JSTSE Practice Papers I

FIITJEE
(JSTSE PAPER QUESTIONS)
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website: www.fiitjee.com
JSTSE-2019-GK+PCBM-QUESTIONS-2
1. Which of the following mobile application have been launched by government in June 2018 to track
and trace missing and abandon children in India?
1. Re unite 2. Scout
3. Pathway 4. Umang
2. Which city will host the 15th Pravasi bharatiya Divas in 2019?
1. New Delhi 2. Gandhi Nagar
3. Allahabad 4. Varanasi
3. Which country has successfully launched a new communication satellite “APSTAR – 6C”?
1. India 2. Indonesia
3. China 4. Malaysia
4. Which platform has been launched by the Union Government on the occasion of 2018 International
Women’s day?
1. Women Entrepreneurship platform 2. Women Power platform
3. Women Literacy platform 4. Women Health platform
5. Which IIT institute has installed India’s first 5G radio Laboratory?

1. IIT – Delhi 2. IIT – Mumbai
3. IIT – Indore 4. IIT – Roorkee
6. India’s flag-bearer at the closing ceremony of the 21st common wealth games held in 2018:
1. Monika Batra 2. Saina Nehwal
3. Mary Kom 4. Heena Sidhu
7. How many India states share border with Myanmar?

1. 01 2. 02
3. 03 4. 04
8. First Indian Woman lawyer to be directly promoted as a judge of the supreme court:
1. Ranjana Prakash Desai 2. Indu Malhotra
3. Gyan Sudha Mishra 4. Ruma Pal
9. In which city, India’s first helicopter – taxi service has launched?

1. Bengaluru 2. Kochi
3. Delhi 4. Kolkata
10. In which of the following Indian state forest, ‘Appiko movement’ which gets inspired by ‘Chipko
movement’ took place?
1. Karnataka 2. Uttrakhand
3. Andhra Pradesh 4. Maharashtra
11. Official Mascot of winter Olympics – 2018:

1. Soohorang 2. Misha
3. Olly 4. Sam
12. India’s first insect museum opened in :

1. Kerala 2. Tamilnadu
3. Jharkhand 4. West Bengal
13. First Indian woman to fly a fighter aircraft solo:

1. Harita Kaur 2. Punita Arora
3. Bhawna Kanth 4. Avani Chaturvedi
14. In which Indian state, the Nipah virus outbreak was first detected?
1. Kerela 2. Goa
3. Tamilnadu 4. Gujarat
15. What was the code name of the first nuclear test conducted by India on May 18, 1974, in Pokhran,
Rajasthan.
1. Operation Vijay 2. Operation Shakti
3. Smiling Buddha 4. Operation Ashwamedh
16. Project launched by FSSAI to address vitamin D deficiencies (VDD) amongst youngsters:
1. Project Sun 2. Project Sky
3. Project Dhoop 4. Project Sunlight
17. Which union ministry in collaboration with Google India has launched a 360° virtual reality (VR) video
on incredible India?
1. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
2. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
3. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
4. Ministry of Tourism.
18. India has become the member of European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) in
year 2018. Headquarter of EBRD is:
1. Berlin 2. Geneva
3. London 4. Paris
19. ‘Mount Ojos de Salado’ is the highest volcano in the world situated at :
1. Japan 2. Afghanistan and Russia Border
3. Cuba and USA border 4. Argentina and Chile border
20. Theme of the 2018 World Population Day (WPD) is :

1. Family planning is a human right 2. Family planning – Call for people
3. Family planning – Save Earth 4. Family planning – Say what you need?
21. The Novel that has won the 2018 ‘Golden Man Booker Prize’ is:
1. In a free state 2. The English Patient
3. Wolf Hall 4. Moon Tiger
22. The thickness of stratospheric ozone layer is measured in/on

1. Sieverts 2. Dobson units
3. Melson units 4. Beaufort scale
23. Mudumalai Tiger Resrve (MTR) is now an Eco-sensitive Zone (ESZ) located in:
1. Kerala 2. Karnataka
3. Tamilnadu 4. Telangana
24. A useful biological indicator of Sulphur dioxide pollution is:

1. Bryophyte 2. Lichen
3. Pseudomonas 4. Algal blooms
25. The person who won the first gold medal for India in common wealth game – 2018 is :
1. M. Chanu 2. Monka Batra
3. Mary Kom 4. Babita Fogat
26. The inventor of video games is :

1. Ralph Baer 2. Ralph Nadal
3. Dustin Johnson 4. Michael Johnson
27. The Sangai festival is celebrated in ;

1. Assam 2. Manipur
3. Mizoram 4. Nagaland
28. Each year Ramzan occurs about ----------- from the previous year.
1. 11 days earlier 2. 11 days later
3. 17 days earlier 4. 17 days later
FIITJEE Lt(D), FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph: 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com.
29. ‘The world Beneath His Feet’ is a biography of :

1. Ajit wadekar 2. Sachin Tendulkar
3. Nawab Patoudi 4. Pulela Gopichand
30. Which among the following is played on a synthetic hard-court?

1. Australian open 2. Wimbledon
3. French open 4. All the three
31. The share of Government of India in NABARD is:

1. 50% 2. 51%
3. 75% 4. More than 98%
32. If an egg with shell is placed in a microwave oven, and microwave oven is switched on. Which among
the following is most likely happen?
1. The egg will not get warmed.
2. The egg will get cooked slowly similar to a boiled egg.
3. The egg shell will explode.
4. The egg shell become yellow.
33. ‘Saffron ‘ is obtained from _________ part of the plant:

1. Stigma 2. Anther
3. Stamen 4. Pollen
34. Pest-resistant cotton commonly known as ‘Bt-cotton’ is genetically engineered by inserting a gene
from:
1. Bacterium 2. Virus
3. Microalgae 4. Protist
35. From which language the word “Democracy’ has been derived?
1. French language 2. Greek language
3. Urdu language 4. Dutch language
36. Who is called the ‘Patron of Constitution’?

1. President 2. Prime-Minister
3. High Court 4. Supreme Court
37. What are the Prime minister’s office, Defence Minister’s office and Ministries of External affairs jointly
called in Delhi?
1. North Block 2. South Block
3. East Block 4. West Block
38. Who prepares the topographical maps of India?

1. Geological survey of India 2. Survey of India
3. Defence Ministry 4. Home Ministry
39. Which state is famous for step wells?

1. Maharashtra 2. Gujarat
3. Rajasthan 4. Manipur
40. Who has been honoured with Ashok Chakra (posthumously) on 26 January 2018?
1. Jyoti Kumar Singh 2. Jyoti Prakash Nirala
3. Jyoti Vishal Gupta 4. Jyoti Singh Maan
41. World Sustainable Development Summit-2018 held in:

1. America 2. Japan
3. India 4. Pakistan
42. In which year ‘Sh. Atal Bihari Vajpayee’ was honoured with ‘BHARAT RATAN’?
1. 2012 2. 2013
3. 2014 4. 2015
43. 11th World Hindi Conference was held in which country?

1. India 2. Myanmar
3. Mauritius 4. Thailand
44. The Zero Discrimination Day (ZDD) is celebrated on?

1. May 8 2. June 6
3. March 1 4. February 7
45. In which country of world ‘Universal Adult Franchise started in 1893?

1. England 2. America
3. Japan 4. New Zealand
46. The company that has set up the world’s largest mobile phone factory in NOIDA:
1. Apple 2. Samsung
3. Xiomi 4. OPPO
47. The curriculum that has been launched by Delhi government in July 2018 is:
1. Mindfulness curriculum 2. Meditation for all
3. Fit Delhi 4. Happiness Curriculum
48. In which year ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Award’ was instituted?

1. 1963 2. 1965
3. 1967 4. 1969
49. The Japanese art “Ikebana” is related to which among the following?
1. Wall painting 2. Flower Decoration
3. Chorus Dance 4. Sculptures
50. The mountain pass-that forms the ‘Tri-Junction’ of India, China and Myanmar:
1. Nathula 2. Jelepla
3. Bomdila 4. Diphu
51. The velocity (v) – time (t) graph of a body falling freely from rest under gravity and rebound from solid
surface is represented by graph :–
1. 2.
v v
t t
3. 4.
v v
t t
52. A ball falls freely from rest. The ratio of distance travelled by it in first, second, third and fourth
seconds is
1. 1 : 1 : 1 : 2 2. 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
3. 1 : 1 : 1 : 13 4. 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
G
53. What is the ratio of SI unit and CGS unit of   ?
g
G = universal constant of gravitation
g = acceleration due to gravity
1. 10 2. 102
3. 10–1 4. 10–2
54. A bullet in motion hit and get embedded in a solid resting on a frictionless table. What will be
conserved
1. Momentum and kinetic energy 2. Momentum alone
3. Kinetic energy alone 4. Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
55. A graph is drawn with force along y-axis and time along x-axis. The area under the graph represents
1. Momentum 2. Impulse of force
3. Change in velocity 4. None of these
1 3
56. A body floats with rd of its volume outside water and th of its volume outside a liquid. Then
3 4
density of liquid is
3 8
1. g / cc 2. g / cc
8 3
9 4
3. g / cc 4. g / cc
4 9
57. A bullet is fired from gun. Which will have greater kinetic energy the bullet or gun :–
1. gun 2. bullet
3. both have same kinetic energy 4. insufficient data
58. Which is the best graph of total energy (T) of freely falling body and its height H
1. 2.
T T
H H
3. 4.
T T
H H
59. A mass of M kg is suspended by a weightless string. The horizontal force that is required to displace it
until the string makes an angle of 45° with the initial vertical direction is –
1. Mg 2. Mg ( )
2 +1
Mg
3. Mg 2 4.
2
60. Velocity time graph for a ball of mass 50 g rolling on a floor is given, the frictional force of the floor on
the ball will be :–
100
80
60
40
20
Time (s) →
0
2 4 6 8 10
1. 0.5 N 2. 1.5 N
3. 2.5 N 4. 1 N
61. The average density of the earth in terms of g, G and R

9g 3g
1. 2.
4 G R
2
4 GR
3g 2g
3. 4.
2 GR2 3 RG
g = acceleration due to gravity
G = universal gravitational constant
R = Radius of earth
62. A ball is droped from a height of 10 m. If the energy of ball reduces by 40% after striking on the
ground. How much high can the ball bounce back.
1. 10 m 2. 8 m
3. 6 m 4. 4 m
63. A submarine emits a sonar pulse which returns from an under water cliff in 1.05 second. If speed of
sound in salt water is 1531 m/s. How far away is the cliff.
1. 1568 m 2. 803.7 m
3. 1607.4 m 4. 765.5 m
64. The frequency of a source is 20kHz. The frequency of sound wave produced by it in water and air will
be –
1. Be the same as that of source
2. Depends on the velocity of the wave
3. Depends on the wavelength of the wave
4. Depends on the density of medium
65. A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity u and uniform acceleration a. If the sum of the
distances travelled in tth and (1+1)th second is 100 cm. Then its velocity after t second in cm/s is
1. 20 2. 30
3. 50 4. 80
66. In a rocket fuel burns at the of 1 kg/s. This fuel is ejected from rocket with a velocity of 60 Km/s. This
exerts a force on rocket equal to –
1. 6000 N 2. 60,000 N
3. 60 N 4. 600 N
67. A ball is dropped on the floor from a height of 20 m. It rebounds to a height of 10 m. If the ball is in
contact with floor for 0.1s. What is average acceleration during contact.
1. 142 m/s2 2. 285 m/s2
3. 338 m/s2 4. 564 m/s2
68. The roofs and walls of the auditorium are generally covered with sound absorbent material to reduce
1. Velocity of sound 2. Reverberation of sound
3. Frequency of sound 4. None of these
69. A stone is fropped from the top of a tower of 125m height into a pond which is at bottom of tower.
When will the splash be heard at top. ( g = 10 m / s2 , speed of sound = 340 m/s)
1. 5 s 2. 0.36 s
3. 5.36 s 4. 2 s
70. In distance time graph of 3 cars A, B and C which car has highest speed and lowest speed.
Time(t)
Distance(x)
1. A,C 2. C,A
3. A,B 4. B,A
1 th
71. A riffle bullet losses of its speed in passing through a plank. The least number of such planks
20
required to stop the bullet is
1. 5 2. 10
3. 11 4. 20
72. Minimum number of unequal forces which can give zero resultant is
1. 2 2. 3
3. 4 4. More than 4
73. A particle starts from rest, its acceleration v/s time graph is shown in figure.
acceleration
10 m/s2
Time(s)
O 11
The maximum speed of particle will be
1. 110 m/s 2. 55 m/s
3. 550 m/s 4. 660 m/s
74. Four forces of equal magnitude P, Q, R, S are acting on an object as shown in figure. Which of the
following forces does the least work.
Q
R Direction
P of
motion
30°
S
1. P 2. Q
3. R 4. S
75. An object is vertically thrown with some velocity and passes through same point after 2sec and 10sec
respectively, the time at which its velocity becomes zero
1. 2 sec 2. 10 sec
3. 4 sec 4. 6 sec
76. The graph between velocity (v) and mass (m) for constant linear momentum is
1. 2.
v v
m m
3. 4.
v v
m m
77. A stone is dropped from a certain height which can reach on the ground in 5s. If this stone is stopped
after 3s on its fall and is again released, then the total time taken by the stone to reach the ground will
be (g = 10 m/s2)
1. 6s 2. 7s
3. 8s 4. 9s
78. Displacement time graph for a sound wave traveling with a velocity of 1500 m/s is given. Find the
wavelength of the sound wave
Y
O x
1 2 3 4 5
Time ( s )
1. 5 × 10–5 m 2. 3 × 10–3 m
3. 2 × 10–6 m 4. 1.5 × 10–3 m
79. Displacement time graph for an object is given. Its velocity time graph will be
v
Disp.(x)
t Time(t)
1. 2.
v v
t t
3. 4.
v v
t t
80. The rate of change of momentum per unit area represent.

1. Force 2. Energy
3. Pressure 4. Power
81. Which of the following works on the principle of conservation of linear momentum -
1. JET 2. AEROPLANE
3. ROCKET 4. All of these
82. When the surfaces are coated with lubricant then they -
1. Roll upon each other 2. Slide upon each other
3. Stick to each other 4. None of these
83. If momentum of a body is increased by 20%. Then its kinetic energy will increase by
1. 48% 2. 44%
3. 40% 4. 36%
84. Kepler’s II law regarding constancy of areal velocity of a planet is consequence of the law of
conservation of -
1. Energy 2. Angular momentum
3. Linear momentum 4. None of these
85. On increasing the temperature of iron body gradually its colour becomes
1. Red 2. Green
3. Yellow 4. White
86. A beaker is completely filled with water of 4°C. It will overflow if

1. heated above 4°C
2. Cooled below 4°C
3. Both heated and cooled above 4°C and below 4°C respectively
4. None of the above
87. Time period of simple pendulum of a clock is

1. 1s 2. 2s
3. 3s 4. 4s
88. If a watch with a wound spring is taken on the moon, then it

1. Show no change 2. Does not work
3. Runs slowly 4. Runs faster
89. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency v. The frequency of oscillation of kinetic
energy will be
v
1. 2. v
2
3. 2v 4. 4v
90. A boy of mass 50 kg runs up a staircase of 45 steps in 9s. If the height of each step is 15 cm. Power
of boy is
1. 0.375 Kw 2. 3.75 Kw
3. 37.5 Kw 4. 375 Kw
91. The electronic bulb on long use forms a black coating on its inner surface. The process associated
with this is –
1. Melting of tungsten 2. Sublimation of tungsten
3. Oxidation of tungsten 4. Reduction of tungsten
92. The unit of latent heat is

1. Joules per kilogram 2. Calories per gram per °C
3. Ergs per k 4. Kilojoules per kilogram per °K
93. Which of the following is not an example of plasma

1. Aurora boreale’s (polar lights) 2. Fluorescent light bulb
3. Neon sign boards 4. Incandescent light blub
94. When a teaspoon of solid sugar is dissolved in a glass of liquid water what phase/phases are
present after mixing?
1. Liquid only 2. Still solid and liquid
3. Solid only 4. Gas and liquid
95. Which is the most fevourable condition of liquefaction of ammonia?

1. High pressure, high temperature 2. High pressure, low temperature
3. Low pressure, low temperature 4. Low pressure, high temperature
96. Which of the following has more heat content

1. 10 g of ice at 0°C 2. 10 g of water at 0°C
3. Both have the same 4. Can’t say
97. If we add common salt to water then its freezing point

1. becomes less than 0°C 2. becomes more than 0°C
3. remains 0°C 4. can not be determined
98. Match column I with column II and choose the correct option using the codes given below
Column I Column I
Mixture Separation technique
a) Black ink i) Distillation
b) Liquid Air ii) Evaporation and crystallization
c) Copper sulphate solution in water iii) Fractional distillation
d) Acetone iv) Chromatography and water
1. A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv) 2. A(ii), B(iii), C(i), D(iv)
3. A(iv), B(i), C(iii), D(ii) 4. A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)
99. A compound PQ2 has the following arrangement of electrons
The elements, P and Q are respectively

1. N, Cl 2. Cl, S
3. Q, F 4. Na, P
100. The nucleon number of atom X is 37. It exists as a diatomic molecule X 2. One molecule of X2
contains 34 protons. How many neutrone are present in the nucleus of atom X?
1. 17 2. 20
3. 21 4. 25
101. Which of the following correctly represents 360 g of water.

1. 2 moles H2O 2. 0.2 moles of H2O
3. 6.022 × 1023 molecules of H2O 4. 1.2044 × 1025 molecules of H2O
102. Which of the following contains maximum number of molecules

1. 1g SO2 2. 1g NO2
3. 1g NH3 4. 1g H2
103. What mass of hydrogen and oxygen will be produced on complete electrolysis of 18g of water.
1. 2g hydrogen and 32g of oxygen 2. 2g hydrogen and 18g
3. 2g hydrogen and 16 g oxygen 4. 12 g hydrogen and 6g oxygen
104. A sample of MgCO3 contains 3.01 × 1023 Mg2+ and 3.01 × 1023 CO32− ions. The mass of the
sample is
1. 45 mg 2. 84 g
3. 42 g 4. 42 mol
105. How many moles of electrons weigh one kilogram? [Mass of electron = 9.108 × 10 –31 kg ; NA =
6.023 × 1023].
1
1.  108 2. 6.023 × 1023
9.108  6.023
1 6.023
3.  1031 4.  1054
9.108 9.108
106. Solubility of KNO3

1. Increase with temperature 2. Decreases with temperature
3. Remains constant with temperature 4. It is not related to temperature fluctuations
107. A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is

1. Heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
2. Heterogeneous and does not shown Tyndall effect
3. Homogenous and shows Tyndall effect
4. Homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
108. Dry ice is an example of which of the following processes

1. Evaporation 2. Crystallization
3. Sublimation 4. Purification
109. Ninhydrin having molecule formula C9H6O4 is commonly used by forensic scientists to detect and
analyse fingerprints. The number of molecules in 7.4 g of ninhydrin is
1. 1.5 × 1022 2. 2.5 × 1023
3. 2.5 × 10 22 4. 4.2 × 1023
110. Percentage aboundance of different isotopes of lead is given below

Pb–206 23.6%
Pb–207 22.6%
Pb–208 53.8%
The average atomic mass of lead is
1. 208 2. 207.567
3. 207.302 4. 209
111. Vitamin B12 contain

1. Fe(II) 2. Co(III)
3. Zn(I) 4. Co(II)
112. Tincture of iodine is :

1. Aqueous solution of I2 2. Solution of I2 in aqueous KI
3. Alcoholic solution of I2 4. Aqueous solution of KI
113. Fog is colloidal solution of

1. Gas in liquid 2. Liquid in gas
3. Gas is solid 4. Solid in gas
114. The oxidation state of P in H3PO3 is –

1. +6 2. +7
3. –3 4. +3
115. The weight of a molecule of the compound C60H12 is

1. 1.4 × 10–21 g 2. 1.09 × 10–21 g
23
3. 5.025 × 10 g 4. 16.023 × 1023 g
116. Calculate the number of ions present in 5.85 g of NaCl

1. 0.204 × 1023 ions 2. 1.204 × 1023 ions
23
3. 6.023 × 10 ions 4. 12.04 × 1023 ions
117. Which of the following is purified by sublimation if impurities are non volatile?
1. Cane sugar 2. Acetic acid
3. Urea 4. Naphthalene
118. In the following ___________ is not polymer

1. Sucrose 2. Enzyme
3. Starch 4. Teflon
119. In carbon disulphide (CS2) the mass of sulphur in combination with 3.0 g carbon is
1. 4.0 g 2. 6.0 g
3. 64.0 g 4. 16.0 g
120. _____________ is a semiconductor

1. Boron 2. Copper
3. Lead 4. Gold
121. Which of the following weighs maximum?

1. 0.5 mole of H2O 2. 0.5 mole of C2H6
3. 1 mole of NH3 4. 0.1 mole of CO2
122. _____________ is used for leukemia

1. Fe – 59 2. P – 32
3. Co – 60 4. I2 – 131
123. In Fe2O3, Fe is __________

1. Monovalent 2. Bivalent
3. Neutral 4. Trivalent
124. ___________ gas evolved when Mn react with very dilute HNO3
1. NO2 2. H2
3. N2O 4. NO
125. _____________ Alloy is used for welding electrical wires

1. Solder 2. Geamen silver
3. Stainless steel 4. Gun metal
126. Aqua regia is the mixture of cone. HCl and Cone. HNO 3 in the ratio
1. 1 : 3 2. 2 : 3
4. 3 : 1 4. 3 : 2
127. ___________ gas is filled in tyres of aeroplane

1. Neon 2. Hydrogen
3. Nitrogen 4. Helium
128. Which of the following is the correct order of reactivity of metals?

1. Mg > Al > Zn > Fe 2. Mg > Zn > Fe > Al
3. Al > Mg > Zn > Fe 4. Mg > Zn > Al > Fe
129. Electrolysis of water gives :

1. H+ and OH– ions in the solution 2. H2 gas at anode and O2 gas at cathode
3. O2 gas at anode and H2 gas at cathode 4. H2O(I) converted into H2O(g)
130. Antiknocking compound in gasoline is :

1. Triethyl lead 2. Trimethyl lead
3. Tetramethyl lead 4. Tetraethyl lead
131. Which of the following cell organelles do not have double membrane?
1. Nucleus 2. Mitochondria
3. Lysosome 4. Plastid
132. IR-36 is improved variety of:

1. Rice 2. Wheat
3. Groundnut 4. Cotton
133. Vaccine of small pox is discovered by:

1. Louis Pasteur 2. Edward Jenner
3. Alexander Fleming 4. Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
134. Which of the following plant group is not included in Cryptogamae

1. Thallophyta 2. Gymnosperm
3. Bryophyta 4. Pteriodophyta
135. Naked seeds are present in

1. Pinus 2. Mustard
3. Mango 4. Lemon
136. Vector of Encephalitis is

1. Culex 2. Anopheles
3. Aedes 4. Tse tse fly
137. BCG vaccine is given for immunity against:

1. Malaria 2. Jaundice
3. Tuberculosis 4. Hepatitis
138. Starch is stored in

1. Aleuroplast 2. Amyloplast
3. Chromoplast 4. Chloroplast
139. Which animal is an amphibian?

1. Salamander 2. Chameleon
3. Lizard 4. Cobra
140. The ‘binomial nomenclature’ was proposed by:

1. Aristotle 2. Carolus Linnaeus
3. Copeland 4. Kashyap
141. Companion cell is a component of

1. Parenchyma 2. Sclerenchyma
3. Xylem 4. Phloem
142. Which of the following does not have ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen?
1. Anabaena 2. Azotobacter
3. Nitrosomonas 4. Rhizobium
143. Intestinal muscles are:

1. Voluntary and unstriated 2. Involuntary and striated
3. Voluntary and striated 4. Involuntary and unstriated
144. Ribosomes are the centre for:

1. Lipid synthesis 2. Protein synthesis
3. Photosynthesis 4. Respiration
145. In which of the following plant tissues, ‘Intercellular spaces’ are absent?
1. Parenchyma 2. Chlorenchyma
3. Sclerenchyma 4. Aerenchyma
146. Unicellular green algae is

1. Ulothrix 2. Chlamydomonas
3. Spirogyra 4. Chara
147. ‘Haemocoel’ is present in

1. Octopus 2. Cockroach
3. Starfish 4. Earthworm
148. The antibiotic penicillin blocks the bacterial process that builds:
1. Lysosome 2. Cell membrane
3. Cell wall 4. Ribosome
149. An organism having characteristic of both plant and animal is:

1. Spirogyra 2. Amoeba
3. Paramecium 4. Euglena
150. Slime mould are classified in kingdom:

1. Monera 2. Protista
3. Fungi 4. Plantae
151. Colonial coelenterate is:

1. Coral 2. Hydra
3. Jellyfish 4. Sea anemone
152. Bacteria which can cause acne is

1. Staphylococci 2. Methanogens
3. Vibrio 4. Aceno bacteria
153. Which of the following process occur only in animals?

1. Respiration 2. Nutrition
3. Nervous control 4. Hormonal control
154. Which of the following metal is present in chlorophyll?

1. Mg 2. Cu
3. Zn 4. Fe
155. Kala - azar is caused by

1. Nematode 2. Virus
3. Bacteria 4. Protozoan
156. World AIDS Day is celebrated on:

1. 2 December 2. 2 November
3. 4 January 4. 1 December
157. Water Vascular System of locomotion is found in

1. Jellyfish 2. Starfish
3. Silver fish 4. Octopus
158. Pseudocoelom is found in

1. Roundworm 2. Liverfluke
3. Planaria 4. Tapeworm
159. The eukaryotic cell without plastid is found in

1. Blue green algae 2. Bacteria
3. Fungi 4. Euglena
160. Which cell organelles are capable of forming their own proteins?
1. Mitochondria 2. Golgi apparatus
3. Plastids 4. Both (1) and (3)
161. In the following which one is a ciliated protozoan?

1. Amoeba 2. Paramoecium
3. Euglena 4. Trypanosoma
162. The life supporting zone of the earth is

1. Biosphere 2. Atmosphere
3. Lithosphere 4. Hydrosphere
163. Indigenous breed of poultry in India is

1. Leghorn 2. Lepra
3. Aseel 4. Dino
164. Rain water which have dissolved oxides of sulphur and nitrogen, forms:
1. Water gas 2. Pure rain
3. Alkaline rain 4. Acid rain
165. Gonorrhoea, a sexually transmitted disease is caused by

1. Virus 2. Protozoan
3. Bacteria 4. Fungus
166. In which of the following animals, cutaneous respiration occurs:

1. Rabbit 2. Cockroach
3. Tortoise 4. Earthworm
167. 2, 4-D chemical is used as

1. Weedicide 2. Insecticide
3. Fungicide 4. Fertilizer
168. Chemical responsible for ozone depletion is

1. DDT 2. CFCs
3. BHC 4. CO2
169. Which of the following is egg laying mammal?

1. Kangaroo 2. Echidna
3. Whale 4. Bat
170. In the following which is a fungal disease?

1. Malaria 2. Tetanus
3. Ringworm 4. Leprosy
2
3 +1 3 −1 3 −2  39 
171. If x = + + , then the value of x +   is 2
3 −1 3 +1 3 +2  x 
1. 104 2. 114
3. 124 4. 144
a b
172. If + = 1 , (a, b  0) then the value of a3 + b3 is
b a
1. 1 2. – 1
3. 0 4. 2
173. The value of 2 + 3 + 2 − 3 is

1. 8 3 2. 2 3
3. 3 2 4. 6
174. If one angle of a triangle is 130°, then the angle between the angle bisectors of the other two angle is
1. 145° 2. 155°
3. 135° 4. 95°
175. If 4x – 4x – 1 = 24, then (2x)x equals

1. 5 5 2. 5
3. 25 5 4. 125
176. If
( 2.3 )3 − ( 0.027 ) = K, then the value of K is
( 2.3 )2 + 0.69 + 0.09
1. 2.273 2. 2.327
3. 2 4. 3
177. If (3x – 1)7 = a7x7 + a6x6 + a5x5 + ….. + a1x + a0, then the value of (a7 + a6 + a5 + …. + a1 + a0) is
1. 128 2. 64
3. 0 4. 32
25by − 2ax
178. If a : b = 2 : 3, x : y = 3 : 4 then the value of is
3ay + 4bx
1. 5 : 24 2. 24 : 5
3. 1 : 2 4. 2 : 1
179. If x3 – 3x2 + 3x + 7 = (x + 1)(ax2 + bx + c), then value of (a + b + c) is

1. 4 2. 12
3. – 10 4. 3
S R
180. In the given figure, PQRS is a square. RST is an
equilateral triangle, then the value of x is
1. 60° 2. 75°
x
3. 45° 4. 80° M
P Q
181. One angle of a pentagon is 140°. If the remaining angles are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4, then the greatest
angle is
1. 160° 2. 170°
3. 140° 4. 150°
182. If the mean of age of 18 students of a class is 14.5 years, two more students of ages 15 years and 16
years join the class, then the new mean of age is
1. 14 years 2. 14.6 years
3. 14.5 years 4. 14.7 years
183. The value of 42 + 42 + 42 + ...... is

1. 9 2. 8
3. 6 4. 7
184. In the given triangle RST, the value of x is R
1. 40° 2. 90° x
3. 80° 4. 100°
140° b
a
a b
S T
185. If the cost price of 25 articles is equal to the selling price of 20 articles, the gain percent is
1. 20% 2. 25%
3. 5% 4. 10%
186. The value of 0. 272 + 0.1363 is

3 41
1. 2.
22 100
1 9
3. 4.
2 22
 1
187. If a = 2 + 3 , then the value of  a −  is
 a
1. 0 2. 2 + 3
3. 4 4. 2 3
188. In the given figure, AB || HG then the value of ‘a’ is E
1. 8 2. 9 42o
6a – 5o
3. 7.5 4. 10
A C F B
o
10a + 5
H D G
189. If one factor of (x4 + x2 – 20) is (x2 + 5). The other factor is
1. x2 – 4 2. x2 + 4
3. x – 4 4. x + 20
 1 1 
190. If x = 7 + 4 3 and xy = 1, then  2 + 2  is
x y 
1. 64 2. 134
3. 194 4. 149
191. If 52m – 1 = 25m – 1 + 100, then the value of 32 + m is

1. 27 2. 81
3. 9 4. 343
192. If 5 coins are tossed together, what will be the probability of getting atleast 2 heads?
1 3
1. 2.
32 16
13 5
3. 4.
16 18
3 2+2 3
193. If = x + y 6 , then the value of (x – y) is
5 2−4 3
1. 16 2. 38
3. 22 4. 21
( q + r )2 (r + p )2 (p + q)2
194. If p + q + r = 0, then the value of + + is
qr rp pq
1. 0 2. 1
3. 2 4. 3
195. If 2 – m + n = 0, then the value of 4 2 – m2 + n2 + 4 n is

1. 1 2. – 1
3. 0 4. 2
1 3 1
196. If m2 + = 8 , then the value of m3 +
2
is
25m 5 125m3
1 1
1. 50 2. 25
5 5
1 1
3. 12 4. 15
5 5
197. The cost price of a bag and a book is Rs 371. If the bag costs 12% more than the book, then cost
price of bag is
1. Rs 175 2. Rs 196
3. Rs 150 4. Rs 221
198. In the given figure, AE = DC = 13 cm, BE = 5 cm. ABC = A
90° and AD = EC, then length of AD is

1. 5 cm 2. 6 cm
3. 7 cm 4. 12 cm D
B E C
199. Two dice are rolled, then probability of getting a total of 9 is

1 1
1. 2.
3 9
9 8
3. 4.
10 9
200. If A : B : C = 2 : 3 : 4 and A2 + B2 + C2 = 11600, then the value of (A – B + C) is

1. 20 2. 24
3. 60 4. 100
FIITJEE
(JSTSE PAPER KEYS)
JSTSE-2019-GK+PCBM-KEYS-2
1. 1 2. 4 3. 3 4. 1
5. 1 6. 3 7. 4 8. 2
9. 1 10. 1 11. 1 12. 2
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33. 1 34. 1 35. 2 36. 4
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69. 3 70. Insufficient data 71. 3
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99. No option is correct 100. 2 101. 4
102. 4 103. 3 104. 3 105. 1
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110. 3 111. 2 112. 3 113. 2
114. 4 115. 1 116. 2 117. 4
118. 1 119. 4 120. 1 121. 3
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130. 4 131. 3 132. 1 133. 2
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150. 2 151. 1 152. 1 153. 3
154. 1 155. 4 156. 4 157. 2
158. 1 159. 3 160. 4 161. 2
162. 1 163. 3 164. 4 165. 3
166. 4 167. 1 168. 2 169. 2
170. 3 171. 2 172. 3 173. 4
174. 2 175. 3 176. 3 177. 1
178. 2 179. 1 180. 2 181. 1
182. 2 183. 4 184. 4 185. 2
186. 4 187. 4 188. 1 189. 1
190. 3 191. 2 192. 3 193. 1
194. 4 195. 3 196. 2 197. 2
198. 3 199. 2 200. 3
JUNIOR SCIENCE TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION (JSTSE)
04 – A / 2017- 18 (For Class – IX)
Held on January 28, 2018
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
(QUESTION NO. 01– 50)
1. The Machia Biological park is located in which state?
1. Rajasthan 2. Sikkim
3. Nagaland 4. Manipur
2. Maheshwari Chauhan is associated with which sport?

1. Cricket 2. Shooting
3. Boxing 4. Chess
3. In early Brahmi Script letter ‘a’ is written as:

1. 2.
3. 4.
4. Fresh water found in icecaps and glaciers on earth is about ___ percent
1. 58 2. 68
3. 48 4. 38
5. Which city is the India’s cleanest city according to Swachh Bharat Survey 2017?
1. Tiruchirapally 2. Indore
3. Mysore 4. Vishakhapatnam
6. Which of the following bank started the country’s first ATM based on aadhar card?
1. ICICI Bank 2. HDFC Bank
3. DCB Bank 4. YES Bank
7. The first state in India to shift financial year from January to December format is
1. Goa 2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Delhi
8. The union health ministry and family welfare has set malaria elimination deadline as
1. 2025 2. 2021
3. 2027 4. 2030
9. Who is the head of the 9 judge constitution bench of the supreme court to determine whether
privacy is a fundamental right or not under the constitution?
1. Abhay Manohar Sapre 2. Sanjay Kishore Kaul
3. J S Khehar 4. F Nariman
10. As per NITI Aayog, India’s economy is expected to grow at ___ in the fiscal ending in march
2018.
1. 7% 2. 7.25%
3. 7.75% 4. 7.5%
11. Which Railway station has been renamed as Deen Dayal Upadhyaya recently?
1. Malihabad 2. Mughalsarai
3. Manoharganj 4. Mininpurva
FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh Centre, 31, 32, 33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh, New Delhi - 110026, Ph: 011-45634000.
12. The First Female Sikh member of Parliament (M.P) of Britain is
1. Preeti Kaur 2. Preeti Kaur Gill
3. Suman Kaur 4. Suman Kaur Gill
13. Who has manufactured country’s first Bio CNG (Bio Methane) bus?
1. TATA Motors 2. Mahindra
3. Maruti 4. Suzuki
14. Which of these digital payment mechanism does not requires an internet connection?
1. USSD 2. UPI
3. e-wallet 4. IMPS
15. First Indian state to make social boycott as crime is

1. Punjab 2. Maharashtra
3. Kerala 4. Andhra Pradesh
16. The characteristic odour of garlic is due to which one of the following compounds?
1. Chlorine containing compounds 2. Fluorine containing compounds
3. Nitrogen containing compounds 4. Sulphur containing compounds
17. The 2017 International Plastic Bag Free Day was observed on?
1. July 03 2. August 05
3. July 02 4. May 07
18. In which state, there was a protest in January 2017 due to a traditional sport, Jallikattu?
1. Tamil Nadu 2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Andhra Pradesh 4. Haryana
19. Which organ in human is known as ‘Blood Bank’?

1. Spleen 2. Kidney
3. Heart 4. Liver
20. ‘Desert Oak’ is a tree whose roots go deep into the ground till they reach water. The depth of
these roots nearly 30 times the height of the tree. This tree is found in
1. Rajasthan 2. Abu Dhabi
3. Australia 4. Russia
21. Who is the first Deputy Prime Minister of India?

1. G L Nanda 2. Devi Lal
3. Charan Singh 4. Vallabh Bhai Patel
22. Nomination of Rajya Sabha Members by the president was taken from the constitution of
which country?
1. USA 2. Ireland
3. South Africa 4. France
23. What was the theme of ‘World Environment Day’ 2017 celebrated on 5th June 2017?
1. Think, eat, save 2. Connecting people to nature
3. Many species, one planet, one future 4. Small islands, climate change
24. Who among the following first propounded the idea of ‘Basic Education’?
1. Jawahar Lal Nehru 2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
3. Mahatma Gandhi 4. Dayanand Saraswati
25. The longest sea beach in India

1. Chapora Beach 2. Diu Beach
3. Aksa Beach 4. Mariana Beach
26. How many Indian states share border with Myanmar?
1. 03 2. 04
3. 05 4. 02
27. Who has become the first Indian woman to be elected as judge of the International Tribunal
for the law of the sea?
1. Nirmala Randhawat 2. Anamika Rajput
3. Neeru Chadha 4. Nidhi Bhandari
28. The Kishtwar National Park is located in which state?

1. Jammu and Kashmir 2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Punjab 4. Sikkim
29. Which online facility has been launched by the government to provide direct solution to
problem of agriculture sector?
1. e-Krishi Smasya 2. e-Krishi Samved
3. e-Krishi Samveda 4. e-Krishi Solution
30. Which city to host the 2024 Summer Olympics?

1.Los Angeles 2. London
3. Paris 4. New York
31. Which mobile network offers broadband facility with top download speed of 100 megabit per
second on its fibre to the home network?
1. Reliance Jio 2. Airtel
3. BSNL 4. Vodafone
32. A new fast – growing flower has been named after Prime Minister Narendra Modi I which of
the following country?
1. Cyprus 2. Lebanon
3. Palestine 4. Israel
33. ‘Pulitzer Award’ is given for which of the following stream?

1. Agriculture 2. Journalism and Literature
3. Science 4. Maths
34. ‘Kuduk’ is a language of the people of

1. Manipur 2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Jharkhand 4. Mizoram
35. The metamorphosis of tadpoles is not possible if the water in which they are growing does
not contain sufficient
1. Calcium 2. Oxygen
3. Iodine 4. Sodium
36. The role of Villi in the intestine is to

1. Help in the conversion of starch into simple sugar
2. Help in transporting the undigested and unabsorbed food from small intestine to large
intestine
3. Absorb water and some salts from the undigested food
4. Increases the surface area for absorption of digested food
37. Shafi and Hanfi are

1. Islamic architect styles 2. Places in Saudi Arabia
3. Islamic Schools of law 4. Two Islamic Rulers
38. If you carefully dig a grass plant and observe its roots and leaves you will find that it has
1. Taproots and parallel venation 2. Taproots and reticulate venation
3. Fibrous root and reticulate venation 4. Fibrous root and parallel venation
39. Cereals such as wheat and gram are grown in a area. The soil of this area must be
1. Both loamy and sandy 2. Clayey
3. Both sandy and clayey 4. Both clayey and loamy
40. Which of the following areas was known as Magadh in ancient period?
1. South of Ganga 2. Between Ganga and Yamuna
3. North of Ganga 4. Between Yamuna and Chambal
41. Rig Veda was originally composed in

1. Prakrit 2. Vedic Sanskrit
3. Brahmi 4. Shauraseni
42. Which period is the longest in the human history?

1. Paleolithic age 2. Megalithic age
3. Mesolithic age 4. Neolithic age
43. What is meant by ‘Social Justice’?

1. All should have same economic rights
2. All should have same political rights
3. All kings of discrimination based on castes
4. All should be granted right to freedom of religion
44. India’s longest bridge inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi is

1. Dadasaheb Bridge 2. Kamakhya Bridge
3. Dhola Sadiya Bridge 4. Brahmaputra Bridge
45. What refers to a special identification or name that is associated with a product?
1. Lifestyle 2. Market
3. Consumer 4. Brand
46. Name the country where first Hydroelectricity plant was established?
1. Norway 2. Brazil
3. USA 4. Russia
47. Which city in India was designed by the two famous architects, namely Edward Lutyens and
Herbert Baker?
1. Calcutta (Kolkata) 2. Madras (Chennai)
3. New Delhi 4. Bombay (Mumbai)
48. Highly indented coastline found along the coast of

1. Atlantic ocean 2. Pacific ocean
3. Indian ocean 4. Arctic ocean
49. In which part of the Hindu Temples, the image of the main deity is placed?
1. Shikhara 2. Mandapa
3. Nritya Graha 4. Garbhagruha
50. ‘Chahar Bag’ was constructed by which of the following dynasty?

1. The Mughals 2. The Tughlaks
3. The Khiljis 4. The Lodhi’s
GENERAL SCIENCE & MATHEMATICS
(QUESTION NO 51– 200)
51. Displacement time graph of a particle moving on
x-axis is
(1) Particle is continuously going in +ve x-direction.
(2) Particle is at rest.
(3) Velocity increases upto time t0 then becomes
constant
(4) The particle moves at constant velocity upto a
time t0 and then stops.
52. Consider motion of the tip of second had of the clock in one minute
(1) There is no relation between second and minute hand.
(2) The distance covered is zero.
(3) Average speed is zero.
(4) Average velocity is zero.
53. An object may have

(1) varying sped without having varying velocity.
(2) varying velocity without having varying speed.
(3) Non-zero acceleration without having varying velocity.
(4) None of the above
54. A stone is released from an elevator going up with an acceleration . The acceleration of
stone after release is
(1)  upward (2) (g - ) upward
(3) (g + ) downward (4) g downward
55. Internal forces change

(1) Linear momentum but not kinetic energy
(2) Kinetic energy but not linear momentum
(3) Total momentum must change.
(4) Neither linear momentum nor kinetic energy.
56. Potential energy of a body at the surface of the earth is always

(1) Zero (2) –ve
(3) +ve (4) Any value
57. An object dropped from top of tower falls through 40 m during the last two seconds of its fall,
the height of tower (g = 10 m/s2) will be
(1) 60 m (2) 45 m
(3) 80 m (4) 50 m
58. If the distance between Sun and Earth is doubled then the duration of year will be
1
(1) Two times (2) times
4
(3) 2 2 times (4) Same
59. Average density of earth

(1) A complex function of g (2) Does not depend on g
(3) Is inversely proportional to g (4) Is directly proportional to g
60. Spring of spring constant k is cut into n parts. The new spring constant of each part will be
n
(1) nk (2)
k
k 1
(3) (4)
n nk
61. A body starts from rest at time t = 0. The

acceleration time graph is shown in figure. The
maximum velocity attained by the body will be
(1) 110 m/s
(2) 50 m/s
(3) 650 m/s
(4) 550 m/s
62. A copper disc with a central hole is heated. The diameter of hole
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) First increases then decreases (4) Remain unchanged
63. A solid of density D is floating in liquid of density d. If  is the volume of solid submerged in
the liquid and V be volume of solid. Then
V D
(1) V = dD (2) 
 d
 D
(3)  (4) D = (1 + d)
V d
64. A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts having radii in the ratio 1 : 2. Their velocities
are in the ratio.
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 6 : 1
(3) 4 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
65. Which of the following is self adjusting force

(1) Static Friction (2) Limiting Friction
(3) Dynamic Friction (4) Sliding Friction
66. Inside cell current is developed by

(1) Movement of –ve charge (2) Movement of +ve charge
(3) Current developed only outside cell (4) (1) and (2) both
67. Momentum has same units as that of

(1) Impulse (2) Torque
(3) Moment of momentum (4) Couple
68. A particle is launched from ground at 60° with kinetic energy K. What is its kinetic energy at
its highest point.
K
(1) (2) K
2
K
(3) 0 (4)
4
69. A motor boat is moving with a constant velocity of 10 m/s encounters water resistance of
1000 N. The power of the motor boat will be
(1) 10 kW (2) 110 kW
(3) 1000 kW (4) 106 kW
70. An ice cube having a large air bubble is floating in water in a trough. When the whole of ice
melts, the level of water in trough.
(1) Falls (2) Rise
(3) Remains same (4) First rise then fall
71. A man weight Wkg on the surface of earth. What is his weight at a height equal to R, R is,
Radius of earth.
(1) W (2) W/2
(3) W/4 (4) W/8
72. A balloon has 5g air. A small hole is pierced into it the air escapes at a uniform rate with a
velocity of 4 cm/s if the balloon stricks completely in 2.5 s, then the average force acting on
the balloon is
(1) 2 dyne (2) 50 dyne
(3) 8 dyne (4) 8 N
73. A machine gun fires n bullets per second, each of mass m. If the speed of each bullet is .
Then the force of recoil is
(1) mng (2) mnv
mn
(3) mng (4)
g
74. A man of weight w is standing on a lift which is moving upward with an acceleration a, the
apparent weight of the man is
 a
(1) w  1   (2) W
 g
 a  a2 
(3) w  1   (4) w  1  2 
 g  g 
75. A body covers the first half of distance with a velocity  and the second half in double the
time taken for first half the average velocity is
(1)  (2) /2
2
(3) 2/3 (4)
3
76. The variation of acceleration due to gravity g with height and depth (r) in shown correctly
(R = Radius of earth)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
77. One of the rectangular component of a force of 50 N is 30 N. the other rectangular

component will be
(1) 40 N (2) 30 N
(3) 35 N (4) 45 N
78. When the momentum of body increases by 10% its K.E. increase by
(1) 21% (2) 40%
(3) 44% (4) None
79. The F-x graph of particle of mass 100 g is

shown. If particle begin to move from rest x = 0
its velocity at x = 12 is
(1) 10 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 40 m/s
80. Velocity of sound in air at N.T.P. is 332 m/s. What will be its velocity when pressure is
doubled and temperature remains same?
(1) 332 m/s (2) 664 m/s
(3) 166 m/s (4) 0
81. For given acceleration – time graph the

most suitable velocity time graph will be:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
82. A boy releases a ball from top of a building it will clear a window 2 m high at a distance of 10
m below the top in nearly.
(1) 1 s (2) 1.3 s
(3) 0.6 s (4) 0.13 s
83. A particle starts from rest with uniform acceleration a its velocity after n second is v. The
displacement of the body in the last two sec. is:
2v v n  1
(1)  n  1 (2)
n n
v  n  1 2v n  1
(3) (4)
n n
84. Which of the following best represents of KE(k) of freely falling body and its height h above
ground.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
85. In the figure of transverse wave which pair of particle is in phase
(1) A, G (2) D, G
(3) B, E (4) C, K
86. A sphere of mass m moving horizontally with velocity V0 collide against a pendulum bob of
mass m. If the two masses stick together after the collision then the maximum height
attained is
V0 2 V0 2
(1) (2)
2g 4g
V0 2 V0 2
(3) (4)
6g 8g
87. On loading a tuning fork, its frequency.

(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remain same (4) First increases then decreases
88. A ship of mass 3  107 kg initially at rest is pulled by a force of 5  104 N. Through a distance
of 3 m. Assuming that the resistance due to water is negligible. The speed of the ship is
(1) 5 m/s (2) 0.1 m/s
(3) 1.5 m/s (4) 60 m/s
89. A man sitting in a train in motion is facing the engine. He tosses a coin up, the coin falls
behind him, the train is moving.
(1) Forward with uniform speed (2) Backward with uniform speed
(3) Forward with acceleration (4) Backward with acceleration
90. Which graph (distance – time) represents the accelerated motion:– (D = Distance)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
91. A mixture of milk and groundnut oil can be separated by:

(1) Sublimation (2). Evaporation
(3) Separating funnel (4). Filtration
92. ____________ is added to disinfect water during purification.

(1). Potassium permanganate (2). Chlorine
(3). Betadine (4). Potash alum
93. Which gas being filled in weather balloon?

(1). Helium (2). Neon
(3). Hydrogen (4). Nitrogen
94. Formula of Sodium Zincate is:

(1). Na2ZnO3 (2). NaZnO2
(3). NaZn2O (4). Na2ZnO2
95. The alloy used for dental filling is:

(1). Amalgam (2). Brass
(3). Bronze (4). Manganin
96. The element which normally exist in the liquid state are
(1). Bromine and Iodine (2). Mercury and chlorine
(3). Iodine and mercury (4). Bromine and mercury
97. If 20 mL of ethanol is present in 50 mL of its aqueous solution. The concentration of this

solution is:
(1). 20% (2). 25%
(3). 30% (4). 40%
98. In Cu2O, Cu is:

(1). Monovalent (2). Bivalent
(3). Trivalent (4). Neutral
99. Among the following which is correct formula:

(1). CaCl (2). NaS
(3). Na3N (4). Na(NO3)2
100. ________ Radio active isotope is used to determine the activity of thyroid gland.
(1). Cobalt - 60 (2). Uranium - 235
(3). Iodine - 130 (4). Iodine – 131
101. Radon is
(1). An inert gas (2). An artificial fibre
(3). An explosive (4). A metal
102. Temporary hardness in water is due to which of one the following calcium and magnesium?
(1). Hydrogen Carbonate (2). Carbonates
(3). Chlorides (4). Sulphates
103. Symbol of tin is

(1). Pb (2). Ti
(3). Tn (4). Sn
104. Which of the following elements corrodes rapidly?
(1). Aluminium (2). Iron
(3). Zinc (4). Silver
105. ________ element does not exhibit electrovalence.

(1). Calcium (2). Chromium
(3). Carbon (4). Cadmium
106. The SI unit of density is:

(1). g/cm3 (2). kg/cm3
(3). g/2 (4). kg/m3
107. Solder is an alloy of

(1). Pb and Sn (2). Zn and Pb
(3). Pb and Zn (4). Zn and Sn
108. Valence of permanganate ion is:

(1). 2 (2). 1
(3). 3 (4). 4
109. BaCl2  H2SO 4   BaSO 4  2 HCl is an example of:

(1). Combination Reaction (2). Decomposition Reaction
(3). Displacement Reaction (4). Double Displacement Reaction
110. The Chemical used for starch test is:

(1). Iodine Crystal (2). Iodine Solution
(3). Iodine Powder (4). Potassium Iodine
111. The valence of an element depends upon the

(1) total number of proton in an atom
(2) mass number of an atom
(3) total number of neutrons in atom
(4) total number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom
112. ___________ has high density

(1) Lead (2) Kerosene oil
(3) Iron (4) Water
113. ‘Tooth paste’ is an example of

(1) Colloid (2) Suspension
(3) Solution (4) Aerosol
114. Acid present in ‘Tamarind’

(1) oxalic acid (2) formic acid
(3) lactic acid (4) tartaric acid
115. Freezing mixture is

(1) ice plus common salt (2) ice plus potash alum
(3) ice plus baking soda (4) ice plus washing soda
116. Which rays are originated when cathode rays strikes on hard metal surface?
(1) Gamma rays (2) Anode rays
(3) -rays (4) X-rays
117. During roasting of zinc blende. It converts to

(1) ZnO (2) ZnSO4
(3) ZnCO3 (4) Zn
118. __________ is used to detect “Tumors”
(1) Na - 24 (2) I - 131
(3) Co - 60 (4) As - 74
119. Rubber stamp is made by

(1) thermosetting plastic (2) thermoplastic
(3) PVC (4) PAN
120. Which of the following causes no reaction?

(1) CuSO4 + Zn (2) CuSO4 + Fe
(3) CuSO4 + Ag (4) CuSO4 + Mg
121. ____________ is added in ethanol to make it unfit for drinking.

(1) Methanal (2) Propanal
(3) Propanol (4) Methanol
122. Deficiency of which vitamin _______ causes infertility.

(1) E (2) K
(3) H (4) D
123. Nylon fibre has

(1) ester linkage (2) amide linkage
(3) ether linkage (4) phosphate linkage
124. __________ is added to preserve squashes

(1) SO2 (2) NO2
(3) SO3 (4) N2O
125. The only vitamin with metal atom in, it is

(1) Vitamin - A (2) Vitamin - K
(3) Vitamin – B12 (4) Vitamin - E
126. ________ is used in paints

(1) Terylene (2) Nylon
(3) Glyptal (4) Chloroprene
127. In shaving creams________ is added to prevent rapid drying.

(1) Methanol (2) Glycerol
(3) Ethanol (4) Glycol
128. Glass is a
(1) Liquid (2) Colloid
(3) Pseudo solid (4) Crystalline solid
129. A homogeneous mixture contains two liquids. How are they separated?
(1) By filtration (2) By evaporation
(3) By distillation (4) By condensation
130. In CuSO4.5H2O, ______________ H2O molecules are bounded by “H” bond.

(1) 4 (2) 1
(3) 5 (4) 3
131. The cells of cork have a chemical substance in their walls that makes them impervious to
water. This chemical substance is:
(1) Pectin (2) Lectin
(3) Suberin (4) Lignin
132. Which one of the following is not a eukaryote:
(1) Euglena (2) Anabaena
(3) Spirogyra (4) Agaricus
133. The five kingdom classification was proposed by:

(1) Copeland (2) Aristotle
(3) Whittaker (4) Linnaeus
134. Centre of hunger located in:

(1) Forebrain (2) Midbrain
(3) Hindbrain (4) Spinal cord
135. Red blood corpuscles are formed in

(1) Liver (2) Kidneys
(3) Small intestine (4) Bone marrow
136. Moss and Ferns are found in moist and shady places, because they:
(1) Need low temperature for nutrition (2) Do not need sun light for photosynthesis
(3) Require water for fertilisation (4) Cannot complete with sun loving plants
137. The species of plants and animals found exclusively in a particular area are called:
(1) Endemic (2) Endangered
(3) Biological (4) Alien
138. Cotton is chemically:

(1) Protein (2) Cellulose
(3) Steroids (4) Complex tissue
139. Which of the following organism does not follow ‘Cell Theory’:
(1) Bacteria (2) Virus
(3) Fungi (4) Plants
140. The Largest Part of human brain is

(1) Medulla oblongata (2) Midbrain
(3) Cerebellum (4) Cerebrum
141. The Excretory Units of Annelids are:

(1) Uniferous tubule (2) Flame cells
(3) Nephridia (4) Malpighian tubule
142. Open vascular system is found in:

(1) Prawn (2) Snakes
(3) Fish (4) Man
143. ‘Agar-Agar’ gel is obtained from:

(1) Algae (2) Bacteria
(3) Moss (4) Fungi
144. Yeast is different from bacteria in being:

(1) Unicellular (2) Multicellular
(3) Prokaryote (4) Eukaryote
145. Wings of an insect and wings of a bird are an example of:

(1) Homologous organs (2) Analogous organs
(3) Vestigial organs (4) Fossils
146. The Book – ‘Systema Naturae’ was written by:
(1) Linnaeus (2) Darwin
(3) Fleming (4) Crick
147. ‘Sleeping Sickness’ is caused by:

(1) Staphylococci (2) Leishmania
(3) Trypanosoma (4) SARS virus
148. Outer covering of virus is made up of:

(1) Lipid (2) Protein
(3) RNA (4) DNA
149. Which one of the following substance is non-biodegradable?

(1) Paper (2) Manure
(3) Cotton Cloth (4) DDT
150. Right part of human Heart contains:

(1) Oxygenated blood (2) De-oxygenated blood
(3) Mixed blood (4) No blood
151. Which one of the following pigment is most abundant in green plants?
1. Chlorophyll - a 2. Chlorophyll - b
3. Carotene 4. Xanthophyll
152. Which of the following is the indigenous breed of chickens?

1. Plymonth Rock 2. White Leghorn
3. Rhode Island Red 4. Aseel
153. Haemoglobin is dissolved in Plasma of Blood in:

1. Earthworm 2. Roundworm
3. Tapeworm 4. Insects
154. The group of plants which has naked embryo and specialised tissue for conduction of water
is:
1. Bryophytes 2. Pteridophytes
3. Thallophytes 4. Gymnosperm
155. In Bacteria, Penicillin blocks the formation of:

1. Cell membrane 2. Nucleus
3. Cell wall 4. Mitochondria
156. The Cell Organelle which involves in detoxification of poison and drugs is:
1. Golgi Apparatus 2. Lysosome
3. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum 4. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
157. Which ions are involved in clotting of blood?

1. Na+ 2. K+
3+
3. Fe 4. Ca2+
158. The best indicator of SO2 pollutants is:

1. Algae 2. Lichens
3. Bryophytes 4. Pteridophytes
159. The vitamin which is generally extracted by human is

1. Vitamin - C 2. Vitamin - A
3. Vitamin - D 4. Vitamin - E
160. What will happen to RBCs, if they are placed in hypertonic solution?
1. The cells will swell up but not burst 2. The cells will shrink
3. The cells will remain uneffected 4. The cells will burst
161. Which one of the following pair is mismatched?

1. Apis Indica – Honey
2. Bombyx mori – Silk
3. Cycas revoluta – Sago
4. Musca domestica – Lizard
162. In the following, which body part does not have voluntary muscle?
1. Leg 2. Mouth
3. Heart 4. Hand
163. A river with high ‘Biochemical Oxygen Demand’ (BOD) value is:
1. Highly polluted 2. Highly clean
3. High in oxygen level 4. None of these
164. Which of the following is not included in Cryptogams?

1. Thallophyta 2. Pteridophyta
3. Bryophyta 4. Gymnosperm
165. Which one of the following is not a true fish?

1. Shark 2. Eel
3. Star fish 4. Sea Horse
166. Identify the process that requires ATP energy in order to take place.
1. Osmosis 2. Diffusion
3. Facilitated transport 4. Active transport
167. Insectivorous plants grow in soils which have deficiency of:

1. Calcium 2. Nitrogen
3. Phosphorus 4. Copper
168. Ozone depletion is caused by:

(1) CFCs (2) CO2
(3) SO2 (4) CO
169. Intercalary meristerm is located at:

(1) Leaf Margin (2) Tip of Stem
(3) Base of Leaf (4) Tip of Root
170. In which disease, Immune System is seriously affected?

(1) Malaria (2) AIDS
(3) T.B. (4) Rabies
2
171. Factors of a2  a    
 4 a2  a  12 are
 2

(1) a  a  6  a  2  a  1  
(2) a2  a  6  a  2  a  1
(3)  a 2
 a  6   a  2  a  1 (4)  a 2
 a  6   a  2  a  1
172. In the sum of two numbers is 7 and the sum of their cubes is 133, then the sum of their
squares is
(1) 19 (2) 39
(3) 126 (4) 29
173. If 0.5  4x  1  0.3  2x  1  1.6 , then the value of x is
(1) –1 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) –2
174. A bag contains card numbers 3, 4, 5, 6, 7,……..27. One card is drawn, then probability of
prime number card is
9 8
(1) (2)
25 27
8 1
(3) (4)
25 5
175. A man buys apples at a certain price per dozen and sells them at eight times that price per
hundred, find his gain or loss percent
(1) Gain 4% (2) Loss 4%
(3) Gain 5% (4) Loss 5%
a 4  a3b  ab3  b4
176. Simplify:
a 4  a3b  ab3  b4
2
(1)
a  b (2)
a2  b2
ab a2  b2
ab
(3) (4) 1
ab
177. XYZ is a triangle right angled at X. XP  YZ . The

length of perpendicular XP drawn on YZ is
(1) 15.5 units (2) 13.5 units
(3) 10.5 units (4) 15.0 units
10
 
178.

The value of 
 2
45  
9 9   9 is

  4   2
3 3


8 15
(1) (2)
7 7
18 24
(3) (4)
7 7
179. If 9x 2  3x 1 , then the value of 21 x is

(1) 64 (2) 32
(3) 16 (4) 5
180. If  x  1 and  x  2  are the factors of x3  ax 2  bx  6, then the value of a and b are
(1) a  2, b  3 (2) a  2, b  5
(3) a  5, b  2 (4) a  2, b  7
181. Value of
x 2

 3x  2 x 2  5x  6  is
x 2
x 2
 4x  3 
x2 x2
(1) (2)
2 x
x2 x4
(3) (4)
x x3
 1 1 2 4 8 
182.  1  x  1  x  1  x 2  1  x 4  1  x 8  is equal to
 
(1) 1 (2) 0
8 16
(3) 8
(4)
1 x 1  x16
183. PQRS is a trapezium. QR = 9 cm, RQS  90o , PQ = 5

81
cm and area  QRS   cm2 . Find the area of the
2 3
trapezium
 
(1) 7.5  13.5 3 cm2
(2) 15  13.5 3  cm 2
(3) 11.25  13.5 3  cm 2
(4) 27 3 cm2
184. In the given figure, AC is the diameter of the circle.

ED  AC, CBE  65o , then DEC is
(1) 35o (2) 25o
o
(3) 65 (4) 30o
185. A bag contains 25 paise, 50 paise and 1 Rs. Coins. There are 220 coins in all and the total
amount in the bag is Rs. 160. If there are thrice as many 1 Rs. Coins as there are 25 paise
coins, then what is the number of 50 paise coins?
(1) 60 (2) 40
(3) 50 (4) 80
186. If x  y  z  2, xy  yz  zx  1 and xyz  2, then the value of x3  y3  z3 is:

(1) 20 (2) 16
(3) 8 (4) 0
187. In the given figure, if AF  BE  CD, AF  7.5 cm,
CD  4.5 cm, ED  3 cm, BE  x cm, AE  y cm
then value of x and y are
13
(1) x  2 cm, y  3 cm
16
(2) x  3 cm, y  5 cm
(3) x  5 cm, y  3cm
13
(4) x  2 cm, y  5cm
16
188. In a Rhombus ABCD, A  60o . The ratio of diagonals AC and BD is

(1) 2 :1 (2) 1: 2
(3) 1: 3 (4) 3 :1
189. If the perimeter of right angled triangle is 60 cm and its hypotenuse is 25 cm, then the area
of the triangle is
(1) 17.5 cm2 (2) 50 cm2
2
(3) 150 cm (4) 175 cm2
2.3  0.69
190. If a  b 30  , then the values of a and b are
2.3  0.69
13 2 13 2
(1) a  ,b (2) a  ,b
7 7 7 7
13 2 13 2
(3) a  ,b  (4) a  , b 
7 7 7 7
1
191. If x  3  2 2 , then the value of x 2  is
x2
(1) 34 (2) 38
(3) 36 (4) 32
192. In the given figure, ABCD is a square then

the area of shaded region is
(1) 192 cm2
(2) 168 cm2
(3) 148 cm2
(4) 128 cm2
193. If x  3  32/3  31/3 , then the value of x 3  9x 2  18x  12 is

(1) 1 (2) 0
(3) –1 (4) 2
1 1
194. If x a  y b  zc and y 2  zx , then the value of  is
a c
b c
(1) (2)
2 2
2 2
(3) (4)
b a
195. In the figure, O is the centre of the circle,
then the value of 2x+ y + z is
(1) 400o
(2) 390o
(3) 3600
(4) 300o
196. If the points (a, 0), (0, b) and (1, 1) are collinear then which of the following is true:
1 1 1 1
(1)  2 (2)  1
a b a b
1 1 1 1
(3)   2 (4)   1
a b a b
197. What will be the area of the rhombus with equation of sides ax  by  c  0?
3c 2 4c 2
(1) sq. units (2) sq. units
ab ab
2c 2 c2
(3) sq. units (4) sq. units
ab ab
198. For the equation, 2a 3  4a  2  48 , the value of a is

(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) – 1 (4) – 2
199. The sum of the area of two circles, which touch each other externally is 153. If the sum of
their radii is 15, then ratio of the areas of smaller to the larger circle is
(1) 1:2 (2) 1:4
(3) 1:6 (4) 1:5
200. The sum of the co – efficient of x 2 and x in the product of  x  3  x  5  x  7  is

(1) 24 (2) 34
(3) – 24 (4) – 34
JUNIOR SCIENCE TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION (JSTSE)
04 – A / 2017– 18 (For Class – IX)
Held on January 28, 2018
ANSWER KEYS
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. 1 2. 2 3. 2 4. 2
5. 2 6. 3 7. 2 8. 3
9. 3 10. 4 11. 2 12. 2
13. 1 14. 1 15. 2 16. 4
17. 1 18. 1 19. 1 20. 3
21. 4 22. 2 23. 2 24. 3
25. 4 26. 2 27. 3 28. 1
29. 2 30. 3 31. 3 32. 4
33. 2 34. 3 35. 3 36. 4
37. 3 38. 4 39. 4 40. 1
41. 2 42. 1 43. 3 44. 3
45. 4 46. 3 47. 3 48. 1
49. 4 50. 1
PHYSICS
51. 4 52. 4 53 2 54. 4
55. 2 56. 1&2 57. 2 58. 3
59. 2 60. 1 61. 2 62. 1
63. 3 64. 1 65. 1 66. 4
67. 1 68. 4 69. 1 70. 3
71. 3 72. 3 73. 2 74. 1
75. 3 76. 1 77. 1 78. 1
79. 4 80. 1 81. 3 82. 4
83. 1 84. 1 85. 1 86. 4
87. 2 88. 2 89. 3 90. 1
CHEMISTRY
91. 3 92. 2 93. 1 94. 4
95. 1 96. 4 97. 4 98. 1
99. 3 100. 4 101. 1 102. 1
103. 4 104. 3 105. 3 106. 4
107. 1 108. 2 109. 4 110. 2
111. 4 112. 1 113. 1 114. 4
115. 1 116. 4 117. 1 118. 2
119. 1 120. 3 121. 4 122. 1
123. 2 124. 1 125. 3 126. 3
127. 2 128. 3 129. 3 130. 2
BIOLOGY
131. 3 132. 2 133. 3 134. 1
135. 4 136. 3 137. 1 138. 2
139. 2 140. 4 141. 3 142. 1
143. 1 144. 4 145. 2 146. 1
147. 3 148. 2 149. 4 150. 2
151. 1 152. 4 153. 1 154. 4
155. 3 156. 3 157. 4 158. 2
159. 1 160. 2 161. 4 162. 3
163. 1 164. 4 165. 3 166. 4
167. 2 168. 1 169. 3 170. 2
MATHEMATICS
171. 1 172. 4 173. 2 174. 3
175. 2 176. 3 177. 1 178. 4
179. 1 180. 2 181. 2 182. 4
183. 3 184. 2 185. 1 186. 3
187. 4 188. 4 189. 3 190. 3
191. 1 192. 4 193. 2 194. 3
195. 2 196. 4 197. 3 198. 2
199. Not in option (1 : 16) 200. 3
HINTS AND SOLUTIONS
51. 4
Sol. Slope is constant till t0 hence moves at constant velocity till t0 and then stops.
52. 4
Sol. Displacement is zero hence average velocity is zero.
53 2
Sol. Velocity is speed and direction both. Due to change in direction velocity may change without
changing speed.
54. 4
Sol. Stone is freely falling hence ‘g’ downward.
55. 2
Sol. Internal forces changes kinetic energy as well as potential energy but linear momentum
depends on external forces.
56. 1&2
Sol. (1) According to More to know on the Page No. 153 or NCERT 9th class.
(2) Potential energy of attractive forces are always taken as negative.
57. 2
2 2
1  2h   2h  
Sol. 40  g     2 
2  g   g 
 

 h = 45 m.
58. 3
Sol. T2  r3
59. 2
Sol. Density depends on mass and volume.
60. 1
Sol. For spring K ×  = constant.
61. 2
Sol. Area under a – t graph gives change in velocity.
1
V   10  10 = 50 m/s.
2
62. 1
Sol. On heating diameter of disc increases and hence diameter of hole increases.
63. 3
Sol. When body floats
B = mg
 vdg = VDg
v D
 
V d
64. 1
Sol. m1 : m2 = 1 : 8
From conservation of momentum V1 : V2 = 8 : 1.
65. 1
Sol. Static friction is a self adjusting force upto its limiting value.
66. 4
Sol. Inside a cell, current is developed due to both +ve and –ve charges.
67. 1
Sol. Units of momentum and impulse are same.
68. 4
v
Sol. At the highest point horizontal component of velocity = v cos 60° = .
2
2
1 v 1
 K.E. at top = m   K
2  2 4
69. 1
Sol. Power = F × v
= 1000 × 10 = 10000 W
= 10 kW
70. 3
Sol. V1 = Volume submerged
m
V1  {m = mass of ice}
w
V2 = Volume of water formed.
m
V2 
w
 Since, V1 = V2, hence level remains same.
71. 3
2 2
 R   R  1 g
Sol. gh  g    g   g 
 R  h   2R  4 4
mg w
 Weight at height R above the earth surface = 
4 4
72. 3
Change in momentum
Sol. Average force =
Time
54
= = 8 dyne
2.5
73. 2
Sol. The recoil force = Change in momentum per second = mnv.
74. 1
Sol. Apparent weight of man = mgeffective
= m(g + a)
 a
= mg  1  
 g
 a
= w 1  
 g
75. 3
Total displacement
Sol. Average velocity =
Total time
x 2
  v
x 2x 3

2v 2v
76. 1
Sol. Inside earth g  r
1
& outside earth g 
r2
77. 1
Sol. F = 50 N
F2 = F sin 

F1 = F cos 
78. 1
p2
k1 2m p2  100 100
Sol.  2
 
k2  10 p  121p2 121
p  
 100 
2m
121k1 21k1
 k2 =  k1 
100 100
79. 4
1
Sol. Work done = Area under F – X graph = Change in kinetic energy = m(v 2  u2 )
2
1 1
 mv 2  (12  4)  10
2 2
 0.1 v 2 = 160
v = 1600 = 40 m/s.
80. 1
Sol. Velocity of sound in air is independent of change in pressure.
81. 3
Sol. As acceleration is increasing initially, so velocity is initially increasing non-uniformly.
82. 4
2  12 2  10
Sol. t 
g g
 2.4  2 = 0.13 sec.
83. 1
v
Sol. a
n
1 2 1
x (displacement in last two second) = an  a(n  2)2
2 2
2v
= (n  1)
n
84. 1
1 1
Sol. KE = mv 2  m 2g(x  h)
2 2
 KE  (–h)
85. 1
Sol. Particles which are in same state of vibration are called in same phase.
86. 4
Sol. From conservation of momentum
mv 0 = 2mv 1
v
 v1  0
2
From conservation of energy
1
 2m v12 = 2mgh
2
v12 v 20 1 v 02
h   
2g 4 2g 8g
87. 2
Sol. On loading a tuning fork, its frequency decreases.
88. 2
F 5  10 4 5
Sol. a    103 m /s2
m 3  107 3
Now using, v 2 = u2 + 2ax
5
= 0  2   10 3  3 = 10–2
3
 V  10 2 = 0.1 m/s
89. 3
Sol. As coin falls behind the man.
So, train is accelerating forward.
90. 1
Sol. For accelerated motion, distance-time graph is a parabola.
91. 3
Sol. Immiscible liquids are separated by separating funnel.
92. 2
Sol. Chlorine is added to disinfectant water during purification.
93. 1
Sol. Helium is filled in weather balloon.
94. 4
Sol. Formula of Sodium Zincate is Na2ZnO2.
95. 1
Sol. Amalgam is a mixture of metal & mercury.
96. 4
Sol. Bromine and mercury exist in the liquid state.
97. 4
Vol.of solute
Sol. Vol%   100
Vol.of solution
98. 1
Sol. Cu O
Cu2O
1 2
99. 3
Sol. Na N
3
Na3N
1 3
100. 4
Sol. Iodine -131 is used to determine the activity of thyroid gland.
101. 1
Sol. Radon is an inert gas.
102. 1
Sol. Temporary hardness in water is due to presence of Hydrogen Carbonate of Ca & Mg.
103. 4
Sol. Tin – (Stannum)  Sn
104. 3
Sol. Zinc corrodes rapidly
(Because Al forms a protective layer of aluminium oxide, so further corrosion stops)
105. 3
Sol. Carbon does not exhibit electrovalence.
106. 4
m
Sol. d  kg / m3
V
107. 1
Sol. Solder is an alloy of Pb and Sn.
108. 2
Sol. MnO 4 permanganate 
109. 4
Sol. Double displacement reaction  exchange of ions.
110. 2
Sol. The Chemical used for starch test is Iodine Solution.
111. 4
Sol. The valence of an element depends upon the total number of electrons present in outermost
shell of an atom.
112. 1
Sol. Lead has high density.
113. 1
Sol. Toothpaste is an example of colloid.
114. 4
Sol. Acid present in ‘Tamarind’ is tartaric acid.
115. 1
Sol. Freezing mixture is ice plus common salt.
116. 4
Sol. X-rays originates when cathode rays strikes on hard metal surface.
117. 1
Sol. During roasting of zinc blende. It converts to ZnO.
118. 2
Sol. I 131 is preferentially used to detect cancerous tumour. (Although As – 74 is used to locate
brain “Tumors)
119. 1
Sol. Rubber stamp is made by thermosetting plastic.
120. 3
Sol. Because Ag is less reactive than Cu.
121. 4
Sol. Methanol is added in ethanol to make it unfit for drinking.
122. 1
Sol. Deficiency of vitamin E causes infertility.
123. 2
Sol. Nylon fibre has amide linkage.
124. 1
Sol. SO2 is added to preserve squashes.
125. 3
Sol. Vitamin – B12 is the only vitamin with metal atom.
126. 3
Sol. Glyptal is used in paints.
127. 2
Sol. Glycerol is added to shaving cream to prevent rapid drying.
128. 3
Sol. Glass is a Pseudo solid.
129. 3
Sol. Homogeneous mixture containing two liquids can be separated by distillation.
130. 2
Sol. In CuSO4.5H2O, one H2O molecules is bonded by “H” bond.
131. 3
Sol. The cork is impervious to water due to Suberin deposition in the cell wall of its cell.
132. 2
Sol. Anabaena is not a Eukaryote.
133. 3
Sol. Five kingdom classifications was proposed by R.H. Whittaker.
134. 1
Sol. Centre of hunger is hypothalamus which is the part of fore brain.
135. 4
Sol. Red Blood corpuscles are formed in Bone Marrow.
136. 3
Sol. Moss and Ferns are found in moist and shady places because they require water for
fertilisation.
137. 1
Sol. The species of plants and animals found exclusively in a particular area are called endemic
species.
138. 2
Sol. Cotton is a cellulosic fibre.
139. 2
Sol. Viruses are exception to cell theory.
140. 4
Sol. Cerebrum is the largest part of brain.
141. 3
Sol. The excretory units of Annelida are Nephridia.
142. 1
Sol. Open Vascular system is found in Prawn.
143. 1
Sol. “Agar-Agar” is obtained from the cell walls of some species of Red Algae.
144. 4
Sol. Yeast is different from Bacteria in being Eukaryote.
145. 2
Sol. Wings of Bird and Wings of insect are an example of Analogous organs.
146. 1
Sol. “Systema–naturae” was written by Linnaeus.
147. 3
Sol. “Sleeping Sickness” is caused by Trypanosoma and transmitted through Tse-Tse fly.
148. 2
Sol. Capsid (Outer covering) of virus is made up of protein.
149. 4
Sol. DDT is non-biodegradable substance.
150. 2
Sol. Right part of Human heart carries deoxygenated blood.
151. 1
Sol. Chlorophyll - a is most abundant pigment present in green plants.
152. 4
Sol. Aseel is indigenous breed of chickens.
153. 1
Sol. Haemoglobin is dissolved in plasma of blood in Earthworm.
154. 4
Sol. Gymnosperm has naked embryo and specialised tissue for conduction of water.
155. 3
Sol. Penicillin blocks the formation of cell wall in bacteria.
156. 3
Sol. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum is involved in detoxification of poison and drugs.
157. 4
Sol. Ca++ are involved in clotting of blood.
158. 2
Sol. Lichens act as SO2 pollution indicator.
159. 1
Sol. Vitamin – C is water soluble vitamin generally excreted by human.
160. 2
Sol. When RBCs, placed in hypertonic solution they will shrink.
161. 4
Sol. Musca domestica is the scientific name of house fly.
162. 3
Sol. Heart does not have voluntary muscles.
163. 1
Sol. A river with high “Biochemical oxygen Demand” (BOD) value is highly polluted.
164. 4
Sol. Gymnosperm is a phanerogams.
165. 3
Sol. Star fish is not a true fish it is Echinoderm.
166. 4
Sol. Active transport required ATP energy in order to take place.
167. 2
Sol. Insectivorous plants grow in Nitrogen deficient soil.
168. 1
Sol. Ozone depletion is caused by CFCs.
169. 3
Sol. Intercalary meristem is located at base of leaf.
170. 2
Sol. Immune system is seriously affected by AIDS.
171. 1
2
Sol. a 2
a  
 4 a2  a  12 
2
Let a  a  x
 x 2  4x  12   x  6  x  2 
 
 a2  a  6 a2  a  2 
 a 2
 a  6   a  2  a  1
172. 4
Sol. a  b  7 and a3  b3  133
3
using  a  b   a3  b3  3ab  a  b 
 ab  10
2
Now using  a  b   a2  b2  2ab
We get a2  b2  29
173. 2
Sol. 0.5  4x  1  0.3  2x  1  1.6
 20x  5  6x  3  16  x  1
174. 3
Sol. Total possible outcomes = 25
Favourable  3,5,7,11,13,17,19,23  8
8
Probability 
25
175. 2
Sol. Let CP of 1 dozen = Rs. 12  CP of 1 apple = Re. 1
96
SP of 100 = Rs. 96  SP of 1 apple = Rs.
100
Loss = Rs 0.04  loss% = 4
176. 3
3 3
a 4  a3b  ab3  b4 a  a  b   b  a  b 
Sol. 
a 4  a3b  ab3  b4 a3  a  b   b3  a  b 

a 3
 b3  a  b   
a b
a 3
b 3
 a  b  a  b
177. 1
1 1
Sol. Area of triangle   63  16   65  XP
2 2
 XP  15.5 units
178. 4
 45  2 10 
Sol.     9
 3 9 9 
    
3
4  2 

25  25 24
 3 3
3 
4 2 7
179. 1
Sol. 9x 2  3x 1  2  x  2   x  1
x 5
So, 21 x  64
180. 2
Sol. Putting x = –1 and x = 2
We get a  b  7 and 2a  b  1
On solving a = 2, b = 5
181. 2
Sol.
x 2
 3x  2 x 2  5x  6    x  1 x  2  x  2 x  3 
x 2
x 2
 4x  3  x 2  x  3  x  1
x2

x
182. 4
 1 1  2 4 8
Sol.  1  x  1  x   1  x2  1  x 4  1  x8
 
2 2 4 8
 2
 2
 4

1 x 1 x 1 x 1  x8
4 4 8
  
1  x 4 1  x 4 1  x8
8 8 16
  
1  x 8 1  x 8 1  x16
183. 3
1 81
Sol.  QS  9  P 5 cm Q
2 2 3
 QS  3 3 cm
 SR  6 3 cm 9 cm
1 81 9 3 3 cm
Now  6 3  h   h  cm h
2 2 3 2
So, Area of trapezium
1 9 S R
  56 3 
2
 2
 6 3 cm

 11.25  13.5 3 cm2 
184. 2
Sol. CBE  65o and ABC  90o  ABE  25o
DEC  ACE  ABE  25o
185. 1
Sol. Let 25 paise coins = x
1 Re coins = 3x
50 paise coins = 220 – 4x
x  220  4x 
Total amount   3x     160
4  2 
x  40
 50 Paise coins = 60
186. 3
Sol. xyz2
x 2  y 2  z 2  2  xy  yz  zx   4
x 2  y 2  z 2  2  1  4
x2  y 2  z2  6

x3  y3  z3  3xyz   x  y  z  x 2  y 2  z2  xy  yz  zx 
x 3  y 3  z3  3  2    2   6   1 
x 3  y 3  z3  8
187. 4
1 1 1 2 2 16
Sol.     
x 7.5 4.5 15 9 45
13
 x  2 cm
16
x y

4.5 y  3
45 y

4.5  16 y  3
10y  30  16y
y  5 cm
188. 4
AC 3
Sol. 
BC 1
189. 3
Sol. Given: a  b  25  60  a  b  35
a2  b2  252
1 2

ab   a  b   a2  b2 
2  
1
 1225  625
2
1

2
 600
= 300
 area of   150 cm2
190. 3
2
Sol. ab 30 
 2.3  0.69 
2.3  0.69
2.3  0.69  2 2.3  0.69

1.61
2.99  2  0.23  30

1.61
2.99  0.23 
  2  30
1.61  1.61 
13 2
  30
7 7
13 2
a ,b
7 7
191. 1
Sol. x 32 2
1
32 2
x
2
1  1
x2  2   x    2
x  x
 36  2
= 34
192. 4
Sol. Area of shaded region
= Area of ABCD – (area of NDM + area of CBL + area of NAL )
 256   24  80  24 
 256  128
= 128 cm2
193. 2
Sol. x  3  32/3  31/3
x  3  32/3  31/3
Cubing both sides,
x 3  27  9x  x  3   32  3  3.32/3.31/3  x  3 
x 3  27  9x 2  27x  9  3  9x  27
x 3  9x 2  18x  12  0
194. 3
Sol. xa  yb  zc
b b
z  y c and x  y a
Now, y 2  zx
b b

 y2  y c a
 1 1
b  
 y2  y a c
 1 1
 2  b  
a c
1 1 2
  
a c b
195. 2
Sol. x  150o (opposite angles of cyclic quadrilateral are supplementary)
y  30o ( angles in the same segment are equal)
z  60o ( angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double of the angle subtended at the
circumference)
2x  y  z  390o
196. 4
b  0 1 b
Sol. 
0  a 1 0
b 1 b

a 1
b  a  ab
a  b  ab
1 1
 1
a b
197. 3
c   c  c   c 
Sol. The intercepts (or vertices of the rhombus) are at  , 0  ,  0,  ,   , 0  and  0,
 a   b   a   b 
1 2c 2c
 Area   
2 a b
2c 2

ab
198. 2
Sol. 2a 3  4a 2  48
 8  2a  16  22a  48
 2a  2  22a  6
 2  22a  2a  6  0
 
 2  2a  3 2a  2  0 
3
 2a  or 2
2
 a 1
199. Not in option (1 : 16)

Sol. Let the radii be r1 and r2 respectively.
Given : r1  r2  15
 
Also,  r12  r22  153   r12  r2 2  153
Solving we get, r1  3 and r2  12
2
 3 
 ratio of areas     1: 16
 12 
200. 3
Sol.  x  3  x  5  x  7 
 x 3   3  7  5  x 2   15  35  21 x  105 
 x3  5x 2  29x  105
 Sum of coefficient of x 2 and x  5  29  24
FIITJEE
JUNIOR SCIENCE TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION (JSTSE) 2019 – 20
(For Class – IX)
Held on December 15, 2019
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
(QUESTION NO. 01– 50)
1. In VVPAT ‘A’ stands for
1. Auction 2. Audit
3. Augmentation 4. Apply
2. What is the vote percentage for General Loksabha Election 2019?

1. 76.42% 2. 67.11%
3. 64.15% 4. 69.21%
3. The worlds’ first human rights TV Channel has been launched in which of the following
cities?
1. New Delhi 2. New York
3. London 4. Tokyo
4. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the different generations of mobile
communication?
1. Only one subscriber at any given time is assigned a channel in the first generation (1G)
2. In second generation (2G) mobile communication, 5MHz multi-carrier system is used.
3. For third generation (3G) voice call and data is an important feature.
4. Global roaming across multiple networks and multimedia is provided to users at any time
and anywhere at a much higher speed in Fourth Generation (4G) mobile communication.
5. Which of the following day is observed as International Day for zero tolerance for Female
Genital Mutilation?
1. 6 February 2. 31 January
3. 14 March 4. 14 February
6. Who among the following is considered as the ‘Father of Artificial Intelligence’?

1. Charles Babbage 2. Lee De Forest
3. John Mc Carthy 4. Microsoft
7. What was the name of the first newspaper to announce the partition of Bengal on July 6th
1905?
1. Swaraj 2. Sanjivani
3. Kalantar 4. Anand Bazar Patrika
8. The ‘Independence of Judiciary’ in Indian Constitution is taken from:

1. Britain 2. America
3. South Africa 4. Australia
9. Uranium found in ‘Ladakh’ is an example of which resource:

1. Actual resource 2. Potential resource
3. Biotic resource 4. Human made resource
10. ‘Teressa Island’ is located in which of the following union territories of India?
1. Lakshadweep 2. Puducherry
3. Daman and Diu 4. Andaman and Nicobar
11. Which of the following canal has reduced India’s distance from Europe by 7000 km?
1. Suez Canal 2. Eriez Canal
3. Indira Canal 4. Panama Canal
12. The term ‘monsoon’ is originated from:

1. German 2. Arabic
3. Latin 4. Hindi
13. Which insurance company has recently launched the ‘Mosquito Disease Protection Policy’?
1. LIC 2. HDFC-ERGO
3. S.B.I. Life Insurance 4. Bajaj Alliance Insurance
14. Who has been appointed as the first female match referee by ICC?
1. Mary Waldron 2. Shivani Mishra
3. Jacqueline William 4. G.S. Lakshmi
15. Which was the first country to implement GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
1. France 2. United Kingdom
3. Japan 4. Australia
16. Which country has launched the 45-days ‘Mt Everest cleaning campaign’?
1. China 2. India
3. Bhutan 4. Nepal
17. The first parliament in the world to declare climate emergency:

1. United Kingdom 2. United State of America
3. Japan 4. Germany
18. The book “Game changer” is the autobiography of:

1. Waqar Younis 2. Javed Miandad
3. Shahid Afridi 4. Imran Khan
19. Where is the headquarters of National centre for good Governance?

1. New Delhi 2. Chennai
3. Dehradun 4. Pune
20. Indian Railways has developed which A1 – powered robot for finding faults in trains?
1. Madad 2. Milap
3. Cris 4. Ustaad
21. In India, how many states share the coastline?

1. 7 2. 8
3. 9 4. 10
22. The world’s first floating Nuclear Power Plant has become operational in which country?
1. Russia 2. France
3. Japan 4. United States of America
23. Tropic of cancer passes through which of the following group of Indian states?
1. Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Manipur
2. Rajasthan, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Mizoram
3. Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand
4. Maharashtra, Chattisgarh, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh
24. Which IIT has successfully converted petroleum waste product, toluene into a useful product
benzoic acid?
1. IIT Indore 2. IIT Kanpur
3. IIT Madras 4. IIT Bombay
25. First Indian railway station to get an ISO certification from the National Green Tribunal–
1. Guwahati 2. Delhi
3. Hyderabad 4. Bhopal
26. India’s longest suspension bridge built in Leh by Indian Army:

1. Gagar Bridge 2. Mahatma Bridge
3. Sardar Bridge 4. Maitri Bridge
27. Which of the following sport has / have been recommended by International Olympic
Committee (IOC) for 2024 Paris Olympics?
1. Break dance 2. Skate Boarding
3. Surfing 4. All the above
28. United kingdom has issued now, ‘black hole’ coin in honour of which of the following
renowned personalities?
1. Stephan Hawking 2. Charles Darwin
3. Tim Berners – Lee 4. Thomas Edison
29. Diffo Bridge is located in:-

1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Arunachal Pradesh
30. Who was the first Lieutenant Governor of Delhi?

1. Sundar Lal Khurana 2. M.C. Pimputkar
3. Baleshwar Prasad 4. Aditya Nath Jha
31. Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome (PRRS) is related to:-

1. Cow 2. Pig
3. Camel 4. Goat
32. Match the following hot spring locations of India with their states:-
1. Manikaran A. Himachal Pradesh
2. Bakreshwar B. Gujarat
3. Unai C. Patna
4. Rajgir D. West Bengal
1. 1–A, 2–D, 3–B, 4–C

2. 1–A, 2–B, 3–D, 4–C
3. 1–B, 2–D, 3–C, 4–A
4. 1–C, 2–A, 3–B, 4–D
33. Which city is called “Zero mile centre” of India?

1. Bhopal 2. Nagpur
3. Jabalpur 4. Indore
34. Which state government has launched ‘Shiksha Setu’ app to ensure a better connectivity
with college students?
1. Punjab 2. Assam
3. Haryana 4. Uttar Pradesh
35. Which among the following is not a ‘heriditary’ disease?
1. Thalessemia 2. Color-Blindness
3. Haemophilia 4. Leukemia
36. The Sharda Act is related to:-

1. Upliftment of scheduled tribes 2. Upliftment of minorities
3. Child Marriage 4. Empowerment of women
37. In the Indian Parliamentary system ‘Vote on Account’ is valid for how many months (except
the year of election)?
1. 2 months 2. 3 months
3. 6 months 4. 9 months
38. What will you call a system of taxation under which the poorer sections are taxed at higher
rates than the richer sections?
1. Progressive tax 2. Proportional tax
3. Regressive tax 4. Degressive tax
39. What is the accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India?

1. April-March 2. July-June
3. October-September 4. January-December
40. Podu is a form of shifting cultivation in:-

1. Madhya Pradesh 2. Nagaland
3. Manipur 4. Andhra Pradesh
41. Turpentine oil is obtained from:-

1. Cashew nut shell 2. Pine tree
3. Eucalyptus tree 4. Banyan tree
42. The yield per unit area is known as:-

1. Crop concentration 2. Agriculture Intensity
3. Agriculture Productivity 4. None of these
43. In which city of India is Dhamek Stupa located?

1. Pune 2. Delhi
3. Varanasi 4. Hyderabad
44. India’s fastest and first multi-petaflops super computer named Pratyush was unveiled at
_____.
1. Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore
2. Indian Space Research Organization Bangalore
3. Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune
4. Indian Institute of Technology, New Delhi
45. Protocol used for sending an email is:-

1. HTTP 2. FTP
3. POP-3 4. SMTP
46. In Networks, WEP stands for

1. Wireless Equivalent Privacy 2. Wired Extra Privacy
3. Wired Equivalent Privacy 4. Wireless Embedded privacy
47. The mulberry fruit is:-

1. Sorosis 2. Syconus
3. Samara 4. Nut
48. Linseed is a rich source of –
1. Vitamin C 2. Omega-3 fatty acid
3. Essential amino acids 4. Antioxidants
49. White leg-horn is a variety of –

1. Parrot 2. Peacock
3. Fowl 4. Owl
50. Itai-Itai disease is caused by which metal?

1. Mercury 2. Nickel
3. Cadmium 4. Lead
GENERAL SCIENCE & MATHEMATICS

(QUESTION NO 51– 200)
51. The instrument used to conduct electrolysis:
1. Voltmeter 2. Voltameter
3. Ammeter 4. Electrolyte
52. If the distance between a crest and trough (consecutive) is L then it’s wavelength be:
1. L/2 2. L
3. 4L 4. 2L
53. A particle of mass m at rest is acted upon by a force p for time t. It’s kinetic energy after time
t is:
1. p2t2/m 2. p2t2/2m
2 2
3. p t /3m 4. pt/2m
54. Correct variation of acceleration due to gravity with distance from centre of plane is:
(R is radius of planet)
1. 2.
3. 4.
55. A particle of mass m moving with velocity v strikes a stationary particle of mass 2m and
sticks to it, the speed of system will be
1. /2 2. 2
3. /3 4. 3
56. Tension in string AB is

1. 8 N
2. 4 N
3. 12 N
4. None of these
57. For frictionless pulley the acceleration of system will be
1. 10/3 m/s2
2. 20/3 m/s2
3. 4/9 m/s2
4. 6 m/s2
58. Relation between potential difference (V) and current (i) for a cell of emf (E) and internal
resistance (r) is, shown graphically. Which graph is correct.
1. 2.
3. 4.
59. Object moves on circular path. Find

displacement from B  A (r is the radius of
circular path)
1. r
2. 2r
3. 3r
4. 2 r
60. On filing a tuning fork, its frequency:

1. Increases 2. Decreases
3. Remain same 4. Increases then decreases
61. The height of mercury which exerts the same pressure as 20 cm of water column is equal to
1. 1.48 cm 2. 14.8 cm
3. 148 cm 4. None of these
62. A block of wood floats 2/3 of it’s volume submerged; its relative density is equal to:
1. 1/3 2. 2/3
3. 4/3 4. 1/9
63. The gravitational field intensity at a point on surface of earth is: [R is radius of earth]
1. g 2. gR
3. 1/2 gR 4. Zero
64. Two metallic spheres of same material and of equal radius r are touching each other. The
force of attraction F between then is
1. F  r6 2. F  r4
2
3. F  r 4. F  r
65. A body released fro top of tower falls through half of height of tower in 3 sec, it will reach the
ground after:
1. 3.5 sec 2. 4.24 sec
3. 4.71 sec 4. 6 sec
66. If a particle is thrown vertically upwards, then its velocity so that, it covers same distance in
5th and 6th sec would be
1. 48 m/s 2. 14 m/s
3. 49 m/s 4. 7 m/s
67. An object while moving may not have:
1. constant speed but constant velocity
2. variable velocity but constant speed
3. non-zero acceleration but constant speed
4. non-zero acceleration but constant velocity
68. The numerical ratio of average speed to average velocity is

1. Always equal to one 2. Always less than one
3. Always more than one 4. Equal to or more than one
69. The graph represents:

1. Constant –ve acceleration with –ve initial velocity
2. Constant –ve acceleration with +ve initial velocity
3. Constant +ve acceleration with –ve initial velocity
4. Constant +ve acceleration with +ve initial velocity
70. Velocity-time graph for free fall of object is:

1. 2.
3. 4.
71. Area under acceleration time graph is equal to

1. Change in acceleration 2. Velocity
3. Change in velocity 4. Displacement
72. If displacement of object is proportional to t2 (t is time). The acceleration in motion:

1. Constant 2. Increase with time
3. Decrease with time 4. No-relation exist
73. Velocity-time graph of an object its given, its

displacement time graph will be:
1. 2.
3. 4.
74. When pressure applied on water increases, it’s boiling point:
1. Decrease 2. Increase
3. Change with decrease in wave length 4. Change with increase in wavelength
75. On increasing temperature of body its colour:

1. Changes 2. No effect
3. Change with decrease in wavelength 4. Change with increase in wavelength
76. The graph between frequency (v) by sources and its time period (T) is
1. 2.
3. 4.
77. The amount of water rises up per minute by a pump of power of 2 KW upto height 10 m
1. 1200 Kg 2. 1150 Kg
3. 1250 Kg 4. 1225 Kg
78. S.I unit of intensity of sound is

1. J m2s 2. Wm2
3. J m-2s-1 4. J–1 m–1s
79. A cricketer catches a ball of mass 150 g in 0.1 sec moving with speed 20 m/s. He
experiences a force of
1. 300 N 2. 30 N
3. 3 N 4. 0.3 N
80. Which one is self adjusting force?

1. Kinetic friction 2. Static friction
3. Nuclear force 4. None
81. When milk is churned cream separates out because of the

1. cohesive force 2. gravitational force
3. frictional force 4. centrifugal force
82. Work done by a simple pendulum in one completer oscillation is

1. zero 2. mg
3. mg cos 4. mg x
83. A body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest to v1 in time t1. The power delivered to the
body as a function of time t is
1. mv 1t/t1 2. mv12 t / t12
3. mv 1t2/t1 4. mv12 t / t1
84. Two bodies of mass m and 4 m are moving with equal kinetic energy the ratio of their
momenta is
1. 1: 4 2. 4:1
3. 1:2 4. 1: 2
85. On temperature scales upper fixed point is
1. boiling point of alcohol 2. boiling point of mercury
3. boiling point of water 4. boiling point of petrol
86. A body is just floating in a liquid. If the body is slightly pressed downwards and released it
will
1. start oscillating 2. sink to bottom
3. comeback to same position immediately 4. comeback to same position slowly
87. Why dam of water reserviour is thick at the bottom?

1. quantity of water increases in depth 2. density of water increases with depth
3. pressure of water increases with depth 4. temperature of water increases with depth
88. The loudness and pitch of sound depends on

1. intensity and frequency 2. frequency and no. of harmonics
3. intensity and velocity 4.frequency and velocity
89. –40oF is equal to

1. –40oC 2. +233 K
3. 312 K 4. –72oC
90. If the mass energy equivalence is taken into account, when water is cooled to form ice, the
mass of water should
1. increases 2. decreases
3. remain unchange 4. first increases than decreases
91. Latent heat of vapourisation is used to:-

1. overcome the forces of attraction between molecules in solid state
2. increases kinetic energy of molecules in liquid state
3. overcome force of attraction between molecule in liquid state
4. increase the kinetic energy of molecules in vapour state
92. Which of the following choice will not change the state of matter?
1. Temperature 2. Crushing of the crystal
3. Pressure 4. Electricity
93. The melting and boiling points of four substances P, Q, R and S are given below:
Substance M.Pt(oC) B.Pt(oC)
P -189 -98
Q -132 -163
R -166 -103
S -115 -86
Which of these substances will exist in liquid state at -140oC and in gaseous state at -100oC.
1. P 2. Q
3. R 4. S
94. The heat of vapourisation of H2O. C2H5OH and CS2 are 40.6, 38.6 & 26.8 KJ mol–1
respectively. The order of decreasing inter molecular force in these liquids is
1. H2O > C2H5OH > CS2 2. CS2 > C2H5OH > H2O
3. H2O > CS2 > C2H5OH 4. CS2 > H2O > C2H5OH
95. Match the given substances with their properties and choose the correct option.
Column – I Column – II
(1) Water (P) Particles move randomly
(2) Sugar (Q) Layers can slide over each other
(3) Nitrogen (R) Changes directly to gaseous phase
(4) Ammonium chloride (S) Particles are not free to move
1. 1  S, 2  R, 3  P, 4  Q 2. 1  Q, 2  S, 3  P, 4  R
3. 1  P, 2  S, 3  Q, 4  R 4. 1  R, 2  Q, 3  S, 4  P
96. Which of the following is correctly matched?

1. Emulsion – Curd 2. Foam – Mist
3. Aerosol – Smoke 4. Solid sol – Cake
97. Which method cannot be used for the purification of liquids?

1. Sublimation 2. Chromatorgraphy
3. Distillation 4. Fractional distillation
98. In modern surgery, metal pins are used for holding the broken bones together. These pins
are made up of
1. copper 2. stainless steel
3. aluminium 4. brass
99. Which of the following is not a pure substance?

1. Tin 2. Coal
3. Ice 4. Limestone
100. Which of the following solution does not show tyndall effect?
1. Soap solution 2. Starch solution
3. Solution of egg white in water 4. Copper sulphate solution
101. What will be the mass percentage of a solution containing 30 g of common salt in 220 g
water?
1. 12% 2. 22%
3. 1.2% 4. 3%
102. Volume occupied by 1 molecule of water(density of water = 1 g cm3) is

1. 6.032  10-23 cm3 2. 3.0  10-23 cm3
-23 3
3. 5.5  10 cm 4. 9.0  10-23 cm3
103. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of CO2 gas is

1.1.8  1022 2. 6.02  1022
3. 3.6  1022 4. 1.8  1023
104. An alkaloid contains 17.28% of nitrogen and its molar mass is 162. The number of nitrogen
atoms present in one molecule of alkaloid is
1. 2 2. 4
3. 1 4. 3
105. Number of atoms is 558.6 g Fe (atomic mass of Fe = 55.86 g mol–1) is

1. 6.022  1022 2. twice that in 60 g carbon
3. half that of 8 g He 4. 558.6  6.022 1023
106. 52u He contains

1. 4  6.022 1023 atoms 2. 13 atoms
3. 13  6.022 1023 atoms 4. 4 atom
107. The formula of a metal chloride is MCl3 then the formula of the phosphate of metal M will be
1. MPO4 2. M2PO4
3. M3PO4 4. M2(PO4)3
108. Which of the following particles has the highest value of charge/mass ratio?
1. Electron 2. Alpha particle
3. Neutron 4. Proton
109. The ratio between the number of neutrons in C and Si (atomic mass of C = 12 and Si = 28)
1. 2 : 3 2. 3 : 2
3. 3 : 7 4. 7 : 3
110. If A has 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10 neutrons, B has 12 protons, 12 electrons and
12 neutrons. Formula of the compound between A and B is
1. B2A3 2. AB2
3. BA2 4. AB4
111. The average atomic mass of an element ‘A’ is 16.2 u. There are two isotopes 168 A and
18
8 A of
the element. The percentage of these two isotopes in element ‘A’ are respectively
1. 10%, 90% 2. 90%, 10%
3. 20%, 80% 4. 80%, 20%
112. Alum helps to purify the muddy water by:

1. Absorption 2. Dialysis
3. Precipitation 4. Coagulation
113. _________ polymer is used for making nonstick utensils.

1. Teflon 2. PVC
3. PAN 4. Buna-S
114. Solder is an alloy of:

1. Sn and Zn 2. Al and Pb
3. Pb and Sn 4. Pb and Zn
115. On heating lead nitrate brown gas obtained is:

1. N2O 2. NO
3. N2O5 4. NO2
116. After white washing, formation of ________ substance gives shiny finish to the walls.
1. Quick lime 2. Lime stone
3. Slaked lime 4. Calcium
117. Formula of compound used for supporting fractured bones is:

1. 2 CaSO4 H2O 2. CaSO4 H2O
3. CaSO4 3/2 H2O 4. 2 CuSO4 5H2O
118. Antirust solutions are:

1. Neutral 2. Alkaline
3. Acidic 4. Amphoteric
119. ________ isotope is used to detect blood clot.

1. Co – 60 2. I – 131
3. Na – 24 4. As – 74
120. The latent heat of vaporization of water is:

1. 2.25  105 J / Kg 2. 225  105 J / Kg
3. 0.225  105 J / Kg 4. 22.5  105 J / Kg
121. The number of atoms present in 4.25 g of NH3 is

1. 1  1023 2. 6.0  1023
23
3. 2.0  10 4. 4.0  1023
122. Metal ion present in oxygenated haemoglobin
1. Fe3+ 2. Fe2+
2+
3. Co 4. Mg2+
123. How many moles of iron can be made from Fe2O3 by the use of 16 mol of CO in the given
reaction?
Fe2O3 + 3 CO  2Fe + 3CO2
1. 1.67 mol 2. 10.67 mol
3. 2.0 mol 4. 3.0 mol
124. In the given reaction Al2O3 + 3 Mg  3 MgO + 2 Al, Mg is used as:

1. oxidant 2. catalyst
3. dehydrating agent 4. reductant
125. If the density of water is 1.0 g cm–3 and that of water vapour is 0.0006 g cm–3 at 100OC and 1
atm, then the volume occupied by water molecules in 1 litre of steam at this temperature and
pressure is:
1. 0.6 cm3 2. 6.0 cm3
3
3. 60.0 cm 4. 0.06 cm3
126. Which of the following has more electrons than neutrons?

1. 19
9 F
 26
2. 13 Al3
3. 16
8 O
2
4. 23
11 Na 
127. _________ is a molecular crystal.
1. Dry ice 2. Quartz
3. Rock salt 4. Diamond
128. Atomicity of sulphur is:

1. 2 2. 8
3. 4 4. 1
129. Which of the following metal can displace H2 gas from an acid?
1. Pt 2. Cu
3. Ag 4. Ni
130. Dissolution of NH4Cl in water is an:

1. Neutralization reaction 2. Exothermic reaction
3. Endothermic reaction 4. Precipitation reaction
131. In which of the following organism self fertilization is observed:

1. Rohu 2. Round worm
3. Earthworm 4. Liver fluke
132. Flame cells are excretory organism

1. Flat worms 2. Earth worms
3. Glow worms 4. Round worms
133. The husk of coconut is made up of

1. Collenchyma cells 2. Parenchyma
3. Aerenchyma 4. Sclerenchyma
134. Which of the following has pseudocoelom?

1. Flat worm 2. Round worm
3. Earth worm 4. Tape worm
135. Which of the following is an insecticide?
1. Penicillin 2. BHC
3. 2–4D 4. IAA
136. Vacuolar membrane is called:

1. Plasma membrane 2. Tonoplast
3. Turgid membrane 4. Chromoplast
137. Murrah is a high yielding breed of

1. Cow 2. Hen
3. Buffalo 4. Sheep
138. Secretion of enzymes, mucous and hormones is done by

1. Golgi apparatus 2. Mitochondria
3. Ribosomes 4. Plastids
139. Both B & T cells of immune system are produced in

1. Spleen 2. Bone marrow
3. Lymphoid organ 4. Thymus
140. The third kingdom added in Haeckel’s system of classification was

1. Protista 2. Monera
3. Fungi 4. Archaea
141. Entamoeba gingivalis lives in

1. Intestine 2. Colon
3. Pus pocket of pyorrhea 4. Stomach
142. Lichen are important in studies on atmospheric pollution because they

1. can grow in highly polluted atmosphere
2. sensitive to pollutants like SO2
3. efficiently purify the atmosphere
4. uses SO2 grow
143. Which of the following cell will burst when placed in hypotonic media?
1. Onion peel cell 2. Fungal cell
3. E. coli 4. Red blood cell
144. Haemoglobin is dissolved in plasma in

1. Earthworm 2. Ascaris
3. Tape worm 4. Insect
145. A river with high BOD value is

1. highly polluted 2. highly clean
3. highly productive 4. none of these
146. Which muscle cells get tired soon?

1. skeletal muscle 2. cardiac muscle
3. smooth muscle 4. all of these
147. Prokaryotic cells do not have

1. Lysosomes 2. Plasma membrane
3. Nucleoid 4. Ribosome
148. The test tubes A, B, C are taken with good material sample of rice, mustard and dal
respectively in powdered form. On adding iodine solution the black colour is observed in
1. Test tube – A 2. Test tube – B
3. Test tube – C 4. Test tube – D
149. How does protoplasm differs from cytoplasm?

1. Cytoplasm & protoplasm are parts of nucleus
2. Protoplasm includes nucleus and cytoplasm
3. Protoplasm is same as cytoplasm
4. Protoplasm is a part of cytoplasm
150. Which is not a postulate of cell theory?

1. All cells rise from pre-existing cells
2. Cell is the basic unit of life
3. The fluid substance of the cell is protoplasm
4. All organisms are composed of cells
151. Match the items of column ‘A’ with Column ‘B’.

Column – A Column – B
(a) Tendon (i) Yellow fibre
(b) Ligament (ii) White fibre
(c) Cartilage (iii) Osteocytes
(d) Bone (iv) Chondriocytes

1. a  (i); b  (ii); c  (iii); d  (iv)
2. a (iv); b  (iii); c  (ii); d  (i)
3. a (ii); b  (i); c  (iv); d  (iii)
4. a (iii); b  (iv); c  (i); d  (ii)
152. The principal cereal crop of India is:

1. Wheat 2. Maize
3. Sorghum 4. Rice
153. Animal husbandry is the scientific management of:

(i) animal breeding (ii) culture of animals
(iii) animal live stock (iv) rearing of animals
1. (i), (ii) and (iii) 2. (i), (iii) and (iv)

3. (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4. (i), (ii) and (iv)
154. Who is known as the father of white revolution in India?

1. Prof. M.S. Swaminathan 2. Dr. V. Kurien
3. Dr. Yashpal 4. Mrs. Indira nancy
155. Ozone is
1. Poisonous 2. Sweet
3. Not harmful 4. Nothing
156. Ipomoea is a
1. Dicot 2. Monocot
3. Algae 4. Moss
157. Cotton chemically consists of
1. cellulose 2. protein
3. nuclein 4. pectin
158. Chara belongs to

1. Thallophyta 2. Gymnosperms
3. Angiosperms 4. Dicot
159. Exocoetus is a
1. Flying fish 2. Lion fish
3. Dog fish 4. Angles fish
160. _________ helps the body parts together and helps the body move.
1. Muscular system 2. Skeletal system
3. Musculoskeletal system 4. Respiratory system
161. _______ is major factor in deciding the soil structure.

1. Fertilizers 2. Roots
3. Humus 4. Pesticides
162. Lichens are very sensitive to ________ in the air.

1. CO2 2. NH3
3. SO2 4. NO2
163. When a cell divides by meiosis it produces __________ new cells.

1. Two 2. Three
3. Four 4. One
164. Peptic ulcers is related to

1. Helicobacter pylori 2. Trypanosoma
3. Leishmania 4. Viruses
165. Leghorn is related to

1. Poultry 2. Apiculture
3. Dairy Farming 4. Pisciculture
166. Which is responsible for the increase of the stem in growth?

1. Cortex 2. Xylem
3. Cambium 4. Phloem
167. Stomata open at night in

1. Hydrophytes 2. Halophytes
3. Mesophytes 4. Succulent
168. Haversian canal occurs in

1. Humerus 2. Scapula
3. Clavicle 4. Pubis
169. Hardness and stiffness in plants because of the ______________ tissue

1. Parenchyma 2. Sclerenchyma
3. Aerenchyma 4. Collenchyma
170. Viruses are ____________particles

1. Nucleoprotein 2. Carboprotein
3. Mucocasbo 4. Proteinomuco
3
 x 1 x 1
171. If    , then the value of x is
x 3 x5
1. 2 2. –2
3. 1 4. –1
1 3
172. Value of  is
2 3 2 2 2 3 2 2
4  4 
1. 9 3  4 6  2  14  2. 9 3  4 6  2  14 
47  47 
4  4 
3. 9 3  4 6  2  14  4. 9 3  4 6  2  14 
47  47 
5 21 x5 7 x5 3
173. If x  , then the value of  is
3 7 x5 7 x5 3
1. 2 2. 21
8 4
3. 4.
21 21
174. If the polynomials p  x   4x3  ax2  2x  1 and q  x   3x3  7x2  8x  a leave the
same remainder, when divided by  x  1 , then the value of
1
1. 1 2.
2
3 3
3. 4.
2 2
175. Factors of 6x 2  5xy  4y 2  x  17y  15

1.  2x  y  3  3x  4y  5  2.  2x  y  3  3x  4y  5 
3.  2x  y  3  3x  4y  5  4.  2x  y  3  3x  4y  5 
3 1
176. If x  3 28 and y  27 then value of x  y  is
x  xy  y2
2
1. 8 2. 7
3. 6 4. 5
177. The value of 0.2  0.23 is

1. 0.43 2. 0.43
3. 0.45 4. 0.45
2 2 2
178. If x, y and z are real and  x  2    y  3    z  4   0, then the value of xy  yz  zx is
1. 24 2. 26
3. 28 4. 30
1
179. If p2  3p  1  0, then the value of p2  is
p2
1. 7 2. 9
3. 11 4.13
180. If m  n  7 and m3  n3  133 , then the value of m2  n2 is
1. 29 2. 49
3. 69 4. 59
181. If x  y  3, x  y   
2 then the expression 8xy x 2  y 2 has the value
1. 5 2 2. 10 2
3. 20 4. 5
182.  
Factors of 3x 2  2x 6  3x 2  2x  5 are 
1.  x  1 x  11  3x  5  3x  2.  x  1 x  11  3x  5  3x 
3.  x  1 x  11  3x  3  5x  4.  x  1 x  1 3  x  5  3x 
183. If m  2p  p2  k , then k in terms of p and m is

1.  m  p  m  3p  2. m  p m  3p 
3.  m  2p  m  3p  4.  m  p  m  3p 
3x  2 3 4p  3
184. If p  x  1 and   , then the value of x is
5 2 2
1. 1 2. –1
3. 0 4. 2
185. If 52m1  25m1  100, then the value of 6 m is

1. 6 2. 36
1 1
3. 4.
6 36
186. If x  3  31/3  32/3 , then the value of x3  9x 2  18x  10 is

1. –1 2. 0
3. 1 4.2
187. If a  b  c  2,ab  bc  ca  1 and abc  2, then the value of a3  b3  c 3 is

1. –8 2. 0
3. 8 4. 16
188. The coefficient of x 2 in  x  3  x  5  x  7  is

1. 28 2. –28
3. –5 4. 5
189. In figure, AD = AC = CB then the value of x is

A
1. 51o 2. 78o 102°
3. 34o 4. 43o
x°
B C D
m
m 4
190. If  32  2 n1
 1 and 16 2  8n  0 , then the value of m and n are
1. m  2,n  4 2. m  2,n  3
3. m  4,n  2 4. m  3, n  2
191. In figure, ‘O’ be the centre of the circle, D C

o o
OAB  32 , APD  90 then the value of x is
1. 30o 2. 32o P
3. 34o 4. 36o
O
x
o
32
A B
192. In figure, ‘O’ is the centre of the circle QRO  30o , P

values of a and b are
1. a  30o ,b  30o a
o o
2. a  15 ,b  15
3. a  15o ,b  30o
O S
4. a  30o ,b  15o
b 30o
Q T R
193. If volume of a cube is L cubic units, its surface area is M square units and length of the
diagonal is N unit, then
1. 6L = MN 2. 6 3L  MN
3. 3M  LN 4. 6N = LM
194. In a triangle, the average of any two sides is 6 cm more than half of third side, then area of
the triangle (in sq. cm). is
1. 64 3 2. 48 3
3. 72 3 4. 36 3
195. The area of circular ring enclosed between two concentric circles is 286 cm2. If the
difference of their radii is 7 cm, then the radii of these circles are
1. 2 cm and 9 cm 2. 5 cm and 12 cm
3. 4 cm and 11 cm 4. 3 cm and 10 cm
x
196. If 49x  49 x 1  16464, then which of the following is equivalent of  2x  ?
5/2
1.  5  2.  7 7/2
3/2
3.  3  4. None of these
197. The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere which will fit inside the sphere is
1. 3 : 2 2. 2 : 3
3. 3 : 2 4. None of these
3
198. The value of 20  14 2  3 20  14 2 is
1. 4 2. 6
3. 8 4. 10
1 m4  3m3  5m2  3m  1
199. If m   5, then the value of is
m m4  1
47 45
1. 2.
21 21
43 41
3. 4.
23 23
200. If X : Y : Z = 4 : 3 : 2 and x 2  y 2  z 2  11600, then the value of X  Y  Z is

1. 10 2. 100
3. 180 4. 60
FIITJEE
JUNIOR SCIENCE TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION (JSTSE) 2019 – 20
(For Class – IX)
Held on December 15, 2020
ANSWER KEYS
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1. 2 2. 2 3. 3 4. 2
5. 1 6. 3 7. 2 8. 2
9. 2 10. 4 11. 1 12. 2
13. 2 14. 4 15. 1 16. 4
17. 1 18. 3 19. 1 20. 4
21. 3 22. 1 23. 2 24. 3
25. 1 26. 4 27. 4 28. 1
29. 4 30. 4 31. 2 32. 1
33. 2 34. 3 35. 4 36. 3
37. 1 38. 3 39. 2 40. 4
41. 2 42. 3 43 3 44. 3
45. 4 46. 3 47. 1 48. 2
49. 3 50. 3
PHYSICS
51. 2 52. 4 53. 2 54. 1
55. 3 56. 2 57. 1 58. 2
59. 4 60. 1 61. 1 62. 2
63. 1 64. 2 65. 2 66. 3
67. 4 68. 4 69. 2 70. 1
71. 3 72. 1 73. 3 74. 2
75. 3 76. 4 77. 4 78. 3
79. 2 80. 2 81. 4 82. 1
83. 2 84. 3 85. 3 86. 2
87. 3 88. 1 89. 1 90. 2
CHEMISTRY
91. 3 92. 2 93. 3 94. 1
95. 2 96. 3 97. 1 98. 2
99. 2 100. 4 101. 1 102. 2
103. 4 104. 1 105. 2 106. 2
107. 1 108. 1 109. 3 110. 3
111. 2 112. 4 113. 1 114. 3
115. 4 116. 2 117. 1 118. 2
119. 3 120. 4 121. 2 122. 2
123. 2 124. 4 125. 1 126. 3
127. 1 128. 2 129. 4 130. 3
BIOLOGY
131. 4 132. 1 133. 4 134. 2
135. 2 136. 2 137. 3 138. 1
139. 2 140. 1 141. 3 142. 2
143. 4 144. 1 145. 1 146. 1
147. 1 148. 1 149. 2 150. 3
151. 3 152. 4 153. 2 154. 2
155. 1 156. 1 157. 1 158. 1
159. 1 160. 3 161. 3 162. 3
163. 3 164. 1 165. 1 166. 3
167. 4 168. 1 169. 2 170. 1
MATHEMATICS
171. 2 172. 1 173. 3 174. No option correct  17 

 2 
175. 1 176. 3 177. 3 178. 2
179. 3 180. 1 181. 4 182. 1
183. 4 184. 1 185. 4 186. 4
187. 3 188. 4 189. 3 190. 1
191. 2 192. 4 193. 2 194. 4
195. 4 196. 1 197. 2 198. 1
199. 3 200. 1
HINTS AND SOLUTIONS
51. 2
Sol. The instrument used to conduct electrolysis is voltameter.
52. 4
Sol. Distance between two consecutive crest or trough is wavelength.
53. 2
P
Sol. Acceleration =
m
P
Velocity v = u + at  v  t
m
1 P2 t 2
Kinetic energy K = mv 2 =
2 2m
54. 1
Sol. gr (r < Radius of Earth)
1
g (r > Radius of Earth)
r2
55. 3
Sol. By conservation of momentum
mv + 2m × 0 = (m + 2m)V
v
 V
3
56. 2
12
Sol. Acceleration a  = 4 m/s2
3
FBD of 1 kg  T = ma = 4 N.
57. 1
Net force 40  20 10
Sol. Acceleration =   m / s2
Total mass 2 4 3
58. 2
Sol. V =  – Ir (Straight line equation with –ve slope & +ve intercept)
59. 4
Sol. B
AB  r 2  r 2
r = 2r
A
r
60. 1
Sol. Factual
61. 1
Sol. hHg 13.6 × g = 20 × 1 × g
hHg = 1.48 cm
62. 2
Vi 2  wood
Sol.   = Relative density of wood.
V 3 H2O
63. 1
GM
Sol. Gravitational intensity = = g.
R2
64. 2
2
4 
2 G  r 3    2 4 2
Sol. F
GM
  3  = G r 
2 2
(2r) 4r 9
F  r4
65. 2
Sol. Half height
u=0
1
h  g9
2
Say time taken to reach ground is t.
1
2h   g  t 2
2
t  18 = 4.242
66. 3
Sol. Time of ascent tA = 5 sec. u=0
v = u – gt
0 = u – 9.8 × 5 (t = sec)
 u = 49 m/s u
O
67. 4
Sol. An object while moving may not have non-zero acceleration but constant velocity.
68. 4
Sol. Average speed  average velocity.
69. 2
Sol. The graph represents constant –ve acceleration with +ve initial velocity.
70. 1
Sol. Option 1 is correct. Though if we take downward direction as positive direction then option 3
can also be correct.
71. 3
Sol. Area under acceleration time graph is equal to change in velocity.
72. 1
1 2
Sol. s at (a = constant)
2
73. 3
Sol. v (velocity) s
t (time) t
74. 2
Sol. 
H2O()   H2O(g)
According to le Chatelier principle, if we inverse the pressure at equilibrium them the
reaction will move towards that side, where the gaseous moles is less. So, the reaction will
shift backward it means boiling point increase.
75. 3
Sol. By Wiens displacement law.
1

T
76. 4
1 V
Sol. Time period =
Frequency
77. 4
mgh
Sol. P
t
m  9.8  10
2  103 
60
 m  1225 kg
78. 3
W
Sol. Unit of intensity of sound =
m2
= Jm–2 s–1 (1 W = 1 J/s)
79. 2
150 (20  0)
Sol. F  = 30 N
1000 0.1
80. 2
Sol. Static friction is self adjusting force.
81. 4
Sol. When milk is churned cream separates out because of the centrifugal force.
82. 1
Sol. Work done by a simple pendulum in one complete oscillation is zero.
83. 2
v1
Sol. Acceleration a
t1
Force = m.a.
Velocity v = a. t.
m  v12
Power = F. v. = ma2t = t
t12
84. 3
p2
Sol. KE 
2m
p  m (KE – constant)
85. 3
Sol. On temperature scales upper fixed point is boiling point of water.
86. 2
Sol. A body is just floating in a liquid. If the body is slightly pressed downwards and released it
will sink to bottom.
87. 3
Sol. P = gh
88. 1
Sol. The loudness and pitch of sound depends on intensity and frequency.
89. 1
40o f  32o f x o C  0
Sol. 
180 100
x = –40°C
90. 2
Sol. E = mc2
Since water release energy, some mass must get converted into energy.
91. 3
Sol. Latent heat of vapourisation overcome the force of attraction between molecules in liquid
state.
92. 2
Sol. Crushing of crystal does not change state of matter.
93. 3
Sol. Because ‘R’ melts at –166°C and boils at –103°C.
94. 1
Sol. H2O > C2H5OH > CS2. Higher is the value of heat of vaporization more is intermolecular
force of attraction.
95. 2
Sol. Water (liquid)  Layers can slide over each other
Sugar(Solid)  Particles are not free to move
Nitrogen (gas)  Particles move randomly
Ammonium chloride(sublime)  Changes directly to
gaseous phase
96. 3
Sol. Emulsion – Milk
Foam – Shaving cream
Aerosol – Smoke
Solid sol – Coloured gem stone
97. 1
Sol. Chromatography, distillation & fractional distillation method are used for purification of
liquids.
98. 2
Sol. Stainless steel pins are used for holding broken bones together.
99. 2
Sol. Coal is a mixture.
100. 4
Sol. True solution does not show tyndall effect
101. 1
mass of solute 30
Sol. w / w%   100   100  12%
mass of solution 250
102. 3
Sol. Mass of 1 mol molecule of H2O = 18 g
18
Mass of 1 molecule H2O = = 2.99  10–23 = 3  10–23 g
6.02  1023
Density of water is 1 g/cm3
 Volume of 1 molecule will be 3  10–23 cm3
103. 4
Sol. 1 mol of CO2 contains = 3  NA atom
 0.1 mol of CO2 contains = 0.3  6.022  1023 = 1.8  1023
104. 1
17.28
Sol. Mass of nitrogen present in alkaloid =  162 = 27.99
100
28
 Number of nitrogen atoms present per molecule = =2
14
105. 2
558.6
Sol. Number of moles of Fe = = 10
55.86
60
Number of moles of C = =5
12
So, option (2) is correct.
106. 2
Sol. Atomic mass of He = 4.
52
Number of atom in 52u He =  13 atoms
4
107. 1
Sol. M PO4
Charge 3 3
MPO4
108. 1
Ch arge
Sol. =n  p e
Mass
0 1 1
1 = 1837
1 2 1/ 1837
109. 3
12
Sol. 6 C = no. of neutron = 6
14
Si = no. of neutron = 14
28
Ratio of neutron = 3 : 7
110. 3
Sol.
A B
BA2
Valency 1 2
111. 2
16
Sol. Let ratio of 8 A isotope be ‘x’
16  x + 18  (1 – x) = 16.2
1.8 = 2x
x = 0.9
16 18
 Percentage abundance of 8 A = 90% & 8 A = 10%
112. 4
Sol. Alum helps to purify muddy water by coagulation.
113. 1
Sol. Teflon is used for making non-stick utensils.
114. 3
Sol. Solder = Pb & Sn
115. 4
Sol. 2Pb NO3 2 

 2PbO  4NO2  O2
Brown gas
116. 2
Sol. Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with CO2 in air to form CaCO3, which gives a shiny finish to
walls.
117. 1
Sol. POP  2CaSO4.H2O
118. 2
Sol. Antirust solution are alkaline.
119. 3
Sol. Na – 24 used to detect blood clot.
120. 4
Sol. Latent heat of vaporization of water = 22.5  105 J/Kg
121. 2
4.25
Sol. Moles = g  0.25
17
1 mole of NH3 = 4  NA atom
0.25 mole of NH3 = 0.25  4  6.022  1023 atm = 6.0 1023
122. 2
Sol. Fe2+ ion present in oxygenated heamoglobin.
123. 2
Sol. Fe2O3  3 CO 
 2Fe  3 CO2
3 mol CO  2 mole Fe
2
16 mol CO   16 = 10.67 mol
3
124. 4
Sol. Oxidation
+3 0 +2 0
Al2O3  3Mg 
 3MgO  2 Al
 Oxidant  Reduc tant 
Reduction
125. 1
Sol. Mass of one litre of vapour = V  d
= 1000  0.0006 = 0.6 g
mass 0.6
 Volume of liquid water =   0.6 cm3
density 1
 density of water = 1 g/cc
126. 3
19
Sol. 1. 9 F  = 10 electron, 10 neutron
26
2. 13 Al3  = 10 electron, 13 neutron
16
3. 8 O2 = 10 electron, 8 neutron
23
4. 11 Na = 10 electron, 12 neutron
16 2
8 O has more electron than neutron
127. 1
Sol. Dry ice is a molecular crystal.
128. 2
Sol. Atomicity of S is 8
129. 4
Sol. Metal placed above hydrogen displaces H2 from acid.
130. 3
Sol. Dissolution of NH4Cl in water is an endothermic reaction.
131. 4
Sol. Self fertilization is observed in Liver fluke.
132. 1
Sol. Flame cells are excretory organism in flat worms.
133. 4
Sol. The husk of coconut is made up of Sclerenchyma.
134. 2
Sol. Round worm has pseudocoelom.
135. 2
Sol. BHC is an insecticide
136. 2
Sol. Vacuolar membrane is called tonoplast.
137. 3
Sol. Murrah is a high yielding breed of Buffalo.
138. 1
Sol. Secretion of enzymes, mucous and hormones is done by golgi apparatus.
139. 2
Sol. Both B & T cells of immune system are produced in bone marrow.
140. 1
Sol. The third kingdom added in Haeckel’s system of classification was protista.
141. 3
Sol. Entamoeba gingivalis lives in pus pocket of pyorrhea.
142. 2
Sol. Lichen sensitive to pollutants like SO2.
143. 4
Sol. Red blood cell will burst when placed in hypotonic media.
144. 1
Sol. Haemoglobin is dissolved in plasma in earthworm.
145. 1
Sol. A river with high BOD value is highly polluted.
146. 1
Sol. Skeletal cells get tired soon.
147. 1
Sol. Prokaryotic cells do not have lysosomes.
148. 1
Sol. On adding iodine solution in test tubes, test tube A colour changed because it contain
carbohydrate (rice).
149. 2
Sol. Protoplasm includes nucleus and cytoplasm.
150. 3
Sol. The postulates of cell theory are all cells rise from pre-existing cells, cell is the basic unit of
life and all organisms are composed of cells.
151. 3
Sol.
Column – A Column – B
Tendon  White fibre
Ligament  Yellow fibre
Cartilage  Chondriocytes
Bone  Osteocytes
152. 4
Sol. Rice is the cereal crop of India.
153. 2
Sol. Animal husbandry is the scientific management of animal breeding, animal livestock and
rearing of animals.
154. 2
Sol. Dr. V. Kurien is known as the father of white revolution in India.
155. 1
Sol. Ozone is poisonous.
156. 1
Sol. Ipomoea is a dicot plant.
157. 1
Sol. Cotton chemically consists of cellulose.
158. 1
Sol. Chara belongs to Thallophyta.
159. 1
Sol. Exocoetus is a flying fish.
160. 3
Sol. Musculoskeletal system helps the body parts together and helps the body move.
161. 3
Sol. Humus is major factor in deciding the soil structure.
162. 3
Sol. Lichens are very sensitive to SO2 in the air.
163. 3
Sol. When a cell divides by meiosis it produces four new cells.
164. 1
Sol. Peptic ulcers is related to Helicobacter pylori.
165. 1
Sol. Leghorn is related to poultry farming.
166. 3
Sol. Cambium is responsible for the increase of the stem in growth.
167. 4
Sol. In succulent plant Stomata open at night.
168. 1
Sol. Haversian canal occurs in humerus.
169. 2
Sol. Hardness and stiffness in plants because of the Sclerenchyma tissue.
170. 1
Sol. Viruses are Nucleoprotein particles
171. 2
3
 x 1 x 1
Sol.   
x3 x5

 x  13 
x 1
 x  3 3 x5
x 3  1  3x  x  1 x 1
 3

x  27  9x  x  3  x5
  
 x 3  3x 2  3x  1  x  5   x 3  9x 2  27x  27  x  1 
 x 4  5x3  3x3  15x2  3x 2  15x  x  5  x4  x3  9x3  9x 2  27x 2
 27x  27x  27
 16x  32
x  2
172. 1
1 3
Sol. 
2 3 2 2 2 3 2 2
1 2  3   2 2 

3

2  3   2 2
2  3   2 2 2  3   2 2 2  3   2 2 2  3   2 2
2  3  2 2 32  3  2 2
 
74 3 8 74 3 8
2 3 2 2 63 3 6 2
 
4 3 1 4 3 1
2 3 2 2 63 3 6 2

4 3 1

84 3 4 2


4 2 3  2   4 3 1 
4 3 1 4 3 1 4 3  1


4 8 3  2  12  3  4 6  2
47
4

47

9 3  14  2  4 6 
173. 3
5 21
Sol. x
3 7
x 3

5 7 3 7
Applying C – D
x5 7 3 3 7 2 3 7
  …………(i)
x 5 7 3 3 7  7
x 7
and 
5 3 3 7
Applying C – D
x5 3 7 3 7 3 2 7
  ………..(ii)
x 5 3 7 3 7  3
x5 7 x5 3 2 3  7 32 7
Now,   
x5 7 x5 3  7  3


 6  21  21  14 
21
6  21  21  14

21
8

21
174. No option correct

Sol. p  x   4x3  ax2  2x  1
q  x   3x 3  7x 2  8x  a
 p  x  and q  x  leave the same remainder
When divided by x  1 then
p 1  q 1
 4 1  a  2  1  3 1  7  8  a
 5  a  12  a
 17  2a
17
a
2
175. 1
Sol. 6x 2  5xy  4y 2  x  17y  15
 6x 2  x 1  5y    4y 2  17y  15 
 6x 2  x 1  5y    4y 2  12y  5y  15 
 6x 2  x 1  5y    4y  y  3   5  y  3  
 6x 2  x 1  5y    y  3  4y  5 
 6x 2   x  5xy    y  3  4y  5 
 6x2   3xy  8xy  10x  9x    y  3  4y  5 
6x 2  3x  y  3   2x  4y  5    y  3  4y  5 
 
 6x 2  3x  y  3   2x  4y  5    y  3  4y  5 
 3x  2x  y  3    4y  5  2x  y  3 
  2x  y  3  3x  4y  5 
176. 3
Sol. x  281/3 , y  271/3
 x 3  28, y 3  27
Then x 3  y 3  1
1
xy ?
x  xy  y 2
2
xy
x  y
 x  y   x2  xy  y 2 
xy
xy
x3  y3
 xyxy
 2y
 2 3  6
177. 3
Sol. 0.2  0.23  ?
2 23  2
 
9 90
2 21
 
9 90
20  21 41
   0.45
90 90
178. 2
Sol.  x  22   y  3 2   z  4 2  0 then
xy  yz  zx  ?
 Sum of three square terms is equal to zero
 each term should be equal to zero
x2  0  x  2
y 3  0  y  3
z4 0z  4
xy  yz  zx  6  12  8  26
179. 3
Sol. p2  3p  1  0
 p p  3   1
1
p3 
p
1
p 3
p
 square both sides
1
p2  2  2  9
p
1
p2  2  11
p
180. 1
Sol. mn  7
m3  n3  133
3
  m  n   3mn  m  n   133
 73  3mn  7  133
 mn  10
2
 m2  n2   m  n   2mn
 72  2  10  29
181. 4
Sol. xy 3 ………(i)
xy  2 ……...(ii)

8xy x 2  y 2  ?
(i)2 + (ii)2  2x 2

 y2  5
5
x2  y 2 
2
2 5
  x  y   2xy 
2
5
3  2xy
2
1
  2xy
2
1
 xy 
4
15
 
 8xy x 2  y 2  8     5
42
182. 1
Sol.  3x  2x  6  3x  2x   5
2 2
  3x  2x  6   3x  2x   5
2 2
Let’s say 3x2  2x  k

 k 6  k  5
 6k  k 2  5

  k 2  6k  5 
   k  5  k  1
 
  3x 2  2x  5 3x 2  2x  1 
  3x 2

 5x  3x  5 3x 2  3x  x  1 
  x  3x  5   1 3x  5 3x  x  1   x  1
   3x  5  x  1 x  1 3x  1
  x  1 x  11  3x  5  3x 
183. 4
Sol. m  2p  p2  k
m  2p  p2  k
Squaring both sides
m2  4p 2  4mp  p2  k
 m 2  p 2  4p 2  4mp  k
  m  p  m  p   4p  p  m   k
  m  p  m  p  4p   k
 k   m  p  m  3p 
184. 1
Sol. px 1
3x  2 3 4p  3
 
5 2 2
3x  2 3 4  x  1  3
  
5 2 2
3x  2 3 4x  1
  
5 2 2
6x  4  15 4x  1
 
10 2
6x  19
  4x  1
5
 6x  19  20x  5
 14x  14
x 1
185. 4
Sol. 52m1  25m1  100
 52m1  52m2  100
 52m1  52m2  100
52m 52m
   100
5 25
52m  1 
 1  100
5  5 
52m 4
   100
5 5
 5  54
2m
 2m  4  m  2
1
 6 m  6 2 
36
186. 4
Sol. x  3  31/3  32/3  x  3  31/3  32/3
3 3

  x  3   31/3  32/3 
 x3  27  9x 2  27x  3  32  3  3  x  3 
 x3  9x2  18x  10  2
187. 3
Sol.  a  b  c 2  a2  b2  c 2  2  ab  bc  ca 
 a2  b2  c 2  6
Now a3  b3  c 3  3abc   a  b  c  a2  b2  c 2   ab  bc  ca  
 
3 3 3
 a  b  c   2   6  1  3  2 
=8
188. 4
Sol.  x  3  x  5 x  7   x3  5x2  29x  105
Coefficient of x 2  5
189. 3
Sol. In ABC, CAB  CBA  x o
 ACD  2xo
In ACD, ADC  ACD  2x o
Now In ABD, ABD  ADB  102o
 x  2x  102
 x  34o
190. 1
m 5m
Sol.
 32 
 1  n1  1
22
2n1 2
5m
  n 1 0
2
 5m  2n  2
m
4
Also, 16  8n  02
 2162m  23n  0
 16  2m  3n  2m  3n  16
On solving both equation we get m = 2, n = 4
191. 2
Sol. In OAB, OBA  OAB  32o
 AOB  116
1
ACB  AOB  58o
2
Now In CPB, x  180o  90o  58o  
o
 32
192. 4
Sol. Since OS  TR  SOR  ORT  30 o
1
Now b  SQR  SOR  15o
2
1
Also, PQS  POS  45 o
2
Now, in PTQ, a  QPT  30 o
193. 2
Sol. If side of cube is x units then L  x 3 ,M  6x 2 ,N  3 x then MN  6 3x 3  6 3 L
194. 4
a b c
Sol. Given :   6  a  b  c  12
2 2
bc a ca b
  6  b  c  a  12 and   c  c  a  b  12
2 2 2 2
On solving these equation we get a = b = c = 12 cm
So, area  36 3 cm2
195. 4
Sol. Let R and r be radii of outer and inner circle then R – r = 7 and  R2  r 2   286
 R  r  13
On solving both equations we get R = 10 and r = 3
196. 1
Sol. 49 x  49 x 1  16464
49 x
 49x   16464
49
5
 49 x  75  x 
2
5
x
So,  2x   5 2
197. 2
Sol. Let side of cube = x
Then diameter of sphere = diagonal of cube = 3x
3x
So, radius of sphere =
2
x3 2
Ratio of volumes = 3

4  3x  3
 
3  2 
198. 1
Sol. Let 3 20  14 2  3 20  14 2  x
Cubing both sides we get
40  3  3 20  14 2 20  14 2   x   x 3
  
 
3
 x  6x  40  0
  x  4   x 2  4x  10   0
x4
199. 3
1 1
Sol. m  5  m2  2  23
m m
m  3m  5m2  3m  1
4 3
Now,
m4  1
 2 1   1
m  2   3m    5
m  m
 
1
m2  2
m
43

23
200. 1
Sol. Let x = 4K, y = 3K and z = 2K
then x 2  y 2  z 2  29K 2  11600
 K  20
So, x  y  z  5K  100  10
ITP1- 1 Part-I
it/f6-4'
PHYSICS
-1,-.1 Fa ch ',31 • "WT Tr? 37"

1. 1 t ? 1. What is the correct ascending order for
frequencies of the following radiations ?
(1) 774 (1) Visible
(2) X-fcmul (2) X-rays
(3) TRT-4,i41 (3) Ultra-violet
(4) efzit-cii. (4) Radio waves
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 3, 2, 4, 1 (b) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (c) 4, 1, 3, 2
(d) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
2 Rh41 7149 rclk-kil Id TY, 3474t1TW Pichtic-11 2. In an atomic explosion, enormous energy is
chRur : released which is due to the :
(1) 1?-,H 51"11-1 gcrilt (1) Conversion of neutrons into protons
(2) fl4iv-iriet) 4),31i rMr1 mcciir (2) Conversion of chemical energy into heat
energy
(3) 4411-** 4),111 TITATI 7FT (3) Conversion of mechanical energy into Nuclear
energy
(4) 770 d.,Ai ,sicri T7f (4) Conversion of mass into energy
3. flrFnYlrf -711* fa —ter tur 197 1:1 *71 3. The displacement-time graph of a moving particle
f7§117 TFIT : is shown below :
c17
chur 'TT T *_uriclich ? The instantaneous velocity of the particle is

negative at the point ?
(1) fk AtfT (1) A
(2) f3 B ITT (2) B
(3) f1-s C 'TT (3) C

(4) f,4 -S D117 (4) D
3
4
4. t dfri 3Tr4VT q *q2 T 1:M-4711311T MT' *PT 4. The figure given below is a plot of lines of force
9171 fer1 1:1fq§17T1 -TTEIT I fcr- aTT-471 (11 31)1 q21:1{ due to two Charges ql and q2. Figure out the
317111 *ITT : Sign of the two. Charges :
(1) cl ji1T trivi:w (1) both positive

(2) c :quilt-414) (2) both negative
(3) q1 Vitrird:TT 3fr{ q2 (3) q1 positive and q2 negative
(4) q2 irT 7211 qi ZTitritic (4) q2 negative and q1 positive
5. t x3t .{N( f TTT wr-ffr AT trrri-Frr*, 5. Two bulbs X and Y painted black and white
T-lr c)-ii .1(Q 37fr7rT Ttr respectively are filled with air and connected by
ITft u—q-L4 i x 4rT Y 147114 c•-cr4c.i*7TT a U tube partly filled with alcohol. What happens
Tc1T3P-ITI6lit( zrfq .1(-1I**-. -pt qc..* to levels of alcohol in the limbs X and Y When
zioT rcqf 774 774-47 74TNT /MT : an electric bulb placed mid way between the
bulbs is lighted :
p ctAAAtet,
titt,
(1) cll . X AT Y fffi:EFf ic.-1hc.-f 'iv it (1) The level of alcohol falls in both the limbs
(2) X if 7TOTT 7q'f-T Y > iqa (2) The level of alcohol in limb X rises while that
in limb Y falls
(3) X 14' IEF -71*Tf 7r4rn (3) The level of alcohol in limb X falls while that
in Y rises
(4) sill' folz(TT c.-ch -c.R 3T -T (4) There is no change in the levels of alcohol in
trtrl the two limbs
5
6. oqra.cf fwIt A-i* tfrf7* R 1=41 -0 6. A person is suffering from some sight problem.
t)71:1 -kq tIT : From the given diagram say which defect he
suffers from ?
(1) fiWa '411 (1) Myopia
(2) 7 irt. (2) Hyper metropia
(3) Tlf7T1 (3) Cataract
(4) -crfFaTt (4) Astig matism
7. Iti-t4H4 MT 14 t -t A 3T1T B fITFITIP-11 t 7. V-F graph of two vehicles A and B starting at the
I f- 1.1 14 cb)-f-Trr 41* ? same time from rest is given as under. Which of
the following statements can be deduced from
the graph as correct ?
4 4
(1) atetB *rai6.1A* 47 74 217T (1) Velocity of B is higher than that of A.

(2) A t clot B caof -qicf (2) Acceleration of A is higher than that of B.
(3) B fT ccRut A*- cater :T17T* (3) Acceleration of B is higher than that of A.
(4) A cak t B 37etaTT -1-4 7 (4) Acceleration of A is increasing at a slower
rate than that of B.
6
8. irsoci,NS 1114 ri1 3T4T 31'77 TUT 8. A magnet NS is placed along the axis of a circular
34-fildri T---
M1 14 7 Ftl1t Amt ; o1 -1:1
.w:L-- coil. The magnet is moved away from the coil.
Tlfm icrvi WI* : The induced current in the coil is :
14-
(1) Zero
(2) Clockwise
(3) Anti-clockwise
(4) None of these
9. 3T9T047 tifffW 'Aril X ftliT-frt fidchltif 7:11* I 9. The uncharged Metallic Sphere X suspended as
trgrOTW 17 rtgtichic IT frit shown in figure. The Metallic sphere is given a
wiT917:1 cni-f-Tu ? push so that it moves towards the +ve plate.
Which of the following statement is correct ?
••••
4- 4-
4-
4-
ox OX
4-
4
(1) X .1-110-Ich t-Cle. -.1 111* 9-.1T ffftr*- quit (1) X touches the +ve plate and remains in
contact with it
(2) X 34)7 •31 u I Iclich 'Ora (2) X touches +ve plate and then moves towards
3T17 3fr( -qt tlITT negative plate and remains in contact with it
(3) X Pri-3W Tr4Z-.P* w1d ft-4T 3Trq4 chK4 (3) X moves to and fro between the two plates
cr)c-ir with a constant time period.
(4) X -M-3t17)-i.1"1:
J*1:Itzi 3T744 cw-r (4) X moves to and fro between the two plates
clo-t cmcir with an increasing time period.
7
10. 771 -AM 41-it 1.1 -tcci 4 (014-f f+71 f A 10. The variation of density of water with temperature
Fr.“ 7-rfir Trit is represented by the curve is
T —'
1
4 c-
N
ttAd.„.45,
11 eh -f—AT 14, 50-4-1 A jzik 41-01 f*-717 HI, 11. Which one of the following represents correct
if Tem f=41 -i1=1 fq-74 TF1* : path of a ray of light through a glass prism
"`)
8
12. 7-rf- 14-tact) NS Tteit aTi tirrff 7T4, A, 12. If a bar magnet accidently breaks up into two
B C 3117DfTit g4 m4,1 : parts. The polarity of ends A, B, C & D will be :
N \ • N \ •
• \--
.7 • •
C- C- -7?
(1) A, B p 79-TT c 3117 D fkruft p (1) A, B North poles, C, D South poles
(2) A, C B, D p (2) A, C North poles, B, D South poles
(3) A, B, C d14 p 72TID 7futri/ (3) A, B, C North poles, D South poles
(4) A dla p, D fk-TuTI p, B C T4*-77 (4) A North pole, D South pole. Polarity of B
fict 1-41441W tic:brit and C cannot be determined :
13 A.0 D.C. T1 Vftcfcicr 41( cool : 13. The device used to convert A.C. into D.C. is :
(1) 3TITITT
. (1) ammeter
(2) (2) galvanometer
(3) IT-
14T (3) rectifier
(4) (4) transformer
14. 7-7749171 '114-34 MTIkEzi cfC1 irr .r14 14. In the visible spectrum, the colour having shortest
wavelength is :
(1) iiM (1) Red
(2) tft91 (2) Yellow
(3) (3) Blue
(4) (4) Violet
15 -ill gi(ftifTh -4,

R4 : 15. The most intense man-made light source is :
(1) 1:1,t( (1) Laser
(2) Alliqf rziti (2) LED
(3) Tr+7 (3) Maser
(4) 117-Tt -qP9:1 (4) Mercury Vapour Lamp
16 f-17 ULM .T1 f-49-31W-09 3TRITITff : 16. The bill of Electric consumption is based on the
measurement of :
(1) f-
1-7 qr,-( (1) current
(2) fq-EJU (2) voltage
(3)arm (3) wattage
(4) 514 T1, (4) none of these

9
17. TiT91 TITRI *iienT 17. When a bucket full of water is drowned in water,
Wr4 cviclit I Vichr et)RIJI : its weight becomes less than before due to :
(1) /TA r q-icct (1) Density of water
(2) 3NclIel^r4' (2) Buoyancy force
(3) trr-1/ *I 74 (3) Pressure of water
(4) 'Tit *T Put- iomiler (4) Surface tension of water
18. HI chcl k 4R1 rchtien) caftci 9.6 cbqf 7T tichcii 18. Which of the following cannot be accelerated in
: a cyclotron :
(1) Proton
(2) a-particle
(3) Electron
(4) (4) Neutron
19. qT tr-crti 3Tirlf-dff Mchtqf 31fr
rif9i 711* fiT-ff4 19. A material that allows partial transmission of
Viii * I : incident light is called :
(1) 3r4--.91-1ch (1) Semi-permeable
(2) v.-Ns T-1( (2) Transducer
(3) liRcqici, (3) Transparent
(4) 3Tif7T* "Ilikcqicr) (4) Translucent
20. *14 * [cm.' * chRui, 4ficitTrt 4141 .1c16 ITT tai 20. Due to which of the following a shaving blade
Tr.ER AO( t6cli * : when placed gently on water floats ?
(1) Trdt 111c1 (1) Surface Tension
(2) ct(ricit (2) Viscosity
(3) *T4 * (3) Law of floatation
-t7 f fRZM
(4) 31T071 (4) Archimedes' Principle
21. ffit 7Tfq fart-fTrir (6,4 t, mvti chim*,fT : 21. The stars twinkle in the night, because :
(1) 3T-i
1-7ff 54111qf (1) Their emit light intermittently
(2) aril t ciiIiiusci era Nchlqf i 3T-leErcri (2) The star's atmosphere absorbs light
c.hot intermittently
(3) 72* Ti ailliusci 9U mci-ot i but (3) The earth's atmosphere absorbs light
lit 1* intermittently
(4) 6cif i 3T7-44T Alma-) cillicRuf T qcoof t6of (4) The refractive index of air in atmosphere
fluctuates
22. 'f*t wrri kri ATI* Mt, WiLi* 22. The velocity of particle moving with a uniform
*Pi f9',1*twAT 101-1T 6 cif * V = 2 — 3t + 4t2, speed changes with time according to the
T T Trft--TrrrzrTTTI 51.11 : relation V= 2 —3t + 4t2, then v-t graph of the particle
is a:
(1) X-3m k-114-11-clt 2 tai (1) straightline paralle to X-axis
(2) Y-3T -T * *41 .1§ti (2) a straightline parallel to Y-axis
(3) 4(iary4 (3) a parabola
(4) 7 (4) a circle

10
23. 31T*17 *9 5:111* I 547heht ehRur : 23. Small liquid drops are spherical in shape
because
(1) r444,1.3--sp:,( (1) of adhesion
(2) (2) of gravitational force
(3) r4k-w-br (3) of the atmospheric pressure from all sides
(4) ,T4 far t emu , -R-dt 111147 *Rut, 74rzi of the drop
-Eff-m (4) the liquid drops tend to have minimum
24, t #177 *4 .414#t TfTW •31111 surface area due to surface tension
t i ft 3 #177. *1 ,-41-f 24. When the same note is played on a sitar and a
Trw-dl : flute. The sound produced can be distinguished
(1) 3{1c11,7(* 4-ile_vei 414 IT * "TP-1-14. from each other because of the difference in :
(2) I1*- 11-79-r * 33-r4.1rr. 7i (1) Pitch, Loudness and quality
(3) writ * 311W "CF, (2) Pitch and Loudness
(4) ii*ri 3TRITT (3) Quality only
25. flziff de,31i *TC 44 T2Tri f-1777 (4) Loudness only

3. 4---f-diTq aiMt 4 4 f-177¢T 1 * 711 -et71 25. Distribution of electric power from one place to
71:w *To( : another is done of high A.C. (Alternating Current)
(1) fq-7 31,-10e-4 *t *Lt rnt t fMU Voltage, because :
(2) *14 T§r4 1-7 f-Trur

f- fMU (1) Wastage of electricity is minimised
(3) fatr 9111 (2) The distribution of power is economical
(4) 7171 11(11 Tfm (3) Stealing of electric wires is prevented
26. -7-q 'I-T-41 ate *t 45('* chluf 1:17 :101; t-14-11(1 ulf (4) It is safe to handle
149,74 f , 91 a *14rir,34,41 - #i* .se-41 : 26. When an object is placed between two mirrors
placed inclined to each other at an angle of 45',
(1) 3 No. of images formed are :
(2) 5 (1) 3
(3) 7 (2) 5
(4) giu -tai (3) 7

27. cs' .47-1 „41 t 31V1 (4) None of these
efei. eh : 27. Speed of sound is greater in solids than in liquids,
(1) e:sW>X 3T9 1-1<-111-171 "FEI 1-
117-2,1 51Cf because :
(2) -01* 347 7-7 ttn (1) The atoms in solids are regularly arranged
(3) 44-if .5r- f1T-P-41 ,i=f 5)11* (2) The atoms in liquids are loosely packed
(4) *I• (3) The solids have high elasticity
28. ehl+Iss( art fez r, /4r2.1 4-14-11-( (4) None of these

rt 1.7771 J1111 c)-if AL IN TR c.'eh+li-111, 28 A piece of paper and a cricket ball and dropped
simultaneously from the same height. They will
(1) t-11-11-1 strike the ground simultaneously, if they :
(2) 4-1111 % (1) have the same volume
(3) -4.-1(,4 % (2) have the same mass
(4) --t4f (3) have the same density

(4) are in vaccum
11
29. "5mt1t 'wt *TT 'W1:1-74-W14 6 If .7q UchIYI jzI(clf : 29. The speed of light will be minimum while passing
through :
(1) qiimf (1) Glass
(2) (2) Air
(3) IT** (3) Water
(4) ciciici (4) Vaccum
30. 74 71F tTI tq't ztic4 *, 30 A Red object when seen through a thick blue
: glass appears :
(1) 7T (1) Green
(2) 411-4 (2) Voilet
(3) enicir (3) Black
(4)1."O
- (4) Red
31. Tem 0-1-471 314)T1 *ra-r : 31. Electromagnatic Induction is used in :
(1) 41,1-11,-1dk (1) Galvanometer
(2) 7rEr Tri (2) Thermo couple
(3) fair (3) Generators
(4) (4) Voltmeter
32. w-Af ilt4Tut ft ri cwif : 32. The law of conservation of Energy states that :
(1) "77f 4K1 9%z (it (1) Energy can be created as well as destoryed
(2) i 4Kr -Te (2) Energy can be created but not
destroyed
(3) w7t X11 r *e fctitir ♦cbcir t, TsE (3) Energy cannot be created but can be
tienci * destroyed
(4) W4f tit PIA( 5t tacit * (4) Energy can neither be created nor
ebtir +obit destroyed
33 1:1 TrgiRi 1 ce4fet, 34 i 33. The bats are able to fly in dark since their wings
3t-t4^1 GI*) : produce
(1) wri .fftTY (1) Sound waves
(2) truvaft (2) Ultrasonic waves
(3) arlrwl 7t4 (3) Infra-red waves
(4) TM 4,111 feimq (4) Ultra voilet rays
34. zffc *T4 ogicrct 3.174 14 25 AA. 71 ZTt Pt 79 34. If a person can see on object clearly when it is
Tzriz -Ftt kt§i tic', *, -11 otifeid A7 -49 IfTru placed at 25 cm. away from him; he is suffering
: from :
(1) (1) myopia
(2) 7 (2) hyper metropia
(3) e..14 (3) astigmatism
(4) $14 lit (4) none of these
12
35. Tit wri r►d : 35. Choose the correct sequence :

(A) Ach►ki ct star (1) TiTtzfr{ zfi- a gibe. l< (A) Intensity of light (1) Properties of the
mediums
(B) SicbM WI 7.7 (2) tiitzig -wr aTITaeirw (B)' Colour of light (2) Refractive Index
of medium
(C) s► n► gi 471 (3) soniv 3Trzirq (C) Velocity of light (3) Amplitude of light
(D) 5(ct ► f iimRuf (4) sicrot 3.TrIfff (D) Propagation of light (4) Frequency of
light
(1) 2, 4, 1, 3 (1) 2, 4, 1, 3
(2) 3, 4, 2, 1 (2) 3, 4, 2, 1
(3) 3, 1, 2, 4 (3) 3, 1, 2, 4
(4) 4, 2, 3, 1 (4) 4, 2, 3, 1
36. iime4 acbf -E3Tr * .aNT 41'0 36. A Pond is covered with a layer of ice and the
cii4sto4 —30°C '4* k-irm external temperature is —30°C. The temperature
tift i i14gb4-1 *TIT : of water in contact with lower surface of ice is :
(1) 4°C (1) 4°C
(2) 0°C (2) 0°C
(3) —15°C (3) —15°C
(4) — 30°C (4) — 30°C
37. urn? T WM Wr vtqcir 1f an ,i( : 37. An air bubble in water will act like a :
(1) 31(4 44u1 (1) Convex Mirror
(2) 3T-
Iff9 TiuT (2) Concave Mirror
(3) driCi * t nth (3) Covex lens
(4) 3T-479 *4 ci (4) Concave lens
38. 1414 Trrrf 4 74 114/ 3TT-Td moil : 38. A vehicle moving on a circular path experiences :
(1) Ascc( (1) Inertia
(2) 344{4 (2) Centripetal force
(3) 11m171-4 (3) Gravitational pull of Earth
(4) 3Ttk'tzt (4) Centrifugal force
39. 3117RT1 t7T -1101 kgrdf 0. ►114) : 39. The colour of the sky looks blue because :
(1) 34j7FIN cr ► q9T Mar (1) Sky is made up of blue colour particles
(2) AA -t77 3Tfir-*- 6141 (2) Blue colour is of longer wave length
(3) TO Mch► Yr 41of tTT 3TRTT 311ITt (3) Blue colour is more prominent in Sunlight
(4) -ilor trr Tzr fftrrk1;4 et►mr f- rwr -wtrt (4) Blue colour of light is of shorter wave length
qrTET a.)0 34rTrrt sonlui-f so easily scattered by dust particles and
1 water vapour
40 -wr T*7 Tir91 ,4t frr7r14 4 ftT Mt 17-4 .sitt 40. An ice cube is floating in a glass of water. How
F-Riocif *, al fTFMR:1 14 ITT-11 -R17 chN SOW will the water level in the glass be affected when
33-1Tflff 61ir -0> : the ice cube melts ?
(1) 4111 -RR Altir (1) It will rise
(2) IT ft "RR (2) It will go down
(3) mil? -RR 7iird Te 6 of t (3) It will remain unchanged
(4) .51414 Thft T11{ 3T)7 qic T fr.{ (4) It would first go up later on it will go down
Part-II
TTITER 1-4014
CHEMISTRY
41. *14 7171 7T4 7T riqr f*"17* 41. KE (Kinetic Energy) of molecules in gases is
wrr-frra/ -e-d/ ? directly proportional to :
(1) Temperature
(2) Pressure
(3) Temperature & Pressure
(4) Atmospheric Pressure
42. Which of the following is not an endothermic

process ?
(1) Fusion
(2) Transpiration
(3) Respiration
(4) Sublimation
43. Bose-Einstein Condensate have :
(1) -crW srfmt 14.* l(r4" * Ttl vIchi .*1 (1) Ability to be used as model black-hole
*Firm
(2) Itci 3if I14HI-1 147 3i5TrM (2) Existence at very high temperature
(3) .77-4zF- '717171 (3) Isolated gaseous atoms
(4) 37c- d),Tif (4) High Kinetic Energy
44. 74 500 fgf.91. 72-17"cr" c (q,kg) 500 fl4:91. 791 44. When 500 ML. ethylalcohol (pure) is mixed in 500
(74) T 117FR 7rar *, al fl4sAur 3171-dff trn : ML. Water (pure), the volume of the mixture will
be :
(1) 1.04T. (1) 1.0 L
(2) 1.0 74 wrf (2) Less than 1.0 L
(3) aTiTINTTifzi (3) Immiscible
(4) 1.0 74 37fw (4) More than 1.0 L
13
14
45. 7974 lit c -I 3¢ Tri

o ART 3T7TT "9t rchqt 7T will( 45. Which of the following cannot be separated by
? sublimation ?
(1) 3Trzileff Tittirm 7rrw (1) Iodine and common salt
(2) 377ktti3TI:e9711:1 cPC1 (1$5 (2) Iodine and Ammonium chloride
(3) .4,4( 7-4 Tritutrr9Trw (3) Camphor and common salt
*Tiel*-9 t-ff 14) Naphthalene and sand
46. en)-1-741 Tre ? 46. Which of the following statement is not correct
(1) 'crW ch rliss fang-f *T dc161* I (1) Milk is an example colloidal solution
(2)*Nrct fIMF 7-cff,m f* (2) Colloidal solution shows electro phoresis
(3) ch'Imiss1 f1774-a fz:NTIT I (3) colloidal solution is homogeneous mixture
(4) 34ITT71 f;Lusrl Airq * cf114(11 41r-tr f-TUIT (4) Sky is blue due to Tyndall effect.
47. f*-71f1P-4 7f1 41,4t ,i-04151 317 Hirt ,-,415.1* #(371 *I 47. A mixture of blue ink and red ink can be separated
31"-Mr fcbqf 4L-Ichof * ? by :
(1) aluilemur (1) evaporation
17
(2) 3M- (2) distillation
(3) sb.1‘ (3) Chromatography
(4) alp a1RT-

19 (4) Steam distillation
48. TIlif crl-f 1144-i1-i tit *1 5111 48. Which of them is solid at room temperature but
Tirffl 11 stair ? becomes liquid in the palm ?
(1) Hg (1) Hg
(2) Na (2) Na
(3) Mg (3) Mg
(4) Ga (4) Ga
49. fie1H-f 41 12 14 4->1-1 Tft 9-4r1 -1-Tfr-stm r;p41 ? 49 Which metal is present in Vit-B12 7
(1) Fe (1) Fe
(2) Mg (2) Mg
(3) Co (3) Co
(4) Mn (4) Mn
so. e.J14-'..-1 7,117 ++4-.-1 511T Ft : 50. Chemical symbol of metal tungusten is :
(1) W (1) W
(2) Xe (2) Xe
(3) Y (3) Y
(4) Zr (4) Zr
I5
51. tF-1:11 '47W cm ? 51 Which polymer is biodegradable ?
(1) H D P (1) HD P
(2) LDP (2) LDP
(3) PVC (3) PVC
(4) P L A (4) P L A
52. rzt1 (NH2CONH2) -ii.,1,31-1•Wt 31fT4rTff trdT* : 52. Percentage of nitrogen in urea (NH2CONH3 ) is
(1) 23.3% (1) 23.3%
(2) 46.7% (2) 46.7%
(3) 69.9% (3) 69.9%
(4) 11.66% (4) 11.66%
53. cri +-7,11 i •rn' -11 ,71-1* ,V1^4 ? 53. Which does not equal to 1 mole of nitrogen gas ?
(1) STP TR N2 WI 22.4 -91. (1) 22.4 L of N2 at STP
(2) -11*, 28 171:1 (2) 28 g of nitrogen
(3) 6.022 x 1023 "cm :r9 (3) 6.022 x 1023 nitrogen atoms
(4) STP 1:17 N2 Wr 22400 #.71. (4) 22400 c.c. of N2 at STP
54. 4f-7T t-ictifW “5c-11 ? 54. Which one has highest calorific value ?
(1) CNG (1) CNG
(2) LPG (2) LPG
(3) H2-gas (3) H2-gas
(4) PNG (4) PNG
55. Tp,1 7tif fry ABC sit ? 55. Which one of the following is used for artificial rains
(1) Ag 1 (1) Ag 1
(2) Na CI 2) Na CI
(3) CaCo3 (3) CaCo3
(4) CaCl2 (4) CaCl2

16
56. cim Tri"•)' 56. Choose the incorrect pair :
(1) NO-317 34f-qTrrs (1) NO—Neutral oxide
(2) C1207-3TI:Fhl 3#W4T7A. (2) CI207—Acidic oxide
(3) MgO—witzi 3ff-477g' (3) MgO—Basic Oxide
(4) P4010—vrftzr 3T-11,gr5 (4) P40„— Basic Oxide
57. 4P.-f #L-

07T-41 ? 57. What is cetane number ?
(1) 79 Mc Ut HILC "1-1:rr9-r (1) Parameter to measure water pollution
(2) r73 yrour 4-1144 r iriNT (2) Parameter to measure air pollution
(3) s ‘gri driLicif Hi44 (3) Parameter to measure quality of diesel
(4) CNG dr14-011 .Ti 4-114 (4) Parameter to measure quality of CNG
58. 32 amu «Alf : 58. 32 amu of He contains
(1) 6 fr14444 1171:17* 8 1-11r1 (1) 8 moles of He-atoms
(2) t; m444 8 TR-rrrul (2) 8 atoms of He
(3) 611 cli444 8 x 6.022 x 102319 (3) 8 x 6.022 x 1023 atoms of He
(4) 16 3-7 (4) 16 molecules
59. t 'X' TrTPT9 2.65 x 10-23 59. The mass of single atom of an element 'X' is
1714 I 'X' WI 7139 e.e4.-114 -74 771 f : 2.65 x 10 23 g. The atomic mass and name of the
element 'X' is :
(1) 16 pt, 3TTER1179. (1) 16 IA, Oxygen
(2) 32 p, iirtht (2) 32 p, sulphur
(3) 14 1.1, (3) 14 id„ nitrogen
(4) 18 IA, 1:F019 (4) 18 i..1„ Fluorine
60. TEL f'crit4 97:01 6Y11* ? 60. TEL is used as :
(1) 4, 1 dLIciltur (1) Telephonic device
(2) Tch-z*fi• (2) Antiknock agent
(3) 761T (3) Medicine
(4) (gisiTtTUw (4) Food preservative

17
61. chi-MI 3T1*4 t ? 61. Which is acidic in nature ?
(1) NaOH (1) NaOH
(2) Mg (OH)2 (2) Mg (OH)2
(3) B(OH)3 (3) B(OH)3
(4) Al (OH)3 (4) Al (OH)3
62. *14 4r Trqffitw wseir TR-41-9 «.ctr ? 62. Which of the following contains maximum number
of atoms ?
(1) 1 771 CO2 (1) 1 g Co2
(2) 1 "um N2 (2) 1 g N2
(3) 1 311:1 02 (3) 1 g 02
(4) 1 TT CH4 (4) 1 g
63. cl-(1 rchHchf 31-MzR ? 63. Galena is an ore of :
(1) OW (1) Copper
(2) At-cif (2) Zinc
(3) .7117 (3) Lead
(4) (4) Gallium
64. 714r9 4 tul girl rrfr t f*-44 ? 64. Who discovered the nucleus found in atom ?
(1) (1) J.J. Thomson
(2) , e-st.e:1.-f (2) Goldstein
(3)igfeiw (3) Chadwick
(4) 77 Thlt (4) Rutherford
65. 23 73:1 isq+4 NM 14 t-itsqr qzif ? 65. Number of neutrons in 23 g sodium metal is
(1) 72.264 x 1023 (1) 72.264 x 1023
(2) 6.022 x 1023 (2) 6.022 X 1 023
(3) 12 (3) 12
(4) 11 (4) 11
66. -7rItif3-zil cr) c-f ? 66. Which cell is used in wrist watches :
(1) 4-11-frfttlrr (1) Leclanche cell
(2) TFT-# t1M (2) Mercury cell
(3) t\f-9-zrt1 i (3) Daniel cell
(4) 7117-7:frz (4) Lead storage battery
S/79 DTH/12-2A
18
67. ficf (lag, if 4f-A tig 41e4 ? 67. Metal present in chloroplast is :
(1) ci 61 (1) Iron
(2) cliql (2) Copper
(3) X1.1 Ni 14 (3) Magnesium
(4) .1-4TR (4) Cobalt
68. " airOlati " 77:1 ch ? 68. Which pair is of isotones :
1 2 1 2
(1) H H (1) H and "
3 3 3
(2) 2 He
H74 3 (2) H and He
1 2
3 4 3 4
(3) 2 He 74 2 He (3) He and He
2 2
4 3 4
(4) 3 H 74 2 He (4) H and He
1 2
69. =11 -1-T1T 3iT*7 ? 69. Which is incorrect order of size ?
(1) Na > Na + (1) Na > Na +
(2) Na' > Mg2 * (2) Na' > Mg2 +
(3) CI > CI (3) CI > Cl
-
(4) F > 20 (4) 2
0
70. 'A' iccf MR 93117Ti , 9 TA

- -dr,R 3fr{ 10J19 id 70. 'A' element has 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10
"71-1:1711 I 'B' c1c * 1:17:1 12 Tel , 12 -7A-4rT9
, 37.{ neutrons, per atom 'B' element has 12 protons,
12 '7019 AId 1171:175 I 'A' 74 IV 41,4 ,s1-14 afrl 12 electrons and 12 neutrons per atom. Formula
7:11fTrw ITT ? of compound between 'A' and 'B' will be :
(1) BA2 (1) BA2
(2) AB2 (2) AB2
(3) B2A3 (3) B2A3
(4) A2B3 (4) A2B3

S/79 DTH/12-2B
19
71. tioq -NI TIT "wa '41" :EfT ? 71. Chemically the "water gas" is :
(1) H20(44440 (1) H2O (gaseous)
(2) CO2 + H2 (2) CO2 + H2
(3) CH4 + H2O (3) CH, + H2O
(4) CO + H2 (4) CO + H2
72. * * fm7 72. Which chemical is mixed in LPG to detect its

fl7Frzrr Trffr t ? leakage ?
(1) H2S ( zig tic-koi*s) (1) H2S (Hydrogen sulphide)
(2) Iii cTR*4i (2) Ethylmercaptan
(3) tirktit Mf 37-47417s (3) Sulphur dioxide
(4) ATM "All (4) Biogas
73. *Etiut * TE-4:gR 14 -f-TrT Trf-grff Fcbqt 73. Which chemical is blended in butter for
7r-di ? preservation ?
(1) tilfstii-i 4417 (1) Sodium benzoate
(2) *.'cr-4. (2) B H A
(3) icie.tri-i-i-Tft (3) Vitamin-C
(4) til184ru frz(tZ (4) Sodium stearate
74. Fem-i Trmilli 1-) ,31 sir ? 74. The energy of an electron is an atom is :
(1) fl cr :t.°110-(ch (1) Always negative
(2) tied' (2) Always positive
(3) 44 qk-q (3) Always zero
(4) 3r17)-4ff Tfift (4) All of the above
75. 414 t 1 4Tr4 : 75. Given below are two statements
(a) 1:(fwzi tTiq 3711479 31filfwzrr tirf- (a) Reactive metals react with oxygen forming
37-4Trr-$-g I metallic oxide
(b) tlifffT 341-4Tir0 7z(i-irq aitzT i s * I (b) Metallic oxides are basic in nature :
Trt fq-WFI : Choose correct option :
(1) W-Ti(a)74(b)1Tet I (1) Statements (a) and (b) are correct
(2) Weri (a) "cr4 (b) tI (2) Statements (a) and (b) are incorrect
(3) WaTi (a) 41 t 3fr( (b) floc! (3) Statement (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect
(4) 9-.19 (a) liod t 3f (b) (4) Statement (a) is incorrect and (b) is correct
20
76. 9 fffil-W4 aryl iglif 6i-11 airlq-4914 cm4 qurw 76. In non-sticky cookares, which polymer is
Iwt ? coated ?
(1) 1:R7rR (1) Teflon
(2) CFC (2) CFC
(3) PVC (3) PVC
(4) LDP (4) LDP
77. ch -1-7TT TE-6T tiyclitici 79 4-11* ? 77. Which polymer is used as synthetic wool ?
(1) 4.11-r (1) Rayon
(2) -ticii-f-66 (2) Nylon-66
(3) O'Shkich q-q-ffW (3) Acrylic polymer
41w
(4) -4- (4) Melmac polymer
78. *-1 • ch -I-TIT 7W *4- emu' 9-e* ? 78. Which is not a biodegradable polymer ?
(1) PH BV (1) PH BV
(2) HDP (2) HDP
(3) PLA (3) PLA
(4) PGA (4) PGA
79. -11of E1RIT 4 ttkiig lct) 1:7 WIT it ? 79. The chemical formula of blue vitriol is :
(1) Na2SO4.10 H20 (1) Na2SO4.10 H20
(2) ZnSO4.7 H2. (2) ZnSO4.7 H2.
(3) FeSO4.7 H2. (3) FeSO4.7 H2.
(4) CuS 04.5H20 (4) CuS 04.5H20
80. 714 14 ch cf-) .Te ? 80. Which of the followoing is not a fossil fuel ?
(1) LPG (1) LPG
(2) PNG (2) PNG
(3) TNG (3) TNG
(4) CNG (4) CNG

21
amt-III Part-III
zi Broth
BIOLOGY
81. fg:Tf5fR H*9M1 Tktiff1 : 81. In composite Fish Culture :
(1) liwt #Eitiff ETT9 Tan fir war (1) Fish culture is done with a rice crop
(2) "WA Ala (2) Two species of fish are selected
(3) 5 - 6 TWA tAbil4 TiT 71U1 f''3,-i • (3) 5 - 6 Fish species are selected which do not
aum *1- ifiR-qvi compete for food
(4) Titwt -4 Tgi (4) None of the above
82. cc 3Ctilc-1 .*--1 wart ch6 : 82. Increase in oil production is called :
(1) Iztni sh r-cf (1) Golden revolution
(2) th gni -ct (2) Yellow revolution
(3) w c c4,1 -ct (3) White revolution
(4) -11 41 sr) iF cf (4) Blue revolution
83. 1 ch qta.)1 zrfc f4-07I7 kt.q TR Th:9 All *, 83. A cell placed in a solution swells up. The solution
f497:9 : is :
(1) Hypotonic
(2) Hypertonic
(3) Isotonic
(4) Both (1) and (2)
84. Which of the following is a mismatch :
(1) ATRITft (TL1 -47) — ,,K rot (1) Leprosy — Bacteria
(2) wr — c)cte. (gT (2) AIDS — Bacteria
(3) 1:0f7TT — TIlatqlair (3) Malaria — Protozoa
(4) `.t,10(41c( (glql tff4) — AT1-agi (4) Elephantiasis — Namatode

22
85. Health is a state of :
(1) Physically well
(2) Mentally well
(3) Socially well
(4) All the above
86. Which one is not a infectious desease :
(1) common cold
(2) Tuberculosis
(3) Cancer
(4) Cholera
87. "t" fshqf s3R♦ r 39 au' cum 4s(J14-4 f1- 17u 87. The process in which water molecules moves from
amt c fi=r 7F T1 k.ficor 3117 70 a high water concentration to a region of low water
concentration through a semi-permeable
membrane is known as :
(1) LRK.Hut (1) Osmosis
L♦ -1
(2) am c■ (2) Transpiration
(3) femur (3) Diffusion
(4) 3tn*> :-t Te (4) None of the above
88. ATT crAichr s?,tir* 1.314 aTr-o:Frrt 4--o : 88. Cell organell known as suicide bags :
(1) Tit* .34chtut (1) Golgi apparatus
(2) telfizz (2) Plastid
(3) 317M `31t irt (3) Endoplasmi reticulum
(4)l'iTtlIATT (4) Lysosome
89. mi*d chr .1711 a,d 3T 7V 347r** azirEF : 89. Mitochondria are strange organelles as they have
their own :
(1) Nucleus
(2) DNA
(3) Ribosome
(4) (2) and (3) both

23
90. -F-P.T d 14 t i--Trt fer,1741-dw : 90. Which one is not a meristematic tissue :
(1)*4w ferquql-erw (1) Apical meristem
(2) tk7ri (2) Phloem
(3) caditri-r (3) Cambium
(4) afeitz f413*dw (4) Intercalary meristem
91. 'F-417.114 74 al-f-1:11 dlcich : 91. Which one is not a tissue :
(1) 7171 (1) Blood
(2) "Oft (2) Muscle
(3) cg-ch (3) Nucleus
(4) slii*cii-f (4) Xylem
92. cqi 14M 111-1 ct : 92. Label the part :
(1) Dendrite
(2) Nerve ending
(3) Cell body
(4) Axon
93. Starfish belongs to phylum :
(1) Mollusca
(2) Coelenterate
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Echinodermata
"2 4
94. 7011-2, Tfrofo* : 94. Ulothrix belongs to
(1) 0- 07FT-0 (1) Thallophyta
(2) 311:11-41 (2) Amoeba
(3) .;11414bidr (3) Bryophyta
(4) 314 iiact 71 A a-)) (4) None of the above
95. 14-1411,41 : 95. Plants with naked seeds are found in :
(1) IN (1) Bryophyta
(2) (2) Gymnosperm
(3) Q, •=v-i (3) Angiosperm
(4) t5 (4) Pteridophyta
96. sto4-1 t-r q4 : 96 Chromosomes are made up of
(1) DNA (1) DNA
(2) -41-7. (2) Protein
(3) DNA'2TT yla -r (3) DNA and Protein
(4) RNA (4) RNA
97. cbstt Ats 1* : 97. Tendon is a structure which connects
(1) 3Ti-T-4 af-T-P-T A (1) Bone with bone
(2) 1-11.i-1 3317-2114 (2) Muscle with bone
(3) cf ,T (3) Nerve with muscle
(4) Hiqi A (4) Muscle with muscle
98. fir u 14 er) .11,4 37Frat .11* : 98 Who is not a cold blooded animal
(1) ..13iT (1) Turtle
(2) ,--41-1 tics (2) Bat
(3) uiq (3) Snake
(4) {iv-laic-4 (4) Lizard

99. t1:1 : 99. Neem tree is
(1) cinch ',I/NT (1) Annual
(2) fgatMen TT (2) Binneal
(3) Tir-1 (3) Shrub
(4) wprilmr 1:11T (4) Perrineal
100. mtivi4?7)*wir17-4:1i : 100. Mammals who do not give birth to young ones
(1) •f"+-
4-9T (1) Echidna
(2) iitriics (2) Bat
(3) VT (3) Rat
(4) f4
--1 (4) Cat
101. i7TfT*- BTU TrZt Ti 1;177 c>t4 101. System of Scientific naming includes
(1) all airt (1) Phylum and genus
(2) WiTi4 3 lqt (2) Class and species
(3) z,1-H4 31( (3) Genus and species
(4) ssit-ii4 4rT aritzr (4) Genus and class
102. trfff4f > litTi itil*M,TR ITT* d* Irt9T4

' 102. The process of carrying food from leaves to other
ustii-r*t : parts of a plant is called :
(1) 1itkildcH,31-1 (1) Transpiration

•,
(2) (2) Translocation
(3) (3) Transpertation
(4) (4) Transformation
103. 3Tarqs14 tifi,Acf itirt : 103. In anaerobic respiration pyruvate is converted into :
(1) 't•t9t• (1) ethanol
(2) CO2 (2) CO2
(3) 711ftT 7rTg (3) acetic acid
(4) cj1icre.er) .14: (4) lactic acid
104. Icich f : 104. Filteration unit of kidney is :
(1) IMTFTRI (1) uretor
(2) 1Fritif (2) urethra
(3) #-Tt (3) neuron
(4) .41-1 (c in) (4) nephron

26
105. cto) act -14-44-d *: 105. Cochlea is related to :
(1) (1) ear
(2) n (2) nose
(3) (3) tongue
(4) afiTa (4) eye
106. ltrizw TTT slat : 106. Peptic ulcer is caused by :
(1) Sri (let t (1) Helicobacter pylori
(2) (2) Trypanosoma
(3) 44-itri (3) Staphylococci
(4) 3titr*t ")'t9 (4) None of the above
107. fTPI > -4 *i-Trr -1)44 TP-Fr* *? 107. Which of the following is gaseous fumigant ?
(1) DDT (1) DDT
(2) fl2-ti *tro (2) methyl bromide
(3) i;ciistrieitt 9)Itt-ms (3) aluminium phosphide
(4) pfttei stvkilti5s (4) ethylene dichloride
108. -417 Ti Zig. %TM 3T t41 trvarq 7•- tifreffkff 108. The part of seed which grows into root on
germination :
(1) cotyledon
(2) Plumule
(3) radicle
(4) none of the above
109. Theory of Natural Selection is given by :
(1) Mendel
(2) Lamark
(3) Newton
(4) Darwin
27
110. 31TIFtW 1:11:11t191 TfaR1 (04 * fff73( R's 7:1 110. The three R's which can help to conserve natural
mcbit : resources
(1) 139: 5'1, yrooc-r, Ti:dkre4lit (1) recycle, regenerate, reuse
(2) 411-iirt 4441, 7:140.011, 7:311(4 (2) reduce, recycle, reuse
(3) 340 II, 7:34 7:374-ci (3) reduce, reuse, redistribute
(4) Ai* (1) 31)-{ (2) (4) Both (1) and (2)
111. * TR 3r4fti * fff ttk f, ch0* : 111. The diseases last for only very short period of
time is known as :
(1) celticr-ormen (1) chronic disease
(2) th-g tri (2) acute disease
(3) 4-st)144cil (3) Infectious disease
(4) 71:Ri--4?r 74 ail 16 . (4) None of the above
112. tril **7 Igt 112. The animals carrying the infecting agents from a
yid , 3-4 c$, : sick person to other are called :
(1) t (1) Vector
(2) trrA-311 (2) Parasite
(3) 4W (3) host
(4) Hsto-iur (4) Infection
113. Ufa 30-0c ilt1711 *1 611 : 113. Causing storage losses to agricultural produce :
(1) 01z (1) Insects
(2) *a* (2) Rodents
(3) fit (3) Mites
(4) di-4111:11ft (4) All the above
114. ARTY -1,4)tuf fqfN 7trzn.ri : 114. In Plant Hybridisation crossing is done between
(1) 3ffftlf*71frzr (1) Intervarietal
(2) 31:T7474717 (2) Interspecific
(3) 3f-d-Trqvitzr (3) Intergeneric
(4) 30wr Tri-ft (4) All the above

28
115. fi-i=r4 71414 Tilqw -ffm t ? 115. Which of the following is a micronutrient ?
(1) -1-11,4.1 (1) Nitrogen
(2) 4)Ri-0 et-{ (2) Phosphorus
(3) 1114( (3) Copper
(4) (-4c-im (4) Sulphur
116. chi-lciR 14 -14.11 ssl chi shi4 3TFITT fdfiT9 116. Growing of different crops on a piece of land in a
cif din4 1 41sct > : pre-planned succession is known as :
(1) af-durn—g91-*-71 (1) Inter cropping
(2) 77:r9 (2) Crop rotation
(3) -4-+-Tu1 (3) Hybridisation
(4) 34ZI4cf Tl TI cni (4) None of the above
117. f9-/f > 14 T 1117 13t-1 *14 : 117. One of the following is a green House gas :
(1) CO2 (1) CO2
(2) N2 (2) N2
(3) 02 (3) 02
(4) H2 (4) H2
118. -11:1z1-1 cre. f9-1T 118. In Nitrogen cycle which bacteria is responsible
: for nitrification :
(1) (1 ,3t '114 (1) Rhizobium
(2) cfril Sq+4 (2) Clostridium
(3) eri-f 4-11-11(4 (3) Nitrosomonas
(4) dWicki 14 (4) None of the above
119. c.:1,w4 14)Hci;t1--*-7:14 ? 119. Leghorn is a improved variety of :
(1) TR-591 (1) Fish
(2) TI rq (2) Cow
(3) g (3) Sheep
(4) iTiT (4) Fowl
120. frt *1 cr■

-f Fft rf 14F-1;51 ? 120. Which of the following is a rock bee ?
(1) •kfrri:i 51“--16 (1) Apis dorsata
(2) itfti74 fUi1 (2) Apis cerana
(3) trfill:Fit (3) Apis florae
(4) "crfiPzi (4) Apis mellifera

29
Part-IV
irfura
MATHEMATICS
6 6
121. 3.\/ 2„,./d - 3.h- a Vd t, t a w 17i 121 If 1̀k a`fe , then the value of
. 3Y - 2,/id
If : a is :
(1) f (1)
(2) - (2) -
(3) (3) 2Vd
(4) - 2.fd (4) -2f
122. (x + y) 1 (x' + y') Tir-q 122. Value of (x + y)-1 (x-1 + y-1) is :
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) (x + y) 2 (2) (x + y)'
(3) x' y 1 (3) x-1 y-1
(4) (xy)' (x + y) 1 (4) (xy) 1 (x + y)-1
23 f9f 14 *I i1 x gtfe-P 123. Which of the following is equal to x ?
(1) x17.1 - xl (1) ji -xf
L] 7
(2) x x" (2) x x
(3) 1 V(x 4 ) 3 (3) 1V(x 4 )%3
(4) (N/j)1 (4) (Nr-

(4)1
30
i24. 3Tr*:rff 14 AB mTi CD f-4

- OtrT 124. In the figure, AB and CD intersect at 0. The value
xTrzuffi'l of x is :
(1) 32 (1) 32
(2) 42 (2) 42
(3) 48 (3) 48
(4) 96 (4) 96
125. 3trfft A. AB = BD 2-TT AD = DC •g, 125. In the figure, AB = BD and AD = DC, then
ZBAC : ACB -Orr ZBAC : ZACB is :
A A
(1) 1 : 2 (1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1 (2) 2:1
(3) 1 : 3 (3) 1 :3
(4) 3 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
126. 60 m tifTiTti curl 71:1-4T fq3j7 4-1

1:6- e)111 I 126. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 60 m.
Its area will be :
(1) 61
3-- m2 (1) 5-\rd m2
(2) 25Z m2 (2) 25../d m2
(3) 101:0 m2 (3) 100,fd m2
(4) 200E m2 (4) 200/3- m2

31
43
127. 13 cm 13- 10 cm tqwtri aryl Trr:r9747 127. Area of a rhombus whose one side is 13 cm and
,11 : one of the diagonals is 10 cm is
(1) 36 cm2 (1) 36 cm2
(2) 52 cm2 (2) 52 cm2
(3) 60 cm2 (3) 60 cm2
(4) 120 cm2 (4) 120 cm2
128. ABCDE,-“:3izfr 3T7rfu wit tf7iF 128. A B C D E is a pentagon inscribed in a circle with
zABC + LCDE istm : centre 0. LABC + LODE will be :
(1) 108° (1) 108°
(2) 180° (2) 180°
(3) 270° (3) 270°
(4) 360° (4) 360°
129. olgirchci vim : 129. Area of the shaded region is
(1) 154 cm2 (1) 154 cm2
(2) 231 cm2 (2) 231 cm2
(3) 462 cm2 (3) 462 cm2
(4) 616 cm2 (4) 616 cm2
130. 9crn9r - 74* ,11('T'911, 12cm1FT*Ti 130. Square pieces of side 2 cm are cut off from each
f+-9-R1 - 1 di4( 3117 -4-4--*-7 corner of a square sheet of side 9 cm. The flaps
4Trwr 3Trzr-d9 61iir :
•crT 7-ff► ftrTirf- of the sheet so formed are folded to form an open
box. The volume of the box is :
(1) 20 cm3 (1) 20 cm3
(2) 28 cm3 (2) 28 cm3
(3) 50 cm3 (3) 50 cm3
(4) 98 cm3 (4) 98 cm3

32
( 1 1 3 1
131. qfc a+--3, + zrri )11 : 131 If the value of a + will be
\ a) a a
(1) 0
(2) — 2.13
(3) 3.id
(4) 6.fd
132. qk ax3 + 4x2 + 3x - 4 TT x3 - 4x + a *1 132. If the polynomials ax3 + 4x2 + 3x-4 and x3 - 4x + a
x - 3, fq14r7i7 on(4 iihiLlirf 3371*, 71 a leave the same remainder when divided by x - 3,
1717 : then the value of a is :
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) - 1 (2) - 1
19 19
(3) 14.
-5 -5
(4) -
14 (4)
14
133. q'Tf PQRS u -71fc P(1, 0), Q (4 0) 'fftIT S(1, 3) f1, 133 In a square PQRS, if P(1, 0), Q (4, 0) and S(1, 3),
•al kfri R 71.-11 then the coordinates of point R will be :
(1) (4, 1) (1) (4, 1)

(2) (4, 4) (2) (4, 4)
(3) (3, 4) (3) (3. 4)
(4) (4, 3) (4) (4, 3)
134. 3Trt-FR k-s 0 77 *, ZTRQ pir : 134. In the figure, if 0 is the centre of the circle, then
ZTRQ is :
(1) 25° (1) 25"

(2) 35° (2) 35°
(3) 45° (3) 45°
(4) 70° (4) 70°
33
135. 7*- fiVITTT t4 * f+-4TTY TTTTT 50 cm, 120 cm 135. The edges of a triangular board are 50 cm,
MIT 130 cm *1 900 T.';Ifffrn -c-{1:4p41:17 120 cm and 130 cm. The cost of painting it at the
4,0 1:1R "&:ITI *ITT : rate of Rs. 900 per m2 is
(1) Rs.27 (1) Rs.27
(2) Rs. 270 (2) Rs. 270
(3) Rs. 540 (3) Rs. 540
(4) Rs. 27000 (4) Rs. 27000
136. *NT 18 1414 *: 136. Mean of all the factors of 18 is :
(1) 4.25 (1) 4.25
(2) 5.0 (2) 5.0
(3) 6.5 (3) 6.5
(4) 7.6 (4) 7.6
137. 3Trtfd> f'q l0 ."1 *, x trr9 137. In the figure, if 0 is the centre of the circle, then
*IT : value of x is
(1) 15 (1) 15
(2) 30 (2) 30
(3) 45 (3) 45
(4) 60 (4) 60
13S. f-77it f=4 x y .4 71 TTPT: 5 T'iT 138. The distances of a point from the x-axis and the
4 % I 7.71 ki-71 * f-It7ifT %WI : y-axis are 5 and 4 respectively. The coordinates
of the point can be :
(1) (5, 4) (1) (5, 4)
(2) (5, 0) (2) (5.0)
(3) (0, 4) (3) (0.4)
(4) (4 5) (4) (4 5)
S/79 D TH/12-3
34
139. t 31TErdi 39xim 125 : 64 s 13114 Ira 139. Volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 125 : 64.
4-1Em arfifil ITTT : The ratio of their surface areas will be :
(1) 5 : 4 (1) 5 : 4
(2) 25 : 16 (2) 25 : 16
(3) 16 : 25 (3) 16 : 25
(4) 125 : 64 (4) 125 : 64
140. 3Trffff PS, LP 1 k16410Ttf-A

- -1 1 PQ, 140. In the figure,PS bsects LP. PQ, QS and SR in
QS SR 3TTM Wri 5'1111 : ascending order are :
(1) QS, PQ, SR (1) QS, PQ, SR
(2) QS, SR, PO (2) QS, SR, PQ
(3) PQ, QS, SR (3) PQ, QS, SR
(4) SR, PQ, QS (4) SR, PQ, QS
141. f-4711 1:171q1 9T4 k cisres-.411* *fa 37: stoiqt: 141. The mean marks of boys and girls in an
60 AT 65 I Tifc f4t1Tikil 3tA 3M 62 examination are 60 and 65 respectively. If the
3f1i cisrcnqi WI 4<acit TT 39117 : mean marks of all the students in that examination
is 62, then the ratio of the number of boys to the
number of girls is :
(1) 2 : 3 (1) 2 : 3
(2) 3 2 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 122: 127 (3) 122: 127
(4) 5 : 62 (4) 5 : 62
35
142. 37-fra 71AB II PQ HWi CD II PS,cal LQPR Trig 142. In the figure, AB II PQ and CD II PS, then ZQPR
: is :
A
(1) 30° (1) 30°
(2) 42° (2) 42°
(3) 52° (3) 52°
(4) 108° (4) 108°
143. cf,ii 7re .3ite it i ft7P:I1 70 2 km * 143. Autorikshaw fare in a city is Rs. 20 for first two
Rs. 20 3iTT 7-•?M km * fR Rs. 6 1 wzi kilometers and Rs. 6/km for subsequent distances
Trit1 x km aft etcl 'FT-7SM Rs. y vzf-gr* covered. Taking the distance covered as x km
t-14-1 cMcrl trf1 : and total fare as Rs. y, the linear equation which
expresses the above statement is :
(1) y = 6x + 8 (1) y = 6x + 8
(2) y = 6x — 8 (2) y = 6x — 8
(3) y = 20 + 6x (3) y = 20 + 6x
(4) y = 6x + 28 (4) y = 6x + 28
144. "zift *tut 311T4 cr; dyer) f 3T1t) 24° 144. If an angle is 24° more than half of its complement
aftm , Trrq : then the angle is :
(1) 14° (1) 14°
(2) 38° (2) 38°
(3) 46° (3) 46°
(4) 76° (4) 76°
145. 14 cm flit 3.117 2 cm clicit 20 cricriit T4e1 145. 20 circular plates each of radius 14 cm and
(i.g4 trt t 61(-1-04)R 1 thickness 2 cm are placed one above the other to
ctrf TiftzT ktitb-0 14i1 : form a cylindrical solid. The total surface area will
be :
(1) 2992 cm2 (1) 2992 cm2
(2) 3520 cm2 (2) 3520 cm2
(3) 4752 cm2 (3) 4752 cm2
(4) 24640 cm2 (4) 24640 cm2

36
146. ABCD 4
Trtir- v-44:i AB = (2x + 6) 146. ABCD is a gm with AB = (2x + 6) cm, BC = 8
cm, BC = 8 cm MTT CD = (x + 8) cm I HHI-1( cm and CD = (x + 8) cm. The perimeter of II gm
•9147 ABCD T xifttiTti 5)111 : ABCD is :
(1) 12 cm (1) 12 cm
(2) 20 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 28 cm (3) 28 cm
(4) 36 cm (4) 36 cm
147. 3wO (2, 9, x + 6, 2x + 3, 5, 10, 5) TT TiP-74 7 147. For the data (2, 9, x + 6, 2x + 3, 5, 10, 5) if mean
cal 51,:bt qvvt■
*Tit : is 7, then mode is :
(1) 3 (1) 3
(2) 5 (2) 5
(3) 9 (3) 9
(4) 10 (4) 10
148. ABCD W1-7-1-qti 'TT AB /TT fT3 D el cii-4 148. ABCD is a rhombus in which altitude from D to
- 117* ZD
T41 AB •+i HiirgiTtg-d cmIT t"' I1311711 side AB bisects AB. Then ZD of the rhombus
Tin en/ : IS :
(1) 60° (1) 60°
(2) 90° (2) 90°

(3) 120° (3) 120°
(4) 135 (4) 135°
149. Tlfc 3TiW-41 (I, 4, 7, 16, 27,29)T -A 29 Tel 149. From the data (1, 4, 7, 16, 27, 29) if 29 is removed,
3TITI74 ITT ST T ct 7ftr*---dr 61,4 ? the probability of getting a prime number is :
1
(1) (1) -2-
2
1
(2) (2) 5-
5
2 2
(3) (3) -6
5
1 1
(4) (4)
3
150. PQRS usT 7ri I fa 3 T s U 3777: 117-7-if PS 150. PQRS is a square. T and U are respectively the
3fit OR t TP-7; fti71 i ref, TU afiT QS f 0 Tit mid points of PS and QR. If 0 is the point of
r70 311 PQ = 8 cm -el, al <VDTS 1 a intersection of TU and QS and PQ = 8 cm, then
*MI : area of AOTS is :
(1) 4 cm' (1) 4 cm'
(2) 8 cm' (2) 8 cm2
;.•3) 12 cm' (3) 12 cm'
4) 16 cm' (4) 13 cm'

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FIITJEE

(JSTSE PAPER QUESTIONS)

5. Which IIT institute has installed India’s first 5G radio Laboratory?

7. How many India states share border with Myanmar?

9. In which city, India’s first helicopter – taxi service has launched?

11. Official Mascot of winter Olympics – 2018:

12. India’s first insect museum opened in :

13. First Indian woman to fly a fighter aircraft solo:

20. Theme of the 2018 World Population Day (WPD) is :

22. The thickness of stratospheric ozone layer is measured in/on

24. A useful biological indicator of Sulphur dioxide pollution is:

26. The inventor of video games is :

27. The Sangai festival is celebrated in ;

29. ‘The world Beneath His Feet’ is a biography of :

30. Which among the following is played on a synthetic hard-court?

31. The share of Government of India in NABARD is:

33. ‘Saffron ‘ is obtained from _________ part of the plant:

36. Who is called the ‘Patron of Constitution’?

38. Who prepares the topographical maps of India?

39. Which state is famous for step wells?

41. World Sustainable Development Summit-2018 held in:

43. 11th World Hindi Conference was held in which country?

44. The Zero Discrimination Day (ZDD) is celebrated on?

45. In which country of world ‘Universal Adult Franchise started in 1893?

48. In which year ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Award’ was instituted?

61. The average density of the earth in terms of g, G and R

80. The rate of change of momentum per unit area represent.

86. A beaker is completely filled with water of 4°C. It will overflow if

87. Time period of simple pendulum of a clock is

88. If a watch with a wound spring is taken on the moon, then it

92. The unit of latent heat is

93. Which of the following is not an example of plasma

95. Which is the most fevourable condition of liquefaction of ammonia?

96. Which of the following has more heat content

97. If we add common salt to water then its freezing point

99. A compound PQ2 has the following arrangement of electrons

The elements, P and Q are respectively

101. Which of the following correctly represents 360 g of water.

102. Which of the following contains maximum number of molecules

106. Solubility of KNO3

107. A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is

108. Dry ice is an example of which of the following processes

110. Percentage aboundance of different isotopes of lead is given below

111. Vitamin B12 contain

112. Tincture of iodine is :

113. Fog is colloidal solution of

114. The oxidation state of P in H3PO3 is –

115. The weight of a molecule of the compound C60H12 is

116. Calculate the number of ions present in 5.85 g of NaCl

118. In the following ___________ is not polymer

120. _____________ is a semiconductor

121. Which of the following weighs maximum?

122. _____________ is used for leukemia

123. In Fe2O3, Fe is __________

125. _____________ Alloy is used for welding electrical wires

127. ___________ gas is filled in tyres of aeroplane

128. Which of the following is the correct order of reactivity of metals?

129. Electrolysis of water gives :

130. Antiknocking compound in gasoline is :

132. IR-36 is improved variety of:

133. Vaccine of small pox is discovered by:

134. Which of the following plant group is not included in Cryptogamae

135. Naked seeds are present in