NAME

NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 5331144

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2080

(Set-XXVIA, Morning)
Date: Ashoj 13th, 2080 (Saturday) Duration – 3 hrs
Venue: NAME Time – 7:00 AM

INSTRUCTIONS
There are 200 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of which only one
choice is correct.
. Fill ( ) the most appropriate one.369
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

1. Which of the following combinations is incorrect?

a) Nematoda- roundworms, blastocoelomate
b) Calcarea- gastrovascular cavity, coelom present
b) Echinodermata- coelom present, radial symmetry
d) Echinoidea- Aristotle lantern
2. Notochord occurs throughout life and all through the length of the body in
a) Cephalochordata b) Hemichordata c) Urochordata d) Vertebrata
3. Trematodes are
a) Free living eddyworms b) Parasitic tapeworms
c) Parasitic flukes d) Free living flukes
4. What does agnatha mean?
a) without teeth b) without jaws c) without true bone d) without appendes
5. What feature is shared by amphibians and reptiles?
a) external fertilization b) amniotic egg
c) cold blooded d) warm blooded
6. A sarcodine causing dysentery is:
a) Giardia b) Entamoeba c) Amoeba d) Trypanosoma
7. Contractile vacuoles of Paramecium are analogous to:
a) sweat glands of mammals b) Typhlosole of earthworm
c) Gastro-vascular cavity of Hydra d) Uriniferous tubules
8. This is a characteristic feature of coelenterata
a) Polyp b) Gastrovascular cavity
c) All are marine d) Presence of tentacles around mouth
9. Cryptomerozoites are produced in Plasmodium in life cycle in:
a) liver cells b) RBCs c) Stomach d) all
10. 72 hours cycle in RBC found in:
a) P. vivax b) P. ovale c) P. malaria d) P. falciparum
11. Chloragogen cells of earthworm are for:
a) excretion b) respiration c) offense and defense d) reproduction
12. In which animal blood is red but blood corpuscles are absent?
a) Cockroach b) Earthworm c) Birds d) Bedbug
13. In earthworm, the exonephric nephridia open exteriorly through:
a) Nephrostome b) Nephridiopores c) Dorsal pores d) Nephridiostome
14. Barefooted person is likely to affect from
a) Enterobius b) Ancylostoma c) Wuchereria d) Oxyuris
15. In amphibians, Organ of Jacobson is for
a) temperature b) pressure c) smell d) sound
16. Total number of arches coming out of heart in case of frog is:
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
17. Who gave experimental proof that hydrogen methane water and ammonia gave rise to the
amino acid?
a) Stanley Miller b) Charles Darwin c) Lamarck d) Oparin
18. Humans, apes and monkeys belongs to ______
a) Anthropoids b) Prosimians c) Permian d) Shrews
19. Main basis of Neo-Darwinism is
a) struggle for existence b) variations
c) survival of the fittest d) gene theory
20. Which is the largest geological time unit?
a) eons b) eras c) epochs d) periods

1
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

21. Stereocilia occur in

a) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium of trachea
b) Columnar epithelium of stomach
c) Starfied columnar of pharynx
d) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium of epididymis
22. Name the tissues that are involved in the formation of membranes.
a) Epithelial tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Muscular tissue d) Connective tissue
23. The striated appearance of muscle fibers is due to _______________
a) nucleus b) sacromeres c) sarcoma d) myoblasts
24. In the CNS, the neuroglial cells are:
a) Schwann cell b) Satellite cell c) Sessile cell d) Oligodendrocyte cells
25. Secretin and cholecystokinin are secreted in
a) pyloric region b) Ileum c) duodenum d) Oesophagus
26. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes:
a) slow and deep b) faster and deeper
c) Shallower and slow d) there is no effect on breathing
27. Murmur sound occurs due to defect of:
a) sinuatrial node b) Atrioventricular node
c) heart valves d) pulmonary veins
28. Which of the following are not passed on to the lumen of Bowman’s capsule during glomerular
filtration?
a) Fat molecules b) Glucose c) Water d) Proteins
29. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to effect:
a) Cardiac movement b) Gastrointestinal movement
c) Respiratory movement d) Tongue movement
30. Sensory spot in ampulla is called:
a) Macula b) Otolith c) Crista d) Organ of Corti
31. Which cells are responsible in the production of insulin hormone?
a) α-cells of langerhans b) β-cells of Langerhans
c) delta-cells of langerhans d) none
32. Bartholin’s glands are present in the:
a) Testis b) mammary gland c) Prostate gland d) Vulva
33. Transplantation of tissues or organs within the same individual is called:
a) autograft b) isograft c) allograft d) xenograft
34. Which of the following pairs does not match correctly in the context of embryonic
development of frog?
a) Cleavage – holoblastic b) Blastula- blastopore
c) Gastrula- involution d) Copulation-amplexus
35. Which is not the renal disorder?
a) Cystitis b) Calculi c) Uremia d) Candidiasis
36. Rifampicin is used to cure:
a) cancer b) tuberculosis c) AIDS d) Hepatitis
37. The genetic material of AIDS virus is _________
a) single-stranded DNA b) single-stranded RNA
c) double-stranded DNA d) double-stranded RNA

2
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

38. Presence of air bladder and chloride cells are the adaptive features of------------------------:
a) volant adaptation b) aquatic adaptation
c) scansorial daptation d) saltatorial adaptation

39. Bird migrating from Siberia to Jagadishpur Lake in Kapilvastu district is called-------------------
- migration:
a) longitudinal b) latitudinal c) altitudinal d) potamodromous
40. Man is intermediate host for:
a) malaria b) ascariasis b) elephantiasis d) taeniasis
41. Some bacteria are not easily killed beacuse of
a) tolerant power b) chitinous wall
c) endospore formation d) capusle
42. protein coat of virus is made up of
a)schizomer; b)envelope c)capsomer d)peplomer

43. which of the following can cause disease in human?

a) rhizopus b)aspergillus c)puccinia d)cytopus
44. protective structure in archegonia of Marchentia is
a)elater b)perichaetium
c)calyptra d)megasporophyll
45. in gymnosperm how many male gamates are produced by each pollen grains?
a) 4 b) 3 c)2 d)1
46. Which is best example of heterothallism?
a)spirogyra b)ulothrix c)mucor d)lichen
47. Which of the following is not product of root?
a)sugarbeet b)carrot c)radish d) potato
48. in grasses vigorous and quick growth is due to
a) sucker b) runner c) stolon d) offset
49. In Nepenthes colured lid is formed by
a) whole leaf b) leaf apex c) lamina d) petiole
50. Morphology of spathe in spadix and involucre in cyathium is
a) sepal b) epicalyx
c)enlarged bracts d) enlarged bractiols
51. What is a distinguishing feature of gymnosperms?
a) They produce seeds enclosed in a fruit. b) They have no vascular tissue.
c) They reproduce through spores. d) They bear naked seeds.
52. Periderm is composed of
a)phellem b)phellogen c)phelloderm d)phloem
53. Most advanced type of thickening in xylem vessel is
a) reticulate b) pitted c) annular d) scalariform
54. Water potential of a solution is always
a) zero b) more than zero c) less than zero d) unity
55. At what wavelength bacteria carry out photosynthesis?
a) ultra-violet b) blue c) red d) far-red
56. Cellular respiration is absent in
a) RBC b) mitochondria c) GB d) BGA
57. Skototropic movements are induced by
a) Light b) touch c) night d) heat

3
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

58. Exoskeleton of animal cell is

a) cell wall b) cell membrane
c)ER d) microtubule and microfilaments
59. Chromosome consists of
a) DNA b) DNA + histone
c)DNA + non histone d) DNA + histone + non-histone
60. Which of the following gives mechanical support to cell?
a) GB b) chloroplast c) mitochondria d) cytoplasma
61. Gene mutation is also called
a) chromosomal aberration b) lethal mutation
c)point mutation d) all of these
62. The no of autosome in normal human sperm is
a) 44 b)23 c)46 d)22
63. How many pollen mother cell will form 1000 pollen grains?
a) 200 b).250 c)300 d)100
64. Roots of higher plants develop mycorrhiza for obtaining
a) nitrogen b) sulphate c) phosphate d)all
65. Which one has maximum biomass?
a) temperate forest n.tropical rain forest c)alpine vegetation d)taiga
66. Two species compete to each other even in presence of large quantity of food . the relationship
is
a) mutualism b) antagonism c) isolation d) commensalism
67. The productivity of all the autotrophs including green plant, protists and bacteria is called
a) primary productivity b) secondary productivity
c)gross productivity d) community productivity
68. The first product of ancient biotechnology was
a) alcohol b) vinegar c) acetic acid d) youghurt
69. Which of the following graft is most successful?
a) heart b) skin c) corneal d) lungs

70. Bacteria which are smallest in size are

a) cocci b) vibrio c) bacilli d) spirilla
71. Leaf has limited growth as it has
a) apical meristem b) lateral meristem c) intercalary meristem d) leaf primordial
72. Fibre of hemp is predominately
a)cellulose b)carbohydrate c)protein d)sucrose
73. Shortest phase is
a) G1 phase b)G2 phase c)S phase d)M phase
74. Heterostyly is found in
a)tea b)orchid c)malva d)primula
75. flu gas is
a)whcih causes flu
b)gaseous mixture coming out of automobiles
c)gases coming of chimney
d) none
76. The term protoplasma was given by
a) R. Hooke b)Dujardin c)Purkinje d)Hugo De Varis

4
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

77. In photosynthesis
a) no ATP is formed b)ATP formed in initial stage
c)water is not involved d)oxygen comes form carbon dioxide.
78. The cells functionally associate with sieve tube is
a)phloem fibre b)phloem parenchyma c)companion cell d)collenchyma
79. Which of the following is used in industrial preparation of ethanol?
a) nostoc b)marchentia c)saccharomyces d)azotobacter
80. Wolffia is a small plant about 1mm in diameter is a
a) moss b) pteridophyte c)gymnosperm d)angiosperm
81. The hydrated salt Na2CO3.xH2O undergoes 63% loss in mass on heating and becomes
anhydrous. The value of x is
a) 10 b) 7 c) 5 d) 3
82. 7.36 g of a mixture of KCl and KI was dissolved in H2O to prepare 1 litre solution. 25 ml of this
required 8.45 ml of 0.2 N AgNO3 , what are % of KI in mixture ?
a) 57.28 b) 47.28 c) 5.72 d) 49.12
83. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ (At. no. of Fe = 26) ion is:
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
84. The electronegativity follows the order
a) F > O > Cl > Br b) F > Cl > Br > O c) O > F > Cl > Br d) Cl > F > O > Br

85. The atomic radius increases as we move down in a group because

a) effective nuclear charge increases
b) atomic mass increases
c) additive electrons are accommodated in new electron level
d) atomic number increases
86. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
a) ClF b) PCl3 c) SiF4 d) CFCl3
87. In which of the following pairs, the two species are isostructure?
a) SO32– and NO3– b) BF3 an NF3
c) BrO3– and XeO3 d) SF4 and XeF4
88. Lattice energy of an ionic compound depends upon
a) Charge on the ion and size of the ion b) Packing of ions only
c) Size of the ion only d) Charge on the ion only
89. An ideal gas is one which obeys the gas laws under
a) a few selected experimental conditions b) all experimental conditions
c) low pressure alone d) high temperature alone
90. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates that :
a) kinetic energy of molecules decreases
b) pressure of the gas increases
c) kinetic energy of molecules remains the same
d) number of the molecules of gas increases
91. When water is added to quicklime, the reaction is
a) explosive b) endothermic c) exothermic d) photochemical
92. In which of the following reactions, increase in the volume at constant temperature does not
affect the number of moles at equilibrium.
a) 2NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + 3H2(g) b) C (s) + (1/2) O2 (g) ⇌ CO(g)
c) H2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌H2O2 (g) d) None of these

5
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

93. The adsorption of hydrogen by palladium is called

a) hydration b) reduction c) occlusion d) hydrogenation
94. On heating sodium metal in a current of dry ammonia gas the compound formed is
a) sodium nitrate b) sodium hydride c) sodium amide d) sodium azide
95. Gun powder is
a) KNO3+ Charcoal + S b) NaNO3 + KNO3 + S
c) NaNO3 + S d) None of these
96. Which is an extensive property of the system ?
a) Volume b) Viscosity
c) Temperature d) Refractive index
97. Given that bond energies of H – H and Cl – Cl are 430 kJ mol– 1 and 240 kJ mol–1 respectively
and Hf for HCl is – 90 kJ mol– 1, bond enthalpy of HCl is
a) 380 kJ mol–1 b) 425 kJ mol–1 c) 245 kJ mol–1 d) 290 kJ mol–1
98. How many litres of water must be added to 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of
1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?
a) 0.1 L b) 0.9 L c) 2.0 L d) 9.0 L
99. Which one of the following molecular hydrides acts as a Lewis acid?
a) NH3 b) H2O c) B2H6 d) CH4
100. In a vessel N2, H2 and NH3 are at equilibrium. Some helium gas is introduced into the vessel
so that total pressure increases while temperature and volume remain constant. According to
Le Chatelier’s principle, the dissociation of NH 3
a) increases b) decreases
c) remains unchanged d) equilibrium is disturbed
101. The number of electrons involved in the reduction of one nitrate ion to hydrazine is
a) 8 b) 5 c) 3 d) 7
102. The standard electrode potentials of four elements A, B, C and D are –3.05, –1.66, –0.40 and
+0.80. The highest chemical reactivity will be exhibited by
a) A b) B c) C d) D
103. In a reversible reaction the energy of activation of the forward reaction is 50 kcal. The energy
of activation for the reverse reaction will be
a) < 50 kcal b) either greater than or less than 50 kcal
c) 50 kcal d) > 50 kcal
104. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched?
a) Magnetite – Fe3O4 b) Copper glance – Cu2S
c) Calamine – ZnCO3 d) Zincite – ZnS
105. Froth floatation process is used for the metallurgy of
a) chloride ores b) amalgams c) oxide ores d) sulphide ores
106. The role of calcination in metallurgical operations is
a) to remove moisture
b) to decompose carbonates
c) to drive off organic matter
d) to decompose carbonates and drive off moisture and organic matter
107. The furnace used to prepare commercial iron is lined with which of the following?
a) Haematite b) Magnetite c) Ironpyrites d) Both a) and b)
108. NH3 gas is dried over:
a) CaO b) HNO3 c) P2O5 d) CuSO4
109. Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent?
a) NH3 b) PH3 c) BiH3 d) SbH3

6
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

110. Atomicity of sulphur in rhombic sulphur is

a) 1 b) 2 c) 8 d) 6
111. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to its
a) oxidising property b) acidic property
c) reducing property d) basic property
112. Which of the following is used in the preparation of chlorine?
a) Only MnO2 b) Only KMnO4
c) Both MnO2 and KMnO4 d) Either MnO2 or KMnO4
113. A Grignard reagent may be made by reacting magnesium with
a) Methyl amine b) Diethyl ether c) Ethyl iodide d) Ethyl alcohol
114. The catalyst used in the preparation of an alkyl chloride by the action of dry HCl on an alcohol
is
a) anhydrous AlCl3 b) FeCl3 c) anhydrous ZnCl2 d) Cu
115. The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is
a) Butan-1-ol b) Butan-2-ol
c) 2-Methyl propan-1-ol d) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
116. Which one is formed when sodium phenoxide is heated with ethyl iodide ?
a) Phenetole b) Ethyl phenyl alcohol c) Phenol d) None of these
117. Phenols do not react with one of the following :
a) Alkali metals b) Sodium hydroxide
c) Potassium hydroxide d) Sodium bi-carbonate
118. Benzaldehyde can be prepared by oxidation of toluene by
a) Acidic KMnO4 b) K2Cr2O7 / H+
c) CrO2Cl2 d) All of these
119. In which reaction, > C = O can be reduced to > CH 2?
a) Wolf-Kishner reaction b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
c) Wurtz reaction d) None of these
120. The elimination of CO2 from a carboxylic acid is known as
a) hydration b) dehydration c) decarboxylation d) carboxylation
121. Substitution of one alkyl group by replacing hydrogen of primary amines
a) increases the base strength b) decreases the base strength
c) remains the same d) None of the above
122. (CH3)2CHNH2 is reacted with excess acetic anhydride, the compound formed is
a) (CH3)2CHNCOCH3 b) (CH3)2CHN(COCH3)2
c) (CH3)2CHOH d) (CH3)2CN(COOCH3)2
123. A copolymer of isobutylene and isoprene is called:
a) align butyl rubber b) buna-S c) buna-N d) thiokol
124. Which of the following is an example of narrow spectrum antibiotic?
a) Chloramphenicol b) Penicillin G c) Ampicillin d) Ofloxacin
125. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH (CH3)2 is -
a) isopropyl methyl ketone b) 2-methyl-3-butanone
c) 4-methylisopropyl ketone d) 3-methyl-2-butanone
126. Which of the following species does not acts as a nucleophile?
a) ROH b) ROR c) PCl3 d) BF3
127. The kind of delocalization involving sigma bond orbitals is called
a) inductive effect b) hyperconjugation effect
c) electromeric effect d) mesomeric effect

7
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

128. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is

a) 2- methyl propene b) 2-butene
c) 2- methy l -2- butene d) propene
129. When acetylene is passed over heated iron tube, the product obtained is –
a) C2H2 b) C4H4 c) C6H6 d) C8H8
130. Ethyl bromide gives ethylene when reacted with –
a) ethyl alcohol b) dilute H2SO4 c) aqueous KOH d) alcoholic KOH

131. Angular momentum is

a) A scalar b) A polar vector c) An axial vector d) None of these
132. When three forces of 50 N, 30 N and 15 N act on a body, then the body is
a) At rest b) Moving with a uniform velocity
c) In equilibrium d) Moving with an acceleration
133. The greatest height to which a man can throw a stone is h. The greatest distance to which he
can throw it, will be
a) h/2 b) h c) 2h d) 3h
134. A body slides down a frictionless track which ends in a circular loop of diameter D, then the
minimum height h of the body in term of D so that it may just complete the loop, is
5D 5D 3D D
a) h = 2 b) h = 4 c) h = 4 d) h = 2

135. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination  is perfectly smooth while the lower half
is rough. A body starting from the rest at top comes back to rest at the bottom if the coefficient
of friction for the lower half is given by
a)  = sin  b)  = cot  c)  = 2 cos  d)  = 2tan
136. If the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times of its initial value, then new momentum
will
a) Becomes twice its initial value b) Become three times its initial value
c) Become four times its initial value d) Remains constant
137. A missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and
potential energy is
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) none
138. A wire of length L and radius r is rigidly fixed at one end. On stretching the other end of the
wire with a force F, the increase in its length is l. If another wire of same material but of length
2L and radius 2r is stretched with a force of 2F, the increase in its length will be
a) l b) 2l c) l/2 d) 4l
139. Two droplets merge with each other and forms a large droplet. In this process
a) Energy is liberated b) Energy is absorbed
c) Neither liberated nor absorbed d) Some mass is converted into energy
140. The period of a simple pendulum measured inside a stationary lift is found to be T. If the lift
starts accelerating upwards with acceleration of g / 3, then the time period of the pendulum is
T T 3T
a) b) c) 2 d) 3T
3 2

8
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

141. The latent heat of vaporization of a substance is always

a) Greater than its latent heat of fusion
b) Greater than its latent heat of sublimation
c) Equal to its latent heat of sublimation
d) Less than its latent heat of fusion
142. If on heating liquid through 80ºC, the mass expelled is (1/100) of mass still remaining, the
coefficient of apparent expansion of liquid is
a) 1.25 × 10–4/ºC b) 12.5 × 107/ºC c) 1.25 × 10–3/ºC d) none of these
143. 110 J of heat is added to a gaseous system, whose internal energy change is 40 J, then the
amount of external work done is
a) 150 J b) 70 J c) 110 J d) 40 J

144. A brass disc fits simply in a hole of a steel plate. The disc from the hole can be loosened if the
system
a) First heated then cooled b) First cooled then heated
c) Is heated d) Is cooled
145. RMS velocity of a particle is C at pressure P. If pressure is increased two times, then RMS
velocity becomes
a) 0.5C b) C c) 2C d) 3C
146. The wavelength of radiation emitted by a body depends upon
a) The nature of its surface b) The area of its surface
c) The temperature of its surface d) All the above factors
147. A point object is placed on principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 20cm at distance
30cm from pole. The image is formed at distance
a) 60cm behind mirror b) 60cm infront of mirror
c) 12cm behind him d) 12cm infront of him
148. If critical angle for a material to air is 30º, the refractive index of the material will be
a) 1 b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 2.5
149. An equilateral prism of refracting angle A is made of plastic of refractive index 2 . The angle
of incidence which gives minimum deviation is
a) 60º b) 45º c) 96º d) 30º
150. A thin lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 15cm in air. When the lens is placed in
4
a medium of refractive index 3 , its focal length will become

a) + 10cm b) +45cm c) – 10cm d) + 60cm

151. If two light waves having same frequency have intensity ratio 4 : 1 and they interfere, the ratio
of maximum to minimum intensity in the fringe pattern will be
a) 9 : 1 b) 3 : 1 c) 25 : 9 d) 25 : 16

9
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

152. The first diffraction minimum due to a single slit diffraction is at 30º for a light of wavelength
. If the width of slit is 10–6m, the wavelength  is
a) 4000Å b) 5000Å c) 1250Å d) 10000Å

153. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/sec. For a particular sound in air, a path difference of
40 cm is equivalent to a phase difference of 1.6 . The frequency of this wave is
a) 165 Hz b) 150 Hz c) 660 Hz d) 330 Hz

x
154. A transverse wave is described by the equation Y = Y 0 sin2ft – . The maximum particle
 
velocity is four times the wave velocity if
Y0 Y0
a)  = 4 b)  = 2 c)  = Y0 d)  = 2Y0

155. In a closed organ pipe the frequency of fundamental note is 50 Hz. The note of which of the
following frequencies will not be emitted by it
a) 50 Hz b) 100 Hz c) 150 Hz d) None

156. A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking 'n' equally spaced plates connected alternately.
If the capacitance between any two plates is C then the resultant capacitance is
a) C b) nC c) (n – 1) C d) (n + 1) C

157. The value of electric field due to a point charge at a distance r is

a) proportional to r2 b) inversely proportional to r2
c) proportional to r d) independent of r

158. The ratio of charge to potential of a body is

a) capacitance b) conductance c) inductance d) resistance

159. 100mA current gives a full scale deflection in a galvanometer of 2 resistance. The resistance
connected with the galvanometer to convert it into a voltmeter to measure 5V is
a) 98  b) 52 c) 50 d) 48

160. The maximum power drawn out of the cell from a source is given by (where r is internal
resistance)
a) E /2r2 b) E2/4r c) E/r2 d) E/3r

161. A heater coil is cut into two parts of equal length and one of them is used in the heater. The
ratio of the heat produced by this half coil to that by the original coil is
a) 2 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 1

dE
162. At neutral temperature, the thermoelectric power dT has the value
 
a) zero b) maximum but negative
10
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

c) maximum but positive d) minimum but positive

163. The magnetic induction at any point due to a long straight wire carrying a current is
a) Proportional to the distance from the wire
b) Inversely proportional to the distance from wire
c) Inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the wire
d) Does not depend on distance
164. In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection of the coil  is related to the electrical current i
by the relation
a) i  tan b) i  c) 2i  d) i  
165. The material of permanent magnet has
a) High retentivity, low coercivity b) Low retentivity, high coercivity
c) Low retentivity, low coercivity d) High retentivity, high coercivity
166. In transformer, core is made of soft iron to reduce
a) Hysteresis losses b) Eddy current losses
c) Force opposing electric current d) None of the above

167. A coil of 200 resistance and 1.0H inductance is connected to an ac source of frequency 200/2
Hz. Phase angle between potential and current will be
a) 30º b) 90º c) 45º d) 0º
168. The cathode rays have particle nature because of the fact that
a) They can propagate in vacuum
b) They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields
c) They produced fluorescence
d) They cast shadows
169. The energy that should be added to an electron, to reduce its de Broglie wavelengths from 10 –
10 m to 0.5 × 10−m will be

a) Four times the initial energy b) Thrice the initial energy

c) Equal to the initial energy d) Twice the initial energy
170. Penetrating power of X-rays can be increased by
a) Increasing the potential difference between anode and cathode
b) Decreasing the potential difference between anode and cathode
c) Increasing the cathode filament current
d) Decreasing the cathode filament current
171. Kinetic energy with which the electrons are emitted from the metal surface due to photoelectric
effect is
a) Independent of the intensity of illumination
b) Independent of the frequency of light
c) Inversely proportional to the intensity of illumination
d) Directly proportional to the intensity of illumination
172. The ratio of the largest to shortest wavelengths in Lyman series of hydrogen spectra is
a) 25 : 9 b) 17 : 6 c) 9 : 5 d) 4 : 3

173. Number of nuclei of a radioactive substance at time t = 0 are 1000 and 900 at time t = 2 s. Then

11
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

number of nuclei at time t = 4 s will be

a) 800 b) 810 c) 790 d) 700
174. The dominant mechanisms for motion of charge carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon
P-N junctions are
a) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias
b) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias
c) Diffusion in both forward and reverse bias
d) Drift in both forward and reverse bias
175. Zener breakdown in a semi-conductor diode occurs when
a) Forward current exceeds certain value
b) Reverse bias exceeds certain value
c) Forward bias exceeds certain value
d) Potential barrier is reduced to zero
176. In a semiconductor, the concentration of electrons is 8 × 1014/cm3 and that of the holes is 5 ×
1012cm3. The semiconductor is
a) P-type b) N-type c) Intrinsic d) PNP-type
177. PN-junction diode works as a insulator, if connected
a) To A.C. b) In forward bias c) In reverse bias d) None of these
178. Acid rain happens because
a) sun heats up the upper layer of atmosphere
b) burning of fossil fuels releases oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere
c) electrical charges are produced due to friction among clouds
d) earth atmosphere contains acids
179. Which quarks form a neutron?
a) up, up, down b) down, down, down c) up, up, up d) up, down, down
180. Milky way is
a) A planet of our system
b) A sun
c) One of the solar system
d) One of the enormous galaxies of universe
181. 100 oranges are bought at the rate of Rs. 350 and sold at the rate of Rs. 48 per dozen. The
percentage of profit or loss is:
2 2
a) 14 % gain b) 15% gain c) 14 % loss d) 15 % loss
7 7
182. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A
do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
a) 12 days b) 15 days c) 16 days d) 18 days
183. If John celebrated his victory day on Tuesday, Oct 15, 2023, when will he celebrate his next
victory day on the same day?
a) Oct 15, 2029 b) Oct 15, 2030 c) Oct 15, 2034 d) Oct 15, 2037
184. If two-thirds of A is four-fifth of B, then A : B = ?
a) 5 : 6 b) 6 : 5 c) 10 : 9 d) 9 :10

185. Rs. 700 is divided among A, B and C so that A receives half as much as B and B half as much
as C. Then C's share is ?
12
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

a) Rs. 200 b) Rs. 300 c) Rs. 400 d) Rs. 600

186. The average age of 14 girls and their teacher’s age is 15 years. If the teacher’s age is excluded,
the average reduces by 1. What is the teacher’s age?
a) 35 years b) 32 years c) 30 years d) 29 years

187. Which of the following will come next in the following series?
919829873987649876559876546987654
a) 2 b) 3 c) 8 d) 7

188. A rat runs 20' towards East and turns to right runs 10', and turns to right runs 9', and again
turns to left runs 5' and then turns to left runs 12' and finally turns to left and runs 6'. Now
what direction is the rat facing?
a) east b) north c) west d) south

189. 1. Samana is bigger than Kishor and smaller than Subham.

2. Raman is smaller than Subham and bigger than Samana.
3. Kishor is bigger than Raman.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
a) true b) false c) uncertain d) None of these

190. If PARK is coded as 5394, SHIRT is coded as 17698 and PANDIT Is coded as 532068, how
would you code NISHAR in that code language?
a) 266734 b) 231954 c) 201739 d) 261739

191. Nandini is the only daughter of Madan's sister. How is Nandani related to Madan?
a) Daughter b) Niece c) Cousin d) Niece or Daughter

192. Cobbler : Leather : Tailor : ?

a) Thread b) Cloth c) Shirt d) Draper

193. Insert the missing one.

a) 5 b) 4 c) 7 d) 8

194. Pick up the one which likes a group.

a) Ostrich, Hen, Swan b) Duck, Lion, Horse
13
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

c) Zebra, Cabbage, Rose d) India, world, mobile

195. Complete the Series: 1, 50, 6, 45, 11, 40, 16, 35, 21, 30, ?
a) 30 b) 24 c) 26 d) 28

196. Find out the number of rectangles.

a) 30 b) 100 c) 60 d) 120

197. Complete the matrix below.

198. Odd one out.

a) A b) B c) C d) D

199. What will continue the series?

14
NAME MCEE BL Model Entrance Exam Set-XXVIA, (2080-06-13)

a) A b) B c) C d) D

200. Which alternative can replace the question marks?

(1st figure : 2nd figure:: 3rd figure: 4th figure)

a) C b) B c) D d) E

Best of Luck

Result will be published on Sunday Log on to www.name.edu.np or

www.facebook.com/nameinstitute

Best of Luck

15