Jee Sample Mock Test Paper

JEE 2019 JEE Main Test Series 8
Study, Assignments, Solved Previous Year Papers . Questions and Answers. Free Forever.
General Instructions:
1. Total duration of examination is 180 minutes.
2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display the remaining
time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You
will not be required to end or submit your examination.
3. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the
following symbols:
You have not visited the question yet.
You have not answered the question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for review.
You have answered the question, but marked it for review.

The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that question again. If a
question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question will be considered in the evaluation.
Navigating to a Question :
4. To answer a question, do the following:
Click on the question number in the Question Palette to go to that numbered question directly.
Click on Save &Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the next question.
Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question, mark it for review, and then
go to the next question.
Caution: Note that your answer for the current question will not be saved, if you navigate to another question directly by
clicking on its question number.
5. You can view all the questions by clicking on the Question Paper button. Note that the options for multiple choice type
questions will not be shown.
Answering a Question :
6. Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:
To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options.
To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the Clear
Response button.
To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option.
To save your answer, you MUST click on the Save & Next button.
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To mark the question for review, click on the Mark for Review & Next button.
If an answer is selected for a question that is 'Marked for Review', that answer will be considered in the evaluation even if
it is not marked as 'Save & Next', at the time of final submission.
7. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question for answering and then
follow the procedure for answering that type of question.
8. Note that questions for which option has been chosen and answers are saved or marked for review will be considered
for evaluation.
9. ¼ (one fourth) marks i.e. one mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction
from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for a question.
Exam specific Instructions
This is a Mock test. The Question paper displayed is for practice purposes only. Under no circumstances
should this be presumed as a sample paper.
There will be 90 questions and 180 minutes duration will be given to attempt these questions.
There are three sections in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics. Each section
consists of 30 questions.response.
Each question is allocated 4 (four) marks for each correct.
One fourth marks will be deducted for incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no answer is given.
There is only one correct answer for each question.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The concentration of fluoride, lead, nitrate and iron in a water sample from an underground lake was
found to be 1000 ppb, 40 ppb, 100 ppm and 0.2 ppm, respectively. This water is unsuitable for
drinking due to the high concentration of:
A. Lead
B. Nitrate
C. Iron
D. Fluoride
Answer
2. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of the distance between the
molecule is:
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A. ion-ion interaction
B. ion-dipole interaction
C. London force
D. hydrogen bond
Answer
3. For the complete combustion of ethanol, C 2 H 5 OH (l) + 3O 2 (g) → 2CO 2 (g) + 3H 2 O (l), the amount of
heat produced as measured in a bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol-1 at 25 o C. Assuming ideality the
-1 -1
enthalpy of combustion, ∆ C H, for the reaction will be (R = 8.314 JK mol )
A. -1366.95 kJ mol -1
B. -1361.95 kJ mol -1
-1
C. -1460.50 kJ mol
D. -1350.50 kJ mol -1
Answer
4. Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing first ionisation enthalpy for Ca, Ba, S,
Se and Ar?
A. Ca <S<Ba<Se<Ar
B. S< Se<Ca<Ba< Ar
C. Ba< Ca<Se< S< Ar
D. Ca<Ba<S<Se<Ar
Answer
5. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union Carbide plant in Bhopal tragedy was
A. Methyl isocyanate
B. Methylamine
C. Ammonia
D. Phosgene
Answer
6. The IUPAC name of neopentane is
A. 2-methylbutane
B. 2, 2-dimethylpropane
C. 2-methylpropane
D. 2,2-dimethylbutane
Answer
7. Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction is present in
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A. benzene and ethanol

B. acetonitrile and acetone
C. KCl and water
D. benzene and carbon tetrachloride
Answer
8. The “spin-only” magnetic moment [in units of Bohr magneton,(µB )] of Ni 2+ in aqueous solution would
be (Atomic number of Ni = 28)
A. 2.84
B. 4.90
C. 1
D.
Answer
9. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when in hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity to
stationary state 1, would be (Rydberg constant = 1.097×10 7 m -1 )

A. 91 nm
B. 9.1×10 -8 nm
C. 406 nm
D. 192 nm
Answer
10. For the reaction, CO(g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ COCl 2 (g) the K p /K c is equal to
A. 1/RT
B. 1.0
C. √RT
D. RT
Answer
11. Which of the following is an anionic detergent?
A. Sodium lauryl sulphate
B. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
C. Glyceryl oleate
D. Sodium stearate
Answer
12. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen of a particular gaseous mixture is 1:4. The ratio of number
of their molecule is
A. 1:4
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B. 7:32
C. 1:8
D. 3:16
Answer
13. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. Mass = 60 u ) in 1000g of water is
1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution is
A. 0.50 M
B. 1.78 M
C. 1.02 M
D. 2.05
Answer
14. Iron exhibits + 2 and +3 oxidation states. Which of the following statements about iron is incorrect?
A. Ferrous oxide is more basic in nature than the ferric oxide.
B. Ferrous compounds are relatively more ionic than the corresponding ferric compounds.
C. Ferrous compounds are less volatile than the corresponding ferric compounds.
D. Ferrous compounds are more easily hydrolyzed than the corresponding ferric compounds.
Answer
15. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. The stability of hydrides increases from NH 3 to BiH 3 in group 15 of the periodic table.
B. Nitrogen cannot form dπ-pπ bond.

C. Single N - N bond is weaker than the single P - P bond.
D. N 2 O 4 has two resonance structure
Answer
16. In a face centred cubic lattice, atom A occupies the corner positions and atom B occupies the face
centre positions. If one atom of B is missing from one of the face centred points, the formula of the
compound is:
A. A 2 B
B. AB 2
C. A 2 B 3
D. A 2 B 5
Answer
17. Sodium ethoxide has reacted with ethanoyl chloride. The compound that is produced in the above
reaction is
A. Diethyl ether
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B. 2-Butanone
C. Ethyl chloride
D. Ethyl ethanoate
Answer
18. Silver Mirror test is given by which one of the following compounds?
A. Acetaldehyde
B. Acetone
C. Formaldehyde
D. Benzophenone
Answer
19. The formation of which of the following polymers involves hydrolysis reaction?
A. Nylon 6
B. Bakelite
C. Nylon 6, 6
D. Terylene
Answer
20. Consider the reaction, 2A + B → Products. When the concentration of B alone was doubled, the half-life
did not change. When the concentration of An alone was doubled, the rate increased by two times. The
unit of rate constant for this reaction is –
A. L mol –1 s –1
B. no unit
C. mol L –1 s –1
D. s -1
Answer
21. The reaction of toluene with Cl 2 in presence of FeCl 3 gives predominantly
A. benzoyl chloride
B. benzyl chloride
C. o-and p-chlorotoluene
D. m-chlorotoluene
Answer
22. The IUPAC name for the complex [Co(NO 2 )(NH 3 ) 5 ]Cl 2 is
A. nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (III) chloride

B. nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (II) chloride
C. pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (II) chloride
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D. pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride

Answer
23. The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are
A. cytosine and adenine
B. cytosine and guanine
C. cytosine and thymine
D. cytosine and uracil
Answer
24. Which of the following statements is true?
A. H 3 PO 3 is a stronger acid than H 2 SO 3
B. In aqueous medium HF is a stronger acid than HCl

C. HClO 4 is a weaker acid than HClO 3
D. HNO 3 is a stronger acid than HNO 2
Answer
25. The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is of
A. 0.1 M acetic acid
B. 0.1 M chloroacetic acid
C. 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid
D. 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid
Answer
26. Which of the following factors may be regarded as the main cause of lanthanide contraction?
A. Poor shielding of one of 4f electron by another in the subshell
B. Effective shielding of one of 4f electrons by another in the subshell
C. Poorer shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons
D. Greater shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons
Answer
27. In first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M in 15 minutes.
The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is
A. 30 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 7.5 minutes
D. 15 minutes
Answer
28. Excess of KI reacts with CuSO 4 solution and then Na 2 S 2 O 3 solution is added to it. Which of the
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statements is incorrect for this reaction?

A. Cu 2 I 2 is reduced
B. Evolved I 2 is reduced
C. Na 2 S 2 O 3 is oxidized
D. CuI 2 is formed
Answer
29. Which one the following has the largest number of isomers?
2+
A. [Ru(NH 3 ) 4 Cl ]
B. [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ] +
C. [Ir(PR 3 ) 2 H(CO)] 2+
D. [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl] 2+
Answer
2
30. Which one the following does not have sp hybridized carbon?
A. Acetone
B. Acetamide
C. Acetonitrile
D. Acetic acid
Answer
31. A uniform string of length 20 m is suspended from a rigid support. A short wave pulse is introduced at
its lowest end. It starts moving up the string. The time taken to reach the support is: (take g = 10 ms −2
)
A.
B. 2s
C.
D.
Answer
32. When a rubber band is strecthed by a distance x, it exerts a restoring force of magnitude F = ax +bx 2 ,
where a and b are constants. The work done in stretching are unstretched rubber-band by L is
A. aL 2 +bL 2
B.
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C.
D.
Answer
33. One mole of diatomic ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process ABC as shown in the figure. The process BC
is adiabatic. The temperatures at A, B and C are 400 K, 800 K and 600 K respectively. Choose the
correct statement:
A. The change in internal energy in the process AB is -350 R.
B. The change in internal energy in the process BC is -500 R.
C. The change in internal energy in the whole cyclic process is 250 R.
D. The change in internal energy in the process CA is 700 R.
Answer
34. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find the number of possible natural oscillations of the
air column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.
A. 12
B. 8
C. 6
D. 4
Answer
35. Two particles are executing simple harmonic motion of the same amplitude Aand frequency ω along
the x - axis. Their mean position is separated by distance X (X >A). If the maximum separation
between them is (X0 + A), the phase difference between their motion is
A. π/3
B. π/4
C. π/6
D. π/2
Answer
36. An object moving with a speed of 6.25m/s, is decelerated at a rate given by dv/dt =- 2.5√v, where v is
the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object, to come to rest, would be
A. 2 s
B. 4 s
C. 8 s
D. 1 s
Answer
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37. STATEMENT – 1
Two particles moving in the same direction do not lose all their energy in a completely inelastic
collision.
STATEMENT – 2
Principle of conservation of momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions.
A. The statement I is True, Statement II is False.
B. The statement I is True, Statement II is True; Statement II is a correct explanation for
Statement I.
C. The statement I is True, Statement II is True; Statement II is not the correct explanation for
Statement I.
D. Statement I is False, Statement II is
Answer
38. The following observations were taken for determining surface tension T of water by the capillary
method :
Diameter of capillary, D = 1.25 × 10 –2 m rise of water, h = 1.45 × 10 –2 m

Using g = 9.80 m/s2 and the simplified relation T = (rhg/2) x103 n/m, the possible error in surface
tension is closest to:
A. 2.4%
B. 10%
C. 0.15%
D. 1.5%
Answer
39. A copper ball of mass 100 gm is at a temperature T. It is dropped in a copper calorimeter of mass 100
gm, filled with 170 gm of water at room temperature. Subsequently, the temperature of the system is
found to be 75°C. T is given by:(Given : room temperature = 30° C, specific heat of copper = 0.1
cal/gm°C
A. 1250°C
B. 825°C
C. 800°C
D. 885° C
Answer
40. The speed of sound in oxygen (O 2 ) at a certain temperature is 460 ms −1 . The speed of sound in helium
(He) at the same temperature will be (assumed both gases to be ideal)
A. 1420 ms −1
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B. 550 ms −1
C. 375 ms −1
D. 650 ms −1
Answer
41. Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale. The
total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge has a
zero error of − 0.03 mm while measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale
reading of 3 mm and the number of circular scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The
diameter of the wire is
A. 3.32 mm
B. 3.73 mm
C. 3.67 mm
D. 3.38 mm
Answer
42. A force of acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (1, −1) is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer
43. The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination φ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough.
A body starting from rest at the top will again come to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of friction
for the lower half is given by
A. 2sinφ
B. 2cosφ
C. 2tanφ
D. tanφ
Answer
44. One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are of same mass and same outer radii. Their moment
of inertia about their diameters are respectively I A and I B such that
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Where d A and d B are their densities.
A. I A = I B
B. I A > I B
C. I A < I B
D. I A /I B = d A /d B
Answer
45. The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be expressed as y = 10 −6 sin(110t + 20 x + π/4) m,

where t is in seconds and x in a meter. The speed of the wave is
A. 2000 m/s
B. 5 m/s
C. 20 m/s
D. 5π m/s
Answer
46. The temperature dependence of resistances of Cu and undoped Si in the temperature range 300-400 K
is best described by:
A. Linear increase for Cu, linear increase for Si.
B. Linear increase for Cu, exponential increase for Si.
C. Linear increase for Cu, exponential decrease for Si.
D. Linear decrease for Cu, linear decrease for Si.
Answer
47. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per quantum in the order of increasing energy:
A: Blue light
B: Yellow light
C: X-ray
D: Radiowave
A. D, B, A, C
B. A, B, D, C
C. C, A, B, D
D. B, A, D, C
Answer
48. The box of a pinhole camera, of length L, has a hole of radius a. It is assumed that when the hole is
illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wavelength λ the spread of the spot (obtained on the
opposite wall of the camera) is the sum of its geometrical spread and the spread due to diffraction.
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The spot would then have its minimum size (say b min) when:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer
49. The hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to another state with the principal quantum number
equal to 4. Then the number of spectral lines in the emission spectra will be
A. 2
B. 3
C. 3
D. 4
Answer
50. An electric dipole has a fixed dipole moment , which makes angle θ with respect to the x-axis. When
subjected to an electric field , it experiences a torque . When subjected to another
electric field it experiences torque . The angle θ is

A. 60°
B. 90°
C. 30°
D. 45°
Answer
51. This question contains Statement -1 and Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
Choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement – I: Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo fusion.
and
Statement – II: For heavy nuclei, binding energy per nucleon increases with increasing Z while for light
nuclei it decreases with increasing Z.
A. Statement – 1is false, Statement – 2 is true.
B. Statement – 1is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement -2 is correct explanation for
Statement-1.
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C. Statement – 1is true, Statement – 2 is true; Statement -2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
D. Statement – 1 is true, Statement – 2 is False.
Answer
52. An experiment is performed to find the refractive index of glass using a travelling microscope. In this
experiment distance are measured by
A. a vernier scale provided on the microscope
B. a standard laboratory scale
C. a meter scale provided on the microscope
D. a screw gauage provided on the microscope
Answer
53. In an a.c. circuit the voltage applied is E = E sinπt. The resulting current in the circuit is I = I sin
.The power consumption in the circuit is given by
A.
B. P = zero
C.
D.
Answer
54. In a region, steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields are present. These two fields are parallel
to each other. A charged particle is released from rest in this region. The path of the particle will be a
A. circle
B. helix
C. straight line
D. ellipse
Answer
55. A solid which is transparent to visible light and whose conductivity increases with temperature is
formed by
A. Metallic binding
B. Ionic binding
C. Covalent binding
D. Van der Waals binding
Answer
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56. An electric bulb is rated 220 volt − 100 watt. The power consumed by it when operated on 110 volt
will be
A. 50 watt
B. 75 watt
C. 40 watt
D. 25 watt
Answer
57. The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the
wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment is
A. infinite
B. five
C. three
D. zero
Answer
58. A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed v it
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed 2v, the closest
distances of approach would be
A. r
B. 2r
C. r/2
D. r/4
Answer
59. A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one of its ends at angular velocity 5 radians
per second. If the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.3 × 10 −4 T, then the e.m.f.
developed between the two ends of the conductor is
A. depends on the nature of the metal used
B. depends on the intensity of the radiation
C. depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
D. is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation.
Answer
60. Unpolarized light of intensity I passes through an ideal polarizer A. Another identical polarizer B is
placed behind A. The intensity of light beyond B is found to be I/2.Now another identical polarizer C is
placed between A and B. The intensity beyond B is now found to be I/8. The angle between polarizer A
and C is :
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A. 60°
B. 0°
C. 30°
D. 45°
Answer
61. If the number of terms in the expansion of is 28, then the sum of the coefficients
of all the terms in this expansion is
A. 64
B. 2187
C. 243
D. 729
Answer
62. The variance of first 50 even natural number is
A. 833/4
B. 833
C. 437
D. 437/4
Answer
63. The length of the diameter of the circle which touches the x-axis at the point (1, 0) and passes through
the point (2, 3) is
A. 10/3
B. 3/5
C. 6/5
D. 5/3
Answer
64. If ω(≠1) is a cube root of unity, and (1 + ω) 7 = A + Bω.Then (A, B) equals

A. (0,1)
B. (1,1)
C. (1,0)
D. (-1,1)
Answer
65. Twenty meters of wire is available for fencing off a flower-bed in the form of a circular sector.Then the
maximum area (in sq. m) of the flower-bed, is
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A. 30
B. 12.5
C. 10
D. 25
Answer
66. The set S: {1, 2, 3, …, 12} is to be partitioned into three sets A, B, C of equal size. Thus, A ∪ B ∪ C =
S, A ∩ B = B ∩ C = A ∩ C = φ. The number of ways to partition S is-
A. 12!/3!(4!) 3
B. 12!/3!(3!) 4
C. 12!/(4!) 3
D. 12!/(3!) 4
Answer
67. A value of C for which the conclusion of Mean Value Theorem holds for the function f(x) = log e x on the
interval [1, 3] is
A. 2log 3 e
B. log e 3/2
C. log 3 e
D. log e 3
Answer
68. Suppose a population A has 100 observations 101, 102, … , 200, and another population B has 100
observations 151, 152, … , 250. If VA and VB represent the variances of the two populations,
respectively, then V A /V B is
A. 1
B. 9/4
C. 4/9
D. 2/3
Answer
69. The value of ,where [x] denotes the greatest integer not exceeding x is
A. af(a) − {f(1) + f(2) + … + f([a])}
B. [a] f(a) − {f(1) + f(2) + … + f([a])}
C. [a] f([a]) − {f(1) + f(2) + … + f(a)}
D. af([a]) − {f(1) + f(2) + … + f(a)}
Page 17 of 22
Answer
70. If the lines 3x − 4y − 7 = 0 and 2x − 3y − 5 = 0 are two diameters of a circle of area 49π square
units, the equation of the circle is
A. x 2 + y 2 + 2x − 2y − 47 = 0
B. x 2 + y 2 + 2x − 2y − 62 = 0
C. x 2 + y 2 − 2x + 2y − 62 = 0
D. x 2 + y 2 − 2x + 2y − 47 = 0
Answer
71. The system of equations
αx + y + z = α - 1,
x + αy + z = α - 1,
x + y + αz = α - 1
has no solution, if α is
A. -2
B. either-2 or 1
C. not -2
D. 1
Answer
72. If roots of the equation x 2 – bx + c = 0 be two consectutive integers, then b 2 – 4c equals

A. – 2
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer
73.
A. I 2 > I 1
B. I 1 > I 2
C. I 3 = I 4
D. I 3 > I 4
Answer
74. Let T be the rth term of an A.P. whose first term is a and the common difference is d. If for r some
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positive integers m, n, m ≠ n, T m = 1/n and T n = 1/m, then a-b equals
A.
B. 1
C. 1/mn
D.
Answer
75. For each t ∈R, let [t] be the greatest integer less than or equal to t. Then
limx→0+ x1x+2x+......+15x
A. does not exist (in R)

B. is equal to 0
C. is equal to 15
D. is equal to 120
Answer
76. Two sets A and B are as under:

A = {(a-b)∈ RxR:|a-5|<1 and |b-5|<1}
2 2
B = {(a,b)∈ Rx R: 4(a-6) + 9 (b-5) ≤ 36},then
A. Neither A ⊂ B nor B ⊂ A
B. B ⊂ A
C. A ⊂ B
D. A ∩ B = ϕ (an empty set)
Answer
77. A wire of length 2 units is cut into two parts which are bent respectively to form a square of side=x
units and a circle of radius=r units. If the sum of the areas of the square and the circle so formed is
minimum, then:
A. 2x=(π+4)r
B. (4−π)x=πr
C. x=2r
D. 2x=r
Answer
78. Let be three unit vectors such that then the angle
between is
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A. 3π/4
B. π/2
C. 2π/3
D. 5π/6
Answer
79. If 0≤x<2π, then the number of real values of x, which satisfy the equation
cosx+cos2x+cos3x+cos4x=0, is :
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
Answer
80. Let a, b ∈ R be such that the function f given by f(x) = ln |x| + bx
2+ ax, x ≠ 0 has extreme values at x = –1 and x = 2.
Statement 1: f has local maximum at x = –1 and at x = 2.
Statement 2:
A. Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
B. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement
1
C. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
statement 1
D. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
Answer
81. Consider the function f(x) = |x – 2| + |x – 5|, x ∈ R.
Statement 1: f′(4) = 0
Statement 2: f is continuous in [2, 5], differentiable in (2, 5) and f(2) = f(5).
A. Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
B. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement
1
C. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
statement 1
D. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
Answer
82. let f : (-1, 1) → R be a differentiable function
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with f(0) = -1 and f'(0) = 1.
Let g(x) = [f(2f(x) + 2)] 2 . Then g'(0) =

A. 4
B. -4
C.
D. -2
Answer
83. The lines p(p 2 + 1) x – y + q = 0 and (p 2 + 1)2x + (p 2 + 1) y + 2q = 0 are

perpendicular to a common line for
A. no value of p
B. exactly one value of p
C. exactly two values of p
D. more than two values of p
Answer
84. Let the line lie in the plane x + 3y – αz + β = 0. Then (α, β) equals
A. (6, – 17)
B. (–6, 7)
C. (5, –15)
D. (–5, 5)
Answer
85. The area of the region bounded by the parabola (y – 2)2 = x – 1, the tangent to the parabola at the
point (2, 3) and the x-axis is
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
Answer
86. Let A be a square matrix all of whose entries are integers. Then which one of the following is true?
A. If det A = ± 1, then A –1 exists but all its entries are not necessarily integers
B. If detA ≠ ± 1, then A –1 exists and all its entries are non-integers
C. If detA = ± 1, then A –1 exists and all its entries are integers

D. If detA = ± 1, then A–1 need not exist
Answer
Page 21 of 22
87. If are unit vectors and θ is the acute angle between them, then is a unit vector for
A. Exactly two values of θ
B. More than two values of θ
C. No value of θ
D. Exactly one value of θ
Answer
88. The set of points where x f(x) = x /1+|x| is differentiable is
A. (−∞, 0) ∪ (0, ∞)
B. (−∞, −1) ∪ (−1, ∞)
C. (−∞, ∞)
D. (0, ∞)
Answer
89. If A 2 – A + I = 0, then the inverse of A is

A. A + I
B. A
C. A – I
D. I – A
Answer
90. Let f : R → R be a differentiable function having f (2) = 6, f′ (2) =(1/48) . Then

A. 24
B. 36
C. 12
D. 18
Answer
Page 22 of 22

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JEE 2019 JEE Main Test Series 8

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Each question is allocated 4 (four) marks for each correct.

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Multiple Choice Questions

A. benzene and ethanol

stationary state 1, would be (Rydberg constant = 1.097×10 7 m -1 )

B. Nitrogen cannot form dπ-pπ bond.

A. nitrito-N-pentaamminecobalt (III) chloride

D. pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride

B. In aqueous medium HF is a stronger acid than HCl

D. HNO 3 is a stronger acid than HNO 2

statements is incorrect for this reaction?

Diameter of capillary, D = 1.25 × 10 –2 m rise of water, h = 1.45 × 10 –2 m

(He) at the same temperature will be (assumed both gases to be ideal)

Where d A and d B are their densities.

45. The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be expressed as y = 10 −6 sin(110t + 20 x + π/4) m,

subjected to an electric ﬁeld , it experiences a torque . When subjected to another

electric ﬁeld it experiences torque . The angle θ is

.The power consumption in the circuit is given by

64. If ω(≠1) is a cube root of unity, and (1 + ω) 7 = A + Bω.Then (A, B) equals

72. If roots of the equation x 2 – bx + c = 0 be two consectutive integers, then b 2 – 4c equals

positive integers m, n, m ≠ n, T m = 1/n and T n = 1/m, then a-b equals

A. does not exist (in R)

76. Two sets A and B are as under:

with f(0) = -1 and f'(0) = 1.

Let g(x) = [f(2f(x) + 2)] 2 . Then g'(0) =

83. The lines p(p 2 + 1) x – y + q = 0 and (p 2 + 1)2x + (p 2 + 1) y + 2q = 0 are

B. If detA ≠ ± 1, then A –1 exists and all its entries are non-integers

C. If detA = ± 1, then A –1 exists and all its entries are integers

89. If A 2 – A + I = 0, then the inverse of A is

90. Let f : R → R be a diﬀerentiable function having f (2) = 6, f′ (2) =(1/48) . Then

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