Indian Polity भारतीय राजव्यवस्था Last 6 Month Current Affairs

To Watch This Video
Click Here
Tele-Law programme
Recently the Ministry of Law informed that the Tele-Law programme
achieved a new milestone with 40 lakh beneficiaries across the country
empowered with pre-litigation advice.
👉
● It is an e-interface mechanism to seek legal advice
and consultation at a pre-litigation stage.
● Aim  to promote inclusivity and accessibility for
citizens in the judicial sphere.
Tele-Law programme
◎ Mode of providing legal aid 

○ Department of Justice has partnered with NALSA and CSC e-Governance
Service India Limited for mainstreaming legal aid via video conferencing
/telephonic facilities to the marginalized communities through Common
Services Center (CSC) situated at the panchayat level.
○ This service can also be accessed through the Tele-Law Mobile App
◎ This programme was launched in 2017 by the Union Law and Justice Ministry
◎ The Tele-Law programme comes under the Department of Justice.
◎ Citizen Eligible for Tele-Law Service 
○ Legal advice is made available to everyone under Tele-Law service.
Tele-Law programme
○ Advice is free of Cost to those who are eligible for free legal aid under
Section 12 of LSA Act,1987 such as Marginalized communities like SC/ ST/
OBC, persons with disabilities, Women, Senior citizens, Industrial workers,
Victims of trafficking and commercial and sexual exploitation, Victims of
acid attack, Victims of drug abuse, Victims of disaster, ethnic violence,
caste atrocity, earthquake or industrial disaster, Persons in custody,
Persons with low income.
◎ For all others a nominal fee of Rs INR 30/- charged for each consultation.
National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF)
The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) has announced the
India Rankings 2023 of higher education institutions.
👉
● The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras
remained the best educational institution in
overall rankings for the fifth consecutive term with
score of 86.69
● Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru and the
Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi were ranked
the second and third best institutes, respectively in
the overall category.
◎ Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru was rated the best university in the
country for eight years in a row.
◎ Miranda House, Delhi was ranked the best college.
○ Hindu College, Delhi and Presidency College, Chennai were named the
second and third best colleges respectively
◎ Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad ranked as the top management
institute.
◎ The National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Hyderabad
was named the best institute in the field.
◎ All India Institute of Medical Sciences, Delhi was ranked the best medical
college and Saveetha Institute of Medical and Technical Sciences, Chennai got
the honour of top dental college.
◎ The National Law School of India University, Bengaluru was rated the best law
college in the country.
◎ The Indian Institute of Technology, Madras also received the honour of best
engineering college for the eighth consecutive year.
◎ Research category:
◎ Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru also stood first in the research institutions
category for the third consecutive year.
○ The IISc was followed by Jawaharlal Nehru University and Jamia Millia
Islamia as second and third best universities.
◎ Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi took the top slot in agriculture
and allied sectors.
◎ The Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur topped the innovation category.
👉
◎ National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) was approved by the Union
Education Ministry and launched in September 2015.
◎ This framework outlines a methodology to rank institutions across the country.
◎ The methodology draws from the overall recommendations broad
understanding arrived at by a Core Committee set up by the Union Education
Ministry, to identify the broad parameters for ranking various universities and
institutions.
◎ Five broad categories of parameters identified in the NIRF for overall category
are:
○ 1) Teaching, learning and resources,
○ 2) Research and professional practice,
○ 3) Graduation outcome,
○ 4) Outreach and inclusivity, and
○ 5) Perception.
Nyaya Vikas Portal
Nyaya Vikas Portal created for monitoring the implementation of Centrally
Sponsored Schemes.
👉
● The portal has been created for monitoring the
implementation of Nyaya Vikas scheme.
● This portal allows four efficient ways of logging
into the portal, thereby empowering stakeholders
with seamless access to information pertaining to
funding, documentation, project monitoring and
approval.
Nyaya Vikas Portal
👉
◎ The Department of Justice has been implementing the Centrally Sponsored
Scheme (CSS) for Development of Infrastructure Facilities for Districts and
Subordinate Judiciary since 1993-94.
◎ Central assistance is provided to the State Government / UT Administrations for
construction of court halls and residential units for Judicial Officers / Judges of
District and Subordinate Courts under the scheme.
Practice Questions
Q. Consider the following Statements

Statement -1: Prerna: The Vernacular School will be developed into an inspirational
school where two children each from all the 750 districts of India will be sent.
Statement -2: The cost of accommodation and transport will be borne by the State
governments of respective districts.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of above statements
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct
explanation for Statement 1
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct
explanation for Statement 1
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
(d) Statement 2 is correct but Statement 1 is incorrect
Practice Questions
Answer- (c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
Explanation- The cost of accommodation and transport will be borne by the Union
culture ministry.
National Training Conclave
Recently Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the first National
Training Conclave in New Delhi.
👉
● The conclave is an effort to bring together all Civil
Service Training Institutions (CSTIs) in a common
setting with the objective to help identify strategies
for the ecosystem to build and improve.
● Aim  to strengthen training infrastructure for civil
servants across India.
◎ It will foster collaboration among training institutes and help strengthen the
training infrastructure for civil servants across the country.
◎ Event hosted by  Capacity Building Commission (CBC)
◎ It is organised under the auspices of the National Programme for Civil Services
Capacity Building (NPCSCB) - 'Mission Karmayogi.'
○ Note: Mission Karmayogi' was launched to prepare a future-ready civil
service with the right attitude, skills and knowledge.
◎ Representatives from civil services training institutes from across the country
including Central Training Institutes, State Administrative Training Institutes,
Regional and Zonal Training Institutes, and Research institutes participated in
the conclave.
◎ Significance  This diverse gathering will foster the exchange of ideas, identify
the challenges being faced and opportunities available, and generate actionable
solutions and comprehensive strategies for capacity building.
Right to Life
Delhi high court has said that Right to life includes the right not to be tied
down by casteism.
👉
● It is a fundamental right under Article 21 of the
Indian constitution.
● It comes under part 3 of the constitution.
● Article 21 of Constitution of India states that No
person shall be deprived of his life or personal
liberty except according to a procedure established
by law.
Right to Life
◎ Article 21 uses three crucial expressions 

○ Right to life,
○ Right to personal liberty
○ Procedure established by law
◎ Article 21 applies to natural persons.
○ The right is available to every person, citizen or alien which means even a
foreigner can claim this right.
○ But does not entitle a foreigner the right to reside and settle in India, as
mentioned in Article 19.
◎ According to the Supreme Court, it is the “heart of fundamental rights”.
◎ It can not be suspended during emergency.
Right to Life
◎ Some rights under the ambit of Article 21 are  Right to travel abroad, Right against
bonded labor, Right against custodial harassment, Right to emergency medical aid, Right
to timely medical treatment in a government hospital, Right not to be driven out of a
state, Right to a fair trial, Right of prisoner to have necessities of life, Right of women to
be treated with decency and dignity, Right against public hanging, Right to hearing, Right
to information, Right to reputation, Right of appeal from a judgment of conviction, Right
to social security and protection of the family, Right to social and economic justice and
empowerment, Right against bar fetters, Right to appropriate life insurance policy, Right
to sleep, Right to freedom from noise pollution, Right to electricity , Right to live with
human dignity, Right to the decent environment including pollution-free water and air
and protection against hazardous industries, Right to livelihood, Right to privacy, Right to
shelter, Right to health, Right to free education up to 14 years of age, Right to free legal
aid, Right against solitary confinement, Right to a speedy trial, Right against handcuffing,
Right against inhuman treatment, Right against delayed execution.
Previous year question 2018
Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply
the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Previous year question 2018
Answer - (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III

National Institutional Ranking Framework
Some experts arguing against too much emphasis on bibliometric indicators
in NIRF.
👉
● This framework outlines a methodology to rank
institutions across the country.
● It was launched to determine the critical indicators
in which institutions performance could be
measured.
● Ministry of Education established the National
Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) in 2016.
◎ Since then, institutions nationwide, including universities and colleges, eagerly
await their standings in this nationally recognised system every year.
◎ How does the NIRF rank institutes? 
○ Currently, the NIRF releases rankings across various categories: ‘Overall’,
‘Research Institutions’, ‘Universities’, and ‘Colleges’, and specific disciplines
like engineering, management, pharmacy, law, etc.
○ The rankings are an important resource for prospective students navigating
the labyrinth of higher education institutions in India.
◎ NIRF ranks institutes by their total score and it uses five indicators to determine
this score 
○ 1) Teaching, Learning & Resources(30% weightage)
○ 2) Research and Professional Practice (30%)
○ 3) Graduation Outcomes(20%)
○ 4) Outreach and Inclusivity(10%)
○ 5) Perception(10%).
◎ The disciplines covered under NIRF are  Engineering, Management Pharmacy,
Medical, Dental, Architecture and Planning, Law, Agriculture and Allied Sectors.
◎ Concern: Academic communities have had concerns about the construction of
these indicators, the transparency of the methods used, and the overall
framework.
○ An important part of it is focused on the research and professional practices
part of the evaluation because they pay a lot of attention to bibliometric
measures.
👉
◎ Bibliometrics refers to the measurable aspects of research, such as the number of
papers published, the number of times they are cited, and the impact factors of
journals.
◎ The allure of bibliometrics as a tool for assessing research output lies in its
efficiency and convenience compared to qualitative assessments performed by
subject experts, which are more resource intensive and require time.
◎ However, science policy experts have cautioned authorities against relying too
much on bibliometrics as a complete assessment.
◎ They argued that bibliometric indicators don’t fully capture the intricacies of
scientific performance, and that we need a more comprehensive evaluation
methodology.
👉
◎ The NIRF is partly transparent as it publicly shares its methodology, but it doesn’t
provide a detailed view.
◎ The framework for assessment and scoring is based on bibliometric data.
○ However, there is a potential discrepancy in how they label research
quantity and quality, how they collect Data and how that data becomes the
basis for the total score.
Prime Ministers Museum and Society
The Nehru Memorial Museum and Library (NMML) will now be called Prime
Ministers Museum and Society.
👉
● Built in 1929-30 as part of Edwin Lutyens’ imperial
capital, Teen Murti House, then known as Flagstaff
House, was the official residence of the Commander-
in-Chief of the British armed forces in India.
● In August 1948, it became the official residence of
India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, who
lived there for 16 years until his death on May 27,
1964.
◎ Soon after, the government decided that the Teen Murti House should be
dedicated to him and house a museum and a library.
◎ On Nehru’s 75th birth anniversary on November 14, 1964, President S
Radhakrishnan dedicated the Teen Murti House to the nation and inaugurated
the Nehru Memorial Museum.
◎ Two years later, the NMML Society was set up to manage the institution.
◎ Why has the name changed? 
○ The decision was taken as the NMMLExecutive Council felt the name should
reflect the present activities of the institution which now also “include a
‘Sangrahalaya’ (museum) depicting the collective journey of democracy in
Independent India and highlighting the contribution of each Prime Minister
in nation building”.
○ The meeting saw an acknowledgement of contributions of all Prime
Ministers, past and present, and said that to reflect the mission of the
Society, to preserve the ideas and legacy of India’s democratic journey, it
was felt that renaming it would reflect this purpose.
👉
◎ Prime Minister's Museum and Society is located in Teen Murti Complex, New
Delhi.
◎ It is an autonomous institution under the Ministry of Culture.
◎ It aims to contribute to a better understanding of Modern and Contemporary
India, and thus serve as a link with the past and the future of India.
◎ Members of the society  It is chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi,
consists of 29 members including Union ministers Amit Shah, Nirmala
Sitharaman, Dharmendra Pradhan, G Kishan Reddy, and Anurag Thakur.
○ The Prime Minister of India is the President of society and Defence Minister
of India is its Vice President
◎ Executive council  it is an eight-member council which is the highest decision-
making body of the society .
○ The executive council comprises five nominated members and three officials
from the ministry of culture and meets five to six times a year.
👉
◎ Inaugurated by Prime Minister on April 21, 2022.
◎ The museum creates awareness about all 14 prime ministers of the country with
ample space for future leaders as well.
◎ The space recognises their contributions irrespective of ideology or tenure in
office.
Justice Clocks
Recently Justice Clocks have been installed across the court complexes of
High Courts.
👉
● It is also known as Electronic signage systems.
● It is an LED display that provides real-time
information related to the domain of cases
directly to the public.
● It is an initiative of the Ministry of Law and
Justice.
Justice Clocks
◎ Objective 
○ To bring awareness to the public about the justice sector, advertising the
various schemes of the department and to give status to various fields.
○ The initiative will inform stakeholders about court-related key parameters
and bring awareness among the public by providing bird eye view of court-
related data.
◎ It provides information about disposal by courts, various schemes and services
offered in the court complexes and to give status of various fields to the public
and other information through which the citizens can benefit.
◎ Justice Clock will exhibit vital statistics of the justice delivery system to
maximize outreach and visibility.
◎ It displays data from the National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG) in real-time.
Draft delimitation document for Assam
Recently the Election Commission (EC) released a draft delimitation
document for Assam, proposing a change in boundaries of several Lok
Sabha and Assembly constituencies of the state.
👉
● Delimitation is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok
Sabha and Assembly seats to represent changes in
population.
● Its aim is to provide equal representation for equal
population segments, to ensure that no political party
has an advantage.
● Delimitation is a constitutional exercise carried out based
on preceding Census figures (year 2001 in case of Assam).
◎ How is delimitation carried out? 
○ Delimitation is carried out by the Delimitation Commission which is also
known as Boundary Commission.
○ It is appointed by the Government of India under the Delimitation
Commission Act.
○ The President of India appoints Delimitation Commission and it works in
collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
○ Composition of Delimitation Commission : a retired Supreme Court judge,
the Chief Election Commissioner of India and respective State Election
Commissioners.
○ Parliament is to enact a Delimitation Act after every Census under Article 82.
○ Then the Union government sets up the Delimitation Commission once the
Act is in force.
○ The Commission’s orders are final and cannot be questioned before any
court as it would hold up an election indefinitely.
👉
◎ While the slated delimitation process was done in the rest of the country in 2008,
it was deferred in Assam (as well as some other Northeastern states) citing
security concerns of the time.
◎ A 2020 notification from the Law Ministry officially revived the exercise in Assam.
◎ Following that, in December 2022 the EC announced that it would initiate the
exercise.
👉
◎ While the number of seats i.e. 126 Assembly and 14 Lok Sabha are being retained,
the EC has proposed not just changes in geographical boundaries, but also an
increase in the number of reserved constituencies for Scheduled Tribes (ST) and
Scheduled Castes (SC).
◎ Reserved seats increased  SC assembly seats have increased from 8 to 9;
○ ST assembly seats have increased from 16 to 19
◎ Districts with autonomous councils (administered under the Sixth Schedule of the
Constitution) get more seats 
○ one assembly seat increased in West Karbi Anglong District;
○ three assembly seats increased in the Bodo Territorial Region.
◎ Change in nomenclature  Kaliabor Lok Sabha constituency now named
‘Kaziranga’.
Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI)
Registration of birth, death by Aadhaar authentication allowed.
👉
● The Centre has allowed the Office of the Registrar
General of India (RGI) to perform Aadhaar
authentication during registration of births and deaths in
the country.
● The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(MEiTY) has allowed the Office of the Registrar-General
of India (RGI) to use the Aadhaar database for
authenticating the identity details provided during
registration of births and deaths.
◎ However the Centre clarified that Aadhaar is not mandatory for such registration.
◎ It said the Registrar “shall be allowed to perform Yes or No Aadhaar
authentication, on voluntary basis, for verification of Aadhaar number being
collected along with other details as sought in the reporting forms of births or
deaths, as the case may be, for the purpose of establishing the identity of child,
parent and the informant in case of births, and of the parent, spouse and the
informant in case of deaths during registration of births or deaths.”
◎ The State governments and Union Territories shall adhere to the guidelines with
respect to the use of Aadhaar authentication as laid down by the Ministry.
◎ What were the Rules notified? 
○ In 2020, it notified rules stating that the Centre may allow Aadhaar
authentication by requesting entities, in the interest of good governance,
prevention of leakage of public funds and to promote ease of living.
○ The Ministry or States desirous of utilising Aadhaar authentication shall
prepare a proposal to justify such authentication and submit it to the Centre
for making a reference to the Unique Identification Authority of India
(UIDAI).
👉
◎ The Office of the Registrar General was founded in 1961 by the Ministry of Home
Affairs.
◎ It was created for arranging, conducting and analysing the results of the
demographic surveys of India including Census of India and Linguistic Survey of
India.
◎ Who is appointed as Registrar  position of Registrar is usually held by a civil
servant holding the rank of Joint Secretary.
◎ ORGI FUNCTIONS  The office of RGI is primarily responsible for the following
activities:
◎ (i) Housing & Population Census  The Census Commissioner, India is the statutory
authority vested with the responsibility of conducting the Housing & Population
Census in India under Census Act, 1948 and the Rules framed thereunder.
○ Planning, coordination and supervision of the field activities; data processing;
compilation, tabulation and dissemination of Census results are the primary
duties of this office.
◎ (ii) Civil Registration System (CRS)  The Census Commissioner, India(CCI) is also
designated as Registrar General, India under the Registration of Births & Deaths
(RBD) Act, 1969, which provides for the compulsory registration of births and
deaths.
○ In this role, the RGI coordinates the functioning of the civil registration and
vital statistics system in the country through all States and UTs.
◎ (iii) Sample Registration System (SRS)  Implementation of Sample Registration
System, wherein large scale sample survey of vital events is conducted on a half-
yearly basis, is also the responsibility of the ORG&CCI.
○ SRS is an important source of vital rates like Birth Rate, Death Rate, Infant
Mortality Rate and Maternal Mortality Rate at the State level in the country.
◎ (iv) National Population Register (NPR)  In pursuance to provisions contained in
Citizenship Rules, 2003 framed under the Citizenship Act, 1955, the National
Population Register is prepared by collecting information relating to all persons
who are usually residing in the country.
◎ (v) Mother Tongue Survey  The project surveys the mother tongues, which are
returned consistently across two and more Census decades.
○ The research programme documents the linguistic features of the selected
mother tongues.
Uniform Civil Code(UCC)
Prime Minister Narendra Modi made a statement about the Uniform Civil
Code (UCC) and his statement comes a week after the 22nd Law
Commission invited the views of the public and “recognised” religious
organizations on the UCC within 30 days.
👉
● UCC is the idea of having a common code of
personal laws for people of all religions.
● Personal law includes aspects of inheritance,
marriage, divorce, child custody, and alimony.
● However, currently, India’s personal laws are fairly
complex and varied, with each religion following its
own specific regulations.
◎ UCC in Constitution 
○ Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State
Policy, which, although not enforceable by courts, are supposed to act as
guiding principles that play a fundamental role in governing the country.
○ Article 44 mentions the State should “endeavor to secure for citizens a
Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India.”
What was the debate in the Constituent Assembly?

◎ The Constituent Assembly witnessed a lengthy discussion on a common civil code
while adopting it as a directive principle.
◎ When the said Article was being discussed on November 23, 1948, several Muslim
members suggested adopting a common civil code with a caveat that it would
apply to citizens with prior consent. However, BR Ambedkar was strongly
opposed to the amendments.
◎ Ambedkar, the then Chairman of the Drafting Committee, pointed out that
barring the North-West Frontier Province, Muslims in different parts of India like
Bombay and the United Provinces were governed by Hindu law in matters of
succession until 1937.
◎ However, he assured that the UCC would not be enforced upon the people as
Article 44 “merely proposes that the State shall endeavour to secure a civil code”.
◎ Ambedkar also underlined the possibility that a future Parliament could make
provisions for applying the UCC in a “purely voluntary” manner.
What has the Supreme Court said?
◎ In a number of rulings, the SC has supported the introduction of UCC.
◎ Notable among the rulings is the landmark 1985 Shah Bano ruling in which the SC
upheld the right of a Muslim woman to seek alimony.
○ The judgment set off a political battle as well as a controversy about the extent
to which courts can interfere in Muslim personal law and the decision was
undone by Parliament.
○ The Court had said a common Civil Code will help the cause of national
integration by removing disparate loyalties to law which have conflicting
ideologies.
◎ In Sarla Mudgal v Union of India (1995), the SC while prohibiting conversion to Islam to
benefit from laws that allow polygamy said that the need for a UCC “can hardly be
doubted”.
○ However, it added that this can happen only when the social climate is
“properly built up by elite of the society” and “statesmen amongst leaders
who instead of gaining personal mileage rise above and awaken the masses
to accept the change.”
◎ In October 2022, the Centre, while responding to a plea filed before the top court
for uniformity in laws of divorce, succession, inheritance, adoption and
guardianship, said that the Constitution obligated the State to have a UCC for its
citizens and that the matter would be placed before the 22nd Law Commission.
POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF GOVERNOR
Tamil Nadu Governor R N Ravi’s decision dismissing arrested minister V
Senthil Balaji tests the constitutional limitations on the role of the
Governor.
👉
● The Governor is the Constitutional head of the
state.
● The Executive power of the State is vested in
Governor Article 153 to Article 167 of Part VI (State)
deal with the State Executive of which Governor is
the titular head and the Chief Minister who heads
the Council of Ministers is the real head.
◎ The Governor also acts as an agent of the central government.

◎ Therefore, the office of governor has a dual role.
◎ POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF GOVERNOR
◎ EXECUTIVE POWERS 
○ 1) The executive power of the state is vested in the Governor.
○ 2) He Exercises it either directly or through officers subordinate to him.
○ 3) It has been held that ministers are officers subordinate to him.
○ 4) The executive power of the governor extends to all matters with respect
to which the State Legislature has power to make laws.
○ 5) All executive is expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor.
○ 6) All orders, instruments, etc are authenticated in the manner specified in
the rules made by the Governor.
○ 7) Appoints the Chief Minister and other ministers are appointed by him on
the advice of the Chief Minister.
○ 8) Appoints the Council of Ministers, Advocate General, Chairman and the
members of the State Public Service Commission.
○ 9) He is the chancellor of a state university.
◎ LEGISLATIVE POWERS 
○ 1) He summons, dissolve and prorogues the state assemblies
○ 2) He gives assent to the bills.
○ 3) Right to address the state legislature
○ 4) He also nominates 1/6 of the members of the Legislative Council
(Art.171).
○ 5) He disqualifies MLAs on the opinion of the election commission
○ 6) The Governor lays down various reports in the state legislatures – for
example state finance commission reports.
◎ FINANCIAL POWERS 
○ 1) A money bill cannot be introduced in the Legislative Assembly of the state
without the recommendation of the Governor.
○ 2) No demand for grants can be made except on the recommendation of the
Governor (Art.203).
○ 3) The Governor ensures that the annual financial statements (known as
budget) are laid before the house or houses of the Legislature (Art. 202).
○ 4) He appoints members of State Finance Commission
◎ JUDICIAL POWERS 
○ 1) He appoints and transfers District Court Judges (Article 233)
○ 2) As per Art.217, he is entitled to be consulted in appointments of judges in
the state high courts.
○ 3) Governor also administers the Oath of office to the High Court Judges
◎ PARDONING POWERS 
○ Article 161 – says that the Governor shall have the power to grant pardons,
reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or
commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offense against any
law relating to matters to which the executive power of the state extends.
○ Governor cannot grant pardon in case of death penalty.
○ Governor can not pardon punishments of sentences inflicted by court
martial.
Panchayat Development Index
Recently, the Union Minister of State for Panchayati Raj released Report on
Panchayat Development Index at National Workshop on Panchayat
Development Index.
👉
● The government had constituted a committee for
preparation of the Panchayat Development Index
which included members from different ministries
and departments of Union and state governments.
● Launched by  Ministry of Panchayati Raj
● Statistics  PDI has 144 local targets, 577 local
indicators on 9 themes of LSDGs.
◎ The PDI ranks panchayats on the basis of scores, and categorise them into four
grades
◎ Nine themes 
○ Poverty free and enhanced livelihood in village
○ Healthy village
○ Child friendly village
○ Water sufficient village
○ Clean and green village
○ Village with self-sufficient infrastructure
○ Socially just and socially secured villages
○ Village with good governance
○ Women friendly village
◎ Objective 
○ To enable the process of Localization of Sustainable Development Goals
(LSDGs) in PRIs.
○ To play a pivotal role in the process of quantified evaluation and mechanism
for computation of the composite score on 9 themes of LSDGs
○ To pave the way for outcome oriented development goals at Panchayats.
◎ Significance 
○ PDI will act as a baseline for Panchayat for setting local targets & local action
points with measurable indicators in preparation of thematic Gram
Panchayat Development Plan.
○ The PDI will help to reflect the current status of the Panchayats to take
concerted actions to achieve development goals through building
institutional mechanisms.
National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA) Portal
The Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DAPRG)

has launched the third edition of the NeSDA framework. It has earlier
released two editions of NeSDA study in 2019 and 2021.
👉
● Objective  To measure the depth and
effectiveness of existing e-Governance service
delivery mechanisms from the citizen’s
perspective.
● NeSDA framework has been based on the Online
Service Index (OSI) of UN eGovernment Survey.
National e-Governance Service Delivery Assessment (NeSDA) Portal
○ It has been customized for the Indian federal structure and the e-
Governance landscape of the sates and Union Territories (UTs).
◎ DARPG undertakes NeSDA study biennially.
◎ The study assesses States, Union Territories (UTs), and focus Central Ministries
on the effectiveness of e-Governance service delivery.
◎ Benefits  NeSDA helps the respective governments improve their delivery of
citizen centric services and shares best practices across the country.
Urban 20 Mayoral Summit
Recently, the Urban 20 Mayoral Summit was held in Gandhinagar.
👉
● Hosted  Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
with the support of National Institute of Urban
Affairs (NIUA), the U20 Technical Secretariat.
● It brought together city leaders from across G20
countries to deliberate on actions towards
sustainability.
Urban 20 Mayoral Summit
👉
◎ Six Priorities of the Communiqué 
○ Encouraging environmentally responsible behaviours
○ Accelerating climate finance
○ Championing local culture and economy
○ Ensuring water security
○ Catalysing digital urban futures
○ Reinventing frameworks for urban planning and governance.
◎ It is aligned with the G20 theme of “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam”, or One Earth, One
Family, One Future.
Delimitation exercise
The Supreme Court (SC) prima facie disagreed with the legal stand of the
Election Commission (EC) of India that it can only begin the delimitation
process in Manipur, Assam, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh after only
getting an authorisation from the Centre.
👉
● Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud citing
Section 8A of Representation of the People Act,
1950, said that the Election Commission does
not require the authorisation of the Government
of India to conduct delimitation.
👉
◎ Delimitation in 4 states  It deals with the delimitation of Lok Sabha and
Assembly constituencies in the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur or
Nagaland.
◎ Role of President 
○ If the President is satisfied that conditions were conducive, he can revoke
the deferment of the delimitation exercise in the four States.
○ The President can provide for the conduct of a delimitation exercise by the
Election Commission.
○ Role of Election Commission: Section 8A(2) provides that the Election
Commission has to start the delimitation process to determine Parliamentary
and Assembly constituencies in the four States as soon as the President
revokes the order.
👉
◎ Delimitation is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state Assembly
seats to represent changes in population.
◎ Objective  The main objective of delimitation is to provide equal
representation to equal segments of a population.
◎ Delimitation of constituencies is periodically carried out to reflect not only an
increase in population but changes in its distribution.
👉
◎ It is an independent body to carry out delimitation.
◎ It works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India without any
executive influence.
◎ Appointed by  the President of India under provisions of the Delimitation
Commission Act.
◎ Composition  A retired Supreme Court judge, the Chief Election Commissioner
of India and respective State Election Commissioners.
◎ Constitutional provisions  The Commission’s orders are final and cannot be
questioned before any court as it would hold up an election indefinitely.
👉
◎ Under Article 82, Parliament is to enact a Delimitation Act after every Census.
Once the Act is in force, the Union government sets up the Delimitation
Commission.
◎ The Commission is supposed to determine the number and boundaries of
constituencies in a way that the population of all seats, so far as practicable, is
the same.
◎ The Commission is also tasked with identifying seats reserved for Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
👉
◎ Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times — 1952, 1963, 1973 and
2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
◎ There was no delimitation after the 1981, 1991 and 2001 Censuses.
◎ However, the 2002 Act did not make any changes in total Lok Sabha seats or their
apportionment between various states.
◎ It also left out a few states including Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and
Manipur from the exercise due to security risks.
◎ The central government reconstituted the Delimitation Commission for these four
states as well as the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir in 2020.
Tribal advisory councils (TACs)
Recently, Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik at the Tribes Advisory

Council Meeting, announced Rs 50 thousand for the needy ST-SC students
to peruse degree courses.
👉
● Genesis  They are constitutional bodies formed
under the Fifth Schedule to deal with welfare and
advancement of scheduled tribes in states.
● According to the provisions of Paragraph 4, under
Article 244(1) of Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of
India, TAC shall be established in each State having
Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President so
directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes but
not Scheduled Areas therein.
Tribal advisory councils (TACs)
◎ Membership  Itl shall consist of not more than 20 members of whom, as nearly
as may be, three-fourths shall be representatives of Scheduled Tribes in State
Legislative Assembly provided that if number of representatives of STs in State
Assembly is less than number of seats in TAC to be filled by such representatives,
remaining seats shall be filled by other members of those tribes.
◎ Current Status  Tribes Advisory Council (TAC) have been constituted in 10(Ten)
states having Scheduled Areas therein namely Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh,
Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan.
Try this PYQ 2022
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India,
which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Answer - A
Right To Silence
Recently, the Supreme Court (SC) Stated that all accused have a ‘Right to
silence’ and investigators cannot force them to speak up or admit guilt as
emphasising that the Constitution accords every person a right against self-
incrimination.
👉
● The Constitution grants the right to remain silent 
The court emphasised that the Constitution of India
gives individuals the right against self-incrimination,
stating that no one can be forced to be a witness
against themselves.
● Cooperation does not mean confession  The court
clarified that cooperation with an investigation
should not be seen as an admission of guilt.
Right To Silence
○ Remaining silent cannot be considered non-cooperation, as individuals have
the right to choose not to speak.
◎ Prosecution's burden of proof  It is the responsibility of the prosecution to
prove the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt.
◎ Refusing confession doesn't limit freedom  The court stated that an accused
person cannot be deprived of their freedom solely because they have not
admitted to the alleged crimes.
👉
◎ Article 20  It grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to
an accused person, whether citizen or foreigner or legal person like a company or
a corporation. It contains three provisions in that direction:
Right To Silence
◎ No ex-post-facto law, No double jeopardy, No self-incrimination.
○ No self-incrimination: No person accused of any offense shall be compelled
to be a witness against himself.
◎ Article 20(3)  It states that “no person accused of any offence shall be
compelled to be a witness against himself.”
○ The protection of this clause is limited only to criminal proceedings.
Therefore, under civil proceedings, a person cannot refuse to answer a
question using the defence of Article 20(3).
Right To Silence
👉
◎ The State of Bombay versus Kathi Kalu Oghad (1961)  The Supreme Court ruled
that obtaining photographs, fingerprints, signatures, and thumb impressions
would not violate the right against self-incrimination of an accused.
◎ Ritesh Sinha versus State of Uttar Pradesh (2019)  The Supreme Court in its
ruling broadened the parameters of handwriting samples to include voice
samples, adding that this would not violate the right against self-incrimination.
◎ Selvi v State of Karnataka (2010)  The Supreme Court held that a narcoanalysis
test without the consent of the accused would amount to violation of the right
against self-incrimination.
Try this PYQ 2021
Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
(a) The Right to Equality
(b) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The Right to Freedom
(d) The Concept of Welfare
Answer: (b)
Digital Time Vouchers
The Election Commission of India introduces digital time vouchers for
political parties to avail airtime on Doordarshan and AIR.
👉
● A DTV is a digital token that represents a certain
amount of airtime on Doordarshan or All India
Radio.
● These vouchers can be redeemed by political
parties at designated Doordarshan or AIR centres
in exchange for actual airtime.
◎ Each political party shall be given time Vouchers of different denominations of, 5
minutes and 10 minutes, equal to the total time allotted to it for telecasts on
Doordarshan and broadcasts on AIR.
◎ Significance  This reflects the Commission's commitment to leveraging technology
for the betterment of the electoral process and ease of all stakeholders.
👉
◎ The scheme was initially notified on 16th January 1998, and holds a statutory basis
under Section 39A of the R.P. Act, 1951.
◎ Equitable Base Time 
○ Each National Party and Recognized State Party receives a base time allocation.
○ The base time is distributed equally among the eligible parties.
○ The allocation is applicable to both DD and AIR.
◎ Additional Time Allocation 
○ The additional time allotment is based on the parties' poll performance.
○ Performance criteria: Last assembly elections in the respective states/union
territories or the last general elections to the Lok Sabha.
○ Parties with better performance receive additional time.
○ The allocation is specific to DD and AIR.
CRCS Sahara Portal
The Ministry of Cooperation inaugurated the 'CRCS-Sahara Refund Portal' in
New Delhi.
👉
● The portal addresses grievances of depositors
from the Sahara Group of Cooperative Societies.
● The amount is transferred to the Central
Registrar of Cooperative Societies (CRCS) as per
the Supreme Court's direction.
● Genuine depositors can conveniently submit
their claims through this online platform.
Rule 176 vs Rule 267
The opening day of the Monsoon Session of Parliament was disrupted after
the government and the Opposition differed on the format of the discussion
on the Manipur situation.
👉
● Rule 267 is for the suspension of rules to
accommodate specific business, while Rule 176
allows short-duration discussions on urgent matters
of public importance.
● Rule 267 gives a Rajya Sabha MP special power to
suspend the pre-decided agenda of the House, with
the approval of the Chairman.
👉
◎ Rule 267  Relates to suspension of rules in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
◎ Member's Right to Move for Suspension  Any member can move, with the
Chairman's consent, to suspend the application of any rule related to the business
listed before the Council on a particular day.
◎ Temporary Suspension on Carrying the Motion  If the motion to suspend the
rule is carried, the rule in question shall be temporarily suspended.
◎ Exceptions  This rule does not apply if there is already a specific provision for
the suspension of a rule under a particular chapter of the Rules.
👉
◎ Rule 176  Pertains to short-duration discussions in the Council of States (Rajya
Sabha).
◎ Member's Right to Give Written Notice  Any member can give written notice to
the Secretary-General, expressing their desire to raise a discussion on a matter of
urgent public importance.
◎ Specification of the Matter and Explanatory Note  The notice must specify the
matter to be raised clearly and precisely and be accompanied by an explanatory
note stating reasons for the discussion.
◎ Support from Other Members  The notice must also be supported by the
signatures of at least two other members.
◎ Fixing Date and Time for Discussion  Once the Chairman admits the notice, he,
in consultation with the Leader of the Council, will fix the date and time for the
discussion, which should not exceed two and a half hours.
◎ No Formal Motion or Voting  There shall be no formal motion or voting during
a short-duration discussion; the member who gave the notice makes a short
statement, and the Minister replies shortly.
No Confidence Motion
Recently, the Lok Sabha Speaker accepted a no confidence motion moved
by the Opposition against the Government.
👉
● A no-confidence motion is a formal process in which a
legislature expresses lack of confidence in government.
● Constitutional mandate  As per, Article 75 of the
Constitution, the council of ministers shall be collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha.
● Interpretation  It means that the ministry stays in office
so long as it enjoys the confidence of the majority of the
members of the Lok Sabha.
◎ In other words, the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry from office by passing a
no-confidence motion.
◎ Conditions 
○ The motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.
○ It can only be moved in the Lok Sabha.
○ The allotted date has to be within 10 days from the day the motion is
accepted.
○ A motion of no-confidence can only be submitted six months after
Parliament has rejected the previous one.
◎ Impact 
○ When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of
ministers, all the ministers have to resign including those ministers who are
from the Rajya Sabha.
◎ Facts  The first motion of no confidence was moved by Acharya J B Kripalani in

1963 against the government headed by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
◎ Instances of No-Confidence Motion 
○ 1990 : National Front Government
○ 1997 : United Front Government
○ 1999 : National Democratic Alliance
○ Tool of Discussion: No confidence motion has historically been used as a
strategic tool to force a discussion on a certain topic or issue.
○ Accountability: It allows Members of Parliament (MPs) to hold the ruling
government accountable for its actions and policies.
Try this PYQ 2022
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given ' below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer - B
Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023
Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Bill, 2023 has been passed by Lok
Sabha in Parliament.
👉
● Through The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of
Provisions) Bill, 2023, 183 provisions are proposed
to be decriminalized in 42 Central Acts.
● Measures Proposed 
● Pragmatic revision of fines and penalties
commensurate to the offense committed.
● Establishment of Adjudicating Officers.
○ Establishment of Appellate Authorities.
○ Periodic increase in quantum of fine and penalties.
◎ Benefits of the Amendment Bill 
○ Rationalizing criminal provisions: It will contribute to rationalizing criminal
provisions and ensuring that citizens, businesses and the government
departments operate without fear of imprisonment for minor, technical or
procedural defaults.
○ Balancing offense and punishment: It establishes a balance between the
severity of the offense/violation committed and the gravity of the prescribed
punishment.
○ Introduction of suitable administrative adjudication mechanisms: It
proposes administrative adjudication mechanisms to reduce justice system
pressure, case pendency, and inefficiency in justice delivery.
○ Decriminalizing minor violations: Decriminalization of provisions which affect
citizens and certain categories of government employees will help them live
without the fear of imprisonment for minor violations.
Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2023
The Lok Sabha has recently passed the Registration of Births and Deaths
(Amendment) Bill, 2023 that paves the way for digital birth certificates.
👉
● The Bill aims to create a centralised database for deaths
and births to help in transparent delivery of public
services and to update other databases.
● It proposes the appointment of special "sub-registrars"
in case of disasters or epidemics for easier registration of
deaths and issuance of certificates and to collect
Aadhaar numbers of informants and parents in case of
registering births
Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2023
◎ The bill proposes the use of a birth certificate as a single document to be used for
admission to educational institutions, applications for driving licences,
government jobs, passports or Aadhaar, voter enrolment, and registration of
marriage, among others.
○ This will avoid the need for a multiplicity of documents to prove date and
place of birth in the country.
○ The bill will also help create a state, and national, level database of
registered births and deaths.
Vehicle Scrapping Policy
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has introduced the Vehicle
Scrapping Policy to create an ecosystem for the phased-out removal of
older, unfit, and polluting vehicles across the country.
👉
● It was first announced in the Union Budget for
2021-22
● Aim  To achieve multiple goals like reduction in
air pollution, the fulfilment of India's climate
commitments, improving road and vehicle safety,
better fuel efficiency, and boosting the availability
of low-cost raw materials for auto, steel and
electronics industry
◎ Provisions of the Vehicle Scrapping Policy:
◎ Fitness Test for Old Vehicles 
○ Old vehicles must undergo a fitness test before re-registration.
○ Automated Fitness Centers will conduct the fitness test according to
international standards, evaluating emissions, braking systems, safety
components, etc.
○ Vehicles that fail the fitness test will be scrapped.
○ Government commercial vehicles over 15 years old and private vehicles over
20 years old will be scrapped.
◎ Concession in Motor Vehicle Tax 
○ Non-transport vehicles can receive up to 25% concession, and transport
vehicles can receive up to 15% concession when purchased against a
Certificate of Deposit.
○ Implementation of this provision falls under the jurisdiction of State/UT
Governments.
○ So far, 15 states/UTs have announced concessions in motor vehicle tax based
on the Certificate of Deposit
◎ Vehicle Discount 
○ Vehicle manufacturers will provide a 5% discount to customers who present
a 'Scrapping Certificate' while purchasing a new vehicle.
○ Additionally, the registration fees will be waived off for those buying a new
vehicle with a scrapping certificate.
◎ Disincentive for Old Vehicles 
○ Vehicles that are 15 years or older from their initial date of registration will
face increased re-registration fees.
eCOURTS MISSION MODE PROJECT (MMP)
Minister of Law & Justice has provided the status of the eCourts Mission
Mode Project in Rajya Sabha.
👉
● It is an initiative undertaken by the Indian
government for computerization of District and
subordinate courts with the objective of
improving access to justice using technology.
● Implemented by  Department of Justice
eCOURTS MISSION MODE PROJECT (MMP)
◎ Phases 
○ Phase I: It was implemented during 2011-2015.
○ Phase II: It was started in 2015.
Committee of Parliament on Official Language
Recently, the Union Home Minister chaired the 38th meeting of the
Committee of Parliament on Official Language.
👉
● It was set up in 1976 under Section 4 of The Official
Languages Act, 1963.
● Mandate  To review the progress made in the use
of Hindi for official purposes, and to make
recommendations to increase the use of Hindi in
official communications.
◎ Composition  It comprises 30 members of Parliament, 20 from Lok Sabha and
10 from Rajya Sabha, headed by Home- Minister.
◎ Under the provisions of the 1963 Act, the Committee submits its report to the
President, who “shall [then] cause the report to be laid before each House of
Parliament, and sent to all the State Governments”.
👉
◎ The Eighth Schedule to the constitution of India lists the official languages of
India.
◎ It consists of the following 22 languages: Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi,
Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya,
Punjabi,Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri.
◎ However, there are no established criteria for a language to be deemed eligible
for incorporation into the Eighth Schedule.
👉
◎ Part XVII of the Constitution deals with the official language in Articles 343 to 351.
◎ Article 344  Article 344(1) provides for the constitution of a Commission by the
President on expiration of five years from the commencement of the
Constitution.
◎ Article 351  It provides for the spread of the Hindi language to develop it so
that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite
culture of India.
Inter-Services Organisation Bill
Recently, Rajya Sabha passed the Inter-Services Organisation (Command,
Control & Discipline) Bill, 2023.
👉
● Aim  To provide commanders-in-chief and
officers-in command of Inter-Services
Organisations (ISOs) with disciplinary and
administrative power over personnel from
other forces serving in such establishments.
● Objective  It will ensure better coordination
among the three services and bolster the
integrated structure.
◎ Present Condition  Currently, armed forces personnel are governed in
accordance with the provisions contained in their specific Service Acts – Army Act
1950, Navy Act 1957 and Air Force Act 1950.
👉
◎ Constituting Inter-services Organisation (ISO) 
○ Existing Inter-services Organisations will be deemed to have been
constituted under the Bill.
○ These include the Andaman and Nicobar Command, the Defence Space
Agency, and the National Defence Academy.
○ Personnel of ISO will belong to at least two of the three services: the army,
the navy, and the air force.
○ ISO will also include a Joint Services Command, which may be placed under
the command of a Commander-in-Chief.
◎ Control of Inter-services Organisations 
○ The Bill empowers the Commander-in-Chief or the Officer-in-Command of an
ISO to exercise command and control over the personnel serving in or
attached to it.
○ He would be responsible for maintaining discipline and ensuring proper
discharge of duties by the service personnel.
◎ Role of Government 
○ Superintendence of an ISO will be vested in the central government.
○ The government will issue directions to such organisations on grounds of
national security, general administration, or public interest.
○ Other forces under central government: The central government may notify
any force raised and maintained in India to which the Bill will apply.
○ This would be in addition to army, navy, and air force personnel.
◎ Eligibility of Commander-in-Chief 
○ A General Officer of the regular Army (above the rank of Brigadier). Or
○ A Flag Officer of the Navy (rank of Admiral of the Fleet, Admiral, Vice-
Admiral, or Rear-Admiral). Or
○ An Air Officer of the Air Force (above the rank of group captain).
◎ Function of Commander-in-Chief  He will be empowered to exercise all
disciplinary and administrative powers vested in:
○ (i) General Officer Commanding the Army,
○ (ii) Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief of a Naval Command,
○ (iii) Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief of an Air Command,
○ (iv) any other officer/authority specified in the service Acts,
○ (v) any other officer/authority notified by the government.
◎ Commanding Officer (CO) 
○ CO will be in command of a unit, ship, or establishment.
○ The officer will also perform duties assigned by the Commander-in-Chief or
Officer-in-Command of the Inter-services Organisation.
○ CO will be empowered to initiate all disciplinary or administrative actions
over the personnel appointed, posted, or attached to that ISO.
Try this PYQ 2018
With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary
Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make
regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated
by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of
such delegation?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances

(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Try this PYQ 2018
Answer (b
Privilege Motion
Rajya Sabha Chairman Jagdeep Dhankar has referred complaints against
two opposition MPs to the Privileges Committee.
👉
● Parliamentary privilege is the sum of certain rights
enjoyed by each House collectively and by members of
each House individually, without which they could not
discharge their functions.
● Eligibility  Parliamentary privileges are available to
individuals who have the right to speak and participate
in the discussions of a Parliament House or any of its
committees. For Example: the Attorney General of India
and Union ministers.
Privilege Motion
◎ If there is a belief that such a privilege has been breached, a motion can be raised
by any member in the form of Privilege Motion.
◎ Adjudicating Authority  The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first level of scrutiny
of a privilege motion.
○ Therefore, the Speaker/Chair can decide on the privilege motion himself or
herself or refer it to the privileges committee of Parliament.
◎ Constitutional Provision  Article 105 expressly mentions two privileges, that is,
freedom of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings for
Members of Parliament (MPs).
◎ Rules Governing Privilege  The rules governing the privilege are mentioned in
the Rule No 222 of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and Rule 187 in of the Rajya Sabha
rulebook.
Privilege Motion
👉
◎ Mandate  To examine every question involving breach of privilege of the
House or of the Members of any Committee thereof referred to it by the House or
by the Speaker.
◎ Lok Sabha  It consists of 15 Members nominated by the Speaker.
◎ Rajya Sabha  It consists of 10 members and is nominated by the Chairman of
Rajya Sabha. In the Rajya Sabha, the deputy chairperson heads the committee of
privilege.
Try this PYQ 2017
Q. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
Answer (c
Select Committee
Recently, four Members of Parliaments said that their names were included
in a proposed select committee of the House for the Delhi services bill
without their consent.
👉
● The select committee was proposed by Aam Aadmi
Party (AAP) leader Raghav Chadha in the Upper
House to examine the Delhi services bill.
● Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi
(Amendment) Bill, 2023 seeks to replace an
ordinance on the handling of transfers and postings
of officials in the Delhi government.
Select Committee
◎ Types of Committees in Parliament:
◎ India’s Parliament has several types of committees which discharge different
functions 
○ 12 Standing Committees: They are permanent in nature, with their members
nominated from time to time by the Chairman.
○ Ad hoc or temporary committees: They are set up for a specific purpose,
such as examining a particular Bill, and are dissolved once that purpose has
been served.
○ Select Committee: They are a type of Ad-hoc Committee.
◎ Rule for Select Committees  Under Rule 125 of the Rajya Sabha Rules and
Procedures, any member may move an amendment that a Bill be referred to a
Select Committee.
Select Committee
○ The motion to refer a Bill to a Select Committee can either be moved by the
member in-charge of the Bill, or by any other MP, as happened in the case of
the Delhi Services Bill, where the motion was moved by MP Chadha.
◎ Membership of Select committees  These committees consist of Members of
Parliament (MPs) from both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
○ The members are chosen by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of
the Rajya Sabha, as the case may be.
○ The selection process usually involves consultations with the leaders of
various political parties and groups in the Parliament to ensure a fair
representation.
○ The members are chosen based on their expertise and interest in the subject
matter of the committee.
Select Committee
○ The number of members in a select committee varies depending on the
nature and scope of the issue at hand.
○ Committee conducts meetings and hearings to gather information and
opinions from experts and stakeholders.
○ The committee then submits a report with its recommendations to the
Parliament for further action.
👉
◎ In the Indian Parliament, select committees are formed to scrutinize specific bills,
budgets or policies of the government.
◎ They seek inputs from experts, stakeholders, and the public to ensure that the
proposed legislation is comprehensive and effective.
Select Committee
◎ Recommendation  The committee members deliberate on the provisions of the
bill and make recommendations for amendments or modifications.
○ Once the committee submits its report, the Parliament may accept or reject
its recommendations.
◎ Consultative  They play a crucial role in ensuring that the legislative process is
transparent and democratic.
○ They provide a platform for stakeholders to voice their opinions and
concerns, and their recommendations can influence the final outcome of a
bill.
◎ They are an essential part of the Indian parliamentary system, and their work
helps to ensure that legislation is well-informed and effective.
Try this PYQ 2014
Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts

(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions
Answer (b
Coastal Aquaculture Authority (Amendment ) Bill, 2023
The Coastal Aquaculture Authority (Amendment ) Bill, 2023 has been
passed by both the Houses of the Parliament.
👉
● The Bill aims to specify that the regulation of coastal
aquaculture and related activities will solely fall
under the jurisdiction of the Coastal Aquaculture
Authority Act, excluding any other legislations.
● Coastal aquaculture includes the farming of marine
life such as shrimp, prawn or fish in controlled
conditions.
◎ Key Provisions of the bill 

○ Broadbasing coastal aquaculture definition:
○ Coastal aquaculture will cover all activities of coastal aquaculture under the
purview of this Act.
○ In 2005, coastal aquaculture activity was essentially shrimp farming.
○ Now newer forms of environment friendly coastal aquaculture such as cage
culture, seaweed culture, bi-value culture, marine ornamental fish culture,
pearl oyster culture etc. have come up which can be done in coastal areas
and mostly within CRZ.
◎ Promoting newer forms of environment friendly aquaculture  Promotes newer
forms of environment-friendly coastal aquaculture such as “cage culture,
seaweed culture, bi-valve culture, marine ornamental fish culture and pearl
oyster culture
◎ Biosecurity  Includes new provisions for preventing the risk of introducing or

spreading harmful organisms within the coastal aquaculture unit which could lead
to infectious diseases.
◎ Exemptions  Specific exemption granted under the CAA Act for the
establishment of aquaculture units like hatcheries, Broodstock multiplication
centers (BMC) and Nucleus Breeding Centres (NBC) within the No Development
Zone (NDZ) [200m from the HTL] of Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ).
👉
◎ The coastal areas extending up to 500 m from the high tide line (HTL) and the land
between the low tide line (LTL) and high tide line, were designated as coastal
regulation zones (CRZ).
◎ These zones were established by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate
Change under the Environment Protection Act of 1986.
◎ The Union environment ministry creates the CRZ Rules whereas the state
governments ensure implementation through their respective Coastal Zone
Management Authorities.
👉
◎ The Act was introduced for the establishment of a “Coastal Aquaculture
Authority” for regulating activities connected with coastal aquaculture in the
coastal areas
Keralam: Proposed Name of Kerala
The Kerala Assembly passed a resolution urging the Centre to rename the
state as “Keralam”.
👉
● The proposal has to first come from the state
government for renaming the state.
● The renaming of a state requires Parliamentary
approval under Article 3 and 4 of the Constitution,
and the President has to refer the same to the
relevant state legislature for its views.
Keralam: Proposed Name of Kerala
◎ The Ministry of Home Affairs gives its consent after it receives No Objection
Certificates (NOCs) from several agencies such as the Ministry of Railways,
Intelligence Bureau.
North Eastern Council
During the financial years 2021-22 and 2022-23, a total of 45 projects
costing Rs. 470.75 crore have been sanctioned by North Eastern Council
(NEC) in Assam.
👉
● The NEC is the nodal agency for the economic and
social development of the North Eastern Region which
consists of the eight States 
● Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya,
Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
● Genesis  The NEC was constituted as a statutory
advisory body under the North Eastern Council Act
1971 for the rapid development of the Region.
North Eastern Council
◎ Nodal Ministry  It falls under the Ministry of Development of the North
Eastern Region.
◎ Functions of the Council 
○ Advisory body: It may discuss and make recommendations with regards to
any matter
○ o Concerning inter-State transport.
○ o Related to power or flood control projects.
○ o Economic and Social planning.
○ Securing: Balanced development of the North-Eastern areas.
○ Review:
○ o Implementation of the projects and schemes from time to time.
○ o Measures taken by the states for the maintenance of security and public
order.
Try this PYQ 2013
Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Cauvery Water Sharing Issue
The Tamil Nadu government sought the Supreme Court’s intervention to
make Karnataka immediately release 24,000 cubic feet per second (cusecs)
from its reservoirs.
👉
● Parties to Dispute  Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka
and Puducherry
● Supreme court ruling on Cauvery water dispute 
● Allocating more water to Karnataka: Karnataka will
supply 177.25 tmc instead of 192 tmc - a reduction
of 14.75 tmc, from its Billigundlu site to Mettur dam
in Tamil Nadu
○ Directed the formation of the Cauvery Management Board (CMB)
○ Allocation to Kerala and Puducherry was not changed.
👉
◎ It deals with the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers or
river valleys, says:
◎ Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint
with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-
state river or river valley.
👉
◎ The resolution of water disputes is governed by the Inter-State River Water
Disputes Act, 1956.
◎ According to its provisions, if a State Government makes a request regarding any
water dispute and the Central Government is of opinion that the water dispute
cannot be settled by negotiations, then a Water Disputes Tribunal is constituted
for the adjudication of the water dispute.
◎ For Example  Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal
◎ Key Challenges 
○ The dispute is complicated by factors such as changing rainfall patterns,
population growth, agricultural demands, and urbanization.
○ Balancing the water needs of multiple states and regions while considering
ecological concerns adds to the complexity.
◎ Dispute Resolution Mechanism 
○ The Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal (CWDT) was constituted by the
Government of India in 1990 to adjudicate the water dispute regarding inter-
state river Cauvery and the river valley thereof.
Census
Supreme Court will hear petitions challenging the Patna High Court’s verdict
upholding the Bihar government’s ongoing caste survey.
👉
● The decennial Census of India measures
demographic data like age, marital status, religion,
whether Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe, mother
tongue, education level, disability, economic activity,
migration, and fertility.
● Thus, there is readily available data on the number
of individuals belonging to SCs or STs and to
different religious groups.
Census
◎ However, since 1931, no census in India has measured the number of OBCs in the
country.
👉
◎ Mandal Commission made its recommendation for bringing 27 percent
reservation for OBCs based on the data of the census of 1931.
◎ The commission used extrapolated data and determined that 52 percent of the
total population of India, outside of ST and SC, belonged to OBCs.
◎ While the Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) was conducted in 2011, its
result was never published by the central government.
Census
👉
◎ It is conducted through a comprehensive program involving the Ministry of Rural
Development, Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation, The Office of
the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India and the State
Governments.
◎ Aim  Collecting data on the socio-economic and caste status of households and
individuals living in rural areas of India.
◎ Significance  Tool for the government to identify and target social welfare
schemes and programs to those who are most in need.
○ Indicators used to determine socio-economic status in the census:
○ Ownership of assets such as land, house, and vehicle
○ Type of house (pucca, semi-pucca, or kaccha)
Census
○ Access to basic amenities such as
electricity, water, and sanitation
○ Occupation and education level of
household members
○ Income levels of household members
Parliamentary Committee on Fertilizer
Recently, the Standing Committee of Parliament on Chemicals and
Fertilizers headed by MP Shashi Tharoor, tabled its report in Parliament.
👉
● Reducing Import  Committee called for ending
the import dependency on fertilizers such as urea,
diammonium phosphate (DAP), muriate of potash
(MOP), nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium (NPK).
● Worrisome Deficit  The production of these
fertilizers up to November, 2022 was 281.83 lakh
metric tonnes but the consumption was 401.46
LMT.
◎ Ensuring Availability  It has asked the Department of Fertilizers to ascertain the
reasons for shortage of fertilizers being reported in some of the States in the
country and ensure availability of fertilizers in every State by taking corrective
steps.
◎ Review of Nutrient-Based Subsidy (NBS) Policy  To remove the disincentives for
farmers to use other fertilizers.
○ Urea is left out of the scheme and hence it remains under price control
whereas technically there is no price control in other fertilizers.
○ Earlier, the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices, had also
recommended to the government that steps should be taken to bring urea
under the Nutrient-Based Subsidy (NBS) regime to address the problem of
imbalanced use of nutrients.
◎ Rationalizing GST  Committee has asked the Centre to lower the GST on raw
materials in the interest of fertilizer manufacturing companies and farmers.
○ GST for fertilizers is at 5% and while GST on raw materials like sulphuric acid
and ammonia are at 18%.
○ To include natural gas under the GST net as there are instances of double
levying of VAT on natural gas.
◎ Improve Supply Chain  Centre introduce purchase policy reforms and enter into
long term contracts for import of various types of fertilizers and raw materials so
as to offset the effects of international price rise in the short/medium term
👉
◎ The NBS scheme has been implemented since 2010 by the Department of
Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
◎ Under the scheme, fertilizers are provided at subsidized rates based on the
nutrients contained, namely Nitrogen (N), Phosphate (P), Potash (K) and Sulphur
(S).
◎ It does not include urea-based fertilizers.
Criminal Proceedings for Social Media Posts
The Supreme Court recently ruled that individuals must bear the
repercussions of posting abusive and vulgar content online, stating that a
mere apology would not be sufficient to avoid legal action.
👉
● The Supreme Court in the S. Ve Shekher case
declined to dismiss the trial against an actor for
sharing a post on social media containing
indecent remarks about women journalists.
● The actor had initially shared a post containing
defamatory remarks about female journalists,
which he later removed and apologized for,
citing that he had inadvertently shared it.
Constitutional Role of Governor
The 60-member Manipur Assembly recently failed to hold a Special Session
to discuss the ongoing ethnic violence as the governor did not issue any
notification to convene it despite a recommendation from the State
Cabinet.
👉
● Article 174  Under this, the State's Legislature
must convene at least twice every year, with no
more than a six-month gap between the end of
one session and the start of the next session.
● Article 163  Although it is the Governor’s
prerogative to summon the House, the
Governor is required to act on the “aid and
advice” of the Cabinet.
Constitutional Role of Governor
○ So when the Governor summons the House under Article 174, this is not of
his or her own will but on the aid and advice of the Cabinet.
👉
◎ No-confidence motion against the Chief Minister  When the Chief Minister
appears to have lost the majority and the legislative members of the House
propose a no-confidence motion against the Chief Minister, then the Governor
can decide on his or her own on summoning the House.
Try this PYQ 2018
Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any
court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be
diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (c
e-Governance Delivery Report
The Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG) on
Monday released the fifth edition of 'National e-Governance Service
Delivery Assessment (NeSDA) - Way Forward Monthly Report for
States/UTs' on status of e-service delivery across States/Uts.
👉
● The report showed that e-services saturation had
reached 69 per cent with the maximum e-services
reported in the Local governance and Utility
services sector.
● 21 out 36 States/UTs have achieved saturation of
mandatory e-services in the Tourism sector while
17 states have achieved saturation in the
Environment sector.
Special Status of North-East States
Recently, the Central Government made it clear before the Supreme Court
that it has no intention to interfere with the special provisions in the
Constitution applicable to the northeastern states of the country.
👉
● Sixth Schedule  Under Article 244 (2) of the Indian
ConstitutionIt, it makes special arrangements for the
administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam,
Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura.
● Special status  Under part XXI of the Indian
Constitution, Article 371A, B, C, F, G, H grants special
status to the few northeastern states of India.
◎ Need of special status for North-Eastern states 
○ To bring peace and harmony and to deal with the disturbed law and order in
some parts of these states.
○ Protect and preserve the cultures, traditions, languages, and ethnic diversity
of the tribes of these states.
○ Bring them to an equal footing with the rest of the states in India.
○ Provide them with similar opportunities in terms of educational and
employment facilities.
○ Maintaining law and order in these states
👉
◎ Article 370 granted special status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir whereas,
Article 371 granted special status to other states of India.
◎ Article 370 was a temporary provision whereas, Article 371 is a special provision
that is permanent.
◎ Article 370 was specifically applicable to Jammu and Kashmir, but Article 371
covers 12 states of India.
Article Special Provision with respect to:
Article 371A Nagaland (13th Amendment Act, 1962)
Article 371B Assam (22nd Amendment Act, 1969)
Article 371C Manipur (27th Amendment Act, 1971)
Article 371F Sikkim (36th Amendment Act, 1975)
Article 371 G Mizoram (53rd Amendment Act, 1986)
Article 371 H Arunachal Pradesh (55th Amendment Act, 1986)

Try this PYQ 2015
The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are
made in order to
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
Answer (a
Legislators Qualification
Recently, a teacher on the Edtech platform was sacked due to a viral video
in which he appealed to students to vote for educated candidates.
👉
● Completed Graduation  72% of the current MPs.
● Graduates also includes those who are post graduates.
● At least completed fifth grade in school  About
23.5% of the current MPs.
● At least 5th grade pass includes 5th, 8th, 10th and 12th
grade but not college.
◎ Information about the educational qualifications of 4% of the MPs is not

available.
◎ This means that only less than 0.5% are recorded as illiterate or just literate in the
current Lok Sabha.
👉
◎ According to Association of Democratic Reforms (ADR), the 2019 Lok Sabha polls
saw the participation of 67 MPs and four Union Ministers who have declared
criminal charges against them.
○ They face charges as serious as abduction, dacoity and attempts to cause
death or grievous injury.
◎ On average, the criminal cases faced by MPs, against whom charges have been
framed, have been pending for 7 years.
○ 24 Lok Sabha MPs have a total of 43 criminal cases pending against them for
10 years or more.
Autonomous District Councils
To provide a solution for the ethnic conflict in Manipur, the state
government has proposed to grant greater autonomy to the existing hill
councils, without compromising the territorial integrity of the state.
👉
● Unlike other states, Manipur ADCs do not come
under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.
● They are separate administrative entities with
dependence on the state legislature.
👉
◎ Sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution  It contains special provisions for ADCs, to
provide an opportunity for self-governance to tribal people, protect their identity,
culture and land, and usher in development in remote regions.
◎ Article 244  It provides for the formation of autonomous administrative
divisions — Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) — that have some legislative,
judicial, and administrative autonomy within a state.
○ It contains provisions regarding the Administration of Scheduled and Tribal
Areas.
◎ Presently, there are a total of ten ADCs in the four states 
○ Assam: North Cachar Hills District, Karbi Anglong District and Bodoland
Territorial Areas.
○ Meghalaya: Khasi Hills District, Jaintia Hills District and Garo Hills District.
○ Tripura: Tripura Tribal Areas District.
○ Mizoram: Chakma District, Mara District, and Lai District.
◎ Governor’s Functions 
○ S/he is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous districts.
○ S/he can appoint a commission to examine and report on any matter relating
to the administration of the autonomous districts or regions.
○ S/he may dissolve a district or regional council on the recommendation of
the commission.
◎ Features of Administration according to the Sixth Schedule 
○ Membership: Each autonomous district has a district council consisting of 30
members (4 nominated by the Governor and 26 are elected).
○ Tenure:
 Elected Members: Five years.
 Nominated Members: Hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.
○ Regional Council: Each autonomous region has a separate regional council.
○ The Acts of Parliament or the State Legislature: They do not apply to
autonomous districts and autonomous regions or apply with specified
modifications and exceptions.
Right to Repair Bill
Apple has endorsed California's Senate Bill 244 commonly referred to as the
"Right to Repair" bill.
👉
● It requires companies to provide consumers and
third-party providers the repair diagnostics as
well as the parts needed to repair their products.
Right to Repair Bill
👉
◎ The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution introduced the
Right to repair portal in order to provide customers with a platform to offer self-
repair manuals.
◎ Using this platform, customers can get their laptops, appliances and other items
repaired from local shops without losing warranty and they won't need to wait
for days to get that fixed from an authorized workshop.
Article 35-A
Recently, the Supreme Court observed that Article 35-A of the Constitution
has deprived people not residing in Jammu and Kashmir of some key
constitutional rights.
👉
● It was introduced through the Constitution
(Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order,
1954 issued by the President under Article 370.
● Permanent Residents  It empowered the Jammu
and Kashmir Legislature to define “permanent
residents” of the State.
Article 35-A
◎ It provided permanent residents with the exclusive right to purchase land, seek
State government employment and other benefits in education and health care.
◎ The others, called ‘non-permanent residents’, were not privy to these privileges.
◎ Violation of Fundamental Rights  It denied people at least three fundamental
rights:
○ Article 16(1): Equality of opportunity for employment under the State.
○ Article 19(1)(e): Right to reside and settle in any part of India.
○ Article 19(1)(f): Right to acquire immovable property, which is now provided
under Article 300A.
◎ Abrogation  Article 35A, was nullified along with the abrogation of Article 370
in August 2019.
Article 35-A
👉
◎ ‘Permanent residents’ included people who were hereditary State subjects as in
1927, when J&K was a princely state prior to its accession to the Indian Dominion
in 1947.
Non-Convertible Debentures
Recently, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has notified a new
framework prohibiting listed entities, with more than 200 non-qualified
institutional buyer holders of non-convertible debt securities, from delisting
voluntarily.
Aim: To protect investors' interest.
👉
● They are fixed-income instruments for specific
terms and interest rates.
● Big companies issue them to raise funds without
giving any option of conversion to equity.
● The interest rates offered on NCD debentures are
more or less fixed. On maturity, the investor will
get back the principal amount along with interest.
Non-Convertible Debentures
◎ Since NCDs are not backed by collateral, but just the creditworthiness of the
issuer, ratings given by credit rating agencies become important.
◎ Such ratings help investors to understand the history of the issuer’s
creditworthiness and what it may look like in the future.
👉
◎ Secured NCDs  They are backed by the issuer company’s assets.
◎ Unsecured NCDs  They are based only on the creditworthiness of the issuer and
not backed by assets, they are called unsecured NCDs.
Special Session of Parliament
The government has convened a special session of Parliament from
September 18 to 22.
👉
● Constitutional Provisions  The summoning of
specified in Article 85 of the
Parliament is
Indian Constitution.
● It mandates that Parliament should meet at
least twice a year, and the gap between
two sessions should not exceed six
months.
Special Session of Parliament
◎ Convening of Sessions  The power to call for a session of Parliament in India lies
with the government.
○ This decision is made by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs,
which is then formalised by the President, who summons the MPs for a session.
◎ Parliamentary Calendar  India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar.
Traditionally, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year:
○ Budget Session (February-May)
○ Monsoon Session (July-August)
○ Winter Session (November-December)
Try this PYQ 2020
Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as
he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year,
but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a
year.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Try this PYQ 2020
Answer: c
Special
India’sSession
GreentoHydrogen
Debate billPartnerships
on ECs, discuss
The government has planned to discuss the Chief Election

Commissioner(CEC) and Other Election Commissioners(EC) (Appointment,
Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023 in a special session of
Parliament.
● As per the bill, a search committee,

headed by the cabinet secretary and
comprising two other secretaries to the
government, will shortlist five names for
appointment as the CEC and ECs.
Special Session to Debate bill on ECs, discuss
👉
◎ The Constitution gives the government the power to convene a special session of
Parliament.
◎ The decision to call a session is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary
Affairs
◎ The Members of Parliament (MPs) are summoned in the name of the President.
◎ The Indian Constitution doesn’t mention the term “special session” of Parliament.
◎ A special session will be summoned as per provisions of Article 85(1), under which
all sessions are held.
National Judicial Data Grid
Recently, the Chief Justice of India announced the onboarding of the
Supreme Court on the National Judicial Data Grid (NJDG). The NJDG portal is
a national repository of data relating to cases instituted, pending and
disposed of by the courts across the country.
👉
● database of orders, judgments and case
It is a
details of District and subordinate Courts and
High Courts created as an online platform under the
eCourts Project.
● Feature  The data is updated in real-time and has
granular data up to the Taluka level.
◎ Development  National Informatics Centre (NIC) in coordination with the

Computer Cell, Registry of the Supreme Court.
◎ Current Data Reach 
○ NJDG integrates data from over 18,735 computerized courts across India.
○ It provides access to case status information for 23.81 crore cases and more
than 23.02 crore orders/judgments.
○ Pendency Monitoring and Management: NJDG is a monitoring tool to identify,
manage, and reduce case pendency by providing real-time data on pending
cases at various levels of the judiciary.
○ Insightful Analysis and Identifying Bottlenecks: Enables identification of specific
bottlenecks in judicial processes.
○ For instance, it aids in recognizing trends such as an increase in land disputes,
prompting policymakers to consider legal strengthening in related areas.
○ Enhanced Legal Insights through Data Integration: It also helps generate inputs
related to particular areas of law. For example, to track cases related to land
disputes, Land Records data of 26 States have been linked with NJDG.
International Day of Democracy 2023
The International Day of Democracy, observed on September 15th each
year.
👉
● This was officially designated in 2007 via a
resolution adopted by the United Nations
General Assembly (UNGA).
● Theme  “Empowering the next
generation.”
● focuses on young people’s essential role in
advancing democracy and ensuring that their
International Day of Democracy 2023
◎ History  The history can be traced back to the Universal Declaration on
Democracy, which was formally adopted on September 15, 1997, by the Inter-
Parliamentary Union (IPU).
○ It serves as a valuable occasion to assess the global status of democracy.
○ It advocates for and maintains democracy as an essential human right and a
pivotal element of effective governance and global peace.
Samvidhan Sadan
The old parliament building will be called “Samvidhan Sadan" (Constitution
House).
👉
● The iconic old building, designedby British
architects Sir Edwin Lutyens and
Herbert Baker, was completed in 1927
● It is planned to function as a 'Museum of
Democracy,' symbolizing the rich history of
Indian democracy.
Words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ In Preamble
An opposition leader claimed that the words 'socialist' and 'secular' were
missing from the new Constitution copies distributed to MPs.
● The two terms "socialist" and "secular" were

inserted into the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment
of the Constitution in 1976.
● This was done during the Emergency imposed by
the then-Prime Minister between 1975 and 1977.
◎ Secular state  The Constitution of India stands for a Secular State. Hence, it does
not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State.
◎ The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the
Indian State 
◎ The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
○ Article 14: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or
equal protection of the laws
○ Article 15: The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of
religion.
○ Article 16:Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public
employment.
○ Article 25: All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the
right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion
Indian model of Secularism Western Model of Secularism
•Equal protection by the state to all religions. •State is separate from the functioning of all
State is neutral to all religious groups but not religious institutions and groups.
necessarily separate.
•No clear demarcation between state and •In western society, secularism refers to the
religion in India.Positive intervention of the state complete separation between the state and
in religious affairs is not prohibited religion.
•The Indian Constitution permits partial financial •As per the western model, the state cannot give
support for religious schools, as well as the any financial support to educational institutions
financing of religious buildings and run by religious communities.
infrastructure by the state.
•Rights of both individuals and religious •Individual and his/her rights are at the centre
communities are protected.
👉 :
◎ Indian socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ which holds faith in a ‘mixed economy’
where both public and private sectors co-exist side by side.
◎ Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily towards
Gandhian socialism.
Try this PYQ 2023
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed
to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment
Answer (a
Privilege
India’s Green Committee
Hydrogen Partnerships
Recently, opposition leaders wrote to the Lok Sabha Speaker, demanding
that the matter concerning an MP's use of unparliamentary language be
referred to the Privileges Committee.
👉
● Mandate  To examine every question
involving breach of privilege of the House or
of the Members of any Committee thereof
referred to it by the House or by the
Speaker.
● Lok Sabha  It consists of 15 Members
nominated by the Speaker.
Privilege Committee

privilege.
👉
◎ Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by
the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.
◎ Article 105 of the Constitution expressly mentions two privileges, that is, freedom
of speech in Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings.
Try this PYQ 2018
One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology
Answer (a
StateIndia’s
Bills and the Hydrogen
Green Veto Power of the Governor
Partnerships
The Kerala Government is considering approaching the Supreme Court to
determine if the Governor can indefinitely withhold approval for eight Bills
passed by the state assembly.
👉
● Article 200 of the Indian Constitution
includes the process for a state bill to
be presented to the Governor for
assent.
State Bills and the Veto Power of the Governor
◎ He may 
◎ give his assent to the bill, the bill then becomes an act.
◎ withhold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become an act.
◎ return the bill for reconsideration of the House or Houses.
◎ reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.
◎ If the bill is passed by the House or Houses again with or without amendments
and presented to the governor for his assent, the governor must give his assent
to the bill. Thus, the Governor enjoys only a ‘suspensive veto’. He may reserve
the bill for the consideration of the President.
👉
◎ Every money bill, after it is passed by the state legislature (unicameral or
bicameral), is presented to the governor for his assent.
◎ He has three alternatives 
◎ He may give his assent to the bill, the bill then becomes an act.
◎ He may withhold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become
an act.
◎ He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the president.
◎ Thus, the Governor cannot return a money bill for the reconsideration of the
state legislature. Normally, the Governor gives his assent to a money bill as it is
introduced in the state legislature with his previous permission.
◎ When the Governor reserves a money bill for the consideration of the President,
he will not have any further role in the enactment of the bill. If the President
gives his assent to the bill, it becomes an Act.
◎ This means that the assent of the Governor is no longer required.
Supreme Court's Ruling: Rameshwar Prasad and Ors. vs Union Of India and Anr.
◎ The Supreme Court has ruled that the Governor is immune from court proceedings
for any act done in the exercise of their powers under Article 361 of the
Constitution.
◎ In this case, the Court ruled that while Article 361(1) grants immunity to the
Governor, it does not take away the Court's power to examine the validity of the
Governor's action, including on the grounds of mala fides.
○ Thus, if the Governor's refusal to grant assent is found to be unconstitutional,
the Court can strike it down.
👉
◎ United States  The President is empowered by the Constitution to refuse assent
and return a Bill to the House but if the Houses again pass it with two thirds of
each House the Bill becomes law.
◎ United Kingdom  Royal assent is necessary for a Bill to be passed by Parliament
to become law and the crown has the power to withhold assent. But it is a dead
letter.
○ By practice and usage there is no power of veto exercised by the crown in
England now.
◎ Conditions Under which Governor Can reserve the Bill  In addition, the
Governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature:
◎ Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution.
◎ Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
◎ Against the larger interest of the country.
◎ Of grave national importance.
◎ Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the
Constitution
◎ When can the Governor reserve the Bill for President assent?
◎ The Governor shall not assent to, but shall reserve for the consideration of the
President, any Bill which in the opinion of the Governor would, if it became
law, so derogate from the powers of the High Court.
Try this PYQ 2023
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the
following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or
reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or
reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no
joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Try this PYQ 2023
Answer (a
India’sSuspension of Legislators
Green Hydrogen Partnerships
Recently, 2 Odisha MLAs were suspended due to misconduct in the state
assembly.
👉
● Rules 373, 374, and 374A of the Rules
of Procedure and Conduct of Business
in Lok Sabha provide for the
withdrawal of a member whose
conduct is “grossly disorderly”, and
suspension of one who abuses the rules
of the House or willfully obstructs its
Suspension of Legislators
◎ The maximum suspension as per these Rules is “for five consecutive sittings or
the remainder of the session, whichever is less”.
◎ The maximum suspension for Rajya Sabha under Rules 255 and 256 also does not
exceed the remainder of the session. Several recent suspensions of members
have not continued beyond the session.
👉
◎ Similar Rules also are in place for state legislative assemblies and councils which
prescribe a maximum suspension not exceeding the remainder of the session.
Try this PYQ 2015
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has
to be passed by
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting

(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses
Answer (a
Final Call to Take Down Content Left to
Intermediaries
The Solicitor General of India(SGI) argued that if any post with ‘fake and
false facts’ is flagged, then the intermediaries have the options of removing
or putting a disclaimer on the content.
SGI made submissions in a challenge to the Information Technology
Amendment Rules, 2023 (IT Amendment Rules, 2023).
● require social media intermediaries

The Rules
to censor, or otherwise modify, content that
relates to the Central Government if a
government mandated fact checking unit (FCU) directs
them to do so..
e-FIR
Recently, the Delhi Government announced a 15-point action plan to deal
with air pollution during winter.
👉
● An E-FIR is a digital version of the FIR that can be
filed online through the official website of the police
department.
e-FIR
👉
◎ Amend relevant legislation, including Section 154 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, the Indian Evidence Act, the Information Technology Act, and the Indian
Penal Code, to support e-FIR registration.
◎ Allow the registration of e-FIRs for all cognizable offenses where the accused is not
known and for all cognizable crimes with a maximum punishment of three years
where the identity of the accused is known.
◎ Give states the power to expand the list of offenses eligible for e-FIR registration.
◎ The e-FIR scheme will not apply to all offences, especially matrimonial disputes,
commercial offenses, medical negligence cases, corruption cases, and those with
abnormal delays in reporting, in which the Supreme Court has mandated
preliminary inquiries (Arnesh Kumar guideline).
Reaffirmation of Adivasi
India’s Green rights:Partnerships
Hydrogen Vachati Judgement
The Madras High Court upheld the convictions of over 200 government
officials from the forest, police and revenue departments of Tamil Nadu for
the atrocities committed on tribal people of Vachathi village in Dharmapuri
district of Tamil Nadu.
👉
● In Vachathi Judgement, SC/ST (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989 has served its purpose.
● The judgment will be remembered as a case
where despite India’s stark inequities, the
convergence of an alert civil society,
committed lawyers, an independent
judiciary and the resolve of victims seeking
Special Leave Petition (SPL)
Kerala government to move a Special Leave Petition before the Supreme
Court seeking to issue directions to the Governor to decide on the eight Bills
passed by the Kerala legislature.
👉
● UnderArticle 136 of India's constitution, the
SC at its discretion may grant Special
leave to appeal from any judgment,
decree, determination, sentence, or
order in any cause or matter, passed or made
by any court or tribunal in the territory of India.
This is called a special leave petition.
Special Leave Petition (SPL)
◎ Generally, an appeal can be instituted before the SC from decisions of the HCs
(articles 132 to 134).
◎ Under SPL, The Apex Court has discretionary powers to ensure no miscarriage of
justice.
The State of India’s Scheduled Areas
Despite persistent demands by Adivasi organizations, 59% of India’s
Scheduled Tribe (ST) remain outside the purview of Article 244.
👉
● India’s 705 ST communities, making up
8.6% of the country’s population live
in 26 States and 6 Union Territories.
● Article  Administration of
244
Scheduled and Tribal Areas.
○ Articles 244(1) provides for the application of Fifth Schedule provisions to
Scheduled Areas notified in any State other than the Sixth Schedule states viz.
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
○ At present there are 10 States in 5th Schedule namely Andhra Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh,
Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana.
◎ Tribal Areas  Generally refer to regions predominantly inhabited by tribal
communities. These areas may or may not be officially designated as Scheduled
Areas.
👉
◎ The President of India notifies India’s Scheduled Areas.
◎ States with Scheduled Areas need to constitute a Tribal Advisory Council with up to
20 ST members.
○ They will advise the Governor on matters referred to them regarding ST
welfare.
◎ The Governor can also make regulations for a Scheduled Area and regulate the
allotment of land to STs and money-lending to STs.
○ The Governor will then submit a report every year to the President regarding
the administration of Scheduled Areas.
👉
◎ Around 59% of India’s STs remain outside the purview of Article 244 leading to
persistent demands by Adivasi organisations for notifying these places as
scheduled areas.
○ For instance, In 2015, Kerala proposed to notify five gram panchayats and two
wards in five districts. It awaits the Indian government’s approval.
◎ In 1995, the Bhuria Committee, constituted to recommend provisions for the
extension of panchayat raj to Scheduled Areas, recommended including these
villages, but this is yet to be done.
Try this PYQ 2023
With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through
an Order of the President.
2. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:
3. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through
an Order of the President.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Try this PYQ 2023
Answer (b
India’s Electoral Bonds Scheme
Green Hydrogen Partnerships
The Supreme Court outlined that it will hear petitions challenging the
electoral bonds scheme on October 31,2023.
👉
● The electoral bonds were introduced with
the Finance Bill (2017).
● It can be bought digitally or through
cheque by any Indian citizen or company
incorporated in India from select branches
of State Bank of India.
● The bonds are similar to bank notes that
Electoral Bonds Scheme
◎ There is no limit on the number of bonds an individual or company can purchase.
◎ Condition 
○ Any party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the
Peoples Act, 1951 and has secured at least one percent of the votes polled in
the most recent General elections or Assembly elections is eligible to receive
electoral bonds.
○ The party will be allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of
India (ECI) and the electoral bond transactions can be made only through this
account.
18 years of RTI Act
An independent annual study conducted by Satark Nagarik Sangathan on
the eve of the 18th anniversary of the Right to Information Act (RTI)
implementation has revealed that the Jharkhand Information Commission
has been defunct for over three years.
👉
● It is a statutory body constituted under the
RTI Act 2005.
● extends
The jurisdiction of the Commission
over all Central Public Authorities.
18 years of RTI Act
◎ Functions 
○ These broadly relate to adjudication in the second appeal for giving
information;
○ direction for record keeping, suo motu disclosures
○ receiving and enquiring into a complaint on inability to file RTI, etc;
○ imposition of penalties and Monitoring and Reporting including preparation of
an Annual Report.
○ The decisions of the Commission are final and binding.
◎ State information commissioners perform similar functions and their jurisdiction
extends over all state public authorities of respective states.
Carbon Neutral Railways
Remote EVM (REVM)
Election Commission of India (ECI) postponed the introduction of REVM due
to the lack of support from most political parties.
👉
● Separate polling booths for remote voting are set
up.
● To cast the vote remotely, the voter will have to
register online or offline for a remote voting
facility before the polling day.
● Once the voter is verified and declared eligible
for casting his or her vote remotely, a multi-
Remote EVM (REVM)
◎ These RVMs will have a different electronic ballot display system with candidates
and symbols instead of a fixed ballot paper sheet.
◎ When the voter scans his/her constituency card in the presence of the Presiding
Officer at the polling station, their respective constituency and candidate list will
appear on the RVM display.
Curative Petition
The Chief Justice of India outlined that a curative petition against the apex
court’s judgment holding the Maratha reservation law unconstitutional will
be listed soon.
👉
◎ A curative petition may be filed after a review
plea against the final conviction is dismissed.
◎ It is meant to ensure there is no miscarriage of
justice, and to prevent abuse of process.
◎ A curative petition is usually decided by judges
in chambers, unless a specific request for an
open-court hearing is allowed.
Constitution Bench
The Supreme Court referred the electoral bonds case to the 5-judge
Constitution Bench.
👉
● A Supreme Court bench with a strength of
minimum five judges is called the
Constitution Bench.
● It is constituted whenever a matter of law
arises that requires a provision or
provision of the Constitution to be
interpreted, or there is a “significant legal
Constitution Bench
◎ It is not binding on the CJI to be a part of a Constitution Bench.

◎ Article 145(3), which deals with the rules of the court, provides for the setting up
of a Constitution Bench.
Copyright
India’s Green law in Partnerships
Hydrogen India
The Delhi High Court has found “large-scale infringement” in the

reproduction on of copyrighted works of the Bhaktivedanta Book Trust.
👉
● Indian copyright law Copyright Act, 1957 protects “original
work” — a creative and independently created expression fixed
in a tangible medium.
● The law grants the creator/ author of the work the exclusive
right to “use, reproduce, distribute, perform, and display their
work”.
● Unlike the case with patents, copyright protects the expressions
and not the ideas. There is no copyright in an idea.
Copyright law in India
◎ The law also protects transformative work which is a creative/ artistic work that
takes existing material (text, music, art) and significantly modifies, reinterprets, or
builds upon it to create something new and distinct.
◎ Are religious texts protected under copyright law in India? 
○ Religious texts, in general, are considered part of the public domain thus, they
are not subject to copyright protection in India.
○ However, modern translations of the Bible represent new and creative works
developed by the translators. Hence, they are covered by copyright law in
India.
○ While the Ramayana and Mahabharata are not protected by copyright, the
television series Ramayana created by Ramanand Sagar or B R Chopra’s
Mahabharata are “transformative works” that are be protected.
👉
◎ The Act came into effect from January 1958.
◎ The Act is in conformity with two WIPO internet treaties concluded in 1996
namely, the WIPO Copyright Treaty (“WCT”) and WIPO Performances and
Phonograms Treaty (“WPPT”);
◎ Section 9 of the Copyright Act requires the establishment of an office to be called
the Copyright Office for the purpose of the Act.
◎ The Copyright Office is to be under the immediate control of a Registrar of
Copyrights to be appointed by the Central Government, who would act under the
superintendence and directions of the Central Government.
👉
◎ The Berne Convention, adopted in 1886, deals with the protection of works and
the rights of their authors.
◎ It provides creators such as authors, musicians, poets, painters etc. with the means
to control how their works are used, by whom, and on what terms.
Unlawful
India’s Green Activities
The central government has established the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Tribunal Court.
● Exercise of the Powers  Conferred by section

5 of
the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act,
1967.
● Aim  Adjudicating whether or not there is
sufficient cause for declaring the National
Liberation Front of Tripura (NLFT) and the All
India’s Special and LocalPartnerships
Green Hydrogen Laws
The recent bills tabled in parliament to amend substantive criminal laws are
not involving reforms in Special and Local Laws (SLL).
👉
● SLL  Such laws identify criminal activities,
framed for specific issues.
● Most critical offenses and procedures are
encompassed within the SLLs and nearly 40% of
all cognisable offenses registered in 2021 were under SLLs.
● Examples of SLLs  Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA), the
Quetion Hour in Loksabha
Recently a Member of Parliament (MPs) is alleged to have accepted bribes
from businessmen in exchange for asking parliamentary questions targeting
the Prime Minister.
👉
● The first hour of every parlimentary
sitting is slotted for Question Hour. During
this time, the member ask questions and
the ministers usually give answers.
● MPs raise questions during Question Hour to
hold the government accountable for
its policies and actions.
◎ Procedure 
○ Governing Rules: The procedure for raising questions is governed by Rules 32 to
54 of the “Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha” and
Directions 10 to 18 of the “Directions by the Speaker, Lok Sabha‟.
○ Notice: An MP has to first give a notice addressed to the lower house’s
Secretary-General, intimating their intention to ask a question.
Types of Questions  There are four different types of questions
◎ Starred 
○ A Starred question is asked by an MP and answered orally by the Minister-in-
charge.
○ Each MP is allowed to ask one starred question per day. Starred questions have
to be submitted at least 15 days in advance (so that the Minister-in-charge has
the time to prepare the answers).
○ When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked
thereon.
◎ Unstarred 
○ An unstarred question receives a written reply from the Ministry. These also
need to be submitted at least 15 days in advance.
○ Supplementary questions are not permitted.
◎ Short-notice questions 
○ Short notice questions are ones pertaining to a matter of urgent public
importance.
○ They can be asked with less than 10 days’ notice, with reasons for the short
notice.
○ They are answered orally, followed by supplementary questions.
◎ Questions addressed to private Members 

○ It is asked when the subject matter pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any
matter relating to the Business of the House for which that MP is responsible.
○ Procedure: Same as starred question (written above).
Article
India’s 142Hydrogen
Green of the Constitution
Partnerships
In a recent judgment, the Supreme Court invoked Article 142 of the
Constitution to appoint a postal assistant after the postal department
refused to hire him despite his high merit list ranking.
👉
● Article 142 of the Constitution deals with the
Supreme Court's power to exercise its
jurisdiction and pass order for doing
complete justice in any cause or matter pending
before it.
● special and
It provides the apex court with a
extraordinary power and is meant to provide
Article 142 of the Constitution
◎ Why was Article 142 included in the Constitution? 

○ Article 142 was envisaged to allow the Supreme Court the opportunity to
provide 'complete justice' to even those who may have been wrongly
sentenced or denied justice due to the intricacies or inefficacies of the legal
justice system.
○ The article was meant to empower the apex court to deliver justice in
exceptional cases without being hindered by legal or bureaucratic red tape.
◎ Significant cases where Article 142 was invoked 
○ Babri Masjid Case: The article was used in the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid
land dispute case and was instrumental in the handover of the disputed land to
a trust to be formed by the union government.
Article 142 of the Constitution
○ Bhopal Gas Tragedy: The Supreme Court invoked its plenary powers in the
Union Carbide vs Union Govt case and intervened to provide compensation to
victims of the deadly Bhopal Gas Tragedy.
Try this PYQ 2021
Q. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an

unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law
violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 28
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 44
Answer (a
PRAGATI
India’s Green Platform
The Prime Minister chaired the meeting of the 43rd edition of the PRAGATI
portal.
👉
● ICT-based multi-modal platform for
It is the
Pro-Active Governance and Timely
Implementation, involving Centre and State
governments.
● Digital data
It uses three latest technologies 
management, video-conferencing and geo-
spatial technology.
PRAGATI Platform
◎ Objective  To monitor and review important programs and projects of the

Government of India and projects flagged by State Governments.
◎ It is a three-tier system (PMO, Union Government Secretaries, and Chief
Secretaries of the States).
◎ The PMO team designed the system in-house with the help of the National
Informatics Center (NIC).
○ Enables cooperative federalism: It brings on one stage the Secretaries of
Government of India and the Chief Secretaries of the States.
○ Promotes e- Governance: It is a robust system for bringing e-transparency and
e-accountability with real-time presence and exchange among the key
stakeholders.
Ethics Committee
Recently, the Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha has asked Member of
Parliament to appear in connection with cash-for-question allegations.
👉
● Lok Saha Ethics Committee came into force in
2015 with a mandate to oversee the moral
and ethical conduct of the MPs.
● Function  Examine complaints relating to
unethical conduct of an MP and make
recommendations as it may deem fit.
● Formulating a code of conduct for members
Ethics Committee
◎ Composition  Lok Sabha Ethics Committee- 15 members appointed by Speaker;

Rajya Sabha Ethics Committee - 9 members appointed by Chairman respectively.
◎ Term: 1 year
◎ Procedure for complaints  Any person can complain against a Member through
another Lok Sabha MP.
Section 67 of the Information Technology Act
In a recent judgment, the Allahabad High Court held that merely Liking a
post on social media applications like Facebook, X, etc. cannot be
punishable under Section 67 of the Information Technology Act.
👉
● The Information Technology Act, 2000 also
Known as an IT Act.
● It is based on the United Nations Model law
on Electronic Commerce 1996 (UNCITRAL
Model) which was suggested by the General
Assembly of the United Nations by a
resolution dated on 30th January, 1997.
◎ The main objective of this act is to carry lawful and trustworthy electronic, digital
and online transactions and alleviate or reduce cybercrimes.
👉
◎ Section 43  Any act of destroying, altering or stealing computer system/network
or deleting data with malicious intentions without authorization from owner of the
computer is liable for the payment to be made to owner as compensation for
damages.
◎ Section 43A  Any corporate body dealing with sensitive information that fails to
implement reasonable security practices causing loss of other person will also
liable as convict for compensation to the affected party.
◎ Section 66  Penalises Hacking of a Computer System with malicious intentions

like fraud
◎ Section 66 B, C, D  Penalises ‘Fraud or dishonesty’ using or transmitting
information or identity theft
◎ Section 66 E  Penalise ‘violation of privacy’ by transmitting image of private area
◎ Section 66 F  This Section is on Cyber Terrorism affecting unity, integrity, security,
sovereignty of India through digital medium is liable for life imprisonment.
◎ Section 67  Penalisese publishing obscene information or pornography or
transmission of obscene content in public
◎
◎ Section 67A and 67B  Penalises publishing or transmission of material containing

sexually explicit act in electronic form
◎ Section 69 (A)  Under this section Centre has the power to “block for access by
the public or cause to be blocked for access by the public any information
generated, transmitted, received, stored or hosted in any computer resource”.
◎ Section 79  This section state that any intermediary shall not be held legally or
otherwise liable for any third party information, data, or communication link made
available or hosted on its platform.
Supreme Court orders centre to fill vacancies in SIC
and CIC
The Supreme Court recently ordered the central and the state governments
to take steps to fill the vacancies in the Central Information Commission
(CIC) and state information commissions (SICs).
👉
● It is a statutory body constituted under the provision of
Section-12 of RTI Act 2005, the Central Government
constitutes a body to be known as the Central
Information Commission.
● The CIC shall consist of the Chief Information
Commissioner (CIC) and such number of Central
Information Commissioners not exceeding 10 as may be
deemed necessary.
Supreme Court orders centre to fill vacancies in SIC and CIC
◎ Jurisdiction  It extends over all Central Public Authorities.

◎ Appointment Process of CIC/IC  The selection committee of CIC/IC consists of
○ The Prime Minister, who shall be the Chairperson of the committee;
○ The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
○ A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
◎ Term of office: The members shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the
Central Government or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
○ CIC is not eligible for reappointment.
◎ Oath of Office  Administered by the President of India.
◎ Retirement from parent service on appointment  The CIC/IC as the case may be,
shall be deemed to have retired from such service with effect from the date of his
appointment as CIC/IC in the Central Information Commission.
👉
◎ Composition  The SIC will be constituted by the State Government through a
Gazette notification. It consists of one State Chief Information Commissioner (SCIC)
and not more than 10 State Information Commissioners (SIC) to be appointed by
the Governor.
◎ Oath Of Office  It will be administered by the Governor according to the form set
out in the First Schedule.
◎ Process Of Appointment  The Appointments Committee will be headed by the
Chief Minister. Other members include the Leader of the Opposition in the
Legislative Assembly and one Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister.
◎ Powers And Functions Of Information Commissions:

◎ The Central Information Commission/State Information Commission has a duty to
receive complaints from any person.
◎ Power to order inquiry if there are reasonable grounds.
◎ CIC/SCIC will have powers of Civil Court such as 
○ summoning and enforcing attendance of persons, compelling them to give oral
or written evidence on oath and to produce documents or things;
○ requiring the discovery and inspection of documents;
○ receiving evidence on affidavit;
○ requisitioning public records or copies from any court or office
○ issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents
○ any other matter which may be prescribed.
108 MIGRANTS FROM PAKISTAN AWARDED CITIZENSHIP IN GUJARAT
A Ministry of Home Affairs Order, 2021 empowered the Collectors from certain districts in
the States of Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan, Haryana, and Punjab for:Registration of
Citizen of India and grant certificate of naturalization under Section 5 and 6 of the
Citizenship Act 1955 respectively.
• This is applicable in respect of any person belonging to the

minority community in Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan.
• Citizenship by naturalization can be acquired by a foreigner (not
an illegal immigrant) Who is ordinarily resident in India for 12
Years
• Throughout the period of twelve months immediately
preceding the date of application; and For 11 Years in the
aggregate in the 14 Years preceding the twelve months
• Other qualifications as specified in the Third Schedule to the
Citizenship Act, 1955.
108 MIGRANTS FROM PAKISTAN AWARDED CITIZENSHIP IN GUJARAT
• Constitutional provisions for citizenship (Part 2 of the Constitution)

• Articles 5, 6, 7 and 8, detail provisions regarding who will be the citizens of India at
thecommencement of the Constitution.
• Article 11 grants Parliament the authority to make any provision regarding the acquisition and
termination of citizenship.
PUBLIC SERVANTS LOSE IMMUNITY IN PRE-2014 CORRUPTION CASES
A constitution bench of the Supreme Court (SC) declared that its 2014 judgment, which
declared Section 6A of the Delhi Special Police Establishment (DSPE) Act 1946 as
unconstitutional, will have a retrospective effect.
• Section 6A of DSPE Act (inserted in 2003) required

CBI to obtain prior sanction from the central
government to investigate corruption cases against
an officer of the rank of joint secretary and above.
• This provision was struck down as unconstitutional
(violation of right to equality under Article 14) by
SC in the Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India
case (2014).
Key highlights of SC judgment

• Once a law is declared unconstitutional on grounds of it infringing any of the fundamental
rights guaranteed under Part III of the constitution, it would be held to be an unenforceable
right from date of enactment (Void Ab Initio).
• Article 20(1) has no bearing in the context of declaration of Section 6A as unconstitutional as
Article 20 (1) doesn't bar retrospective application of procedural changes in criminal trial.
• Article 20(1) lays down that no person shall be convicted of any offense except for violation of
a law in force at the time of the commission of the alleged act.
Karnataka Rajyotsava 2023: Fifty years of ‘Karnataka’
Nov 1, 2023 commemorates the 50th anniversary of renaming Karnataka.
👉
◎ On November 1, 1956, all Kannada-speaking
regions outside the Mysore Princely State were
consolidated into a single state, initially named
Mysore.
Karnataka Rajyotsava 2023: Fifty years of ‘Karnataka’
👉
◎ On August 21, 1973, Parliament passed a resolution, leading to the enactment of
the Mysore State (Alteration of Name) Act, 1973.
◎ Under Article 3 and Article 4 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has the power
to change the name of a state, and alter its area or boundaries.
◎ The process of renaming a state can be initiated by either the Parliament or the
state assembly.
👉
◎ On November 1, 1973, the state was officially renamed Karnataka.
UPSC tightens guidelines
India’s for appointment
Green Hydrogen of State DGPs
Partnerships
According to revised guidelines released by the Union Public Service
Commission (UPSC), only Police officers with at least six months of service
left before retirement will be given consideration for selection as a state's
director general of police(DGP).
👉
● The police is a State subject, the IPS
officers who are constituents of the All
India Services are appointed by the UPSC
on behalf of the Union government, and
their services are placed under State
cadres.
UPSC tightens guidelines for appointment of State DGPs
◎ The guidelines have been revised to discourage States from appointing “favourite
officers” about to retire, in a bid to extend their tenure.
◎ The Empanelment Committee constituted by the UPSC will not assess Indian
Police Service (IPS) officers on central deputation for a State DGP’s post if the
Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) informs the State government that “it will
not be possible to relieve the officers.”
◎ The guidelines allow officers with 25 years experience to be appointed as a DGP,
against the earlier requirement of a minimum 30 years of service.
◎ The number of shortlisted officers cannot exceed three, but may consist of less
than three officers in “exceptional circumstances”.
◎ Officers will not be included in the panel unless they themselves are willing,
👉
◎ The amended UPSC guidelines come in the wake of several States choosing to
appoint acting DGPs instead of regular DGPs, bypassing the requirement to go
through the UPSC-selected panel of eligible officers.
◎ For example: States such as Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, and
Telangana have appointed “in-charge” DGPs, or DGPs with “full additional
charge”.
👉
◎ The UPSC had first framed guidelines for the preparation of a panel for
appointment to the post of State DGPs in 2009, after the Supreme Court verdict in
the police reforms case (Prakash Singh V/S Union of India) of 2006.
◎ According to the guidelines, the DGP is to be selected by the State government

from amongst the three senior-most officers of the department.
◎ They have to be empanelled for promotion to that rank by the UPSC on the basis
of their length of service, very good service record, and range of experience for
heading the police force.
◎ The committee to appoint the State DGP is headed by the UPSC Chairman and
includes the Union Home Secretary, the State’s Chief Secretary and DGP, and one
of the heads of the Central Armed Police Forces nominated by the MHA who is
not from the same State cadre.
Advocate-on-Record system
The Supreme Court (SC) pulled up an Advocate-on-Record (AoR) for filing a
frivolous case and dismissed the public interest litigation.
👉
◎ The Court censured the lawyer, saying that an AoR
cannot merely be a “signing authority.”
◎ The AoR is essentially the link between the litigant
and the SC.
◎ Only an AoR can file cases before the SC. However,
An AoR might engage other lawyers, including
senior counsel, to argue before the Court.
◎ The AoR system is broadly based on the British practice of barristers and solicitors.
◎ Eligibility Criteria  set out in the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.
○ An advocate needs to pass an examination (Set by SC itself) with a score of at
least 60% i.e. a minimum of 240 marks out of 400 with at least 50% in each
subject.
○ The advocate must train with a court-approved AoR for at least one year to take
the exam.
○ She must also have at least four years of practice before starting the training.
○ An AoR must have an office in Delhi within a 16-kilometer radius of the Supreme
Court.
◎ Rules Governing the AoR system 
○ According to Section 30 of the Advocates Act, any lawyer enrolled with the Bar
Council is entitled to practice law before any Court or tribunal in the country.
○ However, the provision also categorically states that “nothing in the provision
shall be deemed to affect the power of the SC to make rules under Article 145
of the Constitution.”
○ Under Article 145 of the Constitution, the SC is empowered to make rules and
regulate its own procedure for hearing cases.
Chief Information commissioner
Senior bureaucrat Heeralal Samariya was sworn in as the chief of the
Central Information Commission (CIC). Provisions in the RTI Act provide for
the Central Information Commission (CIC) at the central level and state
information commissions (SICs) in each state to which the Act applies.
👉
◎ It is a statutory body constituted under the provision
of Section-12 of RTI Act 2005, the Central
Government constitutes a body to be known as the
Central Information Commission.
◎ The CIC shall consist of the Chief Information
Commissioner (CIC) and such number of Central
Information Commissioners not exceeding 10 as may
be deemed necessary.
◎ Jurisdiction  It extends over all Central Public Authorities.

◎ Appointment Process of CIC/IC  The selection committee of CIC/IC consists of
○ The Prime Minister, who shall be the Chairperson of the committee;
○ The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
○ A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
◎ Term of office  The Chief Information Commissioner(CIC) and Information
Commissioner(ICs) will hold office for a term of three years.
○ CIC is not eligible for reappointment.
◎ Oath of Office  Administered by the President of India.
◎ Retirement from parent service on appointment  The CIC/IC as the case may be,
shall be deemed to have retired from such service with effect from the date of his
appointment as CIC/IC in the Central Information Commission.
◎ Powers And Functions Of Information Commissions 

◎ The Central Information Commission/State Information Commission has a duty to
receive complaints from any person.
◎ Power to order inquiry if there are reasonable grounds.
◎ CIC/SCIC will have powers of Civil Court such as 
○ summoning and enforcing attendance of persons, compelling them to give oral
or written evidence on oath and to produce documents or things;
○ requiring the discovery and inspection of documents;
○ receiving evidence on affidavit;
○ requisitioning public records or copies from any court or office
○ issuing summons for examination of witnesses or documents
○ any other matter which may be prescribed.
Supreme Court Bench Strength
The Supreme Court bench returned to its full strength as high court chief
justices Satish Chandra Sharma, Augustine George Masih and Sandeep
Mehta took oath as judges of the Supreme court.
👉
◎ At Present the Supreme Court consists of thirty-four
Judges (One Chief Justice and Thirty Three Other
Judges).
◎ Constitutional Provision  Article 124(1) state that
“there shall be a supreme court of india consisting
of a Chief Justice Of India and, Until Parliament by
law Prescribe a larger Number, Of more than seven
other judges.’’
◎ Originally, the Supreme Court had eight judges (one chief justice and seven others).
The Parliament has increased the number of judges over time.
◎ Appointment Procedure  The judges of the SC appointed by President On the
recommendation of Collegium of judges.
◎ The Collegium deliberates on and discusses the names of Chief Justices and senior
puisne Judges of the High Courts eligible for appointment to the Supreme Court.
◎ While recommending appointments to the Supreme Court the Collegium has taken
into consideration the following aspects 
○ The seniority of Chief Justices and senior puisne Judges in their respective
parent High Courts as well as overall seniority of the High Court Judges;
○ The merit, performance and integrity of the judges under consideration; and
○ The need to ensure diversity and inclusion in the Supreme Court by 
○ representation of High Courts which are not represented or are inadequately
represented, in the Supreme Court;
○ appointment of persons from marginalized and backward segments of society;
○ gender diversity;
○ representation of minorities.
Ethics Panel Recommends Disqualification Of MP
The Lok Sabha Ethics Committee adopted a report recommending the
expulsion of a Trinamool Congress MP from the Lower House over a “cash-
for-query” allegation.
👉
● Origin 
● A study group of the House Committee of
Privileges, after visiting Australia, the UK,
and the US in 1997 to look into practices
pertaining to the conduct and ethics of
legislators, recommended the constitution
of an Ethics Committee.
◎ The Committee of Privileges finally recommended the constitution of an Ethics

Committee during the 13th Lok Sabha.
◎ Lok Sabha Ethics Committee came into force in 2015 with a mandate to oversee
the moral and ethical conduct of the MPs.
◎ Function 
○ Examine complaints relating to unethical conduct of an MP and make
recommendations as it may deem fit.
◎ Composition  Lok Sabha Ethics Committee- 15 members appointed by Speaker
◎ Term of Members  1 year
◎ Procedure for complaints 
○ Any person can complain against a Member through another Lok Sabha MP,
along with evidence of the alleged misconduct, and an affidavit stating that the
complaint is not “false, frivolous, or vexatious”. If the Member himself
complains, the affidavit is not needed.
○ The Speaker can refer to the Committee any complaint against an MP.
○ The Committee does not entertain complaints based only on media reports or
on matters that are sub judice.
○ The Committee makes a prima facie inquiry before deciding to examine a
complaint. It makes its recommendations after evaluating the complaint.
○ The Committee presents its report to the Speaker, who asks the House if the
report should be taken up for consideration. There is also a provision for a half-
hour discussion on the report.
👉
◎ The first such Committee by any legislature in India was constituted by the
Chairman, Rajya Sabha on 4 March 1997, to oversee the moral and ethical conduct
of the Members.
◎ Composition  10 members appointed by the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
◎ Tenure  Committee holds office until a new committee is appointed, the casual
vacancies arising are filled by the Chairman from time to time.
Contempt
India’s Green of Court
Chief Justice of India (CJI) D Y Chandrachud stated that the power to punish
for contempt of court is not meant to protect judges from criticism but to
prevent interference in the dispensation of justice.
👉
● Constitutional Objective  Contempt of
court, is a concept that seeks to protect
judicial institutions from motivated attacks
and unwarranted criticism, and as a legal
mechanism to punish those who lower its
authority.
● Reasonable Restriction  When the
Contempt of Court
◎ Constitutional Power  Articles 129 and 215 of the Constitution empower the
Supreme Court and high courts to punish for contempt respectively.
◎ The procedure to operationalize it was enacted in the Contempt of Courts Act, of
1971.
👉
◎ Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. Section 2 B  Civil contempt means
willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ, or other
process of a Court, or willful breach of an undertaking given to a Court.
Contempt of Court
◎ Section 2 C says that Criminal Contempt means the publication (whether by

words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise)
of any matter or the doing of any other act whatsoever which
◎ Scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers or tends to lower or tends to
lower the authority of, any court, or
◎ Prejudices, or interferes or tend to interfere with, the due course of any judicial
proceeding: or
◎ Interferes or tends to interfere with, or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the
administration of justice in any other manner.
◎ The punishment for contempt of court is simple imprisonment for a term up to six
months and/or a fine of up to ₹. 2,000.
Contempt of Court
◎ Contempt Procedure  The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, lays down the law on
contempt of court.
◎ Section 15 of the legislation describes the procedure on how a case for
contempt of court can be initiated.
◎ Contempt proceedings can be initiated either by filing an application or by the
court itself suo moto.
◎ In both the cases, contempt proceedings must be initiated within one year
from the date on which contempt is alleged to have been committed.
◎ In the case of the Supreme Court, the Attorney General or the Solicitor General,
and in the case of High Courts, the Advocate General, may bring in a motion
before the court for initiating a case of criminal contempt.
Contempt of Court
◎ However, if the motion is brought by any other person, the consent in writing
of the Attorney General or the Advocate General is required.
◎ The motion or reference made for initiating the case will have to specify the
contempt of which the person charged is alleged to be guilty.
👉
◎ Fair and accurate reporting and fair criticism  Fair reporting of judicial
proceedings will not amount to contempt of court. Nor is any fair criticism on the
merits of a judicial order after a case is heard and disposed of.
◎ Truth as a valid defense  The Act was amended in 2006 to introduce truth as a
valid defense if it was in the public interest and was invoked in a bona fide
manner.
Vibrant Village Programme (VVP)
Recently, the Home Minister addressed the 62nd Raising Day parade of the
Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) in Dehradun.
👉
● It was announced in the Finance
Minister’s Budget Speech 2022.
● Aim  To enhance the infrastructure in
the villages near the northern border
(Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand
and Himachal Pradesh and the Union
Territory of Ladakh) of India.
Vibrant Village Programme (VVP)
◎ Under this centrally sponsored scheme, 2,967 villages in 46 blocks of 19 districts

have been identified for comprehensive development.
Government Approves
India’s Green Digital
Hydrogen Ad Policy
Partnerships
The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting approved the “Digital
Advertisement Policy, 2023 to enable and empower the Central Bureau of
Communication (CBC) to undertake campaigns in the digital media space.
👉
● The Policy has been formulated after wide
ranging discussions with multiple
stakeholders and outlines the roadmap of
enhancing the Digital Outreach of the
Government of India and improving
Government Approves Digital Ad Policy
👉
◎ Empaneling Digital Agencies  CBC can now empanel digital media agencies to
engage podcast listeners, YouTube, OTT viewers, and social media users.
◎ Inclusive Campaign Platforms  The policy extends campaigns to mobile
applications, requiring eligibility for websites, mobile apps, OTT platforms, and
digital audio platforms with a minimum one-year existence.
◎ Transparent Advertising Rates  Advertising rates will be linked to subscriber
base and viewership, determined through competitive bidding for transparency
and efficiency, with rates valid for three years.
◎ Competitive bidding  It introduces competitive bidding for rate discovery,
ensuring transparency and efficiency. Rates discovered through this process will
remain valid for three years and will be applicable to all eligible agencies.
Government Approves Digital Ad Policy
◎ CBC will also be able to leverage the growing number of listeners to podcasts
and digital audio platforms through the empanelment of digital audio
platforms.
👉
◎ Central Bureau of Communication is the Media Unit of Ministry of Information
and Broadcasting which is the designated organization for issue of
advertisements through all forms of media.
Broadcasting Services (Regulation) Bill, 2023
The Information & Broadcasting Ministry released the draft Broadcasting
Services (Regulation) Bill, 2023. The bill aims to bring a consolidated legal
framework for the broadcasting sector and extend it to OTT content, digital
news, and current affairs as well.
👉
◎ Single legislative framework  The Bill provides
regulatory provisions for various broadcasting
services under a single legislative framework.
◎ It seeks to replace the Cable Television Networks
(Regulation) Act of 1995 and other policy guidelines
currently governing the broadcasting sector in India.
◎ Expansion of regulatory ambit  The Bill extends its regulatory purview to

encompass broadcasting OTT content, digital news and current affairs currently
regulated through the IT Act, 2000.
○ It also includes provisions for emerging broadcasting technologies.
◎ Comprehensive definitions  It provides definitions for contemporary broadcasting
terms along with other important technical terms to be defined in the statute for the
first time.
◎ Advisory bodies  It introduces ‘Content evaluation committees’ for self-regulation
and ‘Broadcast Advisory Council’ to “advise the central government on programme
code and advertisement code violations.
◎ Penalties  It provides statutory penalties like advisory, warning, censure, or
monetary penalties, for operators and broadcasters.
○ Provision for imprisonment and/or fines is also there, but only for very serious
offences, such as obtaining registration with a false affidavit.
○ Monetary penalties and fines are linked to the financial capacity of the entity,
taking into account their investment and turnover to ensure fairness and equity.
◎ Inclusive and accessible  It promotes the use of subtitles, audio descriptors, and
sign language. The Bill has a provision for appointing a Disability Grievance officer.
◎ Infrastructure sharing  It also has provisions for infrastructure sharing among
broadcasting network operators and carriage of platform services.
◎ Right of Way  The Bill “streamlines the ‘Right of Way’ section to address
relocation and alterations more efficiently, and establishes a structured dispute
resolution mechanism.
○ Revamping broadcasting sector: It modernizes the broadcasting sector’s
regulatory framework, replacing outdated Acts, Rules, and Guidelines with a
unified, future-focused approach.
○ Embracing digital revolution: It adapts to the dynamic world of OTT, Digital
Media, DTH, and more, promoting technological advancement and service
evolution.
Special Category Status
Recently, the Bihar Chief Minister said that he would launch a movement
across the State if the Union government did not grant Bihar special
category status.
👉
● Special Category Status was introduced in
1969 on the recommendations of the Fifth
Finance Commission.
● SCS is a classification given by the Centre to
assist development of states that face
geographical and socio-economic
disadvantages. (Constitution does not make a
◎ Indicator for Special Catogory Status 

○ International border proximity,
○ Hilly terrain,
○ Economic disparities.
○ Sizable tribal population and
○ Infrastructural backwardness.
◎ State with Special Category Status 
○ Eleven States: Assam, Nagaland, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya,
Sikkim, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Uttarakhand and Telangana.
○ Telangana, the newest State of India, was accorded the status as it was carved
out of another State — Andhra Pradesh.
◎ Benefits of Special Category Status 

○ Higher Central Funding: States with special status receive an increased share of
Central funding. The government pays 90 percent of the funds in schemes that
the Centre sponsors.
○ Financial Support for Development: Designated to provide financial support
specifically for development purposes.
◎ The 14th Finance Commission has done away with the 'special category status' for
states, except for the Northeastern and three hill states.
○ It suggested to fill the resource gap of such states through tax devolution by
increasing it to 42% from 32%.
◎ Concern With SCS 
○ It will further strained fiscal resources of center.
○ Similar demand from other states, For instance, demands from Andhra
Pradesh, Odisha, etc.
○ Politicization of the issue by regional parties for electoral gains.
AAINA Dashboard
The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the 'AAINA
Dashboard for Cities' portal.
A pioneering initiative for Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) across India.
👉
● It is a portal where Urban Local Bodies
(ULBs) across the country can participate to
voluntarily submit their key data on a
regular basis, through a simple, easy-to-fill,
data entry form on the portal.
● The primary objectives of the AAINA
Dashboard are to help cities to  See how
AAINA Dashboard
◎ Inspire them by pointing to possibilities and areas of improvement and

◎ Provide opportunities to learn and engage with frontrunners.
◎ Five Pillars of Assessment 
○ The Dashboard will evaluate ULBs based on indicators across five pillars:
○ Political & Administrative Structure
○ Finance
○ Planning
○ Citizen Centric Governance
○ Delivery of Basic Services
◎ Data Submission Process 
○ ULBs voluntarily submit key data regularly through an easy-to-fill data entry
form on the portal.
AAINA Dashboard
○ Data includes audited accounts and self-reported performance metrics.
○ ULBs have the flexibility to update information as needed.
○ Ministry, through Digital India Corporation, offers support to ULBs and states in
the data submission process.
MGNREGS audit crosses 50% local bodies in just six States
The Management Information System (MIS) on Social Audit maintained by
the Union Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) reveals statistics about
social auditing done by states under MGNREGS.
◎ It was enacted in 2005 as a social welfare program

by the Ministry of Rural development.
◎ Objective  To guarantee 100 days of employment
in every financial year to adult members of any rural
household willing to do public work-related
unskilled manual work.
◎ Key Features of scheme:

◎ Legal Right to Work  The Act grants a legal right to employment for adult
members of rural households.
◎ Unemployment allowance  Employment must be provided with 15 days of being
demanded failing which an ‘unemployment allowance’ must be given.
◎ Role of Gram sabhas  They must recommend the works that are to be undertaken
and at least 50% of the works must be executed by them.
○ Monitoring of work under MGNREGA: Under section 17 of the act, the gram
sabha “shall monitor the execution of works”.
◎ Work Site Facilities  All work sites should have facilities such as crèches, drinking
water and first aid.
◎ Funding  It is shared between the centre and the states.
◎ Social audits  They are conducted by gram sabhas to enable the community to
monitor the implementation of the scheme.
◎ Social audit units(SAU)  Each State has SAUs which are supposed to work
independent of the implementing authorities.
◎ Auditing standards  Laid down by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India,
these were issued on December 19, 2016.
○ According to them, every SAU is entitled to funds equivalent to 0.5% of the
MGNREGA expenditure incurred by the State in the previous year.
○ The audit involves quality checks of infrastructure created under the MGNREGA,
financial misappropriation in wages, and checking for any procedural deviations.
◎ Provision of Ombudsperson  There should be an ombudsperson for each district
who will receive grievances, conduct enquiries, and pass awards.
Governor Can’t keep Bill pending indefinitely: SC
underlines law
The Supreme Court in its latest judgement ruled that a “Governor cannot be
at liberty” to keep a “Bill pending indefinitely without any action
whatsoever”.
👉
● Power to recommend changes  The
Governor may recommend reconsideration of
the entirety of the Bill or any part thereof and
even indicate the desirability of introducing
amendments.
● However, the ultimate decision on whether or
not to accept the advice of the Governor
Governor Can’t keep Bill pending indefinitely: SC underlines law
◎ Inconsistent with constitutional provision  Failure to take a call and keeping a Bill
duly passed for indeterminate periods is a course of action inconsistent with the
provision under article 200.
◎ The judgment is in response to a plea by the Punjab government against the
Governor who had kept pending the Bills sent to him by the state legislature.
👉
◎ Article 200 empowers the Governor to withhold assent to the Bill.
◎ The Governor must mandatorily follow the course of action of communicating to
the State Legislature ‘as soon as possible’ a message warranting the
reconsideration of the Bill.”
Governor Can’t keep Bill pending indefinitely: SC underlines law
◎ The expression ‘as soon as possible’ is significant. It conveys a constitutional

imperative of expedition.
Central Government Exempts CERT-In from RTI Act
The Central government has added the Computer Emergency Response
Team (CERT-In) among a list of organizations that are exempted from the
ambit of the Right to Information Act (RTI), 2005.
👉
◎ CERT-In is a functional organization of the
Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology that secures Indian cyberspace.
◎ It provides Incident Prevention and Response
services and Security Quality Management
Services.
◎ Vision  Proactive Contribution in Securing India's Cyberspace.

◎ Mission  To enhance the security of India's Communications and Information
Infrastructure through proactive action and effective collaboration.
◎ Objectives 
○ Preventing cyber attacks against the country's cyberspace.
○ Responding to cyber attacks, minimizing damage and recovery time and
Reducing 'national vulnerability to cyber attacks
○ Enhancing security awareness among ordinary citizens.
◎ Functions  The Information Technology (Amendment) Act 2008, designated CERT-
In to serve as the national agency to perform the following functions in the area of
cyber security:
○ Collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber incidents.
○ Forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents.
○ Emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents.
○ Coordination of cyber incident response activities.
○ Issue guidelines, advisories, vulnerability notes and whitepapers relating to
Information
○ Security practices, procedures, prevention, response and reporting of cyber
incidents.
○ Such other functions relating to cyber security as may be prescribed.
👉
◎ Timely Disclosure of Information  The RTI Act provides timely information
disclosure to citizens by Union and State Public Authorities.
◎ Accountability & Transparency  It seeks to empower citizens and promote
accountability and transparency.
◎ Disclosure of Various Aspects  Public Authorities must disclose various aspects of
their structure and functioning under the Act.
◎ This includes 
○ Disclosure of their organization
○ Functions and structure
○ Powers and duties of its officers and employees
○ Financial information
○ Procedure followed in the decision-making process, including channels of
supervision and accountability, etc., among others.
◎ Section 4 of the Act  It calls for proactive disclosure of information by all
authorities so that the public has minimum resort to using this Act to obtain
information.
◎ Section 8 of the Act  It provides exceptions to the disclosure of information, on that
basis sharing of information can be denied.
◎ Exceptions under Section 8 of the RTI Act  The sharing of information can be denied
if the disclosure of information can prejudicially affect:
○ The sovereignty and integrity of India.
○ Security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State.
○ Relations with Foreign States.
○ Lead to incitement of an offense.
○ Information expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law the
disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court.
○ If the disclosure of information can cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or
the State Legislature
○ Information, including trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of
which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the
competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure
of such information.
○ Cabinet papers including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers,
Secretaries and other officers. (Material based on which decision was taken shall
be made public if not exempted).
○ Personal information, unless it serves a larger public interest.
◎ Section 8 (2)  It provides for disclosure of information exempted under the Official
Constitution Day
The Ministry of Law and Justice, celebrated Constitution Day at Vigyan
Bhavan, New Delhi, in a ceremony commemorating the adoption of the
Constitution on November 26, 1949.
👉
◎ India commemorates Constitution Day or
Samvidhan Divas on November 26. This day was
initially celebrated as Law Day but was officially
modified to Constitution Day by the Indian
government in 2015.
◎ Aim  Encourage people to follow Constitutional
values in their lives.
Constitution Day
◎ Adoption of Constitution  November 26 is the day when India adopted its

constitution in 1949.
◎ Enforcement  The Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950.
👉
◎ The Indian Constitution is completely hand-written and designed.
◎ Sh. Nand Lal Bose, a pioneer of modern Indian Art, designed the borders of every
page of the Constitution and adorned it with art pieces.
◎ Sh. Prem Behari Narain Raizada, a master of calligraphic art, singlehandedly
handwrote the Constitution.
Constitution Day
◎ The original manuscript of the Constitution was written on parchment sheets

measuring 16X22 inches having a lifespan of a thousand years! It weighed 3.75 kgs.
◎ The Indian Constitution’s name is borrowed from the US. Its positions and functions
is borrowed from the British Constitution
◎ The Constituent Assembly (CA) was set up in 1946 set up under the Cabinet Mission
Plan of 1946.
○ The Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, and elected Dr.
Sachhidanand Sinha, the oldest member of the Assembly as the Provisional
President.
○ On December 11, 1946, the Assembly elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as its
permanent Chairman.
Constitution Day
👉
◎ Dr. Ambedkar, the chairman of the drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly,
played a pivotal role in shaping the Indian Constitution.
◎ Contribution to Constitution  Dr. Ambedkar, known for championing the cause of
the downtrodden, led the committee that finalized the draft of the Indian
Constitution.
◎ The drafting process took 2 years, 11 months, and 17 days.
Privileges Committee Of Rajya Sabha
The Privileges Committee of Rajya Sabha was convened recently to discuss
unresolved complaints against Opposition MPs.
👉
◎ Mandate  The mandate of the committee is to examine
such cases and “make such recommendations as it may deem
fit”.
◎ It can call the relevant people and related documents as part
of its examination.
◎ It Submit a report and if the Council has not fixed any time for
its presentation, the report shall be presented within one
month of the date on which reference was made to the
Committee .
○ A motion has to be passed for the consideration of the report and amendments
can be suggested.
○ The Chairman or any member of the Committee or any other member can move
that the Council agrees, disagrees, or agrees with amendments, with the
recommendations contained in the report.
◎ Lok Sabha  It consists of 15 Members nominated by the Speaker.
privilege.
👉
◎ Rights and immunities  All Members of Parliament (MPs) and State Assembly
(MLAs) enjoy rights and immunities, individually and collectively, so that they can
discharge their duties and functions effectively.
◎ Breach of privilege  Any instance when these rights and immunities are
disregarded by any member of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha leads to the breach of
privilege which is punishable under the Laws of Parliament.
◎ Privilege Motion  Any member from either house can move a notice in the form
of a motion against the member who he/she thinks is guilty of the breach of
privilege.
○ Both Houses of the Parliament reserve the right to punish any action of
contempt (not necessarily breach of privilege) which is against its authority and
dignity, as per the laws.
◎ The right to raise a question of privilege is based on satisfying two conditions, namely

○ The question shall be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence, and
○ The matter requires the intervention of the Council.
◎ Significant Cases  In 1978, Indira Gandhi was expelled from the Loksabha for
breach of privilege against her following observations made by the Justice Shah
Commission, which probed excesses during the Emergency.
○ in 1976 the Rajya Sabha expelled Subramanian Swamy over charges of bringing
disrepute to Parliament through his activities through interviews in foreign
publications that were construed as “anti-India propaganda”.
Fast track courts for trying Sexual Offenses
The Union Cabinet on November 29 approved the continuation of fast-track
courts, dedicated to the dispensation of justice in cases of sexual offenses,
for a period of three years.
👉
● The Fast Track Special Court (FTSC), a
centrally sponsored scheme launched in
2019, will now be extended to March 31,
2026.
● Nodal Ministry  the Department of
Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice.
◎ Aim  It has established fast-track courts across the country, ensuring the swift
disposal of cases related to rape and those coming under the Protection of Children
from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act.
◎ Current Status  A total of 30 states and union territories have participated in the
scheme, operationalizing 761 fast-track courts, including 414 dedicated POCSO
courts, which have resolved over 1,95,000 cases together.
◎ Challenges  Only 754 of the 1,023 courts have been operational.
👉
◎ The Government has set up a dedicated fund Nirbhaya Fund following the tragedy
of the December 2012, Nirbhaya Rape Case.
◎ This can be utilized for projects specifically designed to improve the safety and
security of women.
◎ It is a non-lapsable corpus fund administered by the Department of Economic
Affairs, Ministry of Finance.
◎ The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is the nodal Ministry to
appraise/recommend proposals and schemes to be funded.
◎ MWCD further has the responsibility to review and monitor the progress of
sanctioned schemes in conjunction with the line Ministries/Departments.

Indian Polity भारतीय राजव्यवस्था Last 6 Month Current Affairs

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Indian Polity भारतीय राजव्यवस्था Last 6 Month Current Affairs

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

To Watch This Video

◎ Mode of providing legal aid 

◎ The Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur topped the innovation category.

Q. Consider the following Statements

Answer- (c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect

◎ Article 21 uses three crucial expressions 

Answer - (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III

What was the debate in the Constituent Assembly?

◎ The Governor also acts as an agent of the central government.

The Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DAPRG)

Recently, Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik at the Tribes Advisory

◎ Facts  The first motion of no confidence was moved by Acharya J B Kripalani in

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

(a) Committee on Government Assurances

Q. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts

◎ Key Provisions of the bill 

◎ Biosecurity  Includes new provisions for preventing the risk of introducing or

Consider the following statements:

Article Special Provision with respect to:

Article 371A Nagaland (13th Amendment Act, 1962)

Article 371B Assam (22nd Amendment Act, 1969)

Article 371C Manipur (27th Amendment Act, 1971)

Article 371F Sikkim (36th Amendment Act, 1975)

Article 371 G Mizoram (53rd Amendment Act, 1986)

Article 371 H Arunachal Pradesh (55th Amendment Act, 1986)

(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes

◎ Information about the educational qualifications of 4% of the MPs is not

The government has planned to discuss the Chief Election

● As per the bill, a search committee,

◎ Development  National Informatics Centre (NIC) in coordination with the

● The two terms "socialist" and "secular" were

(a) 1st Amendment

◎ Rajya Sabha  It consists of 10 members and is nominated by the Chairman of

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

(a) a simple majority of members present and voting

● require social media intermediaries

◎ It is not binding on the CJI to be a part of a Constitution Bench.

The Delhi High Court has found “large-scale infringement” in the

● Exercise of the Powers  Conferred by section

◎ Questions addressed to private Members 

◎ Why was Article 142 included in the Constitution? 

Q. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an

◎ Objective  To monitor and review important programs and projects of the

◎ Composition  Lok Sabha Ethics Committee- 15 members appointed by Speaker;

◎ Section 66  Penalises Hacking of a Computer System with malicious intentions

◎ Section 67A and 67B  Penalises publishing or transmission of material containing

◎ Jurisdiction  It extends over all Central Public Authorities.

◎ Powers And Functions Of Information Commissions:

• This is applicable in respect of any person belonging to the

• Constitutional provisions for citizenship (Part 2 of the Constitution)

• Section 6A of DSPE Act (inserted in 2003) required

Key highlights of SC judgment

◎ According to the guidelines, the DGP is to be selected by the State government

◎ Jurisdiction  It extends over all Central Public Authorities.

◎ Powers And Functions Of Information Commissions 

◎ The Committee of Privileges finally recommended the constitution of an Ethics

◎ Section 2 C says that Criminal Contempt means the publication (whether by

◎ Under this centrally sponsored scheme, 2,967 villages in 46 blocks of 19 districts

◎ Expansion of regulatory ambit  The Bill extends its regulatory purview to

◎ Indicator for Special Catogory Status 

◎ Benefits of Special Category Status 