a) energy (b) velocity
(c) wavelength (d) frequency (d) ozone layer controls O2 / H2 radio in atmosphere
1. If a source is transmitting electromagnetic wave of frequency 7. An electromagnetic wave is propagating along Y-axis. Then
8.2 × 106 Hz, then wavelength of the electromagnetic waves (a) oscillating electric field is along X-axis and
transmitted from the source will be oscillating magnetic field is along Y-axis
(a) 36.6 m (b) 40.5 m (b) oscillating electric field is along Z-axis and
(c) 42.3 m (d) 50.9 m oscillating magnetic field is along X-axis
2. In an apparatus, the electric field was found to oscillate with (c) both oscillating electric and magnetic fields are
an amplitude of 18 V/m. The magnitude of the oscillating along Y-axis, but phase difference between them
magnetic field will be is 90°
(a) 4 × 10–6 T (b) 6 × 10–8 T (d) both oscillating electric and magnetic fields are
(c) 9 × 10–9 T (d) 11 × 10–11 T mutually perpendicular in arbitrary direction
3. A TV tower has a height of 100m. How much population is 8. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which best suited
covered by the TV broadcast if the average population to observe a particle of radii 3 × 10–4 cm is of the order of
density around the tower is 100 km–2 (radius of the earth (a) 1015 (b) 1014
= 6.37 × 106 m) (c) 1013 (d) 1012
(a) 4 lakh (b) 4 billion 9. If e0 and m0 are the electric permittivity and magnetic
(c) 40,000 (d) 40 lakh permeability in vacuum, e and m are corresponding quantities
4. In a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in space has in medium, then refractive index of the medium is
an electric field of amplitude 9 × 103 V/m, then the amplitude
of the magnetic field is e e 0m e 0m 0 em
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) 2.7 × 1012 T (b) 9.0 × 10–3 T e0 em 0 em e 0m 0
(c) 3.0 × 10–4 T (d) 3.0 × 10–5 T 10. A wave is propagating in a medium of electric dielectric
5. The ratio of electric field vector E and magnetic field vector constant 2 and relative magnetic permeability 50. The wave
impedance of such a medium is
æEö
H i.e., çç H ÷÷ has the dimensions of (a) 5 W (b) 376.6 W (c) 1883 W (d) 3776 W
è ø
11. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which best suited
(a) resistance to observe a particle of radii 3 × 10–4 cm is of the order of
(b) inductance
(a) 1015 (b) 1014
(c) capacitance
(c) 1013 (d) 1012
(d) product of inductance and capacitance
12. The relation between electric field E and magnetic field H in
6. The energy of electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by an electromagnetic wave is
the relation
µ0
E2 B2 1 1 (a) E = H (b) E= H
(a) + (b) e 0E 2 + µ0B2 e0
2e 0 2µ 0 2 2
E 2 + B2 1 B2 µ0 e0
(c) (d) e0E 2 + (c) E= H (d) E= H
c 2 2µ0 e0 µ0
Electromagnetic Waves 617
13. To double the covering range of a T.V. transmitter tower, its 23. Which of the following has/have zero average value in a
height should be made plane electromagnetic wave ?
(a) 2 times (b) 4 times (a) Both magnetic and electric field
(c) 2 times (d) 8 times (b) Electric field only
14. The transmitting antenna of a radiostation is mounted (c) Magnetic energy
vertically. At a point 10 km due north of the transmitter the (d) Electric energy
peak electric field is 10–3 Vm–1. The magnitude of the radiated
magnetic field is 24. For sky wave propagation of a 10 MHz signal, what should
be the maximum electron density in ionosphere?
(a) 3.33 × 10–10 T (b) 3.33 × 10–12 T
(c) 10–3 T (d) 3 × 105 T (a) ~1.2 × 1012m–3 (b) ~106m–3
15. It is possible to take pictures of those objects which are not (c) ~1014 m–3 (d) ~1022m–3
fully visible to the eye using camera films sensitive to 25. A new system of unit is evolved in which the values of µ0
(a) ultraviolet rays (b) infrared rays
and Î0 are 2 and 8 respectively. Then the speed of light in
(c) microwaves (d) radiowaves
this system will be
16. A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material
surface. If the wave delivers momentum p and energy E, (a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.75 (d) 1
then 26. Light wave is travelling along y-direction. If the
r
(a) p = 0, E = 0 (b) p ¹ 0, E ¹ 0 corresponding E vector at any time is along the x-axis, the
r
(c) p ¹ 0, E = 0 (d) p = 0, E ¹ 0 direction of B vector at that time is along y
17. An electromagnetic wave, going through vacuum is (a) y-axis
described by E = E 0 sin(kx - wt) . Which of the following (b) x-axis x
is independent of wavelength ? (c) + z-axis
(a) k (b) w
(d) – z-axis z
(c) k/w (d) kw
18. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields 27. An electromagnetic wave of frequency n = 3.0 MHz
are 100 V m–1 and 0.265 A m–1. The maximum energy flow is passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with
(a) 26.5 W/m2 (b) 36.5 W/m2 permittivity Î = 4.0 . Then
(c) 46.7 W/m 2 (d) 765 W/m2
(a) wavelength is halved and frequency remains
19. In which one of the following regions of the electromagnetic
unchanged
spectrum will the vibrational motion of molecules give rise
to absorption ? (b) wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
(a) Ultraviolet (b) Microwaves (c) wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains
(c) Infrared (d) Radio waves unchanged
20. The oscillating electric and magnetic vectors of an (d) wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
electromagnetic wave are oriented along 28. In an electromagnetic wave
(a) the same direction but differ in phase by 90° (a) power is transmitted along the magnetic field
(b) the same direction and are in phase (b) power is transmitted along the electric field
(c) mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase (c) power is equally transferred along the electric and
(d) mutually perpendicular directions and differ in phase magnetic fields
by 90° (d) power is transmitted in a direction perpendicular to
both the fields
21. An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is
described by E = E0sin(kx – wt); B = B0 sin (kx – wt). Which 29. A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a plane surface
of the following equations is true? of area A, normally and is perfectly reflected. If energy E
strikes the surface in time t then average pressure exerted
(a) E0 k = B0w (b) E0 w = B0 k on the surface is (c = speed of light)
(c) E 0 B0 = w k (d) None of these (a) zero (b) E/Atc
22. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along (c) 2E/Atc (d) E/c
x-axis. At a particular point in space, the electric field along r r
30. If E and B represent electric and magnetic field vectors of
y-axis is 9.3V m–1. The magnetic induction (B) along z-axis is
the electromagnetic waves, then the direction of
(a) 3.1 × 10–8 T (b) 3 × 10–5 T
–6
propagation of the waves will be along
(c) 3 × 10 T (d) 9.3 × 10–6 T
618 PHYSICS
r r r r r r 39. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave,
(a) B ´ E (b) E (c) B (d) E ´ B ultraviolet and gamma rays is
31. Which of the following statement is false for the properties (a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
of electromagnetic waves? (b) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, micro-waves
(a) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the (c) microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
maxima and minima at the same place and same time. (d) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
(b) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally 40. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?
between electric and magnetic vectors (a) cosmic rays (b) g-rays
(c) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to (c) b-rays (d) X-rays.
each other and perpendicular to the direction of 41. Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength ?
propagation of wave (a) g -rays (b) b -rays
(d) These waves do not require any material medium for
(c) a -rays (d) X -rays
propagation.
42. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which is best suited
32. The electric and the magnetic field associated with an E.M.
to observe a particle of radius 3 × 10–4 cm is of the order of
wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be represented by
(a) 1015 (b) 1014
r r r r r 13
ˆ B = B ˆjù
(a) éë E = E 0 i, (b) éë E = E 0 k, B = B0ˆi ùû (c) 10 (d) 1012
0 û
43. Pick out the longest wavelength from the following types of
r r r r radiation.
(c) éë E = E 0 ˆj, B = B0 iˆ ùû (d) éë E = E 0 ˆj,B = B0 kˆ ùû (a) blue light (b) gamma rays
33. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave in vacuum is (c) X-rays (d) red light
r DIRECTIONS for Qs. (44 to 50) : Each question contains
given by E = iˆ 40 cos (kz – 6 × 108t), where E, z and t are in
STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
volt/m, meter and seconds respectively. The value of wave (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following-
vector k is (a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(a) 2 m–1 (b) 0.5 m–1 (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
(c) 6 m –1 (d) 3 m–1 correct explanation for Statement-1
34. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in a correct explanation for Statement-1
vacuum is equal to (d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(a) the speed of light in vacuum 44. Statement 1 : When variable frequency a.c. source is
(b) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum connected to a capacitor, displacement current increases
(c) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric with increase in frequency.
susceptibility of vacuum Statement 2 : As frequency increases conduction current
(d) unity also increases.
35. The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a 45. Statement 1 : Short wave bands are used for transmission
food item containing water molecules most efficiently is of radio waves to a large distance.
(a) the frequency of the microwaves has no relation with
Statement 2 : Short waves re reflected by ionosphere.
natural frequency of water molecules.
(b) microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating. 46. Statement 1 : Television signals are received through sky-
(c) infra-red waves produce heating in a microwave oven. wave propagation.
(d) the frequency of the microwaves must match the Statement 2 : The ionosphere reflects electromagnetic waves
resonant frequency of the water molecules. of frequencies greater than a certain critical frequency.
36. The frequencies of X-rays, g-rays and ultraviolet rays are 47. Statement 1 : Ultraviolet radiations of higher frequency
respectively a, b and c then waves are dangerous to human being.
(a) a < b, b > c (b) a > b, b > c
Statement 2 : Ultraviolet radiation are absorbed by the
(c) a > b, b < c (d) a < b, b < c
atmosphere.
37. If l v , l r and l m represent the wavelength of visible light 48. Statement 1 : Environmental damage has increased the
x-rays and microwaves respectively, then amount of ozone in the atmosphere.
(a) lm > l x > l v (b) l v > lm > l y Statement 2 : Increase of ozone increases the amount of
ultraviolet radiation on earth.
(c) l m > l v > l x (d) l v > l x > l m
49. Statement 1 : The earth without atmosphere would be
38. The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave
inhospitably cold.
are in
(a) phase and parallel to each other Statement 2 : All heat would escape in the absence of
(b) opposite phase and perpendicular to each other atmosphere.
(c) opposite phase and parallel to each other 50. Statement 1 : Radio waves can be polarised.
(d) phase and perpendicular to each other Statement 2 : Sound waves in air are longitudinal in nature.
Electromagnetic Waves 619
48. (a) Ozone layer in the stratosphere helps in protecting life Momentum of the incident light
of organism form ultraviolet radiation on earth. Ozone
U
layer is depleted due to of several factors like use of = (Q c = 3 × 108)
chlorofluoro carbon (CFC) which is the cause of c
environmental damages. Momentum of incident light
49. (b) In the absence of atmosphere, all the heat will escape
20 ´ 30 ´ ( 30 ´ 60)
from earth’s surface which will make earth in hospitably = = 36 × 10–4 kg-ms–1
cold. 3 ´ 108
50. (c) Radio waves can be polarised because they are As no reflection from the surface and for comidete
transverse in nature. Sound waves in air are longitudinal absorption.
in nature. Momentum of the reflected light = 0
Hence, momentum delivered to the surface
EXERCISE - 3 = Charge in momentum. = (pf – fi)
Exemplar Questions = 36 × 10–4 – 0 =36 × 10–4 kg-ms–1
1. (c) As we know that, 4. (c) As we know that the electric field intensity on a surface
due to incident radiation is,
E = hn
Iav µ E02
As given that h = 6.62 × 10–34 J-s
E = 11 eV =11 × 1.6 × 10–19 Pav
µ E02 (A is constant)
n= ? A
11 eV = hn Here, Pav µ E02
= - E 0 ˆi cos ( - ( kz + wt ) + p )
z
y B (y) E(–x)
= - E 0 ˆi cos ( p - ( kz + wt ) ) E(–x) B(y)
1 B20 2 ´ 25 ´ 104 ´ 15 ´ 10 - 4
= = (Uav)Magnetic field =
2 m0 3 ´ 108
REFLECTION OF LIGHT (iii) If two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at 90º, the
It is the turning back of light in the same medium. emergent ray is always antiparallel to incident ray if it suffers
one reflection from each whatever be the angle of incidence.
Normal The same is found to hold good for three-plane mirrors
forming the corner of a cube if the incident light suffers one
reflection from each of them.
(iv) If there are two plane mirrors inclined to each other at an
Incident ray angle q, the no. of images of a point object formed are
Reflected ray determined as follows :
i r
360°
(a) If is even integer (say m), no. of images formed
q
Reflecting = (m – 1), for all positions of object.
Surface
i = angle of incidence æ 360° ö
(b) If çè ÷ is odd integer (say m), no. of images formed,
r = angle of reflection q ø
n = m, if the object is not on the bisector of mirrors and
Laws of Reflection n = (m – 1), if the object is on the bisector of mirrors.
(i) Angle of incidence (i) = angle of reflection (r)
æ 360° ö
(ii) The incident ray, reflected ray and normal are always in (c) If çè ÷ is a fraction, the no. of images formed will
same plane. q ø
be equal to its integral part.
REFLECTION FROM PLANE SURFACE
A plane mirror always forms a virtual image if object is
Plane mirror has infinitely large radius of curvature. It produces
real and forms a real image if the object is virtual.
virtual image of same size but laterally inverted. Image is as much
behind the mirror as much is the object in front of it. MIRROR FORMULA
(i) If the direction of the incident ray is kept constant and the 1 1 1
+ =
mirror is rotated through an angle q about an axis in the v u f
plane mirror, then the reflected ray rotates through an where, u = distance of the object from the pole of mirror
angle 2q. v = distance of the image from the pole of mirror
f = focal length of the mirror.
Mirror formula is valid only when the following
q conditions are satisfied :
(a) Object is placed very near to the principal axis.
90° – q
M2 (b) Object is placed far from the mirror.
Magnification
q
v v- f f I évù
m= = = or m = = – ê ú
u f u- f O ëu û
M1 where, I = size of the image and O = size of the object and negative
(ii) If an object moves towards (or away from) a plane mirror at
sign implies that image is inverted w.r.t the object.
a speed v, the image will also approach (or recede) at the
The above formulae are applicable only for paraxial rays (the rays
same speed v, i.e. the speed of image relative to object will
which makes very small angle with the principal axis).
be v – (–v) = 2v.
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 625
Areal magnification : When a two dimensional object is placed 1. Rays retrace their path when their direction is reversed.
with its plane perpendicular to the principal axis, its magnification 2. Focal length of a mirror depends only on the curvature of
called superficial magnification or aerial magnification and is given æ Rö
by the mirror ç f = ÷ . It does not depend on the material of
è 2ø
2 the mirror or on the wavelength of incident light.
Area of image æ vö 3. Focal length of concave mirror is always negative.
Ms = =m2 =ç ÷
Area of object è uø Focal length of convex mirror is always positive.
1 1
Sign Conventions for Mirror and Lenses 4. The graph of versus for a concave mirror, if real
v u
New cartesian sign conventions : image is formed.
1. All the distances are measured from pole of spherical mirror
and optical centre in case of lenses. 1/v
2. The distances measured in a direction opposite to the direction
of incident light is taken as negative and vice-versa.
3. The heights measured upward and perpendicular to the 1/f
principal axis of mirror are taken as positive and vice -versa.
4. Angle measured from the normal in the anticlockwise
1/f 1/u
direction is positive and vice-versa.
5. The graph shows variation of v with change in u for a
mirror.
v
Incident ray
– ve +ve +ve
Object For plane mirror
P – ve For
(Pole) 2f spherical mirror
f
f 2f u
6. A person needs a plane mirror of minimum half of his height
Reflecting or refracting surface to see his full image.
IMAGE FORMED BY CONCAVE AND CONVEX MIRROR 7. A person standing in the middle of room can see complete
1
Image Formed by Concave Mirror wall behind him if the mirror in front of him is rd of height
3
of wall.
Pos ition of Pos ition of
Magnification Nature of image 8. A convex mirror is used as a rear view mirror (called driver
object image
mirror).
Between P Behind the
+ve, m > 1 Virtual and erect 9. If two or more optical components produce magnification,
and F mirror
then overall magnification (m) is the product of magnification
– ve, Highly
At F At infinity Real and inverted due to each component,
magnified
i.e., m = m1 × m2× . . .
Between F • If m is negative, the image is inverted
Beyond C – ve, M agnified Real and inverted
and C
• If m is positive, the image is erect.
At C At C m = –1 Real and inverted 10. When an object moves with constant speed towards a
between F concave mirror from infinity to focus, the image will move
Beyond C Dis mished Real and inverted
and C away from the mirror slower in the beginning and with the
Highly speed of the object when it is at centre of curvature C and
At infinity At F Real and inverted
diminshed faster later on.
11. Concave mirrors are used as reflectors, as objective in
Image Formed by Convex Mirror
reflecting telescope and by doctors (ENT) to examine ears,
Position of Position of nose and throat. It is also used as shaving mirrors.
Magnification Nature of image 12. The inability of a spherical mirror (or lens) of large aperture
object image
Infront of Between P to focus the paraxial rays and marginal rays to the same
m < +1 Virual and erect
mirror and F point on the principal axis is called spherical aberration.
A t infinity At F m < < +1 Virtual and erect Due to this defect the image formed is blurred. This defect
can be removed by using parabolic mirror.
Keep in Memory 13. Chromatic aberration is absent in mirrors but present in
626 PHYSICS
u = (f + x1) and v = (f + x2), the mirror formula 1 + 1 = 1 The focal length f = –f and u = –1.5f, we have
v u f
1 1 1 1 1 1
+ = or - + =-
1 1 1 u v f 1.5f v f
reduces to + =
( f + x 2 ) ( f + x1 ) f 1 1 1 -1
or = - = or v = –3f
which on simplification gives x1 x2 = f 2 v 1.5f f 3f
v 3f h
Example 1. Now m = - = = -2 or 2 = -2
The focal length of a concave mirror is 30 cm. Find the u - 1.5f h1
position of the object in front of the mirror, so that the image or h 2 = -2 h1 = -5.0 cm
is three times the size of the object. The image is 5.0 cm long. The minus sign shows that it is
Solution : inverted.
Here image can be real or virtual. If the image is real
f = –30, u = ?, m = –3 REFRACTION
Whenever a wave is bounced back into same medium at an
f -30 interface reflection is said to have occurred. Transmission of a
m= Þ -3 = Þ u = –40 cm.
f -u -30 - u wave into the second medium at an interface is called refraction.
If the image is virtual When a ray of light is passing from denser to rarer medium, it
bends away from the normal and when passing from rarer to
f -30
m= Þ 3= Þ u = –20 cm. denser medium, it bends towards the normal.
f -u -30 - u • When a ray of light passing from one medium to another
Example 2. medium frequency and ph ase do not change while
A square ABCD of side 1mm is kept at distance 15 cm infront wavelength and velocity changes.
of the concave mirror as shown in the figure. The focal • Twinkling of stars, appearance of sun before actual sunrise
length of the mirror is 10 cm. Find the perimeter of its image. and after actual sunset etc. are due to atmospheric refraction.
Laws of Refraction
/ / ///
Lateral shift by a slab of uniform thickness t, is • It is important to note that the above relationship is
x=
t
cos r
sin(i - r )
2.
24.1 valid only when boundaries undeviated.
In case of refraction, if i = 0 then r = 0. This means that the
ray which strikes to a boundary at 90° passes through the
i boundary undeviated.
3. If an object moves towards a denser medium with a
velocity v then the image moves faster with speed of mv
r as seen by the observer in denser medium.
t
m mv Denser medium
I Ov
x
If an object moves towards a rarer medium with a velocity
The apparent shift through a glass slab is in the direction of light v then the image moves slower with a speed v/m as seen
t by the observer in rarer medium.
v/m Denser medium
O
æ 1ö I v
I I ¢ = S = t ç1 - ÷
m I I¢ è mø 4. Denser the medium, smaller is the wavelength.
5. When light travels from one medium to another the
wavelength and velocity changes proportionally but
TOTAL INTERNAL REFLECTION (TIR) frequency of rays remains the same
When the object is placed in an optically denser medium and if m2 a
mc
b
2m = cm= a
1
the incident angle is greater than the critical angle then the ray 6. and (‘a’ for air/vacuum)
m1 mb
of light gets reflected back to the originating medium. This
7. When a parallel compound slab consists of two media of
phenomenon is called total internal reflection.
Critical angle (ic) : When a ray passes from an optically denser equal thickness and refractive indices m1 and m 2 then
medium to an optically rarer medium, the angle of refraction r is 2m1m 2
the equivalent refractive index m =
greater than the corresponding angle of incidence i. From Snell’s law m1 + m 2
r = 90° COMMON DEFAULT
û Incorrect : If a mirror or a lens is painted black on one
half, then half of image will be formed.
i ic i > ic ü Correct : If half of the mirror or lens is blackened, we get
full image but with half the intensity.
REFRACTION AT A SPHERICAL SURFACE
sin i m 2 For any curved spherical surfaces. Relation between u and v in
=
sin r m1 terms of refractive indices of the mediums and the radius of
Let m1 = m and m2 = 1 and let for i = ic, r = 90º then sin i c = 1/ m curvature of the curved spherical surface.
m 2 m1 m 2 - m1
1 - =
\ ic = sin -1 ; ic is called the critical angle v u R
m
This phenomenon takes place in shining of air bubble, sparkling P
of diamond, mirage and looming, in optical communication using i
optical fibre.
r
Keep in Memory
b g
a
1. On travelling through a series of parallel layers, light follows
the following formula
O m1 P m2 C I (Image)
(Object)
m sin q = constant = m1 sin q1 = m 2 sin q 2 = m 3 sin q 3
q1
Q
l1 Spherical surface separating two media
q2 (i) The lateral magnification in case of refraction from curved
l2 m æ vö
q3 surfaces m = 1 ç ÷
l3 m2 è u ø
m 2
(ii) Longitudinal magnification m ' = 2 m
m1
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 629
m1 is refractive index of medium 1 through which light It is important that in the above formula, we cannot apply the
sign conventions of cartesian system rather following sign
passes first before meeting the interface and m2 is the
conventions are followed.
refractive index of medium 2 to which light encounters after
Focal length of a converging lens / mirror is taken as positive
it passes through the interface. and focal length of diverging lens/mirror is taken as negative.
REFRACTION BY A LENS Focal Length by Displacement Method
The focus point of a lens is the point where image of an object
placed at infinity is formed. And its distance from optical centre D2 - d 2
f =
of the lens is called focal length. 4D
Focal length of convex lens is +ve, and of concave lens is –ve. where D = distance between an object and screen
(i) Lens formula or thin lens formula and d = distance between two positions of lens.
1 1 1
- = d
v u f
(ii) Lens maker's formula,
1 æ m2 ö æ 1 1ö é1 1 ù
=ç - 1÷ ç - ÷ = (m - 1) ê - ú I1
f è m1 ø è R1 R2 ø ë R1 R2 û
m2
where 12 m = I2
m1 D
In the above formula m2 is refractive index of lens whereas m1 is Aperture of a lens : With reference to a lens, aperture means the
the refractive index of surrounding medium. effective diameter of its light transmitting area. So the brightness
R1 is the radius of curvature of the lens reached first by light and i.e. intensity of image formed by a lens which depends on the
R2 is the radius of curvature of the other surface. light passing through the lens will depend on the square of
Magnification : m = v/u aperture i.e. I µ (aperture)2
This relation holds for both convex and concave lenses for real COMBINATION OF LENSES
as well as virtual images. (i) If a lens of focal length f is cut in two equal parts as shown in
Power of a lens, P = reciprocal of focal length expressed in metres. figure, each part will have focal length = f
1
i.e., P = . Its unit : dioptre(D). L L¢
f (in metre)
(ii) If the above parts of lens are put in contact as shown then
To solve numerical problems use sign conventions
the resultant focal length will be,
while substituting values in above equations.
Equivalent focal length of two lenses separated by distance d
1 1 1 2 f
d = + = i.e. F = L
F f f f 2 L¢
1 1 1 d (iii) If the two parts are put as shown, then L will behave as
= + -
F f1 f 2 f1 f 2 convergent lens of focal length f while the other (L´)
divergent of same focal length,
f1 f2 1 1 1
\ = + or F =¥
Equivalent focal length of lens - mirror combination : F +f -f
In such a case, the ray of light suffers two refraction from the lens L L¢
and one reflection from the mirror. The combination behaves as a \ P=0
mirror whose focal length is given by
(iv) If a lens of focal length f is divided into equal parts as shown,
then each part will have focal length f',
1 1 1
i.e. = + or f ´= 2 f
f f´ f´
1 2 1
= + i.e., each part will have focal length 2f.
F fl fm
(v) If these parts are put as shown, then the resultant focal
f l = focal length of lens , fm = focal length of mirror length of the combination will be
630 PHYSICS
Keep in Memory
or 1. A ray entering a prism of angle A will not emerge out of
prism if A > 2qc where qc = critical angle
1 1 1
= + or F = f i.e. initial value. 2. Maximum deviation through a prism will occur when angle
F 2f 2f of incidence is 90°.
REFRACTION THROUGH A PRISM For this prism d = (m - 1)A
Prism is a transparent medium whose refracting surfaces are This shows that for a small angled prism, deviation is
inclined to each other. independent of angle of incidence.
(i) The angle of deviation is given by d = i + i¢ – A 3. Angle of emergence of a prism is 90° (called grazing
where A= angle of prism. For d to be minimum, i = i¢ and emergence) when angle of incidence
r = r¢
dm = A(m – 1) i = sin -1[ (m 2 - 1) sin A - cos A]
A
4. A single prism produces deviation and dispersion
U simultaneously.
T 5. Dispersion without deviation : When white light is incident
d on a combination of two prisms of different materials and
i i´ of suitable angles placed opposite to each other, the
r r´
Q R emergent light may have only dispersion without any
P
deviation ( of mean colour yellow).
S
A
B C Flint
v Y
æ A + dm ö e ligh
t
sin ç Whit
è 2 ÷ø R
Refractive index of prism, m = Crown
æ Aö A¢
sin ç ÷
è 2ø For this to happen the conditions is
where dm = minimum angle of deviation A (m¢ - 1)
If angle of prism A is small, than dm is also small. =- ( For thin lenses)
A¢ (m - 1)
( A + dm ) / 2 The net angular dispersion produced
\ m=
A/2 q = (w - w¢)d ( For thin lenses)
Plot of angle of deviation (d) versus angle of incidence (i) 6. Deviation without dispersion
for a triangular prism.
d
t R
te ligh
Whi
v
dm A¢ -(m v - m r )
For this to happen A = (m ¢ - m ¢) .... (1)
v r
i i = i¢ i¢ i
æ wö
Net deviation d net = dç1 - ÷
Dispersion è w¢ ø
It is the breaking up of white ray of light into its constituents Equation (1) is said to be the condition of achromatism for
colours VIBGYOR. The band of seven constituents colours is combination of two prisms.
called spectrum. 7. Variation of refractive index of a medium with wavelength
Angular dispersion : It is defined as the difference of deviations causing incident light to split into constituent colours is
suffered by the extreme colours. dispersion.
i.e., q = dv - d r = (mv - m r ) A [For thin prism] b c
Cauchy’s equation : m = a + + , where a, b and c are
l 2 l 4
Dispersive power : It is defined as the ratio of angular dispersion constants.
to the mean deviation produced by the prism. 8. Rayleigh scattering law explains blue colour of sky. Intensity
d - d r mv - mr of scattered light is proportional to 1/l4. Hence the red
i.e., w = v = [For thin prism] light having highest value of lR scatters less.
d m
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 631
h
Solution :
B The critical angle for this case is
1 4 4
11. When a lens made up of glass is immersed in water, its q ' ' = sin -1 = sin -1 or sin q ' ' =
1 .25 5 5
focal length changes.
p 3
Since q '' = - q ' , we have sin q ' = cos q '' =
1
f
= ( a
g m -1) æçè R1 - R1 ö÷ø
1 2
1
f¢
= ( w
) æçè R1 - R1 ö÷ø
g m -1
1 2
2
From Snell's law,
5
sin q 3 3
= 1.25 or sin q = 1.25 ´ sin q' = 1.25 ´ =
f¢
a
g m -1 g m / ma -1 ( g m - a m)m w sin q' 5 4
= w
= =
g m / mw -1 ( g m - w m)m a
f g m -1
3
or q = sin -1
4
12. For achromatic combination of these lenses in contact, the
If q² is greater than the critical angle, q will be smaller than
w1 w2 this value. Thus, the maximum value of q¢ for which total
necessary condition is + =0
f1 f 2 internal reflection takes place at the vertical surface is
sin–1 (3/4).
13. For two lenses separated by distance d, spherical aberration
is minimum when d = f1 – f2. BO 1 AB + AO 1 t + mx
= m or, = m or =m
14. A convex lens forms a real image when the object is placed BI BI BI
beyond focus. When the object is placed between optical t
centre and focus, convex lens forms a virtual image. or BI = x +
m
15. A concave lens always form a virtual image for a real object.
The net shift is
16. A lens is called thin when the thickness of the lens is small
compared to the object distance, image distance, radii of æ tö æ 1ö
OI = OB - BI = ( x + t ) - çç x + ÷÷ = t çç1 - ÷÷
curvatures of the lens. è m ø è m ø
In the case of thick lens, the problem has to be solved
which is independent of x.
using formula for each interface one by one.
Example 5.
17. Real image (inverted) Virtual image (erect) A tank is filled with water to a height of 12.5 cm. The
Real image is formed by Virtual image is formed by actual apparent depth of a needle lying at the bottom of full tank
intersection of rays. extending the rays in the is measured by a microscope to be 9.4 cm. What is the
back direction. refractive index of water? If water is replaced by a liquid
This image can be brought This image cannot be of refractive index 1.63 upto the same height, by what
on a screen. brought on screen.
distance would the microscope have to be moved to focus
632 PHYSICS
m=1.5
m=1.0
C
25 cm 20 cm The focal length of the lens is 10 cm. The situation with the
glass plate inserted is shown in figure. The object is placed
at O. The lens would form the image at I1 but the glass plate
intercepts the rays and forms the image at I on the screen.
Solution : The shift
m 2 m1 m 2 - m1 æ 1ö æ 1 ö
We have, - = ....(1) I1I = t çç1 - ÷÷ = (1 .5 cm ) ç1 - ÷ = 0 .5 cm .
v u R è m ø è 1 .5 ø
Here u = –25 cm, R = 20 cm, m1 = 1.0 and m2 = 1.5 Thus, the lens forms the image at a distance of 9.5 cm from
Putting the values in (1), itself. Using
1 .5 1 .0 1 .5 - 1 .0 1. 5 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
+ = or, = - - = Þ = - = -
v 25 cm 20 cm v 40 cm 25 cm v u f u v f 9.5 cm 10 cm
or, v = –100 cm. Þ u = 190 cm
As v is negative, the image is formed to the left of the
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 633
Thus, the object should be placed at a distance of 190 cm \ Distance of image from the fish is mH + H +H/2 = H
from the lens. (m + 3/2) below the fish.
(b) Here we have to find the images of fish as seen by the
Example 10. eye.
A lens is cut into two equal pieces and they are placed as Let happarent be the apparent distance of the fish from
shown in figure. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm the surface
left from the first half lens. The focal length of original
lens was 30 cm. Find the position of final image. h app. 1 mH
\ = ; h app =
h real m 2m
\ Image formed is (H + H/2m) below the, eye,
æ 1ö
O
i.e, H ç1 + ÷ below the eye.
è 2m ø
Also image of fish, formed by plane mirror is H/2 below
the mirror.
Solution : \ h real = H + H / 2 = 3H / 2
Focal length of each lens is 30 cm
(Q hreal is distance of fish image formed by the mirror
For first lens u = – 12, f = 30 cm
from the surface)
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
- = Þ = + =- + h app 1 3H
v1 u f v1 u f 12 30 Now h = Þ h app =
real. m 2m
or, v1 = – 20 cm.
For the second half lens image formed at v1 acts as object. æ 3Hö
Therefore object distance from second lens is = 20 + 20 = 40 \ Image formed is ç H + ÷ below the eye i.e,
è 2mø
cm or v1' = –40 cm
f of this lens = 30 cm æ 3ö
H ç1 + ÷ below the eye.
è 2m ø
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
\ - = Þ = + Þ =- + = Example 12.
v v'1 f v v '1 f v 40 30 120 A lens has a power of +5 diopter in air. What will be its
or v = 120 cm. power if completely immersed in water ?
Final image is 120 cm right from second lens.
3 4
Example 11. Given m g = ; mw =
2 3
Consider the situation in figure. The bottom of the plot is Solution :
a reflecting plane mirror. S is a small fish and T is a human Let fa and fw be the focal lengths of the lens in air water
eye, refractive index of water is m (a) At what distance (s) respectively, then
from itself, will the fish see the image (s) of the eye (b) At
what distance (s) from itself will the eye see the image (s) 1 mw
Pa = and Pw = f ; fa = 0.2 m = 20 cm
of the fish. fa w
Using lens maker’s formula
H
1 é 1 1 ù
Pa = = (mg - 1) ê - ú ...(i)
fa ë R1 R 2 û
H
S 1 æ mg öé 1 1 ù
H/2 =ç - 1÷ ê - ú
f w è m w ø ë R1 R 2 û
Solution :
(a) We have the formula mw é 1 1 ù
h app Þ Pw = f = (m g - m w ) ê R - R ú ...(ii)
m w ë 1 2û
= = h app = mH (from the surface of water)
h real 1 Dividing equation (ii) by equation (i), we get,
Now distance of fish from surface is H/2
Pw (m g - m w ) 1 P + 5 10
\ Image of eye as seen by fish is = H(m + ½) above the = = or Pw = a + = D
Pa (m g - 1) 3 3 3 3
fish.
also the apparent image of eye, again makes an image
with the plane mirror, the apparent distance of eye is OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
mH + H from the plane mirror (i) Simple Microscope
\ Now image formed is mH + H below the plane mirror. It is known as simple magnifier & consist of a convergent
Distance of fish from the mirror is H/2
634 PHYSICS
lens with object between its focus & optical centre & eye h
close to it. where q 0 = , q = h1
D ue
h1 D æ h1 öæ D ö
so M.P. = ´ = ç ÷ç ÷
u e h è h øçè u e ÷ø
T v h1 v
(since for objective m = = Þ = - , as u is –ive)
o u h u
-v æ D ö
so M .P. =
u çè ue ÷ø
(a) When image is formed at least distance of distinct
v0 æ Dö
vision, M =ç1 + ÷ = M 0 ´ M e
u0 è fe ø
(b) When the final image is formed at infinity
-v0 æ D ö
M = ç ÷
u0 è f e ø
The magnifying power of a simple microscope (M.P.) is (iii) Astronomical Telescope
visual angle with instrument q (a) If the final image is formed at a distance D,
M.P. = =
max visual angle for unaided eye q0 - f0 æ f ö
M = ç 1+ e ÷
fe è Dø
h h h q h D D
Here q 0 = , q = 1 = so M.P. = = ´ =
D v u q0 v h u fe D
and length of tube is L = f 0 +
(a) If image is at infinity [far point] then from lens formula fe + D
1 1 1 1 1 1 D (b) If the final image is formed at infinity then
- = Þ - = i.e., u = f & M.P. =
v u f a -u f f f0
M = and the length of tube is l = f 0 + f e
In this case M.P. is minimum if eye is least strained. fe
(b) If image is at D [near point] then u = –D
1 1 1
(iv) Galilean Telescope
and from lens formula - =
v u f f0
M = ; Length of tube L = fo – fe
D D æ Dö fe
we get = (1 + ) so, M .P = ç1 + ÷
u f è fø
(v) Terrestrial Telescope
In this case M.P. is maximum and as final image is
close to eye, eye is under maximum strain. f0
M = ;
(ii) Compound Microscope fe
Length of tube L = fo + fe+ 4f, where f is the focal length of
erecting lens, which is used in this telescope.
Example 21. DA
An angular magnification (magnifying power) of 30 × is
desired using an objective of focal length 1.25 cm. and an w
eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. in a compound microscope.
What is the separation between objective and the eyepiece ? o r
Solution :
Let final image be formed at lease distance of distinct vision
Isotropic point source
æ 25 ö
For eyepiece, Me = ç1 + ÷ = çæ1 + ÷ö = 6
25 f
è fe ø è 5ø so I= or f = 4p. I
4p
Now, M = M0 × Me Solid angle : We know that arc of a circle subtends an angle q on
M -30 the centre of circle O
For objective, M 0 = = = -5 ,
Me 6
For objective, if u0 = – x cm, v0 = 5x cm.
o q s
1 1 1 1 1 1 r
Again, - = or - =
v u f 5x - x 1.25
On simplification, x = 1.5 S Arc of circle
i.e., q = = ...(i)
\ u0 = – 1.5 cm, v0 = 7.5 cm. r Radius of circle
v (a) The unit of q (plane angle) is radian.
For eyepiece, Me = e
ue Similarly in the case of a sphere, the surface area of sphere
v -25 subtends an angle on the centre of sphere O, which is called
or u e = e = = - 4.17 cm.
Me 6 solid angle & is denoted by w.
Distance between objective and eyepiece Let radius of sphere is r and a small area DA on its surface
subtends a solid angle w at the centre then
= vobjective + | u eyepiece | = 7.5 + 4.17 = 11.67 cm.
DA
Example 22. w= = constant ..(ii)
A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length r2
144 cm. and eye-piece of focal length 6.0 cm. What is the
magnifying power of the telescope ? What is the separation
between objective and eye-piece ? Assume normal
adjustment.
Solution : (b)
f0 144
M= = = 24
fe 6
The unit of solid angle is steradian. If in eq (ii)
L = f0 + fe = (144 + 6) cm. = 150 cm.
DA = r2 , then w = 1 steradian
If DA = 4pr2 (total surface area of sphere)
PHOTOMETRY
then w = 4p steradian.
Ray optics is based on the assumption that light travels along
straight line. (iii) Illuminance (E) of a surface is the luminous flux incident
(i) Luminous flux (f) of a source of light = amount of visible normally on unit area of the surface.
light energy emitted per second from the source. Its unit is lux.
The SI unit of luminous fulx (f) is lumen. Df
(ii) Luminous intensity (I) of a light source = luminous flux E=
DA
emitted per unit solid angle in any direction.
Its SI unit is candela. For point source, the total normal area will be 4pr2,
Df f f 1
Luminous intensity, I = so E= = 2
Þ Eµ 2
Dw A 4pr r
For isotropic point source, (iv) Luminance or brightness of a surface is the luminous flux
Solid angle, reflected into our eyes from unit area of the surface.
The unit of Brightness is lambert.
DA(surface area) 4pr 2
w= = = 4p steradian (v) Inverse square law for illuminance : Let S is a unidirectional
r2 r2 point source, whose luminous intensity is I. It has some
( where DA = 4pr2 = total surface area of sphere of radius r ) surface DA at distance r from source S.
638 PHYSICS
h
From figure. cos q =
(h + r 2 )
2
Ih
According to definition of luminous intensity : \E =
Df = I × Dw
DA' DAcos q
Þ Df =
I ´ DA cos q 24.2 (h + r 2 )3
2
index, µ =
v
Reflection of Ray optics rear depth
Refraction of =
Relation between light Turning back Optics - branch of study of apparent depth
R of light in the same light (EM waves wavelength light Bending of light
f and R f = ray while passing
2 medium after striking 400 nm to 750 nm). The path
the reflecting surface of light (always travel in straight from one medium to
another medium Refraction at
or mirror line is ray of light a single spherical
surface
Magnification m 2 m1 m 2 - m1
RAY OPTICS AND - =
Refraction by lens v u R
v height of image OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
m= =
u height of object
f f -v Focal length of lens-lens Lens formula
m= = Optical Instruments
f -u f maker’s formula
1 1 1
1 æ 1 1 ö = -
= (m - 1) ç - ÷ f v u
Telescope f è R1 R 2 ø
Magnification Microscope
provide angular
produced by Forms large
magnification of
simple microscope image of tiny objects Power of a lens
distant objects
1
Refraction through Prism P=
f (in metre)
Image formed Image formed Magnification by When image When image
at near point at infinity compound microscope at near point at infinity
D D f æ f ö f
M = 1+ M= M = 0 ç1 + e ÷ m=- 0
f f fe è D ø fe
Angle of deviation Prism Formula Dispersive power
When image When final image d = A(µ – 1) æ A + dm ö
sin ç ÷ æ m – mr ö
at near point at in finity µ= è 2 ø w=ç v ÷
sin A / 2 è m -1 ø
v æ Dö æv Dö
639
M = 0 ç1 + ÷ M=ç 0 ´ ÷
m0 è fe ø è u0 fe ø
640 PHYSICS
1. What will be the colour of the sky as seen from the earth if (c) the eye is not able to decrease the distance between
there were no atmosphere? the eye-lens and the retina beyond a limit
(a) Black (b) Blue (d) the eye is not able to decrease the focal length beyond a limit
(c) Orange (d) Red 9. The one parameter that determines the brightness of a light
2. Monochromatic light of wavelength l1 travelling in a medium source sensed by an eye is
of refractive index m1 enters a denser medium of refractive (a) energy of light entering the eye per second
index m2. The wavelength in the second medium is (b) wavelength of the light
(a) l1 (m1/m2) (b) l1 (m2/m1) (c) total radiant flux entering the eye
(c) l1 (m2 – m1)/m2 (d) l1 (m2 – m1)/m1 (d) total luminous flux entering the eye
3. A vessel of depth 2d cm is half filled with a liquid of refractive 10. In vacuum the speed of light depends upon
index m1 and the upper half with a liquid of refractive index m2.
(a) frequency
The apparent depth of the vessel seen perpendicularly is
(b) wavelength
æ m1 m 2 ö æ 1 1 ö (c) velocity of light sources
ç ÷d ç ÷
(a) çm +m ÷ (b) ç m + m ÷d (d) None of these
è 1 2 ø è 1 2ø
11. The intensity produced by a long cylindrical light source at
æ 1 1 ö æ 1 ö a small distance r from the source is proportional to
ç ÷ ç ÷
(c) ç m + m ÷ 2d (d) ç m m ÷ 2d
è 1 2ø è 1 2ø 1 1
4. In a room containing smoke particles, the intensity due to a (a) 2 (b)
r r3
source of light will
(a) obey the inverse square law 1
(c) (d) None of these
(b) be constant at all distances r
(c) increase with distance from the source than the 12. The refractive index of a piece of transparent quartz is the
inverse fourth power law greatest for
(d) fall faster with distance from the source than the
inverse fourth power law (a) violet light (b) red light
5. What causes chromatic aberration?
(c) green light (d) yellow light
(a) Non - paraxial rays
(b) Paraxial rays 13. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and having
refractive index m. If c be the velocity of light in vacuum, the
(c) Variation of focal length with colour
time taken by the light to travel this thickness of glass is
(d) Difference in radii of curvature of the bounding surfaces
of the lens t mt tc
6. Which of the following is not the case with the image formed (a) (b) t mc (c) (d)
mc c m
by a concave lens?
14. A convex mirror of focal length f produces an image
(a) It may be erect or inverted
(1/n)th of the size of the object. The distance of the object
(b) It may be magnified or diminished from the mirror is
(c) It may be real or virtual (a) (n – 1) f (b) f/n
(d) Real image may be between the pole and focus or beyond (c) (n + 1) f (d) nf
focus
15. Amount of light entering into the camera depends upon.
7. Critical angle of light passing from glass to water is minimum
for (a) focal length of objective lens
(a) red colour (b) green colour (b) product of focal length and diameter of the objective lens
(c) yellow colour (d) violet colour (c) distance of object from camera
8. A normal eye is not able to see objects closer than 25 cm (d) aperture setting of the camera
because 16. In optical fibres, propagation of light is due to
(a) the focal length of the eye is 25 cm (a) diffraction (b) total internal reflection
(b) the distance of the retina from the eye-lens is 25 cm (c) reflection (d) refraction
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 641
17. Rectilinear motion of light in a medium is caused due to (a) remain unchanged
(a) high frequency (b) become zero
(c) become infinite
(b) short wavelength (d) become small, but non-zero
(c) velocity of light 22. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and
(d) uniform refractive index of the medium coaxial. Its power is same as power of a single lens given by
18. Resolving power of a telescope increases with f1 + f 2 æ f1 ö æ f2 ö f1 + f 2
(a) (b) ç ÷ (c) ç ÷ (d)
(a) increase in focal length of eye-piece f1f 2 çf ÷ çf ÷ 2
è 2ø è 1ø
(b) increase in focal length of objective
23. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to
(c) increase in aperture of eye piece
its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material
(d) increase in apeture of objective whose refractive index
19. The distance between an object and its real image formed (a) lies between 2 and 1
by a convex lens cannot be
(a) greater than 2 f (b) less than 2 f (b) lies between 2 and 2
(c) greater than 4 f (d) less than 4 f (c) is less than 1
(d) is greater than 2
20. An electromagnetic radiation of frequency n, wavelength l,
24. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?
travelling with velocity v in air enters in a glass slab of
(a) Working of optical fibre
refractive index (m). The frequency, wavelength and velocity
(b) Difference between apparent and real depth of pond
of light in the glass slab will be respectively
(c) Mirage on hot summer days
l v v
(a) n, and (b) n, 2l and (d) Brilliance of diamond
m m m 25. An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to
n l v 2p l (a) reduce spherical aberration
(c) , and (d) , and v
m m m m m (b) have high resolution
(c) increase span of observation
21. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is
equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then its focal length will (d) have low dispersion
1. A lamp of 250 candle power is hanging at a distance of 6 m 5. The critical angle for light going from medium X into medium
from a wall. The illuminance at a point on the wall at a Y is q. The speed of light in medium X is v, then speed of
minimum distance from lamp will be light in medium Y is
(a) 9.64 lux (b) 4.69 lux (a) v(1 – cos q) (b) v/sin q
(c) 6.94 lux (d) None of these
(c) v/cos q (d) v cos q
2. An electric bulb illuminates a plane surface. The intensity
of illumination on the surface at a point 2 m away from the 6. A man wants to see two poles, separately, situated at 11 km.
bulb is 5 × 10–4 phot (lumen/cm2). The line joining the bulb The minimum distance (approximately) between these poles
to the point makes an angle of 60º with the normal to the will be
surface. The luminous intensity of the bulb in candela (a) 5 m (b) 0.5 m
(candle power) is
(c) 1 m (d) 3 m
(a) 40 3 (b) 40 7. The index of refraction of diamond is 2.0. The velocity of
(c) 20 (d) 40 × 10–4 light in diamond is approximately
3. If two mirrors are kept at 60º to each other, then the number (a) 1.5 × 1010 cm/sec (b) 2 × 1010 cm/sec
of images formed by them is
(c) 3.0 × 1010 cm/sec (d) 6 × 1010 cm/sec
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
8. The luminous intensity of 100 W unidirectional bulb is 100
4. Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are
candela. The total luminous flux emitted from bulb will be
l1 = 4000Å and l2 = 5000 Å, then ratio of their respective
resolving powers (corresponding to l1 and l2) is (a) 100 p lumen (b) 200 p lumen
(a) 16 : 25 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 4 (c) 300 p lumen (d) 400 p lumen
642 PHYSICS
9. The refractive index of water is 1.33. What will be speed of 18. An achromatic convergent doublet of two lenses in contact
light in water ? has a power of + 2D. The convex lens has power + 5D. What
(a) 3 × 108 m/s (b) 2.25 × 108 m/s is the ratio of dispersive powers of convergent and divergent
lenses ?
(c) 4 × 108 m/s (d) 1.33 × 108 m/s
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 5 : 2 (d) 5 : 3
10. A concave mirror of focal length f produces an image n
19. The dispersive power of material of a lens of focal length 20
times the size of object. If image is real, then distance of
cm is 0.08. What is the longitudinal chromatic aberration of
object from mirror, is
the lens ?
(a) (n – 1) f (b) { (n – 1)/n} f
(a) 0.08 cm (b) 0.08/20 cm
(c) { (n + 1)/n} f (d) (n + 1) f
11. In a concave mirror, an object is placed at a distance x1 from (c) 1.6 cm (d) 0.16 cm
focus, and image is formed at a distance x2 from focus. Then 20. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is
focal length of mirror is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the objective
and the eye piece is found to be 20 cm. The focal length of
x1 - x 2
(a) x1 x 2 (b) lenses are
2
(a) 18 cm, 2 cm (b) 11 cm, 9 cm
x1 + x 2 x1 (c) 10 cm, 10 cm (d) 15 cm, 5 cm
(c) (d) x
2 2 21. The focal length of the objective of a telescope is 60 cm. To
12. A convex lens of focal length f1 and a concave lens of focal obtain a magnification of 20, the focal length of the eye
length f2 are placed in contact. The focal length of the piece should be
combination is (a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 5 cm
(a) (f1 + f2) (b) (f1 – f2) 22. The focal lengths of objective and eye lens of an
f1f 2 f1f 2 astronomical telelscope are respectively 2 meter and 5 cm.
(c) f 2 - f1 (d) f1 + f 2 Final image is formed at (i) least distance of distinct vision
(ii) infinity Magnifying power in two cases will be
13. A lens of power + 2 diopter is placed in contact with a lens (a) – 48, – 40 (b) – 40, – 48
of power – 1 diopter. The combination will behave like
(c) – 40, + 48 (d) – 48, + 40
(a) a convergent lens of focal length 50 cm
23. We wish to see inside an atom. Assume the atom to have a
(b) a divergent lens of focal length 100 cm
diameter of 100 pm. This means that one must be able to
(c) a convergent lens of focal length 100 cm
resolve a width of say 10 pm. If an electron microscope is
(d) a convergent lens of focal length 200 cm
14. Light takes t1 sec to travel a distance x in vacuum and the used the energy required should be
same light takes t2 sec to travel 10 cm in a medium. Critical (a) 1.5 keV (b) 50 keV
angle for corresponding medium will be (c) 150 keV (d) 1.5 MeV
24. Which of the following is false ?
æ 10 t 2 ö -1 æç t 2x ö (a) Convex lens always forms image with m < 1
(a) sin -1 çç ÷÷ (b) sin ç 10 t ÷÷
è t1x ø è 1ø (b) A simple mirror produces virtual, erect and same-sized
image
æ 10 t 1 ö æ t x ö (c) A concave mirror produces virtual, erect and magnified
(c) sin -1 çç ÷÷ (d) sin -1 çç 1 ÷÷
image
è t 2x ø è 10 t 2 ø
(d) A convex lens can produce real and same-sized image
15. A double convex lens of focal length 6 cm is made of glass 25. A plane mirror reflects a beam of light to form a real image.
of refractive index 1.5. The radius of curvature of one surface The incident beam is
is double that of other surface. The value of small radius of
(a) parallel (b) convergent
curvature is
(c) divergent (d) any one of the above
(a) 6 cm (b) 4.5 cm (c) 9 cm (d) 4 cm 26. An object is placed at a distance 2f from the pole of a convex
16. A prism has a refracting angle of 60º. When placed in the mirror of focal length f. The linear magnification is
position of minimum deviation, it produces a deviation of
30º. The angle of incidence is 1 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
(a) 30º (b) 45º (c) 15º (d) 60º 3 3 4
17. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that 27. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is
the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence incident on a right-angled prism as shown. The refractive
and the latter is equal to 3/4th of the angle of prism. The index of the material of the prism for the above red, green
angle of deviation is and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively.
(a) 45º (b) 39º (c) 20º (d) 30º The prism will
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 643
45. A rectangular block of glass is placed on a mark made on the 55. Two lenses in contact form an achromatic lens. Their focal
surface of the table and it is viewed from the vertical position lengths are in the ratio 2 : 3. Their dispersive powers must
of eye. If refractive index of glass be m and its thickness d, be in the ratio of
then the mark will appear to be raised up by (a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 3 : 1
(m + 1)d (m - 1)d 56. A combination is made of two lenses of focal length f and f'
(a) (b) in contact, the dispersive powers of the materials of the
m m
lenses are w and w'. The combination is achromatic, when
(m + 1) (m - 1) m (a) w = w0, w' = 2w0 f ¢ = 2f
(c) (d)
md d (b) w = w0, w' = 2w0 f ¢ = f/2
46. Light passes through a glass plate of thickness d and (c) w = w0, w' = 2w0 f ¢ = –f/2
refractive index m. For small angle of incidence i, the lateral (d) w = w0, w' = 2w0 f ¢ = –2f
displacement is 57. An achromatic convergent lens of focal length 20 cms is
(a) id (b) id (m – 1) made of two lenses (in contact) of materials having dispersive
i d (m - 1) id m powers in the ratio of 1 : 2 and having focal lengths f1 and f2.
(c) (d) Which of the following is true ?
m m –1
(a) f1 = 10 cms, f2 = –20 cms
47. A glass slab of thickness 4 cm contains the same number of
(b) f1 = 20 cms, f2 = 10cms
waves as 5 cm of water when both are traversed by the same
monochromatic light. If the refractive index of water is 4/3, (c) f1 = –10 cms, f2 = –20 cms
what is that of glass? (d) f1 = 20 cms, f2 = –20 cms
(a) 5/3 (b) 5/4 (c) 16/15 (d) 1.5 58. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of focal length
48. An air bubble in glass slab (m = 1.5) from one side is 6 cm 60 cm and a single eye lens of focal length 5 cm is focussed on
and from other side is 4 cm. The thickness of glass slab is a distant object in such a way that parallel rays emerge from
(a) 10 cm (b) 6.67 cm the eye lens. If the object subtends an angle of 2º at the
(c) 15 cm (d) None of these objective, the angular width of the image is
49. A vessel is half filled with a liquid of refractive index m. The (a) 10º (b) 24º (c) 50º (d) (1/6)º
other half of the vessel is filled with an immiscible liquid of 59. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of
refrative index 1.5 m. The apparent depth of the vessel is magnitude 5 for distant objects. The separation between
50% of the actual depth. Then m is the objective and the eye-piece is 36 cms and the final image
(a) 1.4 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.6 (d) 1.67 is formed at infinity. The focal length f0 of the objective and
50. A man 160 cm high stands in front of a plane mirror. His eyes are fe of the eye piece are
at a height of 150 cm from the floor. Then the minimum length of (a) f0 = 45 cm and f2 = –9 cm
the plane mirror for him to see his full length image is (b) f0 = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm
(a) 85 cm (b) 170 cm (c) 80 cm (d) 340 cm (c) f0 = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm
51. It is desired to photograph the image of an object placed at (d) f0 = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm
a distance of 3 m from plane mirror. The camera, which is at 60. Two lens of focal length f1 and f2 are kept in contact coaxially.
a distance of 4.5 m from mirror should be focussed for a The resultant power of combination will be
distance of
f1f 2 f1 + f 2
(a) 3 m (b) 4.5 m (c) 6 m (d) 7.5 m (a) (b)
52. Two thin lenses are in contact and the focal length of the f1 - f 2 f1f 2
combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of one lens is 20 cm, f1 f 2
(c ) f1 + f 2 (d) +
then the power of the other lens will be f 2 f1
(a) 1.66 D (b) 4.00 D 61. When white light enters a prism, its gets split into its
(c) – 100 D (d) – 3.75 D constituent colours. This is due to
53. A thin convergent glass lens (mg = 1.5) has a power of (a) high density of prism material
+ 5.0 D. When this lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive (b) because m is different for different wavelength
index m, it acts as a divergent lens of focal length 100 cm. (c) diffraction of light
The value of m must be (d) velocity changes for different frequency
(a) 4/3 (b) 5/3 (c) 5/4 (d) 6/5 62. A pencil of light rays falls on a plane mirror and form a real
54. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism image, so the incident rays are
(m = 1.5). The angle of minimum deviation is (a) parallel (b) diverging
(a) 45º (b) 37º 12' (c) 20º (d) 30º (c) converging (d) statement is false
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 645
63. Astronauts look down on earth surface from a space ship 71. The layered lens as shown is made of two types of
parked at an altitude of 500 km. They can resolve objects of transparent materials-one indicated by horizontal lines and
the earth of the size (It can be assumed that the pupils the other by vertical lines. The number of images formed of
diameter is 5mm and wavelength of light is 500 nm) an object will be
(a) 0.5 m (b) 5 m (c) 50 m (d) 500 m
64. Spherical aberration in a thin lens can be reduced by
(a) using a monochromatic light
(b) using a doublet combination
(c) using a circular annular mark over the lens
(d) increasing the size of the lens
65. A lens produces an image of an object on a screen. If a slab
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6
of refractive index n is placed in between lens and screen,
72. In the displacement method, a concave lens is placed in
the screen has to be moved by distance d behind. The
between an object and a screen. If the magnification in the
thickness of slab is
two positions are m1 and m2 (m1 > m2), and the distance
n -1 (n - 1) d nd between the two positions of the lens is x, the focal length
(a) nd (b) (c) (d) of the lens is
nd n n -1
66. An object is moved along the principal axis of a converging x x
(a) (b)
lens from a position 5 focal lengths from the lens to a position m1 + m 2 m1 - m 2
that is 2 focal lengths from the lens. Which statement about
the resulting image is most accurate? x x
(c) (d)
(a) The image increases in size and decreases in distance (m1 + m 2 ) 2 (m1 - m 2 ) 2
from the lens
73. A thin lens has focal length f, and its aperture has diameter
(b) The image increases in size and increases in distance D. It forms an image of intensity I. If the central part of the
from the lens D
(c) The image decreases in size and decreases in distance aperture, of diameter , is blocked by an opaque paper,,
2
from the lens the focal length of the lens and the intensity of image will
(d) The image decreases in size and increases in distance become
from the lens 3f I 3I
f I I
67. An object is placed upright on the axis of a thin convex lens (a) , (b) f, (c) , (d) f,
2 2 4 4 2 4
at a distance of four focal lengths (4f) from the center of the
74. The graph shows the variation of magnification m produced
lens. An inverted image appears at a distance of 4/3 f on the
by a convex lens with the image distance v. The focal length
other side of the lens. What is the ratio of the height of he
of the lens is
image of the height of the object?
m
(a) 1/3 (b) 3/4 (c) 4/3 (d) 3/1 ( a + c, b )
68. A paper, with two marks having separation d, is held normal
to the line of sight of an observer at a distance of 50m. The
diameter of the eye-lens of the observer is 2 mm. Which of b
the following is the least value of d, so that the marks can be
a c v
seen as separate ? (The mean wavelength of visible light
(a , b)
may be taken as 5000 Å)
(a) 1.25 m (b) 12.5 cm (c) 1.25 cm (d) 2.5 mm b c ab
(a) (b) (c) b (d)
69. A diver inside water sees the setting sun at c b c
(a) 41° to the horizon (b) 49° to the horizon 75. A ray of light traveling in water is incident on its surface
(c) 0° to the horizon (d) 45° to the horizon open to air. The angle of incidence is q, which is less than
70. A concave mirror forms the image of an object on a screen. the critical angle. Then there will be
If the lower half of the mirror is covered with an opaque (a) only a reflected ray and no refracted ray
card, the effect would be to make the (b) only a refracted ray and no reflected ray
(a) image less bright. (c) a reflected ray and a refracted ray and the angle between
(b) lower half of the image disappear. them would be less than 180°–2q
(c) upper half of the image disappear. (d) a reflected ray and a refracted ray and the angle between
(d) image blurred. them would be greater than 180°–2q
646 PHYSICS
76. Air has refractive index 1.0003. The thickness of air column, 84. Light enters at an angle of incidence in a transparent rod of
which will have one more wavelength of yellow light (6000 refractive index n. For what value of the refractive index of
Å) than in the same thickness of vacuum is the material of the rod the light once entered into it will not
(a) 2 mm (b) 2 cm (c) 2 m (d) 2 km. leave it through its lateral face whatsoever be the value of
77. The position of final image formed by the given lens angle of incidence?
combination from the third lens will be at a distance of
(f1 = + 10 cm, f2 = – 10 cm and f3 = + 30 cm). (a) n > 2 (b) n = 1 (c) n = 1.1 (d) n = 1.3
85. The radius of curvature of a thin plano-convex lens is 10 cm
(of curved surface) and the refractive index is 1.5. If the
plane surface is silvered, then it behaves like a concave
mirror of focal length
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 5 cm
30 cm 5 cm 10 cm 86. An air bubble in a glass slab (m = 1.5) is 5 cm deep when
viewed from one face and 2 cm deep when viewed from the
opposite face. The thickness of the slab is
(a) 15 cm (b) infinity (c) 45 cm (d) 30 cm (a) 7.5 cm (b) 10.5 cm (c) 7 cm (d) 10 cm
78. A ray of light is travelling from glass to air. (Refractive
87. A light ray falls on a rectangular glass slab as shown. The
index of glass = 1.5). The angle of incidence is 50°.
index of refraction of the glass, if total internal reflection is
The deviation of the ray is
to occur at the vertical face, is
(a) 0° (b) 80°
45º
-1 é sin 50° ù -1 é sin 50° ù
(c) 50° - sin ê 1.5 ú (d)
sin ê ú - 50°
ë û ë 1.5 û
79. If fV and fR are the focal lengths of a convex lens for violet
Glass
and red light respectively and FV and FR are the focal lengths
of concave lens for violet and red light respectively, then we
have
(a) fV < fR and FV > FR (b) fV < fR and FV < FR
(a) 3 / 2 (b)
( 3 + 1) (c)
( 2 + 1) (d) 5 /2
(c) fV > fR and FV > FR (d) fV > fR and FV < FR 2 2
80. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one surface of
88. An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along (i) XOX'
a prism of small angle A and emerges normally from the
and (ii) YOY' as shown in the figure. Let f, f', f'' be the focal
opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of
lengths of the complete lens, of each half in case (i), and of
prism is m, the angle of incidence i is nearly equal to
each half in case (ii), respectively
A A
(a) (b)
m 2m
mA
(c) m A (d)
2
81. One face of a rectangular glass plate 6 cm thick is silvered. An
object held 8 cm in front of the first face, forms an image 12 cm
behind the silvered face. The refractive index of the glass is
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.8 (c) 1.2 (d) 1.6
82. A convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave lens of
focal length 50 cm are combined together. What will be their
resulting power?
(a) + 6.5 D (b) –6.5 D (c) + 7.5 D (d) –0.75 D Choose the correct statement from the following
83. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the (a) f ' = 2f, f '' = 2f (b) f ' = f, f '' = 2f
convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the (c) f ' = 2f, f '' = f (d) f ' = f, f '' = f
lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius 89. A plano-convex lens is made of material of refractive index
of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright 1.6. The radius of curvature of the curved surface is 60 cm.
image of the object coincident with it? The focal length of the lens is
(a) 12 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 50 cm (d) 60 cm
(a) 50 cm (b) 100 cm (c) 200 cm (d) 400 cm
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 647
90. The refractive index of the material of a prism is Ö2 and its Directions for Qs. (97 to 100) : Each question contains
refracting angle is 30º. One of the refracting surfaces of the STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
prism is made a mirror inwards. A beam of monochromatic (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following-
light enters the prism from the mirrored surface if its angle
(a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
of incidence of the prism is
(a) 30º (b) 45º (c) 60º (d) 0º (b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
91. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is correct explanation for Statement-1
situated at a distance of one kilometer from two objects. (c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
The minimum distance between these two objects, which a correct explanation for Statement-1
can be resolved by th e telescope, when the mean
(d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
wavelength of light is 5000 Å, is of the order of
(a) 5 cm (b) 0.5 m (c) 5 m (d) 5mm 97. Statement 1: Two convex lenses joined together cannot
produce an achromatic combination.
92. The refractive index of the material of the prism is 3 ; then
Statement 2 : The condition for achromatism is
the angle of minimum deviation of the prism is
w1 w2
(a) 30º (b) 45º (c) 60º (d) 75º + = 0 where symbols have their usual meaning.
f1 f 2
93. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive
index m , falls on a surface separating the medium from air at 98. Statement 1: Critical angle is minimum for violet colour.
an angle of incidence of 45°. For which of the following
value of m the ray can undergo total internal reflection? -1 æ 1 ö
Statement 2 : Because critical angle qc = sin ç ÷ and
(a) m = 1.33 (b) m = 1.40 (c) m = 1.50 (d) m = 1.25 èmø
94. A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20
cm. Which one of the following options best describe the 1
mµ .
image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from l
the lens?
99. Statement 1: Optical fibres are used to transmit light without
(a) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm
(b) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm any appreciable loss in its intensity over distance of several
(c) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm kilometers.
(d) Real, inverted, height = 1cm Statement 2 : Optical fibres are very thick and all the light is
95. A thin prism of angle 15º made of glass of refractive index passed through it without any loss.
µ1 = 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass of refractive 100. Statement 1 : If P1 and P2 be the powers of two thin lenses
index µ2 = 1.75. The combination of the prism produces
located coaxially in a medium of refractive index µ at a
dispersion without deviation. The angle of the second prism
distance d, then the power P of the combination is
should be
(a) 7° (b) 10° (c) 12° (d) 5° P = P1 + P2 – P1P2d/µ
96. A person is six feet tall. How tall must a vertical mirror be if Statement 2 : Because for above given system equivalent
he is able to see his entire length?
f1f 2 1
(a) 3 ft (b) 4.5 ft (c) 7.5 ft (d) 6 ft focal length is given by F = and P = .
f1 + f2 - d / m F
4. A passenger in an aeroplane shall 9. The optical density of turpentine is higher than tnat of water
(a) never see a rainbow while its mass density is lower. Figure shows a layer of
(b) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as turpentine floating over water in a container. For which one
concentric circles of the four rays incident on turpentine in figure, the path
(c) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as shown is correct?
concentric arcs (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(d) shall never see a secondary rainbow 1 2 3 4
5. You are given four sources of light each one providing a
light of a single colour - red, blue, green and yellow. Suppose Air
the angle of refraction for a beam of yellow light T
corresponding to a particular angle of incidence at the interface
of two media is 90°. Which of the following statements is W G
correct if the source of yellow light is replaced with that of
other lights without changing the angle of incidence? 10. A car is moving with at a constant speed of
60 km h–1 on a straight road. Looking at the rear view mirror,
(a) The beam of red light would undergo total internal
the driver finds that the car following him is at a distance of
reflection
100 m and is approaching with a speed of 5 kmh –1.
(b) The beam of red light would bend towards normal while
In order to keep track of the car in the rear, the driver begins
it gets refracted through the second medium
to glance alternatively at the rear and side mirror of his car
(c) The beam of blue light would undergo total internal
after every 2 s till the other car overtakes. If the two cars
reflection were maintaining their speeds, which of the following
(d) The beam of green light would bend away from the statement (s) is/are correct?
normal as it gets refracted through the second medium
(a) The speed of the car in the rear is 65 km h –1
6. The radius of curvature of the curved surface of a plano-
(b) In the side mirror, the car in the rear would appear to
convex lens is 20 cm. If the refractive index of the material of
approach with a speed of 5 kmh –1 to the driver of the
the lens be 1.5, it will leading car
(a) act as a convex lens only for the objects that lie on its
(c) In the rear view mirror, the speed of the approaching car
curved side
would appear to decrease as the distance between the
(b) act as a concave lens for the objects that lie on its curved cars decreases
side
(d) In the side mirror, the speed of the approaching car would
(c) act as a convex lens irrespective of the side on which appear to increase as the distance between the cars decreases
the object lies
11. There are certain material developed in laboratories which
(d) act as a concave lens irrespective of side on which the
have a negative refractive index figure. A ray incident from
object lies air (Medium 1) into such a medium (Medium 2) shall follow a
7. The phenomena involved in the reflection of radiowaves by path given by
ionosphere is similar to
(a) reflection of light by a plane mirror
i 1
(b) total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage
(a)
(c) dispersion of light by water molecules during the
formation of a rainbow r 2
(d) scattering of light by the particles of air
8. The direction of ray of light incident on a concave mirror is
i
shown by PQ while directions in which the ray would travel 1
after reflection is shown by four rays marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b)
(figure). Which of the four rays correctly shows the direction r
2
of reflected ray? 1
Q
2 4
i r 1
(c)
C F 2
3 P 1
(d)
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
2
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 649
13. For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging 45°
power of 40D and the least converging power of the eye
lens behind the cornea is 20D. Using this information, the The prism will:
distance between the retina and the eye lens of the eye can (a) separate all the three colours from one another
(b) not separate the three colours at all
be estimated to be [2013]
(c) separate the red colour part from the green and blue
(a) 2.5 cm (b) 1.67 cm colours
(c) 1.5 cm (d) 5 cm (d) separate the blue colour part from the red and green
14. Two plane mirrors are inclined at 70°. A ray incident on one colours
mirror at angle q after reflection falls on second mirror and is 21. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment a straight
reflected from there parallel to first mirror. The value of q is black line of lenght L is drawn on inside part of objective
[NEET Kar. 2013] lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The length
(a) 50° (b) 45° of this image is l. The magnification of the telescope is :
(c) 30° (d) 55° L L+I
(a) -1 (b) [2015 RS]
15. The reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise and sunset is I L-I
due to [NEET Kar. 2013]
L L
(a) the colour of the sky (c) (d) +1
I I
(b) the scattering of light
22. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface
(c) the polarisation of light of a prism is 45° . The angle of prism is 60°. If the ray suffers
(d) the colour of the sun minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum
16. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism
magnifying power of : [2014] respectively, are : [2016]
(a) microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease.
1
(b) microscope and telescope both will increase. (a) 45°, (b) 30°, 2
(c) microscope and telescope both will decrease 2
(d) microscope will decrease but that of telescope increase. 1
17. The angle of a prism is ‘A’. One of its refracting surfaces is (c) 45°, 2 (d) 30°,
2
silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on
the first surface returns back through the same path after 23. A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal
suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200
index m, of the prism is : [2014] cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated
by a distance : [2016]
(a) 2 sin A (b) 2 cos A
(a) 37.3 cm (b) 46.0 cm
1 (c) 50.0 cm (d) 54.0 cm
(c) cos A (d) tan A 24. Match the corresponding entries of column-1 with column-2
2
18. The refracting angle of a prism is ‘A’, and refractive index of (Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror):
the material of the prism is cot(A/2). The angle of minimum Column-1 Column-2 [2016]
(A) m = –2 (a) Convex mirror
deviation is : [2015]
(a) 180° – 2A (b) 90° – A 1
(B) m = - (b) Concave mirror
(c) 180° + 2A (d) 180° – 3A 2
19. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive (C) m = +2 (c) Real image
index 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are placed
with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. The 1
(D) m = + (d) Virtual image
intervening space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7. 2
650 PHYSICS
A A A un
2 sin cos = n sin use f = and solve to get f = x 1x 2
2 2 2 u+n
A
2 cos = n 1 1 1 f -f f1f 2
2 12. (c) = + = 2 1; f=
when A = 90° = imin f f1 - f 2 f1f 2 f 2 - f1
then nmin = 2 13. (c) P = P1 + P2 = + 2 – 1 = + 1 dioptre, lens behaves as
convergent
i = A = 0 nmax = 2 1 1
F= = = 1 m = 100 cm
24. (b) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond P 1
is due to the refraction of light, not due to the total
x 10
internal reflection. Other three phenomena are due to 14. (c) c= , v=
the total internal reflection. t1 t2
25. (b) Large aperture increases the amount of light gathered
1 v 10 t 1 æ 10 t 1 ö
by the telescope increasing the resolution. sin i c = = = ´ ; i c = sin -1 çç ÷
÷
m c t2 x è t 2x ø
EXERCISE - 2 15. (b) If R1 = R, R2 = –2 R
1. (c) At minimum distance, incidence is normal. Therefore, 1 æ 1 1 ö
= (m - 1) çç - ÷
÷
I 250 f R
è 1 R 2 ø
E= = 2 = 6.94 lux
r2 6 1 æ1 1 ö 0 .5 ´ 3
= (1.5 - 1) çç + ÷=
2. (b) r = 2 m = 200 cm 6 è R 2 R ÷ø 2R
E = 5 × 10–4 phot, q = 60º
From, R = 4.5 cm
A + d m 60 + 30
I cos q E r 2 5 ´ 10 -4 (200)2 16. (b) i= = = 45 º
E= , I= = = 40 C.P 2 2
r2 cos q cos 60
3
17. (d) i1 = i 2 = A
360 º 4
3. (a) Number of images ( n 1 ) = -1
q As A + d = i1 + i 2
where q = angle between mirrors 3 3 A 60 º
Here, q = 60º \ d = i1 + i 2 - A = A+ A-A = = = 30 º
4 4 2 2
360 º 18. (b) Here, P1 = 5 D
So, number of images n 1 = -1 = 5 P2 = P – P1 = 2 – 5 = –3 D
60 º
w1 f - P2 3
1 =- 1 = =
4. (d) Resolving power of an optical instrument µ w2 f2 P1 5
l 19. (c) Longitudinal chromatic aberration = w f
Resolving power at λ1 l = 0.08 × 20 = 1.6 cm
= 2
Resolving power at l 2 l1 f0
20. (a) =9, \ f0 = 9 fe
æ 1 ö fe
çç Limit of resolution µ ÷
è resolving power ø÷ Also f0 + fe = 20 (Q final image is at infinity)
9 fe + fe = 20, fe = 2 cm, \ f0 = 18 cm
5000 5
\ Ratio of resolving power = = =5:4 21. (b) In normal adjustment,
4000 4 f 60
f
5. (b) M = 0 = 20 , f e = 0 = = 3 cm
fe 20 20
6 (d) 7. (a)
8. (d) f = 4 p I = 4 p (100) = 400 p lumen. f 0 æ f e ö - 200 æ 1 + 5 ö = - 48
22. (a) (i) M = - ç1 + ÷ = ç ÷
fe è dø 5 è 25 ø
v2 m 1 v 8
9. (b) = 1 = or v 2 = 1 = 2.25 ´ 10 m / s (since least distance d = 25cm)
v1 m 2 1 .33 1.33
f0 200
1 1 1 (ii) M = - =- = -40
10. (c) Given v = nu As + = fe 5
v u f
23. (b)
1 1 1 24. (a) Convex lens can form image with m < 1, m > 1 and
\ + = or u = ( n + 1) f
nu u f n m = 1 depending upon the position of the object.
11. (a) Here, u = f + x1, n = f + x2 Convex lens forms magnified image (m > 1) when the
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 653
æ rö f1 w 2
or x » i d ç1 - ÷ \ = - 1 = (leaving sign)
è iø f2 w2 3
56. (d) The necessary condition is
sin i i æ 1ö
Now sin r = r = m \ x » i d çç1 - ÷÷ w f
è mø = - which is satisfied by (d)
w¢ f¢
5 4
47. (a) Given that w mg = and a m w = f1 w 1
4 3 57. (a) =- 1 =- \ f 2 = -2 f1
f2 w2 2
5 4 5
\ a mg = w mg ´a m w = ´ =
4 3 3 1 1 1
As = +
real depth F f1 f 2
48. (c) We know that m =
apparent depth 1 1 1 1
\ = - = \ f1 = 10 cm
Let the thickness of the slab be t and real depth of the 20 f1 2 f1 2 f1
bubble from one side be x. Then f2 = –20 cm
x (t - x) x t-x b f0 f0 60
m= = or 1 .5 = = . 58. (b) M= = \ b= µ= ´ 2° = 24°
6 4 6 4 µ fe fe 5
t-9 f0
This gives x = 9 and 1 . 5 = or t = 15 cm 59. (d) M= = 5 , L = f0 + fe = 36
4 fe
49. (d) Let d be the depth of two liquids.
\ fe = 6 cm, f0 = 30 cm
Then apparant depth
60. (b) When two lenses are placed coaxially then their
( d / 2) ( d / 2) d equivalent focal length F is given as
+ = or 1 + 2 = 1
m 1. 5 m 2 m 3m 1 1 1 ff
Solving we get m = 1.671 = + ÞF= 1 2
F1 f1 f 2 f1 + f 2
50. (c) The minimum length of the mirror is half the length of
the man. This can be proved from the fact that Ði = Ðr. f1 f2
51. (d) Distance of image from plane mirror = 3 m at the back.
To photograph the image, camera must be focussed
for a distance of 4.5 + 3 = 7.5 m.
100 100
52. (d) P2 = P - P1 = - = - 3 .75 D 1 f +f
80 20 Now power = = 1 2
focal length f1f 2
æ mg ö 61. (b) Refractive index of medium is given by
ç - 1÷÷
ç
Pa è m a +5
ø= B
53. (b) =
P1 æ m g ö - 100 / 100
= -5 m =A+ 2 ( where A and Bareconstant ) .
ç ÷ l
ç m - 1÷ Light has seven different colour, so its each colour has
è 1 ø
different wavelength and so different refractive index.
æ m g ö mg Due to difference in refractive index different refractive
- 5 çç - 1÷÷ = -1
è m1 ø m a æ sin i ö
1 .5 -1 angle ç m = ÷.
1 .5 5 è sin r ø
-1 = (1 .5 - 1) = -0 .1 ; m1 = =
m1 5 0.9 3 So this is due to dependence on wavelength of
refractive index.
sin (A + d m ) / 2 62. (c) When a object is real plane mirror form a virtual image
54. (b) m=
sin A / 2 and when object is virtual image will be real. Thus in this
question object is virtual. Virtual object means object is
sin ( A + d m ) at infinity. So rays (incident) converge on the mirror.
Þ = m sin A / 2` = 1.5 × sin 30º = 0.75
2
A + dm
= sin -1 (0 .75 ) = 48 º 3 6 ¢ \ dm = 37º12'
2
w1 w 2
55. (b) Condition for achromatism is + =0
f1 f2
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 655
1 1 1 1 1 1
- = ; - = Þ v = 60 cm
v u f v - 30 20
Coincidence is possible when the image is formed at
the centre of curvature of the mirror. Only then the rays
refracting through the lens will fall normally on the
convex mirror and retrace their path to form the image
at O. So the distance between lens and mirror = 60 – 10
= 50 cm.
84. (a) Let a ray of light enter at A and refracted beam is AB.
This is incident at an angle q. For no refraction at the
78. (b) aµ = 1.5
g lateral face q > C
\ 1.5 = cosecC or C = 42°. Critical angle for glass sin q > sin C But q + r = (90°)
= 42°. Hence a ray of light incident at 50° in glass B
medium undergoes total internal reflection. d denotes
the deviation of the ray. q
\ d = 180° – (50° + 50°) or d = 80°. A r
i
1 æ 1 1 ö
79. (b) = (m - 1)çç - ÷÷
f è R1 R 2 ø
B C \ sin (90° – r) > sin C or cos r > sin C ..(1)
According to Cauchy relation m = A + + ......
l
2
l
4
sin i sin i
From Snell’s law n = Þ sin r =
Hence f µ l . sin r n
Hence red light having maximum wavelength has
maximum focal length. æ sin 2 i ö
\ cos r = 1 - sin 2 r = ç1 - 2 ÷
fV < fR and also FV < FR è n ø
80. (c) As refracted ray emerges normally from oppostite
surface, r2 = 0 sin 2 i
\ equation (1) gives, 1 – > sin C
As A = r1 + r2 \ r1 = A n2
sin i1 i1 i sin 2 i
Now, m = sin r = r = A ; i = mA Þ1– > sin 2 C
1 1 2
n
(where t = thickness of glass plate)
1
81. (c) Thickness of glass plate (t) = 6 cm; Also sin C =
Distance of the object (u) = 8 cm. and n
distance of the image (v) = 12 cm. sin 2 i 1 sin 2 i 1
Let x = Apparent position of the silvered surface in cm. \1 – > or 1 > +
Since the image is formed due to relfection at the silvered n 2
n 2
n 2 n2
face and by the property of mirror image distance of object
1
from the mirror = Distance of image from the mirror or 2
(sin 2 i + 1) < 1 or n 2 > sin 2 i + 1
or x + 8 = 12 + 6 – x or x = 5 cm. n
Therefore refractive index of glass Maximum value of sin i = 1
Re al depth 6 \ n2 > 2 Þ n > 2
= Apparent depth = 5 = 1.2 .
85. (c) The silvered plano convex lens behaves as a concave
n mirror; whose focal length is given by
å fi
1 1
82. (d) We know that f = 1 2
= +
1
i =1 F f1 f m
1 1 1 If plane surface is silvered
= +
f f1 f 2 R2 ¥
fm = = =¥
f1 = 80 cm, f2 = –50 cm 2 2
1 1 1 1 1 æ 1 1 ö
= - Þ P = = 1.25 – 2 = – 0.75D \ = (m – 1)çç – ÷
÷
f 80 50 f f1 è 1
R R 2ø
100 100
æ 1 1 ö m –1
f = 20 cm = (m – 1)ç – ÷ =
83. (c) èR ¥ø R
l
O
30 cm 10 cm
60 cm
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 657
1 2(m – 1) 1 2(m – 1) 1 1 1
\ = + = = +
F R ¥ R f f1 f 2
R This is combination of two lenses
F=
2(m – 1) of equal focal length
Here R = 20 cm, m = 1.5 é1 1 1 2 ù
20 \ ê = ¢ + ¢ = ¢ ú Þ f '' = 2f
\ F= = 20cm ëf f f f û
2(1.5 – 1) 89. (b) R1 = 60 cm, R2 = µ , m = 1.6
Re al depth (R1 ) 1 æ 1 1 ö
86. (b) 1.5 = = (m - 1)çç - ÷
Apparent depth (5 cm) f R R ÷
è 1 2ø
\ R1 = 1.5 × 5 = 7.5 cm
1 æ 1 ö
= (1.6 - 1)ç ÷ Þ f = 100 cm.
R1 5 cm f è 60 ø
90. (b) The angle must be equal to the critical angle,
air bubble
æ1ö æ 1 ö
R2 C = sin -1 çç ÷÷ = sin -1 çç ÷÷ = 45º
2 cm m
è ø è 2ø
hi v 5. (c) Among all given sources of light, the bule light have
m= = Þ hi = v ´ h 0 = 60 ´ 2 = – 4 cm smallest wavelength.According to Cauchy
h0 u u 30 relationship, smaller the wavelength higher the
So, image is inverted. refractive index and consequently smaller the critical
95. (b) Deviation = zero
1
So, d = d1 + d2 = 0 Þ (m1 – 1)A1 + (m2 – 1) A2 = 0 angle as µ = .
sin c
Þ A2 (1.75 – 1) = – (1.5 – 1) 15°
Hence, corresponding to blue colour, the critical angle
0.5 is least which facilitates total internal reflection for the
Þ A2 = - ´ 15° or A2 = – 10°.
0.75 beam of blue light and the beam of green light would
Negative sign shows that the second prism is inverted also undergo total internal reflection.
with respect to the first. 6. (c) Using lens maker’s formula for plano-convex lens, so
96. (a) To see his full image in a plane mirror a person requires focal length is
a mirror of at least half of his height.
( m 2 - m1 ) æç
1 1 1 ö
= - ÷
H f R
è 1 R 2 ø
M
If object on curved suface
E H
H 2 so, R2 = ¥
M' R1
then, f =
L ( m 2 - m1 )
Lens placed in air, µ1 = 1.
97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (b)
(As given that, R = 20cm, µ2 = 1.5, on substituting the
EXERCISE - 3 values in)
Exemplar Questions R1
f=
m -1
1. (a) As we know that the deviation
20
d = (µ – 1) A ..... (i) =
1.5 - 1
By geometry, the angle of refraction by first surface is = 40 cm
5° and given µ = 1.5
So, f is converging nature, as f > 0. Hence, lens will
So, d = (1.5 – 1) × 5° always act as a convex lens irrespective of the side on
= 2.5° which the object lies.
also, d = q – r, ..... (ii) 7. (b) The reflection of radiowaves by ionosphere is similar
to total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage
By putting the value of d and r in equation (ii)
because angle of incidence is greater than critical angle
2.5° = q – 5° so that internal reflection of radio wave, take place.
So, q = 5 + 2.5 = 7.5° 8. (b) The incident PQ ray of light passes through focus F on
2. (d) As we know that when light ray goes from one medium the concave mirror, after reflection should become
to other medium, the frequency of light remains parallel to the principal axis, i.e., ray-2.
unchanged. 9. (b) As we know, when the ray goes from rarer medium air
And, c = nl to optically denser turpentine, then it bends towards
So, c µ l the light of red colour is of highest wavelength the normal i.e., i > r whereas when it goes from optically
and therefore of highest speed. Thus, after travelling denser medium turpentine to rarer medium water, then
through the slab, the red colour emerge first, it bends away from normal i.e., i < r.
3. (c) According to the question, when object is at different So, the path of ray 2 is correct.
position, and if an object approaches towards a
convergent lens from the left of the lens with a uniform 10. (d) As we know that, the image formed by convex mirror
speed of 5 m/s, the image move away from the lens to does not depend on the relative position of object w.r.t.
infinity with a non-uniform acceleration. mirror.
4. (b) When a passenger in an aeroplane then he may see So, when the car approaches in the rear side, initially it
primary and secondary rainbow such as concentric appear at rest as images is formed at focus. Hence the
circles. speed of the image of the car would appear to increase
as the distance between the cars decreases.
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 659
11. (a) When the negative refractive index materials are those Distance between retina and cornea-eye lens
in which incident ray from air (Medium 1) to them refract 5
or bend differently to that of positive refractive index = = 1.67 m
3
medium. 14. (a)
Incident ray
Air 20°
i
20°
1
r
2 q q
70° 40°
r
glass
( m1 - 1) ( m 2 - 1) 1 m - m2
= – Þ = 1
R R f R
R
Þf=
m1 - m 2
sin i
According to Snell’s law m =
R sin r
Hence, focal length of the combination is .
m1 - m 2 Þ (1) sin 2A = (m) sin A Þ m = 2 cos A
13. (b) Pcornea = + 40 D 18. (a) As we know, the refractive index of the material of the
Pe = + 20 D prism
Total power of combination = 40 + 20 = 60 D
æ d + Aö
1 sin ç m
Focal length of combination = ´ 100 cm è 2 ÷ø
60 m=
sin (A/ 2)
5
= cm æ A + dm ö
3 sin ç
For minimum converging state of eye lens, è 2 ÷ø cos (A/ 2)
cot A/2 = =
sin A / 2 sin (A / 2)
5
u = -¥ v =? f= [Q µ = cot (A/2)]
3
From lens formula, æ dm + A ö
Þ Sin çè ÷ = sin(90° + A/2)
1 1 1 5 2 ø
= – Þ v = cm Þ dmin = 180° – 2A
f v u 3
660 PHYSICS
1 1 1 +5 - 1
Þ = + =
v0 40 -200 200
Þ v0 = 50 cm
i=45° Tube length l = |v0| + fe = 50 + 4 = 54 cm.
24. (a) Magnitude m = +ve Þ virtual image
m = –ve Þ real image
45°
magnitude of magnification,
So, sin i > sin ic | m | > 1 Þ magnified image
1 | m | < 1 Þ diminished image
sin 45° > Þ m > 2 Þ 1.414
m 25. (d) When mirror is rotated by angle q reflected ray will be
Since refractive index m of green and voilet are greater rotated by 2q.
than 1.414 so they will total internal reflected. But red light
colour will be refracted. y spot q
= 2q
21. (c) Objective lens x y
Eye-piece
L y source 2q
Mirror
Þq= (L) x
2x
26. (a) For dispersion without deviation
(m - 1)A1 + (m '- 1)A 2 = 0
d=f0+fe (m - 1)A1 = (m '- 1)A 2
Magnification by eye piece (1.42–1) × 10° = (1.7–1)A2
4.2 = 0.7A2
A2 = 6°
25 Wave Optics
The secondary wavelets from A will travel the same distance c × sin i c1
t in the same time. Therefore, with A as centre and c × t as radius, \ = =µ [using (iv)]
sin r c2
draw an arc B¢, so that
AB¢ = c × t … (ii) sin i
Hence m= … (vi)
A¢B¢ is the true reflected wavefront. sin r
angle of incidence, i = ÐBAA ' which proves Snell’s law of refraction.
and angle of reflection, r = ÐB ' A ' A It is clear from fig. that the incident rays, normal to the interface
XY and refracted rays, all lie in the same plane (i.e., in the plane of
In Ds AA¢B and AA¢B¢,
the paper). This is the second law of refraction.
AA¢ is common, BA ' = AB ' = c ´ t , and ÐB = ÐB ' = 90° Hence laws of refraction are established on the basis of wave
\ Ds are congruent \ ÐBAA ' = ÐB ' A ' A, i.e., Ði = Ðr … (iii) theory.
Which is the first law of reflection. Keep in Memory
Further, the incident wavefront AB, the reflecting surface M1M2
and the reflected wavefront A¢B¢ are all perpendicular to the plane 1. In 1873, Maxwell showed that light is an electromegnetic
of the paper. Therefore, incident ray, normal to the mirror M1M2 wave i.e. it propagates as transverse non-mechnical wave
and reflected ray all lie in the plane of the paper. This is second at speed c in free space given by
law of reflection. 1
Refraction on the Basis of Wave Theory c= = 3 ´ 108 ms -1
XY is a plane surface that separates a denser medium of refractive m 0e 0
index µ from a rarer medium. If c1 is velocity of light in rarer 2. There are some phenomenon of light like photoelectric
medium and c2 is velocity of light in denser medium, then by effect, Compton effect, Raman effect etc. which can be
definition. explained only on the basis of particle nature of light.
c1 3. Light shows the dual nature i.e. particle as well as wave
µ= c … (iv) nature of light. But the wave nature and particle nature
2 both cannot be possible simultaneously.
4. Interference and diffraction are the two phenomena that can
3 be explained only on the basis of wave nature of light.
(D n + m ) 2 - (Dn )2
l=
4mR
L where, R is the radius of curvature of the lens.
2. If Dn = diameter of nth dark ring when air is present betwen
Air film
the glass plate and the lens
G Dn+m = diameter of (n+m)th dark ring when air is present
between the glass plate and the lens
Proceeding further, we get the radius of rings as follows:
D¢n = diameter of n th dark ring when a liquid is poured
(2n - 1)lR between the plate and the lens
For bright rings, r =
2 D¢n+m =diameter of (n+m)th dark ring when a liquid is
poured between the plate and the lens
For dark rings, r = nlR , where R = radius of curvature of
Then the refractive index of the liquid is given by
lens.
(D n + m )2 - (Dn )2
m= or,,
(i) The centre is dark and alternately dark and bright rings (D n¢ + m ) 2 - (D n¢ )2
are produced.
(ii) While counting the order of the dark rings 1, 2, 3, etc. 4mlR
the central ring is not counted. Therefore, m=
(D n¢ + m )2 - (D n¢ )2
for 1st dark ring, n = 1 and r1 = lR
Example 1.
for 2nd dark ring, n = 2 and r2 = 2lR In Young’s expt., two coherent sources are placed 0.90 mm
apart and fringes are observed one metre away. If it
Newton's rings by transmitted light produces second dark fringe at a distance of 1 mm from
Here, interference takes place due to transmitted light. central fringe, what would be the wavelength of
monochromatic light used?
Solution :
lD
For dark fringes, x = (2 n - 1)
L 2d
\ l=
2xd 2 ´ 10 -3 ´ 0.9 ´ 10 -3
=
(2 n - 1) D (2 ´ 2 - 1) ´1
G
or, l = 0.6 ´ 10 -6 m = 6 ´10 -5 cm.
Wave Optics 667
In case of interference, I = I1 + I2 + 2 ( )
I1I 2 cos f
D
(a) For I to be maximum and minimum cos f is 1 and –1
l
respectively, i.e., In general, b sin q = nl for minima and, b sin q = ( 2n + 1) for
2
I max = I1 + I 2 + 2 I1I 2 = ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 and maxima.
(i) The points of the maximum intensity lie nearly midway
I min = I1 + I 2 - 2 I1I 2 = ( I1 ~ I 2 ) 2 between the successive minima. The amplitude E0' of the
According to given problem, electric field at a general point P is
1
Here I = I0 = 0.05 I 0
Fig (b) Polarised light 20
If we confine the direction of wave vibration of electric vector in
Using I = I0 cos2 q , we get 0.05 I0 = I0 cos 2 q
one direction perpendicular to direction of wave propagation,
then such type of light is called plane polarised or linearly
polarised (with the help of polaroids or Nicol prism). The Þ cos 2 q = 0.05 or cos q = 0.05 = 0.2236
phenomenon by which, we restrict the vibrations of wave in a
\ q = cos-1 (0.2236) = 76°9 ¢
particular direction (see fig-b) ^ to direction of wave
propagation is called polarization. Example 9 :
The plane of vibration is that which contains the vibrations of A beam of polarised light makes an angle of 60° with the
r
electric vector E and plane of polarisation is perpendicular to axis of the polaroid sheet. How much is the intensity of
the plane of vibration light transmitted through the sheet ?
· Tourmaline and calcite polarizes an e.m. wave passing Solution :
through it. Here q = 60°,
Polarization by Reflection (Brewster’s Law)
Using I = I0 cos2 q , we get
During reflection of a wave, we obtain a particular angle called
angle of polarisation, for which the reflected light is completely 1 æ 1ö
plane polarised. I = I0 (cos 60°) 2 = I0 çQ cos 60° = ÷
4 è 2ø
Reflected light 1
is polarised. \ Intensity of transmitted light = ´ 100 = 25%
4
ip Thus, the intensity of the transmitted light is 25% of the
ip+rp=90º
Rarer intensity of incident light.
90º
Denser Example 10:
rp
A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 60° with
the glass surface. If the reflected and refracted rays are at
right angles to each other, find the refractive index of the
glass.
Solution.
m = tan (ip) When the reflected and refracted rays are at right angle to
where, ip = angle of incidence, such that the reflected and refracted each other, the angle of incident is known as angle of
waves are perpendicular to each other. polarisation (ip).
Law of Malus : If the electric vector is at angle q with the Here, q = 60°, Using m = tan ip, we get
transmission axis, light is partially transmitted. The intensity of
transmitted light is m = tan 60° = 3 = 1.732
670 PHYSICS
Example 11 : Example 12 :
A beam of light AO is incident on a glass slab (m = 1.54) in
The time period of rotation of the sun is 25 days and its
a direction as shown in fig. The reflected ray OB is passed
through nicol prism. On viewing through a nicol prism, radius is 7 × 108 m. What will be the Doppler shift for the
we find on rotating the prism that light of wavelength 6000 Å emitted from the surface of the
sun?
Solution :
A N B v ælö æ 2p ö æ l ö
Doppler’s shift d l = ´ l = R wç ÷ = R ç ÷ç ÷
57º c c
è ø è T øècø
33º 33º 7 ´ 108 ´ 2 ´ 22 6000
O = ´ Å = 0.04 Å
25 ´ 24 ´ 60 ´ 60 ´ 7 3 ´ 108
Example 13 :
How far in advance can one detect two headlights of a car
(a) the intensity is reduced down to zero and remains if they are separated by a distance of 1.57 m ?
zero Solution :
(b) the intensity reduces down somewhat and rises again The human eye can resolve two objects when the angle
(c) there is no change in intensity between them is 1 minute of arc. Thus, we have
(d) the intensity gradually reduces to zero and then again x
D=
increases q
Solution : (d) 1 p
For complete polarisation of reflected light Here x = 1.57 m, q = 1¢ = ´ rad ,
60 180
m = tan f (f = Brewster’s angle)
\ f = tan–1 m = tan–1 (1.54) = 57º 1.57 10800 ´ 1.57
Thus D = = = 5400 m = 5.4 km
1 p 3.14
From fig, angle of incidence = 90° – 33º = 57º ´
Hence the reflected light is completely polarised. When the 60 180
plane polarised light is viewed through a rotating nicol prism, Example 14 :
the intensity gradually reduces to zero and then again The numerical aperture of a microscope is 0.12, and the
increases. wavelength of light used is 600 nm. Then find its limit of
RESOLVING POWER OF AN OPTICAL INSTRUMENT resolution.
The resolving power of an optical instrument, is its ability to Solution :
distinguish between two closely spaced objects. The limit of resolution of a microscope is given by
Diffraction occurs when light passes through the circular, or
nearly circular, openings that admit light into cameras, telescopes, 0.61 l
x=
microscopes, and human eyes. The resulting diffraction pattern m sin q
places a natural limit on the resolving power of these instruments.
For example, for normal vision, the limit of resolution of normal It is given that l = 6 ´ 10 -7 m , and the numerical aperture
human eye is ~0.1 mm from 25 cm. (i.e., distances less than 0.1 mm m sin q = 0.12 .
cannot be resolved). For optical microscope the limit of resolution
~ 10–5 cm and for electron microscope ~5 Å or less. 0.61 ´ 6 ´ 10-7
Therefore, x = = 3.05 ´ 10-6 m » 3 µm
0.61l 0.12
The limit of resolution of a microscope x = where a is the
a Example 15 :
aperture of the microscope. A person wants to resolve two thin poles standing near
DOPPLER’S EFFECT FOR LIGHT WAVES each other at a distance of 1 km. What should be the
(a) When the source moves towards the stationary observer minimum separation between them?
or the observer moves towards the source, the apparent Solution :
frequency. Angular limit of resolution of eye q = 1 minute of arc
= 1/60 degree.
æ vö
n´= n ç1 + ÷ ( Blue shift ) Therefore, the minimum separation should be such that
è cø x = Dq
(b) When the source moves away from the stationary observer 1 p
with D = 1 km. = 103 m and q = ´ radian
æ vö 60 180
or vice-versa, n´= n ç1 - ÷ (Red shift)
è cø
10 3 ´ 3.14 31.4
where n´ = apparent frequency, n = active frequency Thus x = = = 0.29 m
60 ´ 180 108
v = velocity of source, c = velocity of light
or x » 30 cm.
But in both cases, the relative velocity v is small.
CONCEPT MAP
Cylindrical wavefront
Linear light source Each point on the Phase diff. d= 2n p Phase diff. d= (2n – 1) p
Effective distance -finite primary wavefront x =2n (/2)
Path diff. D l
1 is the source of a Path diff. D
x = (2n – 1)/2l
Intensity I µ Resultant amplitude A = a1 + a 2
r secondary wavelets Resultant amplitude A = a1 – a 2
Resultant intensity I = 2
1 Resultant intensity I = ( I1 – I2 )
Amplitude A µ ( I1 + I 2 )2
r
=
2a
672 PHYSICS
1. Which one of the following phenomena is not explained by 13. The phenomenon of interference is shown by
Huygens construction of wavefront? (a) longitudinal mechanical waves only
(a) Refraction (b) Reflection (b) transverse mechanical waves only
(c) Diffraction (d) Origin of spectra (c) non-mechanical transverse waves only
2. Which of the following phenomena is not common to sound (d) All of the above
and light waves ? 14. The transverse nature of light is shown by
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction (a) interference of light (b) refraction of light
(c) Coherence (d) Polarisation (c) polarization of light (d) dispersion of light
3. Interference is possible in 15. If the intensities of the two interfering beams in Young’s
(a) light waves only double-slit experiment are I1 and I2, then the contrast
(b) sound waves only between the maximum and minimum intensities is good
(c) both light and sound waves when
(d) neither light nor sound waves (a) | I1 and I2 | is large (b) | I1 and I2 | is small
4. A single slit diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of (c) either I1 or I2 is zero (d) I1 = I2
red light. If the red light is replaced by the blue light, then 16. The idea of the quantum nature of light has emerged in an
attempt to explain
the diffraction pattern
(a) interference
(a) remains unchanged (b) becomes narrower
(b) diffraction
(c) becomes broader (d) will disappear
(b) polarization
5. In Young's double slit experiment, if the slit widths are in the (d) radiation spectrum of a black body
ratio 1 : 2, the ratio of the intensities at minima and maxima 17.. The contrast in the fringes in an interference pattern
will be depends on
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 9 (a) fringe width
6. If a wave can be polarized, it must be (b) wavelength
(a) a transverse wave (b) a longitudinal wave (c) intensity ratio of the sources
(c) a sound wave (d) a stationary wave (d) distance between the slits
7. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, we require 18. Polarisation of light establishes
two sources which emit radiation of (a) corpuscular theory of light
(a) nearly the same frequency (b) quantum nature of light
(b) the same frequency (c) transverse nature of light
(c) different wavelengths (d) all of the three
(d) the same frequency and having a definite phase 19. Huygens concept of wavelets is useful in
relationship (a) explaining polarisation
8. Angular width (B) of central maxima of a diffraction pattern (b) determining focal length of the lenses
of a single slit does not depend upon (c) determining chromatic aberration
(a) distance between slit and source (d) geometrical reconstruction of a wavefront
(b) wavelength of the light used 20. When a compact disc is illuminated by small source of white
(c) width of slit light, coloured bands are observed. This is due to
(a) dispersion (b) diffraction
(d) frequency of light used
(c) interference (d) reflection
9. The phenomenon by which stars recedes from each other
21. A nicol prism is based on the action of
is explained by (a) refraction (b) double refraction
(a) black hole theory (b) neutron star theory (c) dichroism (d) both (b) and (c)
(c) white dwarf (d) red shift 22. The deflection of light in a gravitational field was predicted
10. Which of the following does not support the wave nature first by
of light? (a) Einstein (b) Newton
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Max Planck (d) Maxwell
(c) Polarisation (d) Photoelectric effect. 23. When light passing through rotating nicol is observed,
11. The colours seen in the reflected white light from a thin oil no change in intensity is seen. What inference can be
film are due to drawn ?
(a) diffraction (b) interference (a) The incident light is unpolarized.
(c) polarisation (d) dispersion (b) The incident light is circularly polarized.
12. Which of the following cannot be polarised ? (c) The incident light is unpolarized or circularly
(a) Radio waves (b) b rays polarized.
(d) The incident light is unpolarized or circularly polarized
(c) Infrared rays (d) g rays or combination of both.
Wave Optics 673
24. In refraction, light waves are bent on passing from one 25. Interference was observed in an interference chamber when
medium to the second medium, because, in the second air was present. Now, the chamber is evacuated and if the
medium same light is used, a careful observation will show
(a) the frequency is different (a) no interference
(b) the coefficient of elasticity is different (b) interference with bright bands
(c) the speed is different (c) interference with dark bands
(d) the amplitude is smaller (d) interference in which breadth of the fringe will be
slightly increased
1. The width of a slit is 0.012 mm. Monochromatic light is 7. In Young’s double slit expt. the distance between two
incident on it. The angular position of first bright line is sources is 0.1 mm. The distance of the screen from the
5.2º. The wavelength of incident light is source is 20 cm. Wavelength of light used is 5460 Å. The
[sin 5.2º = 0.0906]. angular position of the first dark fringe is
(a) 6040 Å (b) 4026 Å (a) 0.08º (b) 0.16º
(c) 5890 Å (d) 7248 Å (c) 0.20º (d) 0.32º
2. A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass plate at an 8. The separation between successive fringes in a double slit
angle of incidence equal to Brewster’s angel f. If m represents arrangement is x. If the whole arrangement is dipped under
the refractive index of glass with respect to air, then the angle water what will be the new fringe separation? [The
between the reflected and the refracted rays is wavelenght of light being used is 5000 Å]
(a) 90° + f (b) sin–1(m cos f) (a) 1.5 x (b) x
(c) 0.75 x (d) 2 x
æ sin f ö
(c) 90º (d) 90 º - sin -1 çç ÷÷ 9. Light of wavelength 6328 Å is incident normally on a slit
è m ø having a width of 0.2 mm. The angular width of the central
3. Light of wavelength 6.5 × 10–7 m is made incident on two maximum measured from minimum to minimum of diffraction
slits 1 mm apart. The distance between third dark fringe and pattern on a screen 9.0 metres away will be about
fifth bright fringe on a screen distant 1 m from the slits will (a) 0.36 degree (b) 0.18 degree
be (c) 0.72 degree (d) 0.09 degree
(a) 0.325 mm (b) 0.65 mm 10. A plane wave of wavelength 6250 Å is incident normally on
(c) 1.625 mm (d) 3.25 mm a slit of width 2 × 10–2 cm. The width of the principal maximum
4. The max. intensity produced by two coherent sources of on a screen distant 50 cm will be
intensity I1 and I2 will be (a) 312.5 × 10–3 cm (b) 312.5 × 10–3 m
(c) 312.5 × 10 m –3 (d) 312 m
(a) I1 + I 2 (b) I12 + I 22 11. A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle of 60º. If the
reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other,
(c) I1 + I 2 + 2 I1 I 2 (d) zero
the index of refraction of glass is
5. The path difference between two wavefronts emitted by
coherent sources of wavelength 5460Å is 2.1 micron. The 1 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1.732
phase difference between the wavefronts at that point is 2 2 2
(a) 7.692 (b) 7.692 p 12. The wavelength of Ha line in hydrogen spectrum was found
7.692 7.692 to be 6563 Å in the laboratory. If the wavelength of same
(c) (d) line in the spectrum of a milky way is observed to be 6568Å,
p 3p
d
then recession velocity of milky way will be
6. In Young’s expt., the distance between two slits is and (a) 105 m/s (b) 1.05 × 106 m/s
3 6
(c) 10.5 × 10 m/s (d) 0.105 × 106 m/s
the distance between the screen and the slits is 3 D. The 13. A star is receding away from earth with a velocity of
1 105 m/s. If the wavelength of its spectral line is 5700 Å, then
number of fringes in m on the screen, formed by
3 Doppler shift will be
monochromatic light of wavelength 3l, will be (a) 200 Å (b) 1.9 Å
(c) 20 Å (d) 0.2 Å
d d
(a) (b) 14. A slit of width a is illuminated by red light of wavelength
9Dl 27 D l 6500 Å. If the first minimum falls at q = 30°, the value of a is
(a) 6.5 × 10–4 mm (b) 1.3 micron
d d
(c) (d) (c) 3250 Å (d) 2.6 × 10–4 cm
81 D l Dl
674 PHYSICS
15. Two beams of light of intensity I1 and I2 interfere to give 24. Two sources of light of wavelengths 2500 Å and 3500 Å are
an interference pattern. If the ratio of maximum intensity to used in Young’s double slit expt. simultaneously. Which
that of minimum intensity is 25/9, then I1/I2 is orders of fringes of two wavelength patterns coincide?
(a) 5/3 (b) 4 (a) 3rd order of 1st source and 5th of the 2nd
(c) 81/625 (d) 16 (b) 7th order of 1st and 5th order of 2nd
(c) 5th order of 1st and 3rd order of 2nd
16. The condition for obtaining secondary maxima in the
(d) 5th order of 1st and 7th order of 2nd
diffraction pattern due to single slit is
25. A radar sends radiowaves of frequency v towards an
l aeroplane moving with velocity va. A change Dn is observed
(a) a sin q = nl (b) a sin q = ( 2n - 1) in the frequency of reflected waves which is higher than
2
original frequency. The velocity of aeroplane is (va << c)
nl c Dn Dn
(c) a sin q = ( 2n - 1) l (d) a sin q = c Dn 2 c Dn
2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
n Dn 2n 2cn
17. Light from two coherent sources of the same amplitude A
26. In Young’s double slit experiment, we get 10 fringes in the
and wavelength l illuminates the screen. The intensity of
field of view of monochromatic light of wavelength 4000Å.
the central maximum is I0. If the sources were incoherent, If we use monochromatic light of wavelength 5000Å, then
the intensity at the same point will be the number of fringes obtained in the same field of view is
(a) 4I0 (b) 1I0 (c) I0 (d) I0/2 (a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 40 (d) 50
18. In Young's double slit experiment with sodium vapour lamp 27. With a monochromatic light, the fringe-width obtained in a
of wavelength 589 nm and the slits 0.589 mm apart, the half Young’s double slit experiment is 0.133 cm. The whole set-
angular width of the central maximum is up is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33, then the
(a) sin–1 (0.01) (b) sin –1 (0.0001) new fringe-width is
(c) sin –1 (0.001) (d) sin–1 (0.1) (a) 0.133 cm (b) 0.1 cm
19. In Young's double slit experiment with sodium vapour lamp 1.33
(c) 1.33 × 1.33 cm (d) cm
of wavelength 589 nm and the slits 0.589 mm apart, the half 2
angular width of the central maximum is 28. A slit of width a is illuminated by white light. The first
(a) sin –1 0.01 (b) sin–10.0001 minimum for red light (l = 6500 Å) will fall at q = 30º when a
–1
(c) sin 0.001 (d) sin–1 0.1 will be
20. When the light is incident at the polarizing angle on the (a) 3250 Å (b) 6.5 × 10–4 cm
transparent medium, then the completely polarized light is (c) 1.3 micron (d) 2.6 × 10–4 cm
(a) refracted light 29. The Fraunhoffer ‘diffraction’ pattern of a single slit is formed
(b) reflected light in the focal plane of a lens of focal length 1 m. The width of
(c) refracted and reflected light slit is 0.3 mm. If third minimum is formed at a distance of 5
mm from central maximum, then wavelength of light will be
(d) neither reflected nor refracted light
(a) 5000 Å (b) 2500 Å
21. In the phenomena of diffraction of light, when blue light is
(c) 7500 Å (d) 8500 Å
used in the experiment in spite of red light, then 30. Two points separated by a distance of 0.1 mm can just be
(a) fringes will become narrower inspected in a microscope, when light of wavelength 600Å
(b) fringes will become broader is used. If the light of wavelength 4800 Å is used, the limit
(c) no change in fringe width of resolution will become
(d) None of these (a) 0.80mm (b) 0.12 mm (c) 0.10 mm (d) 0.08 mm
22. The wavefronts of a light wave travelling in vacuum are 31. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 W m–2 passes through
given by x + y + z = c. The angle made by the direction of three polarizers such that the transmission axis of the last
propagation of light with the X-axis is polarizer is crossed with that of the first. The intensity of
(a) 0º (b) 45º final emerging light is 3 W m–2. The intensity of light
transmitted by first polarizer will be
(c) 90º (d) cos –1 (1/ 3) (a) 32 W m–2 (b) 16 W m–2
(c) 8 W m –2 (d) 4 W m–2
23. In Fresnel’s biprism expt., a mica sheet of refractive index
32. A parallel beam of monochromatic unpolarised light is
1.5 and thickness 6 × 10–6 m is placed in the path of one of
incident on a transparent dielectric plate of refractive index
interfering beams as a result of which the central fringe
gets shifted through 5 fringe widths. The wavelength of 1
. The reflected beam is completely polarised. Then the
light used is 3
(a) 6000 Å (b) 8000 Å angle of incidence is
(c) 4000 Å (d) 2000 Å (a) 30º (b) 60º
(c) 45º (d) 75º
Wave Optics 675
33. Two nicols are oriented with their principal planes making (a) 4400 Å (b) 4100 Å
an angle of 60º. Then the percentage of incident unpolarised (c) 4642.8 Å (d) 9100 Å
light which passes through the system is 43. When the angle of incidence is 60° on the surface of a
(a) 100 (b) 50 (c) 12.5 (d) 37.5 glass slab, it is found that the reflected ray is completely
34. A beam of unpolarised light passes through a tourmaline polarised. The velocity of light in glass is
crystal A and then through another such crystal B oriented
so that the principal plane is parallel to A. The intensity of
(a) 2 ´ 108 ms -1 (b) 3 ´ 108 ms -1
emergent light is I0. Now B is rotated by 45º about the ray. (c) 2 ´ 108 ms -1 (d) 3 ´ 108 ms -1
The emergent light will have intensity 44. A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter d
(a) I 0 / 2 (b) I 0 / 2 (c) I 0 2 (d) 2I 0 d
forms an image of intensity I. Aperture of diameter in
35. A rocket is receding away from earth with velocity 0.2 c. 2
The rocket emits signal of frequency 4 × 107 Hz. The central region of lens is covered by a black paper. Focal
apparent frequency observed by the observer on earth will length of lens and intensity of image now will be
be respectively
(a) 4 × 106 Hz (b) 3.2 × 107 Hz I 3f I
6
(c) 3 × 10 Hz (d) 5 × 107 Hz (a) f and (b) and
4 4 2
36. The heavenly body is receding from earth, such that the
fractional change in l is 1, then its velocity is 3I f I
(c) f and (d) and
4 2 2
3c c 2c
(a) c (b) (c) (d) 45. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and
5 5 5 are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths l1 = 12000Å
37. Fluorescent tubes give more light than a filament bulb of and l2 = 10000Å. At what minimum distance from the
same power because common central bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit
(a) the tube contains gas at low temperature will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide
(b) ultraviolet light is converted into visible light by with a bright fringe from the other ?
fluorescence (a) 6 mm (b) 4 mm (c) 3 mm (d) 8mm
(c) light is diffused through the walls of the tube 46. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally
(d) it produces more heat than bulb
on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large
38. In young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a
distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is
point on the screen where the path difference is l is I, l increased, which of the following statements is correct ?
being the wavelength of light used. The intensity at a point (a) The angular width of the central maximum of the
l diffraction pattern will increase.
where the path difference is will be
4 (b) The angular width of the central maximum will decrease.
I I
(a) (b) (c) I (d) zero (c) The angular width of the central maximum will be
4 2 unaffected.
39. Aperture of the human eye is 2 mm. Assuming the mean (d) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in
wavelength of light to be 5000 Å, the angular resolution case of electrons.
limit of the eye is nearly DIRECTIONS for Qs. (47 to 50) : Each question contains
(a) 2 minute (b) 1 minute STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
(c) 0.5 minute (d) 1.5 minute (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following-
40. If the polarizing angle of a piece of glass for green light is (a) Statement -1 is false, Statement-2 is true
54.74°, then the angle of minimum deviation for an
(b) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is a
equilateral prism made of same glass is
correct explanation for Statement-1
[Given, tan 54.74° = 1.414]
(c) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement -2 is not
(a) 45° (b) 54.74°
a correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) 60° (d) 30°
(d) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is false
41. In Young's double slit experiment, the fringes are displaced
by a distance x when a glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is 47. Statement 1 : In YDSE, if a thin film is introduced in front of
introduced in the path of one of the beams. When this the upper slit, then the fringe pattern shifts in the downward
plate is replaced by another plate of the same thickness, direction.
the shift of fringes is (3/2) x. The refractive index of the Statement 2 : In YDSE if the slit widths are unequal, the
second plate is minima will be completely dark.
(a) 1.75 (b) 1.50 Imax
(c) 1.25 (d) 1.00 48. Statement 1 : In YDSE, if I1 = 9I0 and I2 = 4I0 then = 25.
I min
42. A single slit Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern is formed with
white light. For what wavelength of light the third Statement 2 : In YDSE Imax = ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 and
secondary maximum in the diffraction pattern coincides
with the second secondary maximum in the pattern for red I min = ( I1 - I 2 ) 2 .
light of wavelength 6500 Å?
676 PHYSICS
49. Statement 1 : In Young’s double slit experiment if 50. Statement 1 : In YDSE number of bright fringe or dark fringe
wavelength of incident monochromatic light is just doubled, can not be unlimited
number of bright fringe on the screen will increase. Statement 2 : In YDSE path difference between the
Statement 2: Maximum number of bright lunge on the screen superposing waves can not be more than the distance
is inversely proportional to the wavelength of light used between the slits.
7. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident nor- 14. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a
mally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a single-slit diffraction pattern, the phase difference between
large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is the Huygen's wavelet from the edge of the slit and the
increased, which of the following statements is correct ? wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is : [2015 RS]
[2013] p
(a) The angular width of the central maximum of the dif- (a) radian (b) p radian
2
fraction pattern will increase. p p
(b) The angular width of the central maximum will decrease. (c) radian (d) radian
8 4
(c) The angular width of the central maximum will be un- 15. Two slits in Young’s experiment have widths in the ratio 1 :
affected. 25. The ratio of intensity at the maxima and minima in the
(d) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in
case of electrons. Imax
interference pattern, I is: [2015 RS]
8. In Young’s double slit experiment the distance between the min
slits and the screen is doubled. The separation between 121 49
the slits is reduced to half. As a result the fringe width (a) (b)
49 121
(a) is doubled [NEET Kar. 2013]
4 9
(b) is halved (c) (d)
9 4
(c) becomes four times 16. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 'a', the
(d) remains unchanged first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of
9. A parallel beam of light of wavelength l is incident normally wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first
on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern is formed on a screen secondary maximum is observed at an angle of : [2016]
placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam.
æ 1ö -1 æ 2 ö
At the second minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase (a) sin -1 ç ÷ (b) sin çè ÷ø
difference between the rays coming from the two edges of è 4ø 3
slit is [NEET Kar. 2013]
æ 1ö -1 æ 3 ö
(a) pl (b) 2p (c) sin -1 ç ÷ (d) sin çè ÷ø
(c) 3p (d) 4p
è 2ø 4
10. A beam of light of l = 600 nm from a distant source falls on 17. The intensity at the maximum in a Young's double slit
a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern experiment is I0. Distance between two slits is d = 5l, where
is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between l is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What
first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen
is: [2014] placed at a distance D = 10 d ? [2016]
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm I0
(c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm (a) I0 (b)
4
11. In the Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of light 3 I0
at a point on the screen where the path difference is l is K, (c) I0 (d)
4 2
(l being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a
18. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for
point where the path difference is l/4, will be: [2014] two wavelengths l1 = 4000 Å and l2 = 6000 Å is [2017]
(a) K (b) K/4 (a) 9 : 4 (b) 3 : 2
(c) K/2 (d) Zero (c) 16 : 81 (d) 8 : 27
12. In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and 19. Young's double slit experment is first performed in air and
the screen is placed 1 m away. A monochromatic light then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright
wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air.
slit for obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central The refractive index of the medium is nearly [2017]
maxima of single slit pattern ? [2015] (a) 1.59 (b) 1.69
(a) 0.1 mm (b) 0.5 mm (c) 1.78 (d) 1.25
(c) 0.02 mm (d) 0.2 mm 20. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis
13. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I0 is incident
'l', diffraction is produced by a single slit whose width 'a' is on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such
of the wavelength of the light. If 'D' is the distance of the that its axis makes an angle 45° with that of P1 . The intensity
screen from the slit, the width of the central maxima will be: of transmitted light through P2 is [2017]
Dl Da I0 I0
(a) (b) [2015] (a) (b)
a l 4 8
2Da 2Dl I0 I0
(c) (d) (c) (d)
l a 16 2
678 PHYSICS
1.141 ´ 1 æ 60° + d ö é
or, = sin ç Q1.414 = 2 ùû
2 è 2 ÷ø ë
2 æ 60° + d ö 1 æ 60° + d ö
or, = sin ç or = sin ç
2 è 2 ÷ø 2 è 2 ÷ø
nl1D
Hence, ycommon =
æ 60° + d ö æ 60° + d ö d
or, sin 45° = sin çè ÷ø or 45° = çè ÷
41. (a)
2 2 ø
=
(
5 12000 ´ 10-10 ´ 2 ) (Q d = 2 mm and D = 2m )
-3
2 ´ 10
( 2n + 1) l D = 5 × 12 × 10–4 m
42. (c) x=
2a = 60 × 10–4 m
= 6 × 10–3m = 6 mm
( 4 + 1) D
For red light, x = ´ 6500Å
2a
( 6 + 1) D Y
For other light, x = ´ lÅ S1
2a
46. (b) d q
x is same for each. D
S2
5
\ 5 ´ 6500 = 7 ´ l Þ l = ´ 6500 = 4642.8 Å.
7
Y nlD é Dl ù
êQ Y = d ú
43. (b) aµ = tan q where q = polarising angle.
g P P Angular width, q = =
D dD ë û
or, aµg = tan 60°
l
c so, q = , v l ¯ q ¯ [For central maxima n = 1]
or, = 3 d
vg
Hence, with increase in speed of electrons angular
width of central maximum decreases.
c 3 ´ 108
or, vg = = = 3 ´ 108 ms -1 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (b)
3 3
682 PHYSICS
EXERCISE - 3 N
P P¢
Exemplar Questions q
q
1. (c) Let us consider the diagram shown below the light beam
O
incident from air to the glass slab at Brewster’s angle
(ip). The angle between reflected ray BE and BC is 90°. r r r¢ P¢ d
Then only reflected ray is plane polarised represented N¢
by arrows. q
P
As the emergent and incident ray are unpolarised, so,
polaroid rotated in the way of CD then the intensity nd
\ Dt =
cannot be zero but varies in one complete rotation. æ sin 2 q ö
12
N c ç1 - 2 ÷
Polarised è n ø
A E
iP -1 2
nd æ sin 2 q ö
= ç1 - 2 ÷ø
90º
c è n
B
2p
r Phase difference = Df = ´ Dt
T
C
-1 2
2pd æ sin 2 q ö
= 1 çè1 - ÷
n2 ø
Polaroid D × nl
(P) n
2. (a) As given that the width of the slit -1 2
2pd é sin 2 q ù
=104 Å = 10000 Å Df = 1- 2 ú
= 104×10–10 m = l0–6 m = 1 µm l êë n û
Wavelength of visible sunlight varies from 4000 Å to \ Hence the net phase difference = Df + p
8000 Å. -1 2
2 pd æ 1 2 ö
Thus the width of slit is 10000 Å comparable to that of = ç1 - sin q ÷ + p
wavelength visible light i.e., 8000 Å. So diffraction occurs l è n2 ø
with maxima at centre. Hence at the centre all colours 4. (c) For sustained interference pattern to be formed on the
appear i.e., mixing of colours form white patch at the screen, the sources must be coherent and emits lights
centre. of same frequency and wavelength.
3. (a) Let, us consider the diagram, the ray (P) is incident at In a Young’s double-slit experiment, when one of the
an angle q and gets reflected in the direction P' and holes is covered by a red filter and another by a blue
refracted in the direction P' through O'. Due to reflection filter. In this case due to filteration only red and blue
from the glass medium there is a phase change of p. lights are present which has different frequency. In this
The time difference between two refracted ray OP' and monochromatic light is used for the formation of fringes
O'P'' is equal to the time taken by ray to travel along on the screen. So, in that case there shall be no
OO'. interference fringes.
5. (d) Consider the given figure there is a hole at point P2. By
OO¢ d cos r nd
Dt = = = Huygen’s principle, wave will propagates from the
Vg cn c cos r sources S1 and S2. Each point on the screen will acts as
sin q sources of secondary wavelets.
From Snell's law,n = Wavefront starting from P2 reaches at S3 and S4 which
sin r
will again act as two monochromatic or coherent sources.
sin q Hence, there will be always a regular two slit pattern on
sin r =
n the second screen.
As we know that,
Past Years (2013-2017) NEET/AIPMT
cos r = 1 - sin 2 r ,
so by putting sin r value in that relation. nlD
6. (a) Q y =
So, cos r = 1 - sin r 2 d
\ n1 l1 = n2l2
sin 2 q Þ n1 × 12000 × 10–10 = n2 × 10000 × 10–10
cos r = 1 -
n2 or, n (12000 × 10–10) = (n + 1) (10000 × 10–10)
Þ n=5
Wave Optics 683
(Q l )
Width of central bright fringe (= 2b)
1 = 12000 ´ 10 -10 m; l 2 = 10000 ´ 10-10 m
2lD 2 ´ 600 ´ 10 - 6 ´ 2
= = m
d 1 ´ 10 - 3
= 2.4 × 10– 3 m = 2.4 mm
11. (c) For path difference l, phase difference = 2p rad.
l p
For path difference , phase difference = rad.
4 2
As K = 4I0 so intensity at given point where path
l
difference is
4
nl1D
Hence, ycommon =
d 2 æ pö æ p ö
K¢ = 4I0 cos ç ÷ ç cos = cos 45º÷
è 4ø è ø
( )
4
5 12000 ´ 10-10 ´ 2
= K
-3 = 2I0 =
2 ´ 10
2
(Q d = 2 mm and D = 2m ) 12. (d) Here, distance between two slits,
= 5 × 12 × 10–4 m d = 1mm = 10–3m
= 60 × 10–4 m distance of screen from slits, D = 1 m
= 6 × 10–3m = 6 mm wavelength of monochromatic light used,
l = 500nm = 500 × 10–9m
width of each slit a = ?
2lD
Width of central maxima in single slit pattern =
a
Y
lD
d Fringe width in double slit experiment b =
7. (b) d
10 l D 2 l D
So, required condition =
d a
d 1
Þ a= = ´ 10–3 m = 0.2 mm
Y nlD é Dl ù 5D 5
Angular width, q = = êQ Y=
D dD ë d úû 13. (d) Linear width of central maxima y
l 2D l l
so, q = , v l ¯ q ¯ = D(2q) = 2Dq = \ q=
d a a
[For central maxima n = 1]
Hence, with increase in speed of electrons angular
width of central maximum decreases.
lD
8. (c) Fringe width b = ;
d
q y
d q
From question D¢ = 2D and d ¢ =
2
lD1
\b ' = = 4b D
d1
9. (d) Conditions for diffraction minima are
Path diff. Dx = nl and Phase diff. df = 2np 14. (b) For first minima at P
Path diff. = nl = 2l AP – BP = l
Phase diff. = 2np = 4p (Q n = 2) l
AP – MP =
10. (d) Given: D = 2m; d = 1 mm = 1 × 10– 3 m 2
l = 600 nm = 600 × 10– 6 m
684 PHYSICS
Phase difference,
2p l p
P Df = ´ =
l 4 2
So, resultant intensity at the desired point 'p' is
f p I0
A f I = I0cos2 = I0cos2 4 = 2
2
M f O
2m sin q
18. (b) Resolving power of a microscope =
B l
1
2p l i.e., R µ
So phase difference, f = ´ = p radian l
l 2
R1 l 2
1 or, R = l
15. (d) The ratio of slits width = (given) 2 1
25
Given that the two wavelengths,
I1 25
\ l1 = 4000Å
I2 = 1
l 2 = 6000Å
I A 2 25 A 5
I µ A2 Þ 1 = 12 = or 1 = R1 6000Å 3
I2 A 2 1 A2 1 \ = =
R2 4000Å 2
A max A1 + A 2 5 + 1 6 3 19. (c) According to question
= = = = 8th bright fringe in medium = 5th dark fring in air
A min A1 - A 2 5 - 1 4 2
lD
2
Imax A max æ3ö 9
2 Y8th bright = 8
= 2 =ç ÷ = md
\
Imin A min è 2 ø 4
lD 9 lD
16. (d) For the first minima, Y5th dark = (2 × 5 – 1) =
2d 2 d
hl l 1 9 lD lD
q= Þ sin30° = = Þ =8
a a 2 2 d md
First secondary maxima will be at
16
3l 3 æ 1 ö or, refractive index m = = 1.78
æ 3ö 9
sin q = = ç ÷ Þ q = sin–1 ç ÷
2a 2 è 2 ø è 4ø
17. (d) Let P is a point infront of one slit at which intensity is
to be calculated. From figure,
20. (b)
S1 P
d O B
S2
D According to malus law, I = I0cos2 q
Path difference = S2P – S1P I0
I1 =
æ 1d ö 2 2
= D2 + d 2 - D = D ç1 + ÷-D
è 2 D2 ø I0 I0 1 I0
I2 = cos2 45° = ´ =
2 2 2 4
é d2 ù d2
= D ê1 + - 1ú = I0
ë 2D 2 û 2D I3 = cos2 45°
4
d2 d 5l l I0
Dx = = = = I3 =
2 ´10d 20 20 4 8
Dual Nature of
26 Radiation and Matter
(iii) Photo-electric emission : The emission of electrons when (1) No photoelectrons are emitted, if the frequency of incident
light of suitable frequency illuminates metal surface. light is less than some cut-off frequency (i.e., threshold
PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT (EINSTEIN’S PHOTOELECTRIC frequency) n0. It is inconsistent with the wave theory of
EQUATION light, which predicts that photoelectric effect occurs at any
In 19th century, experiments showed that when light is incident frequency provided intensity of incident light is sufficiently
on certain metallic surfaces, electrons are emitted from the high.
surfaces. This phenomenon is known as the photoelectric effect (2) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is
& emitted electrons are called photoelectrons. The first independent of light intensiy, but increases with increasing
discovery of this phenomenon was made by Hertz. the frequency of incident light.
(3) Electrons are emitted from surface almost instantaneously
C
de Light (less than 10–9 sec after the surface illumination), even at
atho low intensity of incident light(classicaly we assume that the
C
C
Anode A electrons would require some time to absorb the incident
light before they acquire enough kinetic energy to escape
G from metal).
V These above points were explained by Einstein in 1905 by treating
the light as stream of particles.
Taking Max Planck assumptions, Einstein postulated that a beam
of light consists of small packets of energy called photons or
quanta. The energy E of a photon is equal to a constant h times
its frequency n
i.e., hc ...(2)
Battery E = hn =
l
When light strikes the cathode C (metallic surface), photo
where h is a universal constant called Planck’s constant &
electrons are ejected. Electrons are collected at anode A,
constituting a current in the circuit. (Photoelectric effect) numerical value of h = 6.62607 × 10–34 J.s
Fig. shows, when light strikes the cathode C, electrons are emitted When a photon arrives at surface, it is absorbed by an electron.
& they are collected on anode A due to potential difference provided This energy transfer is an All-or-None process, in contrast to
by battery and constitutes the current in the circuit (observed by continuous transfer of energy in classical theory; the electrons
Galvanometer G.) get all photon’s energy or none at all. If this energy is greater than
A plot of photoelecric current versus the potential difference V between the work function (f) of the metal (f is the minimum energy
cathode & anode is shown in fig below. required to remove the electron from metal surface), the electron
may escape from the surface. Greater intensity at a particular
frequency means greater number of photons per second absorbed
& consequently greater number of electrons emitted per second
& so greater current.
1 2
To obtain maximum kinetic energy K max = mvmax
2
for an emitted electron, applying law of conservation of energy.
According to it
1 2
K max = mvmax = hn - f [f = hn0 ]
Photoelectric current versus voltage for two light intensities. 2
At a voltage less than –V0 the current is zero.
K max = h( n - n0 ) ...(3)
It is clear from fig. that photoelectric current increases as we
increase the intensity of light & obtain saturation value at larger or eV0 = Kmax = h( n - n0 ) ...(4)
value of potential difference V between cathode & anode. If V is
negative then, photoelectrons are repelled by negative cathode 1 2 æ1 1 ö
or, mvmax = h(v - v0 ) = hc ç - ÷ = evs
and only those electrons reaches anode, who have energy equal 2 è l l0 ø
to or greater than eV. But if V is equal to V0, called stopping
potential (i.e., cut off. potential), no electrons will reach the anode This is the Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
i.e., Maximum kinetic energy of electron = eV0 where V0 = cut-off potential
or Kmax = eV0 ...(1) nmax = maximum velocity obtained by photoelectrons
–19
where e is charge of electron (e = 1.6 × 10 coulomb). n = frequency of incident light i.e., photon
But some features of photoelectric effect cannot be explained by n0 = cut off frequency or threshold frequency.
classical physics & the wave theory of light.
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 687
n0 is different for different metallic surfaces. For most metals the Keep in Memory
threshold frequency is in ultarviolet region of spectrum.
(Corresponding to l between 200 & 300 nm), but for potassium & 1. Mass spectrograph is an appratus used to determine the
cesium oxides, it is in the visible spectrum (l between 400 & 700 nm). mass or the specific charge (e/m) of positive ions. Examples
are (a) Thomson mass spectrograph (b) Bain bridge mass
Work Function (f) of Some Elements Given in Brackets :
spectrograph (c) Aston mass spectrograph (d) Dempster
Al (4.3eV) Ni (5.1 eV) mass spectrograph etc.
C (5.0 eV) Si (4.8 eV) 2. In photoelectric effect all photoelectrons do not have same
Cu (4.7 eV) Ag (4.3 eV) kinetic energy. Their KE ranges from zero to E max which
Au (5.1eV) Na (2.7 eV) depends on frequency of incident radiation and nature of
cathode.
where 1 eV = 1.602 × 10–19 joule. 3. The photoelectric effect takes place only when photons
Within the framework of photon theory of light (Quantum theory strike bound electrons because for free electrons energy
of light) we can explain above failures of classical physics. and momentum conservations do not hold together.
(1) It is clear from eq. (3) that if energy of photon is less than 4. Cesium is the best photo sensitive material.
the work function of metallic surface, the electrons will never 5. Efficiency of photoemission,
be ejected from the surface regardless of intensity of incident
light. Number of photoelectrons emitted
per unit area per unit time n
(2) Kmax is independent of intensity of incident light, but it h= = e
Number of photons incident np
depends on the frequency of incident light i.e., Kmax µ n per unit area per unit time
(frequency of light). Intensity of emitted electrons I e
(3) Electrons are emitted almost instantaneously consistent with h= =
Intensity of incident radiation I p
particle view of light in which incident energy is concentrated ne I
in small packets (called photons) rather than over a large Therefore, h = = e
np I p
area (as in wave theory).
6. Maximum velocity of emitted electrons
Various Graphs Related to Photoelectric Effect
1. Photocurrent versus intensity of light graph 2h(v - v0 ) 2hc(l 0 - l ) 2evs
vmax = = =
I m mll 0 m
(mA) n > n0
7. Stopping potential
h(v - v0 ) hc(l - l0 )
Vs = =
e ell 0
3. Maximum kinetic energy versus potential graph. Further with the analogy of photon, the frequency of matter waves
is
E ...(2)
n01 for metal 1 n02for metal 2 n=
1 mv2 h
max
2 The dual nature of matter is quite apparent in these two equations
(equations (1) & (2)). i.e., each equation contains both particle
concepts (mv & E) & wave concepts (l & n). It is clear from next
topic that Compton effect confirm the validity of p = h/l for
photons, and the photoelectric effect confirms the validity and
n01 n02 n
E = hn for photons.
688 PHYSICS
de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron accelerated under Explanation of Bohr’s quantum condition :
12.27 (a) According to Bohr’s quantum conditions :
a potential difference V volt is given by l = Å
V h
de-Broglie wave is not an electromagnetic wave but the matter Angular momentum, mvrn = n
2p
wave.
(b) Matter waves associated with the electrons moving in an
Wavelength of matter waves associated with accelerated charged
orbit are stationary waves.
particles :
(c) For the production of stationary waves in the orbit the
If V is the accelerating voltage applied then :
circumference of the orbit should be integral multiple of
(a) For the charged particle :
wavelength of waves associated with the electron,
Energy E = qV ;
h
i.e., 2prn = nl, where l =
2qV 2E mv
Velocity v = =
m m nh
\ mvrn =
2p
Momentum p = 2mE = 2mqV ;
COMPTON EFFECT
h h Further experimental proof for photon concept(i.e., particle nature
Wavelength l = =
2 mqV 2mE of light) was discovered in 1923 by American Physicist, A.H.
Compton. According to which, when a monochromatic beam of
12.27 X-rays (wavelength l0) strikes the electron in a carbon target, two
(b) For electron le = Å types of X-rays are scattered. The first type of scattered wave has
V
same wavelength (l0) as the incoming X-rays, while second type
0.286 has a longer wavelength (l) than incident rays (First type of X-
(c) For proton lp = Å
V rays are called unmodified x-rays, while second type of X-rays are
called modified X-rays.) This change in wavelength i.e. Dl = l –
0.101 l0 is called Compton shift & this effect is called Compton effect”.
(d) For alpha particle la = Å
V y
X-ra E hc/l
0.202 red
(e) For deuteron ld = Å a tte p=h/l
V Incident x-rays Sc
For neutral particles (neutron, atom or molecule) : q
h h E0=hc/l f
(a) If E is the energy of the particle, then, = m Recoiling
p 2mE p0=h/l 0 Carbon target electron
which consists
h of free electron
(b) If T is the temperature, then, l =
3mkT
sinq
DAVISSON-GERMER EXPERIMENT
q
Idea of de-Broglie wave was tested beautifully in 1926 in an cosq
experiment performed by C. Davission (1881-1958) and L.H. Jermer
(1896-1971). They directed a beam of electrons at a crystal and
observed that the electrons scattered in various directions for a
given crystal orientation.
In this experiment the pattern cosf
formed by the electrons f
reflected from the crystal
lattice of aluminium is almost sinf
identical to that produced by Diagram shows compton scattering of an x-rays by free electron in
X-rays. This strongly a carbon target. The scattered x-rays has less energy than the
incident x-rays. The excess energy is taken by recoiling electrons.
suggests that the electrons
have a wavelength l This effect cannot be explained by classical theory (by wave nature
associated with them and that the Bragg condition for X-ray of light). According to classical model, when X-rays of frequency
diffraction holds true for electron also : n0 is incident on the material containing electrons, then electrons
Bragg’s equation do oscillate & reradiate electromagnetic waves of same frequency
nl = D sin q or nl = 2d sin f. n0 . Hence scattered X-rays has same frequency n0 & same
wavelength as that of incident X-rays.
Diffraction maximum of electrons accelerated with 54 volt is
Compton treated this processes as a collision between a photon
obtained at q = 50º for the Nickel crystal.
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 689
& an electron. In this treatment, the photon is assumed as a particle suddenly stopped on a metal of high atomic number.
of energy Properties of X-rays
E = hn0 = hc/l0 ...(1) (i) They are not deflected by electric or magnetic field.
Further, the rest mass of photon is zero (because photon travels (ii) They travel with the speed of light.
with the speed of light) hence the momentum of photon can be (iii) There is no charge on X-rays.
written as (iv) X-rays show both particle and wave nature.
E hc h (v) They are invisible.
p= = = ...(2)
c cl l Continuous and Characteristic X-rays
To dervie the compton shift. Dl, we apply both conservation of Experimental observation and studies of spectra of X-rays reveal
energy & momentum. that X-rays are of two types and so are their respective spectras.
Conservation of energy : Characteristic X-rays and Continuous X-rays.
Characteristic X-rays: The spectra of this group consists of
hc hc
= + Ke ...(3) several radiations with specific sharp wavelengths and frequency
l0 l similar to the spectrum (line) of atoms like hydrogen. The
Where hc/l is energy of scattered X-rays, Ke is kinetic energy of wavelengths of this group show characteristic discrete radiations
recoling electron & hc/l0 is the energy of incoming X-rays. Since emitted by the atoms of the target material. The characteristic
the electron may travel with the speed of light, so we must use X-rays spectra helps us to identify the element of target material.
relativistic expression of Ke in equation (3), and we obtain When the atoms of the target material are bombard with high
energy electrons (or hard X-rays), which posses enough energy
hc hc
= + g mc 2 - mc 2 ...(4) to penetrate into the atom, knock out the electron of inner shell
l0 l (say K shell, n = 1). When an electron is missing in the ‘K’ shell, an
where m is rest mass of electron and mc2 is the rest mass energy electron from next upper shell makes a quantum jump to fill the
of the electron vacancy in ‘K’ shell. In the transition process the electron radiates
1 energy whose frequency lies in the X-rays region. The frequency
where g = of emitted radiation (i.e. of ph oton ) is given by
1 - v2 / c 2
Conservation of momentum : æ 1 1ö
v = RZe2 ç 2 - 2 ÷ ; where R is constant and Z is effective
h h è n1 n2 ø e
= cos q + gmv cos f x - component ...(5)
l0 l atomic number. Generally Ze is taken to be equal to Z – s, where Z
is proton number or atomic number of the element and s is called
h the screening constant. Due to the presence of the other electrons.
0= sin q - gmvsin f y - component ...(6)
l The charge of the nucleus as seen by the electron will be different
where pe = gmv is the relativistic expression for momentum of in different shells.
recoiling electron.
By eliminating v & f from equation (4) to (6), we obtain ek
hv
h (x-ray)
Dl = l - l 0 = (1 - cos q) ...(7)
mc
K L
K L
or Dl = 0.0243(1 - cos q)Å ...(8)
ei
It is clear from expression (7) that compton shift Dl depends on
scattering angle q & not on the wavelength. ei
50 kV
Relative intensity
n=a 40 kV
Na
n=4 N 30 kV
M a Mb
n=3 M 20 kV
La M -series
L b Lg
0 0.02 0.04 0.06 0.08 0.10
n=2 L Wavelength (nm)
L-series
Wavelength of X-Rays (Daume Hunt Law)
Ka
Kb
Kg K (i) When an electron is accelerated through a potential
d
difference V then
n=1 K 1
the energy accquired by electron = eV = mv 2 .
K-series 2
(ii) When these high energy electrons fall on target T of high
atomic number, then X-rays are produced, whose wavelength
and so on. is given by
Continuous X-rays : In addition to characteristic X-rays tubes hc hc
emit a continuous spectrum also. The characteristic line spectra is \ eV = hn = ; l= .
l eV
superimposed on a continuous X-rays spectra of varying
intensities. The wavelength of the continuous X-rays spectra are hc
(iii) The energy of X-rays of wavelength l is E = hn =
independent of material. One important feature of continuous X- l
rays is that they end abruptly at a certain lower wavelength for a (iv) The shortest wavelength of X-rays emitted is
given voltage. If an electron beam of energy eV (electron volts) is hc 1240 1
l= = nm i.e. l µ .
incident on the target material; the electrons are suddenly stopped. eV V V
If the whole of the energy is converted to continuous radiation, It is called Daume Hunt law.
then lmin (corresponding to energy maximum) = hc/Ve where V is Types of X-Rays
the voltage applied. 1 . Hard X- rays : The X-rays of high frequency or low
X-ray photon wavelength are said to be hard X-rays. They have higher
hv penetrating power.
2 . Soft X-rays : The X-rays of longer wavelength are called
K K¢ soft X-rays.
Target atom Moseley’s Law
Moseley used different elements as target in the X-ray tube. He
The classical theory of electromagnetism states that the suddenly
found that Ka radiation of different elements were different
accelerated or decelerated electrons emit radiations of
electromagnetic nature called as bremsstrahlung (braking Mathematically, n = a( Z - b)
radiation) and wavelength of such radiation is continuous because where a and b depend on the particular line of the radiation
the loss in energy is statistical. At the peak, the probability of 3
maximum number of electrons producing radiation. For Ka, a = Rc and b = 1
4
The wavelength of X-rays emitted is minimum corresponding to
where R = Rydberg constant and c = speed of light
the electron which hits the target with maximum speed. This In general the wavelength of K - lines are given as
electron is completely stopped and will emit the photon of highest
1 é 1 ù
energy. = R ( Z - 1) 2 ê1 - ú where n = 2, 3, .....
As the electrons lose energy by collision, longer wavelengths are l ë n 2
û
produced the shape of the curve is statistical. Absorption of X-rays
· X-rays are absorbed by the materials according to the
Ka
relation I = I0 e–mx, where m is absorption coefficient and x
is the thickness of the mateiral. Here I is the intensity after
Kb penetrating the material through distance x and I0 is the
La
Intensity
· Absorption coefficient depends on the nature of material 9. de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of K.E., E k is given by
and wavelength of X-rays i.e. m = cZ4 l3.
h
It means that (a) m µ z4 (b) m µ l3 (c) m µ n–3. l= .
Fluorescence : Certain substances (like quinine sulphate, 2mE k
fluoricine, barium platinocyanide, uranium oxide etc.), when
10. de-Broglie wavelength for a charged particle with charge q
illuminated with light of high frequency (ultraviolet, violet, etc.)
and accelerated through a potental difference V is given by
emit light of lower frequency. The phenomenon is called
fluorescence. h
l= .
· When quinine sulphate is illuminated with ultraviolet or 2mqV
violet light it gives out blue light. The fluroescence of barium
sulphate as well as uranium oxide gives out green light when 11. de-Broglie wavelength of a material particle at temperature
illuminated with ultraviolet or violet light. T is given by
· The house hold tubes are painted from inside with
h
magnesium tungstate or zinc-beryllium silicate. They are l= . , where k is Boltzmann’s constant.
fluorescent materials. The ultraviolet light generated inside 2mkT
the tube falls on the walls, where magnesium tungstate gives Application of X-rays
blue light and zinc beryllium silicate gives yellow orange
light. The mixture of the two produces white light. If the Following are some important and useful applications of X-rays.
inner side of the tube is painted with cadmium borate it 1. Scientific applications: The diffraction of X-rays at crystals
gives fluorescence of pink light and when painted with zinc opened new dimension to X-rays crystallography. Various
silicate, it gives fluorescence of green light. diffraction patterns are used to determine internal structure
· The fluorescence occurs as long as the material is of crystals. The spacing and dispositions of atoms of a crystal
illuminated. can be precisely determined by using Bragg’s law :
Phosphorescence : Fluorescent materials emit light only so long nl = 2d sin q.
as light is incident on them. There are certain susbstances which 2. Industrial applications: Since X-rays can penetrate through
continue emitting light for some time after the light incident on various materials, they are used in industry to detect defects
them is stopped. This phenomenon is called phosphorescence.
in metallic structures in big machines, railway tracks and
For example, if we make blue light incident on a zinc-sulphide
bridges. X-rays are used to analyse the composition of alloys
(ZnS) screen, then it produces phosphorescence of green colour.
Calcium sulpide and barium sulphide, after absorbing sunlight, and pearls.
produce blue phosphorescence for some time. Time of 3. In radio therapy: X-rays can cause damage to the tissues of
phosphorescence is different for different materials. body (cells are ionized and molecules are broken). So X-rays
damages the malignant growths like cancer and tumors which
Keep in Memory
are dangerous to life, when is used in proper and controlled
1. The stopping potential (and hence the maximum kinetic intensities.
energy of emitted electrons) is independent of the intensity 4. In medicine and surgery: X-rays are absorbed more in heavy
of light but that the saturation current (and hence the number elements than the lighter ones. Since bones (containing
of emitted photoelectrons) is proportional to the intensity. calcium and phosphorus) absorb more X-rays than the
2. Photoelctric effect doesn't take place below the threshold surrounding tissues (containing light elements like H , C , O ),
frequency for the photometal used.
their shadow is casted on the photographic plate. So the
3. In compton effect, the change in wavelength is independent
cracks or fracture in bones can be easily located. Similarly
of incident photon as well as of the nature of the scatterer,
but depends only on the angle of scattering (q). intestine and digestive system abnormalities are also detected
by X-rays.
h Example 1.
4. The quantity (= 0.02426Å) is called Compton
mc An electron is moving with velocity 107 m/s on a circular
wavelength. path of radius 0.57 cm in a magnetic field of 10–2 Wb/m2.
5. The maximum wavelength change possible in compton Find the value of e/m for electron.
effect is 0.05Å. Solution :
6. Compton effect can't be observed for visible light rays. e v
7. In compton effect, the direction of recoil electron is given e v B = ( mv 2 / r ) or =
m Br
lsinq e 107
by tan f = . \ = = 1.76 × 1011 coulomb/kg.
l '- l cos q m 10 - 2 ´ 0.0057
8. The kinetic energy of recoil electron is given by
Example 2.
é x(1 - cos q ) ù hn Find the ratio of specific charge e/m of a proton to that of
T = hn ê ú , where x =
ë 1 + x(1 - cos q ) û mc 2 an a particle.
692 PHYSICS
Solution : (d) The K.E. of emitted electrons does not depend upon
æ e ö the intensity of light. Hence if the intensity of incident
æeö æeö
=ç ÷ 2e
ç ÷
÷ and çè m ÷ø = 4 m
light be doubled, the energy will remain unchanged.
è m ø proton çè m p ø a p Example 5.
(e / m) proton (e / m p ) 2 What will be the ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength of
\ = = or 2 : 1 proton and a particle of same energy?
(e / m ) a (2 e / 4 m p ) 1
Solution :
Example 3.
h h
Determine the ratio of momentum of an electron and an l= =
alpha particle which are accelerated from rest by a mv 2mE
potential difference of 100 V. 1
Solution : \ E= mv2 or 2 m E = m2v2 or mv = 2mE
2
1 lp æm ö
Q m v 2 = e V or v = (2 e V / m)1 / 2 4
2 so, = ç a ÷= = 2 or l p : l a = 2 : 1
la ç mp ÷ 1
\ p = m v = (2 m e V)1 / 2 è ø
Methods of electron
emission
1
Photon Tiny packets mv 2max = h(v - v0 ) = hv - hv0
of light energy 2
Work function æ1 1 ö
Minimum energy required Electron emission Energy of a photon = hc ç - ÷
to just escape electron from Emission of electrons E = hn è l l0 ø
metal surface f0 = hv0 from the surface of metal
De-Broglie wavelength
h h h Effect of potential on
l= = = Effect of intensity of light
p mv 2ev m on photo current for a fixed photoelectric current. For a
DUAL NATURE OF frequency of incident fixed frequency and intensity
RADIATION AND radiation. Photoelectric of incident light photo electric
Wave nature of current µintensity of current increases with increase
MATTE R
particles De-Broglie incident light in the potential
hypothesis Light has dual nature
wave and particle like
Davisson and Germer nature
experiment Confirms
the wave nature
of electrons Stopping potential
Photocell Stopping potential Photoelectric current
Uses of photocell varies linearly with becomes zero at a particular
Converts a change in
Count the persons the frequency of value of negative potential
intensity of illumination
entering an auditorium incident radiation for
into a change in photo current v0called stopping potential
burglar alarm, in a given photosensitive
It is a technological application or cut-off potential
motion picture and material
of photoelectric effect.
television
PHYSICS
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 695
1. In which of the following, emission of electrons does not 12. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is E k = hn - f . In this
take place?
(a) Thermionic emission (b) X-rays emission equation Ek refers to
(c) Photoelectric emission (d) Secondary emission (a) kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons
2. In Davison-Germer experiment, an electron beam is incident (b) mean kinetic energy of emitted electrons
on a crystal. The reflected beam consists of (c) maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons
(a) photons (b) protons (d) minimum kinetic energy of emitted electrons
(c) x-rays (d) electrons 13. If E1, E2, E3 are the respective kinetic energies of an electron,
3. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving in the nth
an alpha-particle and a proton, each having the same
Bohr orbit of radius r is given by
de-Broglie wavelength, then
2 pr nr nr (a) E1 > E3 > E2 (b) E2 > E3 > E1
(a) (b) npr (c) (d)
n 2p p (c) E1 > E2 > E3 (d) E1 = E2 = E3
4. The kinetic energy of electron (in electron volt) moving with 14. When the speed of electrons increase, then the value of its
a velocity of 4 × 106 m/s will be
specific charge
(a) 60 eV (b) 50 eV (c) 30 eV (d) 45.5 eV
5. Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon in which (a) increases
(a) photons come out of a metal when it is hit by a beam of (b) decreases
electrons. (c) ramains unchanged
(b) photons come out of the nucleus of an atom under the (d) increases upto some velocity and then begins to
action of an electric field. decrease
(c) electrons come out of a metal with a constant velocity 15. In an electron gun the control grid is given a negative
which depends on the frequency and intensity of potential relative to cathode in order to
incident light wave.
(a) decelerate electrons
(d) electons come out of a metal with different velocities
not greater than a certain value which depends only (b) repel electrons and thus to control the number of
on the frequency of the incident light wave and not on electrons passing through it
its intensity. (c) to select electrons of same velocity and to converge
6. The momentum of a photon of wavelength l is them along the axis.
(a) hl (b) h/l (c) l/h (d) h/cl (d) to decrease the kinetic energy of electrons
7. A photo sensitive metal is not emitting photo-electrons when 16. X-rays are produced in X-ray tube operating at a given
irradiated. It will do so when threshold is crossed. To cross accelerating voltage. The wavelength of the continuous
the threshold we need to increase X-rays has values from
(a) intensity (b) frequency
(c) wavelength (d) None of these (a) 0 to ¥
8. A photoelectric cell is a device which (b) lmin to ¥, where lmin > 0
(a) converts light into electricity (c) 0 to lmax, where lmax < ¥
(b) converts electricity into light (d) lmin to lmax, where 0 < lmin < lmax < ¥
(c) stores light 17. As intensity of incident light increases
(d) stores electricity (a) photoelectric current increase
9. A particle with rest mass m0 is moving with speed of light c. (b) K.E. of emitted photoelectron increases
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with it will be (c) photoelectric current decreases
(a) µ (b) zero (c) m0 c/h (d) hn/m0c (d) K.E. of emitted photoelectrons decreases
10. Einstein’s work on photoelectric effect provided support
18. Which of the following shows par.ticle nature of light?
for the equation
(a) E = hn (b) E = mc2 (a) Refraction (b) Interference
(c) Polarization (d) Photoelectric effect
- Rhc 1
(c) E = (d) K.E. = mv 2 19. Which of the following when falls on a metal will emit
2 2
n photoelectrons ?
11. The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light of (a) UV radiations (b) Infrared radiation
wavelength l incident on the surface of a metal of work-
(c ) Radio waves (d) Microwaves
function f is
20. Light of frequency v falls on a material of threshold
2( hc + lf ) 2( hc + lf ) frequency v0. Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron
(a) (b)
ml ml is proportional to
2( hc - lf ) 2( hl - f) (a) v–v0 (b) v
(c) (d)
ml m (c) v – v0 (d) v 0
696 PHYSICS
21. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths of proton and 24. The energy of a photon of wavelength l is
a -particle having same kinetic energy is hc
(a) (a) hc l (b)
2 : 1 (b) 2 2 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 l
22. White X-rays are called white due to the fact that l lh
(a) they are electromagnetic radiations having nature (c) (d)
hc c
same as that of white light.
25. In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of
(b) they are produced most abundantly in X ray tubes. electrons emitted from the electron gun can be increased by
(c) they have a continuous wavelength range.
(d) they can be converted to visible light using coated (a) increasing the potential difference between the anode
screens and photographic plates are affected by and filament
them just like light. (b) increasing the filament current
23. In case of electrons and photons having the same
wavelength. What is same for them? (c) decreasing the filament current
(a) Energy (b) Velocity (d) decreasing the potential difference between the anode
(c) Momentum (d) Angular momentum and filament
1. In a photoelectric experiment the stopping potential for the 8. If the energy of a photon is 10 eV, then its momentum is
incident light of wavelength 4000Å is 2 volt. If the wavelength (a) 5.33 × 10–23 kg m/s (b) 5.33 × 10–25 kg m/s
be changed to 3000 Å, the stopping potential will be –29
(c) 5.33 × 10 kg m/s (d) 5.33 × 10–27 kg m/s
(a) 2 V (b) zero 9. The photoelectric threshold of Tungsten is 2300Å. The energy
(c) less than 2 V (d) more than 2 V of the electrons ejected from the surface by ultraviolet light
2. A proton and a-particle are accelerated through the same of wavelength 1800Å is
potential difference. The ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength (a) 0.15 eV (b) 1.5 eV (c) 15 eV (d) 150 eV
will be 10. The maximum kinetic energy (Emax) of photoelectrons
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 2 2 : 1 emitted in a photoelectric cell varies with frequency (n) as
shown in the graph. The slope of the graph is equal to
3. An electron is accelerated by a p.d. of 1000 V. Its velocity
will be (a) charge of the electron E max
(a) 3.78 × 107 m/s (b) 1.89 × 107 m/s
(c) 5.67 × 107 m/s (d) 0.95 × 107 m/s e
(b) of the electron
4. The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is m
4.125 eV. The cut-off wavelength for this surface is (c) work function of the emitter
(a) 4125 Å (b) 3000 Å (c) 6000 Å (d) 2062 Å n n
(d) Plank’s constant 0
5. The energy of a photon of green light of wavelength 5000Å
11. Ultraviolet radiation of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium surface
is
(workfunction 4.2 eV). The kinetic energy in joule of the
(a) 3.459 × 10–19 joule (b) 3.973 × 10–19 joule faster electron emitted is approximately
(c) 4.132 × 10–19 joule (d) 8453 × 10–19 joule (a) 3 × 10–21 (b) 3 × 10–19
6. 4eV is the energy of incident photon and the work function (c) 3 × 10 –17 (d) 3 × 10–15
is 2eV. The stopping potential will be 12. A light having wavelength 300 nm fall on a metal surface.
(a) 2V (b) 4V (c ) 6 V (d) 2 2 V The work function of metal is 2.54 eV, what is stopping
potential ?
3
7. The velocity of a body of rest mass m o is c (where c is (a) 2.3 V (b) 2.59 V (c) 1.59 V (d) 1.29 V
2
the velocity of light in vacuum). The mass of this body is: 13. A and B are two metals with threshold frequencies
1.8 × 1014 Hz and 2.2 × 1014 Hz. Two identical photons of
æ 3ö æ1ö energy 0.825 eV each are incident on them. Then
(a) ç ÷m (b) ç ÷m o
ç 2 ÷ o è 2ø photoelectrons are emitted in (Take h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
è ø
(a) B alone (b) A alone
(c) 3m o (d) 2m0 (c) neither A nor B (d) both A and B.
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 697
14. The de-Broglie wavelength of a proton (mass = 1.6 × 23. In a photo-emissive cell with exciting wavelength l, the
10–27 kg) accelerated through a potential difference of 1 kV fastest electron has speed V. If the exciting wavelength is
is changed to 3l/4, the speed of the fastest emitted electron
(a) 600 A (b) 0.9 × 10–12m will be :
(c) 7 Å (d) 0.9 nm. (a) n (¾)1 / 2 (b) v(4 / 3)1 / 2
15. An ionisation chamber, with parallel conducting plates as
anode and cathodes has singly charged positive ions per (c) less the v(4 / 3)1 / 2 (d) greater than v(4 / 3)1 / 2
cm3. The electrons are moving toward the anode with 24. The momentum of photon whose frequency f is
velocity 0.4 m/s. The current density from anode to cathode
is X104 m A/m2. The velocity of positive ions moving hf hc h c
(a) (b) (c ) (d)
towards cathode is c f f hf
(a) 0.1 m/s (b) 0.4 m/s (c) zero (d) 1.6 m/s 25. A small photocell is placed at a distance of 4 m from a
16. A parallel beam of light is incident normally on a plane surface photosensitive surface. When light falls on the surface the
absorbing 40% of the light and reflecting the rest. If the current is 5 mA. If the distance of cell is decreased to 1 m,
incident beam carries 60 watt of power, the force exerted by it on the current will become
the surface is æ 5ö
(a) 3.2 × 10–8 N (b) 3.2 × 10–7 N (a) 1.25 mA (b) ç ÷ mA
–7 è 16 ø
(c) 5.12 × 10 N (d) 5.12 × 10–8 N
17. Radiations of two photon’s energy, twice and ten times the (c) 20 mA (d) 80 mA
work function of metal are incident on the metal surface 26. If 5% of the energy supplied to a bulb is radiated as visible
successsively. The ratio of maximum velocities of light, the number of visible quanta emitted per second by a
photoelectrons emitted in two cases is 100 W bulb, assuming the wavelength of visible light to be
5.6 × 10–5 cm, is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1
(a) 1.4 × 1019 (b) 1.4 × 1020
18. A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1 m 19
(c) 2 × 10 (d) 2 × 1020
away. When the same source of light is placed 2 m away, the
27. A material particle with a rest mass m0 is moving with speed
number of electrons emitted by photocathode are reduced by
of light c. The de-Broglie wavelength associated is given
a factor of
by
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/16 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4
19. In a photoelectric effect measurement, the stopping potential h m0c
(a) (b) (c) zero (d) ¥
for a given metal is found to be V0 volt when radiation of m0c h
wavelength l0 is used. If radiation of wavelength 2 l0 is 28. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation
used with the same metal then the stopping potential (in of maximum kinetic energy (EK) of the emitted electrons
volt) will be with frequency u in photoelectric effect correctly ?
V0
(a) (b) 2 V0 EK EK
2
hc hc
(c) V0 + (d) V0 -
2el 0 2el 0 (a) (b)
20. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest gets u u
accelerated by a constant electric field E. The rate of change
of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time t ignoring
relativistic effects is EK EK
-h -eht - mh -h
(a) (b) (c) (d)
e Et 2
E e Et 2 eE
(c) (d)
21. The wavelength of Ka-line characteristic X-rays emitted by u u
an element is 0.32 Å. The wavelength of Kb-line emitted by u0
the same element will be
29. In a photoelectric effect experiment, for radiation with
(a) 0.32 Å (b) 0.39 Å (c) 0.49 Å (d) 0.27 Å frequency u0 with hu0 = 8eV, electrons are emitted with
22. The X-rays of wavelength 0.5 Å are scattered by a target. energy 2 eV. What is the energy of the electrons emitted for
What will be the energy of incident X-rays, if these are
incoming radiation of frequency 1.25 u0 ?
scattered at an angle of 72º ?
(a) 1 eV (b) 3.25 eV
(a) 12.41 keV (b) 6.2 keV
(c) 18.6 keV (d) 24.82 keV (c) 4 eV (d) 9.25 eV.
698 PHYSICS
30. Two insulating plates are both uniformly charged in 38. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron at 927°C is l.
such a way that the potential difference between them is What will be its wavelength at 27 °C ?
V2 – V1 = 20 V. (i.e., plate 2 is at a higher potential). The l
plates are separated by d = 0.1 m and can be treated as (a) (b) l (c) 2 l (d) 4 l
2
infinitely large. An electron is released from rest on the inner 39. The maximum distance between interatomic lattice planes is
surface of plate 1. What is its speed when it hits plate 2? 15 Å. The maximum wavelength of X-rays which are
(e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, me = 9.11 × 10–31 kg) diffracted by this crystal will be
(a) 15 Å (b) 20 Å (c) 30 Å (d) 45 Å
Y 40. A monochromatic source of light operating at 200 W emits
4 × 1020 photons per second. Find the wavelength of light.
0.1 m (a) 400 mm (b) 200 nm
X (c) 4 × 10–10 Å (d) None of these
41. An X-ray tube is operated at 15 kV. Calculate the upper limit
of the speed of the electrons striking the target.
1 2 (a) 7.26 × 107 m/s (b) 7.62 × 107 m/s
(a) 2.65 × 106 m/s (b) 7.02 × 1012 m/s (c) 7.62 × 107 cm/s (d) 7.26 × 109 m/s
(c) 1.87 × 106 m/s (d) 32 × 10–19 m/s 42. All electrons ejected from a surface by incident light of
wavelength 200nm can be stopped before travelling 1m in
31. A steel ball of mass m is moving with a kinetic energy K. The
the direction of uniform electric field of 4N/C. The work
de-Broglie wavelength associated with the ball is
function of the surface is
h h (a) 4 eV (b) 6.2 eV (c) 2 eV (d) 2.2 eV
(a) (b) 43. The stopping potential (V0) versus frequency (v) plot of a
2mK 2mK
substance is shown in figure, the threshold wavelength is
h
(c) (d) meaningless V0
2mK
2
32. If the X-ray tube is working at 20 kV then the minimum
wavelength of X-rays will be 1
(a) 0.31 Å (b) 0.62 Å (c) 0.93 Å (d) 0.47 Å
33. In an electron gun, the potential difference between the
filament and plate is 3000 V. What will be the velocity of 4 5 6 7 8
v × 1014 Hz
electron emitting from the gun?
(a) 3 × 108 m/s (b) 3.18 × 107 m/s (a) 5 × 1014m
7
(c) 3.52 × 10 m/s (d) 3.26 × 107 m/s (b) 6000 Å
34. Which metal will be suitable for a photoelectric cell using (c) 5000 Å
light of wavelength 4000Å. The work functions of sodium (d) Cannot be estimated from given data
44. A photon of 1.7 × 10–13 joule is absorbed by a material
and copper are respectively 2.0 eV and 4.0 eV.
under special circumstances. The correct statement is
(a) Sodium (b) Copper (a) Electrons of the atom of absorbed material will go the
(c) Both (d) None of these higher energy states
35. What is the energy of ka X-ray photon of copper (Z = 29) ? (b) Electron and positron pair will be created
(a) 7.99 keV(b) 8.29 keV (c) 8.25 keV (d) 7.19 keV (c) Only positron will be produced
36. When X-rays of wavelength 0.5 Å would be transmitted by (d) Photoelectric effect will occur and electron will be
produced
an aluminium tube of thickness 7 mm, its intensity remains
45. Light from a hydrogen discharge tube is incident on
one-fourth. The attenuation coefficient of aluminium for
the cathode of a photoelectric cell, the work function of
these X-rays is the cathode surface is 4.2 eV. In order to reduce the
(a) 0.188 mm–1 (b) 0.189 mm–1 photocurrent to zero the voltage of the anode relative to the
(c) 0.198 mm –1 (d) None of these cathode must be made
37. An X-ray tube with Cu target is operated at 25 kV. The (a) – 4.2 V (b) – 9.4 V
glancing angle for a NaCl. Crystal for the Cu ka line is 15.8°. (c) – 17.8 V (d) + 9.4 V
Find the wavelength of this line. 46. The glancing angle in a X-ray diffraction is 30º and the
(d for NaCl = 2.82 Å, h = 6.62 × 10–27 erg-sec) wavelength of X-rays used is 20 nm. The interplanar spacing
(a) 3.06 Å (b) 1.53 Å of the crystal dffracting these X-rays will be
(c) 0.75 Å (d) None of these (a) 40 nm (b) 20 nm (c) 15 nm (d) 10 nm
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 699
47. The frequency and work function of an incident photon are 57. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength
v and f0. If v0 is the threshold frequency then necessary 0.6 µm. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting
condition for the emission of photoelectron is electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow
light it emits per second is
v0 (a) 1.5 × 1020 (b) 6 × 1018
(a) v < v0 (b) v=
2 (c) 62 × 1020 (d) 3 × 1019
(c) v ³ v0 (d) None of these 58. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on
48. The work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two photons, hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state
each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron of aluminium, then irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential
emission of electrons is measured to be 3.57 V. The threshold frequency of the
(a) will be possible materials is
(b) will not be possible (a) 4 × 1015 Hz (b) 5 × 1015 Hz
(c) Data is incomplete (c) 1.6 × 1015 Hz (d) 2.5 × 1015 Hz
(d) Depends upon the density of the surface 59. The magnitude of the de-Broglie wavelength (l) of electron
(e), proton (p), neutron (n) and a-particle (a) all having the
49. For intensity I of a light of wavelenght 5000Å the
same energy of 1 MeV, in the increasing order will follow the
photoelectron saturation current is 0.40 µA and stopping
sequence
potential is 1.36 V, the work function of metal is
(a) le, lp, ln, la (b) le, ln, lp, la
(a) 2.47 eV (b) 1.36 eV
(c) la, ln, lp, le (d) lp, le, la, ln
(c) 1.10 eV (d) 0.43 eV
60. For a given photosensitive material and frequency (>
50. A source S1 is producing, 1015 photons per second of threshold frequency) of incident radiation, the photoelectric
wavelength 5000 Å. Another source S2 is producing current varies with the intensity of incident light as
1.02×1015 photons per second of wavelength 5100Å Then,
(power of S2) to the (power of S1) is equal to : Current Current
(a) 1.00 (b) 1.02 (c) 1.04 (d) 0.98
51. The potential difference that must be applied to stop the
fastest photoelectrons emitted by a nickel surface, having
work function 5.01 eV, when ultraviolet light of 200 nm falls (a) (b)
on it, must be
Intensity Intensity
(a) 2.4 V (b) – 1.2 V (c) – 2.4 V (d) 1.2 V
52. Photoelectric emmision occurs only when the incident light
has more than a certain minimum Current
Current
(a) power (b) wavelength
(c) intensity (d) frequency
53. In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work (c) (d)
function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of most energetic
electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is Intensity
(a) 1.8 V (b) 1.2 V (c) 0.5 V (d) 2.3 V Intensity
54. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal is 61. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The
3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of frequency 8.2 × 1014 Hz is incident wavelength l of the light falling on the cathode is gradually
changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as
on this metal, the cut-off voltage for the photoelectric
follows
emission is nearly
(a) 2 V (b) 3 V (c) 5 V (d) 1 V I I
55. If the momentum of electron is changed by P, then the de
Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.5%.
The initial momentum of electron will be (a) (b)
P O l O l
(a) 200 P (b) 400 P (c) (d) 100 P
200
56. Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV, I I
successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic surface of
work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of
(c) (d)
the emitted electrons is
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 5 O l O l
700 PHYSICS
67. A radio transmitter operates at a freqency 880 kHz and a 73. Statement-1 : The de-Broglie wavelength of a molecule (in a
power of 10 kW. The number of photons emitted per second sample of ideal gas) varies inversely as the square root of
is absolute temperature.
(a) 1.72 × 1031 (b) 1.327 × 1025 Statement-2 : The rms velocity of a molecule (in a sample of
(c) 1.327 × 1037 (d) 1.327 × 1045 ideal gas) depends on temperature.
68. The momentum of a photon of an electromagnetic radiation 74. Statement-1 : Photoelectric saturation current increases
is 3.3 × 10–29 kgms–1. What is the frequency of the associated with the increase in frequency of incident light.
waves ?
Statement-2 : Energy of incident photons increases with
[h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js; c = 3 × 108 ms–1) increase in frequency and as a result photoelectric current
(a) 1.5 × 1013 Hz (b) 7.5 × 1012 Hz increases.
(c) 6.0 × 103 Hz (d) 3.0 × 103 Hz 75. Statement-1 : Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its work
function is small.
e2
69. The quantity has a value Statement-2 : Work function = hf0 where f0 is the threshold
2h e 0 c
frequency.
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 701
r
Exemplar Questions 6. An electron is moving with an initial velocity v = v0 i and
r
1. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de-Broglie is in a magnetic field B = B0 j . Then, it's de-Broglie
wavelength of the particle as a function of height is wavelength
proportional to (a) remains constant
(a) H (b) H1/2 (b) increases with time
(c) H0 (d) H–1/2 (c) decreases with me
2. The wavelength of a photon needed to remove a proton (d) increases and decreases periodically
from a nucleus which is bound to the nuclear with 1 MeV
7. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity v = v0 i (v0 > 0) is
energy is nearly
(a) 1.2 nm (b) 1.2 × 10–3 nm in an electric field E = – E0 î (E0 = constant > 0). It's
de-Broglie wavelength at time t is given by
(c) 1.2 × 10–6 nm (d) 1.2 × 10 nm
3. Consider a beam of electrons (each electron with energy E0) l0 æ eE 0 t ö
(a)
æ eE0 t ö
(b) ç 1 + mv ÷
incident on a metal surface kept in an evacuated chamber. è 0 ø
ç1 + m v ÷
Then, è 0ø
(a) no electrons will be emitted as only photons can emit (c) l0 (d) l0t
electrons 8. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity v = v0ˆi is in
(b) electrons can be emitted but all with an energy, E0 an electric field E = E ˆj . If l = h /mv, it's de-Broglie
0 0
(c) electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a wavelnegth at time t is given by
maximum of E0 – f (f is the work function)
e 2 E 20 t 2
(d) electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a (a) l0 (b) l0 1 +
maximum of E0 m 2 v02
4. Consider figure given below. Suppose the voltage applied l0 l0
to A is increased. The diffracted beam will have the maximum e2 E 20 t 2 æ e 2 E 02 t 2 ö
at value of q that (c) 1+ (d) ç1 + 2 2 ÷
m 2 v02 ç m v0 ÷
(a) will be larger than the earlier value è ø
(b) will be the same as the earlier value NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions
(c) will be less than the earlier value 9. For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cut-off
(d) will depend on the target frequency is n. If radiation of frequency 2n impinges on the
– + metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted
HT
electron will be (m is the electron mass) [2013]
(a) hn / m (b) 2 hn / m
A Electron beam
Nickel
target
(c) 2 hn / m (d) hn / ( 2m )
10. The wavelength le of an electron and lp of a photon are of
Electron
LT gun same energy E are related by [2013]
Diffracted
Movable electron
Vaccum
chamber (a) l p µ l e (b) l p µ l e
collector beam
1
To galvanometer
(c) lp µ (d) l p µ l 2e
5. A proton, a neutron, an electron and an a-particle have le
same energy. Then, their de-Broglie wavelengths compare 11. A source of light is placed at a distance of 50 cm from a
as photocell and the stopping potential is found to be V0. If
(a) lp = ln > le > la the distance between the light source and photocell is made
(b) la < lp = ln > le 25 cm, the new stopping potential will be
(a) 2V0 (b) V0/2 [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) le < lp = ln > la
(d) le = lp = ln = la (c) V0 (d) 4V0
702 PHYSICS
12. The de-Broglie wavelength of neutron in thermal equilibrium 18. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by
at temperature T is [NEET Kar. 2013]
l
30.8 3.08 monochromatic light of wavelength l and . If the maximum
Å Å 2
(a) (b)
T T kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second
case is 3 times that in the first case, the work function of the
0.308 0.0308
(c) Å (d) Å surface of the material is :
T T (h = Planck's constant, c = speed of light) [2015 RS]
13. When the energy of the incident radiation is incredased by hc 2hc
20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from (a) (b)
l l
a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work
function of the metal is : [2014] hc hc
(c) (d)
(a) 0.65 eV (b) 1.0 eV 3l 2l
(c) 1.3 eV (d) 1.5 eV 19. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E.
14. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them
its previous value, the percentage change in the de-Broglie is : [2016]
wavelength of the particle is : [2014] 1 1
(a) 25 (b) 75 1 æ E ö2
(b) æç
E ö2
(a)
(c) 60 (d) 50 ç ÷
c è 2m ø è 2m ÷ø
15. Which of the following figures represents the variation of
particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie 1
1 1 æ 2m ö 2
wavelength? [2015] (c) (d)
c(2mE) 2 ç ÷
p xc è E ø
p
20. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of
wavelength l, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface
(a) (b) is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2l, the stopping
V
l potential is . The threshold wavelength for the metallic
l 4
p p surface is : [2016]
(a) 4l (b) 5l
(c) (d) 5
(c) l (d) 3l
2
21. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal
l l
equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (Kelvin)
16. A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic and mass m, is :- [2017]
light of wavelength l. The stopping potential for photo-
electric current for this light is 3V0. If the same surface is h 2h
(a) (b)
illuminated with light of wavelength 2l, the stopping 3mkT 3mkT
potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this surface
for photo-electric effect is [2015] 2h h
(c) (d)
l mkT mkT
(a) 4l (b) 22. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250 ×
4
10–10m. The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver
l surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536 × 10–10 m is
(c) (d) 6l
6 (Given h = 4.14 × 10–15 eVs and c = 3 × 108 ms–1) [2017]
17. Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal with work (a) » 0.6 × 106 ms–1
function 2.28 eV. The de Broglie wavelength of the emitted (b) » 61 × 103 ms–1
electron is: [2015 RS] (c) » 0.3 × 106 ms–1
(a) < 2.8 × 10-9 m (b) ³. 2.8 × 10-9 m (d) » 6 × 105 ms–1
(c) £ 2.8 × 10-12 m (d) < 2.8 × 10-10 m
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 703
10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 1
8. (d) Momentum of a photon =
E
= m n 22 = 10 W0 - W0 = 9 W0
2
c 3 ´ 10 8
= 5.33 ´ 10 -27 kg ms -1 n1 W0 1
\ = =
n2 9 W0 3
hc æ 1 1 ö
9. (a) Ek = - (in eV) (d) Intensity µ 1/ (distance)2 ; No. of photoelectrons
c çè l l 0 ÷ø 18.
emitted is proportional to intensity of incident light.
6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108 æ 1010 1010 ö hc hc
= ç 1800 - 2300 ÷ = 0.15eV 19. (d) eV0 = - W0 and eV ¢ = - W0
1.6 ´ 10-19 è ø l0 2l0
Subtracting them we have
10. (d) hc é 1ù hc hc
11. (b) Ek = E – W0 = 6.2 – 4.2 = 2.0 eV e ( V0 - V¢) =
l0 ê1 - 2 ú = 2 l or V¢ = V0 - 2 e l
= 2.0 × 1.6 × 10–19 = 3.2 × 10–19 J ë û 0 0
12. (c) eE
13. (b) Photoelectrons are emitted in A alone. Energy of 20. (a) Here, u = 0 ; a = ;v=?;t=t
m
hu eE
electron needed if emitted from A = eV \ v = u + at = 0 + t
e m
\ EA =
( 6.6 ´10-34 ) ´ (1.8 ´ 1014 )
= 0.74 eV
de-Broglie wavelength, l =
h
=
h
=
h
mv m(eEt / m) eEt
1.6 ´10-19 Rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength
EB =
( 6.6 ´10-34 ) ´ ( 2.2 ´1014 )
= 0.91 eV
dl
=
h æ 1ö
çç - ÷÷ =
-h
dt eE è t ø e E t 2
2
1.6 ´10-19
Incident energy 0.825 eV is greater than EA (0.74 eV) 1 é1 1 ù 3R
21. (d) = R ( Z - a) 2 ê - ú = ( Z - a) 2
but less than EB (0.91 eV). la ë12 2
2 û 4
h h h
14. (b) l= = = 1 é1 1ù 8
p 2mE 2mqV = R ( Z - a) 2 ê - ú = R ( Z - a) 2
lb ë12
32 û 9
6.6 ´ 10-34 lb 27
\ l= = 27 27
(
2 ´ 1.6 ´10 -27
) ´ (1.6 ´10 ) ´1000
-19 \
la 32
or l b =
32
la =
32
´ 0.32 = 0.27 Å
1 1 (l ) (f) copper
25. (d) Iµ 2 Q l0 µ Þ 0 sodium =
d f (l 0 )copper (f)sodium
26. (a) Energy associated with wave.
Let number of quanta = x 2
Þ (l0)copper = × 6188 = 3094 Å
nhc 4
5% of 100 = To eject photo-electrons from sodium the longest
l
wavelength is 6188 Å and that for copper is 3094 Å.
5 n ´ 6.26 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 10 -8 Hence for light of wavelength 4000 Å, sodium is
Þ 100 ´ = suitable.
100 5.6 ´ 10-7 35. (a) E(ka) = 10.2 (Z – 1)2 eV
5 = 10.2 × 282
Þn= -19
Þ n = 1.4 ´ 1019 = 10.2 × 784
3.35 ´ 10 = 7.997 keV = 8 KeV
h m0 I0
27. (c) l= ,v= , v ® c, m ® ¥ 36. (c) = 4, x = 7mm (given)
mv 2 I
æ vö
1- ç ÷
è cø I
2.303 log10 0
hence, l ® 0 . Þ m= I
28. (d) hu – hu0 = EK, according to photoelectric equation, x
when u = u0, EK = 0. 2.303 log10 4 2.303 ´ 0.6023
Graph (d) represents EK – u relationship. m= =
29. (c) hu = Wex + maximum kinetic energy 7 7
m = 0.198 mm–1
hu0 = 8 eV = Wex + 2 eV Þ Wex = 6 eV
37. (b) According to Bragg’s law, Þ 2d sin q = nl,
For incoming radiation, energy is
n = 1 for first order
h × 1.25 u0 = 10 eV, Wex = 6 eV
Þ 2 × 2.82 sin 15.8 = l Þ l = 5.64 × 0.2723 = 1.53 Å
\ Kinetic energy (maximum) = 4 eV.
38. (c) de-Broglie wavelength of a material particle at
1
30. (a) eV = mv 2 temperature T is given by
2
h
-19
l= . , where k is Boltzmann's constant.
2eV 2 ´ 1.6 ´10 ´ 20 2mkT
Þv= =
m 9.1´ 10-31 1
Þ lµ
6 T
= 2.65 ´10 m / s
1 2eV 200
mv2 = eV Þ v = 40. (a) The energy of each photon = = 5 × 10–19 J
2 m 4 ´ 1020
hc
2 ´1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 3000 Wavelength = l =
\ v= E
9.1 ´ 10 -31
= 32.6 × 106 = 3.26 × 107 m/s. (6.63 ´ 10-34 ) ´ (3 ´ 108 )
=
hc 5 ´ 10-19
34. (a) Q l0 =
f Þ l = 4.0 × 10–7 = 400 nm
41. (a) The maximum kinetic energy of an electron accelerated
6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108 1
\ (l0)sodium= = 6188 Å through a potential difference of V volt is mv2 = eV
2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 2
706 PHYSICS
hc hc 12375
2eV 51. (d) Kmax = -W = - 5.01 = - 5.01
\ maximum velocity v = l l l (in Å)
m
12375
= –5.01 = 6.1875 – 5.01 = 1.17775 ; 1.2 V
2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19 ´ 15000 2000
v= = 7.26 × 107 m/s 52. (d) For occurence of photoelectric effect, the incident light
9.1 ´ 10-31
should have frequency more than a certain minimum
42. (d) The electron ejected with maximum speed vmax are which is called the threshold frequency (v0).
stopped by electric field E =4N/C after travelling a
1 2
distance d =1m We have, mv = h v - hv0
2
1 For photoelectric effect emission n > n0
mv2max = eEd = 4eV
2 where n is the frequency of the incident light.
53. (c) The stopping potential is equal to maximum kinetic
1240
The energy of incident photon = = 6.2 eV energy.
200 54. (a) K.E. = hn – hnth = eV0 (V0 = cut off voltage)
From equation of photo electric effect h
1
Þ V0 = (8.2 ´ 1014 - 3.3 ´ 1014 )
2
mv max = hn - f 0 e
2 6.6 ´ 10-34 ´ 4.9 ´ 1014
= » 2V.
\ f0 = 6.2 - 4 = 2.2 eV 1.6 ´ 10-19
55. (a) The de-Broglie’s wavelength associated with the
c 3 ´ 108
43. (b) l0 = = = 6 ´ 10-7 m = 6000Å h
v0 5 ´ 1014 moving electron l =
P
44. (b) For electron and positron pair production, minimum
Now, according to problem
energy is 1.02 MeV.
dl dp
1.7 ´ 10-13 =-
Energy of photon is given 1.7 ´ 10-3 J = l P
1.6 ´ 10-19
0.5 P
= 1.06 MeV. =
Since energy of photon is greater than 1.02 MeV. 100 P '
so electron positron pair will be created. P¢ = 200 P
45. (b) E = W0 + eV0 56. (b) According to Einsten’s photoelectric effect, the K.E.
For hydrogen atom, E = +13.6 eV of the radiated electrons
\ + 13.6 = 4.2 + eV0 K.Emax = E – W
1
(13.6 - 4.2)eV mv 2 = (1 – 0.5) eV = 0.5 eV
Þ V0 = = 9.4V 2 1
e
1
Potential at anode = – 9.4 V mv 2 = (2.5 – 0.5) eV = 2 eV
2 2
nl 1 ´ 20
46. (b) 2 d sin q = nl or d = = = 20 nm v1 0.5 1 1
2 sin q 2 ´ sin 30 º = = =
47. (c) v2 2 4 2
48. (b) For emission of electrons incident energy of each 57. (a) Give that, only 25% of 200W converter electrical energy
photon must be greater than work function (threshold into light of yellow colour
energy).
æ hc ö 25
49. (c) By using E = W0 + Kmax çè ÷ø ´ N = 200 ´
l 100
12375 Where N is the No. of photons emitted per second,
E= =2.475 eV and Kmax = eV0 = 1.36 eV
5000 h = plank’s constant, c, speed of light.
So 2.475 = W0 + 1.36 Þ W0 = 1.1 eV.
200 ´ 25 l
hc N= ´
50. (a) Energy emitted/sec by S1 , P1 = n1 100 hc
l1 200 ´ 25 ´ 0.6 ´ 10 -6
=
Energy emitted/sec by S2 , P2 = n2
hc 100 ´ 6.2 ´ 10-34 ´ 3 ´ 108
l2 = 1.5 × 1020
P2 n2 l1 58. (c) n ® 2 – 1
\ = ×
P1 n1 l 2 E = 10.2 eV
kE = E – f
1.02 ´ 1015 5000
= × = 1.0 Q = 10.20 – 3.57
1015 5100 h u0 = 6.63 eV
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 707
hc h
and Ek2max = -f =
l /2 æ3 ö
2m ç kT ÷
2hc è2 ø
EK2max = -f ...(ii)
λ h
From question, Ek2max = 3Ek1max l=
Multiplying equation (i) by 3 3mkT
22. (a, d) Both answers are correct
æ hc ö Given,
3Ek1max = 3 ç - f ÷ ...(iii)
è l ø l0 = 3250 × 10–10 m
From equation (ii) and (iii) l = 2536 × 10–10 m
3hc
- 3f =
2hc
-f hc 4.14 ´ 10-15 ´ 3 ´108
f= = = 3.82eV
l l l0 3250 ´ 10-10
hc
\ f (work function) = hc 4.14 ´10-15 ´ 3 ´108
2l hv = l = = 4.89eV
19. (a) For electron De-Broglie wavelength, 2536 ´ 10-10
According to Einstein's photoelectric equation,
h
le = Kmax = hv – f
2mE KEmax = (4.89–3.82)eV=1.077 eV
For photon E = pc
1
hc mv2 = 1.077 × 1.6 × 10–19
Þ De-Broglie wavelength, l Ph = 2
E
1/2 2 ´1.077 ´1.6 ´10-19
le h E æ E ö 1 Þv=
\ = ´ =ç ÷ 9.1´10-31
l Ph 2mE hc è 2m ø c
or, v = 0.6 × 106 m/s or 6 × 105 m/s
27 Atoms
THOMSON'S ATOMIC MODEL • The electrons revolving round the nucleus could not
This model suggests an atom to be a tiny sphere of radius deflected the path of a-particles. This suggests that
electrons are very light.
» 10 -10 m , containing the positive charge. The atom is electrically In 1911 Rutherford , proposed a new type of model of the atom.
neutral. It contains an equal negative charge in the form of According to this model, the positive charge of the atom, instead
electrons, which are embedded randomly in this sphere, like seeds of being uniformly distributed throughout a sphere of atomic
in a watermelon. dimension is concentrated in a very small volume at its centre.
This model failed to explain (i) large scattering angle of This central core, called nucleus, is surrounded by clouds of
a-particle and (ii) origin of spectral lines observed in the spectrum electrons makes the entire atom electrically neutral.
of hydrogen atom. According to Rutherford scattering formula, the number of
ALPHA-PARTICLE SCATTERING AND RUTHER-FORD a-particles scattered at angle q by a target,
NUCLEAR MODEL OF ATOM N µ cosec4 (q/2)
In Rutherford a- particle scattering experiment a very fine beam a
of a-particle passes through a small hole in the lead screen. This
well collimated beam is then allowed to fall on a thin gold foil. b
While passing through the gold foil, a-particles are scattered +
through different angles. A zinc sulphide screen is placed out the
other side of the gold foil, this screen is movable, so as to receive Nucleus
the a-particles, scattered from the gold foil at angles varying 2
from 0 to 180°. When an a-particle strikes the screen, it produces 2 Ze cot(q / 2)
Impact parameter b =
a flash of light. 4pe0 mv02
Distance of closest approach
2Zeq 2( Ze) (2e)
r0 = =
4pe 0 mv02 4pe0 mv02
Result of Rutherford scattering experiment : Nucleus- is central,
massive, positively charged core, its size of the order of 10–15 m,
number of electrons surrounding nucleus is such that atom is
electrically neutral.
Unit for nuclear dimension measurement : 1 fermi = 10–15m.
It was found that : BOHR’S ATOMIC (HYDROGEN ATOM) MODEL
• Most of the a-particles went straight through the gold foil In 1913 Bohr gave his atomic theory primarily to explain, the
and produced flashes on the screen as if there were nothing spectra of hydrogen and hydrogen-like atoms. His theory,
inside gold foil. This suggests that the most part of the contained a combination of views from Plank’s quantum theory,
atom is empty. Einstein’s photon concept and Rutherford model of atom. The
• Few particles collided with the atoms of the foil which have Bohr theory can explain, the atomic spectra of hydrogen atom
scattered or deflected through considerable large angles. and hydrogen-like ions such as He+, Li2+, Be3+.......(one electron
Very few particles even turned back towards source itself. ions). But his theory failed to explain, the spectra of more complex
Conclusions : atom and ions.
• The entire positive charge and almost whole mass of the
atom is concentrated in small centre called a nucleus.
712 PHYSICS
The basic postulates of Bohr’s model are : From equation (4) & (1) we obtain,
(i) The electron moves in circular orbits around the nucleus Velocity of electron in nth state
under the influence of coulombic force of attraction between n 2h 2 k 2e4 ke 2
the electron and the positively charged nucleus (as shown v2 = = Þ v =
m 2r2 n2h2 nh
in figure below).
e2 æ C ö 1
or v = =ç ÷ ´ (for hydrogen atom ) ...(6)
2e o nh è 137 ø n
–
e
r
æ C öZ
+
v v=ç
Fc è 137 ÷ø n for hydrogen like ions
C
= 2.19 ´ 10 6 ms -1
137
The total energy of electron is given by
Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom E = K.E. + P.E. = Kinetic energy + Potential energy
(ii) The electron rotates about the nucleus in certain stationary 1 ke ( -e)
circular orbits, for which the angular momentum of electron = mv 2 +
2 r
about the nucleus is an integral multiple of h = h , where - ke 2 - me 4
2p E= = ...(7)
h is plank’s constant 2r 8e o n 2 h 2
nh (Allowed energy state)
i.e., Angular Momentum, mvr = = nh ...(1) After substituting numerical values in eqn.(7), we obtain
2p
(where n = 1, 2, 3......... principal quantum number) -13.6
E = 2 eV (for hydrogen atom) ...(8)
(iii) When the electron is in one of its stationary orbits, it does n
not radiate energy, hence the atom is stable.These stationary - 13.6 Z 2
orbits are called allowed orbits. E= eV/atom for hydrogen like ions.
n2
(iv) The atom radiates energy when the electron “jumps” from
one allowed stationery state to another. The frequency of The lowest energy state, or ground state, corresponds to n = 1 is
radiation follows the condition - me 4
hn = Ei – Ef ...(2) E0 = = -13.6eV
Where Ei and Ef are total energies of initial and final stationary 8e o h 2
states. This difference in energy (Ei -Ef) between two The next state corresponds to n = 2 i.e., first excited state has an
allowed stationory states is radiated/absorbed in the form energy, E = –3.4 eV
of a packet of electromagnetic energy (hn - one photon of Limitations of Bohr's Model
frequency n) called a photon. 1. It could not explain the spectra of atoms containing more
Now we calculate the allowed energies of hydrogen atom, than one electron.
For moving an electron in a circular orbit the required 2. There was no theoretical basis for selecting mvr to be an
centripetal force is provided by the coulomb force of attraction
integral multiple of h / 2p .
which acts between nucleus [Ze+, here Z = 1 (atomic number)
for hydrogen atom] & electron (e–), 3. It involved the orbit concept which could not be checked
2 2
experimentally.
i.e., mv = k e ...(3) 4. It could not explain Zeeman & Stark effect and fine lines of
r 2
r spectra.
1 5. It was against de-Broglie concept and uncertainty principle.
where k = is electrostatic constant & e o is
4pe o Keep in Memory
permittivity of free space.
1. Total energy of electron = – Kinetic energy
Eliminating v from eqn. (1) and (3) we obtain radius of nth
orbit Potential energy
=
2
n2 h 2 e n 2 h 2 (where n = 1, 2, 3 .....)
r= = o ...(4) 2. The reference level for potential energy has been taken as
mke 2 pme 2 infinity
Equation (4) gives the radii of various orbits (have discrete 3. The energy gap between two successive levels decreases
values). as the value of n increases
The smallest radius (also called Bohr radius) corresponds 4. The radius difference between the successive orbit (or
to n = 1 is shells) increases as the value of n increases
5. The velocity of electrons around the nucleus goes on
h2 decreasing as n increases
r0 = @ 0.527 Å ...(5)
mke 2 6. The time period of the electron in an orbit T 2 µ r 3
Þ r = 0.529 n2 Å for hydrogen atom and 7. Maximum number of spectral lines that can be emitted when
n2 n ( n - 1)
r = 0.529 × for hydrogen like ions. an electron jumps from n th orbit is
Z 2
Atoms 713
ENERGY LEVELS AND THE LINES SPECTRA OF So total energy by taking this correction is
HYDROGEN ATOM
-m e4
An energy level diagram of the hydrogen atom is shown in figure. E= ...(4)
The upper most level corresponding to n® ¥ , represents the 8e o h2 n2
state for which the electron is completely removed from the atom. If we are dealing with hydrogen like ions such as – He+, Li2+,
Be3+, Be4+ (one electron ions), each can be considered as a system
¥ 0 eV of two charges, the electron of mass m & charge –e & nucleus of
mass M and charge +Ze, where Z is atomic number. The radii of
circular orbits for these one electron ions can be written as
–0.54 eV eo n2 h2 n2h2
r= = (n = 1, 2, 3............) ...(5)
–0.85 eV pmZe 2 mkZe2
Paschen
–1.51 eV series and the allowed energies are given by
Balmer -m Z 2 e 4
series E@ (n = 1, 2, 3.........) ...(6)
8e o h 2 n 2
–3.4 eV
Wavelength Limits in Various Spectral Series of Hydrogen Atom
(i) For Lyman series (lies in ultraviolet region)
l max = 1216 Å , l min = 912 Å
–13.6 eV (Ground state) Here n i = 1, n f = 2, 3...............
Some transitions for Lyman, Balmer & Paschen series are shown. (ii) For Balmer series (lies in visible region)
The quantum numbers are at left & energies of levels are at right. l max = 6563 Å and l min = 3646 Å
E = 0 for r = ¥ (Since n = ¥ ) Here n i = 2, n f = 3, 4, 5.......... .....
If the electron jumps from allowed state ni to allowed state nf, (iii) For Paschen series (lies in infrared region)
then frequency of emitted photon is given by l max = 18751Å and l min = 8107 Å
Here n i = 3, n f = 4, 5, 6.......... .....
E f - Ei me 4 æ 1 1 ö ...(1)
n= = ç - ÷ (iv) For Brackett series (lies in infrared region)
h 8eo h3 çè ni2 n 2f ÷ø l max = 40477Å and l min = 14572Å
and the wavelength of emitted photon is Here n i = 4, n f = 5, 6, 7.......... .....
(v) For p-fund series (lies in infrared region)
1 n me4 æ 1 1 ö
= = ç 2- 2÷ l max = 74515 Å and l min = 22768 Å
l c 8e o ch çè ni n f ÷ø
3
Here n i = 5, n f = 6, 7, 8...............
1 æ 1 1 ö Keep in Memory
= Rç - ÷ for hydrogen atom ...(2)
l çè ni2 n 2f ÷ø 1. The first line of Lyman series is when electron jumps from
2 ® 1, It is also called a – line
1 é 1 1 ù The second line of lyman series is when electron jumps
and n = = RZ 2 ê 2 - 2 ú ( for H-like atoms)
l from 3 ® 1, It is also called b – line
ëê n1 n2 ûú
The limiting line of lyman series is when electron jumps
where R = 1.096776 × 107m–1 is known as Rydberg constant. By from ¥ ® 1
using this expression we can calculate the wavelengths for various
2. Energy of electrons in different orbits in an atom varies
series (Lyman, Balmer...) in hydrogen spectrum, i.e.
inversely with the square of the number of orbits. So, energy
(i) Lyman series ni = 1 & nf = 2, 3, 4...............
of electrons increases (decreases in negative) as the orbit
(ii) Balmer series ni = 2, & nf = 3, 4, 5............... becomes higher.
(iii) Paschen series ni = 3 & nf = 4, 5, 6..............
(iv) Bracett series ni = 4 & nf = 5, 6, 7............... 3. If energy of a particular orbit is E for H-atom then its value
(v) P fund series ni = 5 & nf = 6, 7, 8............... for a H-like atom with atomic number Z is given by
First three series of hydrogen atom are shown in figure. E' = E × Z2.
But in practice, the value of Rydberg constant varies between 4. If the radius of a particular orbit of H-atom is R then its valu
R for a H-like atom is given by
and R R
2 R' = .
This is because in above calculations we assumed that electron Z
revolves around a massive fixed nucleus of mass M. But in reality, 5. If velocity of an electron in a particular orbit of H-atom be v
the electron and nucleus each revolve round their common center then its value for a H-like atom is given by
of mass i.e., the motion of nucleus cannot be ignored. The v'= v × Z.
correction for nuclear motion amounts to replacing electronic 6. If kinetic energy and potential energy of an electron in a
mass m by reduced mass m which is defined as particular orbit of H-atom be T and V respectively then
mM their corresponding values for H-like atom are given by
m= ...(3) T' = T × Z2 and V' = V× Z2.
m+ M
714 PHYSICS
1 é 1 1 ù
We know that, = Rê - ú
l 2 2
êë n1 n 2 úû
CONCEPT MAP
Atoms
Bohr model of Hydrogen J.J Thomson model of atom
atom Electron can revolve First model of atom plum Rutherford nuclear model
only in those orbits in which pudding model- positive entire positive charge and
angular momentum about the charge is uniformly distributed most of the mass of the atom
nucleus is an integral multiple and negatively charged is concentrated in nucleus
h nh electrons are embedded in it and electrons revolving around
of i.e., mvr = the nucleus
2p 2p like seeds in a watermelon
1. In Millikan’s oil drop experiment, an oil drop is observed to 9. In a hydrogen atom following the Bohr’s postulates the
move vertically upward. The upward motion of the drop is product of linear momentum and angular momentum is
due to proportional to (n)x where ‘n’ is the orbit number. Then ‘x’
(a) gravity (b) viscosity is
(c) buoyancy (d) electric field (a) 0 (b) 2
2. The following statements are all true. Which one did (c) –2 (d) 1
Rutherford consider to be supported by the results of 10. In an atom, the two electrons move round the nucleus in
experiments in which a-particles were scattered by gold circular orbits of radii R and 4R. The ratio of the time taken
foil? by them to complete one revolution is
(a) The nucleus of an atom is held together by forces (a) 1/4 (b) 4/1 (c) 8/1 (d) 1/8
which are much stronger than electrical or 11. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to
gravitational forces. second excited states is
(b) The force of repulsion between an atomic nucleus (a) 1/4 (b) 4/9 (c) 9/4 (d) 4
and an a-particle varies with distance according to
12. For the principal quantum number n = 4, the total number of
inverse square law.
different possible values of the azimuthal quantum number
(c) a-particles are nuclei of Helium atoms.
l, is
(d) Atoms can exist with a series of discrete energy levels.
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 3
3. The proof of quantization of energy states in an atom is
obtained by the experiment performed by 13. With increasing quantum number, the energy difference
between adjacent energy levels in atoms
(a) Thomson (b) Millikan
(c) Rutherford (d) Franck and Hertz (a) decreases
4. The angular speed of the electron in the n th orbit of Bohr (b) increases
hydrogen atom is (c) remains constant
(a) directly proportional to n (d) decreases for low Z and increases for high Z
(b) inversely proportional to n 14. The angular momentum of the electron in hydrogen atom in
the ground state is
(c) inversely proportional to n 2
(d) inversely proportional to n3 h h h
(a) 2h (b) (c) (d)
5. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom 2 2p 4p
(a) the linear velocity of the electron is quantised. 15. If e is electronic charge, the equivalent current for an electron
(b) the angular velocity of the electron is quantised. revolving with a frequency n in the ground state of
(c) the linear momentum of the electron is quantised. hydrogen atom is
(d) the angular momentum of the electron is quantised.
6. As the quantum number increases, the difference of energy e e
(a) 2pne (b) (c) (d) en
between consecutive energy levels pn 2pn
(a) remain the same 16. The principle of LASER action involves
(b) increases (a) amplification of particular frequency emitted by the
(c) decreases system
(d) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases. (b) population inversion
7. Line spectrum is obtained whenever the incandescent (c) stimulated emissin
vapours at low pressure of the excited substance are in (d) All of the above.
their
17. In which of the following series, does the 121.5 nm line of
(a) atomic state (b) molecular state
the spectrum of the hydrogen atom lie ?
(c) nuclear state (d) None of these
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
8. According to the Bohr theory of H-atom, the speed of the
(c) Paschen series (d) Brackett series.
electron, its energy and the radius of its orbit varies with
the principal quantum number n, respectively, as 18. For the azimuthal quantum number l = 3, the total number of
different possible values of the magnetic azimuthal quantum
1 2 1 1 2
(a) ,n , (b) n, 2 , n number m1, is
n 2
n n (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7
1 1 1 1 2 19. The ratio between Bohr radii is
(c) n, , (d) , ,n
n 2
n 2 n n2 (a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 4 : 6 (c) 1 : 4 : 9 (d) 1 : 3 : 5
Atoms 717
20. The kinetic energy of the electorn in an orbit of radius r in 23. Rutherford’s a-particle experiment showed that the atoms
hydrogen atom is (e = electronic charge) have
e2 e2 e2 e2 (a) Proton (b) Nucleus
(a) (b) (c) (d)
r2 2r r 2r 2 (c) Neutron (d) Electrons
21. According to the Rutherford’s atomic model, the electrons
24. Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by
inside the atom are
(a) stationary (b) not stationary (a) coulomb’s force (b) nuclear force
(c) centralized (d) None of these (c) vander waal’s force (d) gravitational force
22. According to classical theory, the circular path of an
25. The angular momentum of electron in n th orbit is given by
electron in Rutherford atom is
(a) spiral (b) circular h h h
(c) parabolic (d) straight line (a) nh (b) (c) n (d) n2
2pn 2p 2p
1. In a hypothetical Bohr hydrogen atom, the mass of the electron 8. In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, let R, V, T and E
represent the radius of the orbit, speed of the electron, time
is doubled. The energy E '0 and radius r0' of the first orbit will
period of revolution of electron and the total energy of the
be (r0 is the Bohr radius) electron respectively. The quantity proportional to the
(a) –11.2 eV (b) –6.8 eV quantum number n is
(c) –13.6 eV (d) –27.2 eV (a) VR (b) E (c) r (d) T
2. A 15.0 eV photon collides with and ionizes a hydrogen 9. Let n1 be the frequency of the series limit of the Lyman series,
atom. If the atom was originally in the ground state n2 be the frequency of the first line of the Lyman series, and
(ionization potential =13.6 eV), what is the kinetic energy of n3 be the frequency of the series limit of the Balmer series.
the ejected electron?
(a) n1 – n2 = n3 (b) n2 – n1 = n3
(a) 1.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 15.0 eV (d) 28.6 eV
3. The ratio of areas between the electron orbits for the first 1
(c) n3 = ( n + n2 ) (d) n1 + n2 = n3
excited state to the ground state for the hydrogen atom is 2 1
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 16 : 1 10. The approximate value of quantum number n for the circular
4. The potential energy associated with an electron in the orbit of hydrogen 0.0001 mm in diameter is
orbit (a) 1000 (b) 60 (c) 10000 (d) 31
(a) increases with the increases in radii of the orbit 11. The ionization energy of Li++ is equal to
(b) decreases with the increase in the radii of the orbit (a) 9hcR (b) 6hcR (c) 2hcR (d) hcR.
(c) remains the same with the change in the radii of the orbit 12. The Rutherford a-particle experiment shows that most of
(d) None of these the a-particles pass through almost unscattered while some
5. Energy levels, A, B, C of a certain atom correspond to are scattered through large angles. What information does
increasing values of energy i.e. EA < EB < EC. If l1, l2, l3 are it give about the structure of the atom?
the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the (a) Atom is hollow.
transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of
(b) The whole mass of the atom is concentrated in a small
the following relations is correct ?
centre called nucleus
l l (c) Nucleus is positively charged
(a) l3 =l1 + l 2 (b) l3 = 1 2
l1 + l 2 (d) All the above
(c) l1 + l 2 + l 3 =0 l33 =
(d) l21 + l22 13. Which of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen
atom lies in the visible region of the electromagnetic
6. Consider the spectral line resulting from the transition spectrum?
n = 2 ® n = 1 in the atoms and ions given below. The (a) Paschen series (b) Balmer series
shortest wavelength is produced by (c) Lyman series (d) Brackett series
(a) hydrogen atom (b) deuterium atom
14. The ratio of maximum to minimum wavelength in Balmer
(c) singly ionized Helium (d) doubly ionised Lithium
series is
7. A hydrogen atom emits a photon corresponding to an
electron transition from n = 5 to n = 1. The recoil speed of (a) 3 : 4 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 5 : 36 (d) 5 : 9
hydrogen atom is almost 15. What element has ka line of wavelength 1.785 Å?
(a) 10–4 ms–1 (b) 2 × 10–2 ms–1 R = 109737 cm-1.
(c) 4 ms –1 (d) 8 × 102 ms–1 (a) Platinum (b) Zinc (c) Iron (d) Cobalt
718 PHYSICS
16. If the ka radiation of Mo (Z = 42) has a wavelength of (c) series limit of Lyman series, third spectral line of Balmer
0.71Å. Calculate the wavelength of the corresponding series and second spectral line of Paschen series
radiation of Cu (Z = 29). (d) series limit of Lyman series, second spectral line of
(a) 1.52Å (b) 2.52Å (c) 0.52Å (d) 4.52Å Balmer series and third spectral line of Paschen series
17. The extreme wavelengths of Paschen series are 25. Which of the following statements are true regarding Bohr’s
(a) 0.365 mm and 0.565 mm (b) 0.818 mm and 1.89 mm model of hydrogen atom?
(c) 1.45 mm and 4.04 mm (d) 2.27 mm and 7.43 mm (I) Orbiting speed of electron decreases as it shifts to
discrete orbits away from the nucleus
18. The third line of Balmer series of an ion equivalnet to
hydrogen atom has wavelength of 108.5 nm. The ground (II) Radii of allowed orbits of electron are proportional to
state energy of an electron of this ion will be the principal quantum number
(III) Frequency with which electrons orbit around the
(a) 3.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV
nucleus in discrete orbits is inversely proportional to
(c) 54.4 eV (d) 122.4 eV
the cube of principal quantum number
19. The first line of Balmer series has wavelength 6563 Å. What (IV) Binding force with which the electron is bound to the
will be the wavelength of the first member of Lyman series nucleus increases as it shifts to outer orbits
(a) 1215.4 Å (b) 2500 Å Select correct answer using the codes given below.
(c) 7500 Å (d) 600 Å Codes :
20. Hydrogen atom excites energy level from fundamental state (a) I and II (b) II and IV
to n = 3. Number of spectral lines according to Bohr, is (c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 2 26. If in hydrogen atom, radius of n th Bohr orbit is rn, frequency
21. The ratio of the longest to shortest wavelengths in Brackett of revolution of electron in n th orbit is fn, choose the correct
series of hydrogen spectra is option.
25 17 9 4 rn
ær ö
(a) (b) (c) (d) log ç n ÷
9 6 5 3 è r1 ø
22. In a Rutherford experiment, the number of particles scattered
at 90° angle are 28 per minute then number of scattered (a) (b)
particles at an angle 60° and 120° will be O n O log n
(a) 117 per minute, 25 per minute
(b) 50 per minute, 12.5 per minute æf ö
log ç n ÷
(c) 100 per minute, 200 per minute è f1 ø
(d) 112 per minute, 12.4 per minute
(c) (d) Both (a) and (b)
23. In Hydrogen spectrum, the wavelength of Ha line is 656
nm, whereas in the spectrum of a distant galaxy, Ha line O log n
wavelength is 706 nm. Estimated speed of the galaxy with 27. Excitation energy of a hydrogen like ion in its excitation
respect to earth is state is 40.8 eV. Energy needed to remove the electron from
(a) 2 × 108 m/s (b) 2 × 107m/s the ion in ground state is
(c) 2 × 106 m/s (d) 2 × 105 m/s (a) 54.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 40.8 eV (d) 27.2 eV
24. The energy levels of the hydrogen spectrum is shown in 28. The ionisation potential of H-atom is 13.6 V. When it is
figure. There are some transitions A, B, C, D and E. excited from ground state by monochromatic radiations of
Transition A, B and C respectively represent 970.6 Å, the number of emission lines will be (according to
n=¥ – 0.00 eV Bohr’s theory)
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4
n=6 – 0.36 eV
29. Electrons in a certain energy level n = n1, can emit 3 spectral
n=5 – 0.54 eV
n=4 – 0.85 eV lines. When they are in another energy level, n = n 2. They
C can emit 6 spectral lines. The orbital speed of the electrons
n=3 D – 1.51 eV
B in the two orbits are in the ratio of
n=2 – 3.39 eV
(a) 4 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
A E 30. The energy of electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom is
n=1 – 13.5 eV -13.6
(a) first member of Lyman series, third spectral line of expressed as E n = eV. The shortest and longest
n2
Balmer series and the second spectral line of Paschen wavelength of Lyman series will be
series
(a) 910 Å, 1213 Å (b) 5463 Å, 7858 Å
(b) ionization potential of hydrogen, second spectral line (c) 1315 Å, 1530 Å (d) None of these
of Balmer series, third spectral line of Paschen series
Atoms 719
31. A hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs 10.2 eV of 42. Doubly ionised helium atom and hydrogen ions are
energy. The orbital angular momentum is increased by accelerated, from rest, through the same potential difference.
(a) 1.05 × 10–34 J-s (b) 3.16 × 10–34 J-s The ratio of final velocities of helium and hydrogen is
(c) 2.11 × 10–34 J-s (d) 4.22 × 10–34 J-s (a) 1: 2 (b) 2 :1
32. Taking Rydberg’s constant RH = 1.097 × 107m, first and
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
second wavelength of Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum
is 43. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen
atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic
(a) 2000 Å, 3000 Å (b) 1575 Å, 2960 Å
radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. The spectral lines
(c) 6529 Å, 4280 Å (d) 6552 Å, 4863 Å emitted by hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s theory will
33. If the atom 100Fm257 follows the Bohr model and the radius be
of 100Fm257 is n times the Bohr radius, then find n. (a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 4 (d) 1/4 44. Which of the following transitions in hydrogen atoms emit
34. In Rutherford scattering experiment, the number of photons of highest frequency?
a-particles scattered at 60° is 5 × 106. The number of (a) n = 1 to n = 2 (b) n = 2 to n = 6
a-particles scattered at 120° will be (c) n = 6 to n = 2 (d) n = 2 to n = 1
3 45. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is
(a) 15 × 106 (b) × 106 – 13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state
5
5 will be
(c) × 106 (d) None of these
9 (a) –13.6 eV (b) – 27.2 eV
+
35. The energy of He in the ground state is – 54.4 eV, then the (c) – 54.4 eV (d) – 6.8 eV
energy of Li++ in the first excited state will be 1 2
(a) – 30.6 eV (b) 27.2 eV 46. An alpha nucleus of energy mv bombards a heavy
2
(c) – 13.6 eV (d) – 27.2 eV nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest
36. The wavelength of radiation is l0 when an electron jumps approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
from third to second orbit of hydrogen atom. For the electron
to jump from the fourth to the second orbit of the hydrogen 1 1 1
(a) (b) v 2 (c) (d)
atom, the wavelength of radiation emitted will be Ze m v4
Directions for Qs. (47 to 50) : Each question contains
16 20 27 25
(a) l 0 (b) l 0 (c) l0 (d) l0 STATEMENT-1 and STATEMENT-2. Choose the correct answer
25 27 20 16 (ONLY ONE option is correct ) from the following.
37. If the frequency of Ka X-rays emitted from the element with (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
atomic number 31 is n, then the frequency of Ka X-rays correct explanation for Statement -1
emitted from the element with atomic number 51 would be (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement -2 is True; Statement-2 is
5 51 25 9 NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1
(a) n (b) n (c) n (d) n (c) Statement-1 is True, Statement- 2 is False
3 31 9 25
(d) Statement-1 is False, Statement -2 is True
38. A hydrogen atom is in ground state. Then to get six lines in
47. Statement-1 : Balmer series lies in the visible region of
emission spectrum, wavelength of incident radiation should be
electromagnetic spectrum.
(a) 800 Å (b) 825 Å (c) 975 Å (d) 1025 Å
39. In the hydrogen atom, an electron makes a transition from 1 é1 1 ù
Statement-2 : = R ê 2 - 2 ú , where n = 3, 4, 5.
n = 2 to n = 1. The magnetic field produced by the circulating l ë2 n û
electron at the nucleus 48. Statement-1 : The force of repulsion between atomic nucleus
(a) decreases 16 times (b) increases 4 times and a-particle varies with distance according to inverse
(c) decreases 4 times (d) increases 32 times square law.
40. One of the lines in the emission spectrum of Li2+ has the Statement-2 : Rutherford did a-particle scattering experiment.
same wavelength as that of the 2nd line of Balmer series in 49. Statement-1 : Bohr had to postulate that the electrons in
hydrogen spectrum. The electronic transition corresponding stationary orbits around the nucleus do not radiate.
to this line is n = 12 ® n = x. Find the value of x. Statement-2 : According to classical physics all moving
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 7 (c) 5 electrons radiate.
50. Statement 1 : In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum and
41. The wavelength Ka of X-rays for two metals ‘A’ and ‘B’ are
4 1 3
and respectively, where ‘R’ is Rydbergg maximum wavelength is .
1875R 675R 4
constant. Find the number of elements lying between A Statement 2 : Lyman series constitute spectral lines
and B according to their atomic numbers corresponding to transition from higher energy to ground
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 5 state of hydrogen atom.
720 PHYSICS
(c) 18 pm (d) 13 pm (a) is not important because nuclear forces are short –
ranged
2. The binding energy of a H – atom, considering an electron
moving around a fixed nuclei (proton), is (b) is as important as electrostatic force for binding the
two atoms
me 4 (c) cancels the repulsive electrostatic force between the
B=- ( m = electron mass )
8n 2 e 02 h 2 nuclei
(d) is not important because oxygen nucleus have equal
If one decides to work in a frame of reference where the number of neutrons and protons
electron is at rest, the proton would be moving around it.
6. Two H atoms in the ground state collide inelastically. The
By similar arguments, the binding energy would be
maximum amount by which their combined kinetic energy
is reduced, is
me 4
B=– ( m = proton mass ) (a) 10.20 eV (b) 20.40 eV
8n 2 e02 h 2
(c) 13.6 eV (d) 27.2 eV
This last expression is not correct, because
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions
(a) n would not be integral
7. An electron in hydrogen atom makes a transition n1 ® n2
(b) Bohr – quantisation applies only two electron where n1 and n2 are principal quantum numbers of the two
(c) the frame in which the electron is at rest is not inertial states. Assuming Bohr’s model to be valid the time period
(d) the motion of the proton would not be in circular orbits, of the electron in the initial state is eight times that in the
even approximately. final state. The possible values of n1 and n2 are
3. The simple Bohr model cannot be directly applied to (a) n1 = 4 and n2 = 2 [NEET Kar. 2013]
calculate the energy levels of an atom with many electrons. (b) n1 = 6 and n2 = 2
This is because (c) n1 = 8 and n2 = 1
(a) of the electrons not being subject to a central force (d) n1 = 8 and n2 = 2
(b) of the electrons colliding with each other 8. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a
(c) of screening effects monochromatic radiation of l = 975 Å. Number of spectral
(d) the force between the nucleus and an electron will no lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be [2014]
longer be given by Coulomb's law (a) 3 (b) 2
4. For the ground state, the electron in the H – atom has an (c) 6 (d) 10
angular momentum = h, according to the simple Bohr model. 9. Consider 3rdorbit of He+ (Helium), using non-relativistic
Angular momentum is a vector and hence there will be approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be [given
infinitely many orbits with the vector pointing in all possible K = 9 × 109 constant, Z = 2 and h (Plank's Constant)
directions. In actuality, this is not true, = 6.6 × 10–34 J s] [2015]
(a) because Bohr model gives in correct values of angular (a) 1.46 × 106 m/s (b) 0.73 × 106 m/s
momentum
(c) 3.0 × 108 m/s (d) 2.92 × 106 m/s
(b) because only one of these would have a minimum 10. Two particles of masses m1, m2 move with initial velocities
energy u1 and u2. On collision, one of the particles get excited to
Atoms 721
higher level, after absorbing energy e. If final velocities of 12. When an a-particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v'
particles be v1 and v2 then we must have [2015] bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge 'Ze', its distance of
1 1 1 1 closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as : [2016]
(a) m1u12 + m2 u 22 = m1v12 + m2 v 22 – e
2 2 2 2
1 1
1 1 1 1 (a) (b)
(b) m1u12 + m 2 u 22 – e = m1 v12 + m 2 v 22 m m
2 2 2 2
1 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 1 2 2
(c) m1 u1 + m 2 u 2 + e = m1 v1 + m 2 v2 1
2 2 2 2 (c) (d) m
m2
(d) m12 u1 + m 22 u 2 – e = m12 v1 + m 22 v 2
11. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest 13. Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107m–1, the wave
wavelength in the Lyman series to the longest wavelength number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen
in the Balmer series is [2015 RS] spectrum will be : [2016]
9 27 (a) 0.025 × 104 m–1 (b) 0.5 × 107 m–1
(a) (b)
4 5 (c) 0.25 × 107 m–1 (d) 2.5 × 107 m–1
5 4 14. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series
(c) (d) and the last line of Lyman series is :- [2017]
27 9
(a) 1 (b) 4
(c) 0.5 (d) 2
722 PHYSICS
æ 41ö
2 Here, l ' = 706 nm, l = 656 nm
\ l Cu = 0.71 × ç ÷ = 1.52Å
è 28 ø c–v æ l ö
2 2
æ 656 ö
\ =ç ÷ =ç ÷ = 0.86
1 é 1 1 ù c+ v è l'ø è 706 ø
17. (b) In Paschen series l = Rê 2 - 2 ú
max ë (3) (4) û v 0.14
Þ = Þ v = 0.075 × 3 × 108 = 2.25 × 107m/s
144 144 c 1.86
Þ l max = = = 1.89 ´ 10-6 m = 1.89 mm
7R 7 ´ 1.1 ´ 107 24. (c) Transition A (n = ¥ to 1) : Series lime of Lyman series
Transition B (n = 5 to n = 2) : Third spectral lien of
9 9
Similarly l min = = = 0.818 mm Balmer series
R 1.1 ´ 107 Transition C (n = 5 to n = 3) : Second spectral line of
18. (c) For third line of Balmer series n 1 = 2, n2 = 5 Paschen series
25. (a) Orbital speed varies inversely as the radius of the orbit.
1 é1 1 ù n2n2
\ = RZ2 ê 2 - 2 ú gives Z2 = 2 1 22
l ë n1 n 2 û (n 2 - n1 )lR vµ
1
n
724 PHYSICS
n(n - 1) 4 4
29. (a) Number of emission spectral lines, N = æ 1ö æ 2 ö 5
or N 2 = 5 ´ 106 ´ ç ÷ ç = ´ 10 6
2 è 2 ø è 3 ÷ø 9
n1 (n1 - 1) 35. (a) Energy of electron in n th orbit is
\3 = , in first case.
2
Z2
2
Or n1 - n1 - 6 = 0 or (n1 - 3)(n1 + 2) = 0 E n = - (Rch) = -54.4 eV
n2
Take positive root.
\ n1 = 3 For He+ is ground state
n 2 (n 2 - 1) (2) 2
Again, 6 = , in second case. E1 = - (Rch) = -54.4 Þ Rch = 13.6
2 (1)2
2
Or n 2 - n 2 - 12 = 0 or (n 2 - 4)(n 2 + 3) = 0. \ For Li++ in first excited state (n = 2)
Take positive root, or n 2 = 4
(3)2
E' = – 13.6 × = -30.6 eV
2pKZe 2 (2) 2
Now velocity of electron u =
nh
1 æ 1 1ö
u n2 4 36. (b) = R ç 2 - 2÷
\ 1 = = . l è n1 n 2 ø
u2 n1 3
30. (a) 1 é 1 1 ù 4 1 æ 1 1ö æ 1 1 ö 5R
= R ê 2 - 2 ú Þ l max = » 1213Å =Rç - ÷ =Rç - ÷ =
l max 3R l0 è2 2
3 ø
2 è 4 9 ø 36
ë (1) (2) û
Atoms 725
48. (b) Rutherford confirmed that the repulsive force on distance between atoms of oxygen is larger as
a-particle due to nucleus varies with distance according compared to the distance between nuclears in a
to inverse square law and that the positive charges necleus. So, nuclear force between the nuclei of the
are concentrated at the centre and not distributed two oxygen atoms is not important because nuclear
throughout the atom. forces are short – ranged.
49. (b) Bohr postulated that electrons in stationary orbits 6. (a) We know that, electron on the lowest state of the
around the nucleus do not radiate. atom, called the ground state have the lowest energy
This is the one of Bohr’s postulate. According to this and the electron revolving in the orbit of smallest
the moving electrons radiates only when they go from radius, the Bohr radius, r. The energy of this state (n
one orbit to the next lower orbit. = 1), E1 is – 13.6 eV.
50. (b) Total energy of two H – atoms in the ground state
collide in elastically = 2 × (–13.6 eV) = –27.2 eV.
EXERCISE - 3 The maximum amount by which their combined kinetic
energy is reduced when any one H–atom goes into
Exemplar Questions
first excited state after the inelastic collision. So that
1. (c) According to Bohr's model of atom rading of an atom the total energy of the two H – atoms after the
r0 inelastic collision
in ground state is r = where r0 is Bohr's radius and
z æ 13.6 ö (
z is a atomic number. Given r 0 = 53 pm
=ç ÷ + 13.6 ) = 17.0eV
è 22 ø
The atomic number of lithium is 3, therefore, the radius
of Li++ ion in its ground state, on the basis of Bohr's éëQ for excited state ( n = 2 ) ùû .
28 Nuclei
(iii) Isotones : The nuclides which contain the same number 6.0 4
2He
Binding energy
per nucleon
Keep in Memory
(b) ZX = Z-1Y A + b + (positron). It means that by
A
1. A nuclide is a specific nucleus of an atom characterised as emission of beta particle (b+-particle), nucleus loses
A one unit of charge. It is surprising to note that a
ZX where A = mass number and Z = atomic number.
nucleus does not contain b+ then how is it emitted.
2. Binding energy per nucleon is nearly 8.4 MeV for nuclei in Reason : During a b+ particle(i.e., positron) decay, a
the range of mass number 40 to 120. protron converts into a neutron
3. Binding energy is highest in Fe56.( 8.8 MeV)
4. Binding energy curve predicts : p + = n 0 + b + + u (neutrino).
(a) Fission : Breaking up of a heavy nucleus A b– particle (i.e., electron) decays, when inside the
(A > 200) into two nuclei of approximately equal size, nucleus a neutron converts into a proton i.e.,
and release of energy.
(b) Fusion : Lighter nuclei ( A < 20) combine together to
form heavier nucleus and release of energy. n 0 = p + + b - + u (antineutrino)
(c) BE/ A varies by less than 10% above A = 10 suggests Since b-particle is an electron(or positron), so the loss
that each nucleon interacts with its neighbouring of mass in this decay is negligible.
nucleon only. In b+decay the daughter element is one place forward
(d) For A > 56, BE/A decreases because of the in the periodic table.
destabilising effect of long-range coloumbic force.
(iii) When a nucleus emits a gamma ray, neither the mass nor
NUCLEAR FORCE the charge of the nucleus changes
It is the force acts in the nucleus between the nucleons and is i.e.,
responsible for binding the nucleon.
A A
Characteristics of Nuclear Force : ZX = Z X + g (gamma ray or photon)
Excited state
1. It is a short range force effective only in range 10–15 m Ground state
2. It is charge independent. It acts between proton-proton, The gamma ray(g-ray) is photon & it carries away some
proton-neutron and neutron – neutron. energy from the nucleus & nucleus returns from excited
3. It is not a central force. state(unstable state) to ground state (stable state)
4. It is spin dependent. a and b-particles are not emitted simultaneously.
5. It is 1038 times stronger than gravitational force and 102
g rays are emitted after the emission of a and b-particle. a,
times stronger than electric force.
b and g-rays are known as Bequerel rays
6. The main cause of nuclear force is the exchange of
p- mesons between nucleus The energy spectrum in the case of b-particles is continous
but that of a and g-rays is a line spectrum. This means that
p ® n + p + , p ® p + p° , n ® p + p – b particles are emitted with any amount of kinetic energy.
RADIOACTIVITY Properties of a, b & g-rays
It is the spontaneous disintegration of the heavy nucleus of an (A) Properties of a-rays
atom (It occurs without external provocation).
(a) It is a positively charged particle & contains a
There are three main types of radioactive radiations.
charge of 3.2 × 10–19 coulomb(exactly double the
(i) a-rays (i.e., Helium nuclei or a – particles)
charge of electron).
(ii) b-rays (i.e., electron or positron or b – particles)
(iii) g-rays (photons or gamma radiations) (b) The mass of a-particles is 6.645 × 10–27kg(It is
equal to mass of a helium nucleus). Actually a-
It is a process by which an unstable nuclei achieves stability.
particle is nucleus of helium, hence it is called
This process is not affected by
doubly ionised helium.
(a) chemical combination
(b) changing physical environment other than nuclear (c) They (a-particles) get deflected in both electric
bombardment. & magnetic fields.
(d) The velocity of a-particle is very less than the
Features of Radioactivity :
(i) It is a statistical process. velocity of light i.e., Va » c , where c is velocity
(ii) When a nucleus undergoes alpha or beta decay, its atomic 10
number and mass number changes (in b-decay only atomic of light.
number changes) & it transforms into a new element. (e) The range of a-particle in air depends on
radioactive substance.
(a) ZX
A
= Z- 2 Y A - 4 + 2 He 4 (a-particle), it means that (f) The ionisation power of a-particle is higher than
by emission of alpha particle (a-particle), it loses both b (100 times of b & 10,000 times of g) and g
2 units of charge and 4 units of mass. particle.
730 PHYSICS
(g) The penetrating power of a particle is lowest (in Rutherford and Soddy law for radioactive decay
comparison to b & g particles). It is 1/100 times of It states that “at any time the rate at which particular
b-particles & 1/10,000 times of g-rays. decay occurs in a radioactive substance is proportional
(h) The a-particles can produce fluorescence in to number of radioactive nuclei present.
barium platinocynide and zinc sulphide.
If N is the number of nuclei at any time t & at t + dt time, it
(i) They show little effect on photographic plate.
decrease to N-dN then the rate of decay of these nuclei is
(j) They show heating effect on stopping.
-dN
(B) Properties of b rays or b-particles : (negative sign comes because N decreases as t
dt
(a) The beta particles (i.e., b– or b+) may be positive
increases). So according to Rutherford & Sodi,
& negative particle & contain ± 1.6 ´ 10 -19 C of
- dN
charge. Actually b– is electron & b+ is positron. µ N or dN = lN ...(1)
(b) They get deflected in both electric & magnetic dt dt
field. Where l is decay constant (i.e., probabilily per unit time for
(c) The velocity of b-particle varies between 0.01c a nucleus to decay) and it is constant for a particular nuclei,
to .99c, where c is velocity of light. but different for different nuclei. By integration of equation
(d) The mass of b particle is relativistic, because its (1) w.r. to time we get
velocity is comparable to velocity of light N = No e–lt ...(2)
(e) They have both ionisation & penetration power.
where No is the number of nuclei at t = 0.
Ionisation power less than a-particle and
penetration power more than a-particle. Activity : The number of decays per unit time or decay rate
(f) Th ey produce fluorescence on barium is called activity(R)
platinocynide & zinc sulphide. é dN ù -lt
[R ] = ê ú = N o le = R o e -lt where R = N l .
(C) Properties of g-rays (or gamma radiation): ë dt û o o
(a) They are electromagnetic waves as x-rays. The S.I. unit of R is bequerel,
(b) They are not deflected in electric & magnetic field, 1 bequerel = 1 Bq = 1 decay/sec
it means that they are chargeless. and 1 curie = 1Ci = 3.7 × 1010 decay/sec
(c) The velocity of g-particle is equal to velocity of The other unit of radioactivity is rutherford.
light. 1 rutherford = 106 dacay/sec
(d) The ionisation power of gamma rays is less than
b & a rays but penetration power more than b 2.303 N é N 0 m0 ù
Þ t= log 0 êand =
and a-rays. l N ë N m úû
(e) The g-particles are emitted from the nucleus, while m0 = mass at t =0 and m = mass at t = t
X-rays are obtained, when electron goes from COMMON DEFAULT
one state to another in an atom.
(f) When g-rays photon strikes nucleus in a
O Incorrect. Since b-particles (electrons) are emitted from the
nucleus shows that electrons exist in nucleus
substance, then it gives rise to a phenomenon of
pair production i.e., P Correct. b-particle cannot exists in nucleus. It is created
and ejected at once at the time of b-decay. b-particle cannot
hn ¾¾
® b- + b+ exist in the nucleus because its wavelength is greater than
( g-rays or photon) (Pair production) the size of nucleus
The minimum energy of g-rays required for this Half Life of a Radioactive Substance
phenomena is 1.02 MeV, because the rest mass Half life of a substance is the time, it takes for half of a given
energy of b ± particle is 0 .51 MeV.. number of radioactive nuclei to dacay
No
Property a -rays b - rays g -rays Let at = T1/2 N= then by eq. (2)
2
Mass 4mp me Zero
1
Charge +2e e Neutral No -lT 0.693 log e 2
= No e 2 or T1/2 = =
2 0.33 to 2 l l
Velocity » 2 × 10 m/s c
0.99c
N0
Penetrating Also N = for n half-lives
. power 1 100 1000 2n
Ionisation 100 m0
power
10,000 1 Þ m= where m0 is mass of radioacive substance at t = 0
2n
Spectrum Line Continuous Line and m is mass at t = t.
Nuclei 731
Carbon Dating
N
Carbon dating is the process of determination of time interval
Number of remaining nuclei
Nuclear Fission (By Otto Hans and Fstrassmann) Nuclear holocaust : It is the name given to large scale destruction
Nuclear fission is the disintegration of a heavy nucleus upon which will be created upon the use of piled up nuclear weapons.
bombardment by a projectile, such that the heavy nucleus splits It is believed that if the existing nuclear weapons are used, then
up into two or more segments of comparable masses with an the radioactive waste will hang like a cloud in the earth's
enormous release of energy. atmosphere. This clould will be capable to absorb solar radiation
235 1
92 U + 0 n ® 141 92
53 Ba +36 Kr + 3 ( n) + 200 MeV
1
0
due to which these radiation will not reach earth. This would
result to a long nuclear winter.
The most of the energy released is by the mode of kinetic energy Radiation hazards : The g-radiations are highly energetic and
of fission segment. causes pathological and genetic damage.
Uncontrolled Chain Reaction : It is the principle of atom bomb Example 1.
(destructive use). The number of fission in this case goes on
The radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 16 is 3 × 10–15 m.
increasing at a tremendous rate leading to the creation of a huge
What would be the radius of other nucleus with nucleon
amount of energy in a very small time.
number 128?
The number of fissions in this case is maintained constant. Nuclear
reactor has beed devised for this purpose. Solution :
The main parts of nuclear reactor are We know that
(a) Nuclear fuel : U233, U235, Pu239 etc. R µ A1 / 3
(b) Moderator : Graphite, heavy water (D2O). To slow down
the neutrons (or slow down the nuclear reaction). 1/ 3 1/ 3
R 2 æ A2 ö æA ö
\ =ç ÷ or R 2 = R1 çç 2 ÷÷
(c) Control rods : (Cadmium, boron). To absorb excess R1 çè A1 ÷ø è A1 ø
neutrons. It controls the chain reaction.
(d) Coolant : (water etc). To remove the heat produced in the so, R2 = 3 × 10–15 × (128/16)1/3
core to heat exchanger for production of electricity. = (3 × 10–15) × 2 = 6 × 10–15 m
The reaction of controlled chain reactor is also called Example 2.
critical reaction. The activity of a radioactive element decreased to one
Critical mass : It is the minimum amount of fissionable material third of the original activity Ι0 in a period of nine years.
required to carry out fission reaction. It is 10 kg for 236
U What will be its activity after a further lapse of nine years?
Rate of neutron production Solution :
Reproduction factor K =
Rate of neutron absorption æ I ö æ 1 öt / T 1 æ1ö
9/T
çç ÷ = ç ÷ or = ç ÷
k = 1 for controlled reaction ÷
è I0 ø è 2 ø 3 è2ø
k ³ 1 for uncontrolled reaction 2
æ I¢ ö æ 1 ö18 / T éæ 1 ö
9/T ù 2
Breeder reactor :It converts U238 non-fissionable to a fissionable æ1ö
çç ÷ = ç ÷ ê
= ç2÷ ú = ç ÷
÷
material 239
Pu or 235
U. è I0 ø è 2 ø êëè ø úû è3ø
Nuclear Fusion : \ Ι¢ = Ι 0 / 9
Nuclear fusion is the fusion of two or more light nuclei to form a Example 3.
heavy nucleus with a release of huge amount of energy. At any instant, the ratio of the amount of radioactive
For a nuclear fusion to take place, very high temperature is substances is 2 : 1. If their half lives be respectively 12 and
required to overcome the coulombic repulsive forces acting 16 hours, then after two days, what will be the ratio of
between the nuclei. It is the principle of hydrogen bomb. amount of the substances?
Solution :
The nuclear fusion reaction, which is the source of the energy of
sun/ star are proton-proton cycle. 48
For first substance n = =4
12
1 1 2
1 H +1 H ¾¾
®1 H +10 e + n + 0.42MeV æ1ö
4
\ N1 = N 01 ç ÷ = N 01 / 16 ...(1)
2 1 3 è2ø
1 H +1 H ¾
¾® 2 He + g + 5.5 MeV
48
For second substance, n = =3
3 3 4 16
2 He + 2 ¾® 2 He +11 H +11 H + 12.8MeV
He ¾ 3
æ1ö
4 N 2 = N 02 ç ÷ = N 02 / 8 ...(2)
411 H ¾
¾® 2 He + 2 10 e + 2n + 2 g + 24.6 MeV è2ø
N N 1 1
Stars with mass 0.4 to 2.5 solar mass produce energy by carbon- Now, 1 = 01 ´ = 2 ´ = 1 (Q N01 = 2 N02)
nitrogen cycle. Stars with lower mas produce energy by proton- N 2 N 02 2 2
proton cycle. \ N1 : N2 = 1 : 1
Nuclei 733
Example4. Solution :
The half life of radium is 1620 years and its atomic weight Adding the two equation 31H2 ¾¾® 2He4 + p + n
is 226. Find the number of atoms that will decay from its
mass defect = 3 × 2.01471 – 4.00388 – 1.00783 – 1.00866
1 gm sample per second.
= 0.02376 amu = 0.02376 × 931.5 MeV
Solution : = 22.13 MeV
According to Avogadro’s hypothesis, Power of star = 1016W = 1016 J/s
6.02 ´10 23 Number of deutrons used per second
N0 = = 2.66 ´10 21
226 1016
= = 2.82 ´ 10 27
Half life = T =
0.6931
= 1620 years 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 22.13 ´ 106
l Time in which deutrons will be used
0.6931 Number of deutrons
\ l= 7
= 1.35 ´10 -11 s -1 =
1620 ´ 3.16 ´ 10 Number of deutrons used per second
Because half life is very much large as compared to its time 1040
interval, hence N » N0 = = 3.5 ´ 1012 sec
2.82 ´ 1027
dN Example 8.
= lN = l N 0 or dN = lN 0 dt
dt One gram of Radium emits 3.7 × 1010 a particles per sec-
ond. Calculate half life and mean life of Radium. Given:
\ dN = (1.35 ´ 10 -11 ) (2.66 ´10 21 ) (1) = 3.61 ´ 1010 . Atomic mass of Radium = 226.
Example 5. Solution :
A nucleus breaks into two parts whose velocity is in ratio Rate of decay of Radium = rate of emission of a particles
of 2:1. Find the ratio of their radius.
-dN
Solution : or = lN = 3.7 × 1010 per second
As per conservation of momentum m1v1 + m2v2 = 0 dt
m1 v2 6.023 ´ 1023 ´ 1
so = Number of active atoms N =
m 2 v1 226
0.693 6.023 ´ 1023
R1 æ A1 ö
1/3
æ m1 ö
1/3
æ 1ö
1/3 \ lN = ´ = 3.7 ´ 1010
Ratio of radii =ç = = ç ÷ T 226
R 2 è A 2 ÷ø çè m ÷ø
2 è 2ø or half life T = 1583 years
\ R1 : R2 = 1 : 21/3 Mean life t = 1.44 T = 1.44 × 1580 = 2279 years
Example 6. Example 9.
Calculate the binding energy per nucleon for 17C35. Given Determine the disintegration energy of the process
M (Cl 35 ) = 34.9800 amu. mn = 1.008665 amu and 210
mP = 1.007825 amu. 84 P0 ¾¾ ®82 Pb 206 + 2 He 4 + Q if an a particle of en-
Solution : ergy 5.3 MeV is emitted in it.
BE = ZmP + (A – Z) mn – M (Cl35) = 17 × 1.007825 + 18 × Solution :
1.008665 – 34.9800 = 0.308995 amu A-4
BE = 0.308995 × 931.5 = 287.83 MeV Kinetic energy of a particle E a = Q
A
BE 287.75 A 210
B= = = 8.22 MeV so Q = Ea = ´ 5.3 = 5.40 MeV
A 35 A-4 210 - 4
Example 7. Example 10.
A star initially has 1040 deutrons. It produces energy by The activity of a radioactive substance drops to 1/32 of its
processes initial value in 7.5 h. Find the half life.
2 Solution :
1H + 1H2 ¾¾® 1H3 + p
t /T 7.5/T
A æ 1ö 1 æ 1ö
and 1H2 + 1H3 ¾¾® 2He4 + n Using =ç ÷ or =ç ÷
If average power radiated by star is 1016W then find time A0 è 2ø 32 è 2 ø
in which deutron is exhausted. 5 7.5/T
æ 1ö æ 1ö 7.5
M(1H2) = 2.01471 amu M(2He4) = 4.00388 amu or çè ÷ø =çè ÷ø or 5= i.e. T = 1.5 hour
2 2 T
mP = 1.00783 amu and mn = 1.00866 amu
CONCEPT MAP
Isotones 734
Isotopes Isobars
Nuclides with same Nuclides with same Nuclides with same
Z but different A or N A or N but different Z number of neutrons (N)
cadmium etc.
Nuclei 735
1. In gamma ray emission from a nucleus (c) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron
(a) only the proton number changes
in b -decay is equal to the size of nucleus
(b) both the neutron number and the proton number
change (d) negative charge cannot exist in the nucleus
(c) there is no change in the proton number and the 11. For a nuclear fusion process, suitable nuclei are
neutron number (a) any Nuclei
(d) only the neutron number changes (b) heavy Nuclei
2. Fusion reaction occurs at temperatures of the order of (c) light Nuclei
(a) 103 K (b) 107 K (c) 10 K (d) 104 K
(d) nuclei lying in the middle of periodic table
3. An element A decays into an element C by a two step process
12. A nucleus m emits one a-particle and two b-particles.
A ® B + 2He4 and B ® C + 2e - . Then, n X
(a) A and C are isotopes (b) A and C are isobars The resulting nucleus is
(c) B and C are isotopes (d) A and B are isobars m -6 m -6
(a) n -4 Z (b) n Z
4. Nuclear forces are
(a) spin dependent and have no non-central part m-4 m-4
(c) n X (d) n-2 Y
(b) spin dependent and have a non-central part
(c) spin independent and have no non-central part 13. Which of the following is best nuclear fuel
(d) spin independent and have a non-central part (a) thorium 236 (b) plutonium 239
5. A radioactive substance has a half life of four months. Three (c) uranium 236 (d) neptunium 239
fourth of the substance will decay in 14. In the process of fission, the binding energy per nucleon
(a) three months (b) four months (a) increases
(c) eight months (d) twelve months
(b) decreases
6. In which sequence the radioactive radiations are emitted in
the following nuclear reaction? (c) remains unchanged
A A
(d) increases for mass number A < 56 nuclei but
ZX ¾¾
® Z + 1Y ¾¾
® decreases for mass number A > 56 nuclei
A–4 ¾¾ ® Z – 1 KA–4 15 One curie is equal to
Z–1K
(a) g, a, b (b) a, b, g (a) 3.7 × 1010 disintegration/sec
(c) b, g, a (d) b, a, g (b) 3.2 × 108 disintegration/sec
7. Radioactive substance emits (c) 2.8 × 1010 disintegration/sec
(a) a-rays (b) b-rays (d) None of these
(c) g-rays (d) All of the above 16. The volume of a nucleus is directly proportional to
8. The curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function of (a) A (b) A 3
atomic mass number has a sharp peak for helium nucleus.
This implies that helium (c) A (d) A 1/3
(a) can easily be broken up 17. An electron is
(b) is very stable (a) hadron (b) baryon
(c) can be used as fissionable meterial (c) a nucleon (d) a lepton.
(d) is radioactive 18. Which of the following has the mass closest in value to
9. If the end A of a wire is irradiated with a -rays and the other that of the positron? (1 a.m.u. = 931 MeV)
end B is irradiated with b -rays. Then (a) Proton (b) Electron
(a) a current will flow from A to B (c) Photon (d) Neutrino
(b) a current will flow from B to A 19. Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of
(c) there will be no current in the wire (a) 11 electrons, 11 protons and 13 neutrons
(d) a current will flow from each end to the mid-point (b) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
of the wire
(c) 11 protons and 13 neutrons
10. The electrons cannot exist inside the nucleus because
(d) 11 protons and 13 electrons
(a) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron
20. Outside a nucleus
in b -decay is much less than the size of nucleus
(a) neutron is stable
(b) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron (b) proton and neutron both are stable
in b -decay is much greater than the size of (c) neutron is unstable
nucleus (d) neither neutron nor proton is stable
736 PHYSICS
21. Atomic number of a nucleus is Z and atomic mass is M. The (a) binding energy (b) packing fraction
number of neutron is (c) ionisation energy (d) excitation energy
(a) M – Z (b) M (c) Z (d) M + Z 24. Half life of radioactive element depends upon
22. Which of the following nuclear reactions is not possible? (a) amount of element present
12 12 20 (b) temperature
(a) 6C+ 6 C ¾¾
® 10 Ne + 42 He
(c) pressure
9 1 (d) nature of element
(b) 4 Be + 1H ® 63 Li + 42 He
¾¾
25. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
11 1
® 94 Be + 42 He (a) nuclei break up at high temperature
(c) 5 Be + 1H ¾¾
(b) atoms get ionised at high temperature
7 4 (c) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the
(d) ® 11H + 104 B
3 Li + 2 He ¾¾
coulomb repulsion between nuclei
23. The mass defect per nucleon is called (d) molecules break up at high temperature
1. A gamma ray photon creates an electron-positron pair. If (a) 3.21 × 10–12 kg/m3 (b) 1.6 × 10–3 kg/m3
the rest mass energy of an electron is 0.5 MeV and the total (c) 2 × 109 kg/m3 (d) 1 × 1017 kg/m3
kinetic energy of the electron-positron pair is 0.78 MeV, 8. The half-life of radioactive Radon is 3.8 days. The time at
then the energy of the gamma ray photon must be the end of which (1/20)th of the Radon sample will remain
(a) 0.78 MeV (b) 1.78 MeV undecayed is (given log10e = 0.4343)
(c) 1.28 MeV (d) 0.28 MeV (a) 13.8 days (b) 16.5 days
2. Actinium 231, 231 AC89, emit in succession two b particles, (c) 33 days (d) 76 days
four a-particles, one b and one a plus several g rays. What 9. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life 2 hr emits
is the resultant isotope? radiation of intensity which is 64 times the permissible safe
(a) 221 Au79 (b) 211 Au 79 level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to
(c) 221 Pb 82 (d) 211 Pb 82 work safely with this source is
3. If 1 mg of U235 is completely annihilated, the energy liberated (a) 6 hr (b) 12 hr
is (c) 24 hr (d) 128 hr
(a) 9 × 1010 J (b) 9 × 1019 J 10. The intensity of gamma radiation from a given source is I0.
18 On passing through 37.5 mm of lead it is reduced to I0/8.
(c) 9 × 10 J (d) 9 × 1017 J
The thickness of lead which will reduce it to I0/2 is
4. If u denotes 1 atomic mass unit. One atom of an element
(a) (37.5)1/3 mm (b) (37.5)1/4 mm
has mass exactly equal to Au, where A is mass number of
(c) 37.5/3 mm (d) (37.5/4) mm
element.
11. In the uranium radioactive series, the initial nucleus is 92U238
(a) A = 1 and that the final nucleus is 82Pb206. When uranium nucleus
(b) A = 12 decays to lead, the number of a particles and b particles
(c) A = 16 emitted are
(d) A can take up any integral value from 1 to 110 (a) 8a, 6 b (b) 6a, 7b
5. A radioactive substance contains 10000 nuclei and its half- (c) 6a, 8b (d) 4a, 3b
life period is 20 days. The number of nuclei present at the 12. Radioactive element decays to form a stable nuclide, then
end of 10 days is the rate of decay of reactant is
(a) 7070 (b) 9000
N N
(c) 8000 (d) 7500
6. If Avogadro number is 6 × 1023, then number of protons,
neutrons and electrons in 14 gms of 6C14 are respecitvely (a) (b)
(a) 36 × 1023, 48 × 1023, 36 × 1023 t t
(b) 36 × 1023, 36 × 1023, 36 × 1023
(c) 48 × 1023, 36 × 1023, 48 × 1023 N N
(d) 48 × 1023, 48 × 1023, 36 × 1023
7. If the distance between nuclei is 2 × 10–13 cm, the density of (c) (d)
nuclear material is
t t
Nuclei 737
31. If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of a single U235 40. The masses of neutron and proton are 1.0087 a.m.u. and
nucleus, the number of fissions required per second to 1.0073 a.m.u. respectively. If the neutrons and protons
produce 1 kilowatt power shall be (Given 1eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J) combine to form a helium nucleus (alpha particles) of mass
(a) 3.125 × 1013 (b) 3.125 × 1014 4.0015 a.m.u the binding energy fo the helium nucleus will
(c) 3.125 × 10 15 (d) 3.125 × 1016 be (1 a.m.u. = 931 MeV)
é1ù (a) 28.4 MeV (b) 20.8 MeV
32. The fossil bone has a 14C : 12C ratio, which is ê ú of that (c) 27.3 MeV (d) 14.2 MeV
ë 16 û
41. The radioactivity of a sample is R1 at a time T1 and R2 at a
in a living animal bone. If the half-life of 14C is 5730 years,
time T2. If the half-life of the specimen is T, the number of
then the age of the fossil bone is
atoms that have disintegrated in the time (T1 – T2) is
(a) 11460 years (b) 17190 years
proportional to
(c) 22920 years (d) 45840 years
(a) (R1T1 – R2T2) (b) (R1 – R2)
TA (c) (R1 – R2)/T (d) (R1 – R2) T
33. The ratio of half-life times of two elements A and B is T .
B 42. A radioactive element X converts into another stable
element Y. Half life of X is 2 hrs. Initially only X is present.
lA
The ratio of respective decay constant , is After time t, the ratio of atoms of X and Y is found to be 1 :
lB 4, then t in hours is
(a) TB / TA (b) TA / TB (a) 2 (b) 4
TA + TB TA - TB (c) between 4 and 6 (d) 6
(c) (d) 43. After 150 days, the activity of a radioactive sample is 5000
TA TA
dps. The activity becomes 2500 dps after another 75 days.
34. An archaeologist analyses the wood in a prehistoric The initial activity of the sample is
structure and finds that C14 (Half life = 5700 years) to C12 is
only one-fourth of that found in the cells of buried plants. (a) 20000 dps (b) 40000 dps
The age of the wood is about (c) 7500 dps (d) 10000 dps
(a) 5700 years (b) 2850 years 44. If the total binding energies of 2 4 56 235
1 H, 2 He, 26 Fe & 92 U
(c) 11,400 years (d) 22,800 years
35. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decay nuclei are 2.22, 28.3, 492 and 1786 MeV respectively, identify
according to the scheme the most stable nucleus of the following.
b a g (a) 56 (b) 2 (c) 235 (d) 4
26 Fe 1H 92 U 2 He
a
A ¾¾
® A1 ¾¾
® A 2 ¾¾
® A 3 ¾¾
® A4
If the mass number and atomic number of ‘A’ are 180 and 72 45. A neutron travelling with a velocity v and kinetic energy E
respectively, then what are these numbers for A4 has a perfectly elastic head-on collision with a nucleus of
(a) 172 and 69 (b) 174 and 70 an atom of mass number A at rest. The fraction of total
(c) 176 and 69 (d) 176 and 70 energy retained by the neutron is approximately
36. 1 g of hydrogen is converted into 0.993 g of helium in a (a) [(A – 1)/(A + 1)]2 (b) [(A + 1)/(A – 1)]2
thermonuclear reaction. The energy released is (c) [(A – 1)/A]2 (d) [(A + 1)/A]2
(a) 63 × 107 J (b) 63 × 1010 J 46. At any instant, the ratio of the amount of radioactive
(c) 63 × 10 J 14 (d) 63 × 1020 J substances is 2 : 1. If their half lives be respectively 12 and
37. The mass defect in a particular nuclear reaction is 0.3 grams. 16 hours, then after two days, what will be the ratio of the
The amount of energy liberated in kilowatt hour is substances ?
(Velocity of light = 3 × 108 m/s) (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
(a) 1.5 × 106 (b) 2.5 × 106 47. Half lives for a and b emission of a radioactive material are
(c) 3 × 106 (d) 7.5 × 106 16 years and 48 years respectively. When material decays
38. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an giving a and b emission simultaneously, time in which 3/
a-particle are x1 and x2 respectively. What will be the energy 4th material decays is
Q released in the reaction 1H2 + 1H2 ® 2He4 + Q
(a) 29 years (b) 24 years
(a) 4(x1 + x2) (b) 4(x2 – x1)
(c) 2(x1 + x2) (d) 2(x2 – x1) (c) 64 years (d) 12 years
39. Atomic weight of boron is 10.81 and it has two isotopes 48. In an a-decay the kinetic energy of a-particle is 48 MeV
10 11 10 11 and Q-value of the reaction is 50 MeV. The mass number of
5B and 5B . Then ratio of 5B : 5B in nature would
be the mother nucleus is X. Find value of X/25.
(a) 19 : 81 (b) 10 : 11 (Assume that daughter nucleus is in ground state)
(c) 15 : 16 (d) 81 : 19 (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
Nuclei 739
49. A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets 57. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of
disintegrated into two small fragments of mass number 80 frequency n and the nucleus recoils. The recoil energy will
and 120. If binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is be
6.5 MeV and for daughter nuclei is 7 MeV and 8 MeV (a) Mc2 – hn (b) h2n2 / 2Mc2
respectively, then the energy released in the decay is (c) zero (d) hn
X × 110 MeV. Find the value of X.
58. Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
into a stable nucleus R. At time t = 0, number of P species
50. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as 9750 are 4 N0 and that of Q are N0. Half-life of P (for conversion
counts per minute at t = 0 & 975 counts per minute at T = 5 to R) is 1 minute where as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially
minutes. The decay constant is approximately. there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When number
(a) 0.922 per minutes (b) 0.691 per minutes of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the number of nuclei of R
(c) 0.461 per minutes (d) 0.230 per minutes present in the sample would be
51. In a fission reaction 9N 0
(a) 3N0 (b)
236
®117 X +117 Y + n + n 2
92 U
the binding energy per nucleon of X & Y is 8.5 MeV. Whereas 5N0
(c) (d) 2N0
of 236U is 7.6 MeV. The total energy liberated will be about 2
(a) 2000 MeV (b) 200 MeV 59. The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time
(c) 2 MwV (d) 200 KeV 2
52. Half lives of two radio active substance A & B are interval (t 2 – t1) between the time t2 when of it has
3
respectively 20 minutes & 40 minutes. Initially the samples
of A & B have equal numbers of nulcei. After 80 minutes the 1
decayed and the time t1 when of it had decayed is
ratio of remaining numbers of A & B nuclei is 3
(a) 1 : 16 (b) 4 : 1 (a) 30 days (b) 50 days
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 1 (c) 60 days (d) 15 days
53. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of a neutron. 27
60. If the nuclear radius of Al is 3.6 fermi, the approximate
A given nucleus, of binding energy B, contains Z protons
nuclear radius of 64Cu in fermi is
and N neutrons. The mass M(N, Z) of the nucleus is given
by (c is the velocity of light) (a) 2.4 (b) 1.2
(a) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2 (c) 4.8 (d) 3.6
(b) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2 61. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A1 and A2
(c) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2 with half lives of 20 s and 10 s respectively. Initially the
(d) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2 mixture has 40 g of A1 and 160 g of A2. The amount of the
two in the mixture will become equal after
54. The mass of a 37 Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of (a) 60 s (b) 80 s
the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy per (c) 20 s (d) 40 s
nucleon of 37 Li nucleus is nearly 62. A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the
process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion reaction is
(a) 46 MeV (b) 5.6 MeV
0.02866 a.m.u. The energy liberated per a.m.u. is
(c) 3.9 MeV (d) 23 MeV
(Given : 1 a.m.u = 931 MeV)
55. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as
N0 counts per minute at t = 0 and N0/e counts per minute at (a) 26.7 MeV (b) 6.675 MeV
t = 5 minutes. The time (in minutes) at which the activity (c) 13.35 MeV (d) 2.67 MeV
reduces to half its value is 63. The half life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 20 years. It decays
to another element ‘Y’ which is stable. The two elements
5
(a) log e 2 / 5 (b) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the ratio of 1 : 7 in a sample
loge 2 of a the given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be
(c) 5 log 102 (d) 5 loge 2 (a) 60 years (b) 80 years
56. The half life of a radioactive isotope 'X' is 50 years. It decays (c) 100 years (d) 40 years
to another element 'Y' which is stable. The two elements 'X' 64. Fraction of tritium left after 150 years (half life of tritium is
and 'Y' were found to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample of 12.5 years) is
a given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to be
(a) 1/ 1024 (b) 1/2048
(a) 150 years (b) 200 years
(c) 1/4096 (d) 1/8192
(c) 250 years (d) 100 years
740 PHYSICS
65. Activity of a radioactive sample decreases to (1/3) rd of its 71. A radioactive sample with a half life of 1 month has the
original value in 3 days. Then, in 9 days its activity will label : ‘Activity = 2 micro curies on 1–8–1991. What would
become be its activity two months earlier ?
(a) (1/27) of the orginal value (a) 1.0 micro curie (b) 0.5 micro curie
(b) (1/9) of the original value (c) 4 micro curie (d) 8 micro curie
(c) (1/18) of the original value 72. The nucleus 115 after two successive b– decay will
48 Cd ,
(d) (1/3) of the orignal value give
66. 16
A duetron strikes 8 O nucleus with subsequent emission (a) 115 (b) 114
46 Pa 49 In
of alpha particle. Identify the nucleus so produced (c) 113 (d) 115
50 Sn 50 Sn
(a) 7 (b) 10
3 Li 5B DIRECTIONS (Qs.73 to 75) : Each of these question contains
two statements : Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2
(c) 13 (d) 14 (Reason). Answer these questions from the following four
7N 7N
options.
67. The more readily fissionable isotope of uranium has an
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a
atomic mass of
correct explanation for Statement -1
(a) 234 (b) 235 (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement -2 is True; Statement-2 is
(c) 236 (d) 238 NOT a correct explanation for Statement - 1
68. A nuclear reaction is given by (c) Statement-1 is True, Statement- 2 is False
A (d) Statement-1 is False, Statement -2 is True
ZX ® Z+1Y A + -1 e 0 + n , represents
73. Statement- 1: The binding energy per nucleon, for nuclei
(a) fission (b) b-decay with atomic mass number A > 100, decrease with A.
(c) s -decay (d) fusion Statement- 2 : The forces are weak for heavier nuclei.
69. The half life of the radioactive substance is 40 days. The 74. Statement- 1 : Radioactivity of 108 undecayed radioactive
substance will disintegrate completely in nuclei of half life of 50 days is equal to that of 1.2 × 108
(a) 40 days (b) 400 days number of undecayed nuclei of some other material with
half life of 60 days.
(c) 4000 days (d) infinite time
Statement- 2 : Radioactivity is proportional to half-life.
70. The decay constant of radium is 4.28 × 10–4 per year. Its
75. Statement- 1 : The ionising power of b-particle is less
half life will be compared to a-particles but their penetrating power is more.
(a) 2000 years (b) 1240 years Statement- 2 : The mass of b-particle is less than the mass
(c) 63 years (d) 1620 years of a-particle.
4. Mx and My denote the atomic masses of the parent and the 10. a-particles, b-particles and g-rays are all having same energy.
daughter nuclei respectively in radioactive decay. The Q – Their penetrating power in a given medium in increasing
value for a b– decay is Q1 and that for a b+ decay is Q2. If me order will be [NEET Kar. 2013]
denotes the mass of an electron, then which of the following (a) b, g, a (b) g, a, b
statements is correct? (c) a, b, g (d) b, a, g
(a) Q1 = (Mx – My) c2 and Q2 = [Mx – My – 2me] c2 11. How does the binding energy per nucleon vary with the
(b) Q1 = (Mx – My) c2 and Q2 = (Mx – My) c2 increase in the number of nucleons? [NEET Kar. 2013]
(c) Q1 = (Mx – My – 2me) c2 and Q2 = (Mx – My + 2ce) c2 (a) Increases continuously with mass number
(d) Q1 = (Mx – My + 2me) c2 and Q2 = (Mx – My + 2 me)c2 (b) Decreases continuously with mass number
(c) First decreases and then increases with increase in
5. Tritium is an isotope of hydrogen whose nucleus triton
mass number
contains neutrons and 1 proton. Free neutrons decay into
(d) First increases and then decreases with increase in
p + e + n. If one of the neutrons is Triton decays, it would mass number
transform into He3 nucleus. This does not happen. This is 12. The Binding energy per nucleon of 73 Li and 42 He nuclei
because
are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, respectively.
(a) Triton energy is less than that of a He3 nucleus
(b) The electron created in the beta decay process cannot In the nuclear reaction 73 Li + 11H ® 42 He + Q , the value of
remain in the nucleus energy Q released is : [2014]
(c) both the neutrons in triton have to decay simultaneously (a) 19.6 MeV (b) – 2.4 MeV
resulting in a nucleus with 3 protons, which is not a (c) 8.4 MeV (d) 17.3 MeV
He3 nucleus. 13. A radio isotope ‘X’ with a half life 1.4 × 10 9 years decays to
(d) free neutrons decay due to external perturbations ‘Y’ which is stable. A sample of the rock from a cave was
which is absent in triton nucleus found to contain ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the ratio 1 : 7. The age of the
6. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. this rock is : [2014]
is because of the fact that (a) 1.96 × 109 years (b) 3.92 × 109 years
(a) neutrons are heavier than protons (c) 4.20 × 109 years (d) 8.40 × 109 years
(b) electrostatic force between protons are repulsive 27
14. If radius of the 12 Al nucleus is taken to be RAl, then the
(c) neutrons decay into protons through beta decay
(d) nuclear force between neutrons are weaker than that radius of 125
nucleus is nearly: [2015]
53 Te
between protons
7. In a nuclear reactor, moderators slow down the neutrons 5 3
(a) R Al (b) R Al
which come out in a fission process. the moderator used 3 5
have light nuclei. Heavy nuclei will not serve the purpose, æ 13 ö
1/3
æ 53 ö
1/3
n - lN = (n - lN 0 ) e - lt
t
13. (a) We assume that mass number of nucleus when it was at n æn ö
- ç - N 0 ÷ e -lt = N
rest = A l èl ø
Q mass number of a -particle = 4
\ mass number of remaining nucleus = A - 4 19. (d) E = mc 2 = 10 -3 ´ 10 -3 (3 ´108 ) 2 = 9 × 1010 J
As there is no external force, so momentum of the system
20. (b) A nucleus is denoted by ZXA
will remain conserved
An isotope should have same Z.
4v a–particle = 2He4; b–particle = –1b0
Þ 0 = (A - 4)v¢ + 4v Þ v' = -
(A - 4) The emission of one a particle and the emission of
negative sign represents that direction is opposite to two b particles maintain the Z same.
the direction of motion of a -particle. Hence, for isotope formation 2b particles and one a
particle are emitted.
14. (b) Energy of electron = m e c 2
21. (b) R = R 0 (A)1/ 3
Energy of positron = m p c 2
1/ 3 1/ 3
R1 æ A1 ö æ 256 ö
\ = =ç =4
me = m p , c = speed of light. R 2 çè A 2 ÷ø è 4 ÷ø
Thus according to conservation of energy released R
R 2 = 1 = 2 fermi
2 4
= 2m e c
22. (b) The order of magnitude of mass and volume of uranium
(
= 2 ´ 9.1 ´ 10 -31 3 ´108 )2
= 1.6 ´ 10 -13 Joules . nucleus will be
15. (b) Conservation of linear momentum requires: m ; A (1.67 × 10–27 kg) (A is atomic number)
mradonvradon= mheliumvhelium with helium identified as the 4 3 4
alpha particle. The nuclear masses can be approximated V= pr ; p[(1.25 ´ 10-15 m)A1/ 3 ]3
3 3
by their mass numbers (222 and 4). Thus, the recoil
; (8.2 × 10–45m3)A
speed of the radon is (4/222) × 1.5 × 107 m/s = 2.7 x 105
m/s.
m A(1.67 ´ 10 -27 kg)
16. (c) Energy released per fission is » 200 MeV Hence, r = =
V (8.2 ´ 10-45 m3 )A
17. (d)
; 2.0 × 1017 kg / m3.
dN
18. (c) = n - lN 23. (c) The chemical reaction of process is 212 H ® 24 He
dt
Energy released = 4 ´ (7.1) - 4(1.1) = 24 eV
dN = (n - lN)dt
24. (a)
N t N 25. (c) Binding energy per nucleon increases with atomic
dN 1 - ldN
ò n - lN ò
= dt Þ -
l ò n - lN = t number. The greater the binding energy per nucleon
the more stable is the nucleus.
N0 0 N0
For 26Fe56 number of nucleons is 56.
1 This is most stable nucleus, since maximum energy is
Þ- [log e (n - lN )]NN0 = t needed to pull a nucleon away from it.
l
744 PHYSICS
26. (a) Rest energy of an electron = mec2 39. (a) Let the percentage of B10 atoms be x, then average
Here me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg and C = velocity of light atomic weight
\ Rest energy = 9.1 × 10–31 × (3 × 108)2 joule 10x + 11(100 - x)
= = 10.81 Þ x = 19
100
9.1 ´ 10-31 ´ (3 ´ 108 ) 2
= eV » 510 KeV
1.6 ´ 10-19 N 19
\ B10 =
27. (b) 28. (b, c) 29. (c) N 11 81
B
30. (d) Because radioactivity is a spontaneous phenomenon.
40. (a) B.E. = Dmc2 = D × 931 MeV
6 -19 = [2(1.0087 + 1.0073) – 4.0015] × 931 = 28.4 MeV
æ Eö n ´ 200 ´ 10 ´ 1.6 ´ 10
31. (a) P = n ç ÷ Þ 1000 =
è tø t 41. (d) Radioactivity at T1 , R1 = l N1
Radioactivity at T2, R2 = l N2
n
Þ = 3.125 ´ 1013. \ Number of atoms decayed in time
t
(T1 – T2) = (N1 –N2)
14 1 N
C = (R 1 - R 2 ) (R1 - R 2 ) T
32. (c) = = = µ (R1 - R 2 ) T
12
C 16 N0 l 0.693
N n
æ 1ö 42. (c) Let N0 be the number of atoms of X at time t = 0.
Q N0 = ç ÷
è 2ø Then at t = 4 hrs (two half lives)
n 4 n
1 æ 1ö æ 1ö æ 1ö N0 3N0
Þ = çè ÷ø Þ çè ÷ø = çè ÷ø Nx = and N y =
16 2 2 2 4 4
or, n = 4 \ Nx/Ny = 1/3
and at t = 6 hrs (three half lives)
t
or =4
T N0 7N 0
Nx = and N y =
or t = 4 × T = 4 × 5730 = 22920 years 8 8
Nx 1
ln 2 ln 2 or =
33. (a) T1/ 2 = \l = Ny 7
l T1/ 2
1 1 1
The given ratio lies between and .
In2 ln 2 l T 4 3 7
Þ lA = ,lB = Þ A = B.
TA TB l B TA Therefore, t lies between 4 hrs and 6 hrs.
34. (c) 43. (a) Activity of sample becomes 2500 from 5000 in 75 days
therefore its half life is 75 days, so
t / 5700
C14 1 æ 1 ö t R
= =ç ÷ Þ = 2 Þ t = 11400 years R = 0 = 5000 Þ R 0 = 5000 ´ 4 = 20, 000
C12 4 è 2 ø 5700 150
2 75
180 a b
35. (a) 72 A ® 70 A1176
¾¾ ® 71 A 2176
¾¾ 2.22
44. (a) B.E H = = 1.11
2
a g
®69 A3172 ¾¾®69 A 4172
¾¾ 28.3
B.E He = = 7.08
36. (b) Dm = 1 – 0.993 = 0.007 gm 4
\ E = (Dm)c2 = (0.007 ×10–3 ) (3× 108)2 = 63 × 1010 J. 492
B.E Fe = = 8.78 = maximum
0.3 56
37. (d) E = Dm.c2 Þ E = ´ (3 ´ 108 )2 = 2.7 ´ 1013 J
1000 1786
B.E U = = 7.6
235
2.7 ´ 1013
= 6
= 7.5 ´ 106 kWh. 56
3.6 ´ 10 26 Fe is most stable as it has maximum binding energy
dN E hn
50. (c) = l N = activity R Mu = =
dt c c
Recoil energy
R0 = lN0 at t = 0, R1 = lN1 at t = 5 minutes
2
2.303 N 1 1 M2u 2 1 æ hn ö h 2 n2
where l = log 0 Mu 2 = = =
t N1 2 2 M 2M çè c ÷ø 2Mc2
51. (b) Liberated energy Q = 117 × 8.5 + 117 × 8.5 – 236 × 7.6 = 58. (b) Initially P ® 4N0
200 MeV. Thus, in fission of one Uranium nuclei nearly Q ® N0
200 MeV energy is liberated. Half life TP = 1 min.
TQ = 2 min.
N A (1 / 2) n A (1 / 2) 4 1
52. (c) = = = , where n A & n B are Let after time t number of nuclei of P and Q are equal,
N B (1 / 2) n B (1 / 2) 2 4
that is
number of half lives of samples A & B respectively. NA
& NB are the remaining numbers of A & B after 80 minutes 4N0 N0 4N 1
t /1
= t/2
Þ t /1
= t/2 Þ 2t/1 = 4.2t/2
in this case. 2 2 2 2
22.2t/2 = 2(2 + t/2)
B.E
53. (d) Mass defect =
c2 Þ
t t t
= 2 + Þ = 2 Þ t = 4 min
Mass of nucleus = Mass of proton 1 2 2
+ mass of neutron – mass defect (4N0 ) N0
NP = =
54. (b) B.E. = 0.042 × 931 ; 42 MeV 4 /1
2 4
746 PHYSICS
1 t t
59. (b) N1 = N0 e–lt N1 = N0 = -2
3 20 10
N0
= N0 e -lt2 t t
3 - =2
20 10
1 2
Þ = e -lt ...(i) t
3 =2
20
2 t = 40 s
N2 = N0
3 62. (b) Mass defect Dm = 0.02866 a.m.u.
2 Energy = 0.02866 × 931 = 26.7 MeV
N 0 = N 0 e -lt1 As 1H2 + 1H2 ¾® 2He4
3
Energy liberated per a.m.u = 13.35/2 MeV
2
Þ = e -lt1 ...(ii) = 6.675 MeV
3
1
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii) 63. (a) The value of x is
8
1 x0
= e -l (t2 -t1 ) =
x
= 0 Þ t = 3T = 3 × 20 = 60 years
2 8 23
l(t2 - t1 ) = ln2 Hence the estimated age of the rock is 60 years
ALTERNATE : X ® Y0
ln 2
t 2 - t1 = = T1/2 = 50 days at t = 0 N0 0
l
at t = t N N0 – N
60. (c) The radius of the nuclears is directly proportional to
cube root of atomic number i.e. R µ A1/3 N 1 N 1
= = =
Þ R = R 0 A 1/3 , where R 0 is a constant of N0 - N 7 N0 8
proportionality t = 3T
1/ 3 1/ 3 = 3 × 20 = 60 years
R2 æ A2 ö æ 64 ö 4
= ç ÷ ç ÷ =
R1 è A1 ø è 27 ø 3 150
64. (c) n= = 12
12.5
where R1 = the radius of 27Al, and
A1 = Atomic mass number of Al N æ 1ö
12
R2 = the radius of 64Cu and A2 = Atomic mass number =ç ÷
N0 è 2 ø
of C4
4
65. (a) By Radioactive decay law,
R2 = 3.6 ´ = 4.8m N = N0 e–lt
3
Taking log on both sides, we get
61. (d) Let, the amount of the two in the mixture will become
equal after t years. N0
lt = log e
The amount of A1, which remains after t years N
N 01 1
N1 = t/20 As Na = N0
(2) 3
The amount of A2, which remains, after t years and, t = 3 × 24 × 60 × 60 sec
N 02 0.477
N2 = \ l= = 1.8 × 10–6/sec
(2) t/10 3 ´ 24 ´ 60 ´ 60
Nuclei 747
Binding energy of 1 H3 is less than that of 2He3 From the graph of BE/A versus mass number A it is
nucleus, So, transformation is not possible clear that, BE/A first increases and then decreases with
energetically. increase in mass number.
6. (b) Stable heavy nuclei have more neutrons than protons 12. (d) BE of 2He4 = 4 × 7.06 = 28.24 MeV
because electrostatic force between protons is
BE of 73 Li = 7 × 5.60 = 39.20 MeV
repulsive, which causes unstability of nucleus.
7 1
7. (b) The moderator used have light nuclei (like proton). 3 Li +1 H ® 2 He 4 + 2He 4 + Q
When protons undergo perfectly elastic collision with
39.20 28.24 ´ 2(= 56.48 MeV)
the neutron emitted their velocities are exchanged,
i.e., neutrons come to rest and protons move with the Therefore, Q = 56.48 – 39.20 = 17.28 MeV.
velocity of neutrons. To slowdown the speed of Nx 1
neutrons substance should be made up of proton for 13. (c) As = (Given)
Ny 7
perfectly elastic i.e., we need light nuclei not heavy
nuclei because heavy nuclei will not serve the purpose 3
Nx 1 æ1ö
because elastic collisions of neutrons with heavy Þ = =ç ÷
nuclei will not slow them down or speed but only Nx + Ny 8 è 2 ø
direction will change. Therefore, age of the rock
NEET/AIPMT (2013-2017) Questions t = 3T1/2 = 3 × 1.4 × 109 yrs = 4.2 × 109 yrs.
8. (b) Mass defect Dm = 0.02866 a.m.u. 14. (a) As we know, R = R0 (A)1/3
Energy = 0.02866 × 931 = 26.7 MeV where A = mass number
As 1H2 + 1H2 ¾® 2He4 RAI = R0 (27)1/3 = 3R0
Energy liberated per a.m.u = 13.35/2 MeV 5
= 6.675 MeV RTe = R0 (125)1/3 = 5R0 =R
3 AI
1 15. (d) In an explosion a body breaks up into two pieces of
9. (a) The value of x is unequal masses both part will have numerically equal
8
momentum and lighter part will have more velocity.
x0 x U ® Th + He
= = 0 Þ t = 3T = 3 × 20 = 60 years
8 23
P2 P2
Hence the estimated age of the rock is 60 years KETh = , KEHe =
ALTERNATE : X ® Y0 2mTh 2m He
at t = 0 N0 0 since mHe is less so KEHe will be more.
at t = t N N0 – N
16. (a) Given, l A = 8l, l B = l
N 1 N 1
= = = NA
N0 - N 7 N0 8 NB =
e
t = 3T
= 3 × 20 = 60 years e -l A t
10. (c) Increasing order of penetrating power : Þ N o e -l B t = No
a < b < g. e
For same energy, lighter particle has higher e -lt = e -8lt e-1
penentrating power.
e -lt = e -8lt -1
11. (d) BE/A
Comparing both side powers
-lt = -8lt - 1
–1 = 7lt
1
t=–
7l
A 1
The best possible answer is t =
7l
Semiconductor Electronics :
3. Hexagonal Simple cubic (sc) a=b¹c Zn, ZnO, Cd, Ni, graphite and quartz
s = b = 90°
g = 120°
4. Rhombohedral Simple cubic (sc) a=b= c Sb, Bi, calcite
(Trigonal) s = b = g ¹ 90° < 120°
5. Orthorhombic (i) Simple cubic (sc) a¹b¹c KNO3, gallanium, mercury chloride, Rhombic
(Rhombic) (ii) Base centred cubic s = b = g = 90° sulphur
(iii) Body centered cubic (bcc)
(iv) Face centered cubic (fcc)
6. Monoclinic (i) Simple cubic (sc) a¹b¹c Na2SO4, KClO3, FeSO4
(ii) Base centered or s = g = 90° ¹ b
end centered cubic (ecc)
7. Triclinic Simple cubic (sc) a¹b¹c CuSO4, K2Cr2O7
s ¹ b ¹ g ¹ 90°
Characteristics of the unit cell of a cubic system Volume of atoms per unit cell
Packing factor ( P.F .) =
(i) Volume of a unit cell (V) = (a × b × c) or V = a × b × c Volume of unit cell
(ii) Mass and density of a unit cell :
The mass of unit cell = number of atoms or molecules in the
cell × mass of each atom
M
or, m = p × ma or m = p ´ where M = molecular wt. of
Na
the substance
M
p
Na pM
\ density d = =
V VN a
If edge a, is given in picometre then Example 1.
pM In a cubic unit cell of bcc structure, the lattice points
d= g / cm 3
a 3 N a ´ 10 -30 i.e. number of atoms are
(iii) Number of atoms (N) in a unit cell or the total number of (a) 2 (b) 6
Nf Nc (c) 8 (d) 12
atoms per unit cell is given by N = N i + + Solution : (a)
2 8
No. of lattice points in a crystal structure will be
where Ni = no. of body centred or interior atoms
Nf = no. of face centered atoms N C N F Ni
n= + +
Nc = no. of corner atoms. 8 2 1
Coordination Number In bcc crystal NC = 8 and NF = 0 and N i = 1 ;
The number of nearest neighbours of a given atom in the crystal
is called the coordination number. 8 0 1
\ n= + + =2
Half of the distance between the centres of two neighbouring 8 2 1
atoms is called atomic radius . It is also called lattice constant or Example 2.
lattice parameter. Sodium has body-centred packing. Distance between two
Atomic Packing Factor or Density of Packing nearest atoms is 3.7 Å. Determine the lattice parameter.
It is defined as ratio of the volume occupied by all the atoms in Solution :
a unit cell to the total volume of the unit cell. Atomic radius for bcc structure is
a 3 or a = 4r = 4(3.7 / 2) = 4 ´ 1.75 = 4.3Å
r=
4 3 3 3 ´ 1.732
i.e., Lattice parameter = 4.3 Å
Example 3.
Determine the atomic packing factor for a face centred
cubic cell.
S.C. B.C.C F.C.C
Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 751
6N 2p
3s
2N 2s
1N 1s
Atomic
Fig.2(a) separation Fig. 3- Energy bands in sodium metal (G-state)
752 PHYSICS
Each band has a total of N individual levels. Each level can hold Insulators
2 × (2l + 1) electrons (l is azimuthal quantum number), so the In these substances (such as diamond), the upper most level is
capacity of each band is 2(2l + 1)N electrons. compeletely filled i.e., no unoccupied state is available for electron
Fig - 3 shows a complete representation of energy bands in to move. The nearest unoccupied states are in next band(called
sodium metal. The 1s, 2s & 2p bands are each full, 3s band is half C.B.), but this is separated from filled band (called V.B.) by an
& 3p band is completely empty. The 1s & 2s bands each contain energy gap (Eg) of about 6eV. Hence electron refuses to carry an
2N electrons & 2p band contain 6N electrons. The 3s band contain electric current.
N electron, so it is half filled. The band, which can hold 6N Semiconductors
electrons is completely empty. A semiconductor, has a completely filled valence band i.e., it
When we add energy to a system i.e., to sodium metal, the electron resembles an insulator at zero temperature. However, the gap
can move from filled state to empty state. In this case, the electron between this filled valence band & next band (C.B.) is small, about
can move from partially full states of 3s band to empty states of 1eV or less. Hence electrons can easily make the transitions from
3s band by absorbing small amount of energy or move to 3p one band to another at room temperature & then carry an electric
band by absorbing larger amount of energy. current (Silicon and germanium are semiconductors).
In a solid at zero temperature, the electron settle into the available In a semiconductors, in thermal equilibrium, nenh = ni2
states of lowest energy. The lower energy bands will therefore There are two types of semiconductor.
be completely filled & the upper most energy band will be either (i) Intrinsic (or pure) semiconductors : These semiconductors
completely filled or partially filled, depending on the number of are pure materials in which the thermal vibrations of the
electrons & on the number of available states. The diffence lattice have liberated charge carriers (i.e., electrons & holes).
between conductor & insulator arises from a partially filled or a In intrinsic semiconductor, the number of electrons (n e) are
completely filled upper most energy band. equal to the number of holes (nh).
CONDUCTORS, INSLULATORS AND (ii) Extrinsic (or impure or doped) semiconductors : They are
SEMICONDUCTORS impure semiconductors in which minutes traces of impurity
Conductors introduces mobile charge carriers [which may be +ive (holes)
A conductor such as sodium, has a partially filled band (in sodium, or -ive (electrons)] in addition to those liberated by thermal
the upper most band 3s is half filled). In these substance, electrons vibration.
are free to move by applying an electric field, because un- Again there are two types of extrinsic semiconductors.
occupied states are available in upper most band (in 3s band of (a) N-type semiconductor : When we add a pentavalent
sodium only half states are completely filled & half states are impurity in intrinsic semiconductor, then we obtain N-
empty or un-occupied). Therefore these electrons are mobile & type semi-conductor. The pentavalent impurity
can contribute to electrical & thermal conductivity. For example substances are P, As & Sb. In N-type semi-conductors,
the energy bands of sodium metal are shown in fig. 4. the electrons are majority carriers & holes are
E minority carriers.
i.e., ne >> nh
Energy
(b) P-type semiconductor : When we add a trivalent
3p impurity in intrinsic semiconductor (such as B, Al, In),
we obtain p-type semiconductor.
3s In p-type semiconductors, the holes are majority
Actual separation carriers & electrons are minority carriers.
of atom in crystal i.e., nh >> ne
2p In acceptor impurity (trivalent element) energy level is just above
R the top of valence band (V.B.)
O R0
Fig.4 C.B.
Origin of energy bands in sodium metals, as atoms move together
the energy level spreads into bands.
*EF
In an isolated sodium atom, the six 3p lowest excited state for Acceptor energy level
V.B.
valence electrons are about 2.1 eV above two 3s G-states. But in
solid sodium the 3s & 3p bands are spread out enough so that (*EF is called fermi level & at T = 0 all the states below are
they actually overlap, forming a single band. completely filled. In N-type semiconductor it lies between
Because each sodium atom has only one valence electron but conduction band & donor energy level Ed & in case of P-type, it
eight 3s & 3p states, that single band is only 1/8 filled & other lies between acceptor level Ea & valence band. In intrinsic
states are unoccupied. semiconductor the EF level lies in midway between C.B. & V.B.)
Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 753
Valence band
(VB)
Valence band
(VB) Valence band
(VB)
holes concentration but less concentration of electrons than This recombination produces narrow region near junction called
n-type semicondutor. depletion layer. Since this region is depleted of free or mobile
charge carrier and contains only immobile charge carriers, hence
it is called depletion region. Due to these immobile charge carriers,
a potential barrier VB is established & further diffusion is stopped
& equilibrium is reached (shown by fig. 1(b)). The sign of VB is
+ive towards the n-type & –ive towards p-type.
The schematic symbol of diode & corresponding equivalance in
terms of VB are shown below in fig. 2 (a) & (b).
Depletion
VB layer
Cathode Anode
(n) VB
(p) (b)
(a)
o x
Fig (2) (c)
In fig-2(a) the triangle shows the direction of current. For Si
diode the value of VB is 0.7V & for Ge diode the value of VB is
0.3V.
FORWARD AND REVERSE BIAS OF p-n JUNCTION
DIODE
Forward Bias
When p-side of the p-n junction is connected to the +ve terminal
of a battery and n to –ve terminal, conduction takes place and
the diode is said to be forward biased.
Due to this difference in concentration, density gradient is p n
established across the junction resulting in majority carriers
diffusion : Holes (+ive ions) diffuses from p-type to n-type &
electrons (–ive ions) from n-type to p-type (shown in fig (a)) &
terminating their existence by recombination. + –
Reverse Bias
Diffusion and Drift Current
When p-side of he p-n junction is connected to the -ve terminal
Diffusion current : We know that due to concentration difference,
of a battery and n-side to the +ve terminal, there is no conduction
holes diffuse from p-side to n-side (in figure -1(a)) they move
takes place and diode is said to be reverse biased.
from left to right) & electron diffuse from n-side to p-side (in fig
1(a) they move from right to left). But electric field at junction p n
repels the holes as they come to depletion layer & only those
holes which have high kinetic energy are able to cross the
potential barrier. Similarly electric field at junction repels electrons
& those having high kinetic energy cross the junction. – +
The electric potential of n-side is more +ive (or higher) than Effect of biasing : In forward bias, the thickness of depletion
p-side –ive (or lower). The variation of potential barrier VB is layer decreases and potential barrier reduces, while in reverse
shown in fig (c). bias, the thickness of depletion layer increases and potential
The potential difference created across the p-n junction due to barrier also increases. In forward bias the current increases
the diffusion of electrons and holes is called potential barrier. exponentially & in reverse bias, the current remains constant at
So diffusion results in an electric current from p-side to n-side very small magnitude upto breakdown voltage Vo & after that it
known as diffusion current. increases sharply without any further increase of reverse voltage
Drift current : Due to thermal collision, some times a covalent shown in fig.1.
bond is broken & electron-hole pair is created. But those electron- V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode in forward and reverse
hole pairs are destroyed easily due to recombination. This process bias.
[generation of electron-hole (e-h) pair] occurs in the whole part I
of material. Breakdown Forward
But, if e-h pair is created in depletion region, the electron is quickly voltage bias
pushed by electric field towards n-side & holes towards p-side. V0
As e-h pairs are continuously created in depletion region, there V
knee
is a regular flow of electron towards n-side & holes towards voltage
Reverse
p-side & so current flows from n-side to p-side. This current is
bias
drift current.
In steady state the magnitude of drift current is equal to diffusion
current & since they are in opposite direction, hence there is no Fig (1)
net transfer of charge at any cross section.
Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 755
The effect of forward biasing & reverse biasing on potential barrier Keep in Memory
are shown in fig.(2).
Depletion layer Barrier voltage 1
Junction 1. Width of depletion layer µ
Deple
Idiffusion
-tion Idrift Doping
p n VB(x) layer Inet
=0 2. Depletion is directly proportional to temperature.
3. Resistance is forward bias Rforward » 10W – 25W and
No biasing x resistance in reverse bias Rreverse » 105W.
Fig.(2)(a) p-n junction without biasing
4. Under suitable reverse bias break down occurs and voltage
Depletion layer
Junction
gets stabilized at Zener voltage.
Barrier voltage
5. Junction diode (p-n junction) can be used to convert the
Idiffusion
p n Deple
Idrift
a.c. current to d.c. current i.e. as a rectifier. The process of
-tion
layer
Inet conversion from a.c. to d.c. is called rectification.
VB'(x) 6. p-n junction diode can be used as a half wave or full wave
x rectifier. A device used to convert dc into ac is called
Forward biasing
inverter.
Fig.(2)(b) p-n junction with forward biasing
Junction
Barrier voltage 7. Avalanche or zener diode or breakdown
Deple
p n -tion
Idiffusion diode used in voltage stabilisation.
layer Idrift
VB''(x) Inet = Indrift – Idrift
Depletion layer
x 8. Photodiode, used in automatic switching
Reverse biasing
(c) of light, fire alarm, burglar alarm
Fig.(2) (c) p-n junction with reverse biasing
eV LED (Light emitting diode) indicator, and
In forward bias the expression of current is I = I o (exp - 1)
K BT
where V is applied voltage optical fibre communication.
Io is reverse saturation current 9. A zener diode operating in the breakdown region is
e is fundamental electronic charge equivalent to a battery. This property of zener diode makes
KB is Boltzmann constant and it suitable for voltage regulation (holding voltage constant).
T is temperature
D1 RL V0
diode
I/P
1. Circuit I/P RL V 0
D2
Vin V0 V0
t
t t
2
æ Irms ö
6. Ripple factor g = ç -1 1.21 0.48
è Idc ÷ø
Irms E rms
8. Form factor = = 1.57 1.11
Idc E dc
9. The value of d.c. component Less More
in output voltage as compared
to input a.c. voltage
Example 5. TRANSISTOR
The diode used in the circuit shown has a constant voltage Transistors are three terminal (solid state) devices just like triode.
drop at 0.5 V at all currents and a maximum power rating It can be assumed to consist of two back to back p-n junctions.
of 100 milli-watt. What should be the value of the resistor In practice a junction transistor (p-n-p) consists of silicon (or
R, connected in series with diode to obtain maximum germanium) bar crystal in which a layer of n-type silicon (or Ge) is
current? sandwiched between two layers of p-type silicon & we get p-n-p
R 0.5V transistor. Alternatively it may consist of a layer of p-type between
two layers of n-type material & we get a n-p-n transister as shown
by fig. (1).
B(Base) B(Base)
1.5V
E(Emitter)
Solution : p n p C n p n C
(Collector) (Collector)
VP = 0.5 V, Maximum power rating P = 100 mW = 100×10–3 W (n – P – n) transistor
(P – n – P) transistor
and source voltage Vs = 1.5 V. E (Emitter)
Fig. (1)
Vp2 (0.5) 2
Now diode resistance R D = = = 2.5 W
P 100 ´10 -3 The schematic symbols of transistor are
p p n n
V 0.5 E C E C
Current in diode ΙD = D = = 0.2A
R D 2.5
\ Total resistance in the circuit n B p B
(p-n-p) transistor (n-p-n) transistor
Vs 1.5
RT = = = 7.5 W (a) (b)
Ι D 0.2
Fig. (2)
So, resistance R in circuit = R T - R D = 7.5 - 2.5 = 5 W
Example 6. Components of Transistor :
In p-n junction diode the reverse saturation current is Emitter (E) : It supplies charge carriers (electron in n-p-n
10–5 A at 27ºC. Find the forward current for a voltage of transistor and holes in p-n-p transistor) & it has high density of
0.2 V. [exp (7.62) = 2038.6, k = 1.4 × 10–23 J/K] impurity concentration i.e., highly doped. It is always forward
Solution :
biased.
Q Ι = Ι0 (e eV / kT - 1) Collector (C) : It is a region on other side of base. It has maximum
By solving we get, area out of other sections(emitter & base) of transistor to dissipate
I = 10-5 [e7.62 - 1] = 10 -5 [ 2038.6 - 1] = 20.376 ´ 10 -3 A the heat. It collects the charge carriers & it is always reverse
So the forward current for voltage 0.2V is 20.376 × 10–3A biased.
Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 757
Base (B) : It is middle region which forms the two junctions Configurations of Transistor
between emitter & collector. It is very lightly doped. There are three types of transistor configuration. We can take
Biasing of Transistor either terminal as input terminal and other terminal as output.
(i) Common base configuration (CB) : Here base terminal is
In proper biasing of transistor the input (i.e., base emitter junction)
common to both input & output terminals. The emitter
is always forward biased & output (i.e., collector base junction)
terminal is taken as input.
is always reverse biased as shown in fig.(3) p-n-p
This scheme of biasing is same for all three transistor E C IC
configurations; Common base configuration (CB), common
emitter configuration (CE) & common collector configuration (CC)] IE VCC
p-n-p n-p-n
E C E C B
IB
IE IE Ground
VEE
B B Fig. (5)
(ii) Common emitter configuration (CE) : Here emitter terminal
(a) (b) is common to both input and output terminals as shown in
Fig. (3) fig. (6). The base terminal is taken as input and collector is
Working of Transistor taken as output.
Fig. (4) shows a common base (C.B.) configuration of p-n-p IC
C
transistor. The forward biasing of emitter junction lowers the
emitter base potential barrier, whereas the reverse biasing of B VCC
collector junction increases the collector-base potential barrier.
Hence holes (majority carriers in p-type) flows through emitter to IB E
base & constitutes an emitter current IE. Since emitter is heavily IE
doped in comparison to base, so approximately (only 5% holes
recombine with electrons in base region & constitute base current VBB Ground
IB) 95% holes reach to collector & constitute collector current IC. Fig. (6)
p-n-p
E C IC (iii) Common collector configuration (CC) : Here the collector
terminal is common to both input as well as output terminals
IE VCC as shown in fig. (7). The base terminal is input & emitter is
output terminal.
B
IB E IE
VEE B VEE
IB
Fig. (4)
C
From Kirch off’s current law, VBB IC
IE = IC + I B ...(1)
Eq. (1) holds true regardless of circuit configuration or transistor
type (p-n-p or n-p-n) that is used.
The current gain (B) of transistor is defined as ratio of collector Fig. (7)
current IC to base current IB
IC Transistor as an Amplifier
i.e., b = ...(2) Amplification is the process of linearly increasing the amplitude
IB
of a signal. It is one of the major properties of a transistor.
The value of b lies between 10 and 100. Since I E » IC This amplifing action was produced by transfering a current from
Current gain (a) is defined as the ratio of collector current IC to a low (base emitter loop is forward biased & hence provide low
emitter current IE. The value of a is always less than unity. resistance path and collector base junction is reverse biased &
IC hence gives high resistance path in common emitter configuration)
a= ...(3) to a high resistance circuit.
IE
Common- Emitter (CE) Amplifier : Fig. 8 shows a basic common-
Relation between a and b
emitter amplifier circuit in which we connect a signal source Vs.
b a The input voltage loop is Vs, then from base to emitter through
a= or b= ...(4)
1+ b 1- a transister to ground (common refrence point) & then through
758 PHYSICS
VBE back to Vs. The output voltage loop consists ground, then The collector current flowing through RC results in voltage
from emitter to collector through RC. The emitter is connected to drop:
ground. During a +ive half cycle of Vs, the forward bias across vBE (signal)= vs
the emitter base junction will be increased, while during – ive half
cycle of Vs (signal source), the forward bias across emitter base DVBE
junction will be decreased. Hence more electrons flow during VBE =0.7V v BE = VBE + vbe
0.5v–
+ive half cycle and so we obtain more collector current and so dc bias bias + signal
large voltage drop across RC and less value and VCE. In negative
half cycle collector current decreases. time
VCC = 20V
20V
RC ICR C = 9V
v (signal)= vout
VCE Vout (d.c value) ce
DVCE
10V–
ns + VCE=11V
– vCE= VCE + vce
(d.c value) (d.c value + signal)
VBE VCC
Fig. (8) time
In the absence of input signal vs, a D.C collector current IC flows
Base
in collector circuit due to forward biased battery VBE. This is current
called zero signal collector current. So total collector current is
I total collector current = IC + Ic
d.c. collector a .c. collector 80mA
current current ib(signal
60mA IB current) DIB
vs Vout
40mA iB= IB+ ib
Curve & Vs= Vce Curve of IB=60mA
input signal output (d.c value) (d.c value + signal)
+vs
signal
VBE t
VCE t (a)
–vs
–vs=–vce
t 4mA
O ic(signal
(a) (b) current)
Fig. (9)
IC DIC
(a) input signal superimposed on V
(a) Input signal superimposed on V BE
(b) Output amplifying signal wave from super imposed on V CE
2mA IC=3mA
The voltage from the collector to ground determines the output i =I +i
(d.c value) C c c
signal. When IC (during +ive half cycle) increases, VCE decreases (d.c value + signal)
& when IC decreases (during – ive half cycle) VCE increase. So t
(b)
output voltage is 180º out of phase with input signal in CE
amplifier: Fig. (a) Base wave forms or input wave forms
(b) Collector wave froms or output wave forms.
The current gain Ai is defined as,
ICRC = .003A × 3000W = 9.0V
DI Change in load current/collector current
Ai = C = So by K.V.L the voltage from collector to emitter is
DI B Change in input current/base current VCE = VCC – ICRC = 20 – 9 = 11.0V
The voltage gain Av is defined as, Now we introduce signal voltage vs, which has peak value
50mV.
DVCE Change in load voltage
Av = = During +ive half cycle of vs = + 50mV, IB rises to 80mA & during
DVBE Change in input voltage –ive half cycle of vs = – 50mV. IB decreases to 40mA.
The power gain Ap is defined as, Ap = Ai × Av So change in base current is DIB (80 – 60) mA = 20mA
For example : Let VBE =0 .7V, VCC = 20V and change in collector current is DIC (bac DIB) = 50 × 20 = 1mA
IB = 60mA, IC = 3m A, RC = 3 kW It means during +ive half cycle IC becomes 4mA hence
VCE = VCC – ICRC = 20 – 12 = 8.V
IC 3mA
Then bd.c = = = 50
I B 60mA
Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 759
During the negative half cycle IC becomes 2mA, hence Comparative study of CB, CE and CC Amplifier
VCE = 20 – 6 = 14V.
Use and property Common base Common emitter Common collector
so DVCE = 3V (CB) amplifier (CE) amplifier (CC) amplifier
1. Choose the only false statement from the following. 10. When n-P-n transistor is used as an amplifier, then
(a) In conductors, the valence and conduction bands (a) electrons move from collector to emitter
may overlap. (b) electrons move from emitter to collector
(b) Substances with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are (c) electrons move from collector to base
insulators. (d) holes move from emitter to collector
(c) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with 11. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with
increase in temperature.
(a) positive feedback (b) large gain
(d) The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with
(c) no feedback (d) negative feedback
increase in temperature.
12. Minority carriers in a p-type semiconductor are
2. Application of a forward bias to a p–n junction
(a) free electrons
(a) widens the depletion zone.
(b) holes
(b) increases the potential difference across the depletion
(c) neither holes nor free electron
zone
(d) both holes and free electrons.
(c) increases the number of donors on the n side.
13. In insulator
(d) increases the electric field in the depletion zone.
(a) valence band is partially filled with electrons
3. A transistor has three impurity regions. All the three regions
have different doping levels. In order of increasing doping (b) conduction band is partially filled with electrons
level, the regions are (c) conduction band is filled with electrons and valence
(a) emitter, base and collector band is empty
(b) collector, base and emitter (d) conduction band is empty and valence band is filled
with electrons.
(c) base, emitter and collector
14. The intrinsic semi conductor becomes an insulator at
(d) base, collector and emitter
(a) 0ºC (b) 0 K
4. In a semiconductor diode, the barrier potential offers
opposition to (c) 300 K (d) –100ºC
(a) holes in P-region only 15. NAND and NOR gates are called universal gates primarily
because they
(b) free electrons in N-region only
(a) are available universally
(c) majority carriers in both regions
(b) can be combined to produce OR, AND and NOT gates
(d) majority as well as minority carriers in both regions
(c) are widely used in Integrated circuit packages
5. In Boolean algebra, Y = A + B implies that
(d) are easiest to manufacture
(a) output Y exists when both inputs A and B exist
16. One serious drawback of semi-conductor devices is
(b) output Y exists when either input A exists or input B
exists or both inputs A and B exist (a) they do not last for long time.
(c) output Y exists when either input A exists or input B (b) they are costly
exists but not when both inputs A and B exist (c) they cannot be used with high voltage.
(d) output Y exists when both inputs A and B exists but (d) they pollute the environment.
not when either input A or B exist 17. Radiowaves of constant amplitude can be generated with
6. Which of the following is unipolar transistor? (a) FET (b) filter
(a) p – n – p transistor (b) n – p – n transistor (c) rectifier (d) oscillator
(c) Field effect transistor (d) Point contact transistor 18. Zener diode is used for
7. In a junction diode, the holes are due to (a) amplification (b) rectification
(a) protons (b) extra electrons (c) stabilisation (d) all of the above
(c) neutrons (d) missing electrons 19. Which one is the weakest type of bonding in solids ?
8. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a (a) Ionic (b) Covalent
conductor and a semiconductor (c) Metallic (d) Vander Wall’s
(a) increases for both (b) decreases for both 20. The band gap in germanium and silicon in ev respectively
(c) increases, decreases (d) decreases, increases is
9. The energy band gap is maximum in (a) 1.1, 0 (b) 0, 1.1
(a) metals (b) superconductors (c) 1.1, 0.7 (d) 0.7, 1.1
(c) insulators (d) semiconductors.
Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits 765
21. The transistor are usually made of (c) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to
(a) metal oxides with high temperature coefficient of n–side and the depletion region becomes thick
resistivity (d) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to
(b) metals with high temperature coefficient of resistivity p–side and the depletion region becomes thin
(c) metals with low temperature coefficient of resistivity
24. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal
(d) semiconducting materials having low temperature
coefficient of resistivity (a) it becomes a p–type semiconductor
22. The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is (b) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
(a) junction diode (b) integrated circuit (c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the
(c) junction transistor (d) zener diode semiconductor
23. In forward biasing of the p–n junction (d) its resistance is increased
(a) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to
25. At absolute zero, Si acts as
p–side and the depletion region becomes thick
(b) the positive terminal of the battery is connected to (a) non-metal (b) metal
n–side and the depletion region becomes thin (c) insulator (d) none of these
1. On doping germanium with donor atoms of density 7. Current gain of a transistor in common base mode is 0.95.
1017 cm–3 its conductivity in mho/cm will be Its value in common emitter mode is
[Given : me = 3800 cm2/V–s and ni = 2.5 × 1013 cm–13] (a) 0.95 (b) 1.5
(a) 30.4 (b) 60.8 (c) 19 (d) (19)–1
(c) 91.2 (d) 121.6 8. A transistor has b = 40. A change in base current of 100 m A,
produces change in collector current
2. The ratio of electron and hole currents in a semiconductor
is 7/4 and the ratio of drift velocities of electrons and holes (a) 40 × 100 microampere (b) (100 – 40) microampere
is 5/4, then the ratio of concentrations of electrons and (c) (100 + 40) microampere (d) 100/40 microampere
holes will be 9. A transistor has a base current of 1 mA and emitter current
(a) 5/7 (b) 7/5 90 mA. The collector current will be
(a) 90 mA (b) 1 mA
(c) 25/49 (d) 49/25
(c) 89 mA (d) 91 mA
3. In the half wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains
frequency, the fundamental frequency in the ripple would 10. In a common emitter transistor amplifier b = 60, Ro = 5000 W
be and internal resistance of a transistor is 500 W. The voltage
amplification of amplifier will be
(a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz
(a) 500 (b) 460
(c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz
(c) 600 (d) 560
4. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50 Hz mains 11. For a common base amplifier, the values of resistance gain
frequency, the fundamental frequency in the ripple would and voltage gain are 3000 and 2800 respectively. The current
be gain will be
(a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz (a) 1.1 (b) 0.98
(c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz (c) 0.93 (d) 0.83
5. Distance between body centred atom & a corner atom in 12. In a common base amplifier the phase difference between
sodium(a = 4.225 Å) is the input signal voltage and the output voltage is
(a) 3.66 Å