(1) Circulatory system comprises of

• Heart, blood vessels and blood

• Heart, blood vessels and liver
• Brain, lung and pancreas
• Stomach, heart and blood vessels
• Kidneys, brain and skeletal muscles
(2) The heart and circulatory system have the vital roles in the body. They provide your body
• Oxygen
• Nutrients
• A way to get rid of waste
• Only (a) and (c)
• All of the above
(3) White blood cells contain a _______, while red blood cells do not
• Nucleus
• Hemoglobin
• Muscle fiber
• Red color
• Brain
(4) What links the arteries to the veins?
• Muscle
• Capillaries
• Aorta
• Liver
• Femoral vein
(5) Organ system of which transport nutrients and circulate blood is known as
• Ligament system
• Filament system
• Cartilage system
• Digestive system
• Circulatory system
(6) Cardiovascular system of humans and all other vertebrates is classified as
• Fibrous system
• Closed cardiovascular system
• Synovial system
• Open cardiovascular system
• Capsulated system
(7) Deoxygenated blood returned to heart in chamber called
• Left ventricle
• Right ventricle
• Right atrium
• Left atrium
• Aorta
(8) Circulation system which provides supply of blood to muscles of heart is
classified as
• Lymphatic circulation
• Coronary circulation
• Bronchial circulation
• Hepatic circulation
• Orbital
(9) Circulatory system is also known as
• Ligament system
• Filament system
• Cardiovascular system
• Cartilage system
 • Nervous system
(10) Endothelium is
• Elastic in nature
• Fully permeable
• Non-permeable
• Selectively permeable
• (a) and (c)
(11) Arteries carry oxygenated blood except

• Pulmonary
• Renal arteries
• Hepatic
• Cardiac
• Femoral

(12)A condition that occurs because of cardiovascular dysfunction and inability of

circulatory system to provide adequate oxygen and nutrients to meet the metabolic
demands of the vital organs is known as
• Air embolism
• Red Infarct
• Thrombosis
• Shock
• Hemorrhagic fever
(13)All are true about shock except

• Hypovolemic shock is the most common type. It results in inadequate circulating

blood volume
• Cardiogenic shock is caused when the heart fails to pump effectively
• Septic shock is caused by vasoconstriction in severe infection such as infection by
gram negative bacteria
• Anaphylactic shock is caused by a severe allergic reaction to an allergen
• Neurogenic shock can occur in the setting of anesthetic accident or a spinal cord
injury as a result of loss of vascular tone and peripheral pooling of blood

(14)Overwhelming infection and resulting vasodilation can lead to the following type of
shock

• Anaphylactic
• Cardiogenic
• Hypovolemic
• Septic
• Neurogenic shock
(15)Trauma to the spinal cord and resultant loss of autonomic and motor reflexes below
the injury level can lead to the following type of shock

(a) Cardiogenic
(b) Hypovolemic
(c) Neurogenic
(d) Septic
(e) Anaphylactic

(16)The skin is cool and clammy in the following type of shock

• Cardiogenic
 • Hypovolemic
• Neurogenic
• Septic
• Anaphylactic

(17)The net effects of compensatory mechanisms in initial non progressive phase of

shock include all except

• Tachycardia
• Peripheral vasoconstriction
• Bradycardia
• Renal conservation of fluid
• Cutaneous vasodilation present with warm, flushed skin in septic shock

(18)Vasodilation and resulting hypotension and increased capillary permeability is

characteristic of

• Anaphylactic shock
• Cardiogenic Shock
• Hypovolemic shock
• Septic Shock
• Anaphylactic shock

(19) A 15-year-old girl is admitted to the Emergency Ward with sudden onset of
severe shortness of breath, no chest pain, diffuse wheezing, cyanosis, and a BP of 70/30,
Pulse = 100. This event occurred soon after she ate nuts. What is the likely diagnosis?

• Acute pulmonary embolism

• Tension pneumothorax
• Anaphylaxis
• Myocardial infarction
• Bacillary dysentery

(20) Baroreceptors monitor blood pressure and help us to respond to shock. They are
located in

• Abdominal aorta
• Carotid arteries and aortic arch
• Brain and ventricular muscle tissue
• Brain and spinal cord
• Kidneys

(21) What feature distinguish the septic shock from hypovolemic shock

• Patients with septic shock will have warm flushed skin due to vasodilatation
• Patient with septic shock will present with cool skin due to vasoconstriction
• Patients with septic shock will present with bluish color of skin
• All of the above
• None of the above

(22) Anaphylactic shock is which type of hypersensitivity

• Type I
• Type II
• Type III
 • Type IV
• All of the above

23. What is true about Trichomonas Vaginalis

• Has 2 posterior Flagella
• Exists only as trophozoite
• Has 3 pairs of central nuclei
• Undulating membrane covers only anterior one third
• Trichomoniasis is caused by the cyst form
24. A 36 years old married female presented to gynecologist with complaints of watery, foul-
smelling greenish discharge accompanied with itching and burning. The organism exists only
in trophozoite form is
• Neisseria gonorrhea
• Candida albicans
• Chlamydia trachomatis
• Herpes Simplex
• Trichomonas vaginalis
25. Wet mount microscopy of vaginal discharge revealed pear shaped, flagellated organism
with typical jerky movement. The organism causes trichomoniasis in sexually active females.
What is that organism?
• Neisseria gonorrhea
• Trichomonas vaginalis
• Candida albicans
• Chlamydia trachomatis
• Herpes Simplex
26. Motility of Trichomonas vaginalis is described as
• jerky
• Amoeboid
• Rotatory
• Oscillatory
• Gliding
27. Trichomonas vaginalis is a
• Bacteria
• Prion
• Parasite
• Virus
• Fungus
28. Which protozoa exists only as Trophozoite and is sexually transmitted
• Entamoeba
• Trichomonas
• Cryptosporidium
• Giardia
• Trypanosoma
29. Trichomonas vaginalis is a cause of
• Trichomoniasis
• Traveler’s diarrhea
• Impetigo
• Meningitis
• Pharyngitis
30. The frequency of symptomatic Trichomoniasis is highest in
• Postmenopausal women
• Children below two years of age
• Males in their fifties
• Sexually active females in their thirties
 • Neonates
31. All are features associated with Trichomonas vaginalis except
• Pear shaped organism
• A central nucleus
• Both trophozoite and cyst form
• Four anterior flagella
• Jerky motility
32. Treatment of choice for Trichomoniasis is
• Ampicillin
• Sulfasalazine
• Riboflavin
• Clindamycin
• Metronidazole

33. Naegleria trophozoites enter into the body through

• Ingestion of contaminated sea food
• Mucosal membrane while swimming
• Ingestion of stored packed food
• Used syringes
• Cat feces

34. Naegleria fowleri is

• Protozoa
• Virus
• Bacteria
• Prion
• Fungus

35. Acanthamoeba castellanii is

• Virus
• Bacteria
• Prion
• Protozoa
• Fungus

36. Acanthamoeba causes

• Urinary tract infection
• Traveler’s diarrhea
• Hepatitis
 • Impetigo
• Keratitis

37. Naegleria fowleri causes

• Urinary tract infection
• Meningitis
• Traveler’s diarrhea
• Hepatitis
• Impetigo

38. Naegleria fowleri is

• Gram positive cocci
• Gram negative cocci
• Gram positive bacilli
• Gram negative bacilli
• Free living amoeba in warm fresh water

39. Acanthamoeba is
• Gram positive cocci
• Gram negative cocci
• Gram positive bacilli
• Gram negative bacilli
• Free living amoeba

40. Acanthamoeba castellanii causes keratitis in those who wear

• Gloves
• Shoe cover
• Contact lenses
• Facemask
• Glasses

41. Contamination with which of the following is the source of Acanthamoeba keratitis
• Bird feces
• Cat scratch
• Dog bite
• Tap water
• Mosquito bite

42. Acanthamoeba causes disease primarily in

• Immunocompromised individuals
• Healthy men
• Healthy neonates
• Healthy women
• Young boys with normal growth

(43) All of the following are known cause of Hepatitis except

• HAV
• HBV
• HCV
• Parvovirus B 19
• HDV

(44). Which of the following cause hepatitis but are not exclusively hepatitis viruses?
• Epstein Bar virus
 • Cytomegalovirus
• Yellow fever virus
• None of the above
• All of the above

(45). Which of the following hepatitis virus is a DNA virus?

• Hepatitis B virus
• Hepatitis C virus
• Hepatitis D virus
• Hepatitis A virus
• Hepatitis E virus

(46). Which of the following Hepatitis viruses are enveloped?

• Only HBV
• HAV
• HBV, HCV and HDV
• HEV
• Only HDV

(47). Which of the following Hepatitis viruses are non-enveloped?

• HAV and HEV
• HAV and HBV
• HEV and HDV
• HEV and HBV
• HCV and HBV

(48). Mode of transmission for Hepatitis A virus is

• Contaminated syringes
• Droplet infection
• Air born
• Fecal-oral
• Transplacental

(49). Mode of transmission for Hepatitis E virus is

• Contaminated syringes
• Fecal-oral
• Droplet infection
• Air born
• Transplacental

(50) HBe Antibody is an important indicator of

• Transmissibility
• Immunity
• Relapse
• Chronicity
• Subacute infection

(51) HBsAg is an important indicator of

• Only chronic carrier state
• Immunity
• Acute disease and chronic carrier state
• Window period
• Complete recovery
(52). HBsAg positive woman gives birth to a baby, which step should be taken for baby
• Give only Hepatitis B vaccine
• Give only Hepatitis B immune globulin
• Wait for the symptoms of hepatitis to develop
• No action needed
• Give both Hepatitis B immune globulin and Hepatitis B vaccine

(53). Escherichia coli is

• Gram positive cocci
• Gram negative cocci
• Gram positive bacilli
• Gram negative bacilli
• Acid fast bacilli

(54). All of the following diseases are caused by Escherichia coli except
• Urinary tract infection
• Pneumonia
• Traveler’s diarrhea
• Neonatal meningitis
• Hemolytic uremic syndrome

(55). The first step of Escherichia coli to cause intestinal infection is adherence of the organism
which is achieved by
• Pilli
• Glycocalyx
• Pseudopods
• Flagella
• Chemotaxis

(56). Shiga toxin is produces by

• Escherichia coli
• Salmonella typhi
• Campylobacter jejuni
• Vibrio cholera
• Entamoeba histolytica

(57). Escherichia coli is

• Straight Gram positive cocci
• Straight Gram negative cocci
• Straight acid fast bacilli
• Straight Gram positive bacilli
• Straight Gram negative bacilli

(58). On EMB agar Escherichia coli have typical

• Green sheen
• Brown sheen
• Red sheen
• Golden sheen
• Purple sheen

(59). Lactose negative organisms are colorless, whereas Escherichia coli which ferments
lactose forms
• Black colonies
• Pink colonies
 • Golden colonies
• Yellow colonies
• Blue colonies

(60). Escherichia coli is gram negative bacilli, under microscope Gram negative bacteria
appear
• Blue
• Black
• Yellow
• Green
• Pink

(61). All are true for Escherichia coli except

• It gram negative bacilli
• It is not a leading cause of urinary tract infection
• It is motile
• It causes bloody diarrhea
• It is a straight bacillus

(62). Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli causes

• Bloody diarrhea
• Urinary tract infection
• Pharyngitis
• Watery diarrhea
• Rheumatic fever

(63). Which of the following is wall-less microorganism?

• Staphylococci
• Streptococci
• Meningococci
• Mycoplasma
• Salmonella

(64). Which of the following are smallest free-living organisms?

• Mycoplasma
• Spirochetes
• Acid fast bacilli
• Staphylococci
• Enterobacteriaceae

(65). All of the following organisms cause primary atypical pneumonia except
• Legionella pneumophilia
• Salmonella Typhi
• Chlamydia pneumoniae
• Coxiella burnetii
• Mycoplasma

(66). Which of the following is the only bacteria which has cholesterol in bacterial membrane?
• Vibrio cholera
• Clostridium tetani
• Campylobacter jejuni
• Mycoplasma pneumoniae
• Streptococcus pyrogens
(67). Mycoplasma Pneumoniae is transmitted by
• Fecal-oral route
• Hand shaking
• Respiratory droplet
• Transplacental
• Needle stick injury
(68The immunoglobulin present mainly in secretions
• AIg G
• Ig A
• Ig M
• Ig E
• Ig D
(69)A condition that occurs because of cardiovascular dysfunction and inability of
circulatory system to provide adequate oxygen and nutrients to meet the metabolic
demands of the vital organs is known as
• Air embolism
• Red Infarct
• Thrombosis
• Shock
• Hemorrhagic fever

(70) (3). All of the following organisms cause primary atypical pneumonia except
• Legionella pneumophilia
• Salmonella Typhi
• Chlamydia pneumoniae
• Coxiella burnetii
• Mycoplasma

(72) ). Mycoplasma Pneumoniae is transmitted by

• Fecal-oral route
• Hand shaking
• Respiratory droplet
• Transplacental
• Needle stick injury

(73) Vasodilation and resulting hypotension and increased capillary permeability is

characteristic of

• Anaphylactic shock
• Cardiogenic Shock
• Hypovolemic shock
• Septic Shock
• Anaphylactic shock

(74) 3. Antibodies are

a. Proteins
b. Glycoproteins
c. Phospholipids
d. Carbohydrate
d. None of these
(75) Lactose negative organisms are colorless, whereas Escherichia coli which ferments
lactose forms
• Black colonies
• Pink colonies
• Golden colonies
• Yellow colonies
• Blue colonies

• (76) 61 Heavy Smoker with hoarseness vocal cord will show

a) Hyperplasia
b) Tumor
c) Atrophy
d) Necrosis
e) Metaplasia

• (77) 63 Most common cause of metaplasia

• a) Ultrasonography
b) Chronic irritation
c) Infection
d) Radiation
e) Smooking

(78) Natural killer cells

a. Belongs to B-cell lineage

b. Belongs to T-cell lineage
c. Display cytotoxic effect on tumour cell
d. Require previous antigen exposure for activation
e. Non of above

(79) In acute inflammation, all of the following are true except

• there is contraction of endothelial cells

• there is a mononuclear infiltrate
• there is induction of adhesion molecules on endothelium
• there is production of arachidonic acid metabolites
• cytokines induce a systemic acute phase response

(80) Hyperplasia
• Occures after partial hepatectomy

• Refers to an increase in the size of cells

• Is always a pathologic process

• Often occurs in cardiac and skeletal muscle

• Usually progresses to cancerous proliferation

10.10.2022 ANSWERS KEY OF MCQs OF SUPPLEMENTARY PAPER OF 3RD PROF. MBBS
1.Circulatory system and shock
1.a
2.e
3.a
4.b
5.e
6.b
7.c
8.b
9.c
10.d
11.a
2.Causes of shock, types, pathogenesis and compensatory mechanism
12.d
13.c
14.d
15.c
16.b
17.c
18.d
19.c
20.b
21.a
22.a
Trichomonas vaginalis
23.b
24. e
25. b
26. a
27. c
28. b
29. a
30 d
31. c
32. e

Acanthamoeba and Naegleria

33. b
34. a
35. d
36 e
37.b
38. e
39.e
40.c
41.d
42. a

Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E Viruses
43. d
44.e
45.a
46.c
47.a
48.d
49.b
50.a
51.c
52.e
Escherichia Coli
53.d
54.b
55.a
56.a
57.e
58.a
59.b
60.e
61.b
62.a
Rickettsiae and Mycoplasma
63.d
64.a
65.b
66.d
67.c
68.b
69.d
70.b
71. c
72.c
73. b
74. b.
75. b
76.a
77.b
78.c
79.b
80.a