Professional Documents
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KLM Tech Quest-1
KLM Tech Quest-1
Technical Questionnaire
B737 variants 3/4/7/8/900
Technical Questionnaire
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0. ADMINISTRATION AND INTRODUCTION
Technical Questionnaire
CONTENTS
1. AIRPLANE GENERAL.........................................................................................................................................7
5. COMMUNICATIONS..........................................................................................................................................27
6. ELECTRICAL.....................................................................................................................................................29
7. ENGINES, APU..................................................................................................................................................35
8. FIRE PROTECTION...........................................................................................................................................41
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0. ADMINISTRATION AND INTRODUCTION
Technical Questionnaire
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FLIGHT CREW TRAINING B737
0. ADMINISTRATION AND INTRODUCTION
Technical Questionnaire
Introduction
Dear colleague,
This is the B737 Technical Questionnaire, applicable to the variants -300 through -900.
Questions indicated as e.g. “-3/700” are related to the -300 and -700 variant only.
The technical knowledge exams during the B737 Conversion Course and during the
FCL-check are based on this document.
This questionnaire does not cover all required technical knowledge. It is merely intended to indicate at what
level the pilots’ technical knowledge is.
The technical knowledge required for normal and non-normal operation remains the responsibility of the
pilot.
Although the screening of this document has been done with care, errors may still be present.
If you have any comments about the contents of this questionnaire please contact the B737 Training
Manager.
B. Miedema
B737 Training Manager
SPL/NV
Tel. +31203042605
Barry.Miedema@klm.com
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0. ADMINISTRATION AND INTRODUCTION
Technical Questionnaire
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1. AIRPLANE GENERAL
Technical Questionnaire
1. AIRPLANE GENERAL
a) 35 m.
b) 36 m.
c) 37 m.
a) 29 m.
b) 34 m.
c) 36 m.
3. (-900) What is the minimum required pavement width for a 180 degree turn?
(and thus sufficient for all variants)
a) 46 m.
b) 36 m.
c) 26 m.
a) 35,000 ft.
b) 37,000 ft.
c) 41,000 ft.
a) 37,000 ft.
b) 39,000 ft.
c) 41,000 ft.
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1. AIRPLANE GENERAL
Technical Questionnaire
6. What is the correct statement regarding circuit breaker panels P6 and P18 is true?
a) P6 is located behind the F/O’s seat and P18 behind the Capt’s seat.
b) P6 is located behind the Capt’s seat and P18 behind the F/O’s seat.
c) P6 and P18 are located on the aft overhead panel.
a) On all aircraft the light automatically extinguishes when the gear retracts.
b) On some aircraft the light automatically extinguishes when the gear retracts.
c) The light will automatically extinguish when becoming airborne.
8. When will the Floor Proximity Emergency Escape Path lighting (as installed) automatically illuminate with
the emergency exit lights switch in ARMED?
9. How are the photoluminescent strips (as installed) along the cabin aisle properly charged?
a) Keeping all window shades open during the boarding process is sufficient.
b) Ceiling and sidewall lights should be at full intensity during the Charge Scenarios as described in
FCOM II.
c) Only during operation in the dark it is required to close overhead bins and to switch on the cabin
ceiling lights during the boarding process.
10. With the FASTEN BELT switch in AUTO the FASTEN BELT signs will illuminate?
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1. AIRPLANE GENERAL
Technical Questionnaire
12. What is the minimum required flight crew oxygen pressure during preflight?
13. How can (on some aircraft) after use of the oxygen mask, the mask microphone be deactivated and the
boom microphone be activated again?
14. At what cabin altitude is the passenger oxygen system automatically activated?
15. The PASS OXY ON light illuminates. What does this indicate?
16. For how long does a passenger oxygen generator supply oxygen, after activation?
a) Approximately 5 min.
b) Approximately 12 min.
c) Approximately 20 min.
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1. AIRPLANE GENERAL
Technical Questionnaire
a) When looking over the glareshield a small amount of airplane nose structure must be visible and
your view of the instrument panel’s A/P-A/T-FMC lights (-3/400) and EHSI (-7/8/900 Outer
Display) must be unobstructed.
b) The retractable reference marker (as located in the cockpit ceiling) must point between your
eyebrows when it is deployed.
c) Your eyes must be aligned with the eye reference marker-sticker between windows 2 and 3.
20. (-8/900) What statement regarding the Tail Tip MAC (TTMAC) is true?
a) If TTMAC exceeds a specific AFT limit, the passenger doors may not be opened without
verifying the unloading process of the cargo holds.
b) If TTMAC < 38%: The FWD cargo hold may be unloaded first
c) The FWD cargo hold may never be unloaded first
d) The AFT LANDING LIMIT MAC is 41%.
21. The overhead monitors of the Inflight Entertainment (IFE) system (if installed) will retract automatically
when:
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2. Air systems
Technical Questionnaire
2. AIR SYSTEMS
4. What is the position of the isolation valve, with the isolation valve switch in AUTO?
5. Condition: normal operation, in flight. What is the reaction of the isolation valve when a BLEED TRIP
OFF light illuminates?
a) The isolation valve must be open in order to start engine No. 1 from a pneumatic ground cart.
b) The engine bleed valve must be open in order to engage the engine's starter motor.
c) During engine start the DUAL BLEED light should be extinguished.
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2. Air systems
Technical Questionnaire
8. With both engine bleed switches ON, when will the DUAL BLEED light be illuminated?
a) At the moment the primary pack control fails (no master caution recall necessary).
b) In case of a pack trip off or failure of both primary and standby pack controls.
c) When a malfunction in the associated trim air system occurs.
10. (-4/8/900) What will be the indication if either a primary pack control or a standby pack control has
failed?
a) The PACK light, master caution and AIR COND annunciator illuminate.
b) The PACK light, master caution and AIR COND annunciator illuminate upon master caution
recall.
c) There will be no indication as the pack continues normal operation on the primary pack control.
11. (-4/8/900) How is pack operation controlled after a failure of a primary pack control?
a) The pack must be controlled by giving manual inputs to the standby pack control.
b) The pack continues automatic operation on the standby pack control.
c) The associated temperature selector must be adjusted to keep the PACK light extinguished.
12. (-3/700) What causes the PACK TRIP OFF light to illuminate?
13. One of the steps in the PACK (-3/700: PACK TRIP OFF) procedure in the Non Normal Checklist is to
select a warmer temperature. What will be the result?
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Technical Questionnaire
14. What fault condition cannot be reset with the trip reset switch?
15. If one pack fails during flight, the remaining pack is capable of pressurizing the aircraft without the need
to descend.
16. (-4/8/900) Condition: Normal operation. What determines the output temperature of a pack?
17. (-4/8/900) During master caution recall the FWD CAB ZONE TEMP light illuminates. When the recall is
reset the light extinguishes. What may be the cause?
18. (-3/700) Which part of the system is overheated when the right DUCT OVERHEAT light is illuminated?
19. (-4/8/900) Under which condition does unbalanced pack operation occur?
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2. Air systems
Technical Questionnaire
20. (-4/8/900) What is the correct statement regarding the trim air system?
a) Trim air is added to the conditioned air ducts to meet the temperature demand of each individual
zone.
b) Trim air reduces the workload on the packs.
c) Trim air is supplied to the mix manifold to mix with conditioned air.
21. (-4/8/900) How is the cockpit/cabin temperature controlled when the air conditioning system has
switched to unbalanced pack temperature control, because of total loss of trim air?
a) The left pack regulates its output temperature to cockpit demand; the right pack regulates its
output temperature to the average of the forward and aft cabin temperature demands.
b) Both packs regulate their output temperature to the zone requiring the most cooling. Trim air is
used to adjust the temperature for the other zones.
c) Both packs regulate their output to the average temperature demand of both cabin zones.
22. (-4/8/900) With the cabin temperature selector in the 6 o’clock position:
23. (-3/700) With the cabin temperature selector in the 6 o’clock position:
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2. Air systems
Technical Questionnaire
25. Regarding the operation of the recirculation fan(s) with the recirculation fan switch(es) in AUTO:
a) The cabin altitude exceeds 15.800 ft and the controller is not responding properly.
b) The pressurization mode selector is moved to ALTN.
c) The rate of cabin pressure change exceeds 1000 ft/min.
30. How can you lower the cabin altitude with the pressurization mode selector in MAN?
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2. Air systems
Technical Questionnaire
32. (-3/400) When the FLT/GRD switch is not placed in FLT before taxi (pressurization mode selector
AUTO):
a) The outflow valve will remain open for the remainder of the flight.
b) The cabin will pressurize normally when airborne.
c) The cabin will pressurize to it’s maximum differential pressure when airborne.
33. (-3/400) When the FLT/GRD switch is placed to FLT, while operating in the AUTO mode on the ground,
the airplane will:
35. (-3/400) When the FLT/GRD switch is placed to FLT while operating in the STBY mode on the ground:
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Only in flight.
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2. Air systems
Technical Questionnaire
37. (-3/400) Condition: STBY mode. What is the minimum and maximum climb and descent rate?
38. (-3/400) Condition: STBY mode. An altitude of 6,400 ft has been set in the cabin altitude indicator.
The airplane has to level off at 5,000 ft. What will happen to the cabin altitude?
39. Under what condition will the overboard exhaust valve (-3/400: flow control valve) close?
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2. Air systems
Technical Questionnaire
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3. ANTI-ICE, RAIN
Technical Questionnaire
3. ANTI-ICE, RAIN
2. A left window heat OVERHEAT light illuminates. What happens with the windows L3, L4 and L5?
a) They remain heated until the related L SIDE switch is placed to OFF.
b) Their power is removed automatically.
c) They continue to operate on ½ of their normal power.
3. With the window heat switches ON, why are the green ON lights not always illuminated?
a) This indicates that no icing conditions for the windows are present.
b) The power to the window is removed when it has reached its operating temperature.
c) In flight and speed below 250 kt, the window heat system is not active.
a) When OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in flight) is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is
present.
b) When TAT is below 10°C and SAT is above -40°C.
c) When OAT is 10°C or below.
5. With engine operating, engine bleed air valve closed. Is engine anti-ice available?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Yes, only if the pneumatic system is pressurized.
6. What does it mean if the blue COWL VALVE OPEN light is illuminated dim?
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3. ANTI-ICE, RAIN
Technical Questionnaire
10. (-7/8/900) What is the correct statement regarding the wing anti-ice system?
a) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice all leading edge devices.
b) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice the three inboard leading edge slats only. The
leading edge flaps and outboard leading edge slats cannot be de-iced.
c) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice all leading edge slats. The leading edge flaps
cannot be de-iced.
11. (-3/400) What is the correct statement regarding the wing anti-ice system?
a) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice all leading edge devices.
b) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice the three inboard leading edge slats only. The
leading edge flaps and outboard leading edge slats cannot be de-iced.
c) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice all leading edge slats. The leading edge flaps
cannot be de-iced.
12. The wing anti-ice switch has positions GRD TEST/OFF/ON. What is the correct statement?
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3. ANTI-ICE, RAIN
Technical Questionnaire
13. The wing anti-ice switch has positions OFF/ON. What is the correct statement?
a) The stick shaker and minimum manoeuvre speed bars on the speed tape move upward. Stick
shaker logic remains set for icing conditions for the remainder of flight, regardless of subsequent
WING ANTI-ICE switch position.
b) The stick shaker and minimum manoeuvre speed bars on the speed tape move upward, as well
as Vref. The speed bars and Vref will be adjusted downward again when the WING ANTI-ICE
switch is positioned to OFF.
c) Nothing will change on the speed tape.
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Technical Questionnaire
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4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
Technical Questionnaire
4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
a) One Flight Control Computer (FCC) and the Mode Control Panel (MCP).
b) Two FCC's and one MCP.
c) One FMC and the F/D command bars.
a) The mode selector switches always illuminate when their respective modes are active.
b) Pressing an un-illuminated mode selector switch always selects the indicated mode.
c) Pressing an illuminated mode selector switch deselects the associated mode.
a) The F/D bars must be within approximately 1/2 scale of being centered, while no force is applied
to the control wheel.
b) No relevant system failures, no force applied to the control wheel and the stabilizer trim autopilot
cutout switch in NORMAL.
c) The F/D switches are ON, and no force applied to the control wheel.
a) Deselecting both the roll and pitch command modes on the MCP.
b) Applying control column force to override the A/P during a single channel approach.
c) Hydraulic system B pressure loss with A/P B in CMD.
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4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
Technical Questionnaire
7. Condition: Normal operation. The N1 limits and target N1 values are provided by:
a) The V/S mode can only be engaged by pressing the V/S switch.
b) When the V/S mode is engaged, it is possible to select a V/S away from the MCP selected
altitude.
c) Pressing the V/S switch always engages the V/S mode.
10. What is the correct statement regarding the A/T TAKEOFF mode?
11. In which modes will the A/T not reposition the thrust levers after pilots' interference?
a) Reversion of an A/P to CWS pitch or roll with the engage lever in CMD.
b) Expect unusual A/P behaviour due to a stabilizer out of trim condition.
c) Disengagement of the second A/P during an A/P go-around.
13. Condition: A/P in command, operating in V/S, A/T on. If the actual speed becomes less than a minimum
speed the AFDS reverts to LVL CHG.
a) False.
b) True.
c) True, if the condition lasts for more than 10 sec.
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4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
Technical Questionnaire
14. In flight; A/T controlling the MCP speed. What is indicated by a flashing amber A/T light?
16. After VOR/LOC and G/S are both captured, the APP mode can be de-activated by:
17. What is the minimum Radio Altitude to engage the second A/P in CMD, for dual A/P operation in the
APP mode?
a) 2,000 ft RA.
b) 1,500 ft RA.
c) 800 ft RA.
18. Condition: Dual A/P operation in the APP mode. FLARE armed should be annunciated before:
a) 800 ft RA.
b) 500 ft RA.
c) 200 ft RA.
19. At which RA should the FLARE mode engage in the DUAL A/P APP mode?
20. Condition: Single channel ILS approach. What is the minimum altitude to disconnect the A/P?
a) 160 ft AGL.
b) 50 ft below DA.
c) DA.
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4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
Technical Questionnaire
21. Condition: Non-Precision approach. What is the minimum altitude to disconnect the A/P?
a) 160 ft AGL.
b) 50 ft below MDA.
c) MDA.
22. Condition: Normal approach, below 2000 ft (A/T engaged). What will the A/T do if a TO/GA switch is
pressed once?
23. When during a N-1 approach a Go-Around is initiated, what is the correct statement:
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5. COMMUNICATIONS
Technical Questionnaire
5. COMMUNICATIONS
1. Communication to an external interphone jack e.g. near the engines, requires the following selections:
a) SERV INT transmitter selector pressed; service interphone switch (aft ovhd panel) ON.
b) FLT INT transmitter selector pressed; service interphone switch (aft ovhd panel) ON.
c) FLT INT transmitter selector pressed.
4. How can you erase recordings made on the cockpit voice recorder?
5. When the white light above the frequency transfer switch on the Radio Tuning Panel (if installed)
illuminates, it indicates that:
6. What is the correct statement regarding the MASK-BOOM switch (as installed)?
a) With switch in BOOM, communication via oxygen mask microphones is not possible.
b) With switch in MASK, Passenger Address announcements cannot be made.
c) With switch in MASK, both boom and mask transmissions are possible on ground only.
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Technical Questionnaire
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6. ELECTRICAL
Technical Questionnaire
6. ELECTRICAL
a) Both AC transfer busses on the ground and only one in the air.
b) One AC transfer bus on the ground and two in the air.
c) Both AC transfer busses on the ground and in the air.
a) Both generator busses on the ground and only one in the air.
b) One generator bus on the ground and two in the air.
c) Both generator busses on the ground and in the air.
a) When the APU is at operational speed and ready to accept an electrical load.
b) Whenever the APU is supplying power to the bus no. 1.
c) Whenever the APU is supplying power to the bus no. 2.
5. (-7/8/900) What is the correct statement regarding illumination of the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light?
a) Ground Power has been plugged in and automatically powers both ground services busses
b) Ground Power has been plugged in and meets airplane power quality standards
c) Ground Power has been plugged in, ground power quality is not checked .
6. (-3/400) What is the correct statement regarding illumination of the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light?
a) Ground Power has been plugged in and automatically powers both ground services busses
b) Ground Power has been plugged in and meets airplane power quality standards
c) Ground Power has been plugged in, ground power quality is not checked.
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6. ELECTRICAL
Technical Questionnaire
7. Condition: Ground power plugged in. When is the ground service bus powered?
a) The IDG automatically disconnects and only its DRIVE light illuminates.
b) The IDG automatically disconnects and the associated DRIVE light, SOURCE OFF light and
GEN OFF BUS light illuminate.
c) The IDG HIGH OIL TEMPERATURE light illuminates. The IDG has to be disconnected manually
via Generator Drive Disconnect Switch.
a) No.
b) Yes, by resetting the applicable circuit breaker on P18-3 in concert with B737 FTG.
c) Yes, but only after the APU generator is powering the associated generator bus.
10. (-7/8/900) Condition: Bus Transfer switch AUTO. What is the correct statement if generator 1 fails?
11. (-3/400) Condition: Bus Transfer switch AUTO. What is the correct statement if generator 1 fails?
12. (-7/8/900) Illumination of the SOURCE OFF and a GEN (or APU GEN) OFF BUS light indicates:
a) The source manually selected to power the Transfer Bus has failed, and the automatic bus
transfer function has closed the BTB's to power the Transfer Bus from another source.
b) The associated transfer bus is no longer powered.
c) The associated generator bus is no longer powered.
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6. ELECTRICAL
Technical Questionnaire
13. (-7/8/900) When during cruise, one engine driven generator fails:
a) Only the associated GEN OFF BUS light and SOURCE OFF light illuminate.
b) Only the associated GEN OFF BUS light, SOURCE OFF light and TRANSFER BUS OFF light
illuminate.
c) The GEN OFF BUS light, SOURCE OFF light, and TRANSFER BUS OFF light illuminate. Also
various other lights associated with systems which were powered by the transfer bus illuminate.
16. (-7/8/900) What is the correct statement regarding the ELEC light?
a) Illumination of the ELEC light indicates a fault exists in any part of the electrical system.
b) Illumination of the ELEC light indicates a fault exists in the AC power system.
c) Illumination of the ELEC light indicates a fault exists in the DC or standby power system.
18. At glide slope capture the cross bus tie relay (-3/400: TR3 disconnect relay) opens. What will happen?
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6. ELECTRICAL
Technical Questionnaire
19. (-7/8/900) With the STANDBY POWER switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all normal electrical
power results in automatic switching from the normal power source to the alternate power source for
standby power:
a) In flight only.
b) On the ground only.
c) Both in flight and on the ground.
20. (-3/400) With the STANDBY POWER switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all normal electrical power
results in automatic switching from the normal power source to the alternate power source for standby
power:
a) In flight only.
b) On the ground only.
c) Both in flight and on the ground.
21. (-7/8/900) After the loss of all generators the fully charged main and auxiliary batteries provide standby
power for a minimum of:
a) 30 minutes.
b) 60 minutes.
c) 90 minutes.
22. (-3/400) After the loss of all generators the fully charged battery provides standby power for a minimum
of:
a) 30 minutes.
b) 60 minutes.
c) 90 minutes.
23. What is the power supplier for the AC standby bus in case of alternate operation?
24. What is the power supplier for the DC standby bus in case of alternate operation?
a) AC standby bus.
b) The batteries (-3/400: battery).
c) It switches to another TR.
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Technical Questionnaire
a) VHF-1 only.
b) VHF-2 only.
c) VHF-1 and VHF-2.
28. Which VHF transceivers are usable with BAT PWR only, while on ground?
a) Galley power.
b) Lavatory smoke detection.
c) Recirculation fans.
d) Water (drain) heaters and water compressor.
30. The IFE/PASS SEAT switch (if installed) powers amongst others:
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Technical Questionnaire
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7. ENGINES, APU
Technical Questionnaire
7. ENGINES, APU
a) 18,000 pounds.
b) 20,000 pounds.
c) 22,000 pounds.
d) 24,000 pounds.
a) 18,000 pounds.
b) 20,000 pounds.
c) 22,000 pounds.
d) 24,000 pounds.
a) 18,000 pounds.
b) 20,000 pounds.
c) 22,000 pounds.
d) 24,000 pounds.
a) 20,000 pounds.
b) 22,000 pounds.
c) 24,000 pounds.
d) 26,000 pounds.
a) 20,000 pounds.
b) 22,000 pounds.
c) 24,000 pounds.
d) 26,000 pounds.
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7. ENGINES, APU
Technical Questionnaire
6. What is the maximum time limit for takeoff thrust, 2 Engines/ N-1?
a) 5 min/ 12 min.
b) 5 min/ 10 min (-3/400: “allowed if there is an obstacle in the takeoff flight path”).
c) 10 min/ 10 min.
7. What value is indicated by the Reference N1 Bugs (-3/400: N1 cursors) during a reduced thrust takeoff?
8. What is the minimum indicated oil pressure with takeoff thrust set?
a) 13 psi.
b) Above the yellow band.
c) Above the red pointer.
9. (-7/8/900) What will happen if the thrust levers are pushed full forward (normal EEC operation)?
10. (-7/8/900) The EEC monitors engine parameters to detect impending hot starts, EGT start limit
exceedances, and wet starts during:
a) The EEC provides redline exceedance protection for N1, N2 and EGT.
b) The EEC provides flameout protection and redline exceedance protection for N1, N2 and EGT.
c) The EEC provides flameout protection and redline protection for N1 and N2. The EEC does not
provide EGT redline exceedance protection
12. (-7/8/900) What is the correct statement regarding the EEC in the alternate mode?
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7. ENGINES, APU
Technical Questionnaire
a) To schedule additional fuel to assist in a fast spin-up during T/O and G/A.
b) To schedule LOW or HIGH idle RPM.
c) To maintain a constant thrust, in relation to a given thrust lever position.
a) Never allowed.
b) Allowed but the other PMC must be ON for reference purposes.
c) Allowed only with full thrust and both PMC's selected off.
a) Touchdown.
b) 4 sec. after touchdown.
c) Flaps are selected up after landing.
16. (-3/400) Condition: In flight. When will the LOW IDLE light be illuminated?
a) One or two engines are operating at HIGH idle RPM during descent.
b) One or two engines are operating below HIGH idle RPM.
c) When an engine fails.
17. What is the correct statement regarding the engine oil system?
a) The LOW OIL PRESSURE light and the oil pressure indicator have the same pickup.
b) The engine oil is cooled by fan air.
c) The engine oil pressure is not regulated and depends on engine RPM.
18. (-7/8/900) During the preflight procedure, what is the minimum required oil quantity?
a) 7.4 liters.
b) 9.4 liters.
c) 11.4 liters.
19. (-3/400) During the preflight procedure, what is the minimum required oil quantity?
a) 2.5 gallons.
b) 3.0 gallons.
c) 4.0 gallons.
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7. ENGINES, APU
Technical Questionnaire
20. What happens when the Engine Start switch is placed in GRD during engine starting?
a) 36% N2.
b) 46% N2.
c) 56% N2.
a) 36% N2.
b) 46% N2.
c) 56% N2.
a) 895° C.
b) 725° C.
c) 9 30° C.
24. Before subsequent flights you should select the right igniter for engine start. Why?
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7. ENGINES, APU
Technical Questionnaire
27. What is the correct statement regarding the amber REV indication (-3/400: REVERSER UNLOCKED
lights)?
28. What is the correct statement regarding the REVERSER lights (aft overhead panel)?
a) 25,000 ft.
b) 35,000 ft.
c) Maximum aircraft operating altitude.
a) 10,000 ft.
b) 17,000 ft.
c) Maximum operating altitude.
31. (-3/400) Where can you check the engagement of the APU starter motor?
33. Which of the four lights on the APU control panel will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU
when it illuminates?
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7. ENGINES, APU
Technical Questionnaire
35. (-7/8/900) When the APU switch is moved to the OFF position while the APU is supplying bleed air, the
APU will shutdown after:
a) 30 seconds.
b) 60 seconds.
c) 90 seconds.
36. (-3/400) When the APU switch is moved to the OFF position while the APU is supplying bleed air, the
APU will shutdown after:
a) 30 seconds.
b) 60 seconds.
c) 90 seconds.
37. After APU shutdown you must delay selecting the battery switch to OFF, because:
38. What will happen when the total load on the APU becomes excessive?
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8. FIRE PROTECTION
Technical Questionnaire
8. FIRE PROTECTION
2. During normal operation, what condition will result in an engine fire warning?
3. When does an engine fire warning switch extinguish after a fire warning?
a) When the fuel shut off valve on the main engine control is closed.
b) When a fire bottle is discharged.
c) When the detector loops have cooled down.
4. Is it true that illumination of the FAULT (Engine Fire/Overheat Detector) light also causes the MASTER
CAUTION and OVHT/DET annunciator lights to illuminate?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Yes, but only after Master Caution Recall.
5. Condition: normal operation. During an engine fire test the RH engine fire warning switch does not illuminate,
the FAULT light remains extinguished after the test. What does this indicate?
a) Will be discharged automatically 10 seconds after fire detection, provided the aircraft is on the ground
with both engines shutdown.
b) Will always automatically be discharged 10 seconds after the fire detection.
c) Will be discharged automatically provided the aircraft is in flight.
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8. FIRE PROTECTION
Technical Questionnaire
8. How can you detect a fault in the main wheel well fire detector?
a) The fire extinguisher bottle will discharge into the waste bin.
b) The RETURN TO YOUR SEAT light illuminates in the lavatory.
c) The SMOKE light will illuminate, accompanied by MASTER CAUTION.
11. After a lavatory fire, the extinguishing bottle has automatically discharged. Is the fire extinguishing system at
that lavatory still serviceable?
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9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
Technical Questionnaire
9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
a) Elevators.
b) Stabilizer.
c) Trailing edge flaps.
3. Is it true that aileron trim input may cause flight spoiler deployment?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Only true if flaps are not up.
5. Due to a loss of hydraulic system B the FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates. What is the correct statement?
a) The stabilizer.
b) The elevator.
c) The balance tabs of the ailerons.
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9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
Technical Questionnaire
8. Using main electrical trim, when will you have a high trim rate?
9. A/P A engaged in CMD. The pilot uses the main electric trim to trim the stabilizer. What is the correct
statement?
a) After the pilot stops his trim input the A/P will re-trim the stabilizer to the original position.
b) The A/P engaged will revert to CWS.
c) The A/P engaged will revert to OFF.
12. The FFM (Force Fight Monitor) on the main rudder PCU will be activated when the system detects:
13. When the FFM (Force Fight Monitor) on the main rudder PCU is activated, the system will:
14. -7/8/900 aircraft have 2 extra flight spoilers on each wing compared to the -3/400 aircraft, resulting in:
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9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
Technical Questionnaire
15. (-7/8/900) When the speedbrakes are deployed inflight, the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light:
a) Always illuminates.
b) Illuminates only when the radio altitude is less than 800 ft.
c) Illuminates when the radio altitude is less than 800 ft, or the TE flaps are extended beyond flaps 10.
16. If wheel spin-up is not detected on landing with the SPEED BRAKE lever in the armed position, the flight
spoilers will:
17. What happens with the spoiler panels during a rejected T/O?
a) They will deploy automatically after selecting reverse, when the wheel speed is above 60 kt.
b) They must be deployed by manually pulling the speed brake lever.
c) They will deploy automatically when the T/O is rejected at speeds greater than 90 kt, below 90 kt they
must be deployed manually.
18. The Load Alleviation System (LAS), if installed, reduces structural load on the wing:
a) The flight spoilers are retracted, the speed brake lever remains in flight detent.
b) The flight spoilers are retracted partly, the speed brake lever remains in flight detent.
c) The flight spoilers are retracted partly as well as the speed brake lever.
a) 10,000 ft.
b) 17,000 ft.
c) 20,000 ft.
21. The trailing edge (TE) flaps are at 15 units. What is the correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the
leading edge (LE) devices?
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9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
Technical Questionnaire
22. (-7/8/900) When the Flap Load Relief system is activated due to overspeed:
a) LE skew detection.
b) TE asymmetry protection.
c) Overspeed protection for LE devices.
a) Always in flight.
b) With flaps 1,2 or 5 selected.
c) With flaps in the landing range.
a) It pushes the control column forward in case you approach a stall condition.
b) It extends the LE slats from EXT to FULL EXT prior to stick shaker activation.
c) It extends the LE flaps from UP to EXT if airspeed falls below the minimum manoeuvre speed.
28. What is the correct statement regarding alternate LE/TE flap operation?
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9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
Technical Questionnaire
29. Alternate flaps extension. What happens with the LE devices when the alternate flap position switch is
momentarily selected down?
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Technical Questionnaire
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10. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS
Technical Questionnaire
1. (-7/8/900) DSPLY SOURCE appears automatically on the PFD. What does this mean?
2. (-7/8/900) The Captain’s outboard DU has failed. What is the correct statement?
a) The Captain’s outboard DU blanks and the PFD automatically moves to the inboard DU.
b) The Captain’s outboard DU blanks. The PFD can be selected only when using the OUTBD/INBD
Control Panel Select Switch.
c) The PFD automatically moves to the lower DU.
3. (-3/400) What is the correct hook-up between the symbol generator(s) and the CRT's?
4. (-3/400) Because of a symbol generator failure the EFI transfer switch is placed to "Both on 2". What is
indicated by the yellow COMP flag on both EADI's?
a) The computation of data displayed on the EADI's is much slower than with the EFI transfer
switch in NORMAL.
b) The comparator function has failed/is not available.
c) The F/D bars of both A/P computers can not be monitored.
a) The predicted airspeed within 10 seconds, based on present airspeed and acceleration.
b) The predicted airspeed within 4 seconds, based on acceleration and wind conditions.
c) The average head- or tailwind component during the last 10 seconds.
6. Cruise flight at FL 350. What is indicated by the bottom of the black and red barber pole on the upper side of
the speed tape?
a) Mmo.
b) Maximum gear extension speed.
c) High speed buffet.
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10. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS
Technical Questionnaire
7. Cruise flight at FL 350. What is indicated by the bottom of the hollow yellow bar extending from the barber pole
on the upper side of the speed tape?
8. Flaps 5 set. A hollow yellow bar extends upward from the red and black bar at the lower side of the speed tape.
What is indicated by the top of this hollow yellow bar?
9. Flaps 5 set. What happens with the indicated minimum maneuver speed at the bottom of the speed tape when
flight spoilers are extended?
10. Flaps 5 set. A hollow yellow bar extends downwards from the red and black bar at the upper side of the speed
tape. What is indicated by the bottom of this hollow yellow bar?
12. (-3/400) During take-off and go around the "F" symbol appears on the speed tape. What speed is indicated by
this symbol?
a) V2 + 20 kt.
b) Minimum flap retraction speed.
c) Stick shaker speed for the next flap setting.
13. (-3/400) On both EADI's the Pitch Comparator Annunciation "PITCH" appears. What is the cause?
a) The aircraft is out of trim and the engaged A/P is not able to correct this.
b) The AFS is not able to control speed and/or altitude in accordance with selections made on the
MCP.
c) There is a difference of more than 3° between Capt's and F/O's EADI pitch displays.
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10. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS
Technical Questionnaire
15. (-7/8/900) When an ILS/DME has been tuned and the DME is received:
a) The DME distance is displayed on the PFD and on the ND in the MAP mode and in the APP mode.
b) The DME distance is displayed on the PFD and on the ND in the APP mode only.
c) The DME distance is displayed on the standby Radio Magnetic Indicator.
16. (-7/8/900) The Minimums Reference Selector is placed in the RADIO position. When both a DH and DA have
been selected:
a) The numeric values for both DH and DA are displayed on the PFD. Also the BARO Minimums Pointer
is displayed.
b) The numeric value for DH is displayed. DA is indicated by the BARO Minimums Pointer only.
c) Only the DH is displayed.
17. (-7/8/900) During climb: When the aircraft passes the programmed transition altitude (as displayed on the
PERF INIT page) while STD is not selected:
18. (-3/400) Where do the electric altimeters receive their signals from?
19. (-7/8/900) When the vertical speed mode is used, the vertical speed target is displayed:
20. In which of the following modes can GPWS terrain data be displayed?
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10. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS
Technical Questionnaire
22. (-7/8/900) The message EFIS MODE / NAV FREQ DISAGREE is displayed on the ND if:
23. Where does the standby altimeter/airspeed indicator receive it's signals from?
24. The alignment of the ISFD (Integrated Standby Flight Display), if installed:
a) Close to a building
b) Within 100 m of a fuel truck
c) Within 50 ft (15,25 m) of any personnel or a fuel spill.
26. (-7/8/900) For takeoff, the white bug on the speed tape indicates:
a) Vref
b) V2 + 15
c) V2 + 20
27. (-7/8/900) For landing, the white bug on the speed tape indicates:
28. (-3/400) Regarding the EADI System Failure Flags, which statements are correct?
a) The yellow “LOC” flag indicates that the localizer deviation display has failed.
b) The “COMP” annunciation indicates a different attitude on the left EADI, compared to the right EADI.
c) “PITCH” or “ROLL” annunciation indicates a difference of more than 3 degrees between EADI’s.
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11. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION
Technical Questionnaire
1. During pre-flight cockpit procedures the pilot accidentally moves the IRS mode selector too far and goes from
OFF to ATT instead of NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
a) Switch to OFF, wait until the ALIGN light extinguishes, then switch to NAV.
b) Switch directly to NAV from the ATT position.
c) Switch to the ALIGN position and then to NAV.
2. (-3/400) IRS transfer switch NORMAL. The left IRS provides inputs to:
5. What is the purpose of the ATT position on the IRS mode selector?
6. What happens with IRS 2 when it loses its normal AC power source?
7. (-3/400) Condition: IRS transfer switch NORMAL. Which IRS is used by A/P A?
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11. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION
Technical Questionnaire
8. From which source do the vertical speed indicators receive their basic vertical speed information?
9. What is the correct statement regarding the relation between CDU and FMC?
10. How does the FMC know the actual fuel quantity?
12. Is the wind direction, on all FMC pages where it is displayed, referenced to true north?
a) Yes.
b) No. It is always referenced to magnetic north.
c) No. PROGRESS page 3/3 displays wind referenced to magnetic north.
13. On which page is it possible to enter airway segments consisting of multiple waypoints?
a) RTE page.
b) RTE LEGS page.
c) PROGRESS page.
14. Must the ACTIVATE prompt be line selected before the RTE pages can be initially executed?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) No, if company route was used.
15. After performing the FMC/CDU pre-flight actions, the flight crew notices that the active nav data base is expired
and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the nav data base change?
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11. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION
Technical Questionnaire
16. After T/O, what will be considered by the FMC to select R-CLB instead of CLB as A/T limit?
a) (1500).
b) D170L.
c) BSN 240/FL110.
18. To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, which FMC climb mode should be used?
a) MAX RATE.
b) MAX ANGLE.
c) ECON.
19. Is it possible to delete the active waypoint on the RTE LEGS page?
a) Yes, always.
b) No.
c) Yes, but only if LNAV is not engaged.
20. During cruise the PM selects the LRC CRZ page to look up certain information. The PF has modified the route
on the RTE LEGS page. The EXEC lights on both CDU's illuminate. What happens when the PF presses the
EXEC key?
a) Both the route change and the LRC CRZ mode will be activated.
b) Only the route change will be activated, the EXEC light on the other CDU will remain
illuminated.
c) Nothing will be activated, the message "SELECT CORRECT MOD" will be displayed in the
scratch pad.
21. Which one of the following factors is not considered in the TRIP ALT computation? (PERF INIT page.)
a) Cost index.
b) Minimum cruise time (5 min.)
c) Reserve fuel.
22. In flight the crew creates a new waypoint. How long will this new waypoint remain stored in the FMC?
a) It will remain stored until it is deleted by activating the DELETE ALL SUPP DATA prompt SUPP
NAV DATA page).
b) It will be stored for one flight only.
c) It will remain stored until the new PERMANENT NAV DATA base becomes active.
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11. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION
Technical Questionnaire
23. The crew has entered a STEP TO altitude on the CRZ page. Which wind value does the FMC consider to be
the actual wind at the STEP TO altitude?
a) Arrival selection is only possible for the DEST airport as entered on RTE page 1.
b) Arrival selection is only possible for the ORIGIN and DEST airports as entered on RTE page 1.
c) Arrival selection is possible for every stored airport using the OTHER ARR prompt on the
DEP/ARR INDEX page.
25. Condition: A/P and A/T engaged. What are the requirements for an automatic start of descent?
26. Condition: Cruise flight prior to top of descent. Approach planning completed, and VNAV PTH is the active
pitch mode. A lower altitude has not been selected on the MCP. Which pitch mode will become active at top of
descent?
a) VNAV PTH.
b) VNAV SPD.
c) ALT HOLD.
27. How is the target speed maintained during an ECON PATH DES?
a) The flight crew is responsible to maintain the target speed by controlling thrust and drag.
b) The FMC uses the A/T to control speed within 5 kt from the target speed.
c) By A/P pitch control.
28. The aircraft is descending in VNAV PTH. In which roll modes will VNAV PTH remain engaged?
a) In LNAV only.
b) In HDG SEL only.
c) In both LNAV and HDG SEL.
29. What will be the effect of entering 300 (kt) on the TGT SPD line of the ECON PATH DES page?
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11. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION
Technical Questionnaire
30. What is the end of descent altitude on the PATH DESCENT page?
31. What does the FMC alerting message INSUFFICIENT FUEL mean?
a) The thrust setting is not correct for the active FMC VNAV mode.
b) Destination can not be reached because of fuel shortage.
c) There will be less than 900 kg of fuel at destination.
a) VNAV disengaged because the airspeed exceeds the FMC speed restriction by more than 15 kt.
b) VNAV and LNAV disengaged because the FMC is unable to follow the LNAV-path while
flying the target speed.
c) The FMC has disengaged the A/T due to maximum N1.
33. In the FMC the message “RW/APP TUNE DISAGREE” appears. What does this mean?
a) The manual tuned approach frequency does not match the active flight plan.
b) The manual tuned approach frequency does not match the selected course on the MCP.
c) The selected runway in the FMC does not match the selected approach.
34. Which statement regarding VNAV SPEED INTERVENTION (if installed) is true?
a) VNAV speed intervention can be used to change speed requirements, without the need to use the
CDU.
b) The SPD INTV switch is active only when a speed is indicated in the IAS/MACH window.
c) When SPD INTV is pushed with VNAV engaged, IAS/MACH window will unblank and speed
intervention is active.
35. Which statement regarding VNAV ALTITUDE INTERVENTION (if installed) is true?
a) When ALT INTV switch is pushed during climb, aircraft will level off at present altitude when in VNAV.
b) The ALT INTV switch allows deletion of next FMC altitude constraint during VNAV climb and descent.
c) During FMC (VNAV) cruise: Changing flight altitude can be done by setting MCP altitude and pushing
ALT INTV switch.
36. Which statement regarding the Multiscan Weather Radar (if installed) is true?
a) With weather radar in AUTO mode, Captain’s and F/O’s displays are updated simultaneously and tilt is
automatically controlled.
b) Even when WXR is not selected on the ND, predictive windshear is active.
c) Radar returns are being displayed with Navigation Display in any mode.
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Technical Questionnaire
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12. FUEL
Technical Questionnaire
12. FUEL
1. (-7/8/900) All fuel pumps ON: Center tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
a) The center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than the main tank check valves.
b) The center tank boost pumps have a higher output pressure than the main tank pumps.
c) The main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate
and the center tank pumps are turned off.
2. (-3/400) All fuel pumps ON: Center tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
a) The center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than the main tank check valves.
b) The center tank boost pumps have a higher output pressure than the main tank pumps.
c) The main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate
and the center tank pumps are turned off.
3. What is the purpose of the (engine) fuel by-pass valves in the main tanks?
a) To allow suction feed in case the electrical fuel pumps fail to operate.
b) To allow balanced fuel feed in case of engine failure.
c) To by-pass the engine fuel shut off valve in case this valve fails in the closed position.
4. (-7/8/900) During preflight the center tank pumps are off and there is 1000 kg of fuel in the center tank. The
CDS will display:
5. What is the correct statement regarding the LOW PRESS lights for the center tank pumps?
7. On aircraft with auto shut-off CTR tank fuel pumps, Master Caution (FUEL) will be illuminated when
a) One LOW PRESSURE light is continuously illuminated for 10 seconds with the switch in ON.
b) Auto shut-off feature is unserviceable.
c) Both CTR tank pump switches are OFF with fuel in the CTR tank.
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12. FUEL
Technical Questionnaire
a) When CTR tank is almost empty, main tank imbalance is prevented automatically.
b) Each CTR pump will shut-off after a delay, when sensing low pressure.
c) Once activated the auto shut-off logic can not be reset, CTR tank pumps will remain OFF.
10. What statement about the fuel VALVE CLOSED lights is correct?
a) 350 kg.
b) 453 kg.
c) 550 kg.
14. (-7/8/900) The Fuel Imbalance ("IMBAL") indication is displayed on the CDS:
a) When a main tank imbalance of more than 453 kg exists, provided the aircraft is in flight.
b) When a main tank imbalance of more than 453 kg exists, both in flight and on the ground.
c) When one center tank pump is inoperative and the crossfeed valve is closed.
15. (-7/8/900) The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:
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12. FUEL
Technical Questionnaire
16. (-3/400) The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:
17. With all fuel pumps ON and fuel in all tanks, which tank supplies fuel for the APU?
a) Tank No. 1.
b) The center tank.
c) Tank No. 2 if the crossfeed valve is open.
20. What is the correct statement regarding the Nitrogen Generation System (NGS) indicator lights
(as installed) in the main wheel well?
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Technical Questionnaire
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13. HYDRAULICS
Technical Questionnaire
13. HYDRAULICS
a) A.
b) B.
a) A.
b) B.
a) A.
b) B.
a) A.
b) B.
5. The LOW PRESSURE light for the system B electric hydraulic pump illuminates. What are the other
indications?
6. What happens with the hydraulic systems if the No. 2 engine fire warning switch is pulled?
a) Shuts off fluid to the electric pump in system B, and deactivates the associated LOW
PRESSURE light.
b) Shuts off fluid to the engine driven pump in system B, and deactivates the associated LOW
PRESSURE light.
c) Shuts off fluid to the electric pump in system A, and deactivates the associated LOW
PRESSURE light.
7. Which of the following systems have a noticeable effect on hydraulic quantity indication when they are
extended/retracted?
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Technical Questionnaire
a) Fan air.
b) Fuel.
c) Outside air
10. In case the system B engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost, the Power Transfer Unit will provide
additional volume for operation of:
11. In case the system A engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost, the Landing Gear Transfer Unit will provide
additional volume under the following conditions:
a) Loss of system A pressure and landing gear is selected UP and gear not up & locked.
b) Loss of system A pressure and landing gear is selected DOWN and gear not up & locked.
c) Airborne, no.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, landing gear selected UP.
13. Condition: System A FLT CONTROL switch in STBY RUD. What should be the status of the respective FLT
CONTROL LOW PRESSURE light?
a) With a loss of system A or B, flaps extended and wheel speed greater than 60 kts or
airborne.
b) With a loss of system A or B, wheel speed greater than 60 kts or airborne
c) With a loss of system A and B, wheel speed greater than 60 kts or airborne.
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13. HYDRAULICS
Technical Questionnaire
15. What is the indication that pressurization of the hydraulic reservoirs is possibly lost?
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Technical Questionnaire
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14. LANDING GEAR
Technical Questionnaire
1. What happens after lift-off, if the air-ground safety sensor fails in the ground mode?
a) A latch prevents the landing gear lever from being positioned to UP.
b) The AUTO FAIL light illuminates because the outflow valve is driven to open.
c) The aural gear warning sounds continuously.
2. When the forward instrument panel shows an unsafe gear indication and the aft overhead panel shows three
green lights:
3. Only the -3/400 variant has main and nose gear viewers.
a) True.
b) False.
4. Condition: After takeoff and gear selected up. How do the wheels stop rotating?
5. (-7/8/900) Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear wheel well:
6. What happens if after a total hydraulic system A failure the gear is selected up?
a) The gear will go up, powered via the landing gear transfer unit.
b) The gear will go up but very slowly.
c) Nothing, the gear will stay down.
7. With the manual gear extension access door open, manual gear extension is possible with gear lever in any
position.
a) True.
b) True, only on the -7/8/900 variant.
c) False.
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14. LANDING GEAR
Technical Questionnaire
9. Why is the lock-out pin installed in the towing lever during push-back?
a) Hydraulic system A.
b) Hydraulic system B.
c) The brake accumulator.
13. After selecting the Auto Brake switch to RTO. When is the RTO mode armed?
14. (-7/8/900) When during takeoff with RTO selected, the forward thrust levers are moved to idle with a wheel
speed below 90 kt:
a) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates and no automatic braking is applied.
b) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates and maximum automatic braking is applied.
c) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light does not illuminate and no automatic braking is applied; the
autobrake system remains armed.
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Technical Questionnaire
15. (-3/400) When during takeoff with RTO selected, the forward thrust levers are moved to idle with a wheel speed
between 60 and 90 kt:
a) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates and no automatic braking is applied.
b) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates and maximum automatic braking is applied.
c) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light does not illuminate and no automatic braking is applied; the
autobrake system remains armed.
a) Radio altimeter 1.
b) The cabin pressure controller.
c) The landing gear.
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Technical Questionnaire
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15. WARNING SYSTEMS
Technical Questionnaire
1. A single GPS receiver failure has occurred. What is the correct statement?
2. The cabin altitude warning and the take-off configuration warning use the same intermittent tone when
activated.
a) True.
b) False.
3. Above which cabin altitude does the cabin altitude warning horn sound?
a) 10,000 ft.
b) 12,000 ft.
c) 14,000 ft.
5. Which of the following conditions will cause only the -7/8/900, a take-off configuration warning?
7. (-7/8/900) The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitors amongst others:
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15. WARNING SYSTEMS
Technical Questionnaire
8. Apart from the (BELOW) G/S light, visual warnings of the EGPWS system are presented:
a) For -7/8/900 aircraft as a red GPWS light and on the attitude indicators.
b) For -7/8/900 aircraft on the attitude indicators only.
c) For -3/400 aircraft as a red GPWS light and on the attitude indicators.
a) False.
b) True, when pushing the BELOW G/S light before selecting the APP mode on the MCP.
c) True, when pushing the BELOW G/S light below 1000’ RA.
11. When a TCAS TA is generated, the approximate time to the point of closest approach is:
a) 15 seconds.
b) 40 seconds.
c) 1 minute.
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16. FLIGHT SAFETY
Technical Questionnaire
1. You are assisting at a door during an evacuation on terrain. What do you shout to the passengers?
2. After ditching, how can you disconnect the slide totally from the aircraft?
a) Pull the slide disengage handle and cut the mooring line with the knife.
b) Pull the slide disengage handle and pull the mooring line quick release handle.
c) The slide cannot be disconnected.
a) After any landing gear failure all the B737 slides will be usable.
b) It is not possible to open the overwing exits from the outside.
c) The B737 slides will be disarmed when the doors are being opened from the outside.
4. You decide to prepare the cabin for an emergency landing. What document should be used?
5. If the PAS is inoperative, how is the command "BRACE FOR IMPACT" given to the cabin?
6. Slide bar attached in the floor fittings. How is the slide inflated of an entry- or service door?
a) The slide should inflate automatically after opening the respective door.
b) The slide should inflate automatically after the slide-bar is stowed on the door and the door is
opened.
c) After opening the door the manual inflation handle must be pulled to initiate inflation of the slide.
7. What command should the captain give immediately after an abnormal event on the ground (evacuation not yet
required)?
a) No command at all.
b) "Brace for impact".
c) "Cabin crew and passengers remain seated".
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Technical Questionnaire
8. If the cockpit door is blocked what is the best way to escape the cockpit?
9. After a passenger evacuation, cockpit task completed. What should the First Officer do?
a) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight if required), assist with the evacuation and leave the aircraft via
the aft entry door.
b) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight if required), assist with the evacuation and leave the aircraft.
c) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight if required), evacuate the aircraft and assist at the bottom of the
slide.
10. After a passenger evacuation, cockpit task completed. What should the Captain do?
a) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight/PBE if required), assist with the evacuation and leave the aircraft.
b) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight/PBE if required), assist with the evacuation, check all occupants
have evacuated and leave the aircraft.
c) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight/PBE if required), evacuate the aircraft and assist at the bottom of
the slide.
a) Push the door open until the power assist takes over.
b) Pull the manual inflation handle on the girt.
c) The passengers must be redirected by shouting: "NO SLIDE - GO TO THAT EXIT".
12. How does the Captain call the Purser to inform him/her that preparations have to be made for an emergency
landing?
a) By two chimes.
b) By the command "PURSER - REPORT TO COCKPIT" via the PAS.
c) By flashing the NO SMOKING sign two times.
14. (KLM -7/8/900) How many oxygen bottles are located in the aft section of the aircraft?
a) 2.
b) 3.
c) 4.
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Technical Questionnaire
15. (-3/400) How many oxygen bottles are located in the forward section of the aircraft?
a) 2.
b) 3.
c) 4.
16. (KLM aircraft) How many first aid kits are there on board the -3/4/700 variant?
a) 1.
b) 2.
c) 3.
17. (-8/900) Where is the Halon fire extinguisher located in the forward section of the aircraft?
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Technical Questionnaire
INTENTIONALLY BLANK
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17. ANSWERS
Technical Questionnaire
17. ANSWERS
1. Airplane General 2. Air Systems 3. Anti-ice, Rain 4. Automatic Flight
1 B C C B
2 A C A C
3 C A B B
4 B C A C
5 C A A C
6 A A A A
7 B B A C
8 C C C C
9 B B A B
10 A B B B
11 AC B C C
12 B C B B
13 B C AC B
14 C C A B
15 C A C
16 B A AC
17 C C C
18 B A B
19 A A B
20 AC A A
21 ABC A B
22 B C
23 C A
24 B
25 AB
26 C
27 A
28 A
29 C
30 A
31 ABD
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 A
36 B
37 B
38 C
39 B
40
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17. ANSWERS
Technical Questionnaire
1 A B B A
2 BC C C A
3 B A C C
4 C A C B
5 B B D B
6 A C B B
7 B B A
8 B B B
9 A C B
10 C A C
11 B C C
12 A B
13 A C
14 A C
15 B B
16 C B
17 AB C
18 C C
19 C A
20 A A
21 B C
22 A B
23 A B
24 B C
25 C C
26 A C
27 A B
28 C B
29 ACD C
30 AB B
31 A
32 B
33 B
34 A
35 B
36 C
37 B
38 B
39
40
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17. ANSWERS
Technical Questionnaire
1 A B A B
2 A A A A
3 A B A A
4 A B B B
5 B A B B
6 B A B C
7 B B C A
8 B B A B
9 C B B B
10 A C C C
11 A C A C
12 A B A B
13 ABC C A B
14 B A A A
15 C B C B
16 A B A A
17 A A A B
18 C A B A
19 C B B A
20 C B A C
21 A A C
22 C A B
23 AB C B
24 B C B
25 B C C
26 B B C
27 A C A
28 A AC C
29 C C
30 C B
31 A C
32 A
33 A
34 AC
35 BC
36 AB
37
38
39
40
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17. ANSWERS
Technical Questionnaire
13. Hydraulics 14. Landing Gear 15. Warning Systems 16. Flight Safety
1 B A B C
2 B C A B
3 A A A A
4 B B A C
5 C B B C
6 B C C A
7 AB B ABC C
8 B C BC B
9 B A C B
10 C A B B
11 C C B B
12 B C B
13 C B A
14 A C B
15 B A A
16 C B
17 B
18 C
19 A
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
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