Please read carefully and choose the best answer:

1. The most common cause of upper limb ischemia is:

a. Trauma
b. Vaso spastic conditions
c. atherosclerosis ……….
d. Intrinsic trauma of the SA
e. Thrombo arteritis obliterans

2. Popleteal artery aneurysm

a. accounts for 70% of all peripheral aneurysms
b. 25% are bilateral
c. 30% develop complication within 5years
d. A and c only
e. All of the above

3. All the following can cause thoracic outlet compression except

a. cervical rib
b. abnormal 1st rib
c. abnormality of clavicle
d. aneurysm of brachial artery
e. abnormality of scalene Muscle

4. Regarding Gas all are true except:

a. Is seen in the portal vein in necrotizing enterocolitis
b. In the biliary tree indicates possible cholangitis
c. Gas in the portal system indicates a serious condition
d. Is seen in portal vein in hemorrhagic pancreatitis
e Is seen in biliary tree in (Roux in Y) hepato-jejunostomy

5. Which of the following is manifestation of Beurger' diseases :

a. occlusion of small and medium arteries
b. thrombophlebitis
c. Reynold's phenomenon
d. all the above
e. a and b only

Recurrence after resection for Ca rectum is related to which one of the .6

:followings

a) Tumor Grade
b) Number . of lymph nodes
c) Lateral Margin Involvement
d) Inexperienced surgeon

1
e) All of the above

7. Lymph edema tarda

a. usually before the age of 35 years
b. affects upper limbs only
c. affect lower limbs only
d. usually pitting in early stage
e. none of the above

8.The main blood supply of the breast comes from

a. Internal mammary perforators
b. Thoraco-acromial artery,
c. Vessels to serratus anterior,
d. Lateral thoracic artery,
e. Terminal branches of the 3rd – 8th inter costal perforators

9.Fibroadenosis of the breast:

a. is due to proliferation of both duct & stroma
b. cysts are usually single
c. commonly bilateral inner upper Quadrant.
d. tender two weeks before menstruation
e. treated by surgical excision

10. All the following are causes of nipple retraction except

a. duct ectasia
b. mammary duct fistula
c. periductal mastitis
d. malignancy
e. physiological retraction

11. Treatment of cyclical pronounced mastalgia includes all the following except
a. supportive bra
b. reduce caffeine, red ,chocolate intake
c. simple analgesi
d. Vitamin A, Vitamin C
e. evening primrose oil

12. The commonest type of breast carcinoma is

a. invasive duct carcinoma
b. medullary carcinoma
c. invasive lobular carcinoma
d. mucinous (colloid) carcinoma
e. in situ carcinoma & Paget's dis.

13. Indications of isotope thyroid scan are

a. identifying nodules and determining if they are "hot" or "cold".
b. measuring the size of the goiter prior to treatment.
c. locating thyroid tissue outside the neck,
d. all the above
e. a and c only

2
 14. Thyroid cyst
a. 50% due to degeneration in the colloid
b. 30-50% of cold nodules
c. Intra cystic malignancy is more in males
d. all the above
e. none of the above

15. Regarding occult papillary carcinoma of the thyroid all the following are
true except
a. the lesion is 1cm or less
b. usually not clinically obvious
c. rarely metastasis
d. Infiltrates the capsule
e. Surgery is not required in all cases

16. The most common cause of pyrexia in the 5th post operative day is
a. deep vein thrombosis
b. wound infection
c. respiratory tract infection
d. urinary tract infection
e. pulmonary embolism

17. Post operative wound dehiscence all are true except

a. Incidence is 1-2%
b. dehiscence may occur without warning.
c. serosanguinous drainage precedes wound dehiscence in 75% of patients. (7th
day)
d. the cause may be iatrogenic
d. treated by Sterile saline pack cover ,antibiotics and surgical repair

18. Regarding sodium balance which of the following is true

a. total body Na is 7500 mmol
b. bones are the main sodium stores
c .daily In take is 200-300mmol
d. excretion mainly in feces ,and sweat
e. controlled mainly by anti diuretic hormone

19. Hypokalemia which of the following is true

a. may be caused by GIT fistula
b. clinically ,the patient may have abdominal colics ,
c. ECG shows, high peaked T wave
d. all the above
e. a and c only

20. Dextrose 5% solution

a. is hypotonic solution
b. supplies 250 kcal/L
c. useful in trauma patients

3
d. prolonged use causes hyponatremia
e. none of the above

21. Patient taking antihypertensive drugs going for surgery should

a. continue medication till morning of operation
b. stop medication one day before the operation
c. stop medication three days before the operation
d. stop medication one week before the operation
e. none of the above

22. Carbuncle
a. is a confluence of several boils
b. causes minimal tissue destruction,
c. usually pointing to the skin
d. less common in diabetic patients
e. treated by incision and drainage

23. In Hydradenitis suppurativa all the following are true except

a. abnormality in eccrine sweat gland
b. recurrent Infection is common
c. can cause abscess & sinus formation
d. can be treated with antibiotics
e. surgical treatment is by wide local excision

24. All the following are indications of surgery in small bowel fistula except
a. associated peritonitis
b. failure to close in three weeks
c. malignant disease
d. distal obstruction
e. substantial bowel discontinuity

25. All the following are indications of total parenteral nutrition in the surgical
patient except
a. Short gut syndrome
b. Sever acute pancreatitis
c. Extensive Burns
d. Enterocutaneous fistula
e. Esophageal carcinoma

26. A 22-year-old male presents into the ER after sustaining stab wound to the left
chest. The injury is 2 cm left of the sternum at the level of his nipple. Initial vital
signs include a pulse rate 88 bpm, GCS 15, respiratory rate 12 breaths/mm, and
blood pressure 139/74 mmHg.
Initial management of this patient should be:
a. CXR
b. pericardiocentesis
c. left chest tube thoracostomy
d. esophagogram
e. echocardiogram

4
 27. Which of the following is true regarding pancreatic trauma and its
complications
a. Complications of pancreatic trauma include pancreatic pseudocyst, abscess,
hemorrhage, and fistula.
b. Asymptomatic pseudocysts may be managed conservatively, as approximately 80%
will spontaneously resolve .
c. Pseudocysts which do not spontaneously resolve can be
managed with percutaneous drainage, if ductal disruption is identified.
d. If a pancreatic fistula is secondary to a major ductal disruption it will not
respond to sphincterotomy and duct stenting via endoscopic retrograde
pancreatic cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
e. Overall mortality from pancreatic injuries is approximately 45%.

28. Initial fluid resuscitation of a patient with multiple fractures and

hypovolemic shock should be :
a. blood transfusion
b. hypertonic saline
c. fresh frozen plasma
d. Ringer’s lactate
e. albumin

29.Which of the following is true concerning primary hyperaldosteronism?

a. Bilateral hyperplasia of the zona glomerulosa is about twice likely as either adrenal
adenoma or adrenal carcinoma to be responsible for primary hyperaldosteronism.
b. Unilateral adrenalectomy is usually curative for bilateral hyperplasia.
c. All patients are hypokalemic
d. these patients often present with metabolic alkalosis

30. The chromosome carrying the gene associated with MEN I is:
a. chromosome 14
b. chromosome 13
c. chromosome 12
d. chromosome 11
e. chromosome 10

31. Which of the following statements concerning gastrin is most accurate?

a. Gastrin in high levels has been shown to cause gastric mucosal hypertrophy.
b. Glucose in a meal is one of the most potent stimulators of gastrin release.
c. Gastrin-secreting cells (G cells) are found only in the gastric antrum and pylorus.
d.Regular administration of antacids will suppress gastrin release as long as pH is kept
consistently above 5.0.
e. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, can completely suppress gastrin secretion if
taken regularly

5
 32. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is associated most strongly with which virus?
a. CMV
b. varicella zoster
c.herpes simplex.
d.Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
e. human papilloma virus.
33. Which of the following is false concerning the physiologic effects of volatile
anesthetics?
a. decreased tidal volume
b. decreased blood pressure
c. decreased respiratory rate
d. bronchodilation
e. decreased sensitivity to the ventilatory stimulant effects of carbon dioxide

34. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis is caused by the following

organisms:
a. Clostridium sporogenes
b. Clostridium defficile
c.  Streptococcus faecalis
d.  Penicillin sensitive staphylocci
e. Pseudomonas aeruginos

35. Which of the following statement characterize the biology of allotransplantation

is false?

a. The rejection response is systemic.

b. The rejection response is learned.
c. The rejection response involves both of immunologic and environmental
factors.
d. Allotransplantation evokes a cellular immune response.
e. Allotransplantation evokes a humoral immune response.

36. A patient presents with a history of low back pain and sciatica. The pain
radiates to the little toe, the ankle reflex is absent and the patient has difficulty in
everting the foot. Which nerve root is likely to be trapped?
a. L3
b. L4
c. L5
d. S1
e. S2

37.   The umbilicus:

a. Lies near the to the xiphoid than to the pubis
b. Derives its cutaneous innervation from the eleventh thoracic nerve
c. Transmits, during development, the umbilical cord two arteries and two
veins
d. Usually lies at about the level between the third and fourth lumbar
vertebra

6
 e. Embriologically may transmit urine but never bowel contents
 

38. Regarding intestinal obstruction, all of the following are true Except:
a. Its cardinal features are; abdominal pain, distension, vomiting and constipation
b. Small bowel obstruction is commonly of adhesive aetiology in adults
c. Erect plain abdominal X-Ray is usually requested to localize the site of
obstruction
d. Intussception is usually treated primarily with hydrostatic pressure
e. Superior mesenteric artery embolus the commonest cause of acute
mesenteric ischaemia

39. Regarding inguinal hernia:

a. The internal ring is a triangular aperture in fascia transversalis
b. It is commenest cause of intestinal obstruction in infants and younger age group
c. Indirect hernial sac lies lateral to pubic tubercle
d. Hasselbach's triangle is formed medially by the medial edge of rectus abdominis,
laterally by the inferior epigastric vessles and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament
e. Direct inguinal hernia lies lateral to inferior epigastric vessles

40. Regarding blood transfusion:

a. blood is collected in sterile bags and stored in Blood Banks At 0°C
b. Platelets are nearly lost after 7 days in the stored blood
c. blood component therapy is the gold standard in transfusion therapy
d. cross-mached blood and ELISA tested for HIV is one hundred percent safe
e. whole blood transfusion is the ideal to treat chronic anaemia in an elderly patient

41. Achalasia is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

a. chagas ’ disease in South America
b. dysphasia.
c. weight loss.
d. relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter with swallowing .
e. aspiration pneumonia, which may cause lung abscesses.

42. Deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis is appropriate for all of the following
patients EXCEPT:
a. a 67-year-old male undergoing a colectomy.
b. a 21-year-old male undergoing an outpatient open inguinal hernia repair.
c. a 21-year-old male in the ICU, comatose, with a closed head injury.
d. a 60-year-old female undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a hip
fracture.
e. a 60-year-old female undergoing reduction of a lung carcinoma.

43. Which of these histological findings is considered pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s

lymphoma?
a. Mikulicz’s cells
b. Charcot-Leyden crystals
c. Birbeck granules
d. Reed-Sternberg cells
e. Langerhan’s cells

7
44. Concerning the inguinal canal:
a. It transmits the ilio-inguinal nerve
b. The deep inguinal ring lies below the mid-point of inguinal ligament
c. The superficial inguinal ring overlies the pubic tubercle
d. Laterally , the anterior wall is made up of the external oblique aponeurosis
e. Laterally, the posterior wall is formed by the conjoint tendon

45. Clinical picture of the lung tumor include all the following Except:
a. Carcinoide syndrome
b. Superior venacava syndrome
c. Horner's syndrome
d. Superior laryngeal nerve paralysis
e. Dyspnoea

46. One is true regarding the hiatus hernia:

a. The most common herniation through the diaphragm is throughthe
esophageal hiatus
b. Sliding hernia is one in which the greater curvature of the stomach rotate into the
chest.
c. The paraesophageal hernia is one in which the esophagus,
esophagogastric junction and proximal stomach move into the chest.
d. Sliding hernia is usually symptomatic and associated with reflux.
e. Surgical repair is rarely indicated in the treatment of paraesophageal
hernia.

Regarding obstructive jaundice:47 .

a. Caused by hemolytic anaemia
b. Urobilinogen is absent in the urine
c. Carcinoma of the head of pancreas is the commonest cause
d. Normal color stool
e. b and c only

:The most important finding in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis is .48

a. vomiting
b. fever
c. leukocytosis
d. right lower quadrant pain and tenderness
e. constipation

:Gastroesophageal reflux is best diagnosed with .49

a. radiography
b. 24-hour pH monitoring of lower esophagus
c. esophagoscopy
d. documentation of a decrease in esophageal pH after HCI is placed in the stomach .
e. acid-clearing swallowing test

50. Acute Epidural haematoma :

8
a. due to middle meningeal artery tear
b. can be treated conservatively
c. classically there is contra lateral, dilated, fixed pupil
d. needs operation within 24 hours
e. a ad c only

51. Regarding colorectal carcinomas

a. Right-sided tumours often present with a change in bowel habit

b.75% of tumours can be reached with a flexible sigmoidoscope

c. Over 20% of patients present with more than one primary tumour

d. A Duke's B tumour has nodal metastases

52. Regarding colonic polyps

a. Metaplastic polyps are pre-malignant

b. Adenomatous polyps are pre-malignant

c. Villous adenomas are more common than tubular adenomas

d. Genetic mutations can result in epithelial metaplasia

53. With an iron deficiency anaemia

a. Both serum iron and total iron binding capacity are reduced

b. The blood film shows a hyperchromic microcytic picture

c. The reticulocyte count is low in relation to the degree of anaemia

d. Serum ferritin levels are increased

54. The X-Ray you see below is :

a. PTC (percutaneous trans hepatic cholangiography)

9
b. Operative cholangiogram

c. ERCP ( endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography)

d. Portography

Which of the following does not appear to cause early dumping .55

a) Serotonin
b) Bradykinin
c) Neurotensin
d) Secretin

?Which does not predispose to  Carcinoma of stomach .56

a) Low fat and protein diet

b) Salted meat and fish
c) Low Nitrate consumption
d) High Complex carbohydrate consumption

?Which of the following is not true about gastric lymphoma .56

a) Stomach is the most common organ in the gi system which is involved in 
Lymphoma
b) Peak incidence of lymphomas is seen in 6th-7th decade
.c) Endoscopy usually reveals gastritis like picture or gastric ulcer
.d) MALT lymphoma is the commonest variety

Which is false for GIST (Gastro intestinal stromal tumor)  of stomach .57
.a) It is the same as leiomyoma and leomyosarcoma as described previously

10
b) origin is from mucosa from the interstitial cells of Cajal
c) Associated with C-Kit Mutation
.d) Imatinab is a new effective drug for adjuvant therapy

Most common site for cholangiocarcinoma is .58

a) Intrahepatic liver
b) Hepatic duct bifurcation
c) Lower End of CBD (Common Bile Duct)
d) Lower 1/3rd of CBD (Commmon Bile duct)

?How much bile is produced by liver /day .59

a)  100-300 ml
b)   300-500 ml
c)   500-1000ml
d)   500-1500 ml

Which of the following is not a criteria for diagnosing Sphincter of Oddi .60
Dysfunction
a) CBD diameter more than 12 mm on USG
b) Decrease in CBD pressure after infusion of Cholecystokinin
c) Ampullary pressure more than 40 mm Hg
d) Delayed emptying of contrast from CBD after ERCP

:All of the following increase bile secretion except .61

                         a)  Vagal stimulation
                                            b)  Secretin
c) Cholecystokin
d) Splanchnic nerve secretion

?Which is not a type of anal margin tumors .62

a) Basal cell carcinoma
b) Epidermoid carcinoma
c) Paget's disease
d) Bowen's disease (Anal Intraepithelial Neoplasia)

What is not included in the triad of zollinger ellison syndrome (ZES) .63
A) Hyperacidity
B) Intractable duodenal ulcer disease
C) Liver secondaries
D) Non beta islet cell tumor of pancreas

Which is not a metabolic abnormality after gastrectomy .64

a) Weight loss
b) Hypokalemia
c) Anemia
d) Osteoporosis

True about Hydatid cyst of liver is .65

a) E. multilocularis is more common than E.Granulosus

11
b) Extrahepatic 15% in lungs 2% in brain
c) Adult worm infests herbivores
.d) Indirect Heamagglutination (IHA) is the most specific serological test

:All of the following are indications of operative cholangiogram except .66

a) Obstructive jaundice
b) Liver metastasis
c) Abnormal anatomy
d) Recurrent biliary pancreatitis

Peritoneo-Venous shunt is contraindicated in .67

a) Uncorrectable coagulopathy
b) Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
 c) Hepatic encephalopathy
d) All

68. In a patient with positive occult blood in stool, the most likely diagnosis is:

a. hemorrhoids
b. duodenal ulcer
c. colon cancer
d. gastric ulcer
e. esophageal cancer

69. In a 50 year old patient with rectal bleeding and internal piles, the most
appropriate next step is:

a. colonoscopy or barium enema

b. hemorrhoidal ointments
c. hemorrhoidectomy
d. angiography
e. abdominal ultrasound

70. Charactrized by a "bird's beak" appearance on Ba - swallow

a. Gastric ulcer
b. Colonic volvulus
c. Esophageal stricture
d. Esophageal achalasia
e. Hiatus hernia

71. 16th year old female patient, known to be Situs inversus totale came to our
hospital complaining of severe left lower abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting of 7
hours duration. On physical exam tenderness in the LIF, guarding was positive and
Blumberg sign was +. CBC showed increase in WBCs with shift to the left . The most
possible diagnosis is:

12
a. Gastro enteritis
b. Meckel’s diverticulitis
c. Acute appendicitis
d. Imperforated hymen
e. UTI

72. S.E is a 68 year-old female patient underwent inner lower quadrantectomy with
clearance of the axilla because of mucinous carcinoma of the breast diagnosed by true
cut needle biopsy. The pathology result was : Tumor size was 1,2 X 2 X1.5 Cm. Two
out of 13 LNs were with Mets. Estrogen and progesterone receptors were negative
and her-2 was positive +3. Chest and abdominal CT were free, Bone scan was with no
evidence of mets.
For this patient what is the stage of her breast Ca:

a) Stage one
b) Stage ll
c) Stage lll
d) Stage lV

73. For the same patient proper Adjuvant therapy include:

a. Chemoradiotherapy + Tamoxifen 20 mg x 2 x day x 5 years

b. Radiotherapy + Herceptin
c. Chemotherapy alone
d. Chemoradiotherapy + Herceptin
e. Chemotherapy + Tamoxifen + Herceptin
74. The treatment of choice for a 40-year-old man who is found on endoscopy and
biopsy to have a gastric lymphoma would be

a. subtotal gastrectomy
b. radiotherapy
c. subtotal gastrectomy and radiotherapy
d. chemotherapy
e. wide local excision

75. Correct statements about the characterization and histologic features of Crohn's
disease include
a. A marked connective tissue reaction is present in the bowel wall and mesentery
b. Cicatrization and bowel stenosis are frequent problems
c. Exacerbations and remissions are characteristic of the disease
d. Patients are more likely to develop fistulas into bowel or bladder than to
experience free perforations
e. Patients with long-standing Crohn's disease have an increased incidence of small
bowel carcinoma

76. A small bowel fistula will not close during a course of bowl rest and
Total parenteral nutrition if there is

13
a. active Crohn's disease
b. an undrained abscess
c. distal obstruction
d. epithelialization of the tract
e. radiation enteritis

What is the principal method of diagnosing acute pulmonary .77

?embolism
a. Magnetic resonance imaging
b. Chest X-Ray
c. Spiral computed tomography scanning
d. Ultrasound

78. A 33-year-old man presents with a complaint of a slow-growing mass over his
right pre auricular area. The lesion is fixed to the underlying structures and has
recently become painful.

Which of the following features strongly suggests that this patient's lesion is a
malignancy?

a. Overlying skin involvement

b. Facial nerve paralysis
c. Ipsilateral numbness of the tongue
d. All of the above

79. A 45-year-old man presents with a complaint of hoarseness of 2 month's duration.

On physical examination, a right-sided cervical lymphadenopathy is noted. The rest of
the examination is normal. The surgeon recommends further evaluation using direct
laryngoscopy.

?Which of the following statements regarding direct laryngoscopy is true

a. It is performed under general anesthesia
b. It allows the surgeon to palpate the involved structures
c. Simultaneous biopsies can be performed
d. It has the advantage of permitting both diagnostic and therapeutic intervention
e. All of the above

80. A 28-year-old woman presents with a complaint of a growing, painless mass in

her neck. Physical examination reveals a firm, fixed nodule measuring 2 cm on the
right lobe of her thyroid. The surgeon recommends fine-needle aspiration (FNA) of
the lesion instead of excisional biopsy.

What are the advantages of FNA over excisional biopsy?

a. FNA requires only an office visit

b. Anesthesia is not necessary
c. FNA is associated with a decreased risk of tumor seeding
d. All of the above

14
81. A. M a 30-year old underwent total thyroidectomy before 2 years because of
papillary carcinoma of thyroid.

Which is the most reliable lab test for follow up to the patient R\O recurrence of
the disease

a. TSH
b. T3
c. Thyroglobuline
d. gamaglobuline
e. CEA

82. A 77-year-old man undergoes endoscopic ultrasonography as part of a workup for

jaundice. He is found to have a tumor in the head of the pancreas.

For this patient, which of the following findings would indicate that the tumor is
?unresectable
a. Invasion of the superior mesenteric artery
b. Peritoneal metastasis
c. Metastasis to celiac lymph nodes
d. All of the above

83. A 71 year-old man, on non steroidal anti-inflammatory treatment for his back
pain has had sudden onset severe epigastric pain while he was walking in his
garden. He was transferred to the E.R, Chest X-Ray done and showed the picture
in the Rt. What is the possible diagnosis
a. Miocardial infarction
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Perforated viscus
d. Neumothorax

84. Lateral aberrant thyroidis

a. abnormally descended thyroid tissue in the lateral neck

b. associated with thyroglossal duct cyst
c. cervical lymph node metastases from papillary cancer
d. cervical lymph node enlargement as a result of Hashimoto’s disease
e. asymmetric goiter protruding predominantly to one side of the neck

Sliding inguinal hernia is .85

.a-a hernia that contains omentum in it,s sac

.b-a hernia that is easy reducible
.c-a hernia that reaches scrotum
.d-a hernia having a viscous part of its sac wall

15
which of the following is not a choice for immediate management of blunt .86
abdominal trauma patient with unstable vital signs

a. IV fluids up to 2liters of RL running

b. CT abdomen with IV contrast
c. colloid solutions or blood if needed
d. Resuscitation at the operating room

87. regarding necrotizing fascitis all true except:

a. mortality rate is between 50%-70%
b. it is caused by mixed flora
c. heamolysis may complicate the picture
d. clostidium perferinges is the pathogen

88. A 35- year old woman experiences acute onset of epigastric and right
upper quadrant pain several hours after a large dinner. She has had
similar episode in the past that resolved after a few hours. This episode
persists, and she has fever and nonbilious vomiting. What is the most
likely source of abdominal pain?

a. Perforated ulcer
b. Acute appendicitis
c. Perforation following bowel obstruction
d. Acute Cholecystitis
e. Diverticulitis

89. Regarding peritonitis, which of the following statements is/are not

true?
a. Primary peritonitis is usually monomicrobial
b. Chemical peritonitis often precedes bacterial contamination
c. Multiple organisms are commonly cultured from peritoneal dialysis
catheters
d. Tuberculosis peritonitis has an insidious onset

90. Which of the following statements regarding the proliferative phase of

wound healing is true?
a. The formation of granulation tissue is an important component of the
proliferative phase of wound healing.
b. Granulation tissue includes collagen, macrophages, hyaluronic acid,
fibroblasts, and capillary endothelial cells.
c. Angiogenesis, fibroplasia, and epithelialization are key components of the
proliferation phase of wound healing.
d. Both angiogenesis and fibroplasia are stimulated by platelet-and fibroblast-
derived growth factors.
e. All of the above

91. All of the following are associated with morbid obesity except?
a. Coronary artery disease

16
b. Sleep apnea
c. Reduction in life expectancy
d. Asthma
e. None of the above

92. Which condition contraindicates using enteral feedings?

a. Recent surgery
b. High-output enteric fistula
c. Head trauma
d. Cachexia
e. All of the above

93. Regarding post burn sequelae, all of the following statements are
correct except?
a. All second-and third-degree burns produce permanent scarring
b. The incidence of hypertrophic scar formation is less after excision and
skin grafting than with wounds that heal spontaneously.
c. Hypertrophic scars are best treated by early excision and would
closure.
d. Burn scar hypopigmentation and irregularities can be signif-icantly
improved by demabrasion and thin split-thickness skin grafting
e. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common carcinoma in an old burn
scar.

94. All of the following statements regarding diabetic foot infections are
true except?
a. Foot infection occurs more frequently in diabetic than in nondiabetic
patients
b. The saline injection-aspiration method is the preferred method for
obtaining reliable cultures
c. Diabetic foot infections are commonly polymicrobial
d. Osteomyelitis of the foot is frequently encountered in patients with a
long history of diabetes and neuropathic ulcers
e. None of the above

95. Which of the following eponyms is not used to describe a physical

finding suggestive of metastatic or locally advanced malignancy?
a. Blumer’s shelf
b. Virchow’s node
c. Grey Turner’s sign
d. Krukenberg’s tumor
e. Sister Mary Joseph’s sign

96. A Marjolin’s ulcer arises in areas exposed to

a. External beam radiation
b. Thermal injury
c. Pressure
d. Lymphedema
e. None of the above

17
 97. The appropriate therapy for Paget’s disease of the nipple is:
a. Topical steroid cream
b. Topical antifungal medication
c. Intralesional steroid injection
d. Resection

98. The most common location for a primary adenocarcinoma of small

bowel is:
a. Duodenum
b. Jejunum
c. Ileum
d. None of the above- the distribution is roughly equal

99. The most common complication following hemorrhoidectomy is:

a. Fecal impaction
b. Bleeding
c. Urinary retention
d. Infection

100. A patient with a 1.5-cm carcinoid tumor of the mid appendix

should undergo.
a. An appendectomy only
b. Partial cecuectomy AND Lymph node sampling to confirm negative
margins
c. Resection of the cecum, terminal ileum, and adjacent mesentery (en bloc
resection)
d. Right hemicolectomy

Good luck

18