GENERAL VETERINARY PATHOLOGY REVIEWER

MFCampaňano2023

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Write the letter of the best answer.

1. Which statement is TRUE?

a. The capillary endothelium acts as a semipermeable membrane and highly permeable to
all solutes in plasma including proteins since proteins in plasma and interstitial fluid
are especially important in controlling plasma & interstitial fluid volume.
b. The interstitial fluid colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure causes osmosis of fluid inward
through the capillary membrane from the interstitium caused by the presence of plasma
proteins.
c. Endothelial injury is the most important factor among the Virchow’s triad in
thrombus formation.
d. Stasis is not a factor in the development of venous thrombi while turbulence
contributes to arterial & cardiac thrombosis.

2. Which statement is NOT TRUE about tissue fixation?

a. It is achieved by putting the collected tissue blocks in 10% formaldehyde for at least
24 hours.- TRUE
b. The best way to fix tissues for cytological process is with the use of 10% (95%)
formaldehyde.
c. It can be done in solid samples and in liquid samples such as pus. TRUE
d. It can prevent autolysis, bacterial decomposition and putrefaction.TRUE

3. The Starling’s law of the capillaries states that:

a. The fluid movement across the wall of a capillary is dependent on the balance
between lymphatic channel efficiency and sodium and water retention.
b. The fluid filtration across the wall of a capillary is dependent on the balance
between the hydrostatic pressure gradient and the oncotic pressure gradient
across the capillary.
c. The passage of fluid across the wall of small blood vessels is determined by the
balance between the interstitial fluid pressure and vascular permeability.
d. The passage of fluid across the wall of small blood vessels is determined by the
solute gradient and vascular permeability.

4. Which statement is NOT TRUE about tissue processed for histopathologic examination?
a. Stained with H&E stain to gives the nucleus a blue color & the cytoplasm and the
extracellular matrix a pinkish color.
b. Prepare at five to seven μm thick tissue which can be clearly seen under the
microscope.
c. It is done through perfusion which is the passage of fluid through the blood
vessels ( cut tissue ) 10% formaldehyde or natural channels.
d. Any observed alteration from the normal structure can serve as the basis for diagnosis

5. What pressure tends to force fluid inward from the interstitial space through the capillary
membrane to the intravascular space.
a. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
b. capillary hydrostatic pressure
c. plasma colloid osmotic pressure
d. interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure

6. Cytopathologic method used in permanent cells.

a. Fine-needle aspiration cytology(collect tissues, ms, permanent cell)
c. Abrasive cytology (epithelium)
b. Exfoliative cytology (
c. Clinical cytogenetics(molecular processes)

7. Edema resulting from increased capillary hydrostatic pressure.

a. Pulmonary oedema c. Protein loosing enteropathy
b. Hypoproteinemia d. Nephrotic syndrome

8. Which statement is TRUE about chemical causes of diseases?

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a. Chemicals unlike toxins are dose dependent meaning when taken in small
amount is relatively safe.
b. Cyanide exhibits a predilection to respiratory tract as it causes hypoxia for it
prevents the cells from using oxygen.
c. Many toxic chemicals are metabolized in liver and excreted in kidney without any
injurious effect.
d. Strong acids and caustics act locally at the site of application causing focal necrosis
at the contact site.

9. Which of the following statements best describe hemorrhages?

a. More than 20% (5% only)he total blood volume is rapidly lost from the body, it may
lead to severe anemia and iron deficiency.
b. Slightly larger than 1-2mm hemorrhage occurring in the skin is referred to as
purpura.
c. Minute 1-2mm hemorrhages occurring in the skin, mucosal membrane, or
serosal surface are called petechiae.
d. Larger than 1-2cm subcutaneous hemorrhage is called hematoma.

10. Which statement is TRUE about hypersensitivity reaction?

a. This is an abnormal or exaggerated immune reaction against the self antigens of the
host.
b. This is due to deficiency of a component of the immune system which leads to
increased susceptibility to different diseases.
c. This is exaggerated immune response to an antigen.
d. The immune process is essential for protection against micro-organisms and
parasites.

11. The maintainence of the clot-free state of blood & the prevention of blood loss via the
formation of hemostatic plug.
a. Homeostasis c. Thrombosis
b. Hemostasis d. Stasis

12. Which statement is NOT TRUE about biological death?

a. Biological death is the reversible transmission between life and death defined as the
period of respiratory, circulatory and brain arrest during which initiation of
resuscitation can lead to recovery.
b. Begins with either the last agonal inhalation or the last cardiac contraction and
culminates with irreversible state of cellular destruction.
c. Established with irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory functions,
or irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including brain
stem.
d. Recovery can occur with resuscitation.

13. In shock, the mean arterial pressure and systolic blood pressure is:
a. < 60 mmHg :> 90 mmHg c. > 60 mmHg :> 90 mmHg
b. < 60 mmHg :< 90 mmHg d. > 60 mmHg :< 90 mmHg

14. Which statement is TRUE?

a. All strains of animals possess unusual resistance to certain diseases. Chickens that
have unusual resistance to leukosis in contrast to other which have a very high
mortality rate from this disease.
b. Skin cancers are very common in grey and white horses, but very rare in brown
or black since the pigment present in the skin prevents the sunlight from
penetrating thus inhibiting the chemical reaction.(pigment-
c. All diseases are found in newborn animals due to their undeveloped immunity.
d. Reproductive diseases are more common in the female while nephritis is more
common in the male in all species.

15. The presence of viable microbes and toxins in the blood.

a. Bacteremia c. Viremia
b. Septicemia d. Sepsis
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16. Hormone that causes vasoconstriction at the same time stimulates the release of
aldosterone.
a. Aldosterone c. Renin
b. Angiotensin I d. Angiotensin II

17. A sequence of 3 nucleotides that determines the synthesis of an amino acid.

a. Genes c. Codon
b. Chromosomes d. Autosomes

18. Which statement is NOT TRUE about inflammation?

a. Its fundamental role is to destroy, dilute or neutralize injurious agents and repair the
damage tissues.
b. The process of inflammation is a unique process and very distinct from repair
process. (no distinct inflammation and repair)
c. It is derived from the Latin word 'inflammare" which means to burn.
d. It can be described by the complex process of vascular and cellular response to injury.

19. Thread-like structures present in the form of short pieces in nucleus of a cell. They are
usually in pairs.
a. Genes c. Codons
b. Chromosomes d. Autosomes

20. An active process resulting from an increased inflow of blood into a tissue because of
arteriolar vasodilation and affected tissue becomes engorgement with oxygenated blood.
a. Congestion (passive) c. Hyperemia
b. Hemorrhages d. Edema

21. Genes at one locus are same from both parents.

a. Heterozygous c. Monosomy
b. Homozygous d. Trisomy

22. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?

a. Acute inflammation is an immediate and early response to an injurious agent and it is
relatively of short duration, lasting for minutes, several hours or few days.
b. Chronic inflammation is of longer duration with macrophages and lymphocytes
as the primary cellular population.
c. Inflammation is classified based on the severity of the lesions and the cellular
population.
d. Inflammation is classified based on the duration of the lesion and histologic
appearance.

23. Calico cats are example of what chromosomal aberration.

a. Mosaicism – diff. color/ distinct c. Chimerism
b. Trisomy d. Tortoiseshell cat

24. Lesion of acute inflammation characterized by changes due to hyperemia and

outpouring of protein rich fluid containing blood cells into the extravascular tissues.
a. Redness c. Heat
b. Swelling d. Pain
25. A tumour that remains localized, does not spread to other sites, can be removed surgically,
and does not cause death, unless its location interferes with an important body function.
a. Malignant c. Adenoma
b. Benign d. Carcinoma

26. Clinical implication of pain in acute inflammation.

a. The changes due to hyperemia and outpouring of protein rich fluid containing
blood cells into the extravascular tissues.
b. The affected area loses its function due to physically immobilization.
c. The increased pressure on sensory nerve endings, by stretching of tissues
from accumulation of exudate and release of chemical mediators.
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d. The result of increased blood flow due to regional vascular dilation

27. Benign tumour of the glandular epithelium

a. Papilloma c. Adenoma
b. Carcinoma d. Fibroma

28. Clinical implication of heat in acute inflammation

a. The increased pressure on sensory nerve endings, by stretching of tissues from
accumulation of exudate and release of chemical mediators.
b. The changes due to hyperemia and outpouring of protein rich fluid containing
blood cells into the extravascular tissues.
c. The affected area loses its function due to physically immobilization.
d. The result of increased blood flow due to regional vascular dilation

29. This tumour arises from an embryonic defect in growth and is composed of one germ
layer only, the ectoderm, and contains teeth, hair, and other dermal structures.
a. Teratoma c. Dermoid cyst
b. Fibrosarcoma d. Cystadenomas

30. An area of ischemic necrosis caused by occlusion of either the arterial supply or venous
drainage in a particular tissue.
a. Thrombosis *c. Infarct
b. Hemorrhages d. Congestion

31. Malignant tumours of striated muscle.

a. Leiomyosarcoma c. Chondrosarcoma
b. Haemangiosarcoma *d. Rhabdomyosarcoma

32. ***The binding of leukocytes with endothelial cells is facilitated by cell adhesion
molecules such as the following EXCEPT:
a. Immunoglobulin c. Selectin
b. Bradykinin d. Integrins

33. The favoured pathway of spread for sarcomas, but is also used by carcinomas.
a. Lymphatic spread c. Haematogenous spread
b. Seeding within body cavities d. Exfoliation

34. A nematode in the dog that invades the wall of the lower oesophagus and known to
produce fibrosarcomas or osteosarcomas.(dog)
a. Gongylonema neoplasticum c. Spirocerca lupi
b. Habronema megastoma d. Schistosoma haematobium

35. Carcinogen present in smoked meats and fish.

a. Benzapyrene c. Benzidine
b. Methylcholanthrene d. Griseofulvin

36. A hepatic carcinogen produced by Aspergillus flavus :

a. Aflatoxin B1 c. 2-Acetylaminofluorene
b. Griseofulvin d. Beta-naphthylamine

37. Etiology of urinary calculi EXCEPT:

a. Sulfonamide therapy c. Vit B deficiency
b. Hyperparathyroidism d. Bacterial infection

38. Urinary calculi common in horses EXCEPT:

a. Calcium carbonate c. Calcium phosphate,
b. magnesium carbonate d. Calcium oxalate
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39. Which is NOT an events of cellular response that happens before leukocytes escape from
venules and small veins and occasionally from capillaries.
a. Rolling, c. Adhesion of leukocytes
b. Pavementing, d. Transmigration

40. Most common site of piIi concretions other than stomach.

a. Duodenum c. Ileum
b. Caecum d. Colon

41. How do leukocytes "see" or "smell" the chemotactic agent?

a. The receptors on cell membrane of the leukocytes react with the chemoattractants
resulting in the widening of the interendothelial junctions and these ions trigger cell
movement towards the stimulus.
b. The receptors on cell membrane of the leukocytes react with the the components of
the complement system (C5a), bacterial and mitochondrial products of arachidonic
acid metabolism such as leukotriene B4 and cytokines (IL-8)The receptors on cell
membrane of the leukocytes react with the chemoattractants.
c. The receptors on cell membrane of the leukocytes react with the chemoattractants
resulting in the activation of phospholipase C that ultimately leads to adhesion of
leukocytes with the endothelium.
d. The receptors on cell membrane of the leukocytes react with the chemoattractants
resulting in the activation of phospholipase C that ultimately leads to release of
cytocolic calcium ions and these ions trigger cell movement towards the stimulus.

42. Concretions are observed in cattle wandering on street in cities and in zoo animals.
a. Coproliths c. Phytobezoars
b. Pili concretions d. Polyconcretions

43. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about opsonin?

a. Opsonins are quintessential substance in the formation of reactive oxygen
species such as hydrogen peroxide, super oxide and hydroxyl ion and possibly
single oxygen.
b. Opsonins are quintessential substance in the recognition and attachment of the
particle to be ingested by the leukocytes.
c. Phagocytosis is enhanced if the material to be phagocytosed is coated with certain
plasma proteins called opsonins which promote the adhesion between the particulate
material and the phagocyte’s cell membrane.
d. Opsonins include but not limited to fragment of the immunoglobulin, components of
the complement system C3b and C3bi, and the carbohydrate-binding proteins.

44. The main immunoglobulin found in high concentration in serum.

a. IgM c. IgG
b. IgE d. IgD
45. The three major opsonins are the following EXCEPT:
a. Immunoglobulin G c. fragment of the immunoglobulin
b. Lectins d. Ligands

46. This immunoglobulin was produced during primary immune response by plasma cells in
spleen, lymphnodes and bone marrow considered to be more active than IgG for
complement activation, neutralization of antigen, opsonization and agglutination.
a. IgA c. IgG
b. IgM d. IgE

47. Which statement is TRUE about chemical mediators of inflammation?

a. Cell derived mediators' sole responsibility is the vascular changes that happens during
inflammatory responses.
b. Histamine produced by mast cells causes enhanced opsoninization.
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c. Plasma-derived mediators causes increased vascular permeability, chemotaxis

activation and opsonisation.
d. Plasma derived mediators are responsible for the bacterial & tissue destruction.

48. The secretory component of this immunoglobulin protects the main antibody in the
intestinal tract from digestion but cannot activate the complement and cannot perform the
opsonization.
a. IgA c. IgG
b. IgM d. IgE

49. Which statement is TRUE:

a. Elie Metchnikoff described the inflammatory process as a consequence of an
excessive intake by interstitial cells of food from the liquid part of the blood, filtering
through the vessel wall’, which would result in hypertrophy, or degeneration of the
cells, which would multiply to form an inflammatory tumour.
b. Paul Ehrlich recognised the biological significance of leukocyte recruitment and
phagocytosis of microbes in host defence against infection, inflammation and
immunity
c. Joseph Lister introduced hand washing with a chlorinated lime solution before every
gynaecological examination for hygienic measures.
d. Friedrich Daniel von Recklinghausen contributed to the concept of phagocytosis and
characterized the pus cells in acute inflammation, and he showed that pus cells could
migrate from the places of their origin in the interstitium to other tissues and
epithelial cells.

50. Immunoglobulin present in very minute amount in plasma of dog, non-human primates
and rats.
a. IgG c. IgE
b. IgD d. IgM

51. It is an edema fluid with high protein content which frequently contains inflammatory
cells.
a. Transudate c. Plasma
b. Exudate d. Serum

52. It is an edema fluid of non-inflammatory in origin and usually caused by cardiac and renal
disorders.
a. Transudate c. Plasma
b. Exudate d. Serum

53. The liquid component of uncoagulated blood is called:

a. Transudate c. Plasma
b. Exudate d. Serum(coagulated)
54. Acute inflammation characterized by extensive confluent necrosis of the surface
epithelium of a mucosa and severe acute inflammation of the underlying tissues forming a
false membrane that covers the surface of the lesion.
a. Fibrinous inflammation c. Suppurative inflammation
b. Pseudomembranous inflammation d. Catarrhal inflammation

55. Type of necrosis produced when free fatty acids bind to Calcium ions and become calcium
soap through the safonification.(soap like) white
a. Caseous necrosis c. Fat necrosis
b. Coagulative necrosis d. Liquefactive necrosis

56. Inflammatory reaction caused by severe injuries resulting to greater vascular permeability
that ultimately leads to exudation of larger molecules such as fibrinogens through the
vascular barrier.
a. Fibrinous inflammation c. Serous inflammation
b. Pseudomembranous inflammation d. Catarrhal inflammation
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57. This is a mild and superficial inflammation of the mucous membrane. It is commonly seen
in the upper respiratory tract following viral infections where mucous secreting glands are
present in large numbers.
a. Fibrinous inflammation c. Serous inflammation( thinner)
b. Pseudomembranous inflammation d. Catarrhal inflammation

58. The primary cells involved in cellular immunity with lymphokine production and key
effector cells of the immune system.
a. Macrophages c. B-lymphocytes
b. T-lymphocytes d. Mast cells

59. Which statement is TRUE about Langhans giant cells.

a. It has irregularly scattered nuclei in presence of indigestible materials.
b. It is an aggregate of activated macrophages.
c. Its nuclei are arranged peripherally in a horse shoe pattern.
d. They loss their ability to phagocytose due to its fused cytoplasm.

60. Which of the following cytokines is the major cause of fever, the most important
systemic manifestation of inflammation:
a. Interleukin-1 c. Interleukin-6
b. Interleukin-2 d. Tumor Necrotic Factor –alpha

61. The following are fate of the inflammatory mediators after its release from the
plasma or cells EXCEPT:
a. They perform their biological activities by initially binding to their specific
receptors on target cells.
b. They stay for a long time in the system causing chronic inflammation.
c. They become inhibited after initial effect.
d. They decay and no longer potent to initiate any effect on the tissue.

62. Immunity develops in body as a result of prior stimulation through antigen.

a. Specific c. Natural
b. Innate d. Passive

63. Asbestosis is a condition that demonstrate continuous stimulation of inflammatory

response due to exposure to a non-biodegradable material. The classification of
inflammation is asbestosis is:
a. Acute inflammation(short) c. Severe inflammation
b. Chronic inflammation(long) d. Mild inflammation

64. Which statement is NOT TRUE?

a. Bone cells or osteoblast are classified as "stable cells" because of their ability to
proliferate and regenerate.
b. Neurons and striated muscle cells are examples of "permanent cells" and cannot
regenerate.
c. The intestinal mucosa is classified as "stable cells" because of their ability to
rapidly divide in response to injury.
d. Permanent cells are characterized by its inability to divide or proliferate, and cannot
be replaced once lost.

65. It is characterized by granulation tissue formation where polymorphonuclear cells are

seen in the area of tissue injury as well as platelet aggregation.
a. Resolution phase c. Demolition phase
b. Inflammatory phase d. Ingrowth of granulation tissue

66. Intestinal concretion of bone origin in dogs.

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a. Enterolith c. Sialolith
b. Coprolith d. Osteolith

67. Healing phase where autolytic enzyme from the dead cells and macrophages are seen
in the area of tissue injury containing particulate matters in their cytoplasm.
a. Inflammatory phase c. Demolition phase
b. Resolution phase d. Ingrowth of granulation tissue

68. Phase of tissue repair where there is a characteristic proliferation of fibroblasts and
newly formed blood vessels.
a. Inflammatory phase c. Demolition phase
b. Resolution phase d. Ingrowth of granulation tissue

69. Which statement is NOT TRUE about fibronectin?

a. Fibronectin promotes the spreading of platelets at the site of injury, adhesion and
migration of leucocytes into the wound.
b. Fibronectin is an abundant ubiquitous protein of the intracellular matrix.
c. Fibronectin and proteoglycans secreted by fibroblasts form the "scaffolding" for
rebuilding of the extra-cellular matrix.
d. Fibronectin secreted by the fibroblasts binds with fibrin and acts as a chemotactic
factor for the recruitment of more fibroblasts and macrophages.

70. The type of immunity present in fluids of body mainly in blood.

a. Specific c. Humoral
b. Non-specific d. Natural

71. The following are features of wound healing by first intention at 24 hours EXCEPT:
a. Granulation tissue invades the incisional space.
b. Spur of epithelial cells migrate and grow along the cut margins.
c. Neutrophils appear at the margin of incision.
d. The epidermis in the cut edge thickens due to mitotic activity.

72. The following are features of wound healing by first intention at Day 5 EXCEPT:
a. Neovascularization is at its peak.
b. Presence of scar composed of cellular connective tissue without inflammatory
infiltrates.
c. Incision space is filled with granulation tissue.
d. Collagen fibrils is abundant and begin to bridge the incision.

73. Which statement is NOT TRUE in bone healing.

a. The initial stage of bone healing is the formation of myositis osifficans.
b. Formation of granulation tissue happens after callus formation that unites the
fracture.
c. The last stage of bone healing is the remodeling which involves continuous
osteoclastic removal and osteoblastic laying down of bones.
d. The 5th stage is the cartilage formation which is also known as callus formation.

74. Foreign substance conjugated with large molecular weight molecules such as protein to
become antigenic and induce antibody production.
a. Antigen c. Hapten
b. Antibody d. CD4

75. An antibody confined to the blood and are more active than IgG for complement
activation, neutralization of antigen, opsonization and agglutination.
a. IgA c. IgD
b. IgM d. IgG

76. Giant cells in which the nuclei are arranged peripherally in a horse -shoe pattern which is
seen typically in tuberculosis and sarcoidosis.
a. Foreign body-type giant cells c. Epithelioid cells
b. Langhans giant cells d. Activated macrophages
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77. Rigor mortis is:

a. The stiffening of the carcass during the 1-6 hours after death, and then
dissipates over the following 24-48 hours although there is much variation
depending on the energy reserves of the animal and ambient temperatures.
b. Result of the rapid development of emphysema in the liver, and tympany of the
gastrointestinal tract. This may even lead to postmortem rupture or displacement of
the viscera, and prolapse of the rectum.
c. The post-mortem cooling of body temperature until it equalizes the temperature of
the surrounding environment. It commences at or before the stoppage of blood flow.
d. The gravitational pooling of blood after death, depending on the position of the body.
This often results in reddening of one lung, while the other remains of normal colour.

78. The smallest immunoglobulin which may pass through blood vessels with increased
permeability.
a. IgM c. IgE
b. IgD d. IgG

79. An excessive formation of collagenous tissue results in the appearance of a raised area of
scar tissue. It is an exuberant scar that tends to progress and recur after excision.
a. Keloid Formation c. Ulceration
b. Hypertrophic Scar d. Wound Dehiscence

80. Cicatrisation that results in severe deformity of the wound and surrounding tissues is
caused by:
a. Ulceration c. Excessive contraction
b. Wound Dehiscence d. Hypertrophic Scar

81. Which is NOT a characteristic of wound healing process on the 1st 24 hours.
a. Dehydration of the surface clot forms the well-known scab that covers the wound and
seals it from the environment almost at once.
b. Spurs of epithelial cells from the edges both migrate and grow along the cut
margins of the dermis and beneath the surface scab to fuse in the midline, thus
producing a continuous but thin epithelial layer.
c. The incisional space is narrow and immediately fills with clotted blood, containing
fibrin and blood cells.
d. Neutrophils appear at the margins of the incision, moving toward the fibrin clot.
82. Specific white-faced breed of cattle prone to skin cancer due to the effect of solar radiation
causing ocular and periocular squamous-cell carcinoma due to lack of protective
pigmentation in the eyelid.
a. Aberdeen Angus c. Hereford
b. Brahman d. Charolais

83. Stage of healing process characterized by neutrophils largely replaced by macrophages.

Granulation tissue progressively invades the incisional space. Collagen fibers are now
present in the margins of the incision, but at first these are vertically oriented and do not
bridge the incision. Epithelial cell proliferation continues, thickening the epidermal
covering layer.
a. 24-48 hours c. Day 5
b. Day 3 d. Day 14

84. Which statement is TRUE?

a. Stasis is a major factor in the development of venous thrombi while turbulence
contributes to arterial & cardiac thrombosis.
b. Most or up to 80% of systemic emboli arise from intracardiac mural thrombi and all
are associated with left ventricular wall infarcts.
c. Chromosomes are grouped together on the basis of their length, location of centromere
and this procedure is known as cytogenetics.
d. Characters of one gene are manifested in phenotype and such gene is known as
dominant while unexpressed gene is called as recessive in homozygous.

85. Aspect of disease that rely on the knowledge or discovery of the primary cause as the
backbone on which a diagnosis can be made.
a. Pathogenesis c. Clinical signs
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b. Etiology d. Diagnosis

86. It is the sequence of events in the response of the cells or tissues to the causal agent, from
the initial stimulus to the ultimate expression of the resulting morphological changes.
a. Clinical significance c. Clinical signs
b. Pathogenesis d. Etiology

87. It is the forecast about the likely course and outcome of a disease based on the prospect of
recovery.
a. Diagnosis c. Prognosis
b. Pathogenesis d. Clinical significance

88. The peripheral positioning of white cells along the endothelial cells.
a. Diapedesis c. Chemotaxis
b. Margination d. Transmigration

89. The movement of leukocytes by extending pseudopodia through the vascular wall.
a. Diapedesis c. Chemotaxis
b. Transmigration d. Margination

90. Substance that promote the adhesion between the particulate material and the phagocyte’s
cell membrane.
a. Chemotaxis c. Margination
b. Opsonin d. Diapedesis

91. Inflammation of nails is called:

a. Blepharitis c. Onychia
b. Cheilitis d. Steatitis

92. It is known as the wear and tear pigment which are usually observed in skeletal muscle
injuries.
a. Hemochromatosis c. Lipofucsin
b. Hemosiderin d. Bilirubin

93. Excessive accumulation of hemosiderin in parenchymal tissue causing tissue damages,

scarring and organ dysfunction.
a. Hemochromatosis c. Lipofucsin
b. Hemosiderin d. Bilirubin

94. Result of acute inflammation characterized by complete restitution of normal structure and
function of the tissue.
a. Scarring c. Fibrosis
b. Resolution d.Infection

95. Presence of this molecule from damaged mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum in the
cytosol renders the cytoplasmic environment acidic generating more damage to the cell.
a. ROS c. Ca++
b. Proteolytic enzyme d. Cl-

96. An aberration in the differentiation and maturation of cell characterized by partial loss of
control and organization and slight increase in cell number.
a. Dysplasia- organized c. Metaplasia-matured cell ,
b. Aplasia d. Neoplasia

97. The process when mast cells or basophils release its granules containing histamine in the
extracellular environment.
a. Granulation c. Degranulation
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b. Exfoliation d. Degradation

98. It is the mechanical reduction in the size of the wound by 70%-80% that results in a faster
healing.
a. Fibrosis c. Wound contraction
b. Healing d. Scarring

99. Stage of bone healing where macrophages and osteoclasts invade the clot and remove the
fibrin, rbc, inflammatory exudate and debris.
a. Remodelling c. Inflammatory
b. Reparative d. Callus formation

100. Also known as the activated macrophages with modified epithelial cell-like appearance
which can fuse with each other and form giant cells.
a. Epithelloid cells c. Foreign body giant cell
b. Langhans giant cell d. Multinucleated giant cell