Multiple Choice Questions in Biochemistry.

Multiple Choice Questions in
biochemistry
Multiple Choice Questions in
biochemistry
Third Edition
RC Gupta MD
Professor and Head
Department of Biochemistry
National Institute of Medical Science and Research
Jaipur, Rajasthan, India
Foreword
MR Soangra
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Multiple Choice Questions in Biochemistry

First Edition: 2000
Second Edition: 2004
Third Edition: 2016
ISBN: 978-93-5250-049-9
Printed at
Foreword
It gives me immense pleasure to write a Foreword to Multiple Choice

Questions in Biochemistry written by RC Gupta of Government Medical
College, Kota, Rajasthan, India.
Medical students have traditionally depended upon Western books
for knowledge and information. The situation is changing now as a
number of Indian authors have written excellent books on various
branches of medical science including Biochemistry in recent years.
However, an area that hasn’t received adequate attention is Multiple
Choice Questions. With the emphasis shifting to objective methods of
assessment, there is a need for quality books on MCQs. RC Gupta has
filled a vital gap by writing this book.
I am glad to note that the coverage of the subject in this book is
exhaustive and balanced. While topics like vitamins, minerals, diet
and nutrition, still important in developing countries, find adequate
coverage, rapidly advancing areas like recombinant DNA technology,
immunochemistry and cancer have not been ignored. Referenced
answers add to the value of the book.
I am sure that the book will fully meet the requirement of
students preparing for 1st year MBBS and Pre-Postgraduate Entrance
Examinations.
MR Soangra
Principal and Controller
Government Medical College and
Associated Group of Hospitals
Kota, Rajasthan, India
Preface to the Third Edition
The response of readers to the second edition of Multiple Choice

Questions in Biochemistry has been overwhelming. I am delighted to
place the third edition in the hands of readers. I have been fortunate
to receive feedback from several discerning teachers. In the light
of suggestions received from them, about 300 questions have been
reframed in the present edition.
One criticism about the previous editions was the large number of
references cited in the book. It was pointed out that it is not possible
for a student to consult so many books for explanation of answers.
Accordingly, the number of references has been reduced to two only
in the present edition. Of these, Harper’s Biochemistry continues to
be the major source in which matter pertinent to more than 75% of the
questions can be found.
RC Gupta
Preface to the First Edition
Multiple choice questions (MCQs) constitute an important method

for objective assessment of an examinee’s knowledge. Looking to the
pitfalls of traditional question papers comprising of a small number of
long questions, educationists are laying stress on MCQs to broaden the
coverage of syllabi, to test the analytical thinking of examinees and to
reduce the element of subjectivity in the system of assessment. Medical
Council of India, in its Regulations on Graduate Medical Education,
1997, has also recommended the inclusion of objective type of questions
in examinations. Many universities have started including MCQs in
undergraduate medical examinations, and others are likely to follow
suit. Moreover, entrance examinations for postgraduate medical courses
are generally based on MCQs alone.
Considering the importance of MCQs in examinations, Multiple
Choice Questions in Biochemistry has been written to provide a
comprehensive question bank to students covering nearly the entire
syllabus in Biochemistry with the hope that the book will help the
students in preparing themselves for objective type of questions, in
assessing their level of preparedness for examinations and in quick
revision of the subject.
I have received help and encouragement from many quarters in
writing this book. Dr MR Soangra, Principal and Controller, Government
Medical College and Associated Group of Hospitals, Kota, Rajasthan,
India, has been a source of inspiration and encouragement to me.
I am grateful to him for his help and for his kind gesture of writing the
Foreword.
I have had the benefit of wise counsel, scholarly criticism and
constructive suggestions from many friends and professional colleagues.
I owe a debt of gratitude to Dr NC Shah (Surat), Dr BL Sharma (Rajkot),
Dr GP Singh (Rohtak), Dr Harbans Lal (Rohtak), Dr CR Vyas (Bikaner),
Dr SC Vij (Bikaner), Dr VD Bohra (Jaipur), Dr VS Chowdhary (Ajmer),
and Dr KL Mali (Udaipur) for reviewing various chapters of the book.
However, for the errors still present, the responsibility is mine.
x Multiple Choice Questions in Biochemistry
I am thankful to Dr AS Rathore and Dr Usha Gupta for their help in

proofreading. Mr Akhil Sharma, Mr Vijay Matai and Mr Anil Garg deserve
appreciation and thanks for their efficient secretarial assistance. I am
thankful to M/s Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P) Ltd, New Delhi,
India, for the efforts they have made to bring the book to its present
shape.
I heartily welcome comments, criticism and suggestions from the
readers.
RC Gupta
Contents
1. Chemistry of Carbohydrates 1
2. Chemistry of Lipids 7
3. Chemistry of Amino Acids and Proteins 12
4. Chemistry of Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids 19
5. Enzymes 25
6. Biological Oxidation 39
7. Water-soluble Vitamins 43
8. Fat-soluble Vitamins 56
9. Porphyrins, Haemoglobin and Bilirubin 69
10. Pyruvate Metabolism and Citric Acid Cycle 76
11. Metabolism of Carbohydrates 83
12. Metabolism of Lipids 109
13. Metabolism of Nucleotides 134
14. Metabolism of Nucleic Acids 148
15. Genetic Code and Protein Synthesis 162
16. Recombinant DNA Technology 177
17. Metabolism of Amino Acids 185
18. Immunochemistry 199
19. Minerals 208
20. Water and Electrolyte Balance 220
21. Acid-base Balance 224
22. Nutrition and Diet 229
23. Hormones 238
24. Proteoglycans and Glycoproteins 264
25. Biochemistry of Cancer 267
26. Tests for Liver, Kidney, Thyroid and Pancreatic Functions 270
27. Metabolism of Xenobiotics 278
References 281
Chemistry of
Carbohydrates 1
1. Number of asymmetric carbon atoms in glucose is:
A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Four (Ref. 1, p. 112)
2. b-1, 4-Glycosidic bond is present in:
A. Maltose B. Lactose
C. Sucrose D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 117)
3. Number of stereoisomers of glucose is:
A. 4 B. 8
C. 16 D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 112)
4. A homopolysaccharide made up of fructose is:
A. Glycogen B. Dextrin
C. Cellulose D. Inulin (Ref. 1, p. 116)
5. Aglycone portion in cardiac glycosides is made up of:
A. Glucose B. Steroids
C. Mannose D. Galactose (Ref. 1, p. 114)
6. Identical osazones are formed by:
A. Glucose and fructose
B. Glucose and mannose
C. Mannose and fructose
D. All of the above (Ref. 2, p. 17)
7. Maltose can be formed by hydrolysis of:
A. Starch
B. Dextrin
C. Glycogen
1 D 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 B 6 D 7 D
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2 Multiple Choice Questions in Biochemistry
8. a-1, 6-Glycosidic bond is not present in:

C. Amylose D. Amylopectin (Ref. 1, p. 116)
9. Sulfated iduronic acid is present in:
A. Hyaluronic acid
B. Chondroitin sulfate
C. Heparin
10. Monosaccharides can be separated by:
A. Electrophoresis B. Chromatography
C. Salting out D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, pp. 719-724)
11. Fructose is present in hydrolysate of:
A. Sucrose B. Inulin
C. Both of the above D. Neither of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 21)
12. N-Acetylgalactosamine sulfate is present in:
A. Hyaluronic acid B. Heparin
C. Chondroitin sulfate D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 119)
13. Invertase catalyzes the hydrolysis of:
A. Maltose B. Lactose
C. Sucrose D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 20)
14. In fructofuranose, anomeric carbon atom is:
A. Carbon 1 B. Carbon 2
C. Carbon 3 D. Carbon 4 (Ref. 1, p. 114)
15. A carbohydrate found in DNA is:
A. Ribose
B. Deoxyribose
C. Ribulose
16. A monosaccharide not having D- and L-isomers is:
A. Ribose B. Deoxyribose
C. Erythrose D. Dihydroxyacetone
(Ref. 2, p. 12)
8 C 9 C 10 B 11 C 12 C 13 C 14 B 15 B 16 D
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Chemistry of Carbohydrates 3
17. Ribulose is a:
A. Ketotetrose B. Aldotetrose
C. Ketopentose D. Aldopentose (Ref. 1, p. 115)
18. In D-glyceraldehyde, –OH group is present on the right hand
side of carbon atom number:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 1, 2 and 3 (Ref. 1, p. 113)
19. A disaccharide made up of two glucose units is:
A. Sucrose B. Maltose
C. Lactose D. Dextrin (Ref. 1, p. 117)
20. A carbohydrate, commonly known as dextrose, is:
A. Dextrin B. D-Fructose
C. D-Glucose D. Glycogen (Ref. 1, p. 113)
21. Amino sugars are present in:
A. Hyaluronic acid B. Chondroitin sulfate
C. Erythromycin D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, pp. 118-119)
22. A carbohydrate found only in milk is:
A. Glucose B. Galactose
C. Lactose D. Maltose (Ref. 2, p. 11)
23. A carbohydrate, known commonly as invert sugar, is:
A. Fructose B. Sucrose
C. Glucose D. Lactose (Ref. 1, p. 116)
24. A homopolysaccharide among the following is:
A. Heparin B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Dermatan sulfate D. Cellulose (Ref. 2, p. 22)
25. A heteropolysaccharide among the following is:
A. Inulin B. Cellulose
C. Heparin D. Dextrin (Ref. 2, pp. 21-25)
26. The predominant form of glucose in solution is:
A. Acyclic form B. Hydrated acyclic form
C. Glucofuranose D. Glucopyranose
(Ref. 1, p. 114)
27. Optical isomerism is denoted by:
A. D- and L- B. d- and l-
C. (+) and (–) D. Any of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 113)
17 C 18 B 19 B 20 C 21 D 22 C 23 B 24 D 25 C 26 D 27 C
Ch 1.indd 3 01-09-2015 16:50:57

28. An L-isomer of monosaccharide formed in human body is:

A. L-Fructose B. L-Erythrose
C. L-Xylose D. L-Xylulose (Ref. 1, p. 115)
29. A pentose found in nucleotides is:
A. D-Ribose B. L-Ribose
C. D-Ribulose D. L-Ribulose (Ref. 1, p. 115)
30. The following causes levorotation:
A. D-Fructose B. L-Glucose
C. L-Ribose D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 12)
31. In straight chain structure of D-glucose, –OH group is present
on left hand side of carbon atom number:
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5 (Ref. 1, p. 113)
32. In straight chain structure of D-ribose, –OH group is present
on right hand side of carbon atom number:
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 13)
33. The carbon atom which becomes asymmetric when the
straight chain form of monosaccharide changes into ring form
is known as:
A. Anomeric carbon atom
B. Epimeric carbon atom
C. Isomeric carbon atom
D. None of the above (Ref. 1, p. 113)
34. In α-D-glucopyranose, –OH groups projecting below the plane
of the ring, are attached to carbon atoms:
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 5 (Ref. 1, p. 113)
35. In glucopyranose, the anomeric carbon is:
36. The smallest monosaccharide having furanose ring structure
is:
A. Erythrose B. Ribose
C. Glucose D. Fructose (Ref. 2, p. 19)
28 D 29 A 30 D 31 B 32 D 33 A 34 B 35 A 36 B
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Chemistry of Carbohydrates 5
37. The specific rotation of a-D-glucopyranose is:

A. +19° B. +52.5°
C. +92° D. +112° (Ref. 2, p. 15)
38. The specific rotation of b-D-glucopyranose is:
A. +19° B. +52.5°
C. +92° D. +112° (Ref. 2, p. 15)
39. The ratio of a-D-glucopyranose to b-D-glucopyranose at
equilibrium is nearly:
A. 2 : 1 B. 1 : 1
C. 1 : 2 D. 1 : 1.5 (Ref. 2, p. 15)
40. The following is an epimeric pair:
A. Glucose and fructose
B. Glucose and galactose
C. Galactose and mannose
D. Lactose and maltose (Ref. 1, p. 114)
41. Similar osazones are formed by:
A. Glucose and mannose
B. Mannose and galactose
C. Glucose and galactose
42. a-Glycosidic bond is present in:
A. Lactose B. Maltose
C. Sucrose D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 18)
43. Branching occurs in glycogen approximately after every:
A. 4–6 glucose units B. 12–14 glucose units
C. 14–18 glucose units D. 20–24 glucose units
(Ref. 1, p. 116)
44. Mucopolysaccharides are also known as:
A. Mucoproteins
B. Glycoproteins
C. Glycosaminoglycans
D. Homopolysaccharides (Ref. 1, p. 118)
45. N-Acetylglucosamine is present in:
C. Heparin D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 119)
37 D 38 A 39 C 40 B 41 A 42 B 43 B 44 C 45 A
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46. a-Iduronic acid is present in:

A. Hyaluronic acid
C. Dermatan sulfate
D. Keratan sulfate (Ref. 2, p. 25)
47. Glomerular filtration rate can be measured using:
C. Inulin D. Starch (Ref. 1, p. 116)
48. Amylose is a constituent of:
A. Starch B. Cellulose
C. Glycogen D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 116)
49. A homopolymer of glucose is:
A. Starch B. Dextrin
C. Glycogen D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 116)
50. Synovial fluid contains:
A. Heparin B. Hyaluronic acid
C. Chondroitin sulfate D. Keratan sulfate
(Ref. 2, p. 25)
46 C 47 C 48 A 49 D 50 B
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Chemistry of Lipids
2
1. The following is a polyunsaturated fatty acid:
A. Palmitic acid B. Palmitoleic acid
C. Linoleic acid D. Oleic acid (Ref. 1, p. 123)
2. The following is not a polyunsaturated fatty acid:
A. Linoleic acid B. Palmitoleic acid
C. Linolenic acid D. Arachidonic acid
(Ref. 1, p. 123)
3. The following is omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acid:
A. Linoleic acid B. a-Linolenic acid
C. g-Linolenic acid D. Arachidonic acid
(Ref. 1, p. 123)
4. A good source of polyunsaturated fatty acids is:
A. Butter
B. Coconut oil
C. Cottonseed oil
D. Hydrogenated vegetable oils (Ref. 2, p. 570)
5. Triglycerides are:
A. Heavier than water
B. Major constituents of membranes
C. Neutral fats
D. Hydrophilic (Ref. 2, p. 32)
6. The following is a glycerophospholipid:
A. Lecithin
B. Phosphatidyl inositol
C. Cardiolipin
D. All of the above (Ref. 1, pp. 124-125)
1 C 2 B 3 B 4 C 5 C 6 D
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7. Cerebronic acid is present in:

A. Glycerophospholipids
B. Sphingophospholipids
C. Galactosyl ceramide
D. Gangliosides (Ref. 1, p. 126)
8. N-Acetylneuraminic acid is present in:
A. Phospholipids B. Cerebrosides
C. Gangliosides D. Triglycerides
(Ref. 1, p. 126)
9. Sphingosine is not present in:
A. Cephalin B. Sphingomyelin
C. Cerebrosides D. Sulfatides (Ref. 2, p. 35)
10. Acylsphingosine is also known as:
A. Sphingomyelin B. Ceramide
C. Cerebroside D. Sulfatide (Ref. 1, p. 126)
11. Specific gravity of very low density lipoproteins is:
A. 0.95–1.006 B. 1.006–1.063
C. Below 0.95 D. Above 1.063 (Ref. 1, p. 218)
12. Protein content of low density lipoproteins is about:
A. 1% B. 7–10%
C. 21% D. 33–57% (Ref. 1, p. 218)
13. Lipid content of chylomicrons is about:
A. 45% B. 75%
C. 90% D. 99% (Ref. 1, p. 218)
14. The highest phospholipid content is found in:
A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL
C. LDL D. HDL (Ref. 1, p. 218)
15. The major lipid in chylomicrons is:
A. Triglycerides B. Phospholipids
C. Cholesterol D. Free fatty acids
(Ref. 1, p. 218)
16. Pre-b-lipoproteins are the same as:
A. Chylomicrons
B. Very low density lipoproteins
C. Low density lipoproteins
D. High density lipoproteins (Ref. 1, p. 217)
7 C 8 C 9 A 10 B 11 A 12 C 13 D 14 D 15 A 16 B
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Chemistry of Lipids 9
17. Number of carbon atoms in cholesterol is:

A. 17 B. 19
C. 27 D. 30 (Ref. 1, p. 233)
18. The lipoprotein richest in cholesterol is:
19. Free fatty acids are transported in circulation by:
A. Albumin B. HDL
C. LDL D. VLDL (Ref. 1, p. 218)
20. The major storage form of lipids is:
A. Esterified cholesterol B. Glycerophospholipids
C. Triglycerides D. Sphingolipids
(Ref. 2, p. 285)
21. Cerebronic acid is present in:
A. Triglycerides B. Galactosylceramide
C. Esterified cholesterol D. Sphingomyelin
(Ref. 1, p. 126)
22. Sphingosine is present in:
A. Lecithin B. Cephalin
C. Ceramide D. Cardiolipin (Ref. 1, p. 126)
23. The nitrogenous base in lecithin is:
A. Ethanolamine B. Choline
C. Serine D. Betaine (Ref. 1, p. 124)
24. The nitrogenous base in cephalin is:
A. Ethanolamine B. Choline
C. Serine D. Betaine (Ref. 1, p. 125)
25. Hexosamines are present in:
A. Cerebrosides B. Sulfatides
C. Gangliosides D. Sphingosine (Ref. 1, p. 126)
26. All the following are omega-6 fatty acids except:
(Ref. 1, p. 123)
27. Neutral fats are esters of fatty acids and:
A. Cholesterol B. Glycerol
C. Cetyl alcohol D. Sphingosine (Ref. 2, p. 29)
17 C 18 C 19 A 20 C 21 B 22 C 23 B 24 A 25 C 26 B 27 B
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28. Sphingosine is not present in:

A. Plasmalogens B. Cerebrosides
C. Sulfatides D. Gangliosides
(Ref. 1, p. 126)
29. All the following have 18 carbon atoms except:
A. Linoleic acid
B. Linolenic acid
C. Arachidonic acid
D. Stearic acid (Ref. 1, pp. 122–123)
30. All the following contain nitrogen except:
A. Lecithin
B. Cephalin
C. Phosphatidylinositol
D. Phosphatidylserine (Ref. 1, p. 125)
31. The number of double bonds in linoleic acid is:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4 (Ref. 1, p. 123)
32. The number of double bonds in linolenic acid is:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4 (Ref. 1, p. 123)
33. The number of double bonds in arachidonic acid is:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4 (Ref. 1, p. 123)
34. A 20-carbon fatty acid among the following is:
(Ref. 1, p. 123)
35. The following can be used as a measure of lipid peroxidation:
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Endoperoxide
C. Hydroperoxide
D. Malondialdehyde (Ref. 2, p. 657)
36. Triglycerides are transported from liver to extrahepatic tissues
by:
C. HDL D. LDL (Ref. 1, p. 219)
28 A 29 C 30 C 31 B 32 C 33 D 34 D 35 D 36 B
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Chemistry of Lipids 11
37. Triglycerides are transported from intestines to extrahepatic

tissues by:
38. Cholesterol is the precursor of:
A. Sex hormones B. Vitamin D
C. Bile acids D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 126)
39. Cholesterol is transported from extrahepatic tissues to liver by:
C. HDL D. LDL (Ref. 1, pp. 221-222)
40. Elevated plasma level of the following protects against
atherosclerosis:
37 A 38 D 39 C 40 C
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Chemistry of Amino
Acids and Proteins 3
1. An amino acid having no asymmetric carbon atom is:
A. Alanine B. Leucine
C. Glycine D. Arginine (Ref. 1, p. 14)
2. An amino acid having two asymmetric carbon atoms is:
A. Glycine B. Cysteine
C. Valine D. Threonine (Ref. 2, p. 15)
3. All the following amino acids are non-essential except:
A. Alanine B. Histidine
C. Cysteine D. Proline (Ref. 1, p. 488)
4. Sulphydryl group is present in:
A. Cysteine B. Methionine
C. Serine D. Selenocysteine
(Ref. 1, p. 15)
5. Glutathione is a:
A. Decapeptide B. Octapeptide
C. Pentapeptide D. Tripeptide (Ref. 1, p. 19)
6. Angiotensin II is a:
A. Decapeptide B. Octapeptide
C. Pentapeptide D. Tripeptide (Ref. 1, p. 458)
7. In quaternary structure, subunits are linked by:
A. Peptide bonds B. Disulfide bonds
C. Covalent bonds D. Noncovalent bonds
(Ref. 1, p. 34)
8. High voltage electrophoresis is used to separate:
A. Proteins B. Lipoproteins
C. Amino acids D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 24)
1 C 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 D 6 B 7 D 8 C
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Chemistry of Amino Acids and Proteins 13
9. In thin-layer chromatography, separation is based upon:

A. Solubility B. Adsorption
(Ref. 2, p. 183)
10. Molecular weight of human albumin is about:
A. 156,000 B. 90,000
C. 69,000 D. 54,000 (Ref. 1, p. 591)
11. The largest protein amongst the following is:
A. Fibrinogen B. Globulin
C. Albumin D. Haemoglobin
(Ref. 2, pp. 184, 196)
12. At isoelectric pH, an amino acid exists as:
A. Anion B. Cation
C. Zwitterion D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, pp. 16-17)
13. Among the following, an essential amino acid is:
A. Phenylalanine B. Tyrosine
C. Proline D. Hydroxyproline
(Ref. 1, p. 488)
14. A disulfide bond can be formed between:
A. Two methionine residues
B. Two cysteine residues
C. A methionine and a cysteine residue
15. A coagulated protein is:
A. Insoluble
B. Biologically nonfunctional
C. Unfolded
16. At a pH below the isoelectric point, an amino acid exists as:
A. Cation B. Anion
C. Zwitterion D. Undissociated molecule
(Ref. 1, p. 16)
17. If electrophoresis is carried out at pH 8.6, a protein having an
isoelectric pH of 5.8 will migrate towards:
A. Anode B. Cathode
C. Either of the above D. Neither of the above
(Ref. 2, pp. 725-726)
9 C 10 C 11 A 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 D 16 A 17 A
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18. The number of ionizable groups in tyrosine is:

A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Four (Ref. 1, pp. 16, 18)
19. An amino acid having a hydrophilic side chain is:
A. Alanine B. Proline
C. Methionine D. Serine (Ref. 1, p. 15)
20. An amino acid having a nonpolar side chain is:
A. Arginine B. Valine
C. Glutamine D. Lysine (Ref. 1, p. 15)
21. Ultraviolet light is absorbed by:
A. Histidine
B. Proline
C. Phenylalanine
22. The number of peptide bonds in glutathione is:
A. One B. Two
23. An amino acid that does not take part in a-helix formation is:
A. Histidine B. Tyrosine
C. Proline D. Tryptophan (Ref. 2, p. 31)
24. A protein rich in cysteine is:
A. Collagen B. Keratin
C. Haemoglobin D. Gelatin (Ref. 1, p. 39)
25. A protein rich in proline is:
A. Protamine B. Prothrombin
C. Procollagen D. Proinsulin (Ref. 2, p. 132)
26. Primary structure of proteins can be determined by the use of:
A. Electrophoresis B. Chromatography
C. Ninhydrin D. Sanger’s reagent
(Ref. 1, p. 25)
27. Primary structure of a protein is broken by:
A. Heat B. Ammonium sulfate
C. Pepsin D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 63)
18 C 19 D 20 B 21 C 22 B 23 C 24 B 25 C 26 D 27 C
Ch 3.indd 14 01-09-2015 16:50:29

28. Salt bonds can be formed between the side chains of:
A. Alanine and leucine
B. Leucine and valine
C. Aspartate and glutamate
D. Lysine and aspartate (Ref. 1, p. 35)
29. The following is a metalloprotein:
A. Haemoglobin B. Myoglobin
C. Ferritin D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 414)
30. Sanger’s reagent contains:
A. Phenylisothiocyanate
B. Dansyl chloride
C. 1-Fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene
D. Ninhydrin (Ref. 1, p. 25)
31. The most abundant protein in mammals is:
A. Albumin B. Haemoglobin
C. Collagen D. Elastin (Ref. 1, p. 38)
32. Folding of newly synthesized proteins is accelerated by:
A. Protein disulfide isomerase
B. Prolyl cis-trans isomerase
C. Chaperonins
33. Quaternary structure is present in:
A. Coagulated proteins B. Denatured proteins
C. Haemoglobin D. Myoglobin (Ref. 2, p. 58)
34. Primary structure of a protein is formed by:
A. Hydrogen bonds B. Peptide bonds
C. Disulfide bonds D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 30)
35. a-Helix is formed by:
A. Hydrogen bonds B. Hydrophobic bonds
C. Electrostatic bonds D. Disulfide bonds
(Ref. 1, p. 31)
36. Glutelins are present in:
A. Milk B. Eggs
C. Meat D. Cereals (Ref. 2, p. 64)
28 D 29 C 30 C 31 C 32 D 33 C 34 B 35 A 36 D
Ch 3.indd 15 01-09-2015 16:50:29

37. b-Bends are present in:

A. Fibrous proteins B. Globular proteins
(Ref. 1, p. 32)
38. Aromatic amino acids can be detected by:
A. Sakaguchi reaction
B. Millon-Nasse reaction
C. Hopkins-Cole reaction
D. Xanthoproteic reaction (Ref. 2, p. 61)
39. Angiotensinogen is a:
A. a1-Globulin B. a2-Globulin
C. b1-Globulin D. b2-Globulin(Ref. 1, p. 458)
40. Chromatographic separation based upon differential distribu
tion of compounds between two solvents is known as:
A. Adsorption chromatography
B. Partition chromatography
C. Thin layer chromatography
D. Column chromatography (Ref. 1, p. 21)
41. The number of ionizable groups in glutamate is:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4 (Ref. 2, p. 46)
42. A dicarboxylic amino acid among the following is:
A. Aspartate B. Lysine
C. Arginine D. Tyrosine (Ref. 1, p. 15)
43. Two amino groups are present in:
A. Leucine B. Glutamate
C. Lysine D. Threonine (Ref. 1, p. 16)
44. The least soluble protein among the following is:
A. Albumin B. Globulin
C. Casein D. Collagen (Ref. 2, p. 64)
45. During denaturation of proteins, all the following are disrupted
except:
A. Primary structure B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure D. Quaternary structure
(Ref. 1, p. 37)
37 B 38 D 39 B 40 B 41 C 42 A 43 C 44 D 45 A
Ch 3.indd 16 01-09-2015 16:50:29

46. A branched-chain amino acid among the following is:

A. Alanine B. Valine
C. Threonine D. Lysine (Ref. 1, p. 15)
47. All the following are branched chain-amino acids except:
A. Isoleucine B. Alanine
C. Leucine D. Valine (Ref. 1, p. 15)
48. All the following have aliphatic side chains except:
A. Glycine B. Alanine
49. An –OH group is present in the side chain of:
A. Serine
B. Arginine
C. Lysine
D. Proline (Ref. 1, p. 15)
50. Following chromatographic separation, amino acids can be
detected by:
A. Biuret reaction
B. Ninhydrin reaction
C. Xanthoproteic reaction
D. Hopkins-Cole reaction (Ref. 2, p. 721)
51. Edman’s reagent contains:
A. Phenylisothiocyanate
B. 1-Fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene
C. Dansyl cphloride
D. tBOC azide (Ref. 1, p. 25)
52. Edman’s reaction can be used to:
A. Determine the number of tyrosine residues in a protein
B. Determine the number of aromatic amino acid residues in a
protein
C. Determine the amino acid sequence of a protein
D. Hydrolyse the peptide bonds in a protein (Ref. 2, p. 56)
53. Presence of tyrosine can be detected by:
A. Sakaguchi reaction
B. Millon-Nasse reaction
C. Hopkins-Cole reaction
D. Biuret reaction (Ref. 2, p. 61)
46 B 47 B 48 A 49 A 50 B 51 A 52 C 53 B
Ch 3.indd 17 01-09-2015 16:50:29

54. Presence of arginine can be detected by:

A. Sakaguchi reaction B. Millon-Nasse reaction
C. Hopkins-Cole reaction D. Gas chromatography
(Ref. 2, p. 61)
55. Plasma lipoproteins can be separated by:
A. Salt fractionation
B. Alcohol fractionation
C. Electrophoresis
D. Paper chromatography (Ref. 1, p. 217)
54 A 55 C
Ch 3.indd 18 01-09-2015 16:50:29

4
Chemistry of
Nucleotides and
Nucleic Acids
1. An oxy group is attached to carbon number two of:

A. Cytosine B. Uracil
C. Thymine D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 296)
2. A methyl group is attached to carbon number five of:
A. Adenine B. Guanine
C. Thymine D. Cytosine (Ref. 1, p. 296)
3. The following nitrogen atom of purines is attached to the sugar
in nucleosides:
A. Nitrogen 1 B. Nitrogen 3
C. Nitrogen 7 D. Nitrogen 9 (Ref. 1, p. 296)
4. A nitrogenous base that does not occur in mRNA is:
A. Cytosine B. Thymine
C. Uracil D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, pp. 295-297)
5. In cyclic AMP, phosphate is attached to the following carbon
atoms of ribose:
A. 1 and 5 B. 2 and 5
C. 3 and 5 D. 1 and 3 (Ref. 1, p. 297)
6. In nucleotides, phosphate is attached to sugar by:
A. Salt bond B. Hydrogen bond
C. Ester bond D. Glycosidic bond
(Ref. 1, p. 299)
7. Cyclic AMP can be formed from:
A. AMP B. ADP
C. ATP D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 297)
1 D 2 C 3 D 4 B 5 C 6 C 7 C
Ch 4.indd 19 01-09-2015 16:50:14

8. The nitrogenous base in inosine monophosphate is:

A. Ionone B. Inulin
C. Hypoxanthine D. Xanthine (Ref. 1, p. 305)
9. In some metabolic pathways, UDP is present in combination
with:
A. Glucose B. Glucuronic acid
C. Galactose D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, pp. 264, 276, 277)
10. A substituted pyrimidine base of pharmacological value is:
A. 5-Iododeoxyuridine B. Cytosine arabinoside
C. 5-Fluorouracil D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 299)
11. A synthetic pyrimidine nucleoside of pharmacological value is:
A. 6-Mercaptopurine B. 6-Thioguanine
C. 6-Azaguanine D. 6-Azauridine (Ref. 1, p. 299)
12. The “transforming factor” discovered by Avery, McLeod and
McCarty was later found to be:
A. mRNA B. tRNA
C. DNA D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 311)
13. In DNA, the complementary base of adenine is:
A. Guanine B. Cytosine
C. Uracil D. Thymine (Ref. 2, p. 75)
14. In DNA, three hydrogen bonds are formed between:
A. Adenine and guanine B. Adenine and thymine
C. Guanine and cytosine D. Thymine and cytosine
(Ref. 2, p. 75)
15. The diameter of the double helix is 2 nm in:
A. A-DNA B. B-DNA
C. Z-DNA D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 403)
16. Twelve base pairs are present in each turn of the helix in:
A. A-DNA B. B-DNA
C. Z-DNA D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 83)
8 C 9 D 10 C 11 D 12 C 13 D 14 C 15 B 16 C
Ch 4.indd 20 01-09-2015 16:50:14

Chemistry of Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids 21
17. Circular DNA is present in:

A. Retroviruses B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondria D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 314)
18. Left-handed double helix is present in:
A. Z-DNA B. A-DNA
C. B-DNA D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 76)
19. Right-handed double helix is present in:
A. A-DNA and Z-DNA
B. B-DNA and Z-DNA
C. A-DNA and B-DNA
D. All the three pairs (Ref. 2, p. 76)
20. Nuclear DNA is present in combination with:
A. Histones B. Nonhistones
(Ref. 1, p. 313)
21. The pyrimidine bases in RNA are:
A. Cytosine and uracil B. Cytosine and thymine
C. Thymine and uracil D. Any of these pairs
(Ref. 1, p. 314)
22. Number of guanine and cytosine residues is equal in:
A. mRNA B. tRNA
C. DNA D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 311)
23. Alkalis cannot hydrolyse:
A. mRNA B. tRNA
C. rRNA D. DNA (Ref. 1, p. 314)
24. 7-Methylguanosine triphosphate cap is present at the:
A. 5′-End of tRNA B. 3′-End of tRNA
C. 5′-End of mRNA D. 3′-End of mRNA
(Ref. 1, p. 317)
25. Poly-A tail is present at:
A. 5′-End of mRNA B. 3′-End of mRNA
C. 5′-End of tRNA D. 3′-End of tRNA
(Ref. 1, p. 317)
17 C 18 A 19 C 20 C 21 A 22 C 23 D 24 C 25 B
Ch 4.indd 21 01-09-2015 16:50:14

26. Heterogeneous nuclear RNA is the precursor of:

A. mRNA B. tRNA
C. rRNA D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 318)
27. Codons are present in:
A. Template strand of DNA B. mRNA
C. tRNA D. rRNA (Ref. 2, p. 551)
28. Amino acid is attached to tRNA at:
A. 5′-End B. 3′-End
C. Anticodon D. DHU loop (Ref. 1, p. 367)
29. The terminal nucleotide sequence is CCA at the:
A. 5′-End of tRNA B. 3′-End of tRNA
C. 5′-End of mRNA D. 3′-End of mRNA
(Ref. 1, p. 368)
30. In eukaryotes, 40 S and 60 S subunits of ribosomes combine to
form:
A. 70 S ribosomes B. 80 S ribosomes
C. 100 S ribosomes D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 373)
31. In prokaryotes, the ribosomal subunits are:
A. 30 S and 40 S B. 40 S and 50 S
C. 30 S and 50 S D. 40 S and 60 S (Ref. 1, p. 378)
32. A nucleotide that forms a high-energy intermediate for lipid
synthesis is:
A. ADP B. GDP
C. UDP D. CDP (Ref. 1, p. 294)
33. A purine base is present in all the following coenzymes except:
A. NAD B. NADP
C. FMN D. FAD (Ref. 1, pp. 50-51)
34. The following is involved in RNA processing:
A. rRNA B. snRNA
C. mRNA D. tRNA (Ref. 1, p. 319)
35. Translation can be inhibited by:
A. hnRNA B. siRNA
C. 7S RNA D. snRNA (Ref. 1, pp. 319-320)
26 A 27 B 28 B 29 B 30 B 31 C 32 D 33 C 34 B 35 B
Ch 4.indd 22 01-09-2015 16:50:14

Chemistry of Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids 23
36. The number of adenine and thymine bases is equal in:

A. DNA B. mRNA
37. The number of purine bases and pyrimidine bases is equal in:
A. DNA B. mRNA
38. The number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine
in DNA is:
A. One B. Two
39. The complementary base of adenine in RNA is:
A. Thymine B. Cytosine
C. Guanine D. Uracil (Ref. 1, p. 314)
40. Pseudouridine is present in:
A. hnRNA B. mRNA
41. Dihydrouracil is present in:
A. hnRNA B. mRNA
42. The number of nucleotides in a tRNA molecule is about:
A. 25 B. 50
C. 75 D. 200 (Ref. 2, p. 81)
43. 60 S ribosomal subunit contains all the following except:
A. 5 S rRNA B. 5.8 S rRNA
C. 18 S rRNA D. 28 S rRNA (Ref. 1, p. 318)
44. Extranuclear DNA is present in:
A. Ribosomes B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Lysosomes D. Mitochondria
(Ref. 2, p. 6)
45. Extranuclear DNA:
A. Does not encode proteins
B. Encodes proteins which are used in ribosomes
C. Encodes proteins which are used in respiratory chain
D. Encodes proteins which can be used anywhere in the cell
(Ref. 1, p. 331)
36 A 37 A 38 B 39 D 40 C 41 C 42 C 43 C 44 D 45 C
Ch 4.indd 23 01-09-2015 16:50:14

46. Mitochondrial DNA is present in:

A. Bacteria B. Viruses
C. Eukaryotes D. All of the above (Ref. 2, p. 6)
47. The following is synthesized in the form of a large precursor in
eukaryotes:
A. tRNA B. rRNA
C. mRNA D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 359)
48. Ribothymidine is present in:
A. DNA B. tRNA
C. rRNA D. hnRNA (Ref. 1, p. 320)
49. DNA contains all the following except:
A. Adenine B. Thiamin
C. Cytosine D. Guanine (Ref. 1, p. 311)
50. Thymine may be present in:
A. snRNA B. mRNA
51. DHU loop is present in:
A. hnRNA B. mRNA
52. The only correct statement about pseudouridine is:
A. It is present in rRNA
B. It contains dihydrouracil
C. It contains deoxyribose
D. The base and sugar are joined by C—C bond (Ref. 2, p. 82)
53. Ten base pairs are present in one turn of the helix in:
A. A-DNA B. B-DNA
C. C-DNA D. Z-DNA (Ref. 2, p. 76)
54. Double helical DNA is unwound on:
A. Raising the temperature
B. Lowering the temperature
C. Exposure to X-rays
D. Exposure to gamma radiation (Ref. 1, p. 312)
55. Transfer RNA transfers:
A. Information from DNA to ribosomes
B. Information from mRNA to cytosol
C. Amino acids from cytosol to ribosomes
D. Proteins from ribosomes to cytosol (Ref. 2, p. 81)
46 C 47 D 48 B 49 B 50 C 51 C 52 D 53 B 54 A 55 C
Ch 4.indd 24 01-09-2015 16:50:14

Enzymes
5
1. The following is a group-specific enzyme:
A. Xanthine oxidase B. Glucokinase
C. Urease D D. Trypsin (Ref. 2, pp. 95-96)
2. The following is a substrate-specific enzyme:
A. Hexokinase B. Chymotrypsin
C. Glucokinase D. Trypsin (Ref. 2, p. 96)
3. The following is a bond-specific enzyme:
A. Glucokinase B. Xanthine oxidase
C. Lipase D. Urease
(Ref. 2, pp. 95, 96)
4. Chymotrypsin hydrolyzes peptide bonds in which carboxyl
group is contributed by:
C. Tryptophan D. Any of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 53)
5. Coenzymes combine with:
A. Proenzymes B. Apoenzymes
C. Holoenzymes D. Antienzymes (Ref. 2, p. 50)
6. Coenzymes are required for transfer of the following group:
A. Methyl
B. Oligosaccharide
C. Acyl
7. The following coenzyme takes part in hydrogen transfer
reactions:
A. Tetrahydrofolate B. Coenzyme A
C. Coenzyme Q D. Biotin (Ref. 1, p. 50)
1 D 2 C 3 C 4 D 5 B 6 D 7 C
Ch 5.indd 25 01-09-2015 16:49:43

8. The following coenzyme does not take part in hydrogen transfer

reactions:
A. FAD B. NAD
C. NADP D. Cobamides (Ref. 1, p. 50)
9. The following coenzyme takes part in oxidation-reduction
reactions:
A. Pyridoxal phosphate
B. Lipoic acid
C. Thiamin diphosphate
10. Ribozymes are:
A. Protein enzymes acting on RNA
B. Catalytic RNAs
C. Not substrate-specific
D. Enzymes present in viruses (Ref. 1, p. 315)
11. A coenzyme required in transamination reactions is:
A. Coenzyme A B. Coenzyme Q
C. Biotin D. Pyridoxal phosphate
(Ref. 1, p. 490)
12. A coenzyme required in the transfer of single carbon moieties is:
A. Lipoic acid B. Coenzyme A
C. Pyridoxal phosphate D. Tetrahydrofolate
(Ref. 1, p. 490)
13. Coenzyme A contains a vitamin which is:
A. Thiamin B. Ascorbic acid
C. Pantothenic acid D. Niacinamide
(Ref. 1, pp. 490, 503)
14. Cobamides contain a vitamin which is:
A. Folic acid B. Ascorbic acid
C. Pantothenic acid D. Vitamin B12(Ref. 1, p. 499)
15. A coenzyme required in carboxylation reactions is:
A. Lipoic acid
B. Coenzyme A
C. Biotin
8 D 9 B 10 B 11 D 12 D 13 C 14 D 15 C
Ch 5.indd 26 01-09-2015 16:49:43

Enzymes 27
16. Pyridoxal phosphate acts as a coenzyme for:

A. Alanine aminotransferase
B. Aspartate aminotransferase
C. Tyrosine aminotransferase
17. The following coenzyme takes part in tissue respiration:
A. Coenzyme Q B. Coenzyme A
C. NADP D. Cobamide (Ref. 1, p. 100)
18. The enzyme hexokinase is a:
A. Hydrolase B. Oxidoreductase
C. Transferase D. Ligase (Ref. 1, p. 50)
19. The following enzyme is a hydrolase:
A. Aldolase B. Enolase
C. Fumarase D. Amylase (Ref. 1, p. 482)
20. The following is a proteolytic enzyme:
A. Pepsin B. Trypsin
C. Chymotrypsin D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 485)
21. The following enzyme is a lyase:
A. Fumarase B. Amylase
C. Maltase D. Invertase (Ref. 2, p. 148)
22. The following enzyme has no optical specificity:
A. Triose phosphate isomerase
B. Phosphohexose isomerase
C. Alanine racemase
23. Pyridoxal phosphate acts as a coenzyme for:
A. GOT
B. Tyrosine transaminase
C. Phosphorylase
24. Enzymes which catalyse binding of two substrates by covalent
bonds are known as:
A. Lyases B. Hydrolases
C. Ligases D. Oxidoreductases
(Ref. 2, p. 49)
16 D 17 A 18 C 19 D 20 D 21 A 22 C 23 D 24 C
Ch 5.indd 27 01-09-2015 16:49:43

25. The induced fit model of enzyme action was proposed by:
A. Fischer B. Koshland
C. Mitchell D. Markert (Ref. 1, p. 52)
26. Allosteric inhibition is also known as:
A. Competitive inhibition
B. Noncompetitive inhibition
C. Feedback inhibition
D. None of the above (Ref. 1, pp. 75-76)
27. An allosteric enzyme:
A. Is generally present at the end of a pathway
B. Generally catalyzes a reversible reaction
C. Generally catalyzes the committed step unique to a pathway
D. Possesses only substrate site (Ref. 1, p. 76)
28. An allosteric enzyme is generally inhibited by:
A. Initial substrate of the pathway
B. Substrate analogues
C. Product of the reaction catalyzed by allosteric enzyme
D. Product of the pathway (Ref. 1, p. 76)
29. When the substrate concentration equals Km in an enzyme-
catalyzed reaction:
A. A few of the enzyme molecules are present as ES complex
B. Majority of the enzyme molecules are present as ES complex
C. Half of the enzyme molecules are present as ES complex
D. All the enzyme molecules are present as ES complex
(Ref. 1, p. 66)
30. When the velocity of an enzymatic reaction equals Vmax,
substrate concentration is:
A. Half of Km
B. Equal to Km
C. Twice the Km
D. Far above the Km(Ref. 1, p. 66)
31. When the velocity of an enzymatic reaction is half of Vmax:
A. Substrate concentration is half of Km
B. Substrate concentration is equal to Km
C. Substrate concentration is twice the Km
25 B 26 C 27 C 28 D 29 C 30 D 31 B
Ch 5.indd 28 01-09-2015 16:49:43

Enzymes 29
32. In Lineweaver-Burk plot, the y-intercept represents:

A. Vmax B. 1/Vmax
C. Km D. 1/Km(Ref. 1, p. 66)
33. In Lineweaver-Burk plot, the x-intercept represents:
A. Vmax B. Km
C. Reciprocal of Vmax D. Reciprocal of Km
(Ref. 1, p. 67)
34. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor:
A. Competes with the enzyme
B. Irreversibly binds with the enzyme
C. Binds with the substrate
D. Competes with the substrate (Ref. 1, p. 68)
35. A competitive inhibitor:
A. Bears a structural resemblance with the enzyme
B. Bears a structural resemblance with the substrate
C. Combines with the enzyme at the allosteric site
D. Combines with the substrate and prevents it from binding
with the enzyme (Ref. 1, p. 68)
36. Competitive inhibitors:
A. Decrease the Km B. Decrease the Vmax
C. Increase the Km D. Increase the Vmax
(Ref. 1, p. 69)
37. Competitive inhibition can be relieved by raising the:
A. Enzyme concentration B. Substrate concentration
C. Inhibitor concentration D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 68)
38. Acetylcholinesterase is competitively inhibited by:
A. Aminopterin B. Acetylcholine
C. Succinyl choline D. Allopurinol (Ref. 2, p. 94)
39. Allopurinol is a competitive inhibitor of:
A. DHFR B. Acetylcholinesterase
C. Xanthine oxidase D. Monoamine oxidase
(Ref. 2, p. 94)
40. Dihydrofolate reductase is competitively inhibited by:
A. Allopurinol B. Neostigmine
C. Acetazolamide D. Methotrexate
(Ref. 1, pp. 304-305)
32 B 33 D 34 D 35 B 36 C 37 B 38 C 39 B 40 D
Ch 5.indd 29 01-09-2015 16:49:43

41. HMG CoA reductase is competitively inhibited by:

A. Clofibrate B. Statins
C. Zemfibrozil D. Nicotinic acid
(Ref. 1, pp. 69, 238)
42. Allopurinol is a competitive inhibitor of:
A. Dihydrofolate reductase B. Xanthine oxidase
C. Carbonic anhydrase D. Acetylcholinesterase
(Ref. 2, p. 94)
43. Noncompetitive inhibitors:
A. Increase the Km B. Increase the Vmax
C. Decrease the Km D. Decrease the Vmax
(Ref. 1, p. 69)
44. Noncompetitive inhibitors:
A. Resemble the substrate in structure
B. Resemble the substrate site in structure
C. Bind with the enzyme at the allosteric site
45. Serum lactate dehydrogenase rises in:
A. Viral hepatitis B. Myocardial infarction
C. Carcinomatosis D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 57)
46. The following serum enzyme rises in viral hepatitis:
A. LDH B. GPT
C. GGT D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 57)
47. The following serum enzyme rises in myocardial infarction:
A. Creatine kinase B. GOT
C. LDH D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 57)
48. Following myocardial infarction, the earliest serum enzyme to
rise is:
C. GPT D. LDH (Ref. 2, p. 57)
49. Creatine kinase is found in:
A. Myocardium B. Brain
C. Muscles D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 57)
41 B 42 B 43 D 44 D 45 D 46 D 47 D 48 A 49 D
Ch 5.indd 30 01-09-2015 16:49:43

Enzymes 31
50. Following myocardial infarction, the last serum enzyme to

return to normal is:
C. GPT D. LDH (Ref. 2, p. 57)
51. In viral hepatitis:
A. The rise in SGOT is greater than that in SGPT
B. The rise in SGPT is greater than that in SGOT
C. SGOT and SGPT are raised equally
D. SGOT remains normal
(Ref. 2, p. 107)
52. The highest elevation in serum alkaline phosphatase is seen in:
A. Obstructive jaundice B. Rickets
C. Osteomalacia D. Infective hepatitis
(Ref. 2, p. 107)
53. Alkaline phosphatase is present in:
A. Liver B. Bones
C. Placenta D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 107)
54. Serum lipase is raised in:
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Acute parotitis
C. Infective hepatitis
55. Serum acid phosphatase is raised in:
A. Cancer of liver B. Cancer of bones
C. Cancer of prostate D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 57)
56. Serum amylase is raised in:
A. Acute pancreatitis
B. Infective hepatitis
C. Obstructive jaundice
57. The following isoenzyme of lactate dehydrogenase is raised in
serum in myocardial infarction:
A. LD1 B. LD2
C. LD1 and LD2 D. LD5(Ref. 2, p. 110)
50 D 51 B 52 A 53 D 54 A 55 C 56 A 57 C
Ch 5.indd 31 01-09-2015 16:49:43

58. The subunit composition of LD1 isoenzyme of lactate dehydro

genase is:
A. HHHH B. HHHM
C. HMMM D. MMMM (Ref. 2, p. 110)
59. The following isoenzyme of creatine kinase in serum is raised
in myocardial infarction:
A. CK-BB B. CK-MM
C. CK-MB D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 111)
60. The earliest irreversible reaction unique to a metabolic
pathway is known as the:
A. Rate-limiting step B. Committed step
C. Feedback step D. Allosteric step (Ref. 1, p. 74)
61. Enzymes which are always present in an organism are
known as:
A. Inducible enzymes B. Constitutive enzymes
C. Functional enzymes D. Apoenzymes (Ref. 1, p. 75)
62. Enzyme synthesis is repressed when:
A. Aporepressor is present in the cell
B. Inducer is absent from the cell
C. Inducer is absent and aporepressor present in the cell
D. Aporepressor and corepressor are present in the cell
(Ref. 1, p. 75)
63. Inactive precursors of enzymes are known as:
A. Apoenzymes B. Coenzymes
C. Proenzymes D. Holoenzymes (Ref. 1, p. 77)
64. The following is a proenzyme:
A. Carboxypeptidase B. Aminopeptidase
C. Chymotrypsin D. Pepsinogen (Ref. 1, p. 77)
65. Allosteric enzymes may undergo:
A. Feedback inhibition B. Covalent modification
C. Repression D. Induction (Ref. 1, p. 76)
66. Regulation of some enzymes by covalent modification involves
addition or removal of:
A. Acetate B. Sulfate
C. Phosphate D. Coenzyme A (Ref. 1, p. 78)
58 A 59 C 60 B 61 B 62 D 63 C 64 D 65 A 66 C
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Enzymes 33
67. All the following statements about covalent modification of

enzymes are true except:
A. It is a mechanism for regulating enzyme activity
B. It converts inactive enzyme into active enzyme or vice versa
C. Conversion of inactive form into active form or vice versa is
catalyzed by the same enzyme
D. Conversion of one form into another is reversible
(Ref. 1, p. 79)
68. Phosphorylation of an enzyme:
A. Alters gene expression B. Occurs at catalytic site
C. Requires a repressor D. Is reversible
(Ref. 1, pp. 78-79)
69. An inorganic ion required for the activity of an enzyme is
known as:
A. Activator B. Cofactor
C. Coenzyme D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 50)
70. The first enzyme found to have isoenzymes was:
A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Lactate dehydrogenase
C. Acid phosphatase D. Creatine kinase
(Ref. 1, p. 57)
71. All the following statements about allosteric enzymes are true
except:
A. Allosteric inhibitors may raise their Km
B. Allosteric inhibitors may lower their Vmax
C. Allosteric inhibitors affect neither their Km nor Vmax
D. Allosteric inhibitors may affect their Km as well as Vmax
(Ref. 1, p. 77)
72. Ceruloplasmin is:
A. An iron-containing protein
B. A copper transporter
C. A ferroxidase
73. Lactate dehydrogenase is located in:
A. Lysosomes B. Mitochondria
C. Cytosol D. Microsomes (Ref. 1, p. 57)
67 C 68 D 69 B 70 B 71 C 72 C 73 C
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74. Lactate dehydrogenase is a:

A. Monomer B. Dimer
C. Tetramer D. Hexamer (Ref. 1, p. 57)
75. Isoenzymes of lactate dehydrogenase:
A. Catalyze the same reaction
B. Have the same subunit composition
C. Have the same electrophoretic mobility
D. Have the same Km(Ref. 1, pp. 57-58)
76. Serum gamma glutamyl transpeptidase is raised in:
A. Liver diseases B. Pancreatic diseases
C. Myopathies D. Brain diseases
(Ref. 1, p. 57)
77. Hepatic copper-binding P-type ATPase is defective in:
A. Cirrhosis of liver B. Wilson’s disease
C. Menkes’ disease D. Copper deficiency
(Ref. 1, p. 597)
78. Serum ceruloplasmin is absent or greatly decreased in:
A. Emphysema B. Wilson’s disease
C. Cirrhosis of liver D. Renal disease
(Ref. 1, p. 597)
79. After myocardial infarction, peak elevation of serum LDH is
likely at:
A. 12 hrs B. 24 hrs
C. 3 days D. 7 days (Ref. 2, p. 113)
80. After myocardial infarction, peak elevation of serum creatine
kinase is likely at:
A. 3 hrs B. 6 hrs
C. 12 hrs D. 24 hrs (Ref. 2, p. 113)
81. Following myocardial infarction, serum creatine kinase
returns to normal in about:
A. 24 hrs B. 3 days
C. 5 days D. 7 days (Ref. 2, p. 113)
82. Following myocardial infarction, serum LDH returns to normal
in about:
A. 24 hrs B. 3 days
C. 5 days D. 7 days (Ref. 2, p. 113)
74 C 75 A 76 A 77 B 78 B 79 C 80 D 81 B 82 D
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Enzymes 35
83. Creatine kinase is present in all of the following except:

A. Liver B. Myocardium
C. Muscles D. Brain (Ref. 2, p. 111)
84. Serum lactate dehydrogenase may be raised in:
A. Gilbert’s disease B. Hepatocellular jaundice
C. Obstructive jaundice D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 110)
85. Alkaline phosphatase is present in:
A. Liver B. Bones
C. Intestinal mucosa D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 111)
86. All the following statements about alkaline phosphatase are
true except:
A. It is substrate-specific
B. It removes inorganic phosphate from the substrate
C. Its optimum pH is in the basic range
D. It requires an inorganic cofactor (Ref. 2, p. 111)
87. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase act on:
A. Glutamate B. Gamma-carboxyglutamate
C. Glutathione D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 109)
88. A plasma enzyme likely to be high 48 hours after myocardial
infarction is:
A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Creatine kinase
C. Aspartate aminotransferase
89. All the following are iron-containing enzymes except:
A. Carbonic anhydrase B. Catalase
C. Peroxidase D. Cytochrome oxidase
(Ref. 2, p. 91)
90. Biotin is a coenzyme for:
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. PEP carboxykinase
D. Glutamate pyruvate transaminase (Ref. 1, p. 502)
83 A 84 B 85 D 86 A 87 C 88 D 89 A 90 B
Ch 5.indd 35 01-09-2015 16:49:43

91. Enzymes accelerate the rate of reactions by:

A. Increasing the equilibrium constant of reactions
B. Increasing the energy of activation
C. Decreasing the energy of activation
D. Decreasing the free energy change of the reaction
(Ref. 2, p. 63)
92. Binding of the allosteric inhibitor to the allosteric enzyme is:
A. Covalent B. Reversible
C. Energy-consuming D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 76)
93. Kinetics of allosteric inhibition may be:
A. Competitive B. Noncompetitive
C. Partially competitive D. Any of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 77)
94. Allosteric enzymes have all the following properties except:
A. They are under hormonal control
B. Enzyme inhibitor binding is reversible
C. They provide for short-term control
D. They generally catalyse an early reaction in a long pathway
(Ref. 1, pp. 75-77)
95. Covalent modification of an enzyme usually involves phos
phorylation/dephosphorylation of:
A. Serine residue B. Proline residue
C. Hydroxyproline residue D. Hydroxylysine residue
(Ref. 1, p. 78-79)
96. Vmax of an enzyme may be affected by:
A. pH
B. Temperature
C. Noncompetitive inhibitors
97. In enzyme assays, all the following are kept constant except:
A. Substrate concentration
B. Enzyme concentration
C. pH
D. Temperature (Ref. 2, p. 64)
91 C 92 B 93 D 94 A 95 A 96 D 97 B
Ch 5.indd 36 01-09-2015 16:49:43

Enzymes 37
98. If the substrate concentration is much below the Km of the

enzyme, the velocity of the reaction is:
A. Directly proportional to substrate concentration
B. Not affected by enzyme concentration
C. Nearly equal to Vmax
D. Inversely proportional to substrate concentration
(Ref. 1, p. 66)
99. Covalent modification and allosteric regulation have all the
following similarities except:
A. Both affect catalytic efficiency
B. Neither alters gene expression
C. Both are under hormonal control
D. Both are short-term (Ref. 1, pp. 76-77)
100. In enzyme assays, pH and temperature are kept constant and:
A. Substrate concentration is kept very low so that velocity
remains proportional to substrate concentration
B. Substrate concentration is kept very low so that velocity
remains proportional to enzyme concentration
C. Substrate concentration is kept very high so that velocity
remains proportional to enzyme concentration
D. Products are constantly removed to prevent backward reaction
(Ref. 2, p. 88)
101. Enzymes requiring NAD as a co-substrate can be assayed by
measuring change in absorbance at:
A. 210 nm B. 290 nm
C. 340 nm D. 365 nm (Ref. 1, p. 56)
102. Different isoenzymes of an enzyme have the same:
A. Amino acid sequence B. Michaelis constant
C. Catalytic activity D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 56)
103. Biotin is bound to:
A. Lysine residues of carboxylases
B. Lysine residues of decarboxylases
C. Serine residues of carboxylases
D. Serine residues of decarboxylases (Ref. 1, p. 502)
98 A 99 C 100 C 101 C 102 C 103 A
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104. From the pentapeptide, phe-ala-leu-lys-arg, phenylalanine

residue is split off by:
A. Trypsin B. Chymotrypsin
C. Aminopeptidase D. Carboxypeptidase
(Ref. 1, p. 485)
105. From the pentapeptide, phe-ala-leu-lys-arg, arginine residue
is split off by:
C. Aminopeptidase D. Carboxypeptidase
(Ref. 1, p. 485)
104 C 105 D
Ch 5.indd 38 01-09-2015 16:49:44

Biological Oxidation
6
1. A high-energy phosphate amongst the following is:
A. Glucose-6-phosphate B. Glucose-1-phosphate
C. 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 223)
2. ADP can receive a phosphate group from:
A. Fructose-6-phosphate B. Glycerol-3-phosphate
C. Creatine phosphate D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 90)
3. The highest group transfer potential is present amongst the
following in:
A. 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate B. Creatine phosphate
C. Carbamoyl phosphate D. Phosphoenol pyruvate
(Ref. 1, p. 90)
4. The following reaction can be considered as oxidation:
A. Fe+++ + electron → Fe++
B. Cu++ + electron → Cu+
C. Fe++ → Fe+++ + electron
5. The compound having the lowest redox potential amongst the
following is:
A. Hydrogen B. NAD
C. Cytochrome b D. Cytochrome a (Ref. 1, p. 95)
6. The compound having the highest redox potential amongst the
following is:
A. Coenzyme Q B. NAD
C. Cytochrome c D. Cytochrome b
(Ref. 1, p. 95)
1 C 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 A 6 C
Ch 6.indd 39 01-09-2015 16:49:28

7. Standard free energy of hydrolysis of ATP into ADP and Pi is:

A. –7.3 kcal/mol B. +7.3 kcal/mol
C. –6.6 kcal/mol D. +6.6 kcal/mol (Ref. 1, p. 90)
8. Cytochrome oxidase is poisoned by all the following except:
A. Carbon monoxide B. Hydrogen sulfide
C. Oligomycin D. Cyanide
(Ref. 2, pp. 232-234)
9. L-Amino acid oxidase contains:
A. FAD B. FMN
C. NADP D. NAD (Ref. 1, p. 94)
10. All the following statements about L-amino acid oxidase are
true except:
A. It is a flavoprotein
B. It transfers hydrogen atoms from its substrate to oxygen
forming water
C. It contains FMN as prosthetic group
D. Its prosthetic group is bound tightly to the apoenzyme protein
(Ref. 1, p. 94)
11. Iron-porphyrin is present as prosthetic group in:
A. Cytochromes B. Catalase
C. Peroxidase D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 96)
12. Enzymes which incorporate oxygen into a substrate are called:
A. Oxidases B. Dehydrogenases
C. Oxygenases D. Hydroperoxidases
(Ref. 1, p. 97)
13. Microsomal hydroxylase system contains a:
A. Di-oxygenase B. Mono-oxygenase
C. Oxidase D. Hydroperoxidase
(Ref. 1, p. 97)
14. A cytochrome present in microsomal hydroxylase system is:
A. Cytochrome a B. Cytochrome b
C. Cytochrome a3 D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 97)
7 A 8 C 9 B 10 B 11 D 12 C 13 B 14 D
Ch 6.indd 40 01-09-2015 16:49:28

Biological Oxidation 41
15. Superoxide radicals can be detoxified by:

A. Cytochrome c B. Cytochrome b
C. Cytochrome a D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 97)
16. A copper-containing cytochrome is:
A. Cytochrome a
B. Cytochrome P-450
C. Cytochrome a3
D. None of the above (Ref. 1, pp. 94, 97)
17. At sites of phosphorylation in the respiratory chain, the mini
mum difference in the redox potentials of two consecutive
components is:
A. 0.3 millivolts B. 0.3 volts
C. 0.42 millivolts D. 0.42 volts (Ref. 2, p. 225)
18. When reducing equivalents enter the respiratory chain through
NAD, the P : O ratio is:
A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1
C. 1 : 3 D. 3 : 1 (Ref. 2, p. 237)
19. Rate of tissue respiration is raised when the intracellular con
centration of:
A. ADP increases
B. ATP increases
C. ADP decreases
20. Cyanide inhibits the following complex of the respiratory
chain:
A. Complex II B. Complex III
C. Complex IV D. Complex V (Ref. 1, p. 107)
21. The following component of respiratory chain is not fixed in the
inner mitochondrial membrane:
A. Coenzyme A
B. Cytochrome b
C. Cytochrome c
D. Neither of the above (Ref. 1, p. 100)
22. F0 component of vectorial ATP synthetase is inhibited by:
A. Dinitrophenol B. Rotenone
C. Cyanide D. Oligomycin (Ref. 1, p. 107)
15 A 16 C 17 B 18 D 19 A 20 C 21 C 22 D
Ch 6.indd 41 01-09-2015 16:49:28

23. Uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation:

A. Inhibit F0 component of vectorial ATP synthetase
B. Inhibit F1 component of vectorial ATP synthetase
C. Make the inner mitochondrial membrane permeable to H+
D. Inactivate cytochromes (Ref. 1, pp. 107-108)
24. Extramitochondrial NADH can be oxidized in the respiratory
chain with the help of:
A. Glucose-alanine cycle B. Cori cycle
C. Malate shuttle D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 146)
25. In some reactions, energy is captured in the form of:
A. GTP B. UTP
C. CTP D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 146)
26. Substrate-linked phosphorylation occurs in:
A. Glycolytic pathway B. Citric acid cycle
(Ref. 1, pp. 146, 152)
27. Reducing equivalents move in the respiratory chain from:
A. Relatively electronegative to electropositive components
B. Lower redox potential to higher redox potential
C. Reduced substrate to oxygen
28. Hydrogen peroxide may be detoxified in the absence of an
oxygen acceptor by:
A. Peroxidase B. Catalase
(Ref. 1, p. 96)
29. All the following statements about hepatic microsomal
hydroxylase system are correct except:
A. It metabolizes several drugs
B. It contains cytochrome P-450
C. It contains a flavoprotein
D. It contains iron-sulfur protein (Ref. 1, pp. 96-97)
30. Superoxide radicals can be detoxified by:
A. Cytochrome a B. Cytochrome b
C. Cytochrome D. None (Ref. 1, p. 98)
23 C 24 C 25 A 26 C 27 D 28 B 29 D 30 C
Ch 6.indd 42 01-09-2015 16:49:28

Water-soluble Vitamins
7
1. Deficiencies of water-soluble vitamins can cause all of the
following except:
A. Rickets B. Beriberi
C. Pellagra D. Scurvy (Ref. 1, p. 490)
2. Thiamin diphosphate acts as a coenzyme for:
A. Aldolase
B. Transaldolase
C. Transketolase
3. Thiamin diphosphate is required as a coenzyme in:
A. Glycogenesis B. Glycogenolysis
C. Citric acid cycle D. Glycolysis (Ref. 1, p. 146)
4. Thiamin diphosphate is required for oxidative decarboxylation
of:
A. a-Keto acids B. a-Amino acids
C. Fatty acids D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 146)
5. Loss of thiamin can be decreased by using:
A. Unpolished rice
B. Parboiled rice
C. Whole wheat flour
6. Daily requirement of thiamin is:
A. 0.1 mg/1,000 calories
B. 0.5 mg/1,000 calories
C. 0.8 mg/1,000 calories
D. 1.0 mg/1,000 calories (Ref. 2, p. 135)
1 A 2 C 3 C 4 A 5 D 6 B
Ch 7.indd 43 01-09-2015 16:49:12

7. Thiamin requirement is greater in:

A. Fever B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Alcoholism D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 137)
8. Wernicke’s encephalopathy can occur in:
A. Nonvegetarians B. Chronic alcoholics
C. Pregnant women D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 496)
9. People consuming polished rice as their staple food are
prone to:
A. Beriberi B. Pellagra
C. Scurvy D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 628)
10. Dry beriberi usually affects the:
A. Cardiovascular system B. Alimentary system
C. Central nervous system D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 136)
11. Concentration of pyruvic acid in blood is raised in:
A. Diabetes mellitus B. Beriberi
C. Pellagra D. Scurvy (Ref. 2, p. 136)
12. Thiamin diphosphate is required for the metabolism of all of
the following except:
A. Leucine B. Isoleucine
C. Valine D. Lysine (Ref. 1, p. 496)
13. FMN and FAD can accept:
A. Two hydrogen atoms B. Two electrons
C. One hydrogen atom D. One electron (Ref. 2, p. 137)
14. The following enzyme system is impaired in riboflavin
deficiency:
A. Succinate dehydrogenase
B. Xanthine oxidase
C. Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
15. The daily requirement of riboflavin is:
A. 0.3 mg/1,000 kcal B. 0.6 mg/1,000 kcal
C. 1.0 mg/1,000 kcal D. 1.5 mg/1,000 kcal
(Ref. 5, p. 138)
7 D 8 B 9 A 10 C 11 B 12 D 13 A 14 D 15 B
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Water-soluble Vitamins 45
16. Riboflavin deficiency can cause:

A. Peripheral neuritis B. Dementia
C. Cheilosis D. Anaemia (Ref. 1, p. 497)
17. Pellagra occurs due to deficiency of:
A. Thiamin B. Riboflavin
C. Niacin D. Pyridoxine (Ref. 1, p. 490)
18. Nicotinic acid is also known as:
A. Niacin B. Niacinamide
C. Nicotinamide D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 498)
19. Synthesis of NAD from niacin requires:
A. PRPP B. ATP
C. Glutamine D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 498)
20. Niacin contains a:
A. Sulphydryl group
B. Carboxyl group
C. Amide group
21. Niacin deficiency can cause all of the following except:
A. Digestive disorders B. Dermatitis
C. Anaemia D. Dementia (Ref. 1, p. 498)
22. NADP is required as a coenzyme in:
A. Glycolysis B. Citric acid cycle
C. HMP shunt D. Gluconeogenesis
(Ref. 1, p. 179)
23. NAD is required as a coenzyme for:
A. Malate dehydrogenase
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
D. HMG CoA reductase
(Ref. 1, pp. 147, 179, 231)
24. NAD is a coenzyme in all the following except:
A. Citric acid cycle
B. Glycolysis
C. b-Oxidation of fatty acids
D. HMP shunt (Ref. 1, pp. 147, 153, 179, 189)
16 C 17 C 18 A 19 D 20 B 21 C 22 C 23 A 24 D
Ch 7.indd 45 01-09-2015 16:49:12

25. NAD contains:

A. Adenine B. Deoxyribose
C. Biotin D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 498)
26. Niacin can be synthesized in human beings from:
A. Histidine B. Phenylalanine
C. Tyrosine D. Tryptophan (Ref. 1, p. 498)
27. The following coenzyme is required for the synthesis of niacin:
A. Thiamin diphosphate B. Flavin monophosphate
C. Pyridoxal phosphate D. Tetrahydrofolate
(Ref. 2, p. 145)
28. Excess of the following inhibits the endogenous synthesis of
niacin:
A. Lysine B. Estrogen
C. Isoleucine D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 498)
29. The daily requirement of niacin is:
A. 0.3 mg/1,000 kcal B. 1.2 mg/1,000 kcal
C. 6.6 mg/1,000 kcal D. 20 mg/1,000 kcal
(Ref. 2, p. 141)
30. Niacin deficiency is common in people whose staple food is:
A. Wheat
B. Polished rice
C. Maize and/or sorghum
D None of the above (Ref. 2, p. 141)
31. Niacin deficiency can occur in all the following conditions
except:
A. Deficient leucine intake
B. Isoniazid administration
C. Malignant carcinoid syndrome
D. Hartnup disease (Ref. 1, p. 498)
32. Large doses of niacin:
A. Increase serum cholesterol
B. Decrease serum cholesterol
C. Increase serum pyruvate
D. Decrease serum pyruvate (Ref. 1, p. 498)
25 A 26 D 27 C 28 B 29 C 30 C 31 A 32 B
Ch 7.indd 46 01-09-2015 16:49:12

33. Niacin deficiency can occur in:

A. Hartnup disease B. Phenylketonuria
C. Alkaptonuria D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 498)
34. NAD+ and NADP+ accept:
A. Two hydrogen atoms
B. Two hydrogen atoms and an electron
C. Two hydrogen atoms and two electrons
D. One hydrogen atom and an electron (Ref. 1, p. 498)
35. Pantothenic acid contains an amino acid which is:
A. Aspartic acid B. Glutamic acid
C. b-Alanine D. b-Aminoisobutyric acid
(Ref. 2, p. 148)
36. Pantothenic acid forms a coenzyme which is:
A. PLP B. Cobamide
C. Coenzyme A D. Coenzyme Q (Ref. 1, p. 503)
37. Sulphydryl group of coenzyme A is contributed by:
A. b-Alanine B. b-Aminoisobutyric acid
C. Methionine D. Thioethanolamine
(Ref. 1, p. 503)
38. CoA participates in all the following except:
A. Glycolysis B. Citric acid cycle
C. Synthesis of fatty acids D. Synthesis of cholesterol
(Ref. 1, p. 503)
39. Acyl carrier protein contains:
A. Coenzyme A
B. 4′-Phosphopantetheine
C. 4′-Phosphopantethenyl cysteine
D. Phosphopantothenic acid (Ref. 1, p. 197)
40. The following is required for the formation of coenzyme A:
A. ATP B. GTP
C. CTP D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 148)
41. Coenzyme A is required for oxidative decarboxylation of:
A. Pyruvate B. Glutamate
C. Isocitrate D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, pp. 147, 156)
33 A 34 D 35 C 36 C 37 D 38 A 39 B 40 A 41 A
Ch 7.indd 47 01-09-2015 16:49:12

42. Coenzyme A is required for catabolism of:

A. Leucine B. Isoleucine
C. Valine D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 267)
43. Daily requirement of pantothenic acid in adults is:
A. 1–2 mg B. 5 mg
C. 10 mg D. 20 mg (Ref. 2, p. 149)
44. Deficiency of pantothenic acid can cause:
A. Microcytic anaemia
B. Macrocytic anaemia
C. Burning foot syndrome
45. Pyridoxal phosphate forms a Schiff base with a-amino acids
through a bond between:
A. Hydroxyl group of PLP and carboxyl group of amino acid
B. Hydroxyl group of PLP and a-amino group of amino acid
C. Aldehyde group of PLP and carboxyl group of amino acid
D. Aldehyde group of PLP and a-amino group of amino acid
(Ref. 1, p. 499)
46. Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme for:
A. Glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase
B. Glutamate pyruvate transaminase
C. Tyrosine transaminase
47. Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme for:
A. Arginase B. Asparaginase
C. Glutaminase D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, pp. 143-145)
48. Pyridoxal phosphate is a coenzyme for all the following except:
A. Kynureninase B. ALA synthetase
C. DOPA decarboxylase D. Prolyl hydroxylase
(Ref. 2, pp. 143-145)
49. Pyridoxal phosphate acts as a coenzyme in:
C. Glycolysis D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 498)
42 A 43 D 44 C 45 B 46 D 47 C 48 D 49 B
Ch 7.indd 48 01-09-2015 16:49:12

50. Pyridoxal phosphate is required as a coenzyme in the

synthesis of:
A. Haem
B. Gamma aminobutyric acid
C. Niacin
51. Pyridoxine deficiency can be diagnosed by measuring urinary
excretion of:
A. Pyruvic acid B. Oxaloacetic acid
C. Xanthurenic acid D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 146)
52. In pyridoxine deficiency, tryptophan is converted into:
A. Nicotinic acid
B. Acetoacetic acid
C. Anthranilic acid
D. Xanthurenic acid (Ref. 2, p. 146)
53. Pyridoxine deficiency can be diagnosed by measuring the
urinary excretion of xanthurenic acid following a test dose of:
A. Glycine B. Histidine
C. Tryptophan D. Pyridoxine (Ref. 1, p. 499)
54. About 70–80% of the total pyridoxine in the body is present in:
A. Liver B. Muscles
C. Adipose tissue D. Brain (Ref. 1, p. 498)
55. Pyridoxine deficiency can occur in tubercular patients taking:
A. Isoniazid B. Para aminosalicylate
C. Streptomycin D. Thiacetazone
(Ref. 2, p. 146)
56. Consumption of raw egg white can produce neurological
abnormalities by blocking the absorption of:
A. Pyridoxine B. Thiamin
C. Biotin D. Lipoic acid (Ref. 1, p. 502)
57. Anti-egg white injury factor is:
A. Pyridoxine B. Biotin
C. Thiamin D. Lipoic acid (Ref. 2, p. 146)
50 D 51 C 52 D 53 C 54 B 55 A 56 C 57 B
Ch 7.indd 49 01-09-2015 16:49:12

58. The following protein in raw egg white forms a complex with
biotin:
A. Albumin B. Globulin
C. Avidin D. Vitelline (Ref. 1, p. 502)
59. When eggs are cooked:
A. Biotin is destroyed but avidin remains unaffected
B. Avidin is inactivated but biotin remains unaffected
C. Both avidin and biotin are inactivated
D. Both avidin and biotin remain unaffected (Ref. 2, p. 146)
A. Oxidases B. Decarboxylases
C. Oxygenases D. Carboxylases (Ref. 1, p. 502)
A. Pyruvate kinase B. Pyruvate dehydrogensase
C. Pyruvate carboxylase D. PEP carboxykinase
(Ref. 1, p. 502)
A. Pyruvate carboxylase
B. Acetyl CoA carboxylase
C. Propionyl CoA carboxylase
63. Lipoic acid can undergo reversible:
A. Oxidation-reduction
B. Sulphydration-desulphydration
C. Carboxylation-decarboxylation
D. Amination-deamination (Ref. 2, p. 157)
64. Lipoic acid is required for the catabolism of all the following
except:
A. Pyruvate B. a-Ketoglutarate
C. Lysine D. Leucine
(Ref. 1, pp. 146, 155, 263, 267)
65. Oxidative decarboxylation of a-keto acids requires:
A. Thiamin diphosphate, coenzyme A, lipoic acid and NAD
B. Coenzyme A, lipoic acid, NAD and FAD
C. Thiamin diphosphate, coenzyme A, NAD and FAD
D. Thiamin diphosphate, coenzyme A, lipoic acid, NAD and FAD
(Ref. 1, p. 196)
58 C 59 B 60 D 61 C 62 D 63 A 64 C 65 D
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66. Chemically, lipoic acid is:

A. Saturated fatty acid
B. Unsaturated fatty acid
C. Amino acid
D. Sulfur-containing fatty acid (Ref. 2, p. 157)
67. Folic acid contains:
A. Pteridine B. p-Aminobenzoic acid
C. Glutamic acid D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 500)
68. Conversion of folate into tetrahydrofolate requires:
A. NADH B. NADPH
C. FMNH2 D. FADH2(Ref. 2, p. 150)
69. Aminopterin and amethopterin are:
A. Folic acid antagonists
B. Anticancer agents
C. Competitive inhibitors of dihydrofolate reductase
70. Tetrahydrofolate can receive a one-carbon unit from:
A. Serine B. Glycine
C. Glutamate D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 500)
71. Tetrahydrofolate is required in the synthesis of all the following
except:
A. AMP B. GMP
C. TMP D. UMP (Ref. 1, p. 500)
72. Deficiency of folic acid causes:
A. Microcytic anaemia B. Normocytic anaemia
C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Polycythemia
(Ref. 1, p. 490)
73. Deficiency of folic acid can be diagnosed by measuring urinary
formiminoglutamic acid following a test dose of:
A. Tryptophan B. Methionine
C. Histidine D. Glutamate (Ref. 2, p. 152)
74. Vitamin B12 may be present as:
A. Methylcobalamin B. Adenosylcobalamin
C. Hydroxycobalamin D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, pp. 499-500)
66 D 67 D 68 B 69 D 70 A 71 D 72 C 73 C 74 D
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75 Vitamin B12 is required to form:

A. Cobamides B. Transcobalamin I
C. Transcobalamin II D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 499)
76. Methylcobalamin is required for formation of:
A. Serine from glycine
B. Glycine from serine
C. Methionine from homocysteine
77. Cobamide is a coenzyme for:
A. Methylmalonyl CoA racemase
B. Methylmalonyl CoA isomerase
C. Propionyl CoA isomerase
78. Absorption of vitamin B12 requires the presence of:
A. Pepsin B. Folic acid
C. Extrinsic factor D. Intrinsic factor
(Ref. 1, p. 499)
79. Intrinsic factor is synthesized in:
A. Gastric mucosa B. Duodenal mucosa
C. Jejunal mucosa D. Ileal mucosa (Ref. 1, p. 499)
80. Intrinsic factor is chemically a:
A. Protein B. Glycoprotein
C. Mucopolysaccharide D. Peptide (Ref. 1, p. 499)
81. Chemically, extrinsic factor of Castle is a:
A. Mucoprotein B. Glycoprotein
C. Mucopolysaccharide D. Cyanocobalamin
(Ref. 2, p. 153)
82. Vitamin B12 is:
A. Not stored in the body B. Stored in bone marrow
C. Stored in liver D. Stored in RE cells
(Ref. 2, p. 154)
83. Vitamin B12 is stored in association with:
A. Albumin B. Transcortin
C. Transcobalamin I D. Transcobalamin II
(Ref. 2, p. 154)
75 A 76 C 77 B 78 D 79 A 80 B 81 D 82 C 83 C
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84. Vitamin B12 is transported in blood by:

A. Albumin B. Transcortin
C. Transcobalamin I D. Transcobalamin II
(Ref. 2, p. 154)
85. Vitamin B12 is synthesized by:
A. Bacteria only B. Plants only
C. Animals only D. Bacteria and animals
(Ref. 1, p. 499)
86. Deficiency of vitamin B12 can occur because of:
A. Decreased intake
B. Gastrectomy
C. Lack of intrinsic factor
87. Deficiency of vitamin B12 can cause:
A. Microcytic anaemia
B. Normocytic anaemia
C. Megaloblastic anaemia
88. Deficiency of vitamin B12 can cause:
A. Homocystinuria
B. Methylmalonic aciduria
C. Megaloblastic anaemia
D. All of the above (Ref. 1, pp. 490, 500)
89. Absence of intrinsic factor can impair the synthesis of:
A. Methionine B. Purines
C. Pyrimidines D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 501)
90. Gastrectomy can cause deficiency of:
A. Thiamin B. Niacin
C. Ascorbic acid D. Vitamin B12(Ref. 2, p. 155)
91. Human beings cannot synthesize ascorbic acid because they
lack:
A. Ascorbate dehydrogenase
B. Xylulose reductase
C. L-Gulonate dehydrogenase
D. L-Gulonolactone oxidase (Ref. 1, pp. 181, 503)
84 D 85 A 86 D 87 C 88 D 89 D 90 D 91 D
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92. Ascorbic acid is required to synthesise all of the following

except:
A. Collagen B. Bile acids
C. Bile pigments D. Epinephrine
(Ref. 1, pp. 503-504)
93. Vitamin C enhances the intestinal absorption of:
A. Potassium B. Iodine
C. Iron D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 490)
94. Vitamin C is required for the hydroxylation of:
A. Phenylalanyl residues
B. Tyrosine residues
C. Prolyl residues
95. Biochemical functions of vitamin C are performed by:
A. D-Ascorbic acid B. D-Dehydroascorbic acid
C. L-Ascorbic acid D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 132)
96. Vitamin C is required for the synthesis of:
A. Bile acids from cholesterol
B. Bile salts from bile acids
C. Vitamin D from cholesterol
97. Deficiency of vitamin C causes:
A. Beriberi B. Pellagra
C. Pernicious anaemia D. Scurvy (Ref. 1, p. 490)
98. Deficiency of vitamin C causes all of the following except:
A. Swollen gums
B. Loose teeth
C. Nerve degeneration
D. Subcutaneous haemorrhages (Ref. 1, p. 504)
99. An early diagnosis of vitamin C deficiency can be made by:
A. Measuring plasma ascorbic acid
B. Measuring urinary ascorbic acid
C. Ascorbic acid saturation test
D. Any of the above (Ref. 2, p. 132)
92 C 93 C 94 C 95 C 96 A 97 D 98 C 99 C
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100. The daily requirement of vitamin C in adults is about:

A. 20 mg B. 40 mg
C. 60 mg D. 100 mg (Ref. 2, p. 133)
101. The vitamin having the highest daily requirement amongst the
following is:
A. Thiamin B. Riboflavin
C. Pyridoxine D. Ascorbic acid (Ref. 1, p. 504)
102. The vitamin having the lowest daily requirement amongst the
following is:
A. Niacin B. Pantothenic acid
C. Folic acid D. Vitamin B12
(Ref. 2, pp. 141, 149, 151, 155)
103. Anaemia can occur due to deficiency of all of the following
except:
A. Thiamin B. Pyridoxine
C. Folic acid D. Vitamin B12
(Ref. 2, pp. 146, 152, 156)
104. A vitamin which can be synthesized by human beings is:
A. Thiamin B. Niacin
C. Folic acid D. Vitamin B12(Ref. 1, p. 498)
105. Laboratory diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency can be made by
measuring the urinary excretion of:
A. Xanthurenic acid B. Formiminoglutamic acid
C. Methylmalonic acid D. Homogentisic acid
(Ref. 2, p. 156)
100 C 101 D 102 D 103 A 104 B 105 C
Ch 7.indd 55 01-09-2015 16:49:13

Fat-soluble Vitamins
8
1. Vitamin A activity is present in:
A. Retinol B. Retinoic acid
C. Retinal D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 490)
2. Vitamin A is stored in the body as:
A. Free retinol B. Retinol ester
C. Retinal D. Retinoic acid (Ref. 1, p. 490)
3. Precursor of vitamin A is:
A. a-Carotene B. b-Carotene
C. g-Carotene D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 490)
4. Provitamin A is present in:
A. Animals B. Plants
C. Bacteria D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 490)
5. Two molecules of vitamin A can be formed from one molecule
of:
A. a-Carotene
B. b-Carotene
C. g-Carotene
6. Conversion of b-carotene into retinal requires the presence
of:
A. β-Carotene dioxygenase
B. Bile salts
C. Molecular oxygen
1 D 2 B 3 D 4 B 5 B 6 D
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Fat-soluble Vitamins 57
7. Conversion of retinal into retinol requires the presence of:

A. NADH B. NADPH
C. FADH2 D. Lipoic acid (Ref. 2, p. 121)
8. Retinal is converted into retinoic acid in the presence of:
A. Retinal oxidase B. Retinal carboxylase
C. Retinene reductase D. Spontaneously
(Ref. 2, p. 119)
9. The following pair is interconvertible:
A. Retinal and retinoic acid
B. Retinal and retinol
C. Retinol and retinoic acid
10. Retinol is transported from intestine to liver by:
A. Albumin
B. Chylomicrons
C. Low density lipoprotein
D. High density lipoprotein (Ref. 1, p. 490)
11. Retinoic acid is transported in circulation by:
A. Albumin
B. Retinol-binding protein
C. Low density lipoprotein
D. High density lipoprotein (Ref. 2, p. 119)
12. Vitamin A is stored in the body in:
A. Liver
B. Adipose tissue
C. Reticuloendothelial cells
13. Retinol-binding protein transports:
A. Carotenes
B. Retinol
C. Retinoic acid
14. Rhodopsin contains opsin and:
A. 11-cis-Retinal B. 11-trans-Retinal
C. All-cis-retinal D. All-trans-retinal
(Ref. 1, p. 492)
7 B 8 D 9 B 10 B 11 A 12 A 13 B 14 A
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15. When light falls on rod cells:

A. All-cis-retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal
B. 11-cis-Retinal is converted into 11-trans-Retinal
C. 11-trans-Retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal
D. 11-cis-Retinal is converted into all-trans-retinal
(Ref. 1, p. 492)
16. Retinol isomerase catalyses the interconversion of:
A. All-trans-retinal and all-trans-retinol
B. All-trans-retinol and 11-cis-Retinol
C. All-cis-retinal and all-cis-retinol
D. All-cis-retinal and all-trans-retinol(Ref. 2, p. 121)
17. Conversion of all-trans-retinal into all-trans-retinol requires:
A. NAD B. NADH
C. NADP D. NADPH (Ref. 2, p. 121)
18. Retinol isomerase is present in:
A. Retina B. Liver
C. Intestinal mucosa D. Adipose tissue
(Ref. 2, p. 121)
19. Antioxidant activity is present in:
A. b-Carotene B. Retinol
C. Retinoic acid D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 490)
20. All the functions of vitamin A can be performed by:
A. Retinal B. Retinal and retinoic acid
C. Retinal and retinol D. Retinol and retinoic acid
(Ref. 1, p. 491)
21. One international unit of vitamin A is the activity present in:
A. 0.3 mg of b-carotene
B. 0.3 mg of retinol
C. 0.6 mg of retinoic acid
22. One retinol equivalent (RE) is the activity present in:
A. 3 µg of b-carotene B. 1 µg of b-carotene
C. 3 µg of retinol D. 1 µg of retinol
(Ref. 2, p. 122)
15 D 16 B 17 B 18 B 19 A 20 C 21 B 22 D
Ch 8.indd 58 01-09-2015 16:48:54

23. Daily requirement of vitamin A in an adult man can be

expressed as:
A. 400 IU B. 1,000 IU
C. 5,000 IU D. 10,000 IU (Ref. 2, p. 122)
24. In vitamin A deficiency, Bitot’s spots appear on:
A. Skin B. Retina
C. Conjunctiva D. Cornea (Ref. 2, p. 123)
25. An early indication of vitamin A deficiency is:
A. Xerophthalmia B. Keratomalacia
C. Defective night vision D. Blindness (Ref. 1, p. 491)
26. Nyctalopia is:
A. Drying of eyes
B. Destruction of cornea
C. Blindness
D. Inability to see in dimlight (Ref. 2, p. 123)
27. When light falls on retina, the following change occurs in rod
cells:
A. Increase in cAMP concentration
B. Decrease in cAMP concentration
C. Increase in cGMP concentration
D. Decrease in cGMP concentration (Ref. 2, pp. 121-122)
28. Hyperpolarization of rod cell membrane following exposure to
light occurs due to:
A. Opening of cation-specific channels
B. Closure of cation-specific channels
C. Opening of anion-specific channels
D. Closure of anion-specific channels (Ref. 2, p. 122)
29. Signal is transmitted from receptor to effector in rod cells by:
A. Transducin
B. Cyclic AMP
C. Adenylate cyclase
D. Cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase (Ref. 2, p. 121)
30. A transmembrane protein in rod cells is:
A. Adenylate cyclase B. Transducin
C. Rhodopsin D. Retinol isomerase
(Ref. 2, p. 121)
23 C 24 C 25 C 26 D 27 D 28 B 29 A 30 C
Ch 8.indd 59 01-09-2015 16:48:54

31. One b-ionone ring is present in:

A. Retinol B. a-Carotene
C. Retinoic acid D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 119)
32. Provitamins A include:
A. Retinal B. Retinoic acid
C. Carotenes D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 490)
33. Retinoic acid can:
A. Act as a photoreceptor
B. Support growth and differentiation
C. Act as an antioxidant
34. Hypervitaminosis A can occur when cells are exposed to high
concentrations of:
A. Unbound retinol
B. Retinol bound to RBP
C. Retinol bound to CRBP
35. Synthesis of retinol binding protein decreases in:
A. Pregnancy B. Lactation
C. Infections D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 491)
36. Prosthetic group in cone cell photoreceptors is:
A. Iodine B. Opsin
C. 11-cis-Retinal D. All-trans-retinal
(Ref. 2, p. 453)
37. Retinoic acid affects expression of some genes by acting on
their:
A. Post-translational modification
B. Translation
C. Post-transcriptional modification
D. Transcription (Ref. 1, p. 491)
38. Transducin is present in rod cells in the vicinity of:
A. Cation-specific channels B. Anion-specific channels
C. Rhodopsin D. Retinine reductase
(Ref. 2, p. 122)
31 D 32 C 33 B 34 A 35 C 36 C 37 D 38 C
Ch 8.indd 60 01-09-2015 16:48:54

39. Transducin is:

A. Present in rod cells B. A G-protein
C. A Trimer D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, pp. 121-122)
40. Hyperpolarization of rod cell membrane occurs due to:
A. Increased cGMP concentration
B. Increased cAMP concentration
C. Decreased cGMP concentration
D. Decreased cAMP concentration (Ref. 2, p. 122)
41. Provitamin D3 is:
A. Cholecalciferol B. Ergosterol
C. 7-dehydrocholesterol D. Ergocalciferol
(Ref. 1, p. 492)
42. Ergocalciferol is:
A. Provitamin D2 B. Provitamin D3
C. Vitamin D2 D. Vitamin D3(Ref. 1, p. 492)
43. Ergosterol is found in:
A. Animals B. Plants
C. Bacteria D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 124)
44. A provitamin D synthesized in human beings is:
A. Ergosterol
B. 7-dehydrocholesterol
C. Cholecalciferol
D. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol (Ref. 1, p. 492)
45. Cholecalciferol is formed in:
A. Intestinal mucosa B. Liver
C. Skin D. Kidneys (Ref. 1, p. 492)
46. 25-hydroxylation of vitamin D occurs in:
A. Skin B. Liver
C. Kidneys D. Intestinal mucosa
(Ref. 1, p. 492)
47. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is hydroxylated at position 1 in:
A. Kidneys B. Liver
C. Skin D. Intestinal mucosa
(Ref. 1, p. 492)
39 D 40 C 41 C 42 C 43 B 44 B 45 C 46 B 47 A
Ch 8.indd 61 01-09-2015 16:48:54

48. Tubular reabsorption of calcium is increased by:

A. Cholecalciferol
B. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
C. Calcitriol
49. Immediate precursor of calcitriol is:
A. 1-hydroxycholecalciferol
C. 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
50. Calcitriol induces the synthesis of the following in the intestinal
mucosa:
A. Calcium-binding protein
B. Ca++-dependent ATPase
C. Alkaline phosphatase
51. Parathormone is required for the conversion of:
A. Cholecalciferol into 1-hydroxycholecalciferol
B. Cholecalciferol into 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
C. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol into calcitriol
D. Cholesterol into 7-dehydrocholesterol (Ref. 1, p. 493)
52. Calcitriol inhibits the conversion of:
A. Cholesterol into 7-dehydrocholesterol
B. Cholecalciferol into 1-hydroxycholecalciferol
C. Cholecalciferol into 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
D. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol into 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
(Ref. 1, p. 493)
53. Vitamin D activity of 10 mg of cholecalciferol is:
A. 100 IU
B. 200 IU
C. 250 IU
D. 400 IU (Ref. 2, p. 127)
54. All of the following can occur in rickets except:
A. Decrease in plasma calcium
B. Decrease in plasma inorganic phosphorus
C. Poor mineralization of bones
D. Soft tissue calcification (Ref. 1, p. 493)
48 C 49 B 50 D 51 C 52 D 53 D 54 D
Ch 8.indd 62 01-09-2015 16:48:54

55. Skeletal deformities can occur in:

A. Rickets B. Osteomalacia
C. Hypervitaminosis D D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 493)
56. Calcification of soft tissues can occur in:
A. Osteomalacia B. Rickets
C. Hypervitaminosis D D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 127)
57. Hypercalcaemia can occur in:
A. Osteomalacia B. Rickets
C. Hypoparathyroidism D. Hypervitaminosis D
(Ref. 2, p. 128)
58. Plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorus are decreased in:
A. Osteomalacia B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hypervitaminosis D D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 493)
59. The daily requirement of vitamin D in children is:
A. 100 IU B. 200 IU
C. 400 IU D. 600 IU (Ref. 2, p. 127)
60. A naturally occurring tocopherol of dietary significance is:
A. a-Tocopherol B. b-Tocopherol
C. g-Tocopherol D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 494)
61. Requirement of vitamin E increases with the increasing intake
of:
A. Calories B. Proteins
C. PUFA D. Cholesterol (Ref. 1, p. 494)
62. In human beings, vitamin E prevents:
A. Sterility B. Hepatic necrosis
C. Muscular dystrophy D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, pp. 128-129)
63. Vitamin E protects:
A. Polyunsaturated fatty acids against peroxidation
B. Vitamin A and carotenes against oxidation
C. Lung tissue against atmospheric pollutants
55 A 56 C 57 D 58 A 59 C 60 D 61 C 62 D 63 D
Ch 8.indd 63 01-09-2015 16:48:54

64. Vitamin K activity is present in:

A. Phylloquinone B. Menaquinone
C. Menadione D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 495)
65. Intestinal bacteria can synthesize:
A. Phylloquinone B. Menaquinone
C. Menadione D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 495)
66. A water-soluble form of vitamin K is:
A. Phylloquinone
B. Menaquinone
C. Menadione
67. Plasma level of the following is maintained by vitamin K:
A. Prothrombin
B. Proconvertin
C. Christmas factor
68. Prothrombin time is prolonged in deficiency of:
A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin E (Ref. 2, p. 131)
69. Menadione is converted in the body into:
A. Menaquinone B. Phylloquinone
C. Hydroquinone D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 495)
70. Hypervitaminosis can occur following prolonged intake of
large doses of:
A. Vitamins A and K B. Vitamins D and K
C. Vitamins E and K D. Vitamins A and D
(Ref. 1, pp. 491, 493)
71. Intestinal bacteria can synthesize:
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin K (Ref. 1, p. 495)
72. Hydroxylation of vitamin D at position 25 occurs in:
A. Cytosol B. Mitochondria
C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Peroxisomes (Ref. 1, p. 97)
64 D 65 B 66 C 67 D 68 C 69 A 70 D 71 D 72 C
Ch 8.indd 64 01-09-2015 16:48:54

73. Hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol at position 1

occurs in:
A. Renal tubular cells B. Bones
C. Placenta D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 492)
74. 24, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D is:
A. Inactive B. Formed in liver
C. Precursor of calcitriol D. More active than calcitriol
(Ref. 1, pp. 492-493)
75. Vitamin E concentrates in:
A. Cell membrane
B. Mitochondrial membrane
C. Membrane of endoplasmic reticulum
76. Antioxidant action of vitamin E is particularly effective in:
A. Erythrocyte membrane
B. Membranes of respiratory tract
C. Retina
77. Vitamin E can be regenerated from its oxidized free radical
form with the help of:
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C
C. Selenium D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 494)
78. Vitamin K is required to carboxylate:
A. Glutamate residues of preprothrombin
B. Aspartate residues of preprothrombin
C. Gluamine residues of preprothrombin
D. Asparagine residues of preprothrombin
(Ref. 1, p. 495)
79. Vitamin K:
A. Increases transcription of the prothrombin gene
B. Increases translation of the prothrombin mRNA
C. Splits a peptide off preprothrombin
73 D 74 A 75 D 76 D 77 B 78 A 79 D
Ch 8.indd 65 01-09-2015 16:48:54

80. Dicoumarol:
A. Is an inhibitor of vitamin K-dependent carboxylase
B. Displaces Ca++ from prothrombin
C. Is an inhibitor of 2,3-epoxide reductase
D. Binds to g-carboxyglutamate residues of prothrombin
(Ref. 1, p. 495)
81. Fat-soluble vitamins have all the following common features
except:
A. They are isoprene derivatives
B. Their absorption is linked to that of dietary fat
C. They are transported in blood by some proteins
D. They are prohormones (Ref. 1, p. 489)
82. As a source of vitamin A, weight for weight, b-carotene is:
A. As effective as retinol
B. Twice as effective as retinol
C. Half as effective as retinol
D. One-sixth as effective as retinol (Ref. 1, p. 490)
83. Retinol is transported from the intestine to liver by:
A. Chylomicrons
B. Retinol-binding protein
C. HDL
84. Daily requirement of vitamin A in adult men may be expressed
as:
A. 400 RE B. 600 RE
C. 800 RE D. 1,000 RE (Ref. 2, p. 122)
85. 7-dehydrocholesterol is the precursor of:
A. Cholesterol B. Cholecalciferol
C. Ergosterol D. Ergocalciferol
(Ref. 1, p. 492)
86. The following can be formed from ergosterol:
A. Cholesterol
B. Cholecalciferol
C. Ergocalciferol
80 C 81 D 82 D 83 A 84 D 85 B 86 C
Ch 8.indd 66 01-09-2015 16:48:54

87. Conversion of 7-dehydrocholesterol into cholecalciferol

occurs in:
A. Intestinal mucosa B. Skin
C. Liver D. Kidneys (Ref. 1, p. 492)
88. Vitamin D functions as a:
A. Prohormone
B. Modulator of hormone action
C. Proenzyme
D. Coenzyme (Ref. 1, p. 492)
89. Cholecalciferol and ergocalciferol differ in their:
A. Vitamin D activity B. Ring portion
C. Side chains D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 492)
90. A hormone formed from vitamin D is:
A. Calcitonin B. Calcitriol
C. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 492)
91. Vitamin D is transported in blood by:
A. Albumin
B. Vitamin D-binding protein
C. Chylomicrons
D. LDL (Ref. 1, p. 492)
92. The major vitamin D species in circulation is:
A. Cholecalciferol
C. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
D. 24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (Ref. 1, p. 492)
93. 24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is:
A. Formed in liver
B. Formed from 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol by an isomerase
C. Biologically inactive
D. Formed when the calcitriol level is low (Ref. 1, p. 493)
94. The following can affect gene expression:
A. Vitamins A and D B. Vitamins A and K
C. Vitamins D and K D. Vitamins A and E
(Ref. 1, pp. 491, 493)
87 B 88 A 89 D 90 B 91 B 92 B 93 C 94 A
Ch 8.indd 67 01-09-2015 16:48:55

95. 1-Hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol is increased by

all the following except:
A. Hypocalcaemia B. Hypophosphataemia
C. Parathormone D. Calcitriol (Ref. 1, p. 493)
96. All the following statements about calcitriol receptor are true
except:
A. It is a member of the nuclear receptor superfamily
B. It has a high-affinity ligand-binding domain
C. It possesses zinc finger motif
D. It is located in the cell membrane (Ref. 1, p. 477)
97. Vitamin E is transported from:
A. The intestine to the extrahepatic tissues by chylomicrons
B. The intestine to liver by chylomicron remnants
C. Liver to extrahepatic tissues by VLDL
98. 1-hydroxylation of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol requires all the
following except:
A. NADPH B. Molecular oxygen
C. Cytochrome P-450 D. Ferredoxin (Ref. 2, p. 124)
99. All the following statements about vitamin E are correct except:
A. It acts as a chain-breaking antioxidant
B. It is effective as an antioxidant at low oxygen concentrations
C. It converts peroxyl free radical of PUFA into hydroperoxy-
PUFA
D. It reduces selenium requirement (Ref. 1, pp. 493-495)
100. As an antioxidant, vitamin E is effective against all of the
following except:
A. Singlet oxygen
B. Superoxide free radicals
C. Peroxyl free radicals
D. Lipid peroxides (Ref. 1, p. 649)
95 D 96 D 97 D 98 D 99 B 100 B
Ch 8.indd 68 01-09-2015 16:48:55

9
Porphyrins,
Haemoglobin and
Bilirubin
1. Porphyrin ring is present in all of the following except:

A. Catalase B. Myoglobin
C. Tryptophan pyrrolase D. Ferrochelatase
(Ref. 1, p. 280)
2. Side chains of haem do not contain the following group:
A. Acetate B. Propionate
C. Methyl D. Vinyl (Ref. 1, p. 281)
3. The porphyrin present in haem is:
A. Uroporphyrin B. Protoporphyrin I
C. Coproporphyrin D. Protoporphyrin III
(Ref. 1, p. 284)
4. An amino acid required for porphyrin synthesis is:
A. Proline B. Glycine
C. Serine D. Histidine (Ref. 1, p. 279)
5. An intermediate of the following pathway is required for the
initial reaction of porphyrin synthesis:
A. HMP shunt B. Glycolysis
C. Krebs cycle D. Krebs-Henseleit cycle
(Ref. 1, p. 279)
6. The following coenzyme is required for porphyrin synthesis:
A. Thiamin diphosphate B. FAD
C. Pyridoxal phosphate D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 282)
7. The regulatory enzyme for haem synthesis is:
A. ALA synthetase B. ALA dehydratase
C. Haem synthetase D. Ferrochelatase
(Ref. 1, p. 281)
1 D 2 A 3 D 4 B 5 C 6 C 7 A
8. Regulation of haem synthesis occurs by:

A. Covalent modification
B. Repression-derepression
C. Induction
D. Allosteric regulation (Ref. 1, p. 281)
9. Two alpha and two beta chains are present in:
A. Embryonic Hb B. Foetal Hb
C. Hb A D. Hb A2(Ref. 1, p. 43)
10. Gamma polypeptide chains are present only in:
A. Foetal Hb B. Hb A
C. Embryonic Hb D. Hb S (Ref. 1, p. 43)
11. 2,3-biphosphoglycerate:
A. Facilitates release of oxygen from haemoglobin
B. Facilitates release of oxygen from myoglobin
C. Inhibits release of oxygen from haemoglobin
D. Inhibits release of oxygen from myoglobin
(Ref. 1, pp. 45-46)
12. 2, 3-biphosphoglycerate is released from haemoglobin when:
A. Oxygen tension decreases
B. Oxygen tension increases
C. Glycolysis increases
D. Glycolysis decreases (Ref. 1, pp. 45-46)
13. Sigmoidal oxygen dissociation curve is a property of:
A. Haemoglobin
B. Carboxyhaemoglobin
C. Myoglobin
D. Methaemoglobin (Ref. 1, pp. 42-43)
14. Secondary and tertiary structures of myoglobin resemble
those of:
A. Alpha chain of Hb B. Beta chain of Hb
C. Gamma chain of Hb D. Delta chain of Hb
(Ref. 1, p. 43)
15. HbS is formed by substitution of an amino acid at position 6 in:
A. Alpha chain B. Beta chain
C. Gamma chain D. Any chain (Ref. 1, p. 47)
8 B 9 C 10 A 11 A 12 B 13 A 14 B 15 B
Porphyrins, Haemoglobin and Bilirubin 71
16. In thalassaemia, an amino acid is substituted in:

A. Alpha chain B. Beta chain
C. Alpha and beta chains D. There is no substitution
(Ref. 1, p. 47)
17. Haem synthetase is congenitally deficient in:
A. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
B. Protoporphyria
C. Hereditary coproporphyria
D. Variegate porphyria (Ref. 1, p. 286)
18. During breakdown of haem, the methenyl bridge between the
following two pyrrole rings is broken:
A. I and II B. II and III
C. III and IV D. IV and I (Ref. 1, p. 287)
19. The number of sites for bilirubin binding on albumin is:
A. One B. Two
20. In 100 mL of blood having normal albumin concentration,
the maximum quantity of bilirubin that can be bound to high
affinity site of albumin is about:
A. 1 mg B. 10 mg
C. 15 mg D. 25 mg (Ref. 1, p. 287)
21. Prehepatic jaundice occurs because of:
A. Increased haemolysis
B. Liver damage
C. Biliary obstruction
22. Kernicterus can occur in:
A. Retention hyperbilirubinaemia
B. Regurgitation hyperbilirubinaemia
C. Cholestatic jaundice
23. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia can occur in:
A. Neonatal jaundice
B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
C. Gilbert’s syndrome
16 D 17 B 18 A 19 B 20 D 21 A 22 A 23 D
24. Bile pigments are not present in urine in:

A. Haemolytic jaundice B. Hepatic jaundice
C. Obstructive jaundice D. Rotor’s syndrome
(Ref. 1, p. 292)
25. Urinary urobilinogen is increased in:
A. Haemolytic jaundice
B. Hepatic jaundice
26. Urinary urobilinogen is absent in:
C. Obstructive jaundice D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 292)
27. Serum alkaline phosphatase is greatly increased in:
C. Obstructive jaundice D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 57)
28. The following is a harmless condition:
A. Gilbert’s syndrome
C. Rotor’s syndrome
D. Dubin-Johnson syndrome (Ref. 1, p. 291)
29. Bilirubin UDP-glucuronyl transferase is absent from liver in:
A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type I
B. Gilbert’s syndrome
C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type II
D. Rotor’s syndrome (Ref. 1, p. 291)
30. Conjugated bilirubin is raised in serum in:
A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome B. Gilbert’s syndrome
C. Haemolytic anemia D. Rotor’s syndrome
(Ref. 1, p. 292)
31. Unconjugated bilirubin in serum is raised in:
B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type I
C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type II
24 A 25 A 26 C 27 C 28 A 29 A 30 D 31 D
32. Unconjugated bilirubin is soluble in:

A. Water B. Alkalis
C. Acids D. Methanol (Ref. 1, p. 290)
33. Direct-reacting bilirubin is:
A. Unconjugated
B. Raised in haemolytic anemia
C. Soluble in water
34. Kernicterus can occur in:
A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type I
B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type II
C. Rotor’s syndrome
35. Excretion of conjugated bilirubin from liver cells into biliary
canaliculi is defective in:
C. Lucey-Driscoll syndrome
D. Rotor’s syndrome (Ref. 1, pp. 291-292)
36. Breakdown of 1 gm of haemoglobin produces:
A. 20 mg of bilirubin
B. 35 mg of bilirubin
C. 50 mg of bilirubin
D. 70 mg of bilirubin (Ref. 1, p. 287)
37. In a healthy adult, daily formation of bilirubin is:
A. 50–100 mg B. 100–250 mg
C. 250–350 mg D. 350–500 mg (Ref. 1, p. 287)
38. Daily urinary urobilinogen excretion in adult men is:
A. 0–4 mg B. 5–8 mg
C. 9–12 mg D. 13–20 mg (Ref. 1, p. 292)
39. Daily fecal urobilinogen excretion in healthy adults is:
A. 0–40 mg B. 40–280 mg
C. 280–500 mg D. 500–800 mg (Ref. 1, p. 292)
40. In obstructive jaundice, fecal urobilinogen is:
A. Absent B. Decreased
C. Increased D. Normal (Ref. 1, p. 292)
32 D 33 C 34 A 35 D 36 B 37 C 38 A 39 B 40 A
41. Haem proteins function in:

A. Oxygen binding B. Oxygen transport
C. Electron transport D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 41)
42. Oxidation of Fe++ destroys the biological activity of:
A. Haemoglobin B. Cytochrome a
C. Cytochrome c D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 41)
43. Haemoglobin can transport:
A. Oxygen B. Carbon dioxide
C. Protons D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 43)
44. Synthesis of b chains of haemoglobin occurs in the following
period of pregnancy:
A. First trimester B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 43)
45. 2,3-Biphosphoglycerate binds to:
A. Alpha chains of Hb B. Beta chains of Hb
C. Haem group of Hb D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 48)
46. Foetal haemoglobin:
A. Does not bind 2,3-biphosphoglycerate
B. Binds 2,3-biphosphoglycerate less strongly than adult
haemoglobin
C. Binds 2,3-biphosphoglycerate more strongly than adult
haemoglobin
D. Binds 2,3-biphosphoglycerate equally strongly as adult
haemoglobin(Ref. 1, p. 46)
47. All the following statements about haemoglobin M are correct
except:
A. It is formed by replacement of the distal histidine (E7) residue
by tyrosine
B. Phenolate group of tyrosine forms a tight ionic complex with
iron
C. Iron is stabilized in the ferric state
D. It cannot combine with oxygen (Ref. 1, p. 46)
41 D 42 A 43 D 44 C 45 B 46 B 47 A
48. All the following statements about haemoglobin S are correct

except:
A. It is formed by replacement of valine residue at position 6 in
the b chain by glutamate
B. It has altered surface properties
C. It is capable of combining with oxygen
D. Deoxygenated Hb S gets polymerized into helical fibers
(Ref. 1, p. 47)
49. Glycosylated haemoglobin:
A. Is not present in normal persons
B. Is formed by enzymatic glycosylation of haemoglobin
C. Is formed due to a defective glycosyl transferase
D. Has glucose residues attached to amino groups of haemoglobin
(Ref. 1, p. 48)
50. All the following statements about glycosylated haemoglobin
are correct except:
A. It is formed by nonenzymatic glycosylation of haemoglobin
B. It has glucose residues attached to serine, threonine or tyrosine
residues of haemoglobin
C. It is normally about 5% of the total haemoglobin
D. It is elevated when control of diabetes mellitus is poor
(Ref. 1, p. 48)
48 A 49 D 50 B
Pyruvate Metabolism
and Citric Acid Cycle 10
1. Pyruvate carboxylase acts in the presence of:
A. Biotin B. Mg++
C. ATP D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 168)
2. Pyruvate carboxylase is allosterically inhibited by:
A. Pyruvate B. ATP
C. Oxaloacetate D. ADP (Ref. 1, p. 170)
3. Allosteric activator of pyruvate carboxylase is:
A. Acetyl CoA B. ATP
C. Oxaloacetate D. Pyruvate (Ref. 1, p. 170)
4. Oxaloacetate can be formed from:
A. Oxalate and acetate B. Oxalate and acetyl CoA
C. Pyruvate D. Lactate (Ref. 1, pp. 167-168)
5. Acetyl CoA can be formed from:
A. Pyruvate B. Fatty acids
C. Ketone bodies D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 168)
6. Pyruvate is converted into acetyl CoA by:
A. Decarboxylation
B. Dehydrogenation
C. Oxidative decarboxylation
D. Oxidative deamination (Ref. 1, p. 155)
7. Conversion of pyruvate into acetyl CoA is catalyzed by:
B. Dihydrolipoyl acetyl transferase
C. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
D. All the three acting in concert (Ref. 1, p. 155)
1 D 2 D 3 A 4 C 5 D 6 C 7 D
Ch 10.indd 76 01-09-2015 16:48:16

Pyruvate Metabolism and Citric Acid Cycle 77
8. Coenzyme required for oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate

is:
A. Thiamin pyrophosphate
B. NAD
C. FAD
9. All of the following are required for oxidative decarboxy-
lation of pyruvate except:
A. Coenzyme A B. Lipoic acid
C. Pyridoxal phosphate D. FAD (Ref. 1, p. 156)
10. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is located in:
A. Cytosol B. Lysosomes
C. Mitochondria D. Endoplasmic reticulum
(Ref. 1, p. 155)
11. A flavoprotein in pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is:
B. Dihydrolipoyl acetyl transferase
C. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase
12. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is inhibited by:
A. Chromium B. Molybdenum
C. Arsenate D. Arsenite (Ref. 1, p. 157)
13. The total number of polypeptide chains in pyruvate dehydro
genase complex is:
A. 80-100 B. 60-80
C. 40-60 D. 20-40 (Ref. 2, p. 252)
14. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is regulated by:
A. Covalent modification B. Allosteric regulation
(Ref. 1, pp. 155-156)
15. An allosteric inhibitor of pyruvate dehydrogenase is:
C. NAD D. Aspartate (Ref. 1, p. 155)
16. Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase is inhibited by:
C. NADH D. Pyruvate (Ref. 1, p. 157)
8 D 9 C 10 C 11 C 12 D 13 A 14 C 15 A 16 D
Ch 10.indd 77 01-09-2015 16:48:16

17. Pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase is activated by:

C. NADH D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 157)
18. All the following are tricarboxylic acids except:
A. Oxaloacetate B. cis-aconitate
C. Oxalosuccinate D. Citrate (Ref. 1, p. 147)
19. Enzymes of citric acid cycle are present in:
C. Lysosomes D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 145)
20. In adipose tissue, pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase is
activated by:
A. Ca++ B. Mg++
C. Insulin D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 156)
21. In citric acid cycle, NAD is reduced in:
A. One reaction B. Two reactions
C. Three reactions D. Four reactions
(Ref. 1, p. 147)
22. Among citric acid cycle enzymes, a flavoprotein is:
A. Malate dehydrogenase B. Fumarase
C. Succinate dehydrogenase D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(Ref. 1, pp. 147-148)
23. Malate dehydrogenase acts on:
A. D-Malate B. L-Malate
C. DL-Malate D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 147)
24. In citric acid cycle, GDP is phosphorylated by:
A. Succinate dehydrogenase
B. Aconitase
C. Succinate thiokinase (Succinyl CoA synthetase)
D. Fumarase (Ref. 2, p. 256)
25. Fluoroacetate is an inhibitor of:
A. Citrate synthetase B. Aconitase
C. Fumarase D. Succinate dehydrogenase
(Ref. 1, p. 147)
17 D 18 A 19 B 20 C 21 C 22 C 23 B 24 C 25 B
Ch 10.indd 78 01-09-2015 16:48:16

26. Malonate is an inhibitor of:

A. Malate dehydrogenase
B. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
C. Succinate dehydrogenase
D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase (Ref. 1, p. 147)
27. When one molecule of acetyl CoA is oxidized in citric acid
cycle, the net energy yield is:
A. 2 ATP equivalents B. 8 ATP equivalents
C. 12 ATP equivalents D. 15 ATP equivalents
(Ref. 1, p. 147)
28. Citrate synthetase is allosterically inhibited by:
A. ATP B. Isocitrate
C. NADH D. Citrate (Ref. 1, pp. 149-150)
29. Isocitrate dehydrogenase is allosterically activated by:
A. Citrate B. a-Ketoglutarate
C. ADP D. NAD (Ref. 1, p. 150)
30. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is allosterically inhibited by:
A. NADH B. FAD
C. Succinyl CoA D. Succinate (Ref. 1, p. 150)
31. All of the following are allosteric enzymes except:
A. Citrate synthetase
B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
C. Succinate thiokinase
D. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (Ref. 1, pp. 149-150)
32. In citric acid cycle, FAD is reduced by:
A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
D. Malate dehydrogenase (Ref. 1, p. 148)
33. All the following are dicarboxylic acids except:
A. cis-Aconitate B. Succinate
C. Fumarate D. Malate (Ref. 1, p. 147)
34. All the following are intermediates of citric acid cycle except:
A. Oxalosuccinate B. Oxaloacetate
C. Pyruvate D. Fumarate (Ref. 1, p. 147)
26 C 27 C 28 A 29 C 30 C 31 C 32 C 33 A 34 C
Ch 10.indd 79 01-09-2015 16:48:16

35. All the following intermediates of citric acid cycle can be

formed from amino acids except:
A. a-Ketoglutarate B. Fumarate
C. Malate D. Oxaloacetate
(Ref. 1, p. 149)
36. Intermediates of citric acid cycle which can form amino acids
are:
A. Oxaloacetate and isocitrate
B. Oxaloacetate and a-Ketoglutarate
C. a-Ketoglutarate and succinate
D. a-Ketoglutarate and fumarate (Ref. 1, p. 149)
37. Arsenite inhibits:
C. Succinate thiokinase
D. Succinate dehydrogenase (Ref. 1, p. 147)
38. The reaction catalyzed by the following enzyme is functionally
irreversible:
A. Citrate synthetase B. Aconitase
C. Isocitrate dehydrogenase D. Succinate thiokinase
(Ref. 1, p. 147)
39. Two functionally irreversible reactions in citric acid cycle are
catalyzed by:
A. Citrate synthetase and a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
B. Aconitase and isocitrate dehydrogenase
C. Succinate thiokinase and succinate dehydrogenase
D. Fumarase and malate dehydrogenase
(Ref. 1, p. 147)
40. NAD is reduced in reactions catalyzed by all of the following
enzymes of citric acid cycle except:
35 C 36 B 37 B 38 A 39 A 40 C
Ch 10.indd 80 01-09-2015 16:48:16

41. Two decarboxylation reactions in citric acid cycle are catalyzed

by:
A. Aconitase and isocitrate dehydrogenase
B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase and a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
C. Oxalosuccinate decarboxylase and fumarase
D. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and fumarase
(Ref. 1, p. 147)
42. The correct sequence of tricarboxylic acid intermediates in
citric acid cycle is:
A. Citrate, isocitrate and cis-aconitate
B. Isocitrate, citrate and cis-aconitate
C. Citrate, cis-aconitate and isocitrate
D. cis-Aconitate, citrate and isocitrate (Ref. 1, p. 147)
43. The correct sequence of dicarboxylic acid intermediates in
citric acid cycle is:
A. Succinate, fumarate, malate and oxaloacetate
B. Fumarate, succinate, malate and oxaloacetate
C. Malate, fumarate, succinate and oxaloacetate
D. Succinate, malate, fumarate and oxaloacetate
(Ref. 1, p. 147)
44. A citric acid cycle intermediate which can provide acetyl CoA
for fatty acid synthesis is:
A. Citrate
B. Isocitrate
C. a-Ketoglutarate
D. Oxaloacetate (Ref. 1, p. 149)
45. In muscles, calcium ions activate:
B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
C. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
46. Coenzyme A is released in the reaction catalyzed by:
C. ATP-citrate lyase
41 B 42 C 43 A 44 A 45 D 46 A
Ch 10.indd 81 01-09-2015 16:48:16

47. An intermediate of citric acid cycle which can be directly

converted into phosphoenolpyruvate is:
A. Citrate B. Isocitrate
C. Succinate D. Oxaloacetate
(Ref. 1, pp. 148, 168)
48. The reactions catalyzed by all of the following are physiologi
cally reversible except:
A. Aconitase
49. Rate of citric acid cycle reactions may be influenced by all of
A. ATP
B. NADH
C. FADH2
D. Ca++(Ref. 1, p. 149)
50. Long-chain fatty acyl CoA inhibits:
C. Citrate synthetase
47 D 48 B 49 C 50 C
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Metabolism of
Carbohydrates 11
1. Glycolytic pathway is located in:
A. Mitochondria B. Cytosol
C. Microsomes D. Nucleus (Ref. 1, p. 151)
2. End product of aerobic glycolysis is:
A. Acetyl CoA B. Lactate
C. Pyruvate D. CO2 and H2O
(Ref. 1, p. 151)
3. During fasting, glucose is phosphorylated mainly by:
A. Hexokinase B. Glucokinase
C. Phosphoglucomutase D. UDPG pyrophosphorylase
(Ref. 1, p. 151)
4. The following is an inducible enzyme:
A. Glucokinase B. Hexokinase
C. Phosphohexose isomerase D. Aldolase (Ref. 1, p. 170)
5. Glucokinase is found in:
A. Muscles B. Brain
C. Liver D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 159)
6. Fluoride ions inhibit:
A. Aldolase B. Enolase
C. Glucokinase D. Pyruvate kinase
(Ref. 1, p. 152)
7. During aerobic glycolysis, energy yield from each molecule of
glucose is:
(Ref. 1, p. 158)
1 B 2 C 3 A 4 A 5 C 6 B 7 B
Ch 11.indd 83 01-09-2015 16:56:00

8. In anaerobic glycolysis, energy yield from each molecule of

glucose is:
(Ref. 1, p. 151)
9. The reaction catalyzed by the following enzyme is freely
reversible:
A. Hexokinase B. Phosphohexose isomerase
C. Pyruvate kinase D. Phosphofructokinase
(Ref. 1, p. 153)
10. The following is an allosteric enzyme:
A. Phosphohexose isomerase B. Phosphotriose isomerase
C. Lactate dehydrogenase D. Phosphofructokinase
(Ref. 1, p. 152)
11. The following is not an allosteric enzyme:
A. Glucokinase B. Hexokinase
C. Phosphofructokinase D. Pyruvate kinase
(Ref. 1, p. 170)
12. Glycolysis is always anaerobic in:
A. Liver B. Brain
C. Kidneys D. Erythrocytes (Ref. 1, p. 154)
13. Phosphofructokinase is allosterically inhibited by:
A. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate B. Lactate
C. Pyruvate D. Citrate (Ref. 1, p. 170)
14. Glucose-6-phosphate is an allosteric inhibitor of:
A. Glucokinase
B. Hexokinase
C. Phosphohexose isomerase
15. The following is an allosteric enzyme:
A. Hexokinase B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Pyruvate kinase D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 170)
16. ATP is a co-substrate as well as an allosteric inhibitor of:
A. Phosphofructokinase B. Hexokinase
C. Glucokinase D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 170)
8 A 9 B 10 D 11 A 12 D 13 D 14 B 15 D 16 A
Ch 11.indd 84 01-09-2015 16:56:00

Metabolism of Carbohydrates 85
17. Pyruvate kinase is inhibited by:

A. Enolpyruvate B. Lactate
C. Citrate D. Alanine (Ref. 1, p. 170)
18. Complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose into CO2 and
H2O yields:
(Ref. 1, p. 156)
19. A substrate-linked phosphorylation in glycolysis is catalyzed
by:
A. Hexokinase B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Phosphoglycerate kinase D. Pyruvate kinase
(Ref. 1, p. 153)
20. A unique by-product of glycolysis in erythrocytes is:
A. Lactate
B. 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate
C. 2, 3-Biphosphoglycerate
D. All of the above (Ref. 1. p. 154)
21. When glycolysis occurs in erythrocytes via 2, 3-biphospho
glycerate, the net energy yield from one molecule of glucose is:
A. Zero B. 2 ATP equivalents
(Ref. 1. p. 155)
22. Inorganic phosphate is incorporated in the substrate by:
A. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
B. Phosphoglycerate kinase
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Enolase (Ref. 1, p. 153)
23. Biphosphoglycerate mutase is present in:
A. Liver B. Muscles
C. Brain D. Erythrocytes (Ref. 1, p. 155)
24. Glycerol can enter glycolytic pathway via:
A. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
B. 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate
C. 3-Phosphoglycerate
D. 2-Phosphoglycerate (Ref. 1, p. 168)
17 D 18 D 19 C 20 C 21 A 22 A 23 D 24 A
Ch 11.indd 85 01-09-2015 16:56:00

25. Enzymes of hexose monophosphate shunt are present in:

C. Lysosomes D. Microsomes (Ref. 1, p. 177)
26. HMP shunt is present in:
A. Erythrocytes B. Liver
C. Testes D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 180)
27. In HMP shunt, reducing equivalents are accepted by:
A. NAD B. NADP
C. FMN D. FAD (Ref. 1, p. 177)
28. HMP shunt produces:
A. ATP B. NADH
C. NADPH D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 180)
29. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is induced by:
A. 6-Phosphogluconolactone
B. Glucose-6-phosphate
C. Ribose-5-phosphate
D. Insulin (Ref. 1, p. 179)
30. The decarboxylation reaction in HMP shunt is catalyzed by:
A. Gluconolactone hydrolase
B. 6-Phosphogluconate decarboxylase
C. 6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
D Transaldolase (Ref. 1, p. 178)
31. The first pentose formed in HMP shunt is:
A. Ribose-5-phosphate B. Ribulose-5-phosphate
C. Xylose-5-phosphate D. Xylulose-5-phosphate
(Ref. 1, p. 178)
32. The coenzyme for transketolase is:
A. NADP B. NAD
C. Thiamin pyrophosphate D. No coenzyme is required
(Ref. 1, p. 180)
33. The number of NADP molecules reduced per molecule of
glucose-6-phosphate converted into ribulose-5-phosphate is:
A. One B. Two
C. Six D. Twelve (Ref. 1, p. 178)
25 B 26 D 27 B 28 C 29 D 30 C 31 B 32 C 33 B
Ch 11.indd 86 01-09-2015 16:56:01

34. A regulatory enzyme in HMP shunt is:

A. Hexokinase
B. Glucokinase
C. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
D. Transketolase (Ref. 1, p. 179)
35. The rate of HMP shunt reactions is:
A. Increased by insulin
B. Increased in diabetes mellitus
C. Increased by glucagon
D. Increased in starvation (Ref. 1, p. 180)
36. The coenzymes required in HMP shunt are formed from:
A. Thiamin and pyridoxine
B. Niacin and pyridoxine
C. Thiamin and niacin
D. Niacin and folic acid (Ref. 1, p. 179)
37. Glycogenesis requires:
A. GTP B. CTP
C. UTP D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 159)
38. Substrates for glycogen synthetase are glycogen primer and:
A. Glucose B. UDP-Glucose
C. Glucose-1-phosphate D. Glucose-6-phosphate
(Ref. 1, p. 159)
39. Glycogen synthetase catalyzes the formation of:
A. a-1, 4-Glycosidic bonds
B. a-1, 6-Glycosidic bonds
C. b-1, 4-Glycosidic bonds
D. b-1, 6-Glycosidic bonds (Ref. 1, p. 159)
40. The energy spent for addition of each glucose unit to the
glycogen primer is:
A. One ATP equivalent B. Two ATP equivalents
C. Three ATP equivalents D. Four ATP equivalents
(Ref. 1, p. 160)
41. Glycogenesis is increased by:
A. Glucagon B. Insulin
C. Epinephrine D. cAMP (Ref. 1, p. 163)
34 C 35 A 36 C 37 C 38 B 39 A 40 B 41 B
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42. Glycogen synthetase is activated by:

A. Phosphorylation B. Adenylation
C. Dephosphorylation D. Deadenylation
(Ref. 1, p. 162)
43. Hepatic glycogenolysis is increased by:
A. Insulin B. Glucagon
C. Epinephrine D. Glucocorticoids
(Ref. 1, p. 165)
44. Glycogen phosphorylase hydrolyses:
A. a-1, 6-Glycosidic bonds
B. a-1, 4-Glycosidic bonds
C. b-1, 4-Glycosidic bonds
45. Glycogen phosphorylase liberates the following from glycogen:
A. Glucose
B. Glucose-6-phosphate
C. Glucose-1-phosphate
D. Maltose (Ref. 1, p. 160)
46. After the action of phosphorylase, glycogen is converted into:
A. Amylopectin B. Limit dextrin
C. Amylose D. Maltose (Ref. 1, p. 166)
47. a-1, 6-Glycosidic bonds of glycogen are hydrolyzed by:
A. Amylo-1, 4 → 1, 6-Transglucosidase
B. Debranching enzyme
C. Isomaltase
D. Amylase (Ref. 1, p. 160)
48. Amylo-1, 6-glucosidase liberates the following from glycogen:
A. Glucose-1-phosphate B. Glucose-6-phosphate
C. Maltose D. Glucose (Ref. 1, p. 160)
49. Glucose-1-phosphate liberated from glycogen cannot be
converted into free glucose in:
A. Liver B. Kidneys
50. During glycogenolysis, glucose-1-phosphate and glucose are
liberated in the ratio of approximately:
A. 30:1 B. 24:1
C. 8:1 D. 1:1 (Ref. 2, p. 266)
42 C 43 B 44 B 45 C 46 B 47 B 48 D 49 C 50 C
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51. A coenzyme present in muscle phosphorylase is:

A. NAD
B. Pyridoxal phosphate
C. Thiamin pyrophosphate
D. Coenzyme A (Ref. 2, p. 265)
52. Generally, glycogenolysis in muscles is immediately followed
by:
A. Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis
C. HMP shunt D. Lipogenesis (Ref. 1, p. 161)
53. If glucose-1-phosphate formed by glycogenolysis in muscles is
oxidized to CO2 and H2O, the energy yield will be:
(Ref. 1, pp. 156, 161)
catabolized to lactate, the energy yield will be:
(Ref. 1, pp. 156, 161)
oxidized to pyruvate, the energy yield will be:
(Ref. 1, pp. 158, 161)
56. A molecule of phosphorylase kinase is made up of:
A. 4 subunits B. 8 subunits
C. 12 subunits D. 16 subunits (Ref. 1, p. 162)
57. In the inactive form of phosphorylase kinase:
A. a- and b-subunits are phosphorylated
B. a- and b-subunits are not phosphorylated
C. g- and d-subunits are phosphorylated
D. Calcium ions are bound to b-subunits(Ref. 1, p. 162)
58. The following subunits of phosphorylase kinase bind calcium
ions:
A. a-Subunits B. b-Subunits
C. g-Subunits D. d-Subunits(Ref. 1, p. 162)
51 B 52 A 53 C 54 B 55 D 56 D 57 B 58 D
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59. The catalytic activity of phosphorylase kinase is present in:

C. g-Subunits D. d-Subunits(Ref. 1, p. 162)
60. The calcium-bound d-subunits of phosphorylase kinase are
identical in structure to:
A. Actin B. Myosin
C. Calmodulin D. Prothrombin (Ref. 1, p. 162)
61. cAMP-dependent protein kinase phosphorylates:
A. Glycogen synthetase a B. Phosphorylase kinase b
C. Inhibitor-1 D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 163)
62. Cyclic AMP binds to:
A. Catalytic subunits of protein kinase A
B. Regulatory subunits of protein kinase A
C. Catalytic subunits of phosphorylase kinase
D. Regulatory subunits of phosphorylase kinase
(Ref. 2, p. 432)
63. Glucose is the only source of energy for:
A. Myocardium B. Kidneys
C. Erythrocytes D. Thrombocytes
(Ref. 1, p. 151)
64. Glycerol-3-phosphate for the synthesis of triglycerides in
adipose tissue is derived from:
A. Phosphatidic acid B. Diacylglycerol
C. Glycerol D. Glucose Ref. 1, p. 209)
65. In anaerobic conditions, muscles can derive energy from:
A. Fatty acids B. Amino acids
C. Glucose D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 151)
66. Gluconeogenesis occurs in:
A. Adipose tissue B. Muscles
C. Kidneys D. Brain (Ref. 1, p. 167)
67. Glucose cannot be synthesized from:
A. Glutamate B. Aspartate
C. Alanine D. Leucine (Ref. 1, p. 267)
59 C 60 C 61 D 62 B 63 C 64 D 65 C 66 C 67 D
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68. Reactions of gluconeogenesis occur in:

A. Cytosol only
B. Mitochondria only
C. Cytosol and mitochondria
D. Cytosol and microsomes (Ref. 1, p. 168)
69. Coenzyme for phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase is:

A. ATP B. ADP
C. GTP D. GDP (Ref. 1, p. 168)
70. Pyruvate carboxylase is present in:

C. Peroxisomes D. Lysosomes (Ref. 1, p. 168)
71. Synthesis of one molecule of glucose from two molecules of

pyruvate is accompanied by oxidation of:
A. One molecule of NADPH
B. One molecule of NADH
C. Two molecules of NADPH
D. Two molecules of NADH (Ref. 1, p. 168)
72. Energy spent during synthesis of one molecule of glucose from

two molecules of lactate is:
(Ref. 1, p. 168)
73. During synthesis of one molecule of glucose from two mole

cules of glycerol, two molecules of:
A. NADPH are oxidized
B. NADH are oxidized
C. NADP are reduced
D. NAD are reduced (Ref. 1, p. 168)
74. A gluconeogenic enzyme among the following is:

A. Phosphofructokinase
B. Pyruvate kinase
C. Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
D. Glucokinase (Ref. 1, p. 168)
68 C 69 C 70 B 71 D 72 C 73 D 74 C
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75. Glucose-6-phosphatase and PEP carboxykinase are regulated

by:
A. Covalent modification
B. Allosteric regulation
C. Induction and repression
76. Regulation of gluconeogenesis is reciprocal to that of:
C. Glycolysis D. HMP shunt (Ref. 1, p. 170)
77. Gluconeogenesis is decreased by:
A. Glucagon B. Epinephrine
C. Glucocorticoids D. Insulin (Ref. 1, p. 170)
78. Lactate formed in muscles can be utilized through:
A. Rapoport-Luebering cycle
B. Glucose-alanine cycle
C. Cori cycle
D. Citric acid cycle (Ref. 1, p. 172)
79. Pyruvate formed in muscles can be used for gluconeogenesis
in liver through:
A. Rapoport-Luebering cycle
B. Glucose-alanine cycle
C. Cori cycle
D. Citric acid cycle (Ref. 1, p. 172)
80. Glucose-6-phosphatase is not present in:
A. Liver and kidneys
B. Kidneys and muscles
C. Kidneys and adipose tissue
D. Muscles and adipose tissue (Ref. 1, p. 167)
81. Cobamides are required as coenzymes for gluconeogenesis
from:
A. Lactate B. Pyruvate
C. Succinyl CoA D. Propionyl CoA
(Ref. 1, p. 169)
82. Pyruvate carboxylase is regulated by:
A. Induction B. Repression
C. Allosteric regulation D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 170)
75 C 76 C 77 D 78 C 79 B 80 D 81 D 82 D
Ch 11.indd 92 01-09-2015 16:56:01

83. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase is regulated by:

A. Induction B. Repression
C. Allosteric regulation D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 171)
84. Fructose-2, 6-biphosphate is an allosteric regulator of:
A. Phosphofructokinase
B. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase
C. Both of the above
85. Fructose-2, 6-biphosphate is formed by the action of:
A. Phosphofructokinase-1
B. Phosphofructokinase-2
C. Fructose biphosphate isomerase
D. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase (Ref. 1, p. 171)
86. Phosphofructokinase-2 is regulated by:
A. Allosteric mechanism and induction
B. Covalent modification and allosteric mechanism
C. Induction and repression
D. Repression and derepression (Ref. 1, p. 171)
87. The coenzyme for UDP-glucose dehydrogenase is:
A. NAD B. NADP
C. FAD D. Lipoic acid (Ref. 1, p. 182)
88. UDP-Glucuronic acid is needed to synthesize:
C. Heparin D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 181)
89. In the polyol pathway, glucose is converted into:
A. Glycerol B. Dulcitol
C. Sorbitol D. Mannitol (Ref. 1, p. 183)
90. The highest concentrations of fructose are found in:
A. Aqueous humor B. Vitreous humor
C. Synovial fluid D. Seminal fluid
(Ref. 1, p. 181)
91. Glucose uptake by liver cells is:
A. Energy-dependent B. Mediated by GLUT4
C. Sodium-dependent D. Insulin-independent
(Ref. 1, p. 173)
83 D 84 C 85 B 86 B 87 A 88 D 89 C 90 D 91 D
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92. Maximum capacity for tubular reabsorption of glucose is

about:
A. 180 mg/dL B. 180 mg/min
C. 350 mg/dL D. 350 mg/min (Ref. 1, p. 175)
93. A decrease in tubular reabsorption of glucose results in:
A. Hypoglycaemia B. Hyperglycemia
C. Renal glycosuria D. Alimentary glycosuria
(Ref. 2, p. 681)
94. Active uptake of glucose by renal tubules is inhibited by:
A. Ouabain B. Phlorizin
C. Digoxin D. Alloxan (Ref. 2, p. 168)
95. Insulin receptors are down-regulated in:
A. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
B. Protein deficiency
C. Starvation
D. Obesity (Ref. 1, p. 175)
96. Glucose-6-phosphatase is absent or deficient in:
A. von Gierke’s disease B. Pompe’s disease
C. Cori’s disease D. McArdle’s disease
(Ref. 1, p. 166)
97. Debranching enzyme is absent in:
A. Cori’s disease B. Andersen’s disease
C. von Gierke’s disease D. Her’s disease (Ref. 1, p. 166)
98. Amylopectinosis occurs due to absence or deficiency of:
A. Phosphorylase B. Glycogen synthetase
C. Branching enzyme D. Debranching enzyme
(Ref. 1, p. 166)
99. In congenital absence of debranching enzyme:
A. Amylopectin is deposited in tissues
B. Limit dextrin is deposited in tissues
C. Glycogen accumulates in tissues
D. Glycogen stores are decreased (Ref. 1, p. 166)
100. Congenital phosphofructokinase deficiency causes:
A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Ketosis
C. Diminished exercise tolerance
92 D 93 C 94 B 95 D 96 A 97 A 98 C 99 B 100 C
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101. McArdle’s disease is due to deficiency of:

A. Glucose-6-phosphatase B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Liver phosphorylase D. Muscle phosphorylase
(Ref. 1, p. 166)
102. Congenital galactosaemia is due to absence or deficiency of:
A. Lactose synthetase
B. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
C. Hexokinase
D. Aldose reductase (Ref. 1, p. 186)
103. Hereditary fructose intolerance occurs due to absence or
deficiency of:
A. Fructokinase
B. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase
C. Aldolase
D. Aldolase B (Ref. 1, p. 185)
104. Fructokinase is congenitally absent in:
A. Hereditary fructose intolerance
B. Fructosaemia
C. Essential fructosuria
D. Her’s disease (Ref. 1, p. 185)
105. In essential pentosuria, urine contains:
A. D-Ribose B. D-Xylulose
C. L-Xylulose D. D-Xylose (Ref. 1, p. 184)
106. Hurler’s syndrome is due to deficiency of:
A. a-L-Iduronidase B. Iduronate sulphatase
C. b-Galactosidase D. Arylsulphatase A
(Ref. 1, p. 556)
107. Amylase hydrolyses:
A. b-1, 4-Glycosidic bonds B. b-1, 6-Glycosidic bonds
C. a-1, 4-Glycosidic bonds D. a-1, 6-Glycosidic bonds
(Ref. 1, p. 482)
108. Glucose-6-phosphate and glucose-1-phosphate can be inter
converted by:
A. Glucose phosphate isomerase
B. Phosphohexose isomerase
C. Glucose phosphate racemase
D. Phosphoglucomutase (Ref. 1, p. 160)
101 D 102 B 103 D 104 C 105 C 106 A 107 C 108 D
Ch 11.indd 95 01-09-2015 16:56:01

109. Congenital galactosaemia can lead to:

A. Mental retardation B. Premature cataract
C. Death D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 186)
110. Uridine diphosphate glucose (UDPG) is:
A. Required for metabolism of galactose
B. Required for synthesis of glucuronic acid
C. A substrate for glycogen synthetase
D. All of the above (Ref. 1, pp. 160, 181-182)
111. Hexose monophosphate shunt provides:
A. Glucose-1-phosphate for glycogen synthesis
B. Glycerol-3-phosphate for triglyceride synthesis
C. NADPH for fatty acid synthesis
D Glucuronic acid for mucopolysaccharide synthesis
(Ref. 1, p. 177)
112. Glycogenesis requires:
A. Uridine diphosphate glucose
B. Glycogen synthetase
C. Branching enzyme
113. Catalytic activity of salivary amylase requires the presence of:
A. Chloride ions B. Bromide ions
C. Iodide ions D. Any of the above three
(Ref. 2, p. 91)
114. Disaccharides can be hydrolyzed by enzymes present in:
A. Saliva B. Pancreatic juice
C. Bile D. Succus entericus
(Ref. 1, p. 483)
115. The following is actively absorbed in the intestine:
A. Fructose B. Mannose
C. Galactose D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 483)
116. An amphibolic pathway among the following is:
A. HMP shunt B. Glycolysis
C. Citric acid cycle D. Gluconeogenesis
(Ref. 1, p. 145)
109 D 110 D 111 C 112 D 113 A 114 D 115 C 116 C
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117. A reaction of glycolytic pathway which is spontaneous is the

conversion of:
A. Glucose-6-phosphate into fructose-6-phosphate
B. 3-Phosphoglycerate into 2-phosphoglycerate
C. 2-Phosphoglycerate into enolpyruvate
D. Enolpyruvate into pyruvate
(Ref. 1, p. 152)
118. GTP is required in the reaction catalyzed by:
B. PEP carboxykinase
C. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase
D. Glucose-6-phosphatase (Ref. 1, p. 168)
119. ATP is required in the reaction catalyzed by:
120. For the synthesis of hexosamines, amino group is provided by:
A. Ammonia
B. Glutamate
C. Glutamine
D. Asparagine (Ref. 1, p. 185)
121. Deficiency or inhibition of fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase is
expected to impair:
A. Utilization of dietary fructose
B. Oxidation of glucose to pyruvate
C. Synthesis of glucose from pyruvate
D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 168)
122. Intestinal digestion of lactose yields:
A. Glucose and galactose B. Glucose and fructose
C. Glucose and mannose D. Galactose and mannose
(Ref. 1, p. 181)
123. The substrate for invertase is:
A. Lactose B. Maltose
C. Sucrose D. Dextrin (Ref. 2, p. 20)
117 D 118 B 119 A 120 C 121 C 122 A 123 C
Ch 11.indd 97 01-09-2015 16:56:01

124. Lactose intolerance can occur due to deficiency of:

A. Galactokinase
B. UDP-galactose-4-epimerase
C. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
D. Lactase (Ref. 1, p. 483)
125. Sorbitol can be formed from:
A. Glucose B. Galactose
C. Mannose D. Ribose (Ref. 1, p. 183)
126. All the following statements about phosphofructokinase are
true except:
A. Citrate is its allosteric inhibitor
B. ATP is its allosteric inhibitor
C. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate is its allosteric activator
D. AMP is its allosteric activator
(Ref. 1, p. 171)
127. All the following statements about fructose-2, 6-biphosphate
are true except:
A. It is formed from fructose-1, 6-biphosphate
B. It is degraded to fructose-6-phosphate
C. It activates phosphofructokinase
D. It inhibits fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase (Ref. 1, p. 171)
128. ATP decreases the activity of all of the following except:
A. Phosphofructokinase-1
B. Pyruvate kinase
D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(Ref. 1, pp. 170-171)
129. Insulin increases the synthesis of all of the following except:
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase
B. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
C. 6-Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
D. ATP-citrate lyase (Ref. 1, p. 170)
130. Insulin represses the synthesis of all of the following except:
D. Phosphofructokinase-1 (Ref. 1, p. 170)
124 D 125 A 126 C 127 A 128 C 129 A 130 D
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131. Glucokinase differs from hexokinase in the following respect:

A. It has greater substrate specificity
B. It has lower Km for glucose
C. It acts mainly in fasting state
D. It is inhibited by glucose-6-phosphate
(Ref. 1, p. 152)
132. Cori cycle transfers:
A. Glucose from muscles to liver
B. Lactate from muscles to liver
C. Lactate from liver to muscles
D. Pyruvate from liver to muscles (Ref. 1, p. 172)
133. Inorganic phosphate is required as a reactant in the reaction
catalyzed by:
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Glyceralehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
D. Enolase (Ref. 1, pp. 152-153)
134. Excessive intake of ethanol increases the ratio:
A. NADH : NAD+
B. NAD+ : NADH
C. FADH2 : FAD
D. FAD : FADH2(Ref. 1, p. 225)
135. Insulin regulates gluconeogenesis by:
A. Allosteric mechanism
B. Covalent modification of key enzymes
C. Repression of key enzymes
D. Induction of key enzymes (Ref. 1, pp. 170)
136. Glycogenin is:
A. Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation
B. Polymer of glycogen molecules
C. Protein primer for glycogen synthesis
D. Intermediate in glycogen breakdown (Ref. 1, p. 159)
137. Glucosylation occurs at the following residue of glycogenin:
A. Tyrosine B. Serine
C. Threonine D. Hydroxyproline
(Ref. 1, p. 159)
131 A 132 B 133 C 134 A 135 C 136 C 137 A
Ch 11.indd 99 01-09-2015 16:56:01

138. Oligosaccharide-pyrophosphoryl dolichol is required for the

synthesis of:
A. N-linked glycoproteins
B. O-linked glycoproteins
C. GPI-linked glycoproteins
139. In O-linked glycoproteins, oligosaccharide is attached to
protein through a:
A. Serine or threonine residue
B. Tyrosine residue
C. Hydroxyproline residue
D. Hydroxylysine residue (Ref. 1, p. 528)
140. In N-linked glycoproteins, oligosaccharide is attached to
protein through its:
A. Asparagine residue B. Glutamine residue
C. Arginine residue D. Lysine residue
(Ref. 1, p. 530)
141. Apart from liver, glucokinase is present in:
A. Intestinal mucosa B. Pancreatic islet cells
C. Renal tubular cells D. Erythrocytes (Ref. 1, p. 173)
142. Glycolyis in erythrocytes is anaerobic because:
A. NADH is used to reduce glutathione in erythrocytes
B. Erythrocytes lack mitochondria
C. Oxygen is bound to hemoglobin in erythrocytes
D. 2,3-Biphosphoglycerate is bound to hemoglobin in
mitochondria(Ref. 1, p. 151)
143. ATP is converted into ADP in reactions catalyzed by:
A. Hexokinase and pyruvate kinase
B. Phosphofructokinase and phosphoglycerate kinase
C. Hexokinase and phosphofructokinase
D. Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase
(Ref. 1, p. 153)
144. ADP is converted into ATP in reactions catalyzed by:
A. Hexokinase and pyruvate kinase
B. Phosphofructokinase and phosphoglycerate kinase
C. Hexokinase and phosphofructokinase
D. Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase (Ref. 1, p. 153)
138 C 139 A 140 A 141 B 142 B 143 C 144 D
Ch 11.indd 100 01-09-2015 16:56:01

145. During dehydrogenation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, re

ducing equivalents are accepted by:
A. NAD
B. NADP
C. FMN
D. FAD (Ref. 1, p. 153)
146. Iodoacetate inhibits:
A. Aldolase
B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
C. Phophoglycerate mutase
D. Enolase (Ref. 1, p. 152)
147. If glycolysis occurs in the presence of arsenate:
A. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase is inhibited
B. Phosphoglycerate kinase is inhibited
C. 1-Arseno-3-phosphoglycerate is formed
D. Energy yield remains unaffected
(Ref. 1, p. 152)
148. All the following statements about biphosphoglycerate mutase
and 2,3-biphosphoglycerate kinase are correct except:
A. They catalyze reversible reactions
B. They are present in erythrocytes
C. Their sequential action bypasses phosphoglycerate kinase
D. These two activities are present in the same enzyme
(Ref. 1, p. 155)
149. Energy is spent in the following phase of glycolysis:
A. Glucose → → Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate
B. Fructose -1,6-biphosphate → Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate +
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate → → Pyruvate
150. Energy is captured in the following phase of glycolysis:
A. Glucose → → Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate
B. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate → Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate +
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate → → Pyruvate
145 A 146 B 147 C 148 A 149 A 150 C
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151. The enzyme which splits a 6-carbon compound into two

3-carbon compounds in glycolysis is:
A. Enolase
B. Phosphotriose isomerase
C. Aldolase
D. Phosphoglycerate mutase
(Ref. 1, p. 153)
152. The correct sequence of intermediates in glycolysis is:
A. 1,3-Biphosphoglycerate → 3-Phosphoglycerate → 2-Phos
phoglycerate → Phosphoenolpyruvate
B. 1,3-Biphosphoglycerate → 2-Phosphoglycerate → 3-Phos
phoglycerate → Phosphoenolpyruvate
C. 1,3-Biphosphoglycerate → Phosphoenolpyruvate →
2-Phosphoglycerate → 3-Phosphoglycerate
D. Phosphoenolpyruvate → 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate → 3-Phos
phoglycerate → 2-Phosphoglycerate
(Ref. 1, p. 153)
153. Glucose-1, 6-biphosphate is formed as an intermediate during
the reaction catalyzed by:
A. Glucokinase
B. UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase
C. Phosphoglucomutase
154. Glycogen synthetase a is phosphorylated by:
A. cAMP-dependent protein kinase
B. Calmodulin-dependent protein kinase
C. Glycogen synthetase kinase
155. The regulatory enzyme in glycogenesis is:
A. UDP-Glucose pyrophosphorylase
B. Glycogen synthetase
C. Branching enzyme
156. The regulatory enzyme in glycogenolysis is:
A. Phosphorylase B. Glucan transferase
C. Debranching enzyme D. Glucose-6-phosphatase
(Ref. 1, p. 161)
151 C 152 A 153 C 154 D 155 B 156 A
Ch 11.indd 102 01-09-2015 16:56:02

157. Regulation of glycogenesis and glycogenolysis is:

A. Synchronous B. Reciprocal
C. Mediated by cAMP D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 163)
158. Between meals, blood glucose level can be maintained by:
A. Glycogenolysis in liver
B. Glycogenolysis in muscles
C. Gluconeogenesis in muscles
159. A difference between phosphorylase and debranching enzyme
is:
A. Phosphorylase acts on a-1,6 bonds while debranching enzyme
acts on a-1,4 bonds
B. Phosphorylase liberates free glucose while debranching
enzyme liberates glucose-1-phosphate
C. Debranching enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of
glycogenolysis while phosphorylase does not
160. Inorganic phosphate is required as a reactant in the reaction
catalyzed by:
A. Glycogen synthetase B. Branching enzyme
C. Phosphorylase D. Debranching enzyme
(Ref. 1, p. 160)
161. Glucagon can affect the rate of glycogenesis and glycogenolysis
in:
A. Liver and skeletal muscle
B. Liver and heart muscle
C. Skeletal and heart muscles
D. Liver only (Ref. 1, p. 165)
162. In liver:
A. Glycogenin is present in the center of each glycogen molecule
B. Glycogenin is not required for glycogenesis
C. The number of glycogenin molecules exceeds the number of
glycogen molecules
D. The number of glycogen molecules exceeds the number of
glycogenin molecules (Ref. 1, p. 159)
157 D 158 A 159 D 160 C 161 B 162 D
Ch 11.indd 103 01-09-2015 16:56:02

163. All the following statements about pyruvate carboxylase are

correct except:
A. It takes part in gluconeogenesis
B. It is present in mitochondria
C. It is activated by acetyl CoA
D. It is inhibited by ATP (Ref. 1, p. 170)
164. All the following enzymes are required to convert lactate into
phosphoenolpyruvate except:
A. Pyruvate kinase
B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
D. Lactate dehydrogenase (Ref. 1, p. 167)
165. All the following enzymes are required to synthesise glucose
from oxaloacetate except:
B. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
C. Fructose -1,6-biphosphatase
166. All the following enzymes are required to synthesize glucose
from glycerol except:
A. Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
B. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
167. Energy barriers for gluconeogenesis include all the following
except:
A. Pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate
B. 3-Phosphoglycerate to 1, 3-biphosphoglycerate
C. Fructose -1, 6-biphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
D. Glucose-6-phosphate to glucose (Ref. 1, p. 168)
168. A simple reversal of glycolysis to synthesize glucose from pyru
vate or lactate is not possible because:
A. Free energy is liberated in some of the glycolytic reactions
B. Glycolysis and gluconeogenesis occur in different tissues
C. Glycolysis and gluconeogenesis occur in different compart
ments of the cell
163 D 164 A 165 A 166 B 167 B 168 A
Ch 11.indd 104 01-09-2015 16:56:02

169. Gluconeogenic enzymes:

A. Circumvent the energy barriers in glycolysis
B. Are present in mitochondria
C. Catalyze endergonic reactions
D. Are regulated by covalent modification (Ref. 1, p. 168)
170. Energy is spent in the gluconeogenic reactions catalyzed by:
A. Pyruvate carboxylase and fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase
B. Glucose-6- phosphatase and fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase
C. Pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolypyruvate carboxy
kinase
D. Glucose-6-phosphatase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxy
kinase(Ref. 1, p. 168)
171. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase is inhibited by all of the following
except:
A. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate B. Fructose-2, 6-biphosphate
C. ATP D. AMP (Ref. 1, p. 171)
172. Glucose-6-phosphatase is allosterically inhibited by:
A. Glucose B. Glucose-6-phosphate
C. ATP D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 170)
173. In human beings, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase is
present in:
(Ref. 1, p. 174)
174. Fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase is present in all of the following
except:
A. Liver B. Kidney
C. Striated muscle D. Smooth muscle
(Ref. 1, p. 167)
175. A bifunctional enzyme that plays an important role in
regulation of glycolysis and gluconeogenesis possesses the
following catalytic activities:
A. Glucokinase and glucose-6-phosphatase
B. Phosphofructokinase-1 and fructose-1, 6-biphosphatase
C. Phosphofructokinase-2 and fructose-2, 6-biphosphatase
D. Pyruvate kinase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
(Ref. 1, p. 171)
169 A 170 C 171 C 172 D 173 C 174 D 175 C
Ch 11.indd 105 01-09-2015 16:56:02

176. cAMP-dependent protein kinase phosphorylates and :

A. Inactivates pyruvate kinase
B. Activates fructose-2, 6-biphosphatase
C. Inactivates phosphofructokinase-2
177. All the following statements about sodium-dependent glucose
transporter (SGLT1) are correct except:
A. It is present in muscles and adipose tissue
B. It causes active uptake of glucose against its concentration
gradient
C. It transports sodium down its concentration gradient
D. It is insulin-independent (Ref. 1, p. 173)
178. Glucose transporter present in small intestine is:
A. SGLT1 B. GLUT2
C. GLUT5 D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 173)
179. Fructose is absorbed in the small intestine through:
A. SGLT1 B. GLUT3
C. GLUT4 D. GLUT5 (Ref. 1, p. 173)
180. All the following statements about intestinal fructose
absorption are correct except:
A. It is absorbed by facilitated diffusion
B. Its absorption depends upon sodium gradient
C. It enters the mucosal cell through GLUT5
D. It enters the capillaries from mucosal cells through GLUT2
(Ref. 1, p. 173)
181. All the following statements about intestinal glucose absorpt
ion are correct except:
A. It is absorbed against its concentration gradient
B. Rate of its absorption is proportional to sodium gradient
C. Its active absorption is enhanced by insulin
D. Energy is spent during active uptake of glucose to expel sodium
ions(Ref. 1, p. 173)
182. Uptake of glucose by muscles:
A. Occurs by an active transport mechanism
B. Is energy-dependent
C. Is linked to sodium uptake
D. Is enhanced by insulin (Ref. 1, p. 173)
176 D 177 A 178 D 179 D 180 B 181 C 182 D
Ch 11.indd 106 01-09-2015 16:56:02

183. GLUT 4:
A. Is present in adipose tissue
B. Facilitates diffusion of glucose
C. Is transferred from cytosol to the cell membrane by insulin
184. All the following statements about GLUT 4 are correct except:
A. It is present in muscles and adipose tissue
B. It is a transmembrane protein
C. It mediates energy-dependent uptake of glucose
D. Number of GLUT4 molecules in the cell membrane is
increased by insulin (Ref. 1, p. 173)
185. A coenzyme required by transketolase as well as pyruvate
dehydrogenase complex is:
A. Thiamin pyrophosphate B. Lipoic acid
C. FAD D. NAD
(Ref. 1, pp. 156, 180)
186. Glycolysis and HMP shunt have the following similarity:
A. Glucose-6-phosphate is an intermediate in both
B. Ribose-5-phosphate is an intermediate in both
C. NAD is reduced in both
D. ATP is formed in both (Ref. 1, pp. 153, 178)
187. Intermediates common to glycolysis and HMP shunt include
all of the following except:
A. Glucose-6-phosphate
B. Xylulose-5-phosphate
C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
D. Fructose-6-phosphate (Ref. 1, pp. 153, 178)
188. Fructose-6-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate for
med in the glycolytic pathway can be used to synthesize ribose-
5-phosphate if the following enzymes are also present in the
cell:
A. Transketolase and transaldolase
B. Transketolase and ribose-5-phosphate ketoisomerase
C. Transaldolase and ribose-3-phosphate ketoisomerase
D. Transaldolase and ribulose-5-phosphate 3-epimerase
(Ref. 1, p. 180)
183 D 184 C 185 A 186 A 187 B 188 A
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189. NADPH formed in HMP shunt in erythrocytes can be used to

detoxify hydrogen peroxide if the following is available:
A. Glutathione B. Glutathione reductase
C. Glutathione peroxidase D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 180)
190. All the following statements about fructokinase are correct
except:
A. It is present in liver
B. It has a low Km for fructose
C. It converts fructose into fructose-6-phosphate
D. Its activity is not affected by insulin (Ref. 1, p. 181)
191. Acute loading of liver with fructose may cause all of the
following except:
A. Fructosaemia B. Hypertriglyceridaemia
C. Hypercholesterolaemia D. Hyperuricaemia
(Ref. 1, p. 184)
192. Cataract occurs in congenital galactosaemia due to accumul
ation of the following in lens:
A. Galactose B. Galactose-1-phosphate
C. Galactitol D. Sorbitol (Ref. 1, p. 186)
193. Normal range of fasting plasma glucose is:
A. 45–55 mg/dL B. 4.5–5.5 mmol/L
C. 80–120 mmol/L D. 6.5–7.5 mmol/L
(Ref. 1, p. 172)
194. A unidirectional transporter of glucose is:
A. GLUT2 B. GLUT3
C. GLUT4 D. SGLT1 (Ref. 1, p. 173)
195. Blood glucose level is increased by all of the following except:
A. Glucagon B. Glucocorticoids
C. Insulin D. Epinephrine
(Ref. 1, pp. 173-174)
189 D 190 C 191 A 192 C 193 B 194 D 195 C
Ch 11.indd 108 01-09-2015 16:56:02

Metabolism of Lipids
12
1. De novo synthesis of fatty acids occurs in:
C. Microsomes D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 196)
2. Acyl carrier protein contains the vitamin:
A. Biotin B. Lipoic acid
C. Pantothenic acid D. Folic acid (Ref. 1, p. 196)
3. The following is required as a reductant in fatty acid synthesis:
A. NADH B. NADPH
C. FADH2 D. FMNH2(Ref. 1, p. 196)
4. Hepatic lipogenesis is stimulated by:
A. cAMP B. Glucagon
C. Epinephrine D. Insulin (Ref. 1, p. 196)
5. De novo synthesis of fatty acids requires all of the following
except:
A. Biotin B. NADH
C. Pantothenic acid D. ATP (Ref. 1, p. 196)
6. Acetyl CoA carboxylase regulates fatty acid synthesis by the
following mechanism:
A. Allosteric regulation B. Covalent modification
C. Induction and repression D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 196)
7. b-Oxidation of fatty acids requires all the following coenzymes
except:
A. CoA B. FAD
C. NAD D. NADP (Ref. 1, pp. 188-189)
1 A 2 C 3 B 4 D 5 B 6 D 7 D
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8. The following can be oxidized by b-oxidation pathway:

A. Saturated fatty acids
B. Monounsaturated fatty acids
C. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
9. Propionyl CoA is formed on oxidation of:
A. Monounsaturated fatty acids
B. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
C. Fatty acids with odd number of carbon atoms
10. An enzyme required for the synthesis of ketone bodies as well
as cholesterol is:
A. Acetyl CoA carboxylase B. HMG CoA synthetase
C. HMG CoA reductase D. HMG CoA lyase
(Ref. 1, pp. 192, 231)
11. Ketone bodies are synthesized in:
A. Adipose tissue B. Liver
12. All the following statements about ketone bodies are true
except:
A. Their synthesis increases in diabetes mellitus
B. They are synthesized in mitochondria
C. They can deplete the alkali reserve
D. They can be oxidized in the liver (Ref. 1, pp. 190-192)
13. All the following statements about carnitine are true except:
A. It can be synthesized in the human body
B. It can be synthesized from methionine and lysine
C. It is required for transport of short chain fatty acids into
mitochondria
D. Its deficiency can occur due to hemodialysis
(Ref. 1, p. 187)
14. The following can be synthesized in the human body if
precursors are available:
A. Oleic acid
B. Palmitoleic acid
C. Arachidonic acid
8 D 9 C 10 B 11 B 12 D 13 C 14 D
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Metabolism of Lipids 111
15. All the following can be oxidized by b-oxidation except:

A. Palmitic acid
B. Phytanic acid
C. Linoleic acid
D. Fatty acids having an odd number of carbon atoms
(Ref. 1, p. 194)
16. Anti-inflammatory corticosteroids inhibit the synthesis of:
A. Prostacyclins B. Prostaglandins
C. Thromboxanes D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 204)
17. Diets having a high ratio of polyunsaturated: saturated fatty
acids can cause:
A. Increase in serum triglycerides
B. Decrease in serum cholesterol
C. Decrease in serum HDL
D. Skin lesions (Ref. 1, p. 238)
18. Thromboxanes cause:
A. Vasodilation B. Bronchoconstriction
C. Platelet aggregation D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 206)
19. Prostaglandins lower cAMP in:
A. Adipose tissue B. Lungs
C. Platelets D. Adenohypophysis
(Ref. 1, p. 207)
20. Slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis is a mixture of:
A. Prostaglandins B. Prostacyclins
C. Thromboxanes D. Leukotrienes (Ref. 1, p. 208)
21. Dipalmitoyl lecithin acts as:
A. Platelet activating factor
B. Second messenger for hormones
C. Lung surfactant
D. Anti-ketogenic compound (Ref. 1, p. 125)
22. The following tissue cannot utilise glycerol as it lacks glycerol
kinase:
A. Liver B. Kidney
C. Intestine D. Adipose tissue
(Ref. 1, p. 209)
15 B 16 D 17 B 18 C 19 A 20 D 21 C 22 D
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23. In glycerophospholipids, a polyunsaturated fatty acid is

commonly attached to the following carbon atom of glycerol:
C. Carbon 3 D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 203)
24. Lysolecithin is formed from lecithin by removal of:
A. Fatty acid from position 1
B. Fatty acid from position 2
C. Phosphorylcholine
D. Choline (Ref. 1, p. 212)
25. Sphingosine is synthesized from:
A. Palmitoyl CoA and choline
B. Palmitoyl CoA and ethanolamine
C. Palmitoyl CoA and serine
D. Acetyl CoA and choline (Ref. 1, p. 214)
26. For synthesis of sphingosine, all the following coenzymes are
required except:
A. Pyridoxal phosphate B. NADPH
C. FAD D. NAD (Ref. 2, p. 214)
27. Cerebrosides contain all of the following except:
A. Galactose B. Sulfate
C. Sphingosine D. Fatty acid (Ref. 1, p. 213)
28. Niemann-Pick disease results from deficiency of:
A. Ceramidase B. Sphingomyelinase
C. Arylsulfatase A D. Hexosaminidase A
(Ref. 1, p. 215)
29. Inherited deficiency of b-glucosidase causes:
A. Tay-Sachs disease
B. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Multiple sclerosis (Ref. 1, p. 215)
30. Tay-Sachs disease results from inherited deficiency of:
A. Arylsulfatase A
B. Hexosaminidase A
C. Sphingomyelinase
D Ceramidase (Ref. 1, p. 215)
23 B 24 B 25 C 26 D 27 B 28 B 29 C 30 B
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31. The largest apolipoprotein is:

A. Apo E B. Apo B-48
C. Apo B-100 D. Apo A-I (Ref. 1, p. 218)
32. Apolipoprotein B-100 is synthesized in:
C. Intestine D. Liver and intestine
(Ref. 1, p. 218)
33. Apolipoprotein B-48 is synthesized in:
(Ref. 1, p. 218)
34. Apolipoproteins A-I and A-II are present in:
A. LDL only B. LDL and VLDL
C. HDL only D. HDL and chylomicrons
(Ref. 1, p. 218)
35. Apolipoprotein B-48 is present in:
36. Apolipoprotein B-100 is present in:
A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL only
C. LDL only D. VLDL and LDL
(Ref. 1, p. 218)
37. Apolipoproteins C-I, C-II and C-III are present in:
A. Chylomicrons
B. VLDL
C. HDL
38. Apolipoproteins C-I, C-II and C-III are present in all of the
following except:
39. Apolipoprotein A-I acts as:
A. Enzyme activator
B. Ligand for receptor
31 C 32 B 33 C 34 D 35 A 36 D 37 D 38 C 39 C
Ch 12.indd 113 01-09-2015 16:55:39

40. Apolipoprotein B-100 acts as:

A. Enzyme activator B. Ligand for receptor
(Ref. 1, p. 218)
41. Apolipoprotein C-II is an activator of:
A. Lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase
B. Phospholipase C
C. Extrahepatic lipoprotein lipase
D. Hepatic lipoprotein lipase (Ref. 1, p. 218)
42. Nascent chylomicron receives apolipoproteins C and E from:
A. VLDL remnant B. VLDL
43. Chylomicron remnants are catabolized in:
A. Intestine B. Adipose tissue
C. Liver D. Liver and intestine
(Ref. 1, p. 220)
44. VLDL remnant may be converted into:
A. VLDL B. LDL
C. HDL D. Chylomicrons
(Ref. 1, p. 220)
45. Receptors for chymicron remnants are:
A. Apo A specific B. Apo B-48 specific
C. Apo C specific D. Apo E specific
(Ref. 1, p. 220)
46. LDL receptor is specific for:
A. Apo B-48 and Apo B-100 B. Apo B-48 and Apo E
C. Apo B-100 and Apo E D. Apo B-100 and Apo D
(Ref. 1, p. 221)
47. Nascent HDL of intestinal origin lacks:
A. Apo A B. Apo C
C. Apo E D. Apo C and Apo E
(Ref. 1, p. 221)
48. HDL is synthesized in:
(Ref. 1, p. 218)
40 B 41 C 42 D 43 C 44 B 45 D 46 C 47 D 48 D
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49. Nascent HDL of intestinal origin acquires Apo C and Apo E

from:
C. LDL D. HDL of hepatic origin
(Ref. 1, p. 222)
50. Heparin releasable hepatic lipase converts:
A. VLDL remnants into LDL
B. Nascent HDL into HDL
C. HDL2 into HDL3
D. HDL3 into HDL2(Ref. 1, p. 219)
51. Activated lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase is essential for
the conversion of:
A. VLDL remnants into LDL
B. Nascent HDL into HDL
C. HDL2 into HDL3
D. HDL3 into HDL2(Ref. 1, p. 221)
52. Fatty liver may be caused by:
A. Deficiency of methionine
B. Puromycin
C. Chronic alcoholism
53. Alcohol dehydrogenase converts ethanol into:
A. Acetyl CoA B. Acetaldehyde
C. Acetate D. CO2 and H2O
(Ref. 1, p. 225)
54. Lipids are stored in the body mainly in the form of:
A. Phospholipids B. Glycolipids
C. Triglycerides D. Fatty acids (Ref. 1, p. 209)
55. Lipid stores are mainly present in:
A. Liver B. Brain
C. Muscles D. Adipose tissue
(Ref. 1, p. 226)
56. Glycerol is converted into glycerol-3-phosphate by:
A. Thiokinase B. Triokinase
C. Glycerol kinase D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 226)
49 D 50 C 51 B 52 D 53 B 54 C 55 D 56 C
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57. In adipose tissue, glycerol-3-phosphate required for the

synthesis of triglycerides comes mainly from:
A. Hydrolysis of pre-existing triglycerides
B. Hydrolysis of phospholipids
C. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate formed in glycolysis
D. Free glycerol
(Ref. 1, p. 226)
58. Glycerol released from adipose tissue by hydrolysis of
triglycerides is mainly:
A. Taken up by liver
B. Taken up by extrahepatic tissues
C. Reutilized in adipose tissue
D. Excreted from the body (Ref. 1, p. 209)
59. Free glycerol cannot be used for triglyceride synthesis in:
A. Liver B. Kidney
C. Intestine D. Adipose tissue
(Ref. 1, p. 211)
60. Adipose tissue lacks:
A. Hormone-sensitive lipase
B. Glycerol kinase
C. cAMP-dependent protein kinase
D. Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (Ref. 1, p. 211)
61. A digestive secretion that does not contain any digestive
enzyme is:
A. Saliva B. Gastric juice
C. Pancreatic juice D. Bile
(Ref. 1, pp. 482-485)
62. Saliva contains a lipase which is secreted by:
A. Dorsal surface of tongue
B. Parotid glands
C. Sub-maxillary glands
63. Gastric lipase hydrolyzes the ester bond at:
A. Position 1 of triglycerides
B. Position 2 of triglycerides
C. Position 3 of triglycerides
57 C 58 A 59 D 60 B 61 D 62 A 63 C
Ch 12.indd 116 01-09-2015 16:55:39

64. Lingual lipase converts dietary triglycerides into:

A. Diglycerides and fatty acids
B. Monoglycerides and fatty acids
C. Glycerol and fatty acids
65. Pancreatic lipase requires for its activity:
A. Co-lipase
B. Bile salts
C. Phospholipids
66. Pancreatic lipase converts triacylglycerols into:
A. 2, 3-Diacylglycerol B. 1-Monoacylglycerol
C. 2-Monoacylglycerol D. 3-Monoacylglycerol
(Ref. 1, p. 483)
67. Oxidation of fatty acids occurs:
A. In the cytosol
B. In the matrix of mitochondria
C. On inner mitochondrial membrane
D. On the microsomes (Ref. 1, pp. 187-188)
68. Activation of fatty acids requires all the following except:
A. ATP B. Coenzyme A
C. Thiokinase D. Carnitine (Ref. 1, p. 187)
69. Mitochondrial thiokinase acts on:
A. Short chain fatty acids B. Medium chain fatty acids
C. Long chain fatty acids D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 187)
70. Carnitine is required for the transport of:
A. Triglycerides out of liver
B. Triglycerides into mitochondria
C. Short chain fatty acids into mitochondria
D. Long chain fatty acids into mitochondria (Ref. 1, p. 187)
71. Carnitine acylcarnitine translocase is present:
A. In the inner mitochondrial membrane
B. In the mitochondrial matrix
C. On the outer surface of inner mitochondrial membrane
D. On the inner surface of inner mitochondrial membrane
(Ref. 1, p. 188)
64 A 65 D 66 C 67 B 68 D 69 A 70 D 71 A
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72. Net ATP generation on complete oxidation of stearic acid is:

A. 129 B. 131
C. 146 D. 148 (Ref. 1, p. 189)
73. Propionyl CoA formed on oxidation of fatty acids having an odd
number of carbon atoms is converted into:
A. Acetyl CoA B. Acetoacetyl CoA
C. D-Methylmalonyl CoA D. Butyryl CoA
(Ref. 1, pp. 169, 188)
74. a-Oxidation is required to metabolize:
A. Acetoacetic acid B. Phytanic acid
C. PUFA D. MUFA (Ref. 2, p. 293)
75. Refsum’s disease results from a defect in the following pathway:
A. a-Oxidation of fatty acids
B. b-Oxidation of fatty acids
C. g-Oxidation of fatty acids
D. ω-Oxidation of fatty acids (Ref. 2, p. 293)
76. The end product of omega-oxidation of fatty acids are:
A. Carbon dioxide and water B. Monocarboxylic acids
C. Dicarboxylic acids D. Tricarboxylic acids
(Ref. 2, p. 293)
77. De novo synthesis of fatty acids is catalyzed by a multienzyme
complex which contains:
A. One–SH group B. Two–SH groups
C. Three–SH groups D. Four–SH groups
(Ref. 1, p. 197)
78. The maximum possible chain length of fatty acids formed in the
pathway of de novo synthesis is:
A. 16 Carbon atoms B. 18 Carbon atoms
C. 20 Carbon atoms D. 24 Carbon atoms
(Ref. 1, p. 197)
79. Acetyl CoA required for de novo synthesis of fatty acids is
obtained from:
A. Breakdown of existing fatty acids
B. Ketone bodies
C. Acetate
D. Pyruvate (Ref. 1, p. 199)
72 C 73 C 74 B 75 A 76 C 77 D 78 A 79 D
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80. Formation of acetyl CoA from pyruvate for de novo synthesis of

fatty acids requires:
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex
B. Citrate synthetase
C. ATP–citrate lyase
81. The major site for elongation of medium chain fatty acids is:
C. Microsomes D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 199)
82. b-Oxidation of fatty acids is inhibited by:
A. NADPH B. Acetyl CoA
C. Malonyl CoA D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 195)
83. The enzyme regulating extramitochondrial fatty acid synthesis
is:
A. Thioesterase B. Acetyl CoA carboxylase
C. Acyl transferase D. Multienzyme complex
(Ref. 1, p. 196)
84. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is activated by:
A. cis-Aconitate B. Isocitrate
C. Citrate D. Oxalosuccinate
(Ref. 1, p. 200)
85. All the following statements about acetyl CoA carboxylase are
true except:
A. It is activated by citrate
B. It is inhibited by palmitoyl CoA
C. It can undergo covalent modification
D. Its dephosphorylated form is inactive
(Ref. 1, p. 201)
true except:
A. It is required for de novo synthesis of fatty acids
B. It is required for mitochondrial elongation of fatty acids
C. It is required for microsomal elongation of fatty acids
D. Insulin converts its inactive form into its active form
(Ref. 1, pp. 200-201)
80 D 81 C 82 C 83 B 84 C 85 D 86 B
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87. Lipogenesis is decreased in all the following except:

A. Restricted caloric intake B. High fat intake
C. Deficiency of insulin D. High carbohydrate intake
(Ref. 1, p. 202)
88. Co-lipase binds to:
A. Lingual lipase B. Gastric lipase
C. Pancreatic lipase D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 483)
89. Co-lipase is a:
A. Bile salt B. Vitamin
C. Protein D. Phospholipid
(Ref. 1, p. 483)
90. Plasma becomes milky:
A. Due to high level of HDL B. Due to high level of LDL
C. During fasting D. After a meal (Ref. 1, p. 483)
91. Mitochondrial membrane is permeable to:
A. Short chain fatty acids B. Medium chain fatty acids
C. Long chain fatty acids D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 187)
92. During each cycle of b-oxidation:
A. One carbon atom is removed from the carboxyl end of the fatty
acid
B. One carbon atom is removed from the methyl end of the fatty
acid
C. Two carbon atoms are removed from the carboxyl end of the
fatty acid
D. Two carbon atoms are removed from the methyl end of the
fatty acid (Ref. 1, pp. 188-189)
93. Net generation of energy on complete oxidation of palmitic
acid is:
(Ref. 2, p. 290)
94. Very long chain fatty acids are:
A. Not oxidized B. Oxidized in mitochondria
C. Oxidized in peroxisomes D. Present in adipose tissue
(Ref. 1, p. 189)
87 D 88 C 89 C 90 D 91 A 92 C 93 A 94 C
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95. Energy required to activate a fatty acid is:

A. One ATP equivalents B. Two ATP equivalents
C. Three ATP equivalents D. Four ATP equivalents
(Ref. 2, p. 290)
96. Extramitochondrial synthesis of fatty acids occurs in:
A. Mammary glands B. Lungs
C. Brain D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 196)
97. One functional subunit of multienzyme complex for de novo
synthesis of fatty acids contains:
A. One–SH group B. Two–SH groups
C. Three–SH groups D. Four–SH groups
(Ref. 1, p. 197)
98. NADPH required for fatty acid synthesis can come from:
A. Hexose monophosphate shunt
B. Oxidative decarboxylation of malate
C. Extramitochondrial oxidation of isocitrate
99. Fatty liver may be prevented by all of the following except:
A. Choline B. Vitamin E
C. Methionine D. Ethionine (Ref. 1, p. 225)
100. Human desaturase enzyme system cannot introduce a double
bond in a fatty acid beyond:
101. The following lipid is absorbed actively from intestines:
A. Glycerol
B. Cholesterol
C. Monoacylglycerol
102. C22 and C24 fatty acids required for the synthesis of sphingolipids
in brain are formed by:
A. De novo synthesis
B. Microsomal chain elongation
C. Mitochondrial chain elongation
95 B 96 D 97 B 98 D 99 D 100 A 101 D 102 B
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103. From the intestinal mucosa, dietary short chain fatty acids:
A. Enter the lacteals
B. Enter portal circulation
C. Are converted into phospholipids
D. Are converted into triglycerides (Ref. 1, p. 483)
104. All of the following statements about hypoglycin are true
except:
A. It is a plant toxin
B. It causes hypoglycaemia
C. It inhibits oxidation of short chain fatty acids
D. It inhibits oxidation of long chain fatty acids (Ref. 1, p. 194)
105. Synthesis of prostaglandins is inhibited by:
A. Glucocorticoids
B. Aspirin
C. Indomethacin
106. Lipo-oxygenase is required for the synthesis of:
A. Prostaglandins B. Leukotrienes
C. Thromboxanes D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 205)
107. All of the following statements about multiple sclerosis are true
except:
A. There is loss of phospholipids from white matter
B. There is loss of sphingolipids from white matter
C. There is loss of esterified cholesterol from white matter
D. White matter resembles gray matter in composition
(Ref. 1, p. 214)
108. After entering cytosol, free fatty acids are bound to:
A. Albumin
B. Globulin
C. Fatty acid binding protein
109. Release of free fatty acids from adipose tissue is increased by
all of the following except:
A. Glucagon B. Epinephrine
C. Growth hormone D. Insulin
(Ref. 1, pp. 200-201)
103 B 104 D 105 D 106 B 107 C 108 C 109 D
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110. All the following statements about brown adipose tissue are
true except:
A. It is rich in cytochromes
B. It oxidizes glucose and fatty acids
C. Oxidation and phosphorylation are tightly coupled in it
D. Dinitrophenol has no effect on it (Ref. 1, p. 228)
111. Lovastatin and mevastatin lower:
A. Serum triglycerides B. Serum cholesterol
C. Serum phospholipids D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 238)
112. Lovastatin and mevastatin inhibit:
A. Thiolase B. HMG CoA synthase
C. HMG CoA lyase D. HMG CoA reductase
(Ref. 2, p. 231)
113. Abetalipoproteinaemia occurs due to a defect in the:
A. Synthesis of apo B B. Loading of apo B with lipids
C. Catabolism of apo B D. LDL receptors
(Ref. 1, p. 239)
114. All the following statements about Tangier disease are true
except:
A. It is a disorder of HDL metabolism
B. It increases the risk of atherosclerosis
C. Plasma triglycerides are increased in it
D. Plasma HDL is increased in it (Ref. 1, p. 239)
115. Genetic deficiency of lipoprotein lipase causes hyperlipopro
teinaemia of following type:
A. Type I B. Type IIa
C. Type IIb D. Type V (Ref. 1, p. 239)
116. Chylomicrons are present in fasting blood samples in
hyperlipoproteinaemia of following types:
A. Types I and IIa B. Types IIa and IIb
C. Types I and V D. Types IV and V
(Ref. 2, p. 239)
117. Glutathione is a constituent of:
A. Leukotriene A4 B. Thromboxane A1
C. Leukotriene C4 D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 207)
110 C 111 B 112 D 113 B 114 D 115 A 116 C 117 C
Ch 12.indd 123 01-09-2015 16:55:39

118. Prostaglandins are inactivated by:

A. 15-Hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase
B. Cyclo-oxygenase
C. Lipo-oxygenase
119. Aspirin and indomethacin inhibit:
A. Phospholipase A1 B. Phospholipase A2
C. Cyclo-oxygenase D. Lipo-oxygenase
(Ref. 1, p. 204)
120. Prostaglandins stimulate:
A. Aggregation of platelets B. Lipolysis in adipose tissue
C. Bronchodilatation D. Gastric acid secretion
(Ref. 2, pp. 647-648)
121. For extramitochondrial fatty acid synthesis, acetyl CoA may be
obtained from:
A. Citrate B. Isocitrate
C. Oxaloacetate D. Succinate (Ref. 1, p. 199)
122. Fluidity of membranes is increased by the following constituent:
A. Polyunsaturated fatty acids B. Saturated fatty acids
C. Integral proteins D. Cholesterol
(Ref. 1, pp. 196, 428)
123. Transition temperature of membranes may be affected by the
following constituent of membranes:
A. Peripheral proteins B. Integral proteins
C. Cholesterol D. Oligosaccharides
(Ref. 1, p. 428)
124. Acetyl CoA formed from pyruvate can be used for the synthesis
of all the following except:
A. Glucose B. Fatty acids
C. Cholesterol D. Steroid hormones
(Ref. 1, p. 167)
125. The following can be used as a source of energy in extrahepatic
tissues:
A. Acetoacetate B. Acetone
C. Acetate D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 191)
118 A 119 C 120 C 121 A 122 A 123 C 124 A 125 A
Ch 12.indd 124 01-09-2015 16:55:39

126. Anti-inflammatory corticosteroids inhibit:

A. Phospholipase A1 B. Synthesis of PGHS-2
C. Cyclo-oxygenase D. Lipo-oxygenase
(Ref. 1, p. 204)
127. Cyclo-oxygenase is involved in the synthesis of:
A. Prostaglandins B. Thromboxanes
(Ref. 1, p. 204)
128. Leukotrienes cause:
A. Increase in capillary permeability
B. Aggregation of platelets
C. Bronchodilatation
129. Prostaglandins decrease all of the following except:
A. Gastric acid secretion B. Blood pressure
C. Uterine contraction D. Platelet aggregation
(Ref. 2, p. 207)
130. Glutathione is present as a substituent in:
A. Leukotriene C4 B. Prostaglandin E1
C. Thromboxane A1 D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 207)
131. De novo synthesis and oxidation of fatty acids differ in the
following respect:
A. Synthesis occurs in cytosol and oxidation in mitochondria
B. Synthesis is decreased and oxidation increased by insulin
C. NADH is required in synthesis and FAD in oxidation
D. Malonyl CoA is formed during oxidation but not during
synthesis(Ref. 1, p. 196)
132. Free fatty acids released from adipose tissue are transported in
blood by:
A. Albumin B. VLDL
133. b-Galactosidase is deficient in:
A. Fabry’s disease
B. Krabbe’s disease
C. Gaucher’s disease
D. Metachromatic leukodystrophy (Ref. 1, p. 215)
126 B 127 C 128 A 129 C 130 A 131 A 132 A 133 B
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134. The enzyme deficient in metachromatic leukodystrophy is:

A. Arylsulphatase A B. Hexosaminidase A
C. Ceramidase D. Sphingomyelinase
(Ref. 1, p. 215)
135. Deficiency of ceramidase causes:
A. Niemann-Pick disease B. Fabry’s disease
C. Farber’s disease D. Gaucher’s disease
(Ref. 1, p. 215)
136. Hexosaminidase A is deficient in:
A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease D. Fabry’s disease
(Ref. 1, p. 215)
137. Mental retardation occurs in:
A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Gaucher’s disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 215)
138. The enzyme deficient in Fabry’s disease is:
A. a-Galactosidase B. b-Galactosidase
C. a-Glucosidase D. b-Glucosidase
(Ref. 1, p. 215)
139. Ceramidase is deficient in:
A. Fabry’s disease B. Farber’s disease
C. Krabbe’s disease D. Tay-Sachs disease
(Ref. 1, p. 215)
140. Ceramide is present in all of the following except:
A. Plasmalogens B. Cerebrosides
C. Sulfatides D. Sphingomyelin
(Ref. 1, pp. 211-212)
141. Fatty acids synthesized de novo in human beings generally:
A. Have one double bond
B. Are branched
C. Have an even number of carbon atoms
D. Have 18 carbon atoms (Ref. 1, p. 199)
142. Lipogenesis is decreased in:
A. Carnitine deficiency B. Zellweger’s syndrome
C. Refsum’s disease D. Diabetes mellitus
(Ref. 1, p. 199)
134 A 135 C 136 A 137 D 138 A 139 B 140 A 141 C 142 D
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143. The initial event in de novo synthesis of fatty acids is the

transfer of:
A. An acetyl group to –SH group of a cysteine residue
B. A malonyl group to –SH group of a cysteine residue
C. An acetyl group to –SH group of ACP
D. A malonyl group to –SH group of ACP (Ref. 1, p. 196)
144. All the following statements about de novo synthesis of fatty
acids in human beings are correct except:
A. The source of carbon atoms is acetyl CoA
B. The product is palmitoyl CoA
C. NADPH is used as a reductant
D. Two fatty acid molecules are synthesized simultaneously
(Ref. 1, p. 197)
145. De novo synthesis of fatty acids requires all the following
vitamins (or their coenzymes) except:
A. Niacin
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Folic acid
D. Biotin (Ref. 1, pp. 196-198)
146. Acetyl CoA carboxylase:
A. Is a multienzyme protein
B. Contains biotin
C. Can exist in a dimeric or a polymeric form
147. The initial event in carboxylation of acetyl CoA is:
A. Formation of enzyme-biotin-ATP complex
B. Carboxylation of biotin
C. Transfer of carboxyl group to ATP
D. Transfer of carboxyl group to acetyl CoA (Ref. 1, p. 196)
correct except:
A. It is an allosteric enzyme
B. Its allosteric activator is citrate
C. Its allosteric inhibitor is long chain acyl CoA
D. Allosteric activation involves conversion of polymeric form of
the enzyme into dimeric form
(Ref. 1, p. 201)
143 A 144 B 145 C 146 D 147 B 148 D
Ch 12.indd 127 01-09-2015 16:55:40

149. Insulin:
A. Is an allosteric activator of acetyl CoA carboxylase
B. Is an inducer of acetyl CoA carboxylase
C. Causes phosphorylation of acetyl CoA carboxylase
150. In de novo synthesis of fatty acids:
A. A malonyl group is added to cysteine–SH in each cycle of
reactions
B. Each cycle adds three carbon atoms to the acyl group
C. Thioesterase catalyses the last reaction in each cycle
D. The priming carbon atom appears at the methyl end of the
fatty acid (Ref. 1, pp. 198-199)
151. All the following statements about peroxisomes are correct
except:
A. Very long chain fatty acids are oxidized in peroxisomes
B. Hydrogen peroxide is formed during oxidation of fatty acids in
peroxisomes
C. Carnitine palmitoyl transferase is required to transport fatty
acids into peroxisomes
D. They are congenitally absent in Zellweger’s syndrome
(Ref. 1, pp. 189, 194)
152. Peroxisomes participate in the synthesis of all of the following
except:
A. Cholesterol
B. Bile acids
C. Ether glycerophospholipids
D. Very long chain fatty acids (Ref. 1, p. 199)
153. In Zellweger’s syndrome:
A. Transport of fatty acids into peroxisomes is impaired
B. Very long chain fatty acids accumulate in peroxisomes
C. Synthesis of bile acids is impaired
D. Peroxisomes are absent in some tissues
(Ref. 1, pp. 194, 237)
154. Human desaturase enzyme system:
A. Is present in mitochondria
B. Contains a cytochrome
C. Acts only on 18-carbon fatty acids
D. Introduces trans double bonds (Ref. 1, p. 203)
149 B 150 D 151 C 152 D 153 C 154 B
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155. Deficiency of carnitine can impair:

A. Uptake of long chain fatty acids by cells
B. Uptake of very long chain fatty acids by peroxisomes
C. Oxidation of long chain fatty acids in mitochondria
156. Hydrogen peroxide is formed during oxidation of fatty acids in:
A. Peroxisomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Cytosol
157. The following are present in outer mitochondrial membrane:
A. Thiokinase (acyl CoA synthetase) and carnitine palmitoyl
transferase I
B. Thiokinase and carnitine palmitoyl transferase II
C. Carnitine palmitoyl transferase I and carnitine palmitoyl
transferase II
D. Carnitine palmitoyl transferase II and carnitine acylcarnitine
translocase(Ref. 1, p. 188)
158. The following are present in inner mitochondrial membrane:
A. Thiokinase and carnitine palmitoyl transferase I
B. Thiokinase and carnitine palmitoyl transferase II
C. Carnitine palmitoyl transferase I and carnitine palmitoyl
transferase II
D. Carnitine palmitoyl transferase II and carnitine acylcarnitine
translocase
(Ref. 1, p. 188)
159. Carnitine acetyltransferase is present:
A. In outer mitochondrial membrane
B. In inner mitochondrial membrane
C. Inside mitochondria
160. Carnitine deficiency causes:
A. Hypoglycaemia
B. Lipid accumulation
C. Muscular weakness
155 C 156 A 157 A 158 D 159 C 160 D
Ch 12.indd 129 01-09-2015 16:55:40

161. Acetone is formed from acetoacetate by:

A. Acetoacetate dehydrogenase
B. Acetoacetate carboxylase
C. Acetoacetate decarboxylase
D. Spontaneous decarboxylation (Ref. 1, p. 191)
162. Two enzymes essential for ketogenesis are:
A. HMG CoA synthetase and HMG CoA lyase
B. HMG CoA synthetase and HMG CoA reductase
C. HMG CoA reductase and HMG CoA lyase
D. HMG CoA reductase and 3-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase
(Ref. 1, p. 191-192)
163. Normal concentration of ketone bodies in blood of well-fed
men is:
A. Less than 0.2 mmol/L B. 0.2–1 mmol/L
C. 1–2 mmol/L D. 2–5 mmol/L
(Ref. 1, p. 190)
164. The following is excreted by the lungs:
A. Acetone B. Acetoacetate
C. 3-Hydroxybutyrate D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 192)
165. Activation of acetoacetate requires:
A. Malonyl CoA B. Succinyl CoA
C. Acetyl CoA D. Propionyl CoA
(Ref. 1, p. 191)
166. Deficiency of carnitine can cause all the following except:
A. Hypoglycaemia B. Lipid accumulation
C. Muscular weakness D. Ketosis
(Ref. 1, p. 194)
167. All the following statements about LDL receptors are true
except:
A. They are present in clathrin-coated pits in the cell membrane
B. They transfer LDL inside the cell by receptor-mediated
endocytosis
C. They are present only in extrahepatic tissues
D. They are down-regulated by cholesterol influx into the cell
(Ref. 1, pp. 234-235)
161 D 162 A 163 A 164 A 165 B 166 D 167 C
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168. All of the following act as ligands for receptors except:

A. Apo A-I B. Apo B-100
C. Apo C-II D. Apo E (Ref. 1, p. 218)
169. All the following statements about apo B-100 are correct
except:
A. It is synthesized in liver
B. It is present in VLDL, IDL and LDL
C. One molecule of apo B-100 is present per lipoprotein particle
D. Its amino terminal region acts as the ligand for receptor
(Ref. 1, p. 218)
170. All the following statements about apoprotein B-48 are correct
except:
A. It is encoded by the same gene that encodes apoprotein B-100
B. It is 48% in size as compared to apoprotein B-100
C. It is present in chylomicrons
D. It is a ligand for chylomicron remnant receptor
(Ref. 1, p. 220)
171. All the following statements about cholesterol synthesis are
correct except:
A. It is synthesized in animals only
B. Liver and intestine synthesise significant amounts of
cholesterol in man
C. It can be synthesized in all nucleated cells
D. Synthesis occurs partly in mitochondria and partly on
microsomes(Ref. 1, p. 230)
172. The rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis is catalyzed by:
A. Thiolase B. HMG CoA synthetase
C. HMG CoA reductase D. Mevalonate kinase
(Ref. 1, p. 230)
173. An isoprenoid unit amongst the following is:
A. Mevalonate pyrophosphate
B. Isopentenyl pyrophosphate
C. Geranyl pyrophosphate
D. Farnesyl pyrophosphate (Ref. 1, p. 230)
168 C 169 D 170 D 171 D 172 C 173 B
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174. NADPH is required in all the following reactions of cholesterol

synthesis except:
A. Conversion of HMG CoA into mevalonate
B. Conversion of farnesyl pyrophosphate into squalene
C. Conversion of squalene into squalene epoxide
D. Conversion of squalene epoxide into lanosterol
(Ref. 1, pp. 231-233)
175. Cholesterol synthesis is regulated by:
A. Feedback inhibition B. Repression-derepression
C. Covalent modification D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, pp. 231-234)
176. Esterification of cholesterol in the cells is catalyzed by:
A. Lecithin: Cholesterol acyltransferase
B. Acyl CoA: Cholesterol acyltransferase
C. Succinyl CoA: Cholesterol acyltransferase
D. Malonyl CoA: Cholesterol acyltransferase (Ref. 1, p. 234)
177. Esterification of cholesterol in plasma is catalyzed by:
A. Lecithin: Cholesterol acyltransferase
B. Acyl CoA: Cholesterol acyltransferase
C. Succinyl CoA: Cholesterol acyltransferase
D. Malonyl CoA: Cholesterol acyltransferase
(Ref. 1, pp. 231-235)
178. All the following statements about the synthesis of bile acids
are correct except:
A. Bile acids are formed from cholesterol in liver
B. The rate—limiting step is catalyzed by 12 a-hydroxylase
C. The side chain attached to C17 is shortened
D. Primary bile acids are cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid
(Ref. 1, p. 236)
179. All the following statements about the synthesis of bile acids
are correct except:
A. The rate-limiting step is catalyzed by 7 a-hydroxylase
B. The synthesis is decreased in vitamin C deficiency
C. Three carbon atoms from the side chain are removed as
propionyl CoA
D. Deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid are primary bile acids
(Ref. 1, p. 237)
174 D 175 D 176 B 177 A 178 B 179 D
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180. All the following statements about lipoprotein (a) are correct
except:
A. It is also known as lipoprotein X
B. It consists of 1 mol of LDL and 1 mol of Apo (a)
C. Apo (a) shows structural homology to plasminogen
D. Increased plasma level of lipoprotein (a) increases the risk of
atherosclerosis(Ref. 1, p. 239)
180 A
Ch 12.indd 133 01-09-2015 16:55:40

Metabolism of
Nucleotides 13
1. Nucleotides required for the synthesis of nucleic acids can be
obtained from:
A. Dietary nucleic acids and nucleotides
B. De novo synthesis
C. Salvage of pre-existing bases and nucleosides
D. De novo synthesis and salvage
(Ref. 1, pp. 301-303)
2. In mammals, the major site for de novo synthesis of purine
nucleotides is:
A. Bone marrow B. Liver
C. Brain D. Muscles (Ref. 1, p. 302)
3. The nitrogen atoms for de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides
are provided by:
A. Aspartate and glutamate
B. Aspartate and glycine
C. Aspartate, glutamine and glycine
D. Aspartate, glutamate and glycine (Ref. 1, p. 302)
4. For de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides, glycine provides:
A. One nitrogen atom
B. One nitrogen and one carbon atom
C. Two carbon atoms
D. One nitrogen and two carbon atoms (Ref. 1, p. 302)
5. For de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides, aspartate provides:
A. Nitrogen 1 B. Nitrogen 3
C. Nitrogen 7 D. Nitrogen 9
(Ref. 1, p. 302)
1 D 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 A
Ch 13.indd 134 01-09-2015 16:55:14

Metabolism of Nucleotides 135
6. In the purine nucleus, carbon 6 is contributed by:

A. Glycine B. CO2
C. Aspartate D. Glutamine
(Ref. 1, p. 302)
7. 5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is required for the salvage
of:
A. Pyrimidine bases
B. Pyrimidine nucleosides
C. Purine bases
D. Purine nucleosides (Ref. 1, pp. 302-303)
8. Inosine monophosphate is an intermediate during de novo
synthesis of:
A. AMP and GMP
B. CMP and UMP
C. CMP and TMP
9. Xanthosine monophosphate is an intermediate during de novo
synthesis of:
A. TMP B. CMP
C. AMP D. GMP (Ref. 1, p. 304)
10. In the pathway of de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides, all
the following are allosteric enzymes except:
A. PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase
B. Adenylosuccinate synthetase
C. IMP dehydrogenase
D. Adenylosuccinase (Ref. 1, p. 303)
11. All the following enzymes are unique to purine nucleotide
synthesis except:
A. PRPP synthetase
B. PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase
C. Adenylosuccinate synthetase
D. IMP dehydrogenase (Ref. 1, p. 303)
12. PRPP synthetase is allosterically inhibited by:
A. AMP
B. ADP
C. GMP
6 B 7 C 8 A 9 D 10 D 11 A 12 D
Ch 13.indd 135 01-09-2015 16:55:14

13. An allosteric inhibitor of PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase is:

A. AMP B. ADP
C. GMP D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 302)
14. An allosteric inhibitor of adenylosuccinate synthetase is:
A. AMP B. ADP
C. GMP D. GDP (Ref. 1, p. 302)
15. An allosteric inhibitor of IMP dehydrogenase is:
A. AMP B. ADP
C. GMP D. GDP (Ref. 1, p. 302)
16. GMP is an allosteric inhibitor of all the following except:
A. PRPP synthetase
C. IMP dehydrogenase
D. Adenylosuccinate synthetase (Ref. 1, p. 302)
17. AMP is an allosteric inhibitor of:
A. Adenylosuccinase
B. IMP dehydrogenase
C. Adenylosuccinate synthetase
D. Aspartate transcarbamoylase (Ref. 1, p. 302)
18. The first reaction unique to purine nucleotide synthesis is
catalyzed by:
A. PRPP synthetase
C. Phosphoribosyl glycinamide synthetase
D. Formyltransferase (Ref. 1, p. 302)
19. Free purine bases which can be salvaged are:
A. Adenine and guanine
B. Adenine and hypoxanthine
C. Guanine and hypoxanthine
D. Adenine, guanine and hypoxanthine (Ref. 1, p. 302)
20. An enzyme required for salvage of free purine bases is:
A. Adenosine kinase
B. Guanosine kinase
C. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
D. Deoxycytidine kinase (Ref. 1, p. 305)
13 C 14 A 15 C 16 D 17 C 18 B 19 D 20 C
Ch 13.indd 136 01-09-2015 16:55:14

21. Deoxycytidine kinase can salvage:

A. Deoxycytidine B. Deoxyadenosine
C. Deoxyguanosine D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 302)
22. Adenosine kinase can salvage:
A. Adenosine
B. Adenosine and deoxyadenosine
C. Adenosine and guanosine
D. Adenine and adenosine (Ref. 1, p. 302)
23. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase is required
for salvage of:
A. Pyrimidine bases
B. Pyrimidine nucleosides
C. Purine bases
D. Purine nucleosides (Ref. 1, p. 305)
24. PRPP is used for all of the following except:
A. De novo synthesis of purine nucleotides
B. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides
C. Salvage of purine bases
D. Salvage of pyrimidine bases
(Ref. 1, p. 302)
25. The end product of purine catabolism in man is:
A. Inosine B. Hypoxanthine
C. Xanthine D. Uric acid (Ref. 1, p. 307)
26. The enzyme common to catabolism of all the purines is:
A. Adenosine deaminase
B. Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
C. Guanase
27. Uric acid can be formed from:
A. Uridine
B. Thymidine
C. Guanosine
28. In lower primates, the end product of purine catabolism is:
A. Uric acid B. Hypoxanthine
C. Xanthine D. Allantoin (Ref. 1, p. 307)
21 D 22 B 23 C 24 D 25 D 26 B 27 C 28 D
Ch 13.indd 137 01-09-2015 16:55:14

29. Dietary purines are catabolized in:

A. Liver B. Kidneys
C. Intestinal mucosa D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 301)
30. All, except one, reactions of de novo synthesis of pyrimidine
nucleotides occur in:
C. Peroxisomes D. Microsomes (Ref. 1, p. 304)
31. All the following statements about carbamoyl phosphate
synthetase II are correct except:
A. It initiates de novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides
B. It is located in mitochondria
C. Its substrates are glutamine, CO2 and ATP
D. It is an allosteric enzyme (Ref. 1, p. 304)
32. The nitrogen atoms of pyrimidine nucleus are provided by:
A. Glutamate B. Glutamate and aspartate
C. Glutamine D. Glutamine and aspartate
(Ref. 1, p. 306)
33. The carbon atoms of pyrimidine nucleus are provided by:
A. Glycine and aspartate B. CO2 and aspartate
C. CO2 and glutamate D. CO2 and glutamine
(Ref. 1, p. 306)
34. Nitrogen at position 1 of pyrimidine nucleus comes from:
A. Glutamine B. Glutamate
C. Glycine D. Aspartate (Ref. 1, p. 306)
35. Nitrogen at position 3 of pyrimidine nucleus comes from:
A. Glutamine B. Glutamate
C. Glycine D. Aspartate (Ref. 1, p. 306)
36. The carbon atom at position 2 of pyrimidine nucleus is
contributed by:
A. CO2 B. Glycine
C. Aspartate D. Glutamine (Ref. 1, p. 306)
37. Aspartate contributes the following carbon atoms of the
pyrimidine nucleus:
A. C2 and C4 B. C5 and C6
C. C2, C4 and C6 D. C4, C5 and C6
(Ref. 1, p. 306)
29 C 30 B 31 B 32 D 33 B 34 D 35 A 36 A 37 D
Ch 13.indd 138 01-09-2015 16:55:14

38. The first pyrimidine nucleotide to be formed in de novo

synthetic pathway is:
A. UMP B. CMP
C. CTP D. TMP (Ref. 1, p. 306)
39. Conversion of uridine diphosphate into deoxyuridine
diphosphate requires all the following except:
A. Ribonucleotide reductase
B. Thioredoxin
C. Tetrahydrobiopterin
D. NADPH (Ref. 1, pp. 304-306)
40. Methotrexate decreases the synthesis of:
A. TMP B. UMP
C. CMP D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 304)
41. For synthesis of CTP from UTP, the amino group comes from:
A. Amide group of asparagine
B. Amide group of glutamine
C. a-Amino group of glutamine
D. a-Amino group of glutamate (Ref. 1, p. 306)
42. CTP synthetase forms CTP from:
A. CDP and inorganic phosphate
B. CDP and ATP
C. UTP and glutamine
D. UTP and glutamate (Ref. 1, p. 302)
43. For the synthesis of TMP from dUMP, a coenzyme is required
which is:
A. N10-Formyl tetrahydrofolate
B. N5-Methyl tetrahydrofolate
C. N5, N10-Methylene tetrahydrofolate
D. N5-Formimino tetrahydrofolate (Ref. 1, p. 302)
44. All the enzymes required for de novo synthesis of pyrimidine
nucleotides are cytosolic except:
A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
B. Aspartate transcarbamoylase
C. Dihydroorotase
D. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (Ref. 1, p. 302)
38 A 39 C 40 A 41 B 42 C 43 C 44 D
Ch 13.indd 139 01-09-2015 16:55:14

45. During de novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides, the first

ring compound to be formed is:
A. Carbamoyl aspartic acid B. Dihydroorotic acid
C. Orotic acid D. Orotidine monophosphate
(Ref. 1, p. 302)
46. Tetrahydrofolate is required as a coenzyme for the synthesis of:
A. UMP B. CMP
C. TMP D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 302)
47. All the following statements about thioredoxin reductase are
true except:
A. It requires NADH as a coenzyme
B. Its substrates are ADP, GDP, CDP and UDP
C. It is activated by ATP
D. It is inhibited by dADP (Ref. 1, p. 305)
48. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides is regulated by:
A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
B. Aspartate transcarbamoylase
49. Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate synthetase is inhibited by:
A. UTP B. CTP
C. PRPP D. TMP (Ref. 1, p. 306)
50. Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate synthetase is activated by:
A. Glutamine B. PRPP
C. ATP D. Aspartate (Ref. 1, p. 305)
51. Aspartate transcarbamoylase is inhibited by:
A. CTP B. PRPP
C. ATP D. TMP (Ref. 1, p. 305)
52. The following cannot be salvaged in human beings:
A. Cytidine B. Deoxycytidine
C. Cytosine D. Thymidine (Ref. 1, p. 304)
53. b-Aminoisobutyrate is formed from catabolism of:
C. Thymine D. Xanthine (Ref. 1, p. 308)
45 B 46 C 47 A 48 C 49 A 50 B 51 A 52 C 53 C
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54. Free ammonia is liberated during the catabolism of:

C. Thymine D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 308)
55. b-Alanine is formed from catabolism of:
A. Thymine
B. Thymine and cytosine
C. Thymine and uracil
D. Cytosine and uracil (Ref. 1, p. 308)
56. The following coenzyme is required for catabolism of pyrimi
dine bases:
A. NADH B. NADPH
C. FADH2 D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 308)
57. Purine overproduction can occur in:
A. Cori’s disease B. Pompe’s disease
C. Von Gierke’s disease D. Hers’ disease
(Ref. 1, p. 308)
58. The following abnormality in PRPP synthetase can cause
primary gout:
A. High Vmax
B. Low Km
C. Resistance to allosteric inhibition
59. All the following statements about primary gout are true
except:
A. Its inheritance is X-linked recessive
B. It can be due to increased activity of PRPP synthetase
C. It can be due to increased activity of hypoxanthine guanine
phosphoribosyl transferase
D. De novo synthesis of purines is increased in it
(Ref. 1, p. 308)
60. All the following statements about uric acid are true except:
A. It is a catabolite of purines
B. It is excreted by the kidneys
C. It is undissociated at pH above 5.8
D. It is less soluble than sodium urate (Ref. 1, p. 309)
54 D 55 D 56 B 57 C 58 D 59 C 60 C
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61. In partial deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl

transferase:
A. De novo synthesis of purine nucleotides is increased
B. Salvage of pyrimidines is decreased
C. Salvage of purines is increased
D. Synthesis of uric acid is decreased (Ref. 1, p. 308)
62. All the following statements about uric acid are true except:
A. It can be formed from allantoin
B. Formation of uric acid increases in gout
C. It has a pKa of 5.8
D. It is present in plasma mainly as monosodium urate
(Ref. 1, pp. 307, 309)
63. All the following statements about primary gout are true
except:
A. Uric acid stones may be formed in kidneys
B. Arthritis of small joints occurs commonly
C. Urinary excretion of uric acid is decreased
D. It is an X-linked recessive disease
(Ref. 2, pp. 394-396)
64. All the following statements about allopurinol are true
except:
A. It is a structural analog of uric acid
B. It can prevent uric acid stones in the kidneys
C. It increases the urinary excretion of xanthine and hypoxan
thine
D. It is a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase
(Ref. 2, p. 396)
65. Orotic aciduria can be controlled by:
A. Oral administration of orotic acid
B. Decreasing the dietary intake of orotic acid
C. Decreasing the dietary intake of pyrimidines
D. Oral administration of uridine (Ref. 1, p. 309)
66. All the following occur in orotic aciduria except:
A. Increased synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides
B. Increased excretion of orotic acid in urine
C. Decreased synthesis of cytidine triphosphate
D. Retardation of growth (Ref. 2, p. 400)
61 A 62 A 63 C 64 A 65 D 66 A
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67. Inherited deficiency of adenosine deaminase causes:

A. Hyperuricaemia and gout
B. Mental retardation
C. Immunodeficiency
D. Dwarfism (Ref. 1, p. 308)
68. Complete absence of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl
transferase causes:
A. Primary gout
B. Immunodeficiency
C. Uric acid stones
D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (Ref. 1, p. 308)
69. Increased urinary excretion of orotic acid can occur in
deficiency of:
A. Orotate phosphoribosyltransferase
B. OMP decarboxylase
C. Mitochondrial ornithine transcarbamoylase
D. Any of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 309)
70. All of the following can occur in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
except:
A. Gouty arthritis
B. Uric acid stones
C. Retarded growth
D. Self-mutilating behavior (Ref. 2, pp. 396-397)
71. Inherited deficiency of purine nucleoside phosphorylase
causes:
A. Dwarfism B. Mental retardation
C. Immunodeficiency D. Gout (Ref. 1, p. 308)
72. Deoxyribonucleotides are formed by reduction of:
A. Ribonucleosides
B. Ribonucleoside monophosphates
C. Ribonucleoside diphosphates
D. Ribonucleoside triphosphates (Ref. 1, p. 305)
73. An alternate substrate for orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
is:
A. Allopurinol B. Xanthine
C. Hypoxanthine D. Adenine (Ref. 1, p. 305)
67 C 68 D 69 D 70 C 71 C 72 C 73 A
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74. Mammals other than higher primates do not suffer from gout
because they:
A. Lack xanthine oxidase
B. Lack adenosine deaminase
C. Lack purine nucleoside phosphorylase
D. Possess uricase (Ref. 1, p. 307)
75. Hypouricemia can occur in:
A. Xanthine oxidase deficiency
B. Psoriasis
C. Leukemia
76. 5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is required for all of the
following except:
A. De novo synthesis of purine nucleotides
B. De novo synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides
C. Salvage of adenine
D. Salvage of cytosine
(Ref. 1, pp. 303, 305, 306)
77. An anticancer drug that acts by inhibiting nucleotide synthesis
is:
A. Allopurinol B. Methotrexate
C. a-Amanitin D. Azathioprine
(Ref. 1, pp. 304-305)
78. Phosphoribosyl transferases:
A. Use PRPP as one of the substrates
B. Transfer ribose-5-phosphate to nitrogenous bases
C. Are involved in salvage of purines
79. A superactive PRPP synthetase can cause:
A. Gout B. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
C. Immunodeficiency D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 307)
80. Uric acid is:
A. Formed from xanthine by xanthine oxidase
B. An allosteric inhibitor of xanthine oxidase
C. Excreted in bile
D. A metabolite of purines and pyrimidines (Ref. 1, p. 307)
74 D 75 A 76 D 77 B 78 D 79 A 80 A
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81. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) results

from deficiency of:
A. Adenosine kinase
B. Adenosine deaminase
C. Adenine phosphoribosyl transferase
D. HGPRT (Ref. 1, p. 308)
82. dUMP is converted into TMP by:
A. Methylation B. Carboxylation
C. Deamination D. Decarboxylation
(Ref. 1, p. 306)
83. Thioredoxin reductase is involved in the synthesis of:
A. Deoxynucleoside monophosphates from nucleoside mono
phosphates
B. Deoxynucleoside diphosphates from nucleoside diphos
phates
C. Deoxynucleoside triphosphates from nucleoside triphos
phates
84. Glutamine provide:
A. One nitrogen atom for the synthesis of ATP
B. One nitrogen atom for the synthesis of CTP
C. Two nitrogen atoms for the synthesis of CTP
(Ref. 1, p. 306)
85. All the following statements about adenine and guanine
nucleotides are correct except:
A. Their de novo synthesis occurs from a common intermediate
B. They are salvaged from free bases by a common enzyme
C. They are catabolized to a common end product
D. They occur in DNA as well as RNA
(Ref. 1, pp. 304, 305, 307, 311)
86. Purine nucleotides are synthesized de novo in human beings
from:
A. Hydrolysis of DNA
B. Hydrolysis of RNA
C. Amphibolic intermediates
81 B 82 A 83 B 84 C 85 B 86 C
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87. Purine nucleotides can be formed by:

A. De novo synthesis
B. Phosphoribosylation of purine bases
C. Phosphorylation of purine nucleosides
88. Deficiency of adenosine deaminase causes:
A. Primary gout B. Renal stones
C. Immunodeficiency D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
(Ref. 1, p. 308)
89. Deficiency of purine nucleoside phosphorylase:
A. Is an X-linked inherited disease
B. Causes immunodeficiency
C. Affects both T cells and B cells
D. Causes hyperuricaemia (Ref. 1, p. 308)
90. Renal lithiasis (stone formation) can occur in all the following
except:
A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
B. Adenosine phosphoribosyl transferase deficiency
C. Xanthine oxidase deficiency
D. Adenosine deaminase deficiency (Ref. 1, pp. 307-308)
91. Deficiency of xanthine oxidase causes:
A. Hyperuricaemia B. Hyperuricosuria
C. Xanthinuria D. All of the above (Ref. 1, p. 308)
92. Hyperuricaemia can occur due to all the following except:
A. Superactive PRPP synthetase
B. HGPRT deficiency
C. Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
D. Uricase deficiency (Ref. 1, pp. 307-308)
93. A pyrimidine nucleoside which is not catabolized further is:
A. Thymidine B. Cytidine
C. Uridine D. Pseudouridine
(Ref. 1, pp. 308-309)
94. Salvage of purines and their nucleosides is the major source of
purine nucleotides in:
A. Brain
B. Erythrocytes
C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
87 D 88 C 89 B 90 D 91 C 92 D 93 D 94 D
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95. All the following statements about hypoxanthine—guanine

phosphoribosyl transferase are correct except:
A. It is a salvage enzyme
B. It forms IMP and GMP
C. It is superactive in gout
D. It is absent in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
(Ref. 1, pp. 302, 307)
96. Deficiency of orotidylate (OMP) decarboxylase can cause:
A. Retardation of growth B. Immunodeficiency
C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, pp. 306-309)
97. Deficiency of orotate phosphoribosyl transferase and oroti
dylate decarboxylase can cause:
A. Retardation of growth B. Immunodeficiency
C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, pp. 306-309)
98. Urinary excretion of orotic acid may be increased in deficiency
of:
A. Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
B. Orotidylate decarboxylase
C. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
99. Deficiency of hepatic mitochondrial ornithine transcarba
moylase causes all the following except:
A. Decreased utilization of carbamoyl phosphate
B. Exit of carbamoyl phosphate to cytosol
C. Increased synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides
D. Megaloblastic anaemia (Ref. 1, pp. 304, 309)
100. Immunodeficiency can occur in all the following except:
A. Orotic aciduria, type I
B. Orotic aciduria, type II
C. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
D. Purine nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency
(Ref. 1, p. 309)
95 C 96 C 97 D 98 D 99 D 100 B
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Metabolism of
Nucleic Acids 14
1. Synthesis of DNA is also known as:
A. Duplication B. Replication
C. Transcription D. Translation (Ref. 1, p. 332)
2. Replication of DNA is:
A. Conservative B. Semiconservative
C. Nonconservative D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 524)
3. Direction of DNA synthesis is:
A. 5′ → 3′ B. 3′ → 5′
(Ref. 1, p. 335)
4. Formation of RNA primer:
A. Precedes replication B. Follows replication
C. Precedes transcription D. Follows transcription
(Ref. 1, p. 334)
5. Okazaki pieces are made up of:
A. RNA B. DNA
C. RNA and DNA D. RNA and proteins (Ref. 1, p. 335)
6. Okazaki pieces are formed during the synthesis of:
A. mRNA B. tRNA
C. rRNA D. DNA (Ref. 1, p. 335)
7. After formation of replication fork:
A. Both the new strands are synthesized discontinuously
B. One strand is synthesized continuously and the other
discontinuously
C. Both the new strands are synthesized continuously
D. RNA primer is required only for the synthesis of one new
strand(Ref. 2, pp. 524-525)
1 B 2 B 3 A 4 A 5 C 6 D 7 B
Metabolism of Nucleic Acids 149
8. Okazaki fragments are synthesized by:

A. Primase
B. Primase and DNA polymerase I
C. Primase and DNA polymerase III
D. Primase and DNA gyrase
(Ref. 2, p. 526)
9. RNA primer is formed by the enzyme:
A. Ribonuclease
B. Primase
C. DNA polymerase I
D. DNA polymerase III (Ref. 1, p. 334)
10. In RNA, the complementary base of adenine is:
A. Cytosine B. Guanine
C. Thymine D. Uracil
(Ref. 1, p. 314)
11. During eukaryotic replication, the template DNA is unwound:
A. At one of the ends
B. At both the ends
C. At multiple sites
D. Nowhere (Ref. 2, p. 524)
12. During replication, unwinding of double helix is initiated by:
A. dnaA protein B. dnaB protein
C. dnaC protein D. rep protein
(Ref. 1, p. 334)
13. For unwinding of double-helical DNA:
A. Energy is provided by ATP
B. Energy is provided by GTP
C. Energy can be provided by either ATP or GTP
D. No energy is required (Ref. 2, p. 525)
14. Helicase and dnaB protein cause:
A. Rewinding of DNA and require ATP as a source of energy
B. Rewinding of DNA but do not require any source of energy
C. Unwinding of DNA and require ATP as a source of energy
D. Unwinding of DNA but do not require any source of energy
(Ref. 2, p. 525)
8 C 9 B 10 D 11 C 12 B 13 A 14 C
15. The unwound strands of DNA are held apart by:

A. Single strand binding protein
B. Double strand binding protein
C. Rep protein
D. dnaA protein (Ref. 1, p. 335)
16. Deoxyribonucleotides are added to RNA primer by:
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase II
C. DNA polymerase III holoenzyme
17. Ribonucleotides of RNA primer are replaced by deoxyribonu
cleotides by the enzyme:
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase II
18. DNA fragments are sealed by:
A. DNA polymerase II
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA gyrase
D. DNA topoisomerase II (Ref. 1, p. 336)
19. The function performed by DNA gyrase in prokaryotes is
performed in eukaryotes by:
A. DNA polymerase a
B. DNA polymerase b
C. DNA topoisomerase II
D. Helicase (Ref. 2, p. 527)
20. Reverse transcriptase activity is present in the eukaryotic:
A. DNA polymerase a B. DNA polymerase g
C. Telomerase D. DNA polymerase II
(Ref. 2, p. 527)
21. DNA polymerase III holoenzyme possesses:
A. Polymerase activity
B. 3′ → 5′ Exonuclease activity
C. 5′ → 3′ Exonuclease and polymerase activities
D. 3′ → 5′ Exonuclease and polymerase activities
(Ref. 2, p. 526)
15 A 16 C 17 A 18 B 19 C 20 C 21 D
22. DNA polymerase I possesses:

A. Polymerase activity
B. 3′ → 5′ Exonuclease activity
C. 5′ → 3′ Exonuclease activity
23. 3′ → 5′ Exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I:
A. Removes ribonucleotides
B. Adds deoxyribonucleotides
C. Corrects errors in replication
D. Hydrolyzes DNA into mononucleotides (Ref. 2, p. 526)
24. All the following statements about RNA-dependent DNA
polymerase are true except:
A. It synthesizes DNA using RNA as a template
B. It is also known as reverse transcriptase
C. It synthesizes DNA in 5′ → 3′ direction
D. It is present in all the viruses (Ref. 2, p. 550)
25. Reverse transcriptase catalyses:
A. Synthesis of RNA B. Breakdown of RNA
C. Synthesis of DNA D. Breakdown of DNA
(Ref. 2, p. 550)
26. dna A protein can bind only to:
A. Positively supercoiled DNA
B. Negatively supercoiled DNA
C. Circular DNA
D. RNA primer (Ref. 2, p. 526)
27. DNA polymerase d synthesizes the:
A. Leading strand B. Lagging strand
C. RNA primer D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 527)
28. In mammalian cell cycle, synthesis of DNA occurs during:
A. S phase B. G1 phase
C. Mitotic phase D. G2 phase (Ref. 1, p. 341)
29. Melting temperature of DNA is the temperature at which:
A. Solid DNA becomes liquid
B. DNA is hydrolyzed into nucleotides
C. DNA changes from double helix into supercoiled DNA
D. Half of the helical structure of DNA is lost (Ref. 1, p. 313)
22 D 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 A 28 A 29 D
30. Melting temperature of DNA is increased by its:

A. A and T content B. G and C content
C. Sugar content D Phosphate content
(Ref. 1, p. 313)
31. When DNA melts, its:
A. Information content decreases
B. Optical absorbance increases
C. Function is lost
32. Relative proportions of G and C versus A and T in DNA can be
determined by its:
A. Sedimentation constant B. Relative density
C. Melting temperature D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 313)
33. Extranuclear DNA is present in:
A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosomes D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 331)
34. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase is present in:
A. Retroviruses B. DNA viruses
C. Bacteria D. Plasmids (Ref. 2, p. 550)
35. Synthesis of RNA from a DNA template is known as:
A. Replication B. Translation
C. Transcription D. Mutation (Ref. 1, p. 348)
36. Direction of RNA synthesis is:
A. 5′ → 3′ in eukaryotes B. 3′ → 5′ in prokaryotes
C. 3′ → 5′ in retroviruses D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 544)
37. Prokaryotic DNA-dependent RNA polymerase is a:
A. Monomer B. Dimer
C. Trimer D. Tetramer (Ref. 1, p. 349)
38. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase requires the following as its
substrates:
A. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
B. Deoxyribonucleoside monophosphates
C. Ribonucleoside triphosphates
D. Ribonucleoside monophosphates (Ref. 2, p. 544)
30 B 31 B 32 C 33 B 34 A 35 C 36 A 37 D 38 C
39. The initiation site for transcription is recognized by:

A. a-Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B. b-Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C. Sigma factor
D. Rho factor (Ref. 2, p. 544)
40. The termination site for transcription is recognized by:
A. a-Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B. b-Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C. Sigma factor
D. Rho factor (Ref. 1, p. 352)
41. Mammalian RNA polymerase I synthesizes:
A. mRNA B. rRNA
C. tRNA D. hnRNA (Ref. 2, p. 546)
42. Mammalian RNA polymerase III synthesizes:
A. rRNA B. mRNA
C. tRNA D. hnRNA (Ref. 2, p. 546)
43. In mammals, synthesis of mRNA is catalyzed by:
A. RNA polymerase I B. RNA polymerase II
C. RNA polymerase III D. RNA polymerase IV
(Ref. 2, p. 546)
44. Heterogeneous nuclear RNA is the precursor of:
A. mRNA B. rRNA
C. tRNA D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 316)
45. Post-transcriptional modification of hnRNA involves all of the
following except:
A. Addition of 7-methylguanosine triphosphate cap
B. Addition of polyadenylate tail
C. Insertion of nucleotides
D. Deletion of introns (Ref. 1, pp. 359-360)
46. Newly synthesized tRNA undergoes post-transcriptional
modifications which include all the following except:
A. Reduction in size
B. Methylation of some bases
C. Formation of pseudouridine
D. Addition of C-C-A terminus at 5′-end(Ref. 1, p. 364)
39 C 40 D 41 B 42 C 43 B 44 A 45 C 46 D
47. Post-transcriptional modification does not occur in:

A. Eukaryotic tRNA B. Prokaryotic tRNA
C. Eukaryotic hnRNA D. Prokaryotic mRNA
(Ref. 1, p. 359)
48. A consensus sequence on DNA, called TATA box, is the site for
attachment of:
A. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
D. DNA topoisomerase II (Ref. 1, p. 354)
49. Polyadenylate tail is not present in mRNA synthesizing:
A. Globin B. Histone
C. Apoferritin D. Growth hormone
(Ref. 1, p. 317)
50. Introns are present in DNA of:
A. Viruses B. Bacteria
C. Man D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 360)
51. A mammalian DNA polymerase among the following is:
A. DNA polymerase a
B. DNA polymerase I
C. DNA polymerase II
D. DNA polymerase IV (Ref. 2, p. 527)
52. Mammalian DNA polymerase g is located in:
A. Nucleus B. Nucleolus
C. Mitochondria D. Cytosol
(Ref. 2, p. 527)
53. Synthesis of lagging strand of DNA in mammals is catalyzed by:
A. DNA polymerase a B. DNA polymerase b
C. DNA polymerase g D. DNA polymerase III
(Ref. 2, p. 527)
54. Primase activity is present in:
A. DNA polymerase II
B. DNA polymerase a
C. DNA polymerase b
D. DNA polymerase d(Ref. 2, p. 527)
47 D 48 B 49 B 50 C 51 A 52 C 53 A 54 B
55. The mammalian DNA polymerase involved in error correction

is:
A. DNA polymerase a B. DNA polymerase b
C. DNA polymerase g D. DNA polymerase d
(Ref. 2, p. 527)
56. Of the total DNA in a cell, mitochondrial DNA is:
A. 1% B. 2%
C. 3% D. 4% (Ref. 1, p. 330)
57. Ciprofloxacin inhibits the synthesis of:
A. DNA B. mRNA
58. Ciprofloxacin inhibits:
A. DNA topoisomerase II B. DNA polymerase I
C. DNA polymerase III D. DNA gyrase
(Ref. 2, p. 528)
59. Rifampicin inhibits:
A. Unwinding of DNA B. Initiation of replication
C. Initiation of translation D. Initiation of transcription
(Ref. 2, p. 549)
60. Rifampicin inhibits:
A. Transcription in prokaryotes
B. Transcription in eukaryotes
C. Replication in prokaryotes
D. Replication in eukaryotes (Ref. 2, p. 549)
61. Xeroderma pigmentosum occurs due to a defect in:
A. Mismatch repair system
B. Base excision repair system
C. Nucleotide excision repair system
D. SOS repair system (Ref. 2, p. 538)
62. Introns in genes:
A. Encode the amino acids which are removed during post-
translational modification
B. Encode signal sequences which are removed before secretion
of the proteins
C. Are the noncoding sequences which are not translated
D. Are the sequences that intervene between two genes
(Ref. 1, p. 359)
55 B 56 A 57 A 58 D 59 D 60 A 61 C 62 C
63. All the following statements about post-transcriptional pro

cessing of tRNA are true except:
A. Introns of some tRNA precursors are removed
B. CCA is added at 3′ end
C. 7-Methylguanosine triphosphate cap is added at 5′ end
D. Some bases are methylated (Ref. 1, p. 364)
64. Prokaryotic DNA gyrase is inhibited by:
A. Mitomycin B. Daunorubicin
C. Ciprofloxacin D. Rifampicin (Ref. 2, p. 528)
65. Ciprofloxacin inhibits the synthesis of:
A. DNA in prokaryotes
B. DNA in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
C. RNA in prokaryotes
D. RNA in prokaryotes and eukaryotes (Ref. 2, p. 528)
66. All the following statements about bacterial promoters are true
except:
A. They are smaller than eukaryotic promoters
B. They have two consensus sequences upstream from the
transcription start site
C. TATA box is the site for attachment of RNA polymerase
D. TATA box has a high melting temperature
(Ref. 1, pp. 352-353)
67. All the following statements about eukaryotic promoters are
true except:
A. They may be located upstream or downstream from the
structural gene
B. They have two consensus sequences
C. One consensus sequence binds RNA polymerase
D. Mutations in promoter region can decrease the efficiency of
transcription of the structural gene
(Ref. 1, pp. 353-354)
68. In Sanger’s method of DNA sequence determination, DNA
synthesis is stopped by using:
A. 1′,2′-Dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
B. 2′,3′-Dideoxyribonucleoside diphosphates
C. 2′,4′-Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
D. 2′,5′-Deoxyribonucleoside diphosphates (Ref. 1, p. 411)
63 C 64 C 65 A 66 D 67 A 68 A
69. Length of bacterial promoters is about:

A. 10 bp B. 20 bp
C. 40 bp D. 80 bp (Ref. 1, p. 352)
70. All the following statements about rRNA are true except:
A. It is synthesized as a large precursor
B. It is processed in the nucleolus
C. It has no codons or anticodons
D. Genes for rRNA are present in single copies (Ref. 1, p. 362)
71. Melting temperature of DNA is affected by:
A. Its base composition
B. Concentration of monovalent cations in the solution
C. Formamide
72. In DNA, G – C bonding is stronger than A – T bonding because:
A. Three hydrogen bonds are present between G and C as
opposed to two between A and T
B. Bonding between G and C is covalent while that between A
and T is noncovalent
C. G and C do not have methyl groups
D. The glycosidic bond in G and C nucleosides has a syn
conformation(Ref. 1, pp. 312-313)
73. Circular double-stranded DNA:
A. Has no free 5′ and 3′ ends B. Has no polarity (direction)
C. Cannot be supercoiled D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 314)
74. All the following statements about topoisomerases are true
except:
A. They catalyze topological changes in DNA
B. They can introduce or relax supercoils in DNA
C. They can seal nicks in DNA
D. They are found only in prokaryotes (Ref. 1, p. 340)
75. Chromatin contains:
A. DNA and histones in roughly equal amounts
B. A small amount of nonhistone proteins
C. A small amount of RNA
69 C 70 D 71 D 72 A 73 A 74 D 75 D
76. Nuclear histones:

A. Are basic proteins
B. Form nucleosomes in which DNA is wrapped around a
histone octamer
C. Protect DNA from hydrolysis by nucleases
77. Transcriptionally inactive chromatin is:
A. Called euchromatin
B. Densely packed during interphase
C. Replicated earlier in the mammalian cell cycle
D. Found only in X chromosomes (Ref. 1, p. 324)
78. Cyclins:
A. Are circular DNA double helices
B. Are circular polypeptides
C. Are proteins that regulate cell cycle
D. Can undergo phosphorylation and dephosphorylation
(Ref. 1, p. 341)
79. The correct sequence of different phases of mammalian cell
cycle is:
A. Mitotic phase, G1 phase, S phase and G2 phase
B. S phase, G1 phase, mitotic phase and G2 phase
C. S phase, mitotic phase, G1 phase and G2 phase
D. Mitotic phase, S phase, G1 phase and G2 phase
(Ref. 1, p. 341)
80. All the following statements about cyclins are correct except:
A. They are cyclic nucleotides
B. Their concentrations vary in different phases of cell cycle
C. They regulate the progression of cell cycle from one phase to
the next
D. They activate cyclin-dependent protein kinases
(Ref. 1, p. 341)
81. An endonuclease hydrolyzes phosphodiester bonds:
A. At the 5′-end
B. At the 3′-end
C. In the interior of a nucleic acid
76 D 77 B 78 C 79 A 80 A 81 C
82. An exonuclease hydrolyzes phosphodiester bonds:

A. Of exogenous nucleic acids
B. Either at 5′-end or at 3′-end
C. At both the ends
D. Present in palindromic sequences (Ref. 1, p. 419)
83. A glycosylase is required in:
A. Mismatch repair of DNA
B. Base excision repair of DNA
C. Nucleotide excision repair of DNA
(Ref. 1, pp. 343-344)
84. GATC endonuclease is involved in:
85. DNA ligase is required in:
86. Mismatch repair of DNA:
A. Occurs only in eukaryotes
B. Occurs after the addition of every nucleotide during replication
C. Occurs after replication
D. Involves removal of methylated adenine bases
(Ref. 1, pp. 343-344)
87. Both the strands of DNA act as templates in:
A. Mismatch repair
B. Base excision repair
C. Nucleotide excision repair
88. Replication of DNA is:
A. Semiconservative B. Semidiscontinuous
C. Bidirectional D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 335)
82 B 83 B 84 A 85 D 86 C 87 D 88 D
89. The function of SSB proteins in replication is to:

A. Identify the origin of replication (ori)
B. Relax the supercoils
C. Unwind DNA
D. Maintain DNA is unwound state after strand separation
(Ref. 1, p. 334)
90. RNA primer:
A. Is formed in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes
B. Primes replication of lagging strand but not the leading
strand
C. Contains ribothymidine instead of ribouridine
D. None of the above (Ref. 1, p. 334-335)
91. RNA primer is replaced by deoxyribonucleotides after the:
A. Addition of the first deoxyribonucleotide to the primer
B. Formation of each Okazaki fragment
C. Formation of several Okazaki fragments
D. Complete replication of both the strands (Ref. 1, p. 335)
92. Enhancer elements:
A. Are the sites on DNA where RNA polymerase binds
B. May be upstream or downstream from the gene regulated
C. May be present on the same chromosome on which the
regulated gene is present or on a different chromosome
D. Are identified by the sigma factor (Ref. 1, p. 353)
93. During transcription, unwinding of DNA is catalyzed by:
A. Sigma factor B. RNA polymerase
C. Helicase D. Rho factor (Ref. 1, p. 349)
94. In eukaryotes, the transcription factor that binds to TATA box
is:
A. TF II A B. TF II B
C. TF II C D. TF II D (Ref. 1, p. 354)
95. All the following statements about eukaryotic transcription
are true except:
A. TATA box is present upstream of every gene
B. TATA box has a low melting temperature
C. Transcription Factor II D (TF II D) binds to TATA box
D. TF II D consists of TATA-binding protein (TBP) and TBP-
associated factors (TAFs) (Ref. 1, pp. 354-355)
89 D 90 D 91 C 92 B 93 B 94 D 95 A
96. Intestinal apolipoprotein B is shorter than hepatic apolipo

protein B because:
A. It is encoded by a different gene
B. It is spliced in a different way
C. RNA editing changes a sense codon into a nonsense codon
D. It is cleaved after translation (Ref. 1, p. 363)
97. The first event in post-transcriptional modification of hnRNA
is:
A. Addition of 7-methyl GTP cap
B. Addition of poly-A tail
C. Removal of introns and splicing
98. Enhancer elements possess all the following properties except:
A. They can work when located long distance from the promoter
B. They may be upstream or downstream from the promoter
C. They act on promoters located on the same DNA molecule
D. They act on specific promoters (Ref. 1, pp. 389-390)
99. Promoters and enhancers have the following similarity:
A. They are specific for the genes they influence
B. They influence genes located on the same DNA molecule
C. They are located upstream from the genes they influence
D. They may be located a long distance away from the genes they
influence(Ref. 1, p. 389)
100. The proteins that regulate gene expression must:
A. Possess leucine zipper motif or zinc finger motif
B. Possess a recognition domain and a domain that affects the
transcription apparatus
C. Bind to the promoter with high affinity
D. Bind to the promoter with high specificity
(Ref. 1, pp. 396-399)
96 C 97 A 98 D 99 B 100 B
Genetic Code and
Protein Synthesis 15
1. Anticodons are present on:
A. Coding strand of DNA B. mRNA
2. Codons are present on:
A. Noncoding strand of DNA B. hnRNA
C. tRNA D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 366)
3. Nonsense codons are present on:
A. mRNA B. tRNA
C. rRNA D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 366)
4. Genetic code is said to be degenerate because:
A. It can undergo mutations
B. A large proportion of DNA is noncoding
C. One codon can code for more than one amino acids
D. More than one codons can code for the same amino acid
(Ref. 1, p. 366)
5. All the following statements about genetic code are correct
except:
A. It is degenerate B. It is unambiguous
C. It is nearly universal D. It is overlapping
(Ref. 1, p. 366)
6. All the following statements about nonsense codons are true
except:
A. They do not code for amino acids
B. They act as chain termination signals
C. They are identical in nuclear and mitochondrial DNA
D. They have no complementary anticodons (Ref. 1, p. 366)
1 C 2 B 3 A 4 D 5 D 6 C
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Genetic Code and Protein Synthesis 163
7. A polycistronic mRNA can be seen in:

A. Prokaryotes B. Eukaryotes
(Ref. 1, p. 382)
8. Noncoding sequences are present in the genes of:
A. Bacteria B. Viruses
C. Eukaryotes D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 403)
9. Noncoding sequences in a gene are known as:
A. Cistrons B. Nonsense codons
C. Introns D. Exons (Ref. 1, p. 403)
10. Splice sites are present in:
A. Prokaryotic mRNA B. Eukaryotic mRNA
C. Eukaryotic hnRNA D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 403)
11. The common features of introns include all the following
except:
A. The base sequence begins with GU
B. The base sequence ends with AG
C. The terminal AG sequence is preceded by a purine-rich tract of
ten nucleotides
D. An adenosine residue in branch site participates in splicing
(Ref. 1, p. 361)
12. A spliceosome contains all the following except:
A. hnRNA B. snRNAs
C. Some proteins D. Ribosome (Ref. 1, p. 360)
13. Splicing is:
A. Removal of introns and joining of exons
B. Removal of exons and joining of introns
C. Addition of 7-methylguanosine triphosphate cap
D. Addition of poly-A tail (Ref. 1, p. 420)
14. Pribnow box is present in:
A. Prokaryotic promoters B. Eukaryotic promoters
15. Hogness box is present in:
A. Prokaryotic promoters B. Eukaryotic promoters
7 A 8 C 9 C 10 C 11 C 12 D 13 A 14 A 15 B
Ch 15.indd 163 01-09-2015 16:53:49

16. CAAT box is present in many:

A. Prokaryotic promoters upstream of TATA box
B. Prokaryotic promoters downstream of TATA box
C. Eukaryotic promoters upstream of TATA box
D. Eukaryotic promoters downstream of TATA box
(Ref. 1, pp. 354-355)
17. Most of the eukaryotic promoters contain a:
A. TATA box about 10 bp and a CAAT box about 25 bp upstream
of the transcription start site
B. CAAT box about 10 bp and a TATA box about 25 bp upstream
C. TATA box about 25 bp and a CAAT box about 75 bp upstream
D. CAAT box about 25 bp and a TATA box about 75 bp upstream
of the transcription start site (Ref. 2, p. 547)
18. All the following statements about tRNA are correct except:
A. A given tRNA can be charged with only one particular amino
acid
B. The amino acid is recognized by the anticodon of tRNA
C. The amino acid is attached to 3′ end of tRNA
D. The anticodon of tRNA finds the complementary codon on
mRNA(Ref. 1, p. 366)
19. All the following statements about charging of tRNA are correct
except:
A. It is catalyzed by amino acyl tRNA synthetase
B. ATP is converted into ADP and Pi in this reaction
C. The enzyme recognizes the tRNA and the amino acid
D. There is a separate enzyme for each tRNA
(Ref. 1, p. 367)
20. All the following statements about recognition of a codon on
mRNA by an anticodon on tRNA are correct except:
A. The recognition of the third base of the codon is not very
precise
B. Imprecise recognition of the third base results in wobble
C. More than one codons can be recognized by an anticodon due
to wobble
D. Wobble results in incorporation of incorrect amino acids in
the protein (Ref. 1, p. 367)
16 C 17 C 18 B 19 B 20 D
Ch 15.indd 164 01-09-2015 16:53:49

21. The first amino acyl tRNA which initiates translation in

eukaryotes is:
A. Methionyl tRNA B. Formylmethionyl tRNA
C. Tyrosinyl tRNA D. Alanyl tRNA
(Ref. 1, p. 372)
22. The first amino acyl tRNA which initiates translation in
prokaryotes is:
A. Methionyl tRNA B. Formylmethionyl tRNA
C. Tyrosinyl tRNA D. Alanyl tRNA
(Ref. 2, p. 557)
23. In eukaryotes, the 40 S preinitiation complex contains all the
following initiation factors except:
A. eIF-1A B. eIF-2
C. eIF-3 D. eIF-4F (Ref. 1, p. 372)
24. Eukaryotic initiation factors 4A, 4B and 4F bind to:
A. 40 S ribosomal subunit
B. 60 S ribosomal subunit
C. mRNA
D. Amino acyl tRNA (Ref. 1, p. 372)
25. The codon which serves as translation start signal is:
A. AUG B. UAG
C. UGA D. UAA (Ref. 1, p. 372)
26. The first amino acyl tRNA approaches 40 S ribosomal subunit
in association with:
A. eIF-1A and GTP B. eIF-2 and GTP
C. eIF-2C and GTP D. eIF-3 and GTP
(Ref. 1, p. 372)
27. eIF-1A and eIF-3 are required:
A. For binding of amino acyl tRNA to 40 S ribosomal subunit
B. For binding of mRNA to 40 S ribosomal subunit
C. For binding of 60 S subunit to 40 S subunit
D. To prevent binding of 60 S subunit to 40 S subunit
(Ref. 1, p. 372)
28. eIF-4A possesses:
A. ATPase activity B. GTPase activity
C. Helicase activity D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 372)
21 A 22 B 23 D 24 C 25 A 26 B 27 D 28 A
Ch 15.indd 165 01-09-2015 16:53:49

29. eIF-4B:
A. Binds to chain initiation codon on mRNA
B. Binds to 3′ end of mRNA
C. Binds to 5′ end of mRNA
D. Unwinds mRNA near its 5′ end (Ref. 1, p. 372)
30. Peptidyl transferase activity is present in:
A. 40 S ribosomal subunit B. 60 S ribosomal subunit
C. eEF-2 D Amino acyl tRNA
(Ref. 1, p. 374)
31. After formation of a peptide bond, mRNA is translocated along
the ribosome by:
A. eEF-1 and GTP
B. eEF-2 and GTP
C. Peptidyl transferase and GTP
D. Peptidyl transferase and ATP (Ref. 1, p. 375)
32. Initiation of translation in prokaryotes is inhibited by:
A. Streptomycin B. Chloramphenicol
C. Erythromycin D. Mitomycin (Ref. 2, p. 560)
33. Tetracyclines inhibit binding of amino acyl tRNAs to:
A. 30 S ribosomal subunits B. 40 S ribosomal subunits
C. 50 S ribosomal subunits D. 60 S ribosomal subunits
(Ref. 1, p. 378)
34. Peptidyl transferase activity of 50 S ribosomal subunits is
inhibited by:
A. Rifampicin B. Cycloheximide
C. Chloramphenicol D. Erythromycin
(Ref. 1, p. 378)
35. Erythromycin binds to 50 S ribosomal subunit and:
A. Inhibits binding of amino acyl tRNA
B. Inhibits peptidyl transferase activity
C. Inhibits translocation
D. Causes premature chain termination (Ref. 2, p. 560)
36. Puromycin causes premature chain termination during:
A. Prokaryotic replication
B. Prokaryotic transcription
C. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic replication
D. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription (Ref. 1, p. 378)
29 D 30 B 31 B 32 A 33 A 34 C 35 C 36 C
Ch 15.indd 166 01-09-2015 16:53:50

37. Diphtheria toxin inhibits:

A. Prokaryotic EF-1 B. Prokaryotic EF-2
C. Eukaryotic EF-1 D. Eukaryotic EF-2
(Ref. 1, p. 379)
38. The proteins destined to be transported out of the cell have all
the following features except:
A. They possess a signal sequence
B. Ribosomes synthesizing them are bound to endoplasmic
reticulum
C. After synthesis, they are delivered into Golgi apparatus
D. They are tagged with ubiquitin
(Ref. 1, p. 517)
39. SRP receptors involved in protein export are present on:
A. Ribosomes
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Cell membrane (Ref. 1, p. 512)
40. The signal sequence of proteins is cleaved off:
A. On the ribosomes immediately after synthesis
B. In the endoplasmic reticulum
C. During processing in Golgi apparatus
D. During passage through the cell membrane
(Ref. 1, p. 512)
41. Ubiquitin binding destines a protein:
A. To nucleus B. For destruction
C. To mitochondria D. For export
(Ref. 1, p. 517)
42. Besides structural genes that encode proteins, DNA contains
some regulatory sequences which are known as:
A. Operons B. Cistrons
C. cis-Acting elements D. trans-Acting factors
(Ref. 1, p. 355)
43. Inducers and repressors are:
A. Enhancer and silencer elements respectively
B. trans-Acting factors
C. cis-Acting elements
D. Regulatory proteins (Ref. 1, p. 382)
37 D 38 D 39 B 40 B 41 B 42 C 43 B
Ch 15.indd 167 01-09-2015 16:53:50

44. cis-Acting elements include:

A. Steroid hormones
B. Calcitriol
C. Histones
D. Enhancers (Ref. 1, p. 355)
45. Enhancer elements:
A. Are trans-acting factors
B. Are present between promoters and the structural genes
C. Increase the expression of some structural genes
D. Encode specific enhancer proteins (Ref. 1, p. 391)
46. trans-Acting factors include:
A. Promoters B. Repressors
C. Enhancers D. Silencers (Ref. 1, p. 390)
47. Enhancer elements have all the following features except:
A. They increase gene expression through a promoter
B. Each enhancer activates a specific promoter
C. They may be located far away from the promoter
D. They may be upstream or downstream from the promoter
(Ref. 1, p. 390)
48. Amplification of dihydrofolate reductase gene may be brought
about by:
A. High concentrations of folic acid
B. Deficiency of folic acid
C. Low concentrations of thymidylate
D. Methotrexate (Ref. 1, p. 399)
49. Proteins which interact with DNA and affect the rate of trans
cription possess the following structural motif:
A. Helix-turn-helix motif
B. Zinc finger motif
C. Leucine zipper motif
50. Lac operon is a cluster of genes present in:
A. Human beings B. E. coli
C. Lambda phage D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 382)
44 D 45 C 46 B 47 B 48 D 49 D 50 B
Ch 15.indd 168 01-09-2015 16:53:50

51. Lac operon is a cluster of:

A. Three structural genes
B. Three structural genes and their promoter
C. A regulatory gene, an operator and a promoter
D. A regulatory gene, an operator, a promoter and three structural
genes(Ref. 1, p. 382)
52. The regulatory i gene of lac operon:
A. Is inhibited by lactose
B. Is inhibited by its own product, the repressor protein
C. Forms a regulatory protein which increases the expression of
downstream structural genes
D. Is constitutively expressed (Ref. 1, p. 384)
53. RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to lac operon at the
following site:
A. i gene B. z gene
C. Operator locus D. Promoter region
(Ref. 1, p. 383)
54. Transcription of z, y and a genes of lac operon is prevented by:
A. Lactose B. Allo-lactose
C. Repressor D. cAMP (Ref. 1, p. 383)
55. Transcription of structural genes of lac operon is prevented by
binding of the repressor tetramer to:
A. i gene B. Operator locus
C. Promoter D. z gene (Ref. 1, p. 382)
56. The enzymes encoded by z, y and a genes of lac operon are
inducible, and their inducer is:
A. Lactose
B. Cyclic AMP
C. Catabolite gene activator protein
57. Binding of RNA polymerase holoenzyme to the promoter
region of lac operon is facilitated by:
A. Catabolite gene activator protein (CAP)
B. cAMP
C. CAP-cAMP complex
51 D 52 D 53 D 54 C 55 B 56 A 57 C
Ch 15.indd 169 01-09-2015 16:53:50

58. Lactose or its analogues act as positive regulators of lac

operon by:
A. Attaching to i gene and preventing its expression
B. Increasing the synthesis of catabolite gene activator protein
C. Attaching to promoter region and facilitating the binding of
RNA polymerase holoenzyme
D. Binding to repressor subunits so that the repressor cannot
attach to the operator locus
(Ref. 1, p. 382)
59. Expression of structural genes of lac operon is affected by all of
A. Lactose or its analogues B. Repressor tetramer
C. cAMP D. CAP-cAMP complex
(Ref. 1, p. 382)
60. The coding sequences in lac operon include:
A. i gene
B. i gene, operator locus and promoter
C. z, y and a genes
D. i, z, y and a genes (Ref. 1, p. 383)
61. Mutations can be caused by:
A. Ultraviolet radiation B. Ionizing radiation
C. Alkylating agents D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 343)
62. Mutations can be caused by:
A. Base analogues B. Free radicals
C. Deaminating agents D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 343)
63. Deaminating agents can change:
A. Cytosine to uracil
B. Hypoxanthine to adenine
C. Xanthine to guanine
64. Exposure of DNA to ultraviolet radiation can lead to the
formation of:
A. Adenine dimers B. Guanine dimers
C. Thymine dimers D. Uracil dimers
(Ref. 1, p. 343)
58 D 59 C 60 D 61 D 62 D 63 A 64 C
Ch 15.indd 170 01-09-2015 16:53:50

65. Damage to DNA caused by ultraviolet radiation is repaired by:

A. An excinuclease
B. DNA polymerase
C. DNA ligase
D. All the three acting sequentially
(Ref. 1, p. 345)
66. Xeroderma pigmentosum results from a defect in:
A. Excinuclease that removes pyrimidine dimers
B. DNA polymerase b
C. DNA ligase
67. All the following statements about xeroderma pigmentosum
are true except:
A. It is a genetic disease
B. Its inheritance is autosomal dominant
C. Excinuclease that removes pyrimidine dimers is defective in
this disease
D. It results in multiple skin cancers
(Ref. 1, p. 345)
68. Substitution of an adenine base by guanine in DNA is known as:
A. Transposition B. Transition
C. Transversion D. Frameshift mutation
(Ref. 1, p. 368)
69. Substitution of a thymine base by adenine in DNA is known as:
A. Transposition B. Transition
C. Transversion D. Frameshift mutation
(Ref. 1, p. 368)
70. A point mutation results from:
A. Substitution of a base B. Insertion of a base
C. Deletion of a base D. Any of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 368)
71. Substitution of a base can result in a:
A. Silent mutation
B. Missense mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Any of the above (Ref. 1, pp. 368-370)
65 D 66 A 67 B 68 B 69 C 70 A 71 D
Ch 15.indd 171 01-09-2015 16:53:50

72. A silent mutation is most likely to result from:

A. Substitution of the first base of a codon
B. Substitution of the third base of a codon
C. Conversion of a nonsense codon into a sense codon
D. Conversion of a sense codon into a nonsense codon
(Ref. 1, p. 368)
73. The effect of a missense mutation can be:
A. Acceptable B. Partially acceptable
C. Unacceptable D. Any of the above
(Ref. 1, pp. 369-370)
74. Amino acid sequence of the encoded protein is not changed in:
A. Silent mutation
B. Acceptable missense mutation
C. Partially acceptable missense mutation
D. Unacceptable missense mutation (Ref. 1, pp. 368-370)
75. Hemoglobin S is an example of a/an:
A. Silent mutation
C. Unacceptable missense mutation
D. Partially acceptable missense mutation (Ref. 1, p. 369)
76. If the codon UAC on mRNA changes into UAG as a result of a
base substitution in DNA, it will result in:
A. Silent mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Frameshift mutation (Ref. 1, p. 368)
77. Insertion of a base in a gene can cause:
A. Change in reading frame
B. Garbled amino acid sequence in the encoded protein
C. Premature termination of translation
78. A frameshift mutation changes the reading frame because the
genetic code:
A. Is degenerate B. Is overlapping
C. Has no punctuations D. Is universal
(Ref. 1, p. 370)
72 B 73 D 74 A 75 D 76 C 77 D 78 C
Ch 15.indd 172 01-09-2015 16:53:50

79. Suppressor mutations occur in:

A. Structural genes B. Promoter regions
C. Silencer elements D. Anticodons of tRNA
(Ref. 1, p. 370)
80. Suppressor tRNAs can neutralize the effects of mutations in:
A. Structural genes
B. Promoter regions
C. Enhancer elements
81. Mutations in promoter regions of genes can cause:
A. Premature termination of translation
B. Change in reading frame of downstream structural gene
C. Decreased efficiency of transcription
82. Eukaryotic protein synthesis is inhibited by:
A. Tetracyclins B. Cycloheximide
C. Chloramphenicol D. Erythromycin
(Ref. 1, p. 378)
83. All the following statements about puromycin are true except:
A. It is an alanyl tRNA analogue
B. It causes premature termination of protein synthesis
C. It inhibits protein synthesis in prokaryotes
D. It inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotes
(Ref. 1, p. 378)
84. Leucine zipper motif is seen in some helical proteins when
leucine residues appear at every:
A. Third position B. Fifth position
C. Seventh position D. Ninth position
(Ref. 1, p. 396)
85. Zinc finger motif is formed in some proteins by binding of
zinc to:
A. Two cysteine residues
B. Two histidine residues
C. Two arginine residues
D. Two cysteine and two histidine residues or two pairs of two
cysteine residues each (Ref. 1, p. 396)
79 D 80 A 81 C 82 B 83 A 84 C 85 D
Ch 15.indd 173 01-09-2015 16:53:50

86. Genetic code is identical in all the following except:

A. Nuclear DNA
B. Mitochondrial DNA
C. Bacterial DNA
D. Viral DNA (Ref. 1, p. 366)
87. Genetic code is said to be unambiguous because:
A. It is universal in all living organisms
B. The same four bases form codons in all living organisms
C. A codon codes for only one amino acid
D. Each amino acid is encoded by a single codon
(Ref. 1, p. 366)
88. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited from:
A. Father
B. Mother
C. Either of the above
D. Both of the above (Ref. 1, p. 330)
89. Deletion of a single base from a structural gene can cause the
following abnormality in the encoded protein:
A. Garbled amino acid sequence
B. An abnormally small protein
C. An abnormally large protein
90. After formation of the initiation complex in eukaryotes:
A. Methionyl tRNA occupies the A site on the ribosome
B. 7-Methylguanosine triphosphate cap is split off
C. Poly-A tail is split off
91. All of the following are required for initiation of translation in
eukaryotes except:
A. mRNA B. Formylmethionyl tRNA
C. GTP D. Ribosome (Ref. 1, p. 372)
92. All of the following are required for initiation of translation in
prokaryotes except:
A. hnRNA
B. Formylmethionyl tRNA
C. GTP
D. Ribosome (Ref. 1, pp. 371-372)
86 B 87 C 88 B 89 D 90 D 91 B 92 A
Ch 15.indd 174 01-09-2015 16:53:50

93. The following can inhibit initiation of translation in

prokaryotes:
A. Streptomycin B. Chloramphenicol
C. Erythromycin D. Puromycin
(Ref. 2, p. 560)
94. Signal peptidase is present in:
A. Nucleus B. Mitochondria
C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Lysosomes (Ref. 1, p. 512)
95. The number of high-energy phosphate bonds spent for the
formation of each peptide bond of proteins is:
A. One B. Two
96. All the following statements about elongation are true except:
A. The new incoming amino acyl tRNA occupies the A site on the
ribosome
B. A peptide bond is formed between the carboxyl group of the
new amino acid and the amino group of the last amino acid
C. No energy is spent in forming the peptide bond
D. Formation of peptide bond is catalyzed by a ribozyme
(Ref. 1, pp. 374-375)
97. All the following statements about eukaryotic translation are
true except:
A. Translation begins with methionine
B. There is only one codon for methionine
C. There is only one tRNA for methionine for initiating translation
and for adding internal methionine residues in the protein
D. In mitochondrial DNA, the codon for methionine is different
from that in nuclear DNA (Ref. 1, pp. 330, 372)
98. All the following statements about eukaryotic peptidyl trans
ferase are true except:
A. It is present in the 60S ribosomal subunit
B. It is a ribozyme
C. It hydrolyzes GTP into GDP and Pi for forming the peptide
bond
D. It is inhibited by cycloheximide
(Ref. 1, pp. 374, 375, 378)
93 A 94 C 95 D 96 B 97 C 98 C
Ch 15.indd 175 01-09-2015 16:53:50

99. Diphtheria toxin inhibits:

A. Initiation of protein synthesis
B. Elongation of protein being synthesized
C. Insertion of protein into endoplasmic reticulum
D. Transport of protein out of the cell (Ref. 1, p. 378)
100. The following component targets the proteins to lysosomes:
A. Signal peptide
B. KDEL sequence
C. Mannose-6-phosphate
D. Sialic acid (Ref. 1, p. 515)
99 B 100 C
Ch 15.indd 176 01-09-2015 16:53:50

Recombinant DNA
Technology 16
1. Restriction endonucleases are present in:
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Eukaryotes
2. Restriction endonucleases split:
A. RNA
B. Single-stranded DNA
C. Double-stranded DNA
D. DNA-RNA hybrids (Ref. 1, p. 403)
3. Restriction endonucleases can recognize:
A. Palindromic sequences
B. Chimeric DNA
C. DNA-RNA hybrids
D. Homopolymer sequences (Ref. 1, p. 404)
4. All of the following statements about restriction endonucleases
are true except:
A. They are present in bacteria
B. They act on double-stranded DNA
C. They recognize palindromic sequences
D. They always produce sticky ends (Ref. 1, p. 404)
5. The following is a palindromic sequence:
A. 5′—GGGGGG—3′ B. 5′—ATGCAG—3′
3′—CCCCCC—5′ 3′—TACGTC—5′
C. 5′—GGCGCC—3′ D. 5′—CGAAGC—3′
3′—CCGCGG—5′ 3′—GCTTCG—5′
(Ref. 1, p. 405)
1 B 2 C 3 A 4 D 5 C
Ch 16.indd 177 01-09-2015 16:53:32

6. In sticky ends produced by restriction endonucleases:

A. The two strands of DNA are joined to each other
B. The DNA strands stick to the restriction endonuclease
C. The ends of a double-stranded fragment are overlapping
D. The ends of a double-stranded fragment are nonoverlapping
(Ref. 1, p. 404)
7. All of the following may be used as expression vectors except:
A. Plasmid B. Bacteriophage
C. Baculovirus D. E. coli
(Ref. 2, p. 582)
8. A plasmid is a:
A. Single-stranded linear DNA
B. Single-stranded circular DNA
C. Double-stranded linear DNA
D. Double-stranded circular DNA (Ref. 1, p. 406)
9. Fragments of DNA can be identified by the technique of:
A. Western blotting B. Eastern blotting
C. Northern blotting D. Southern blotting
(Ref. 1, p. 409)
10. A particular RNA in a mixture can be identified by:
A. Western blotting B. Eastern blotting
C. Northern blotting D. Southern blotting
(Ref. 1, p. 409)
11. A radioactive isotope labelled cDNA probe is used in:
A. Southern blotting
B. Northern blotting
12. An antibody probe is used in:
A. Southern blotting B. Northern blotting
C. Western blotting D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 409)
13. A particular protein in a mixture can be detected by:
A. Southern blotting B. Northern blotting
C. Western blotting D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 589)
6 C 7 D 8 D 9 D 10 C 11 C 12 C 13 C
Ch 16.indd 178 01-09-2015 16:53:32

Recombinant DNA Technology 179
14. The first protein synthesized by recombinant DNA technology

was:
A. Streptokinase
B. Human growth hormone
C. Tissue plasminogen activator
D. Human insulin (Ref. 1, p. 412)
15. For production of a eukaryotic protein by recombinant DNA
technology in bacteria, the template used is:
A. Eukaryotic gene B. hnRNA
C. mRNA D. Any of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 318)
16. Trials for gene therapy in human beings were first carried out,
with considerable success, in a genetic disease called:
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Thalassemia
C. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (Ref. 2, p. 628)
17. Chimeric DNA:
A. Is found in bacteriophages
B. Contains unrelated genes
C. Has no restriction sites
D. Is palindromic (Ref. 2, p. 579)
18. The following may be used as a cloning vector:
A. Prokaryotic plasmid B. Lambda phage
C. Cosmid D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 406)
19. All the following statements about plasmids are true except:
A. They have got restriction sites
B. They can be used as cloning vectors
C. They have no antibiotic-resistance genes
D. They can replicate autonomously
(Ref. 1, p. 406)
20. Lambda phage can be used to clone DNA fragments of the size:
A. Up to 3 kilobases B. Up to 20 kilobases
C. Up to 45 kilobases D. Up to 1,000 kilobases
(Ref. 1, p. 407)
14 D 15 C 16 C 17 B 18 D 19 C 20 B
Ch 16.indd 179 01-09-2015 16:53:32

21. Cosmids can be used to clone DNA fragments of the size:

A. 1,000 kb B. 100 kb
C. 45 kb D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 583)
22. A cosmid is a:
A. Large bacterial plasmid
B. Viral plasmid
C. Hybrid of plasmid and phage
D. Yeast plasmid (Ref. 2, p. 583)
23. Polymerase chain reaction can rapidly amplify DNA sequences
of the size:
A. Up to 10 kilobases B. Up to 45 kilobases
C. Up to 100 kilobases D. Up to 1,000 kilobases
(Ref. 1, p. 410)
24. The DNA polymerase commonly used in polymerase chain
reaction is obtained from:
A. E. coli B. Yeast
C. Thermus aquaticus D. Eukaryotes (Ref. 1, p. 411)
25. Base sequence of DNA can be determined by:
A. Southern blotting
B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Sanger’s dideoxy method
D. Ames assay (Ref. 1, p. 410)
26. From a DNA-RNA hybrid, DNA can be obtained by addition of:
A. DNA B protein and ATP B. Helicase and ATP
C. DNA topoisomerase I D. Alkali (Ref. 1, p. 314)
27. Optimum temperature of DNA polymerase of T. aquaticus is:
A. 30°C B. 37°C
C. 54°C D. 72°C (Ref. 1, p. 411)
28. In addition to Taq polymerase, polymerase chain reaction
requires all of the following except:
A. A template DNA
B. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
C. Primers
D. Primase (Ref. 2, p. 595)
21 C 22 C 23 A 24 C 25 C 26 D 27 D 28 D
Ch 16.indd 180 01-09-2015 16:53:32

29. DNA polymerase of T. aquaticus is preferred to that of E. coli

in PCR because:
A. It replicates DNA more efficiently
B. It does not require primers
C. It is not denatured at the temperature at which the DNA
strands separate
D. It does not cause errors in replication (Ref. 1, p. 411)
30. Twenty cycles of PCR can amplify DNA:
A. Nearly a million fold
B. Nearly a billion fold
C. 20 × 2 fold
D. 20 fold (Ref. 2, p. 594)
31. Transgenic animals may be prepared by introducing a foreign
gene into:
A. Somatic cells of young animals
B. Testes and ovaries of animals
C. A viral vector and infecting the animals with the viral vector
D. Fertilized egg and implanting the egg into a foster mother
(Ref. 1, p. 417)
32. DNA fragments of 1,000 kb can be cloned with the vector:
A. Bacterial plasmid
B. Lambda phage
C. Cosmid
D. Yeast artificial chromosome (Ref. 2, p. 583)
33. DNA finger printing is based on the presence in DNA of:
A. Constant number of tandem repeats
B. Variable number of tandem repeats
C. Nonrepetitive sequences in each DNA
D. Introns in eukaryotic DNA (Ref. 1, p. 419)
34. All the following statements about restriction fragment length
polymorphism are true except:
A. It results from mutations in restriction sites
B. Mutations in restriction sites can occur in coding or non-
coding regions of DNA
C. It is inherited in Mendelian fashion
D. It can be used to diagnose any genetic disease
(Ref. 1, p. 415)
29 C 30 A 31 D 32 D 33 B 34 D
Ch 16.indd 181 01-09-2015 16:53:33

35. Terminal transferase:

A. Removes nucleotides from 3′ end
B. Adds nucleotides at 3′ end
C. Removes nucleotides from 5′ end
D. Adds nucleotides at 5′ end (Ref. 1, p. 406)
36. S 1 nuclease hydrolyzes:
A. DNA of somatic cells
B. DNA of sperms
C. Any double stranded DNA
D. Any single stranded DNA (Ref. 1, p. 406)
37. A particular segment of DNA can be clipped out by using:
A. Polymerase chain reaction
B. Deoxyribonuclease
C. Restriction endonucleases
D. Cosmids (Ref. 1, p. 403)
38. A vector carrying DNA for the purpose of protein synthesis in
the host cell is called as:
A. Cloning vector
B. Expression vector
C. Restriction vector
D. Translation vector (Ref. 1, p. 409)
39. Recombinant DNA cannot be prepared without:
A. Plasmids
B. Restriction enzymes producing sticky ends
D. DNA ligase (Ref. 1, p. 405)
40. When a DNA molecule is treated with a particular restriction
endonuclease, it is split into:
A. Two fragments having identical base sequences at the split
ends
B. Two fragments having different base sequences at the split
ends
C. Many fragments having identical base sequences at the split
ends
D. Many fragments having different base sequences at the split
ends(Ref. 1, p. 404)
35 B 36 D 37 C 38 B 39 D 40 C
Ch 16.indd 182 01-09-2015 16:53:33

41. The function of plasmids in a bacterium is to:

A. Enable the bacterium to infect other cells easily
B. Destroy viruses that have entered the bacterial cell
C. Provide antibiotic resistance to the bacterium
D. Help the bacterium to multiply rapidly (Ref. 1, p. 406)
42. All the following statements about bacterial plasmids are true
except:
A. They replicate together with bacterial DNA
B. They possess restriction sites
C. They possess antibiotic-resistance genes
D. They can accept foreign DNA (Ref. 1, p. 406)
43. Plasmids and phages have the following difference:
A. DNA of plasmids is linear while that of phages is circular
B. Plasmid DNA is double-stranded while that of phages is single-
stranded
C. Plasmids possess antibiotic-resistance genes while phages
do not
D. Plasmids can accept foreign DNA of larger size than phages
(Ref. 1, p. 406)
44. All the following statements about cosmids are true except:
A. Their DNA is double-stranded and circular
B. Their DNA is integrated into host cell DNA for replication
C. They possess cos sites
D. They can accept foreign DNA of larger size than plasmids
(Ref. 1, p. 407)
45. For inserting foreign DNA in the increasing order of size, the
correct sequence of vectors is:
A. Plasmids, phages and cosmids
B. Phages, plasmids and cosmids
C. Cosmids, plasmids and phages
D. Plasmids, cosmids and phages (Ref. 1, p. 406)
46. For preparing a genomic library of an organism, one requires:
A. Isolation of all the mRNAs from a tissue
B. Preparation of cDNA copies of all mRNAs by reverse
transcription
C. Preparation of double-stranded DNAs from cDNAs
41 C 42 A 43 C 44 B 45 A 46 D
Ch 16.indd 183 01-09-2015 16:53:33

47. Northern blotting requires all the following except:

A. RNA B. Gel electrophoresis
C. Labeled cDNA probe D. Restriction enzymes
(Ref. 1, p. 409)
48. In Maxam-Gilbert method of DNA sequencing:
A. DNA to be sequenced is used as template for synthesizing
cDNA
B. cDNA synthesis is interrupted by dideoxyribonucleotides
C. DNA molecule to be sequenced is cleaved at specific sites
enzymatically
D. DNA molecule to be sequenced is cleaved at specific sites
chemically(Ref. 1, p. 410)
49. In Sanger’s method of DNA sequencing:
A. DNA to be sequenced is used as a template for synthesizing
cDNA
B. cDNA synthesis is interrupted by using dideoxyribonucleo-
tides
C. 32P-Labeled primers are used to initiate replication
50. A cDNA probe can be labeled with 32P at the 5′-end by:
A. Terminal transferase B. S 1 nuclease
C. Polynucleotide kinase D. DNA ligase (Ref. 1, p. 406)
51. A particular gene on a large piece of DNA can be located by:
A. Chromosome walking
B. DNA finger printing
C. Plaque hybridization
D. Targeted gene knockout (Ref. 1, p. 415)
47 D 48 D 49 D 50 C 51 A
Ch 16.indd 184 01-09-2015 16:53:33

Metabolism of
Amino Acids 17
1. Positive nitrogen balance is seen in:
A. Starvation B. Wasting diseases
C. Growing age D. Intestinal malabsorption
(Ref. 1, p. 487)
2. Alanine can be synthesized from:
A. Glutamate and a-ketoglutarate
B. Pyruvate and glutamate
C. Pyruvate and a-ketoglutarate
D. Aspartate and a-ketoglutarate(Ref, 1, p. 241)
3. All of the following are required for synthesis of alanine
except:
A. Pyruvate B. a-Ketoglutarate
C. Glutamate D. Pyridoxal phosphate
(Ref. 1, pp. 241, 242)
4. All the following statements about aspartate are true except:
A. It is a nonessential amino acid
B. It is a dicarboxylic amino acid
C. It can be synthesized from pyruvate and glutamate
D. It can be converted into asparagine (Ref. 1, p. 242)
5. Glycine can be synthesized from:
A. Serine B. Choline
C. Betaine D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 243)
6. All of the following are required for synthesis of glutamine
except:
A. Glutamate B. Ammonia
C. Pyridoxal phosphate D. ATP (Ref. 1, p. 242)
1 C 2 B 3 B 4 C 5 D 6 C
Ch 17.indd 185 01-09-2015 16:53:16

7. A coenzyme required for the synthesis of glycine from serine is:

A. ATP B. Pyridoxal phosphate
C. Tetrahydrofolate D. NAD (Ref. 1, p. 243)
8. All the following statements about proline are true except:
A. It is an imino acid
B. It can be synthesized from glutamate
C. It can be catabolized to glutamate
D. Free proline can be hydroxylated to hydroxyproline
(Ref. 1, p. 242)
9. A protein rich in hydroxyproline is:
A. Prolamin B. Procollagen
C. Collagen D. Proinsulin (Ref. 1, p. 242)
10. All the following statement about hydroxyproline are true
except:
A. There is no codon for hydroxyproline
B. It is present in large amounts in collagen
C. Free proline cannot be hydroxylated to hydroxyproline
D. Hydroxylation of proline residues is catalyzed by a dioxygenase
(Ref. 1, p. 242)
11. All of the following are required for hydroxylation of proline
residues except:
A. Ascorbic acid B. Glutamate
C. Ferrous ions D. Molecular oxygen
(Ref. 1, p. 242)
12. Cysteine can be synthesized from methionine and:
A. Serine B. Homoserine
C. Homocysteine D. Threonine
(Ref. 1, p. 242)
13. Methionine is synthesized in human body from:
A. Cysteine and homoserine B. Homocysteine and serine
C. Cysteine and serine D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 242)
14. Hydroxylation of phenylalanine requires all of the following
except:
A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Tetrahydrobiopterin
C. NADH D. Molecular oxygen
(Ref. 1, p. 244)
7 C 8 D 9 C 10 D 11 B 12 A 13 D 14 C
Ch 17.indd 186 01-09-2015 16:53:16

Metabolism of Amino Acids 187
15. During catabolism of amino acids, their amino groups are

transferred mainly to:
A. Pyruvate
B. Oxaloacetate
C. a-Ketoglutarate
D. Ornithine (Ref. 1, p. 247)
16. The amino acid that undergoes oxidative deamination at a
significant rate is:
A. Alanine B. Aspartate
C. Glutamate D. Glutamine (Ref. 1, p. 247)
17. Allosteric inhibitor of glutamate dehydrogenase is:
A. ATP B. ADP
C. AMP D. GMP (Ref. 1, p. 248)
18. Allosteric activator of glutamate dehydrogenase is:
A. ATP B. GTP
C. ADP and GDP D. AMP and GMP
(Ref. 2, p. 248)
19. Free ammonia is released during:
A. Oxidative deamination of glutamate
B. Catabolism of purines
C. Catabolism of pyrimidines
D. All of the above (Ref. 1, pp. 248, 307, 308)
20. An organ which is extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity is:
A. Liver B. Brain
C. Kidney D. Heart (Ref. 1, p. 248)
21. Ammonia is transported from muscles to liver mainly in the
form of:
A. Free ammonia B. Glutamine
C. Asparagine D. Alanine
(Ref. 1, p. 248)
22. Immediate detoxification of ammonia is done in brain by fixing
it in the form of:
A. Glutamine
B. Alanine
C. Aspartate
D. Asparagine (Ref. 1, p. 246)
15 C 16 C 17 A 18 C 19 D 20 B 21 D 22 A
Ch 17.indd 187 01-09-2015 16:53:16

23. All the following statements about glutamine are true except:
A. Glutamine is formed solely to detoxify ammonia
B. Synthesis of glutamine from glutamate and ammonia requires
energy
C. Renal tubular cells are a major site for breakdown of glutamine
D. Glutamine can be incorporated in proteins
(Ref. 1, p. 248)
24. The major site of urea synthesis is:
A. Brain B. Kidneys
C. Liver D. Muscles
(Ref. 1, p. 250)
25. The carbon atom of urea is provided by:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Aspartate
C. Ornithine
26. The nitrogen atoms of urea are provided by:
A. Ammonia
B. Ammonia and alanine
C. Ammonia and aspartate
D. Ammonia and ornithine (Ref. 1, p. 250)
27. The number of high-energy phosphate bonds utilized for
synthesis of one molecule of urea is:
A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Four
(Ref. 1, p. 250)
28. Carbamoyl phosphate required for urea synthesis is formed in:
C. Peroxisomes D. Endoplasmic reticulum
(Ref. 1, p. 250)
29. Cytosolic and mitochondrial carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
have the following similarity:
A. Both use ammonia as a substrate
B. Both provide carbamoyl phosphate for urea synthesis
C. Both require N-acetylglutamate as an activator
D. Both are allosteric enzymes
(Ref. 1, p. 249)
23 A 24 C 25 A 26 C 27 D 28 B 29 D
Ch 17.indd 188 01-09-2015 16:53:16

30. Energy spent for the synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate is:

A. Nil
B. One high-energy phosphate bond
C. Two high-energy phosphate bonds
D Three high-energy phosphate bonds (Ref. 1, p. 249)
31. For the synthesis of citrulline:
A. Carbamoyl phosphate moves from mitochondria to cytosol
B. Carbamoyl phosphate moves from cytosol to mitochondria
C. Ornithine moves from mitochondria to cytosol
D. Ornithine moves from cytosol to mitochondria
(Ref. 1, p. 250)
32. The following enzyme of urea cycle is present in cytosol:
A. Argininosuccinic acid synthetase
B. Argininosuccinase
C. Arginase
33. During the synthesis of argininosuccinic acid:
A. One ATP is converted into ADP and Pi
B. One ATP is converted into AMP and PPi
C. One GTP is converted into GDP and Pi
D. No energy is required (Ref. 1, p. 250)
34. During the conversion of citrulline into arginine via arginino
succinate, aspartate is converted into:
A. Oxaloacetate B. Fumarate
C. Malate D. Asparagine (Ref. 1, p. 250)
35. ATP is required in following reactions of urea cycle:
A. Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate and citrulline
B. Synthesis of citrulline and argininosuccinate
C. Synthesis of argininosuccinate and arginine
D. Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate and argininosuccinate
(Ref. 1, p. 250)
36. Daily excretion of nitrogen by an adult man is about:
A. 15–20 mg B. 1.5–2 gm
C. 5–10 gm D. 15–20 gm (Ref. 1, p. 248)
37. The normal range of plasma ammonia is:
A. 10–20 mg/dL B. 20–40 mg/dL
C. 40–80 mg/dL D. 1–2 mg/dL (Ref. 1, p. 248)
30 C 31 D 32 D 33 B 34 B 35 D 36 D 37 A
Ch 17.indd 189 01-09-2015 16:53:16

38. Inborn errors of urea cycle can cause all the following except:
A. Vomiting B. Ataxia
C. Renal failure D. Mental retardation
(Ref. 1, p. 251)
39. Hyperammonemia type I results from congenital absence of:
A. Glutamate dehydrogenase
B. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
C. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
40. Congenital absence of ornithine transcarbamoylase causes:
A. Hyperammonemia type I
B. Hyperammonemia type II
C. Hyperornithinemia
D. Citrullinemia (Ref. 1, p. 252)
41. Congenital deficiency of argininosuccinic acid synthetase
leads to:
A. Argininosuccinic acidemia
B. Argininosuccinic aciduria
C. Citrullinemia
42. Increased excretion of argininosuccinic acid in urine occurs in
deficiency of:
A. Argininosuccinic acid synthetase
B. Argininosuccinase
C. Arginase
D. Ornithine transcarbamoylase (Ref. 1, p. 252)
43. All the following are glycogenic amino acids except:
A. Glycine B. Alanine
44. A ketogenic amino acid among the following is:
A. Leucine B. Serine
C. Threonine D. Proline (Ref. 1, p. 265)
45. Carbon skeleton of the following amino acid can form glucose
as well as fatty acids:
C. Tryptophan D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 254)
38 C 39 B 40 B 41 C 42 B 43 C 44 A 45 D
Ch 17.indd 190 01-09-2015 16:53:16

46. Carbon skeleton of the following amino acid can serve as a

substrate for gluconeogenesis:
A. Cysteine B. Aspartate
C. Glutamate D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 254)
47. Ornithine, an intermediate of urea cycle, can also be converted
into:
A. Glutamate B. Aspartate
C. Lysine D. Histidine (Ref. 1, p. 250)
48. N-Formiminoglutamate is a metabolite of:
A. Glutamate B. Histidine
C. Tryptophan D. Methionine (Ref. 1, p. 257)
49. A donor of labile methyl groups is:
A. Methionine B. S-Adenosylmethionine
C. Methylmalonyl CoA D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 266)
50. Methylmalonyl CoA is a metabolite of:
A. Valine B. Leucine
C. Isoleucine D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 268)
51. Homogentisic acid is formed from:
A. Homoserine B. Homocysteine
52. N-Formylkynurenine is formed from:
C. Tryptophan D. Glutamate (Ref. 1, p. 262)
53. Glyoxylate is formed from:
A. Glycine B. Hydroxyproline
(Ref. 1, pp. 257-258)
54. Maple syrup urine disease results from absence or severe
deficiency of:
A. Homogentisate oxidase
B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Branched-chain amino acid transaminase
46 D 47 A 48 B 49 B 50 A 51 C 52 C 53 C 54 D
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55. Maple syrup urine disease is an inborn error of metabolism of:

A. Sulfur-containing amino acids
B. Aromatic amino acids
C. Branched-chain amino acids
D. Dicarboxylic amino acids (Ref. 1, p. 265)
56. Urinary excretion of branched-chain a-keto acids is increased
in:
A. Primary hyperoxaluria
B. Homocystinuria
C. Maple syrup urine disease
57. Cystinuria results from inability to:
A. Metabolise cysteine
B. Convert cystine into cysteine
C. Incorporate cysteine into proteins
D. Reabsorb cystine in renal tubules (Ref. 1, p. 257)
58. All the following statements about cystinuria are correct
except:
A. Catabolism of cysteine is impaired in this disease
B. Renal tubular reabsorption of cystine is impaired in it
C. Renal tubular reabsorption of lysine, arginine and ornithine is
also impaired in it
D. It can lead to the formation of cystine stones in kidneys
(Ref. 1, p. 257)
59. All of the following statements about homocystinuria are
correct except:
A. The metabolic defect involves cystathionine synthetase
B. Urinary excretion of homocysteine and homocystine is
increased
C. Plasma methionine level is increased
D. It can be controlled by giving high-methionine, low-cysteine
diet(Ref. 1, p. 258)
60. The defective enzyme in histidinemia is:
A. Histidine carboxylase
B. Histidine decarboxylase
C. Histidase
D. Histidine oxidase (Ref. 1, p. 254)
55 C 56 C 57 D 58 A 59 D 60 C
Ch 17.indd 192 01-09-2015 16:53:16

61. Phenylketonuria results from absence of:

A. Phenylalanine transaminase
B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Tyrosinase
D. Tyrosine transaminase (Ref. 1, p. 259)
62. All the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct
except:
A. Phenylalanine cannot be converted into tyrosine
B. Urinary excretion of phenylpyruvate and phenyl-lactate is
increased
C. It can be controlled by giving a low-phenylalanine diet
D. It leads to decreased synthesis of thyroid hormones
(Ref. 1, p. 259)
63. All the following statements about albinism are correct except:
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase (tyrosinase) is absent or deficient in
melanocytes
B. Skin is hypopigmented
C. It results in mental retardation
D. Eyes are hypopigmented (Ref. 2, p. 353)
64. All the following features are present in alkaptonuria except:
A. Absence of homogentisate oxidase
B. Urine darkens on exposure to air
C. Pigmentation of connective tissue
D. Increased conversion of tyrosine into melanin
(Ref. 1, p. 259)
65. Glycine is required for the formation of all of the following
except:
A. Porphyrins
B. Creatine
C. Glutathione
D. Pyrimidines (Ref. 1, pp. 279, 302, 636)
66. Glycine is not required for the formation of:
A. Taurocholic acid
B. Creatine
C. Purines
D. Porphyrins (Ref. 1, pp. 279, 301)
61 B 62 D 63 C 64 D 65 D 66 A
Ch 17.indd 193 01-09-2015 16:53:16

67. All the following are required for the formation of creatine
except:
A. Creatine kinase B. Arginine
C. S-Adenosylmethionine D. Glycine (Ref. 1, p. 274)
68. Histamine is formed from histidine by:
A. Deamination
B. Dehydrogenation
C. Decarboxylation
D. Carboxylation (Ref. 1, p. 271)
69. DOPA is an intermediate in the synthesis of:
A. Thyroid hormones
B. Catecholamines
C. Melanin
D. Catecholamines and melanin (Ref. 1, p. 455)
70. All the following can be formed from tryptophan except:
A. Niacin B. Serotonin
C. Melatonin D. Melanin
(Ref. 1, p. 272)
71. All the following statements about pepsin are correct except:
A. It is smaller than pepsinogen
B. It is formed by the action of HCl on its precursor
C. Its optimum pH is 1.0–2.0
D. It hydrolyzes the C-terminal and N-terminal peptide bonds of
proteins(Ref. 1, p. 485)
72. Pancreatic juice contains the precursors of all of the following
except:
C. Carboxypeptidase D. Aminopeptidase
(Ref. 1, pp. 483-484)
73. All the following statements about trypsin are true except:
A. Its precursor is secreted by exocrine portion of pancreas
B. It is formed by the action of enterokinase on trypsinogen
C. Active trypsin can also act on its own precursor to form more
trypsin
D. It acts preferentially on peptide bonds involving aromatic
amino acids (Ref. 1, p. 485)
67 A 68 C 69 D 70 D 71 D 72 D 73 D
Ch 17.indd 194 01-09-2015 16:53:16

74. The only correct statement about chymotrypsin is:

A. It is formed from trypsin
B. Carboxypeptidase converts trypsin into chymotrypsin
C. It is a serine protease
D. It hydrolyzes peptide bonds involving basic amino acids
(Ref. 1, p. 485)
75. All the following statements about carboxypeptidase are true
except:
A. Its precursor is procarboxypeptidase
B. Its precursor is present in succus entericus
C. It is an exopeptidase
D. It is formed by the action of trypsin on procarboxypeptidase
(Ref. 1, p. 485)
76. Some amino acids are considered as nonessential for man
because:
A. They are not required for protein synthesis
B. They do not form any biologically important compound
C. They can be synthesized in the body
D. They are formed from essential amino acids (Ref. 1, p. 241)
77. Some amino acids are considered as essential for man because:
A. They cannot be synthesized in the human body
B. They can form other, nonessential amino acids
C. Besides proteins, they form other specialized compounds
D. Their half-lives are very long (Ref. 1, p. 241)
78. A low-phenylalanine diet is recommended in:
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Hartnup’s disease (Ref. 1. p. 259)
79. All the following statements about transamination are correct
except:
A. The reaction is reversible
B. It requires pyridoxal phosphate as a coenzyme
C. All amino acids can undergo transamination
D. A Schiff base is formed as an intermediate during the reaction
(Ref. 1, p. 247)
74 C 75 B 76 C 77 A 78 A 79 C
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80. All the following statements about ornithine are correct except:
A. It is formed during creatine synthesis
B. It is formed during synthesis of nitric oxide from arginine
C. It is formed as an intermediate in urea cycle
D. It can form polyamines
(Ref. 1, pp. 250, 254)
81. All the following statements about branched-chain amino
acids are correct except:
A. They are essential amino acids
B. They are transaminated by a common enzyme
C. They are glucogenic
D. Their catabolism is impaired in maple syrup urine disease
(Ref. 1, pp. 262, 265, 267, 268)
82. Tetrahydrobiopterin is required for hydroxylation of:
A. Phenylalanine
B. Tyrosine
C. Tryptophan
83. N-Acetylglutamate is:
A. A metabolite of glutamine
B. An inhibitor of cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
C. An activator of mitochondrial carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
84. Cysteine is required to synthesise:
A. Taurine B. CoA
C. Glutathione D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 271)
85. Histidine is:
A. Decarboxylated to urocanic acid
B. Deaminated to histamine
C. A semiessential amino acid
86. Daily degradation of proteins in human adults is about:
A. 1–2% of total body proteins
B. 5–10% of total body proteins
C. 25–50% of total body proteins
D. 75–100% of total body proteins (Ref. 1, p. 246)
80 B 81 C 82 D 83 C 84 D 85 C 86 A
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87. The only fate of amino acids liberated from hydrolysis of body
proteins is:
A. Synthesis of glucose and/or fatty acids
B. Reutilization for synthesis of proteins
C. Catabolism
88. Asialoglycoproteins are:
A. Glycoproteins from which sialic acid moiety has been removed
B. Recognized by specific receptors on liver cells
C. Hydrolyzed in liver cell lysosomes
89. Vitamin C is required for hydroxylation of:
A. Phenylalanine
B. Tyrosine
C. Dopamine
90. Inhibitors of mono amine oxidase prolong the life of:
A. GABA
B. Melanin
C. Melatonin
D. Serotonin (Ref. 1, p. 272)
91. All the following can be formed from serine except:
A. Threonine
B. Glycine
C. Pyruvate
D. Sphingosine (Ref. 1, pp. 255, 257, 270)
92. Vitamin C is required for the synthesis of:
A. Hydroxyproline
B. Hydroxylysine
C. Norepinephrine
93. An amino acid that cannot undergo transamination is:
A. Lysine
B. Phenylalanine
C. Tyrosine
87 D 88 D 89 C 90 D 91 A 92 D 93 A
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94. Urinary excretion of homogentisic acid is increased in:

A. Tyrosinemia B. Alkaptonuria
C. Phenylketonuria D. Homocystinuria
(Ref. 1, p. 249)
95. Tetrahydrobiopterin is required for the hydroxylation of:
A. Phenylalanine
B. Proline residues
C. Lysine residues
96. All the following statements about ubiquitin are true except:
A. It is an intracellular protein in eukaryotes
B. It binds proteins to target them for hydrolysis
C. Its C-terminal amino acid forms a peptide bond with
N-terminal amino acid of the protein to be hydrolyzed
D. Binding of ubiquitin to proteins is ATP-dependent
(Ref. 1, p. 246)
97. The only correct statement about transamination is:
A. All amino acids can undergo transamination
B. Only the a-amino groups of amino acids can undergo
transamination
C. Removal of amino group always converts the amino acid into a
keto acid
D. No energy is spent/released during transamination
(Ref. 1, pp. 247, 254)
98. Branched-chain amino acids are used mainly in:
A. Liver B. Muscles
C. Kidneys D. Intestine (Ref. 1, p. 265)
99. Primary hyperoxaluria results from a defect in:
A. Tubular reabsorption of glyoxylate
B. Catabolism of hydroxyproline
C. Catabolism of glyoxylate
D. Intestinal absorption of oxalate (Ref. 1, p. 257)
100. One-carbon unit is liberated during catabolism of:
A. Histidine
B. Serine
C. Glycine
94 B 95 A 96 C 97 D 98 B 99 C 100 D
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Immunochemistry
18
1. The portion of the antigen molecule which is recognized by
antibody is known as:
A. Hapten B. Epitope
C. Complement D. Variable region
(Ref. 1, p. 599)
2. All the following statements about haptens are true except:
A. They have high molecular weights
B. They cannot elicit an immune response by themselves
C. When combined with some other large molecule, they can
elicit an immune response
D. Once an immune response develops, the free hapten can be
recognized by the antibody (Ref. 1, p. 638)
3. Antigens and haptens have the following similarity:
A. They have high molecular weights
B. They can elicit immune response by themselves
C. They can elicit an immune response only in association with
some other large molecule
D. Once an immune response develops, free antigen and free
hapten can be recognized by the antibody (Ref. 2, p. 733)
4. The minimum number of polypeptide chains in an immuno
globulin is:
A. Two B. Four
C. Five D. Six (Ref. 1, p. 599)
5. Light chains of immunoglobulins are of following types:
A. Alpha and kappa B. Alpha and gamma
C. Lambda and delta D. Kappa and lambda
(Ref. 1, p. 600)
1 B 2 A 3 D 4 B 5 D
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6. Immunoglobulins are classified on the basis of:

A. Type of light chains
B. Type of heavy chains
C. Types of light and heavy chains
D. Molecular weight (Ref. 1, p. 600)
7. The molecular weight of light chains is:
A. 15,000 B. 23,000
C. 50,000 D. 70,000 (Ref. 1, p. 599)
8. The molecular weight of heavy chains is:
A. 15,000–23,000 B. 24,000–52,000
C. 53,000–75,000 D. 76,000–100,000
(Ref. 1, p. 599)
9. Secretory component is present in:
A. IgA B. IgG
C. IgM D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 602)
10. The variable region of light chains is the:
A. N-terminal quarter B. N-terminal half
C. C-terminal quarter D. C-terminal half
(Ref. 1, p. 599)
11. The variable region of heavy chains is the:
A. N-terminal quarter B. N-terminal half
C. C-terminal quarter D. C-terminal half
(Ref. 1, p. 599)
12. The variable region of light chains has:
A. One hypervariable region
B. Two hypervariable regions
C. Three hypervariable regions
D. Four hypervariable regions (Ref. 1, p. 601)
13. The variable region of heavy chains has:
A. One hypervariable region
B. Two hypervariable regions
C. Three hypervariable regions
D. Four hypervariable regions (Ref. 1, p. 601)
14. The most abundant immunoglobulin in plasma is:
A. IgA B. IgG
C. IgM D. IgD (Ref. 1, p. 601)
6 B 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 B 11 A 12 C 13 D 14 B
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Immunochemistry 201
15. The largest immunoglobulin is:

A. IgA B. IgG
16. The plasma concentration of IgA is about:
A. 3 mg/dL B. 100 mg/dL
C. 200 mg/dL D. 1000 mg/dL (Ref. 1, p. 601)
17. An immunoglobulin found in exocrine secretions is:
A. IgA B. IgG
C. IgM D. IgE (Ref. 1, p. 601)
18. Allergic reactions are mediated by:
A. IgA B. IgG
C. IgD D. IgE (Ref. 1, p. 601)
19. An immunoglobulin which can cross the placental barrier is:
A. IgA B. IgM
C. IgD D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 601)
20. IgM possesses:
A. Two light chains and two heavy chains
B. Four light chains and four heavy chains
C. Six light chains and six heavy chains
D. Ten light chains and ten heavy chains (Ref. 1, p. 603)
21. The immunoglobulin that acts as antigen receptor on B cells is:
A. IgA B. IgM
C. IgG D. IgE (Ref. 1, p. 601)
22. A complement protein that acts as opsonin is:
A. C3a B. C2b
C. C2a D. C3b (Ref. 1, p. 601)
23. Recognition of antigen is the function of:
A. Variable region of light chains
B. Variable regions of light and heavy chains
C. Constant region of heavy chains
D. Constant regions of light and heavy chains (Ref. 1, p. 601)
24. The effector function of antibody is performed by:
A. Variable region of heavy chains
B. Constant region of heavy chains
C. Variable regions of light and heavy chains
D. Constant regions of light and heavy chains (Ref. 1, p. 601)
15 C 16 C 17 A 18 D 19 D 20 D 21 B 22 D 23 B 24 D
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25. Complement system can be activated by binding of antigen to:

A. IgA B. IgD
C. IgE D. IgM (Ref. 1, p. 601)
26. The classical complement pathway is activated by binding of
antigen-antibody complex with:
A. Complement C9 B. Complement C3
C. Complement C2 D. Complement C1
(Ref. 1, p. 605)
27. The components of complement system are activated by:
A. Microsomal hydroxylation
B. Phosphorylation
C. Glycosylation
D. Proteolysis (Ref. 1, p. 605)
28. The complement system forms a membrane attack complex
made up of:
A. Complements 1q, 1r and 1s
B. Complements 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. Complements 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9
D. Factors B and D (Ref. 1, p. 605)
29. The complement system becomes inactive at:
A. 37° C B. 56° C
C. 72° C D. 100° C (Ref. 1, p. 605)
30. The alternate complement pathway is activated by:
A. C3b B. C3a
C. C2b D. C1 (Ref. 1, p. 605)
31. Antibody diversity arises from:
A. Gene amplification B. Gene rearrangement
C. Alternative splicing D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 602)
32. A light chain gene is constructed from the following segments:
A. Variable and constant segments
B. Variable, joining and constant segments
C. Variable, diversity and constant segments
D. Variable, joining, diversity and constant segments
(Ref. 1, p. 602)
25 D 26 D 27 D 28 C 29 B 30 A 31 B 32 B
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Immunochemistry 203
33. A heavy chain gene is constructed from the following segments:

A. Variable and constant segments
B. Variable, joining and constant segments
C. Variable, diversity and constant segments
D. Variable, joining, diversity and constant segments
(Ref. 1, p. 602)
34. Diversity segments are present in:
A. Light chain genes
B. Heavy chain genes
C. Light and heavy chain genes
35. Four domains are present in CH region of:
A. IgA B. IgG
C. IgD D. IgM (Ref. 1, p. 600)
36. Three domains are present in CH region of:
A. IgA, IgE and IgG
B. IgA, IgD and IgM
C. IgA, IgD and IgG
D. IgD, IgG and IgE (Ref. 1, p. 600)
37. Gamma heavy chains are present in:
A. IgA B. IgG
38. Heavy chains in IgD are of following type:
A. Alpha B. Gamma
C. Delta D. Epsilon (Ref. 1, p. 601)
39. On exposure to any antigen, the first antibody to be formed is
of the following class:
A. IgA B. IgG
C. IgM D. IgE (Ref. 1, p. 603)
40. Antibodies of different classes are called:
A. Immunotypes B. Allotypes
C. Idiotypes D. Isotypes (Ref. 1, p. 603)
41. Cell-mediated immunity is the function of:
A. B lymphocytes B. T lymphocytes
C. Plasma cells D. Basophils (Ref. 1, p. 599)
33 D 34 B 35 D 36 C 37 B 38 C 39 C 40 D 41 B
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42. Interleukin-2 is released by:

A. Cytotoxic T cells B. Helper T cells
C. Suppressor T cells D. Memory T cells
(Ref. 2, p. 735)
43. T cells can recognize:
A. Free antigens
B. Antigens bound to cells
C. Antigens bound to antibodies
D. Antigens bound to MHC proteins (Ref. 2, p. 734)
44. MHC proteins are unique to:
A. Each cell B. Each organ
C. Each individual D. Each species (Ref. 2, p. 734)
45. MHC Class I proteins are present on the surface of:
A. B cells only B. T cells only
C. Macrophages only D. All cells (Ref. 2, p. 734)
46. MHC Class I proteins, in conjunction with antigens, are
recognized by:
(Ref. 2, p. 734)
47. MHC Class II proteins are present on the surface of:
A. All cells
B. B lymphocytes only
C. Macrophages only
D. Macrophages and B lymphocytes (Ref. 2, p. 734)
48. MHC Class II proteins, in conjunction with antigens, are
recognized by:
(Ref. 2, p. 734)
49. The antibody produced in primary immune response is:
A. IgM B. IgD
C. IgA D. IgG (Ref. 1, p. 602)
50. An antibody that can perform all the effector functions is:
A. IgA B. IgG
C. IgM D. None of these
(Ref. 1, p. 602)
42 B 43 D 44 C 45 D 46 A 47 D 48 B 49 A 50 B
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Immunochemistry 205
51. Immunoglobulins are:

A. Simple proteins B. Lipoproteins
C. Glycoproteins D. Metalloproteins
(Ref. 1, p. 602)
52. IgM does not:
A. Cross placental barrier
B. Activate complement system
C. Rise in primary response
D. Possess J chain (Ref. 1, p. 602)
53. Antigen-antibody reaction involves:
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Electrostatic bonds
C. Hydrophobic bonds
54. MHC Class III genes encode:
A. Immunoglobulins
B. Components of complement system
C. T cell receptors
D. CD4 and CD8 proteins (Ref. 2, p. 734)
55. Human immunodeficiency virus destroys:
C. B cells D. Plasma cells (Ref. 2, p. 734)
56. In allergic diseases, the concentration of the following is
increased in plasma:
A. IgA B. IgG
57. IgE has a tendency to bind to:
A. Macrophages B. Neutrophils
C. Mast cells D. T cells (Ref. 2, p. 189)
58. An antibody that defends against worm infections is:
A. IgA B. IgG
59. Antibody molecules that recognize only one particular epitope
are called:
A. Isotypic antibodies B. Allotypic antibodies
C. Hybridomas D. Monoclonal antibodies
(Ref. 1, p. 604)
51 C 52 A 53 D 54 B 55 B 56 D 57 C 58 D 59 D
Ch 18.indd 205 01-09-2015 16:52:54

60. Antibody that acts against helminths is:

A. IgG B. IgE
C. IgM D. IgA (Ref. 1, p. 602)
61. In agammaglobulinemia, there is severe deficiency of:
A. IgE B. IgA
C. IgG D. IgM (Ref. 1, p. 604)
62. IgG is cleaved by papain into:
A. Two light and two heavy chains
B. Two Fab and one Fc fragments
C. Two pairs of one light and one heavy chain each
D. One Fab and two Fc fragments (Ref. 1, p. 599)
63. Autoimmune diseases occur due to:
A. Impairment of humoral immunity
B. Impairment of cell-mediated immunity
C. Adaptive immune response against self-molecules
D. Innate immune response against self-molecules
(Ref. 2, p. 736)
64. All the following are autoimmune diseases except:
A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B. AIDS
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (Ref. 2, p. 736)
65. Bence-Jones protein is made up of:
A. Antigen receptors B. T cell receptors
C. Ig heavy chains D. Ig light chains
(Ref. 1, p. 604)
66. Immunoglobulins are secreted by:
A. B lymphocytes B. Plasma cells
C. Thymus cells D. T lymphocytes
(Ref. 1, p. 590)
67. Cell-mediated immunity is the function of:
A. B lymphocytes B. Plasma cells
C. Bone marrow cells D. T lymphocytes
(Ref. 1, p. 599)
68. T lymphocytes are processed in:
A. Thyroid gland B. Thymus
C. Thalamus D. Bone marrow (Ref. 1, p. 599)
60 B 61 C 62 B 63 C 64 B 65 D 66 B 67 D 68 B
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Immunochemistry 207
69. Plasma cells specialize from:

A. T lymphocytes B. B lymphocytes
C. Macrophages D. Erythrocytes (Ref. 1, p. 599)
70. Papain cleaves an immunoglobulin molecule:
A. Between CH1 and CH2 domains
B. Between CH2 and CH3 domains
C. Between VH and CH1 domains
D. Into light and heavy chains (Ref. 1, p. 599)
71. Monoclonal antibodies are prepared by cloning:
A. Myeloma cells B. Hybridoma cells
C. T lymphocytes D. B lymphocytes
(Ref. 1, p. 604)
72. Myeloma cells are lacking in:
A. TMP synthetase B. Formyl transferase
C. HGPRT D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 604)
73. Hybridoma cells are selected by culturing them in a medium
containing:
A. Adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine
B. Adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil
C. Hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymine
D. Hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymidine (Ref. 1, p. 604)
74. Myeloma cells and lymphocytes can be fused by using:
A. Calcium chloride B. Ethidium bromide
C. Polyethylene glycol D. DNA polymerase
(Ref. 1, p. 604)
69 B 70 A 71 B 72 C 73 D 74 C
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Minerals
19
1. The total amount of calcium in an average adult man is about:
A. 100 g B. 500 g
C. 1 kg D. 10 kg (Ref. 2, p. 404)
2. The following proportion of the total body calcium is present in
bones and teeth:
A. 75% B. 90%
C. 95% D. 99% (Ref. 2, p. 404)
3. The normal range of plasma calcium is:
A. 3–5 mg/dL B. 5–10 mg/dL
C. 9–11 mg/dL D. 11–15 mg/dL (Ref. 2, p. 406)
4. The normal range of ionized calcium in plasma is:
A. 2–4 mg/dL B. 2–4 mEq/L
C. 4–5 mg/dL D. 4–5 mEq/L (Ref. 2, p. 406)
5. Tetany can occur due to a:
A. Slow increase in serum calcium
B. Sudden increase in serum calcium
C. Slow decrease in serum calcium
D. Sudden decrease in serum calcium (Ref. 2, p. 408)
6. Intestinal absorption of calcium occurs by:
A. Active uptake B. Simple diffusion
C. Facilitated diffusion D. Endocytosis (Ref. 2, p. 406)
7. Calcium ions are required for all the following except:
A. Coagulation of blood
B. Maintenance of pH of blood
C. Release of neurotransmitters
D. Action of some hormones (Ref. 2, pp. 404-405)
1 C 2 D 3 C 4 C 5 D 6 A 7 B
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Minerals 209
8. Calcitriol facilitates calcium absorption by increasing the

synthesis of the following in intestinal mucosa:
A. Calcium-binding protein
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Calcium-dependent ATPase
9. Intestinal absorption of calcium is decreased by all except:
A. Fatty acids B. Calbindin
C. Phytates D. Oxalates (Ref. 1, p. 485)
10. The daily calcium requirement of an adult man is about:
A. 400 mg B. 600 mg
C. 800 mg D. 1,000 mg (Ref. 2, p. 406)
11. The daily calcium requirement in pregnancy and lactation is
about:
A. 600 mg B. 800 mg
C. 1,200 mg D. 1,500 mg (Ref. 2, p. 406)
12. Hypercalcaemia can occur in all the following except:
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypervitaminosis D
C. Milk alkali syndrome
D. Nephrotic syndrome (Ref. 2, p. 408)
13. Hypocalcaemia can occur in all of the following except:
A. Rickets
B. Osteomalacia
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Steatorrhea (Ref. 2, p. 408)
14. The major calcium salt in bones is:
A. Calcium carbonate
B. Calcium chloride
C. Calcium hydroxide
D. Calcium phosphate (Ref. 2, p. 404)
15. The correct statement about serum inorganic phosphorus
concentration is:
A. It is higher in men than in women
B. It is higher in women than in men
C. It is higher in adults than in children
D. It is higher in children than in adults (Ref. 2, p. 410)
8 D 9 B 10 C 11 D 12 D 13 C 14 D 15 D
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16. The product of serum calcium concentration (mg/dL) and

serum inorganic phosphorus concentration (mg/dL) in adults
is about:
A. 30 B. 40
C. 50 D. 60 (Ref. 2, p. 408)
17. The product of serum calcium concentration (mg/dL) and
serum inorganic phosphorus concentration (mg/dL) in
children is about:
A. 30 B. 40
C. 50 D. 60 (Ref. 2, p. 408)
18. Phosphorus is involved in all of the following except:
A. Maintenance of water balance
B. Maintenance of pH
C. Formation of high-energy compounds
D. Formation of teeth (Ref. 2, p. 409)
19. Serum inorganic phosphorus rises in all the following
conditions except:
A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Hypervitaminosis D
C. Chronic renal failure
D. After a carbohydrate-rich meal (Ref. 2, p. 410)
20. Serum inorganic phosphorus decreases in all the following
conditions except:
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Steatorrhea
C. Osteomalacia
D. Chronic renal failure (Ref. 2, p. 410)
21. Serum magnesium level ranges between:
A. 2–3 mg/dL B. 3–5 mg/dL
C. 6–8 mg/dL D. 9–11 mg/dL (Ref. 2, p. 410)
22. Magnesium ions are required in the reactions involving:
A. NAD B. FAD
C. ATP D. CoA (Ref. 2, p. 410)
23. Normal range of serum sodium is:
A. 30–70 mEq/L B. 70–110 mEq/L
C. 117–135 mEq/L D. 136–145 mEq/L
(Ref. 2, p. 411)
16 B 17 C 18 A 19 D 20 D 21 A 22 C 23 D
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Minerals 211
24. Sodium is involved in the active uptake of:

A. D-Glucose B. D-Galactose
C. L-Amino acids D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 411)
25. Aldosterone increases reabsorption of sodium in:
A. Small intestine B. Large intestine
C. Glomeruli D. Renal tubules
(Ref. 2, p. 411)
26. Restriction of sodium intake is commonly advised in:
A. Addison’s disease
B. Diarrhoea
C. Hypertension
27. Serum sodium level rises in all of the following except:
A. Chronic renal failure
B. Prolonged steroid therapy
C. Adrenocortical hyperactivity
D. Dehydration (Ref. 2, p. 411)
28. Hyponatraemia can occur in:
A. Adrenocortical insufficiency
B. Chronic renal failure
C. Severe diarrhoea
29. Serum potassium level decreases in:
A. Familial periodic paralysis
B. Adrenocortical insufficiency
C. Renal failure
30. Concentration of the following is higher in intracellular fluid
than in extracellular fluid:
A. Sodium B. Potassium
C. Chloride D Bicarbonate (Ref. 2, p. 412)
31. Normal range of serum potassium is:
A. 2.1–3.4 mEq/L
B. 3.5–5.3 mEq/L
C. 5.4–7.4 mEq/L
D. 7.5–9.5 mEq/L (Ref. 2, p. 412)
24 D 25 D 26 C 27 A 28 D 29 A 30 B 31 B
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32. Normal range of serum chloride is:

A. 24–27 mEq/L B. 70–80 mEq/L
C. 95–105 mEq/L D. 120–140 mEq/L
(Ref. 2, p. 413)
33. An extracellular fluid having a higher concentration of chloride
than serum is:
A. Bile B. Sweat
C. Cerebrospinal fluid D. Pancreatic juice
(Ref. 2, p. 413)
34. Total amount of iron in an adult man is about:
A. 1–2 g B. 2–3 g
C. 3–5 g D. 6–7 g (Ref. 2, p. 414)
35. Haemoglobin contains about:
A. 30% of the total body iron
B. 50% of the total body iron
C. 75% of the total body iron
D. 90% of the total body iron (Ref. 2, p. 414)
36. About 5% of the total body iron is present in:
A. Transferrin B. Myoglobin
C. Cytochromes D. Haemosiderin
(Ref. 2, p. 414)
37. Each haemoglobin molecule contains:
A. One iron atom B. Two iron atoms
C. Four iron atoms D. Six iron atoms
(Ref. 2, p. 196)
38. Each myoglobin molecule contains:
A. One iron atom B. Two iron atoms
C. Four iron atoms D. Six iron atoms
(Ref. 2, p. 197)
39. Apoferritin molecule is made up of:
A. Four subunits B. Eight subunits
C. Ten subunits D. Twenty-four subunits
(Ref. 1, p. 594)
40. Ferritin is present in:
A. Intestinal mucosa B. Liver
C. Spleen D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 415)
32 C 33 C 34 C 35 C 36 B 37 C 38 A 39 D 40 D
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Minerals 213
41. Iron is stored in the form of:

A. Ferritin and transferrin
B. Transferrin and haemosiderin
C. Haemoglobin and myoglobin
D. Ferritin and haemosiderin (Ref. 2, p. 415)
42. Iron is transported in blood in the form of:
A. Ferritin B. Haemosiderin
C. Transferrin D. Haemoglobin
(Ref. 1, p. 594)
43. Molecular weight of transferrin is about:
A. 40,000 B. 60,000
C. 80,000 D. 100,000 (Ref. 1, p. 594)
44. Iron absorption is decreased by:
A. Haptoglobin B. Transferrin
C. Hepcidin D. Haemojuvelin
(Ref. 1, p. 593)
45. Loss of haemoglobin through urine is prevented by:
A. Hepcidin B. Haemojuvelin
C. Haemopexin D. Haptoglobin (Ref. 1, p. 592)
46. Total daily iron loss of an adult man is about:
A. 0.1 mg B. 1 mg
C. 5 mg D. 10 mg (Ref. 1, p. 593)
47. Iron absorption is hampered by:
A. Ascorbic acid B. Succinic acid
C. Phytic acid D. Histidine (Ref. 2, p. 414)
48. Iron absorption is decreased:
A. In achlorhydria
B. When ferritin content of intestinal mucosa is low
C. When saturation of plasma transferrin is low
D. When erythropoietic activity is increased (Ref. 2, p. 414)
49. Daily iron requirement of an adult man is about:
A. 1 mg B. 5 mg
C. 10 mg D. 18 mg (Ref. 2, p. 414)
50. Daily iron requirement of a woman of reproductive age is
about:
A. 1 mg B. 5 mg
C. 10 mg D. 15 mg (Ref. 2, p. 414)
41 D 42 C 43 C 44 C 45 D 46 B 47 C 48 A 49 C 50 D
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51. All the following are good sources of iron except:

A. Milk B. Meat
C. Liver D. Kidney (Ref. 2, p. 414)
52. Relatively more iron is absorbed from:
A. Green leafy vegetables B. Fruits
C. Whole grain cereals D. Organ meats
(Ref. 2, p. 414)
53. Iron absorption from a mixed diet is about:
A. 1–5% B. 5–10%
C. 20–25% D. 25–50% (Ref. 2, p. 414)
54. Iron deficiency causes:
A. Normocytic anaemia B. Microcytic anaemia
C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Pernicious anaemia
(Ref. 2, p. 416)
55. Plasma transferrin level is about:
C. 200 mg/dL D. 300 mg/dL (Ref. 1, p. 594)
56. All the following statements about bronzed diabetes are true
except:
A. It is caused by excessive intake of copper
B. Skin becomes pigmented
C. There is damage to b cells of islets of Langerhans
D. Liver is damaged (Ref. 1, p. 595)
57. The total amount of iodine in the body of an average adult is:
A. 10–15 mg B. 20–25 mg
C. 45–50 mg D. 75–100 mg (Ref. 2, p. 418)
58. Iodine content of thyroid gland in an adult is about:
A. 1–3 mg B. 4–8 mg
C. 10–15 mg D. 25–30 mg (Ref. 2, p. 418)
59. Daily iodine requirement of an adult is about:
A. 25–50 mg B. 50–100 mg
C. 100–150 mg D. 1 mg (Ref. 2, p. 418)
60. Consumption of iodized salt is recommended in:
A. Patients with hyperthyroidism
B. Patients with hypothyroidism
C. Pregnant women
D. Goitre belt areas (Ref. 2, p. 418)
51 A 52 D 53 B 54 B 55 D 56 A 57 C 58 C 59 C 60 D
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Minerals 215
61. All the following statements about endemic goitre are true
except:
A. It occurs in areas where soil and water have low iodine
content
B. It leads to enlargement of thyroid gland
C. It results ultimately in hyperthyroidism
D. It can be prevented by consumption of iodized salt
(Ref. 2, p. 440)
62. The total amount of copper in the body of an average adult is:
A. 1–2 g B. 0.5–0.6 g
C. 60–100 mg D. 6–10 mg (Ref. 2, p. 416)
63. The normal range of plasma copper is:
A. 25–50 mg/dL B. 50–100 mg/dL
C. 100–200 mg/dL D. 200–400 mg/dL
(Ref. 2, p. 417)
64. Copper deficiency can cause:
A. Polycythaemia B. Leukocytopenia
C. Thrombocytopenia D. Anaemia
(Ref. 2, p. 417)
65. Daily requirement of copper in adults is about:
A. 0.5 mg B. 1 mg
C. 2.5 mg D. 5 mg (Ref. 2, p. 417)
66. All the following statements about ceruloplasmin are correct
except:
A. It is a copper-containing protein
B. It possesses oxidase activity
C. It is synthesized in intestinal mucosa
D. Its plasma level is decreased in Wilson’s disease
(Ref. 1, p. 597)
67. All the following statements about Wilson’s disease are correct
except:
A. It is a genetic disease
B. The defect involves copper-dependent P-type ATPase
C. Copper is deposited in liver, basal ganglia and around cornea
D. Plasma copper level is increased in it
(Ref. 1, p. 597)
61 C 62 C 63 C 64 D 65 C 66 C 67 D
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68. All the following statements about Menkes’ disease are true
except:
A. It is an inherited disorder of copper metabolism
B. It occurs only in males
C. Plasma copper is increased in it
D. Hair becomes steely and kinky in it (Ref. 1, p. 596)
69. The total amount of zinc in the body of an average adult is
about:
A. 0.5 g B. 1 g
C. 2 g D. 4 g (Ref. 2, p. 419)
70. Plasma zinc level is about:
C. 200 mg/dL D. 500 mg/dL(Ref. 2, p. 419)
71. Zinc is a cofactor for:
A. Acid phosphatase B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Amylase D. Lipase (Ref. 2, p. 419)
72. Zinc is involved in storage and release of:
A. Histamine B. Acetylcholine
C. Epinephrine D. Insulin (Ref. 2, p. 419)
73. Intestinal absorption of zinc is retarded by:
A. Calcium B. Copper
C. Phytate D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 419)
74. The daily zinc requirement of an average adult is:
A. 3–5 mg B. 5–10 mg
C. 10–15 mg D. 25 mg (Ref. 2, p. 419)
75. Zinc deficiency occurs commonly in:
A. Acrodermatitis enteropathica
B. Wilson’s disease
C. Xeroderma pigmentosum
D. Menkes’ disease (Ref. 2, p. 420)
76. Growth may be retarded in deficiency of:
A. Copper B. Chromium
C. Zinc D. Manganese (Ref. 2, p. 419)
77. Healing of wounds may be impaired in deficiency of:
A. Selenium B. Copper
C. Zinc D. Cobalt (Ref. 2, p. 419)
68 C 69 C 70 B 71 B 72 D 73 D 74 C 75 A 76 C 77 C
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Minerals 217
78. Anaemia can occur in deficiency of:

A. Iodine and selenium
B. Copper and zinc
C. Manganese and molybdenum
79. Absorption of manganese inhibited by:
A. Zinc B. Iron
C. Copper D. None of these
(Ref. 2, pp. 417-419)
80. Molybdenum is a cofactor for:
A. Xanthine oxidase
B. Aldehyde oxidase
C. Sulfite oxidase
81. A trace element having antioxidant function is:
A. Selenium B. Tocopherol
C. Chromium D. Molybdenum
(Ref. 1, p. 180)
82. Selenium is a constituent of:
A. Glutathione reductase B. Glutathione peroxidase
C. Catalase D. Superoxide dismutase
(Ref. 1, p. 180)
83. Selenium supplements the function of:
A. Copper B. Zinc
C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin E (Ref. 2, p. 421)
84. Upper safe limit of fluorine in water is:
A. 0.4 ppm B. 0.8 ppm
C. 1.2 ppm D. 2 ppm (Ref. 2, p. 420)
85. The daily fluoride intake should not exceed:
A. 0.5 mg B. 1 mg
C. 2 mg D. 3 mg (Ref. 2, p. 420)
86. Calcium is involved in all of the following except:
A. Membrane excitability
B. Blood clotting
C. Muscle contraction
D. Regulation of water balance (Ref. 1, p. 470)
78 B 79 B 80 D 81 A 82 B 83 D 84 C 85 D 86 D
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87. All the following affect calcium balance except:

A. Vitamin D B. Aldosterone
C. Parathyroid hormone D. Calcitonin (Ref. 2, p. 407)
88. Magnesium deficiency can occur in all the following except:
A. Recurrent vomiting B. Chronic diarrhoea
C. Intestinal malabsorption D. Alcoholism (Ref. 2, p. 410)
89. Sodium is:
A. The principal cation in extracellular fluid
B. Involved in regulation of fluid balance
C. Regulated by mineralocorticoids
90. All the following affect nerve function except:
A. Calcium B. Phosphorus
C. Sodium D. Potassium (Ref. 1, p. 435)
91. Potassium:
A. Is present in higher concentration in extracellular fluid than in
intracellular fluid
B. Retention is increased by aldosterone
C. Deficiency can cause muscular weakness
D. Is obtained mainly from table salt (Ref. 2, p. 412)
92. Potassium deficiency can occur in:
A. Cushing’s syndrome B. Addison’s disease
C. Renal failure D. Hepatic failure
(Ref. 2, pp. 412-413)
93. Iodine is present in all of the following except:
A. Thyroglobulin B. Thyroxine
C. Thyroperoxidase D. Tri-iodothyronine
(Ref. 1, pp. 455-456)
94. Copper:
A. Deficiency can occur in Menkes’ disease
B. Deposition can occur in Wilson’s disease
C. Is transported in circulation by albumin
D. All of the above are correct (Ref. 1, pp. 596-597)
95. Zinc deficiency can impair:
A. Wound healing B. Growth
C. Taste perception D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 419)
87 B 88 A 89 D 90 B 91 C 92 A 93 C 94 D 95 D
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Minerals 219
96. Acrodermatitis enteropathica can lead to deficiency of:

A. Zinc B. Copper
C. Selenium D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 420)
97. Major transporter of zinc in blood is:
A. Ceruloplasmin
B. Albumin
C. Transferrin
98. Glucose utilization is affected by:
A. Selenium B. Chromium
C. Zinc D. Copper (Ref. 2, p. 422)
99. All the following statements about fluoride are true except:
A. It is an activator of enolase
B. It increases the hardness of bones
C. It prevents dental caries
D. Its excess can cause fluorosis (Ref. 2, p. 420)
100. Menkes’ disease and Wilson’s disease have all the following
similarities except:
A. The defective enzyme is copper-binding P-type ATPase in both
B. Liver copper is increased in both
C. Serum copper is decreased in both
D. Serum ceruloplasmin is decreased in both
(Ref. 1, pp. 596-597)
96 A 97 B 98 B 99 A 100 B
Ch 19.indd 219 01-09-2015 16:52:37

Water and Electrolyte
Balance 20
1. In female adults, water constitutes about:
A. 50% of body weight
B. 55% of body weight
C. 60% of body weight
D. 70% of body weight (Ref. 2, p. 468)
2. Of the total body water, intracellular compartment contains
about:
A. 50% B. 60%
C. 70% D. 80% (Ref. 2, p. 468)
3. Osmotically active substances in plasma are:
A. Sodium B. Chloride
C. Proteins D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 471)
4. Osmolality of plasma is:
A. 80–100 milliosmole/kg
B. 80–100 milliosmole/liter
C. 275–290 milliosmole/kg
D. 300–315 milliosmole/liter (Ref. 2, p. 471)
5. The following solution is isotonic with plasma:
A. 0.5% sodium chloride B. 1% sodium chloride
C. 5% glucose D. 10% glucose
(Ref. 2, p. 473)
6. The highest concentration of proteins is present in:
A. Plasma
B. Interstitial fluid
C. Intracellular fluid
D. Transcellular fluid (Ref. 2, p. 468)
1 C 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 C 6 C
Water and Electrolyte Balance 221
7. Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to:

A. Proteins
B. Chloride
C. Sodium
8. Oncotic pressure is affected by:
A. Glucose B. Urea
C. Albumin D. All of these (Ref. 2, p. 713)
9. Oedema can occur when:
A. Plasma Na and Cl are decreased
B. Plasma Na and Cl are increased
C. Plasma proteins are decreased
D. Plasma proteins are increased (Ref. 2, p. 714)
10. Colloid osmotic pressure of intracellular fluid is:
A. Equal to that of plasma
B. More than that of plasma
C. Less than that of plasma
D. Nearly zero (Ref. 2, p. 713)
11. The water produced during metabolic reactions in an adult is
about:
A. 100 mL/day
B. 300 mL/day
C. 500 mL/day
D. 700 mL/day (Ref. 2, p. 469)
12. The daily water loss through gastrointestinal tract in an adult is
about:
A. 100 mL B. 200 mL
C. 300 mL D. 400 mL (Ref. 2, p. 470)
13. The minimum volume of water required to dissolve the solutes
excreted in urine per day by an adult is about:
A. 250 mL B. 500 mL
C. 750 mL D. 1,000 mL (Ref. 2, p. 469)
14. Obligatory reabsorption of water:
A. Is about 50% of the total tubular reabsorption of water
B. Is increased by antidiuretic hormone
C. Occurs in distal convoluted tubules
D. Is secondary to reabsorption of solutes (Ref. 2, p. 469)
7 A 8 C 9 C 10 B 11 B 12 A 13 B 14 D
15. Antidiuretic hormone:

A. Is secreted by hypothalamus
B. Secretion is increased when osmolality of plasma decreases
C. Increases obligatory reabsorption of water
D. Acts on distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts
(Ref. 2, p. 469)
16. Urinary water loss is increased in:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
17. Diabetes insipidus results from:
A. Decreased insulin secretion
B. Decreased ADH secretion
C. Decreased aldosterone secretion
D. Unresponsiveness of osmoreceptors (Ref. 2, p. 469)
18. Acetazolamide inhibits:
A. Renin secretion
B. Aldosterone secretion
C. ADH secretion
D. Carbonic anhydrase (Ref. 2, p. 477)
19. The most abundant anion in plasma is:
A. Phosphate B. Chloride
C. Bicarbonate D. Sulphate (Ref. 2, p. 471)
20. The most abundant anion in intracellular fluid is:
A. Phosphate B. Sulphate
C. Bicarbonate D. Chloride (Ref. 2, p. 471)
21. A diuretic that acts by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase is:
A. Ethacrynic acid
B. Mannitol
C. Acetazolamide
22. Osmolality of plasma is expressed in terms of:
A. Milliosmoles/gm
B. Milliosmoles/mL
C. Milliosmoles/kg
D. Milliosmoles/liter (Ref. 2, p. 713)
15 D 16 D 17 B 18 D 19 B 20 A 21 C 22 C
Water and Electrolyte Balance 223
23. The second messenger for ADH in renal tubular cells is:
A. Cyclic AMP B. Cyclic GMP
C. Diacylglycerol D. Ca++(Ref. 2, p. 469)
24. ADH acts on distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts by
binding to:
A. V1 receptors on cell membrane
B. V2 receptors on cell membrane
C. V1 receptors in cytosol
D. V2 receptors in cytosol (Ref. 2, p. 469)
25. Urinary excretion of sodium is increased by:
A. Aldosterone
B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. Reninangiotensin system
D. Atrial natriuretic peptide (Ref. 2, p. 472)
26. Urinary excretion of potassium is increased by:
A. Renin B. Angiotensin
C. ADH D. Aldosterone (Ref. 2, p. 472)
27. In hypotonic contraction of extracellular fluid:
A. ECF volume is decreased
B. Osmolality of blood is decreased
C. Hypertonic fluid is lost from the body
28. Increased osmolality of plasma stimulates the secretion of:
A. Calcitonin B. Renin
C. ADH D. Oxytocin (Ref. 2, p. 437)
23 A 24 B 25 D 26 D 27 D 28 C
Acid-base Balance
21
1. Haemoglobin transports carbon dioxide bound to:
A. C-Terminals of its polypeptide chains
B. N-Terminals of its polypeptide chains
C. Iron
D. All of these (Ref. 1, p. 44)
2. At pH 7.4, the ratio of bicarbonate: dissolved CO2 is:
A. 1:1 B. 10:1
C. 20:1 D. 40:1 (Ref. 2, p. 475)
3. Quantitatively, the most significant buffer system in plasma is:
A. Phosphate buffer system
B. Carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
C. Lactic acid-lactate buffer system
D. Protein buffer system (Ref. 2, p. 475)
4. In a solution containing phosphate buffer, the pH will be 7.4 if
the ratio of monohydrogen phosphate: dihydrogen phosphate
is:
A. 4:1 B. 5:1
C. 10:1 D. 20:1 (Ref. 2, p. 476)
5. pKa of dihydrogen phosphate is:
A. 5.8 B. 6.1
C. 6.8 D. 7.1 (Ref. 2, p. 475)
6. Buffering action of haemoglobin is mainly due to its:
A. Glutamine residues
B. Arginine residues
C. Histidine residues
D. Lysine residues (Ref. 2, p. 476)
1 B 2 C 3 B 4 A 5 C 6 C
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Acid-base Balance 225
7. Respiratory acidosis results from:

A. Retention of carbon dioxide
B. Excessive elimination of carbon dioxide
C. Retention of bicarbonate
D. Excessive elimination of bicarbonate (Ref. 2, p. 482)
8. Respiratory acidosis can occur in all of the following except:
A. Pulmonary infection
B. Hysterical hyperventilation
C. Pneumothorax
D. Emphysema (Ref. 2, p. 482)
9. The initial event in respiratory acidosis is:
A. Decrease in pH
B. Increase in pCO2
C. Increase in plasma bicarbonate
D. Decrease in plasma bicarbonate (Ref. 2, p. 482)
10. Respiratory alkalosis can occur in:
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Collapse of lungs
C. Hysterical hyperventilation
D. Bronchial obstruction (Ref. 2, p. 482)
11. The primary event in respiratory alkalosis is:
A. Rise in pH
B. Decrease in pCO2
C. Increase in plasma bicarbonate
D. Decrease in plasma chloride (Ref. 2, p. 482)
12. Anion gap is the difference in the plasma concentrations of:
A. (Chloride) – (Bicarbonate)
B. (Sodium) – (Chloride)
C. (Sodium + Potassium) – (Chloride + Bicarbonate)
D. (Sum of cations) – (Sum of anions)
(Ref. 2, p. 480)
13. Normal anion gap in plasma is about:
A. 5 mEq/L
B. 15 mEq/L
C. 25 mEq/L
D. 40 mEq/L (Ref. 2, p. 480)
7 A 8 B 9 B 10 C 11 B 12 C 13 B
Ch 21.indd 225 01-09-2015 16:57:37

14. Anion gap is normal in:

A. Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Uraemic acidosis (Ref. 2, p. 498)
15. Anion gap is increased in:
A. Renal tubular acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis resulting from diarrhoea
C. Metabolic acidosis resulting from intestinal obstruction
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Ref. 2, p. 480)
16. Anion gap in plasma is because:
A. Of differential distribution of ions across cell membranes
B. Cations outnumber anions in plasma
C. Anions outnumber cations in plasma
D. Of unmeasured anions in plasma (Ref. 2, p. 480)
17. Diabetic ketosis can cause:
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap
C. Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
D. Metabolic alkalosis (Ref. 2, p. 421)
18. Anion gap of plasma can be due to the presence of all of the
following except:
A. Bicarbonate B. Lactate
C. Pyruvate D. Citrate (Ref. 2, p. 481)
19. All the following features are found in blood chemistry in
uncompensated lactic acidosis except:
A. pH is decreased
B. Bicarbonate is decreased
C. pCO2 is normal
D. Anion gap is normal (Ref. 2, p. 480)
20. All the following statements about renal tubular acidosis are
correct except:
A. It is a type of metabolic acidosis
B. Plasma bicarbonate is decreased in it
C. Plasma chloride is increased in it
D. Anion gap is decreased in it (Ref. 2, pp. 480-481)
14 A 15 D 16 D 17 C 18 A 19 D 20 D
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Acid-base Balance 227
21. Metabolic alkalosis can occur in:

A. Severe diarrhoea B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Severe vomiting D. Renal failure
(Ref. 2, p. 480)
22. Salicylate intoxication initially causes:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis (Ref. 2, p. 480)
23. Blood chemistry shows the following changes in compensated
respiratory acidosis:
A. Increased pCO2
B. Increased bicarbonate
C. Decreased chloride
24. Metabolic alkalosis can occur in:
A. Severe diarrhoea
B. Renal failure
C. Recurrent vomiting
D. Excessive use of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
(Ref. 2, p. 482)
25. All the following features are present in blood chemistry in
uncompensated metabolic alkalosis except:
A. Increased pH
B. Increased bicarbonate
C. Normal chloride
D. Normal pCO2(Ref. 2, p. 482)
26. pH of body fluids is maintained by:
A. Chemical buffers
B. Respiratory system
C. Kidneys
27. pKa:
A. Depends upon dissociation constant of the acid
B. Is the negative log of the dissociation constant of an acid
C. Of an acid is constant
D. All of the above are correct (Ref. 2, p. 475)
21 C 22 D 23 D 24 C 25 C 26 D 27 D
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28. The hydrogen ion concentration in plasma is about:

A. 7.4 nmol/liter B. 40 nmol/liter
C. 7.4 mmol/liter D. 40 mmol/liter
(Ref. 2, p. 475)
29. The 2% of buffering capacity of blood is due to:
A. Plasma proteins
B. Haemoglobin
C. Bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer
D. Phosphate buffer (Ref. 2, p. 476)
30. Metabolic acidosis can occur in all of the following except:
A. Diabetes mellitus B. Vomiting
C. Diarrhoea D. Uraemia (Ref. 2, p. 482)
28 B 29 A 30 B
Ch 21.indd 228 01-09-2015 16:57:37

Nutrition and Diet
22
1. One joule is the energy required to:
A. Raise the temperature of 1 gm of water by 1°C
B. Raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C
C. Move a mass of 1 gm by 1 cm distance by a force of 1 Newton
D. Move a mass of 1 kg by 1 metre distance by a force of 1 Newton
(Ref. 2, p. 503)
2. One kcal is roughly equal to:
A. 4.2 J B. 42 J
C. 4.2 kJ D. 42 kJ (Ref. 2, p. 503)
3. Calorific value of proteins as determined in a bomb calorimeter
is:
A. 4 kcal/gm B. 4.8 kcal/gm
C. 5.4 kcal/gm D. 5.8 kcal/gm (Ref. 2, p. 503)
4. Calorific value of proteins in a living person is less than that in
a bomb calorimeter because:
A. Digestion and absorption of proteins is less than 100%
B. Respiratory quotient of proteins is less than one
C. Specific dynamic action of proteins is high
D. Proteins are not completely oxidized in living persons
(Ref. 2, p. 503)
5. Calorific value of alcohol is:
A. 4 kcal/gm B. 5.4 kcal/gm
C. 7 kcal/gm D 9 kcal/gm (Ref. 2, p. 503)
6. Energy expenditure of a person can be measured by:
A. Bomb calorimeter
B. Benedict-Roth spirometer
C. Dual isotopically labeled water
1 D 2 C 3 C 4 D 5 C 6 C
Ch 22.indd 229 01-09-2015 16:57:56

7. Respiratory quotient of carbohydrates is about:

A. 0.5 B. 0.7
C. 0.8 D. 1.0 (Ref. 2, p. 503)
8. Respiratory quotient of fats is about:
A. 0.5 B. 0.7
C. 0.8 D. 1.0 (Ref. 2, p. 503)
9. Respiratory quotient of proteins is about:
A. 0.5 B. 0.7
C. 0.8 D. 1.0 (Ref. 2, p. 503)
10. Respiratory quotient of an average mixed diet is about:
A. 0.65 B. 0.7
C. 0.75 D. 0.85 (Ref. 2, p. 503)
11. At a respiratory quotient of 0.85, every litre of oxygen consumed
represents an energy expenditure of:
A. 5.825 kcal B. 4.825 kcal
C. 3.825 kcal D. 2.825 kcal (Ref. 2, p. 503)
12. BMR of healthy adult men is about:
A. 30 kcal/hour/square metre
B. 35 kcal/hour/square metre
C. 40 kcal/hour/square metre
D. 45 kcal/hour/square metre (Ref. 2, p. 504)
13. BMR of healthy adult women is about:
A. 32 kcal/hour/square metre
B. 36 kcal/hour/square metre
C. 40 kcal/hour/square metre
D. 44 kcal/hour/square metre (Ref. 2, p. 504)
14. BMR is higher in:
A. Adults than in children
B. Men than in women
C. Vegetarians than in nonvegetarians
D. Warmer climate than in colder climate (Ref. 2, p. 504)
15. BMR is decreased in:
A. Pregnancy B. Starvation
C. Anaemia D. Fever (Ref. 2, p. 504)
16. BMR is increased in:
A. Starvation B. Hypothyroidism
C. Adrenal insufficiency D. Pregnancy (Ref. 2, p. 504)
7 D 8 B 9 C 10 D 11 B 12 C 13 B 14 B 15 B 16 D
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Nutrition and Diet 231
17. BMR is decreased in all of the following except:

A. Fever B. Adrenal insufficiency
C. Starvation D. Hypothyroidism
(Ref. 2, p. 504)
18. BMR is increased in all of the following except:
A. Hyperthyroidism B. Anaemia
C. Adrenal insufficiency D. Pregnancy (Ref. 2, p. 504)
19. Specific dynamic action of carbohydrates is about:
A. 5% B. 13%
C. 20% D. 30% (Ref. 2, p. 505)
20. Specific dynamic action of proteins is about:
A. 5% B. 13%
C. 20% D. 30% (Ref. 2, p. 505)
21. Specific dynamic action of a mixed diet is about:
A. 5% B. 10%
C. 15% D. 20% (Ref. 2, p. 505)
22. After accounting for SDA, the net gain of energy from 25 gm of
proteins is about:
A. 70 kcal B. 100 kcal
C. 130 kcal D. 200 kcal (Ref. 2, p. 505)
carbohydrates is about:
C. 100 kcal D. 105 kcal (Ref. 2, p. 505)
fats is about:
C. 900 kcal D. 1020 kcal (Ref. 2, p. 505)
25. If proteins, carbohydrates and fats are consumed together:
A. The total SDA is the sum of individual SDAs of proteins,
carbohydrates and fats
B. The total SDA is more than the sum of individual SDAs of
proteins, carbohydrates and fats
C. Carbohydrates and fats lower the SDA of proteins
D. Proteins raise the SDA of carbohydrates and fats
(Ref. 2, p. 505)
17 A 18 C 19 A 20 D 21 B 22 A 23 B 24 B 25 C
Ch 22.indd 231 01-09-2015 16:57:56

26. After calculating the energy requirement of a person:

A. 10% kcal are subtracted on account of SDA
B. 10% kcal are added on account of SDA
C. 20% kcal are subtracted on account of SDA
D. 20% kcal are added on account of SDA (Ref. 2, p. 505)
27. The largest variable affecting energy expenditure of an indi
vidual is:
A. Environmental temperature
B. Physical activity
C. Basal metabolic requirement
D. Specific dynamic action of food (Ref. 1, p. 486)
28. Cysteine can partially spare the requirement for:
A. Methionine B. Phenylalanine
C. Tyrosine D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 488)
29. Glycemic index of the following is less than that of glucose:
A. Fructose B. Lactose
C. Galactose D. Maltose (Ref. 1, p. 482)
30. Glycemic index of the following is same as that of glucose:
A. Fructose B. Sorbitol
C. Lactose D. Sucrose (Ref. 1, p. 482)
31. Energy yielding nutrients are:
A. Vitamins and minerals
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates and fats
D. Carbohydrates, fats and proteins (Ref. 1, p. 486)
32. The limiting amino acid in wheat is:
A. Leucine B. Lysine
C. Cysteine D. Methionine (Ref. 2, p. 513)
33. The limiting amino acid in pulses is:
A. Leucine B. Lysine
C. Tryptophan D. Methionine (Ref. 2, p. 513)
34. Soybean is poor in:
A. Lysine
B. Threonine
C. Tryptophan
D. Sulfur containing amino acids (Ref. 2, p. 513)
26 B 27 B 28 A 29 A 30 C 31 D 32 B 33 D 34 D
Ch 22.indd 232 01-09-2015 16:57:56

35. Chemical score of a protein depends upon its:

A. Net protein utilization
B. Protein efficiency ratio
C. Essential amino acid content
D. Biological value (Ref. 2, p. 512)
36. Biological value of a protein is:
A. The percentage of ingested protein/nitrogen absorbed into
circulation
B. The percentage of ingested protein/nitrogen retained in the
body
C. The percentage of ingested protein utilized for protein
synthesis in the body
D. The gain in body weight (gm) per gm of protein ingested
(Ref. 2, p. 512)
37. Net protein utilization depends upon:
A. Protein efficiency ratio
B. Digestibility coefficient
C. Digestibility coefficient and protein efficiency ratio
D. Digestibility and nitrogen retention (Ref. 2, p. 512)
38. The gain in body weight (gm) per gm of protein ingested is
known as:
A. Net protein utilization
B. Protein efficiency ratio
C. Digestibility coefficient
D. Biological value of protein (Ref. 2, p. 512)
39. All the following are proteins of high biological value except:
A. Milk proteins B. Soybean proteins
C. Egg proteins D. Fish proteins (Ref. 2, p. 512)
40. Biological value of egg proteins is about:
A. 80% B. 86%
C. 92% D. 98% (Ref. 2, p. 512)
41. The following has the highest protein efficiency ratio:
A. Milk proteins B. Egg proteins
C. Meat proteins D. Fish proteins (Ref. 2, p. 512)
42. The following has the lowest net protein utilization:
A. Maize proteins B. Wheat proteins
C. Milk proteins D. Rice proteins (Ref. 2, p. 512)
35 C 36 B 37 D 38 B 39 B 40 D 41 B 42 A
Ch 22.indd 233 01-09-2015 16:57:56

43. Protein content of egg is about:

A. 10% B. 13%
C. 16% D. 20% (Ref. 2, p. 514)
44. Protein content of meat is about:
A. 10% B. 13%
C. 16% D. 20% (Ref. 2, p. 514)
45. Protein content of pulses is about:
A. 20% B. 15%
C. 10% D. 5% (Ref. 2, p. 514)
46. Highest protein content amongst the following is present in:
A. Milk B. Egg
C. Cereals D. Pulses (Ref. 2, p. 514)
47. Daily protein requirement of an adult man is:
A. 0.5 gm/kg of body weight
B. 0.8 gm/kg of body weight
C. 1.0 gm/kg of body weight
D. 1.5 gm/kg of body weight (Ref. 2, p. 514)
48. Daily protein requirement of an adult woman is:
A. 0.5 gm/kg of body weight
B. 0.8 gm/kg of body weight
C. 1.0 gm/kg of body weight
D. 1.5 gm/kg of body weight (Ref. 2, p. 514)
49. Exposure to sunlight decreases the requirement of:
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K (Ref. 1, p. 492)
50. Cholesterol is present in all of the following except:
A. Egg B. Fish
C. Milk D. Pulses (Ref. 1, p. 230)
51. The amino acids present in pulses can supplement the limiting
amino acids of:
A. Cereals B. Milk
C. Fish D. Nuts and beans
(Ref. 2, p. 513)
52. Milk is a good source of all of the following except:
A. Essential amino acids B. Vitamin C
C. Galactose D. Calcium and phosphorus
(Ref. 2, pp. 496-497)
43 B 44 D 45 A 46 D 47 C 48 C 49 C 50 D 51 A 52 B
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53. Consumption of raw eggs can cause deficiency of:

A. Calcium B. Lipoic acid
C. Biotin D. Vitamin A (Ref. 1, p. 502)
54. Kwashiorkor occurs when the diet is severely deficient in:
A. Iron B. Calories
C. Proteins D. Essential fatty acids
(Ref. 2, p. 516)
55. Clinical features of kwashiorkor include all of the following
except:
A. Mental retardation B. Impaired immunity
C. Oedema D. Anaemia
(Ref. 2, p. 516)
56. Kwashiorkor usually occurs in:
A. The post weaning period
B. Pregnancy
C. Lactation
D. Old age (Ref. 2, p. 516)
57. Marasmus occurs from deficient intake of:
A. Essential amino acids
B. Essential fatty acids
C. Calories
D. Zinc (Ref. 2, p. 517)
58. Marasmus differs from kwashiorkor in the following respect:
A. Mental retardation occurs in kwashiorkor but not in marasmus
B. Growth in retarded in kwashiorkor but not in marasmus
C. Muscle wasting occurs in marasmus but not in kwashiorkor
D. Oedema occurs in kwashiorkor but not in marasmus
(Ref. 2, p. 517)
59. Energy reserves of an average well-fed adult man are about:
A. 50,000 kcal B. 100,000 kcal
C. 150,000 kcal D. 300,000 kcal (Ref. 2, p. 383)
60. During starvation, ketone bodies are used as a fuel by:
A. Erythrocytes
B. Brain
C. Liver
53 C 54 C 55 A 56 A 57 C 58 D 59 B 60 B
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61. Desirable body mass index is:

A. 35–40 B. 30–35
C. 25–30 D. 20–25 (Ref. 1, p. 486)
62. Body mass index is:
A. Weight in kg/Height in metres
B. Weight in kg/[Height in metres]2
C. Height in metres/Weight in kg
D. [Height in metres]2/Weight in kg (Ref. 1, p. 486)
63. Consumption of iodized salt is recommended for prevention
of:
A. Hypertension
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Endemic goitre
64. Restriction of salt intake is generally recommended in:
B. Hypertension
C. Cirrhosis of liver
D. Peptic ulcer (Ref. 2, p. 411)
65. The correct increasing order of calorific values is:
A. Carbohydrate, ethanol and fat
B. Carbohydrate, fat and ethanol
C. Fat, ethanol and carbohydrate
D. Ethanol, fat and carbohydrate (Ref. 2, p. 503)
66. The following has the highest calorific value:
A. Carbohydrate B. Protein
C. Fat D. Ethanol (Ref. 2, p. 503)
67. Energy expenditure of an individual is influenced by:
A. Basal metabolic rate
B. Specific dynamic action of food
C. Physical activity
68. Amino acids are required to synthesize all of the following
except:
A. Purines B. Pyrimidines
C. Pyridoxine D. Haem
(Ref. 1, pp. 279, 303, 306, 498)
61 D 62 B 63 C 64 B 65 A 66 C 67 D 68 C
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69. If sufficient tyrosine is present in diet, it spares the require

ment of:
A. Phenylalanine
B. Tryptophan
C. Lysine
70. An essential function of dietary lipids is to provide:
A. Energy
B. Essential fatty acids
C. Cholesterol
69 A 70 B
Ch 22.indd 237 01-09-2015 16:57:56

Hormones
23
1. Hormone receptors possess all the following properties
except:
A. All of them are proteins
B. They possess a recognition domain
C. They bind hormones with a high degree of specificity
D. Number of receptors in a target cell is constant
(Ref. 1, p. 464)
2. The only correct statement about hormone receptors is:
A. Receptors for protein hormones are present in cytosol
B. Receptors for steroid hormones are membrane-bound
C. Hormone-receptor binding is irreversible
D. Receptors can undergo downregulation and upregulation
(Ref. 1, p. 443)
3. Downregulation is:
A. Increased destruction of a hormone
B. Feedback inhibition of hormone secretion
C. Decreased concentration of a hormone in blood
D. Decrease in number of receptors for a hormone
(Ref. 1, p. 443)
4. All the following statements about hormones are true
except:
A. All of them require specific carriers in plasma
B. All of them require specific receptors in target cells
C. Some of them are subject to feedback regulation
D. Some of them increase the transcription of certain genes
(Ref. 1, p. 464)
1 D 2 D 3 D 4 A
Hormones 239
5. All the following statements about steroid hormones are true

except:
A. They are hydrophobic
B. They require carriers to transport them in circulation
C. Their receptors are intracellular
D. They require cyclic AMP as second messenger
(Ref. 1, p. 466)
6. Cyclic AMP acts as the second messenger for:
A. ADH B. Glucagon
C. Calcitonin D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 466)
7. Cyclic AMP acts as the second messenger for all of the following
except:
A. Oxytocin B. TSH
C. ACTH D. FSH (Ref. 1, p. 466)
8. Cyclic GMP acts as the second messenger for:
A. Nerve growth factor B. Atrial natriuretic factor
C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine
(Ref. 1, p. 470)
9. Some hormones produce their intracellular effects by
activating:
A. Phospholipase A1 B. Phospholipase B
C. Phospholipase C D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 471)
10. Inositol triphosphate is the second messenger for:
A. Gastrin
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Oxytocin
11. G-proteins act as:
A. Hormone carriers B. Hormone receptors
C. Second messengers D. Signal transducers
(Ref. 1, p. 466)
12. Signal transducer for glucagon is a:
A. Cyclic nucleotide B. Phosphoinositide
C. Stimulatory G-protein D. Inhibitory G-protein
(Ref. 1, p. 468)
5 D 6 D 7 A 8 B 9 C 10 D 11 D 12 C
13. G-proteins are:

A. Monomers B. Dimers
C. Trimers D. Tetramers (Ref. 1, p. 466)
14. G-proteins have a nucleotide binding site for:
A. ADP/ATP B. GDP/GTP
C. CDP/CTP D. UDP/UTP (Ref. 1, p. 467)
15. The nucleotide binding site of G-proteins is present on their:
A. a-Subunit B. b-Subunit
C. g-Subunit D. d-Subunit(Ref. 1, p. 467)
16. Adenylate cyclase is activated by:
A. GDP-Bearing a-Subunit of G-Protein
B. GTP-Bearing a-Subunit of G-Protein
C. GDP-Bearing g-Subunit of G-Protein
D. GTP-Bearing g-Subunit of G-Protein (Ref. 1, p. 467)
17. Tyrosine kinase activity is present in:
A. a-Adrenergic receptors B. b-Adrenergic receptors
C. Cholinergic receptors D. Insulin receptors
(Ref. 1, p. 445)
18. Insulin receptor is a:
A. Monomer B. Dimer
C. Trimer D. Tetramer (Ref. 2, p. 672)
19. Tyrosine kinase activity is present in:
A. Acetylcholine receptor B. PDGF receptor
C. ADH receptor D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 445)
20. Protein kinase C is activated by:
C. Diacyl glycerol D. Inositol triphosphate
(Ref. 1, p. 471)
21. Melatonin is synthesized in:
A. Hypothalamus B. Posterior pituitary gland
C. Pineal gland D. Melanocytes (Ref. 1, p. 272)
22. Melatonin is synthesized from:
C. Tryptophan D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 272)
13 C 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 D 18 D 19 B 20 C 21 C 22 C
Hormones 241
23. Melanocyte stimulating hormone is secreted by:

A. Pineal gland
B. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland
C. Posterior lobe of pituitary gland
D. Intermediate lobe of pituitary gland (Ref. 1, p. 461)
24. MSH is formed by cleavage of:
A. CLIP B. POMC
C. Endorphin D. Melatonin (Ref. 1, p. 461)
25. Secretion of MSH is inhibited by:
A. Feedback mechanism B. Serotonin
C. Melatonin D. ACTH (Ref. 2, p. 358)
26. A hormone produced in the neurohypophysis is:
A. Melatonin
B. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
C. Vasopressin
D. Prolactin (Ref. 2, p. 437)
27. Posterior pituitary gland secretes:
A. Catecholamines
B. Oxytocin
C. Follicle stimulating hormone
D. Serotonin (Ref. 2, p. 437)
28. A nonapeptide among the following is:
A. Antidiuretic hormone
B. Insulin
C. ACTH
D. Thyrotropin releasing hormone (Ref. 2, p. 437)
29. Diabetes insipidus is caused by deficient secretion of:
C. ADH D. Oxytocin (Ref. 2, p. 669)
30. Diabetes insipidus can be caused by defects in the receptor for:
A. Antidiuretic hormone B. Melatonin
C. Glucagon D Oxytocin (Ref. 2, p. 437)
31. Somatotropin is secreted by:
A. Hypothalamus B. Anterior pituitary
C. Posterior pituitary D. Thyroid gland
(Ref. 2, p. 433)
23 D 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 B 28 A 29 C 30 A 31 B
32. Secretion of insulin-like growth factor-1 is promoted by:

C. Growth hormone D. Somatomedin C
(Ref. 2, p. 434)
33. Growth hormone increases:
A. Protein synthesis B. Lipogenesis
C. Glycogenolysis D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 434)
34. Secretion of growth hormone is inhibited by:
A. Somatomedin C
B. Somatostatin
C. Feedback inhibition
35. Secretion of somatotropin is promoted by:
A. Somatomedin C
B. Somatostatin
C. Growth hormone releasing hormone
D. Hypoglycaemia (Ref. 2, p. 433)
36. A hypothalamic hormone is:
A. TSH B. TRH
C. ACTH D. LH (Ref. 2, p. 433)
37. cAMP is the second messenger for:
A. Angiotensin B. Prolactin
C. Somatostatin D. T4(Ref. 1, p. 445)
38. cAMP production is decreased by:
A. ACTH B. Calcitonin
C. MSH D. Somatostatin (Ref. 1, p. 468)
39. Angiotensin II:
A. Activates guanylate cyclase
B. Inhibits guanylate cyclase
C. Inhibits adenylate cyclase
D. None of these (Ref. 1, p. 468)
40. Precursor of ACTH is:
A. Cholesterol B. Pregnenolone
C. Corticotropin D. Pro-opiomelanocortin
(Ref. 1, p. 460)
32 C 33 A 34 B 35 C 36 B 37 C 38 D 39 C 40 D
Hormones 243
41. All of the following can be formed from pro-opiomelanocortin

except:
A. a- and b-MSH
B. b- and g-Lipotropins
C. a- and b-Endorphins
D. FSH (Ref. 1, p. 460)
42. All the following statements about pro-opiomelanocortin are
true except:
A. It is made up of 285 amino acids
B. It is synthesized in pars intermedia and anterior lobe of
pituitary gland
C. It is the precursor of ACTH and melatonin
D. It is the precursor of corticotropin-like intermediate lobe
peptide and endorphins (Ref. 1, pp. 459-461)
43. All the following statements about ACTH are true except:
A. It is a tropic hormone
B. Its target cells are located in adrenal cortex
C. Its receptors are located in the cell membrane
D. Its second messenger is inositol triphosphate
(Ref. 2, pp. 429, 436)
44. Regulation of ACTH secretion occurs through:
A. Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) and corticotropin
release inhibiting hormone (CRIH) of hypothalamus
B. CRIH
C. CRH
45. ACTH is a polypeptide made up of:
A. 39 amino acids B. 41 amino acids
C. 51 amino acids D. 84 amino acids
(Ref. 1, p. 446)
46. CRH is secreted by:
A. Adenohypophysis B. Hypothalamus
C. Neurohypophysis D. Adrenal cortex
(Ref. 2, p. 433)
47. TRH is a:
A. Hexapeptide B. Pentapeptide
C. Tetrapeptide D. Tripeptide (Ref. 1, p. 446)
41 D 42 C 43 D 44 C 45 A 46 B 47 D
48. All the following statements about TSH are true except:
A. It is a glycoprotein
B. It is made up of a- and b-subunits
C. Receptor recognition involves both the subunits
D. Its b-subunit is identical with those of FSH and LH
(Ref. 1, p. 446)
49. All the following statements about TSH are true except:
A. It is a tropic hormone
B. It acts on thyroid gland
C. Its receptors are membrane-bound
D. Its second messenger is cyclic AMP (Ref. 1, pp. 445, 455)
50. All the following statements about thyrotropin releasing
hormone are true except:
A. It is secreted by hypothalamus
B. It is a pentapeptide
C. It increases the secretion of TSH
D. Its secretion is inhibited by high level of T3 and T4 in blood
(Ref. 2, pp. 431-433)
51. In males, luteinizing hormone acts on:
A. Leydig cells B. Sertoli cells
C. Prostate gland D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 435)
52. All the following statements about FSH are true except:
A. It is secreted by anterior pituitary
B. Its secretion is increased by gonadotropin releasing hormone
C. It promotes spermatogenesis
D. It increases the synthesis of progesterone (Ref. 2, p. 435)
53. In males, luteinizing hormone stimulates the:
A. Production of sperms
B. Action of FSH
C. Production of testosterone
D. Release of inhibin (Ref. 2, p. 435)
54. Secretion of luteinizing hormone is increased by:
A. GnRH B. FSH
C. Testosterone D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, pp. 433-435)
48 D 49 B 50 B 51 A 52 D 53 C 54 A
Hormones 245
55. In structure and function, hCG resembles:

A. FSH B. LH
C. GnRH D. Progesterone (Ref. 2, p. 435)
56. Acromegaly results from overproduction of:
A. ACTH during childhood
B. TSH during adult life
C. Growth hormone during childhood
D. Growth hormone during adult life (Ref. 2, p. 434)
57. Acromegaly:
A. Results from overproduction of GH
B. Increased stature occurs after epiphyseal closure
C. Does not cause overgrowth of bones
D. Is a harmless condition (Ref. 2, p. 434)
58. Overproduction of growth hormone during childhood causes:
A. Acromegaly B. Gigantism
C. Cushing’s disease D. Simmond’s disease
(Ref. 2, p. 434)
59. Decreased secretion of growth hormone during childhood
causes:
A. Simmond’s disease B. Cushing’s disease
C. Dwarfism D. Cretinism (Ref. 2, p. 434)
60. Stature is increased in:
A. Gigantism B. Acromegaly
C. Simmond’s disease D. Cushing’s disease
(Ref. 2, p. 434)
61. An amino acid used for the synthesis of thyroid hormone is:
A. Tyrosine B. Tryptophan
C. Histidine D. Proline (Ref. 1, p. 455)
62. An enzyme required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones is:
A. Iodinase B. Deiodinase
C. Thyroperoxidase D. Thyroxine synthetase
(Ref. 1, p. 457)
63. Thyroperoxidase iodinates:
A. Free tyrosine in thyroid gland
B. Tyrosine residues of thyroglobulin
C. Tyrosine residues of thyroxine binding globulin
D. Tyrosine residues of thyroxine binding prealbumin
(Ref. 1, pp. 455-457)
55 B 56 D 57 B 58 B 59 C 60 A 61 A 62 C 63 B
64. In thyroxine, tyrosine residues are iodinated at positions:

A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 5 D. 4 and 6 (Ref. 2, p. 438)
65. Thyroid gland takes up circulating iodine:
A. By simple diffusion
B. By facilitated diffusion
C. By active uptake
D. In exchange for chloride (Ref. 1, pp. 455-456)
66. Thyroid hormones are present in blood:
A. In free from
B. In association with thyroxine binding globulin (TBG)
C. In association with albumin
D. Mainly in association with TBG and partly in free form
(Ref. 1, p. 462)
67. T3 and T4 binding capacity of thyroxine binding globulin is:
C. 10 mg/dL D. 5 mg/dL(Ref. 1, p. 462)
68. Receptors for thyroid hormones are present:
A. On the cell membrane
B. Across the cell membrane
C. Inside the cells
D. In association with G-proteins (Ref. 1, p. 445)
69. Binding of thyroxine to its receptors:
A. Activates adenylate cyclase
B. Activates guanylate cyclase
C. Activates a stimulatory G-protein
D. Increases transcription (Ref. 1, p. 465)
70. The most powerful thyroid hormone is:
A. Reverse T3 B. DIT
C. T3 D. T4(Ref. 1, p. 462)
71. The most abundant thyroid hormone in blood is:
A. Free T3 B. T3 bound to TBG
C. Free T4 D. T4 bound to TBG
(Ref. 1, p. 462)
72. Secretion of thyroid hormones is regulated by:
A. Hypothalamus B. Anterior pituitary
C. Feedback regulation D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 439)
64 C 65 C 66 D 67 A 68 C 69 D 70 C 71 D 72 D
Hormones 247
73. Clinical features of hyperthyroidism include:

A. Goitre, heat intolerance, weight loss and tachycardia
B. Goitre, tremors, tachycardia and cold intolerance
C. Exophthalmos, goitre, tachycardia and loss of appetite
D. Exophthalmos, goitre, tremors and obesity
(Ref. 2, p. 440)
74. All the following may occur in hyperthyroidism except:
A. Goitre B. Increased appetite
C. Loss of weight D. Low BMR (Ref. 2, p. 440)
75. All the following may occur in myxoedema except:
A. Cold intolerance B. Low BMR
C. Tachycardia D. Dry and coarse skin
(Ref. 2, p. 441)
76. Mental retardation can occur in:
A. Cretinism B. Juvenile myxoedema
C. Myxoedema D. Juvenile thyrotoxicosis
(Ref. 2, p. 441)
77. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is synthesized:
A. As prepro PTH B. As pro PTH
C. As such D. In follicular cells(Ref. 1, p. 457)
78. The number of amino acid residues in PTH is:
A. 51 B. 84
C. 90 D. 115 (Ref. 1, p. 457)
79. Amino acid residues which are essential for the biological
activity of PTH are:
A. N-terminal 34 amino acids
B. N-terminal 50 amino acids
C. C-terminal 34 amino acids
D. C-terminal 50 amino acids (Ref. 1, p. 459)
80. A signal sequence is present in:
A. Pre PTH B. Prepro PTH
C. Pro PTH D. PTH (Ref. 1, p. 457)
81. The second messenger for PTH is:
C. Diacylglycerol D. Inositol triphosphate
(Ref. 1, p. 445)
73 A 74 D 75 C 76 A 77 A 78 B 79 A 80 B 81 A
82. PTH causes all of the following except:

A. Increased intestinal absorption of calcium
B. Release of calcium from bones
C. Increased tubular reabsorption of calcium
D. Increased secretion of calcitonin (Ref. 2, p. 407)
83. Secretion of PTH is regulated by:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Anterior pituitary
C. Feedback effect of plasma PTH
D. Feedback effect of plasma calcium (Ref. 2, p. 407)
84. A high concentration of PTH in blood causes:
A. Increase in plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorus
B. Decrease in plasma calcium and inorganic phosphorus
C. Increase in plasma calcium and decrease in plasma inorganic
phosphorus
D. Decrease in plasma calcium and increase in plasma inorganic
phosphorus(Ref. 2, p. 408)
85. Tetany can occur:
A. In primary hyperparathyroidism
B. In secondary hyperparathyroidism
C. In idiopathic hypoparathyroidism
D. After accidental removal of parathyroid glands
(Ref. 2, p. 408)
86. In hyperparathyroidism:
A. Urinary calcium and inorganic phosphorus are low
B. Urinary calcium and inorganic phosphorus are normal
C. Urinary calcium is decreased and inorganic phosphorus is
increased
D. Urinary calcium is high and inorganic phosphorus low
(Ref. 2, p. 408)
87. The second messenger for calcitonin is:
A. Tyrosine kinase B. cAMP
C. Calcium D. cGMP (Ref. 1, p. 445)
88. Calcitonin is synthesized in:
A. Parathyroid glands
B. Thyroid gland
C. Pars intermedia of pituitary
D Adrenal cortex (Ref. 1, p. 445)
82 D 83 D 84 C 85 D 86 C 87 B 88 B
Hormones 249
89. Plasma calcium is influenced by all of the following except:

A. Parathormone B. Aldosterone
C. Calcitonin D. Calcitriol (Ref. 2, p. 407)
90. a cells of islets of Langerhans secrete:
C. Somatostatin D. Cholecystokinin
(Ref. 1, p. 174)
91. Insulin is secreted by following cells of islets of Langerhans:
A. a cells B. b cells
C. d cells D. F cells (Ref. 1, p. 173)
92. Insulin is made up of:
A. A single polypeptide chain having 51 amino acid residues
B. A single polypeptide chain having 84 amino acid residues
C. A-chain having 21 and B-chain having 30 amino acid residues
D. A-chain having 30 and B-chain having 21 amino acid residues
(Ref. 1, p. 458)
93. The number of amino acid residues in proinsulin is:
A. 51 B. 64
C. 86 D. 119 (Ref. 1, p. 458)
94. Preproinsulin contains a leader sequence having:
A. 9 amino acid residues
B. 23 amino acid residues
C. 27 amino acid residues
D. 33 amino acid residues (Ref. 1, p. 457)
95. The number of intrachain disulphide bonds in proinsulin is:
A. One B. Two
96. Storage of insulin requires in the presence of:
A. Chromium B. Copper
C. Zinc D. Calcium (Ref. 2, p. 149)
97. Daily secretion of insulin is about:
A. 10–20 mg B. 40–50 mg
C. 10–20 units D. 40–50 units (Ref. 1, p. 461)
98. Insulin resistance can occur in:
A. Obesity B. Starvation
C. Hyperinsulinism D. Kwashiorkor (Ref. 1, p. 174)
89 B 90 B 91 B 92 C 93 C 94 B 95 C 96 C 97 D 98 A
99. Insulin binding sites are present on the:

A. a-Subunits of insulin receptor
B. b-Subunits of insulin receptor
C. g-Subunits of insulin receptor
D. a- and b-Subunits of insulin receptor
(Ref. 2, p. 672)
100. a-Subunits of insulin receptor are present:
A. Outside the cell membrane
B. In the cell membrane
C. Across the cell membrane
D. In the cytosol (Ref. 2, p. 672)
101. b-Subunits of insulin receptor are present:
A. Outside the cell membrane
B. In the cell membrane
C. Across the cell membrane
D. In the cytosol (Ref. 2, p. 672)
102. In the insulin receptor, tyrosine kinase domain is present in:
C. g-Subunits D. d-Subunits
(Ref. 2, p. 672)
103. Binding of insulin to its receptor activates:
A. Adenylate cyclase
B. Guanylate cyclase
C. Phospholipase C
D. Tyrosine kinase (Ref. 1, p. 473)
104. Insulin receptor is made up of:
A. One a- and one b-Subunit
B. Two a- and two b-Subunits
C. Two a-, two b and two g-Subunits
D. One a-, one b-, one g- and one d-Subunits(Ref. 2, p. 672)
105. Insulin receptor has:
A. Insulin binding site
B. Tyrosine kinase domain
C. Autophosphorylation site
99 A 100 A 101 C 102 B 103 D 104 B 105 D

Hormones 251
106. Insulin decreases:

A. Glycogenesis
B. Glycolysis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Tubular reabsorption of glucose (Ref. 2, p. 672)
107. Insulin increases:
A. Glycogenesis B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Lipolysis D. Blood glucose
(Ref. 2, p. 672)
108. Insulin increases:
A. Protein synthesis B. Fatty acid synthesis
C. Glycogen synthesis D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 672)
109. Insulin decreases the synthesis of:
A. Hexokinase B. Glucokinase
C. PEP carboxykinase D. Glycogen synthetase
(Ref. 2, p. 672)
110. Release of insulin from the pancreas is increased by:
A. Cholesterol B. Ketone bodies
C. Epinephrine D. Glucocorticoids
(Ref. 1, p. 174)
111. Hypoglycaemic coma can occur:
A. In untreated diabetes mellitus
B. In starvation
C. After overdose of thyroxine
D. After overdose of insulin (Ref. 1, p. 175)
112. Second messenger for glucagon is:
A. Cyclic AMP
B. Diacylglycerol
C. Cyclic GMP
D. Inositol triphosphate (Ref. 1, p. 174)
113. Number of amino acid residues in glucagon is:
A. 29 B. 34
C. 51 D. 84
(Ref. 2, p. 674)
106 C 107 A 108 D 109 C 110 B 111 D 112 A 113 A

114. Glucagon secretion increases:

A. After a carbohydrate-rich meal
B. After a fat-rich meal
C. When blood glucose is high
D. When blood glucose is low (Ref. 1, p. 174)
115. The main effect of glucagon is to increase:
A. Glycolysis in muscles
B. Glycogenolysis in muscles
C. Glycogenolysis in liver
D. Glycogenesis in liver (Ref. 1, p. 174)
116. Tyrosine is required for the synthesis of all of the following
except:
A. Melatonin B. Epinephrine
C. Norepinephrine D. Thyroxine
(Ref. 1, pp. 272-274)
117. Dopamine is synthesized from:
A. Dihydroxyphenylalanine
B. Epinephrine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Metanephrine (Ref. 1, pp. 454-455)
118. Blood brain barrier can be crossed by:
A. Epinephrine
B. Dopamine
C. Dopa
119. Epinephrine is synthesized in:
A. Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
B. Sympathetic ganglia
C. Brain
120. Immediate precursor of epinephrine is:
A. Metanephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Dopa
D. Dopamine (Ref. 1, p. 455)
114 D 115 C 116 A 117 A 118 C 119 D 120 B

Hormones 253
121. The chief metabolite of catecholamines is:

A. Metanephrine
B. Normetanephrine
C. 3,4-Dihydroxymandelic acid
D. Vanillylmandelic acid (Ref. 2, p. 445)
122. An enzyme involved in catabolism of catecholamines is:
A. Dopa decarboxylase
B. Aromatic amino acid decarboxylase
C. Monoamine oxidase
D. Catechol oxidase (Ref. 2, p. 445)
123. Norepinephrine and epinephrine stimulate glycogenolysis by
binding to:
A. a-Adrenergic receptors
B. b-Adrenergic receptors
C. Muscarinic receptors
D. Nicotinic receptors (Ref. 1, p. 162)
124. A stimulatory G-protein transduces the signals from:
A. a1- and b1-Adrenergic receptors
B. a2- and b2-Adrenergic receptors
C. a1- and a2-Adrenergic receptors
D. b1- and b2-Adrenergic receptors (Ref. 1, p. 469)
125. Binding of catecholamines to a2-adrenergic receptors:
A. Increases the intracellular concentration of cAMP
B. Increases the intracellular concentration of cGMP
C. Decreases the intracellular concentration of cAMP
D. Decreases the intracellular concentration of cGMP
(Ref. 1, p. 469)
126. Phospholipase C is activated on binding of catecholamines to:
A. a1-Adrenergic receptors
B. a2-Adrenergic receptors
C. b1-Adrenergic receptors
D. b2-Adrenergic receptors (Ref. 1, p. 469)
127. Epinephrine decreases:
C. Gluconeogenesis D. Lipolysis
(Ref. 1, pp. 164, 170)
121 D 122 C 123 A 124 D 125 C 126 A 127 A

128. Epinephrine increases the concentration of free fatty acids in

plasma by increasing:
A. Extramitochondrial fatty acid synthesis
B. Mitochondrial fatty acid chain elongation
C. Microsomal fatty acid chain elongation
D. Lipolysis in adipose tissue (Ref. 2, p. 445)
129. Epinephrine increases all of the following except:
A. Glycogenolysis in muscles
B. Lipolysis in adipose tissue
C. Gluconeogenesis in muscles
D. Blood glucose (Ref. 2, pp. 261, 445)
130. Secretion of catecholamines is increased in:
A. Cushing’s syndrome B. Addison’s disease
C. Phaeochromocytoma D. Simmond’s disease
(Ref. 2, p. 445)
131. Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex synthesizes:
A. Glucocorticoids
B. Mineralocorticoids
C. Androgens
D. Estrogen and progesterone (Ref. 1, p. 446)
132. Cortisol is a:
A. Glucocorticoid B. Mineralocorticoid
C. Androgen D. Estrogen (Ref. 1, p. 447)
133. The major mineralocorticoid is:
A. Hydrocortisone B. Aldosterone
C. Aldactone A D. Androstenedione
(Ref. 1, p. 446)
134. Steroid hormones are synthesized in all of the following except:
A. Testes B. Ovaries
C. Adrenal medulla D. Adrenal cortex
(Ref. 1, pp. 446-450)
135. Steroid hormones are synthesized from:
A. Cholesterol
B. 7-Dehydrocholesterol
C. Calcitriol
D. 7-Hydroxycholesterol (Ref. 1, p. 446)
128 D 129 C 130 C 131 B 132 A 133 B 134 C 135 A

Hormones 255
136. A common intermediate in the synthesis of all the steroid

hormones is:
A. Pregnenolone
B. 17-Hydroxypregnenolone
C. Corticosterone
D. Progesterone (Ref. 1, p. 449)
137. A common intermediate in the synthesis of cortisol and aldo
sterone is:
A. Progesterone
B. Testosterone
C. Estradiol
138. A common intermediate in the synthesis of estrogens is:
A. Cortisol B. Androstenedione
C. Corticosterone D. 11-Deoxycorticosterone
(Ref. 1, p. 452)
139. Glucocorticoids are transported in blood:
A. In association with transcortin chiefly
B. In association with albumin to some extent
C. In free form partly
D. All of the above forms (Ref. 1, p. 462)
140. All the following statements about transcortin are true except:
A. It is synthesized in liver
B. It transports glucocorticoids
C. It transports aldosterone
D. It transports progesterone (Ref. 1, p. 462)
141. The second messenger for glucocorticoids is:
A. Cyclic AMP
B. Cyclic GMP
C. Inositol triphosphate
D. No second messenger is required (Ref. 1, p. 445)
142. Glucocorticoids increase all of the following except:
A. Gluconeogenesis
B. Lipolysis in extremities
C. Synthesis of eicosanoids
D. Hepatic glycogenesis (Ref. 1, pp. 442, 646)
136 A 137 A 138 B 139 D 140 C 141 D 142 C

143. Glucocorticoids increase the synthesis of all of the following

except:
A. Glucokinase
B. Glucose-6-phosphatase
C. Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
D. Pyruvate carboxylase (Ref. 1, p. 170)
144. Glucocorticoids increase gluconeogenesis by:
A. Allosteric activation of enzymes
B. Covalent modification of enzymes
C. Induction of enzymes
D. Derepression of enzymes (Ref. 1, p. 169)
145. Increased secretion of glucocorticoids raises blood glucose by:
A. Decreasing glycogenesis
B. Increasing glycogenolysis
C. Increasing gluconeogenesis
D. Inhibiting HMP shunt (Ref. 1, p. 174)
146. Mineralocorticoids regulate the metabolism of all of the
following except:
C. Calcium D. Chloride
(Ref. 2, pp. 406, 411-413)
147. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular reabsorption of:
A. Calcium B. Potassium
C. Sodium D. Chloride
(Ref. 2, pp. 406, 444)
148. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular secretion of:
C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate
(Ref. 2, p. 444)
149. Secretion of mineralocorticoids is increased by:
A. ACTH B. Angiotensin
C. Hypokalaemia D. Hypernatraemia
(Ref. 2, p. 472)
150. In Addison’s disease, there is excessive retention of:
A. Potassium B. Sodium
C. Chloride D. Water (Ref. 2, p. 444)
143 A 144 C 145 C 146 C 147 C 148 B 149 B 150 A

Hormones 257
151. In adrenogenital syndrome due to total absence of 21-

hydroxylase in adrenal cortex, there is:
A. Deficient secretion of glucocorticoids
B. Deficient secretion of mineralocorticoids
C. Excessive secretion of androgens
152. Androstenedione is the precursor of:
A. Cortisol B. Aldosterone
C. Testosterone D. Progesterone
(Ref. 1, p. 452)
153. Androgens are synthesized in:
A. Leydig cells in testes
B. Sertoli cells in testes
C. Seminiferous tubules
D. Prostate gland (Ref. 1, p. 448)
154. Testosterone is transported in blood by:
A. Transcortin
B. Testosterone binding globulin
C. Testosterone estrogen binding globulin
D. Albumin (Ref. 1, p. 462)
155. The metabolites of androgens are:
A. 17-Hydroxysteroids B. 17-Ketosteroids
C. 11-Hydroxysteroids D. 11-Ketosteroids
(Ref. 2, p. 446)
156. An androgen which is more powerful than testosterone is:
A. Androstenedione
B. Dihydrotestosterone
C. Androsterone
D. Epiandrosterone (Ref. 1, p. 450)
157. Secretion of androgens is increased by:
A. LH B. TSH
C. ACTH D. Growth hormone
(Ref. 2, p. 434)
158. During late pregnancy, the major source of progesterone is:
A. Adrenal cortex B. Placenta
C. Corpus luteum D. Graafian follicles
(Ref. 2, p. 449)
151 D 152 C 153 A 154 C 155 B 156 B 157 A 158 B

159. Progesterone is transported in blood by:

A. Transcortin
B. Sex hormone binding globulin
C. Albumin
D. Testosterone estrogen binding globulin (Ref. 1, p. 463)
160. All the following can be synthesized from progesterone except:
A. Cortisol B. Pregnenolone
C. Estradiol D. Aldosterone
(Ref. 1, pp. 449-450)
161. Secretion of progesterone:
A. Is more in first half of menstrual cycle than in second half
B. Is more in second half of menstrual cycle than in first half
C. Remains constant during menstrual cycle
D. Decreases during pregnancy (Ref. 2, p. 449)
162. Women become susceptible to osteoporosis after menopause
due to decreased:
A. Secretion of parathormone
B. Conversion of vitamin D into calcitriol
C. Secretion of estrogen
D. Secretion of progesterone (Ref. 1, pp. 493, 561)
163. A hormone used for detection of pregnancy is:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Oxytocin
D. Chorionic gonadotropin (Ref. 2, p. 435)
164. All the following can be synthesized from pregnenolone
except:
A. Progesterone
B. Testosterone
C. Estrogen
D. Chorionic gonadotropin (Ref. 1, p. 450)
165. Gastrin is a polypeptide made up of:
A. 5 amino acids
B. 12 amino acids
C. 17 amino acids
D. 20 amino acids (Ref. 2, p. 450)
159 A 160 B 161 B 162 C 163 D 164 D 165 C

Hormones 259
166. Secretin is a polypeptide made up of:

(Ref. 2, p. 450)
167. Release of insulin is stimulated by:
A. Gastrin B. Secretin
C. Cholecystokinin D. Gastric inhibitory peptide
(Ref. 2, p. 450)
168. Secretion of gastrin is evoked by:
A. Secretin B. Pancreozymin
C. Hydrochloric acid D. Vagal stimulation
(Ref. 2, p. 450)
169. Gastrin stimulates the secretion of gastric juice which is:
A. Rich in hydrochloric acid but poor in pepsinogen
B. Rich in pepsinogen but poor in hydrochloric acid
C. Rich in hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen
D. Poor in hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen (Ref. 2, p. 450)
170. Secretin is made up of:
(Ref. 2, p. 450)
171. Secretin causes:
A. Secretion of pancreatic juice poor in bicarbonate
B. Inhibition of intestinal secretion
C. Inhibition of gastric motility
D. Secretion of bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice
(Ref. 2, p. 450)
172. All the following statements about cholecystokinin are true
except:
A. It is secreted by mucosa of small intestine
B. It stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes
C. It stimulates contraction of gall bladder
D. It inhibits gastric motility (Ref. 2, p. 450)
173. Leptin is secreted by:
A. Corpus luteum B. Adipose tissue
C. Lymphocytes D. Macrophages
(Ref. 1, p. 227)
166 B 167 D 168 D 169 C 170 B 171 D 172 D 173 B

174. Histidine is converted into histamine by:

A. Carboxylation
B. Decarboxylation
C. Methylation
D. Hydroxylation (Ref. 1, p. 271)
175. Angiotensin is inactivated:
A. Spontaneously
B. By angiotensin converting enzyme
C. By renin
D. By angiotensinase (Ref. 1, p. 459)
176. Melatonin can be synthesized from:
A. Melanin B. Serotonin
C. DOPA D. Dopamine (Ref. 1, p. 275)
177. Inhibitors of mono amine oxidase prolong the life of:
A. Epinephrine B. Melanin
C. Histamine D. Serotonin (Ref. 2, p. 272)
178. Serotonin is synthesized from:
A. Serine B. Phenylalanine
179. All the following statements about serotonin are true except:
A. It causes vasodilatation
B. It causes bronchoconstriction
C. It is metabolized by monoamine oxidase
D. Its metabolite is 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid
(Ref. 1, p. 272)
180. All the following statements about angiotensin are true except:
A. Its precursor is an a2-globulin
B. Its active form is an octapeptide
C. It is a vasodilator
D. It increases the secretion of aldosterone
(Ref. 1, pp. 458-459)
181. Methyldopa decreases blood pressure by:
A. Inhibiting the synthesis of catecholamines
B. Antagonizing the action of aldosterone
C. Stimulating the release of renin
D. Inhibiting the breakdown of angiotensin (Ref. 1, p. 454)
174 B 175 D 176 B 177 D 178 D 179 A 180 C 181 A

Hormones 261
182. Nitric oxide is synthesized from:

A. Arginine B. Histidine
C. Citrulline D. Ornithine (Ref. 1, p. 580)
183. Binding of acetylcholine to its receptors increases the per
meability of cell membrane to:
A. Ca++ B. Na+
C. K + D. Na+ and K+(Ref. 1, p. 580)
184. Nitric oxide is synthesized in:
A. Neurones
B. Endothelial cells
C. Macrophages
185. All the following statements about nitric oxide are true except:
A. It is a gas
B. It is synthesized from citrulline
C. It activates guanylate cyclase
D. It causes local vasodilatation (Ref. 1, p. 580)
186. Nitric oxide synthase exists in:
A. 2 isoforms B. 3 isoforms
C. 4 isoforms D. 5 isoforms
(Ref. 1, p. 581)
187. Nitric oxide can be formed from:
A. Glycerol mononitrate B. Glycerol dinitrate
C. Glycerol trinitrate D. None of these
(Ref. 1, p. 581)
188. The rate limiting step in catecholamine synthesis is catalyzed
by:
A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
B. Tyrosine hydroxylase
C. Dopa decarboxylase
D. Phenylethanolamine N-methyl transferase (Ref. 1, p. 454)
189. Dopa decarboxylase is inhibited by:
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. a-Methyldopa
182 A 183 D 184 D 185 B 186 B 187 C 188 B 189 C

190. Tyrosine hydroxylase is inhibited by:

A. Catecholamines
B. a-Methyldopa
C. Phenylalanine
D. Vanillyl mandelic acid (Ref. 1, p. 454)
191. Urinary excretion of vanillyl mandelic acid is increased in:
A. Phaeochromocytoma
B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Aldosteronism (Ref. 2, p. 445)
192. Iodide oxidation in thyroid gland is decreased by:
A. Urea B. Thiouracil
C. Thiocyanate D. Methimazole
(Ref. 1, p. 457)
193. Binding of growth hormone to its receptor results in phospho
rylation of:
A. JAK-2
B. Growth hormone receptor
C. STATs
194. Tyrosine kinase domain is not present in the receptor for:
A. Growth hormone B. Insulin
C. EGF D. IGF-1 (Ref. 1, p. 473)
195. Activation of IRS-1, PI-3 kinase and GRB-2 is brought about by:
A. Glucagon B. Insulin
C. Prolactin D. IGF-2 (Ref. 1, pp. 473-475)
196. The protein IRS-1 is phosphorylated by:
A. Protein kinase A
B. Protein kinase C
C. Tyrosine kinase activity of insulin receptor
D. Tyrosine kinase activity of IGF-1 receptor (Ref. 1, p. 473)
197. Phosphorylated IRS-1 activates GRB-2 which is:
A. G-protein receptor binding protein-2
B. Growth factor receptor binding protein-2
C. Growth hormone receptor binding protein-2
D Glucocorticoid receptor binding protein-2 (Ref. 1, p. 474)
190 A 191 A 192 A 193 D 194 A 195 B 196 C 197 B

Hormones 263
198. STAT proteins are:

A. Thermostat proteins of brain
B. Glucostat proteins of hepatocyte cell membrane
C. Short term activators of translation
D. Signal transduction and activators of transcription
(Ref. 1, p. 475)
199. Activated phospholipase C acts on:
A. Phosphatidyl inositol-4, 5-biphosphate
B. Inositol-1, 4, 5-triphosphate
C. Protein kinase C
D. Pl-3 kinase (Ref. 1, p. 471)
200. Phospholipase C is activated by:
A. Gs proteins B. Gi proteins
C. Gq proteins D. G12 proteins (Ref. 1, p. 471)
198 D 199 A 200 C

Proteoglycans and
Glycoproteins 24
1. Proteoglycans are made up of proteins and:
A. Glucosamine B. Mannosamine
C. Sialic acid D. Mucopolysaccharides
(Ref. 1, p. 118)
2. All of the following are glycoproteins except:
A. Collagen B. Albumin
C. Transferrin D. IgM (Ref. 1, p. 547)
3. Sialic acids are present in:
A. Proteoglycans B. Glycoproteins
(Ref. 1, pp. 119-120)
4. Hyaluronidase hydrolyzes:
A. Hyaluronic acid
C. Heparin
D. Hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulfate (Ref. 1, p. 555)
5. The most abundant protein in bones is:
A. Collagen type I B. Collagen type II
C. Collagen type III D. Noncollagen proteins
(Ref. 1, p. 545)
6. The most abundant collagen in cartilages is:
A. Type I B. Type II
C. Type III D. Type IV (Ref. 1, p. 546)
7. Collagen and elastin have the following similarity:
A. Both are triple helices
B. Both have hydroxyproline residues
C. Both have hydrolysine residues
D. Both are glycoproteins (Ref. 1, p. 549)
1 D 2 B 3 B 4 D 5 A 6 B 7 B
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Proteoglycans and Glycoproteins 265
8. Abnormal collagen structure is seen in all of the following

except:
A. I-cell disease
B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
C. Menkes’ disease
D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (Ref. 1, p. 548)
9. I-cell disease results from absence of the following from
lysosomal enzymes:
A. Signal sequence
B. Mannose-6-phosphate
C. Sialic acid
D. A serine residue (Ref. 1, p. 535)
10. In I-cell disease, lysosomal enzymes:
A. Are not synthesized
B. Are inactive
C. Lack signal sequence
D. Cannot reach lysosomes (Ref. 1, p. 535)
11. The following is present as a marker in lysosomal enzymes to
direct them to their destination:
A. Glucose-6-phosphate
B. Mannose-6-phosphate
C. Galactose-6-phosphate
D. N-Acetyl neuraminic acid (Ref. 1, p. 535)
12. Marfan’s syndrome results from a mutation in the gene
encoding:
A. Collagen B. Elastin
C. Fibrillin D. Keratin (Ref. 1, p. 449)
13. All the following statements about fibronectin are true except:
A. It is a glycoprotein
B. It is a triple helix
C. It is present in extracellular matrix
D. It binds with integrin receptors of cell (Ref. 1, p. 549)
14. Fibronectin has binding sites for all of the following except:
A. Glycophorin B. Collagen
C. Heparin D. Integrin receptor
(Ref. 1, p. 549)
8 A 9 B 10 D 11 B 12 C 13 B 14 A
Ch 24.indd 265 01-09-2015 16:58:31

15. Fibronectin is involved in:

A. Cell adhesion
B. Cell movement
16. Glycoproteins are marked for destruction by removal of their:
A. Oligosaccharide prosthetic groups
B. Sialic acid residues
C. Mannose residues
D. N-terminal amino acids (Ref. 1, p. 246)
17. Asialoglycoprotein receptors are present in cell membranes of:
A. Erythrocytes B. Platelets
C. Neutrophils D. Liver (Ref. 1, p. 514)
18. Glycophorin is present in cell membranes of:
A. Erythrocytes B. Platelets
C. Neutrophils D. Liver (Ref. 1, p. 623)
19. Selectins are proteins that can recognize specific:
A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids
C. Amino acids D. Nucleotides
(Ref. 1, pp. 537-538)
20. Hunter’s syndrome results from absence of:
A. Hexosaminidase A B. Iduronate sulfatase
C. Neuraminidase D. Arylsulfatase B
(Ref. 1, p. 556)
15 C 16 B 17 D 18 A 19 A 20 B
Ch 24.indd 266 01-09-2015 16:58:31

Biochemistry of Cancer
25
1. A critical compound involved in carcinogenesis is:
A. Carbohydrate B. Protein
C. RNA D. DNA (Ref. 2, p. 687)
2. If cell-free filtrate from a cancer cell is introduced into a normal
cell, the recipient cell:
A. Destroys the cancer causing compound(s)
B. Loses its ability to divide
C. Dies
D. Changes into a cancer cell (Ref. 2, p. 687)
3. A normal cell can be transformed into a cancer cell by all of the
following except:
A. Ionizing radiation
B. Mutagenic chemicals
C. Oncogenic bacteria
D. Some viruses (Ref. 2, pp. 686-687)
4. Proto-oncogenes are present in:
A. Oncoviruses
B. Cancer cells
C. Healthy human cells
D. Prokaryotes (Ref. 2, p. 687)
5. All the following statements about proto-oncogenes are true
except:
A. They are present in human beings
B. They are present in healthy cells
C. Proteins encoded by them are essential
D. They are expressed only when a healthy cell has been
transformed into a cancer cell (Ref. 2, pp. 687-688)
1 D 2 D 3 C 4 C 5 D
Ch 25.indd 267 01-09-2015 16:58:49

6. Proto-oncogenes may encode all of the following except:

A. Carcinogens
B. Growth factors
C. Receptors for growth factors
D. Signal transducers for growth factors (Ref. 2, p. 688)
7. ras proto-oncogene is converted into oncogene by:
A. A point mutation
B. Chromosomal translocation
C. Insertion of a viral promoter upstream of the gene
D. Gene amplification (Ref. 2, p. 690)
8. ras proto-oncogene encodes:
A. Epidermal growth factor (EGF)
B. Receptor for EGF
C. Signal transducer
D. Nuclear transcription factor (Ref. 2, p. 688)
9. p53 gene is:
A. A proto-oncogene B. An oncogene
C. An antioncogene D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 690)
10. The product of ras gene is:
A. EGF B. p106
C. p53 D. p21 (Ref. 2, p. 689)
11. Human chorionic gonadotropin is a tumour marker useful in
the dignosis of:
A. Liver cancer B. Breast cancer
C. Retinoblastoma D. Choriocarcinoma
(Ref. 2, p. 692)
12. Ames’ assay is a rapid method for detection of:
A. Oncoviruses B. Retroviruses
C. Chemical carcinogens D. Typhoid (Ref. 2, p. 686)
13. Amplification of dihydrofolate reductase gene in a cancer cell
makes the cell:
A. Susceptible to folic acid deficiency
B. Less malignant
C. Resistant to methotrexate therapy
D. Responsive to methotrexate therapy (Ref. 2, p. 688)
6 A 7 A 8 C 9 C 10 D 11 D 12 C 13 C
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Biochemistry of Cancer 269
14. Conversion of a procarcinogen into a carcinogen often

requires:
A. Proteolysis
B. Cytochrome p450
C. Exposure to ultraviolet radiation
D. Exposure to X-rays (Ref. 2, p. 686)
15. The only correct statement about oncoviruses is:
A. All the oncoviruses are RNA viruses
B. Reverse transcriptase is present in all oncoviruses
C. Viral oncogenes are identical to human proto-oncogenes
D. Both DNA and RNA viruses can be oncoviruses
(Ref. 2, p. 687)
16. Xeroderma pigmentosum results from a defect in:
A. Nucleotide excision repair system
B. Base excision repair system
C. Double strand break repair system
D. Mismatch repair system (Ref. 1, p. 345)
17. Cancer cells may become resistant to methotrexate by:
A. Developing mechanisms to destroy amethopterin
B. Amplification of dihydrofolate reductase gene
C. Mutation in the dihydrofolate reductase gene so that the
enzyme is no longer inhibited by amethopterin
D. Developing alternate pathway of thymidylate synthesis
(Ref. 2, p. 688)
18. In Ames’ assay, a special strain of S. typhimurium is used which
lacks the ability to synthesize:
A. Histidine B. Arginine
C. Lysine D. Threonine (Ref. 2, p. 686)
19. In Ames’ assay, addition of a carcinogen to the culture medium
allows S. typhimurium to grow:
A. In the presence of histidine
B. In the presence of arginine
C. In the absence of histidine
D. In the absence of arginine (Ref. 2, p. 686)
20. All the following are anticancer drugs except:
A. Allopurinol B. Methotrexate
C. 6-Mercaptopurine D. 6-Thioguanine
(Ref. 2, p. 694)
14 B 15 D 16 A 17 B 18 A 19 C 20 A
Ch 25.indd 269 01-09-2015 16:58:49

26
Tests for Liver, Kidney,
Thyroid and Pancreatic
Functions
1. Bile pigments are present and urobilinogen absent in urine in:

B. Hepatocellular jaundice
D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome (Ref. 1, p. 292)
2. Bile pigments are absent and urobilinogen increased in urine
in:
A. Haemolytic jaundice B. Hepatocellular jaundice
C. Obstructive jaundice D. Rotor’s syndrome
(Ref. 1, p. 292)
3. In obstructive jaundice, urine shows:
A. Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen
B. Presence of bile pigments and urobilinogen
C. Absence of bile pigments and presence of urobilinogen
D. Presence of bile pigments and absence of urobilinogen
(Ref. 1, p. 292)
4. In haemolytic jaundice, urine shows:
A. Absence of bile pigments and urobilinogen
B. Presence of bile pigments and urobilinogen
C. Absence of bile pigments and presence of urobilinogen
D. Presence of bile pigments and absence of urobilinogen
(Ref. 1, p. 292)
5. Serum albumin may be decreased in:
B. Hepatocellular disease
C. Biliary obstruction
1 C 2 A 3 D 4 C 5 B
Ch 26.indd 270 01-09-2015 16:57:20

Tests for Liver, Kidney, Thyroid and Pancreatic Functions 271
6. Normal range of serum albumin is:

A. 2.0–3.6 g/dL B. 2.0–3.6 mg/dL
C. 3.5–5.5 g/dL D. 3.5–5.5 mg/dL
(Ref. 1, p. 591)
7. Normal range of serum globulin is:
A. 2.5–3.5 mg/dL B. 2.5–3.5 g/dL
C. 3.5–5.5 mg/dL D. 3.5–5.5 g/dL
(Ref. 2, p. 768)
8. Serum albumin : globulin ratio is altered in:
A. Gilbert’s disease B. Haemolytic jaundice
C. Liver disease D. Stones in bile duct
(Ref. 2, p. 183)
9. Albumin is synthesized in:
C. Muscles D. Kidneys (Ref. 2, p. 183)
10. Galactose intolerance can occur in:
A. Haemolytic jaundice B. Hepatocellular disease
C. Renal failure D. None of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 457)
11. Prothrombin is synthesized in:
A. Erythrocytes B. Reticulo-endothelial cells
C. Liver D. Kidneys (Ref. 2, p. 458)
12. Prothrombin time remains prolonged even after parenteral
administration of vitamin K in:
A. Haemolytic jaundice B. Liver damage
C. Biliary obstruction D. Steatorrhea (Ref. 2, p. 458)
13. All the following statements about obstructive jaundice are
true except:
A. Conjugated bilirubin in serum is normal
B. Total bilirubin in serum is raised
C. Bile salts are present in urine
D. Serum alkaline phosphatase is raised (Ref. 2, p. 217)
14. All the following occur in obstructive jaundice except:
A. Total and conjugated bilirubin are raised in serum
B. Bilirubin and urobilinogen are present in urine
C. Bile salts are present in urine
D. Alkaline phosphatase is raised in serum (Ref. 2, p. 217)
6 C 7 B 8 C 9 B 10 B 11 C 12 B 13 A 14 B
Ch 26.indd 271 01-09-2015 16:57:20

15. Hippuric acid test is a test of:

A. Kidney function B. Pancreatic function
C. Liver function D. Thyroid function
(Ref. 2, p. 458)
16. Hippuric acid is formed from:
A. Benzoic acid and alanine
B. Benzoic acid and glycine
C. Glucuronic acid and alanine
D. Glucuronic acid and glycine (Ref. 1, p. 270)
17. Bromsulphthalein test becomes abnormal in:
A. Renal disease B. Hepatobiliary disease
C. Pancreatic disease D. Hyperthyroidism
(Ref. 2, p. 455)
18. Serum gamma glutamyl transpeptidase is raised in:
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Alcoholic hepatitis
D. Acute cholecystitis (Ref. 2, p. 456)
19. Water retention can occur in:
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Acute renal failure
D. Chronic glomerulonephritis (Ref. 2, p. 473)
20. Serum alkaline phosphatase is raised in:
A. Obstructive jaundice B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Pancreatitis D. Cystic fibrosis
(Ref. 2, p. 107)
21. Normal BUN is:
A. 3–9 mg/dL B. 9–21 mg/dL
C. 20–45 mg/dL D. 50–100 mg/dL
(Ref. 2, p. 341)
22. Specific gravity of urine below 1.020 in concentration test
shows:
B. Impaired tubuler function
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Normal renal function (Ref. 2, p. 462)
15 C 16 B 17 B 18 C 19 C 20 A 21 B 22 B
Ch 26.indd 272 01-09-2015 16:57:20

23. Unit of clearance is:

A. mg/dL B. mmol/day
C. mg/minute D. mL/minute (Ref. 2, p. 460)
24. Urea clearance is:
A. Equal to creatinine clearance
B. Equal to inulin clearance
C. Equal to GFR
D. Lower than GFR (Ref. 2, p. 461)
25. Blood urea may increase in:
A. Hyperargininaemia
B. Citrulinaemia
C. Acute glomerulonephritis
D. Viral hepatitis (Ref. 2, pp. 340-341)
26. Action of ADH on kidneys occurs via:
A. Tyrosine kinase B. cAMP
C. cGMP D. DAG (Ref. 2, p. 437)
27. Renal glycosuria occurs due to:
A. Increased filtration of glucose in glomeruli
B. Increased secretion of glucose by renal tubular cells
C. Decreased reabsorption of glucose by renal tubular cells
D. Increased conversion of glycogen into glucose in tubular cells
(Ref. 2, p. 460)
28. Mutations in the following are seen in cystic fibrosis:
A. NBF1 gene B. NBF2 gene
C. CF gene D. CFTR gene (Ref. 1, p. 439)
29. CFTR protein is a:
A. Proton channel B. Sodium channel
C. Potassium channel D. Chloride channel
(Ref. 1, p. 440)
30. Cystic fibrosis affects:
A. Pancreas B. Bronchioles
C. Sweat glands D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, pp. 439-440)
31. Normal range of serum urea is:
A. 0.6–1.5 mg/dL B. 9–11 mg/dL
C. 20–45 mg/dL D. 60–100 mg/dL
(Ref. 2, p. 793)
23 D 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 C 28 D 29 D 30 D 31 C
Ch 26.indd 273 01-09-2015 16:57:20

32. Normal range of serum creatinine is:

A. 0.6–1.5 mg/dL B. 9–11 mg/dL
C. 20–45 mg/dL D. 60–100 mg/dL (Ref. 2, p. 793)
33. Standard urea clearance in normal subjects is:
A. 54 mL/min B. 75 mL/min
C. 110 mL/min D. 130 mL/min (Ref. 2, p. 462)
34. Maximum urea clearance in normal subjects is:
35. Average creatinine clearance in an adult man is about:
36. GFR in an average adult man is about:
37. Urea clearance is the:
A. Amount of urea excreted per minute
B. Amount of urea present in 100 mL of urine
C. Volume of blood cleared of urea in one minute
D. Amount of urea filtered by glomeruli in one minute
(Ref. 2, p. 462)
38. Inulin clearance is a measure of:
A. Glomerular filtration rate B. Tubular secretion rate
C. Tubular reabsorption rate D. Renal plasma flow
(Ref. 2, p. 461)
39. Inulin is a:
A. Heteropolysaccharide B. Homopolysaccharide
C. Disaccharide D. Monosaccharide
(Ref. 1, p. 116)
40. Para-amino hippurate clearance is an indicator of:
A. Glomerular filtration B. Tubular secretion
C. Tubular reabsorption D. Renal plasma flow
(Ref. 2, p. 461)
41. Renal plasma flow of an average adult man is:
A. 120–130 mL/minute B. 325–350 mL/minute
C. 480–520 mL/minute D. 560–830 mL/minute
(Ref. 2, p. 461)
32 A 33 A 34 B 35 C 36 D 37 C 38 A 39 B 40 D 41 D
Ch 26.indd 274 01-09-2015 16:57:20

42. Normal nonprotein nitrogen in blood is:

A. 50–70 mg/dL B. 40–60 mg/dL
C. 30–50 mg/dL D. 20–40 mg/dL (Ref. 2, p. 351)
43. Blood urea nitrogen is blood urea multiplied by:
A. 28/60 B. 14/60
C. 60/28 D. 60/14 (Ref. 2, p. 341)
44. Urea is synthesized in:
A. Muscles B. Kidneys
C. Liver D. All of these (Ref. 2, p. 337)
45. Among the following, a test of glomerular function is:
A. Urea clearance
B. PSP excretion test
C. PAH clearance
D. Hippuric acid excretion test (Ref. 2, p. 461)
46. Among the following, a test of tubular function is:
A. Creatinine clearance B. Inulin clearance
C. PAH clearance D. Concentration test
(Ref. 2, pp. 461-462)
47. A simple way to assess tubular function is to withhold food and
water for 12 hours and, then, measure:
A. Serum urea B. Serum creatinine
C. Urine output in one hour D. Specific gravity of urine
(Ref. 2, p. 462)
48. Among the following, the most sensitive indicator of glomerular
function is:
A. Serum urea B. Serum creatinine
C. Urea clearance D. Creatinine clearance
(Ref. 2, p. 461)
49. All the following statements about inulin are correct except:
A. It is not utilized in the body
B. It is completely filtered by glomeruli
C. It is not reabsorbed by tubular cells
D. It is secreted by tubular cells (Ref. 2, pp. 21, 461)
50. Azotaemia means increase in blood level of the following:
A. Urea B. Uric acid
C. Creatinine D. Nitrogen (Ref. 2, p. 341)
42 D 43 A 44 C 45 A 46 D 47 D 48 D 49 D 50 D
Ch 26.indd 275 01-09-2015 16:57:20

51. Azotaemia can occur in:

A. Starvation B. Liver damage
C. Renal failure D. All of the above
(Ref. 2, p. 341)
52. Creatinine clearance is decreased in:
A. Impaired tubular function
B. Impaired glomerular function
C. Hypertension
D. Myopathies (Ref. 2, p. 461)
53. Amylase is:
A. A digestive enzyme
B. Increased in serum in acute parotitis
C. Increased in serum in acute pancreatitis
54. Maximum rise in serum amylase occurs in:
A. Acute parotitis B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Pancreatic cancer
(Ref. 2, p. 465)
55. Serum lipase is increased in:
A. Acute parotitis B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Infective hepatitis D. Biliary obstruction
(Ref. 2, p. 465)
56. Sweat chlorides are increased in:
A. Cystic fibrosis B. Pancreatic cancer
C. Acute pancreatitis D. None of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 440)
57. All the following statements about cystic fibrosis are correct
except:
A. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive disease
B. It affects a number of exocrine glands
C. It causes increased sweating
D. Sweat chlorides are above 60 mEq/L in this disease
(Ref. 1, pp. 439-440)
58. Radioactive iodine uptake is a test of:
A. Liver function B. Kidney function
C. Thyroid function D. Pancreatic function
(Ref. 2, p. 461)
51 C 52 B 53 D 54 B 55 B 56 A 57 C 58 C
Ch 26.indd 276 01-09-2015 16:57:20

59. Radioactive iodine is used to measure hormone concentrations

by:
A. Photometry B. RIA
C. EIA D. ELISA (Ref. 2, pp. 726-729)
60. Normal range of total thyroxine in serum is:
A. 0.8–2.4 ng/dL B. 80–220 ng/dL
C. 5–12 ng/dL D. 5–12 µg/dL (Ref. 1, p. 441)
61. Normal range of total tri-iodothyronine in serum is:
A. 0.1–0.2 ng/dL B. 80–220 ng/dL
C. 0.8–2.4 µg/dL D. 5–12 mg/dL(Ref. 1, p. 441)
62. High level of TSH and low levels of T3 and/or T4 in serum
indicate:
A. Hypothyroidism secondary to pituitary disease
B. Hyperthyroidism secondary to pituitary disease
C. Primary hypothyroidism
D. Primary hyperthyroidism (Ref. 2, p. 440)
63. High level of T3 and T4 and low TSH in serum indicates:
A. Hyperthyroidism of pituitary origin
B. Hypothyroidism of pituitary origin
C. Hyperthyroidism of thyroid origin
D. Hypothyroidism of thyroid origin (Ref. 2, p. 440)
64. BMR is increased in:
A. Endemic goitre B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Myxoedema D. Cretinism (Ref. 2, p. 440)
65. Serum cholesterol is decreased in:
A. Endemic goitre B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Myxoedema D. Cretinism (Ref. 2, p. 441)
59 B 60 D 61 B 62 C 63 C 64 B 65 B
Ch 26.indd 277 01-09-2015 16:57:20

Metabolism of
Xenobiotics 27
1. Cytochrome P-450:
A. Is a mono-oxygenase
B. Acts on endogenous substrates
C. Acts on exogenous substrates
2. Cytochrome b5 is required in:
A. Respiratory chain
B. Some microsomal hydroxylation reactions
C. Some mitochondrial hydroxylation reactions
3. All the following statements about cytochrome P-450 are
correct except:
A. It has 450 isoforms
B. It is a haemoprotein
C. It is present in bacteria
D. It can catalyze a wide range of reactions (Ref. 1, pp. 633-634)
4. In addition to hydroxylation reactions, cytochrome P-450 can
catalyze:
A. Dehalogenation B. Epoxidation
C. Reduction D. All of the above (Ref. 1, p. 634)
5. All the following statements about microsomal hydroxylase
system are correct except:
A. Cytochrome P-450 acts as an enzyme in this system
B. Some endogenous substrates are hydroxylated by this system
C. This system makes xenobiotics more soluble
D. It prevents the conversion of procarcinogens into carcinogens
(Ref. 1, p. 634)
1 D 2 B 3 A 4 D 5 D
Ch 27.indd 278 01-09-2015 16:57:00

Metabolism of Xenobiotics 279
6. Microsomal and mitochondrial hydroxylase systems have all

the following similarities except:
A. Both require NADPH
B. Both require iron-sulfur protein
C. Both contain cytochrome P-450
D. Both require FAD (Ref. 1, p. 634)
7. Microsomal and mitochondrial hydroxylase systems have the
following difference:
A. Microsomal system uses NADPH while the mitochondrial
system uses NADH
B. Microsomal system contains cytochrome P-450 while the
mitochondrial system contains cytochrome b5
C. Microsomal system contains NADPH-cytochrome P-450
reductase while the mitochondrial system contains adreno
doxin reductase
D. Microsomal system hydroxylates endogenous substrates while
the mitochondrial system hydroxylates exogenous substrates
(Ref. 1, p. 634)
8. Reduced cytochrome P-450 complexed with carbon monoxide:
A. Absorbs light at 450 nm
B. Emits light of 450 nm
C. Becomes more active
9. Cytochrome P-450 is present:
A. Only in liver
B. Only in liver and adrenal glands
C. In the highest amount in liver
D. In the highest amount in adrenal glands
(Ref. 1, p. 634)
correct except:
A. It is found in many species
B. Several families of cytochrome P-450s exist
C. Members of one family share at least 55% sequence homology
D. Cytochrome P-450s have a broad and overlapping substrate
specificity(Ref. 1, p. 634)
6 B 7 C 8 A 9 C 10 C
Ch 27.indd 279 01-09-2015 16:57:00


correct except:
A. Several isoforms of cytochrome P-450 are inducible
B. Induction by one compound may alter the metabolism of
some other compound
C. Induction may occur by increased transcription, mRNA
stabilization or enzyme stabilization
D. Induction of cytochrome P-450 enhances the action of many
drugs(Ref. 1, p. 634)
12. Prior to excretion, xenobiotics or their metabolites are con
jugated most frequently with:
A. Glucuronic acid B. Sulfate
C. Glutathione D. Acetate (Ref. 1, p. 635)
13. Glucuronic acid is used to conjugate:
A. Bilirubin B. Steroids
C. Xenobiotics D. All of the above
(Ref. 1, p. 635)
14. Glutathione is involved in:
A. Conjugation of some xenobiotics
B. Detoxification of hydrogen peroxide
C. Cellular uptake of some amino acids
15. Epoxides:
A. May be formed from some procarcinogens
B. Are highly reactive
C. Can be converted into less reactive forms by epoxide
hydroxylase
11 D 12 A 13 D 14 D 15 D
Ch 27.indd 280 01-09-2015 16:57:00

Bibliography
1. Murray RK, Granner DK, Rodwell PW. Harper’s Illustrated

Biochemistry, 27th edn. McGraw Hill, 2006.
2. Satyanarayana U, Chakrapani U. Biochemistry, 3rd edn. Book and
Allied (P) Ltd, Kolkata, 2006.
References.indd 281 01-09-2015 16:59:30

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Multiple Choice Questions in Biochemistry

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The response of readers to the second edition of Multiple Choice

Multiple choice questions (MCQs) constitute an important method

I am thankful to Dr AS Rathore and Dr Usha Gupta for their help in

Ch 1.indd 1 01-09-2015 16:50:57

8. a-1, 6-Glycosidic bond is not present in:

Ch 1.indd 2 01-09-2015 16:50:57

Ch 1.indd 3 01-09-2015 16:50:57

28. An L-isomer of monosaccharide formed in human body is:

Ch 1.indd 4 01-09-2015 16:50:57

37. The specific rotation of a-D-glucopyranose is:

Ch 1.indd 5 01-09-2015 16:50:57

46. a-Iduronic acid is present in:

Ch 1.indd 6 01-09-2015 16:50:57

Ch 2.indd 7 01-09-2015 16:50:43

7. Cerebronic acid is present in:

Ch 2.indd 8 01-09-2015 16:50:43

17. Number of carbon atoms in cholesterol is:

Ch 2.indd 9 01-09-2015 16:50:43

28. Sphingosine is not present in:

Ch 2.indd 10 01-09-2015 16:50:43

37. Triglycerides are transported from intestines to extrahepatic

Ch 2.indd 11 01-09-2015 16:50:43

Ch 3.indd 12 01-09-2015 16:50:28

9. In thin-layer chromatography, separation is based upon:

Ch 3.indd 13 01-09-2015 16:50:29

18. The number of ionizable groups in tyrosine is:

Ch 3.indd 14 01-09-2015 16:50:29

Ch 3.indd 15 01-09-2015 16:50:29

37. b-Bends are present in:

Ch 3.indd 16 01-09-2015 16:50:29

46. A branched-chain amino acid among the following is:

Ch 3.indd 17 01-09-2015 16:50:29

54. Presence of arginine can be detected by:

Ch 3.indd 18 01-09-2015 16:50:29

1. An oxy group is attached to carbon number two of:

Ch 4.indd 19 01-09-2015 16:50:14

8. The nitrogenous base in inosine monophosphate is:

Ch 4.indd 20 01-09-2015 16:50:14

17. Circular DNA is present in:

Ch 4.indd 21 01-09-2015 16:50:14

26. Heterogeneous nuclear RNA is the precursor of:

Ch 4.indd 22 01-09-2015 16:50:14

36. The number of adenine and thymine bases is equal in:

Ch 4.indd 23 01-09-2015 16:50:14

46. Mitochondrial DNA is present in:

Ch 4.indd 24 01-09-2015 16:50:14

Ch 5.indd 25 01-09-2015 16:49:43

8. The following coenzyme does not take part in hydrogen transfer

Ch 5.indd 26 01-09-2015 16:49:43

16. Pyridoxal phosphate acts as a coenzyme for:

Ch 5.indd 27 01-09-2015 16:49:43

Ch 5.indd 28 01-09-2015 16:49:43

32. In Lineweaver-Burk plot, the y-intercept represents:

Ch 5.indd 29 01-09-2015 16:49:43

41. HMG CoA reductase is competitively inhibited by:

Ch 5.indd 30 01-09-2015 16:49:43

58. The subunit composition of LD1 isoenzyme of lactate dehydro