021 00 00 00 Airframe and Systems, Electrics, Powerp (3052)

021 00 00 00 AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT, EME
1. oldal
1. 614 021 01 00 00 AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS
For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts :
1 The mounting principle is parallel mounting.

2 No routine check is necessary.
3 The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle.
4 Certain components may not be accessible.
5 The principle is the redundancy of components
6 The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the other system
components.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1,5,6
2,3,4
1,3,4
2,5,6
2. 612 021 01 01 00 Fuselage
DURALUMIN alloys :
on
1 have an aluminium-copper base.
2 have an aluminium-magnesium base.
3 are easy to weld.
si
4 are difficult to weld.

r
5 have a good thermal conductivity.

ve
6 have a poor air corrosion resistance

al
tri
1,4,5
2,4,5
ne
1,3,6
hi
2,3,6
ac
3. 3,865 021 01 01 00 Fuselage
The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is to:
fM
assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.

pd
withstand the shear stresses.

provide sound and thermal isolation.
integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them into a
tensile stress.
2. oldal
4. 4,016 021 01 01 00 Fuselage
Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit
the:
1. normal bending stresses

2. tangent bending stresses
3. torsional moment
4. shear stresses

1, 2, 3
2, 3, 4
1, 2, 4
1, 3, 4
5. 5,246 021 01 01 00 Fuselage
'Fail safe construction' is :

A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure
fails.
on
A simple and cheap type of construction.
si
A type of construction for small aircraft only.

r
A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.

ve
6. 7,737 021 01 01 00 Fuselage
The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be
al
used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that

tri
the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum
the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time
ne
these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.
hi
in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the
ac
aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way

7. 632 021 01 03 00 Wings
fM
In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce
a bending moment which is:
pd
highest at the wing root

equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span
equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span
lowest at the wing root

3. oldal
8. 633 021 01 03 00 Wings
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass:

1 Is a limitation set by regulation.
2 Is designed for a maximum load factor.
3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.
4 Requires to empty external tanks first.
5 Requires to empty internal tanks first.
The correct combination of true statements is :
1,2,3
2,5
2,4
1,3,5
9. 3,525 021 01 03 00 Wings
The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected
to a bending moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root to the wing tip,
to operate in:
compression, then in tension.
tension, then in compression.

on
tension.
si
compression.
r
ve
10. 4,017 021 01 03 00 Wings
On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical
bending moments Mx are:
al
the spars.
tri
the ribs.
ne
the webs.
hi
the skin.
ac
11. 11,449 021 01 04 00 Stabilising surfaces
The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer is :

fM
to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence

pd
to a have greater effectiveness at high speed

that it does not require a de-icing system
to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation

12. 669 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to :

avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.
absorb the spring tension.

control the wheels.
lock the landing gear.

4. oldal
13. 672 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:

Hydraulically driven.
Mechanically driven.
Pneumatically driven.
Electrically driven.
14. 679 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there
is a complete hydraulic system failure.
Mechanically
Electrically.
Pneumatically.
By hydraulic accumulators.
15. 684 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be:
on
Repaired several times.
si
repaired once.
r
Never repaired.
ve
Used on the nose wheel only.

al
16. 688 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the brake pressure will be :
tri
Decreased on the slower turning wheels.

ne
Increased on the faster turning wheels.

hi
Decreased on the faster turning wheels.

ac
Increased on the slower turning wheels.

fM
17. 690 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:

pd
Multiple disk brake.

Drum type brake.
Single disk brake.
Belt brake.
5. oldal
18. 695 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they :
release air from the tyre in case of overheating.
prevent the brakes from overheating.

prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.

19. 702 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
Thermal plugs are installed in:

wheel rims.
fire warning systems.

cabin windows.
cargo compartments.
20. 3,839 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:
on
0
1
si
0.1
r
ve
0.5
21. 3,864 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
al
A tubeless tyre is a tyre:

tri
1. which requires solid or branched wheels

2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations
ne
3. whose mounting rim must be flawless

4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device
hi
5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture

6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire
ac

fM
1, 5, 6.
pd
3, 4, 5.
1, 2, 5.
2, 3, 6.
6. oldal
22. 3,995 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
Landing gear torque links are used to:

prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.
take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.

prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.
maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.

23. 3,996 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
A main landing gear is said to be " locked down" when:

the strut is locked by an overcentre mechanism.
it is in the down position.

the actuating cylinder is at the end of it's travel.
the corresponding indicator lamp is amber.

24. 3,999 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when:

on
1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground
2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions
si
This effect is overcome by means of:

r
ve
3. the torque link

4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder
al
The combination of correct statements is:

tri
1, 3.
ne
1, 4.
2, 4.
hi
2, 3.
ac
25. 4,004 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear

fM
The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is :
locked-down.
pd
in the required position.

locked-down and its door is locked.
not in the required position.

7. oldal
26. 4,007 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
A tubeless tyre has :
1- a built-in-air tube.
2- no built-in-air tube.
3- a crossed side casing.
4- a radial side casing.

2, 4.
1, 4.
2, 3.
1,3.
27. 4,010 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:

an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure.
a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic
on
braking system.
designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent
si
wheel blocking.
r
a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity
ve
braking.
28. 4,024 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is:
al
1. idle wheel speed (measured)

tri
2. braked wheel speed (measured)

3. brake temperature (measured)
ne
4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate

5. tire pressure
hi

ac
1, 2, 4.
fM
1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
pd
2, 4.
1, 3.
29. 5,026 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on larger
aircraft ?
Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.
Nitrogen.
Oxygen.
Springs.
8. oldal
30. 5,030 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently
retracted on the ground. It consists of :
A latch located in the landing gear lever.
An aural warning horn.

A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.
A bolt.
31. 6,719 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived
from :
the aeroplane's hydraulic system.
the master cylinders.
pressure to the rudder pedals.
the brake actuators.

32. 6,723 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
"Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as :

on
a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.
si
the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.
r
ve
the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.
aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.
al
33. 6,743 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear

tri
Tyre " creep" may be described as the :

ne
circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.

the increase in inflation pressure due to drease in ambient temperature.
hi
the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature.

ac
gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.

fM
34. 7,753 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing ..

pd
by pilot action
automatically
at a certain low speed
the system is always armed

9. oldal
35. 7,755 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are :
the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function
the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function.
the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function.
the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-dissipation
function.
36. 7,807 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie gear
is
Taxiing with a small turning radius.
Touch down with crosswind

Gear down selection
Braking with an inoperative anti skid system.

37. 8,170 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
The function of a fusible plug is to

on
protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.

si
protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature.
r
ve
function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system
protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.

al
38. 11,421 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear

tri
Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following
characteristics :
ne
1 - high heating
2 - valve fragility
hi
3 - lower risk of bursting

4 - better adjustment to wheels
ac
The combination containing all the correct statements is:

fM
3-4
pd
2-3
2-4
1-2-3-4
10. oldal
39. 11,422 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for example
to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:
a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse) and
deflates the tyre.
a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
"the " Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre
temperature."
water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.
40. 11,433 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

will wear at the shoulders
it's tread will deteriorate faster
will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed
will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway

41. 11,436 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
on
A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to :
si
prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber.
r
create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.

ve
transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of the
nosewheel.
al
make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20°.
tri
42. 11,494 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear
(For this question use appendix )

ne
Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams :

hi
ac
1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels

fM
1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandem

pd
1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork
1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels

43. 638 021 01 06 01 Primary controls:
The trim tab :

reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency.
increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency.

11. oldal
The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:

reduce or to cancel control forces.
trim the aeroplane during normal flight.

trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.
lower manoeuvring control forces.

An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:

the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.
the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.

there is a trimmable stabilizer.
the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.

An artificial feel unit system:

on
must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control unit.
must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control unit.
si
is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit.

r
ve
is mounted in parallel on a spring tab.

47. 5,023 021 01 06 01 Primary controls:
al
A Yaw Damper is :
tri
"A rudder damper designed to avoid the " Dutch roll" ."
ne
An elevator augmentor.
An elevator augmentor to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8.
hi
A roll trim tab.

ac
48. 5,024 021 01 06 01 Primary controls:

fM
In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ...

The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will retract and the left
pd
one will extend.

The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will extend and the left
one will retract.
The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will extend and the left
one will retract.
The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will retract and the left
one will extend.
12. oldal
49. 703 021 01 06 02 Secondary controls:
The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:
1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces
2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike
3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems
4. immunity to different interfering signals
5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope

3 and 5
1 and 2
1 and 5
2 and 3
50. 5,022 021 01 06 02 Secondary controls:
Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning computers?
Angle of attack and flaps and slats deflection.
on
Angle of attack and flaps and spoilers deflection.
Angle of attack, flaps deflection and EPR.
si
Angle of attack, flaps deflection, EPR and N1.

r
ve
On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a:

al
leading edge flap

tri
trailing edge flap

ne
leading edge flap close to the wing root
leading edge flap close to the wing tip

hi

ac
The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate switches is
fM
To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway

To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.
pd
Because there are two trim motors.
To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at
low speed
13. oldal
On an aeroplane, spoilers are :
upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.

upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.

On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:
leading edge flaps close to the wing root

trailing edge flaps close to the wing root
trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip
leading edge flaps close to the wing tip

55. 718 021 01 07 01 Basic principles of hydromechanics
Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:

on
1. thermal stability
si
2. low emulsifying characteristics

3. corrosion resistance
r
ve
4. good resistance to combustion

5. high compressibility
6. high volatility
al
7. high viscosity
tri

ne
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 2, 5, 7
hi
2, 3, 4, 5
ac
1, 3, 4, 6
fM
In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi.

pd
An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000
psi.
The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator,
reads:
3000 psi
1200 psi
4200 psi
1800 psi
14. oldal
Hydraulic fluids :
Are irritating to eyes and skin.
Cause high fire risk.

Do not require special care.
Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.
Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are:

Phosphate ester base fluids.
Water base fluids.

Vegetable base fluids.
Mineral base fluids.

Hydraulic power is a function of :

on
System pressure and volume flow.
Pump RPM only.
si
System pressure and tank capacity.

r
ve
Pump size and volume flow.

al
Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of
approximately:
tri
3000 psi
ne
4000 psi
hi
2000 psi
ac
1000 psi
fM
In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are:
pd
Synthetic oil.
Mineral oil.
Vegetable oil.
Water and glycol.

15. oldal
The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is:

synthetic oil
vegetable oil
mixture of mineral oil and alcohol
mineral oil
63. 3,858 021 01 07 01 Basic principles of hydromechanics
Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:

purple.
pink.
blue.
red.
The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear motion is called ...
on
An actuator or jack.
A hydraulic pump.
si
An accumulator.
r
ve
A Pressure regulator.
al
The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:

tri
high pressure and large flow.

ne
high pressure and small flow.

small pressure and large flow.
hi
small pressure and small flow.

ac

fM
The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against cavitation is :
Synthetic fluid.
pd
Mineral oil based fluid.

Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil).
Water and glycol based fluid.

16. oldal
(For this question use annex 021-6716A)

In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing Force would be acting on the
right hand side ? (The diagram is not to scale)
100 N.
1000 N.
20 N.
1 N.
Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause :

an increased fluid temperature.
fluid loss.
a decreased fluid temperature.
an increased fluid pressure.

Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will :

on
fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure.

r si
always remain the same.

ve
initially increase with system pressurisation.
increase as ambient temperature decreases.

al

tri
Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If the hydraulic
system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the indicated pressure
ne
on the air side of the accumulator should be :

3000 psi.
hi
2000 psi.
ac
1000 psi.
fM
4000 psi.
pd
For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is :
the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-passes, and the
fire shut-off valve.
the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to 210
kg/cm²).
the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all hydraulic
services but only those considered as essential.
the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a pneumatic
back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.
17. oldal
72. 726 021 01 07 02 Hydraulic systems
Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?

At the pumps.
In the reservoirs.
At actuators.
At the coolers.
In a modern hydraulic system, " hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their function is :
To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.
To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system.
To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution.
To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without

further damage to the system.
In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to:

on
prevent pump cavitation
si
seal the system

r
keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature

ve
reduce fluid combustibility

al
The purpose of a shuttle valve is to:

tri
Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure.

ne
Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure.

hi
Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems.

ac
Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump.

fM
Shuttle valves will automatically:

pd
Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply.

Shut down systems which are overloaded.
Guard systems against overpressure.
Reduce pump loads.

18. oldal
In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is used :

for damping pressure surges in the system.
for fluid storage.

for pressure storage.
as a pressure relief valve.

78. 5,039 021 01 07 02 Hydraulic systems
The function of the selector valve is to:

communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.
select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.
automatically activate the hydraulic system.
discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.

The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a :

on
check valve.
flow control valve.
si
distribution valve.
r
ve
shutoff valve.
al
Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic system is
pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read :
tri
1500 psi.
ne
2500 psi.
hi
1000 psi.
ac
500 psi.
fM
An accumulator in a hydraulic system will :

pd
store fluid under pressure.

increase pressure surges within the system.
reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
reduce fluid temperature only.

19. oldal

The schematic diagram annexed illustates a jack and selector valve in a typical hydraulic
system. Assuming hydraulic pressure throughout :
a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the jack will take place.
since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in response to external forces.
the jack will move to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas.
the jack will move to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas.
In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve :

allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit.
is a self-lapping non-return valve.
allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.
regulates pump delivery pressure.

To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic
on
system often incorporates

si
a high pressure relief valve.

r
ve
a stand-by hydraulic pump.

an accumulator.
al
auxiliary hydraulic motors.

tri
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for :
ne
flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.

hi
nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.

ac
undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.

fM
flap extension only.

pd
The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to :

prevent cavitation in the pump
ensure sufficient pump output
prevent overheating of the pump.
prevent vapour locking.

20. oldal
The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if :
the pump output pressure is insufficient.
the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit.

there is a leak in the reservoir return line.
the pump power accumulator is deflated.

The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:
by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.

in flight only.
by the air conditioning system.
by an auxiliary system.
89. 779 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
on
decreases
si
increases
r
ve
remains constant
may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken.
al

tri
The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform the
following functions:
ne
1. control of cabin altitude,

2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change,
hi
3. limitation of differential pressure

ac
4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude

5. cabin ventilation
6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight phases.
fM

pd
1, 2, 3
2, 6, 4
5, 6, 1
4, 5, 3
21. oldal
During a normal pressurised climb after take-off:

cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure
the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reached

the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aircraft

In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes
it necessary to reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi.
The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin altitude is:
FL 230
FL 340
FL 280
FL 180
on
The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to :

si
Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and minimise cabin
r
pressure surges.
ve
regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.

discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.
al
regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.

tri
Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight
ne
conditions, if flight altitude is maintained:

hi
a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.

ac
the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.

fM
the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.

pd
Cabin pressure is controlled by :

delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow.
controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.
the cabin air re-circulation system.
the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).

22. oldal
During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even
at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are:
Partially open.
fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.

At the pre-set position for take-off.
Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.

The purpose of a ditching control is to:

close the outflow valve(s).
achieve rapid depressurisation.
open the outflow valve(s).
direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.

The cabin pressure is regulated by the:

on
Outflow valve.
si
Air cycle machine.

r
Air conditioning pack.

ve
Cabin inlet airflow valve.

al
The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by :

tri
The cabin outflow valve.

ne
The cabin inlet airflow.

hi
The engine's RPM.

ac
The engine's bleed valves.

fM
100. 806 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:

pd
cabin pressure and ambient air pressure.

cockpit and passenger cabin.
cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL.
actual cabin pressure and selected pressure.

23. oldal
101. 807 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed:
8000 ft
4000 ft
6000 ft
10000 ft
102. 808 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
Cabin altitude means the:

cabin pressure expressed as altitude.
difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.

flight level the aircraft is flying at.
flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.

103. 810 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential

pressure is approximately:
on
7 - 9 psi
si
3 - 5 psi
r
13 - 15 psi
ve
22 psi
al
104. 811 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:

tri
Airflow leaving the cabin.

ne
Airflow entering the cabin.

hi
RPM of the engine.

ac
Bleed air valve.

fM
105. 812 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized cabin, this
limitation is due to the maximum:
pd
Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.

Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.

24. oldal
106. 815 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
The " cabin differential pressure" is:

cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.
approximately 5 psi at maximum.

approximately 15 psi at maximum.
the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.
107. 818 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
The cabin rate of descent is:

a cabin pressure increase.
always the same as the airplane's rate of descent.

a cabin pressure decrease.
is not possible at constant airplane altitudes.

108. 819 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is

approximately:
on
9.0 psi
si
3.5 psi
r
13.5 psi
ve
15.5 psi
al
109. 876 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning
tri
must be triggered on reaching the following altitude:

ne
10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)

14000 ft (approx. 4200 m)
hi
8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)

ac
12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)

fM
110. 4,009 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level.

pd
During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by the crew and the
cabin rate of climb indicator reads -200ft/min.
Given that :
DELTA P: Differential pressure
Zc: Cabin altitude
DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open.
A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches 14000ft.
The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value.
The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero Zc.
25. oldal
111. 4,011 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310.

Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open
position. Given :
VZc: Cabin rate of climb indication

Zc: Cabin pressure altitude
DELTA P: Differential pressure
This will result in a:

"VZc increase
Zc increase
DELTA P decrease"
"VZc decrease
Zc increase
DELTA P decrease"
"VZc increase
Zc increase
DELTA P increase"
"VZc decrease
Zc decrease
on
DELTA P increase"
112. 6,712 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
si
A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the :

r
ve
position of the outflow valve(s).
mass air flow into the cabin.

al
position of the inward relief valve.

tri
position of the duct relief valve(s).

ne
113. 6,713 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally controlled by
:
hi
ac
a rate of change selector.

the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure controller and the aeroplane
fM
altitude.
the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin pressure controller and
pd
ambient barometric pressure.

the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
114. 6,728 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
The term " pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane :

has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.
has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes.
has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
26. oldal
115. 6,729 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by :

regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).
pressurisation duct relief valve(s).

engine rpm.
inward relief valve(s).

116. 6,730 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight
conditions, if flight altitude is maintained :
a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.

117. 6,731 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate :
on
a rate of climb.
si
a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.

r
zero.
ve
a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.

al
118. 7,852 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s)
tri
would close. The result would be that:

ne
the pressure differential would go to the maximum value

the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure
hi
the air supply would automatically be stopped

ac
the skin of the cabin would be overstressed

fM
119. 8,173 021 01 08 03 Pressurisation
If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure
pd
the :
negative pressure relief valve will open.
negative pressure relief valve will close
outflow valve open completely.
air cycle machine will stop.

27. oldal
120. 825 021 01 08 04 De-ice systems
The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:

wings.
pitot tubes.
propellers.
engine intakes.
121. 902 021 01 08 04 De-ice systems
With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against the
formation of ice, the only correct statement is:
The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device.
The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and easy
to maintain.
The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device.
The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular to
the leading edges.
122. 5,305 021 01 08 04 De-ice systems
on
A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated ..
si
When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges.

r
When entering areas with icing conditions.

ve
When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges

al
Only at take-off and during approach.

tri
123. 11,427 021 01 08 04 De-ice systems
Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing
devices, one can affirm that :
ne
1 - They prevent ice formation.

hi
2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.
3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.
ac
4 - There are more than ten cycles per second.

fM
The combination which regroups all the correct statements is :

pd
2-3
2-4
1-3
1-4
28. oldal
124. 5,090 021 01 09 01 Pneumatic system
The pneumatic system accumulator is useful :

to eliminate the fluid pressure variations.
to eliminate the fluid flow variations.

to offset for the starting of some devices.
in emergency cases.
125. 11,420 021 01 09 01 Pneumatic system
In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air pressure is
regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the manifold by the :
low pressure bleed air valve
high pressure bleed air valve
fan bleed air valve
intermediate pressure check-valve

126. 777 021 01 09 02 Air conditioning system
In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion:

on
in the turbine.
si
in a pressure relief valve.

r
of Freon in a heat exchanger.

ve
of Freon in the turbine.

al
Main cabin temperature is:

tri
controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.

ne
controlled by individual passenger.

hi
not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.

ac
Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.

fM
What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system?
pd
Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation.
Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight.
Supplying the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air.
Cooling of the APU compartment.

29. oldal
The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by:

main engine compressors.
piston compressors.
roots type compressors.
single radial compressors.

Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from:

the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if necessary.
the second fan stage.

the low pressure compressor.
the high pressure compressor.

In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:

on
humidity.
purity.
si
pressure.
r
ve
temperature.
al
In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to:

tri
cool bleed air and compressor air from the turbo refrigerator.
ne
allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups in
operation.
hi
cool bleed air.

ac
allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.

fM
Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water separation unit is placed:
pd
after the cooling turbine.

before the heat exchangers.
before the cooling turbine.
just after the heat exchangers.

30. oldal
The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several components: these

include two heat exchangers; the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger
(S).
The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:
"P: precools the engine bleed air
S: reduces the temperature of the air from the primary exchanger or from the pack's
compressor."
"P: warms up engine bleed air
S: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature."
"P: warms up engine bleed air
S: increases the temperature of air originating from the compressor of the pack."
"P: pre-cools the engine bleed air
S: increases the temperature of the air used for air-conditioning of cargo compartment
(animals)."
"Conditioned" air is air that has:

been controled in respect of temperature and pressure.
oxygen content regulated to a preset value.
on
oxygen content increased.
si
oxygen content reduced.

r
ve
The term " cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane:

al
has the means to maintain the cabin pressure at a higher level than the ambient pressure.
tri
is only pressurized in the area of the control cabin.

has the ability to maintain constant any cabin differential pressure.
ne
has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
hi
When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is:
ac
unaffected.
fM
decreased.
pd
increased.
dependent on the degree of pressurisation.

The term " bootstrap" , when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation
system, refers to the:
cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
source of the charge air.
means by which pressurisation is controlled.
charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

31. oldal
In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:

compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and across an expansion turbine.
passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger.
passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.
compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine through a heat exchanger.

In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed
via the:
secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.
secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.
turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet aeroplanes is
usually taken from the:
on
compressor section.
si
fan section.
r
ve
turbine section.
by-pass ducting.
al

tri
The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine):

ne
drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature drop in the conditioning air.
drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.
hi
increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.

ac
drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure increase in the conditioning air.
fM
In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and
pd
pressure is achieved by:

an expansion turbine.
a compressor.
a condenser.
an evaporator.
32. oldal
In a " bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit to:
ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine.
increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.

A turbo-fan cold air unit will:

cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air.
not affect the charge air pressure.

increase charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
decrease charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from :
on
hot air coming from the engine's compressors.
hot air coming from the engine's turbines.
si
a fuel heater system.

r
ve
an electrical heater system.

al
The pack cooling fan provides:

tri
cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground operation.
ne
cooling air to the pre-cooler.

air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).
hi
cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.
ac
148. 4,014 021 01 09 02 Air conditioning system

fM
The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit :

outlet and uses a centrifugal process.
pd
inlet and uses a centrifugal process.

outlet and uses an evaporation process.
inlet and uses an evaporation process.

33. oldal
"Conditioned" air is air that has :

been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.
had any moisture removed from it.

had the oxygen content increased.
had the oxygen content reduced.

The term " Bootstrap" , when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation
system, refers to the :
cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
source of the charge air.
means by which pressurisation is controlled.
charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first :

on
compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion
turbine.
si
passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary heat
r
exchanger.
ve
passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.

al
used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
tri
The function of an air cycle machine is to :

ne
cool the bleed air.

hi
decrease the pressure of the bleed air.

ac
remove the water from the bleed air.
pump the conditioned air into the cabin.

fM
153. 900 021 01 09 03 Anti-ice systems
In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern commercial
pd
aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is:

Thermal (use of hot air).
Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid).
Electrical (electrical resistances).
Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the profiles of the leading edge).
34. oldal
154. 903 021 01 09 03 Anti-ice systems
Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is:
on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on small
surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...).
on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is very
often used for large surfaces de-icing.
on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore they
only need little energy.
on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices for
pitot-tubes, static ports, windshield...
155. 904 021 01 09 03 Anti-ice systems
The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:
1) engine air intake and pod.

2) front glass shield.
3) radome.
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.
5) leading edge of wing.
6) cabin windows.
7) trailing edge of wings.
on
8) electronic equipment compartment.

r si
1, 2, 4, 5
ve
1, 4, 5, 7
al
1, 2, 5, 6
tri
1, 2, 3, 8
156. 5,297 021 01 09 03 Anti-ice systems
ne
The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the
hi
Hot air system.

ac
Pneumatic system with expandable boots.

Liquid de-icing system.
fM
Electrical de-icing system.

pd
157. 5,298 021 01 09 03 Anti-ice systems
During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect

leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps.
the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.
slats and the leading edge flaps only.
leading edges only.

35. oldal
158. 5,300 021 01 09 03 Anti-ice systems
In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied by

bleed air from the engines.
turbo compressors.
ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
the APU.
159. 5,303 021 01 09 03 Anti-ice systems
The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop
aeroplanes is :
Pneumatic boots.
Electrical heating.
Thermal anti-icing.
Fluid de-icing.
160. 5,304 021 01 09 03 Anti-ice systems
The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works

on
electrically.
si
pneumatically.
r
with hot air.

ve
with anti-icing fluid.

al
161. 9,095 021 01 09 03 Anti-ice systems
The advantages of thermal anti-icing are :

tri
1. Simple and reliable system

2. Profiles maintained
ne
3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor

4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without substantial reduction in engine
thrust
hi

ac
1,2
fM
3,4
pd
1,3
2,4
162. 835 021 01 10 01 Schematic construction, functioning and operation of:
On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by :

Electric heating.
Vinyl coating.
Anti-icing fluid.
Rain repellent system.

36. oldal
Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on:

Pitot tubes.
Elevator leading edges.

Slat leading edges.
Fin leading edges.

The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:

Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful
life of the components.
Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.
Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.
Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.

165. 11,268 021 01 10 01 Schematic construction, functioning and operation of:
The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that :
on
rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very heavy
si
wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the cockpit
windows.
r
ve
the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection
the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection
al
166. 850 021 01 11 01 Fuel tanks

tri
The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to:

ne
Restrict the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during abnormal manoeuvre (side slipping...).
Prevent overpressure in the tank.
hi
Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.

ac
Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.

fM
167. 853 021 01 11 01 Fuel tanks
On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:

pd
Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.

A pressure regulator in the wing tip.
Bleed air from the engines.
The return lines of the fuel pumps.

37. oldal
168. 855 021 01 11 01 Fuel tanks
The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:
Integral tanks.
Cell tanks.
Combined fuel tanks.
Fixed built-in tanks.

169. 858 021 01 11 01 Fuel tanks
The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to :

prevent fuel movement to the wing tip.
damp out movement of the fuel in the tank.

close the vent lines in case of turbulence.
prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank.

170. 862 021 01 11 01 Fuel tanks
The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel:

on
vent system.
tank drains.
si
top off unit.

r
ve
dump system.
171. 970 021 01 11 01 Fuel tanks
al
The automatic fuelling shut off valve:

tri
stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.
ne
cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.

stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline.
hi
stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.

ac
172. 6,720 021 01 11 01 Fuel tanks

fM
Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are :

All bonding and earthing connections between ground equipment and the aircraft should be
pd
made before filler caps are removed.

Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.
Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire extinguishers
are readily available.
Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test.
38. oldal
173. 7,805 021 01 11 01 Fuel tanks
The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to

increase the fuel level at the boost pump location
trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank

distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling
ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure

174. 841 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor.
electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated pressure.

mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox.
removable only after the associated tank has been emptied.

175. 842 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the
main fuel filter so as to:
on
prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel.
si
maintain and improve fuel heating power.

r
ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.

ve
prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude.
al
176. 843 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied
tri
with electric power of the following type:

ne
115 V AC
28 V AC
hi
28 V DC
ac
115 V DC
fM
177. 847 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
The fuel crossfeed system:

pd
allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.
is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing.
is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
39. oldal
178. 861 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
Centrifugal pumps.
Gear type pumps.

Piston pumps.
Diaphragm pumps.
179. 969 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are :

Located on the engines.
Installed in each tank.

Installed only in the center tank.
not necessary at all.

180. 979 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply
system when:
on
the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.
si
fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.

r
the surge vent tank is filled.

ve
there is fire.
al
181. 5,081 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
The cross-feed fuel system is used to :

tri
feed every engine from any fuel tank.

ne
allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency

hi
allow the unusable fuel elimination.

ac
automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.

fM
182. 5,084 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel ..

pd
To prime the pumps.

Because their efficiency is greater.
To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.
To cool the pumps.

40. oldal
183. 5,086 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ...

Through a unique point (an underwing refueling center).
Through the refueling cap of every tank

By means of the aircraft suction pumps.
By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an underwing refueling center).
184. 5,087 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
The vapor lock is :

A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapor bubble.
The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.

The effect of the water vapor bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensation
The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor.
185. 5,088 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
The fuel system boost pumps are used to :

on
avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a
positive pressure.
si
avoid the bubbles accumulation.

r
feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
ve
feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.
al
186. 11,490 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
The cross-feed fuel system enables:

tri
ne
the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank.

the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing.
hi
the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tank.
ac
only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks.
fM
187. 11,491 021 01 11 02 Fuel feed
Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:

pd
centrifugal low pressure type pumps.

low pressure variable swash plate pumps.
centrifugal high pressure pumps.
high pressure variable swash plate pumps.

41. oldal
188. 860 021 01 11 03 Fuel dumping system
Fuel dump systems are required:

on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) is significant
higher than the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW).
on all transport category aircraft.
on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.
on aircraft with a Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons.
189. 982 021 01 11 03 Fuel dumping system
The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning system is:
All up to a defined reserve quantity.
15 tons.
All fuel.
All fuel until the maximum landing weight is reached.

190. 980 021 01 11 04 Fuel system monitoring

The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel-flow measurement is
on
carried out :
si
after high pressure valve (item 4).

r
in the fuel control unit (item 3).

ve
after high pressure pump first stage (item 2).

al
after low pressure valve (item 1).

tri
191. 5,085 021 01 11 04 Fuel system monitoring
The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the:
ne
dielectric change between fuel and air.

hi
density variation of the fuel.

ac
resistivity variation of the fuel.

fM
electrical resistance change.

192. 6,741 021 01 11 04 Fuel system monitoring
pd
In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge of a

half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise increased the
volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated fuel weight would :
remain the same.
increase by 5 %.
decrease by 5 %.
increase by 10 %.
42. oldal
193. 4,098 021 02 01 01 General
Fuses are rated to a value by :

the number of amperes they will carry.
the number of volts they will pass.

their wattage.
their resistance measured in ohms.

194. 6,642 021 02 01 01 General
An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return path to earth,
may be defined as a
single pole circuit.
complete negative system.
double pole circuit.
semi-negative system.
195. 6,645 021 02 01 01 General
When an " open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the :

on
loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.
si
fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.

r
component will operate normally, but will not switch off.

ve
load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.

al
196. 6,650 021 02 01 01 General
If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field :

tri
a force will be exerted on the conductor.

ne
the current will increase.

hi
there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.

ac
the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease.

fM
197. 6,672 021 02 01 01 General
A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to :

pd
allow a short term overload before rupturing.

limit the current in the field circuit.
instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.
limit the current in the armature.

43. oldal
198. 6,686 021 02 01 01 General
The true statement among the following in relation to the application of Ohm's law is :
Current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied electromotive force.
The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.

power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.
current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the electromotive force.

199. 7,221 021 02 01 01 General
A condenser in parallel with breaker points will

intensify current in secondary winding
permit arcing across points

assist in negative feedback to secondary coil
assist in collapse of secondary winding.

200. 8,168 021 02 01 01 General
The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker is:
on
(1)not resettable, (2)resettable.
(1) suitable for high currents, (2) not suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker
si
(1) not suitable for high currents, (2) suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker
r
ve
(1)not resettable, (2) not resettable.

201. 11,450 021 02 01 01 General
al
The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance
(Req) so obtained is given by the following formula:
tri
1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2

ne
Req = R1 + R2
hi
Req = R1 x R2
ac
1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)

fM
202. 11,505 021 02 01 01 General
The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will create a unit with
the following characteristics;
pd
12 volt / 80 amp hours


44. oldal
203. 1,939 021 02 01 02 Batteries
If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery:

is unserviceable.
has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used.

has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.
has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.
204. 3,945 021 02 01 02 Batteries
On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their
advantages are:
1. low risk of thermal runaway
2. high internal resistance, hence higher power
3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating
4. wider permissible temperature range
5. good storage capability
6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing
7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.
The combination of correct statement is:
3, 4, 5, 6
on
1, 2, 5, 6, 7
si
2, 3, 4, 5, 6
r
ve
3, 4, 6, 7
205. 4,102 021 02 01 02 Batteries
The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is :

al
tri
2,2 volts.
1,4 volts.
ne
1,8 volts.
hi
1,2 volts.
ac
206. 4,103 021 02 01 02 Batteries
Batteries are rated in :

fM
Amperes.hours.
pd
Amperes/volts.
Watts.
Ohms.
45. oldal
207. 5,061 021 02 01 02 Batteries
In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because...

they weigh less than lead-acid batteries.
their output voltage is more constant than lead-acid batteries.

their electrolyte is neither corrosive nor dangerous.
they are cheaper than lead-acid batteries.

208. 6,643 021 02 01 02 Batteries
The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of :

ampere-hours.
volts.
watts.
internal resistance.
209. 6,644 021 02 01 02 Batteries
A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve :

on
"comparing the " on-load" and " off-load" battery voltages."
checking the level of the electrolyte.
si
"checking the discharge current of the battery " on-load" ."

r
ve
"checking the battery voltage " off-load" ."

210. 6,666 021 02 01 02 Batteries
al
When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter :
tri
a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition.
ne
no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage.
the battery should be isolated.
hi
the load condition is unimportant.

ac
211. 6,667 021 02 01 02 Batteries

fM
Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total
voltage and capacity respectively of :
pd
24 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
46. oldal
212. 6,688 021 02 01 02 Batteries
When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the :

voltage to decrease under load.
voltage to increase due to the current available.

current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.
"electrolyte to " boil" ."

213. 6,689 021 02 01 02 Batteries
Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on, an
ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery :
would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists.
indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge.
indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.
indicates a faulty reverse current relay.

214. 4,099 021 02 01 03 Magnetism
A relay is :
on
a magnetically operated switch.
si
another name for a solenoid valve.

r
a unit which is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy.

ve
a device which is used to increase electrical power.

al
215. 5,050 021 02 01 03 Magnetism
A relay is :
tri
An electromagnetically operated switch.

ne
An electrical security switch.

hi
A switch specially designed for AC circuits.

ac
An electrical energy conversion unit.

fM
216. 6,668 021 02 01 03 Magnetism
When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field :

pd
an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor.

there will be no effect on the conductor.
the field will collapse.
current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule.

47. oldal
217. 6,671 021 02 01 03 Magnetism
A circuit breaker :
may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified.
is self resetting after the fault has been rectified.

can only be reset after major maintenance.
can be reset on the ground only.

218. 6,690 021 02 01 03 Magnetism
Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be :

used in AC and DC circuits.
used only in AC circuits.

used only in DC circuits.
reset at any time.

219. 6,691 021 02 01 03 Magnetism
A " trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which :

on
will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit.
is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.
si
can be reset at any time.

r
ve
will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit.
220. 1,955 021 02 01 04 Generators
al
In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of poles required in an
AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
tri
4
ne
24
hi
12
ac
8
fM
pd
48. oldal
221. 1,956 021 02 01 04 Generators
In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):
1- may be disconnected from the engine shaft.

2- may be disconnected from the generator.
3- is a hydro-mechanical system.
4- is an electronic system.
5- may not be disconnected in flight.
6- may be disconnected in flight.

1, 3, 6
1, 2, 5
2, 3, 4
1, 4, 5
222. 3,947 021 02 01 04 Generators
A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the:
voltage coil and the series winding turn.
on
voltage coil and the series winding.
si
generator and the series winding turn.

r
ve
shunt exciter and the series winding turn.

223. 3,948 021 02 01 04 Generators
The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit results in:

al
1. automatic disconnection of the generator from the aircraft AC busbar

2. opening of generator field current relay
tri
3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker

4. opening of balancing circuit connecting two generators
ne
5. lighting of an indicator lamp

hi
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
ac
2, 3, 4, 5
fM
2, 4, 5
pd
1, 3, 5
224. 3,955 021 02 01 04 Generators
A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by :

air via a ram air intake.
water at 8 degrees centrigade from the air-conditioning system.
a fan located before the generator.
air tapped from the low pressure compressor.

49. oldal
225. 3,956 021 02 01 04 Generators
The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in :

series with the shunt field coil.
series with the armature.

parallel with the shunt field coil.
parallel with the armature.

226. 4,094 021 02 01 04 Generators
The output of a generator is controlled by :

varying the field strength.
varying the speed of the engine.

varying the length of wire in the armature windings.
the reverse current relay circuit breaker.

227. 5,054 021 02 01 04 Generators
Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the

electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will :
on
increase the intensity of the excitation current.
si
change the direction of the excitation current.

r
maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.

ve
decrease the intensity of the excitation current.

al
228. 5,064 021 02 01 04 Generators
The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos) is

tri
that the:
ne
induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a fixed
inductor (field) coil.
hi
induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary inductor
coil.
ac
alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies.
fM
The alternators generate much less power than DC generators.

229. 5,065 021 02 01 04 Generators
pd
In an alternator rotor coil you can find :

AC.
Three-phase AC.
Only induced current.
DC.
50. oldal
230. 6,669 021 02 01 04 Generators
In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel, it
is necessary to ensure that :
their voltages are almost equal.
the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.

equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.
adequate voltage differences exists.

231. 9,098 021 02 01 04 Generators
On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:
1. AC generator over-voltage
2. AC generator under-voltage
3. over-current
4. over-speed
5. under-frequency
6. undue vibration of AC generators
The combination of correct statements is :
1,2,4,5
1,2,4,6
on
1,3,5,6
si
2,3,4,5,6
r
ve
232. 11,448 021 02 01 04 Generators
The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on...

al
its rotation speed

tri
the strength of the excitation current

its load
ne
its phase balance

hi
233. 11,453 021 02 01 04 Generators

ac
The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the :
fM
generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
pd
alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
234. 4,092 021 02 01 05 Distribution
The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are :

series wound.
shunt wound.
series shunt wound.
compound wound.
51. oldal
235. 5,056 021 02 01 05 Distribution
The so-called " hot buses" or " direct buses" are:

directly connected to the battery.
kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure.

automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.
providing an alternative current.

236. 6,646 021 02 01 05 Distribution
When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved by :
an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies the field excitation
current of the generators.
an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators.
carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures.
the synchronous bus-bar.

237. 6,648 021 02 01 05 Distribution
In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that :

on
generator voltages are almost equal before the generators are paralleled.
si
only one generator can supply the bus-bar at a time.

r
generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load.

ve
"one generator comes " on-line" before the other."

al
238. 6,656 021 02 01 05 Distribution
A bus-bar is :
tri
a distribution point for electrical power.

ne
a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.

hi
the stator of a moving coil instrument.

ac
a device which may only be used in DC circuits.

fM
239. 11,414 021 02 01 05 Distribution
The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to isolate the battery:

pd
1 - from the bus when the battery charge is deemed satisfactory

2 - when there is a battery overheat condition
3 - in case of an internal short circuit
4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit
The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :

1 - 2 -3
1-2
1 - 2 - 3 -4
1
52. oldal
240. 1,958 021 02 01 06 Inverter (applications)
A static inverter is a:
transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC.
device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.

static discharger.
filter against radio interference.

The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is ..

To change DC into AC.
To change the DC voltage.

To change AC into DC.
To avoid a short circuit.

In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be
obtained from :
on
an inverter.
si
a rectifier.
r
a contactor.
ve
a TRU.
al
A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is :

tri
an inverter.
ne
an AC generator.
hi
a transformer rectifier unit.

ac
a thermistor.
fM
244. 3,809 021 02 01 07 The aircraft structure as an electrical conductor
The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:
pd
1. Weight saving
2. Easy fault detection
3. Increase of short-circuit risk
4. Reduction of short-circuit risk
5. Circuits are not single-wired lines

1, 2, 4
1, 2, 3
2, 3, 5
1, 3, 5
53. oldal
Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:
1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects.

2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt
3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication systems
4. set the aircraft to a single potential
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
3, 4
2, 4
The purpose of static wick dischargers is to :

dissipate static charge of the aircraft inflight thus avoiding radio interference as a result of static
electricity.
dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.
on
provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.

si
be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.

r
ve
It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if :

al
static noises can be heard on the radio.

tri
a circuit breaker pops out.

there is interference on the VOR receiver.
ne
there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.

hi
Static dischargers :
ac
1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential
fM
2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge

3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0
pd
volts
4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence with the on-board
radiocommunication systems to a minimum
5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified
clouds

2,4,5.
1,2,5.
1,3,4.
3,4,5.
54. oldal
The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to :

provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.
provide a single earth for electrical devices.

prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.
isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant.
250. 3,943 021 02 02 01 General
The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:

1. simple connection
2. high starting torque
3. flexibility in use
4. lighter weight of equipment
5. easy to convert into direct current
6. easy maintenance of machines
3, 4, 5, 6
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
on
1, 2, 3, 5, 6
si
1, 4, 6
r
251. 5,053 021 02 02 01 General

ve
The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is :

400 Hz.
al
200 Hz.
tri
50 Hz.
ne
60 Hz.
hi
252. 6,682 021 02 02 01 General
If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, the current
ac
flowing in the circuit will :

fM
increase.
be zero.
pd
decrease.
remain the same.

253. 1,940 021 02 02 02 Generators
When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by
means of the:
energizing current.
frequency.
voltage.
torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).

55. oldal
254. 1,959 021 02 02 02 Generators
The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to:

maintain a constant frequency.
take part in the balancing of reactive loads.

mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling.
take part in the voltage regulation.

255. 3,856 021 02 02 02 Generators
The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which:
supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC.
is driven at constant speed throught a Constant Speed Drive (CSD), in the same way as the
main AC generator.
is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up.
must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily coupled
with the latter.
256. 3,857 021 02 02 02 Generators
As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can be said that:
on
1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage

si
2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent indication to record the failure
3. All the commands originating from the control panel are applied via the GCU, except
r
dog clutch release

ve
4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC generator as soon as
the APU starts up
al

tri
2, 3
ne
3, 4
hi
2, 4
ac
1, 3
257. 3,957 021 02 02 02 Generators
fM
On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator is

activated by:
pd
a set of permanent magnets.
the main field winding.

the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.
the auxiliary winding.

56. oldal
258. 5,057 021 02 02 02 Generators
In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the:
pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight.
pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.

pilot has to throttle back.
pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.

259. 6,651 021 02 02 02 Generators
The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the :

rotor.
stator.
oscillator.
slip ring.
260. 6,652 021 02 02 02 Generators
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the :

on
number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.
number of individual poles and the field strength.
si
field strength and the speed of the rotor.

r
ve
number of individual poles only.

261. 6,653 021 02 02 02 Generators
al
The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to :

tri
drive the generator at a constant speed.

ne
vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.

directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.
hi
vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
ac
262. 6,654 021 02 02 02 Generators

fM
If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase
relationship of each generator:
pd
is unimportant.
must be synchronised.
must be 120° out of phase.
must be 240° out of phase.

57. oldal
263. 6,658 021 02 02 02 Generators
A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for

disconnection are :
low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive.
excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.

illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.
slight variation about the normal operating frequency.

264. 6,659 021 02 02 02 Generators
A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight :

may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down.
may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.
automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value.
automatically resets at engine shut-down.

265. 6,670 021 02 02 02 Generators
The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the :

on
generator at varying loads and speeds.
si
batteries at varying loads.

r
generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads.

ve
output of the TRU.

al
266. 6,674 021 02 02 02 Generators
A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at :

tri
120°.
ne
60°.
45°.
hi
90°.
ac
fM
267. 6,675 021 02 02 02 Generators
On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of
monitoring the:
pd
oil over-temperature and low oil pressure.
oil temperature and synchronous speed.

output speed and oil pressure.
low oil temperature and low oil quantity.

58. oldal
268. 6,676 021 02 02 02 Generators
An AC generator driven by a CSD unit :

requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load.
does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage.
does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load.
requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.

269. 6,677 021 02 02 02 Generators
Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected :

during engine operation only.
at flight idle engine rpm.

in accordance with the regulated voltage level of the AC generator.
on the ground only.

270. 6,680 021 02 02 02 Generators
The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are :

on
kVA and kVAR.
volts and amperes.
si
volts and kilowatts.

r
ve
amperes and kilowatts.

271. 6,681 021 02 02 02 Generators
al
"Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator :

tri
output frequency varies with engine speed.

ne
output frequency is too high.

voltage regulator is out of adjustment.
hi
output frequency is too low.

ac
272. 6,696 021 02 02 02 Generators

fM
The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:

drive the generator at a constant speed.
pd
vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator.
59. oldal
273. 6,698 021 02 02 02 Generators
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the :

number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part.
number of individual poles and the field strength.

field strength and the speed of the moving part.
number of individual poles only.

274. 7,695 021 02 02 02 Generators
A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring

that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine.
that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPM
equal AC voltage from all generators.

275. 3,806 021 02 02 03 AC power distribution
In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the
changover relay allows :
on
power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.
si
connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.

r
connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.

ve
connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar.

al
Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of
tri
the AC generator it can be said that the:

ne
exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.

exciter control relay opens.
hi
generator breaker opens.

ac
exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open.
fM
pd
60. oldal
As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must be met for

paralleling AC generators:
1. Equal voltage
2. Equal current
3. Equal frequencies
4. Same phase rotation
5. Voltages of same phase

1, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 4
1, 3, 5
1, 4, 5
A thermal circuit breaker:

protects the system in the event of overheating, even without exceeding the maximum
on
permissible current.
is a protection system with a quick break capacity of about one hundredth of a second.
si
forbids any overcurrent.

r
ve
can be reset without any danger even if the fault remains.

al
A magnetic circuit-breaker is:

tri
a protection system that has a quick tripping response.

ne
permits an overcurrent limited in time.

can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.
hi
is a system with a slow response time.

ac
On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the

fM
aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device opens:

pd
the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.

the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.
The generator breaker and tie breaker.
The generator breaker.

61. oldal
When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the mains
with another AC generator, the overexcitation protection device opens:
the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
the tie breaker.

the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
the generator breaker.

When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on only one AC generator, the

protection device opens the :
exciter breaker and generator breaker.
exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
tie breaker.
generator breaker and tie breaker.

When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC

on
busbar, the protection device opens the:
si
generator breaker.
r
exciter breaker.
ve
exciter breaker and generator breaker.

al
exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.

tri
The services connected to a supply bus-bar are normally in:

ne
parallel, so that isolating individual loads decreases the bus-bar current consumption.
hi
series, so that isolating one load increases the bus-bar current consumption.
ac
parallel, so that isolation of loads decreases the bus-bar voltage.
series, so that isolation of loads increases the bus-bar voltage.

fM
To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel :

pd
both real an reactive loads must be matched.

the matching of loads is unimportant.
only reactive loads need to be matched.
only real loads need to be matched.

62. oldal
When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each

generator:
is unimportant.
must be synchronous.
must be in opposition.
must be 90° out of synchronisation.

When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must be of the same:

voltage and frequency.
amperage and kVAR.
voltage and amperage.
frequency and amperage.

Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :

on
automatic adjustment of the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.
si
controlling the generator field current.

r
carefully selecting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time.
ve
monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.

al
Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :

tri
adjusting the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.
ne
carefully secting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time.
hi
controlling the generator field current.

ac
monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.

fM
Load shedding means ..

pd
Temporarily or permanent switching off of certain electric users to avoid overload of electric
generators
To leave behind extra cargo if the centre of gravity moves outside limits
Reduction of airloads on the flaps by means of the flap load relief value
A procedure used in control systems to reduce the stick forces

63. oldal
291. 3,810 021 02 02 05 Synchronous and asynchronous motors
The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:
12000 revolutions per minute.


292. 6,684 021 02 02 06 Transformer/rectifier units
In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained

from a :
Transformer Rectifier Unit.
static inverter.
3 phase current transformer unit.
rotary converter.
293. 6,685 021 02 02 06 Transformer/rectifier units
On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries are charged in

flight from :
on
a Transformer Rectifier Unit.

si
a static inverter.
r
ve
a DC transformer and rectifier.
the AC bus via current limiters.

al
294. 5,545 021 02 04 00 Basic knowledge of computers

tri
In computer technology, an output peripheral is a:

ne
screen unit
keyboard
hi
hard disk drive

ac
diskette drive
fM
In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:

pd
keyboard
screen unit
hard disk drive
diskette drive
64. oldal
In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a:

hard disk drive
printer
key board
screen unit
In computer technology, an EPROM is:
1. a read-only memory
2. a write memory
3. erases its content when power supply is cut off
4. keeps its content when power supply is cut off

1,4
1,3
on
2,3
si
2,4
r
298. 6,660 021 02 04 02 Logical symbols

ve
(For this question use annex 021- 6660A)

The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic) :
al
an INVERT or NOT gate.

tri
a NAND gate.
a NOR gate.
ne
an EXCLUSIVE gate.
hi
299. 6,706 021 02 04 02 Logical symbols

ac
Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the :

fM
" "all or nothing" gate."

" "any or all" gate."
pd
" "state indicator" gate."
" "inhibited" or " negated" gate."

300. 6,707 021 02 04 02 Logical symbols
The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to :

invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state.
ensure the input signal is AC only.
ensure the input signal is DC only.
ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal.
65. oldal
301. 6,661 021 02 04 03 Switching circuits and logical symbols
Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as the :

" "any or all" gate."
" "inhibited" or " negated" gate."

" "state indicator" gate."
" "all or nothing" gate."

302. 570 021 02 05 01 Basic principles
The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:

2.46 m
24.60 cm
2.46 cm
24.60 m
303. 571 021 02 05 01 Basic principles
For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable to C Band because:
on
It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the same transmission power.
Its penetration power is higher.
si
It is not absorbed by heavy precipitations.

r
ve
It allows greater scanning rates.

304. 3,837 021 02 05 01 Basic principles
al
The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is:

tri
1000 metres.
ne
100 metres.
10 metres.
hi
1 metre.
ac

fM
The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF direction finder is
a:
pd
VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.

VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.
VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
cathode-ray tube.
66. oldal
The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following wavelengths:

decimetric.
centimetric.
hectometric.
myriametric.
The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths:

centimetric.
metric.
hectometric.
myriametric.
The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:

on
metric.
hectometric.
si
decimetric.
r
ve
centimetric.
al
The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths:

tri
metric.
ne
hectometric.
decimetric.
hi
centimetric.
ac

fM
The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths:

decimetric.
pd
hectometric.
metric.
centimetric.
67. oldal
The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths:

metric.
centimetric.
hectometric.
myriametric.
The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:

metric.
hectometric.
decimetric.
centimetric.
The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following wavelengths:

on
centimetric.
metric.
si
hectometric.
r
ve
myriametric.
al
The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:

tri
decimetric.
ne
metric.
hectometric.
hi
myriametric.
ac

fM
The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:

centimetric.
pd
myriametric.
decimetric.
metric.
68. oldal
The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths:

hectometric or kilometric.
metric.
decimetric.
centimetric.
In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:

The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels.
The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.

The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels.
The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each end.
318. 568 021 02 05 03 Wave propagation
In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following

frequencies:
on
HF
si
VHF
r
UHF
ve
VLF
al
319. 5,493 021 02 05 03 Wave propagation
Skip distance is the:

tri
range from the transmitter to the first sky wave

ne
highest critical frequency distance

hi
wavelength distance of a certain frequency

ac
thickness of the ionosphere

fM
A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called :
pd
attenuation
refraction
propagation
ducting
69. oldal
The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following change in
circumstance occurs :
Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
Lower frequency ang higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer

Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer

In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found :
at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves.

by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves.
at night and when raining.
by day and when raining.

323. 3,070 021 03 01 01 General
The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder engine displacement is :

on
piston area * piston stroke * number of cylinders

si
piston area * piston stroke

r
ve
cylinder volume * number of cylinders
cylinder length * cylinder diameter

al
324. 3,071 021 03 01 01 General

tri
In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. This permits a :
ne
lighter construction.
lower fuel consumption.
hi
better piston cooling.

ac
cheaper construction
fM
325. 5,345 021 03 01 01 General
The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the
pd
following gas state change lines

2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines.
2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.
2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines.
2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines.

70. oldal
326. 5,347 021 03 01 01 General
The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Center)
before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.

behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.

327. 5,349 021 03 01 01 General
The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by :

Torque times RPM.
Work times velocity.

Force times distance.
Pressure times arm.

328. 5,350 021 03 01 01 General
The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is :
on
Brake horse power.
Friction horse power.
si
Heat loss power.

r
ve
Indicated horse power.

329. 5,351 021 03 01 01 General
al
The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the:

tri
gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.
ne
propeller blades.
accessory gear box.
hi
camshaft.
ac
330. 5,380 021 03 01 01 General

fM
The crank assembly consists of

crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
pd
propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.

Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.

71. oldal
331. 5,541 021 03 01 01 General
On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are readjusted
in order to increase the:
overall efficiency
compression ratio
piston displacement
engine r.p.m.
332. 5,542 021 03 01 01 General
In a four-stroke piston engine, the only " driving" stroke is :

firing-expansion
intake
compression
exhaust
333. 6,420 021 03 01 01 General
The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are :
on
intake valve closed and exhaust valve open.
si
both valves open.

r
both valves closed.

ve
exhaust valve closed and intake valve open.

al
334. 6,591 021 03 01 01 General
A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the :

tri
total volume to the clearance volume.

ne
clearance volume to the swept volume.

hi
total volume to the swept volume.

ac
swept volume to the clearance volume.

fM
335. 6,597 021 03 01 01 General
The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is :

pd
induction, compression, power, exhaust.

induction, power, compression, exhaust.
compression induction, power, exhaust.
induction, compression, expansion, power.

72. oldal
336. 6,620 021 03 01 01 General
The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:

volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead
centre.
diameter of the bore to the piston stroke.
area of the piston to the cylinder volume.
weight of the air induced to its weight after compression.

337. 6,748 021 03 01 01 General
The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary motion is
termed the :
crankshaft
piston
camshaft
reduction gear
338. 3,139 021 03 01 02 Lubrication system
For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:

on
oil temperature.
si
outside pressure.
r
ve
oil pressure.
quantity of oil.
al

tri
For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:

ne
the circulation of lubricating oil

a rich fuel/air mixture
hi
a properly functioning thermostat

ac
a lean fuel/air mixture

fM
In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided because :
pd
it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls

it fouls the spark plugs
it drains the carburettor float chamber
the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil

73. oldal
The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:

pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.
difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.
pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.

The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted :
in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pump
between the oil tank and the pressure pump

after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine
after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump
Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a

on
worn oil pump
too large oil pump
si
restricted oil passage

r
ve
too small scavenger pump.

344. 5,381 021 03 01 04 Ignition
al
Ignition systems of piston engines are :

tri
independant from the electrical system of the aircraft.

ne
dependant on the battery.

dependant on the DC-Generator.
hi
dependant on the AC-Generator.

ac
345. 6,415 021 03 01 04 Ignition

fM
If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes disconnected
the most noticeable result will be that:
pd
"the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the " OFF" position"
a still operating engine will run down
"the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the " ON" position"
the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced

74. oldal
346. 6,600 021 03 01 04 Ignition
The purpose of an ignition switch is to :

control the primary circuit of the magneto
connect the secondary coil to the distributor

connect the battery to the magneto
connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil
347. 6,601 021 03 01 04 Ignition
Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current :

from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system.
from the booster coil.

directly from the aircraft batteries.
from the aircraft batteries via an inverter.

348. 6,621 021 03 01 04 Ignition
Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the:
on
sparking plugs.
carburettor.
si
oil pump.
r
ve
fuel filter.
349. 6,626 021 03 01 04 Ignition
al
The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute:

tri
secondary current to the sparking plugs.

ne
primary current to the condenser.

secondary current to the condenser.
hi
primary current to the sparking plugs.

ac
350. 6,627 021 03 01 04 Ignition

fM
The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto are
accomplished by the:
pd
contact breaker points opening.

distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments.
contact breaker points closing.
rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.

75. oldal
351. 7,219 021 03 01 04 Ignition
An aircraft magneto is switched off by

grounding the primary circuit
opening the primary circuit

opening the secondary circuit
grounding the secondary circuit.

352. 7,222 021 03 01 04 Ignition
An impulse magneto coupling

gives a retarded spark at starting
reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up

advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting
gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation.

353. 7,223 021 03 01 04 Ignition
If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be :
on
excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
switch wire grounded
si
defective condenser
r
ve
fouled spark plugs

354. 7,225 021 03 01 04 Ignition
al
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected,
the most noticeable result will be that the engine
tri
cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

ne
will not operate at the left magneto

hi
will not operate at the right magneto

ac
cannot be started with the switch in the ON position

fM
355. 7,226 021 03 01 04 Ignition
An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for

pd
providing a retarded spark for engine starting.

advancing ignition timing
quick removal and installation
absorbing starting loads

76. oldal
356. 11,443 021 03 01 04 Ignition
When the magneto selector switch is set to " OFF" position, the piston engine continues
to run normally.
The most probable cause of this failure is that:
On a magneto, a grounding wire is broken.
There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.

A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine.
There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder heads).
357. 11,487 021 03 01 04 Ignition
In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/air
mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists in :
breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current which is distributed to
the spark plugs.
obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark.
accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high voltage
current at the moment the spark is generated.
creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be sent through the distributor at the
on
appropriate time.
358. 3,107 021 03 01 05 Engine fuel supply
si
On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios are obtained by the adjustment
of :
r
ve
fuel flow.
air flow.
al
fuel flow and air flow.

tri
fuel flow, air flow and temperature.

ne
In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?

hi
venturi and the throttle valve

ac
float chamber and fuel inlet filter

fM
accelerator pump and main metering jet

pd
main air bleed and main discharge nozzle

The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:

difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude
increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure
measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system

77. oldal
In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that causes
carburettor ice is normally the result of:
vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor
freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor

compression of air at the carburettor venturi
low volatility of aviation fuel

Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburettor heat?
it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture
it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus enriching the fuel/air mixture
Vapour lock is :
on
vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor
si
the formation of water vapour in a fuel system

r
vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor

ve
the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor

al
A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned :

tri
upstream of the needle valve.

ne
between the needle valve and the metering jet.

hi
between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle.

ac
downstream of th discharge nozzle.

fM
The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to:

pd
create the depression necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor jets.
prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.
ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the induction system.
create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system.
78. oldal
With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor :

may form at OAT's higher than +10°C.
will only form at OAT's below +10°C.

will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.
will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.

To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume of air flowing
through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel as engine
speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with :
a diffuser
a power jet
an accelerator pump
a mixture control
Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the:

on
faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced

r si
slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced

ve
faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs
faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.
al

tri
"Vapor lock" is the phenomenon by which:

ne
heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line.
water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in fuel
hi
tanks which have not been drained for sometime.

ac
abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of
carburettor heat.
fM
burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an overheat and
thereby disturbing the exhaust.
pd
370. 5,353 021 03 01 06 Engine performance
The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever setting,
because of the decreasing :
air density.
engine temperature.
humidity.
temperature.
79. oldal
The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are :
cold and dry air at high pressure.
warm and humid air at low pressure.

cold and humid air at high pressure.
warm and dry air at high pressure.

The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with increasing
altitude at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the :
lower back pressure.
lower losses during the gas change.
lower friction losses.
leaner mixture at higher altitudes.

During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM indication and constant
mixture setting, the power output of a piston engine :
on
increases.
si
decreases.
r
ve
only stays constant if the speed control lever is pushed forward.
stays constant.
al

tri
The global output of a piston engine is of:

(global output = Thermal energy corresponding to the available shaft/power over the total
thermal energy produced).
ne
0.30
hi
0.50
ac
0.75
fM
0.90
pd
375. 5,359 021 03 01 07 Power augmentation devices
The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is :

a radial compressor.
an axial compressor.
a hybrid compressor.
a piston compressor.
80. oldal
What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open throttle if the waste gate
is seized ?
The manifold air pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value.
The power of the motor will decrease.

The turbine shaft will break.
The turbine blades will separate.

One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that :

it uses the exhaust gas energy which normally is lost.
it has a better propulsive efficiency.
there is no torsion at the crankshaft.
there is no danger of knocking.

The primary purpose of a supercharger is to :

on
maintain power at altitude
si
increase quantity of fuel at metering jet

r
provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft

ve
provide a richer mixture at high altitudes

al
The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor :

tri
enters the eye of the impeller and leaves at a tangent to the periphery.
ne
enters via the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack.
hi
enters at the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller.
ac
enters at a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator.

fM
In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by :

pd
a manifold pressure gauge only.

a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine rpm readings.
both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge.
both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge.

81. oldal
A turbocharger system is normally driven by:

the exhaust system.
an electric motor.
an hydraulic motor.
an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.

A turbocharger consists of a :
compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft.
compressor and turbine on individual shafts.

compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear.
turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear.

383. 4,837 021 03 01 08 Fuel
The octane rating of a fuel characterises the :

on
the anti-knock capability
fuel volatility
si
quantity of heat generated by its combustion

r
ve
fuel electrical conductivity

384. 6,438 021 03 01 08 Fuel
al
The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine have which of the
following relations?
tri
the higher the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is
ne
the lower the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is
hi
the higher the octane rating is, the lower the possible compression ratio is.
ac
compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.

fM
385. 6,447 021 03 01 08 Fuel
Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to minimize
this when an aircraft is used every day or so is to :
pd
keep tanks topped off when the aircraft is not in use
drain tanks at end of each day's flight

use only high octane gasoline
keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight

82. oldal
386. 11,461 021 03 01 08 Fuel
A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:
provided that the grade is higher
provided that the grade is lower

never
provided that it is an aeronautical petrol

387. 3,106 021 03 01 09 Mixture
For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the :

mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.

volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.

388. 3,112 021 03 01 09 Mixture
A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This results in a
on
lower cylinder head temperature.
higher efficiency.
si
slight loss of power.

r
ve
higher torque.
389. 3,114 021 03 01 09 Mixture
al
Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with :

tri
Mass ratio of 1/15.

ne
Cruising mixture setting.

Full rich setting.
hi
Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.

ac
390. 6,430 021 03 01 09 Mixture

fM
The main purpose of the mixture control is to:

adjust the fuel flow to obtain the proper fuel/air ratio
pd
decrease the air supplied to the engine

increase the oxygen supplied to the engine
decrease oxygen supplied to the engine

83. oldal
391. 6,435 021 03 01 09 Mixture
Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:

mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.

volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor

392. 6,452 021 03 01 09 Mixture
An excessively rich mixture can be detected by :

black smoke from exhaust.
high cylinder head temperatures

white smoke from exhaust.
a long purple flame from exhaust.

393. 6,594 021 03 01 09 Mixture
Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively :

on
weak mixture.
rich mixture.
si
low barometric pressure.

r
ve
high barometric pressure.

394. 6,598 021 03 01 09 Mixture
al
Specific fuel consumption is defined as the :

tri
mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.

ne
designed fuel consumption for a given rpm.

quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating conditions.
hi
maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.

ac
395. 6,599 021 03 01 09 Mixture

fM
In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to :

correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.
pd
prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.

weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.
enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.

84. oldal
396. 6,625 021 03 01 09 Mixture
The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by:

varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube.
moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control.
altering the depression on the main discharge tube.
varying the air supply to the main discharge tube.

397. 6,750 021 03 01 09 Mixture
In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, the mixture is
said to be :
rich
weak
too weak to support combustion
normal
398. 6,755 021 03 01 09 Mixture
When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will
cause :
on
high cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature

si
high engine rpm

r
ve
low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
high manifold pressure

al
399. 11,447 021 03 01 09 Mixture

tri
The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the :

ne
real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio.

mass of fuel relative to the volume of air.
hi
volume of fuel relative to the volume of air.

ac
volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air.

fM
400. 11,502 021 03 01 09 Mixture
For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a richness of 1 is

pd
obtained for a weight ratio of:
1/15 th
1/9 th
1/10th
1/12th
85. oldal
401. 11,507 021 03 01 09 Mixture
(For this question use appendix )
On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of
mixture richness, best economy is at the point marked:
1
2
3
4
402. 1,951 021 03 01 10 Propeller
The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller:

is an electrically driven oil pump, which supplies the propeller with pressure oil, when the engine
is inoperative.
is intended to control the pitch setting of the propeller during flight in order to obtain a constant
speed.
controls the propeller, if the speed governor fails.
is driven by the engine and supplies pressure oil to the propeller in case of engine problems.
on
403. 3,091 021 03 01 10 Propeller
The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller

r si
increases with increasing true air speed.

ve
only varies with engine RPM.

al
decreases with increasing true air speed.

tri
is independent of the true air speed.

404. 3,094 021 03 01 10 Propeller
ne
A propeller blade is twisted, so as to

hi
keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.

ac
avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.

decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip.
fM
allow a higher mechanical stress.

pd
405. 3,096 021 03 01 10 Propeller
A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system during :

Take-off and landing.
Cruise.
Take-off.
Landing.
86. oldal
406. 3,098 021 03 01 10 Propeller
When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a fixed
pitch propeller :
reduces.
increases.
stays constant.
stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.

407. 3,099 021 03 01 10 Propeller
When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller (RPM and MAP levers
are not moved) :
increases.
reduces.
first reduces and after a short time increases to its previous value.
stays constant.
408. 3,101 021 03 01 10 Propeller
The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch propeller
on
is a :
si
higher efficiency in all operating ranges.

r
constant efficiency in all operating ranges.

ve
lower propeller blade stress.

al
higher efficiency in cruising range.

tri
409. 3,103 021 03 01 10 Propeller
To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to :

ne
use the electric unfeathering pump.

hi
manually release the blade latch.

ac
gain speed for aerodynamic unfeathering.
gain speed so as to use the engine unfeathering pump.

fM
410. 3,104 021 03 01 10 Propeller
In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant speed propeller in a
pd
single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system

move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force.
move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller.
move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling RPM.
move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamical force.

87. oldal
411. 3,105 021 03 01 10 Propeller
For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever position (2)
at brake release is :
(1) low (2) forward.
(1) low (2) aft.

(1) high (2) aft.
(1) high (2) forward.

412. 4,013 021 03 01 10 Propeller
Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop.

During deceleration :
when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power.
at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil.
when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power.
with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power.
413. 5,367 021 03 01 10 Propeller
Which of the following qualitative statements about a fixed propeller optimized for cruise
on
condition, is true for the take-off case? The angle of attack of the propeller :
si
blade is relatively high.

r
blade is relatively small.

ve
airfoil section is negative.

al
blades reduces to zero.

tri
414. 5,368 021 03 01 10 Propeller
The 'constant speed propeller' has

ne
only above and below the design point a better efficiency than the fixed propeller with the same
design speed.
hi
in general a worse efficiency than the fixed propeller.

ac
only at the design speed a better efficiency than the fixed propeller.
fM
its best efficiency during climb.

415. 5,371 021 03 01 10 Propeller
pd
What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a " constant speed propeller" if the
manifold pressure is increased ?
It will increase
It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again
It will decrease so that the engine can increase
It will remain the same

88. oldal
416. 5,372 021 03 01 10 Propeller
The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at:

low airspeeds with high power setting.
high airspeeds with low power setting.

high airspeeds with high power setting.
low airspeeds with low power setting.

417. 5,373 021 03 01 10 Propeller
An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists ..

If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack.
If there is an unbalanced propeller.

Only for counterrotating propeller
Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken.

418. 5,374 021 03 01 10 Propeller
In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers

on
the left engine is the critical motor.
the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa.
si
the 'minimum control speed' is determined by the failure of the right engine.
r
ve
the right engine is the critical motor.

419. 5,375 021 03 01 10 Propeller
al
In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller'

tri
the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
ne
the aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
the spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
hi
the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
ac
420. 5,376 021 03 01 10 Propeller

fM
In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by :

pulling the RPM lever backwards.
pd
pushing the RPM lever forward.

pushing the power lever forward.
pulling the power levers backwards.

89. oldal
421. 6,414 021 03 01 10 Propeller
Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at :

cruising speed
idling
full throttle
take-off
422. 6,602 021 03 01 10 Propeller
On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller :

manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed throttle setting.
the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds.

in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the rpm is increased by opening the
throttle.
in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will always remain constant.
423. 11,435 021 03 01 10 Propeller
The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the :

on
reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.
si
propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow.

r
propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the propeller.

ve
propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow.

al
424. 11,441 021 03 01 10 Propeller
When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch angle is near 90°,
tri
the propeller is said to be...

ne
feathered.
windmilling.
hi
transparent.
ac
at zero drag.
fM
425. 11,442 021 03 01 10 Propeller
During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, a wrong
pd
combination of manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive pressures in the
cylinders. This is the case when one simultaneously selects a ...
high manifold pressure and low RPM.
low manifold pressure and high RPM.
high manifold pressure and high RPM.
low manifold pressure and low RPM.

90. oldal
426. 11,463 021 03 01 10 Propeller
From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to
maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should:
increase
decrease
remain the same
increase or decrease, depending on the engine type

427. 3,089 021 03 01 11 Engine handling and manipulation
When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine

overload is avoided by :
increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.
adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.
reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM.

To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, means to:
on
decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density.
si
decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increasing air density.
r
ve
increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and
density.
al
increase the mixture ratio.

tri
When applying carburettor heating :

ne
the mixture becomes richer.

hi
a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.

ac
the mixture becomes leaner.
no change occurs in the mixture ratio.

fM
When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position the :
pd
amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced.

volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced.
amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased.
volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.

91. oldal
When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine
performance is affected because of a :
decrease of air density for a constant quantity of fuel.
constant air density for a bigger quantity of fuel.

increase of air density for smaller quantity of fuel.
decrease of air density for a smaller quantity of fuel.

With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted with a
fixed pitch propeller?
RPM indicator.
RPM and Fuel Flow indicator.
RPM and MAP indicator.
RPM and EGT indicator.

An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to :

on
assist the pilot to settle correct mixture.

si
control the cylinder head temperature.

r
ve
control the carburator inlet air flow.
control the fuel temperature.

al

tri
During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant) the :
ne
Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) decreases.

RPM decreases.
hi
Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) increases.

ac
RPM increases.
fM
The conditions which can cause knocking are :

pd
High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.
High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.

Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.

92. oldal
The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an engine when it is
operated at specified rpm and manifold pressure conditons established as safe for
continuous operation is termed :
rated power.
maximum power.
take-off power.
critical power.
Which of the following factors would be likely to increase the possibility of detonation
occurring within a piston engine ?
using too lean a fuel/air mixture ratio
the use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane rating
using an engine with a low compression ratio
slightly retarding the ignition timing

on
On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure gauge

always indicates...
si
a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.

r
ve
a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.

zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.
al
a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground.
tri
Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if :

ne
the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment.

hi
the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment.

ac
power is increased too abruptly.

fM
the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous power for too long.
pd
440. 6,592 021 03 01 12 Operational criteria
Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when :

the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the spark occurs at the
plug
the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre.
a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.
the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early.

93. oldal
441. 11,462 021 03 01 12 Operational criteria
With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you:

Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixture
Reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture

Increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture
Increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture

442. 11,434 021 03 02 01 Principles of operation
In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ...

drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases
clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust
compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber
drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator.

443. 11,474 021 03 02 02 Types of construction
(Use the appendix to answer this question)

on
The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type:
si
free turbine and centrifugal compressor

r
ve
free turbine and axial compressor

single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor
al
single shaft turbine and axial compressor

tri
444. 5,397 021 03 03 01 Air inlet
The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to:

ne
provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds.
hi
provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed.
ac
feed cooling air to the engine cowling.

fM
serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage.

445. 1,945 021 03 03 02 Compressor
pd
In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:

rotor - stator
stator - rotor
rotor - rotor - stator
stator - stator - rotor

94. oldal
446. 3,812 021 03 03 02 Compressor
In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is
calculated so as to:
maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.
maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.

reduce the axial speed in cruising flight.
reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.

447. 3,905 021 03 03 02 Compressor
The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the :

Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.).
inlet guide vanes.
surge bleed valves.
variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.

448. 6,610 021 03 03 02 Compressor
Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor diffuser is a device in which the:
on
pressure rises and velocity falls.
si
pressure rises at a constant velocity.

r
velocity, pressure and temperature rise.

ve
velocity rises and pressure falls.

al
449. 6,614 021 03 03 02 Compressor
The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces:

tri
the greater part of the thrust.

ne
half the thrust.

hi
the lesser part of the thrust.

ac
none of the thrust.

fM
450. 6,631 021 03 03 02 Compressor
In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is :

pd
the same as turbine rpm.

independent of turbine rpm.
greater than turbine rpm.
less than turbine rpm.

95. oldal
451. 6,636 021 03 03 02 Compressor
In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position when
the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running due to :
the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.
oil pressure.
thermal expansion.
blade creep.
452. 6,638 021 03 03 02 Compressor
The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to :
reduce the likelihood of compressor stall.
control the acceleration time of the engine.
spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed.
enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting.
453. 11,416 021 03 03 02 Compressor
The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow compressors

are :
on
1 - expensive to manufacture
si
2 - limited airflow
r
3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage

ve
4 - limited compression ratio
The combination of correct answers is :

al
1-3
tri
1-2
ne
2-3
hi
2-4
ac
454. 11,423 021 03 03 02 Compressor
A stage in an axial compressor:

fM
is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades

pd
has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1

is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc
has a compression ration in the order of 0.8

96. oldal
455. 6,608 021 03 03 04 Combustion chamber
In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained:

within the combustion chamber.
across the turbine.

in the cooling airflow around the flame tube.
at the entry to the exhaust unit.

456. 3,814 021 03 03 05 Turbine
In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as follows:
V increases, Ps decreases.
V decreases, Ps increases.
V increases, Ps increases.
V decreases, Ps decreases.
457. 3,981 021 03 03 05 Turbine
An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place:

on
fully in the stator.
fully in the rotor.
si
in the stator and in the rotor.

r
ve
in order to produce a degree of jet propulsion < 1/2.

458. 6,611 021 03 03 05 Turbine
al
A " fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by:

tri
the low pressure turbine.

ne
the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing.

the high pressure turbine.
hi
airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor.

ac
459. 6,613 021 03 03 05 Turbine

fM
In a free turbine engine:

there is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power output shaft.
pd
its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine.

the air enters the compressor via the input turbine.
the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected.

97. oldal
460. 6,632 021 03 03 05 Turbine
When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the :

pressure drops.
pressure rises.
velocity decreases.
temperature increases.
461. 6,635 021 03 03 05 Turbine
The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of gas flow is to :
ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded.
prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating.

prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes.
ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not
exceeded.
462. 6,641 021 03 03 05 Turbine
Turbine blade stages may be classed as either " impulse" or " reaction" . In an impulse
blade section :
on
the pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor blades .
si
the pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor blades .
r
ve
the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and drops across the rotor blades .
the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and rises constant across the rotor
al
blades .
tri
463. 11,424 021 03 03 07 Pressure, temperature and airflow in a turbine engine
For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:

ne
external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass

hi
internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass

ac
internal airflow mass divided by the fuelflow mass
fuelflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass

fM
464. 6,619 021 03 03 08 Reverse thrust
A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates when:
pd
the reverser doors are unlocked.

the reverser doors are locked.
reverse has been selected but the doors have remained locked.
the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position.

98. oldal
465. 6,615 021 03 03 10 Bleed air
At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a similar
system, the turbine temperature:
will rise.
will be unchanged.
may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the rpm of
the engine at the moment of selection.
will fall.
466. 6,637 021 03 03 10 Bleed air
If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the engine pressure ratio
(EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that :
EPR decreases and EGT increases.
both EPR and EGT decrease.
EPR decreases and EGT remains constant.
EPR remains constant and EGT increases.

467. 11,456 021 03 03 10 Bleed air
on
Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
si
decreases aircraft performance

r
has no influence on aircraft performance

ve
increases aircraft performance

al
is limited to the phases of take-off and landing

tri
468. 2,988 021 03 03 11 Auxiliary gearbox
The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the :
ne
1. tacho-generator N1
2. tacho-generator N2
hi
3. thrust reverser pneumatic motors

4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)
ac
5. oil pumps
6. hydraulic pumps
fM
7. high pressure fuel pumps

pd

1, 4, 5, 6, 7.
2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
2, 4, 5, 6.
4, 5, 6, 7.
99. oldal
469. 11,482 021 03 04 01 Ignition
The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet:
1 - throughout the operating range of the engine

2 - for accelerations
3 - for ground starts
4 - for in-flight relights
5 - during turbulence in flight
6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions

3-4-5-6
3
2-3-4
1
470. 6,633 021 03 04 02 Starter
For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which the
engine :
on
will run without any external assistance.
is designed to idle after starting.

si
operates most efficiently in the cruise..

r
ve
will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.

471. 7,216 021 03 04 02 Starter
al
An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in
starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by
tri
centrifugal force
ne
engine oil pressure

hi
a coil spring
ac
electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.

472. 6,617 021 03 04 03 Engine start malfunctions
fM
A " hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It may be
caused by:
pd
an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently by the starter.
compressor surging.
the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to the
required rpm for ignition.
failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to the
required rpm by the starter.
100. oldal
473. 845 021 03 04 04 Fuel system
The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system is
within the following range:
20 to 50 psi
5 to 10 psi
3000 to 5000 psi
300 to 500 psi

474. 981 021 03 04 04 Fuel system
The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:

maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude increases.
reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude.

475. 4,008 021 03 04 04 Fuel system

Reference should be made to the fuel sypply system shown in annex.
on
In flight, with center tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance is detected
(quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2).
si
Rebalancing of the two tanks is:

r
ve
"possible with " CROSSFEED" open and tank 1 pumps " OFF" and tank 2 pumps " ON" ."
impossible without causing the APU stop.

al
"possible with " CROSSFEED" open and tank 2 pumps " OFF" ."
tri
impossible because there is no fuel in center tank.

ne
476. 6,612 021 03 04 04 Fuel system
In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the amount
of:
hi
ac
fuel supplied.
air entering the compressor.
fM
air leaving the compressor by the opening or closing of bleed valves.

pd
air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chambers.
477. 846 021 03 04 05 Lubrication
In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows:

jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks.
fuel cooling so as to prevent vapour creation likely to unprime nozzles.
fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.
automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent icing in fuel filter.
101. oldal
478. 6,616 021 03 04 05 Lubrication
The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil
system is to:
cool the oil and heat the fuel.
cool the oil only.

cool both the oil and the fuel.
heat the fuel only.

479. 11,431 021 03 04 05 Lubrication
In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal oil
pressure.
This higher pressure :
is normal, if it decreases after startup.

is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.
is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.
requires an oil change.

on
480. 4,840 021 03 04 06 Fuel
The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact
si
with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is the:

r
ve
flash point
combustion point
al
fire point
tri
self ignition point

ne
481. 6,607 021 03 04 07 Thrust
An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of:
hi
jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

ac
jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure.

fM
combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

pd
102. oldal
482. 11,481 021 03 04 07 Thrust
The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power :
1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity
2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air
3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving
4 - is independant of the outside air temperature

1-3
1-2
2-3
4
483. 3,822 021 03 04 08 Powerplant operation and monitoring
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:

the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
on
the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
si
the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
r

ve
Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR):
1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases
al
2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number

3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrust
tri
irrespective of engine wear due to ageing.

4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the turbine outlet
ne
and the compressor inlet

5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR is lower
hi
than the real EPR

ac

fM
1, 3.
2, 3, 4.
pd
3, 4, 5.
1, 5.
103. oldal
The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by:
- a propeller control lever used to select:

1 - propeller RPM
2 - turbine temperature
3 - turbine RPM
- a fuel control lever used to select:

4 - propeller RPM
5 - torque
6 - turbine temperature

1-5-6
1-3-5
3-4-6
2-4-5
486. 3,838 021 03 05 01 General
on
On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for the:
si
ground power unit, the starting system, the air conditioning unit.
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ground power unit, the air conditioning unit.

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ground power unit, the starting system.

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ground power unit.

tri
487. 6,725 021 03 05 01 General
A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground starting of
an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to certification limitations) and on the
ne
ground :
hi
air conditioning and electrical services.

ac
air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.

either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time.
fM
air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up services
pd
(in the air).

488. 6,745 021 03 05 01 General
In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units (APUs) have automatic
controls for stating, stopping and maintaining operation within safe limits. These
controls provide correct sequencing of the starting cycle as well as protection against :
high turbine gas temperature (TGT), overspeed, loss of oil pressure and high oil temperature.
high TGT and loss of oil pressure only.

overspeed and high oil temperature only.
high TGT only.

104. oldal
489. 2,962 021 04 01 00 Doors and emergency exits
Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get
out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than:
6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.
6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse.
8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse.
8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.

The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes

must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the aeroplane within 90
sec. through 50 % of the available emergency exits.
must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within 2
minutes.
depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator.
must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board.

on
A manual inflation handle:
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serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails

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serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation function fails
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operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide

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is generally not applied on slides.

tri
The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is to :
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replace the overhead emergency lighting during an emergency evacuation with a thick smoke.
hi
replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure.

ac
mark only the exits at the floor level.
to be used only at night.

fM
pd
105. oldal
An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements are inoperative
the:
1. external door opening mechanism

2. internal door opening mechanism
3. door opening aid device
4. open door locking system
5. auxiliary means of evacuation
6. emergency lighting

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
1, 2, 5, 6
2, 3, 4, 6
1, 3, 4, 5
Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by :

on
a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself.
si
the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit.

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a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew.
pressurized air from the air conditioning system.

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495. 3,817 021 04 02 00 Smoke detection
Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. They detect :
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smoke.
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overtemperature.
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fire.
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overtemperature and fire.

fM
496. 5,308 021 04 02 00 Smoke detection
Smoke detector systems are installed in the

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upper cargo compartments (class E).

wheel wells.
engine nacelles.
fuel tanks.
106. oldal
497. 9,513 021 04 02 00 Smoke detection
Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type :

optical or ionization
chemical
electrical
magnetic
498. 10,164 021 04 02 00 Smoke detection

The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried out by four sensors:
C1, C2, C3 and C4.
They are associated with the logic circuit as described in the annex.
The repeating bell is activated when:
the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke.

only one sensor detects smoke.

on
499. 1,964 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
When a continuous element of a fire detection system is heated:

si
r
1. its resistance decreases.

ve
2. its resistance increases.

3. the leakage current increases.
4. the leakage current decreases.
al

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1, 3
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2, 3
hi
1, 4
ac
2, 4
fM
500. 2,963 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will:

pd
inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground.
activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground.
automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of fire.
activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew.
107. oldal
501. 2,964 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault

protection), if the line is accidently grounded:
the fire alarm is triggered.
the power supply is cut off automatically.

there will be no effect on the system
the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated.

502. 2,965 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
When a wire type fire system is tested:

the wiring and the warning are tested.
Only the warning function is tested.
a part of the wire is totally heated.
the wire is totally heated.

503. 5,307 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by

on
heating up the sensor with test power connection.
si
checking the continuity of the system with a test switch.

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checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor.
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checking the sensor with pressurized gas.

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504. 5,313 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in the:

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landing gear bays / wheel wells.

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cabin.
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fuel tanks.
ac
tyres.
fM
505. 5,314 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a:

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warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert).

warning bell.
warning light.
gear warning.
108. oldal
506. 6,746 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in
temperature produces :
a decrease in resistance
an increase in resistance
a decrease in the reference current
a decrease in pressure
507. 6,793 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes :

a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines
a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine
a single warning light and a single alarm bell
both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine

508. 9,260 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a:
on
Fire detection system
si
Smoke detection system

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Carbon dioxide warning system

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Fire fighting system

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509. 9,379 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection
tri
loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase detected:

ne
at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops
only at an isolated point of the loops
hi
only in a uniform way along the loops

ac
on at least one loop

fM
pd
109. oldal
510. 9,516 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire detectors are
located in the highest risk compartments. Theses compartments are :
1. the main landing gear wheel wells

2. the fuel tanks
3. the oil tanks
4. the auxiliary power unit
5. around the engines

1,4,5
2,3
2,5
1,2,3,4,5
511. 11,419 021 04 03 00 Fire detection
When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is
triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to:
on
avoid false alarms in case of vibrations
allow temperatures to equalise

si
delay the triggering of the fire extinguinshers and increase their efficiency
r
ve
wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire
512. 1,953 021 04 04 00 Fire fighting equipment
al
The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection system
is:
tri
Freon.
ne
Water.
hi
CO2.
ac
Powder.
fM
If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on fire; the following
extinguisher types should be used for fire fighting:
pd
BCF and CO2 type extinguishers

Water type extinguishers
Dry and water type extinguishers
CO2 and water type extinguishers

110. oldal
The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the ground is :
sand.
water.
carbon dioxide.
freon.

When fire is detected on engine n°2, the fire shutoff handle n°2 is pulled and the
extinguishing agent n°1 is discharged. This results in :
the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH (discharge) indicator
lamp
the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of
agent n°1 on both engines
agent n°1 on engine no. and DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°2 on engine n°1
agent n°1 on engine n°1 and agent n°2 on engine n°2
on

si
Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an aircraft is pulled,
the effects are :
r
ve
1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system

2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned
al
3. setting of extinguishing systems

4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves
tri
5. isolation of the associated electric current generators

6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent
ne

hi
1,3,4,5
ac
1,2,5,6
fM
2,3,4,5
1,3,4
pd
In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher must be

conveniently located containing :
halon.
powder.
water.
special fluids.
111. oldal
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats

must be equipped with at least:
1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.





on
si

r

ve

al

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An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to 300

seats must be equipped with at least:
ne

hi

ac

fM

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112. oldal





An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than

on
600 seats must be equipped with at least:
si

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ve

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An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than

60 seats must be equipped with at least:
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3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers.

hi

ac

fM
1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguisher.

pd
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700
kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats
and smaller than 200 seats must be equipped with a:
crash axe or a crow-bar in the pilot compartment.
crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.
crash axe in the cockpit and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.
crow-bar in the cockpit and a crash axe in the passenger compartment.

113. oldal
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or systems

at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of an emergency
when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher than:
1,83 m.
1,80 m.
1,86 m.
1,89 m.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an emergency descent, each

occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access to a minimum amount of oxygen
in:
1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude
pressure is greater than 13000 ft.
2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude
pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.
3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000 ft.
4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over 25000 ft.
on

si
1, 2, 3 et 4.
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1, 2.
1, 2, 4.
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1,4.
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In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the survival oxygen needed
ne
to supply 100 % of the passengers during and following an emergency descend is:
10 minutes or the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 15000 ft,
hi
whichever is the greater.

ac
30 minutes.
fM
the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 13000 ft.
the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 10000 ft minus 30 minutes.
pd
With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge:

is the pilot's task
is automatic and immediate
is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine
does not need the engine to be stopped

114. oldal
The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they :

act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen.
use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge.

are electrical conductors.
are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.

533. 2,559 021 04 05 00 Aircraft oxygen equipment
The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service units. The oxygen
flow starts :
after pulling the oxygen mask downwards
immediately
only above FL200
After the system has been switched on by a crew member

A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to FL 450. The cabin includes 180
passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats from each side of central aisle). The
on
minimum number of cabin oxygen masks for this aeroplane must be:
si
198 (110% of the seating capacity).

r
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270 (150% of the seating capacity).

240 (one additional mask per seat block).
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210 (one additional mask per seat row).

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When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:

ne
able to radiotelephone.
hi
only able to receive.

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only able to transmit.

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not able to do any radio communication.

pd
In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to:

give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.
protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.
protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people.
115. oldal
An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has the following
characteristics:
Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by the certificate of airworthiness=
230
Number of seats on board= 200
Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180
The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in the aircraft cabin should be:
220.
230.
200.
180.
From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for
the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?
FL 250.
FL 300.
on
FL 390.
FL 100.
r si

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What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask?

Cabin air and oxygen.
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100% oxygen.
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Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.

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A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.

hi
The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are:

ac
1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparkes.

2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment.
fM
3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves.

4. Avoid greasy matter.
pd

1, 3, 4.
1, 2, 3.
2, 3, 4.
1, 2, 4.
116. oldal
The chemical oxygen generator is a system:
1. which is inexpensive
2. requiring no external input
3. which is lightweight
4. requiring no maintenance
5. with adjustable flow rate
6. which is unsafe

1, 3, 4
2, 3, 6
1, 4, 6
2, 4, 5
Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen regulator (as
a function of demand and altitude) is to:
on
1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low
pressure system)
2. supply pure oxygen
si
3. supply diluted oxygen

r
4. supply oxygen at normal pressure

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5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure

6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitude
al

tri
2, 3, 4, 5
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3, 4, 5, 6
1, 2, 3, 4
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1, 3, 4, 6
ac

fM
A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen dispensing
units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of :
pd
seats exceeded by 10%.

seats.
passengers.
passengers exceeded by 10%.

117. oldal
A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with individual
oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the masks must be
automatically released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds:
15000 ft.
13000 ft.
12000 ft.
14000 ft.
Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during
commercial flight.
410.
300.
250.
490.
on
A diluter demand oxygen regulator :

si
delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.

r
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delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100.

is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit.
al
mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

tri
A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passenger are on board
and the expected Flight Level on route Paris-Alger is FL 330. The first aid oxygen to be on
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board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least:

hi
1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude of more than 8000
ft.
ac
no first aid required.

fM
1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between 10000 and
14000 ft.
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3 passengers for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between 10000
and 14000 ft.
As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information must be given to

passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at Flight Level FL 290,
this demonstration must be completed before :
take-off.
the aircraft reaches FL 100.

118. oldal
In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following state:
gaseous.
liquid.
chemical.
chemical or gaseous.
The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes is
stored is :
Gaseous.
Chemical compound.
Liquid.
Gaseous or chemical compound..

If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen

system is exceeded the:
on
oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.

si
oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.

r
ve
passenger oxygen masks will drop down.
oxygen bottles will explode.

al

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The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen

system is to :
ne
deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.

hi
deliver oxygen flow only above FL 100.

ac
is only recommended with smoke in the cockpit.
mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

fM
The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by :

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switching the passenger oxygen ON.

switching the diluter demand regulator ON.
opening the oxygen-bottle valves.
switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON.
119. oldal
The passenger oxygen mask will supply :

a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.
100 % oxygen.
a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen.
a mixture of oxygen and freon gas.

A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so

that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. What
happens concerning the oxygen system ?
the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers
the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members
if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first 3
minutes
manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally
speaking, not possible
on
A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen installation
is :
r si
Grease
ve
Water
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Halon
tri
Nitrogen
ne
Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the passenger cabin, the
system is activated by
hi
firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has opened.
ac
activating the relevant switch in the cockpit.

fM
firmly pulling the cover behind which the oxygen mask is stowed.
pushing the mask against the face and breath normally.

pd
The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is mostly :
a continuous flow system
a pressure demand system
portable equipment only
an air recycle system

120. oldal
The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates
when the :
user breathes in
diluter control is in normal position

user requires 100 percent oxygen
pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi

The purpose of the " Pressure Relief Valve" in a high pressure oxygen system is to :
relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions
reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator
act as a manual shut-off valve
maximize the charging pressure of the system

The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurized aircraft at a 240 flight
level on its whole route with 150 passengers on board.
on
As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen:

si
1. each crew member will have available a quick fitting inhaler device.
r
2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that the cabin altitude is
ve
higher than 3 000 m.

3 . the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for the supply of 100 % of the
occupants during the whole flight time above the flight level 150 after an eventual
al
depressurization.
4. the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of two passengers
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during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet.
ne

hi
2,3
ac
1,2,3,4
2
fM
3,4
pd
121. oldal
Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in :
1. an emergency in the case of depressurization.

2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger.
3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin.
5. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases.

1,4
1, 2, 4
3
2, 3
Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with :

two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin.
only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft.
on
two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin.
si
only portable oxygen bottles.

r

ve
When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen mixture supplied by
the cockpit oxygen system regulator:
al
increases when the altitude increases.

tri
decreases when the altitude increases.

is constant whatever the altitude.
ne
is 100 %.
hi

ac
In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes :
fM
a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.

pure oxygen under pressure.
pd
pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.
cabin air under pressure.

Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the :

cabin only.
cockpit and the cabin.
cockpit only.
toilets only.
122. oldal
The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about :

15 minutes.
30 minutes.
2 hours.
5 minutes.
The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :
1. reduced weight and volume,

2. easy storage and maintenance,
3. greater autonomy,
4. no risk of explosion,
5. reversible functioning,
6. no maintenance.

1, 2, 4, 6
on
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
si
2, 3, 5
r
ve
1, 3, 4, 5
The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :
al
1. a flow which cannot be modulated,

tri
2. a heavy and bulky system,

3. non reversible functioning,
ne
4. risks of explosion,
5. poor autonomy.
hi

ac
1, 3, 5
fM
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
pd
2, 4
1, 2, 3, 5
123. oldal
The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :
1. a greater autonomy,
2. no risk of explosion,
3. reversible functioning,
4. easy storage and maintenance,
5. possibility to regulate flow.

1, 3, 5
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
2, 4, 5
2, 3, 4
When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is
controlled from the outside, the slide:
is disarmed automatically.
on
unfolds and becomes inflated.
si
unfolds but does not become inflated.

r
becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding.

ve
The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:

al
provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an emergency descent
tri
following a depressurization.
provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection.
ne
supply all the passengers in case of depressurization.

hi
provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurization.

ac
The survival oxygen is:

fM
the oxygen supplied to the airplane occupants in case of accidental depressurization.

pd
the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for pathological reasons.
the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide.
a therapeutical oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers.

124. oldal
The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or
grease traces as:
these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen under pressure.
the oxygen system would be contaminated.

these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.
these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters.

The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is :
1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,

2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system,
3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,
4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system.

1, 2
1, 3
on
2, 3
si
2, 4
r
ve
A passenger emergency mask is a :

al
continuous flow mask and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
tri
mask with flow on request and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
continuous flow mask and can be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
ne
mask with flow on request and can be used if there is smoke.

hi

ac
A smoke mask is a :
fM
mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.

continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.
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mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.
continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.
125. oldal
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty in a

non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at
pressure altitudes greater than:
10000 ft.
12500 ft.
13000 ft.
14000 ft.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized airplane

must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes greater
than:
13000 ft.
10000 ft.
14000 ft.
15000 ft.
on
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized airplane

si
must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time when the cabin altitude
pressure is greater than:
r
ve
10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.

13000 ft.
al
10000 ft.
tri
10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.

ne
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, the total number of
hi
oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals must be at least greater than the number
of:
ac
seats by 10 %.
fM
passengers by 10 %.
pd
seats by 30 %.
passengers by 30%.
Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that :
"with setting on " NORMAL" , the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen / cabin air."
the same circuit is used by the crew and the passengers.
the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks.
the passenger circuit never uses chemically generated oxygen.

126. oldal
An oxygen regulator has 3 controls :
- a power lever : ON/OFF

- an " O2" lever : NORMAL/100%
- an emergency lever : ON/OFF
Among the following statements, the correct proposition is :
"the power lever on ON, and, the " O2" lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to enter the
regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude."
the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure.
"the " O2" lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow rate."
with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen
mask to breathe.
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
100%
on
normal.
emergency.
r si
on demand.
ve
The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that:

al
1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used

tri
2 - in case of accidental drop of the " continuous flow" passenger masks, no crew action
is required
3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly
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4 - the system's filling adaptors must be greased with non freezable or graphite grease
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1-3
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1-4
2-3
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2-4
586. 2,960 021 04 06 00 Emergency equipment
In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment:

protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases.
gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders.
protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization.
protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization.
127. oldal
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, across an area in which
search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away
from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than :
90 minutes at cruising speed.


A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it further than 340
NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal
cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt.
Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular case.
Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants.
Life rafts must be available for all occupants.

on
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin
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according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of :

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ve
seats in the cabin.

seat rows in the cabin.
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passengers in the cabin.

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emergency exits in the cabin.

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The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its function
is to :
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obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during evacuation.
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free exits in case of evacuation via the sides.

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activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured top
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settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety.
There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop aircraft. Its speed is
240 kt. At a point along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45 min from
an airdrome suitable for emergency landing. The minimum equipment complying with
regulations is :
60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats
60 life jackets
One 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats
60 life jackets, two 30-seat life boats

128. oldal
In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted of only one passenger deck,
equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying passengers, must be equipped with :
1 megaphone.
2 megaphones.
2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board.
no megaphone.
In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of amphibians and hydroplanes,
the carriage of a life jacket per person on board is compulsory when the airplane is :
1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the
case of an engine failure.
2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off shore.
3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a ditching probability
exists in the case of a problem.
4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM off shore.

on
2, 3
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1, 2, 3, 4
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ve
1, 2
3, 4
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The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger cabin of an airplane,

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whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 31, is:

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2
1
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3
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0
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The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum approved configuration
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of passenger seats is 201, is :

2
1
3
4
129. oldal
In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated :

when leaving the airplane.
immediately on the opening of the exits.

immediately on ditching.
once the passengers are in the water.

An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 10 seats must
be equipped with:
one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and two fire- extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin only.
two fire-extinguishers in the cockpit and two fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level of
lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least:
on
10 minutes
si
90 seconds
r
ve
5 minutes
30 minutes
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tri
An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 200 seats
must be equipped with:
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3 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.

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5 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.

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7 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
4 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.

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The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate your position to the
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emergency teams are a flare:

which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in the daytime.
and a smoke device which are only used at night.
which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used at night.
and a smoke device which are only used in the daytime.

130. oldal
The portable emergency beacons which are used after an emergency landing or ditching
have a duration of :
48 h
24 h
12 h
72 h
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of liferafts to be found on

board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants:
in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.
plus 10 %.
plus 30 %.
in the case of a loss of two rafts.

A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of more than 61

on
seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 portable fire-extinguishers
including:
si
2 halon fire-extinguishers.
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ve
1 halon fire-extinguisher.
3 halon fire-extinguishers.
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no halon fire-extinguisher.
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ne
hi
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pd

021 00 00 00 Airframe and Systems, Electrics, Powerp (3052)

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021 00 00 00 AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS, ELECTRICS, POWERPLANT, EME

1. 614 021 01 00 00 AIRFRAME AND SYSTEMS

For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts :

1 The mounting principle is parallel mounting.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

4 are difficult to weld.

5 have a good thermal conductivity.

6 have a poor air corrosion resistance

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

3. 3,865 021 01 01 00 Fuselage

assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.

withstand the shear stresses.

4. 4,016 021 01 01 00 Fuselage

1. normal bending stresses

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

'Fail safe construction' is :

A type of construction for small aircraft only.

A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.

6. 7,737 021 01 01 00 Fuselage

used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that

aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way

highest at the wing root

lowest at the wing root

8. 633 021 01 03 00 Wings

The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass:

tension, then in compression.

10. 4,017 021 01 03 00 Wings

11. 11,449 021 01 04 00 Stabilising surfaces

The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer is :

to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence

to a have greater effectiveness at high speed

to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation

A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to :

absorb the spring tension.

lock the landing gear.

13. 672 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear

In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:

Used on the nose wheel only.

16. 688 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear

Decreased on the slower turning wheels.

Increased on the faster turning wheels.

Decreased on the faster turning wheels.

Increased on the slower turning wheels.

17. 690 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear

The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:

Multiple disk brake.

18. 695 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear

prevent the brakes from overheating.

release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.

Thermal plugs are installed in:

fire warning systems.

A tubeless tyre is a tyre:

1. which requires solid or branched wheels

3. whose mounting rim must be flawless

5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

22. 3,995 021 01 05 00 Landing Gear

Landing gear torque links are used to:

take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.

maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.

A main landing gear is said to be " locked down" when:

it is in the down position.