Series

PCE / 2023
Engineering Skill Development
and Vocational Training
1 3Hist.HI+
<r-
Candidate should write his/her
Roll No. in the given boxes

"gfef ^ ti<si^i/No. of Printed Pages : 32 ^ tiVsMi/Total No. of Questions : 150

^TTR/Time : 3"^TJ^/Hours ^{[^/Total Marks: 450
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INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this Question
Booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc. If so, immediately
contact the Invigilator and get it replaced with another Question Booklet.
2. This combined Question Booklet is divided in two Sections, Section—'A' and Section—*6'.
3. Section—'A' contains SO questions of General Studies. All questions are in Hindi and English
languages. AU questions are compulsory.
4
4. Section—'B' contains 100 questions of concerned Engineering Skill Development and
Vocational Training subject. All .questions are in English languages. All questions are
compulsory.
5. All questions carry equal marks. 03 rnarks will be given for each correct answer. There is a
provision of Negative Marking. For each wrong answer, 01 mark will be deducted.
6. Read carefully the instructions given on the Answer Sheet (OMR) supplied and indicate your
answers accordingly.
7. Kindly make necessary entries on the Answer Sheet (OMR) at the places indicated and nowhere
else.

8. Examinee should do all rough work on the space meant for rough work on pages given at the end
of the Question Booklet and nowhere else, not even on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
^ 9. If there is any sort of mistake either of printing or of factual nature in any question of Section—'A',
^ then out of the Hindi and English versions of the question, the Hindi version will be treated as
k standard. j
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3-A
0^
SECTION—A

General Studies
1. Territorial rights of Bodhi Dynasty 6. In which district of Madhya Pradesh
extended over which region in is the fair of Kaluji Maharaj held?
Third Century AD? [A] Khargone
[A] Malwa
[B] Betul
[B]- Tripuri
[C] Balaghat
[C] Nimad
[D] Damoh
[D] Shivpuri

2. The hero of Bundela revolt Hirde 7. During the reign of which of the
Shah was arrested during which following rulers, was the
Governor's Generalship? construction of Saas-Bahu temple
completed?
[A] Lord Hastings
[B] Lord Ellenborough [A] Mahipal
[C] Lord Dalhousie [B] Suryapal
[D] None of them [C] Padmapal
[D] Devpal
3. The organization of Mahakaushal
Political Council took place under
the leadership of 8. Agariya tribe is known for which of
the following crafts?
[A] Nathuram Modi
[A] Areca craft
[B] Thakur Laxman Singh
[C] Seth Govind Das [B] Wood craft
[D] None of them [C] Terracotta craft
[D] Iron craft
4. In which district of Madhya Pradesh
was the first Jungle Salyagraha held?
9. Ustad Hafiz Ali Khan was a famous
[A] Rewa
[A] singer
[B] Khandwa
[B] tabla player
[C] Seoni
[D] None of the above [C] clarinetist
[D] sarod player
5. Which among the following Sanskrit
poetry literatures was composed by 10. To which region is the practice of
Gond king Sangram Shah? Heed Gayan related?
[A] Sangramsaheey Vivekdeepika
[A] Bundelkhand
[B] Rasratnamala [B] Baghelkhand
[C] Hridaya Kautuk [C] Malwa
[D] Hridaya-Prakash [D] Nimad

3'A f P.T.O.
 11. t ^^ 15. qrqqR# q^q^ qq 3Tf^fqq^ w,
f^qfer ^^ qrf ir 3TmTt?
[A] "ml^^-wMcT-Tfts^ ^
[B].iT^I^-^^-TI*W ^ M^lf^-4i
[B] 3TfrfqFftq
[C] *rFT^-^5m4i-5Rfh7re ^ H^if^^I
[D] [C] 3{f^ qpftq

[D]^qFftq
12. ^ 3W M^, 2019' %

16. qeq q^ ■# ^^fiiqq qqm qq 3TMqvT

^ "t?
qq^ qi^ 1^, ^ f^ ^ ^
[A] 20-14 "f ?
[B] 25-14 3lte
[A] q^
[C] 30-14
[B] ^
[D] 33-14
[C] q^qRqTJS ^
13. ami? ^1^T=#rf^ tT ^
3TW^^ q^T t? [D] qr^ ^
[A] srqqr^^
[B] 37q^^ 17. ^1^ fer %^iHq f^nl^R^d ^
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[A]
[D]
[B] ^frpftq
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iHHiRbd ^^q^ ^^ :
1^ t?
[A] (A) 3^(R)^ f 3^ (R), (A)
qq q^ qr^^tqqq t [A] i^qqi^T
[B] (A)3^(R)^q^f, qqg (R),(A) [B]
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[C]
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[D] (A) q^ t, qq^ (R) q^ ti [D]

3-A
 11. Which of the following hill-groups 15. In terms of temperature, under
is located in the Western Satpura which one of the following classes
range? does major part of Madhya Pradesh
[A] Gawilgarh-Kalibhit, Gondwana fall?
hills
[A] Microthermal
[B] Mahadeo, Maikal, Rajpipla hills
[C] Bijagarh, Barwani, Asirgarh [B] Megathermal
hills
[D] Dindori, Maikal, Baihar hills [0] Extreme thermal

[D] Zero thermal

12. What proportion of total area of
Madhya Pradesh is under forest
cover, according to the India State 16. In Madhya Pradesh, districts over-
of Forest Report, 2019? exploiting groundwater resource
[A] 20-14 percent are concentrated mainly in which
[B] 25-14 percent of the following regions?
[C] 30-14 percent
[A] Narmada valley
[D] 33*14 percent
[B] Chhindwara-Betul region
13. The Wainganga river drainage area
is part of which drainage system [C] Baghelkhand region
of the following?
[D] Malwa region
[A] The Narmada drainage system
[B] The Godavari drainage system
[C] The Tapti drainage system 17. Kail^as area, spreading in Morena
district, is known for the deposit of
[Dj The Mahanadi basin
which of the following minerals?
14. Assertion (A) : In the North [A] Bauxite
western part of Madhya Pradesh,
thorn forest and shrubs are found. [B] Manganese
Reason (R) : North-western part of
[C] Limestone
Madhya Pradesh is an area of semi-
arid climate. [D] Iron Ore
Select the correct option from the
following codes : "
18. Pathakhera Coalfield of Madhya
[A] Both (A) and (R) are true and
Pradesh is located in which district?
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A) [A] Chhindwara
[B] Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct [B] Betul
explanation of (A)
[C] Singrauli
[C] (A) is true but (R) is false
[D] (A) is false but (R) is true [D] Shahdol

3-A [P.T.O.
 19. I ^ ^—11 ^ 22. R^ IrRHRRT RR R^ RrR %
cT^ "f^ ^^ ^
^^TRR 3ttr?rr;|?
'3^ :
[A] 18
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(y\^c«.'9fjT »n*l)
[B] 21 rR .
(a) ^PJRTFH (i) $cllc^
(b) 5R<i WR (n) twn [C] 25

(c) WT3 WR (in)^

[D] 30 R^
(d) (iv)

PlHil^d ^ ^^3tR
23. R«R RRRRR TR I^RrRS, 1993, %R
[A] (a)-(i}, (b)-(ii), (c)-(m), (d)-(iv)
I^RHRRT ^RTf^ %RT RRT RT?
[B] (a)~(ii), (b}-(ni), (c)-(w), (d)-(i)
[C] (a)-(m), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)~(n)
[A] 3rra^
[D] (a}-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iU)

[B] TRR^
20. <Nyid mR41^hi, I^niPbd ^ ^
^ ^ mR-mi^hi t?
[C] RR^
[A] R?R "51^-3^
[B] 1R2I R^-KTjRSTR
[D] -M
[C] R^ R^-R?RI^
[D] R^ R^-^pRIR
24. RSR RtRRT ^TTRRt RR R3R RJR 13R RT?
21. 9ltRt%RHOTtRR, 2003%OT3qRf^
TTSR ^ RftcT Rf^ ^^ [A] 12 3TR^, 1972
"f^RRRRT %^ ^ R^ %
rIRrct t 37te R|f #Rt?
[B] 24 3TR^, 1972
[A] 15 3rfRw
[B] 20 RfRw [C] 12 3TR^, 1978
[C] 22 RfRw
[D] 25 RfRw [D] 24 aiR^, 1978
3-A
19. Match the following List—I with 22. What is the minimum age required
List—n and choose the correct answer to become a member of the Madhya
Pradesh Legislative Assembly?
with the help of codes given below :

List—I List—II
[A] 18 years
(Name of Project) (Basin of location)
(a) Bansagar (i) Halali [B] 21 years
(b) Indira Sagar (ii) Wainganga
[C] 25 years
(c) Samrat Ashok (in) Son
Sagar
[D] 30 years
(d) Sahjay Sarovar (iv) Narmada

Choose the correct answer with

the help of the following codes : 23. In which Legislative Assembly, was
the Madhya Pradesh Panchayati
[A] (a)-(i), (bHii), (cHni),(dHiv) Raj BiU, 1993 established?
[B] (aHu), (b)-(m), (cHiv), (dHi) .
[C] (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (cHi), (d)-(ii)
[A] Eighth
[D](aHH (b)-(i), (cHu), (d)-fm)

20. Rajghat Multipurpose Project is a [B] Eleventh

joint project of which of the
following two States? [C] Tenth
[A] Madhya Pradesh-Uttar Pradesh
[B] Madhya Pradesh-Rajasthan [D] Ninth
[0] Madhya Pradesh-Maharashtra
[D] Madhya Pradesh-Gujarat
24. When was the Madhya Pradesh
Planning Commission formed?
21. Provided by the 91st Constitutional
Amendment, 2003, the total
number of ministers including the [A] 12th of October, 1972
Chief Minister in a State shall not
exceed by what percent of the total
number of members of the [B] 24th of October, 1972
Legislative Assembly?
[A] 15 percent
[C] 12th of October, 1978
[B] 20 percent
[C] 22 percent
[D] 25 percent [D] 24th of October, 1978

3-A [P.T.O.
M
25. =^K<aMi/«^K<aA 3Tra- 29. M4 3nffe ^ 3Tt|o^o 4T^'1^
Tsrrf^ 1^ "t? ^^ to W ^ 314f^ I?
(a) [A]
(b) [B]^
(c) krlli^=b [C] 4(^0^
(d)
[D] tor^R

[A] (a) 30. 4FFPJHT 2001 % 3Ttoi^ 3154R,*T-^

[B] %or^ (a) 3^ (c) ^^Ito 4ff I?
[C] (a), (b)3^ (c) TFRT

(2001)
[D] (b) 3^ (d)
[A] 4fto 903

^t? [B] 422T 4^ 196

[A] [C] i5tore 154
[B]^
[C] [D] 3^4^ 740
[D] ^qftrfi.'^ t^^
31. "45^ TT^ 4^mT % 78f ^T4 % 3T2ZTai %
27. 2019-21 % TT^
-^Hl 44T I?
^^-5 % 313^0^, "a^"#^1^
[A] tf^44to
[A] 51-2 [B] 4ato Is
[B] 41-3 [C] 4ri^
[C] 46-4
[D] 29-0
[D] nidi

28. "il-^MId ^^ ^ 32. wrlt^^lwtoT^3^to^,to^

?T2n ^% 3Tc™^ ^ I?
4^ I'M ^ I?
[A] 3!^
[A] 40 W
[B] 3144TTtoTR 3l^ 1^4
[B] ^0 4^ ^dllAiJl
[C] ^0 ^T44 ^ [C] 3llto 3^ 4RFST

[D] ^0 ^0 3^40 34^^ [D] 4K4 3It awntoTR

3-A 8
m
25. Factory/Factories are mainly 29. In which of the following cities, is
established near lime deposits for the Special Economic Zone 'Crystal
IT Part' located?
(a) Cement
(b) Iron Ore [A] Bhopal
(c) Plastic [B] Indore
(d) Cotton Fabric
[C] Jabalpur
Choose the correct option :
[D] Gwalior
[A] Only (a)
[B] Only (a) and (c) 30. According to Census 2001, which
[C] Only (a), (b)and (c) group is not correctly matched?

[D]. Only (b) and (d) State Population Density

(2001)
26. Which of the following districts is
not related to sugar industry? [A] West Bengal 903
[A] Burhanpur [B] Madhya Pradesh 196
[B] Harda [C] Chhattisgarh 154
[C] Narsinghpur
[D] Uttar Pradesh 740
[D] None of the above

27. According to National Health
Family Survey-5, which was
conducted during 2019-21, the
total Infant Mortality Rate of
Madhya Pradesh was
31. Who has been elected as the
President of the 78th session of the
United Nations General Assembly?
[A] Dennis Francis

[A] 51-2 [B] Carlos Head

[B] 41-3
[C] 46-4
[D] 29-0
32. The recently discussed Helmand
28. "The Governor's work is nothing but
to honour the guests, to serve them
tea, food and feast". Whose
statement is this?
[A] Pt. Govind Ballabh Pant
[B] Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramaiya
[C] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[D] Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
3-A
[C] Justin Kroes
[D] Nelson Mandela
River dispute was between which
two countries?
[A] Ukraine and Russia
[B] Afghanistan and Iran
[C] America and Canada
[D] India and Afghanistan
[P.T.O.
 33. ^(WKL)^ %?TR 38. fm 31^ TT^ Tt ^to^
^^Tifkr kk ^nxk?
[A] ^ Mildlyl [A]" 4
[B] ^RiJIuil [B] 6
[C]
[C] 8
[D] 3nT ^Id^hldl
[D] 10

34. ^ 2023 ^ "^1^

39. i7^3rto tok toT4^^ toto to
(3^)^ Raai«i 1^ TI^ w?
^ "jfldi '^?
[A]
[A]
[B] to
[B]
[C]
[C]^
[D] 3T\f^ [D] toR

35. W ^ ^^^ 2023 ^fVr ^ 40. 4^ 3i^ 44 M6dl ^[s=hcl 4k> 4j?T
^TRcT ^ "^7 ^lind ki^l 44 "^7
[A] 98^ [A] 34^
[B] 99^ [B] to^
[C] 103^ [C] WR
[D] 104^ [D]

36. 4k ^ cfM ^£ft4RT' % to 41. -Rto 44 tok osi tor ^to

to ^ tor ^4f t? 4T k^TT 4441 "I?
[A] m [A]
[B] [B] krto^ to
[C] to^ [C] to to to
[D] mK [D] tok to
37. to^l^^^o 125^ 42. tokrto k to-^, to: iJ^ilRciH
3T4WT toT44r|? t? ■
[A] [A] kton^
[B] iT?2r tor [B]
[C] Wlfl^'Ko [C]
[D] ^cri'iHi
[D] 445toyff
3-A 10
m
33. Who won the first Women's 38. How many cyber tehsils will be
Kabaddi League (WKL) title? established in the State of Madhya
Pradesh?
[A] The Great Marathas
[A] 4
[B] The Haryana Hustlers
[B] 6
[C] The Punjab Panthers
[C] 8
[D] The Uma Kolkata
[D] 10
34. Which State has recently won the
Junior Hockey National 39. Where was the 17th Pravasi
Championship (Men) title, in the Bhartiya Divas organised?
year 2023?
[A] Varanasi
[A] Madhya Pradesh
[B] Goa
[B] Uttar Pradesh
[C] Indor.e
[C] Jammu and Kashmir
[D] Delhi
[D] Odisha
40. Where is the first medical device
35. What is India's rank in the recently park of Madhya Pradesh being set
released FIFA 2023 ranking? up?
[A] 98th [A] Ujjain
[B] 99th [B] Bhopal
[0] 103rd [C] Sagar
[D] 104th
[D] Sehore
36. "Mera Gaon Mera Teerth Yojna"
was started from which district of 41. The interface repeater is used at
Madhya Pradesh? which layer of the OSI Model?
[A] Harda [A] Session layer
[B] Bhopal [B] Physical layer
[0] Niwari [0] Data link layer
[D] Sagar [D] Network layer

37. A 125 feet tall statue of Dr. Bhimrao 42. Which one of the following is a
Ambedkar has been unveiled in
stable algorithm?
which State?
[A] Selection sort
[A] Maharashtra
[B] Quick sort
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Chhattisgarh [C] Heap sort

[DJ Telangana [D] Counting sort

3-A 11 [P.T.O.
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09T [vl
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ikk 44 (dXPMS) J44144 khkh *9^
Ir'j^H^ li% ^ ^ '\l^m 4^-8 'OS
lgk44^4kk^ [a]
[a] k 1^ [v] ^ k [a]
b]
14^ [a] M [o]
h^\iiii^'f> k44-4i^ [a]' >if-pits [a]
VSH [v] 4a [vl
i|Mki IMh 4 i|ukkE kk lye
^14 i£4 IIAIXH '14k ^4 P^4jH4 'Si?
I4i 44^ ^ ppt^hp [a] (aso) i^k^k ^ ikkia [a]
ndo [o] (aso) khlho ^ [3]
vdo [a]
bso) ^tjirih ^ ikkia [a]
OdO [v]
(OSO) >l^>f^ ^ [v]
d|§t. kku^Hte
k^iie hhi[^f^ la-k^ ^ ^ DP^i^ajk^i^ *817 ln>5l^P
oso [a] \^ Pk(>h? [al
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IP'k>Jlrlh l&ia-o^^oyio^ [3]
DZQ [a]
im t^lrlby»|> [g]
asa [v]
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I IPIl^ iSMa ^ IDht^h^h
^ kbsJJk % kkifels ^44 ih kS^^ d|iikkk^Lkue ^ka ^-i^k ^ 4
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43. Which one of the following is the 47. Information or financial transactions
most basic requirement for between consumers but usually
successful e-Government? mediated through a business is
called
[A] ICT infrastructure
[A] B2B
[B] Institutional framework
[B] B2C
[C] ICT-literate citizenry
[C] C2C
[D] All of the above [D] G2C

44. E-Procurement is an example of 48. Which one of the following is not

an advertisement based online
[A] Government to Government revenue model?
(G2G)
[A] CPC
[B] Government to Citizen (G2C)
[B] CPA
[0] Government to Business (G2B)
[C] CPM
[D] Government to Employee (G2E)
[D] None of the above

45. Which of the following can read and ■ 49. The Man-in-the-Middle attack is
render HTML web page? found in which of the following
algorithms?
[A] Server
[A] RSA algorithm
[B] Web browser
[B] Diffie-Hellman algorithm
[C] Head Tag
[C] Both [A] and [B]
[D] None of the above [D] Neither [A] nor [B]

46. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol 50. 8-queen problem is associated with
(SMTP) operates at the port no. which of the following searching
mechanisms?
[A] 160
[A] Linear search
[B] 80
[B] Depth First search
[C] 25
[C] Hill-Climbing search
[D] 32 [D] None of the above

3-A 13 [P.T.O.
 SECTION—B
Engineering Skill Development and Vocational Training
.51. The national state view of purposes 55. National Policy for Skill Development
for vocational education includes and Entrepreneurship, 2015 has a
the need to sustain productivity and' prime objective to meet the
challenge of skilling at scale with
[A] updating
speed, standard (quality) and
[B] employment
[A] recognition
[C] ability
[B] sustainability
[D] None of the above
[C] estimation

52. The term general education is [D] responsibility

sometimes used to mean the total
• education program, which includes 56. National Skill Research Division's
both and other types of (NSRD) role is to including
educational programmes. aggregation of the environmental
scans.
[A] lower
[A] conduct certificate courses
[B] higher
[B] conduct vocational courses
[C] general
[C] conduct skill surveys
[D] None of the above
[D] conduct trainings
53. For skill development in India;
more than 20 ministries/ 57. Vocational training needs to be
departments run more than made aspirational to transform
schemes.
India into the of the world.
[A] highest benchmark holder
[A] 80
[B] skill capital
[B] 75
[C] GDP holder
[C] 70
[D] aspirational model
[D] 85

58. are designed to be national

54. The emphasis is to skill the youth partnership organizations that
in such a way so that they get . bring together all the stakeholders
emplo5nment and also improve -industry, labour and academia.
[A] leadership [A] Skill Development Councils
[B] Kaushal [B] Skill Measurement Councils
[C] discipline [C] Skill Planning Councils
[D] entrepreneurship [D] Sector Skill Councils
3-A 14
0^
59. suggested that at school level,
an attempt was made to teach a
number of subjects around a certain
craft with the interest of students.
[A] The Basic Education Scheme
(1936-37)
[B] The Indian Education
Commission (1882)
[C] The Hartog Committee (1929)
[D] None of the above
60. The Ministry of Skill Development
and Entrepreneurship was setup in
November, 2014 to drive the 'Skill
India' agenda in a/an in
order to cover existing skill training
initiatives and combine scale and
quality of skilling efforts with
speed.
[A] active mode
[BJ mission mode
[C] passive mode
[D] vision mode
61. National Skills Qualification
Framework (NSQF) organizes
qualifications according to, a series
of levels of
[A] knowledge, skills and
achievement
[B] knowledge, skills and aptitude
[C] skill, experience and aptitude
[D] skill, achievement and aptitude
62. To facilitate mobility across general
education and vocational
education, has been
recommended by the National
Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
[A] credit-based framework
[B] rank based framework
[C] course based framework
[D] point based framework
3-A
63. Sant Shiromani Ravidas (SSR)
Global Skills Park was set up in M.P.
with the help of the Government of
[A] Japan
[B] Russia
[C] Singapore
[D] USA
64. Which of the following is not a
partner in Madhya Pradesh Skill
Department Project supported by
Asian Development Bank?
[A] Tata Consulting Engineers
Limited
[B] ITE Education Services
[C] Pricewaterhouse Coopers
[D] Hindustan Computers Limited
65. What is .the minimum age for
candidature in the Mukhyamantri
Kaushal Samvardhan Yojana?
[A] 12 years and above
[B] 15 years and above
[C] 21 years and above
[D] 18 years and above
66. Which of the following is a State
funded scheme under which the
skill training program only for
women is to be conducted in line
with the employment oriented
national standards?
[A] Mukhyamantri Kaushal
Samvardhan Yojana
[B] Chief Minister Ladli^Behna
Yojana
[C] Mukhya Mantri Kaushalya
Yojana
[D] Madhya Pradesh Nari Samman
Yojana
15 [P.T.O.
0?^
67. What is the duration of apprenticeship 71. The Directorate of Skill
under National Apprentice Training Development, Madhya Pradesh is
Scheme of Apprentices Act located at which place?
amended in 1973?
[A] Jabalpur
[A] 6 months
[B] 1 year [B] Bhopal

[C] 6 months to 1 year [C] Indore

[D] More than 1 year [D] Gwalior

68. Which of the following is not a short

72. Global Skills Park is committed to
term shilling program for skill
provide quality skill training
development?
in the field of courses.
[A] Pradhan Mantri Kaushal
Kendra
[A] international, Electrical
Engineering
[B] Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas
Yojana [B] national, Mechanical
Engineering
[C] Recognition of Prior Learning
[D] Schemes for Upgradation of ITIs [0] international, Value
Engineering

69. In which year AICTE was set up as [D] international. Precision

a statutory body by an Act of Engineering
Parliament?

[A] 1988 73. The vision statement of Directorate

of Skill Development, Govt. of M. P.,
[B] 1950
is to provide quality training and
[C] 1962 . employable vocational skills in the
demand oriented , so as to
[D] 1952 transform the lives of youths' of the
State.
70. AICTE offers Skill Development
Scheme SAKSHAM. This scheme [A] manufacturing and textile
provides scholarship for sectors

[A] Faculty Development Scheme [B] education and cement sectors

[B] Institutional Development [C] manufacturing and service
Scheme sectors

[C] Student Development Scheme

[D] manufacturing and banking
[D] All of the above sectors

3-A 16
 74. management is concerned
with the laying down of policies and
preparing of plans. But
management is concerned with the
actual execution of the plans
through the various policies.
[A] Risk, strategic
[B] Strategic, operative
77. "Personnel Management is the
planning, organising, directing and
controlling of the procurement,
development, compensation,
integration and maintenance and
sep^ation of personnel to the end
that individual, organisational and
societal objectives are
accomplished."
The above definition is given by

[C] Resources, administrative [A] Indian Institutes of

Management
[D] None of the above [B] Indian Institute of Packaging
[C] All India Council for Technical
75. level management Education

formulates and provides functional [D] Edwin B. Flippo

strategy and guidelines for the first
line managers.
78. Affiliation is applicable to ITIs under
scenario
[A] Lower
"New institutes seeking affiliation
[B] Middle for new trades/new units".
This belongs to which of the
[C] Top following categories (for the year
2018)?
[D] Small
[A] CAT 1
[B] CAT 2
76. A is an institution that
accumulates knowledge and ■ [C] CAT 4
transmits the same to the public
[D] CATS
and succeeding generations and
explores new knowledge.
79. Madhya Pradesh Civil Services
[A] booklet Rules was initially formed in which
of the following years?
[B] library [A] MPCSR-1961
[B] MPCSR-1974
[C] financial organisation
[C] MPCSR-1947 '
[D] None of the above
[D] MPCSR-2004
3-A 17 [P.T.O.
80. Which of the following analyses
focuses a lot on the internal
environment and very less on the
external environment?
[A] ABC
[B] VED
[C] TOWS
■ [D] SWOT
81. The National Skill Development
Mission was launched on
[A] 2nd May, 2014
[B] 2nd October, 2014
[C] 19th August, 2016
[D]'I5th July, 2015
82. Which scheme of the Government
of India provides financial support
to the establishments undertaking
the apprenticeship training?
[A] SANKALP
[B] STRIVE
[C] NAPS
[D] DDU-GKY
83. Training of Craft Instructors is the
mandated responsibility of
[A] National Skill Development
Corporation (NSDC)
[B] Directorate General of Training
(DGT).
[C] National Skill Development
Agency (NSDA)
[D] All of the above
3-A
84. SANKALP is a programme of the
Ministry of Skill Development with
loan assistance from the
[A] Asian Bank
[B] State Bank of India
[C] World Bank
[D] NABARD
85. The Craftsmen Training Scheme
(CTS) was introduced in the year
by the Government of India.
[A] 2008
[B] 2014
[C] 1961
[D] 1950
86. PMKVY scheme of the Ministry of
Skill Development and Entrepreneur-
ship is implemented by the
[A] National Skill Development
Corporation
[B] Directorate of Jan Shikshan
Sansthan
[C] National Council for Vocational
Education and Training
[D] Regional Directorate of Skill
Development and Entrepreneur-
ship
87. NSQF is a nationally integrated
education and competency-based
framework that enables persons to
acquire desired
[A] higher education
[B] competency levels
[C] luxuries
[D] food arid shelter
18
 m
88. As per NSQF, a B. Voc. degree 91. A homogeneous ladder of weight W
programme requires completion of is placed on a flat horizontal surface
credits of course work after and the other end rests against a
10 + 2. vertical wall. The length of the
ladder is I. Assuming that the
[A] 80 coefficient of friction at each
contact surface is the minimum
possible inclination 0 of the ladder
[B] 60 with the horizontal surface
corresponding to that of impending
[C] 180 skidding can be expressed as

■ [D] 120 l-2g'

[A] tan0 =
P-

89. Sant Shiromani Ravidas Global

1-^
Skills Park (SSR-GSP) is located at [B] tan0 =
2m.

[A] Indore
[C] tan0 =
[B] Delhi

[C] Mumbai [D] tan0 = 1"!^

[D] Bhopal
92. Three like
90. Sector Skill Councils operate as an
autonomous body of
[A] Central Government Agency/
Department
[B] State Government Agency/
2ix^
parallel forces of
magnitudes 100 N, 200 N and 300 N
are acting vertically upwards at
points A, B and C respectively on a
horizontal straight rod ABC. The
distances are AB= 300 mm and
BO =400 mm. Neglect the self
weight of the rod. The distance of
the resultant force from point A on
the rod ABC is at

Department
[A] 250 mm

[C] A Registered Sections [B] 350 mm

Company or a Society
[C] 450 mm

[D] None of the above [D] 500 mm

3-A 19 [P.T.O.
I3?»
93. The mass moment of inertia of a
uniform rod of mass M, length L
and radius R about
(i) the centroidal axis normal to
the rod
(ii) an axis at the end of the rod
and normal to it
95. A beam with rectangular cross-
section is obtained by cutting from
a circular log of timber. For the
rectangular beam to have strongest
section in bending, the ratio of
width of the beam to the depth of
the beam should be

[A]
(in) the longitudinal centroidal axis
of the rod

are which of the following?

ML^ MI? MR'

[A] and
3 ' 12
1^1 S
ML^ M£? 3
3 ' 12 [D]
4

ML^ ML^ MR'

[C] and 96. The stress induced in a rod when
12 ' 3
it is subjected to suddenly applied
load is the stress produced
ML^ ML^ MR' by the same load when it is applied
[D] and
12 ' 3 gradually from the same level.

[A] one half

94. Two thin plates of rectangular and
[B] equal to
triangular shapes are used as
machine components. The base [C] four times
width and height of both these
plates are b and h respectively. The [D] twice
ratio of moment of inertia of the
rectangular and that of the
triangular plate with respect to 97. From the following, which one of the
sections are called conic sections?
their bases is given by
[A] Circle, involute and cycloid
[A] 4 ; 1-
[B] Ellipse, parabola and hjqDerbola
[B] 3: 1
[C] Circle, ellipse and involute
[C] 5 : 1
[D] Involute, cycloid and spiral
[D] 2: 1
3-A 20
0^
98. In general, the lines should 101. What is the difference between
riot be used as lines except saturated vapour and saturatec.
when it passes through centre of liquid?
hole.
[A] Saturated vapour is about to
vaporize and saturated liquic
[A] dimension, centre is about to condense
[B] Saturated vapour is about to
[B] centre, dimension condense and saturated liquic
is about to freeze
[C] leader, dimension [C] Saturated vapour is about to
vaporize and saturated liquic
[D] leader, centre is about to freeze
[D] Saturated vapour is about to
condense and saturated liquic
99. The side view, top view and front is about to vaporize
view of a cylinder placed with base
parallel to the horizontal plane are 102. Which of the following systems obey
. (Assume first angle method the Camot's theorem?
of projection) [A] Gas turbines
[B] Gas compressors
[AJ rectangle, rectangle and circle
[C] Heat engines
[D] All of the above
[B] circle, rectangle and circle

103. The enthalpy and internal energy

[C] circle, rectangle and rectangle are the functions of temperature for
[A] steam
[D] rectangle, circle and rectangle
[B] all gases
[C] ideal gases
100. Orthographic projections of an [D] All of the above
object are drawn. The maximum
number of possible views of this 104. Which of the following statements
object are . (Use third angle is true about Kelvin-Planck and
method of projection) Clausius statements?
[A] Violation of one does not
[A] 2 violate the other
[B] There is no relationship
[B] 4 between these two statements
[C] Virtually these are two parallel
[CI 3 statements and are equivalent
in all respects
[D] 6 [D] None of the above
3-A 21 [ P.T.O.
105. Entropy can be described by which 107. Low boiling point refrigerants have
of the following properties? standing pressures, whereas
higher boiling point refrigerants
[A] Path function, intensive have standing pressures.
property [A] lower, higher

[B] Path function, extensive [B] lower, lower

property
[C] higher, lower

[C] Point function, intensive [D] Standing pressure does not

property depend on boiling point

[D] Point function, extensive 108. A reversed Carnot cycle air-

property
106. What is the difference between
the classical and the
statistical approaches to
thermodynamics?
[A] A classical thermodynamics
is based on the average
behaviour of large groups of
particles, whereas statistical
thermodynamics is based on
experimental observations
[B] Classical thermodynamics is
based on experimental
observations, whereas
statistical thermodynamics is
based on the average behaviour
of large group of particles
[C] Classical thermodynamics
is the study of thermal
systems under unequilibrium
states, whereas statistical
thermodynamics is the study
of thermal systems under
mechanical equilibrium
conditioner of 1-5 TR capacity
operates with cooling coil of 4 °C.
The surrounding air at 40 °C is
used as cooling medium rising
to a temperature of 50 °C. The
temperature of heat rejection is
54 °C. Determine the COP and the
power consumption of the air-
conditioner.
[A] COP = 3-32, Power = 0*40 kW
[B] COP = 5-54, Power = 0-95 kW
[C] COP = 7-31, Power = 0-98 kW
[D] COP = 2-50, Power = 0-50 kW
109. In IC engines having same cylinder
input conditions and the same
maximum pressure and
temperature, which one of the
following is correct in respect of
efficiency?
[A] {^t) otto > {r\t) dual > (r\t) diesel
[B] (t1() otto > (t1() diesel > (rit) dual
[C] (t1() diesel> (tit)dual> (Tif) otto

[D] None of the above [D] (tIj) diesel >(%)otto > (t1() dual
3-A 22
 S«[il
m
no. In which of the following engine 114. To cut an internal thread is called
operations, a lean mixture is
supplied? [A] boring

[A] Cruising condition [BJ reaming

[B] Maximum power [C] tapping
[C] Cold starting [D] parting off
[D] Idling
115. Projection welding refers to
111. Plug gauge according to type is
[A] MIG welding
[A] inspection gauge
[B] pressure welding
[B] limit gauge
[C] submersed welding
. [C] purchase-inspection gauge
[D] resistance welding
[D] workshop gauge
116. It is commercially known as
112. The property of a material, by virtue spelter, which is used as a harder
of which deformation caused by filler material in
applied level disappears upon
removal of.the level, is called as [A] soldering

[A] ductility [B] hard facing

[B] plasticity [C] brazing

[C] elasticity [D] arc cutting

[D] strength
117. Which of the following is not the
type of shapes according to the
113. Which of the following is not the mechanism used for giving
method of filing? reciprocating motion of the ram?

[A] Cross filing [A] Push.type

[B] Draw filing [B] Crank type
[C] Angular filing [C] Geared type
[Dj None of the above
[D] Hydraulic type
3-A 23 P.T.O.
118. In shaper machine, when 'n' is the
r.p.m. of the bull wheel, is the
length of the cutting stroke in mm
and *m' is the ratio between
return time to cutting time, then
cutting speed 'V is expressed in
'm/min' as
120. In molding sand testing, if V is the
volume of air, h is the height of
sand specimen, a is the cross-
sectional area of the specimen, p
is air pressure, t is the time for
2000 cc of air in seconds, then
reasonability member is

nL(l + m) VxP
[A1 1000
[A1 hxaxt

n(L + m)
Vxhxt
[B] 1000 [B] Pxa

n(L + l)
[C] 1000 Pxaxt
[C1 Vxh

m(.L + l)
[D] 1000 Vxh
PI Pxaxt

119. In gating design, where is

the adjusted pouring rate, 'd' is 121. A certain length of a rectangular
the density of the molten metal and strip is having a cross-section of
'H* is the sprue height, then area 2-5 cm X 0-05 cm and has an
of sprue base can be found effective resistance of 1*38
as Taking the value of specific
resistivity (p) = 1-724 x 10~® Q - m,
calculate the length of the copper
[A] As = J?a(dV^) strip.

[A] 1 m
[B] A^=,J^(RaXd)
[B] 10 m
[C] As=RaX-dy2gh)
[C] 100 m

[D] Cannot be determined

[D] 1000 m

3-A 24
 IP
122. The energy stored in an inductor
is 25 J, when it carries a current
of 0'25 A. What will be the value of
the inductance of the given
inductor?
[A] 160 H
[B] 800 H
[C] 400 H
[D] None of the above
123. An ideal capacitor is connected in
an AC circuit. Which of the
following statements are true?
(i) Current lags by the voltage by
90°.
(ii) Active power consumed is zero.
(in) Voltage lags by the current by
90°.
■ M A definite amount of active
power is consumed by the
capacitor.
[A] (i) and (iv) are true
[B] (i) and (ii) are true
[C] (ii) and (iv) are true
[D] (ii) and (Hi) are true
124. The nodal analysis method of
circuit analysis is based on
[A] KVL and Ohm's law
[B] KCL and Ohm's law
[C] KVL only
[D] KVL, KCL and Ohm's law
3-A
125. A non-sinusoidal voltage has values
of maximum voltage of 18V, r.m.s.
voltage of 12V and average voltage
of lOV. The peak factor and form
factor of the given non-sinusoidal
voltage are
[A] 1-0 and 1-2 respectively
[B] T2 and T5 respectively
[C] T2 and TO respectively
[D] T5 and 1*2 respectively
126. A three-phase induction motor is
wound for four poles and is supplied
from a 60 Hz system. Calculate the
rotor frequency when the speed of
the rotor is 900 r.p.m.
[A] 24 Hz
[B] 32 Hz
[C] 30 Hz
[D] None of the above
127. A 25 kVA single-phase transformer
is connected to 3000 V and 50 Hz
supply. When certain load is
applied, it carries a current of
8*33 A and 83*3 A in primary and
secondary windings respectively.
The number of turns in primary and
secondary will be
[A] 500 and 50 respectively
[B] 50 and 500 respectively
[C] 250 and 500 respectively
[D] 500 and 250 respectively
25 [P.T.O.
0?^
128. A load of 22 kW operates at 0'9 131, The capacitance of a P-iV junction
lagging power factor. When diode with increase in the
connected to a 400 V, single-phase, forward bias voltage.
50 Hz supply, the current in the
load is [A] increases linearly
[A] 39 A
[B] increases exponentially
[B] 56 A
[C] 61 A [C] decreases linearly
[D] 69 A
[D] decreases exponentially

129. Which of the following statements

are correct about PMMC
instruments?
132. In the circuit with diode given
(i) PMMC instruments have low below, the value of the output
torque to weight ratio. voltage (VJ will be
(ii) PMMC instruments are
suitable for AC and DC Q+16V
measurements.

(Hi) PMMC instruments have

uniform scale.

(iv) PMMC instruments may have

eddy loss but no hysteresis
loss.

[A] (i) and (Hi) are correct

[B] (i) and (ii) are correct
[C] (H) and (Hi) are correct
V.
[D] (Hi) and (iv) are correct 4-7 kQ.

130, A parallel R~L-C circuit has _4V

R'= 2 k£2, L = 13 mH and C = 40 pF.
The quality factor "of the circuit will [A] 14-6 V
be

[A] 62-4 [B] 18-6 V

[B] 88-2
[C] 10-6 V
[C] 0-009
[D] None of the above [D] 15-4 V

3-A 26
13^
133. A DC voltage supply provides 60 V 136. Binary equivalent of decimal
when the output is unloaded. When number (52) is ■
it is connected to a load, the output
drops to 56 V.- So, the value of
percentage (%) voltage regulation [A] 01010010
is obtained as
[B] 10100
[A] 6-57
[C] 001011
[B] 5-26
[D] 110100
[C] 7-14

[D] 8-31
137, Notebook PCs fall into a category
of devices called

134, In an NPN transistor, a = 0-995,

= 10 mA and = 0-5 [lA. [A] small computers
The value of Iq^q is
[B] mobile computers
[A] 99-5 pA
[C] mini computers
[B] 0-497 pA

[D] handheld computers

[C] 0-5 pA

[D] 100 pA
138. The software used for tasks such
as managing disks and
135. What number of other devices the troubleshooting hardware problems
output of an ideal op-amp drive? is called

[A] Zero [A] utility software

[B] Finite [B] application software

[C] Infinite [C] operating system software

[D] None of the above [D] None of the above

3-A 27 fP.T.O.
m
139. The distance between two peaks of 142. Which of the.following is the
a signal measured on the X-axis is suitable criterion for the
4 cm at 2 p.s/div. The frequency of identification of coarse aggregates?
• the signal is
[A] Aggregates retain on 4*75 mm
sieve
[A] 50 kHz
[B] Aggregates pass from 4-75 mm
[B] 125 kHz sieve

[C] 250 kHz [C] Aggregates retain on 2-36 mm

sieve and pass through 4*75
[D] 500 kHz sieve

[D] Aggregates pass through 2*36

mm sieve
140. Which of the following devices can
be connected as a node on the
network and perform bidirectional 143. Choose the incorrect statement
communication between two related to critical path in CPM
LANs? network.

[A] Hub [A] Critical path starts from initial

event and ends at end event

[B] Switch [B] All the events and activities on

critical path are critical
[C] Bridge
[C] Critical path is determined by
[D] Repeater calculation of slack

[D] There can be more than one

141. T' is the standard consistency of a
given cement sample. What will be
the amount of water used for
conducting the setting time test for
the cement?
critical paths
144. The shortest possible time in which
an activity can be completed under
ideal condition is known as

[A] 0-85 P [A] the pessimistic time estimate

[B] the optimistic time estimate

[B] 0-65 P
[C] the most likely time estimate
[C] 0-60 P
[D] the latest allowable time
[D] 0-58 P estimate

3-A 28
 m
145. Construction equipment 'Dragline' 148. Among the following air pollutants,
is used for the the only secondary pollutant is

[A] excavation above its own track

[A] ozone
or wheel level

[B] sulphur dioxide

[B] bulk excavation in loose soils
below its own track level
[C] carbon dioxide
[C] site stripping and levelling,
loading, hauling and [D] carbon monoxide
discharging over long distance

[DJ compaction of earth

149. National Clean Air Programme
(NCAP) was launched in

146, EDTA (Ethylenediamine tetraacetic

[A] 2014
acid) method is used to determine

[A] iron in water [B] 2019

[B] chlorides in water [C] 2022

[C] turbidity of water [D] 2016

,[D] hardness of water

150. A reservoir with uncontrolled

and ungated outlets {spillway
147. Sewage will be identified as 'acidic', and sluice outline) is known
when its pH value will be as

[A] more than 7 [A] storage reservoir

[B] more than 8 [B] retarding reservoir

[C] equal to 8 [CJ detention reservoir

[D] less than 7

[DJ valved reservoir
3-A 29 [P.T.O.
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

3-A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

P.T.O.
 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

3-A
MM23/3{041)—5310x4