KLM Tech Quest-1

k Flight Crew Training B737
Technical Questionnaire
B737 variants 3/4/7/8/900
Document / Revision Date : Technical Questionnaire 08FEB2010

Ownership : B. Miedema, Training Manager B737
Status : Active and approved
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FLIGHT CREW TRAINING B737
0. ADMINISTRATION AND INTRODUCTION
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CONTENTS
0. ADMINISTRATION AND INTRODUCTION.........................................................................................................4
1. AIRPLANE GENERAL.........................................................................................................................................7
2. AIR SYSTEMS ...................................................................................................................................................11
3. ANTI-ICE, RAIN .................................................................................................................................................19
4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT ........................................................................................................................................23
5. COMMUNICATIONS..........................................................................................................................................27
6. ELECTRICAL.....................................................................................................................................................29
7. ENGINES, APU..................................................................................................................................................35
8. FIRE PROTECTION...........................................................................................................................................41
9. FLIGHT CONTROLS .........................................................................................................................................43
10. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS ...............................................................................................................49
11. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION...........................................................................................................53
12. FUEL ..................................................................................................................................................................59
13. HYDRAULICS ....................................................................................................................................................63
14. LANDING GEAR................................................................................................................................................67
15. WARNING SYSTEMS........................................................................................................................................71
16. FLIGHT SAFETY ...............................................................................................................................................73
17. ANSWERS .........................................................................................................................................................77
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REVISION TOTAL REVISED NOTES BY

DATE PAGES PAGES
01 SEP 2007 80 - Document created EvB
01 SEP 2008 80 All Corrections, -700 introduction EvB
01 NOV 2009 80 All Corrections/ additions EvB
08 FEB 2010 80 All Corrections/ editorial EvB
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Introduction
Dear colleague,
This is the B737 Technical Questionnaire, applicable to the variants -300 through -900.
Questions indicated as e.g. “-3/700” are related to the -300 and -700 variant only.
The technical knowledge exams during the B737 Conversion Course and during the
FCL-check are based on this document.
This questionnaire does not cover all required technical knowledge. It is merely intended to indicate at what
level the pilots’ technical knowledge is.
The technical knowledge required for normal and non-normal operation remains the responsibility of the
pilot.
The subject of the questions are related to:

- controls and indicators
- basic B737 system knowledge
- day-to-day operation
- fleet differences
Although the screening of this document has been done with care, errors may still be present.
If you have any comments about the contents of this questionnaire please contact the B737 Training
Manager.
Your contribution is and will be appreciated.
This document is also available on the portal MyKLM.org.
B. Miedema
B737 Training Manager
SPL/NV
Tel. +31203042605
Barry.Miedema@klm.com
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1. AIRPLANE GENERAL
1. AIRPLANE GENERAL
1. (-7/8/900) The wingspan measures just under:
a) 35 m.
b) 36 m.
c) 37 m.
2. (-3/400) The wingspan measures just under:
a) 29 m.
b) 34 m.
c) 36 m.
3. (-900) What is the minimum required pavement width for a 180 degree turn?
(and thus sufficient for all variants)
a) 46 m.
b) 36 m.
c) 26 m.
4. (-3/400) What is the maximum flight altitude?
a) 35,000 ft.
b) 37,000 ft.
c) 41,000 ft.
5. (-7/8/900) What is the maximum flight altitude?
a) 37,000 ft.
b) 39,000 ft.
c) 41,000 ft.
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1. AIRPLANE GENERAL
6. What is the correct statement regarding circuit breaker panels P6 and P18 is true?
a) P6 is located behind the F/O’s seat and P18 behind the Capt’s seat.
b) P6 is located behind the Capt’s seat and P18 behind the F/O’s seat.
c) P6 and P18 are located on the aft overhead panel.
7. What is the correct statement regarding the taxi light.
a) On all aircraft the light automatically extinguishes when the gear retracts.
b) On some aircraft the light automatically extinguishes when the gear retracts.
c) The light will automatically extinguish when becoming airborne.
8. When will the Floor Proximity Emergency Escape Path lighting (as installed) automatically illuminate with
the emergency exit lights switch in ARMED?
a) Selecting the EVAC switch ON.

b) A loss of power on either generator bus.
c) A loss of power on DC bus no. 1 or if AC power is turned off.
9. How are the photoluminescent strips (as installed) along the cabin aisle properly charged?
a) Keeping all window shades open during the boarding process is sufficient.
b) Ceiling and sidewall lights should be at full intensity during the Charge Scenarios as described in
FCOM II.
c) Only during operation in the dark it is required to close overhead bins and to switch on the cabin
ceiling lights during the boarding process.
10. With the FASTEN BELT switch in AUTO the FASTEN BELT signs will illuminate?
a) Automatically when flaps and/or gear are extended.

b) Automatically when descending through 10.000 ft.
c) Both a and b.
11. How can the crew oxygen system pressure be checked?
a) By the gauge on the oxygen bottle in the fwd cargo compartment.

b) By the status of the PASS OXY ON light.
c) When the battery switch is ON, by the oxygen gauge on the aft overhead panel.
Note: More than one correct answer.
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1. AIRPLANE GENERAL
12. What is the minimum required flight crew oxygen pressure during preflight?
a) 1500 psi or lower after consulting the Pre-flight inspection booklet

b) 1050 psi (-3/400) / 735 psi (-7/8/900) or lower after consulting of FCOM I.
c) 1050 psi is the minimum departing from SPL
13. How can (on some aircraft) after use of the oxygen mask, the mask microphone be deactivated and the
boom microphone be activated again?
a) It is necessary to stow the oxygen mask.

b) Close the left oxygen mask panel door, push RESET/TEST switch.
c) It is required to press one of the transmitter selector switches.
14. At what cabin altitude is the passenger oxygen system automatically activated?
a) Approximately 10,000 ft.

b) Approximately 12,500 ft.
c) Approximately 14,000 ft.
15. The PASS OXY ON light illuminates. What does this indicate?
a) Passenger oxygen system pressure is low.

b) Passenger oxygen quantity is low.
c) Passenger oxygen system is operating and masks have dropped.
16. For how long does a passenger oxygen generator supply oxygen, after activation?
a) Approximately 5 min.
b) Approximately 12 min.
c) Approximately 20 min.
17. Regarding flight deck number two windows:
a) They both can be opened from outside the airplane.

b) Only the captain’s window number two can be opened from the outside.
c) Only the F/O’s window number two can be opened from the outside.
18. What is the correct statement regarding the cargo compartments?
a) The cargo compartments are not pressurized.

b) The cargo compartments are pressurized but do not have fresh air circulation.
c) The cargo compartments are pressurized and have fresh air circulation.
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1. AIRPLANE GENERAL
19. What determines the correct eye reference position?
a) When looking over the glareshield a small amount of airplane nose structure must be visible and
your view of the instrument panel’s A/P-A/T-FMC lights (-3/400) and EHSI (-7/8/900 Outer
Display) must be unobstructed.
b) The retractable reference marker (as located in the cockpit ceiling) must point between your
eyebrows when it is deployed.
c) Your eyes must be aligned with the eye reference marker-sticker between windows 2 and 3.
20. (-8/900) What statement regarding the Tail Tip MAC (TTMAC) is true?
a) If TTMAC exceeds a specific AFT limit, the passenger doors may not be opened without
verifying the unloading process of the cargo holds.
b) If TTMAC < 38%: The FWD cargo hold may be unloaded first
c) The FWD cargo hold may never be unloaded first
d) The AFT LANDING LIMIT MAC is 41%.
21. The overhead monitors of the Inflight Entertainment (IFE) system (if installed) will retract automatically
when:
a) The system becomes unpowered.

b) The Passenger Oxygen Masks are deployed.
c) The aircraft descents below 2000ft.
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2. Air systems
2. AIR SYSTEMS
1. Which systems use the pneumatic system for their operation?
a) Airconditioning, wing anti-ice, pitot/static heating.

b) Wing anti-ice, pitot/static heating, engine start motor.
c) Airconditioning, engine start motor, wing anti-ice.
2. Which reservoirs are not pressurized by the pneumatic system?
a) The water tank.

b) The hydraulic reservoirs.
c) The fuel tanks.
3. When does the BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminate?
a) Bleed air temperature or pressure exceeding a certain limit.

b) The corresponding bleed switch has been positioned to OFF.
c) When the bleed air valve closes due to back pressure from another pneumatic source.
4. What is the position of the isolation valve, with the isolation valve switch in AUTO?
a) Open, except with an engine bleed-valve or pack-valve in the closed position.

b) Closed, when an engine bleed- or pack switch is selected in ON.
c) Open, when an engine bleed- or pack switch is selected in OFF.
5. Condition: normal operation, in flight. What is the reaction of the isolation valve when a BLEED TRIP
OFF light illuminates?
a) There is no reaction of the isolation valve.

b) It closes to isolate the problem.
c) It opens to balance the load of the remaining pack over both engines.
6. What is the correct statement regarding engine starting?
a) The isolation valve must be open in order to start engine No. 1 from a pneumatic ground cart.
b) The engine bleed valve must be open in order to engage the engine's starter motor.
c) During engine start the DUAL BLEED light should be extinguished.
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2. Air systems
7. The DUAL BLEED light is a warning for:
a) Possible backpressure of the APU from external pneumatic air.

b) Possible backpressure of the APU from one of the engines.
c) Possible backpressure of an engine from external pneumatic air.
8. With both engine bleed switches ON, when will the DUAL BLEED light be illuminated?
a) Always when engines and APU are running.

b) When the isolation valve is open.
c) When the APU bleed air valve is open.
9. (-4/8/900) When will the PACK light illuminate?
a) At the moment the primary pack control fails (no master caution recall necessary).
b) In case of a pack trip off or failure of both primary and standby pack controls.
c) When a malfunction in the associated trim air system occurs.
10. (-4/8/900) What will be the indication if either a primary pack control or a standby pack control has
failed?
a) The PACK light, master caution and AIR COND annunciator illuminate.
b) The PACK light, master caution and AIR COND annunciator illuminate upon master caution
recall.
c) There will be no indication as the pack continues normal operation on the primary pack control.
11. (-4/8/900) How is pack operation controlled after a failure of a primary pack control?
a) The pack must be controlled by giving manual inputs to the standby pack control.
b) The pack continues automatic operation on the standby pack control.
c) The associated temperature selector must be adjusted to keep the PACK light extinguished.
12. (-3/700) What causes the PACK TRIP OFF light to illuminate?
a) Engine bleed air temperature exceeding limits.

b) Air conditioning bay temperature exceeding limits.
c) Pack or supply duct temperature exceeding limits.
13. One of the steps in the PACK (-3/700: PACK TRIP OFF) procedure in the Non Normal Checklist is to
select a warmer temperature. What will be the result?
a) The cabin air outflow will be reduced.

b) The airflow from that air conditioning pack will be reduced.
c) The workload of that air conditioning pack will be reduced.
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2. Air systems
14. What fault condition cannot be reset with the trip reset switch?
a) Bleed trip off.

b) Pack trip off.
c) Wing body overheat.
15. If one pack fails during flight, the remaining pack is capable of pressurizing the aircraft without the need
to descend.
a) True, when the remaining pack is operating in high flow.

b) True, with the remaining pack operating in either high or normal flow.
c) False, you will always have to descend.
16. (-4/8/900) Condition: Normal operation. What determines the output temperature of a pack?
a) The zone which requires the most cooling.

b) The average temperature demand of all three zones.
c) The left pack regulates to satisfy cockpit temperature demand; the right pack regulates to the
temperature demand of the cabin zone requiring the most cooling.
17. (-4/8/900) During master caution recall the FWD CAB ZONE TEMP light illuminates. When the recall is
reset the light extinguishes. What may be the cause?
a) There is an overheat in the forward cabin supply duct.

b) The actual temperature in the forward cabin zone deviates more than 5ºC from the
associated temperature selector setting.
c) Failure of the forward cabin zone temperature controller.
18. (-3/700) Which part of the system is overheated when the right DUCT OVERHEAT light is illuminated?
a) Passenger cabin duct.

b) Cockpit air conditioning duct.
c) Recirculation fan duct.
19. (-4/8/900) Under which condition does unbalanced pack operation occur?
a) When the trim air system has failed.

b) When the difference in demand temperature between the forward and aft cabin zones exceeds
4°C.
c) When the recirculation fans are manually switched OFF.
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2. Air systems
20. (-4/8/900) What is the correct statement regarding the trim air system?
a) Trim air is added to the conditioned air ducts to meet the temperature demand of each individual
zone.
b) Trim air reduces the workload on the packs.
c) Trim air is supplied to the mix manifold to mix with conditioned air.
21. (-4/8/900) How is the cockpit/cabin temperature controlled when the air conditioning system has
switched to unbalanced pack temperature control, because of total loss of trim air?
a) The left pack regulates its output temperature to cockpit demand; the right pack regulates its
output temperature to the average of the forward and aft cabin temperature demands.
b) Both packs regulate their output temperature to the zone requiring the most cooling. Trim air is
used to adjust the temperature for the other zones.
c) Both packs regulate their output to the average temperature demand of both cabin zones.
22. (-4/8/900) With the cabin temperature selector in the 6 o’clock position:
a) Existing cabin air temperature is maintained.

b) Closes the associated trim air modulating valve.
c) The related air mix valve is controlled manually.
23. (-3/700) With the cabin temperature selector in the 6 o’clock position:
a) Existing cabin air temperature is maintained.

b) Closes the associated trim air modulating valve.
c) The related air mix valve is controlled manually.
24. How is the forward cargo compartment heated?
a) Direct by pneumatic air.

b) By exhaust air from equipment cooling system directed around the forward cargo compartment.
c) The fwd cargo compartment is not heated.
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2. Air systems
25. Regarding the operation of the recirculation fan(s) with the recirculation fan switch(es) in AUTO:
a) It depends on the position of pack switches.

b) It depends on FLT/GND sensing.
c) It depends on the cabin altitude.
26. The RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights:
a) Are illuminated dim when the ram doors are in transit.

b) Can only illuminate on the ground with the ram doors full open.
c) Indicate that the ram doors are full open.
27. (-7/8/900) The cabin begins to pressurize automatically when:
a) On ground at higher engine power settings.

b) All doors are closed.
c) When airborne.
28. (-7/8/900) The AUTO FAIL light illuminates when:
a) The cabin altitude exceeds 15.800 ft and the controller is not responding properly.
b) The pressurization mode selector is moved to ALTN.
c) The rate of cabin pressure change exceeds 1000 ft/min.
29. (-3/400) The AUTO FAIL light illuminates when:
a) The pressurization mode selector is moved to STBY.

b) The cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft.
c) The cabin altitude exceeds 13,875 ft.
30. How can you lower the cabin altitude with the pressurization mode selector in MAN?
a) Move the outflow valve to close.

b) Move the outflow valve to open.
c) Reduce thrust.
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2. Air systems
31. (-3/400) The outflow valve can be operated in:
a) MAN AC, using the same motor as the AUTO controller.

b) MAN DC, using the same motor as the STBY controller.
c) MAN AC when only battery power available.
d) MAN DC when only battery power available.
32. (-3/400) When the FLT/GRD switch is not placed in FLT before taxi (pressurization mode selector
AUTO):
a) The outflow valve will remain open for the remainder of the flight.
b) The cabin will pressurize normally when airborne.
c) The cabin will pressurize to it’s maximum differential pressure when airborne.
33. (-3/400) When the FLT/GRD switch is placed to FLT, while operating in the AUTO mode on the ground,
the airplane will:
a) Pressurize to the selected cabin altitude.

b) Pressurize to the selected landing altitude.
c) Pressurize to approximately 200 ft below airport elevation.
34. What does an illuminated OFF SCHED DESCENT light mean?
a) The controller is unable to maintain pressurization.

b) The controller has failed in the AUTO mode and has changed over to the STBY mode.
c) The airplane is descending before reaching the selected flight altitude when operating in the
auto mode.
35. (-3/400) When the FLT/GRD switch is placed to FLT while operating in the STBY mode on the ground:
a) Aircraft is pressurized to the selected cabin altitude.

b) Aircraft is pressurized to the selected landing altitude.
c) Schedule to approximately 200 ft below departure airport elevation.
36. Is the FLT/GRD switch active in the manual modes?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Only in flight.
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2. Air systems
37. (-3/400) Condition: STBY mode. What is the minimum and maximum climb and descent rate?
a) 500 ft/min and 300 ft/min.

b) 50 ft/min and 2,000 ft/min.
c) 300 ft/min and 2,000 ft/min.
38. (-3/400) Condition: STBY mode. An altitude of 6,400 ft has been set in the cabin altitude indicator.
The airplane has to level off at 5,000 ft. What will happen to the cabin altitude?
a) Hold at a constant differential pressure.

b) Climb to and maintain the selected cabin altitude.
c) Climb to 5,000 ft.
39. Under what condition will the overboard exhaust valve (-3/400: flow control valve) close?
a) As soon as the aircraft becomes airborne.

b) When cabin differential pressure exceeds a certain preset value.
c) In flight with flaps up.
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2. Air systems
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3. ANTI-ICE, RAIN
3. ANTI-ICE, RAIN
1. On aircraft with eyebrow windows (4 and 5) installed:

Which windows are heated with the L SIDE switch in ON?
a) Left window no. 2 only.

b) Left window no. 2 and 3.
c) Left window no. 2, 3, 4 and 5.
2. A left window heat OVERHEAT light illuminates. What happens with the windows L3, L4 and L5?
a) They remain heated until the related L SIDE switch is placed to OFF.
b) Their power is removed automatically.
c) They continue to operate on ½ of their normal power.
3. With the window heat switches ON, why are the green ON lights not always illuminated?
a) This indicates that no icing conditions for the windows are present.
b) The power to the window is removed when it has reached its operating temperature.
c) In flight and speed below 250 kt, the window heat system is not active.
4. What is the definition of icing conditions?
a) When OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in flight) is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is
present.
b) When TAT is below 10°C and SAT is above -40°C.
c) When OAT is 10°C or below.
5. With engine operating, engine bleed air valve closed. Is engine anti-ice available?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Yes, only if the pneumatic system is pressurized.
6. What does it mean if the blue COWL VALVE OPEN light is illuminated dim?
a) The engine cowl anti-ice valve is open.

b) The engine cowl anti-ice valve is in transit.
c) The engine cowl anti-ice valve is closed.
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3. ANTI-ICE, RAIN
7. (-7/8/900) Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates:
a) An overpressure condition exists.

b) An overpressure or overtemperature condition exists.
c) The respective cowl anti-ice valve is in transit, or the cowl anti-ice valve position disagrees with
the respective ENGINE ANTI-ICE switch position.
8. (-3/400) Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates:
a) Pressure is too low for proper anti-ice operation.

b) Temperature is too low for proper anti-ice operation.
c) There is excessive pressure or excessive temperature.
9. What is the correct statement regarding the wing anti-ice system?
a) The wing anti-ice system is primarily used as a de-icing system.

b) The wing anti-ice system is primarily used as an anti-icing system.
c) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice the LE flaps and LE slats.
10. (-7/8/900) What is the correct statement regarding the wing anti-ice system?
a) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice all leading edge devices.
b) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice the three inboard leading edge slats only. The
leading edge flaps and outboard leading edge slats cannot be de-iced.
c) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice all leading edge slats. The leading edge flaps
cannot be de-iced.
11. (-3/400) What is the correct statement regarding the wing anti-ice system?
a) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice all leading edge devices.
b) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice the three inboard leading edge slats only. The
leading edge flaps and outboard leading edge slats cannot be de-iced.
c) The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice all leading edge slats. The leading edge flaps
cannot be de-iced.
12. The wing anti-ice switch has positions GRD TEST/OFF/ON. What is the correct statement?
a) On ground with the switch selected ON, wing anti-ice is activated.

b) On ground with the switch selected ON, wing anti-ice will be activated when the aircraft becomes
airborne.
c) On ground with the switch selected ON, wing anti-ice is activated as long as thrust setting is
beyond the setting for T/O warning activation.
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3. ANTI-ICE, RAIN
13. The wing anti-ice switch has positions OFF/ON. What is the correct statement?
a) Wing ant-ice is activated on ground with the switch in ON.

b) Wing anti-ice is not available on ground.
c) Wing anti-ice is available on ground as long as thrust setting is less than the setting for T/O
warning activation.
14. (-7/8/900) When the WING ANT-ICE switch is selected to ON in flight:
a) The stick shaker and minimum manoeuvre speed bars on the speed tape move upward. Stick
shaker logic remains set for icing conditions for the remainder of flight, regardless of subsequent
WING ANTI-ICE switch position.
b) The stick shaker and minimum manoeuvre speed bars on the speed tape move upward, as well
as Vref. The speed bars and Vref will be adjusted downward again when the WING ANTI-ICE
switch is positioned to OFF.
c) Nothing will change on the speed tape.
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3. ANTI-ICE, RAIN
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4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
1. The AFDS consists of:
a) One Flight Control Computer (FCC) and the Mode Control Panel (MCP).
b) Two FCC's and one MCP.
c) One FMC and the F/D command bars.
2. What statement is correct regarding the MCP mode selector switches?
a) The mode selector switches always illuminate when their respective modes are active.
b) Pressing an un-illuminated mode selector switch always selects the indicated mode.
c) Pressing an illuminated mode selector switch deselects the associated mode.
3. What are the A/P engagement criteria?
a) The F/D bars must be within approximately 1/2 scale of being centered, while no force is applied
to the control wheel.
b) No relevant system failures, no force applied to the control wheel and the stabilizer trim autopilot
cutout switch in NORMAL.
c) The F/D switches are ON, and no force applied to the control wheel.
4. What will cause A/P disengagement?
a) Deselecting both the roll and pitch command modes on the MCP.
b) Applying control column force to override the A/P during a single channel approach.
c) Hydraulic system B pressure loss with A/P B in CMD.
5. During which of the following actions does A/P disengagement occur?
a) Manually trimming the airplane with the stabilizer trim wheel.

b) Changing the roll mode first, after an A/P go-around.
c) Pressing a TO/GA switch for a go-around with one A/P in CMD and below 2,000 ft RA.
6. What does illumination of a single MA light indicate?
a) The respective FCC is controlling the F/D modes on both sides.

b) The respective FCC is controlling the F/D bars on both sides.
c) There is no F/D mode active on the respective side.
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4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
7. Condition: Normal operation. The N1 limits and target N1 values are provided by:
a) The A/T computer.

b) The PMC.
c) The FMC.
8. In which roll modes is the bank selector effective?
a) HDG SEL and APP.

b) HDG SEL and VOR/LOC.
c) HDG SEL and only the VOR mode of VOR/LOC.
9. What statement is correct regarding the V/S mode?
a) The V/S mode can only be engaged by pressing the V/S switch.
b) When the V/S mode is engaged, it is possible to select a V/S away from the MCP selected
altitude.
c) Pressing the V/S switch always engages the V/S mode.
10. What is the correct statement regarding the A/T TAKEOFF mode?
a) When THR HLD is indicated maximum thrust is set.

b) When THR HLD is indicated the pilot can set the thrust levers manually.
c) Only when ARM is indicated the pilot can set the thrust levers manually.
11. In which modes will the A/T not reposition the thrust levers after pilots' interference?
a) ARM and FMC SPD.

b) MCP SPD and THR HOLD.
c) THR HOLD and ARM.
12. What is indicated by a steady red A/P light?
a) Reversion of an A/P to CWS pitch or roll with the engage lever in CMD.
b) Expect unusual A/P behaviour due to a stabilizer out of trim condition.
c) Disengagement of the second A/P during an A/P go-around.
13. Condition: A/P in command, operating in V/S, A/T on. If the actual speed becomes less than a minimum
speed the AFDS reverts to LVL CHG.
a) False.
b) True.
c) True, if the condition lasts for more than 10 sec.
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4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
14. In flight; A/T controlling the MCP speed. What is indicated by a flashing amber A/T light?
a) Disengagement of the A/T.

b) Airspeed differs from commanded speed by +10 or -5 knots.
c) Commanded speed is set at or below the minimum speed with flaps retracted.
15. What is the correct statement regarding the APP mode?
a) The G/S can be captured before LOC capture.

b) The G/S can only be captured from below.
c) The G/S can only be captured after LOC capture.
16. After VOR/LOC and G/S are both captured, the APP mode can be de-activated by:
a) Disengaging A/P (s) and switching both F/D switches to OFF.

b) Pressing the APP button on the MCP.
c) Retuning a VHF NAV receiver.
17. What is the minimum Radio Altitude to engage the second A/P in CMD, for dual A/P operation in the
APP mode?
a) 2,000 ft RA.
b) 1,500 ft RA.
c) 800 ft RA.
18. Condition: Dual A/P operation in the APP mode. FLARE armed should be annunciated before:
a) 800 ft RA.
b) 500 ft RA.
c) 200 ft RA.
19. At which RA should the FLARE mode engage in the DUAL A/P APP mode?
a) Approx. 400 ft RA.

b) Approx. 50 ft RA.
c) Approx. 27 ft RA.
20. Condition: Single channel ILS approach. What is the minimum altitude to disconnect the A/P?
a) 160 ft AGL.
b) 50 ft below DA.
c) DA.
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4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
21. Condition: Non-Precision approach. What is the minimum altitude to disconnect the A/P?
a) 160 ft AGL.
b) 50 ft below MDA.
c) MDA.
22. Condition: Normal approach, below 2000 ft (A/T engaged). What will the A/T do if a TO/GA switch is
pressed once?
a) It will disengage; G/A thrust must be set manually.

b) It will drive the thrust levers to full G/A thrust.
c) It will drive the thrust levers to a reduced G/A N1 setting.
23. When during a N-1 approach a Go-Around is initiated, what is the correct statement:
a) G/A thrust must be set manually.

b) ATS will drive the thrust levers to full G/A thrust.
c) ATS will drive the thrust levers to a reduced G/A N1 setting.
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5. COMMUNICATIONS
5. COMMUNICATIONS
1. Communication to an external interphone jack e.g. near the engines, requires the following selections:
a) SERV INT transmitter selector pressed; service interphone switch (aft ovhd panel) ON.
b) FLT INT transmitter selector pressed; service interphone switch (aft ovhd panel) ON.
c) FLT INT transmitter selector pressed.
2. When the flightdeck CALL light is illuminated on the ground:
a) It remains illuminated until the call is answered.

b) The cockpit is being called by either the ground or cabin crew.
c) It will extinguish automatically.
3. The cockpit voice recorder records audio from:
a) An area microphone only.

b) All audio control panels and an area microphone.
c) Capt's and F/O's audio selector panels only.
4. How can you erase recordings made on the cockpit voice recorder?
a) By pulling the applicable circuit breaker.

b) By pressing the erase switch for 2 seconds as long as the engines are running.
c) By pressing the erase switch for 2 seconds on the ground with parking brakes set.
5. When the white light above the frequency transfer switch on the Radio Tuning Panel (if installed)
illuminates, it indicates that:
a) Related Radio Tuning Panel is unserviceable.

b) RTP tunes a radio not normally associated with this panel.
c) RTP has been switched off manually by using RTP OFF switch. .
6. What is the correct statement regarding the MASK-BOOM switch (as installed)?
a) With switch in BOOM, communication via oxygen mask microphones is not possible.
b) With switch in MASK, Passenger Address announcements cannot be made.
c) With switch in MASK, both boom and mask transmissions are possible on ground only.
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5. COMMUNICATIONS
INTENTIONALLY BLANK
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6. ELECTRICAL
6. ELECTRICAL
1. What is the general set-up of the electrical system?
a) Paralleled AC- and DC busses.

b) Isolated AC- and paralleled DC busses.
c) Both AC- and DC busses are isolated.
2. (-7/8/900) Which electrical busses can be powered by the APU generator?
a) Both AC transfer busses on the ground and only one in the air.
b) One AC transfer bus on the ground and two in the air.
c) Both AC transfer busses on the ground and in the air.
3. (-3/400) Which electrical busses can be powered by the APU generator?
a) Both generator busses on the ground and only one in the air.
b) One generator bus on the ground and two in the air.
c) Both generator busses on the ground and in the air.
4. When does the APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminate?
a) When the APU is at operational speed and ready to accept an electrical load.
b) Whenever the APU is supplying power to the bus no. 1.
c) Whenever the APU is supplying power to the bus no. 2.
5. (-7/8/900) What is the correct statement regarding illumination of the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light?
a) Ground Power has been plugged in and automatically powers both ground services busses
b) Ground Power has been plugged in and meets airplane power quality standards
c) Ground Power has been plugged in, ground power quality is not checked .
6. (-3/400) What is the correct statement regarding illumination of the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light?
a) Ground Power has been plugged in and automatically powers both ground services busses
b) Ground Power has been plugged in and meets airplane power quality standards
c) Ground Power has been plugged in, ground power quality is not checked.
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6. ELECTRICAL
7. Condition: Ground power plugged in. When is the ground service bus powered?
a) The moment the ground power was plugged in.

b) After the ground service switch (FWD ATT. panel) is placed in ON or ground power is connected
to the generator busses.
c) The moment the GND POWER AVAILABLE light illuminates.
8. (-7/8/900) When the IDG experiences a high oil temperature:
a) The IDG automatically disconnects and only its DRIVE light illuminates.
b) The IDG automatically disconnects and the associated DRIVE light, SOURCE OFF light and
GEN OFF BUS light illuminate.
c) The IDG HIGH OIL TEMPERATURE light illuminates. The IDG has to be disconnected manually
via Generator Drive Disconnect Switch.
9. After disconnecting a Generator Drive/IDG, is it possible to reconnect it in flight?
a) No.
b) Yes, by resetting the applicable circuit breaker on P18-3 in concert with B737 FTG.
c) Yes, but only after the APU generator is powering the associated generator bus.
10. (-7/8/900) Condition: Bus Transfer switch AUTO. What is the correct statement if generator 1 fails?
a) AC Transfer Bus 1 will not be powered.

b) AC Transfer Bus 1 will be powered from Generator Bus 2, various system annunciator lights will
remain illuminated.
c) AC Transfer Bus 1 will be powered by AC Transfer Bus 2.
11. (-3/400) Condition: Bus Transfer switch AUTO. What is the correct statement if generator 1 fails?
a) AC Transfer Bus 1 will not be powered .

b) AC Transfer Bus 1 will be powered from Generator Bus 2, various system annunciator lights will
remain illuminated.
c) AC Transfer Bus 1 will be powered by AC Transfer Bus 2.
12. (-7/8/900) Illumination of the SOURCE OFF and a GEN (or APU GEN) OFF BUS light indicates:
a) The source manually selected to power the Transfer Bus has failed, and the automatic bus
transfer function has closed the BTB's to power the Transfer Bus from another source.
b) The associated transfer bus is no longer powered.
c) The associated generator bus is no longer powered.
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6. ELECTRICAL
13. (-7/8/900) When during cruise, one engine driven generator fails:
a) Only the associated GEN OFF BUS light and SOURCE OFF light illuminate.
b) Only the associated GEN OFF BUS light, SOURCE OFF light and TRANSFER BUS OFF light
illuminate.
c) The GEN OFF BUS light, SOURCE OFF light, and TRANSFER BUS OFF light illuminate. Also
various other lights associated with systems which were powered by the transfer bus illuminate.
14. When does automatic (galley) load shedding occur?
a) In case the electrical load design limits are exceeded

b) Always during engine start.
c) In flight, in case the system is powered by one engine driven generator and the APU generator.
15. (-7/8/900) Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates:
a) The battery charger is inoperative.

b) Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch in the ON position.
c) The battery bus is not powered.
16. (-7/8/900) What is the correct statement regarding the ELEC light?
a) Illumination of the ELEC light indicates a fault exists in any part of the electrical system.
b) Illumination of the ELEC light indicates a fault exists in the AC power system.
c) Illumination of the ELEC light indicates a fault exists in the DC or standby power system.
17. (-7/8/900) The TR UNIT light will illuminate:
a) On ground, when any TR has failed.

b) In flight, when TR 1 has failed, or both TR 2 and 3 have failed.
c) In flight, when any TR has failed.
18. At glide slope capture the cross bus tie relay (-3/400: TR3 disconnect relay) opens. What will happen?
a) TR3 is isolated from the DC system.

b) TR3 is isolated from the battery bus.
c) DC 1 system is isolated from DC 2 system.
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6. ELECTRICAL
19. (-7/8/900) With the STANDBY POWER switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all normal electrical
power results in automatic switching from the normal power source to the alternate power source for
standby power:
a) In flight only.
b) On the ground only.
c) Both in flight and on the ground.
20. (-3/400) With the STANDBY POWER switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all normal electrical power
results in automatic switching from the normal power source to the alternate power source for standby
power:
a) In flight only.
b) On the ground only.
c) Both in flight and on the ground.
21. (-7/8/900) After the loss of all generators the fully charged main and auxiliary batteries provide standby
power for a minimum of:
a) 30 minutes.
b) 60 minutes.
c) 90 minutes.
22. (-3/400) After the loss of all generators the fully charged battery provides standby power for a minimum
of:
a) 30 minutes.
b) 60 minutes.
c) 90 minutes.
23. What is the power supplier for the AC standby bus in case of alternate operation?
a) The batteries (-3/400: battery) via the static inverter.

b) The DC system via the static inverter.
c) It switches to the opposite AC transfer bus.
24. What is the power supplier for the DC standby bus in case of alternate operation?
a) AC standby bus.
b) The batteries (-3/400: battery).
c) It switches to another TR.
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6. ELECTRICAL
25. (-7/8/900) Illumination of the STANDBY PWR OFF light indicates:
a) The AC standby bus is unpowered.

b) One or more of these busses are unpowered: The AC standby bus and/or DC standby bus.
c) One or more of these busses are unpowered: The AC standby bus and/or DC standby bus
and/or battery bus.
26. (-3/400) Illumination of the STANDBY PWR OFF light indicates:
a) The AC standby bus is unpowered.

b) One or more of these busses are unpowered: The AC standby bus and/or DC standby bus.
c) One or more of these busses are unpowered: The AC standby bus and/or DC standby bus
and/or battery bus.
27. Which communication radio is available on standby power when in flight?
a) VHF-1 only.
b) VHF-2 only.
c) VHF-1 and VHF-2.
28. Which VHF transceivers are usable with BAT PWR only, while on ground?
a) VHF 1 always, on all variants.

b) VHF 1, but only after selecting STANDBY POWER switch to BAT, on all variants.
c) VHF 1, but on -3/400 variant only after selecting STANDBY POWER switch to BAT
29. The CAB/UTIL switch (if installed) powers amongst others:
a) Galley power.
b) Lavatory smoke detection.
c) Recirculation fans.
d) Water (drain) heaters and water compressor.
30. The IFE/PASS SEAT switch (if installed) powers amongst others:
a) Passenger seat electronic outlets (if installed).

b) Passenger audio/video entertainment (if installed).
c) Exterior emergency exit lights.
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6. ELECTRICAL
INTENTIONALLY BLANK
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7. ENGINES, APU
7. ENGINES, APU
1. What is the rating of -300 engines?
a) 18,000 pounds.
b) 20,000 pounds.
c) 22,000 pounds.
d) 24,000 pounds.
a) 18,000 pounds.
b) 20,000 pounds.
c) 22,000 pounds.
d) 24,000 pounds.
a) 18,000 pounds.
b) 20,000 pounds.
c) 22,000 pounds.
d) 24,000 pounds.
4. What is the rating of (KLM)-800 engines?
a) 20,000 pounds.
b) 22,000 pounds.
c) 24,000 pounds.
d) 26,000 pounds.
a) 20,000 pounds.
b) 22,000 pounds.
c) 24,000 pounds.
d) 26,000 pounds.
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7. ENGINES, APU
6. What is the maximum time limit for takeoff thrust, 2 Engines/ N-1?
a) 5 min/ 12 min.
b) 5 min/ 10 min (-3/400: “allowed if there is an obstacle in the takeoff flight path”).
c) 10 min/ 10 min.
7. What value is indicated by the Reference N1 Bugs (-3/400: N1 cursors) during a reduced thrust takeoff?
a) The reduced thrust N1.

b) Always the full thrust limit.
c) Reduced or full thrust depending on how many times the TOGA switch is pressed.
8. What is the minimum indicated oil pressure with takeoff thrust set?
a) 13 psi.
b) Above the yellow band.
c) Above the red pointer.
9. (-7/8/900) What will happen if the thrust levers are pushed full forward (normal EEC operation)?
a) You will operate the engine beyond the design limits.

b) Engine limits will be exceeded initially but will return within design limits.
c) Engine operation will stay within design limits.
10. (-7/8/900) The EEC monitors engine parameters to detect impending hot starts, EGT start limit
exceedances, and wet starts during:
a) Ground starts only.

b) Inflight starts only.
c) Ground starts and inflight starts.
11. (-7/8/900) What is the correct statement regarding the EEC?
a) The EEC provides redline exceedance protection for N1, N2 and EGT.
b) The EEC provides flameout protection and redline exceedance protection for N1, N2 and EGT.
c) The EEC provides flameout protection and redline protection for N1 and N2. The EEC does not
provide EGT redline exceedance protection
12. (-7/8/900) What is the correct statement regarding the EEC in the alternate mode?
a) Redline exceedance protection for N2 only.

b) Redline exceedance protection for N1 and N2.
c) Redline exceedance protection for N1, N2 and EGT.
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7. ENGINES, APU
13. (-3/400) What is the purpose of the PMC?
a) To schedule additional fuel to assist in a fast spin-up during T/O and G/A.
b) To schedule LOW or HIGH idle RPM.
c) To maintain a constant thrust, in relation to a given thrust lever position.
14. (-3/400) With one PMC unserviceable, take-off is:
a) Never allowed.
b) Allowed but the other PMC must be ON for reference purposes.
c) Allowed only with full thrust and both PMC's selected off.
15. (-3/400) Until what moment is HIGH IDLE RPM maintained?
a) Touchdown.
b) 4 sec. after touchdown.
c) Flaps are selected up after landing.
16. (-3/400) Condition: In flight. When will the LOW IDLE light be illuminated?
a) One or two engines are operating at HIGH idle RPM during descent.
b) One or two engines are operating below HIGH idle RPM.
c) When an engine fails.
17. What is the correct statement regarding the engine oil system?
a) The LOW OIL PRESSURE light and the oil pressure indicator have the same pickup.
b) The engine oil is cooled by fan air.
c) The engine oil pressure is not regulated and depends on engine RPM.
18. (-7/8/900) During the preflight procedure, what is the minimum required oil quantity?
a) 7.4 liters.
b) 9.4 liters.
c) 11.4 liters.
19. (-3/400) During the preflight procedure, what is the minimum required oil quantity?
a) 2.5 gallons.
b) 3.0 gallons.
c) 4.0 gallons.
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7. ENGINES, APU
20. What happens when the Engine Start switch is placed in GRD during engine starting?
a) The start valve opens.

b) The start valve opens and the selected igniter is energized.
c) The start valve is armed to open when the start lever is placed to idle.
21. (-7/8/900) Engine starter cut-out speed is approximately:
a) 36% N2.
b) 46% N2.
c) 56% N2.
22. (-3/400) Engine starter cut-out speed is approximately:
a) 36% N2.
b) 46% N2.
c) 56% N2.
23. What is the maximum allowable EGT during engine start?
a) 895° C.
b) 725° C.
c) 9 30° C.
24. Before subsequent flights you should select the right igniter for engine start. Why?
a) The right igniter has a better performance in cold temperatures.

b) To increase the duty-live of the left igniters.
c) To check during engine start if the right igniter functions properly on standby AC power.
25. What happens when a start switch is selected to FLT?
a) The performance of the selected igniter is increased.

b) Both igniters are energized from the AC standby bus.
c) Both igniters are energized.
26. Which conditions must be met to apply reverse thrust?
a) Wheel spin up must have occurred.

b) Gear down and locked, hydraulic system A and B pressurized.
c) Idle position of the fwd thrust lever, Engine Fire Switch down and on the ground or RA < 10 feet.
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7. ENGINES, APU
27. What is the correct statement regarding the amber REV indication (-3/400: REVERSER UNLOCKED
lights)?
a) They are inhibited when reverse is selected.

b) They give an indication that the reverser is not in the stowed position.
c) They trigger the Master Caution after 12 sec. of illumination.
28. What is the correct statement regarding the REVERSER lights (aft overhead panel)?
a) They are inhibited when reverse is selected.

b) They trigger the Master Caution after 12 sec. of illumination.
c) They are inhibited in flight.
29. Up to what altitude may the APU be started?
a) 25,000 ft.
b) 35,000 ft.
c) Maximum aircraft operating altitude.
30. The maximum altitude with APU bleed ON is:
a) 10,000 ft.
b) 17,000 ft.
c) Maximum operating altitude.
31. (-3/400) Where can you check the engagement of the APU starter motor?
a) On the DC load meter, with the DC meter selector on BAT.

b) On the DC load meter, with the DC meter selector on BAT BUS.
c) On the APU AC load meter.
32. When the APU FAULT light is illuminated:
a) It will extinguish when the APU switch is positioned to OFF.

b) It will extinguish 5 minutes after the APU switch has been positioned to OFF.
c) Immediately after the automatic shutdown.
33. Which of the four lights on the APU control panel will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU
when it illuminates?
a) LOW OIL PRESSURE.

b) MAINT.
c) FAULT.
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7. ENGINES, APU
34. When will the APU shutdown on the ground?
a) The battery switch is placed to OFF.

b) The MAINT light illuminates.
c) The fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights for main tank no. 1 illuminate.
35. (-7/8/900) When the APU switch is moved to the OFF position while the APU is supplying bleed air, the
APU will shutdown after:
a) 30 seconds.
b) 60 seconds.
c) 90 seconds.
36. (-3/400) When the APU switch is moved to the OFF position while the APU is supplying bleed air, the
APU will shutdown after:
a) 30 seconds.
b) 60 seconds.
c) 90 seconds.
37. After APU shutdown you must delay selecting the battery switch to OFF, because:
a) The APU needs to cool down.

b) The APU door needs time to close.
c) The fuel valve needs time to close.
38. What will happen when the total load on the APU becomes excessive?
a) The APU will shutdown automatically.

b) The APU reduces bleed air extraction.
c) The APU generator will automatically be disconnected.
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8. FIRE PROTECTION
8. FIRE PROTECTION
1. Fire/smoke detection and/or protection is provided for:
a) Engines, APU, wheel well, cargo compartments, and toilets.

b) Engines, APU, wheel well, and the toilets.
c) Engines and APU only.
2. During normal operation, what condition will result in an engine fire warning?
a) Both A and B loops sense a fire.

b) The A or B loop senses a fire.
c) One loop senses a fire, the other one an overheat.
3. When does an engine fire warning switch extinguish after a fire warning?
a) When the fuel shut off valve on the main engine control is closed.
b) When a fire bottle is discharged.
c) When the detector loops have cooled down.
4. Is it true that illumination of the FAULT (Engine Fire/Overheat Detector) light also causes the MASTER
CAUTION and OVHT/DET annunciator lights to illuminate?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Yes, but only after Master Caution Recall.
5. Condition: normal operation. During an engine fire test the RH engine fire warning switch does not illuminate,
the FAULT light remains extinguished after the test. What does this indicate?
a) The RH extinguisher bottle is empty.

b) One of the overheat/fire loops of the RH engine is unserviceable.
c) Both overheat/fire loops of the RH engine are unserviceable.
6. The APU fire detection system consists of:
a) A dual loop system.

b) A single loop system.
c) Thermal switches.
7. In the event of an APU fire, the APU fire bottle:
a) Will be discharged automatically 10 seconds after fire detection, provided the aircraft is on the ground
with both engines shutdown.
b) Will always automatically be discharged 10 seconds after the fire detection.
c) Will be discharged automatically provided the aircraft is in flight.
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8. FIRE PROTECTION
8. How can you detect a fault in the main wheel well fire detector?
a) The WHEEL WELL FAULT light will illuminate.

b) An incorrect response on a wheel well fire test is the only indication.
c) The WHEEL WELL fire light will start flashing, together with master caution indication.
9. The cargo compartment fire extinguishing system consists of:
a) A dual loop temperature sensing system.

b) A dual loop smoke detection system.
c) A single loop smoke detection system.
10. What happens if smoke is detected in a lavatory?
a) The fire extinguisher bottle will discharge into the waste bin.
b) The RETURN TO YOUR SEAT light illuminates in the lavatory.
c) The SMOKE light will illuminate, accompanied by MASTER CAUTION.
11. After a lavatory fire, the extinguishing bottle has automatically discharged. Is the fire extinguishing system at
that lavatory still serviceable?
a) Yes, it remains serviceable based on lack of oxygen.

b) Yes, it is still serviceable because of a secondary discharge possibility
c) No, it is unserviceable.
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9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
1. Which flight control surfaces can be powered by hydraulic system A and B?
a) Elevators.
b) Stabilizer.
c) Trailing edge flaps.
2. Which flight controls can be controlled without hydraulic power?
a) Ailerons, elevators and stabilizer.

b) Ailerons, elevators and rudder.
c) Ailerons, flight spoilers and elevators.
3. Is it true that aileron trim input may cause flight spoiler deployment?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) Only true if flaps are not up.
4. Condition: Jammed aileron system. How is lateral control accomplished?
a) The flight spoilers can be controlled by F/O's control wheel.

b) The flight spoilers can be controlled by the A/P's.
c) The flight spoilers can be controlled by captains control wheel.
5. Due to a loss of hydraulic system B the FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates. What is the correct statement?
a) Elevator feel force will be reduced to half of normal.

b) Elevator feel force will remain the same.
c) The elevator deflection will be reduced.
6. What flight control surface is adjusted by the mach trim system?
a) The stabilizer.
b) The elevator.
c) The balance tabs of the ailerons.
7. How is stabilizer trim powered?
a) Hydraulically with electrical backup.

b) Electrically with manual backup.
c) Electrically with hydraulic backup.
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9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
8. Using main electrical trim, when will you have a high trim rate?
a) With flaps retracted.

b) With flaps extended.
c) With flaps in any position and IAS below 220 kt.
9. A/P A engaged in CMD. The pilot uses the main electric trim to trim the stabilizer. What is the correct
statement?
a) After the pilot stops his trim input the A/P will re-trim the stabilizer to the original position.
b) The A/P engaged will revert to CWS.
c) The A/P engaged will revert to OFF.
10. What is the purpose of the speed trim system?
a) It improves flight characteristics under certain conditions during manual flight.

b) It improves fuel efficiency during A/P controlled cruise flight.
c) It improves passenger comfort during dual A/P controlled landing or go-around.
11. The speed trim system can:
a) Trim the stabilizer.

b) Adjust the elevator neutral position.
c) Trim the balance tabs of the elevators.
12. The FFM (Force Fight Monitor) on the main rudder PCU will be activated when the system detects:
a) Opposing pressure between A and B rudder actuators.

b) Aerodynamic overload on rudder when it is deflected.
c) Too much rudder deflection for present airspeed.
13. When the FFM (Force Fight Monitor) on the main rudder PCU is activated, the system will:
a) Pressurize the standby rudder actuator.

b) Illuminate STBY RUD ON light.
c) Illuminate Master Caution lights (FLT CONT).
14. -7/8/900 aircraft have 2 extra flight spoilers on each wing compared to the -3/400 aircraft, resulting in:
a) More bank angle during turns.

b) Noticeable higher roll rates, e.g. during x-wind landings.
c) Shorter stopping distance during RTO.
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9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
15. (-7/8/900) When the speedbrakes are deployed inflight, the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light:
a) Always illuminates.
b) Illuminates only when the radio altitude is less than 800 ft.
c) Illuminates when the radio altitude is less than 800 ft, or the TE flaps are extended beyond flaps 10.
16. If wheel spin-up is not detected on landing with the SPEED BRAKE lever in the armed position, the flight
spoilers will:
a) Deploy automatically upon gear strut compression.

b) Deploy automatically when reverse thrust is selected.
c) Deploy automatically 2 seconds after touch down .
17. What happens with the spoiler panels during a rejected T/O?
a) They will deploy automatically after selecting reverse, when the wheel speed is above 60 kt.
b) They must be deployed by manually pulling the speed brake lever.
c) They will deploy automatically when the T/O is rejected at speeds greater than 90 kt, below 90 kt they
must be deployed manually.
18. The Load Alleviation System (LAS), if installed, reduces structural load on the wing:
a) Always when speed brakes are extended at high speed.

b) Always when speed brakes are extended with high aircraft weights.
c) Only when speed brakes are extended with a combination of a high aircraft weight and high aircraft
speeds.
19. When the Load Alleviation System (LAS), if installed, is activated:
a) The flight spoilers are retracted, the speed brake lever remains in flight detent.
b) The flight spoilers are retracted partly, the speed brake lever remains in flight detent.
c) The flight spoilers are retracted partly as well as the speed brake lever.
20. What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?
a) 10,000 ft.
b) 17,000 ft.
c) 20,000 ft.
21. The trailing edge (TE) flaps are at 15 units. What is the correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the
leading edge (LE) devices?
a) All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated.

b) All LE devices EXT lights illuminated.
c) LE slats EXT lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated.
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9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
22. (-7/8/900) When the Flap Load Relief system is activated due to overspeed:
a) The flaps do not re-extend until the flap lever is moved.

b) A go around is mandatory.
c) An EGPWS caution activation could occur when flaps retract to 25.
23. (-7/8/900) The Flap/Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU) provides:
a) LE skew detection.
b) TE asymmetry protection.
c) Overspeed protection for LE devices.
24. When is auto slat operation possible?
a) Always in flight.
b) With flaps 1,2 or 5 selected.
c) With flaps in the landing range.
25. What happens when the auto slat system is activated?
a) It pushes the control column forward in case you approach a stall condition.
b) It extends the LE slats from EXT to FULL EXT prior to stick shaker activation.
c) It extends the LE flaps from UP to EXT if airspeed falls below the minimum manoeuvre speed.
26. How are the TE flaps powered in case of alternate operation?
a) By standby hydraulic power.

b) By an electric motor.
c) By hydraulic system A.
27. How are the LE devices powered in case of alternate operation?
a) By standby hydraulic power.

b) By an electric motor.
c) By hydraulic system A.
28. What is the correct statement regarding alternate LE/TE flap operation?
a) Trailing edge flaps can be extended and retracted.

b) Leading edge devices can be extended and retracted.
c) Trailing edge flaps and leading edge flaps can only be extended.
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9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
29. Alternate flaps extension. What happens with the LE devices when the alternate flap position switch is
momentarily selected down?
a) They will extend in accordance with TE flap extension.

b) LE Slats will extend until the EXT position, LE Flaps will extend to FULL EXT.
c) They will extend all the way to the FULL EXT position.
30. (-3/400) What is monitored to provide asymmetry protection?
a) The inboard and outboard TE flaps on the same wing.

b) The LE flaps and slats on the same wing.
c) L and R flap position according to the indicator.
31. As soon as TE flap-asymmetry is detected:
a) Hydraulic power is removed from the flap drive unit.

b) The amber LE FLAP TRANSIT light illuminates.
c) The TE flaps will continue normal operation on alternate electric power.
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9. FLIGHT CONTROLS
INTENTIONALLY BLANK
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10. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS
1. (-7/8/900) DSPLY SOURCE appears automatically on the PFD. What does this mean?
a) One of the ADIRU’s is out of limits.

b) The system has selected a single DEU to drive all displays.
c) Both DEU’s are powered by the same electrical source.
2. (-7/8/900) The Captain’s outboard DU has failed. What is the correct statement?
a) The Captain’s outboard DU blanks and the PFD automatically moves to the inboard DU.
b) The Captain’s outboard DU blanks. The PFD can be selected only when using the OUTBD/INBD
Control Panel Select Switch.
c) The PFD automatically moves to the lower DU.
3. (-3/400) What is the correct hook-up between the symbol generator(s) and the CRT's?
a) There are four symbol generators; one for each CRT.

b) There are two symbol generators; one for Capt's EHSI/EADI and one for F/O's EHSI/EADI.
c) There are two symbol generators; if one SG fails the other will automatically provide the required
indications.
4. (-3/400) Because of a symbol generator failure the EFI transfer switch is placed to "Both on 2". What is
indicated by the yellow COMP flag on both EADI's?
a) The computation of data displayed on the EADI's is much slower than with the EFI transfer
switch in NORMAL.
b) The comparator function has failed/is not available.
c) The F/D bars of both A/P computers can not be monitored.
5. What is displayed by the airspeed trend arrow on the speed tape?
a) The predicted airspeed within 10 seconds, based on present airspeed and acceleration.
b) The predicted airspeed within 4 seconds, based on acceleration and wind conditions.
c) The average head- or tailwind component during the last 10 seconds.
6. Cruise flight at FL 350. What is indicated by the bottom of the black and red barber pole on the upper side of
the speed tape?
a) Mmo.
b) Maximum gear extension speed.
c) High speed buffet.
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7. Cruise flight at FL 350. What is indicated by the bottom of the hollow yellow bar extending from the barber pole
on the upper side of the speed tape?
a) A speed where high speed buffet occurs.

b) A speed that gives a .3G margin to high speed buffet.
c) The placard speed for flaps 1.
8. Flaps 5 set. A hollow yellow bar extends upward from the red and black bar at the lower side of the speed tape.
What is indicated by the top of this hollow yellow bar?
a) Stick shaker speed for flaps 1.

b) The minimum maneuver speed.
c) 1.2Vstall for the actual configuration.
9. Flaps 5 set. What happens with the indicated minimum maneuver speed at the bottom of the speed tape when
flight spoilers are extended?
a) It remains at the same position as before the spoilers were extended.

b) It extends upward.
c) It retracts downward to indicate the speed reduction caused by spoiler extension.
10. Flaps 5 set. A hollow yellow bar extends downwards from the red and black bar at the upper side of the speed
tape. What is indicated by the bottom of this hollow yellow bar?
a) The placard speed for flaps 5.

b) The placard speed for next flap setting, based on FMC block speeds.
c) The placard speed for next flap setting, based on sequence 1, 5, 15, 30.
11. (-3/400) What is the green dot speed?
a) Flaps one retraction speed (during T/O).

b) Maximum rate climb speed with flaps extended.
c) Flaps up maneuvering speed.
12. (-3/400) During take-off and go around the "F" symbol appears on the speed tape. What speed is indicated by
this symbol?
a) V2 + 20 kt.
b) Minimum flap retraction speed.
c) Stick shaker speed for the next flap setting.
13. (-3/400) On both EADI's the Pitch Comparator Annunciation "PITCH" appears. What is the cause?
a) The aircraft is out of trim and the engaged A/P is not able to correct this.
b) The AFS is not able to control speed and/or altitude in accordance with selections made on the
MCP.
c) There is a difference of more than 3° between Capt's and F/O's EADI pitch displays.
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14. What is indicated by the pitch limit symbol on the EADI/PFD?
a) The pitch attitude corresponding to stick shaker activation.

b) The pitch attitude corresponding to the maximum rate of climb.
c) Wind shear is imminent.
15. (-7/8/900) When an ILS/DME has been tuned and the DME is received:
a) The DME distance is displayed on the PFD and on the ND in the MAP mode and in the APP mode.
b) The DME distance is displayed on the PFD and on the ND in the APP mode only.
c) The DME distance is displayed on the standby Radio Magnetic Indicator.
16. (-7/8/900) The Minimums Reference Selector is placed in the RADIO position. When both a DH and DA have
been selected:
a) The numeric values for both DH and DA are displayed on the PFD. Also the BARO Minimums Pointer
is displayed.
b) The numeric value for DH is displayed. DA is indicated by the BARO Minimums Pointer only.
c) Only the DH is displayed.
17. (-7/8/900) During climb: When the aircraft passes the programmed transition altitude (as displayed on the
PERF INIT page) while STD is not selected:
a) The barometric setting display is boxed and turns amber.

b) The barometric setting display does not change.
c) The barometric setting display will flash and turn red.
18. (-3/400) Where do the electric altimeters receive their signals from?
a) From their respective Air Data Computer.

b) Directly from the pitot static system.
c) From their respective IRS.
19. (-7/8/900) When the vertical speed mode is used, the vertical speed target is displayed:
a) In the vertical speed display on the MCP only.

b) In the vertical speed display on the MCP and by the selected Vertical Speed Bug on the vertical speed
scale on the PFD.
c) In the vertical speed display on the MCP and by the selected Vertical Speed Bug on the vertical speed
scale on the ND.
20. In which of the following modes can GPWS terrain data be displayed?
a) MAP mode only.

b) MAP mode, VOR mode and APP mode.
c) MAP mode, VOR mode, APP mode and PLAN mode.
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21. You can use the PLAN-mode on the ND (-3/400: EHSI):
a) To check the FMC flightplan route.

b) To compare the FMC-generated flight path with raw data.
c) To check weather radar display along the route.
22. (-7/8/900) The message EFIS MODE / NAV FREQ DISAGREE is displayed on the ND if:
a) the APP mode is selected on the ND with a VOR frequency tuned.

b) the APP mode is selected on the ND with an ILS frequency tuned.
c) the MAP mode is selected on the ND with a VOR frequency tuned.
23. Where does the standby altimeter/airspeed indicator receive it's signals from?
a) From ADC #1.

b) From ADC #2.
c) From its own pitot and static inputs.
24. The alignment of the ISFD (Integrated Standby Flight Display), if installed:
a) Will not be influenced by aircraft movement.

b) Will start when the left IRS Mode Selector is switched to NAV.
c) Will normally be complete within 2 minutes after selecting battery ON.
25. Do not operate the weather radar:
a) Close to a building
b) Within 100 m of a fuel truck
c) Within 50 ft (15,25 m) of any personnel or a fuel spill.
26. (-7/8/900) For takeoff, the white bug on the speed tape indicates:
a) Vref
b) V2 + 15
c) V2 + 20
27. (-7/8/900) For landing, the white bug on the speed tape indicates:
a) Vref + 15 or Vref + 20, depending of aircraft weight

b) Vref + 15 or Vref + 20, depending of landing flap setting
c) Vref + 15 (-700) and Vref + 20 (-8/900)
28. (-3/400) Regarding the EADI System Failure Flags, which statements are correct?
a) The yellow “LOC” flag indicates that the localizer deviation display has failed.
b) The “COMP” annunciation indicates a different attitude on the left EADI, compared to the right EADI.
c) “PITCH” or “ROLL” annunciation indicates a difference of more than 3 degrees between EADI’s.
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11. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION
1. During pre-flight cockpit procedures the pilot accidentally moves the IRS mode selector too far and goes from
OFF to ATT instead of NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
a) Switch to OFF, wait until the ALIGN light extinguishes, then switch to NAV.
b) Switch directly to NAV from the ATT position.
c) Switch to the ALIGN position and then to NAV.
2. (-3/400) IRS transfer switch NORMAL. The left IRS provides inputs to:
a) Capt's EHSI and F/O's RDMI.

b) Capt's RDMI and F/O's EHSI.
c) Capt's EHSI and Capt's RDMI.
3. What is a possible cause of an illuminating IRS FAULT light?
a) The IRS internal circuits are u/s.

b) The last IRS position differs too much in relation to the entered present position.
c) Aircraft movement.
4. What is a possible cause of a flashing IRS ALIGN light?
a) The IRS data base is out of date.

b) Wrong present position entered, or no position entered at all.
c) The primary AC power source is not available.
5. What is the purpose of the ATT position on the IRS mode selector?
a) To reposition the airplane symbol on the ADI.

b) To provide attitude and heading information if alignment is lost in flight.
c) To adjust the pitch attitude of the aircraft during straight and level un-accelerated flight.
6. What happens with IRS 2 when it loses its normal AC power source?
a) It continues to operate on back-up DC power until the battery is depleted.

b) It continues to operate on back-up DC power for five minutes.
c) It will go into the "degraded" mode until normal AC power is restored again.
7. (-3/400) Condition: IRS transfer switch NORMAL. Which IRS is used by A/P A?
a) The left IRS.

b) The right IRS.
c) Both.
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8. From which source do the vertical speed indicators receive their basic vertical speed information?
a) From the ADIRU’s (3/400: IRS’s)

b) From their own static ports.
c) From the air data computers.
9. What is the correct statement regarding the relation between CDU and FMC?
a) There are two FMC's, each connected to its own CDU.

b) Both CDU's are connected to a single FMC.
c) FMC inputs made on Capt's CDU have priority over inputs made on F/O's CDU.
10. How does the FMC know the actual fuel quantity?
a) By calculating the difference between Gross weight and ZFW.

b) It uses the fuel used value.
c) It receives this information from the Fuel Summation Unit.
11. Where is the FMC present position based on?
a) GPS, IRS and navigation radios update.

b) DME updates, with a back up of GPS.
c) On an average of DME position, VOR position, and IRS position.
12. Is the wind direction, on all FMC pages where it is displayed, referenced to true north?
a) Yes.
b) No. It is always referenced to magnetic north.
c) No. PROGRESS page 3/3 displays wind referenced to magnetic north.
13. On which page is it possible to enter airway segments consisting of multiple waypoints?
a) RTE page.
b) RTE LEGS page.
c) PROGRESS page.
14. Must the ACTIVATE prompt be line selected before the RTE pages can be initially executed?
a) Yes.
b) No.
c) No, if company route was used.
15. After performing the FMC/CDU pre-flight actions, the flight crew notices that the active nav data base is expired
and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the nav data base change?
a) Same, no action required.

b) Route discontinuities will be gone, everything else the same.
c) Blank, requiring reloading.
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16. After T/O, what will be considered by the FMC to select R-CLB instead of CLB as A/T limit?
a) The assumed temperature inserted on the TAKEOFF REF page.

b) The Gross Weight of the aircraft.
c) The SID-procedure as selected by the crew in the FMC.
17. Which of the following description is an example of a conditional waypoint?
a) (1500).
b) D170L.
c) BSN 240/FL110.
18. To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, which FMC climb mode should be used?
a) MAX RATE.
b) MAX ANGLE.
c) ECON.
19. Is it possible to delete the active waypoint on the RTE LEGS page?
a) Yes, always.
b) No.
c) Yes, but only if LNAV is not engaged.
20. During cruise the PM selects the LRC CRZ page to look up certain information. The PF has modified the route
on the RTE LEGS page. The EXEC lights on both CDU's illuminate. What happens when the PF presses the
EXEC key?
a) Both the route change and the LRC CRZ mode will be activated.
b) Only the route change will be activated, the EXEC light on the other CDU will remain
illuminated.
c) Nothing will be activated, the message "SELECT CORRECT MOD" will be displayed in the
scratch pad.
21. Which one of the following factors is not considered in the TRIP ALT computation? (PERF INIT page.)
a) Cost index.
b) Minimum cruise time (5 min.)
c) Reserve fuel.
22. In flight the crew creates a new waypoint. How long will this new waypoint remain stored in the FMC?
a) It will remain stored until it is deleted by activating the DELETE ALL SUPP DATA prompt SUPP
NAV DATA page).
b) It will be stored for one flight only.
c) It will remain stored until the new PERMANENT NAV DATA base becomes active.
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23. The crew has entered a STEP TO altitude on the CRZ page. Which wind value does the FMC consider to be
the actual wind at the STEP TO altitude?
a) The actual wind at the STEP TO altitude.

b) Either actual wind at the present altitude, or estimated wind at the step to altitude if inserted by
the crew.
c) FMC computed wind, using a standard wind profile and actual wind at current altitude.
24. What statement about selection of an arrival is correct?
a) Arrival selection is only possible for the DEST airport as entered on RTE page 1.
b) Arrival selection is only possible for the ORIGIN and DEST airports as entered on RTE page 1.
c) Arrival selection is possible for every stored airport using the OTHER ARR prompt on the
DEP/ARR INDEX page.
25. Condition: A/P and A/T engaged. What are the requirements for an automatic start of descent?
a) Lower altitude on MCP and on CRZ page selected.

b) VNAV engaged, lower altitude selected in the CRZ page.
c) VNAV engaged, lower altitude in MCP window.
26. Condition: Cruise flight prior to top of descent. Approach planning completed, and VNAV PTH is the active
pitch mode. A lower altitude has not been selected on the MCP. Which pitch mode will become active at top of
descent?
a) VNAV PTH.
b) VNAV SPD.
c) ALT HOLD.
27. How is the target speed maintained during an ECON PATH DES?
a) The flight crew is responsible to maintain the target speed by controlling thrust and drag.
b) The FMC uses the A/T to control speed within 5 kt from the target speed.
c) By A/P pitch control.
28. The aircraft is descending in VNAV PTH. In which roll modes will VNAV PTH remain engaged?
a) In LNAV only.
b) In HDG SEL only.
c) In both LNAV and HDG SEL.
29. What will be the effect of entering 300 (kt) on the TGT SPD line of the ECON PATH DES page?
a) It will result in VNAV and LNAV disengagement.

b) It is not possible.
c) It will change the mode to: 300KT DES.
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30. What is the end of descent altitude on the PATH DESCENT page?
a) The field elevation.

b) The altitude restriction for the End of Descent waypoint.
c) The runway threshold elevation.
31. What does the FMC alerting message INSUFFICIENT FUEL mean?
a) The thrust setting is not correct for the active FMC VNAV mode.
b) Destination can not be reached because of fuel shortage.
c) There will be less than 900 kg of fuel at destination.
32. What is meant by the FMC alerting message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT?
a) VNAV disengaged because the airspeed exceeds the FMC speed restriction by more than 15 kt.
b) VNAV and LNAV disengaged because the FMC is unable to follow the LNAV-path while
flying the target speed.
c) The FMC has disengaged the A/T due to maximum N1.
33. In the FMC the message “RW/APP TUNE DISAGREE” appears. What does this mean?
a) The manual tuned approach frequency does not match the active flight plan.
b) The manual tuned approach frequency does not match the selected course on the MCP.
c) The selected runway in the FMC does not match the selected approach.
34. Which statement regarding VNAV SPEED INTERVENTION (if installed) is true?
a) VNAV speed intervention can be used to change speed requirements, without the need to use the
CDU.
b) The SPD INTV switch is active only when a speed is indicated in the IAS/MACH window.
c) When SPD INTV is pushed with VNAV engaged, IAS/MACH window will unblank and speed
intervention is active.
35. Which statement regarding VNAV ALTITUDE INTERVENTION (if installed) is true?
a) When ALT INTV switch is pushed during climb, aircraft will level off at present altitude when in VNAV.
b) The ALT INTV switch allows deletion of next FMC altitude constraint during VNAV climb and descent.
c) During FMC (VNAV) cruise: Changing flight altitude can be done by setting MCP altitude and pushing
ALT INTV switch.
36. Which statement regarding the Multiscan Weather Radar (if installed) is true?
a) With weather radar in AUTO mode, Captain’s and F/O’s displays are updated simultaneously and tilt is
automatically controlled.
b) Even when WXR is not selected on the ND, predictive windshear is active.
c) Radar returns are being displayed with Navigation Display in any mode.
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12. FUEL
12. FUEL
1. (-7/8/900) All fuel pumps ON: Center tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
a) The center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than the main tank check valves.
b) The center tank boost pumps have a higher output pressure than the main tank pumps.
c) The main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate
and the center tank pumps are turned off.
2. (-3/400) All fuel pumps ON: Center tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
a) The center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than the main tank check valves.
b) The center tank boost pumps have a higher output pressure than the main tank pumps.
c) The main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate
and the center tank pumps are turned off.
3. What is the purpose of the (engine) fuel by-pass valves in the main tanks?
a) To allow suction feed in case the electrical fuel pumps fail to operate.
b) To allow balanced fuel feed in case of engine failure.
c) To by-pass the engine fuel shut off valve in case this valve fails in the closed position.
4. (-7/8/900) During preflight the center tank pumps are off and there is 1000 kg of fuel in the center tank. The
CDS will display:
a) A "CONFIG" indication prior to engine start.

b) A "CONFIG" indication after engine start.
c) A "LOW PRESS" indication after engine start.
5. What is the correct statement regarding the LOW PRESS lights for the center tank pumps?
a) They remain illuminated after the switches are positioned to OFF.

b) They are inhibited with the switches in OFF.
c) They are not connected to the master caution system because it is normal to fly with an empty
center tank.
6. If one main tank pump LOW PRESSURE light is illuminated:
a) It will extinguish after the corresponding switch is placed in OFF.

b) It will illuminate the master caution lights and the fuel annunciator.
c) It will illuminate the master caution lights and the fuel annunciator on recall.
7. On aircraft with auto shut-off CTR tank fuel pumps, Master Caution (FUEL) will be illuminated when
a) One LOW PRESSURE light is continuously illuminated for 10 seconds with the switch in ON.
b) Auto shut-off feature is unserviceable.
c) Both CTR tank pump switches are OFF with fuel in the CTR tank.
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12. FUEL
8. On aircraft with auto shut-off CTR tank fuel pumps:
a) When CTR tank is almost empty, main tank imbalance is prevented automatically.
b) Each CTR pump will shut-off after a delay, when sensing low pressure.
c) Once activated the auto shut-off logic can not be reset, CTR tank pumps will remain OFF.
9. What is indicated by illumination of the fuel FILTER BYPASS light?
a) The corresponding engine will probably flame out within minutes.

b) Impending or actual fuel filter by-pass due to a contaminated filter.
c) The fuel flow is limited due to a contaminated filter
10. What statement about the fuel VALVE CLOSED lights is correct?
a) It triggers the master caution system when it illuminates.

b) Should be extinguished during preflight.
c) Will illuminate bright blue when the start lever is selected to ON and then extinguish.
11. (-7/8/900) What is the accuracy of the fuel quantity indicators?
a) Plus or minus 5 % of the fuel tank’s maximum capacity.

b) Plus or minus 2½ % of the fuel tank’s maximum capacity.
c) Plus or minus 1% of the fuel tank’s maximum capacity.
12. (-3/400) What is the accuracy of the fuel quantity indicators?
a) Plus or minus 5 % of the fuel tank’s maximum capacity.

b) Plus or minus 2½ % of the fuel tank’s maximum capacity.
c) Plus or minus 1% of the fuel tank’s maximum capacity.
13. Random fuel imbalance must not exceed
a) 350 kg.
b) 453 kg.
c) 550 kg.
14. (-7/8/900) The Fuel Imbalance ("IMBAL") indication is displayed on the CDS:
a) When a main tank imbalance of more than 453 kg exists, provided the aircraft is in flight.
b) When a main tank imbalance of more than 453 kg exists, both in flight and on the ground.
c) When one center tank pump is inoperative and the crossfeed valve is closed.
15. (-7/8/900) The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:
a) Both center tank fuel pump switches are selected OFF.

b) The No. 1 main fuel tank is about ½ full.
c) The center tank is about ⅔ full.
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12. FUEL
16. (-3/400) The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:
a) Both center tank fuel pump switches are turned OFF.

b) The No. 1 main fuel tank is about ½ full.
c) The center tank is about ⅔ full.
17. With all fuel pumps ON and fuel in all tanks, which tank supplies fuel for the APU?
a) Tank No. 1.
b) The center tank.
c) Tank No. 2 if the crossfeed valve is open.
18. What is the purpose of the manual defuelling valve?
a) To defuel the aircraft and transfer fuel between tanks.

b) To dump fuel in flight.
c) It enables normal refuelling.
19. How is ventilation of the fuel tanks accomplished?
a) Via a surge tank in each wing tip.

b) Via one center surge tank, with a vent in each wing tip for dynamic pressure.
c) By pneumatic air.
20. What is the correct statement regarding the Nitrogen Generation System (NGS) indicator lights
(as installed) in the main wheel well?
a) No lights illuminated indicates NGS is fully operational.

b) Blue light illuminated indicates NGS is not operational.
c) Green light illuminated indicates NGS is fully operational
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12. FUEL
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13. HYDRAULICS
13. HYDRAULICS
1. TE flaps normally use hydraulic system:
a) A.
b) B.
2. LE devices normally use hydraulic system:
a) A.
b) B.
3. The landing gear normally uses hydraulic system:
a) A.
b) B.
4. The normal brake system uses hydraulic system:
a) A.
b) B.
5. The LOW PRESSURE light for the system B electric hydraulic pump illuminates. What are the other
indications?
a) System B pressure drops to 1000 psi.

b) System B brake pressure will drop to 1000 psi.
c) MASTER CAUTION and HYD annunciator lights illuminate.
6. What happens with the hydraulic systems if the No. 2 engine fire warning switch is pulled?
a) Shuts off fluid to the electric pump in system B, and deactivates the associated LOW
PRESSURE light.
b) Shuts off fluid to the engine driven pump in system B, and deactivates the associated LOW
PRESSURE light.
c) Shuts off fluid to the electric pump in system A, and deactivates the associated LOW
PRESSURE light.
7. Which of the following systems have a noticeable effect on hydraulic quantity indication when they are
extended/retracted?
a) Leading edge devices.

b) Landing gear.
c) TE flaps.
Note: More than one correct answer
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13. HYDRAULICS
8. How is an overheat from an engine driven hydraulic pump indicated?
a) By illumination of the associated OVERHEAT light.

b) There is no indication.
c) The pressure will drop in that system.
9. What is used to cool the hydraulic fluid?
a) Fan air.
b) Fuel.
c) Outside air
10. In case the system B engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost, the Power Transfer Unit will provide
additional volume for operation of:
a) The thrust reversers.

b) The landing gear.
c) The LE devices.
11. In case the system A engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost, the Landing Gear Transfer Unit will provide
additional volume under the following conditions:
a) Loss of system A pressure and landing gear is selected UP and gear not up & locked.
b) Loss of system A pressure and landing gear is selected DOWN and gear not up & locked.
c) Airborne, no.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, landing gear selected UP.
12. Which systems can use the standby hydraulic system?
a) Alternate brakes, LE devices and thrust reversers.

b) LE devices, rudder and thrust reversers.
c) Alternate brakes, rudder and thrust reversers.
13. Condition: System A FLT CONTROL switch in STBY RUD. What should be the status of the respective FLT
CONTROL LOW PRESSURE light?
a) Extinguished, indicating that the hydraulic pump switches are OFF.

b) Illuminated, indicating the FLT CONTROL switch is not in ON.
c) Extinguished, indicating that the Standby hydraulic system operates normally.
14. When does the standby hydraulic system automatically operate?
a) With a loss of system A or B, flaps extended and wheel speed greater than 60 kts or
airborne.
b) With a loss of system A or B, wheel speed greater than 60 kts or airborne
c) With a loss of system A and B, wheel speed greater than 60 kts or airborne.
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13. HYDRAULICS
15. What is the indication that pressurization of the hydraulic reservoirs is possibly lost?
a) A slight decrease in system A and B quantity.

b) Hydraulic pressure fluctuations.
c) Hydraulic OVERHEAT light will illuminate
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13. HYDRAULICS
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14. LANDING GEAR
14. LANDING GEAR
1. What happens after lift-off, if the air-ground safety sensor fails in the ground mode?
a) A latch prevents the landing gear lever from being positioned to UP.
b) The AUTO FAIL light illuminates because the outflow valve is driven to open.
c) The aural gear warning sounds continuously.
2. When the forward instrument panel shows an unsafe gear indication and the aft overhead panel shows three
green lights:
a) Further investigation is necessary.

b) Perform the NNC procedure “Landing Gear Unsafe Indication”.
c) Landing gear is down and locked.
3. Only the -3/400 variant has main and nose gear viewers.
a) True.
b) False.
4. Condition: After takeoff and gear selected up. How do the wheels stop rotating?
a) All wheels are stopped by snubbers.

b) The nose wheel is stopped by a snubber when retracted and the main wheels are automatically
stopped by the brakes.
c) The nose wheel stops with air friction and the main wheels by snubbers.
5. (-7/8/900) Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear wheel well:
a) Provide automatic braking to the main gear wheels during retraction.

b) Prevent a spinning tire with loose tread from entering the wheel well.
c) Allow the landing gear transfer unit to use hydraulic system B pressure to retract the gear if system A
fails.
6. What happens if after a total hydraulic system A failure the gear is selected up?
a) The gear will go up, powered via the landing gear transfer unit.
b) The gear will go up but very slowly.
c) Nothing, the gear will stay down.
7. With the manual gear extension access door open, manual gear extension is possible with gear lever in any
position.
a) True.
b) True, only on the -7/8/900 variant.
c) False.
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14. LANDING GEAR
8. What is the power source for normal nose wheel steering?
a) Manual input via cables direct to the nose wheel.

b) Hydraulic system B.
c) Hydraulic system A via the nose gear down line.
9. Why is the lock-out pin installed in the towing lever during push-back?
a) To depressurize the nose wheel steering.

b) It depressurizes the parking brake pressure.
c) It locks the nose wheel steering in its centred position.
10. The alternate brake system is powered by:
a) Hydraulic system A.
b) Hydraulic system B.
c) The brake accumulator.
11. Which brake systems use an anti-skid system?
a) Only the normal brake system including the brake accumulator.

b) The normal brake system and the alternate brake system, but not the brake accumulator.
c) The normal brake system, including the brake accumulator, and the alternate brake system .
12. Which brake system(s) use(s) the auto brake system?
a) The normal brake system and the brake accumulator.

b) The normal brake system and the alternate brake system.
c) The normal brake system only.
13. After selecting the Auto Brake switch to RTO. When is the RTO mode armed?
a) When the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light remains extinguished.

b) After the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for approximately 2 seconds, indicating a
successful test.
c) When the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates dim.
14. (-7/8/900) When during takeoff with RTO selected, the forward thrust levers are moved to idle with a wheel
speed below 90 kt:
a) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates and no automatic braking is applied.
b) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates and maximum automatic braking is applied.
c) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light does not illuminate and no automatic braking is applied; the
autobrake system remains armed.
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14. LANDING GEAR
15. (-3/400) When during takeoff with RTO selected, the forward thrust levers are moved to idle with a wheel speed
between 60 and 90 kt:
a) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates and no automatic braking is applied.
b) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates and maximum automatic braking is applied.
c) The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light does not illuminate and no automatic braking is applied; the
autobrake system remains armed.
16. The air/ground system receives air/ground logic signals from:
a) Radio altimeter 1.
b) The cabin pressure controller.
c) The landing gear.
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14. LANDING GEAR
INTENTIONALLY BLANK
08FEB2010 Page 70
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15. WARNING SYSTEMS
15. WARNING SYSTEMS
1. A single GPS receiver failure has occurred. What is the correct statement?
a) The GPS light automatically illuminates.

b) The GPS light will only illuminate upon Master Caution recall and will extinguish when the Master
Caution is reset.
c) An IRS NAV ONLY message will be presented in the CDU scratch pad.
2. The cabin altitude warning and the take-off configuration warning use the same intermittent tone when
activated.
a) True.
b) False.
3. Above which cabin altitude does the cabin altitude warning horn sound?
a) 10,000 ft.
b) 12,000 ft.
c) 14,000 ft.
4. Which of the following conditions will cause a take-off configuration warning?
a) Stabilizer set outside the green band.

b) Rudder trim more than one unit in either direction.
c) Speed brake lever in DOWN detent.
5. Which of the following conditions will cause only the -7/8/900, a take-off configuration warning?
a) Landing gear lever not in the down position.

b) Pressurized hydraulic fluid is inadvertently provided to spoilers.
c) PSEU light ON.
6. When the landing gear configuration horn sounds:
a) It can always be silenced by the horn cut-out button.

b) It can always be silenced by selecting the appropriate flaps setting.
c) It can always be silenced by selecting gear DOWN.
7. (-7/8/900) The Proximity Switch Electronic Unit (PSEU) monitors amongst others:
a) Overwing exit flight locks.

b) Landing gear sensors.
c) Air/ground sensors.
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15. WARNING SYSTEMS
8. Apart from the (BELOW) G/S light, visual warnings of the EGPWS system are presented:
a) For -7/8/900 aircraft as a red GPWS light and on the attitude indicators.
b) For -7/8/900 aircraft on the attitude indicators only.
c) For -3/400 aircraft as a red GPWS light and on the attitude indicators.
9. A ground proximity GLIDE SLOPE alert can be inhibited.
a) False.
b) True, when pushing the BELOW G/S light before selecting the APP mode on the MCP.
c) True, when pushing the BELOW G/S light below 1000’ RA.
10. The terrain display shows terrain in green. This means:
a) Terrain is more than 2000’ below current airplane altitude.

b) Terrain is at least 250’ below current airplane altitude.
c) Terrain is above current airplane altitude.
11. When a TCAS TA is generated, the approximate time to the point of closest approach is:
a) 15 seconds.
b) 40 seconds.
c) 1 minute.
08FEB2010 Page 72
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16. FLIGHT SAFETY
16. FLIGHT SAFETY
1. You are assisting at a door during an evacuation on terrain. What do you shout to the passengers?
a) GET OUT HURRY, GET OUT HURRY.

b) JUMP, JUMP, JUMP.
c) JUMP AND SLIDE, JUMP AND SLIDE.
2. After ditching, how can you disconnect the slide totally from the aircraft?
a) Pull the slide disengage handle and cut the mooring line with the knife.
b) Pull the slide disengage handle and pull the mooring line quick release handle.
c) The slide cannot be disconnected.
3. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) After any landing gear failure all the B737 slides will be usable.
b) It is not possible to open the overwing exits from the outside.
c) The B737 slides will be disarmed when the doors are being opened from the outside.
4. You decide to prepare the cabin for an emergency landing. What document should be used?
a) The Cabin Landing Checklist.

b) No document at all, do it by heart.
c) The Preparation/Evacuation Directives (PED).
5. If the PAS is inoperative, how is the command "BRACE FOR IMPACT" given to the cabin?
a) By flashing the NO SMOKING sign two times.

b) By flashing the FASTEN SEAT BELT sign at least six times.
c) By flashing the FASTEN SEAT BELT sign several times.
6. Slide bar attached in the floor fittings. How is the slide inflated of an entry- or service door?
a) The slide should inflate automatically after opening the respective door.
b) The slide should inflate automatically after the slide-bar is stowed on the door and the door is
opened.
c) After opening the door the manual inflation handle must be pulled to initiate inflation of the slide.
7. What command should the captain give immediately after an abnormal event on the ground (evacuation not yet
required)?
a) No command at all.
b) "Brace for impact".
c) "Cabin crew and passengers remain seated".
08FEB2010 Page 73
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16. FLIGHT SAFETY
8. If the cockpit door is blocked what is the best way to escape the cockpit?
a) Open cockpit window and jump out.

b) Open cockpit window, take escape rope and climb down.
c) Open cockpit window, use pitot tubes to lower yourself.
9. After a passenger evacuation, cockpit task completed. What should the First Officer do?
a) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight if required), assist with the evacuation and leave the aircraft via
the aft entry door.
b) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight if required), assist with the evacuation and leave the aircraft.
c) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight if required), evacuate the aircraft and assist at the bottom of the
slide.
10. After a passenger evacuation, cockpit task completed. What should the Captain do?
a) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight/PBE if required), assist with the evacuation and leave the aircraft.
b) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight/PBE if required), assist with the evacuation, check all occupants
have evacuated and leave the aircraft.
c) Proceed to the cabin (take flashlight/PBE if required), evacuate the aircraft and assist at the bottom of
the slide.
11. What must be done if automatic inflation of a slide fails?
a) Push the door open until the power assist takes over.
b) Pull the manual inflation handle on the girt.
c) The passengers must be redirected by shouting: "NO SLIDE - GO TO THAT EXIT".
12. How does the Captain call the Purser to inform him/her that preparations have to be made for an emergency
landing?
a) By two chimes.
b) By the command "PURSER - REPORT TO COCKPIT" via the PAS.
c) By flashing the NO SMOKING sign two times.
13. (-3/400) Where is the dangerous goods kit stowed?
a) In the forward small luggage bin, RH side.

b) At the purser station.
c) In the forward small luggage bin, LH side.
14. (KLM -7/8/900) How many oxygen bottles are located in the aft section of the aircraft?
a) 2.
b) 3.
c) 4.
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16. FLIGHT SAFETY
15. (-3/400) How many oxygen bottles are located in the forward section of the aircraft?
a) 2.
b) 3.
c) 4.
16. (KLM aircraft) How many first aid kits are there on board the -3/4/700 variant?
a) 1.
b) 2.
c) 3.
17. (-8/900) Where is the Halon fire extinguisher located in the forward section of the aircraft?
a) In the forward luggage bin, RH side.

b) In a compartment above the CA seat.
c) In the forward luggage bin, LH side.
18. What is the correct way to operate a Halon fire extinguisher?
a) Just pull the trigger and keep the extinguisher upright.

b) Turn the handle to the right and keep the extinguisher upright.
c) Check pressure, keep the extinguisher upright, pull out safety pin and squeeze the handles.
19. Evacuation on water. What command should be used at the doors?
a) "INFLATE LIFE VEST - JUMP"

b) "INFLATE LIFE VEST – JUMP - HURRY"
c) "JUMP AND SLIDE"
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16. FLIGHT SAFETY
INTENTIONALLY BLANK
08FEB2010 Page 76
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17. ANSWERS
17. ANSWERS
1. Airplane General 2. Air Systems 3. Anti-ice, Rain 4. Automatic Flight
1 B C C B
2 A C A C
3 C A B B
4 B C A C
5 C A A C
6 A A A A
7 B B A C
8 C C C C
9 B B A B
10 A B B B
11 AC B C C
12 B C B B
13 B C AC B
14 C C A B
15 C A C
16 B A AC
17 C C C
18 B A B
19 A A B
20 AC A A
21 ABC A B
22 B C
23 C A
24 B
25 AB
26 C
27 A
28 A
29 C
30 A
31 ABD
32 B
33 C
34 C
35 A
36 B
37 B
38 C
39 B
40
08FEB2010 Page 77
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17. ANSWERS
5. Communications 6. Electrical 7. Engines, APU 8. Fire protection
1 A B B A
2 BC C C A
3 B A C C
4 C A C B
5 B B D B
6 A C B B
7 B B A
8 B B B
9 A C B
10 C A C
11 B C C
12 A B
13 A C
14 A C
15 B B
16 C B
17 AB C
18 C C
19 C A
20 A A
21 B C
22 A B
23 A B
24 B C
25 C C
26 A C
27 A B
28 C B
29 ACD C
30 AB B
31 A
32 B
33 B
34 A
35 B
36 C
37 B
38 B
39
40
08FEB2010 Page 78
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17. ANSWERS
10. Flight 11. Flight

9. Flight Controls Instruments, Management, 12. Fuel
Displays Navigation
1 A B A B
2 A A A A
3 A B A A
4 A B B B
5 B A B B
6 B A B C
7 B B C A
8 B B A B
9 C B B B
10 A C C C
11 A C A C
12 A B A B
13 ABC C A B
14 B A A A
15 C B C B
16 A B A A
17 A A A B
18 C A B A
19 C B B A
20 C B A C
21 A A C
22 C A B
23 AB C B
24 B C B
25 B C C
26 B B C
27 A C A
28 A AC C
29 C C
30 C B
31 A C
32 A
33 A
34 AC
35 BC
36 AB
37
38
39
40
08FEB2010 Page 79
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17. ANSWERS
13. Hydraulics 14. Landing Gear 15. Warning Systems 16. Flight Safety
1 B A B C
2 B C A B
3 A A A A
4 B B A C
5 C B B C
6 B C C A
7 AB B ABC C
8 B C BC B
9 B A C B
10 C A B B
11 C C B B
12 B C B
13 C B A
14 A C B
15 B A A
16 C B
17 B
18 C
19 A
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
08FEB2010 Page 80

KLM Tech Quest-1

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k Flight Crew Training B737

Document / Revision Date : Technical Questionnaire 08FEB2010

0. ADMINISTRATION AND INTRODUCTION.........................................................................................................4

2. AIR SYSTEMS ...................................................................................................................................................11

3. ANTI-ICE, RAIN .................................................................................................................................................19

4. AUTOMATIC FLIGHT ........................................................................................................................................23

9. FLIGHT CONTROLS .........................................................................................................................................43

10. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS ...............................................................................................................49

11. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION...........................................................................................................53

12. FUEL ..................................................................................................................................................................59

13. HYDRAULICS ....................................................................................................................................................63

14. LANDING GEAR................................................................................................................................................67

15. WARNING SYSTEMS........................................................................................................................................71

16. FLIGHT SAFETY ...............................................................................................................................................73

17. ANSWERS .........................................................................................................................................................77

0. ADMINISTRATION AND INTRODUCTION

REVISION TOTAL REVISED NOTES BY

The subject of the questions are related to:

Your contribution is and will be appreciated.

This document is also available on the portal MyKLM.org.

1. (-7/8/900) The wingspan measures just under:

2. (-3/400) The wingspan measures just under:

4. (-3/400) What is the maximum flight altitude?

5. (-7/8/900) What is the maximum flight altitude?

7. What is the correct statement regarding the taxi light.

a) Selecting the EVAC switch ON.

a) Automatically when flaps and/or gear are extended.

11. How can the crew oxygen system pressure be checked?

a) By the gauge on the oxygen bottle in the fwd cargo compartment.

Note: More than one correct answer.

a) 1500 psi or lower after consulting the Pre-flight inspection booklet

a) It is necessary to stow the oxygen mask.

a) Approximately 10,000 ft.

a) Passenger oxygen system pressure is low.

17. Regarding flight deck number two windows:

a) They both can be opened from outside the airplane.

18. What is the correct statement regarding the cargo compartments?

a) The cargo compartments are not pressurized.

19. What determines the correct eye reference position?

Note: More than one correct answer.

a) The system becomes unpowered.

Note: More than one correct answer.

1. Which systems use the pneumatic system for their operation?

a) Airconditioning, wing anti-ice, pitot/static heating.

2. Which reservoirs are not pressurized by the pneumatic system?

a) The water tank.

3. When does the BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminate?

a) Bleed air temperature or pressure exceeding a certain limit.

a) Open, except with an engine bleed-valve or pack-valve in the closed position.

a) There is no reaction of the isolation valve.

6. What is the correct statement regarding engine starting?

7. The DUAL BLEED light is a warning for:

a) Possible backpressure of the APU from external pneumatic air.

a) Always when engines and APU are running.

9. (-4/8/900) When will the PACK light illuminate?

a) Engine bleed air temperature exceeding limits.

a) The cabin air outflow will be reduced.

a) Bleed trip off.

a) True, when the remaining pack is operating in high flow.

a) The zone which requires the most cooling.

a) There is an overheat in the forward cabin supply duct.

a) Passenger cabin duct.

a) When the trim air system has failed.