NURSING PRACTICE V- CARE OF CLIENTS (PART C)

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark
only answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your
choice answer home sheet provided. STRICLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

Situation 1.- Nurses inform patients taking antipsychotic medications about the
types of side effects that may occur. She encourages patients to report instead
of discontinuing the medications. Following are related to patient teachings.

1. When taken antianxiety drugs like benzodiazepines, which APPROPRIATE health

teaching should the nurse emphasize?
A. Antianxiety drugs can treat the underlying problem.
B. Patient should not drink alcohol because it potentiates its effect.
C. Patients can discontinue the drug abruptly even without orders.
D. Patient can still drive his car because of delayed response time.

2. When taking anticonvulsant drugs like lithium, which APPROPRIATE HEALTH

TEACHING
Should the nurse emphasize?
A. Time of last dose must be accurate so that blood level monitoring is
accurate.
B. Patients can take drugs even without food intake.
C. Patients will not experience polyuria and polydipsia.
D. Patient will have constipation; thus he has to increase fluid intake.

3. Which of the following does NOT signify extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) haldol?
A. Acute dystonia
B. Akathisia
C. Pseudo parkinsonism
D. Increased libido

4. The patient often appears restless, anxious, agitated with rigid posture and
lack of
spontaneous gestures. Which of the following describes this patient with
intense need to move about?
A. Withdrawal
B. Dyskinesia
C. Dystonia
D. Akathisia

5. When taking SSRI (selective serotonin REUPTAKE inhibitors) , which

APPROPRIATE
health teaching should the nurse emphasize?
A. Aged cheese may be allowed.
B. Patient should take the drug first thing in the morning
C. Peanuts are allowed
D. Tyramine free diet can lower blood pressure

Situation - Remedios, a 65-years-old housewife has been diagnosed with rheumatoid

arthritis both hands and knees.

6. On a visit to the clinic, a patient reports the onset of early symptoms of

rheumatoid arthritis.
What will be the nurse focused assessment during patient interview?
A. Enlarged nodules
B. Early morning stiffness of the lower extremities
C. Limited motion of joints of upper extremities
 D. Deformed joints of the hands

7. Patient Remedios complains she could not be household chores and her knees
hurt whenever she walks. Which nursing diagnosis would be MOST APPROPRIATE?
A. Self- care deficit related to increasing joint pain
B. Activity intolerance related to fatigue and joint pain.
C. Disturbed body image related to fatigue and joint pain
D. Ineffective coping related to increased joint pain

8. For a patient in the acute phase of rheumatoid arthritis, which of following

should the nurse
identify as the LOWEST priority in the plan of care?
A. Preserving joint function
B. Preventing joint deformity
C. Relieving pain
D. Maintaining usual task

9. A patient with osteoarthritis develops coagulopathy secondary to long -term

nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use. The coagulopathy is most likely the
result of___-
A. Decreased platelet adhesiveness
B. Blocked prothrombin conversion
C. Impaired vitamin K synthesis
D. Factor VIII destruction

10. A nurse is teaching a patient with osteoarthritis about lifestyle changes.

The nurse knows
the patient understands the teaching when she states that she will ____
A. Abstain from alcohol
B. Avoid exercise
C. Loss weight
D. Restrict caffeine

Situation 3 - Eighteen years old Chimeneya and her father came to the clinic for
possible depression. She has a number of fears of getting sick and dying from
COVID 19. She eats less and sleeps restlessly. She has not taken a bath for a
week, always talking about her missing mother who died due to COVID 19 infection.

11. Working with a depressed chimera, the nurse should understand that depression
is MOST
Directly related to a person’s _____

A. Remembering her childhood

B. Stage in life
C. Having experienced a sense of loss
D. Experiencing poor interpersonal relationships with others

12. Early identification and treatment are essential to prevent long term
depression. Preventive
Measures do NOT INCLUDE______.
A. Medication as a treatment alone.
B. Providing a stable home life.
C. Practicing open and honest communication.
D. Facilitating a strong sense of self trust, resilience and self-esteem

13. Chimera was admitted to the hospital for treatment of her depression. Which
Antidepressant drugs are COMMONLY used?
 A. Norframin
B. Elavil
C. Prozac
D. Tofranil

14. To prevent the recurrence of depression, how long should the patient take the
anti
Depressant drugs?
A. Six months to two years
B. Two months to one year
C. One year to three years
D. One to three months

15. Three days after the admission of chimeya, the nurse observes she has taken a
bath, worn
a clean dress, and combed her hair. What is the APPROPRIATE reaction of the
nurse to the behavioral change in Chimeya?
A. “Something is different about you today. What is it?”
B. “Oh. I’m so pleased that you finally put on a clean dress”
C. “I see that you have worn a clean dress and have combed your hair”
D. “That's good. You have on a clean dress and have combed your hair.”

Situation 4- Nurses provide their patients information they need to give informed
consent, only if it is within their scope of nursing practice and nursing
knowledge. Consent is the patient's acknowledgement and acceptance of medical
treatment.

16. In emergency situation when a patient is unable to give consent for life
saving treatment,
What type of consent allows us to assume APPROPRIATE medical treatment?

A. Implied consent
B. Informed consent
C. Express consent
D. Involuntary consent

17. Which of the following are essential components of informed consent?

I. Explanation of the procedure and alternatives to the procedure

II. Discussion of potential risk and benefits of the procedure
III. Confirmation that patient understands the risk, benefits and any alterations

A. I, III
B. I, II
C. II, III
D. I, II, III

18.treatment of a patient without consent can constitute ______, which is defined

as intentional
and unwaiting touching.

A. Battery
B. Slander
C. Negligence
D. Tort

19. Whose responsibility is it to obtain informed consent?

 A. Nurse manager
B. Anesthesiologist
C. Physician
D. Midwife

20.biothecal issue should be describe as_______

A. The withholding of food and treatment at the request of the patient in a
written advance directive given before a patient acquired permanent brain
damage from an accident
B. The physician’s making all decisions of client management without getting
input from the patient
C. After the patient gives permission, the physician’s disclosing all
information to the family for this support in the management of the patient
D. A research project that included treating all regular employed personnel not
treating all casual employed to compare the outcome of specific drug therapy

Situation 5: Gloria is a nurse researcher in the Department of Health. She is

assigned to conduct research on patient’s safety practices of nurses in the
psychiatric unit. She is given 6 months to conduct the study.

21. After formulating and delimiting the research problem, which of the
following will be a PRIORITY action of Gloria?
A. Develop the theoretical framework of the study.
B. Formulate the hypothesis
C. Plan the research design of the study.
D. Conduct a literature search on the topic

22.Gloria decides to include only nurses who have a minimum three years’
experience as psychiatric nurses. Which of the following terms refer to
this?
A. Concept
B. Variable
C. Limitation
D. Delimitation

23.The statement “The length of service is not associated with the degree of
patient safety practices of staff nurses” is an example of a/an _____.
A. Variable
B. Assumption
C. Hypothesis
D. Theory

24.Which of the following research designs is MOST APPROPRIATE for this study
if the aim is to find a relationship between two variables in the study?
A. Phenomenological study
B. Experimental study
C. Exploratory
D. Correlational

25.She plans to interview the Psych Nurse Manager about the patient safety
practices of the nurses. What type of sampling includes those who happens to
be in the conference room where the activity is scheduled?
A. Random
B. Purposive
C. Convenience
D. Quota

Situation 6: - Belle is a 30-year-old single mother who is dependent on her

family for support. Her diagnosis is mild mental retardation with Post traumatic
disorder with depressive episodes related to her mother’s death. Her current
symptoms include depressed mood with irritability, difficulty tolerating
frustation, difficulty falling asleep, increased appetite and weight gain,
hypervigilance and worry that something terrible will happen to her child.

26.A cognitive assessment of Belle indicated that according to Piaget’s theory

she was functioning at the concrete operational stage. Which of these
behaviours would the nurse observe in Belle?
A. Thinks logically and sees possibilities
B. Understands only her own viewpoint
C. Feels her own reasoning should agree with the reasoning of others.
D. Makes and tests hypothesis.

27.Belle has difficulty tolerating frustration. The GOAL of the nurse is to

assist Belle to ___.
A. Increase her self esteem
B. Cope with anxiety
C. Recognize her needs
D. Mobilize her resources

28.Which of the following historical data MOST probably led to a post traumatic
stress disorder?
A. Unstable relationship with ex-fiancé
B. Suicide of her mother
C. No gang relationship with peers
D. Dropping out of school

29.Given her problems of hypervigilance and worry that something terrible will
happen to her child, nursing interventions should be aimed at addressing her
needs for ______.
A. Love and belongingness
B. Biological integrity
C. Psychological security
D. Self-esteem

30.In terms of social support therapy, which of these is the MOST APPROPRIATE
and therapeutic?
A. With Appropriate support, lives in the community, either independently or
in supervised setting.
B. Individualized relationship with a caregiver
C. High structured environment with constant aid and supervision
D. Vocational training with moderate supervision but not beyond second grade
academic challenges.

Situation 7: The following scenario are potential routines that could check work
ethics of a professional nurse.

31.A patient asks to be discharged from the health care facility against
medical advice (AMA). What should the nurse do?
A. Notify the physician
B. Prevent the patient from leaving
C. Have the patient sign an AMA form
D. Call a security guard to help detain the patient.

32.A nursing asssistant is assigned to provide morning care to patient. How

should the nurse document care given by the nursing attendant?
a. “Morning care rendered.”
b. “Morning care rendered by Grace Go, NA.”
c. “Morning care provided by G.G., Nursing assistant.”
d. “Morning care refused to be given by the nursing assistant.”

33.A nurse administers the wrong intravenous fluid to a patient. She should
accomplish which of the following documents to be submitted to her immediate
supervisor?
A. Patient Kardex
B. Incident Report
 C. Progress Report
D. Endorsement record

34.When developing a care plan for a patient with a do-not-resuscitate order,

the nurse should NOT include which intervention on the care plan?
A. Allow access to individuals who can provide spiritual care.
B. Administer pain medications as ordered by the physician.
C. Provide usual routine nursing care as ordered by the physician.
D. Administer lethal doses of medication as patient request.

35.A patient is to undergo a laminectomy in the morning. The physician asks the
nurse to witness the patient’s signing of the consent form. What is the BEST
action of the nurse?
A. Provide emotional support for the patient while the patient signs the
consent.
B. Make sure the physician explains the risks of undergoing the procedure.
C. Make sure the physician thoroughly describes the procedure.
D. Make sure the patient is competent, awake and alert before he/she signs
the consent form.

Situation 8: - Charge Nurse Tessie works at the surgical ward. She ensures good
record management is implemented in her unit at all times.

36.A patient is having elective surgery under general anesthesia. Who is

responsible for obtaining the informed consent?
A. Surgeon
B. Nurse
C. Nurse Anesthetist
D. Anesthesiologist

37.Which statement by the patient indicates that he understands the explanation

of the surgeon?
A. “I. refuse to sign the consent form; another family member can sign. For
me.”
B. “Now I know what the alternative treatments and procedures are.”
C. “If I refuse. To sign the consent form, other treatment will be
withdrawn.”
D. “If I can’t refuse the procedure after the consent is signed.”

38.The unit secretary who transcribes the physicians order asks the nurse to
interpret an order because she cannot read the writing. The nurse’s BEST
action is to ____.
A. Clarify the order with the pharmacies
B. Clarify the order by calling the physician
C. Interpret the order according to the patient’s previous medication
record.
D. Clarify the order with junior staff.

39.The physician orders to transfuse 500 ml packed RBC blood postoperatively.

The nurse must check the name on the label of the blood with the name on the
patient’s _____.
A. Medication administration record
B. Wristband in the presence of another nurse
C. Medical chart
D. Wristband

40.The patient’s wife is so anxious about the condition of her husband. The
MOST appropriate INITIAL intervention for the nurse to make is to _____.
A. Describe her husband’s medical treatment since admission.
B. Reassure her that the important fact is her presence
C. Explain the nature of the injury and reassure her that husband’s
condition is stable.
D. Allow her to verbalise her feelings and concerns.
Situation 9:- Quality and Safety are rooted in the daily work of a healthcare
professional. Nurses in the Orthopaedic Unit attends monthly quality assurance
meeting. The following questions were discussed.

41.Who should be involved in quality improvement measures?

A. Everyone
B. Management staff
C. Professional staff
D. Consumers

42.To start a nursing improvement project, what is the FIRST step that a nurse
must keep in mind?
A. Implement plan to correct the problem.
B. Determine the nursing standards.
C. Determine findings if warrant correction
D. Collect data, determine if standards are met.

43.To achieve organised work flow in the unit, the staff must be aware of the
head nurse’s role. What is the PRIMARY purpose of supervision and
delegation?
A. Enhances the delivery of quality nursing care.
B. Influences organisation’s approach in personnel evaluation
C. Improves staff attendance in seminars
D. Assigns any staff to do the tasks or project.

44.To ensure quality nursing care to a patient in skin traction, what is the
PRIORITY intervention that a nurse has to assess frequently?
A. Signs of infection around the pin site.
B. Signs of skin breakdown
C. Urinary incontinence
D. Presence of bowel sounds

45.The nursing team plans to do chart audit project on post-op patients who had
developed pressure sores at the Orthopedic unit over the past year to
present. What type of audit is?
A. Retrospective
B. Process
C. Concurrent
D. Outcome

Situation 10: - Incidence of drug abuse has greatly increased overtime. Korino
has been using drugs for the past three years.

46.You are a Drug Abuse Treatment and Rehabilitation Center Nurse. During the
assessment of a newly admitted Person Who Uses Drugs (PWUDs) named Korino,
which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE question to ask?
A. Ask Korino how long he thought that he could take drugs without someone
finding it.
B. Ask Korino why he started taking illegal drugs.
C. Not ask any questions for fear Korino will deny and may become assaultive
D. Ask Korino about the amount of drug used and its effect and how long he
had been using.

47.Upon data collection he had been failing three times in his math class and
Korino was known for substance dependent for three years. What is the MOST
APPROPRIATE nursing diagnosis for him?
A. Alteration in perception
B. Alteration in social interaction
C. Ineffective individual coping
D. Impaired judgement

48.Korino has been using meperidine and codeine for personal consumption. Which
of the following does the nurse understand as the physiologic effect of
these drugs?
A. Increases sexual stimulation
 B. Relieves pain by increasing pain threshold
C. Decrease craving for alcoholic intake
D. Heightens concentration and alertness

49.Which assessment by the nurse would cause a concern for Meperidine overdose?
A. Respiration rate of 12 bpm
B. Hypercapnia
C. Dryness of the skin
D. Pinpoint pupils

50.What drug should the nurse prepare for administration to reverse all signs
of toxicity?
A. Digibind (Digoxin)
B. Naloxone (Narcan)
C. Atropine Sulfate
D. Diazepam (Valium)

Situation 11 – As a professional nurse, we are guided by ethical principles and

Philippine Jurisprudence.
51.The PNA Code of Ethics is an expression of nursing’s moral concerns. Goals
and values. Which is a characteristic of the Code of Ethics for Nurses?
a. It emphasizes the independent and collaborative roles of a nurse.
b. It is used as a guideline for nursing standard implementation
c. It describes the professional standards of nursing practice
d. It has legal guarantee.

52.Ethics is not concerned with the following:

a. Exercising critical and rational judgment in one’s choices of decision
b. Investigating issues about human behavior.
c. Personal standards of right and wrong.
d. Practice or beliefs of a certain group.

53.A patient was informed by the attending physician about the need for major
surgery. Which violates the right of a patient?
a. The patient has no obligation to submit himself for treatment.
b. The patient has the right to choose his doctor or surgeon
c. If a client cannot read, the consent form must be read to him before it
is signed.
d. The risks of treatment and facts relating to it should not be told the
patient or else he might refuse the surgery.

54.Maintaining confidentiality of patient information is part of the nurse’s

_________.
a. Advocacy role c. Managerial and leadership function
b. Role as a counselor d. Ethical and legal obligation

55.Accurate objective and legible recording is fundamental requirements for

safe practice because:
a. The chart is a legal documents.
b. The client reflects medical care given
c. The chart is a means to communicate the progress on the patient’s
condition
d. The chart is acceptable as an evidence in court against the doctor, the
nurse and the patient.

Situation 12 – Mrs. H., a 58 year old female was brought in the emergency room
with the chief complaint of sudden severe headache, numbness of the side of her
body and difficulty in speaking. Oxygen was administered at once to Mrs. H.
56.The rationale for administering oxygen to suspected stroke patients is
_________.
a. To prevent further respiratory deficit.
 b. To prevent further neurologic deficit.
c. To increase the respiratory function
d. To prevent hypoxia and hypercapnia.

57.Which of the following risk of complication is lessened through oxygen

administration to patient suspected of having a stroke?
a. Rebleeding c. Fluid accumulation in the lungs
b. Pulmonary emboli d. Increased intracranial pressure
58.A non contrast computed tomography (CT) scan was ordered for Mrs. H. The
purpose of this diagnostic test is to determine _________.
a. The extent of damage to Mrs. H’s motor function
b. If the event is ischemic or hemorrhagic.
c. The patency of Mrs. H’s airway
d. The treatment of Mrs. H.

59.Which of the following is the focus of INITIAL assessment for Mrs. H.?
a. Visual acuity c. Motor function
b. Airway patency d. Emotional status

60.You read the physician notes that Mrs. H. has contra lateral deficits. This
means ________.
a. Deficit will be present below the level of the stroke.
b. Both side of the body are involved.
c. A right cerebral vessel is involved
d. A left cerebral vessel is involved.

Situation 13– You are a community health nurse in municipality. You want to
improve the primary prevention activities in the municipality in relation to
mental health.
61.In the public health model, which of the following is considered the
“patient”? The ________
a. Community c. Individual
b. Family d. Country

62.Which of the following is the focus of primary prevention in the public

health model?
a. The promotion of mental health.
b. Case-findings for people at risk for mental illness.
c. The prevention of mental illness in the community
d. The incidence of mental health or illness in the community as a whole.
63.In assessing mental health needs of the community, one of the techniques
used is epidemiological
studies which examine the incidence and prevalence of mental disorders in a
defined population. Incidence is the number of _______.
a. People at risk for mental disorder.
b. New cases of specific illness in the total population
c. New cases of mental disorder in a population over a specified period of
time.
d. Existing cases of mental disorder in the total population at a specified
point in time.

64.Promoting mental health is a primary prevention activity which is consistent

with the principle of ________.
a. Self-help c. inter-disciplinary
b. Autonomy d. Multidisciplinary care

65.The purpose of primary prevention is to lower the incidence of mental

disorder. This can be done through _______.
a. Early treatment of new cases of mental disorders
b. Program development and intervention for older adults.
 c. Care-finding for population group at rsik for mental disorder.
d. Reducing the rate at which new cases of mental disorders develop.

Situation 14 – Cancer ranks one of the leading causes of morbidity and

mortality in the Philippines.
66.The following are characteristics of malignant neoplasm, EXCEPT ________.
a. Uncontrolled growth and spread of abnormal cells.
b. Proliferation and invasion of cancer cells
c. Encapsulated and grows by expansion
d. Transfer of cells to organs distant from the origin.

67.The following agents are considered carcinogens, EXCEPT ________.

a. Hydrocarbon c. Asbestos, arsenicals, certain plasties
b. Viruses and hormones d. Chromium, cobalt, tar

68.The key to cure and control of cancer is ________.

a. Prevention c. Surgery, chemotherapy, radiotherapy
b. Early detection and treatment d. Prophylaxis

69.To reduce the Risk of cancer, the following nutritional guidelines are
issued, EXCEPT _______.
a. Include cruciferous vegetables in diet like cabbage, cauliflower.
b. Include foods rich in vitamin A, C and E in daily diet.
c. Increase intake of high fiber foods
d. Increase total dietary fat intake.

70.Identified as the specific risk factors for breast cancer are the following
EXCEPT _______.
a. Breast cysts or adenomas c. Sexual intercourse at an early
stage
b. Obesity and nullipars d. Familial history in mother or
sister

71.Tobacco use increases a person’s risk for the following cancer condition
EXCEPT _____.
a. Mouth cancer c. Esophageal cancer
b. Skin cancer d. Laryngeal cancer

72.The recommendation to detect early cancer of the prostate which of these

_________.
a. Yearly digital rectal examination for males 50 years and above.
b. Biannually rectal examination for males 30 years and above
c. Yearly proctosigmoidoscopy for males 40 years and above.
d. Pelvic ultrasound biannually for males 60 years and above.

73.The most common discomfort of the client after proctosigmoidoscopy is

_________
a. Abdominal c. Perianal
b. Anal d. Perineal

74.Considered the most commonly used treatment of modality for cancer is ______
a. Radiotherapy c. Immunotherapy
b. Surgery d. Chemotherapy

Situation 15 – The client returns from surgery for below-the knee amputation,
with the residual limb covered with dressing and a woven elastic bandage.
75.What would be the most important nursing intervention in caring for the
client’s residual limb during the first 24 hours after surgery?
a. Applying traction to the residual limb.
b. Elevating the residual limb on a pillow.
 c. Keeping the residual limb flat on the bed.
d. Abducting the residual limb flat on the bed.

76.Which of the following nursing goals would take priority when planning for
the client’s physical mobility, following amputation?
a. Promoting comfort c. Preventing phantom-limb pain
b. Preventing edema d. Preventing contractures

77.The client will use crutches while his prosthesis is being adjusted. Which
of the following exercise would best prepare him for using crutches?
a. Range-in motion exercises of the shoulders
b. Isometric exercises of the shoulders
c. Triceps exercises.
d. Quadriceps and gluteal setting exercises.

78.The second morning after surgery, the client says, “This sounds crazy, but I
feel my left toes tingling.” This statement would indicate to the nurse that
he is experiencing a _________.
a. Dental reaction c. Body image disturbance
b. Hallucination d. Phantom-limb sensation

79.The client is to fitted with a functioning prosthesis. The nurse has been
teaching him how to care for his residual limb. Which behavior would
demonstrate that the client has an understanding of proper residual limb?
The client _______.
a. Applies powder to the residual limb.
b. Washes and dries the residual limb daily.
c. Inspects the residual limb weekly with a mirror.
d. Removes the prosthesis whenever he sits down.

80.The client’s room should contain which emergency equipment when he returns
from surgery?
a. Airway c. Suction equipment
b. Emergency cart d. Tourniquet

Situation 16- You are a staff nurse in a government hospital being

transferred to the Psychiatric Unit. You were required to equip yourself by
attending the enhancement progress on Crisis Intervention. To assess your
knowledge and skills on the subject you were given a pre-test.
81.A crisis that is acute but temporary and due to external source is ________.
a. Traumatic c. Dispositional
b. Developmental d. Transitional
82.Which of the following nursing intervention is the most appropriate for a
client who is in the early state of crisis?
a. Encourage client to express feelings and emotions related to crisis
b. Require client to be actively involved in establishing goals.
c. Encourage client to begin the development of insight
d. Ask client to evaluate the situation

83.The MAIN objective of crisis intervention is to ________.

a. Return the person to the root of the crisis to identify the cause
b. To make this person realize his/her mistakes
c. Ensure patients safety.
d. All of the above

84.Which of the following is NOT an assumption in the concept of crisis?

a. Crisis is acute and received within a short period of time.
b. Specific identifiable events precipitate a crisis
c. All individuals experience a crisis.
 d. Crisis is a growth-retarding factor to the emotional development of a
person.

85.Which of the following is the PRIORITY nursing activity for a patient in

crisis?
a. Assessment c. Nursing diagnosis
b. Planning d. Orientation

Situation 17– Documentation is registered nurses accountability to legal and

ethical nursing action.
86.Charting done by a nurse providers a comprehensive, sequential desire of the
following, EXCEPT _________.
a. Relevant facts c. Information about patients health status
b. Patient diagnosis d. Relevant data

87.The following are the importance of proper documentation. SELECT ALL THAT
APPLY.
I. Facilitates interdisciplinary communication
II. Holds vital information about the patient
III. Reflect quality timeless of nursing care
IV. Evidence of care provided by the nurse
V. Utilized as a legal document in a court litigation
a. I, II and IV c. I, III, and IV
b. II, III and IV d. I, IV and V

88.“Complaint with standards” is one of the characteristics of good

documentation. This means:
a. Timely information is provided.
b. Specified protocols are dutifully followed.
c. It presents exact and correct details of nursing care provided.
d. A particular order for effective and efficient care is followed.

89.Which of the following guidelines in documentation applies when administer

drugs prepared by another nurse?
a. Document immediately drug given to avoid medication errors.
b. Document that you administered the drug but somebody prepared it.
c. There must be existing institutional policy that must be observed in
relation to this situation
d. Do not document at all since you did not prepared it.

90. Medico-legal incident is one of the common situations that requires an

incident report. This includes ________.
a. Any medication error c. Patient or family refuses treatment as
ordered
b. Break in aseptic technique d. Complication from diagnostic procedures.

91.When a patient falls from bed, which of the following is your most immediate
action?
a. Determine any injury or harm c. Refer to the resident on duty
b. Put back patient to bed d. Report to the head nurse & call someone
to help

92.The nurse practice Act of 1991 which regulates the practice of nursing in
the Philippines. Which of the following statements about this Act is NOT
true?
a. This Act delineates the practice of nursing and midwifery.
b. This Act defines the practice of nursing is the Philippines
c. The primary purpose is to protect the public.
d. It was enacted in November 1991.
 93.A patient G8P5, refused to be injected with her third dose of Depo-povera.
The nurse insisted inspite of the patient’s refusal and forcibly injected
the contraceptive. She can be sued for which of the following?
a. Negligence c. Malpractice
b. Assault d. Misrepresentation

94.A patient has been in the ICU for two weeks. The relatives have consented to
a “Do not resuscitate” order. When the patient develops a cardiac arrest,
the nurse will carry out which of the following actions.
a. Mechanical ventilation and NGT will be stopped.
b. Basic and advanced life support will not be given
c. All ordinary measures will be stopped.
d. Only medication will be given.

95.When a nurse start working in a hospital but without a written consent,

which of the following is expected from her.
a. She is not bound to perform according to the standard of nursing
practice.
b. Provide nursing care within the acceptable standard of nursing practice.
c. She is not obligated to provide professional service.
d. The employer does not hold the nurse responsible to her action.

Situation 18 – Nelson, a 26 year old construction worker, arrives in the Ear

Clinic riding a Honda motorcycle. He was wearing a headset with MP3 player
hooked to his belt. Nelson is for hearing assessment.
96.Pure tone Audiometry is ordered for Nelson. Which of the following does this
procedure measure?
a. Ear canal volume c. Ventibular portion of the auditory nerve
b. Structure of the ears d. Hearing activity

97.Antibiotics have limited use in the actual treatment of Mastoiditis because

_________.
a. It is a long term treatment
b. Tissue destruction is extensive
c. Antibiotics do not easily penetrate the infected bony structure of the
mastoid.
d. Culture has to be done to identify which antibiotics is most effective
for treatment of mastoiditis

98.Which of the following is the most common treatment for Mastoiditis?

a. Mastoidectomy only c. Antibiotics with tympanoplasty
b. Antibiotics d. Mastoidectomy with tympanoplasty

99.Nelson was found to Mastoiditis. Which of the following ear structure is

affected?
a. Pinna c. Eustachian tube
b. Tympanic membrane d. Mastoid air cells

100. Which of the following is the most common cause of Mastoiditis?

a. Bone tumor c. Endocrine diseases
b. Meningitis d. Untreated otitis media.

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