BANK RD

MCQS OF 3 PROFESSION MBBS 2021 T0 2023 BMC QUETTA.

1.The heart and circulatory system have the vital roles in the body. They provide your body
• Oxygen
• Nutrients
• A way to get rid of waste
• Only (a) and (c)
2. Which of the statements regarding gram staining is wrong?

• Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because of the thick lipid layer

• Streptococcus pyogenes stains blue because of a thick peptidoglycan layer

• Escherichia coli stains pink because of a thin peptidoglycan layer

• Mycoplasma pneumoniae is not visible in the Gram’s stain because it has no cell wall
3. What links the arteries to the veins?
• Muscle
• Capillaries
• Aorta
• Liver

4. The functions of plasmid are

a. DNA replication
b. Protein synthesis
c. Cell wall synthesis
d. None of the above

(6) Cardiovascular system of humans and all other vertebrates is classified as

• Fibrous system
• Closed cardiovascular system
• Synovial system
• Open cardiovascular system
• Capsulated system

6. Virus will contain

a. Cell membrane
b. Cell wall
c. DNA
d. DNA or RNA
(8) Circulation system which provides supply of blood to muscles of heart is
classified as
• Lymphatic circulation
• Coronary circulation
• Bronchial circulation
• Hepatic circulation
• Orbital
8. The causative organism of cholera is

a. Vibrio Cholera
b. E.Coli
c. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
d. None of these

(10) Endothelium is
• Elastic in nature
• Fully permeable
• Non-permeable
• Selectively permeable
• (a) and (c)

10. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is

a. Thick
b. Lipids are present
c. Teichoic acids are absent
d. None of these

(2) The heart and circulatory system have the vital roles in the body. They provide your body
• Oxygen
• Nutrients
• A way to get rid of waste
• Only (a) and (c)
• All of the above

12. The bacterial cell multiplication is usually by

a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Conjugation
d. Binary-fission

(4) What links the arteries to the veins?

• Muscle
• Capillaries
• Aorta
• Liver
Femoral vein

14. The smallest virus is

a. Parvo virus
 b. Rhabdo virus
c. Pox virus
d. Adeno virus

(6) Cardiovascular system of humans and all other vertebrates is classified as

• Fibrous system
• Closed cardiovascular system
• Synovial system
• Open cardiovascular system
Capsulated system

16. DNA replicates during

a. G1 – phase
b. S – phase
c. G2 – phase
d. M – phase
(8) Circulation system which provides supply of blood to muscles of heart is
classified as
• Lymphatic circulation
• Coronary circulation
• Bronchial circulation
• Hepatic circulation
• Orbital

18 The antibody that is first formed after infection is

a. IgG
b. IgM (mlv)
c. IgD
d. IgE

(10) Endothelium is
• Elastic in nature
• Fully permeable
• Non-permeable
• Selectively permeable
• (a) and (c)

20. Antibody formation depends on

a. Age of the person

b. Amount of antigen
c. Well being of the person
d. All of the above
Causes of shock, types, pathogenesis and compensatory mechanism
2.All are true about shock except

• Hypovolemic shock is the most common type. It results in inadequate circulating

blood volume
• Cardiogenic shock is caused when the heart fails to pump effectively
• Septic shock is caused by vasoconstriction in severe infection such as
infection by gram negative bacteria
• Anaphylactic shock is caused by a severe allergic reaction to an allergen
Neurogenic shock can occur in the setting of anesthetic accident or a spinal cord injury as a result of loss
of vascular tone and peripheral pooling of blood
Answer C
4.Trauma to the spinal cord and resultant loss of autonomic and motor reflexes below the
injury level can lead to the following type of shock

(a) Cardiogenic
(b) Hypovolemic
(c) Neurogenic
(d) Septic
(e) Anaphylactic
Answer C
22. Antibodies are produced from

a. T-cells
b. b lymphocyte-cells
c. NK cells
d. Eosinophils
Answer.b produced from B type of lmphocytes

6.The net effects of compensatory mechanisms in initial non progressive phase of shock
include all except

• Tachycardia
• Peripheral vasoconstriction
• Bradycardia
• Renal conservation of fluid
.Cutaneous vasodilation present with warm, flushed skin in septic shock
Answer c and e
(10) Baroreceptors monitor blood pressure and help us to respond to shock. They are
located in

• Abdominal aorta
• Carotid arteries and aortic arch
• Brain and ventricular muscle tissue
• Brain and spinal cord
• Kidneys
Answer.B
24. Acquired immunity is
a. Natural
b. Artificial
 c. Active & Passive
d. All of these

(12) Anaphylactic shock is which type of hypersensitivity

• Type I
• Type II
• Type III
• Type IV
All of the above

Answer A

26. A performed mediator of inflammation is

• Prostaglandin

• Histamine

• Leukotriene

• Nitric Oxide

• Platelet Activating factor

Dr. Samia 3rd year

Trichomonas vaginalis
2. A 36 years old married female presented to gynecologist with complaints of watery, foul-
smelling greenish discharge accompanied with itching and burning. The organism exists only
in trophozoite form is
• Neisseria gonorrhea
• Candida albicans
• Chlamydia trachomatis
• Herpes Simplex
• Trichomonas vaginalis

28 Mononuclear phagocytes

• Are the predominant cells in three day old wounds

• Are common in liver, spleen and pancreas

• Produce fibroblast growth factor

• Secrete interferon Y

• Have a Half life of one day

4. Motility of Trichomonas vaginalis is described as

• jerky
• Amoeboid
• Rotatory
 • Oscillatory
• Gliding

30. Acute Compensatory mechanisms in shock include all of the following except

• Baroreceptor reflexes

• Reverse stress-relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

• The effects of increased aldosterone secretion

• Activation of the rennin-angiotensin system

• The central nervous system ischaemic response

6. Which protozoa exists only as Trophozoite and is sexually transmitted

• Entamoeba
• Trichomonas
• Cryptosporidium
• Giardia
Trypanosoma
32. Regarding metastasis

• All carcinomas have ability to metastasise

• Highly invasive carcinomas rarely metastasise

• Carcinomas typically spread via lymphatics compared with haematogenous spread

• Tumour cells develop increased cohesiveness of their cell surface in the formation of cancer cell
emboli

• Cells involved in lymohatic dissemination release degradative enzymes

8. The frequency of symptomatic Trichomoniasis is highest in

• Postmenopausal women
• Children below two years of age
• Males in their fifties
• Sexually active females in their thirties
• Neonates

34. In reversible cell injury, all are true except

• ATP depletion is responsible for acute cellular swelling

• Can cause myocardial cells to cease contraction within 60 seconds

• ATP is generated anaerobically from creatine phosphate

 • Mitochondrial swelling and degrandulation of ER are the hallmarks of irreversible cellular
damage

• Is associated with myelin figures

10.Treatment of choice for Trichomoniasis is

• Ampicillin
• Sulfasalazine
• Riboflavin
• Clindamycin
Metronidazole
36. In apoptosis

• It involves phyciologic and pathologic stimuli

• Histologically, it involves coagulation necrosis

• Its DNA breakdown is random and diffuse

• Its mechanism involves ATP depletion

• It involves an inflammatory tissue reaction

2. Naegleria fowleri is
• Protozoa
• Virus
• Bacteria
• Prion
• Fungus
Answer: a

38. Metastatic calcification

• Causes widespread tissue damage

• Occurs with normal calcium levels

• Can be caused by systemic sarcoidosis

• Occurs in hypothyroidism

• Is caused by drinking large quantities of milk

4. Acanthamoeba causes
• Urinary tract infection
• Traveler’s diarrhea
• Hepatitis
• Impetigo
. Keratitis
40. Neutrophilia is generally caused by all of the following except
 • Inflammatory disease

• Bacterial infection

• Viral infection

• Corticosteroids

• Stress

6. Naegleria fowleri is
• Gram positive cocci
• Gram negative cocci
• Gram positive bacilli
• Gram negative bacilli
• Free living amoeba in warm fresh water
Answer: e

42. With regard to the acute inflammatory response, which is the most common mechanism of vascular
leakage?

• Endothelial cell contraction

• Junctional retraction

• Direct injury

• Leukocyte-dependent leakage

• Regenerating endothelium

8. Acanthamoeba castellanii causes keratitis in those who wear

• Gloves
• Shoe cover
• Contact lenses
• Facemask
• Glasses
Answer: c

44. With regard to the role of complement in the acute inflammatory response, which of the following is
incorrect?

• C5a is a powerful, chemotactic agent for neutrophils, monocytes and eosinophils

• C5a increases leukocyte adhension to endothelium by activating leukocytes

• C3a and C5a are called anaphylatoxins because they cause mast cell degranulation

• C3a activates the lipoxygenase pathway in leukocytes

• C3 and C5 can be activated in inflammatory exudates by lysosomal enzymes

10. Acanthamoeba causes disease primarily in
• Immunocompromised individuals
• Healthy men
• Healthy neonates
• Healthy women
• Young boys with normal growth
Answer: a
(2). Which of the following cause hepatitis but are not exclusively hepatitis viruses?
• Epstein Bar virus
• Cytomegalovirus
• Yellow fever virus
• None of the above
• All of the above
Answer: e
46. Granulomatous inflammation

• May sometimes be a component of the acute inflammatory response

• Indicates the presence of tuberculosis

• Consists, in part, of microscopic aggregates of transformed lymophocytes

• Is always associated with the presence of gaint cells

• May result from non-immune mechanisms

(4). Which of the following Hepatitis viruses are enveloped?

• Only HBV
• HAV
• HBV, HCV and HDV
• HEV
• Only HDV
Answer: c

48. With regard to natural killer lymphocytes

• Constitute less than 5% of the blood lymphocytes

• Require opsonisation to enable their killing of cells

• Have a prime role in defense against parasites

• Require prior sensitization to be effective

• Have an innate ability to lyse tumour cells and virally affected cells

(6). Mode of transmission for Hepatitis A virus is

• Contaminated syringes
• Droplet infection
• Air born
• Fecal-oral
 • Transplacental
Answer: d
50. With respect to macrophages, which of the following is not true?

• They can produce TNF and IL4 both of which cause fever

• They have direct tissue toxicity due to the ability to release hydrogen peroxide

• They have oxygen dependent microbicidal activity they have cytotoxicity against tumour cells

• They process antigens and act as antigen presenting cells to activate lymphocyres

(8) HBe Antibody is an important indicator of

• Transmissibility(key)
• Immunity
• Relapse
• Chronicity
• Subacute infection
Answer: a

52. Metaplasia is seen in all of the following except

• Respiratory epithelium of cigarette smokers

• Vitamin A excess

• Barrett’s oesophagitis

• Epithelium of a pancreatic duct containing stones

• Foci of cell injury

(10). HBsAg positive woman gives birth to a baby, which step should be taken for baby
• Give only Hepatitis B vaccine
• Give only Hepatitis B immune globulin
• Wait for the symptoms of hepatitis to develop
• No action needed
• Give both Hepatitis B immune globulin and Hepatitis B vaccine
Answer: e
54. Which of the following is malignant? bmc

• Squamous cell papilloma

• Hydatidiform mole

• Chondroma

• Mature teratoma

• Bronchial Carcinoid
(2). All of the following diseases are caused by Escherichia coli except
• Urinary tract infection
• Pneumonia
• Traveler’s diarrhea
• Neonatal meningitis
• Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Answer: b

56. All of the following are precancerous except

• Chronic gastritis of pernicious anaemia

• Solar keratosis
• Crohn's disease (in pdf)
• Leukoplakia
• Chronic ulcerative colitis

(4). Shiga toxin is produces by

• Escherichia coli
• Salmonella typhi
• Campylobacter jejuni
• Vibrio cholera
• Entamoeba histolytica
Answer: a

58. Cellular events in acute inflammation include all of the following except

• redistribution of preformed adhesion molecules to the cell surface of leukocytes

• adhesion and transmigration of leukocytes to endothelium
• leukocyte activation
• margination of macrophages to vessel walls
• extracellular release of lysosomal enzymes and products of arachidonic acid Metabolism
(6). On EMB agar Escherichia coli have typical
• Green sheen
• Brown sheen
• Red sheen
• Golden sheen
• Purple sheen
Answer: a

60. Regarding hypersensitivity reactions which is not correct

• In anaphylaxis, IgE is bound to mast cells by their Fab portions to release vasoactive amines
• Goodpasture's syndrome is an example of type III hypersensitivity reaction
• Farmer's lung is a type III reaction to micropolyspora species
• Delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by macrophages
• The Mantoux reaction is a form of contact hypersensitivity
(8). Escherichia coli is gram negative bacilli, under microscope Gram negative bacteria appear
• Blue
• Black
 • Yellow
• Green
• Pink N(negative)...pink,,,,,P(positive)..purple
Answer: e

• 62..Dysplasia is a term used to describe

• a) Neoplastic proliferation
• b) Loss of architectural orientation
• c) Malignant changes
• d) All of the above
•
(10). Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli causes
• Bloody diarrhea
• Urinary tract infection
• Pharyngitis
• Watery diarrhea
• Rheumatic fever
Answer: a

64..Decrease in no of cell is called

• a) Hyperplasia
• b) Hypoplasia
• c) Hypotrophy
• d) Hypertrophy
•
• Rickettsiae and Mycoplasma
(2). Which of the following are smallest free-living organisms?,smallest virus=rhabdo virus
• Mycoplasma
• Spirochetes
• Acid fast bacilli
• Staphylococci
• Enterobacteriaceae
Answer: a

• 66.. Hypoxia is
• a) Low oxygen delivery to tissue
• b) High oxygen delivery to tissue
• c) High carbon dioxide (CO2) delivery to tissue
• d) All of above
•
(4). Which of the following is the only bacteria which has cholesterol in bacterial membrane?
• Vibrio cholera
• Clostridium tetani
• Campylobacter jejuni
• Mycoplasma pneumoniae
• Streptococcus pyrogens
Answer: d
 •

• 68 Fat necrosis occurs in

• a) Acute pancreatitis
• b) Heart
• c) Liver
• d) Kidney
18
The antibody which can cross the placenta is:pg
• Ig G
• Ig A
• Ig M
• Ig E
• Ig D
Answer: A

70 The form of cellular adaptation in which cell size decreases due to a decrease in workload is
a) Atrophy
• b) hypertrophy
• c) hyperplasia pdf option
• d) All of above
•
22
Pseudomonas aerginosa mainly found in soil and water. In human how much population carry it
in the normal flora of colon?
• 20%
• 10%
• 5%
• 25%
Answer: B

• 72 Regarding Amyloid
• a) Deposit of NA+ in Cell
• b) Misfolded protein that deposit in extracellular space
• c) Deposit of Cat+ ions in cells
• d) None of above
•
(12).
The most important antigen presenting cell in the body is:
• Macrophages
• Natural killer cells
• T lymphocytes
• Dendritic / Langerhans’ cells
Answer: D

• 74 Cellular adaptation that occurs due to an increase in workload that result in an increase in the
number of cells is called as
• a) Atrophy
• b) Hypertrophy
• c) hyperplasia
• d) dysplasia
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

BOLAN UNIVERSITY OF MEDICAL AND HEALTH SCIENCES,QUETTA

EXAMINATION DEPARTMENT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS MCQs.

Examination Roll No: ____ Dated: ________Theory Paper 31.8.2022 Viva 5.9.2022 to 10.9.2022_______
_____________________________________________________________________________________

Subject General Pathology 3RD Professional MBBS Total marks:120

(Session 2018-2019) Annual Duration: 90 Minutes
Directions: 1. Attempt all questions
2. All Questions carry equal marks
3. There will be no negative marking

1. In reversible cell injury, all are true except

a.ATP depletion is responsible for acute cellular swelling

b.Can cause myocardial cells to cease contraction within 60 seconds

c.ATP is generated anaerobically from creatine phosphate

d.Mitochondrial swelling and degrandulation of ER are the hallmarks of irreversible cellular

damage
2. Metaplasia

• Is irreversible

• Is commonly a change from squamous to columnar epithelium

• An example is the transformation of epithelial cells into chondroblasts to produce cartilage

• Retinoids may play a role

3.. In apoptosis

• It involves phyciologic and pathologic stimuli

• Histologically, it involves coagulation necrosis

• Its DNA breakdown is random and diffuse

• Its mechanism involves ATP depletion

4.. Hyperplasia

• Occures after partial hepatectomy

• Refers to an increase in the size of cells

• Is always a pathologic process

• Often occurs in cardiac and skeletal muscle

5. Metastatic calcification

• Causes widespread tissue damage

• Occurs with normal calcium levels

• Can be caused by systemic sarcoidosis

• Occurs in hypothyroidism

6. Prothrombotic characteristics of endothelium include

• Plasminogen activator

• Prostacyclin
 • Von Willebrand factor

• Thrombomodulin

7. Neutrophilia is generally caused by all of the following except

• Inflammatory disease

• Bacterial infection

• Viral infection

• Corticosteroids

8. First line of body defence is

a. Antibody molecules
b. Unbroken skin
c. Antigen molecules
d. Phagocytic cells

9. The antibody that is first formed after infection is

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgE

10. Active immunity is induced by

a. Infection
b. Placental transfer of antibodies
c. Injection of antibodies
d. Injection of gamma- globulins

11. Antibody formation depends on

a. Age of the person

b. Amount of antigen
c. Well being of the person
d. All of the above

12. T-cells are produced from

a. Bone marrow
 b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. None of these

13. Antibodies are produced from

a. T-cells
b. B-cells
c. NK cells
d. Eosinophils

14. Antibodies are

a. Proteins
b. Glycoproteins
c. Phospholipids
d. None of these

15. Acquired immunity is

a. Natural
b. Artificial
c. Active & Passive
d. All of these

16. The following are primary mediators of type I hypersensitivity reactions except

• Adenosine

• Neutrophil chemotactic factor

• Heparin

• Platelet activating factor

17. HIV Infaction

• Is caused by rhinovirus

• Results in increased CD4 and T cell memory

• Results in inversion at the CD4-CD8 ratio

• Increases immature precursors of CD4 and T cells

18. Platelets
 • have a normal concentration range in peripheral blood of 80-100 x 103/mm3
• are important in haemostasis only
• remain viable in stored blood for 24 hours only
• normally are removed from the circulation almost entirely by the spleen

19. Regarding hypersensitivity reactions

• In anaphylaxis, IgE is bound to mast cells by their Fab portions to release vasoactive amines
• Goodpasture's syndrome is an example of type III hypersensitivity reaction
• Farmer's lung is a type III reaction to micropolyspora species
• Delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by macrophages

20. With regard to apoptosis, which of the following is incorrect?

• It may be regarded as a normal physiological process

• It is characterized by chromatin condensation

• It often elicits a strong inflammatory response

• It is the process by which ovaries atrophy in post menopausal women

21. With regard to the acute inflammatory response, which is the most common mechanism of vascular
leakage?

• Endothelial cell contraction

• Junctional retraction

• Direct injury

• Leukocyte-dependent leakage

22. With regard to cellular injury, all of the following are reversible except

• Decreased ATP

• Intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes

• Decreased Na pump activity

• Detachment of ribosomes

23. With regard to the role of complement in the acute inflammatory response, which of the following is
incorrect?
 • C5a is a powerful, chemotactic agent for neutrophils, monocytes and eosinophils

• C5a increases leukocyte adhension to endothelium by activating leukocytes

• C3a and C5a are called anaphylatoxins because they cause mast cell degranulation

• C3a activates the lipoxygenase pathway in leukocytes

24. Virus will contain

a. Cell membrane
b. Cell wall
c. DNA
d. DNA or RNA

25. Erythrocytes will get its ATP energy only by

a. Glycolysis
b. Kreb’s cycle
c. Electron Transport
d. HMP shunt

26. The causative organism of cholera is

a. Vibrio Cholera
b. E.Coli
c. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
d. None of these

27. Diphtheria is caused by

a. Corynebacterium
b. Staphylococcus
c. Streptococcus
d. None of these

28. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is

a. Thick
b. Lipids are present
c. Teichoic acids are absent
d. None of these

29. Coagulative necrosis

 • Results from necrosis in which cellular enzymatic digestion predominates over denaturation

• Is characterized by a marked leukocytic infiltrate

• Is uncommon after myocardial infarction

• Usually occurs after irreversible ischaemic cellular damage

30. Granulomatous inflammation

• May sometimes be a component of the acute inflammatory response

• Indicates the presence of tuberculosis

• Consists, in part, of microscopic aggregates of transformed lymophocytes

• May result from non-immune mechanisms

31. In a healthy individual over the age of 5 years, lymphocytes are mainly found in

• Bone marrow, thymus, spleen

• Liver, thymus, spleen

• Lymph nodes, spleen, thymus

• Bone marrow, spleen, liver

32. With regard to natural killer lymphocytes

• Constitute less than 5% of the blood lymphocytes

• Require opsonisation to enable their killing of cells

• Have a prime role in defense against parasites

• Have an innate ability to lyse tumour cells and virally affected cells

33. With regard to B lymphocytes

• They constitute 50% of circulating lymphocytes

• They are found in germinal centres in the red pulp of the spleen

• They are genetically programmed to recognize specific antigens by means of antigen specific
cell surface receptors

• They are not affected by HIV infection

34. With respect to macrophages, which of the following is not true?

 • They can produce TNF and IL4 both of which cause fever

• They have direct tissue toxicity due to the ability to release hydrogen peroxide

• They have oxygen dependent microbicidal activity they have cytotoxicity against tumour cells

• They process antigens and act as antigen presenting cells to activate lymphocyres

35. The prokaryotic cell membrane

• Contains metabolic enzymes

• Is selectively permeable

• Regulates the entry and exit of materials

• Contains proteins and phospholipids

36. Which of the statements regarding gram staining is wrong?

• Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because of the thick lipid layer

• Streptococcus pyogenes stains blue because of a thick peptidoglycan layer

• Escherichia coli stains pink because of a thin peptidoglycan layer

• Mycoplasma pneumoniae is not visible in the Gram’s stain because it has no cell wall
37. Prokaryotic cells are more resistant to osmotic shock than eukaryotic cells because

• Their cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan

• They are selectively permeable

• They contain osmoregulating porins

• d.They block water molecules from entering the cell

38. The functions of plasmid are

a. DNA replication
b. Protein synthesis
c. Cell wall synthesis
d. None of the above

39. Endotoxin produced by gramnegative bacteria is present in

a. Peptidoglycan
b. Lippolysacharide
c. Theichoic acid
d. Inner membrane
40. Mediators of septic shock include all of the following except

• IL6

• C5a

• PAF

• TNF antibodies

41. Metaplasia is seen in all of the following except

• Respiratory epithelium of cigarette smokers

• Vitamin A excess

• Barrett’s oesophagitis

• Epithelium of a pancreatic duct containing stones

42. Which of the following tumour is benign

• Chondroasarcoma

• Osteochondroma

• Chondroblastoma

• Ewing’s tumour

43. Which of the following is malignant? bmc

• Squamous cell papilloma

• Hydatidiform mole

• Chondroma

• Bronchial Carcinoid

44. Natural killer cells

a. Belongs to B-cell lineage

b. Belongs to T-cell lineage
c. Display cytotoxic effect on tumour cell
d. Require previous antigen exposure for activation

45. A performed mediator of inflammation is

 • Prostaglandin

• Histamine

• Leukotriene

• Nitric Oxide

46. In Normal Hemostasis

• Factor V inhabits thrombosis

• Alpha 2 Microglobulin is antithrombotic

• PGI2 favours platelet aggregation

• Platelet aggregation is inhabitied by von Willebrand factor

47. Mononuclear phagocytes

• Are the predominant cells in three day old wounds

• Are common in liver, spleen and pancreas

• Produce fibroblast growth factor

• Secrete interferon Y

48. Interleukin I Cause

• Neutropaenia

• Decreased Sleep

• Decreased Prostanglandin synthesis

• Increased Collagen synthesis

49. Acute Compensatory mechanisms in shock include all of the following except

• Baroreceptor reflexes
 • Reverse stress-relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

• The effects of increased aldosterone secretion

• Activation of the rennin-angiotensin system

• 50. Apoptosis refer to

• a. Genetically programmed cell death
• b. Decrease in size of cell
• c. Increase in no of cell
• d. Increase in size of cell

• 51.Regarding Amyloid
• a. Deposit of NA+ in Cell
• b. Misfolded protein that deposit in extracellular space
• c. Deposit of Cat+ ions in cells
• d. None of above
•

• 52. Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of inflammation

• a. Redness
• b. Fever
• c. Pain
• d. Pallor
•

• 53.Cellular adaptation that occurs due to an increase in workload that result in an increase in the
number of cells is called as
• a.Atrophy
• b.Hypertrophy
• c. hyperplasia
• d. dysplasia
•

• 54.First response to vessel injury is

• a. Activation of extrinsic pathway
• b. Activation of intrinsic pathway
• c. Platelets activation
d.Vessel Vasoconstriction
55. Anaplasia is not characterised by

• Pleomorphism
• Abundant nuclear DNA
• A nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio of 1:6
• Coarsely clumped chromatin

56. All of the following are precancerous except

• Chronic gastritis of pernicious anaemia

• Solar keratosis
• Crohn's disease
• Leukoplakia

57. In acute inflammation, all of the following are true except

• there is contraction of endothelial cells

• there is a mononuclear infiltrate
• there is induction of adhesion molecules on endothelium
• there is production of arachidonic acid metabolites

58. Cellular events in acute inflammation include all of the following except

• redistribution of preformed adhesion molecules to the cell surface of leukocytes

• adhesion and transmigration of leukocytes to endothelium
• leukocyte activation
• margination of macrophages to vessel walls

59. Regarding metastasis

• All carcinomas have ability to metastasise

• Highly invasive carcinomas rarely metastasise

• Carcinomas typically spread via lymphatics compared with haematogenous spread

• Cells involved in lymohatic dissemination release degradative enzymes (key)

60. Autolysis is done by

a. Mitochondria
b. Lysosomes
c. Golgi bodies
d. Peroxisomes

61. The bacterial cell multiplication is usually by

a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Conjugation
d. Binary-fission

62. The Largest virus is

a. Parvo virus
b. Pox virus
c. Rhabdo virus
d. None of these

63. The smallest virus is

a. Parvo virus
b. Rhabdo virus
c. Pox virus
d. Adeno virus

64. Opsonin is the

a. Cell wall component

b. Plasma component
c. Serum component
d. Cytoplasm component

65. DNA replicates during

a. G1 – phase
b. S – phase
c. G2 – phase
d. M – phase

• 66 . Heavy Smoker with hoarseness vocal cord will show

 a. Hyperplasia
b. Tumor
c. Atrophy
d. Necrosis
•

• 67. Dysplasia is a term used to describe

a. Neoplastic proliferation
b. Loss of architectural orientation
c. Malignant changes
d. All of the above
•

• 68. Most common cause of metaplasia

• a. Ultrasonography
b. Chronic irritation
c. Infection
d. Radiation
•

• 69. Decrease in no of cell is called

a. Hyperplasia
b. Hypoplasia
c. Hypotrophy
d. Hypertrophy
•

• 70. Most common cause of atrophy

a. Denervation
b. Hard plaster of paris
c. Loss of arterial supply
d. None of above
•

• 71.Hypoxia is
a. Low oxygen delivery to tissue
b. High oxygen delivery to tissue
c. High carbon dioxide (CO2) delivery to tissue
d. All of above
•

• 72. Aplasia is
 a. Failure of cell production during embroyogenesis
b. Decrease in size of cell
c. Increase in no of cells
d. None of above
•

• 73. Fat necrosis occurs in

• a. Acute pancreatitis
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Kidney

• 74. Hypoxic death leads to

a. Coagulative necrosis
b. Liquafactive necrosis
c. Caseous necrosis
d. Cell death but not necrosis
•

75. The form of cellular adaptation in which cell size decreases due to a decrease in workload is
a. Atrophy
b. Hypertrophy
c. Hyperplasia key answer
d. All of above

76. Mode of transmission for Hepatitis A virus is

a. Contaminated syringes
b.Droplet infection
c.Air born
d.Fecal-oral

77. Disease like polio, whooping cough, measles, mumps, etc. can be avoided by
a. medicine
b. vaccination
c. precaution
d. natural remedies

78. The most important antigen presenting cell in the body is:
• Macrophages
• Natural killer cells
• T lymphocytes
 • Dendritic / Langerhans’ cells

79.All are true about Ascaris lumbricoides except

• Common parasite of humans.
• Flourishes in warm, moist climates.
c. The eggs may remain viable in warm soil for many years.
d. Use of well cooked vegetables is common source of infection.

80.Immunoglubins are made which type of protein.

• beta
• gamma
• alpha
• theta

(3) White blood cells contain a _______, while red blood cells do not
• Nucleus
• Hemoglobin
• Muscle fiber
• Red color
• Brain

3. Prokaryotic cells are more resistant to osmotic shock than eukaryotic cells because

• Their cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan

• They are selectively permeable

• They contain osmoregulating porins

• They block water molecules from entering the cell

(5) Organ system of which transport nutrients and circulate blood is known as
• Ligament system
• Filament system
• Cartilage system
• Digestive system
• Circulatory system

5. Endotoxin produced by gram negative bacteria is present in

a. Peptidoglycan
b. Lippolysacharide
c. Theichoic acid
 d. Inner membrane
(7) Deoxygenated blood returned to heart in chamber called
• Left ventricle
• Right ventricle
• Right atrium
• Left atrium
• Aorta

(9) Circulatory system is also known as

• Ligament system
• Filament system
• Cardiovascular system
• Cartilage system
• Nervous system

9. Diphtheria is caused by

a. Corynebacterium
b. Staphylococcus
c. Streptococcus
d. None of these

(11) Arteries carry oxygenated blood except

• Pulmonary
• Renal arteries
• Hepatic
• Cardiac
• Femoral

11. Autolysis is done by

a. Mitochondria
b. Lysosomes
c. Golgi bodies
d. Peroxisomes

Causes of shock, types, pathogenesis and compensatory mechanism

• A condition that occurs because of cardiovascular dysfunction and inability of
circulatory system to provide adequate oxygen and nutrients to meet the metabolic
demands of the vital organs is known as
• Air embolism
• Red Infarct
• Thrombosis
• Shock
• Hemorrhagic fever
13. The Largest virus is

a. Parvo virus
b. Pox virus
c. Rhabdo virus
d. None of these

3.Overwhelming infection and resulting vasodilation can lead to the following type of shock

• Anaphylactic
• Cardiogenic
• Hypovolemic
• Septic
• Neurogenic shock

15. Opsonin is the

a. Cellwall component
b. Plasma component
c. Serum component
d. Cytoplasm component

5.The skin is cool and clammy in the following type of shock

• Cardiogenic
• Hypovolemic
• Neurogenic
• Septic
• Anaphylactic
17. First line of body defence is

a. Antibody molecules
b. Unbroken skin
c. Antigen molecules
d. Phagocytic cells

7.Vasodilation and resulting hypotension and increased capillary permeability is characteristic

of

• Anaphylactic shock
• Cardiogenic Shock
• Hypovolemic shock
• Septic Shock
• Anaphylactic shock

19. Active immunity is induced by

 a. Infection
b. Placental transfer of antibodies
c. Injection of antibodies
d. Injection of gamma- globulins

(9) A 15-year-old girl is admitted to the Emergency Ward with sudden onset of
severe shortness of breath, no chest pain, diffuse wheezing, cyanosis, and a BP of 70/30,
Pulse = 100. This event occurred soon after she ate nuts. What is the likely diagnosis?

• Acute pulmonary embolism

• Tension pneumothorax
• Anaphylaxis
• Myocardial infarction
Bacillary dysentery

21. T-cells are produced from

a. Bonemarrow
b. Thymus
c. Spleen
d. None of these

(11) What feature distinguish the septic shock from hypovolemic shock

• Patients with septic shock will have warm flushed skin due to vasodilatation
• Patient with septic shock will present with cool skin due to vasoconstriction
• Patients with septic shock will present with bluish color of skin
• All of the above
• None of the above

23. Antibodies are

a. Proteins
b. Glycoproteins
c. Phospholipids
d. None of these

From Dr. Samia 3rd year

Trichomonas vaginalis
1. What is true about Trichomonas Vaginalis
• Has 2 posterior Flagella
• Exists only as trophozoite
• Has 3 pairs of central nuclei
• Undulating membrane covers only anterior one third
 • Trichomoniasis is caused by the cyst form

25. Natural killer cells

a. Belongs to B-cell lineage

b. Belongs to T-cell lineage
c. Display cytotoxic effect on tumour cell
d. Require previous antigen exposure for activation

3. Wet mount microscopy of vaginal discharge revealed pear shaped, flagellated organism
with typical jerky movement. The organism causes trichomoniasis in sexually active females.
What is that organism?
• Neisseria gonorrhea
• Trichomonas vaginalis
• Candida albicans
• Chlamydia trachomatis
• Herpes Simplex

27. In Normal Hemostasis

• Factor V inhabits thrombosis

• Alpha 2 Microglobulin is antithrombotic

• PGI2 favours platelet aggregation

• Platelet aggregation is inhabitied by von Willebrand factor

• Tissue Plasmonigen activator is responsible for prothrombotic events

5. Trichomonas vaginalis is a
• Bacteria
• Prion
• Parasite
• Virus
• Fungus

29. Interleukin I Cause

• Neutropaenia

• Decreased Sleep

• Decreased Prostanglandin synthesis

• Increased Collagen synthesis

• Decreased Leukocyte adherence

7. Trichomonas vaginalis is a cause of
• Trichomoniasis
• Traveler’s diarrhea
• Impetigo
• Meningitis
Pharyngitis

31. The following are primary mediators of type I hypersensitivity reactions except

• Adenosine

• Neutrophil chemotactic factor

• Heparin

• Platelet activating factor

• Acid hydrolases

9. All are features associated with Trichomonas vaginalis except

• Pear shaped organism
• A central nucleus
• Both trophozoite and cyst form
• Four anterior flagella
Jerky motility

33. HIV Infaction

• Is caused by rhinovirus

• Results in increased CD4 and T cell memory

• Results in inversion at the CD4-CD8 ratio

• Increases immature precursors of CD4 and T cells

• Causes a CD4-CD8 ratio close to 2

Acanthamoeba and Naegleria

1. Naegleria trophozoites enter into the body through

• Ingestion of contaminated sea food
• Mucosal membrane while swimming
• Ingestion of stored packed food
• Used syringes
• Cat feces
Answer: b
35. Metaplasia

• Is irreversible

• Is commonly a change from squamous to columnar epithelium

• An example is the transformation of epithelial cells into chondroblasts to produce cartilage

• Retinoids may play a role

• Even if the stimuli is persistent, it is a benign lesion

3. Acanthamoeba castellanii is
• Virus
• Bacteria
• Prion
• Protozoa
• Fungus
Answer: d

37. Hyperplasia

• Occures after partial hepatectomy

• Refers to an increase in the size of cells

• Is always a pathologic process

• Often occurs in cardiac and skeletal muscle

• Usually progresses to cancerous proliferation

5. Naegleria fowleri causes

• Urinary tract infection
• Meningitis
• Traveler’s diarrhea
• Hepatitis
• Impetigo
Answer: b
39. Prothrombotic characteristics of endothelium include

• Plasminogen activator

• Prostacyclin

• Von Willebrand factor

• Thrombomodulin

• Heparin like molecules

7. Acanthamoeba is
 • Gram positive cocci
• Gram negative cocci
• Gram positive bacilli
• Gram negative bacilli
• Free living amoeba ,(protozoa)
Answer: e

41. With regard to apoptosis, which of the following is incorrect?

• It may be regarded as a normal physiological process

• It is characterized by chromatin condensation

• It often elicits a strong inflammatory response

• It is the process by which ovaries atrophy in post menopausal women

• It is characterized by cell shrinkage

• Regenerating endothelium

9. Contamination with which of the following is the source of Acanthamoeba keratitis

• Bird feces
• Cat scratch
• Dog bite
• Tap water
• Mosquito bite
Answer: d
43. With regard to cellular injury, all of the following are reversible except

• Decreased ATP

• Intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes

• Decreased Na pump activity

• Detachment of ribosomes

• ER swelling

Hepatitis A, B, C, D, E Viruses

(1) All of the following are known cause of Hepatitis except

• HAV
• HBV
• HCV
• Parvovirus B 19
• HDV
Answer: d
45. Coagulative necrosis

• Results from necrosis in which cellular enzymatic digestion predominates over denaturation

• Is characterized by a marked leukocytic infiltrate

• Is uncommon after myocardial infarction

• Usually occurs after irreversible ischaemic cellular damage

• Is not usually seenin association with caseous necrosis

(3). Which of the following hepatitis virus is a DNA virus?

• Hepatitis B virus
• Hepatitis C virus
• Hepatitis D virus
• Hepatitis A virus
• Hepatitis E virus
Answer: a
47. In a healthy individual over the age of 5 years, lymphocytes are mainly found in

• Bone marrow, thymus, spleen

• Liver, thymus, spleen

• Lymph nodes, spleen, thymus

• Bone marrow, spleen, liver

• Liver, spleen, pancreas

(5). Which of the following Hepatitis viruses are non-enveloped?

• HAV and HEV
• HAV and HBV
• HEV and HDV
• HEV and HBV
• HCV and HBV
Answer: a

49. With regard to B lymphocytes

• They constitute 50% of circulating lymphocytes

• They are found in germinal centres in the red pulp of the spleen

• They are genetically programmed to recognize specific antigens by means of antigen specific
cell surface receptors

• They release chemical mediator when attached to igE Type I hypersensitivity reactions
 • They are not affected by HIV infection

(7). Mode of transmission for Hepatitis E virus is

• Contaminated syringes
• Fecal-oral (A OR E MODE OF TRANSMISSION FECAL-ORAL)
• Droplet infection
• Air born
• Transplacental
Answer: b
51. Mediators of septic shock include all of the following except

• IL6

• C5a

• PAF

• Catecholamines

• TNF antibodies

(9) HBsAg is an important indicator of

• Only chronic carrier state
• Immunity
• Acute disease and chronic carrier state
• Window period
C Answer: c omplete recovery

53. Which of the following tumour is benign

• Chondroasarcoma

• Osteochondroma

• Chondroblastoma

• Ewing’s tumour

• None of the above

Escherichia Coli

(1). Escherichia coli is

• Gram positive cocci
• Gram negative cocci
• Gram positive bacilli
• Gram negative bacilli
• Acid fast bacilli
Answer: d

55. Anaplasia is not characterised by

• Pleomorphism
• Abundant nuclear DNA
• A nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio of 1:6
• Coarsely clumped chromatin
• Lack of differentiation
(3). The first step of Escherichia coli to cause intestinal infection is adherence of the organism
which is achieved by
• Pilli
• Glycocalyx
• Pseudopods
• Flagella
• Chemotaxis
Answer: a

57. In acute inflammation, all of the following are true except

• there is contraction of endothelial cells

• there is a mononuclear infiltrate
• there is induction of adhesion molecules on endothelium
• there is production of arachidonic acid metabolites
• cytokines induce a systemic acute phase response
(5). Escherichia coli is
• Straight Gram positive cocci
• Straight Gram negative cocci
• Straight acid fast bacilli
• Straight Gram positive bacilli
• Straight Gram negative bacilli
Answer: e

59. Platelets

• have a normal concentration range in peripheral blood of 80-100 x 103/mm3

• are important in haemostasis only
• remain viable in stored blood for 24 hours only
• normally are removed from the circulation almost entirely by the spleen
• have an average lifespan of average 20 days

(7). Lactose negative organisms are colorless, whereas Escherichia coli which ferments lactose
forms
• Black colonies
• Pink colonies(gram negative)
• Golden colonies
• Yellow colonies
• Blue colonies
Answer: b
• 61 Heavy Smoker with hoarseness vocal cord will show
• a) Hyperplasia
• b) Tumor
• c) Atrophy
• d) Necrosis
•

(9). All are true for Escherichia coli except

• It gram negative bacilli
• It is not a leading cause of urinary tract infection
• It is motile
• It causes bloody diarrhea
• It is a straight bacillus
Answer: b
•

• 63 Most common cause of metaplasia

• a) Ultrasonography
• b) Chronic irritation
• c) Infection
• d) Radiation
•
Rickettsiae and Mycoplasma

(1). Which of the following is wall-less microorganism?

• Staphylococci
• Streptococci
• Meningococci
• Mycoplasma
• Salmonella
Answer: d

• 65 Most common cause of atrophy

• a) Denervation
• b) Hard plaster of paris
• c) Loss of arterial supply
• d) None of above
•

•
(3). All of the following organisms cause primary atypical pneumonia except
• Legionella pneumophilia
• Salmonella Typhi
• Chlamydia pneumoniae
• Coxiella burnetii
• Mycoplasma
Answer: b
•
• 67 Aplasia is
• a) Failure of cell production during embroyogenesis
• b) Decrease in size of cell
• c) Increase in no of cells
• d) None of above
•

(5). Mycoplasma Pneumoniae is transmitted by

• Fecal-oral route
• Hand shaking
• Respiratory droplet
• Transplacental
• Needle stick injury
Answer: c
• 69 Hypoxic death leads to
• a) Coagulative necrosis
• b) Liquafactive necrosis
• c) Caseous necrosis
• d) Cell death but not necrosis
•

17
The immunoglobulin present mainly in secretions(sac)
• Ig G
• Ig A
• Ig M
• Ig E
• Ig D
Answer: B
•
• 71 Apoptosis refer to
• a) Genetically programmed cell death
• b) Decrease in size of cell
• c) Increase in no of cell
• d) Increase in size of cell
•
19
Which immunoglobulin class mediate anaphylactic reaction?
• Ig G
• Ig A
• Ig M
• Ig E
 • Ig D
Answer: D

• 73 Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of inflammation

• a) Redness
• b) Fever
• c) Pain
• d) Pallor
•

21
Identify the micro-organism which is motile, catalase and oxidase positive, gram negative rod
frequently found in water and has grape-like odour
• Clostridium difficle
• Pseudomonas aeruginosa
• Klebsiella
• Helicobacter pylori
Answer: B

• 75 First response to vessel injury is

• a) Activation of extrinsic pathway
• b) Activation of intrinsic pathway
• c) Platelets activation
• d) Vessel Vasoconstriction

•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•
•

BOLAN UNIVERSITY OF MEDICAL AND HEALTH SCIENCES,QUETTA

 EXAMINATION DEPARTMENT
Short answer questions (SAQs)

Examination Roll No: ____________________ Dated: _Theory 31.8.2022

and Practical Viva 5.9.2022 to 10.9.2022_______________
_____________________________________________________________________________________

Subject General Pathology 3RD Professional MBBS Total marks:30

(Session 2018-2019) Annual Duration:30 Minutes
Directions: 1. Attempt all questions
2. All Questions carry equal marks
______________________________________________________________________________
Q 1.Define inflammation, classify inflammation,Enumurate causes of inflammation?

Q 2.What is cell injury,types of cell injury,pathogenesis of cell injury?

Q 3.Enumurate the cell derived and plasma derived chemical mediators of inflammation?

Q 4 .Define shock,what are causes of shock,what is pathogenesis of anaphylactic shock?

Q 5.Classify bacteria,what is the difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria?
•