Code

M1
EXAMINATION : 1

Roll Number:
Time: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 360

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1. Break the seal and start answering only once asked to do so.
2. Please write your ROLL NUMBER very clearly [only one digit in one block] as given in
your admit card.
3. Answers are to be marked in separate OMR ANSWER SHEET provided along with the
question paper.
4. There are 90 questions in this test. All are compulsory.
5. The questions are arranged in the following order:
a. Questions 1 to 25 belong to Physics.
b. Questions 26 to 50 belong to Chemistry.
c. Questions 51 to 90 belong to Biology.
6. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, you will get 4 marks and for
every wrong response 1 mark will be deducted from the total score.
7. Select the most suitable answer from the options given for each question and completely
darken the circle corresponding to the correct alternative as shown below using blue/black
ball point pen.

Wrong Method Correct Method

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The copyright of the contents of this booklet rests with the institution and no part of it should be used
by anybody in any manner whatsoever without the prior permission of the institution. The questions
are prepared with best expertise. In case of any dispute, the opinion of the experts appointed by the
institution will be final.
 PHYSICS Statement 2: An object may have zero accelera-
tion but non zero velocity.
1. Wavelength of sound wave whose frequency is
220 Hz and speed is 440 m/s in a given medium (1) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.
is (2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
(1) 0.5 m (2) 1 m wrong.
(3) 2 m (4) 4 m (3) Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is
wrong.
2. 10−7 cm = ____m (4) Both statement 1 and 2 are wrong.
(1) 10−10 (2) 10−8
(3) 10−9 (4) 10−12 6. A lamp consumes 1500 J of electric energy in
15 s. Its power is
3. Distance-time graphs of three cars A, B and C
(1) 22500 W (2) 11250 W
moving along straight roads are given below.
(3) 150 W (4) 100 W

7. A car has mass 1000 kg. The force between the

car and the road if the car is to be stopped with
a retardation of 2.3 ms−2 is
(1) 2300 N (2) 2600 N
(3) 4400 N (4) 2200 N

8. A truck of mass 6000 kg starts from rest and

rolls down a hill with constant acceleration. It
(1) C moves faster than B
travells a distance 200 m in 20 s. The force act-
(2) Speed of A is 20 km/h
ing on it is:
(3) A starts earlier
(1) 4000 N (2) 6000 N
(4) Speed of B is 10 m/s
(3) 8000 N (4) 12000 N
4. A ball is thrown vertically up from the ground
with a speed of 20 m/s. If its velocity decreases 9. A motor cycle of mass 150 kg is accelerated uni-
uniformly at the rate of 10 m s−2 . formly from 4 m/s to 9 m/s in 10 seconds.
The force exerted on the motor cycle is:
(1) It will strike the ground with a velocity
(1) 60 N (2) 75 N
20 m/s in 4 seconds.
(3) 100 N (4) 150 N
(2) It will strike the ground with a velocity
40 m/s in 2 seconds.
10. The gravitational force between two objects at a
(3) It will strike the ground with a velocity
separation is F . The force when the separation
20 m/s in 2 seconds.
between them is tripled and one of the masses is
(4) It will strike the ground
with a velocity
doubled is:
15 m/s in 4 seconds. 2
(1) 3 F (2) F
9
5. Statement 1: An object may have non zero ac-
3
celeration but zero velocity. (3) F (4) F
4

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11. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a ve- 17. At the time of short circuit, the current in the
locity of 19.6 m/s. The time it takes to reach circuit
the maximum height is: (1) reduces substantially.
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s (2) does not change.
(3) 3 s (4) 4 s (3) increases heavily.
(4) vary continuously.
12. A force acting on an object of mass 50 kg
changes its velocity from 10 m/s to 5 m/s. The 18. A ray of light travels from a medium of smaller
work done by the force is: refractive index to a medium having greater re-
(1) −1687.5 J (2) 210 J fractive index. Then the incorrect statement
(3) −1875 J (4) none of these among the following is.
(1) Angle of incidence is greater than angle of
13. A girl of mass 50 kg runs up a staircase of 36 refraction
steps in 6 s. If the height of each step is 15 cm, (2) Angle of incidence is smaller than angle of
then her power is: (take g = 10 m s−2 .) refraction
(1) 375 W (2) 450 W (3) Speed of light in the first medium is larger
(3) 395 W (4) 405 W (4) Refracted ray bends towards the normal

14. 1 Kilo watt hour (kWh) is equal to 19. In the given circuit, the current through 20 Ω is:
(1) 3.6 × 103 J (2) 7.2 × 103 J
(3) 7.2 × 106 J (4) 3.6 × 106 J

15. A sonar device on a submarine sends out a sig-

nal and receives an echo 10 s later. The speed of
sound in water if the distance of the object from
the submarine is 6250 m is:
(1) 1450 m/s (2) 1250 m/s (1) 2 A (2) 1 A
(3) 950 m/s (4) 2250 m/s (3) 0.2 A (4) 0.6 A
−1
16. Which of the following correctly describes the 20. Nms is the unit of ____.
magnetic field near a long straight current car- (1) power
rying wire? (2) electric current
(3) resistance
(1) The field consists of straight lines perpendic-
(4) potential difference
ular to the wire.
(2) The field consists of straight lines parallel to 21. Two conducting wires of the same material and
the wire. of equal lengths and equal diameters are first
(3) The field consists of radial lines originating connected in parallel and then series in a circuit
from the wire. across the same potential difference. The ratio
(4) The field consists of concentric circles cen- of heat produced in parallel and series combina-
tred on the wire. tions would be

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 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1

22. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W.

When it is operated on 110 V, the power con-
sumed will be
(1) 100 W (2) 75 W
(3) 50 W (4) 25 W

23. Which of the following can be used to provide

uniform magnetic field:
(1) bar magnet The number of electrons in the L shell of element
(2) current carrying solenoid and the mass number respectively are
(3) circular current loop (1) 12, 24 (2) 8, 24
(4) straight current carrying wire. (3) 12, 8 (4) 8, 12

24. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is 28. Name the scientist who discovered negatively
charged particles in an atom.
(1) the process of charging a body.
(1)J.J. Thomson (2) Rutherford
(2) the process of generating magnetic field due
(3) Goldstein (4) Chadwick
to a current passing through a coil.
(3) producing induced current in a coil due to 29. What is the atomicity of aluminium phosphate?
relative motion between a magnet and the (1) 8 (2) 6
coil. (3) 5 (4) 13
(4) the process of rotating a coil of an electric
motor. 30. What is the SI unit of density?
(1) gcm−3 (2) gm−3
25. An electron is projected towards west is deflected (3) kgm−3 (4) kgcm−3
towards north by a magnetic field. The direction
of magnetic field is 31. Find the relation and fill up suitably.
(1) towards south (2) towards east a. Tin stone: Magnetic separation
(3) downward (4) upward b. Bauxite :

CHEMISTRY (1) Hydraulic washing

(2) Magnetic separation
26. Choose the pairs of isotopes from the following. (3) Leaching
(Symbols are not real). (4) Froth Floatation Method
(1) 13 15
7 X 7 Y (2) 35 37
17 A 18 B
32. Observe the equation of the chemical reactions
(3) 14 14
6 P 7 Q (4) 83 M 84 N
given below. In which chemical reaction pres-
27. The representation of the Bohr atom model of sure can influence its speed?
an element is given below.

3
 (1) NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) 40. Which of the following is a natural polymer?
→ NaCl(aq) + H2 O(l) (1) Nylon (2) Teflon
(2) N2( g) + O2( g) ⇌ 2NO(g) (3) Linen (4) Orlon
(3) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2( g)
(4) 2SO2( g) + O2( g) ⇌ 2SO3( g) 41. A neutral atom (Atomic No > 1 ) has
(1) electron and proton
33. Which metal’s ore is ‘calamine’ ? (2) neutron and electron
(1) Iron (2) Zinc (3) neutron, electron and proton
(3) Aluminium (4) Tin (4) neutron and proton.
1−
42. The number of electrons in [40
19 K] is
34. Which gas is produced when metals react with
(1) 20 (2) 40
dilute hydrochloric acid?
(3) 18 (4) 19
(1) Chlorine (2) Hydrogen
(3) Oxygen (4) Nitrogen
43. The hydride ion is isoelectronic with
(1) H+ (2) He+
35. What is the oxidation state of Cu in Cu2 O.
(3) He (4) Be.
(1)−2 (2)+2
(3)+1 (4)−1 44. Carbon is a
(1) Metal (2) Metalloid
36. Addition of oxygen to an element or a compound (3) Non-metal (4) Liquid
is termed as
(1) Oxidation (2) Reduction 45. Which of the following halogen can be purified
(3) Ionisation (4) Redox reaction. by sublimation?
(1) I2 (2) Cl2
37. The mixture of reactants and products in the (3) Br2 (4) F2
equilibrium state is called
(1) Chemical mixture 46. Electronic configuration of element A, B, C and
(2) Equilibrium mixture D are given
(3) Chemical equilibrium A - 2,7 B - 2,8,1
(4) Dynamic equilibrium. C - 2,8,8 D - 2,8,7
The number of elements belonging to same
38. Which of the following compounds is used as a groups is
chemical fertiliser? (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) NaCl (2) HNO3 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) (NH4 )2 SO4 (4) BaCl2
47. Which idea about Dalton’s atom model is incor-
rect
39. The polymer used in making handles of cookers
and frying pans is (1) Atoms are structureless
(1) bakelite (2) nylon-2-nylon-6 (2) Atoms combine by sharing electrons
(3) orlon (4) polyvinyl chloride. (3) Atoms cannot be created nor be destroyed

4
 (4) Atoms combine in simple whole number ra- 54. Among the following which is a parasitic
tios plant ?
(1) Plasmodium (2) Cuscuta
48. Which one of the following subshells has the (3) Amoeba (4) Rhizobium
highest energy?
(1) 1 s (2) 3 d 55. Full name of NADP is
(3) 4 s (4) 3 p
(1) Nicotinamide dinucleotide phosphate
49. Which of the following statement is true for a (2) Nicotine adenine dinuceotide phosphate
compound? (3) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phos-
phate
(1) It is a single substance.
(4) None of the above
(2) The composition is always the same.
(3) The properties are very different to those of 56. The raw materials for photosynthesis are -
the component elements. (1) CO2 &O2
(4) All of the above (2) Sunlight and CO
(3) Water & chloroplast
50. Identify the oxide which is amphoteric in nature.
(4) CO2 and water
(1) CaO (2) BeO
(3) SO2 (4) Na2 O
57. How many carbon is present in Acetyl CoA?
(1) One (2) Four
BIOLOGY (3) Two (4) Three

58. The branch dealing with inheritance of traits

51. Mushroom, Rhizopus and Yeast are
and variation is called
(1) Chemosynthetic (2) Parasitic
(1) Genetics (2) Mutations
(3) Holozoic (4) Saprophytic
(3) Phenology (4) Evolution
52. The process in which water is split during pho-
59. An individual with two identical members of a
tosynthesis is
pair of factors is called
(1) Photolysis (2) Hydrolysis
(1) Heterozygote (2) Hybrid
(3) Plasmolysis (4) Hemolysis
(3) Homozygote (4) Pureline
53. Select the correct statement
60. The oxygen in photosynthesis is released from
(1) Heterotrophs do not synthesise their own (1) CO2 (2) H2 O
food (3) Carbohydrate (4) Chlorophyll
(2) Heterotrophs utilise solar energy for photo-
synthesis 61. Which of the following is the monohybrid
(3) Heterotrophs synthesise their own food ratio ?
(4) Heterotrophs are capable of converting car- (1) 3: 1 (2) 9: 7
bon dioxide and water into carbohydrates. (3) 1: 2 (4) 9: 3: 3: 1

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62. Cortisol is released from the: (3) Seeds with fertilization
(1) Parathyroid (2) Adrenal cortex (4) Only seeds and no fruits
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Posterior pituitary
71. F1 particle or oxysome are present in
63. Dark reaction of photosynthesis occurs in (1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(1) Grana (2) Stroma (2) Chloroplast
(3) Matrix (4) Cytoplasm (3) Mitochondria
(4) Golgi complex
64. The ultimate source of variations is
(1) Natural selection 72. Main function of Golgi complex is
(2) Sexual reproduction (1) Digestion
(3) Mutations (2) Packaging of material for secretion
(4) Hormonal actions (3) Excretion
(4) Phagocytosis
65. Respiration is controlled by
(1) Cerebrum 73. Which one of the following is known as energy
(2) Cerebellum currency of a cell
(3) Medulla oblongata (1) ATP (2) ADP
(4) Olfactory lobe (3) Pyruvate (4) Glucose

66. Which part of brain that controls the balance of 74. Mitochondria helps in the process of
the body? (1) Protein synthesis (2) Cellular respiration
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum (3) Photosynthesis (4) Transpiration
(3) Pons (4) Medulla
75. The site of protein synthesis in the cell is
67. Which pair of hormones act antagonistically ? (1) DNA
(1) Glucagon and Cortisol (2) RNA
(2) Insulin and Adrenaline (3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Glucagon and Insulin (4) Ribsomes
(4) Glucagon and Adrenaline
76. Thylakoid are the components of
68. How many contrasting traits of pea were studied (1) Golgi complex
by Mendel ? (2) Chloroplast
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Mitochondria
(3) Seven (4) Three (4) Endoplasmic reticulum

69. Kreb’s Cycle takes place in: 77. The process of osmoregulation means
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Mitochondria
(1) Removal of nitrogen from the body
(3) Nucleus (4) Ribosome
(2) Concentrations of salt and water is main-
70. Parthenocarpy is the production of tained in the body
(1) Fruits with pollination (3) Osmotic properties of cell membranes
(2) Fruits without fertilization (4) To maintain the pH of the blood

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78. Malpighian body is made up of (3) Retards cell division
(1) Bowman’s capsule and efferent arteriole (4) Causes dormancy
(2) Glomerulus, afferent arteriole, efferent arte- 84. Loop of Henle is a part of
riole (1) Excretory system
(3) Bowman’s capsule, PCT, DCT (2) Nervous system
(4) Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus (3) Reproductive system
(4) Muscular system
79. Abscisic acid induces
(1) Shoot elongation 85. The end product of respiration in plants are
(2) Cell elongation and cell wall formation (1) CO2 , H2 O and energy
(3) Cell division (2) Starch and Oxygen
(4) Leaf fall and dormancy (3) Sugar and Oxygen
(4) H2 O and energy
80. Which of these practices will help to conserve
the forest? 86. Mendel formulated the law of purity of gametes
(1) Practice of deforestation on the basis of
(2) Putting a ban on deforestation (1) Test cross (2) Dihybrid cross
(3) An increase in the use of firewood by local (3) Back cross (4) Monohybrid cross
people
87. Which cell organelle is known as suicidal bag?
(4) An increase in the use of forest products by
(1) Ribosome (2) Centrosome
industries
(3) Lysosome (4) Peroxysome
81. Hydrolytic enzymes abundant in
88. The grey matter of spinal cord consists of
(1) Chloroplasts (2) Ribosome
(1) Cell bodies (2) Myelinated axon
(3) Lysosome (4) Vacuoles
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Purkinje cell
82. The longest cell in the body of an animal is
89. The subunits of ribosomes in cells of nephron of
(1) Osteocytes (2) Neuron
mouse are :
(3) Chromatophores (4) Lymph corpuscles
(1) 50S& 30 S (2) 40S& 23 S
83. Cytokinin (3) 70S& 16 S (4) 60S& 40 S

(1) Is a hormone whose main function is to in- 90. Malpighian tubules are the excretory organs in
duce the cell division (1) Cockroach (2) Platyhelminthes
(2) Is the process of cell division (3) Ascaris (4) Pila