7.

4 -Avionic General Text Equipment Level 2

No of Questions-4

1. BITE can be built in to

a. An individual LRU
b. A LRU or it can be part of a computerized maintenance system.
c. An individual LRU or it can be part of a computerized central maintenance system.

2. Built in test equipment is

a. A common feature on all modern aircraft.
b. A simple feature on all modern aircraft.
c. A main feature on all modern aircraft.

3. Signals are sent and received by the BITE to determine if there are any faults, to isolate the
faults, and to:
a. Verify correct operating parameters, especially after repair of an LRU.
b. Verify correct operating parameters, especially after repair. or replacement of an LRU.
C. Verify correct operating parameters, especially after replacement of an LRU.

4. BITE displays are selected on

a. The central maintenance computer Control Display Units (CDU's).
b. The central maintenance computer.
c. The maintenance computer Control Display Units (CDU's).

5. BITE CDU’s are typically located on:

a. The flight deck.
b. The avionics compartment
c. The flight deck and in the avionics compartment.

6. An automatic Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System (ACARS) sends

BITE maintenance data to the:
a. Ground maintenance station while the aircraft is en-route.
b. Ground maintenance center while the aircraft is en-route.
c. Maintenance station while the aircraft is en-route.

7. Latest generation maintenance diagnostic systems allow for wireless communication for
troubleshooting:
a. Wi-Fi and cellular are used.
b. Wi-Fi, cellular and satellite technologies are used.
c. Wi-Fi, and satellite technologies are used.

8. The maintenance function of BITE is accessible:

a. Only when the aircraft is on the ground.
b. Only when the aircraft is in the air.
c. When the aircraft is on the ground.

9. When a new test is selected, a complete check of circuitry and software occurs that yields
output data that is:
a. Recorded.
b. Both recorded and displayed.
 c. Displayed.

10. All troubleshooting and testing of aircraft electronic equipment

a. Is not performed by built in test equipment.
b. Is performed by built in test equipment
c. Is performed by built in test equipment only.

11. Trained technicians use a wide variety of avionics testing equipment

a. To investigate and repair the aircraft's electronic units and systems.
b. To investigate, test and repair the aircraft's electronic units and systems.
C. To investigate, test and repair the aircraft's electronic units.

12. Avionics test equipment can be classified into

a. Two categories: shop test equipment and portable test equipment.
b. Three categories: shop test equipment, base test equipment and portable test equipment.
c. One category: shop test equipment.

13. A modalized, remove and replace approach to avionics maintenance allows:

a. Quick and easy resolution of many avionics’ malfunctions.
b. Quick resolution of many avionics’ malfunctions.
c. Easy resolution of many avionics’ malfunctions.

14. Analyzers can be:

a. Shop-based units.
b. Portable units.
C. Shop-based or portable units.

15. Many modern digital multimeters include expanded capabilities to measure:

a. Frequency, capacitance and temperature.
b. Frequency, temperature.
c. Frequency and capacitance.
16. A connection is made to a portable laptop computer for:
a. Processing of information.
b. Display of information.
c. Processing and display of information.

17. The technician should be aware of the dangers of high voltage and electrocution when
utilizing test equipment on:
a. Both energized and de-energized avionics.
b. Energized avionics only.
c. De-energized avionics.

18. Oscilloscopes include the time domain; they are useful in indicating rapid variations such
as:
a. AC voltages, pulses and complex waveforms.
b. AC voltages, pulses, spikes and complex waveforms.
c. AC voltages, spikes and complex waveforms.

19. SSTDR's are found as small as a digital multimeter and directly state whether the circuit is
in:
a. An open or shorted state.
 b. An open or longest state.
c. An open only.

20. Typical instrumentation on pitot-static test equipment includes:

a. An altimeter and vertical speed indicator.
b. An altimeter, vertical speed indicator and airspeed indicators.
C. A vertical speed indicator and airspeed indicators.

21. Most analyzers will have a record mode of operation to capture data and display it:
a. Numerically or graphically.
b. Numerically.
C. Graphically.
Correct answer: Numerically or graphically.

22. The calibration intervals for test equipment varies with:

a. The type of equipment and environment.
b. The type of equipment, environment, and use.
c. The type of equipment and use.

23. The data bus analyzer typically plugs into where an LRU is removed so that:
a. Incoming signals to the LRU can be evaluated.
b. Outgoing signals to the LRU can be evaluated.
c. Both Incoming and outgoing signals to the LRU can be evaluated.

24. The accepted industry practice for calibration intervals is usually:

a. One year.
b. Two years.
c. Six months.

26. An automatic Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System (ACARS)

sends BITE maintenance data to the ground maintenance station while -
a. the aircraft is on ground
b. the aircraft is en-route
c. the aircraft is landing

27. Wi-Fi, cellular and satellite technologies are used for latest generation maintenance
diagnostic systems to allow –
a. wireless communication for troubleshooting
b. wireless communication for messaging
c. wireless communication for testing

28. Which systems and components have their own BITE dedicated to servicing just
that particular system or unit-
a. TCAS and TA
b. Air Data Computer (ADC) & ATC Transponder
c. VOR and Localizer

29. The maintenance function of BITE is accessible only when

a. the aircraft is on the air
b. the aircraft is on the air & ground
c. the aircraft is on the ground
30. However, a quick check of a unit with a portable test unit can answer critical questions
concerning –
a. the serviceability of a unit
b. the serviceability of an aircraft
c. the serviceability of an engine

31. Avionics test equipment can be classified into –

a. two categories
b. three categories
c. four categories

32. The second type of test equipment, is used to determine whether the output of the unit is
within design tolerances by -
a. Generator
b. An analyzer
c. Test sets

33. The ability to measure voltage, current and resistance is called-

a. Oscilloscopes
b. Multimeter
c. Reflectometer

34. It measures variations of a parameter as a function of time and displays them graphically
on a screen is called-
a. An oscilloscope
b. Modulation meters
c. Distortion meters

35. A Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is often used to check for standing waves-
a. in data lines
b. an aircraft circuits
c. in transmission lines

36. Spread Spectrum Time Domain Reflectometer's (SSTDR) are found as small as a digital
multimeter and directly state whether the circuit is in –
a. an open or shorted state
b. digital circuits or aircraft circuits c. dips or rises state

37. Typical instrumentation on pitot-static test equipment includes an altimeter, air speed
indicator, and---
a. Radio altimeter indicators
b. Vertical speed indicators
c. weather radar indicators

38. When using this equipment as serious damage to the avionics systems can result from
improper testing procedures. The technician must ensure that-
a. equipment and aircraft limitations are NOT exceeded
b. equipment and aircraft limitations are exceeded
c. aircraft and avionics limitations are not exceeded

39. An example of specialized test equipment is the IFR 4000 which tests –
a. VHF NAV/COM radio bands
b. XPDR VOR/LOC bands
c. VHF TCAS/ TAS bands
40. Computer based Automatic Test Equipment (ATE) is built to interface with and test the
enormous variety of avionics found on a -
a. Modern electronics
b. Digital avionics
c. Modern aircraft

41. Versa Model Eurocard (VME) is a connector system for avionics that uses –
A. European plug-in card architecture
B. American plug-in card architecture
C. China plug-in card architecture

42. When using a data bus analyzer always-

a. Follow the company's instruction
b. Follow the local instruction
c. Follow the manufacturer's instruction

43. There would be no purpose in checking the function of avionics equipment with test
equipment that is –
a. not calibrated
b. not approved
c. not instructed

44. The accepted industry practice for calibration intervals is usually –

a. one year
b. two years
c. three years

45. A fuel quantity test set has an externally adjustable.

A. capacitor.
B. inductor.
C. resistor.

46. How would you test a Mach switch in-situ?.

A. Use built in test equipment.
B. Use an external test kit.
C. It is not possible to test a mach switch in situ.

47. The maximum value of bonding of a secondary structure is.

A. 1 megohm.
B. 1 ohm.
C. 1 kilohm.

48. Circuit tests on aircraft should be carried out in the following order:
A. bonding, continuity, insulation, functional.
B. continuity, bonding, functional, insulation.
C. functional, bonding, continuity, insulation.

49. Before using a dead weight tester, you would.

A. calibrate the tester using a standard weight.
B. pressurize the tester to the required pressure.
C. replace the oil
50. How should a dead weight tester be used?
A. The pressure increasing handle should be screwed in before the addition of fluid and
screwed out when fluid is added.
B. The outlet should not be connected to the instrument until the required weights are raised
by the platform.
C. The platform should be removed and fluid poured into the hole.

51. When testing thermocouples using a test set the ambient temperature.
A. never needs to be considered.
B. is considered every time.
C. is only considered when temperatures of 20°C or above.

52. Electronic test equipment for fuel tank contents systems usually incorporate
variable.
A. resistors.
B. inductors.
C. capacitors.

53. Before using a bonding tester, the 6-foot lead has the two prongs shorted together with a
piece of metal. What would the indicator read?
A. Full scale left.
B. Full scale right.
C. Zero at the center.

54. When using a megger to test insulation resistance, capacitive filters should be disconnected
for what reason?
A. Remove the risk of damage to the megger.
B. Remove the spurious readings caused by the capacitors charging and discharging.
C. Prevent damage to the filters.

55. When carrying out a serviceability check on a bonding tester - short together the three
prongs of both probes and ensure which of the following?
A. The meter reads 0.1 ohm.
B. A zero reading.
C. A full-scale reading is obtained.

56. If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads are suspended in free air, what
will the meter read?
A. Zero.
B. Mid scale - it is a ratiometer movement and there is no current flowing in the external
circuit.
C. Infinity.

57. When using a digital meter to test a diode, a correct operation of the diode is indicated by
a volt drop of.
A. 0.3V to 0.7V.
B. 2.5V to 2.8V.
C. 1.5V to 2V.

58. To check that the ident pulse is being generated from an ATC transponder-
A. select an ATC channel and check the morse code.
 B. select ident and check the indication on the instrument panel.
C. press the ident and monitor the indication on the ramp test set.

59. A pressure gauge is fitted to a Dead Weight Tester. The piston area is 0.25 sq.in. and the
total mass of the mass carrier and masses is 5lb. If the pressure gauge is accurate what
pressure in pounds per square inch (PSI) will it read?
A. 1.25 psi.
B. 20 psi.
C. 200 psi.

60. When testing a fuel metering unit, how is it checked?

A. With the meter in series with the unit.
B. With the unit disconnected.
C. With the meter in parallel with the unit.

61. When using a bonding tester.

A. ensure prongs penetrate anodized layer.
B. ensure prongs do not penetrate anodizing layer.
C. an anodized component cannot be tested.

62. On a static leak tester, pressure is released by.

A. an internal balance valve in the tester.
B. slowly opening the release knob for 3 minutes.
C. a bleed valve in the tester.

63. A fuel calibration test set when used to check an aircraft with half a fuel load is
connected.
A. to gauge with fuel level in parallel.
B. to gauge with fuel level capacitance.
C. to gauge with fuel level in series.

64. A capacitive fuel contents system should be tested with.

A. a ratiometer.
B. a Wheatstone bridge.
C. a decade box.

65. Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is tested with a.

A. light source and optometer.
B. multimeter.
C. calibrated light generator and opto-power meter.

66. When using transistorized test equipment, what should the output be?
A. Not affected by impedance.
B. High impedance.
C. Low impedance.

67. To read the transponder coding from an aircraft's transponder you.

A. use the code signal and a chart to determine the signal.
B. use a ATC600 test set.
C. use the output on the flight deck.

68. Bonding lead testers are attached with.

A. a 60 feet lead is connected to the main earth and a 6 foot test lead is connected to check
 the resistance between selected points.
B. a 6 feet test lead is connected to the main earth and a 60 feet lead is connected to check
the resistance between selected points.
C. either of the leads can be connected anywhere.

69. On a Bonding Tester the number of probes on the 60 ft and 6ft leads respectively
are.
A. 1 and 2.
B. 2 and 2.
C. 2 and 1.

70. The damping force in a meter.

A. prevents oscillation of the pointer.
B. returns the pointer to zero.
C. assists the pointer to move over the scale.

71. On a VOR/ILS test set the 'Tone Delete' function.

A. functionally checks that the glideslope pointer moves down-scale.
B. functionally checks that the glideslope failure flag operates.
C. functionally checks that the glideslope pointer moves up-scale.

7.7: Electrical Wire Interconnection System (EWIS) Level-3

No of Questions-4
1. Any wire, wiring device, or combination of these, including termination devices,
installed in any area of the aircraft for the purpose of transmitting electrical energy
between two or more intended termination points is called
A. Electrical Wire Interconnection System (EWIS)
B. Grounding system
C. Bonding system

2. Insulation materials for new aircraft designs are made of –

A. Tefzel®
B. Tefzol®
C. Tapton®

3. It is the process of electrically connecting conductive objects to either a conductive

structure or some other conductive return path for the purpose of safely completing
either a normal or fault circuit-
A. Bonding
B. Grounding
C. Soldering

4. Direct connections to a magnesium structure must not be used for ground return
because-
A. they may create a resistance to heat
B. they may create a vibration
C. they may create a fire hazard
5. One of the more frequent causes of failures in electrical system bonding and grounding
is due to-
A. corrosion
B. heat
C. vibration

6. While bonding avoid connecting of-

A. Copper to brass
B. Copper to magnesium
C. Copper to stainless steel

7. Copper wire can be stripped in a number of ways depending on the-

A. size and insulation
B. size and type
C. type and insulation

8. It is good practice to provide at least--- spare stud for future circuit expansion or in case
a stud is broken-
A. Three
B. Two
C. One

9. When the terminal lugs attached to a stud vary in diameter-

A. the greatest diameter should be placed on the bottom and the smallest diameter on top
B. the greatest diameter should be placed on the top and the smallest diameter on bottom
C. the smallest diameter should be placed on the bottom and the greatest diameter on top

10. It is essential that the crimp depth be appropriate for each wire size. If the crimp is too
deep, it may break or cut individual strands. If the crimp is not deep enough, it may not
be tight enough to retain the wire in the -
A. Strip or lug
B. terminal or connector
C. cable or junction

11. Emergency splicing repairs of damaged ------ wire must not be temporarily spliced on
A. copper
B. aluminum
C. steel

12. During inspection and testing of crimped joints, the tensile strength of the wire-to-
terminal joint should be –
A. at least equivalent to the tensile strength of the wire itself
B. exactly same to the tensile strength of the wire itself
C. at least equivalent to the torsion strength of the wire itself

13. Which crimping tools may also be used, especially when dealing with large wire sizes
and cable-
A. Hand
B. Portable
C. Hydraulic

14. Crimps made with the tool can be checked using go/no-go gauges supplied by the tool
manufacturer. Crimping tools should be inspected –
 A. annually
B. half yearly
C. quarterly

15. This type of connector should be used in applications subject to fluids, vibration, heat,
mechanical shock, and/or corrosive elements-
A. Firewall class connectors
B. Environmentally resistant connectors
C. Hermetic connectors

16. This type of connector is able to prevent the penetration of the fire through the aircraft
firewall connector opening and continue to function without failure for a specified
period of time when exposed to fire-
A. Firewall class connectors
B. Environmentally resistant connectors C. Hermetic connectors
17. Plastic insertion and extraction tools are used to prevent damage to contact retaining
clips and insert materials. They are color-coded for contact size, i.e. Red, size 20; Blue,
16 and Yellow 12 and 22. In composite tools the extractor is always
A. White
B. Red
C. Blue

18. This type of cable is used to protect the inner conductor from the effects of
electromagnetic radiation. It consists of a conductor wrapped with a dielectric or
insulator. Around the insulator, wire braiding is used to channel off electromagnetic
radiation to ground-
A. Electrical cable
B. Coaxial cable
C. Data bus cable

19. Simple coaxial cable testing can be done with an -

A. Ohmmeter
B. Multimeter
C. Oscilloscope meter

20. It is required throughout the shielding as well and there should be no resistance
between the shielding and ground-
A. Resistance
B. Voltage
C. Continuity

21. To ensure satisfactory service, inspect wire--- for abrasions, defective insulation,
condition of terminations, and potential corrosion damage
A. Annually
B. Half yearly
C. Two yearly

22. Identification markings should be placed at each end of the wire and at ----maximum
intervals along the length of the wire-
A. 10-inch
B. 15-inch
C. 20-inc

23. The wire identification code must be printed to read –

 A. horizontally (from left to right) or vertically (from top to bottom)
B. horizontally (from left to right) or vertically (from bottom to top)
C. horizontally (from right to left) or vertically (from top to bottom)

24. It can be used if the direct marking on the wire is not possible-
A. Heat shrinking
B. Identification sleeves
C. Wire sleeves

25. An area where the wire(s) are made to travel downward and then up to the connector is
called-
A. A drip loop
B. A cable loomimg
C. A Junction block

26. Wires and wire bundles must be supported by clamps or plastic cable straps. They
should be spaced at intervals not exceeding –
A. 12 inches
B. 18 inches
C. 24 inches

27. The minimum separation between wiring and movable controls must be at least
A. ½-inch (12. 7 mm)
B. 1-inch (25.0 mm)
C. 1½-inch (35. 7 mm)

28. It is the process of applying a metallic covering to wiring and equipment to eliminate
electromagnetic interference (EMI)
A. Shielding
B. Bonding
C. Grounding

29. This level of inspection is made under normally available lighting conditions such as
daylight, hangar lighting, flashlight, or droplight and may require removal or opening
of access panels or doors is called-
A. A stand- alone general visual inspection (GVI)
B. A general visual inspection (GVI)
C. A Detailed inspection

30. This level of inspection of a specific item or assembly may be specified in the
manufacturers ICA or maintenance manual
A. A stand- alone general visual inspection (GVI)
B. A general visual inspection (GVI)
C. A DET or Detailed inspection

31. Which systems transmitting electrical energy between two or more intended
termination points?
a. Electrical wiring interconnection system.
b. Wiring device.
c. termination device.

32. The entirely different and distinct fundamental properties of insulation materials are----
a. Insulation resistance and dielectric strength.
 b. Hard bonding.
c. resistance to crack.

33. What is insulation resistance?

a. Resistance to current leakage.
b. Resistance to flow of current.
c. Resistance to increase voltage.

34. What is dielectric strength?

a. Ability to withstand potential difference.
b. Protect the wire from water.
c. Protect the wire from any cleaning agent.

35. One of the more important factors in the design and maintenance of aircraft electrical
systems is—
a. Proper bonding.
b. Proper bonding and grounding.
c. Insulation.

36. The process of electrically connecting conductive objects to either a conductive

structure or some other conductive return path for the purpose of safely completing
either a normal or fault circuit is called---
a. Boding
b. Grounding.
c. Isolation.

37. To provide an alternative ground path for power return current carbon fiber composite
structure is preferable because-------.
a. Higher resistivity than aluminum.
b. Higher resistivity than aluminum and coper.
c. May create fire hazards.

38. Additional voltage drops in the return path can cause ------
a. Voltage regulation problem.
b. Material degradation.
c. Voltage regulation and material degradation by current surges.

39. When resistance of all bond and ground connections should be tested?
a. Every schedule inspection.
b. after connections is made before re-finishing.
c. During ground run.

40. The resistance of each connection should not exceeded-----

a. 1 ohm.
b. 0.003 ohm.
c. 0.5 ohm

41. One of the following more frequent causes of failures in electrical system bonding and
grounding.
a. Corrosion.
b. Paint
 c. Anodizing film.

42. Why are copper wires used in electrical systems?

a. They have high permeability.
b. They do not give off a magnetic field. c. They have a low resistance to current,
43. Broken wire can be repaired by means of crimped splice or by soldering, it is ---
a. Permanent Solution.
b. Temporary Solution.
c. Temporary emergency use only.

44. Why Junction boxes are used in electrical system?

a. For collecting, organizing and distributing circuits.
b. conveniently house miscellaneous items.
c. For collecting, organizing and distributing circuits and conveniently house miscellaneous
items.

45. Which type connectors are used where they are probably subjected to fluids, vibration,
heat, mechanical shock and corrosive elements.
a. Environment-resistant connectors.
b. Hermetic connectors.
c. AN/MS connector.

46. Which type connectors are used where they are probably subjected to fluids, vibration,
heat, mechanical shock, corrosive elements and penetration of fire.
a. Environment-resistant connectors.
b. Firewall class connectors.
c. AN/MS connector.

47. Which type connectors are used in the pressurized area to provide pressure seal?
a. Environment-resistant connectors.
b. Firewall class connectors.
c. Hermetic connectors.

48. Which type of connectors are used in application where a very large number of circuits
are accommodated in a single mated pair.
a. Rectangular connectors
b. Firewall class connectors.
c. Hermetic connectors.

49. In which based you will select the connectors for electrical system for continuous
operation?
a. Maximum ambient temperature
b. Maximum circuit current load.
c. Maximum combination of ambient temperature and circuit current load.

50. In composite tools the colour of exactor is-----

a. Red
b. Blue
C. White.

51. When coaxial damage can occur?

 a. if clamped too tightly.
b. if bent sharply. c. if clamped too tightly or bent sharply.
52. Inside severely damage of coaxial cable can occur ---
a. outside physical damage.
b. without any evidence of damage on outside.
c. No internal damage occurs.

53. Simple coaxial cable testing can be done with---

a. Ohmmeter
b. Multimeter
c. ITT tester.

54. Identification markings should be placed at each end of the wire and what is the
maximum intervals along the length of the wire?
a. 15 inch
b. 3-7 inch
c. 10 inch.

55. Splicing is permitted on wiring as long as it does not affect -----

a. Reliability
b. Performance
c. Reliability and the electromechanical characteristic of the wiring.

56. What is the minimum radius of bends in wire group or bundles must be-----.
a. 10 times the outside diameter of the largest wire.
b. is not less than 10-time diameter of the largest wire.
c. 6 time more than diameter of the largest wire.

57. How many types of inspection are required to ensure reduced degradation and provide
a longer functional life?
a. 3
b.4
c.5

58. Wires are often installed in bundles to create a more organization installation. These
wire bundles are often called------.
a. Wire harness
b. bundles.
c. shielding

59. Wire bundles should generally be----

a. less than 75 wire’
b. 11/2 to 2 inches diameter.
c. less than 75 wire or 11/2 to 2 inches diameter

60. An EWIS is any wire, wiring device, or combination of these, including termination
devices, installed in any area of the aircraft for the purpose of:
a. Transmitting electrical energy between two or more intended termination points.
b. Transmitting electrical energy between three or more intended termination points.
c. Transmitting electrical energy between four intended termination points.
61. Maximum dielectric strength values can be measured by:
 a. Raising the voltage of a test sample until the insulation breaks down.
b. Raising and lowering the voltage of a test sample until the insulation breaks down.
c. Lowering the voltage of a test sample until the insulation breaks down.

62. The type of conductor insulation material varies with:

a. The type of installation.
b. The Size and type of installation.
c. The size of installation.

63. Wire may be required to operate at higher temperatures due either to:
a. High ambient temperatures and high current loading.
b. High ambient temperatures, high current loading, or a combination of the two.
c. High current loading.

64. Inadequate bonding or grounding can lead to:

a. Unreliable operation of systems, electromagnetic interference (EMI) and personnel shock
hazard.
b. Electrostatic discharge damage to sensitive electronics and damage from lightning strike.
c. Both a and b are correct.

65. Power return fault currents are normally the:

a. Lowest currents flowing in a structure.
b. Highest currents flowing in a structure.
c. Medium currents flowing in a structure.

66. Equipment bonding-low-impedance paths to aircraft structure are normally required

for electronic equipment to provide:
a. Radio frequency return circuits.
b. Most electrical equipment to facilitate reduction in EMI.
c. Radio frequency return circuits and for most electrical equipment to facilitate reduction in
EMI.

67. The resistance of each connection should normally:

a. Not exceed 0.003 ohm.
b. More than 0.003 ohm.
c. Less than 0.003 ohm.

68. Copper wire can be stripped in a number of ways depending on:

a. The size and insulation.
b. The size and weight.
c. The size weight and insulation.

69. Make sure insulation is:

A. Clean-cut with no frayed.
b. Clean-cut with no frayed or ragged edges.
c. Clean-cut with no frayed or ragged edges. Trim, if necessary.
70. Terminal strips should be mounted in such a manner that:
a. Loose metallic objects cannot fall across the terminals or studs.
b. Loose metallic objects cannot fall across the terminals.
c. Loose metallic objects cannot fall across the studs.

71. It is good practice to provide at least one spare stud for:

 a. Future circuit expansion.
b. In case a stud is broken.
c. Future circuit expansion or in case a stud is broken.

72. Tightening terminal connections should not deform:

a. The terminal lugs.
b. The studs.
c. The terminal lugs or the studs.

73. Crimping tools should be inspected:

a. Annually and on condition if excessive play is detected.
b. On condition if excessive play is detected.
c. Annually.

74. Junction boxes are used for:

a. Collecting and distributing circuits to the appropriate harnesses.
b. Collecting, organizing, and distributing circuits to the appropriate harnesses that are
attached to the equipment.
c. Organizing, and distributing circuits to the appropriate harnesses that are attached to the
equipment.

75. The junction box arrangement should permit easy access to any installed items of:
a. Equipment, terminals, and wires.
b. Equipment and wires.
c. Terminals and wires.
Correct answer: Equipment, terminals, and wires.

76. Junction box layouts should take into consideration the necessity for:
a. Adequate wiring space.
b. Possible future additions.
c. Adequate wiring space and possible future additions.

77. Connectors must be identified by an original identification number derived from:

a. MIL Specification (MS) or Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) specification.
b. MIL Specification (MS).
c. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) specification.

78. Environment-resistant connectors are used in applications where they are probably
subjected to:
a. Fluids, vibration, mechanical shock and corrosive elements.
b. Fluids, vibration, heat, mechanical shock, corrosive elements.
c. Fluids, vibration, heat and corrosive elements.

79. Plastic insertion and extraction tools are used to prevent damage to:
a. Contact retaining clips and insert materials.
b. Contact retaining clips.
c. Insert materials.

80. Connectors must be installed in a manner that:

a. Ensures moisture drain out.
b. Ensures fluids drain out.
c. Ensures moisture and fluids drain out
81. Connectors must be mounted in a vertical position, as through a shelf or floor, the
connectors:
a. Must be potted.
b. Must be potted or environmentally sealed.
c. Must be environmentally sealed.

82. Coaxial cable damage can occur when:

a. Clamped too tightly, or when they are bent sharply.
b. Clamped too tightly.
c. When they are bent sharply.

83. Coaxial cable consists of:

a. A conductor wrapped with a dielectric.
b. A conductor wrapped with insulator.
c. A conductor wrapped with a dielectric or insulator.

84. To ensure satisfactory service, inspect wire annually for:

a. Abrasions, defective insulation, condition of terminations, and potential corrosion.
b. Abrasions, defective insulation and potential corrosion.
c. Abrasions, condition of terminations, and potential corrosion.

85. Whatever method of marking is used, the marking should be:

a. Legible.
b. The color should contrast with the wire insulation or sleeve.
c. Legible and the color should contrast with the wire insulation or sleeve.

86. Each wire harness for a particular aircraft installation is identical in:
a. Shape.
b. Shape, size and length.
c. Shape and length.

87. Wires and wire bundles must be supported by:

a. Clamps or plastic cable straps.
b. Clamps.
c. Plastic cable straps.

88. Kinked or wrinkled bends in rigid conduits are:

a. Recommended and should be replaced.
b. Not recommended and should be replaced.
c. Should be replaced.

89. EWIS can be made to ensure:

a. Reduced degradation.
b. Provide a longer functional life.
c. Reduced degradation and provide a longer functional life.

90. In a front release connector, the pin will be.

A. released from rear and extracted from the front.
B. released from the front and extracted from the front.
C. released from the front and extracted from the rear.

91. With a rear release connector, the pin will be.

A. released from the front and extracted from the rear.
 B. released from the rear and extracted from the front.
C. released from the rear and extracted from the rear.

92. A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the other end should have a
bend radius of no less than.
A. 3 times the diameter of the wire.
B. 5 times the diameter of the wire.
C. 10 times the diameter of the wire.

93. Glycol deicer fluid in contact with a silver cable can cause.
A. a fire.
B. disintegration of the cable insulation.
C. corrosion.

94. The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated copper or aluminium connector
is.
A. 260°C.
B. 135°C.
C. 200°C.

95. What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic insert/extract tool be used on?
A. 16 - 14.
B. 12 - 10.
C. 22 - 18.

96. What gauge of pin would a red plastic insert/extract tool be used on?.
A. 12 - 10.
B. 22 - 18.
C. 16 - 14.

97. What gauge of pin would a blue plastic insert / extract tool be used on?.
A. 12 - 10.
B. 16 - 14.
C. 22 - 18.

98. Can the insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool?.

A. No.
B. Yes, by turning a knob.
C. Yes, by adjusting the pins.

99. What cable would you use where temperatures are going to exceed 200°C?.
A. Tinned copper or aluminum.
B. Silver plated copper or aluminum.
C. Nickel plated copper or aluminum.

100. How long should a fireproof cable last in a fire?.

A. 5 minutes.
B. 50 minutes.
C. 15 minutes.
101. The insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheel-wells should normally be not less
than.
A. 10 megohms.
B. 5 megohms.
C. 2 megohms.

102. What causes knuckling on older type electrical cables?.

A. Over-temperature soldering.
B. Applying cable ties too tightly.
C. Excessive pull through forces.

103. To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out.

A. a milli-volt drop test.
B. a continuity check.
C. a bonding check.

104. The maximum bonding resistance on an aircraft primary structure should be.
A. 0.01 ohms.
B. 0.001 ohms.
C. 0.05 ohms.

105. Before effecting a crimp, the bare ends of a cable should be.
A. tightly twisted.
B. twisted lightly in the direction of the lay.
C. straightened out.

106. The number of the dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-insulated connectors during
crimping indicates that.
A. the correct connector has been used.
B. the correct tool was used to effect the connection.
C. the crimp is properly formed.

107. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed
by.
A. varying the torque applied to the handles.
B. using different coloured crimping pliers and terminations.
C. changing the position of the pins.

108. When referring to fuses, HRC means.

A. high rupture capacity.
B. hot running capacity.
C. high running current.

109. When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire is coloured.
A. blue.
B. green and yellow.
C. brown.

110. A hole is placed in the lowest point of electrical cable conduit.

A. to allow for pull-through of the cables.
B. to secure the conduit to a piece of aircraft structure.
C. to allow for drainage of moisture.
111. The minimum distance between electrical cable splices is.
A. 3 feet.
B. 12 inches.
C. 500 mm.

112. A fire resistant cable is proof tested by exposure to a standard fire for.
A. 30 minutes.
B. 5 minutes.
C. 15 minutes.

113. When fitting coaxial cable connectors it is important to.

A. fit the correct lock nuts.
B. make sure the outer cup is fitted the correct way round.
C. not damage any seals fitted.

114. When inserting pins into a front release connector the inserting tool should be used with the
gap facing which direction?.
A. The centre of the connector.
B. Either direction.
C. The outside of the connector.

115. When using a hydraulic crimping tool, after completing the crimping operation, the crimp is
formed when when.
A. the bypass valve opens and the ram returns to neutral.
B. the foot pedal force is at maximum.
C. the bypass valve closes and the ram returns to neutral.

116. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures above 260°C is which of the
following?
A. Nomex.
B. Teflon.
C. Nylon.

117. What is the minimum bend radius of a loom adequately supported at a terminal
block?
A. 10 * diameter.
B. 8 * diameter.
C. 3 * diameter.

118. How are front release pins removed?.

A. The tool is inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the front.
B. The tool is inserted from the rear and the pin Is removed from the front.
C. The tool is inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the rear.

119. If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened so as to compress the dielectric, how will the
capacitance change?
A. Stay the same.
B. Increase.
C. Decrease.

120. What is the minimum bend radius of a single co-axial cable?

A. 10 * diameter.
 B. 8 * diameter.
C. 6 * diameter.

121. What is wet arc tracking?.

A. A fault caused by hot stamp printing.
B. A fault caused by insulation damage.
C. A fault caused by 'knuckling through'.

122. When using a heat shrink gun, what should the temperature of the gun be set to?.
A. 100° below the heat shrink temperature.
B. 15° below the heat shrink temperature.
C. 100° above the heat shrink temperature.

123. In an electrical cable 1EF6B22NMS, what does the letter E represent?

A. Circuit function.
B. Cable size.
C. Segment letter.

124. 1EF6B22 NMSV. What does the B mean?

A. Segment letter.
B. Cable number.
C. Circuit function.

125. On a coaxial cable, cable impedance is.

A. proportional to length.
B. not effected by length.
C. inversely proportional to length.

126. A secondary earth is.

A. not less than 0.5mm cross sectional area.
B. 18 AWG.
C. 22 AWG.

127. E' on a wire, under ATA 100 is a.

A. phase indication.
B. system ID code.
C. cable size.

128. To prevent wet arc tracking.

A. cable grips should be tight.
B. ensure hot stamp printing is controlled.
C. cables should not be stretched.

129. When splicing a cable with a soldered joint, the operation is finished when.
A. the solder has melted.
B. the solder sleeve disappears.
C. the solder and insulation have formed.

130. When manufacturing an electrical connector the unused holes are.

A. filled with connectors.
B. filled with connectors and blanked.
C. covered with blanks.
131. Co-axial cable is preferred to airframe cable in which application?
A. Where the diameter of cable is not important.
B. High frequency interference.
C. Low frequency interference.

132. Forward release electrical connectors are removed by the wire being.
A. pushed forwards.
B. twisted to the right.
C. pulled backwards.

133. When crimping wires, the wires should be.

A. straight.
B. lightly twisted.
C. twisted.

134. Why are copper wires used in electrical systems?

A. They have high permeability.
B. They do not give off a magnetic field.
C. They have a low resistance to current.

135. When crimping wires, the wire should.

A. be flush with the crimp.
B. extend 0.8 mm beyond the crimp.
C. be beneath the crimp.

136. A white/blue insertion-extraction tool would be used on a cable of what size?

A. 10.
B. 22.
C. 16.

137. The value of the insulation resistance of an electric motor compared to its supply leads
is.
A. greater.
B. same.
C. smaller.

138. According to ATA 100, a symbol code 'X' on a wiring number denotes.
A. a warning circuit.
B. a ground circuit.
C. AC power.

139. When securing wire after it leaves an LRU, cable bundle bends should be not less than?
A. minimum radius of five times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle.
B. minimum radius of three times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle.
D. minimum radius of eight times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle.
140. When terminating an aluminium cable, what preparations would be carried out before
crimping?
A. Degrease stripped cable.
B. Just terminate.
C. Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide.
141. An in-line splice should be positioned on the.
A. terminal of the loom.
B. outside of the loom.
C. outer surface of the loom for easy inspection.

142. A conductor after being crimped. The maximum amount of conductor which protrudes from
the terminal end should be
A. 1/32 inch.
B. 1/8 inch.
C. 1/16 inch.

143. Two or more operations should be performed to strip wire with hand operated wire stripper if
the total stripping length exceeds.
A. 0.50 in.
B. 0.75 inch.
C. 0.25 in.

144. A cable loom should be protected by conduit when fed through the.
A. main equipment center.
B. wheel well door.
C. cargo compartment ceiling.

145. The size of proper conduit for electrical wires must be.
A. 75% larger than the maximum diameter of wires.
B. 25% larger than the maximum diameter of wires.
C. 100% larger than the average diameter of wires.

146. Blue metal extract tool would be used with contacts sized.
A. 16.
B. 12.
C. 22.

147. A Silver coated conductor in an unpressurised area is subject to moisture and has a damaged
coating would be likely to cause.
A. Wet Arc Tracking.
B. Knuckling Through.
C. Red Plague.