Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Test Bank
Visit to download the full and correct content document:
https://testbankdeal.com/download/high-acuity-nursing-6th-edition-wagner-test-bank/
Wagner, High Acuity Nursing, 6e
Chapter 10
Question 1
Type: MCMA
The nurse is assessing a patient with an endotracheal tube and notes decreased breath sounds on the left with
normal sounds on the right. Which condition may cause this?
Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Rationale 1: A right pneumothorax would present with decreased sounds on the right.
Rationale 2: The right bronchus is larger than the left bronchus and is at almost a straight angle with the trachea.
This anatomical difference makes it easy for the tip of the endotracheal tube to slip into the right bronchus,
depriving the left lung from air. This results in decreased breath sounds on the left.
Rationale 4: A partially obstructed endotracheal tube would affect both sides equally.
Rationale 5: A large infiltrate in the left lung will decrease air movement through the tissues. This change in air
movement will decrease breath sounds on the affected side.
Global Rationale:
Question 2
Type: MCSA
A patient with pulmonary edema has a respiratory rate of 28 per minute. The nurse plans care for this patient
based on which change in the lungs?
4. Decreased compliance
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale 3: Pulmonary edema results from retention of fluid in the lung tissues.
Rationale 4: Decreased compliance increases the work of breathing and causes a decreased tidal volume. The
breathing rate increases to compensate for the decreased tidal volume. Examples of pulmonary disorders causing
decreased lung compliance include pulmonary edema.
Global Rationale:
Question 3
Type: MCSA
The patient has been diagnosed with early stage pneumonia. The nurse would anticipate which laboratory results?
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 2: In the early stages of pneumonia the alveolar surface area is reduced and the alveolar–capillary
membrane begins to thicken causing diffusion abnormalities. Oxygen and carbon dioxide do not diffuse at the
same rate. Carbon dioxide diffuses 20 times faster than oxygen; therefore, hypoxemia may be present with a
normal PaCO2. Only when the condition progresses untreated will the PaCO2 rise.
Rationale 3: PaCO2 will rise only after the disease has progressed.
Rationale 4: Oxygen will decrease, but PaCO2 will not rise initially.
Global Rationale:
Question 4
Type: MCMA
The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old patient who has no underlying respiratory pathology but whose carbon
dioxide level is slightly elevated. The nurse would contribute this increase to which changes associated with
normal aging?
Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
5. Overgrowth of alveoli
Rationale 1: The alveolar–capillary membrane thickens with aging, which may result in hypoxemia and/or
hypercapnia if the older patient becomes ill.
Rationale 2: As a person ages there is a normal decrease in the total lung surface area.
Rationale 3: Aging results in an increase in size of the airways, which increases dead space ventilation. This can
lead to carbon dioxide retention.
Rationale 4: Older patients may have increased air trapping due to normal loss of terminal airway supportive
structures.
Rationale 5: As a person ages, alveoli are destroyed. Overgrowth does not occur.
Global Rationale:
Question 5
Type: MCSA
The arterial blood gases of a patient with a large mass in the right lung show increasing hypoxemia and the patient
will be intubated for placement on a mechanical ventilator. In which position should the nurse place this patient
until intubation is begun?
3. Lying on the left side with the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees
4. Lying on the right side with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: Being placed flat in bed will not improve ventilation perfusion. The patient should benefit from
being on the left side.
Rationale 2: This position will not take advantage of gravity or of the body’s natural ventilation tendencies.
Rationale 4: If the right lung is not capable of normal ventilation, redirecting blood flow would result in a
mismatch.
Global Rationale:
Question 6
Type: MCSA
A patient, diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis, presents with Kussmaul respirations at a rate of 28. A newly
licensed nurse asks the patient to try to slow his breathing. What instruction should the preceptor provide?
1. “Keep trying to slow the patient’s respirations because breathing so fast is hard on his heart.”
3. “Let the patient set his respiratory rate as rapid breathing helps to compensate for his acidosis.”
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: Breathing rapidly does increase strain on the heart, but the rapid respirations in this situation are
helpful to the patient and should not be discouraged.
Rationale 2: Breathing rapidly and deeply as in Kussmaul’s respirations will not result in respiratory acidosis.
Rationale 3: A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis has a primary metabolic acidosis. As a compensatory
mechanism to regain acid–base homeostasis, alveolar hyperventilation occurs in an attempt to blow off carbon
dioxide and drive the pH upward toward alkaline. The respiratory buffer system is a rapid-response compensatory
mechanism for metabolic acid–base disturbances.
Global Rationale:
Question 7
Type: MCSA
A postoperative patient’s nasogastric drainage has been 500 mL in the last 8 hours. The nurse would assess this
patient for findings associated with which acid–base imbalance?
1. Metabolic alkalosis
2. Metabolic acidosis
3. Respiratory acidosis
4. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: The loss of gastric fluid from nasogastric suction can result in metabolic alkalosis.
Rationale 2: Loss of body fluids from lower abdominal drains would result in loss of bicarbonate and produce
metabolic acidosis.
Rationale 3: The respiratory system is not involved in the development of this acid–base imbalance.
Global Rationale:
Question 8
Type: MCSA
A patient was extubated in the postanesthesia recovery room prior to transfer to the intensive care unit (ICU).
Upon admission to the ICU the patient is sedated, but will arouse when stimulated. Blood pressure is 106/68
mm/Hg, heart rate is 68 and regular, temperature is 97.8 F, and respirations are 12 bpm. The nurse would monitor
this patient for which changes in arterial blood gases?
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: An increase in pH and decrease in PaCO2 indicates respiratory alkalosis is occurring. This is not the
expected change with this patient.
Rationale 2: These ABG results indicate metabolic alkalosis. This is not the expected change with this patient.
Rationale 3: The patient is at risk for respiratory acidosis, which is associated with these ABG changes, as a
result of decreased, shallow respirations that can cause alveolar hypoventilation. Carbon dioxide is not being
blown off and carbonic acid levels can rise.
Rationale 4: These ABG results indicate metabolic acidosis. This is not the expected change in this patient.
Global Rationale:
Question 9
Type: MCSA
pH 7.30, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3 14 mEq/L, and PaO2 50. The nurse evaluates these ABGs as representing
which acid–base imbalance?
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 3: The patient has a partially compensated metabolic acidosis with moderate hypoxemia because the
pH is still within the acid range. The HCO3 is the primary acidic metabolic component causing the acidic pH. In
an attempt to correct the metabolic acidosis, the CO2 is being blown off as indicated by the alkaline PaCO2. The
PaO2 falls within the moderate range of hypoxemia (60 to 40 mm Hg).
Global Rationale:
Question 10
Type: MCSA
A patient's PaO2 level is 76 mm Hg. The nurse would be least concerned regarding this finding in which patient?
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: Age affects normal ABG values. The older adult has a 25 to 30% decrease in PaO2 between the ages
of 30 and 80 years.
Rationale 2: Low oxygen levels in a patient who is recovering from anesthesia would alert the nurse to a possible
problem.
Rationale 3: Smoking can decrease oxygenation, but the nurse would be concerned if the level was this low.
Rationale 4: The patient who is intubated should have a PaO2 higher than 76 mm Hg. The nurse would be
concerned about an obstruction in the tube or developing pathology.
Global Rationale:
Question 11
Type: MCSA
The nurse is assessing the nutritional intake of a patient diagnosed with chronic carbon dioxide retention. Which
patient report indicates the patient requires additional information about dietary choices?
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: Salad is a low fat, high fiber option that would benefit this patient’s nutrition.
Rationale 2: There is no indication that coffee is not appropriate for this patient.
Rationale 3: The patient who retains carbon dioxide should avoid high carbohydrate meals. Carbohydrates
increase the overall carbon dioxide load in the body.
Rationale 4: A protein–calorie deficit weakens muscles, including respiratory muscles. The patient’s attempts to
increase protein in the diet should be reinforced.
Global Rationale:
Question 12
Type: MCSA
The patient complains that he awakens “two or three” times every night because he is so short of breath. The
nurse would ask additional assessment questions about which condition?
3. Stroke
4. Kidney infection
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: The patient is describing episodes of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, which is related to left
ventricular failure. The prolonged supine position allows dependent fluid from the lower extremities to recirculate
causing volume overload and sudden severe dyspnea.
Rationale 2: Pneumonia results in consolidation of lung tissue. It is not associated with sudden dyspnea during
the night.
Rationale 3: There is no indication that a neurological problem is causing this patient’s symptoms.
Rationale 4: There is no indication that this patient is experiencing shortness of breath at night due to a kidney
infection. Kidney infection might result in need to urinate frequently during the night.
Global Rationale:
Question 13
Type: MCSA
The nurse is auscultating a patient’s lung fields and hears a coarse sound like bubbling water. The sounds are
heard best on expiration and in the center of the patient’s chest. How should the nurse document these sounds?
1. Crackles
2. Rhonchi
3. Wheeze
4. Stridor
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 1: Crackles are discrete, delicate popping sounds heard best on inspiration.
Rationale 3: Wheezes are musical sounds that may be high-pitched or low-pitched. They are heard both on
inspiration and expiration and are of long duration.
Rationale 4: Stridor is a type of wheeze. It is high-pitched, inspiratory, and heard best over the neck.
Global Rationale:
Question 14
Type: MCSA
The nurse is planning to use a respiratory spirometer to measure the amount of air that moves in and out of a
patient’s lungs with each normal breath. How will the nurse document the results of this test?
1. Tidal volume
2. Vital capacity
4. Minute ventilation
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: Tidal volume is the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each normal breath.
Rationale 2: Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air expired after a maximal inspiration.
Rationale 3: Forced expiratory volume testing generally is not conducted as a bedside trending parameter.
Rationale 4: Minute ventilation is the total volume of expired air in 1 minute and is not a direct measurement but
a simple calculation.
Global Rationale:
Question 15
Type: MCSA
A patient is undergoing testing to differentiate her airway disorder as being restrictive or obstructive. The nurse
would evaluate a normal result on which test to indicate a restrictive disorder is present?
1. Vital capacity
2. Tidal volume
3. Minute ventilation
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale 1: Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air expired after a maximal inspiration. Vital capacity
decreases in the presence of restrictive pulmonary diseases.
Rationale 2: Tidal volume is the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each normal breath. Tidal
volume decreases when lung diseases exist. Results do not differentiate between restrictive and obstructive
disorders.
Rationale 3: Minute ventilation measures total lung ventilation changes. It may be abnormal in either restrictive
or obstructive diseases.
Rationale 4: Forced expiratory volume measures how rapidly a person can forcefully exhale air after a maximal
inhalation, measuring volume over time. Patients who have a restrictive airway problem are able to push air
forcefully out of their lungs at a normal rate.
Global Rationale:
Question 16
Type: MCSA
A 40-year-old postoperative patient has a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL and a SaO2 of 95 percent. Considering all
aspects, what conclusion would the nurse make about this patient’s condition?
Wagner, High Acuity Nursing, 6/E Test Bank
Copyright 2014 by Pearson Education, Inc.
1. The patient is stable and at no special risk.
4. The patient’s SaO2 is higher than expected for the patient’s age.
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 2: It is not possible to accurately assess this patient’s true oxygenation status from the test results
provided.
Rationale 3: The patient has a potential risk for hypoxia because SaO2 is the measure of percentage of oxygen
combined with hemoglobin compared to the total amount it could carry. Although the patient's SaO2 is within
normal range, the hemoglobin is only 8 g/dL, indicating that all 8 grams are adequately being saturated. Should
the patient's oxygen demand increase, as it frequently will in a postoperative patient, the potential for hypoxia
may exist because of the lower hemoglobin and inability to carry more oxygen to meet the demand.
Rationale 4: The SaO2 is within normal limits for the patient’s age; however, its accuracy is at doubt.
Global Rationale:
Question 17
Type: MCMA
A nurse is participating on a committee charged with the task of choosing capnography equipment for a new
emergency department. The nurse should present which information regarding these choices?
Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
5. Colorimetric measurement provides a wide range of color results that are compared to a standard chart.
Rationale 1: The major disadvantage of sidestream analyzers is that values are indirect estimated measurements.
Rationale 2: A major disadvantage to the mainstream technique is that it requires the patient to be intubated.
Rationale 3: Colorimetric capnography can be used in the ED or in the field to determine accurate placement of
endotracheal tubes.
Rationale 4: Mainstream analyzers are placed in-line as part of the airway circuit and continuously measure the
ETCO2. The measurement is real-time.
Rationale 5: Colorimetric measurement responds to the patient’s exhaled CO2 with three color ranges.
Global Rationale:
Question 18
Type: MCMA
A patient with severe chronic respiratory illness suddenly develops a high fever. The nurse would plan care for
this patient based upon which understanding of the fever’s impact on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?
Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
Rationale 1: Increased temperature causes increased oxygen demand which shifts the curve to the right.
Rationale 2: Increasing body temperature increases oxygen demand, so additional oxygen will be released to the
tissue to meet this demand.
Rationale 3: Severe and rapid shifts in the curve can result in life-threatening tissue hypoxia.
Rationale 4: Alkalosis causes an opposite response in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve and inhibits oxygen
release at the tissue level.
Rationale 5: Hemoglobin binds more readily to oxygen in the lungs when the patient is hypothermic.
Global Rationale:
Question 19
Type: MCMA
A patient’s PaO2 is 88 mm Hg while on FiO2 of 0.50. What can the nurse conclude about this patient’s
intrapulmonary shunt?
Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.
4. This data has little use in determining oxygenation status of the patient who is retaining CO2.
Rationale 1: Calculating the P/F ratio is the simplest way to estimate intrapulmonary shunt. In this case the value
is 176.
Rationale 3: The minimum acceptable level is higher than this estimation of intrapulmonary shunt.
Rationale 4: As long as the PaCO2 is stable this estimation is valid and is applicable to oxygenation status.
Global Rationale:
Question 20
Type: MCSA
A nurse who is evaluating a patient’s arterial blood gases has determined that the patient’s pH is acidic. What is
the next question the nurse would ask in this interpretation?
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: The patient’s symptoms are not considered at this point in the evaluation.
Rationale 2: The nurse has not yet assessed the components, so this question is premature.
Rationale 3: After determining the pH status, the next step is evaluation of PaCO2.
In the preceding pages our chief aim has been to determine the
nature and the mode of action of the influences under which the
Assyro-Chaldæan sculptor had to do his work. We have explained
how certain conditions hampered his progress and in some respects
arrested the development of his skill.
The height to which the plastic genius of this people might have
carried their art had their social habits been more favourable to the
study of the nude, may perhaps be better judged from their treatment
of animals than anything else. Some of these, both in relief and in
the round, are far superior to their human figures, and even now
excite the admiration of sculptors.
The cause of this difference is easily seen. When an artist had to
represent an animal, his study of its form was not embarrassed by
any such obstacle as a long and heavy robe. The animal could be
watched in its naked simplicity and all its instinctive and
characteristic movements grasped. The sculptor could follow each
contour of his model; he could take account of the way in which the
limbs were attached to the trunk; he saw the muscles swell beneath
the skin, he saw them tighten with exertion and relax when at rest.
He was not indifferent to such a sight; on the contrary, he eagerly
drank in the instruction it afforded, and of all the works he produced
those in which such knowledge is put into action are by far the most
perfect; they show us better than anything else how great were his
native gifts, and what a fund of sympathy with the beauties of life and
with its inexhaustible variety his nature contained. Whether he model
an animal separately or introduce it into some historic scene, it is
always well rendered both in form and movement.
This is to be most clearly seen in the rich and varied series of
Assyrian reliefs, but the less numerous works of the same kind of
Babylonian origin show the same tendency and at least equal talent.
In copying the principal types of the animal world with fidelity and
vigour, the Assyrian sculptors only followed the example set them by
their south-country masters.
Fig. 68.—Head of a cow, bronze.
British Museum. Width across the
cheeks 3¾ inches.
A cow’s head in bronze, which was brought from Bagdad by Mr.
Rassam, is broad in treatment and of great truth (Fig. 68); the same
good qualities are to be found in a terra-cotta tablet found by Sir
Henry Rawlinson in the course of his excavations in the Birs-
Nimroud (Fig. 69). It represents a man, semi-nude and beardless
and with a stout stick in his hand, leading a large and powerfully
made dog by a plaited strap. It is a sort of mastiff that might be used
for hunting the wild beasts in the desert and marshes, the wild boar,
hyena, and panther, if not the lion. The characteristics of the species
are so well marked that naturalists have believed themselves able to
recognise it as that of a dog which is still extant, not in Mesopotamia
indeed, but in Central Asia.[167] We may seek in it for the portrait of
one of those Indian hounds kept, in the time of Herodotus, by the
Satrap of Babylon. His pack was so numerous that it took the
revenues of four large villages to support it.[168]
Similar subjects were represented upon other tablets of the same
origin. One of them shows a lion about to devour a bull and disturbed
by a man brandishing a mace. Nothing could be more faithful than
the action of the animal; without letting go his prey he raises a paw,
its claws opened and extended and ready to be buried in the side of
the rash person who interrupts his meal.[169]