NAME Pre-Medical Model Entrance Exam Set-II (2079 –4–14)

Pre-Medical
Model Entrance Exam 2079

(Set-II)

Date: Shrawan 14th, 2079 (Saturday) Duration – 2 hrs

Venue: NAME Time – 9:30 AM

INSTRUCTIONS
.
There are 100 multiple-choice questions, each having four choices of which only
one choice is correct.
Fill ( ) the most probable one.

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NAME Pre-Medical Model Entrance Exam Set-II (2079 –4–14)

1. Which of the following animals are true Coelomates with bilateral symmetry?
a) Adult Echinoderms b) Aschelminthes
c) Platyhelminthes d) Annelids
2. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
a) Earthworm b) Tunicate c) Starfish d) Mosquito
3. Important characteristic that hemichordates share with chordates is
a) Ventral tubular nerve cord b) Pharynx with gill slits
c) Pharynx without gill slits d) absence of notochord
4. Which of the following feature is not present in the phylum Arthropoda?
a) Parapodia b) Jointed Appendages
c) Chitinous exoskeleton d) Metameric segments
5. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of life?
a) NH3 b) H2 c) O2 d) CH4
6. Analogous structures are a result of
a) shared ancestry b) stabilising selection
c) divergent evolution d) convergent evolution
7. What are the resultant products of Exo-erythrocytic schizogony?
a) Sporozoites b) Merozoites
c) Meta-cryptomerozoites d) Cryptomerozoites
8. In life cycle of Plasmodium, Ookinete is formed from
a) Oocyst b) Zygote c) Sporoblast d) Microgamete
9. Haversian canals occur in
a) Humerus b) Pubis c) Scapula d) Clavicle
10. Earthworm possesses spermathecae
a) 6 pairs b) 4 pairs c) 2 pairs d) 1 pair
11. Pharyngeal nephridia of Pheretima found around of
a) Buccal cavity and pharynx b) Pharynx and oesophagus
c) Gizzard and stomach d) Oesophagus and gizzard
12. The kidney of an adult frog is
a) Metanephros b) Opisthanepros c) Pronephros d) Mesonephros
13. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs
a) Testes ⟶ vasa efferentia ⟶ kidney ⟶ seminal vesicle ⟶ urinogenital duct ⟶ cloaca
b) Testes ⟶ vasa efferentia ⟶ bidder's canal ⟶ ureter ⟶ cloaca
c) Testes ⟶ vasa efferentia ⟶ kidney ⟶ bidder's canal ⟶ urinogenital duct ⟶ cloaca
d) Testes ⟶ bidder's canal ⟶ kidney ⟶ vasa efferentia ⟶ urinogenital duct ⟶ cloaca
14. Eel migrating from fresh to sea water is
a) Anadromous b) Potamodromous c) Catadromous d) Oceanodromous
15. Running adaptation is
a) Fossorial b) Cursorial c) Saltatorial d) Scansorial
16. Choose the correctly matched pair.
a) Tendon – specialized connective tissue b) Adipose tissue – dense connective tissue
c) Areolar tissue – loose connective tissue d) Cartilage – loose connective tissue
17. Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula?
3 1 3 1 2 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 3
a) 3 , 1 , 2 , 1 b) 2 , 1 , 2 , 3 c) 2 , 1 , 2 , 3 d) 3 , 1 , 3 , 3

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NAME Pre-Medical Model Entrance Exam Set-II (2079 –4–14)

18. Study of animal behaviour is called

a) Etiology b) Ethology c) Ecology d) Ethnology
19. Haemoglobin is a type of
a) Carbohydrate b) Respiratory pigment c) Vitamin d) Skin pigment
20. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive
system?
a) Amphibia b) Reptlia c) Aves d) Osteichthyes
21. Among them which has complete cellular structure?
a) Euglena b) cyanobacteria c) bacteria d) Mycoplasm
22. Interferon is
a) antibacterial protein b) antiviral protein
c) antiviral carbohydrate d) antibacterial antibiotic
23. The number of pyrenoids per chloroplast of Spirogyra is
a) 1 b) 2-10 c) many d) 1-16
24. Funaria belongs to the class
a) Bryopsida b) Anthoseropsida c) Filicales d) Hepaticopsida
25. The prothallus of Dryopteris are
a) diploid b) polyploid c) haploid d) sporophyte
26. Mycorrhiza roots are found in
a) Cycas b) Pinus c) Ephedra d) Dryopteris
27. Mustard has typical inflorescence called
a) umbel b) corymbose c) verticillaster d) racemose
28. Lodicules and glumes are found in
a) Brassicaceae b) Poaceae c) Solanaceae d) Liliaceae
29. Synecology deals with
a) individuals b) population c) community d) ecosystem
30. The vegetation found in very high temperature are
a) megatherm b) microtherms c) mesotherms d) hekistotherms
31. The initiating codon is
a) UAG b) GAU c) GUG d) UGG
32. The usual cause of genetic variation is
a) mutation b) nutrition c) crossing over d) non-disjunction
33. Power house of cell is
a) chloroplast b) Golgi bodies c) mitochondria d) protoplasm
34. Pyramid of number is inverted in
a) pond ecosystem b) forest ecosystem
c) grassland ecosystem d) tree ecosystem
35. Mucor belongs to the class
a) Deuteromycetes b) Oomycetes c) Ascomycetes d) Zygomycetes
36. Bacterial cell having single flagella at both ends is
a) monotrichous b) atrichous c) cephalotrichous d) amphitrichous
37. Light reaction of photosynthesis is
a) reduction of water molecules b) oxidation of water molecules
c) reduction of carbon dioxide d) oxidation of carbon dioxide

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NAME Pre-Medical Model Entrance Exam Set-II (2079 –4–14)

38. Fungal cell wall is made from

a) cellulose b) chitin c) peptidoglycan d) lipoprotein
39. Edible roots are found in
a) zinger b) potato d) sugarcane d) radish
40. The equational cell division is
a) amitosis b) meiosis c) fragmentation d) mitosis
41. An isotone of 32Ge76 is
(i) 32Ge77 (ii) 33As77 (iii) 34Se77 (iv) 34Se78
a) Only (i) and (ii) b) Only (ii) and (iii) c) Only (ii) and (iv) d) (ii), (iii), and (iv)
42. According to Bohr model, angular momentum of an electron in the 3rd orbit is :
3h 1.5h 3 9h
a) b) c) h d)
  
43. Which of the following is optically active?
a) Oxalic acid b) Ethylene glycol c) Glycerol d) Tartaric acid
44. 10g CaCO3 gives on strong heating CO2. It gives quicklime (in grams)
a) 5g b) 4.4g c) 5.6g d) 4g
45. Baeyer’s reagent is used in the laboratory for
a) detection of double bond b) reduction process
c) oxidation process d) detection of glucose
46. Which of the following is the smallest cation?
a) Na+ b) Mg2+ c) Ca2+ d) Al3+
47. The element having very high ionizaiton energy but zero electron affinity is
a) H b) F c) He d) Be
48. NH3 has abnormally high boiling point because it has
a) alkaline nature b) distorted shape c) sp3 - Hybridization d) hydrogen bonding
49. In which of the following molecules the central atom does not have sp3 hybridization?
+ –
a) NH 4 b) CH4 c) SF4 d) BF4
50. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of X. The molecular
weight of X is
a) 64.0 b) 32.0 c) 40.0 d) 80.0
51. Gas deviates from ideal gas nature because molecules
a) are colouress b) attaract each other
c) contain covalent bond d) show Brownian movement.
52. In gaseous equilibrium the correct relation between Kc and Kp is
Kc Kp
a) Kc = Kp (RT)n b) Kp = Kc(RT)n c) RT = (Kp) n d) RT = (Kc) n

53. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is

a) –2 b) –1 c) 0 d) –4
54. The metal that cannot displace hydrogen from dil. HCl is
a) Al b) Fe c) Cu d) Zn
55. Which is the most basic of the following?
a) Na2O b) BaO c) As2O3 d) Al2O3

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NAME Pre-Medical Model Entrance Exam Set-II (2079 –4–14)

56. Which of the following oxides is not expected to react with sodium hydroxide?
a) CaO b) SiO2 c) BeO d) B2O3
57. Ammonia on catalytic oxidation gives an oxide from which nitric acid is obtained. The
oxide is
a) N2O3 b) NO c) NO2 d) N2O5
58. What are the products formed when chlorine is passed through aqueous hypo solution?
a) Na2SO3 + HCl + S b) Na2SO3 + SO3 + HCl
c) Na2SO4 + HCl + S d) Na2SO4 + HCl + SO2
59. Which is the weakest out of HF, HCl, HBr and HI?
a) HF b) HCl c) HBr d) HI
60. The latest technique used for purification of organic compounds is
a) chromatography b) vacuum distillation
c) fractional distillation d) crystallization
61. The correct IUPAC name of the compound with molecular formula, (CH3)3 C – CH3 is
a) Pentane b) 1, 1, 1 –trimethylethane
c) 2, 2- dimethylpropane d) Neopentane
62. The number of pi-bonds in CH2 = CH – CH = CH – C  CH is
a) 2 b) 5 c) 4 d) 3
63. Which of the following will show aromatic behaviour?

64. Which of the following is an electrophile?

a) H2O b) NH3 c) AlCl3 d) C2H5NH2
65. Resonance in most of the organic molecules
a) increases stability b) decreases stability c) increases reactivity d) None of these

66.

If the scalar and vector products of two vectors A, B are equal in magnitudes, then the angle
between the two vectors is
a) 45º b) 90º c) 180º d) 360º
67. A ball is dropped from the top of a tower of height h meters. It takes T seconds to reach the
ground. What is the position of the ball in T/3 seconds?
h 7h
a) 9 metres from the ground b) 9 metres from the ground
8h 17h
c) 9 metres from the ground d) 18 metres from the ground
68. When air resistance is taken into account while dealing with the motion of the projectile
which of the following properties of the projectile, shows an increase
a) range
b) maximum height
c) speed at which it strikes the ground
d) the angle at which the projectile strikes the ground

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NAME Pre-Medical Model Entrance Exam Set-II (2079 –4–14)

69. A cork is submerged in water by a spring attached to the bottom of a pail. When the pail is
kept in a elevator moving with an acceleration downwards, the spring length
a) increases b) decreases c) remains unchanged d) data insufficient
70. When two bodies collide elastically, then
a) kinetic energy of the system alone is conserved
b) only momentum is conserved
c) both kinetic energy and momentum are conserved
d) neither kinetic energy nor momentum is conserved
71. A missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic
and potential energy is
a) positive b) negative c) zero
d) may be positive or negative depending upon its initial velocity
72. The circular motion of a particle with constant speed is
a) periodic and simple harmonic b) simple harmonic but not periodic
c) neither periodic nor harmonic d) periodic but not simple harmonic
73. The Young's modulus of a perfectly rigid body is
a) unity b) zero c) infinity
d) some finite non zero constant
74. Coefficient of cubical expansion of water is minimum at
a) 0ºC b) 4ºC c) 5.5ºC d) 100ºC
75. If the volume of a gas is doubled at constant pressure, the average translational kinetic
energy of its molecules will
a) be doubled b) remain same
c) increase by a factor 2 d) becomes four times
76. 540gm of ice at 0ºC is mixed with 540gram of water at 80ºC. The final temperature of the
mixture is
a) 0ºC b) 40ºC c) 80ºC d) less than 0ºC
77. At absolute zero
a) all substances exist in solid form b) molecular motion ceases
c) water becomes ice d) none of the above
78. The absorptivity of a perfectly black body is
a) zero b) 1 c) less than 1 d) infinity
79. A gas slab is placed in the path of a beam of convergent light. The point of convergence of
light
a) moves towards the glass slab b) moves always from the glass slab
c) remains at the same point d) undergoes a lateral shift
80. A prism of refractive index g deviates the incident ray towards its base. If it is immersed in
a transparent liquid of refractive index l such that l > g, then prism would
a) deviate the ray towards its base b) deviate the ray away from its base
c) not deviate the ray at all d) nothing can be said
81. When two electrons are brought nearer, the potential energy of the system
a) increases b) decreases c) remains same
d) first increases, then decreases
82. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is 1 and 2 the
electric charge inside the surface will be:
a) (1 + 2) 0 b) (1 – 2) 0 c) (1 + 2)/0 d) (1 – 2)/0

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NAME Pre-Medical Model Entrance Exam Set-II (2079 –4–14)

83. A capacitor is connected to a battery. The force of attraction between the plates when the
separation between them is halved
a) becomes four times b) becomes two times
c) becomes eight times d) remains the same
84. In a charged capacitor the energy resides:
a) On the positive plate b) On both positive and negative plates
c) In the field between the plates d) Around the edge of capacitor plates
85. A wire has a resistance of 12 ohm. It is bent in the form of equilateral triangle. The effective
resistance between any two corners of the triangle is
a) 9 ohms b) 12 ohms c) 6 ohms d) 8/3 ohms
86. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 50 and gives full scale deflection for 10mA.
How could it be converted into an ammeter with a full scale deflection for 1A
a) 50/99 in series b) 50/99 in parallel c) 0.01 in series d) 0.01 in parallel
87. Two electric bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio of 1 : 2 are connected in parallel to a
constant voltage source. The powers dissipated in them have the ratio
a) 1 : 2 b) 1 : 1 c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 4
88. When a current passes through the junction of two different metals, evolution or
absorption of heat at the junction is known as
a) Joule effect b) Seebeck effect c) Peltier effect d) Thomson effect
89. Doping of intrinsic semiconductor is done
a) To neutralize charge carriers
b) To increase the concentration of majority charge carriers
c) To make it neutral before disposal
d) To carry out further purification
90. On increasing the reverse bias to a large value in a PN-junction diode, current
a) Increases slowly b) Remains fixed
c) Suddenly increases d) Decreases slowly
91. In a certain code EASY is coded as 5117.In the same code language, how will BEAM be
written as:
a) 4512 b) 2513 c) 2514 d) 2563
92. Arrange the following word in meaningful order.
1.Relief 2.Flood 3.Rain 4.Destruction
a) 1234 b) 3241 c) 3124 d) 4312
93. One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to each other face to face. If
Hema's shadow was exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was Rekha facing?
a) North b) South
c) East d) Data is inadequate
94. In the series 2, 6, 18, 54, ...... what will be the 8th term ?
a) 4370 b) 4374 c) 7443 d) 7434

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NAME Pre-Medical Model Entrance Exam Set-II (2079 –4–14)

95. Which one will replace the question mark?

a) 12 b) 13 c) 11 d) 10
96. A motorist knows four different routes from Bristol to Birmingham. From Birmingham to
Sheffield he knows three different routes and from Sheffield to Carlisle he knows two
different routes. How many routes does he know from Bristol to Carlisle?
a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 24
97. A dice is thrown four times and its four different positions are shown below. Find the
number on the face opposite the face showing 2.

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
98. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
99. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence,
the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's present age in years?
a) 24 b) 27
c) 40 d) Cannot be determined
100. The average weight of 16 boys in a class is 50.25 kg and that of the remaining 8 boys is 45.15
kg. Find the average weights of all the boys in the class.
a) 47.55 kg b) 48 kg c) 48.55 kg d) 49.25 kg

Best of Luck