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BATCH 8

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION BOARD EXAM TRIAL


Prepared by: Prof. Frederick Rodriguez

INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONS 10. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to
1. A prisoner sentenced for more than three years is under the capital punishment are considered
jurisdiction of the A. municipal prisoners
A. City Jail B. provincial prisoners
B. District Jail C. city prisoners
C. Provincial Jail D. insular prisoners
D. Bureau of Corrections
11. Refers to those who are confined in correctional facilities
2. Detention prisoners who are awaiting judgment or trial of their awaiting verdict in their cases
case are under the supervision and control of A. Prisoner
A. Provincial Jails B. Detainees
B. National Bilibid Prisons C. Probationer
C. Bureau of Corrections D. Offender
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
12. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
3. It is an institution intended to detain or house political (BJMP) is
offenders. A. RA 8551
A. Iwahig Penal farm B. RA 9165
B. Sablayan Prison Farm C, RA 6975
C. Davao Penal Farm D. RA 4890
D. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm
13. Operation conducted by the BJMP where a prisoner maybe
4. For security purposes, what is the minimum required ratio in checked at anytime
escorting an offender when in transit? A. Search and seizure
A. 1:2+2 B. Confiscation
C. 1:1+1 C. Inspection
B. 1:2+1 D. Operation greyhound
D. 1:1+2
14. A person convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment would be
5. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails. classified as what kind of prisoner?
A. BJMP A. Municipal prisoner
B. Bureau of Corrections B. Insular prisoner
C. Provincial Government C. Provincial prisoner
D. Parole and Probation Administration D. Detention prisoner

6. It is the primary objective of custodial and security division. 15. The Bureau of Corrections which is headed by the Director of
A. To prevent riots Corrections is under the
B. To implement discipline A. Department of Justice
C. To help in reformation of prisoners B. Department of Interior and Local Government
D. Security C. Office of the President
D. None of these
7. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance
and has not been convicted is a - 16. If you have committed a crime and found guilty with it, then
A. Detention Prisoner the court decided that you will be serving a sentence of six months
C. Municipal Prisoner and one day. According to your sentence, on what category of
B. Provincial Prisoner prisoner do you belong?
D. City Prisoner A. Municipal prisoner
B. City jail prisoner
8. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three C. Provincial prisoner
(3) years is a D. Sentenced prisoner
A. Municipal prisoner
B. Detention prisoner 17. Institution for the confinement of persons who are awaiting
C. City prisoner final disposition of their criminal cases and also for the service of
D. National or Insular prisoner those convicted and punished with shorter sentences, usually up
to three years.
9. How many times counting of prisoner be made within 24- A. Lock-up
hours? B. Ordinary Jail
A. At least 3 times C. Jail
B. At least 4 times D. Work house
C. At least 2 times
D. At least 5 times 18. Camp Sampaguita is….
a. Maximum Security
b. Medium Security

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c. Minimum Security C. Correction
d. New Bilibid Prison D. Reception and Diagnostic Center

19. The Leyte Regional Prison was established on… 30. An inmate maybe excused from mandatory labor if he or she
A. January 16, 1973 is...
B. September 27, 1954 A. over 55 years of age
C. November 27, 1929 B. over 60 years of age
D. Nov. 16, 1904 C. over 65 years of age
D. over 70 years of age
20. It is known as “Prison without Walls.”
A. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm 31. A finally convicted able-bodied inmates maybe required to
B. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm work for at least how many hours in a day?
C. Correctional Institution for Women A. 4 hours
D. New Bilibid Prison B. 6 hours
C. 8 hours
21. A satellite unit of NBP that houses the Mediums Security Risk D. none of these
prisoner located near the Reception and Diagnostic Center (RDC)
and Youth Rehabilitation Center. 32. What is the security facility for the temporary detention of
A. Camp Sampaguita persons held for investigation or awaiting preliminary hearing:
B. Camp Bukang Liwayway usually the period of detention does not exceed forty –eight (48)
C. Camp Abelon hours?
D. Camp Abubakar a. Lock Up
b. Ordinary Jail
22. A security camp that houses prisoners whose sentence are 20 c. Workhouse Jail
years and above, life termers or those under capital punishment, d. Prison
those with pending cases, those under disciplinary punishment,
those whose cases are on appeal, and those under detention; 33. Considered as the forerunner of modern penology.
A. Maximum Security Camp a. Walnut Street Jail
B. Medium Security Camp b. Elmira Reformatory
C. Minimum Security Camp c. Panopticon Prison House
D. None of these d. Bridewell Institution of England

23. Infant born in prison may be allowed to stay with sentenced 34. The Auburn Prison System differs from the Pennsylvania
serving mother for- System in that…
A. 1 year a. In Auburn System was an early prison system requiring system
B. 2 year requiring inmate silence, individual cells, and inmate labor in
C. 3 years those cells both during the day and night.
D. 4 years b. In Pennsylvania System, persons worked during the day in
groups and were kept in solitary confinement at night, with
24. Giving punishment to a person so to serve as an example to enforced silence at all times
others is the theory of c. Auburn System, persons worked during the day in groups and
A. Self-defense were kept in solitary confinement at night,
B. Social defense d. In Auburn System, persons worked during the day in
C. Exemplary groups and were kept in solitary confinement at night,
D. Equality with enforced silence at all times while Pennsylvania
System was an early prison system requiring system
25. The punishment which affords the society or the individual requiring inmate silence, individual cells, and inmate
who was wronged, the opportunity to impose upon the offender labor in those cells both during the day and night.
such suitable punishment as may be enforced.
A. Reformation 35. Consists of circular building contain in a multi cells around the
B. Retribution periphery.
C. Expiation a. Galley
D. Deterrence b. Elmira Reformatory
c. Panopticon Prison House
26. Force is used only by correctional institution to: d. Bridewell Institution of England
A. exact respect
B. perform assignments 36. Angel of Prisons…
C. enforce discipline a. Alexander Maconochie
D. show physical strength and power b. Elizabeth Fry
c. Sir Walter Crofton
27. Ideal number of days for proper classification of newly d. John Howard
convicted offenders at the RDC?
A. 45 days 37. In this system persons worked during the day in groups and
B. 30 days were kept in solitary confinement at night, with enforced silence
C. 55 days at all times.
D. 15 days a. progressive human system
b. Progressive Stage System
28. How long is the duration of stay in the viewing of the deceased c. Auburn System
relative of an inmate? d. Pennsylvania System
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours 38. Mark System is also known as…
C. 6 hours a. progressive human system
D. 12 hours b. Progressive Stage System
c. Auburn System
29. It insures a more careful selection of the institution in which d. Pennsylvania System
the prisoner is to be confined.
A. Courts
B. Quarantine Unit 39. Irish System is also known as…

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a. progressive human system 50. Refers to those who are confined in correctional facilities
b. Progressive Stage System awaiting verdict in their cases
c. Auburn System A. Prisoner
d. Pennsylvania System B. Detainees
C. Probationer
40. Who introduced the Mark System? D. Offender
a. Alexander Maconochie
b. Elizabeth Fry 51. What is the for of punishment which is intended to cause
c. Sir Walter Crofton physical pain to a person?
d. John Howard a. law of retaliation
b. Execution
41. Who introduced the Irish System? c. Corporal Punishment
a. Alexander Maconochie d. Blood feuds
b. Elizabeth Fry
c. Sir Walter Crofton 52. Consists of circular building contain in a multi cells around the
d. John Howard periphery.
a. Galley
42. Detention prisoners who are awaiting judgment or trial of their b. Elmira Reformatory
case are under the supervision and control of… c. Panopticon Prison House
A. Provincial Jails d. Bridewell Institution of England
B. National Bilibid Prisons
C. Bureau of Corrections 53. A reform-minded governor of Pennsylvania who replaced the
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology existing regulations governing conduct in colony with the Quakers
Criminal Code.
43. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology A. John Howard C. William Penn
(BJMP) is B. Hohn D. Cray D. William
A. RA 8551 Blackstone
B. RA 9165
C, RA 6975 54. Which among the following is NOT ONE of the four-colonies
D. RA 4890 of the Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm?
A. Inagawan Sub-colony C. Pasugui sub-ccolony
44. The Bureau of Corrections which is headed by the Director of B. Yapang sub-colony D. Pusog sub-colony
Corrections is under the
A. Department of Justice 55. Which of them that carries out the treatment program of the
B. Department of Interior and Local Government prisoner?
C. Office of the President A. Reception and Diagnostic Center staff
D. None of these B. Classification Committee
C. Administrative Staff
45. Institution for the confinement of persons who are awaiting D. Warden
final disposition of their criminal cases and also for the service of
those convicted and punished with shorter sentences, usually up 56. The Director of English Prison who opened the Borstal
to three years. Institution after visiting Elmira Reformatory in 1897.
A. Lock-up A. Sir Evelyn Ruggles C. Sir Samuel Romily
B. Ordinary Jail B. John Howard D. Zebulon Reed
C. Jail Brockway
D. Work house 57. Pursuant to Executive Order No. 70, only medium and
minimum security prisoners may be allowed to view the remains
46. When conducting routinary custodial (in cell or compound) of the immediate members of their families within the second
guarding, the ration of ________ or one shall be observed. degree of consanguinity, EXCEPT:
A. 1:5 A. Grandparent C. Children
B. 1:7 B. Grandchildren D. Common law wife
C. 1:9 58. This is a right in ecclesiastical court during the middle ages
D. 1:10 particularly in England.
A. Inquisition C. Incapacitation
47. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain B. Benefit of Clergy D. Retribution
convicted offenders for no longer or extended period of time,
including those who are waiting their death sentence. 59. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve, at the rate
A. Halfway house of highest minimum wage a day subject to certain rules, for failure
B. Farm house to pay a fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment is referred
C. Jail to as -
D. Prison A. subsidiary imprisonment C. secondary
imprisonment
48. What is the security facility for the temporary detention of B. preventive imprisonment D. substitute imprisonment
persons held for investigation or awaiting preliminary hearing:
usually the period of detention does not exceed forty –eight (48) 60. Who compose the initial wave anti-riot assault contingent
hours? whose main objectives shall be to disperse the rioters and get
A. Lock-up jail their leaders and shall be armed with wicker shields, protective
B. Ordinary Jail headgears, gasmask, and night sticks or batons?
C. Workhouse Jail A. 1st group Anti-Riot C. 3rd group Anti-Riot
D. Provincial Jail B. 4th group Anti-Riot D. 2nd group Anti-Riot

49. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails. 61. A method undertaken to allow prisoners opportunity for
A. BJMP normal sex life.
B. Bureau of Corrections A. Visitation
C. Provincial Government C. Masturbation
D. Parole and Probation Administration B. Sodomy
D. Conjugal visit

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62. Newly arrived inmates committed for the first time is 77. In the exercise of religious beliefs of prisoners, a prison official
considered as – trying to convert a prisoner to change his religion.
A. First Class Inmate C. Third Class Inmate A. Proselytizing C. Reparation
B. Second Class Inmate D. Colonist B. Restitution D. Conversionism
63. It served as the cornerstone of rehabilitation.
A. Religion 78. What is referred to as “HUSTLING” inside the prison?
C. Discipline A. Reporting illegal activities C. Using prohibited drugs
B. Education B. Doing prison assignment D. Selling illegal
D. Recreational commodities

64. It refers to those items, though authorized, is already in 79. Considered as the golden age of penology.
excessive quantities to become a fire hazard, a threat to security a. 1870-1880
or has become causative in making the place unsanitary. b.1880-1890
A. Contraband C. Prohibited Items c.1890-1900
B. Paraphernalia D. Nuisance d. 1900-1910
Contraband
80. A written order of the court or any other competent authority
65. All EXCEPT one belongs to the command group of the Bureau confining an offender to jail or prison is_____.
of Jail Management and Penology. A. Commitment Order C. Writ of Execution
A. President C. Chief, BJMP B. Warrant of Arrest D. Mittimus
B. Deputy Chief D. Warden
81. It is a device made of a wooden or metal framework erected
66. In case of Jailbreaks, who shall immediately sound the alarm? on a post, with holes for securing the head and hands, formerly
A. Desk Officer C. Control Center used for punishment by public humiliation and often further
B. Armorer D. Officer –in -Charge physical abuse.
a. Stocks
67. Who among the following is responsible for handling the keys d. Flogging (also called whipping or caning)
in women’s quarter and the keys shall be available all the time. c. Iron maiden
A. Key Matron C. Resident Key Matron d. Pillory
B. Resident Matron D. Picklock
82. A torture device consisting of a rectangular, usually wooden
68. Lowest punishment in jail is – frame, slightly raised from the ground, with a roller at one or both
A. reprimand C. written warning ends. The victim's ankles are fastened to one roller and the wrists
B. solitary confinement D. visual warning are chained to the other.
a. The rack
69. Within the radius by road from the confinement facility and b. Branding
the actual stay of the inmates to view the remains should not c. Mutilation (maiming)
exceed three hours – d. Stocks
A. 25 Kilometer C. 30 Kilometer
B. 250 Kilometer D. 300 Kilometer 83. What are the feet restraining devices that were used as a form
of corporal punishment and public humiliation?
70. Under the rules, the chairman of disciplinary board for jails a. Stocks
should be the - b. Flogging (also called whipping or caning)
A. Warden C. Assistant warden c. Iron maiden
B. Custodial officer D. Security officer d. Pillory

71. Prescribed color of uniform for the detainees of the Bureau of 84. Involves the loss of, or incapacity to use, a bodily member, is
Jail Management and Penology is – and has been practiced by many societies with various cultural
A. Yellow C. Gray and religious significance, and is also a customary form of physical
B. Brown D. Blue punishment, especially applied on the principle of an eye for an
eye.
72. Who shall immediately sound the alarm and the Warden or a. Branding
Desk Officer shall be notified? b. Mutilation (maiming)
A. Action Center C. Planning Center c. Stocks
B. Emergency Center D. Control Center d. Flogging (also called whipping or caning)

73. Who among the following inmates may NOT be allowed to see 85. A torture device, consisting of a solid iron cabinet with a
the remains of a dead immediate family member? hinged front and spike-covered interior, sufficiently tall to enclose
A. Minimum security C. Medium security a human being.
B. Maximum security D. None of these a. Guillotine
b. Flogging (also called whipping or caning)
74. In Operation Greyhound, all orders concerning troop c. Iron maiden
movements will emanate from him. d. Pillory
A. Warden C. Ground Commander
B. Team Leader D. Officer –in -charge 86. A beating administered with a whip or rod, with blows
commonly directed to the person's back. It was imposed as a form
75. Any instrument or contraption used for the dispensation or of judicial punishment and as a means of maintaining discipline in
intake of harmful substances. schools, prisons, military forces, and private homes.
A. Contraband C. Prohibited Items a. Stocks
B. Paraphernalia D. Nuisance Contraband b. Flogging (also called whipping or caning)
c. Iron maiden
76. Fhukymo Mikuto was convicted to serve a penalty of 6 years d. Pillory
of imprisonment for usurpation of a person in authority due to his
frequent introduction of himself as NBI agent, what would be his 87. In criminal law, branding with a hot iron was a mode of
classification under PD 29? punishment to remind offenders of their status in life.
A. Detention prisoner C. Municipal Prisoner a. The rack
B. Provincial prisoner D. Insular Prisoner b. Branding
c. Mutilation (maiming)

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d. Stocks
99. Camp Sampaguita is….
88. What is the lengthy conflict between families involving a cycle a. Maximum Security
of retaliatory killings or injury? b. Medium Security
a. Lex Talionis c. Minimum Security
b. Execution d. New Bilibid Prison
c. Corporal Punishment
d. Blood Feuds 100. A satellite unit of NBP that houses the Mediums Security Risk
prisoner located near the Reception and Diagnostic Center (RDC)
89. Typical lethal injection consisted of three chemicals injected and Youth Rehabilitation Center.
into a viable part of the prisoner’s body in the following order: A. Camp Sampaguita
1. potassium chloride B. Camp Bukang Liwayway
2. sodium thiopental, C. Camp Abelon
3. pancuronium bromide, D. Camp Abubakar
a. 1,2,3
b. 2,3,1 NON-INSTITUTIONAL
c. 3,2,1 1. He grants 10 days GCTA to a prisoner who shows good
d. 2,1,3 behavior inside institution or correction.
A. BUCOR Director C. DOJ Secretary
90. A barbiturate anesthetic, which is supposed to induce deep B. Jail Warden D. DILG secretary
unconsciousness in about 20 seconds,
a. pancuronium bromide 2. Time allotted for a prisoner who made an escape form prison
b. potassium chloride during catastrophe or mutiny for him to avail special time
c. sodium thiopental allowance for loyalty after the said calamity/disorder has been
declared passed by the president.
91. AN ACT PROHIBITING THE IMPOSITION OF DEATH PENALTY A. 12 hours C. 48 hours
IN THE PHILIPPINES. B. 3 days D. 1 day
a. REPUBLIC ACT No. 9346
b. Republic Act No. 8177 3. It evaluates prisoner’s fitness and qualification for the grant of
c. REPUBLIC ACT NO. 7659 pardon and parole.
A. Department of Justice
92. The study of punishment for crime or of criminal offenders. It C. Bureau of Corrections
includes the study of control and prevention of crime through B. Parole and Probation Administration
punishment of criminal offenders. D. Board of Pardon and Parole
a. Banishment
b. Exile 4. Presidential Decree 968 establishes the___.
c. Punishment A. Good conduct time allowance C. Rights of the accused person
d. Penology B. Adult probation D. Board of
Claims
93. Penology was derived from the Latin term…
a. Penology 5. Julian Buenaventura was sentenced to serve a maximum term
b. Puniss of imprisonment of not more than 6 years, he can apply for
c. Poena probation but his application will not be considered if:
d. Poener I. he is convicted of subversion or any crime against national
security or public order.
94. What is the state of being barred from one's native country, II. he was previously convicted by final judgment of any offense
typically for political or punitive reasons? punished by an imprisonment of not less than 1 month and one
a. Banishment day, and or a fine not more than 22 pesos.
b. Exile III. he was previously granted probation.
c. Punishment
d. Penology A. Any of those listed C. I and II only
B. All of those listed D. III only
95. What is the punishment of being sent away from a country or
other place? 6. Aside from his name, offense which he was convicted and court
a. Banishment imposing the sentence, what information about an offender
b. Exile should be reported to the commissioner of immigration?
c. Punishment A. His educational background and profession.
d. Penology B. Name of his wife and children
C. His age, weight and height
96. Which of the following is considered as the weakest D. His nationality and number, if he is an alien,
component of the criminal justice system? certification of registration.
a. law enforcement
b. prosecution 7. Which of the factor is to be considered in the petition for
c. community executive clemency?
d. court a. Age of the petitioner.
e. Corrections b. Gravity of the offense.
c. Manner in which offense was committed.
97. It is known as “Prison without Walls.” d. petitioners institutional conduct or behavior
A. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm e. Previous criminal record if any.
B. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm A. a, b, d, and e C. all of those listed
C. Correctional Institution for Women B. a, b, c, and d D. b, c and a
D. New Bilibid Prison
8. Which of the following is exercised by the chief executive, with
98. The Leyte Regional Prison was established on… the concurrence congress?
A. January 16, 1973 A. probation C. pardon
B. September 27, 1954 B. amnesty D. parole
C. November 27, 1929
D. Nov. 16, 1904

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9. Parole and Probation Administration is a ____________
correction. 20. Which of the following a probationer should avoid?
A. Institutional C. integrated A. Make periodic office report.
B. Community based D. traditional B. Go and gamble
C. Work regularly to support his family.
10. Changing criminal through non-punitive means is referred to D. Stay away from bad associates.
as: 21. What document is issued to a parolee whose maximum period
A. Retribution C. Restitution of prison term has expired?
B. Reformation D. Rehabilitation A. Certificate of final discharged
B. Certification of prison term completion.
11. Jason was convicted to a prison term of prision correctional. C. Certification of final release.
Will he qualify for probation? D. Certification of final release and discharged.
A. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and one day.
B. No, his sentence is 6 years and one day. 22. If the detainee does not agree to abide rules applied for a
C. Yes his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day. convicted prisoners. ________ of his preventive imprisonment
D. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 day. shall be reduced to the duration of his sentence.
A. One Half C. Two third
12. This refers to the right to be tried in an ecclesiastical court B. Four fifth D. One
during the middle ages. fourth
A. inquisition C. social contract 23. Probation may be given to a person upon____.
B. benefit of clergy D. secular A. Conviction but before serving his sentence.
prosecution B. While serving his sentence.
C. During an appeal.
13. Tito was 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime of D. Before judgment of conviction.
theft. Can he apply for probation under the Adult Probation
Law? 24. Precursor of our use of fine and restitution today, introduce
A. No, because he is entitled to a parole. by law of Babylon, Greece and Rome for crime which does not
B. No, because his crime is theft. affect the safety of the state.
C. No, because he is only 17 years old A. Recognizance C. Reconsideration
D. No, because he is convicted of a crime. B. Money Compensation D. bail

14. The judge will based the grant of probation on the report 25. A French word which means “Word of Honor” is_____.
submitted by: A. Parole C. Parole
A. Social Worker C. Prosecutor B. Probation D. Reprieve
B. Probation Officer D. Police
Officer 26. He helps the juvenile offender at Birmingham court by finding
them a person who will act as their guardian.
15. When can a drug user or one who is in possession of illegal A. Gov. Alexander H. Rice
drugs be placed on probation? B. Matthew Davenport Hill
A. First time offender. C. John Augustus
B. First time offender and less than 21 years old. D. Chief Justice White
C. Second time offender and less than 21 years old.
D. Second time offender. 27. Direct ancestor of probation, which means binding over for
good behavior.
16. It is judicial action or legal disposition that allows the A. Reconciliation C. Reconsideration
offender to remain in the community subject to conditions B. Recognizance D. Money compensation
imposed by the court.
A. commutation C. reprieve 28. Client who recommitted to prison by the Board shall be made
B. probation D. parole to serve____.
A. The original sentence of his conviction.
B. The ¼ of his remaining unexpired portion of the maximum
17. Who among the following prisoners shall not be considered sentence from which he was originally committed to prison.
for commutation of sentence? C. The remaining unexpired portion of the maximum
a. If the prisoners is eligible for a parole. sentence from which he was originally committed to
b. If the prisoner had been sentenced to another prison term, prison.
within 1 year from the date of his last recommitment to the jail or D. None of them
prison from where he escaped.
c. If the prisoner had violated any condition of his discharge on 29. Governor of Massachussetts who signed the Federal
parole or conditional pardon. Probation Act when he became the president of the United States.
d. If the prisoner is suffering from a mental illness or disorder as A. Calvin Coolidge C. George
certified by government psychiatrist. Bush Sr.
A. a, c and d. C. b, c and d B. Alexander H. Rice D. John Augustus
B. all of those listed D. a, b and c
30. A type of executive clemency, which can only be availed by
18. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness filing of petition and its grant shall considered complete even
and qualifications for the grant of pardon or parole? without the necessity of acceptance.
A. National Police Commission A. Parole C. Absolute Pardon
B. Board of Pardon and Parole B. Conditional Pardon D. Communication of Sentence
C. Department of Social Welfare and Environment.
D. National Bureau of Investigation 31. Conditional release of an offender from a penal and
correctional institution after he has served the minimum period of
19. Randy was convicted for a crime that carries a prison sentence its sentence.
of more than 8 years and one day. A. Parole C. Amnesty
Can he avail probation? B. Commutation of Sentence D. Pardon
A. No
B. He will pardoned 32. All EXCEPT ONE are included in the Carpeta of the prisoner.
C. He will served ½ of the sentence in jail. A. His commitment order
D. Yes B. His release document

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C. The prosecutor’s information 43. On October 4, 1947 under the Executive Order No. 94 the
D. The decision of the trial court and even the appellate Board of Pardon in 1937 was renamed as____.
court if any. A. Board of Pardon and Parole
B. Indeterminate Sentence Law
33. An act of grace or sovereign power of the Chief Executive is C. Probation and Parole Administration
known as___. D. Law Enforcement Counsel
A. Conditional Pardon C. Pardon
B. Commutation of Sentence D. Absolute 44. It is in nature of contract, hence it must first be accepted by
Pardon the recipient before it takes effect; that the grantee is under
obligation to comply strictly with the conditions imposed therein.
34. This shall refer to the commutation of sentence i.e. absolute A. Absolute pardon C. Amnesty
or conditional pardon granted by the president. B. Conditional pardon D. Reprieve
A. Reprieve
C. Executive Clemency 45. If granted, it wipes away the guilt of the convicted prisoner
B. Amnesty without any condition attached to it.
D. Parole A. Absolute Pardon C. Parole
B. Conditional Pardon D. Probation
35. Report submitted by the supervisor to the Board through the
officer concerned, containing the result of the supervision, 46. It aims to uplift and redeem valuable human material and
together with the supervisor’s recommendation as to whether or prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of personal liberty
not the client will be released. and economic usefulness.
A. Summary Report C. Infraction Report A. PD 603 C. PD 968
B. Supervision Report D. Recommendation B. RA 4103 D. RA 7309
Report
47. The first ever Philippine Probation Law is___.
36. All EXCEPT ONE ARE the different documents that maybe A. Republic Act 9346 C. Republic Act 8177
considered by the officer, to formally close a parole or conditional B. Act No. 4221 D. Republic Act 7659
pardon supervision case.
A. Certificate of final release and discharged 48. A shoemaker from Boston USA who interceded with courts to
B. Order of arrest and recommitment suspend the sentence of his charge is___.
C. Infraction report A. John Augustus C. John Howard
D. Certified true copy of death certificate B. Matthew Daven Port-Hill D. Teodulo C. Natividad

37. Supervision plan, should as much as possible be made 49. A Philippine Jurisprudence or a case decided by the SC when
confidential to the client. Such statement is___. the first Probation of 1936 was declared unconstitutional because
A. True C. Case to case basis it was considered a class legislation.
B. False D. In need basis A. Stonehill vs. Diokno C. People vs. Vera
B. Miranda vs. Arizona D. Roe vs Wade
38. (1) Filing of application for probation shall be deemed a
waiver of the right to appeal (2) A petitioner under Post Sentence 50. After released from jail or prison, when does the parolee
Investigation shall have the right for a competent and present himself to the parole and Probation Office?
independent counsel of his own choice. This statement is …. A. At least 1 month from release.
A. Statement No. 1 is true while statement No. 2 B. Within 3 months from release.
is false C. At least 3 weeks from release.
B. Statement No. 1 is false while statement No. 2 is true D. Within the period prescribed in the release document.
C. Statements No. 1 and 2 are true
D Statements No. 1 and 2 are false 51. Is Joana whose prison term is arresto mayor qualified for
probation?
39. An application for probation shall be filed within the period of A. Yes, her sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day.
perfecting an appeal which is___. B. No, her sentence is 12 years.
A. 10 days C. 30 days C. No, her sentence is 8 years.
B. 15 days D. 60 days D. Yes, her sentence is 6 months.

40. Certificate of final release and discharged shall be issued to 52. One of the purposes of adult probation Law is to ____.
the client by the Board after the expiration of the maximum period A. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of offender
of the sentence upon the recommendation of the Administrator. by providing him with personalized community based
The same shall be issued by the president to a pardoned upon the program.
recommendation of the: B. Place the offender outside of the police power of the state.
A. Board C. Secretary of the Department of Justice C. Coordinate the workings of the agencies of the criminal justice
B. Administrator D. Officer system.
D. Foster closer relationship between the offender and the judge
41. Which among the following documents included in the who promulgated the probation order.
CARPETA?
1. Certification of detention. 53. What is the action of the court in case the probationer violated
2. Social history of the man’s biography as a person the conditions imposed in the grant of probation?
3. Prison records A. Court revokes probation and the probationer goes to
4. Pre-sentence report prison
B. Court directs the probationer to re-apply for probation
A. 1 and 3 only C. 2 only C. Court releases the probationer to the community
B. 2 and 4 only D. 4 only D. Court orders the continuation of probation program

42. Which of the following is NOT an agency that handle non- 54. You are legislator who would like to help the resolution of the
institution-based correction? labeling problem of ex convicts. Which of the following is the best
A. Probation and Probation Administration legislative proposal to prepare?
B. Department of Social Welfare Development A. A bill that would expunge all criminal records pertaining to all
C. Board of Pardons and Parole released prisoners.
D. Bureau of Corrections

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B. A bill that would penalized business establishment or officers 64. Brief of an investigation conducted by probation officer which
which would not accept released prisoners who are qualified to is not within the jurisdiction of the court is –
the vacant position. A. Post Sentence Investigation Report
C. A bill that would grant automatic absolute pardon to B. Pre-sentence investigation report
those who have served at least 90 percent of their C. Courtesy investigation report
sentence. D. Initial Investigation report
D. A bill that would grant automatic parole to those who have
served at least 80 percent of their sentence. 65. Maximum number of probationers under supervision of a
probation aide is –
55. It refers to those that handles the investigation of petitioners A. 3
for probation, and the supervision of probationers, parolees and C. 5
conditional pardonees. Which of these? B. 7
A. Parole and Probation Administration D. 9
B. Board of Pardons and parole 66. It refers to a suspension of sentence after which the convict
C. Secretary of Justice is released upon serving the minimum sentence imposed by law
D. Department of Justice and subject to his good behavior and positive reaction to
rehabilitation programs.
56. Consider the following: A. Probation
I. Parole is not a matter right but rather a privilege to a qualified C. Conditional Pardon
prisoner granted by the President. BPP B. Parole
II. The age of the petitioner is a factor in granting commutation D. Commutation of Sentence
of sentence.
67. Under rules and methods employed by probation, what is the
Which of the following is correct about the above statements? maximum number of minor violations that would result in the
revocation of the probation order?
A. I is correct while II is wrong C. I and II are A. 5 violations
both correct C. 4 violations
B. II is correct while I is wrong D. I and II are B. 3 violations -major violations
both wrong D. 2 violations

57. In determining the fitness of a prisoner for release on 68. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified
conditional pardon, the following points shall be considered as petitioners, when does it become a matter of right?
guides, EXCEPT: A. After the submission of the Post Sentence
A. The political, organizational or religious affiliation of the Investigation Report
prisoner should be disregarded. B. When the convict files a petition for probation
B. Due regard should be given the attitude of the people in the C. When the appeal was undertaken
community from which he was sentenced. D. When his probation is approved
C. The background of the prisoner before he was committed to
prison –social, economic. 69. The court may deny application for probation if the -
D. Financial capacity of the prisoner. A. petitioner is a foreigner
B. petitioner is a drug dependent
58. Post sentence investigation report must be submitted by the C. petitioner violates the condition
probation officer to the court within - D. petitioner can be treated well in an institution
A. 20 days C. 30 days
B. 60 days D. 90 days 70. Whose approval is needed by the parolee, to be able for him
to travel outside the area of operational jurisdiction of the Parole
59. Which is considered the forerunner of parole? officer?
A. Mark system C. Solitary system A. Director C. Chief Probation Officer
B. Benefits of a clergy D. congregate system B. Administrator D. Regional Director

60. While waiting for the decision of the court on the application 71. The following are disqualifications for parole to be granted:
for probation, the offender applying for probation – I. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence
A. must stay in prison as a detainee II. Those who have pending criminal case
B. may be set free without bail III. habitual delinquents
C. maybe released on bail or recognizance. IV. suffering from any mental disorder
D. should post bail based on the recommendation of V. conviction is on appeal
the public prosecutor
A. I, II, III, and V C. II, III, IV, and V
61. Upon receipt of the probation officer’s investigation report, B. I, II, III and IV D. I, II, III, IV, and V
the court shall resolve the application for probation not later than-
A. 60 days REVISED RULES AND REGULATIONS OF THE BOARD OF
C. 30 days PARDONS AND PAROLE
B. 15 days SECTION 15. Disqualification for Parole. — The following
D. 45 days prisoners
shall not be granted parole:
62. Probation system was first legally established in – a. Those convicted of an offense punished with Death penalty,
A. Germany Reclusion Perpetua or Life imprisonment;
C. England b. Those convicted of treason, conspiracy or proposal to
B. Rome commit treason or espionage;
D. the United States of America c. Those convicted of misprision of treason, rebellion, sedition
or coup d’état;
63. A minimum and maximum time to be served in prison is d. Those convicted of piracy or mutiny on the high seas or
referred to as – Philippine waters;
A. corporal punishment C. indeterminate e. Those who are habitual delinquents i.e. those who, within a
sentence period of ten (10) years from the date of release from prison
B. determinate sentence D. capital punishment or last conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious
physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa and falsification, are
found guilty of any of said crimes a third time or oftener;

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f. Those who escaped from confinement or evaded A. Certificate of transfer of residence
sentence; B. Certified True Copy of Death Certificate of deceased
g. Those who were granted Conditional Pardon and violated client
any of the terms thereof; C. Order of recommitment issued by board
h. Those whose maximum term of imprisonment does not D. Formal receipt of certificate of final release
exceed one (1) year or those with definite sentence; 84. The client shall file for the application of transfer of residences
i. Those suffering from any mental disorder as certified by a within how many days before the actual transfer?
government psychiatrist/psychologist; A. 5 days C. 15 days
j. Those whose conviction is on appeal; B. 10 Days D. 30 days
k. Those who have pending criminal case/s.
85. What is the legal process that results in the removal of
72. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize a client to conviction from the official records?
travel outside his area of operational jurisdiction for a period of A. Mitigation C. Exoneration
not more than - B. Expungement D. Restriction
A. 10 days C. 30 days
B. 15 days D. 60 days 86. Refers to akin do fright that can only be denied if the prisoner
breaks the rules and only after due process is observed.
73. The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to A. STA
the following, EXCEPT: B. GCTA
A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment C. Commutation
B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the violation D. Special allowance for loyalty
of any election law may be granted without favorable
recommendation of the Commission of Elections 87. This requires personal contact at least once a week with the
C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction probation/parolee including at least once a month report in person
D. Pardon is administered by the court at the probation office to attend to the ladderized therapeutic
community program.
74. Which law that created the Board of Indeterminate Sentence. a. Maximum Supervision
A. Act 4103 b. Medium Supervision
C. EO 94 c. Minimum Supervision
B. EO 83 D. d. Answer not given.
PD 968
75. As mandatory condition for parole supervision, the parolee 88. There are three casework techniques applied by the parole
must report to the probation office within – officer, which one is not?
A. 15 days C. 45 days a. the trick and treat techniques
B. 30 days D. 60 days b. the executive techniques
c. the guidance, counseling and leadership techniques
76. How many days are given to the prosecutor to submit a d. the manipulative techniques
comment on the convict’s application for probation?
A. 5 days C. 15 days 89. It refers to the commission of another crime during service of
sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense.
B. 10 Days D. 30 Days a. Recidivism
77. Violations of the following special laws shall disqualify an b. Quasi-recidivism
offender to avail the benefits of Presidential Decree 968. c. delinquency
A. Videogram Law C. Wage rationalization d. city prisoner
Act
B. Omnibus Election Code D. Either of the above 90. Forms of executive clemency except.
a. Commutation
78. Parole in the Philippine is governed by the- b. amnesty
A. Determinate sentence law C. Board of pardon and c. Reform model
parole d. Probation - judicial
B. Indeterminate sentence law D. Parole and
probation administration 91. Pardon is exercised when the person is…
a. already convicted
79. The form of Executive Clemency which reduces the sentence b. about to be convicted
of a convicted person to shorter term is referred to as – c. not yet convicted
A. amnesty d. served the sentence
C. commutation
B. probation 92. Parole is not a matter of …
D. shortening a. privilege
b. right
80. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil liability c. requirement
imposed upon him by the sentence. d. grace
A. partially exempted C. conditionally exempted
B. exempted D. not exempted 93. This requires once a month personal contact and attendance
of the therapeutic community ladderized program.
81. Maximum term of office for those appointed as members of a. Maximum Supervision
the Board of Pardon and Parole. b. Medium Supervision
A. 3 years C. 4 years c. Minimum Supervision
B. 5 years D. 6 years d. Answer not given.

82. The merging of supervision of parole and probation is 94. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of…
mandated by what particular law? a. punishment
A. Executive Order 392 C. Executive Order b. enjoyment
292 c. treatment
B. PD 968 D. RA 4221 d. incarceration

83. All EXCEPT one are the instances wherein supervision of 95. For amnesty to be granted, there should be…
parole and conditional pardon case deemed to archived/close. a. recommendation from the U.N.

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b. application 5. It is an environment that helps people get help while helping
c. recommendation for the CHR others. It is a treatment environment : the interactions of its
d. Concurrence of the Congress members are designed to be therapeutic within the context of the
norms that require for each to play the dual role of client-
96. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to… therapist.
a. Provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent a. Therapeutic Community (TC)
offender b. Therapeutic Community Model (TCM)
b. prevent the commission of offenses c. Community Service
c. promote the correction and rehabilitation of a n offender by d. Literacy and Education
providing him with individualized treatment.
d. all of these 6. It is employed to effect the rahbilitation and reintegration of
probationers, parolees, pardonees, first-time minor drug
97. A recipient of absolute pardon is______ from civil liability offenders and PDL’s as productive, law-abiding and socially
imposed upon him by the sentence. responsible members of the community. It is a self-help social
a. partially exempted learning treatment model used for clients with problems of drug
b. conditionally exempted abuse and other behavioral problems such as alcoholism, stealing,
c. exempted and other anti-social tendencies.
d. not exempted a. Therapeutic Community (TC)
b. Therapeutic Community Model (TCM)
98. An inmate may be granted parole of if… c. Community Service
a. earned good conduct time allowance credit d. Literacy and Education
b. serve minimum of his sentence
c. earned good behavior while serving prison term. 7. An activity in Therapeutic Community Modality which intends
d. all of these to assists the clients in trying to sort out their problems, identify
solutions, reconcile conflicts and help resolve them. This could be
99. Pardon cannot be exercise by the president in the following done either by individual or group interaction with officers of the
instances. assigned agency.
a. before conviction a. Individual and Group Counseling
b. after conviction b. Moral, Spiritual, Values formation
c. before trial c. Work or Job Placement/Referral
d. before conviction and before trial d. Vocational/Livelihood and Skills Training
8. Aims to provide opportunities for PDL to achieve mandatory
100. This requires personal contact at least once a month personal education.
contact with the probationer /parolee and attendance of a a. Educational Program
therapeutic community ladderized program and few services from b. Skills Training/Enhancement Program
the probation office and/or community resources. c. Livelihood Program
a. Maximum Supervision d. Health Services
b. Medium Supervision
c. Minimum Supervision 9. It is a self-help movement for the treatment of substance
d. Answer not given. abusers; primarily using behavioral modifications techniques. It is
based on self-help principles.
a. The British Democratic Maxwell Jones-type TC
THERAPEUTIC MODALITIES b. Nelson Mandela Rules
1. What is the program of activity directed to restore a PDL’s self c. Therapeutic Community Modality Program
respect and sense of responsibility to community, thereby making d. The American Drug-free Hierarchical Concept-based TC
him/her a law-abiding citizen after serving his/her sentence.
a. Rehabilitation 10. A means of amending or improving by changing an inmate’s
b. Reformation behavior or removing his or her faults or abuse and removing or
c. Restoration correcting an abuse of a wrong or error.
d. Incapacitation a. Rehabilitation
b. Reformation
2. Provides States with detailed guidelines for protecting the rights c. Restoration
of persons deprived of their liberty, from pre-trial detainees to d. Incapacitation
sentenced prisoners.
a. United Nations Standards Minimum Rules for the Treatment of 11. It developed as a professional group work method to treat
Prisoners. people suffering from a range of psychiatric difficulties, primarily
b. Geneva Convention using social learning principles. It is a small face-to-face
c. Nelson Mandela Rules residential community using social analysis as its main tool.
d. A and C are correct. a. The British Democratic Maxwell Jones-type TC
b. Nelson Mandela Rules
3. What is the society formed by Cesare Beccaria which is c. Therapeutic Community Modality Program
dedicated to economic , political and administrative reform. d. The American Drug-free Hierarchical Concept-based TC
a. On Crimes and Punishment
b. The Criminal Man 12. What the Central Principle of the British Democratic Maxwell
c. the academy of fists Jones-type TC in which there is a face-to-face communication and
d. Panopticon Prison free interaction to create a feeling of sharing and belonging.
a. Communalism
4. Who is the English reformer whose chief efforts were devoted b. Democracy
to lessening the severity of English criminal law. He devoted his c. Permissiveness
life to advocating on behalf of the lower classes and worked to d. Reality Testing
reform England’s criminal law by abolishing capital punishment for
minor crimes. He strongly criticized the Doctrine of Maximum 13. Which of the following are the cardinal rules in BJM
severity. therapeutic Community?
a. Samuel Romilly 1. no sex or secual acting out
b. Zebulon Brockway 2. no drugs/alcohol
c. Robert Martinson 3. no violence or threat of violence
d. Mark Lipsey 4. no stealing
a. 1,2,3

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b.1,2,3,4 22. These are employed to strengthen the learning process and
c.2,3,4 the practice of more adaptive behaviors within the social learning
d.1,3,4 environment.
a. Behavior shaping tools
14. Once the PDL is committed to jail, he undergoes a series of b. Behavior Management
examinations to determine his physical, social and psychological c. Hierarchy of Behavior Shaping Tools
status. Upon his commitment, a resident is placed on orientation d. Vocational and Survival Skills
at the Reception and Diagnostic room/Orientation room. In here,
he is acquainted with the TC program. What phase of BJMP 23. It is also known as unconditional positive regard. It involves
Therapeutic Modality is being described? accepting and caring about the client as a person, regardless of
a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase any evaluation or prejudices on the client’s behavior or thoughts.
b. Phase II- Primary Treatment a. Warmth
c. Phase III- Pre-Entry b. respect
d. Phase IV- Re-entry c. Congruence
d. Confidentiality
15. It is the process where victims, offenders, and communities
affected by a particular offense meet to find a way to restore or 24. This counseling theory focuses on how people’s thinking can
make amends for the harm resulting from an offense. change feelings and behaviors. It is brief and oriented toward
a. Rehabilitation problem solving.
b. Reformation a. Humanistic Theories
c. Restoration b. Cognitive Approach
d. Incapacitation c. Psychoanalytical Approach
d. Constructionist approach
16. In the ideal setting, a resident at this stage is now ready to
be released back to society as he has demonstrated adequate 25. After proper orientation on the different TC concepts and
self-control and discipline. What phase of BJMP Therapeutic tools, the norms and rules of the community and the staff
Modality is being describe? members, the resident is now ready to undergo the proper
a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase treatment. He becomes part of the community starting as a crew
b. Phase II- Primary Treatment member of the Housekeeping department until he gradually
c. Phase III- Pre-Entry ascends in the hierarchy. What phase of BJMP Therapeutic
d. Phase IV- Re-entry Modality is being describe?
17. Refers to a class of therapeutic techniques for altering a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase
behaviora by changing one or more aspects of an individual’s b. Phase II- Primary Treatment
environment. It means any intervention or treatment that utilizes c. Phase III- Pre-Entry
positive reinforcement and/or restrictions to help an individual d. Phase IV- Re-entry
receiving services to develop and/or strengthen recovery-oriented
behaviors and to address and correct treatment targeted 26. A behavior shaping tool characterized by a friendly reminder
behaviors. given by a Superior member and a peer to a young member
a. Behavior shaping tools conducted in a private and formal manner.
b. Behavior Management a. Talk to
c. Hierarchy of Behavior Shaping Tools b. Pull up
d. Vocational and Survival Skills c. Deal with
d. Haircut
18. A professional activity of helping individuals, groups or
communities enhance or restore their capacity for psychological, 27. Also known as genuineness. It includes the act of being honest
emotional and social functioning and creating an environment and authentic in dealing with the client. It is showing real concern
favorable for the attainment of these goals. rather than focusing on techniques during sessions.
a. counseling a. Warmth
b. empathy b. respect
c. emotional and psychological aspect of Therapeutic Community. c. Congruence
d. Behavior management d. Confidentiality

19. Refers to the ability to perceive the client’s feelings and to 28. It holds that people have within themselves all the resources
demonstrate accurate perception of the client. It is putting oneself they need to live healthy and functional lives, and that problems
in the client’s shoes. occur as a result of restricted or unavailable problem-solving
a. counseling resources.
b. empathy a. Humanistic Theories
c. emotional and psychological aspect of Therapeutic Community. b. Cognitive Approach
d. Behavior management c. Psychoanalytical Approach
d. Constructionist approach
20. It refers to the act of making an individual incapable of
committing a crime by execution or banishment, and in more 29. It means that anything discussed during counseling sessions
modern times by execution or lengthy periods of incarceration. is held absolutely private and not to be discussed anywhere.
a. Rehabilitation a. Warmth
b. Reformation b. respect
c. Restoration c. Congruence
d. Incapacitation d. Confidentiality

21. Under regular circumstance, the resident is expected at this 30. It is a ritualistic and highly structured verbal reprimand that is
stage to have internalized the TC values and concept to start life delivered by staff or peers.
afresh. What phase of BJMP Therapeutic Modality is being a. Talk to
describe? b. Pull up
a. Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase c. Deal with
b. Phase II- Primary Treatment d. Haircut
c. Phase III- Pre-Entry
d. Phase IV- Re-entry 31. It is also known as historical perspective. The techniques
includes free association, dream analysis, and transference.
a. Humanistic Theories

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b. Cognitive Approach 40. It encourages honesty, demeanor awareness and owning up
c. Psychoanalytical Approach to one’s mistakes. This is done when the violator is unknown and
d. Constructionist approach must be validated first prior to bringing up in the Morning Meeting.
a. Talk to
32. It refers to a word or saying that will serve as a guide for the b. Pull up
community to ponder upon in relation to their day to day c. Deal with
interactions and behaviors. It is elaborated during the Morning d. Haircut
Meeting by some members of the community to emphasize its
relevance and how it can stimulate the residents’ thoughts and 41. A form of counseling that views behaviors as choices. It states
help them change their behavior into something positive. that psychological symptoms occur not because of a mental
a. Theme/concept of the day health condition, but due to people choosing behaviors to fulfill
b. Meditation their needs.
c. Seminars a. acceptance and commitment therapy
d. debate b. reality therapy
c. cognitive behavior therapy
33. It is also known as person-centered therapy or Rogerian d. answer not given
therapy. It is a non-directive form of talk therapy. In this
approach, the client act as an equal partner in the therapy 42. It is a type of mindful psychotherapy that helps a person to
process, while the therapist remains non-directive meaning they stay focused on the present moment and accept thoughts and
pass judgment on your feelings or offer suggestions or solutions. feelings without judgment.
a. client- centered therapy a. acceptance and commitment therapy
b. existential therapy b. reality therapy
c. gestalt therapy c. cognitive behavior therapy
d. cognitive approach d. answer not given

34. It is a form of psychotherapy that is centered on increasing a 43. It is also known as individual therapy. It emphasizes the
person’s awareness, freedom, and self-direction. It focuses on the individual’s ability to bring about positive change in his or her own
present moment rather than past experiences. It is based on the life. This type of therapy consists of four stages: engagement;
idea that people are influenced by their present environment. assessment; insight; and reorientation.
a. client- centered therapy a. Adlerian Therapy
b. existential therapy b. Object Relations Therapy
c. gestalt therapy c. Ericksonian Therapy
d. cognitive approach d. Solution Focused Brief Therapy

35. It is a form of verbal reprimand given privately by a Senior 44. It is a strength-based approach to psychotherapy based on
member and two peers for a recurrent behavior. solution-building rather than problem-solving.
a. Talk to a. Adlerian Therapy
b. Pull up b. Object Relations Therapy
c. Deal with c. Ericksonian Therapy
d. Haircut d. Solution Focused Brief Therapy

36. It refers to the belief in the client’s ability to make appropriate 45. It is centered on person’s internal relationships with others.
decisions and deal appropriately with his or her life situation when The lifelong relationships skills of aperson are strongly rooted I
given a safe and supportive environment in which to do so. his/her early attachment with their parents, especially his/her
a. Warmth mothers.
b. respect a. Adlerian Therapy
c. Congruence b. Object Relations Therapy
d. Confidentiality c. Ericksonian Therapy
d. Solution Focused Brief Therapy
37. It holds that knowledge is merely an invented understanding
of actual events in the world. While actual events in the world can 46. It stresses the importance of the interactive therapeutic
trigger people’s meaning-making process, it is those meaning- relationship, the partnership and purposeful engagement of the
making processes, rather than the events themselves, that inner resources and experiential life of each and every individual.
determine how people think, feel and behave. a. Adlerian Therapy
a. Humanistic Theories b. Object Relations Therapy
b. Cognitive Approach c. Ericksonian Therapy
c. Psychoanalytical Approach d. Solution Focused Brief Therapy
d. Constructionist approach
47. A form of psychotherapy that involves one or more therapist
38. It focuses on free-will, self-determination, and the search for working with several people at the same time.
meaning, often centering on the person rather than on the a. Individual therapy
symptoms. The approach emphasizes the client’s capacity to b. Group counseling
make rational choices and to develop to his/her maximum c. Encounter group
potential. d. peer confrontation group
a. client- centered therapy
b. existential therapy 48. Serves as safety valve within the community which is usually
c. gestalt therapy highly pressured and structured. It is a forum for members of the
d. cognitive approach community to verbally express pent-up or negative emotions
within a structured and safe environment without resorting to
39. It teaches people, different ways of thinking, behaving, and violence or aggression and without fear of reprisals.
reacting to situations to help you fell less anxious and fearful. It a. Individual therapy
helps a person to become aware of ways of thinking that may be b. Group counseling
automatic but are inaccurate and harmful. . c. Encounter group
a. acceptance and commitment therapy d. peer confrontation group
b. reality therapy
c. cognitive behavior therapy 49. A phase of encounter group which involves verbalization of
d. answer not given concerns or honest disclosure of emotions that has been provoked
during interpersonal interactions with another resident.

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a. Confrontation a. Visualization meditation
b. Exploration b. seminars
c. Resolution and commitment c. debate
d. Socialization d. Job functions

50.Containment actions that limit certain privileges to all or 59. The custodial component of the BuCor’s present correction
portions of the community for major breakdowns in house system which refers to the act that ensures the public that
structure. national inmates are provided with their basic needs, completely
a. haircut incapacitated form further committing criminal acts, and have
b. general meeting been totally cut off from their criminal networks while serving
c. Expulsion sentence inside the premises of the national penitentiary.
d. bans a. reformation
b. rehabilitation
51. It is structured social event where all those involved in an c. safekeeping
encounter will have ample time to mend fences with those they d. therapeutic modality program
have offended or hurt in the past. The purpose is to achieve
closure, reaffirm relationships and maintain the unity of the 60. This refers to the moral and spiritual values-formation of
community so that all those involved can move on and leave the inmates. This includes practice of one’s religion and beliefs.
past behind. a. Moral and Spiritual Program
a. Confrontation b. Educational and Training program
b. Exploration c. Work and Livelihood Program
c. Resolution and commitment d. Sports and Recreation Program
d. Socialization
61. Aims at applying a holistic approach in the rahbilitation
52. In this phase, all feelings that were expressed are further program.
examined and explored and find out how it could have resulted in a. Therapeutic Community Approach
such a way in order to evoke awareness on the connection of b. Hazelden-Minnesota Approach
behavior, feelings and attitude. c. Spiritual Approach
a. Confrontation d. Eclectic Approach
b. Exploration
c. Resolution and commitment 62. What is the process through which remorseful offenders
d. Socialization accept responsibility for their misconduct, particularly to their
victims and to the community. It creates an obligation to make
53. A permanent group of peers and leaders that meet regularly things right through proactive involvement of victims, ownership
while the residents are in treatment. It is a sort of hoe group who of the offender of the crime and the community in search for
provides support for one another and to the new members of the solution which promote repair, reconciliation and reassurance.
community. a. Restorative Justice
a. static group b. Volunteerism
b. Peer confrontation group c. Therapeutic Community Modality
c. Encounter group d. Rehabilitation Program
d. Extended group
63. It views addiction as a symptomatic manifestation of a more
54. In this type of therapeutic group the participants are selected complex psychological problem rooted in an interplay of
by the staff and group according to peers like adult members will emotional, social, physical, and spiritual values.
go with the same date of entry in the facility and same goes with a. Multi-disciplinary Team Approach
the middle and young members. b. Therapeutic Community Approach
a. static group c. Hazelden-Minnesota Approach
b. Peer confrontation group d. Spiritual Approach
c. Encounter group
d. Extended group
64. This is where the building of the foundation of the Therapeutic
55. It is done when a resident is incorrigible and becomes a threat Community Ladderized Program is done. Clients are assimilated
to community. into the Therapeutic Community culture during this phase.
a. haircut a. Phase I-Orientation
b. general meeting b. Phase II- Primary Treatment
c. Expulsion c. Phase III- Immersion
d. bans d. Phase IV-Integration

56. What is the process that helps people identify stressors and 65. This refers to the administration of physical and recreational
helps them stay calm in anger management for them to handle engagement to achieve mental alertness and physical agility in
tense situations in a constructive and positive way the spirit of sportsmanship.
a. Therapeutic Community a. Moral and Spiritual Program
b Therapeutic Community Modality b. Educational and Training program
c. Behavior Management c. Work and Livelihood Program
d. Anger Management d. Sports and Recreation Program

57. This embodies all the challenges and aspirations of most 66. A method in the treatment and rehabilitation of drug
residents who feel alienated and the desire to overcome the dependents which avails of the services and skills of a team
imposed limitations on their freedom and find their own place composed of psychiatrist, psychologist, social worker,
where they could feel safe and welcome. occupational therapist, and other related disciplines in
a. Spirituality collaboration with the family and the drug dependent
b. Therapeutic Community Philosophy a. Multi-disciplinary Team Approach
c. Theme/Concept of the Day b. Therapeutic Community Approach
d. Intellectual component c. Hazelden-Minnesota Approach
d. Spiritual Approach
58. It is used to help an individual establish a practice of moving
his attention within, finding his place of relaxation and peace by 67. The focus of this phase is to effect behavioral change and
contacting his inner wisdom. develop client initiative and self-discipline.

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a. Phase I-Orientation a. Phase I-Orientation
b. Phase II- Primary Treatment b. Phase II- Primary Treatment
c. Phase III- Immersion c. Phase III- Immersion
d. Phase IV-Integration d. Phase IV-Integration

68. A process of assisting the patient to become socially and 77. Include among others, environmental and energy
economically self-sustaining without the use of drugs upon his conservation projects, training in agriculture, tree planting and
return to the community. other socio-civic religious activities.
a. Family therapy a. Family therapy
b. Community Work Projects b. Community Work Projects
c. Sheltered Workshops c. Sheltered Workshops
d. Social Reintegration d. Social Reintegration

69. An objective of group counseling which center on identifying 78. Uses the Bible as the primary source of inspiration to change.
and changing inaccurate or distorted thinking patterns, emotional a. Therapeutic Community Approach
response, and behaviors. b. Hazelden-Minnesota Approach
a. Cognitive Behavioral Groups c. Spiritual Approach
b. Interpersonal Groups d. Eclectic Approach
c. Support groups
d. Psychoeducational groups 79. Focus on educating clients about their disorders and ways of
coping often based on the principles of cognitive behavior
70. Seminars as part of TC is done… therapy.
a. 1-2 hours once a week a. Cognitive Behavioral Groups
b. 1-2 hours once month b. Interpersonal Groups
c. 1-2 hours once every 6 months c. Support groups
d. 1-2 hours once a year d. Psychoeducational groups

71. Provide training for skills development and employment with 80. Visualization is done…
appropriate compensation in controlled environment to increase a. 1-2 hours once a week
self-esteem and chances for outside placement. b. 1-2 hours once month
a. Family therapy c. 1-2 hours once every 6 months
b. Community Work Projects d. 1-2 hours once a year
c. Sheltered Workshops 81. This technique of structural Family therapy involves the
d. Social Reintegration therapist developing a sharing and empathic relationship to “join”
the family.
72. It views addiction as a disease, an involuntary condition a. Joining
caused by factors largely outside aperson’s control. The program b. Boundary-making
consists of didactic lectures, cognitive-behavioral psychology, c. Role-play
Alcohol Anonymous principles and biblio-therapy d. Reframing
a. Therapeutic Community Approach
b. Hazelden-Minnesota Approach 82. In this technique of Structural Family Therapy, the therapist
c. Spiritual Approach will help the family identify, explore, and adopt clear boundaries
d. Eclectic Approach and hierarchies within the family.
a. Joining
73. During this phase, clients apply their learnings from Phase II b. Boundary-making
are now internalizing the TC precepts and beliefs. In the process c. Role-play
the clients become mature and responsible, endeavors to fulfill d. Reframing
their families and community.
a. Phase I-Orientation 83. What is the pattern of Counseling Session?
b. Phase II- Primary Treatment a. (1)Discussion/Counsel Input: (2)Introduction: first 10 minutes:
c. Phase III- Immersion (3)Information gathering: about 20 minutes; (4)Conclusion
d. Phase IV-Integration b. (1) Introduction: first 10 minutes; (2)Information
gathering: about 20 minutes; (3)Discussion/Counsel
74. As a form of intervention is based on the recognition that the Input; (4)Conclusion
family, as a primary social unit, ca be a source of problem leading c. 1)Introduction: first 10 minutes( 2)Discussion/Counsel Input;
to drug use. It may include restructuring of the family, (3)Information gathering: about 20 minutes; (4)Conclusion
environmental manipulation, strengthening of family d. answer not given
communication and discovery of the family members to help
facilitate the rehabilitation of the drug dependent. 84. The following, except one, are the objective of Behavior
a. Family therapy Management in TCMP.
b. Community Work Projects a. To introduce the concept of behavior management through the
c. Sheltered Workshops use of various behavior shaping tools to residents.
d. Social Reintegration b. To institutionalize the practice of behavior shaping tools to
foster behavior change among residents.
75. This refers to the administration of formal and non-formal c. To highlights the importance of behavior management in
education, and skills development of inmates. relation to the other TCMP components towards attitudinal
a. Moral and Spiritual Program change among residents.
b. Educational and Training program d. formulation of solutions to the concerns discussed and
c. Work and Livelihood Program to be executed during the day.
d. Sports and Recreation Program
85. Phase IV (re-entry) of the BJMP Therapeutic Modality includes
76. In this phase, the client manifests sustained positive changes the following, except…
in behaviors and attitudes that makes him/her a TC strength and a. learning how to follow the rules and norms of the
a role model to his/her fellow clients. It is also during this phase community
that the client sustains lawful means of livelihood, applies b. transition to life outside of jail
adequate literacy skills, and deals with others in positive ways, c. creating a new lifestyle applying the tools and concept.
thus making him/her a productive member and an asset of the d. reintegration into mainstream of society
community.

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86. A central principle of the British Democratic Maxwell Jones b. Self-disclosure
type of TC in which the residents can freely express their thoughts c. Reflection
and emotions without any negative repercussions. d. Self-realization
a. Permissiveness
b. Democracy 96. Which of the following is not one of the mandates of Parole
c. Communalism and probation Administration?
d. Reality testing a. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by
providing him with individualized treatment.
87. What is the first level in the hierarchy of Behavior Shaping b. Provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent
Tools. offender which might be less probable if he were to serve a prison
a. Talk to sentence
b. Pull up c. Prevent the commission of offenses
c. Deal with d. offer guidance and counseling
d. Haircut
97. A program of the Parole and Probation Administration aimed
88. An alternative to the traditional face-to-face visitation at generating maximum, effective and efficient citizen
between PDL and respective families. participation and community involvement in the process of client
a. Paralegal Programs rehabilitation, prevention of crime and the overall administration
b. Cultural and sports program of criminal justice.
c. Interfaith program a. Restorative Justice
d. E-dalaw b. Volunteerism
c. Therapeutic Community Modality
89. This a re activities in TC that provide intellectual stimulation d. Rehabilitation Program
ans seek personal involvement among the residents.
a. Visualization meditation 98. The stage in Therapeutic Community Ladderized Program
b. seminars which corresponds to the 60-day investigation period for
c. debate petitioners for probation, parole or executive clemency. As part of
d. Job functions the investigation, the assigned officer accomplishes the intake
interview using the Worksheet, and secures additional relevant
90. It is based on the premise that the family plays the most information through other investigation procedures.
important role in the life and development of children. This type a. Preparatory Stage
of therapy seeks to identify and change the structural interaction b. Program phases
patterns that make up the family environment. c. Ladderized Program
a. Gottman Method Couples Therapy d. answer not given
b. Individual Counseling
c. Intake interview 99. It is introduced to provide the residents the opportunity to
d. Group counseling learn how to reason ably and put together arguments in a logical
manner.
91. Which of the following is not a part of the Phase I( a. Visualization meditation
Entry/Orientation) of the BJMP Therapeutic Modality? b. seminars
a. Rebuilding Social and Family ties. c. debate
b. Acquainted with the rules and norms of the community d. Job functions
c. Acquainted with the TC concepts, written and unwritten
philosophy 100. Any action or activity that reflects or brings out the goodness
d. Acquainted with staff and the members of the community. in a man. It is the broad concept of a belief in something beyond
the self.
92. The components of the Therapeutic Community Modality a. Spirituality
Program are… b. Therapeutic Community Philosophy
1. Behavior management c. Theme/Concept of the Day
2 Emotional and psychological d. Intellectual component
3 Intellectual and Spiritual
4 Vocational and Survival Skills
a. 1,2,3,4,
b. 1,2,3,4,5
c. 1,2,3
d. 2,3,4

93. Which of the following is not an indicators of Behavior


Management in TCMP?
a. Resident will utilize the different behavior shaping tools in
promoting change within themselves and others.
b. Residents will utilize the different behavior shaping tools in
promoting change within themselves and others.
c. Residents will display improvement in demeanor,
communication and social skills.
d. Answer not given

94. It is a sudden change of position and responsibility will occur


if a certain resident holding key position commits infraction such
as violation of cardinal rules.
a. Job change: job rotation
b. Job Change: With infraction/offenses committed
c. Job change: vacated positions upon release

95. What is the therapeutic community philosophy which is


described by this adage “ I am here because there is no refuge,
finally from myself.”
a. Surrender

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