Professional Documents
Culture Documents
32. we/ go have ' put ' trip ' Spain/ until/ September
A. We go to have put our trip to Spain until September.
B We're going to have to put up our trip to Spain until September.
C. We go to have to put of our trip to Spain until September.
D. We’re going to have to put olTour trip to Spain until September.
33.I/ run Amir/today/ supermarket.
A. I have ran to Amir today before the supermarket.
B. I ran into Amir today at the supermarket.
C. I would run together Amir today at the supermarket.
D. I ran across Amir today at the supermarket.
34. I/ tired/ Sophie/ show/ engagement ring/ all/ time.
A. I'm so tired of Sophie showing off her engagement ring all the time.
B. I'm not tired about Sophie showing her engagement ring all time.
C. I'm such tired for Sophie to show off her engagement ring all the time.
D. I so tired of Sophie showing off her engagement ring all the time.
35. Police/ would/not/give/kidnapper's/demands.
A. The police would not give up the kidnapper’s demands.
B. The police would not give away the kidnapper’s demands.
C. The police would not give to the kidnapper’s demands.
D. The police would not give in to the kidnapper’s demands.
36. First poem/ good/ second.
A. First poem is good than second.
B. The first poem was better than the second.
C. First poem is best than the second.
D. The first poem is the best for the second.
37. Hard/ he/ try, satisfied/ he/feel.
A. Harder does he try, satisfied does he feel.
B. The hardest he tries, the most satisfied he feels.
C. rhe harder he tries, the more satisfied he feels.
D. Hard as he tries, the most satisfied does he feel.
38. Course/action/ efficient/previous.
A. Those courses of action are the more efficient in the previous day.
B. This course of action is more efficient than the previous one.
C. I hese courses of action are more efficient as the previous one.
D. 'I his course of action is most efficient than the previous one.
16. Line___:_________________
17. Line___:_________________
18. Line___:_________________
19 Line___:_________________
20. Line___:_________________
21. Line___:_________________
22. Line___:_________________
23. Line___:_________________
24. Line___:_________________
25. Line___:_________________
IV. Read the passage and answer the questions
Life in the city is totally different from the rural life. The city-life has both sides good as well as
bad. First comes before the bad side. The evils of city life begin from its vast population. There is crowd
everywhere. The growing industrial development attracts rural people. They flock to the city to seek job
and enjoy luxuries of city life. But does one really enjoy a city life is a question. Lot of population
creates problems of accommodation. People live in congested houses in limited space. Colonies of
buildings and skyscrapers are raised at random without any systematic planning. The water-supply falls
short. The smoke from the industry and innumerable verities pollutes the air. People breath only smoke.
They work round the clock. They always are in a hurry and worry. No greenery, no nature, no open air,
no trees, no birds, No time to stand and stare. Can city-life be pleasant?
True, the city offers its citizens many up-to-date modem comforts and facilities. One can get best
education from primary to the university level. One gets variety of books from big libraries. There are
many good educational aids like cultural centers, technical schools, museums, art-galleries etC. For
recreation there are parks with many toys. For amusement there are cinemas and plays. One can get the
best medical facilities in a city. There are good means of transport and big markets.
(http:/ / essay-letter-writing. blogspot, com/ 2013/ 12/ city-life-or-life-in-city-essay-writing. httnll
26. What does evils in the first paragraph mean?
A. negative sides of a thing
B. many people living in the city
C. a mysterious force that causes bad things to happen
D. the development of industries in urban areas
27. Why people flock to urban areas?
A. There are more job opportunities and modern facilities.
B. There are many kinds of accommodation available.
C. There is a lot of space for people to live and work.
D. There are many buildings and skyscrapers.
28. Which of the following is not a problem of city life?
A. People are always busy. B. The environment is polluted.
C. People live in spacious houses. D. There is a shortage of water.
29. Education facilities do not include_______.
A. schools B. plays C. libraries D. museums
30. What can people in the city do to entertain?
A. stand and stare B. breathe the air
C. go to the market D. go to the cinema
IV. Choose the best sentence that can be made from the cues given
31. He/ say/ he/ travel/ lot/ job.
A. He says he travel a lot in his job.
B. He said that he travelled a lot in his job.
C. He said he travelled a lot his job.
D. He says he travels lot in his job.
32. She/ tell/ me/ quiet/ because/ baby/ sleep.
A. She told me to be quiet because the baby was sleeping.
B. She told me be quiet because the baby was sleeping.
C. She told me to be quiet because the baby is sleeping.
D. She tells me to be quiet because the baby was sleeping.
33. She/ tell/ me/ they/ live/ China/ 5 years.
A. She tells me they had been lived in China for 5 years.
B. She tell me they lived in China for 5 years.
C. She told me that they had lived in China 5 years.
D. She told me they had lived in China for 5 years.
34. He/ say/ they/ already/ eat/ when/ he/ arrive.
A. He say they've already cat when he arrives.
B. He says they already eaten when he arrived.
C. He said they'd already eaten when he'd arrived.
D. He said that they'd already cat when he arrived.
35. She/ say/ they/ always/ kind/ her.
A. She says they always kind to her.
B. She says they're always very kind her.
C. She said they'd always been very kind to her.
D. She said that they always been very kind to her.
36. Rides/ specify/ who/ speak/ case/ emergency.
A. The rules didn't specify who to speak to in case of an emergency.
B. The rules didn't specified who to speak to in case of an emergency.
C. The rules hadn't specified who to speak in case of an emergency.
D. The rules did specified who to speak in case an emergency.
37. I/ know/ whether/ laugh/ cry
A. I know whether laugh or cry.
B. I do know whether laugh and cry.
C. I didn't know whether to laugh or cry.
D. I have known to whether laugh and cry.
38. He/ can/ decide/ whether/ accept/ job
A. He can decide whether accept the job or not.
B. He can't decide whether accept the job or not.
C. He could decide whether to accept the job not.
D. He couldn't decide whether to accept the job or not.
39. H e/ remember, where/ turn/ main/ road.
A. We must remember where to turn the main road.
B. We must remember where to turn off the main road.
C. We remember to where turn off the main road.
D. We don't remember where turn off the main road.
40. Dictionary/ tell how'you' pronounce'' words
A. A good dictionary tells you how you should pronounce the words.
B. A good dictionary tell you how you should pronounce the words.
C. A good dictionary told you how should pronounce the words.
D. A good dictionary told to how you pronounce the words.
UNIT 4: LIFE IN THE PAST
TEST 3
I. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest:
1. A. communicate B. especially C. valuable D. comparison
2. A. obesity B. socialism C. essential D. particular
3. A. surprise B. concentrate C. compromise D. tolerant
4. A. magician B. elective C. diversify D. fountain
5. A. effectively B. expert C. express D. consult
III. Choose the best sentence that can be made from the cues given
31. Children/ say/ afraid/ ghosts.
A. Children are say to be afraid of ghosts.
B. Children are said be afraid of ghosts.
C. Children are said to be afraid of ghosts.
D. Children said to afraid of ghosts.
32. He/ believe/ have/ affair.
A. He is believed to have been having an affair.
B. He is believe to have been having an al fair.
C. He believe to have been having an affair.
D. He is believed to have having an affair.
33. The repairs/ believe/ finish.
A. The repairs is believed to have been finished.
B. The repairs is believe to have been finished.
C. The repairs are believed to have been finished.
D. The repairs are believed to been finished.
34. My Dad/ suggest/ 1/ learn/ Spanish.
A. My Dad suggest that I should learn Spanish.
B. My Dad suggested that I should learn Spanish.
C. My Dad suggested that I learns Spanish.
D. My Dad suggested that I’m learning Spanish.
35. You/ suggest/ dentist/ me?
A. Can you suggest good dentist me?
B. Can you suggest a good dentist me?
C. Can you who suggest a good dentist to me?
D. Can you suggest a good dentist to me?
TEST 2
I. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest:
1. A million B difference C. convenient D literacy
2. A. pedestrian B. preserve C. principal D material
B bufialo C. prestige D dramatic
3. A resident
B. decorate C. historic D temfk
4. A delighted
B definitely C. recommend D. opportunity
5. A. fascinating
II. Rewrite the following sentences using the words in brackets:
6. It I were older, 1 could go to university, (wish)
I______________________________________________
7. He was in the habit of smoking He no longer smokes, (used)
He______________________________________________
8. My father used to play tootball when he was young, (more)
My father doesn't______________________________________________
9. Someone gave me a surprise present on my last birthday, (given)
I______________________________________________
10. “Let’s go swimming”, (suggests)
She______________________________________________
11. Everyone knows that eating fruit is good for you. (believed)
Eating fru______________________________________________
12. People consider that one in three bathing beaches is unfit for swimming (considered)
One in three bathing beaches______________________________________________
13. I wish I could speak French, (only)
If______________________________________________
14. There has been a considerable improvement in the quality of lite in the countryside, (considerably)
The quality______________________________________________
15. I was glad that I received a gift from an old friend, (to)
I was______________________________________________
IV. Fill in each blank with one suitable word:
Located between the Lake of the Restored Sword, the Long Bien Bridge, a former city rampart, and
a citadel wall, the Old Quarter started as a snake and alligator-infested swamp. It later evolved (16)_____
a cluster of villages made up of houses on stilts, before (17) _____unified. Hanoi's Old Quarter came
into being at the time King Ly Thai To selected Thang Long as the country’s (18) _____in 1010. What
makes the streets unique is that many (19) _____them remain in their very ancient architecture of the 15th
(20) _____. Up to now, it has been the oldest continuously developed area of Vietnam.
Due (21) _____their long-lasting age, they are called “Old Quarter” or “36 Old Streets” (as
consisting of 36 member streets). “Ha Noi's 36 districts” is Vietnam's version of the guild concept. In the
(22) _____, as artisans moved to the capital city to (23)business, they gathered together in this area to
share the resources. As a (24) _____, many of the streets were named (25) _____the crafts sold at that
individual street.
(http:/ / www.vietnarn-beauty.com/ cities/ ha-noi/ 4-ha-noi/ 5-hanois-old-quarter.html)
V. Read the passage and match the paragraphs with suitable headings. There are more headings
than needed:
Hoi An Ancient Town
A. Architecture
B. Lifestyle
C. Specialties
D. Geography
E. Festivals
F. Religion
G. History
26_____________
Hoi An has been through a few centuries of history, but still remains as in the very first days of its
being born. Its two main historical landmarks are the occupying of the Japanese & Chinese, and the
Western (Dutch and Spanish) during the 16th and 17th centuries. Thanks to these days, the foreign
comprehensively positive and special pastimes and culture had made deep influences on the today's
Hoi An.
27_____________
Coming here, tourists can see a series of old-architectured lanes and houses with mossgrown
walls, deeply plain roofs, old furniture in their cristine past arrangement etC. While Hoi An's old-
fashioned charm is always visible, on the 14th of every lunar month modernity takes another step
back. Most premium oriental and western style of architecture meet together here, making a unique
ancient Hoi An, absorbing all tourists who are eager for classic beauty!
28_____________
Tourists should not miss some of the great festivals of Hoi An, among which is Full Moon
Festival, when the Old Town becomes even more festive than usual, active and marvellously
decorated with colorful lights and lamps along every lane. Another one is the Mid-Autumn Festival.
Last but not least, the "lantern festival , the most enchanting and special one of Hoi An, which is
typically demonstrated with all colorful hanging cloth and paper lanterns on the 15th of every lunar
month switched on altogether while all electrical equipment is off, leaving the Old Quarter bathed in
the warm glow of colored silk, glass and paper lanterns.
29_____________
The 14th day of the lunar month is a Buddhist day of worship. Hoi An residents place offerings of
food and incense on their ancestral altars and visit one of Hoi An's many pagodas. 1 he scent of
incense and the sounds of people singing add to the town's enchanted atmosphere. Visitors will get a
rare glimpse into another era - the very far away period of our ancestors, and discovering it
themselves.
30_____________
Hoi An's delicacies are plentiful and particularly tasty and cheap. Let’s take an example, one of
the most popular one - Cao lầu, a dish of rice noodles somehow closer in texture to pasta. What is its
secret? It is the water used to make it, being collected from a special well in the city. The noodles are
topped with slices of roast pork, dough fritters, and lots of fresh herbs and veggies. I think you
should try one of these, or else you will soon regret!
(http:/ / www vietnam-beauty. com/ top-destinations/ destinatìon-in-the-central-region/ 12-
destination-in-the-middle/ 43-hoi-an-old-town-an-ancient-beauty-of-vietnam.html)
VI. Choose the best sentence that can be made from the cues given
31. David Beckham/ play/ Manchester United
A. David Beckham used to play for Manchester United.
B. David Beckham use to play for Manchester United.
C. David Beckham used to plays for Manchester United.
D. David Beckham didn’t used to play for Manchester United.
32. She/ not/ like/ him,/ now/ they/ marry.
A. She didn’t used to like him, but now they’re married.
B. She didn't use to like him, but now they're married.
C. She did use to like him, but now they’re married.
D. She didn’t use to like him, but now they married.
33. Where/ you/ go/ school?
A. Where did you used to go to school?
B. Where you used to go to school?
C. Where did you use to go to school?
D. Where did you use to go school?
34. 1/ wake/ early/ morning.
A. I am use to waking up early in the morning.
B. I am used waking up early in the morning.
C. I am used to wake up early in the morning.
D. I am used to waking up early in the morning.
35. How/ you/ get/ use/ the middle/ this mess?
A. How did you get used to in the middle of this mess?
B. How did you get use to in the middle of this mess?
C. How you get used to in the middle of this mess?
D. How did you get used to in middle this mess?
36. I/ wish/ 1/ afford/ go/ holiday.
A. I wish I could afford go on holiday.
B. I wish that I could afford to go on holiday.
C. I wish that I could afford go holiday.
D. I wish I can afford to go on holiday.
37. I/ wish/ 1/ have/ time/ read/ lot/ books.
A. I wish that I had time to read lots of books.
B. I wish I had time read lots of books.
C. I wishes that I had time to read lots of books.
D. I wish that I have time read a lots of books.
38. Mr Brown/ believe/ own/ lot/ land/ the north.
A. Mr Brown is believe to own a lot of land in the north.
B. Mr Brown is believed own a lot of land in the north.
C. Mr Brown is believed to own a lot of land in the north.
D. Mr Brown is believed to own a lots of land in the north.
39. The prisoners/ think/ escaped.
X. The prisoners thought to have escaped.
B. The prisoners was thought to have escaped.
C. The prisoners were thought have escaped.
D. The prisoners were thought to have escaped.
40. New law/ expect/ introduce/ year.
A. A new law is expected to be introduce next year.
B. A new law expected to be introduced next year.
C. A new law is expected to be introduced next year.
D. A new law is expect to be introduced next year.
UNIT 7: RECIPES AND EATING HABITS
TEST 2
I. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest:
1. A. toss B. onion C. portion D. important
2. A. vinegar B. whisk C. allergic D. size
3. A. strip B. stripe C. slight D. spice
4. A. chop B. bunch C. touch D. ache
5. A. mixture B. salty C. shallot D. weight
II. Fill in each blank with one word from the box below. Make any changes if necessary.
(There are more words than blanks):
head dessert stew toss
stick tin clove
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many dishes from them.
A. salty B. main
C. starter D. versatile
IV. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to complete each of the following
sentences:
Worst effects of fast food
Fast food can be defined as any food that contributes little or no nutrient value to the diet, but
instead provides excess calories and fat. Fast food can be a good way to save time, but it is not the
(21) ______way for nutrition because it can have negative effects (22) ______our health.
Obesity
Obesity means having too much body fat. Fast food is high (23) ______calories and sugar that
contribute to increased-weight gain. Even small amount of fast food can (24) ______ your calorie
intake considerably. Fast foods also replace healthy eating habits. For example, people who
consume fast foods are less (25) ______to eat fruits, vegetables, milk etC. This change in eating
habits can easily lead to obesity.
Heart disease
Eating fast food four (26) ______more times a week can increase the risk of dying from heart
disease by 80 percent. Fast food creates a much higher risk of heart disease because of the high (27)
______of saturated or trans fats found in much of the food. Those fats can clog the arteries and, over
time, (28) ______ to high cholesterol levels.
Type 2 diabetes
This type of diabetes is often caused by (29) ______lifestyle choices, such as being overweight
and not being physically active, there IS a side effect to consuming frequent amounts (30)
______fast food ‘obesity’ which can lead to the development of diabetes.
(A daptedfrom http:/ / WWW. wonderslist. com/ 1O-worst-effecis-of-fast-food)
21. A. similar B. proper C. typical D. sticky
22. A. on B. for C. of D. to
23. A. for B. in C. of D. to
24.A. decrease B. rise C. increase D. complete
25. A. able B. likely C. likable D. possible
26. A. either B. but C. and D. or
27. A. level B. number C. lots D. portion
28. A. contribute B. build C. manage D. result
29. A. healthy B. good C. poor D. rich
30. A. to B. of C. for D. on
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V. Complete the sentences based on the words given. You can add extra words or make
changes:
26. You/ can/ have/ good/ health/ unless/ exercise/ more.
_____________________________________________________________
27. You/ should/ stop/ eat/ sweets/ if/ want/ have/ toothache.
_____________________________________________________________
28. Young/ children/ should/ allow/ watch/ TV/ more/ 3 hours/ day.
_____________________________________________________________
29. Mai/ can/ concentrate/ learning/ unless/ her/ brother/ stop/ make/ noise.
_____________________________________________________________
30. Students/ must/ follow/ school/ rules/ if/ they/ want/ get/ trouble.
_____________________________________________________________
31. When/ you/ grow/ up/ you/ will/ know/ importance/ family/ meals.
_____________________________________________________________
32. We/ should/ skip/ breakfast/ because/ it/ important/ health.
_____________________________________________________________
33. Unless/ she/ change/ diet/ she/ will/ get/ ill.
_____________________________________________________________
34. If/ Anna/ busy/ can/ you/ help/ me/ cook/ curry?
_____________________________________________________________
35. Children/ must/ use/ sharp/ knives.
_____________________________________________________________
Unit 8
TEST 3
I. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest:
1. A. carnival B. hospitable C. underground D. gourmet
2. A. Caribbean B. renowned C. heritage D. monument
3. A. spacious B.scenic C. spectacular D.scenery
4. A. breathtaking B. incredible C. excursion D. adventure
5. A. departure B. prevalent C. superb D. deluxe
II. Fill in each blank with a word from the box below (There are more words than blanks):
luxury package terminal
check-in winter sickness
economy emergency break
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security arrival luggage
V. Read the passage and decide whether the statements are true (T), or false (F):
132
Mass tourism
Tourism can bring many economic and social benefits, but mass tourism is also associated with
negative effects on environment. Some of the main problems are depletion of natural resources, and
pollution.
First, tourism puts pressure on natural resources. As a major cause of the loss of natural
habitat, tourism directly affects rare and endangered species. An illustration is that over 500 plant
species in the Mediterranean are on the verge of extinction. Lack of water is another problem
because during travel seasons, a huge amount of water is used for tourist activities like swimming
pools, golf courses, and accommodations. This leads to periodic water shortages which already exist
in many regions and are likely to spread and increase.
Another concern is pollution. Waste disposal is a serious problem in areas with high
concentrations of tourist activities. The production of wastewater and solid waste in tourist areas can
negatively affect air and water quality. In addition, exhaustion from traffic vehicles such as buses,
trains and especially airplanes is a major source of air pollution.
(A daptedfrom http:/ / traveltips. usatoday. com/ positive-negative-effects-tourism- 63336.html, http:/ / www.monachus-
guardian. org/ library/ wwftouOl.pdf, and https:/ / www.gdrc. org/ uem/ eco-tour/ envi/ one. html)
27. The loss of habitat can affect endangered species. (T) (F)
28. More than 500 species of animals in Mediterranean are in danger. (T) (F)
29. During travel seasons, more water is used than usual. (T) (F)
30. Waste disposal just leads to water pollution. (T) (F)
TEST 1
I. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest:
1. A. multicultural B. bilingual C. monolingual D. punctuality
2. A. dialect B. dominance C. derivative D. symbolism
3. A. proficiency B. capacity C. ability D. possibility
133
7. We can _______ our vocabulary through reading.
A. imitate B. decrease C. open D. expand
8.1 really admire Yen, _______is fluent_______both English and French.
A. that/ at B. that/ on C. who/ in D. which/ at
9. _______you need to do now is practice more often.
A. Which B. That C. What D. Whether
10. _______does “baggage” mean? - “_______it up in the dictionary”.
A. What/ Look B. That/ Find C. Which/ See D. What/ Find
11. She can’t speak much English so she needs someone_______can_______for her.
A. that/ explain B. that/ imitate C. who/ interpret D. who/ operate
12.1 can't speak French correctly due to the OÍ its grammar.
A. simplicity B. complexity C. openness D. punctuality
13. I can just about get _______in Italian.
A. in B. on C. without D. by
14. Thailand is one of the few countries _______people drive on the left.
A. which B. in that C. where D. on which
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27. The boy_______ wore a dark green coat forgot his umbrella.
28. The children_______ played football in the street are not from our school.
29. The car_______ window was broken is from Ireland.
30. What did you do with the money_______ you earned last month?
V. Rewrite the sentences using the conditional sentences type 1 or 2:
31. Don’t go out in the rain because you’ll get wet.
—> If you_____________________________________.
42.1 can’t join the party because I have to study.
—> If I didn’t _____________________________________
43 I feel depressed because the test results are disappointing.
—> If the_____________________________________
44. I won't go on the picnic if you come with me.
—> Unless you_____________________________________
45. The child doesn't talk to you because you look serious.
—> The child would_____________________________________
46. She feels lonely since she hasn't got any friends.
—> She wouldn’t_____________________________________
47. Should you see Peter, tell him about the competition.
—> If_____________________________________.
48.1 want to travel to Thailand, but I haven’t got enough money.
—> If I had_____________________________________ .
49. I’m too busy to go to leam a second language.
—> If I was_____________________________________.
50. There are too many vehicles in the street. As a result, our planet is severely polluted.
—> If there_____________________________________
135
TEST YOURSELF 3
(Units 7, 8,9)
TEST 2
I. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest:
1. A. origin B. fizzy c. diabetes D. cigarette
2. A. obese B. several c. access D. expert
3. A. culture B. nutrition c.coconut D. consumption
4. A. reduce B. luggage c. multiple D. mummy
5. A. prominent B. alcoholic c. official D. response
136
suffer attack obesity tourism
delayed sightseeing wonders undercooked
heritage tanned continent immigration
137
28. The political system of Australia is______
A. unstable B. urbanized C. democratic D. republic
29. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. The Australian continent, and many islands make up Australia.
B. Sydney is the world’s largest urban area.
C. The quality of life, health and education of Australia is good.
D. The eastern seaboard is an area of dense population.
30. What is the purpose of this passage?
A. explain why Australia is a developed country
B. To explain why Australia’s population is increasing
C. To present overall information of Australia
D. To present the history of Australia
V. Rewrite the sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the original one:
31. Mary can t apply for the scholarship because she doesn’t have an IELTS certificate.
-> If Mary______________________________________
32. It’s my opinion that you should not skip breakfast.
-> If I______________________________________
33. She's too young to get a driving license.
-> If______________________________________.
34. A language becomes extinct because no one speaks it at all.
->If______________________________________.
35. Without proper lessons, you could pick up a lot of bad habits.
-> If you______________________________________
VI. Read the passage and decide whether the following statements are true
(T) or false (F):
3 good reasons to eat in the morning
First, it may protect your heart.
In a recent study, researchers found that those who didn’t eat a morning meal were 27 percent
more likely to develop heart disease than those who did. “Our research indicates that people who
skip breakfast gain weight, which can lead to diabetes as well as high cholesterol and blood pressure
—all of which can raise your risk of heart disease,” Rimm notes. The reason isn’t entirely known,
but he says that breakfast skippers tend to overeat at other meals and snack excessively throughout
the day.
Second, it gets you moving.
In a recent study published in the American Journal of Clinical Nutrition (AJCN), people who
ate breakfast were more physically active during the morning than those who didn’t. That might be
138
because a temporary increase in blood sugar gave them more energy. It’s interesting to note that
those who at morning meal consumed more calories over the course of the day than ti? breakfast
skippers—but they didn’t gain weight because they were more active
Third, it might give you a mental edge.
Research involving adults and children has indicated that breakfast might enhance
memory, attention, the speed of processing information, reasoning creativity, learning, and
verbal abilities. Scientists at the University of Milan ni Italy reviewed 15 studies and found
some evidence that those benefits might be a function of the stable glucose levels that a
morning meal provides.
(http:/ / www.consumerreports.org/ cro/ magazirte/ 20i'4/ 'J'O/ why-eating-the-right-breakfast-
is-so-important/ index.htm)
36. Diabetes and high cholesterol can be the causes of heart disease. (T) (F)
37. Breakfast eaters tend to eat snacks excessively. (T) (F)
38. Breakfast skippers tend to be more active during the morning than those (T) (F)
who have breakfast.
39. A temporary rise in blood sugar can give us no energy. (T) (F)
40. Eating breakfast can have positive impact on our mental health. (T) (F)
139
20. Michael is an astronomer. His father is a scientist.
—> Michael___________________________________ is a scientist.
21. I bought a computer last month. It doesn't work properly.
—> The computer ___________________________________doesn't work properly.
22. Prince Charles will be the king of England one day. His mother is Queen Elizabeth.
—> Prince Charles___________________________________ will be the king of
England one day.
23. I was given a dog. It is very friendly.
—> The dog___________________________________ is very friendly.
9. The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn was written by Mark Twain. 1 enjoyed it a lot.
—> The Adventures of Huckleberry
Finn___________________________________was written by Mark Twain.
10. Ms Kelly is the woman. She took me to hospital when I fainted at school.
—> Ms Kelly is the woman___________________________________
II. Read the passage and choose the correct answer to complete each of the following
sentences:
The Moon is the Earth's only natural satellite. It is made of similar rock as the Earth. As the
Moon is constantly bombarded with small meteorites, a fine-grained "soil" or dust is formed from
the lunar rocks and covers the surface. The Moon does not have an atmosphere, and therefore sound
does not carry; there is also no weather. The temperature on the Moon is about -200°C on average.
Having no weather means no winds; the footprints the astronauts made when they First stepped on
the Moon's surface in 1969 are still there today.
Since the Moon is such a close neighbor, its main features are quite visible from Earth with
the naked eye. Most noticeable are the "seas" of the Moon. Although scientists have determined
that the Moon has no surface water, early observers thought these dark areas were seas on the
surface.
A few main theories explain how the Moon might have come to be in orbit around the Earth.
Many believe it was formed along with the Earth from the cloud of dust and gas that originally
formed the solar system Another hypothesis is that a large chunk broke oil while the molten Earth
was forming and stayed in orbit after It had solidified. 1 wo lesser-accepted theories are that the
M(»on was a small planet in the solar system that came near the Earth and was captured by I arth's
gravity, or that a large planet struck the Earth and molten materials hardened to form the Moon.
The Moon does not produce its own light, despite the fact that it is the second brightest object
in our sky (after the Sun). It reflects light from the Sun back at the Earth. Because the Moon's period
of rotation is the same as its period of revolution around the Earth - 27.3 days - the Moon always
shows the same side to the Earth. Therefore, we are unable to see the other half, the "dark side" of
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the Moon, with our naked eye. Fortunately, we have seen images of this part of the Moon, taken via
satellites and spacecraft that travel to the "dark side."
11. Why the footprints of the astronauts on the Moon in 1969 still exist today?
A. There is no wind in the Moon. B. There is no soil in the Moon.
C. There is no light in the Moon. D. There is no dark side of the Moon.
12. Why we can see some features of the Moon from Earth?
A. The Moon was captured by Earth’s gravity.
B. The Earth is the Moon’s satellite.
C. The Moon is close to the Earth.
D. The Earth struck the Moon.
13. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The surface of the Moon is covered by dust.
B. Space exploration has just focused on the moon in recent years.
C. We can see both sides of the Moon with our naked eye.
D. The bright areas of the Moon were believed to be the “seas”.
14. Which of the following statements explains why the Moon orbits the Earth?
A. The Moon rotates around the Earth.
B. The Moon was formed from lunar rocks.
C. The Moon was attracted by the Earth’s gravity.
D. The Moon always shows the same side to the Earth.
15. Which o f the following statements is not true?
A. Seas of the Moon can be seen from the Earth.
B. Some believe that the Moon was formed along with the Earth.
C. It takes the Moon 27.3 days to rotate around the Earth.
D. The temperature on the Moon is higher than that on the Earth.
Unit 11. CHANGING ROLES IN SOCIETY
TEST 1
I. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest:
1. A. maternal B. paternal C. maintenance D. financial
2. A. practical B. actual C. drastic D. external
3. A. involvement B. application C. individual D. advantageous
4. A. provision B. consequence C. equality D. convenience
5. A. attend B. witness C. tailor D. service
II. Choose the correct answer for each sentence:
6. A new shopping center_____where this farm stands now.
A. will be built B. is going to build
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C. is going constructed D. will have constructed
7. You will_____ some interesting new things in class next week.
A. be learnt B. be learned
C. be taught D. have learnt
8. Clara____I admire very much, is a dedicated teacher.
A. which B. whose C. that D. who
9. The place we spent our holiday was really beautiful.
A. in that B. which C. where D. that
10. I ______for the job.
A. will be train B. am going to train
C. am going to be trained D. will have been trained
11. Our proposal_______
A. will accept B. is going to accept
C. will not be accepted D. has accepted
12. Will the restaurant_____again?
A. is open B. is opened c. be opened D. have opened
13. The contract______ by both sides
A. will sign B. is going to sign c. would sign D. will be signed
14. When you arrive. I_____ my homework.
A. will be doing B. will do C. am doing D. was doing
15. Dr Sales is the person_____.
A. in that I don't have much confidence
B. whom I don't have much confidence in him
C. I don’t have much confidence
D. in whom I don't have much confidence
III. Choose the correct answer to complete each sentence:
16. I don't want to become a_____ to my children when I'm old.
A. heavy B. burden C. chief D. breadwinner
17. There must be adequate_____ provision for people with disabilities.
A. welfare B. wealth C. maintenance D. field
18. In spite of their very different_____, they immediately became friends.
A. richness B. commerce C. finance D. backgrounds
19. There is always a special_____ between mother and child.
A. assistance B. provision C. breadwinner D. bond
20. Don't you believe in_____ between men and women?
A. race B. equation C. equality D. development
21. I love my family so much. They have always been extremely _____to me.
A. mature B. realistic C. supportive D. known
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22. She _____a living as a part-time secretary.
A. earned B. got C. had D. took
23. They help women cope with the emotional_____ of divorce.
A. results B. reasons C. causes D. consequences
24. Candidates are _____on their ability to think independently.
A. explored B. checked C. evaluated D. witnessed
25. Mark has two children to _____from his first marriage.
A. require B. support C. grow D. affect
IV. Find a mistake in each sentence:
26. Someone (A) is going to (B) repaired (C) the roof (D) next week.
27. Describe (A) any activities in (B) that you participated (C) for your (D) community-
28. It (A) is expected that all schools (B) have been equipped (C) wjlb laboratories (D) by 2050.
29. (A) The gardener (B) will be (C) paid for a (D) lot of money.
30. I’m (A) working (B) on a firm (C) which main office is (D) in London.
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content and course selection are far more (11) ______ in the second year. However, there is a (12)
______of academic material throughout all programs.
(13) ______technical programs includes several hundred specialized courses, such as
information (14), navigation, fish farming, business, English, and ceramics. Business and industrial
courses are the most (15) ______, accounting for 72% of all students in full-time vocational
programs in 1989.
(https:/ / en.wikipedia.org/ wiki/ Educationjn_Japan)
III. Fill in the blanks with despite, in spite of, although or even though.
16. ______we are a small company, we sell almost a hundred machines a month.
17. ______all the difficulties, the project started on time and was a success.
18. ______he has been working for the company for six months, he never seems to know what to
do.
19. ______the fact that he's a millionaire, he drives a second-hand car.
20. ______the heavy traffic, we got there on time.
21. ______the weather was bad, we had a good time.
22. ______all our hard work, a lot of things went wrong.
23. Jane rarely sees Alan______ they are neighbors.
24. Clare did the work______being in
25. I managed to sleep______ the bole, was noisy.
IV. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verbs:
13. Nate deserved (win) ______the prize for. writing that amazing short story
about (travel) ______through Peru.
14. I cant believe you wanted (go) ______ fishing, and you forgot (bring)______a fishing pole.
How did you expect (catch) ______any fish?
15. If he avoids (waste) ______ his money and manages (save) ______what
he needs to make the trip, he plans on (leave) ______in June.
16. When Sam mentioned (want) ______to go swimming, Nina warned him not (go) ______into
the river.
17. The Oscar-winning actor avoids (talk)to his fans and refuses (give) ______his autograph.
18. Simone and Michael discussed (go) ______to Tahiti on their honeymoon, but they had very
different opinions about (visit) ______such an expensive destination.
19. Schools also encourage parents (reinforce) ______these skills at home by (surf) ______the
Internet together with their children.
20. Her co-worker Denise suggested (shut) ______ down the computer and restarting it (see)
______if that would solve the problem.
21. One of his life-long goals is to learn (speak) ______Chinese fluently.
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22. A traveler advised him (go) ______to the tourist information office (ask) ______for help.
V. Read the passage and match each paragraph with the suitable heading (There are two
headings you do not need to use)
Advantages Of Online Learning
A. Online courses look great on a resume
B. Learn whatever you want!
C. Easy to have high academic results
D. Competitive to learn online
E. Lower costs.
F. Self-paced learning
G. Comfort
23. __________________________
With online education, you can take any program or course present in traditional four-year
universities. The great variety of online programs and courses is a huge advantage of this type of
education. It doesn t matter where you live and what you want to study — you can always find a
suitable course or even a degree pr )gram that you can follow from home.
24. __________________________
Forget about attending classes for hours, sitting in an uncomfortable chair, and suffering
from back pain by the end of the day. You will not be bound to physical class session when you
opt for online education. All lectures and needed materials are provided via online platforms, so
you’ll easily access them from the comfort of your home. You won’t have to get up early to get
dressed for class... the list of conveniences goes on and on.
25. __________________________
It doesn’t matter where your career stands at this moment; an online program will always
look good on your resume. It will show potential employers that you’re committed to learning
and you’re eager to obtain more knowledge and new skills. If you obtain an online degree from a
prestigious university, you’ll boost your career with the speed of light. You will certainly
become a better candidate for a job promotion, and your resume will look much better when you
apply for new posi; ions.
26. __________________________
Self-paced learning means that the students can start completing the targets at any time,
and he can arrange a learning schedule that meets his individual needs. A self-paced system
enables students to make progress with rhythm that suits them. If you have to work or take care
of your home and children during the day. you can study at night. That’s an advantage the
traditional educational system cannot beat.
27. __________________________
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The fact that online programs are cheaper when compared to the ones held in a traditional
campus setting is enough to convince you to consider them. The average tuition for online
courses depends on multiple factors, so it varies from one program to another. If, for example,
you want to enroll in the Big Data Specialization program provided by University California, San
Diego through Coursera, you’ll pay $399. You also have an option to pay $49 per course.
Financial Aid is available for learners who cannot afford this fee, so that s something you should
always keep in mind.
TEST 3
I. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest:
1. A. ưeatment B. tertiary C. prestigious D. interview
2. A. aspect B. workload C. deadline D. manual
3. A. extracurricular B. occupation C. disobedient D. unemployment
4. A. initiative B. temporary C. entitlement D. accommodation
5. A. boutique B. office C. police D. retire
III. Change these sentences into reported speech
16. She admitted that she had taken the necklace.
—> She admitted ________________________________________________.
17. I don’t intend to tell you my plans.
—> I have no intention________________________________________________.
18. “You've stolen my money, Tam”
—> She accused Tam of________________________________________________
19. Long found it difficult to concentrate on her lesson because of noise.
—> Long had difficulty________________________________________________
20. “I'm Sony I broke your glass” Hai said.
—> Hai apologized for________________________________________________
21. He tried to escape but the police stopped him.
—> The police prevented him from___________________________________________
22. John began playing the piano ten years ago.
—> John has____________________________________________________________
23.1 can’t possibly work in all this noise!
—> It is impossible________________________________________________
24. Susan regrets not buying that house.
—> Susan wishes_________________________________________________.
25. Smoking is not allowed on the public buses.
—> We aren’t________________________________________________.
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IV. Rewrite each of the following sentences, using the word or phrase in brackets
26. She told me the secret, despite having promised not to do so. (although)
____________________________________________________________
27. My friend ate a chocolate cake even though she was on a diet, (in spite of)
____________________________________________________________
28. Although he is wealthy, he is not spoiled, (despite)
____________________________________________________________
29. Despite a good salary, he was unhappy in his job. (although)
____________________________________________________________
30. In spite of the high prices, my roommates go to the movies every Saturday, (even though)
____________________________________________________________
31. Although Dr. Ayers is a professor of chemical engineering, he knows the most about
theoretical mathematics, (in spite of)
____________________________________________________________
32. In spite of Lee s sadness at losing the contest, she managed to smile, (although)
____________________________________________________________
33. Even though she had a poor memory, the old woman told interesting stories to the children,
(despite)
____________________________________________________________
34. In spite of their poverty, they are very generous, (though)
____________________________________________________________
35. Though he has been absent frequently, he has managed to pass the test, (in spite of)
____________________________________________________________
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TEST YOURSELE 4
(Units 10,11,12)
TEST 1
I, Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest:
1. A. responsive B. championship C. facilitator D. priority
2. A. electricity B. creativity C. capability D. discovery
3. A. affection B. amazement C. astronomy D. universe
4. A. attendance B. habitable C. certificate D. curriculum
5, A. equality B. battery C. gravity D. telescope
II. Put the verbs in brackets in the correct forms:
6.1 am accustomed to (take care)______of myself.
7.1 want him (paint) ______the wall.
8. This guy is known for (break) ______the rules.
9. Yesterday, Jill (phone) ______Dad at work before she (leave) ______for her trip.
10. Susan turned on the radio after she (wash) ______the dishes.
11. When she arrived the match (already start) ______.
12. After the man had come home he (feed) ______the cat.
13. A beautiful dinner is going to (make) ______by Sally tonight.
14. The project will (complete) ______before the deadline.
15. The work will (finish) ______by 5:00 PM.
Ill. Choose the correct answer for each sentence:
16. The technology has enabled development of an online______ library.
A. virtual B. employed C. academic D. financial
17. There are a lot of things to be done, so I have to do about five hours______a week.
A. bonus B. overtime C. plus D. after
18. In the future, we may use______saucers to travel to other planets.
A. lodging B. flying C. rinseless D. discovering
19. The students were able to go behind the______ to see how programmes are made.
A. landscape B. scenery C. scenes D. background
20. The satellite was successfully______ last year.
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A. cultivated B. enrolled C. floated D. launched
21. Coursework is taken into______ as well as exam results.
A. account B. profession C. approach D. orbit
22. The space buggy started to shake______, but the astronaut managed to control it later.
A. uncontrollably/ astronaut B. controllable/ chemist
C. controllably/ designer D. uncontrollable/ businessman
23. My husband changed his______ from afternoons to nights.
A. responsibilities B. roles C. shifts D. paths
24. More and more people decide to work______ from home.
A. vision B. content C. midnight D. freelance
25. Many women still suffer______ at work.
A. discrimination B. favor C. gravity D. domination
IV. Read the following text and then choose from the list A-G given below the best phrase to fill
each of the spaces. Each correct phrase may only be used once. Two of the suggested answers
do not fit at all:
Why are women getting so many more university places than men?
This isn't just a slight difference. Women in the UK are now 35% more likely than men to go to
university (26) ______.
A baby girl born in 2016 will be 75% more likely to go to university than a boy, (27) ______.
The Higher Education Policy Institute (HEPI) has published research examining this increasingly
polarised gender divide.
And as university remains (28) ______, Mary Cumock Cook, head of the Ucas university
admissions service, warns that being male could be a new form of disadvantage.
"On current trends, (29) ______ by the gap between males and females within a decade," she
writes in an introduction to the report.
And she says while there is much focus on social mobility and geographical differences, there is a
collective blind spot (30) ______.
(http:/ / www.bbc.com/ news/ education-i6266 753?
A. the gap between rich and poor will be eclipsed
B. if current trends continue
C. the gateway to better-paid, more secure jobs
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D. worse than going straight into work
E. and the gap IS widening every year
F. the lowest number to be recorded
G. on the underachievement of young men
TEST 2
I. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest:
1. A. teenager B. housewife C. gravity D. external
2. A. astronomy B. creative C. astronaut D. astronomer
3. A. exploration B. individual C. cultivation D. dominate
4. A. caregiver B. designer C. operate D. telescope
5. A. practical B. society C. participate D. involvement
II. Rewrite the following sentences, using the word or phrase in brackets:
6. In spite of a headache, he enjoyed the film, (although)
_________________________________________________________
7. I am sorry but you have not been appointed to the post, (regret)
_________________________________________________________
8. It was difficult for me not to laugh at his joke, (help)
_________________________________________________________
9. I went to see the film TitaniC. I enjoyed it very much, (which)
_________________________________________________________
10. George speaks Spanish. His wife is from Argentina, (whose)
_________________________________________________________
11. Although both his legs were broken in the crash, he managed to get out of the car before it
exploded, (despite)
_________________________________________________________
12. My parents insist that 1 study hard, (want)
_________________________________________________________
13. It was 1998. I met her for the first time, (when)
_________________________________________________________
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14. Amy is very popular. She gets on well with everyone, (who)
_________________________________________________________
15. We understood him in spite of his strong accent, (though)
_________________________________________________________
III. Read the passage and answer the questions:
Good nurses greatly contribute to the success and stability of healthcare institutions and to the
mental and physical wellbeing of their patients. Those who succeed in nursing and gain the most
personal fulfillment from it start their careers with certain unique qualities.
Caring
An effective nurse is caring, understanding, nonjudgmental and has a strong ability to empathize
with patients from all walks of life. Registered nurses deal with the sick and injured and their families
on a daily basis, and they need to be able to show them that they truly care about their situations. At the
same time, nurses need to be able to control their own emotions. They constantly deal with stressful
situations including emergencies, traumatic events and tragic illnesses- To be able to successfully carry
out their duties, nurses must be able to remain calm and think clearly under these circumstances.
Communication Skills
They have to be able to communicate with doctors, patients and coworkers in a very fast-paced
environment. They must also listen carefully to doctor’s orders and take perfect notes when needed.
Good nurses are able to follow driretions with a problem and easily communicate with patients and
families. A truly stellar nurse advocates for their patients and anticipates their needs. Effective
communication skills in nursing create a high level of patient satisfaction while preventing medical
mishaps.
Responsible
Nurses play a major role in assessing and treating patients' medical conditions, and when dealing
with the health of another human being, there is little room lor error, so nurses must responsibly carry
out their duties at all times. They have to be able to keep track of and record minor changes in a
patient's health or behavior, because neglecting to notice something could end up having serious
consequences. Nurses also need to be responsible when it comes to their job demands and be flexible
with their time.
With the right personality, nursing can be an extremely rewarding career
(httpsd/ wwwjacksonvilleu.com/ blog/ nursing/ qualities-of-a-good-nurse/ )
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26. To become a good nurse, one needs to________
A. be careful, successful and effective
B. be able to listen carefully and speak fluently
C. be good looking and brave
D. be caring, responsible and have good communication skills
27. Why nurses need to he able to control their emotions?
A. They frequently encounter stressful situations.
B. They frequently suffer traumas and illnesses.
C. They frequently care about patients and their families.
D. They frequently deal with problematic doctors.
28. Good communication skills may include________
A. listening to doctors’ directions and remaining calm
B. neglecting one’s responsibilities
C. keeping track of changes in a patient’s health
D. understanding patients’ needs
29. ________is an example oj nurses sense oj responsibility
A. Understanding patients’ pains and situations.
B. Willingness to work flexitime
C. Communicating well with patients
D. Showing care to patients
30. Which of the following statements is true ?
A. Good communication skills cannot make patients feel satisfied.
B. A sense of responsibility is the most important requirement to become a nurse C. Nurses
deal with patients and their families every day.
C. Nurses can end up having serious consequences if working overtime.
LISTENING- BOOK 1
Exercise 22. Listen to Luke talking to a friend and then match the people to the problems they have,
as in the example.
152
Exercise 23. Listen to a policewoman taking a witness’s report and mark the statements as true (T)
or false (F).
Exercise 24. Sam has decided to join his local sports club. Listen to the conversation then complete
his notes below.
-----------------------------------------------------------
153
Exercise 25. The leader of an environmental expedition is talking to the people going on the trip.
Listen and complete the information in the table.
Exercise 26. Listen to Dan and Natalie trying to decide what to watch on TV, then tick A, B or C for
each of the questions.
0. The program Dan wants to watch later is
A. the news. B. a documentary. C. a film.
1. They don’t watch the football because
A. it has already started. B. Natalie doesn’t enjoy sports programs.
C. Dan doesn’t want to watch it.
2. They discuss the soap opera because
A. somebody told Dan that it was good.
B. Natalie hasn’t seen it before. C. Dan suggests watching it.
3. The Frank Wilson quiz show starts at
A. 8:30. B. 9:00. C. 9:30
4. Natalie
A. has definitely watched the quiz show before.
B. doesn’t remember whether she’s watched the quiz show before.
C. doesn’t like quiz shows in general.
5 .Natalie doesn’t want to watch the news because
A. she wants to watch The Dating Show.
B. she’s not in a good mood.
C. it’s rarely about anything good.
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-----------------------------------------------------------
Exercise 27. Listen to a science teacher talking about the life of Isaac Newton. Then for each of the
questions 1-5 choose the best answer A, B or C, as in the example.
0. What does the speaker say about Einstein?
A. He worked with Newton.
B. Newton improved his theories.
C. He lived more than 250 years after Newton
1. Newton was born in
A. 1462. B. 1624. C. 1642.
2. When he first went to university, Newton studied
A. Law. B. Mathematics. C. Science.
3. The speaker says that Newton’s most famous discovery
A. light. B. mechanics. C. gravity.
4. Newton started thinking about gravity when he saw
A. an apple fall off a tree. B. a tree falling over. C. the moon moving through the sky.
5. Newton died in
A. Woolsthorpe. B. Cambridge. C. London.
-----------------------------------------------------------
LISTENING- BOOK 2
TEST 1
Listen to the recording twice then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions.
1. How does Joshua go to school in Japan?
A. He takes a school bus every morning
B. He rides the subway at 8:00 AM.
C. He walks with a group of students.
2. Which item did Joshua NOT mention when talking about the things he takes to school?
A. backpack B. gym clothes C. school hat
3. What is one of the first things Joshua does when he arrives at school?
A. He practices his reading and writing.
B. He stands and bows to the teacher.
C. He puts on his gym clothes for class.
4. Where does Joshua eat lunch at school?
A. in his classroom B. in the lunchroom C. in the gymnasium
5. What time does Joshua probably get home from school most days?
A. between 1:00 PM and 2:00 PM
B. between 2:00 PM and 3:00 PM
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C. between 3:00 PM and 4:00 PM
===================================================
TEST 2
Listen to the recording twice then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions.
1. Where does the young girl want to go with her father?
A. to the park B. to the movies C. to the swimming pool
2. Who are they going with?
A. the girl's mother B. the girl's best friend C. the girl's older brother
3. Based on the conversation, what time will they most likely leave?
A. 9:30 AM B. 12:45 PM C. 2:00 PM
4. What does the girl want to do later?
A. She wants to walk to the ice cream store.
B. She wants to swim at the park.
C. She wants to go down to the beach.
5. What does the father suggest they do at the end of the day?
A. go to a restaurant B. watch a fireworks display C. play a board game
===================================================
TEST 3
Listen to the recording twice then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions.
1. What is the name of the actress?
A. Sarah Reynolds B. Sarah Rogers C. Sarah Roberts
2. Where is she from?
A. She is from Miami. B. She was born in New York. C. She comes from Los Angeles.
3. Where did she work part-time while she was going to school?
A. at a restaurant B. at a movie theater C. at a supermarket
4. How old is the actress?
A. 20 B. 22 C. 24
5. What is the woman's hobby?
A. shopping B. cooking C. reading
===================================================
TEST 4
Listen to the recording twice then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions.
1. Who will meet the woman at the airport?
A. the woman's father B. the man's brother C. a friend from work
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2. The person is _______ tall.
A. quite B. extremely C. not so
3. He has _______ hair.
A. black B. red C. brown
4. The man wears ______________.
A. black shoes B. blue shirts C. a white hat
5. The man's name is _______.
A. Mike B. Marshall C. Matthew
===================================================
TEST 5
Listen to the recording twice then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions.
1. What will take place at Bill's house tomorrow?
A. a party B. a game C. a dance
2. Why does Hank have to work late?
A. He has to attend a meeting. B. He has to write a report. C. He has to close the office.
3. Why is Hank going to visit Lisa after work?
A. because she is sick in bed
B. because he has to return something
C. because he is going to take her to Bill's house
4. Where is Hank going to get the snacks to take to Bill's house?
A. from his house B. from the store C. from his work
5. What time will Hank most likely arrive at Bill's house?
A. 7:00 PM B. 8:00 PM C. 9:00 PM
===================================================
TEST 6
Listen to the recording twice then choose A, B or C to best answer the questions.
1. What is the main topic of the conversation?
A. problems with living in an apartment
B. a search for a new apartment
C. the cost of rent near universities
2. Why doesn't Ann like her current apartment?
A. It's too expensive.
B. The neighborhood is noisy.
C. It's located some distance from school.
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3. How much money does Ann want to pay for rent?
A. no more than $200 B. around $200 C. a little more than $200
4. What kind of place is she looking for?
A. somewhere that is within a short driving distance of campus
B. an apartment with furniture already in it
C. a place where she can live alone
5. How is Roger going to help her?
A. He is planning on calling a friend who owns an apartment building.
B. He will check the newspapers to see if he can find an apartment for rent.
C. He is going to visit an apartment building near his place.
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LISTENING- BOOK 3
Exercise 5. Listen to the recording twice, fill in the blank with a suitable word.
Well, it’s (1) ……………………….. to see you, George. I hope you enjoy working for us here. Now, let me
brief you on what we have to do this morning. First, your hours. You will do an eight hour day, but
you can start any time between seven and half past nine, so you can (2) ……………………….. your own hours and
leave early if you want. This morning, I’d like you to read some health and (3) ……………………….. information on
the computer. You’ll need to (4) ……………………….. a quiz on the computer after you’ve read it. Later on, I’ll give
you a (5) ……………………….. of the building.
Exercise 6. Listen to the recording twice, fill in the blank with a suitable word.
You want to get free electricity, and earn money at the same time? We, at PV Lec, would like to
(1) ……………………….. you a great deal. Install photovoltaic panels on your roof and you can (2) ……………………….. your
own electricity from the sun! You will save money on your electricity bills, and you can sell any
electricity you don’t use back to your electricity (3) ……………………….. . If that isn’t a great enough deal, you’ll
also get a tax-free payment from the (4) ……………………….., simply as a ‘thank you’ for generating carbon-free
energy. Call PV Lec now on 08004778599 for a free survey to (5) ……………………….. which size unit is suitable for
your home.
Exercise 7. Listen to the recording twice, fill in the blank with a suitable word.
And now for the weather. Today it will be another warm, (1) ……………………….. day, but it won’t be as
sunny as yesterday. Most areas of the (2) ……………………….. will be overcast. But temperatures will be high,
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around seventy degrees, with some light (3) ……………………….. on the coast. Unfortunately this spell isn’t going
to last, I’m (4) ………………………... Tomorrow, a band of rain is going to creep in from the (5) ……………………….. west, and
it’s going to feel a lot colder.
Exercise 8. Listen to the recording twice, fill in the blank with a suitable word.
I used to own a little clothes shop, but it was in a back street, away from the town (1) ……………………….. ,
so we didn’t do very well. One day, I went to my supplier, and bought a hundred (2) ……………………….. jackets
for fifty pounds. They were seconds, with broken zips and (3) ……………………….. in the lining. Then I put an ad in
the paper saying that I was selling leather jackets for a pound each. I could have sold them for more,
but I wanted the (4) ……………………….. for my shop. Five days before the sale, I saw a girl sitting on the street (5)
……………………….. the shop. She was waiting to buy a jacket! On the morning of the sale, there were about 800
girls in the (6) ……………………….. and we only had a hundred jackets!
Exercise 9. Listen to the recording twice, fill in the blank with a suitable word.
You may be (1) ……………………….. in opening a bank account with us. We give 4% interest, as long as you pay
$2500 into your account every month. You don’t even have to worry about (2) ……………………….. over your
direct debits and standing orders from your (3) ……………………….. bank account. We’ll do that for you. We’ll also
give you $100 if this is your first (4) ……………………….. account with us. To be eligible for this deal, you must be
over 18 and be a US citizen. Apply online today, and your (5) ……………………….. will be set up within one week.
Exercise 10. Listen to the recording twice, fill in the blank with a suitable word.
In the last year, I’m happy to say that sales of our pies have (1) ……………………….. . The marketing team
did a great job in promoting our products. (2) ……………………….., however, our costs have increased too. This is
partly due to the advertising costs which were fifty percent higher than we expected to pay. But the
other (3) ……………………….. is the growing price of oil. This is increasing the cost of all our supplies. I think we
should consider finding local food suppliers to (4) ……………………….. these costs. As for packaging, we may be
able to find (5) ……………………….. suppliers overseas.
Exercise 11. Listen to the recording twice, fill in the blank with a suitable word.
A group of green charities called Rewilding Britain wants to return a large area of Scotland to
how it was a thousand years ago. The group wants (1) ……………………….. and lost animals, birds and fish to
return. One of the (2) ……………………….. the group aims to put back into the wild is the wolf. This died out in
Britain in (3) ……………………….. after hunters and farmers killed them all. Other species that could return to
Scottish (4) ……………………….., rivers and seas include the lynx (a wild cat), beavers, bison, sea eagles, bluefin
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tuna and grey whales. The charities want the government to return one-twentieth of the country to
its (5) ……………………….. state. The area it wants is the United Kingdom's cleanest region. It hopes much of this
can happen by the year 2030.
Not everyone thinks the reintroduction of animals like the (6) ……………………….. and lynx is a good idea.
Farmers are (7) ……………………….. it would cause them many problems. A farmer's group said it was a crazy idea
to bring back predators to the country because they would start (8) ……………………….. farm animals. They also
said that dams built by beavers would increase the risk of flooding (9) ……………………….., while sea eagles kill
lambs. Rewilding Britain spokeswoman Rebecca Wrigley said: "Re-wilding is really for everyone who
cares about our future." She added: "Our ecosystems need us." Ms Wrigley said it was (10) ……………………….. to
re-wild Britain for, "native forests to regenerate" and to give "the seas a chance to recover from
industrial fishing".
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