2ndM.B.B.S.

Book with Solved W H S MCQs m dEdition by U nique Publication

- -..........■
■ - -........ ... ..... - ; ; - -...... ; —■
r- — ^ ; — / J*T?? ^

IInd Year M.B.B.S. INDEX

PATHOLOGY CHAPTERWISE DISTRIBUtlON
, SECTION *1 . * ;
GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND BASIC TECHNIQUE
.1. Introduction to Pathology......... ........1j
2. Cell injury and Cellular Adaptations................;........ 1 ;
3. immunopathology Including Amyloidosis.............. 7
4. Derangements of Homeostasis and H aem odynarnics.^„i; .... 10,
5. Inflammation and Healing.................. .......... ........ . . 3 ^ ; . ! . . . . 15 _ -
6. Infectious and Parasitic Diseases. ......... ....... ....... 21
7. Neoplasiav...... ,............... ;.............................,..........3 i.v.......... * 22
8. Environmental & Nutritional disease.............. ...... .............. 28
9. Genetic and Paediatric Diseases...-......... ........... .................... 28
SECTION - 2
HAEMATOLOGYAND LYMPHORETICULAR TISSUES
10. Introduction to Haematopoietic System andJDisorders
of Erythroid Series3....3..............3 .:..r......:...... ....... .............. 29
11. Disorders of Paltelets, Bleeding Disorders and Basic
Transfusion MCdjcine.... ................. ........ ;..... .............. . 34
12. Disorders of Leucobytes & Lymphoreticular Tissues...... ;......... 39
SECTION-3
SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY
13. The Blood Vessels Jrnd Lymphatics........................... I..............44
14. The Heart.....,...,^ .i,:...r ................. 3 .............. ..... ............ . 46
15. The Respiratory System..............:................. 49
16. The Eye, Ent ^hd. Neck........................... .................... ........ 53
17. The Oral Cavity and^Salivary Glands..../........ ............. 53
18. The Gastrointestinal Tract.................................. 54
19. The Liver, Biliary Tract and Exocrine Pancrine...... ............. ....;. 58
20. The Kidney and Lower Urinary Tract......................... ............. . 64 '
21. The Male Reproductive System and Prostate.......................... 71
22. The Female Genital Tract....... ........................... ........... . 72
23. The Breast............................ ................... ............................... 74
24. The Skin............................................. ..........1......................... 76 \
25. The Endocrine System................................................ ........ . 77
26. The Musculoskeletal System............................... ....... ;........... 80
27. Soft Tissue Tumours............................... :.... :............ .......... . 82
28. The Nervous System.;......................... .................................... 82
29. Appendix I : Basic diagnostic cytology....................... 85
* * M B B s - Book with spived MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

^-M iscellaneous;...... .......... ................... ................................. 86

patlj0 ^0GY_I QUESTION p a p e r s ...™ ,!...:........ 88
PATHOLOGY - II QUESTION P A P E R S . . . . . . . 1 G 8 .

MICROBIOLOGY CHAPTfRWISE DISTRIBUTION

Parti
1.
Historical Introduction............:___:..... ................. ............. . 126
2.
Morphology and Physiology of Bacteria........... ......... 127
3.
Sterilisation and Disinfection...:..!................... !........................ 130
4.
Culture Media...................!.................. !.................... .............. 133
5.
Culture Methods,...!......134
6.
Identification of Bacteria..............i .......... ............. 135
7.
ial 'Genetics...........'...... .......................... 135
Pai
8. - •- - A07
. ............... 1Vi
9.
Immunity............. ........ r . h O f e r t . . . . . ± ^ ! ^ r . . ....... :.......... 138
10 Antigens..... .......... ..... ........ .............. .......... ........................... 139
11.
Antibodies - Immunoglpbulins.................:.4............................... 140
12 .
Antigen - Antibody Reactions.............*............ ............. .......... 141
13;
T^e Complement System..... .................. ........... ......... ........... 144
14.
Structure and Functions of the Immune System..:............. ‘...... 144
15.
te. Response.................................................................. 145
16.
lodeficiency Diseases.!;;.!...................... ............. ........ 146
17.
Hypersensitivity..................... ;............ ........ :.......................... 146
18.
Autoimmunity................H. ! ............ 147
19.
lology of Transplantation and Malignancy.................... 148
20. iohematology.....:.v...................................................... 149
Part-Ill
J o c p p c u s . . ................ ........................ 149
22.
Streptococcus.!........................................................................ 151
23.
tecoccus. (Diplococcus pneunoniae: Str pneumoniae),... 152
24.
seria...................................... ......!........... ......................... 153
25.
Corynebacterium......... ........ .................. ............. ......... ........ 155
26. s.................. ............... ................ ................. :........... . 156
27.
lium................................... 157
28.
pOnsporing Anaerobes.............. ................. ...... !................... 160
29.
Enterobacteriaceae I: Coliforms - Proteus................................ 160
30.
Enterobacteriaceae II: Shigella..................................... 161
31.
..fT ^ba cte ria cea e Ilf: Salmonell........................................:.... 162
32. v ,brio.....;>>->............. ^ _ ...... _ t64.
33.
Pseudomonas................... 165
M
- ^A «
II A
^ ■■■■ ■ ■-
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition fey U nique Publication

34. Yersinia, Pasteurella; Francisella...................... ...................... , 166

35. Haemophilus. ........ .......: ............. .......... ........ .......;........,......... 166
36. Bordetella..... ................................. ................... 167
37. Brucella..-.................1............... !..~.......... .............. ................. 168
36. Mycoba ^rium I: Tuberculosis................................. ............... 169
39. Mycobacterium II: Npn-Tuberculous Mycobacterium (NTM)....~ 170
46. Mycobacterium III: M Leprae..:.................. ...................... 171
41. Spirochetes..!.,........ ................ ......... ................ ...................... 172
42. Mycoplasma........... .:............... .............. ................ ................. 175
43. Actinomycetes............................. ........... ...........,vi.:.:,...... 175
44. Miscellaneous Bacteria..................................,.......... 176
45. Rickettsiaceae........................................... ;.......... 176
46. Chlamydiae 178
P art: IV - V
47. General Properties of Viruses.................... *.......4 ...; ....... 179
48. Virus-Host Interactions: Viral Infections........:...;,.^..... ............. : 180
49. Bacteriophages............ :........ ............ ........ ............................. 181
50. Poxviruses,........ ............................. ............. .......... .... ........... 181
51. Herpesviruses.......... .................... ................... .................. ...... 182
"52. Adenoviruses..... .................. ....................... .................. ......... 183
53. Picornaviruses......:.............. ..!...........!...................................... 183
54. Orthomyxovirus............................... ...................... .............. !.. 184
55. Paramyxoviruses.....!............................................................... . 185
56. Arboviruses.......................... ................. ....... ................ ....... 185
57. Rhabdoviruses....... ......... ..................................... ,............ :..... 186
58. Hepatitis V i r u s e s . . ......................... ......... ............ . 187
59.. Miscellaneous Viruses..................................... 189
60. Oncogenic Viruses...:. ............................. ............. ;..... ...... 190
61. Human Immunodeficiency Virus : AIDS.............................. ........ 190
^ Parti V MEDICAL MYCOLOGY
62. General 191
63. Superficial and Subcutaneous Mycoses............. 192
64. Systemic and Opportunistic Mycoses....!............ ! 195
a a a a a ■ ■ a a-a ■

Part: Vl APPLIED MICROBIOLOGY

65. Normal Microbial flora of the human body...... ............ ........... . 197
66. Bacteriology of water, Air, Milk and food...................... .-........ . 197
67. Laboratory control of Antimicrobial therapy................................ 198
68. Immunoprophylaxis............................................................... . 198
69. Healthcare associated infections.................... ....................... . 198
70. Biomedical Waste Management....:........................... . 199
71. Emerging and Re-emerging Infections................. ■ a a a a aa • a a a a a a a

>4:
[in :
►4
2r* M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition ftyUnique Publication

72.
/
Part: VIICLINICAL MICROBIOLOGY
7a. 200
74. 200
75. rT1II_r. T____ 200
76. 201
:77. 202
78. 202
* 203
79. c. _
80. Pyrexia of Unknown Ofigin............. .................. . ........ . 203
81 Zoonoses.................................................... ...... 203
82. Miscellaneous.....!..... ......... . ........ .......... : ....... 204 ;
PARASITOLOGY CHAPTERWISE DISTRIBUTION
1. General Introduction.................................... .................. :... 205
2. Protozoa: General Features,...... L . . ......... ............................ . 205
3. Amoebae..................... .......................... ............ .................... 205
4. Flagellates.................. ........ ............. .V. ............ ..... 206
5. Malaria Parasites.......................... ........ ..............................., 2 0 8
6. Miscellaneous Sporozoa and Microspot^.................... ............ 209
7. Ciliate Protozoa.....,.,...,...*................................ .:.............. ...... 210
8. Helminths: General Features..................'.....^...... .....i........ . 210
9. Trematodes: Flukes......................................,..... ...... ;............. 210
10. Cestodes: Tapevvorms........................... ........ ;.....^................. 211
11. Nematodes: General Features.......................................... . 212
12.. Trichinella Spiralis.......;....t:.,............................ ..................... 213
13. Whipworm....;;.......^...,:'...,.......... .......................... ............. '213
14. Strongyloides..... .1.;.................. ...*.................... ............. ........ 214
15. Hookworm.....7.,,...... ....................................... ....................... 214
16- Pinworm..........:...!;.................................... .w ........ ........ .......... 215
17. Roundworm..................... ...... ............ .......... .......... ......... .... • 215
18. FiJafial Worrits^.................... ...................... . ........ ............. 215
19. Guinea Worm........................................... ............... .. 217
20. Miscellaneous Nematodes.......... i.... ................... ............ ..... 217
21. Diagnostic Methods in Parasitology..............'......... .................. 218
22. Miscellaneous...................... ............ ....................... . 218
MICROBIOLOGY-I QUESTION PAPERS............ ........ ..... ..... 219
MICROBIOLOGY - II QUESTION PAPERS..................... ....... 237

MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY
CHAPTERWISE DISTRIBUTION
M
[IV]
M-
 /•

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

• . , . , Section 1 x
General Pharmacological Principles
1. Introduction, Routes of Drug Administration..................... ...... ' 255
Pharmacokinetics: Membrane Transport, Absorption
h
& Distribution of Drugs........ .......... :.................................. ...... 257
3. Pharmacokinetics: Metabolism & Excretion of Drugs,
Kinetics of Elimination.......... ........................... ..... -u............... 258
Pharmacodynamics: Mechanism of Drug Action; . .
Receptor Pharmacology.......:....... ....... .................... 261
5. Aspects of Pharmacotherapy; Clinical Pharmacology *
& Drug Development. -* 265
6. Adverse Drug Effects. 266
SectionZ MU
Drugs Acting on Autonom ic Nervous System
7 .. Cholinergic System and Drugs.....:^...........|.........4.....,.....;..... 268
8. Anticholinergic Drugs and Drugs Acting on Autonomic
. I ^ 3 . . . . . a . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ' . . . ..<•<■ . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ■ . » *** . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . a . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . , - .

9. Adrenergic System and Drugs..............\ ...... ..... ............... . 275

10. Antiadrenergic Drugs (Adrenergic Receptor Antagonists)
& Drugs for.Glaupoma....«..^^...?.v...<;is.;:.^...... ...................... . 277
Section 3 !
Autacoids and Related Drugs
11. Histamine and Antihistaminics..;................ ...... ........... ....... 281
. 12. 5-Hydroxytryptamine, its Antagonists & Drug Therapy *
of Migraine............... .......................... ........................ ......... 282
13. Prostaglandins, Leukotrienes (Eicosanoids) and
Platelet Activating Factor................................ ................ ....... : 283
14. Nonsteroidal Antiinflammatoiy Drugs and Antipyretic- '
. Analgesics,..'........... ...................... .................... ............ r ..... . 284
15.. Antirheumatoid and AntigOut Drugs.......;iv............. ............... 285
Section.4
Respiratory System Drugs
16. Drugs for Cough and Bronchial Asthma................................... 286
S ections
Hormones and Related Drugs
17. Anterior Pituitary HormonesT..................................................... 289
18. Thyroid Hormone and Thyroid Inhibitors..................................: 289
19. Insulin, Oral Hypoglycaemic Drugs and Glucagon................... 291
20. Corticosteroids.................,...... ............ .............. ..................... 294
21. Androgens and Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction.............:...... ;.... 297
22. Estrogens, Progestins and Contraceptives................. . 297
M
. . * - ■^ V r ' " ■• A
j -
y K -
2ndM.B. ?.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition fry Unique Publication "j
23. Oxytocin and Other Drugs Acting on Uterus.... . ............... . 300
24. ,Drugs Affecting Calcium Balance*..;......^ 301
Section®
Drugs Acting on Peripheral (Somatic) Nervous System
25. Skeletal Muscle Relaxants..:................. ...... ......... 301
26. "Local A n a e s t h e t ic s . . ............ ..... ............... 303
Section 7 l)
Acting on Central Nervous System
27. General Anaesthetics......................... ....................................I ...: 303
28. Ethyl and Methyl Alcohols.................. ...................... '.**?*........ .... 305
29. Sedative-Hypnotics................................................... ..a:.. .„. 306
30. Antiepileptic Drugs....:................. ........................ .... 307 •f t '
31. Antiparkinsonian Drugs............4................ ...3 1 0
' /'P
32. Drugs Used in Mental Illness: Antipsychotic and Antimanic
Drugs.................................. ....... ........... ....... ............. .... 311 : - if)
33. Drugs Used in Mental )llness: Antidepressanf andAntianxiety r

Drugs................... ............................. " * O'

34. Opioid Analgesics and Antagonists............................. .........313 ... 313
w
35. CNS Stimulants and Cognition Enhancers..................... ......... .... 315
- Sections w
Cardiovascular Drugs
36. Drugs Affecting Renin-Angiotensin System & Plasma Kinins.... .... 316 ':-W\
37. Cardiac Glycosides and Drugs for Heart Failure.......................... 317
* a^w!
38. Antiarrhythmic Drugs....:........................ ................................. .... 319
39. Antianginal and Other Anti-ischaemic Drugs............................ ....320320 '
' i
.40. Antihypertensive D ru g s l.4 —.................. ........ ............... . .... 323
: Section 9 * ■•.
Drugs Acting on Kidney
.... 326 4 4 !
41. Diuretics.............. ............ ............. :........... ............................
......3^8
42. Antidiuretics. ............ ............................ .................. ....................3^8
Section 10
Drugs Affecting Blood and Blood Formation
43. Haematinics and Erythropoietin..................... ............7............. ....! 329
44 Drugs Affecting Coagulation, Bleeding &Thrombosis.... . .... 331 7 :4
45 Hypolipidaerriic Drugs and Plasma Expanders.......................... .... 334
Section 11 .■ 7 ;j
vi
Gastrointestinal Drugs
46 , Drugs for Peptic Ulcer & Gastroesophageal reflux disease....... ... 335 : \
47 Antiemetics, Prokinetics and digestant Drugs..................... .... .... 337
48 . Drugs for Constipation and Diarrhoea.............................. . .... . 339 339.
Section 12 . 'i
 •i.

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs - IIF E d itio n by Unique Publication
Antimicrobial Drugs
49. Antimicrobial Drugs: General Considerations.............. ............. 341
50. Sulfonamides, Cotrimoxazole and Quinolones......................... 342
51. Beta-Lactam Antibiotics........................................ ..... . 343
52. Tetracyclines and Chloramphenicol (Broad-Spectrum
Antibiotics).................................................... 346
53. Aminoglycoside Antibiotics........................ 347
54. Macrolide, Lincosamide, Glycopeptide and Other
Antibacterial Antibiotics; Urinary Antiseptics.............................. 348
55. Antitubercular Drugs.... ........ 349 .
56. Antileprotic Drugs..................................................................... 351
57. Antifungal Drugs.................................................................. 352
58. Antiviral Drugs................. 353
59. Antimalarial Drugs................................................................... 354
60. Antiamoebic and Other Antiprotozoal Drugs............................. 356
61. Anthelmintic Drugs........ ........................................................... 357
Section 13
Chemotherapy of Neoplastic Diseases
62. Anticancer Drugs................................................. 358
Section 14
Miscellaneous Drugs
63. Immunosuppressants, Gene Therapy................ 359
64. Drugs Acting on Skin and Mucous Membranes........................ 360
65. Antiseptics, Disinfectants and Ectoparasiticides...........................361
66. Chelating Agents................................................................... 362
67. Vitamins.......................... 363
68. Vaccines and Sera................................. 365
69. Drug Interactions......................................................... ............ 366
70. Miscellaneous................. 367
PHARMACOLOGY & PHARAMACOTHERAPEUTICS -I QPS..... 368
PHARMACOLOGY & PHARAMACOTHERAPEUTICS - HOPS..... 389

FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY

CHAPTERWISE DISTRIBUTION
SECTION - 1
FORENSIC MEDICINE
1. Introduction...... ...... ..... .............. ................ ...... ............. .... . 410
2. Legal Procedure............................. ............ .......... ..... ...... . 410
3. Medical Law and Ethics........................... ................................ 413
4. Identification................... ................................. ............. ........ 418

IX
-M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
5. Medicolegal Autopsy............................................................ 422
6. Death and its Cause.............................................. 423
7. Postmortem Changes........................................... 425
8. Mechanical Injuries............................................. 428
9. Regional Injuries.................................................... 432
10. Medicolegal Aspects of Wounds.................................. 433
11. Thermal Deaths.......................................................... 435
12. Starvation.....................................................
13. Mechanical Asphyxia................. ................................. 437
14. Anaesthetic and Operative Deaths............................................ 442
O
15. Impotence and Sterility.............................................................. 442
16. Virginity, Pregnancy and Delivery............................................... 443 to
17. Abortion..................................................
18. Sexual Offences.......................................................... 445
19. Infant Deaths..................................................
20. Blood Stains................................................
21. Artefacts.........................................................
22. Forensic Science Laboratory..................................... 449
23. Forensic Psychiatry......................................................... 450
SECTION -II TOXICOLOGY
24. General Considerations.............. ................................ 451
25. Agricultural Poisons.............................................. 454
26. Corrosive Poisons.................................................... 454
27. Metallic Poisons.................................................. 45
28. Inorganic Irritant Poisons............................................. 457
29. Organic Irritant Poisons.......................................... 457
30. CNS Depressants....................................................... 459
31. Psychotropic Drugs...................................................... 461
32. Deliriant Poisons......................................................... 461
33. Drug Dependence.................................................... 461
34. Spinal Poisons.................................................... 46
35. Cardiac Poisons................................................ 46
36. Asphyxiants.....................................................
37. Miscellaneous Poisons......................................... 463
38. Food Poisoning.................................................... 464
39. Appendix.....................................................
40. Miscellaneous........................................................................... 464
FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY QUESTION PAPERS 466
MPMSU Syllabus...................................... .................................... 494
MPMSU Summer 2017 Question Paper with solved MCQ..... 561

Iv in !
M
 •«
I«W
VIwvwfnwiiwIVIV\lfO juuiuun uy u ill( | lie jrU D ll-C S lQ O n

f/sssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssssfssrf*sss*ss.

PATHOLOGY
CHAPTERWISE DISTRIBUTION
y fa /A f/////y /y f/S //S /S S S /S S S S S S /S /S S /sy sss/sssssssfS sssffS sssssssrsfs,s* f* jr,* ,f,,i

SECTION -1
GENERAL PATHOLOGYAND BASIC TECHNIQUE
1 Introduction to Pathology.
M C Q (M U H S )
None
j SAQ
| . 1. Telepathology. (W-16)
I...'- 2. Histochemistry. W-92.
3. Romanowsky stain. W-97.
LAQ
None
2. Cell injury and Cellular Adaptations.
M C Q (M U H S )
1. Black coloured urine is seen in (S-03)
a) porphyria b) haemoglobinuria
c) melanouria d) chyluria
2. Which of the following is not a nuclear change seen in necrosis.
(S-03)
a) pyknosis b) karyorhexis c) mitosis d) karyolysis.
3. The pigment which is an example of membrane bound residual body
is (S-03)
a) haemosiderin b) lipofuscin c) haemozoin d) melanin
4. The most common complication of intestinal tuberculosis is (S-04)
a) stricture formation b) peritonitis
c) haemorrhage d) none of the above.
5. Lung shows brown induration in _____ (W-04)
a) pulmonary haemorrhage b) pulmonary embolism
c) pulmonary infarction. d) chronic venous congestion.
6. In fatty liver due to chronic alcoholism the following mechanism are
involved EXCEPT________ . (W-04)
a) increased free fatty acid synthesis.
b) decreased triglyceride utilization.
c) increased a-glycerophosphate
d) block in lipoprotein excretion.
7. Caseous Necrosis is hallmark of ______ _. (W-04)
a) ischemia b) fat necrosis
* 11 ^JL
A .

l
i
?
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHSMCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) streptococcal infection
d) mycobacterial tuberculous infection.
8. Dystrophic calcification is seen in the following EXCEPT______.
. ‘ (W-04) ;:v -
a) caseous necrosis. b) fat necrosis,
c) primaryhyperparathyroidism d) atherosclerosis.
9. The following is known as wear and tear pigm ent_______ . (W-04)
V v; , a) bilirubin b) lipofuschin c) melanin d) hemosiderin
10. In atrophy the cells are . (W-04)
a) dead cells b) irreversibly injured cells
c) shrunken cells d) enlarged cells. >
11. For metaplasia the following holds true , (W-04)
a) it is a disordered growth. b) it affects only epithelial cells,
c) it is reversible. d) it is irreversible and progressive.
12. Following are features of apoptosis EXCEPT_______ . (W-04)
a) there is cell shrinkage,
b) there are no acute inflammatory cells surrounding apoptic cells
c) there may be loss o f single cell or cluster of cells.
d) it is seen only in pathologic conditions.
13. Serum calcium level is raised in (W-08)
a) metastatic clacification. b) dystrophic calcification,
c) tetanus J d) tetany
14. Programmed destruction of cell is referred to as (W-08)
a) apoptosis b) pyknosis c) karylysis d) karyorrhesis
15. Replacement of one adult cell type by other is (W-08)
a) dysplasia b) anaplasia c) hyperplasia d) metaplasia
16. Gravid uterus is an example of (S-09)
a) hyperplasia b) metaplasia
c) dysplasia d) hypertrophy and hyperplasia.
17. Surface epithelial cells are (S-09)
a) labile cells b) stable cells
c) ghost cells d) permanent cells
18. In cell injury the word that means falling off or dropping off is (W-09)
a) necrosis b) apoptosis c) gangrene d) degeneration
19. The pigment in brown atrophy of heart is (W-09)
a) melanin b) hemosiderin c)lipofuscin d) hemozoin
20. Dysplasia is characterized by (S-10)
a) decreased growth. b) absence of cellular atypia.
c) low nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio d) loss of epithelial polarity.
21. Tabby cat appearance of myocardium is seen in (S-10)
a) cloudy change. b) fatty degeneration.
M
^ 2^
M
M .a.a.o. BooKwnn aoivea m u h s > muus i u ~num un oy u n iq u e ru D iica o o n
c) hyaline degeneration d) amyloidosis.
22. Aseptic infarct of kidney is a manifestation of following type of
necrosis. (W-10)
a) caseous b) gummatous c) coagulative d) colliquative.
23. Malarial pigment is a following haemoglobin derivatives (W-10)
a) haemosiderine b) haemazoine
c)haematin d) porphyrine
24. Positive DOPA reaction is given by (S-11)
a) Monocytes b) Melanocytes
c) Melanophages d) Megakaryocytes
25. Dystrophic calcification is seen all of the following EXCEPT. (S-11)
a) Fat necrosis. b) Diseased heart valves.
c) Normal renal tubules d) Atherosclerotic Plaque in aorta.
26. Which of the following condition is associated with non-hemoglobin
derived pigment ? (W-11)
a) Brown atrophy of the Heart b) Jaundice in patient with hepatitis
c) Kernicterus in a newborn d) Heart failure cells in sputum
27. Example of Metastatic calcification is (W-11)
a) Calcification in pancreatitis.
b) Calcification in atherosclerosis.
c) Calcification in traumatic fat necrosis.
d) Calcification in Hyperparathyroidism.
28. The mechanism of cellular swelling in tissue hypoxia is more closely
related to (W-11)
a) Free radical injury to cell b) Reduced concentration of ATP
c) Decreased apo li^p i^M m d) Calcium entering mitochondria
29. Psammoma bodies af§ found in (W-11)
a) Serous cystadeno carcinoma of ovary b) Meningoma
c) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid d) All of the above
30. The fragmentation of nuclear chromatin during necrosis is called
($ - 12)
a) Karyolysis b) Pyknosis
c) Karyorrhexis d) Apoptosis
31. During cell injury, in intracellular compartment there is (S-12)
a) lncreased calcium b) Increased sodim
c) Decreased sodium d) Decreaed calcium
32. Intracellular accumulation of cholesterol in macrophages in skin is
called (W-12)
a) Cholesteatoma b) Xanthoma
c) Cholesterolosis d) Granuloma
33. In dysplastic epithelium there is (W-12)
M
A. ° A.
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) Hyperchromasia and loss of polarity
b) Invasion of basement membrane
c) Metastasis
d) Necrosis
34. Positive dopa reaction is given by (W-12)
a) Melanophage b) Melanosome
c) Melanocyte d) Megakaryocyte
35. In cell injury the word that means falling off or dropping off is (S-13)
v a) necrosis b) apoptosis #
c) gangrene d) degeneration
" 36. Following is true about fatty change of Liver, E X C E if 1% #^)
a) Alcoholic abuse is the common cause
b) It is often reversible injury _.,
c) Fat is demonstrated by staining frozen sections
d) There is predominant accumulation of cholesterol
37. Metastatic calcification principally affects (S-14)
a) Atheromas b) Aortic valves
c) Soft tubercles d) Gastric mucosa
38. Pigment deposited in cardiac muscle in Brown atrophy of Heart is
(S-14) >
a) Lipofuscin b) Ferritin
c) Haemosiderin d) Formalin
39. Gravid uterus is an example of (S-14)
a) Atrophy b) Hypertrophy
c) Hyperplasia d) Metaplasia
40. Carbon tetra chloride (CCI4) causes fatty change due to (S-14)
a) Decrease synthesis of apoproteins
b) Inhibition o f fatty acid oxidation
c) Increase fatty acid mobilization
d) Altered mitochondrial function
41. Programmed cell death is known as (W-14)
a) Necrosis b) Degeneration
c) Apoptosis d) Calcification
42. Liquefaction necrosis is common in (W-14) ^
a) GIT b) Liver c) Heart d) Brain
43. Gandy gamna bodies are seen in (W-14)
a) CVC spleen b) CVC liver
c) CVC lung d) CVC kidney
44. Russells body is found in (W-14)
a) WBC b) plasma cells c) mast cells d) RBC
45. In Myocardial infarct the type of necrosis seen is (W-14)
^ 4 ^

“m l 3,
.n.ts.is.w. »w n mm ovivea muna m w s ui-Jbam on by Unique Publication
a) Caseous b) Gangrenous
c) Liquifactive d) Coagulative
46. Enzyme which prevents aging is (S-15)
a) Catalase b) Superoxide dismutase
c) Metalloproteinase d) Telomerase
47. Diabetic foot is an example of (S-15)
a) Dry gangrene b) Wet gangrene
c) Gas gangrene d) Necrotising inflammation
48. Cardiac amyloidosis often produces (S-15)
a) Dilated cardiomyopathy b) Constrictive cardiomyopathy
c) Restrictive cardiomyopathy d) Ischaemic cardiomyopathy
49. Which of the following is proapoptotic ? (S-15)
a) p53 b) Bcl-2 c) BAX d) All of the above
50. One of the following condition is associated with Dystrophic
calcification (W-15)
. a) Primary hyperparathyroidism
b) Secondary hyperparathyroidism
c) Vitamin D intoxication
d) Fat necrosis
51. Barrett's oesophagus is an example of (W-15)
a) Atrophy b) Hyperplasia c) Hypertrophy d) Metaplasia
52. Wear - and - Tear pigment is. (S-16)
a) Lipofuscin b) Haemosiderin
c) Amyloid d) Bilifuscin
53. Apoptosis is inhibited by (W-16)
a) P53 b) n-myc c) ras d) bcl 2
54. Dystrophic calcification is observed in all EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) Tuberculous lymphnode b) Gamna gandy body
c) Gastric mucosa d) Atheromatous plaque
SACl .
1. Mention types of necrosis. Describe morphology of caseous
necrosis. (S-10)
2. Necrosis and its morphological types. (S-06)(S-94)
3. Fat necrosis. (S-2000)fS-92)
4. Enumerate sites of wet gangrene. Mention their causes. Describe
gross appearance of one of such site. (W-07)
5. Pathological pigmentation. (S-2000)(S-73)
6. Dystrophic calcification. (\N-99)(S-83,87,88,89)(W-91,93,95,98)
7. Write a note on apoptosis. (W-2000)(S-16)
8. Enumerate differentiating features between necrosis, gangrene and
infarction.(S-01)
M
A. 5
^ ^
3 A.
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I TdEdition by Unique Publication
9. How is Hemosiderin pigment formed ? Give its pathological
significance. (W-01)
10. Difference between Dystrophic & metastatic clacification.(S-02)
11. Define Dysplasia.(S-02) /A ;.
12. Define :-Hyperplasia. (S-02)
13. Define metestatic calcification.(S-03)
14. Difference between dry and wet sometime. (S-03)
15. Define apoptosis. Give two examples of apoptosis.(S-04)
16. Define hypertrophy. Enumerate causes of hypertrophy,(S-04)
17. Typing of necrosis and examples.(S-05)
18. What is hemosiderin and how it is demonstrated ? Enumerate three
causes of hemosiderosis.(S-05) . .
19. Dysplasia. Mention two most common bxamples.(S-05)
20. Define metaplasia. Write the mechanism of metaplasia in brief.
(S-06)
21. What is dysplasia ? Give two examples.(S-07)
22. Enumerate in a tubular form the difference between necrosis and
apoptosis.(S-07)
23. Define Apoptosis, give examples and enumerate morphological
changes. (S-12)
24. Define apoptosis. Describe various mechanisms of apoptosis. (W-12)
25. Define reperfusion injury. Describe its mechanism. (W-12)
26. Define apoptosis. Give examples and enumerate morphological
changes. (S-13) . ,
27. Types of Necrosis. (W-13) (W-96)
28. Discuss types of Calcifications. (W-13)(S-16)
29. Describe endogenous pigments. (S-14)
30. Dystrophic calcification. (S-15)
31. Endogenoi^ p|m ents. (W-15)
32. Define infarct:: Discuss types o f infarct. (S-17)
33. Zenker's degeneration. (S-73)
34. Necrosis. (S-74)
35. Metaplasia. (S-77)(W-87)
36. Cloudy swelling. (S-78) >
37. Hyperplasia. (S-79)1'
38. Gangrene. (S-80,89,93,(W-98)
39. DOPA reaction. (S-84)
40. Hyperplasia & hypertrophy. (W-93)
41. Pathological calcification. (S-97)
42. Exogenous pigments. (S-98)
LAQ
1. Define necrosis or irreversible ceil injury. Give an account of different
A. 6 A.

I
m.D.o.a. o w n wnri ooivea rnuno M isijs m ~ m illio n oy unit]lie .Publication

types of necrosis and discuss its pathogenesis. (W-00,01 )(S-88,91)

2. Define and classify necrosis. Describe the morphology of
coagulative necrosis of kidney. (W-01)
3. Define necrosis. Write about various types of necrosis with examples.
(W-12)(S-17)
4. What are free radicals ? Describe free radical-induced cell injury.
(S-14) _
5. Discuss the etiology of gangrene. Discuss in detail senile gangrene.
(S-70)
6. Define fatty degeneration. Describe gross & microscopic structure
of organs showing fatty degenerations. (S-81) ‘ ^
7. Define and classify necrosis. Describe significance of caseation
necrosis.(S-82)(W -85) ^3% ,
3. Immunopatholoav Including Amyloidosis.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The genes that code HLA antigens are present chromosome
number (S-03)
a) 1. b) 6. c) 20. d) x-chromosome.
2. Warm antibodies react optimally at (S-03)
a) 0°C b) 20°C c) 37°C d) 42°C
3. Which of the following sarcomas has high incidence in patients with
AIDS (S-03)
a) rhabdomyosarcoma b) fibrosarcoma .
c) osteogenic sarcoma d) kaposi’s sarcoma
4. Arthus reaction is the following type of hyper sensitivity reaction .
(W-04)
a) type I b) type il c) type III d) type IV.
5. Amyloid light chains (AL) are derived from ' . . (W-04)
a) neutrophils. b) lever c) plasma cells d) all of above.
6. Tuberculin test is an example of a (S-09)
a) type-1 hyersensitivity. b) type-11 hyersensitivity.
c) type-1 II hyersensitivity. d) type-IV hyersensitivity.
7. The type of amyloid deposited in plasma cell dyscrasis is (W-09)
a) AL type b) AA type c) A|32M type d) ATTR type
8. Amyloidosis can be a complication of (W-10)
a) malaria b) tuberculosis c) AIDS d) typhoid fever
9. Following viral infection is an opportunistic infection associated with
AIDS. (W-10) '
a) measles b) german measles c) CMV d) H1N1.
10. Goodpasture’s syndrome is an example of following type of
hypersensitivity. (W-10)
2"rf M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I r* Edition by U nique Publication

a)1 b ) li c)Tii d) IV
.11. Selective tropism of HIV virus is seen for (S-11)
a) Natural killer cells b) CD8 + T lymphocytes
c) CD4 + T lymphocytes d) B lymphocytes
12. Which of the following condition is an example of Type-I
Hypersensitivity reaction ? (W-11)
a) Hashipioto’s thyroiditis b) Urticaria
■: c) Blood transfusion reaction d) Glomerulonephritis
13. Class 1HLA antigens are located on (S-12) '
a) Lymphocytes b) Monocytes
c) Epithelial cells . d) All of above
14. The most common tumor in A ID f patients is
a) Burkitt’s lymphoma b) B cell lymphoma
c) Large T cell lymphoma . d) Kaposi sarcoma
15. Class I HLA Antigens are located on (W-12)
a) Lymphocytes b) Antigen presenting cells
c) Macrophages d) Almost all cells in the body
16. MHC class II antigens are related to (W-12)
a) Pathogenesis of autoimmune disease.
b) Synthesis of complement.
c) Pathogenesis of amyloidosis.
d) Acute inflammation.
17. The type of amyloid deposited in plasma cell dyscrasias is (S-13)
a) AL type b) AA type c) AJ32 M type d)ATTR type .
18. On Congo Red staining, Amyloid shows yellow green birefringence
with (W-13)
a) Polarised light microscopy b) Electron microscopy
c) X- ray crystallography d) Fluorescent microscopy
19. Which one of the following hypersensitivity reactions is characterized
by fibrinoid necrosis of vessels ? (S-14)
a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type IV
20. The immunoglobulin involved in type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is
(W-14)
a) IgE b) IgM c) IgA d) IgG
21. Most common malignancy in AIDS (W-14)
a) B cell lymphoma b) kaposi's sarcoma
c) leukaemia d) burkitts lymphoma
22. The marker for B lymphocytes is (W-14)
a) CD19 b)CD68 c) CD34 d)CD4
23. Tubercle bacilli cause lesions by the following mechanisms (S-15)
a) Direct cytotoxicity b) Elaboration of endotoxin
M ■■
^
-A °ft A
^.
■M
Z"'* I N .D .D .O . O U U ff W IU I O V IV V U IV IU II O M L rK JS m J u u w u it u y U liiq u g 1 U M lltd U U I l

c) Elaboration of exotoxin d) Type IV hypersensitivity

24. All of the following are examples o f autoimmune disease EXCEPT
(W-15)
a) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Osteoarthritis
c) Scleroderma d) Sjogren syndrome
25. Lardaceous spleen is seen in (S-15)
a) Malaria b) Amyloidosis c) CML d) Portal Hypertension
26. In Hemodialysis associated Amyloidosis, chemically related
precursor protein is. (S-16)
a) Immunoglobulin light chain. ; v
b) SAA.
c) - Beta - 2 - microglobulin.
d) Transthyretin. ' V .;/
27. Major coreceptors on target cells for binding of gp120 on HIV-1
include. (S-16)
a) CD4+
b) CD8+
c) Cyclins and CDKs
d) Chemokine receptors (CCR5 and CXCR4).
28. Following are major effects of IL-1/TNF EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) Fever b) Neutrophilia
c) Increasedproliferation o f Fibroblasts d) Chemotaxis
29. Amyloidosis in long term hemodialysisis due to (W-16)
a) Transthyretin . b) B2 Microglobulin
c) Amyloid associated protein d) B amyloid protein
SAQ ^
1. Stains for amyloid. (W-99)(S-90j
2. Arthus phenomenon.(S-00)(W-83j
3. Methods of demonstration of amyloid.(S-01 )(S-78JfW-95J
4. Define Atrophy.(S-02)
5. Chemical nature of amyloid.(S-03)
6. Mention-the stains for amyloid. (S-03)(W-03)
7 Describe the immune mechanism in Type II hypersensitivity with
examples. (S-04)
8. Describe gross appearance of amyloidosis, special diagnosis on
gross. (S-04)
9. Hypersensitivity reactions, mention types with examples.(W-04)
10. Enumerate the fungal infections in AIDS. (W-06)
11. Classify amyloidosis. Mention special stains for amyloid. (S-10)
12. Enumerate special stains for diagnosis of amyloidosis. Describe gross
•features of Amyloidosis spleen. (S-12)
T y
A.
g vA.
 . _ j j r auamon Dy unique Publication
T dM.B.B.S Book with Solved MUHS MCQ* 111 H 1
13. Enumerate special stains for amyloid, jd
14. State the physicochemical properties of amY j
15. Mention the indications for direct and W 14)
16. D efine am yloid. G ive classification o f a ^ y oi ‘J
17. Discuss mechanisms of autoimmune disor e . *
18. Define hypersensitivity reaction. Discuss yP YP Y

V 19. Give'moieaila?structure and special steins for Amyloid. (S-17)

20. Sago spleen. (W-71)(S-80,81,84)
' 21. Kidney amyloidosis. (S-79)(W-72,87)
22. Amyloid. (W-80)(S-82)
23. Graft vs. Host reaction. (W-84,93)
24. Anaphylaxis. (W-85,86)(S-88) ^fg|§gg
25. L.E. cells. (W-86,93,95)(S-87I95)
26. Homograft rejection.(W-93)
27. Spleen in amyloidosis. (W-'
28. Mast Cell. ($-96)
29. Explain cell mediated immunity giving exampleS-v >
30. Etiopathogenesis of SLE.(S-97) . in arny|0idosis.(S-97)
31. Gross and microscopic appearance of Kidney
32. Autoimmunity.(W-97) >
33. Mode of transmission of HIV infection. (VY-97)

1. Define & c la s s y amyloidosis. Describe its pathogenesis, Chemical

nature&staining.(A-99)(W-00)(S-85)(W'9l, ' A n_w,./
2. Describe briefly types of hypersensitivityrea . . f. ^ ’
3. Describe risk factors, progression and °PP°
associated with HIV infection. ( S - 1 2 ) ' +Jwlt4,
4. W h a t is hypersensitivity ? C lassify & Discuss yp y

5. D eC autS m m unity. Discuss pathogenesis o fa t^ m u n ity . (W-16)

6. Define degeneration and infiltration. Give an account of amyloid
degeneration. (S-71,83)
7. Give an account of autoimmune disordeR^ special reference to their
8. Give an account of immune complex disease w v

pathogenesis. (S-86)(W-88)
9. Describe pathogenesis of SLE. (S-91)
10. Describe transplant rejection reactions. (S-91)
11. Discuss briefly human leucocyte antigens. (W- ’ .
4. Derangements o f Homeostasisan'1Haemodynamics.
MCQ(MUHS) , 7S-03V
1. Commonest source of pulmonary emboli|S \ "
’ ’ M
i.io r
 uuvn m i l l dl/IVCUim/no 1 1 1 " Ih U lllO n D y u mquc l^ubliCeition

a) pulmonary veins. b) deep veins of leg. ■,

c) cardiac chambers. d) aorta.
2. Most important preventable cause of death in bed-ridden patients is
(S-03)
a) bronchopneumonia b) pulmonary embolism '
c) lobar pneumonia d) lung abscess
3. Syphilitic aneurysm is commonly seen in (S-04)
a) ascending aorta. b) abdominal aorta,
c) openings of .renal arterier. d) none of the above.
4. Transudate differs from exudate in having the following features
EXCEPT. (W-04) ,
a) no inflammatory cells b) low glucose content
c) low protein content d) low specific gravity.
5. Lines of Zahn are seen in ______ _. (W-04)
a) post mortem clot b) arterial thrombi,
c) atherosclerosis “ d) haematoma.
6. Gamma-gandy body/nodule is seen in (W-08)
a) chronic venous congestion of spleen, b) splenic infarct,
c) hodgkin’s lymphoma of spleen. d) splenic abscess.
7. Lines of Zahn are seen in (W-08)
a) post mortem clot. b) thrombus
c) atheromatous plaque d) embolism
8. Gandy-Gamma nodules of spleen is a feature of (S-09)
a) tuberculosis. . b) typhoid.
c) fibrocongestive splenomegaly. d) kala-azar.
9. Heart failure cells are seen. (S-09)
a) spleen b) Jung c) heart d) none of the above.
10. Nut-meg liver is seen in (S-09)
a) inflammationf b) infarction
c) chronic passive venous congestion, d) fatty change.
11. Which of the following statements about exudate is correct ? (S-09)
a) high protein content. b) specific gravity less than 1002
c) have few cells. d)seen incCF.
12. Heart failure cells are seen in (W-09)
a) heart b) lung c) kidney d) spleen
13. Red infarct is usually seen in (W-09)
a) lung b) kidney c) heart d) spleen.
14. Brown induration of the lung is seen in (S-10)
a) pneumonia b) chronic passive congestion
c) thrombosis d) embolism
15. Following is a primary manifestation of left ventricular failure. (W-10)
►4
^11
A. 11rA.
►4
iw.p.p.o. book With solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by U nique Piiblication

a) generalised adema b) congestive splenomegaly

g) cardiac cirrhosis d) chronic passive congestion of lung.
16. Massive internal bleeding may result in following type of shock.(W-10)
a) hypovolemic b) cardiogenic c) neurogenic d) endotoxic
17. Caissons disease is an example of (S-11)
a) Fat embolism b) Air embolism
c) Thromboembolism d) Bone marrow embolism
18. Venous embolus reaching systemic circulation through an atrial
septal defect is called (S-12)
a) Saddle embolus b) Atheroembolul
c) Paradoxical embolus j d) Mural throm buf #
19. Release of lipopolysaccharides is^ responsible for (W-1 Z\
a) Cardiogenic shock b) Septic shock
c) Hypovolemic shock d) Neurogenic shock
20. Heart failure cells are seen in (S-13)
a) heart b)lung c) kidney . d)‘ spleen
21. Nutmeg liver is seen in. (W-13)
a) Chronic passive congestion tx) Viral hepatitis
c) Hepatic abscess d) Metastatic deposits in liver
22. Three primary influences on thrombus formation (Virchows Triad)
includes all, EXCEPT (W-13)
a) Endothelial injury b) Low Cardiac output
c) Alteration in Normal Blood Flow d) Hypercoagulability
23. Endothelial activation and injury with vasodilation, and activation of .
cytokine cascades is principal mechanism of (W-13)
a) Hypovolemic shock b) Septic shock
c) Cardiogenic Shock d) Neurogenic shock
24. Severe skeletal injuries may result in (W-13)
a) Air embolism
b) .PuimoraryThrombpembolism^
c) Systemic Thromboembolism
d) Fat embolism
25. Fat from vernix caseosa is seen in (S-14)
a) Pulmonary thromboembolism b) Amniotic fluid embolism
c) Fat embolism d) Cholesterol embolism
26. Pale infarct is NOT seen in (W-14)
/ a) liver b) spleen c) lung d) heart
27. The most common features of nephritic syndrome include the
following EXCEPT (W-14)
a) Heavy proteinuria b) Hypertension
c) Microscopic haematuria d) Oliguria
M
^ 12 ^
T ° M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHSMCQS u r - jnamon py u n iq u e ru u iicauon
28. Nephritic oedema differs from nephrotic oedema in having the
following EXCEPT (S-15)
a) Mild oedema b) Distributed on face, eyes
c) Heavy proteinuria d) Occurs in acute glomerulonephritis
29. The most common cause of Pulmonary embolism is (S-15)
a) Cardiac thrombus is left ventricle
b) Aortic aneurysm
c) Deep vein thrombosis
d) Aortic atherosclerotic plaques
30. Heart failure cells are (S-15)
a) Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cells
b) Pigmented alveolar macrophages
c) Pigmented Pancreatic acinar cells
d) Pigmented cells in liver
31. Nutmeg liver is seen in (W-15)
a) Chronic Passive Congestion . b) Fatty liver
c) Acute diffuse necrosis d) Liver infarct
32. The cause of edema in Nephrotic Syndrome is (W-15)
a) Increased hydrostatic pressure.
b) Hypoproteinemia.
c) Hypertension.
d) Hyperlipidemia.
33. White (pale, anemic) infarcts occur in. (S-16)
x a) Lung b) Kidney
c) Small intestine d) Ovarian torsion
35. A 40 years old female immobilised for fracture femur for 12 weeks,
suddenly developed severe dyspnoea. The most probable cause of
dyspnoea in this patient is. (W-16)
a) Venous thromboembolism b) Air embolism
c) Arterial thromboembolism d) Fat embolism
SAQ
1. Amniotic fluid embolism.(S-00)
2. Enumerate differentiating features between necrosis, gangrene and
infarction.(S-OI)
3. Define shock. Enumerate types of shock with examples.(S-05)
4. Define embolism. Write in short about pulmonary thromboembolism.
(W-12)
5. Define oedema. Give classification of oedema. (W-13)
6. Draw a figure showing pathways leading to systemic edema from
primary heart failure. (S-14)
7. What is Virchow triad ? Discuss its role in thrombus formation. (W-14)
M
^ 13 ^
M

/
£- book with solved MUHSMCQs U lmEdition by Unique Publication

8. Exudate and transudate. (S-15)

9. Lung infarct.(S-70)
10. Spleen infarct(S-70)(W-81) ,
11. Kidney infarct.(W-79)(S-82)
12. Paradoxical embolism (S-84) *
13. Mural thrombus.(S-88)
14. Fatembolism.(W-93) *
15. Pathophysiology & categories of oedema. Give examples.(S-97)
16. Types of infarcts with examples.(W-97)
LAQ
1. Define thrombosis and discuss pathogenesis morphology state of
thrombi.(O-02)
2. Define a thrombus. Discuss etiopathology of thrombbsik
Describe fate of a thrombud.(O-$0XS-92,98)(W-94)
3. Define and classify Infarction. Type of Infaecatin in lungs and spleen
indentify. (0 -02)
4. Define thrombosis. Discuss the pathogenesis of thrombosis. (0-03)
5. Define the term embolism. Describe the different types and clinical
significance of embolism. (W-06)
6. Discuss the pathogenesis, types, morphology & fates of a thrombus.
V (S-07)
7. Define embolus. Enumerate different types of embolic. Write in brief
about air embolism.(W-07) (S-15)
8. Describe normal haemostasis. Discuss factors causing thrombosis.
(W-12)
9. Define oedema, mention various types. Describe pathophysiologic
mechanism, gross and microscopic changes in pulmonary oedema.
(W-14)
10. Define thrombus. Discuss the pathogenesis, types, fate and
complications of a thrombus. (W-15) .
11. Define embolism. Discuss different types of embolisms with suitable
examples. (S-16)
12. Define oedema. Describe the mechanism of formation.(S-72,83,87)
13. What is thrombosis ? Discuss the mechanism of thrombus formation and its
fete.(W-75)(S-79,80,90)
14. Define oedema. Describe in detail of pathogenesis of cardiac oedema.
(W-76)
15. What is embolism ? Describe the local and distant effect on organ due to
different types of emboli.(W-78)
16. Define shock. Give the pathogenesis and etiology of shock.(W-81,01)
17. Describe the mechanism of formation of thrombus and mention its varieties.
Mention its fate and harmful effects.(W-84)
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs M ra E dition by Unique Publication
18. Define hyperemia. Describe types of hyperemia. Describe gross &
microscopic features of lung & liver in chronic passive venous congestion.
(S-86)(W-97)
19. Define oedema. Discuss pathogenesis of oedema in congestive cardiac
failure and renal disease. (S-95)
20. Define embolism. Give brief account of different types of emboli and their
face.(W-95)
5. Inflammation and Healing.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. The following are important chemotactlc agents for neutrophil
EXCEPT. (S-03) - '
a) bacterial products b) complement C5a.
c) leukotreine B4. d) interleukin^
2. The cardinal signs of inflammation were first described b y _____
(W-04)
a) rokitansky b) celsus c) galton d) virchow
3. Typhoid fever is an example of (W-04)
a) acute inflammation.
b) chronic nonspecific inflammation.
c) chronic granulomatous inflammation. '
d) chronic suppurative inflammation.
4. Granulation tissue is composed of all the following EXCEPT. (W-04)
a) granulomas b) fibroblasts
c) capillaries d) inflammatory cells
5. Fibroblasts are seen in (W-08)
a) adipose tissue b) granulation tissue
d) myometrium d) muscle fibers
6. All of the following are tumors EXCEPT. (S-09)
a) adenoma b) papilloma c) leiomyoma d) gumma
7. Common cold is an example of (S-09) - ............. — •••• •
aj fibrinous inflammation. b) Pseudomembranous inflammation,
c) suppurative inflammation, d) Catarrhal inflammation.
8. The process of engulfment of solid particle by cell is known as
(W-09)
a) chemotaxis b) pinocytosis
c) emigration d) phagocytosis
9. The source of serotonin in tissues in acute inflammation is (S-10)
a) plasma cell b) endothelial cell c) platelet d) neutrophil
10. Catarrhal inflammation is seen in (S-10)
a) bones b) pleura c) mininges d) mucous membranes.
11. Generalized lymphadenopathy is a manifestation of following stage

'''i
A. 10s*
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs " I I I rdEdition fey Unique Publication
of syphilis. (W-10)
a) congenital b) primary c) secondary d) tertiary.
12. Lepromin test is strongly positive in following type o f leprosy. (W-10)
a) TT b) BB c) BL d) LL
13. Extra pulmonary primary complex of Tuberculosis can be located in
(W-10)
a) brain b) tonsil c) heart d) endometrium
14. One of the following is NOT an example of granulomatous diseases
(S-11)
a) Tuberculosis b) Leprosy c) Sarcoidosis d) Typhoid
15. The most efficient bactericidal system in neutrophils is (S-11)
a) Lysozyme b) H20 2-MPW-halide
c) Lactoferrin d) Major Basic protein
16. All the following are example of secondary tuberculosis EXCEPT
(S-11)
a) Tuberculosis osteomyelitis b) Miliary tuberculosis
e) Ghon’s complex d) Cavitatory pulmonary tuberculosis
17. Following are the manifestations of tertiary syphilis EXCEPT (S-11)
a) Syphilitic aortitis b) Gumma
c) Tabes dorsalis d) Hard chancre
18. Syphilitic gumma occurs in (W-11)
a) Early primary stage b) Late primary stage
c) Secondary stage d) Tertiary stage
19. Which of the chemical mediator contribute most to rubor, calor and
tumor of acute inflammation ? (W-11)
a) Nitric oxide b ) C 5a c) Prostaglandin d) Histamine
20. In acute inflammation the tissue response consists of all EXCEPT
(W-11)
a) Vasodilatation b) Exudation
c) Neutrophilic response d) Macrophage accumulation
21. Pain during inflammation is mainly caused by this mediator ($-12)
a) Tumor necrosis factor b) Histamine
c) Prostaglandins d) C5a
22. Sinuses discharging sulphur granules are classically seen in (S-12)
a) Actinomycosis b) Tuberculosis
c) Maduromycosis d) Sulphur toxicity
23. Mediator of inflammation derived from plasma is
a) Serotonin - b) Prostaglandin
c) Tumour necrosis factor d)B radykinin
24. Acute inflammatory response includes all EXCEPT (W-12)
a) New vessel formation b) Exudation
M
lie !
M . O . D . O . D U U n Will! <J%JIVXJU i n v f f w i r i v ^ —
s

c) Neutrophil activation b) Systemic effects like fever

25. Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy showing non-caseating granulomas
is most characteristic of (W-12)
a) Tuberculosis bj Sarcoidosis
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus d) Leprosy
26. Most essential component of a granuloma is (W-12)
a) Caseation b) Activated lymphocytes
c) Activated macrophages d) Fibroblasts
27. All of the following are examples o f Granulomatous Inflammations,
EXCEPT (W-13)
a) Tuberculoid leprosy b) Sarcoidosis
c) Giardiasis d) Schistosomiasis
28. Granuloma is focal accumulation of activated (W-13)
a) Eosinophils b) Plasma cells
c) Macrophages d) Fibroblasts
29. Keloid is an example of (W-13)
a) Deficient scar formation b) Contractures
c) Excessive repair d) Neoplasis
30. Ghons focus in Lung in primary tuberculosis is often located at(W-13)
a) Upper part of upper lobe b) Lower part of lower lobe
c) Upper part of lower lobe d) Near hilar region
31. The process of leucocyte accumulation at the periphery of vessels is
called as (S-14)
a) Rolling b) Adhesion
c) Margination d) Transmigration
32. Leucocyte rolling is facilitated by (S-14)
a) Seiectins b) Integrins
c) CD31 d) VCAM1
33. Prostaglandins cause the following effects of inflammation (S-14)
a) Vasodilation b) Fever
c) Pain d) All of the above
34. Skin blister resulting from burn is an example of following pattern of
inflammation (S-14)
a) Fibrinous b) Serous
c) Serofibrinous d) Purulent
35. In acute inflammation pain is mediated by (W-14)
a) serotonin b) histamine c) cytokine d) bradykinin
36. Laminin is seen in (W-14)
a) lens b) basement membrane
c) bone d) cartilage
37. Opsonins are (W-14)
14
17
*4
2 nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs ^ iiq u e riiDiication
■- ■ )

a) C3a b) C3b \ c )C 5 ^ 2a^;0 5 -0 9 —complex

r— "
38. Which of the complement components act as ch emokmes ? (S-15)
a ) C4b b )C 3b c)C5a d' C4a
39. Typhoid fever is an example of (S-15)
ay Chronic nonspecific inflammation
b) Acute inflam m ation
c) Phronic suppurative inflammation
d) Chronic granulomatous inflammation
41. Which category o f leprosy is not included in R«dley
classification ? (S-15)
a) Tuberculoid leprosy b) Mid borderlin® 1”
c) Indeterminate leprosy d) Borderline tut>ercu o a leProsy
42. Stable cell include all EXCEPT (W-15)
a) Hepatocytes " m Fibrobiasts
c) Vascular endothelial cells d lN e u rd i1*
43. The characteristic cell of syphilitic inflammd»n is (W’15
a) Monocyte b) Lymphocyte,
c) Neutrophil d \ p i aema Ce ll
44 The four cardinal signs of inflammation were descr'bed by ^W"15^
a) Celsus Vifchow .
c) Metchnikoff J S|r -phomas Lewis
45.
Most important mediator of chernotavio k iW -l5) ,
a)C5a b) C3b c) C2 d ) C5b
46. Granuloma formation is an examole of / q -16)
a) Type I hypersensitivity. ''
b) Type II hypersensitivity.
c) Type III hypersensitivity.
d) Type IV hypersensitivity.
47
Among chemical mediators of inflammation Arachidomc Acid
Metabolites indued all EXCEPT (s 16)
a) thromboxane b) k a llik ’r ein
c) leukotriene d) lipoxin . ,
48 Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy showina noncase3'" 19 granulomas is
most characteristic of (W-16) y
a) Tuberculosis b) sarcoido**5
c) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus d Lep^V
49
are mai° r effeCtS ° f IL' 1/TNF EXCS e E b i l i a
SAQ lnCreaSed proliferation of Fl'broblasts d) Chemotaxis !
1. Gross & Microscopic appearance o f T B o f p r i ^ COmPleX' (W- " )
Z ” u / W .D » D .O . O U U A Will I o u n r u u i n u i IW ** 'l

2. C he motaxi s.(W-00) (W-83,88,90J

3. Giant cell. (S-00)fW-72j
4. Phagocytosis. (S-01)(S-88)(W-86,93,96)
5. Healing of a surgical wound.(S-01)
6. Enumerate products released by activated macrophages.(S-02)
7. Diagram of micro feature o f tubercular granuloma.(S-03)
8. List imp. types of lesions in Secondary Pulmonary tuberculosis.
(W-03)
' 9. Enumerate the differences between transudate and exudate. (S-04)
10. Vascular events in acute inflammation. (W-04)
11. Describe in brief features of a tubercle.(S-06)
12. Give the definition and morphology of granuloma.(S-07)
13. Define granulous. Describe microscopy of tuberculoma. (W-06)
14. Enumerate 8 factors affecting wound healing. (W-07)
15. Mention histomorphological difference between tuberculoid and
lepromatous Jeprosy.(W-07)
16. Mention morphological types of tuberculosis in lung.(W-07)
17. Enumerate complications of wound healing and factors affecting
wound healing.(S-IO)
18. Classify leprosy. Describe microscopy of lepromatous leprosy. (S-12)
19. Describe gross and microscopy of granulation tissue. Enumerate
causes of delayed wound healing. (W-12)
20. Cellular events in acute inflammation. (W-13)
21. Write a note on Ridley and Jopling classification of leprosy. (W-14)
22. Lepromatous Leprosy. (S-15)
23. Chemical mediators of inflammation. (S-15)
24. Enumerate the factors affecting wound healing. (W-15)
25. Discuss the. pathogenesis of primary tubercolosis. (W-15)
26. Describe chemotaxis and phagocytosis. (S-16)
27. Describe gross and microscopic findings in lepromatous leprosy.
(S-16)
28. Enumerate the factors affecting wound healing. (S-17)
29. Define oedema. Give differences between transudate and exudate.
(S-17)
30. Ghon's lesion. (S-70,85)
. 31. Lung in miliary tuberculosis. (S-76,79)
32. Lung in fibrocaseous tuberculosis. (W-76,79,82)
33. Lymph node in tuberculosis. (W-78)
34. Acute inflammation and explain event in acute inflammation. (S-82)
35. Chemical mediators of inflammation.(W-84,85)(S-91,92)
36. Generation of arachidenic acid metabolises their role in inflammation.
►4
1191
M ■
2ncf M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIF *E d itio n by Unique Publication
(S-83)
37. Classification of leprosy. (S-86,88)
38. Lepromatous leprosy.(W-86,88)(S-90,91,96)
> 39. Primary complex.(W-91) * \
40. Exudate and transudate. (W-91,01 )(S-93)
41. Epitheloid cells. (S-92)
42. Tuberculoid leprosy.(W-92,94)
43. Granulation tissue.(W-97)(S-99)
44. Granuloma.(W-97)
LAO
1. Define repair, its varieties and factors affecting it. Describe wound
healing.(W-99,01)(S-02)(W-86,98)(S-90)
2. Define transudate & exudate. Describe the cellularfespbnse in acute
inflammation. (W-00)
3. Define Chronic inflammation. How does it differ from acute
inflammation. Describe in brief chronic infective granuloma. (S-00)
(S-84)(W-84)
4. Define chronic inflammation, mention the etiology of chronic
inflammation. Describe the difference between acute & chronic
inflammation. (S-00)
5. Define chemical mediators of inflammation. Classify them Describe
the functions of plasma derived chemical mediator. (S-01)
6. What is a granuloma ? Describe the different types of granulomas
and describe the evolution of tuberculous granuloma. (S-02)(W-96)
7. Describe healing by first intention. (S-03)
8. What are the essential clinical and pathological features of primary
tuberculosis ? Give a brief description of the lesions in primary
tuberculosis. (S-03)
9. List the important types of lesions seen in secondary pulmonary
tuberculosis. (W-03)
10. Discuss the healing of a fracture. Enumerate factors affecting wound
healing. (S-04)
11. What is repair ? Describe healing of wound by first intention. (S-05)
12. Describe the cellular events in Acute Inflammation. (S-06)
13. Discuss the chronological events in wound healing by first attention.
Discuss the factors affecting wound healing. (S-07)
14. Enumerate the cellular events taking place in acute inflammation.
(S-07)
15. Describe cellular changes in acute inflammation. (S-10)
16. Define inflammation. Enumerate cardinal signs of inflammations.
Describe vascular events in acute inflammation. (S-13)
17. What is exudate ? Describe the mechanism of formation of an inflammatory
1 201
►1
z"aM.B.B.s. book with Solved MUHS MCQs m raEdition by U nique Publication
exudate. (W-72)
18. Define a granuloma. Describe the gross and microscopic appearance of
any one of them.(S-73)
19. What is inflammation ? Describe the vascular changes in acute
inflammation. (W-74,87)
20. Define and classify granulomatous inflammation. Describe the gross and
microscopic appearance of tuberculous granuloma. (S-78)(W-80,89)
. 21. Describe process of healing by primary union. Mention factors that delay
healing. (W-82)
22. Define regeneration and healing. Give an account of healing of long bone.
(S-84)(W-88) u ^
23. Define repair and regeneration. Mention the factors affecting repair process.
Describe healing of wound. (W-92)
24. Define and classify granulomas. Describe the evolution and fate of
tuberculous granuloma. (S-93,94)
25. Define repair, Enumerate the factors affecting repair process and describe
the healing of a simple fracture of bone.(W-93)
26. Define Inflammation. Mention its causes and types. Describe in brief the
vascular and cellular reaction in inflammation. (S-96)
27. What is inflammation ? Write briefly about vascular and cellular events of
inflammation. Write about different morphologic various of inflammation giving
examples. (S-97,98)
28. Define inflammation. Describe the role of chemical mediators in
pathogenesis of acute inf!ammation.(S-97)
29. Discuss the various morphological lesions of pulmonary tuberculosis.
(0-98)
6. Infectious and Parasitic Diseases.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Flask shaped ulcers of the colon are seen in (S-03)
a) ulcerative colitis. b) tuberculosis.
c) amoebic colitis. d) crohn’s disease.
2. Malignant malaria is calised by (W-09) ~ ' '
a) plasmodium vivax b) plasmodium ovale
c) plasmodium falciparum d) plasmodium malariae.
3. Negri bodies are seen in (S-11)
a) Oligodendrocytes b) Neurons
c) Microglia d) Astrocytes
4. Appearance of colonic amoebic ulcer is (W-11)
a) Longitudinal b) Transeverse
c) Flask shaped d) Serpigenous
5. Blackwater fever is seen in (S-12)
a) Filaria b) Malaria c) Rabies d) Toxoplasmosis
M
^21 a
a
w.
. £ 1

M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
6. P. falciparum differs from other plasmodia in following aspects
EXCEPT (S-15)
a) It causes malignant malaria.
b) One red cell may contain more than one parasite.
c) It parasitises only juvenile red cells.
d) It does not have exoerythrocytic stage.
7. All the statements about P. Falciparum are true EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) Red cells are increased in size.
b) Multiple parasites are seen in the red cells.
c) Durck’s granulomas are present in brain.
d) All stages of erythrocytic schizogony are not seen in peripheral
blood.
SAQ
1. Primary chancre. (S-73)
2 Colon in acute amoebic colitis. (W-75,82,89)(S-77)
3. Amoebic ulcer. ($-94)
LAQ
1. Define Pyrexia of Unknown Origin (PUO). Write laboratory diagnosis
in a suspected case of Pyrexia of Unknown Origin. (W-12)
7. Neoplasia.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Desmoplasia is (S-03)
a) increase in dense fibrous stroma.
b) increase in parenchymal cells.
c) increase in cartilage tissue.
d) increase vascularity. .
2. Human papilloma viruses implicated in cancer cervix are (S-03)
a)5and8 b ) 6 a n d 11. c)16&18. d) 19 & 22.
3. The most characteristic feature identifying malignant tumour is (S-03)
^ in v a s io n nuclei
c) metastasis d) pleomorphism of cells
4. Which one of the following is not a malignant tumour. (S-03)
a) melanoma b) lymphoma
c) seminoma d) meningioma
5. High risk of HPV implicated in cervical intraepithelial lesions are
(S-04)
a) 6 & 11. b) 5 & 8. c) 16 & 18. d)19&22.
6. Krukenberg’s tumour of ovary is due to metastasis from (S-04)
a) esophageal carcinoma. b) gastric carcinoma.
c) renal carcinoma. d) all of the above.
7. Epstein barr virus is an etiological agent for (S-04)
^ 22 ^
2ndm .b .b .s . book witn solved muhs mcqs n r uEdition oy unique ruDiication
a) b u rk itt’s lym phom a b) lymphoma,
c) osteo sarcoma. d) astrocytoma.
8. Herpes viruses are implicated in the causation of following human
(S-04)
a) kaposi’s sarcoma b) nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
c) hepatocellular carcinoma d) burkitts lymphoma.
9. Detection of high levels of carcinoembryonic antigen is useful for the
diagnosis of (S-04)
a) carcinoma breast b) carcinoma colon
c) ovarian carcinoma d) all of the above.
10. All the following are tumor markers EXCEPT____ _ (W-04)
a) alfa fetoprotein b) carcinoembryonic antigen
c) prostatic acid phosphatase d) serum amylase
11. Grading of tumors depends upon the following EXCEPT .
(W-04)
a) degree of anaplasia b) metastatic spread,
c) rete of growth of cells d) degree of differentiation.
12. Hamartoma refers to ____ _ . (W-04)
a) mass of disorganised but mature cells indigenous to the part.
b) mass of ectopic rests of normal tissue.
c) tumor arising from totipotent cells.
d) tumor differentiating towards more than one cell line.
13. Krukenberg tumor of ovary denotes. (W-08)
a) bilateral metastatic ovarian tumor.
b) sex cord stromal tumor.
c) lymphoma of ovary.
d) primary surface epithelial tumor of ovary.
14. The abundant collagenous stroma in neoplasia is referred to as ,
(W-08)
a) parenchyma b) desmoplasia c) sarcoma d)choristoma
15. In TNM staging N stands for (W-08)
a) extension of tumor b) spread to distant organ
c) lymph node involvement d) none of the above.
16. The term anaplasia refers to (W-08)
a) agenesis ' b) increase in size. ;
c) metastasis d) lack of differentiation
17. Grading of tumor is based on (S-09)
a) lymph node involvement. b) distant metastasis,
c) tumor size d) degree of differentiation.
18. Type of HPV associated with high risk for cervical cancer is (W-09)
a) type 6. b) type 16. c) type 62. d) type 66.
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs ? I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
19. A true tumor from totipotent cells is (W-09)
a) hamartoma b)embryoma c) teratoma d) choristoma
20. The most important feature that distinguishes malignant tumors from
benign is (W-09)
a) encapsulation. b) metastasis
c) pleomorphism d) hyperchromatism
21. Ectopic vest of normal tissue is called (S-10)
a) hamartoma b) teratoma c) choristoma d) carcinoma
22. Krukenberge tumour results from following mode of tumour spread.
(W-10)
a) lymphatic b) haemotogenous
c) transcoelomic d) iatrogenic
23. Following is a paraneoplastic syndrome. (W-10)
a) hypocalcaemia b) hypercalcaemia
c) hyperglycemia d) hypergammaglobuiinaemia.
24. Staging of malignant tumors includes all of the following EXCEPT
(S-11)
a) Number of mitosis
b) Size of the primary tumor
c) Extent of spread to lymph nodes
d) Presence of distant metastasis
25. Calcitonin is a marker of (S-11)
a) Kwashiorkar b) Paget’s disease
c) Pheochromocytoma d) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
26. The growth factor involved in angiogenesis is
a) FGF b)VEGF c) EGF d) PDGF
27. EB Virus is implicated in-carcinogenesis of (S-12)
a) Cervical cancer b) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c) Bladder carcinoma d) Bronchogenic carcinoma
28. Which of the following is a tumour suppressor gene ? (W-12)
a) MYC b) JUN c) FOS d) RB
29. All of the following are examples of embryonal tumour EXCEPT.
(W-12)
a) Wilm’s tumour b) Lymphoma
c) Retinoblastoma v d) Medulloblastoma
30. The abundant collagenous stroma in neoplasia is referred as (S-13)
a) Parenchyma b) Desmoplasia c) Sarcoma d) Choristoma
31. In TNM staging N stands for (S-13)
a) Extension of tumor b) Spread to distant organ
c) Lymph node involvement d) None of the above
32. A true tumor arising from totipotent stem cell is (S-13)
M
a.
►
i
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) hamartoma b) embryoma
c) teratoma d) choristoma
33. Following tumour is commonly associated with paraneoplastic
syndrome (S-13)
a) Bronchogenic carcinoma b) Rhabdomyosarcoma
c) Squamous cell carcinoma d) Transitional cell carcinoma
34. An example of Oncogenic RNA virus is (W-13)
a) HTLV -1 b) HBV
c) EBV d) HPV
35. Following viral infection is causative factor for Carcinoma of uterine
cervix (W-13)
a) Cytomegalo virus (CMV) b) Ebstein Barr virus (EBV)
c) Human papilloma virus (HPV) d) Herpes-simplex virus (H$V)
36. Following is the rarely metastasizing tumor (S-14)
a) Melanoma b) Myeloma c) Gliomas d) Seminoma
37. CA-125 is widely used marker for the cancer of the following organ
(S-14)
a) Colon b) Breast c) Ovary d) Lung
38. An example of tumor suppressor gene is (W-14)
a) myc b) fos c) Rb d) ras
39. Hamartomas are (W-14)
a) hemangiomas b) hematomas
c) developmental malformation d) antibiomas
40. Grading of tumours depends upon the following EXCEPT (S-15)
a) Degree of anaplasia b) Metastatic spread
c) Rate of growth of cells d) Degree of differentiation
41. Mutations affecting germ cells produce (S-15)
a) Congenital malformations b) Inherited diseases
c)Aneuploidy d) Cancers
42. Para-neoplastic syndromes are most commonly associated with
(W-15)
a) Lung carcinoma b) Pancreatic carcinomas
c) Breast carcinomas d) Gastrointestinal carcinomas
43. Which one is NOT a manifestation of internal malignancy ? (W-16)
a) Acanthosis nigricans.
b) Erythema nodosum.
c) Migratory thrombophlebitis.
d) Dermatomyositis.
SAQ
1. Define :- Neoplasia.(S-02)
2. Enumerate oncogenic viruses with example of cancer caused by each.

l2 5 l
►4
•2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
(S-12)
3. Classify bone tumors. Write radiologic, gross and microscopic
features of osteoclastoma. (S-12) x
4. Write short note on paraneoplastic syndromes. (W-12)
5. Enumerate oncogenic viruses with examles o f cancer caused by each.
(S-13)
6. Describe in brief laboratory diagnosis of cancer. (S-13)
7. Classify hodgkin’s disease and describe a Reed Sternberg cell.
(S-13)
8. Describe morphology of anaplastic tumor cells. (S-14)
9. Neoplasms found in patients with HIV infection. (S-14)
10. Discuss the role of tumour markers and their role in diagnosis.
(W-14)
11. Precancerous lesions. (W-16)
12. MEN Syndrome. (W-16)
LAQ
1. Define neoplasm. Explain the difference between benign and
malignat neoplasms.Discuss spread of malignant neoplasms. (S-99)
(S-75,87)(W-79,90)
2. Lab. diagnosis of cancer. (S-00)(S-95)
3 Diet and cancer. (S-00)(S-90J
4. Give a brief account of carcinogenesis. Describe the spread of
malignant tumours.(W-00)(S-92)
5. Chemical Carcinogens. (W-00)(W-76,83,84,93)(S-82)
6. Give a brief account of carcinogenesis. Describe the spread of
malignant tumours. (W-00)(S~92)
7. List difference between Carcinoma in site and precanserous lesion.
(W-00)
8. What is meant by carcinogenesis ? Classify important chemical
carcinogen.(S-OI)
9. Define neoplasm. Discuss their etiology & modes of spread. (W-01) rn
(S-71,83,86,94)(W-87,88)
.
10. Molecular basis of cancer. Give 2 example. (S-02) ‘ ’^
11. List important features of transcoelomic spread of neoplasm. (W-02)
12. Enumereate modes of spread of tumors with example.(S-03)
13. Define and classify Neoplasia. Explain factors in carcinnogenesis.
(S-03)
14. Neoplasm. Four example of cancers due to habits and customs.
(W-03)
15. Paraneoplastic syndromes with four examples.(W-03)
16. Define neoplasms. What is metastases? Describe various methods

I# :
- f$ -'
I
i
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHSMCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
of spread of tumours.(S-04)
17. Define neoplasia. Write the differences between benign & malignant
neoplasms. Write laboratory diagnosis of neoplasia. (W*04)(S-16)
18. Write the various pathways of spread of cancer. Describe the
mechanisms of invasion and metastasis of tumor.(S-05)
19. Difference between benign & malignant tumours.(S-06)O82,083,097.
20. Mention laboratory diagnosis of Tumors.(W-06)
21. Enumerate modes of spread of malignant tumor. Describe in brief
mechanism of each.(W-07)
22. Enumerate the modes of spread of malignancies with examples.
(S-07)
23. Enumerate 8 precancerous lesions.(W-07)
24. Define neoplasia. Enumerate the differences between benign and
malignant tumor. Add a note on teratoma.(S-10,15)
25. Define metastasis. Describe the mechanism in brief and routs of
metastasis. (S-12)(W-12)
26. Define Neoplasia. Discuss Pathways of spread of Malignant Neo
plasm. (W-13)
27. Enumerate major chemical carcinogens. Describe mechanisms of
action o f chemical carcinogens. (S-14)
28. Define, neoplasia. Describe the various steps in chemical
carcinogenesis with Suitable examples. (W-14)
29. Define neoplasia. Enumerate the differences between benign and
malignant neoplasm. Mention different modes of metastasis. (W-15)
30. Give differences between benign and malignant neoplasms. Discuss
routes of spread of malignant neoplasms with suitable examples.
(S-17)
31. Characteristics of malignant cells. (W-75)
32. Metastasis. (W-76)
33. Malignant cachexia (W-83)(S-94)
34. Spread of tumours. (S-85)(W-97)
35. Enumerate pre-cancerous lesions. Describe gross pathology and behaviour
of oropharyngeal carcinomas. (S-85)
36. Discuss lab. diagnosis of neoplasms. (W-85,91)
37. Precancerous lesions. (W-86)(S-89,94,96,98)
38. Early detection of cancer. (S-87)
39. Carcinoma in situ. (W-93)
40. Describe chemical carcinogenesis. Discuss lab. diagnosis of cancer.(S-95)
Tumour Markers. (S-96)
41. Viruses and cancer. (W-96)
42. Effects of tumour on host. (S-97)
43. Characteristics of benign tumour. (W-97)

A .*-1 A
>4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
44. Oncogenes & Cancer. (W-97)
8. Environmental & Nutritional disease.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Obesity is due to ___ _ . (W-04)
a) hyperplasia of adipocytes only.
b) hypertrophy of adipocytes only.
c) hyperplasia and hypertrophy of adipocytes.
d) fatty change in lever only
2. Which of the following is most likely associated with fat soluble
vitamin deficiency ? (W-11)
a) Glossitis b) Dementia
c) Night blindness d) Perifollicular haemorrhage
3. Edema in Kwashiorkar is predominantly due to (S-16)
a) Increased hydrostatic pressure.
b) Reduced plasma osmotic pressure.
c) Lymphatic obstruction.
d) Sodium retention.
SAQ
1. Important manifestation of Vit. A defi.(S-03) .
2. Scurvy. (S-72)
3. Rickets. (W-72)
LAQ
1. What are the causes of malabsorption syndrome. Discuss laboratory
investigations in a case of malabsorption syndrome.(S-92)
9. Genetic and Paediatric Diseases.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The material accumulating in Gaucher’s cell is (S-03)
a) glycogen. b) glucocerebroside.
c) lipid. d) chondroitin.
2. Deletion of small arm of chromosome 11 is seen in (S-11)
a) W ilm ’s tum or b) Retinoblastoma
c) Osteogenic sarcoma d) Colonic carcinoma
3. Barr body is absent in (S-11)
a) Klinfelter’s syndrome b) Turner’s syndrome
c) Triple X syndrome d) Fragile X syndrome
4. XO genotype is seen in (S-12)
a) Turner’s Syndrome b) Klinefelters Syndrome
c) Kartagener’s Syndrome d) Hermaphrodites
5. Telomerase activity is undetectable in (S-12)
a) Stem cells b) Germ cells
M
128 I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition fey Unique Publication
c) Cancer cells d) Normal somatic cells
6. Disorder resulting from single gene mutation is called (W-12)
a) Mendelian b) Heredofamilial
c) Chromosomal d) Congenital
7. Which of the following is an X-Linked disorder ? (W-12)
a) Hereditary spherocytosis
b) G-6PD deficiency
c) Familial polyposis coli
d) Adult polycystic kidney disease
8. Hereditary breast cancer can be attributed to two highly penetrant
autosomal dominant genes (S-12)
a) PTEN & KAI b) BRCA1 & BRCA 2
c) VHL gene and PRCC d) RB gene
9. Karyotype 47, XXY is seen in. (S-16)
a) Turner Syndrome b) Klinefelter Syndrome
c) Edwards Syndrome d) Patau Syndrome
SAQ
1.Kli nefelter's synd rom e.(S -00) (W-86) (S-98)
2.Barr Body.(S-OO)
3. Sex chromatin.(S-01 ,Q2)(W-70)(S-71,96)
4. Enumerate transmission patterns (Modes of inheritance) of single
gene disorder with appropriate example of each.(W-07)
5. Klinefelter’s syndrome. (S-13)
6. Describe Trisomy 21. (S-14)
7. Define and classify teratoma. Mention extragonadal sites of its
occurrence. (W-14)
8. Down’s syndrome. (W-16)
9. Caucher's Cell.(S-96)(W-92)
LAQ .. ........
1. Characteristics of downs syndrome.(W-02)
2. Teratoma.(S-01 )(W-72,73)(S-86,87,90)
SECTION- 2
HAEMATOLOGY AND LYMPHORETICULAR TISSUES
10. Introduction to Haematopoietic System and Disorders
o f Erythroid Series.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Which of the following is not a result of intravascular haemolysis ?
(S-03)
a) haemoglobinaemia b) haemoglobinuria
c) methemalbuminaemia d) haematuria.
M
1 29 1
2 nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
2. In which of the following conditions, erythropoietin is not raised ?
(S-03)
a) megaloblastic anaemia b) sickle cell anaemia
c) anaemias of chronic renal failure d) thalassemias
3. Hypocellular marrow is a feature of (S-03)
a) haemolytic anaemia b) megaloblastic anaemia
(, c) aplastic anaemia d) iron deficiency anaemia
4. In iron deficiency anaemia, values of the following are decreased
EXCEPT. (S-03)
a) M.C.V. (Mean corpuscular Volume).
b) serum iron
c) mean Corpuscular Haemoglobin
d) total iron binding capacity
5. Iron deficiency anaemia in an older male with no obvious reasons
should call for a search for (S-03)
a) gastrointestinal cancer b) lung cancer
c) liver cancer d) renal cancer
6. Increased erythrocyte sedimentations rate (E.S.R.) is seen in all of
the following EXCEPT. (S-03)
a) iron deficiency anaemia b) tuberculosis
c) rheumatoid arthritis d) polycythemia
7.. Large irregular vegetations over hanging the free margins of valves
and extending into chordae and cusps are (S-04)
a) rheumatic heart disease.
b) systemic lupus erythematosus.
c) infective endo carditis.
d) non bacterial thrombotic endocarditis.
8. Total iron binding capacity in serum is increased in ______. (W-04)
a) thalassemia. b) iron deficiency anaemia.
c) haemochromatosis d) pernicious anaemia.
9. In aplastic anaemia there is . (W-04)
a) relative neutrophilia, b) relative lymphocytosis.
c) microcytosis. d) normal reticulocyte count.
10. Anaemia associated with increased osmotic fragility is (W-08)
a) aplastic anaemia. b) hereditary spherocytosis,
c) megaloblastic anaemia d) sickle cell anaemia.
11. Folic acid deficiency is caused by (W-08)
a) deficiency of intrinsic factor b) fish tapeworm infection
c) intestinal malabsorption. d) hypothyroid state
12. Peripheral blood smear picture in megaloblastic anaemia is
characterised by (S-09)
M
1301
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) normocytic normochromic. b) microcytic hypochromic
c) macro-ovalocytes and hyper d) lymphocytosis
13. Autospleenectomy is a feature of (W-09)
a) sickle cell anaemia, b) alpha thallassemia.
c) beta thallassemia d) auto immune hemolytic anaemia.
14. The commonest cause of microcystic hypochromic anaemia is(W-09)
a) thallassemia b) megaloblastic anaemia.
c) iron deficiency anaemia d) sideroblastic anaemia
15. Reticulocytosis is a feature of (S-10)
a) iron deficiency anaemia b) megaloblastic anaemia
c) aplastic anaemia d) hemolytic anaemia
16. All of the following are associated with an elevated ESR EXCEPT.
(S-10)
a) iron deficiency anaemia b) sickle cell anaemia,
c) rheumatic fever 4 d) rheumatoid arthritis.
17. Haemoglobin F has. (S-10)
a) two alpha chains and two b§ta chains.
b) two alpha chains and two gamma chains.
c) two alpha chains and two delta chains.
d) two beta chains and two delta chains.
18. All of the following are established cause of aplastic anaemia
EXCEPT (S-10)
a) prolonged exposure to benzene.
b) exposure to ionizing radiation.
c) epstein barr virus infection.
d) chloramphenicol therapy.
19. In acute rheumatic fever, the collections of inflammatoiy cells made
up of lymphocytes, plasma cells, plump macrophages around collagen
is called. (s-10) .... ... . M
a) aschoff bodies b) epithelioid cell granuloma
c) ghons complex d) none of the above.
20. Sickle cell anaemia is a following type of genetic disorder. (W-10)
a) autosomal dominant b) autosomal recessive
c) X-linked recessive d) X-linked dominant
21. In Thalassemia the abnormality is (S-12)
a) Abnormal alpha chains
b) Abnormal beta chains
c) Deficient synthesis of globin chains
d) Abnormal globin chain due to single amino acid mutation
22. MCV less than 80 is seen in all EXCEPT (S-12)
a) Iron deficiency anemia b) Thalassemia
M
^A. 0311 A.
^
►V
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Sideroblastic anemia d) Megaloblastic anemia
23. MCV less than 80 is seen in all EXCEPT (W-12)
a) Iron deficiency anemia
b) Anemia of chronic renal disease
c) Sideroblastic anemia
r d) Thalassemia
24. Auto splenectomy is a feature of (S-13)
a) Sickle cell anemia b) Alpha thalassemia
c) Beta thalassemia d)Auto immune hemolytic anemia
25. The commonest cause o f microcytic hypochromic anemia is (S-13)
a) thalassemia b) iron deficiency anemia
c) megalo blastic anemia d) sidero blastic anemia
26. Macrocytosis corelates with high value of (W-13)
a) Haemoglobin b) RBC Count
c) PCV d) MCV
27. Following clinical feature is characteristically absent in aplastic
anemia (S-14)
a) Splenomegaly b) Reticulocytopenia
c) Macrocytic normochromic RBCs d) Neutropenia
28. Most common manifestation of DIC is (S-15)
a) Thrombosis b) Bleeding
c) Organ damage • d) Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
• 29. Bone marrow hematopoietic cells are example of. (S-16)
a) Labile cells b) Stable cells
c) Permanent cells d) Quiescent cells
30. RBC cytoskeletal membrane protein defect is present in. (S-16)
a) Sickle Cell Disease b) Thalassemia
c) Spherocytosis d) G6PD deficiency
31. Father has Sickle cell disease (homozygous). Mother is normal.
Chances of children having sickle cell trait and sickle cell disease
are. (W-16)
a) 50% and 50% b) 25% and 25%
c) 100% and 0 % d) 75 % and 25 %
SAQ
1. Factors determining the values ESR.(S-99)
2. Describe investigations in macrocytic anaemia.(S-99)
3. Blood components.(S-99)
4. Sickle ce\\s.(\N-99)(W-78)(S-92)
5. Lab. investigation in sickle cell disease.(W-01)
6. Describe megaloblast.(W-02)
7. Mention the indications for Direct and Indirect Coombs test.(S-04)

l32l
►4
 2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
8. Blood picture in megaloblastic anaemia. (S-05)O72,76.
9. Write the laboratory findings in a case of Iron deficiency anaemia.
(W-06)
10. Describe PS and BM findings in Megaloblastic anemia. (W-06)
11. Draw a well labelled diagram of peripheral smear in megaloblastic
anaemia. (S-12)
1 12. Mention the indications for direct and indirect Coomb's test. (W-14)
13. Megaloblast (S-15)(S-72)(W-79,82,91)
14. Hematological findings in a case of Megaloblastic anaemia. (W-16)
15. Coomb’s Test. (W-16)(S-71,75)88I94)(W-79,84,90,94,96)
15. Reticulocyte count. (W-70,74,75,77)
16. Blood picture in iron deficiency anaemia.(S-71)(W-83)
17. Abnormal haemoglobin.(W-71)(S-73,84)
18. M.C.V. (S-73)
19. Blood picture in pernicious anaemia.(S-74)
20. Electrophoresis. (W-83)
21. Reticulocytes. (S-84)(W-81,88,97)
22. Lab. investigation for diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia.(S-85)(W-93,97)
23. P.C.V. (W-86)
24. HbS.(W-88)
25. Blood indices. (S-90,94)
26. Indications of bone marrow examination. (S-90,93,95)(W-90)
27. Peripheral smear in a case of hemolytic anaemia.(S-94)
28. Importance of study of bone marrow in hematological disorders.(W-96)
29. Laboratory investigations in megaloblastic anaemia.(S-97)
LAQ
1. Define anaemia. Enumerate various causes of macrocytic anaemia.
Describe lab. investigations in a case of megaloblastic anaemia.
(W-99)(S-01 )(S-94)
2. Classify haemolytic anaemias. Discuss laboratory investigations for
diagnosis of haemolytic anaemia.(S-00)(W-96,84,85,88,91)
3. Define and classify anaemia. Discuss Lab. investigation in Iron
deficiency anaemia.(W-01)
4. Define and classify anemia. Laboratory diagnosis of megaloblastic.
(S-03,06)
5. Selection of blood diagnosis.(S-03)
6. Give the classification of anaemias. Discuss the laboratory diagnosis
of sickle cell disease. (S-04)
7. Classify anemia according to mechanisms of its production. Describe
the etiology and hematological features of iron deficiency anemia.
(S-05)
8. Discuss the approach to laboratory diagnosis in a case of haemolytic
M
^ 33 ^
A. A.*
*4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
anaemia,(S-07)
9. Classify anemias. Describe laboratory investigations in iron deficiency
anemia.(W-07)
10. Define and classify anaemia. Describe investigations in haemolytic
anaemia. (S-10)
11. Classify hemolytic anemias. Enumerate tests for diagnosis of
hemoglobinopathies with principle. (S-12)
12. Classify anaemias. Discuss Laboratory Diagnosis o f Iron Deficiency
Anaemia. (W-13)
13. Enumerate causes of megaloblastic anemia. Describe its peripheral
blood and bone marrow findings. (S-14)
14. Enumerate the causes of macrocytic anaemia. Give the peripheral
smear and bone marrow findings in a case of megaloblastic anaemia.
(W-14)
15. Define and classify anaemia. Describe investigations in Iron deficiency
anaemia. (S-15)
16. Define anaemia. Give classification of anaemia. Enumerate
laboratory investigations in hemolytic anaemia. (W-15)
17. Write classification of anaemia. Discuss laboratory investigations of
iron deficiency anaemia. (S-16)
18. Describe the laboratory investigations to diagnose a case of
megaloblastic anaemia. (S-17)(S-86)
19. Discuss broad mechanisms of hemolytic anaemia. (W-86)
20. Laboratory investigations of nutritional anaemia.(W-87)(S-90)
21. Enumerate various causes of macrocytic anaemia. Discuss laboratory
investigations in a case of megaloblastic anaemia.(S-92)
22. Classify haemolytic anaemia. Give an account of thalassaemia. (W-92)
23. Discuss lab investigations in a case of haemolytic anaemia. (W-95)
24. a] Importance of study of Bone marrow in haematological disorders.
b] Describe utility of peripheral blood examinations. (S-98)
11. Disorders o f Paltelets, Bleeding Disorders and Basic
Transfusion Medicine.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Deficiency of factor VIII (Eight) causes. (S-03)
a) megaloblastic anaemia b) thalassaemia
c) sickle cell anaemia d) haem ophilia
2. Hess’s tourniquet test is useful in assessing. (S-03)
a) placental defect b) fibrinogen defect
c) coagulation factor deficiency d) plasminogen activity
3. Following serological tests are routinely done on donors blood
EXCEPT _ . (W-04)

A A.
' M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a)V D R Ltest b) HIV test c) widal test d) HBsAg test
4. Normal platelet count is . . . (W-04)
a) 5000-40,000 per cumm b) 15000 - 40000 per cumm
c) 150000 - 400000 per cumm.d) 1.5 million - 4.5 million per dL.
5. Prolonged prothrombin time indicateds deficiency of (W-04)
a) factor XI. b) factor XII c) factor IX d) factor VII.
f , 6. Person with Bombay blood group does not have______ (W-04)
a) H antigen b) D antigen
c) Ig G. d) complement C3G.
7. DIC may be caused by (W-08)
a) snake-bite b) amniotic fluid embolism
c) septicaemia d) all of the above.
8. Deficiency of factor VIII causes. (W-08)
a) thallassemia b) Sickle cell disease,
c) haemophilia d) polycythemia
9. The anticoagulant which acts by inactivating thrombin is (W-08)
a) oxalate b) EDTA c) heparin d) sodium citrate
10. The following diseases can be transmitted by blood EXCEPT. (S-09)
a) AIDS b) malaria c) hepatitis-A d) hepatitis-B
11. In Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, bone marrow aspiration shows
increased number of (S-09)
a) megaloblasts b) myeloblasts
c) lymphoblasts d) megakaryocytes
12. Anti-Rh antibody belongs to (S-09)
a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE
13. Bombay blood group phenotype have all the following abtibodies
EXCEPT (S-09)
a)anti-D b)anti-A c)anti-B d)anti-H.
14. Blood group of the person WITHOUT antigen A, B and H on red cells
and having anti-H is serum is (W-09)
a) O b) bombay blood group
c) AB d) Rh negative blood group.
15. Whole blood can be stored in blood bank refrigerator for 35 days with
anticoagulant. (W-09)
a) CPD-Ar b) CPD c)ACD d)ACD-Ar
16. The defect in intrinsic pathway of coagulation is detected by (W-09)
a) bleeding time b) prothrombin time
c) thrombin time d) activated partial thromboplasm time
17. Blood is stored in the blood bank at (S-10)
a) 0°C. b) 4°-6°C. c) 10°-20°C. d)-20°C.
18. Malaria can show (W-10)
^ 35 ^
A. A.
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) thrombocytosis b)thrombocytopaeina
c) thrombocythaemia d) thrombasthenia
19. Which of the following sign is indicative of coagulation disorder rather
than platelet disorder ? (W-11)
a) Easy bruising b) Patechiae
c) hemarthrosis d) Ecchymosis o
20. Which of the following will most likely show normal percentage of
eosinophils in peripheral blood smear ? (W-11) Q:
a) Drug allergy b) Filariasis : ')
c) Leprosy d) Hookworm infestation
21. Which of the following differentiates pernicious anaemia from other
findings of megaloblastic anaemia ? (W-11) 'd
a) Megaloblastic bone marrow
b) Hypersegmented neutrophils in PBS 0
c) Achlorhydria
d) Pancytopenia
22. Intravascular hemolysis is seen in (S-12)
a) Sickle cell disease b) Hereditary spherocytosis
c) Thalassemia d) Mismatched blood transfusion
23. Prothrombin Time is increased in all EXCEPT (S-12)
a) Vitamin K Deficiency b) Disseminated Intravascular coagulation
c) Factor VII deficiency d) Factor VIII deficiency
24. Diagnostic test for disseminated intravascular coagulation is (W-12)
a) Prolonged prothrombin time
b) Presence of D-dimer
c) Prolonged APTT
d) Thrombocytopenia
25. Which of the following is a Vitamin C dependant factor ? (W-12)
a) Factor VIII . b) Factor XII
c) Factor IX d) Protein C and S
26. Deficiency of factor, VI11 causes (S-13)
a) Thalassemia b) Sickle cell disease
c) Polycythaemia d) Hemophilia
27. What is blood group of person with anti-H in serum and no antigen
(A,B and H) on the red cells ? (S-13)
a) 0 group b) Bombay blood group
c) A B group d) Rh negative blood group
28. The defect in intrinsic path way of coagulation is detected by (S-13)
a) bleeding time b) prothrombin time
c) thrombin time d) activate partial thrombplastin time
29. Bleeding Time is marker for function of (W-13)
>4 ■I
i3 6 : ■
4
2 ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) Clotting factors b) Platelets
c) Complements d) RBCs
30. Hemophilia A is transmitted as (W-13)
a) Autosomal dominant disorder b) Autosomal recessive disorder
c ) X -lin k e d disorder d) Y -linked disorder
31. Anticoagulant used in Blood Bank, for donors blood bag unit,
contains (W-13)
a) Citrate b) EDTA c) Oxalate d) Heparin
32. Christmas disease (Hemophilia B) an eponym is named after (S-14)
' a) Hematologist b) Tree
c) Holiday d) First patient
33. Cause of UP is (W -14)
a) vasculitis b) antibody to vascular epithelium
c) antibody to platelets d) antibody to clotting factors
34. Christmas disease or Hemophilia B is due to deficiency of (W-15)
a) Factor VI b) Factor VIII c) Factor IX d) Factor X
35. Hemolytic disease of new born due to Rh incompatibility can occur in
second baby when. (S-16)
a) Rh+ baby, mother is Rh Negative and first baby was Rh negative.
b) Rh Negative baby, mother is Rh+ and first baby was Rh+.
c) Rh+ baby, mother is Rh+ and first baby was Rh Negative.
d) Rh+ baby, mother Is Rh negative and first baby was Rh+.
36. Under appropriate storage conditions in blood bank, shortest shelf
life is for (S-16)
a) Packed Cells (RBC concentrate).
b) Platelet concentrate.
c) FFP (Fresh Frozen Plasma).
d) Cryoprecipitate.
37. Laboratory anticoagulant used for ESR by Westergren Method is.
(S-16)
a) Double oxalate b) Sodium fluoride
c) EDTA d) Sodium citrate
38. In Vit. K deficiency, the diagnostic investigative finding is (W-16)
a) PT prolonged.
b) APTT prolonged.
c) Fibrinogen levels increased.
d) Hyperaggregation of platelets to various agonists.
39. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation occurs most commonly in.
(W -16)
a) Air embolism b) Thromboembolism
c) Amniotic fluid embolism d) Fat embolism
►4
A. ° 1 A.
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
SAQ ' : — — — — —

1. Blood component therapy. QN-§9)(W-83,93)(S-88,92)

2. Rh factor.(S-00)(S-70,79)(W-71J
3. List 4 early and 3 late complication of blood transfusion.(W-02)
4. Define DIC. Give four causes of DIC. (S-06)(W-Q6)
5. Enumerate any 4 causes of DIC.(W-06)
6. Define thrombus. Enumerate complications of thrombus. (S-12)
7. Write about the major fractions of blood and their utility. (W-12)
8. Criteria for selection of blood donor. (S-13)
9. Investigation of suspected blood transfusion reaction. (W-13)
10. Enumerate the causes of thrombocytopenia. (S-14)
11. Prothrombin time-Principle of the test and causes increased
prothrombin time. (W-15)
12. Criteria for selection of a blood donor. (W-15)(S-17)
13. Write a note on haemophilia. (S-16)(S-71,73,81)
13. E.S.R. (S-70,87,93)(W-72,79,93,88,89)
14. Platelets. (S-72,86,87)(W-91)
15. Hazards of blood transfusion. (S-75)
16. Rh blood group system. (S-83)
17. Blood transfusion reactions. (S-85,87)
18. Human blood group system. (W-85) ‘
19. Criteria in selection of a blood donor. (S-86,90)(W-87,91,94)
20. Prothrombin time. (S-91)
21. Blood transfusion. (W-92)
22. Lab. inv. in a case of mismatched transfusion. (S-93,94,95)(W-97)
23. Prothrombin time. (S-95,97)
24. Describe the lab. inv. in case of haemorrhagic disorders. (S-95)
25. Infections transmitted via blood transfusion. (W-95)
26. Investigations done in mismatched blood transfusion. (S-97)
27. Screening of blood bank donors. (W-98)
28. Lab investigations in haemorrhagic disorders. (W-93)
LAQ
1. Describe tests performed on donor's blood in blood bank to prevent
transmission of diseases to recipient. (W-00)(S-96J
2. Discuss different types of transfusion reaction.(S-OI)
3. Investigations and management in a case of mismatched blood
transfusions.(S-02)(W-83,85,88,97)(S-91,96)
4. Explain hots for diagnosis of coagulation disorders. (W-02)
5. What is the significance of blood grouping? Describe laboratory
investigations in a case of mismatched transfusion reaction. (W-04)
6. How will you select a blood donor ? What are transfusion reactions ?
(W-06)
M
1381
M
2 ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
7. Write the different transfusion reactions and investigations done in a
case of blood transfusion reaction.(S-10)
8. Define haemophilia. Describe briefly a cash of mismatched blood
transfusion. (S-83)
"l
9. Give a detailed account of preparation of utility of blood components used
■ for transfusion. (W-95)
12. Disorders o f Leucocytes & Lvmphoreticular Tissues.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Auer rods are seen in. (S-03)
a) acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.
b) chronic lymphoblastic leukaemia.
c) chronic myeloid leukaemia.
d) acute myeloid leukaem ia.
2. Splenomegaly may be absent in (S-03)
a) chronic malaria. ' b)kalaazar.
c) chronic myeloid leukaemia. d) sickle cell anaemia.
3. In Hodgkins disease, lacunar type of Reed-sternberg cell is a feature
of (S-03)
a) lymphocyte predominance type.
b) nodular sclerosis type.
c) mixed cellularity type.
d) lymphocyte-depletion type.
4. The origin of Reed-Sternberg cell is (S-03)
a) macrophage. b) p-lym phocyte.
c) neutrophil. d) plasma cell.
5. Philadelphia chromosome is associated with (S-03)
a) chronic lymphocytic leukemia b) hairy cell leukemia
c) chronic myeloid leukemia d) acute myeloid leukemia
6. Russell body is seen in (S-03)
a) lymphocyte b) histiocyte c) plasma cell d) neutorphil
7. For the diagnosis of acute leukaemia the blasts in the bone marrow
should be more than (S-03)
a) 5% b) 10% c) 20% d) 30%
8. Massive enlargement of spleen (Below umbilicus) may occur
generally following. (S-04)
a) C.V.C. of spleen. b) chronic myeloid leukaemia,
c) acute lymphatic leukaemia. d) acute myeloid leukaemia.
9. Auar rods are characteristic feature o f__________. (W-04)
a) myeloblast. b) monoblast
c) normoblast d) lym phoblast
10. In FAB classification MO is (W-08)

1 3 9 1
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) preleukemia
b) treated leukemia
c) no blasts in peripheral smear
d) minimally differentiated AML.
11, The lympho histiocytic (L & H) variant of Reed Sternberg Cells, called
as “Popcorn Cell” is seen in whic of the following types of Hodgkin’s
lymphoma ? (S-09)
a) nodular sclerosis. b) mixed cellularity.
c) lymphocyte predominance, d) lymphocyte depletion.
12. Gum hypertropy is commonly associated with (S-09)
a) ALL b) CML c) AML-MA d) multiple myeloma.
13. Philadelphia chromosome is seen in (W-09)
a) acute myeloid leukemia. b) acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
c) chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
d) chronic myeloid leukemia.
14. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is most commonly seen in
(S-10)
a) AML-Mr b)AML-M2. c)AML-M3. d) AML-M4.
15. Multiple myeloma shows following type of radiological lesion in the
bones. (W-10)
a) osteoblastic b) osteolytic c) osteoclerotic d) mottled
16. Typhoid fever usually shows. (W-10)
a) eosinophilia b) basophilia
c) leucocytosis d) leucopaenia
17. Disseminated intravascular coagulation occurs as a complication, more
frequently in case of (S-11)
a) AML M7 b) AML M6 c) AML M3 d) AML M1
18. Malignant tumor in the following list is (W-11)
a) Fibroma b) Lymphoma c) Leiomyoma d) Lipoma
19. Neutrophilic leucocytosis is seen in all of the following EXCEPT
(W-11)
a) Lobar pneumonia b) Acute Appendictitis
c) Enteric fever d) Osteomyelitis
20. Mycosis fungoides affects (S-11)
a) T cells b) B cells c) NK cells d) None of the above
21. All of the following are plasma cell dyscrasias EXCEPT (W-11)
a) Multiple myeloma b) Multiple sclerosis
c) Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia d) Primary amyloidosis
22. All are Myeloproliferative diseases EXCEPT (S-12)
a) Chronic lymphatic Leukemia b) Chronic myeloid leukemia
c) Polycythemia Vera d) Primary myelofibrosis
M
I4 0 l
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
23. Meningeal infiltration is commonest in (W-12)
a) CML b) AML c) CLL d) ALL
24. The Hodgkin lymphoma showing “lacunar cells” is (W-12)
a) Mixed cellularity b) Lymphocyte depletion
c) Lymphocyte predominance d) Nodular sclerosis
25. Philadelphia chromosome is seen as characteristic feature in (S-13)
a) acute myeloid leukemia b) acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c) chronic myeloid leukemia d) chronic lymphocytic leukemia
26. The process of engulfment of solid particles by cells is known as
(S-13) *
a) chemotaxis b) pinocytosis
c) emigration d) phagocytosis
27. Massive splenomegaly is a feature of (S-13)
a) Splenitis b) Typhoid fever'
c) Systemic lupus erythematosis d) Storage disease
28. Which type of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma has best prognosis ? (S-13)
a) Nodular sclerosis b) Lymphocyte predominance
c) Mixed cellularity d) Lymphocyte depletion
29. Hodgkin lymphoma that exhibits "Pop corn" type of Reed-Sternberg
cell. (S-14)
a) Lymphocyte predominance b) Mixed cellularity
c) Lymphocyte depletion d) Lymphocyte rich
30. AML is characterized by (W-14)
a) Philadelphia chromosome b) auer rods
c) dohle bodies d) haemolytic anaemia
31. Drum-stick appendages seen in neutrophils in stained blood film in
females are (W-14)(S-15)
a) 3-6% b) >20% c) 10-20% d) 21-30%
32. Disseminated Intravascular coagulation is seen in (W-15)
a) AML M1 . b) AML M3 c) AML M4 d) AML M2
33. The most common type of Hodgkin's lymphoma is (S-15)
a) Nodular sclerosis
b) Mixed cellularity
c) Lymphocytes predominance
d) Lymphocytes depletion
34. Following statements about Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML) are
true EXCEPT. (S-16)
a) Philadelphia Chromosome is detected in all cases.
b) BCR-ABL fusion gene directs synthesis of abnormal oncoprotein.
c) Leucocyte Alkaline Phosphatase Activity is reduced.
d) Extramedullary hematopoiesis leads to splenomegaly.
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
35. All of the following are Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders (CMPD)
EXCEPT. (S-16)
a) Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS).
b) Essential thrombocytosis.
c) Polycythemia vera.
d) Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia. •
36. M spike in multiple myeloma is usually due to. (W-16)
a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) Light chains only
37. Auer rods are characteristically seen in (W-16)
a) ALL - L2 b) A M L - M 2
c) AML - M5 d) AML - MO
'' SAQ •
1. Cytochemistry of acute Leukaemia.(S-99)
2. Eos\noph\\\a.()N-99)(S-70,75,78,83,91)(W-81,93)
3. Describe the investigations in multiple myeloma.(S-01 )(W-96)
4. Difference betwieen Leukemia and Leukemoid reaction.(S-01)
5. Define & classify Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.(S-02)
6. Classify Hodgkin's lymphoma.(W-02)(S-05) .
7. Type of Reed-sternberg cell.(W-02)
8. Enumerate causes of splenomegaly.(W-03)
9. Enumerate causes of splenomegaly.(W-03)
. 10. Describe the blood picture in chronic myeloid leukaemia. (W-04)
(S-05,06)
11. Describe PS in chronic Myeloid Leukemia.(W-06)
"12. Classify Hodgkins lymphoma and describe Reed-sternberg cell.
(S-07)
13. What is Rye classification ? Write the subhyper. (W-06)
14. List the differences between leukemia and leukemia reaction.(W-07)
15. Enumerate 8 causes of splenomegaly. (W-07)
16. Describe clinical features and peripheral Blood smear finding in
chronic myeloid leukaemia.(S-IO)
17. Classification of splenomegaly. (W-12)
18. Peripheral Blood picture in Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia. (W-13)
19. Classify lymphoma. Describe in short types of Hodgkins lymphoma.
(W-14)
20. List the disorders associated with Splenomegaly. (W-15)
21. Sago spleen. (W-16)
22. Classify Hodgkin’s Lymphoma. List two important features of mixed
cellularity type Hodgkin’s Lymphoma. (S-17)
23. Blood picture in acute leukaemia. (S-72)
24. Agranulocytosis. (W-73)

^ 42 ^
M
 2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
25. Lymphocytosis. (S-74)
26- Lymph node in Hodgkin's disease. (W-74,76,84)
27. Lymph node in Lymphosarcoma. (S-75)
28. Leucocytosis. (W-76)(S-80,94)
29. Leucopenia. (W-79,94)(S-82,90)
30. Leukemoid reaction. (W-83,91,94)(S-85,93)
31. T and B Lymphocytes. (S-83)
32. Non Hodgkin's Lymphoma. (W-85)
v 33. Hodgkin's disease. (S-88,89,A91)
34. Eosinophil. (S-92)
35. Gross & microscopic picture of lymph node in Hodgkin's disease. (S-93,95)
36. Blood picture in acute lymphoblastic leukemia. (W-95)
37. Lab. investigation in case of massive splenomegaly. (W-97)
38. Reed Sternberg cell. (W-97)
LAQ
1. Discuss the cytochemical stains for the diagnosis of acute
Leukemia. (S-00)
2. Classify Hodgkin's disease. Describe the pathological features of
nodular sclerosis Hodgkin's disease.(S-OI)
3. Discuss leukaemia. Give an account of acute myeloid leukaemia.
(W-01 )(S-02)(W-92)
4. Enumerate common feature of that distinguish enlargement benign
lymph node from neoplastic enlargement. Describe common
histopathoiogical feature that will have to distinguish common
condition casing benign lymph node enlargement.(S-03)
5. Important clinical and haematological features of chronic myeloid
leukaemia.(W*03)
6. FAB classification of acute leukaemia.(W-03)
7. Classify Hodgekin's lymphoma. List two important features of mixed
cellularity type.(W-04)
8. Define and classify leukemia. Describe the peripheral smear and bone
marrow findings in chronic myoloid leukemia. (S-13) .
I 9. Describe peripheral blood and bone marrow picture in acute myeloid
leukaemia. (S-84,87)
I 10. Discuss laboratory investigations for diagnosis of multiple myeloma.(W-84)
. 11. Peripheral blood smear and bone marrow findings in chronic myeloid
»
leukaemia. (W-86,87,88,89)
> 12. Describe blood picture in Myelomonocytic Leukaemia. (S-96)
13. Describe role of special stains in differentiating Leukaemias. (S-96)
} 14. Classify leukaemias. Give an account of chronic myeloid leukaemia.(W-98)
) SECTION-3
I
SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY.
M
A™ A
\
2 * M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

13. The Blood Vessels and Lymphatics.

MCQ (MUHS)
1. Tree bark appearance of aortic intima may be seen in (S-03)
a) syphilitic aortius. b) giant cell arteritis.
c) atherosclerosis. d) takayasu’s arteritis.
2. Papillary necrosis is seen in (S-04)
- a) diabetes. b) analgesic nephropathy. *
c) sickle cell disease. d) all of the above.
3. Syphilitic aneurysm is commonly seen in. (S-04)
a) ascending aorta. b) abdominal aorta,
c) openings of renal arterier d) none of the above.
4. Syphilitic aneurysm is seen at (W-08) .- •
a) root of aorta. b) thoracic aorta.
c) abdominal aorta, d) arch of aorta.
5. Atherosclerotic aneurysms occur most frequently in (W-09)
a) abdominal aorta. b) common iliac arteries.
c) the arch of aorta. d) descending part of thoracic aorta.
6. - The major component of total serum cholesterol associated with
increased risk of atherosclerosis is. (S-10)
a) triglyceride b) low density lipoprotein
c) very low density lipoprotein d) high density lipoprotein
7. The earliest lesions in Atherosclerosis are. (W-10)
a) fatty plaques, b) fatty streaks, c) ulcers. d) aneurysms.
8. Vasculitis involving small and medium sized vessels is seen in all
EXCEPT (W-11)
a) Kawasaki’s disease b) Polyarteritis nodosa
c) Churg-strauss syndrome d) Giant cell temporal arteritis
9. Benign hypertension is associated with (S-12)
a) Fibrinoid necrosis b) Hyaline arteriosclerosis
c) Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis d) Lipid deposition in vessels
10. Takayasu arteritis is characterised by (S-12)
a) Fibrinoid necrosis of small arteries
b) Leucocytoclastic arteritis
c) Granulomatous vasculitis
d) Microscopic polyangitis
11. Most common cause of abdominal Aortic Aneurysm is (W-12)
a) Atherosclerosis b) Trauma
c) Syphilis d) Marfan’s syndrome
12. Macroglossia is seen in (W-14)
a) amyloidosis b) folic acid deficiency
c) motor neurone disease d) none
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
13. Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis is characteristically seen in (S-15)
a) Atherosclerosis b) Monckeberg sclerosis
c) Buerger's Disease d) Malignant Hypertension
SAQ
1. List serum complication of atheroscolosis cardiac markers in
myocardial infarcation.(W-02)
2. Enumerate complications of atherosclerosis.(W-07) v
3. Describe aetiopathogenesis of atherosclerosis.(S-IO)
4. Describe gross and microscopic features of atherosclerotic lesion.
(S-12)
5. Enumerate the complications of atherosclerosis. (S-13)
6. Neoplasms found in patients with HIV infection. (S-14)
7. Enumerate types and causes of aneurysm. Describe gross features
of abdominal aortic aneurysm. (S-15)
8. List the various risk factors and describe the morphology of
.* atherosclerotic plaque. (S-16)
9. Syphilitic aortitis. (A-71,76,79,86)(W-71,74,79,89)
10. Blood cholesterol. (A-71,72)
11. Mycotic aneurysm. (A-74,88)
12. Serum lipids. (A-77)
13. Buerger's disease. (A-85)
14. Dissecting aneurysm. (W-86)
15. Describe pathology & pathogenesis of rheumatic heart disease. (W-95)
LAQ
1. Describe etiology, pathology & complications of atherosclerosis.
(W-00)(W-73,91)(S-88)
2. Minor and major risk of atnerosclecosis.(S-03)
3. Define atherosclerosis". Describe risk, factors, pathogenesis and
morphology of and interpretation in diseases of kidney.(W-03)
4. Describe pathogenesis, gross and microscopy of atherosclerosis of
aorta.(S-IO)
5. Discuss pathogenesis, pathology and complications of
Atherosclerosis. (S-14)
6. Describe pathogenesis and morphology of atherosclerosis. (W-15)
14. The Heart.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The most specific enzyme indicator of myocardial infarction is (S-03)
a) LDHr b) LDH2. c) SGOT. d) CK-MB isoenzyme.
2. The appearance of myocardial infarct depends on (S-03)
a) size. b) age of infarct.
c) reperfusion of myocardism. d) all of above.

l4 5 l
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
3. The most important complication of atheromatous lesion in coronary
in acute myocardial infarction is (S-04)
a) calcification. b) coronary throm bosis,
c) aneurysm. d) ulceration.
4. Anitschkow cells are believed to be derivative of (S-04)
a) cardiac myocyte. b) endo cardial smooth muscle cells,
c) cardiac histiocyte. d) endothelial cell.
5. ‘Fish mouth’ or ‘Button hole’ appearance of mitral valve is seen in
(W-08)
a) infective endocarditis. b) rheumatic heart disease.
c) libman-sacks disease. d) nonbacterial endocarditis.
. 6. Risk of myocardial infarction in patients with angina is predicted by
the following marker. (S-09)
a) CK-MB b) C-reactive protein c) LDH d) Troponins
7. Endocarditis in intravenous drug abusers is usually due to (S-09)
a) staphylococcus aureus. b) streptococcus viridans.
c) enterococci d) aspergillus.
8. MacCallum plaques are usually seen in the (W-09)
a) right atrium. b) left atrium.
c) left ventricle. d) right ventricle.
9. The characteristic cardiac lesion of Rheumatic fever is (W-10)
a) infarction. b) aneurysm.
c) cardiomyopathy. d) pancarditis.
10. The histological hallmark of granulation tissue is (S-10)
a) dense eosinophilic infiltrate.
b) numerous epithelioid cells.
c) proliferation of fibroblasts and capillaries
d) extravasated eryhrocytes.
11. The most common site for myocardial infarction is (S-11)
a) Anterior wall of left ventricle b) Posterior wall of left ventricle
c) Posterior wall of right ventricl d) Inferior wall of left ventricle
12. Aschoff nodules are seen in (S-12)
a ) 'Subacute bacterial endocarditis
b) Libman-Sacks endocarditis
c) Rheumatic carditis
d) Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis
13. Tigeroid appearance of heart is seen in (S-13)
a) Glycogen storage disease b) Cloudy change
c) Fatty change d) Myxoid change
14. Following is a feature of hypertensive heart disease (S-13)
a) concentric left ventricular hypertrophy

1 461
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
b) septal hypertrophy
c) hypertrophic subaortic stenosis
d) ventricular dilatation
15. Serofibrinous pericarditis is caused by the following EXCEPT
(W-13)
a) Dressier syndrome b) Uremia
c) Rheumatic fever d) Bleeding diathesis
16. Tetrology of Fallot is characterized by the following EXCEPT (W-13)
a) Right ventricular outflow obstruction
b) Ventricular septal defect
c) Right ventricular hypertrophy
d) Atrial septal defects
17. "Libman Sachs" endocarditis occurs in (S-14)
a) Carcinoid syndrome b) Rheumatic carditis
c) Old age and cachexia d) Systemic lupus erythematosus
18. Firm warty vegetations along the line of valve closure is seen in
(S-15)
a) Libman-sacks endocarditis.
b) Acute endocarditis.
c) Rheumatic endocarditis.
d) Subacute endocarditis.
19. Most commonly affected vessel in coronary atherosclerosis is (S-15)
a) Anterior descending branch of left coronary.
b) Right coronary artery.
c) Circumflex artery.
d) Marginal branches.
20. Which statement about Marfan syndrome is FALSE ? (W-16)
a) Due to lack of Fibrilin.
b) Ligaments of hand and feet are lax.
c) Bilateral sublaxation of Lense.
d) Associated with mitral stenosis.
21. The commonest vessel involved in Myocardial Infarction is (S-16)
a) Posterior descending artery.
b) Left anterior descending artery.
c) Left Circumflex artery.
d) Right coronary artery.
22. Aschoff bodies in Rheumatic heart disease shows the following
features EXCEPT. (S-16)
a) Epitheloid cells b) Anitschkow cells
b) Fibrinoid necrosis d) Aschoff giant cells
SAQ
►4
^ 47 ^
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by Unique Publication

1. Gross & Microscopy of Infective endocorditis.(S~99)

2. Investigations & interpretation in acute myocardial lnfarction.(S-99)
3. Write morphology & complications (cardiac) in bacterial
endocarditis. (W-07)
4. Complications of Myocardial infarction. (S-01,02)
5. Aschoffs body.(S-02)(W-89,94)(S-98)
6. List serum complication of atheroscolosis cardiac markers in
myocardial infarcation.(W-02)
7. Classify endocarditis.(S-04) ; :
8. Enumerate complications of coronary atherosclerosis.(W-04)
9. Features of Tetralogy of Fallot.(S-06)
10. Name four important complications following acute myocardial ...

infarction.(W-06)
11. Major pathologic changes in left sided heart failure.(S-07)
12. Define Hypertension. Describe etiopathogenesis and classification m
of hypertension. (W-12)
13. Describe extracardiac lesions in rheumatic heart disease. (W-12) -
14. Describe morphology of hypertensive heart disease. (W-13)
15. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction.
(S-14)
16. Describe complication of acute myocardial infraction. (W-15)
17. Rheumatic endocarditis. (S-70,74)
18. Heart in S.B.E. (S-72,77)(W-76)
19. Serum enzymes in myocardial infarction. (S-80,92,93)
20. Lab. diagnosis of rheumatic heart disease. (W-81)
21. Lab. diagnosis of chronic heart failure. (W-81)
22. Recent myocardial infarct. (W-82,87)
23. Serum enzymes in myocardial infarction. (S-82)
24. Etiopathology & laboratory diagnosis of rheumatic heart disease. (S-83)
25. Bacterial endocarditis. (S-85)
26. Pathogenesis of acute rheumatic fever. (S-89)
27. Gross & Microscopic picture of myocardial infarction. (W-93)
28. Discuss utility of laboratory in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. (S-94)
29. Isoenzyme in acute myocardial infarction. (W-95)
LAQ
1. Describe the pathology and pathogenesis of rheumatic heart disease.
(W-00,01 )(W-95,90)
2. Describe etiopathogenesis & marphological changes in acute
myocardial lnfarction.(W-02)
3. What is etiology of Rheumatic fever? Enumerate clinical
manifestations of Rheumatic fever. Describe pathologic changes In
heart in cases of acute rheumatic heart disease.(W-04)
M
1 481
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication

4. Describe gross and microscopic changes in myocardial Infarction.

(S-05)
5. Define Rheumatic fever and Rheumatic heart disease. Enumerate
(major) Jones criteria. Describe Archoft nodule formation and its fate.
Mention complications of Rheumatic Heart Disease.(S-06)
6. Describe pathogenesis, gross & microscopic picture of infective
endocarditis. (S~0S)(W-92)(S-93) , '
7. Discuss morphology and lab. diagnosis in acute myocardial
infarction.(S-07)
8. Differentiate between rheumatic and bacterial endocarditis.(S-IO)
9. Classify ischaemic heart disease. Describe gross and microscopy
of myocardial infarction.(S-10)
10. Discuss etiopathogenesis, morphology and clinical features of
rheumatic heart disease. (S-12)
11. Discuss the morphological changes in myocardial infarction and
complications of myocardial infarction. (S-13)
12. What are the causes of vegetations in heart ? Write in brief on
Subacute bacterial endocarditis. (S-15)
13. Write the Lab evaluation of Myocardial Infarction. Describe the
consequences and complications of myocardial infarction. (S-16)
14. Define Infarct. List the enzymes used in diagnosis of Myocardial
infarction and write its gross and microscopic features as per the age
of infarct. (S-17)
15. Give an account of presenting features and complications of infective
endocarditis. (W-85)(S-90)
16. Give gross & microscopic appearance of myocardial infarction at various
stages of the disease. Enumerate the complication? following myocardial
infarction. (S-89) -
17. Describe pathogenesis, gross and microscopic pathology, laboratory
diagnosis and complications of bacterial endocarditis. (S-96)
15. The Respiratory System.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Curschman spirals are seen in (S-03)
a) emphysema. b) bronchial asthma,
c) bronchiectasis. d) hydatid disease.
2. Mesotheliomas have strong association with industry involving.
(S-03)
a) asbestos. b) arsenic, c) nickel. d) cotton.
3. Adult respiratory distress syndrome may be also called as (S-03)
a) hyaline membrane disease b) shock lung
c) C.V.C. lung d) alveolar proteinosis in lung

1 491
2* M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
4. Source of pulmonary surfactant is (S-04)
a) alvelolar macrophages. b) type I pneumocytes.
c) type II pneumocytes. d) capillary basement membrane.
5. The increased incidence of Bronchogenic carcinoma is seen in one
of the following pneumoconiosis - (S-04)
a) coal worker’s penumoconiosis. b) siliconsis.
c) asbestosis. d) beryllosis.
6. In Goodpasture’s syndrome the antiboeis are directed against. (S-04)
a) heart and kidney. b) lungs and kidney.
c) lungs and brain. d) heart and brain.
7. ‘Honeycomb’ lung appearance on gross is seen in (W-08)
a) chronic bronchitis. b) interstinal lung disease,
c) lobar pneumonia. d) atelectasis.
8. The following is the most aggressive of lung tumors, that metastises
widely and incurable by surgical means. (S-09)
a) squamous cell carcinoma.
b) bronchioalveolar carcinoma.
c) small cell carcinoma.
d) adeno carcinoma.
9. Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by (S-09)
a) type I pneumocyte. b) type II pneumocyte.
c)Bronchilar epithelium. d) mucus cell.
10. The hyaline membrane in Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
consists of (W-09)
a) albumin and complement. b) mucus.
c) fibrin. d) precipitated surfactant.
11. Charcot-Leyden crystals are derivatives of (W-09)
a) Neutrophils; b) Eosinophils.
c) M a c r o p h a g e s . d ) Basophils. _ _ ___
12. Pleural mesothelioma is associated with. (W-10)
a) asbestosis. b) silicosis, c) berylliosis. d) bagassosis.
13. Lung carcinoma arises most often in the. (W-10)
a) periphery of the lung, b) apex of the lung.
c) base of the lung. d) in an around the hilus of the lung.
14. Alpha-1-Antitrypsin deficiency occurs in (S-11)
a) Emphysema b) Bronchiectasis
c) Empyma d) Bronchogenic carcinoma
15. Long term cigarette smoking is closely related to (W-11)
a) Curling ulcer b) Acute panacreatitis
c) Chronic bronchitis d) Lobar pneumonia
16. Carcinoma of the lung in a non-smoker is usually (W-11)
 2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication

a) Oat cell carcinoma b) Adeno carcinoma

c) Small cell carcinoma d) Squamous cell carcinoma
17. Kartagener’s syndrome included all EXCEPT (W-11)
a) Bronchiectasis b) Situs inversus
c) Sinusitis d) Arthritis
18. Red infarct is usually seen in (S-13)
a) lung b) kidney c) heart d) spleen
19. Ferruginous bodies are seen in (S-12)
a) Silicosis b) Bysinosis
c) Asbestosis d) Baggassosis
20. Curschmann spirals are seen in (S-12)
a) Emphysema b) Bronchial asthma
c) Bronchietasis d) Lobar pneumonia
21. Mesothelioma of pleura is associated with (W-12)
a) Anthracosis b) Asbestosis c) Siderosis d) Silicosis
22. Etiology of pneumoconiosis is inhalation of following EXCEPT
(S-13)
a) mineral dust b) organic dust
c) dust containing microorganisms d) chemical fumes
23. Lysis of Ribs with fibrinous exudates is a feature of (S-13)
a) Congestion b) Red hepatization
c) Grey hepatization d) Resolution
24. Which of the following lung disease will not cause cor pulmonate ?
(S-13)
a) Chronic bronchitis b) Bronchiectasis
c) Empyema d) Emphysema
25. Following tumour is commonly associated with paraneoplastic
syndrome (S-13)
a) Bronchogenic carcinoma b) Rhabdomyosarcoma
c) Squamous cell carcinoma d) Transitional cell carcinoma
26. The most prevalent chronic occupational lung disease in the world is
(W-13)
a) Silicosis b) Coal workers pneumoconiosis
c) Asbestosis d) Berylliosis
27. Following type of emphysema is associated with alpha 1 antitrypsin
nrr*1^1

deficiency (W-13)
a) Centriacinar b) Panacinar
c) Distal acinar d) Mediastinal
. *"»&«hw

28. Which of the following does NOT lead to bronchiectasis ? (S-14)

a) Mucoviscidosis b) Kartagener syndrome
c). Prolonged bronchial obstruction d) Peneumoconiosis
M
^ 51
31 ^a.
'M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
29. The most common causative organism for lobar pneumonia is (W-14)
a) Staphylococci b) Streptococci
c) Pneumococci . d) Haemophilus
30. Small tubular heart is found in (W-14)
a) Chronic bronchitis b) Emphysema
c) Bronchial asthma d) Mitral stenosis
31. Charcot-Leyden crystals are seen in sputum of the patients of. (S-16)
a) Bronchiectasis b) Bronchial asthma
c) Tuberculosis d) Chronic bronchitis
32. Classic -1 Antitrypsin deficiency in emphysema has the following
phenotype of protease inhibitor. (W-16)
a) PiMM b) PiZZ c) PiMZ d) PiMO
33. The following type of Bronchogenic Carcinoma has worst prognosis.
(W-16)
a) Squamous cell carcinoma.
b) Small cell carcinoma.
c) Large cell carcinoma.
d) Adenocarcinoma.
SAQ
1. Difference between Lobar & Broncho pneumonia.(W-00)(S-01)
2. Define Bronchiactasis and list its complication.(W-01)
3. Define and classify emphesoma. (S-03)
4. Lung in lobar pneumonia.(S-05)(W-72,75,86)(S-88)
5. Enumerate Types of Emphysema.(S-06)
6. What is hyaline membrane disease also known as ? What is the
basic defect in it ?(W-06)
7. Describe the gross appearance of bronchogenic carcinoma. (W-06)
8. Gross and microscopic features of oat cell carcinoma of lung.(S-07)
9. Describe morphology-and complications o f bronchiectasis. (W-13)
10. Describe clinical presentations of lung carcinoma. (S-14)
11. Describe gross and microscopic features of emphysema. (S-15)
12. Describe briefly pathogenesis of emphysema. (W-15)
13. Write the histologic classfication of lung carcinoma and describe in
brief the morphology of small cell carcinoma. (S-16)
14. Describe etiology and morphology of Lung Abscess. (S-17)
15. Bronchogenic carcinoma. (S-70)(W-81,84,87)
16. Grey hepatization. (W-70)
17. Lung abscess. (W-73)
18. Lung atelectasis. (S-74)
19. Lung in bronchopneumonia. (S-77,91)
20. Bronchiectasis. (S-86,89,92)

1 5 2 .1 -
2 ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
21. Etiology of carcinoma of lung. (W-86)
22. Silicosis. (W-90)
23. Etiopathogenesis of Bronchiectasis. (S-97)
LAQ
1. Describe pathology of lobar pneumonia and enumerate its various
complipations^S-S^fMASOJ
2. Classify lung tumors. Describe the aetiology, pathology and clinical
manifestations of bronchogenic carcinoma.(W-03)
3. What are pneumonias? Give an account of lobar pneumonia.
Enumerate its complications.(S-04)
4. Classify lung tumours. Write important risk factors involved. Add a
note on paraneoplastic syndrome.(W-07)
5. Describe the stages of lobar pneumonia with gross and microscopy
of each stage.(S-IO)
6. Define Oedema. Discuss pathogenesis of oedema. Give an accout
of pulmonary oedema. (W-16)
7. State WHO classification of Lung Tumors. Discuss its
etiopathogenesis and morphology. (W-16)
16. The Eve, Ent and Neck.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Cholesteatoma of the mastoid is categorised as a lesion in the
following type (W-14)
a) Benign tumor b) Malignant tumor
c) Hamatoma d) Inflammatory pseudotumor
SAQ
1. Retinoblastoma.(W-96)
LAQ
None
17. The Oral Cavity and Salivary Glands.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Commonest benign tumor of parotid gland is (W-08)
a) acinic cell carcinoma. b) warthin tumor.
c) pleomorphic adenoma. d) muco-epidermoid carcinoma.
2. Muco-Epidermoid carcinoma of the salivary gland occurs commonly
in the age group. (W-10)
a) 5 to 20 yrs. b) 20 to 40 yrs.
c) 30 to 60 yrs. d) After 60 yrs.
3. The most common premalignant condition of oral cancer is (S-11)
a) Lichen planus b) Erythroplakia
c) Leukoplakia d) Submucous fibrosis
M
53
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication ; W*
4. Warthin tumour is another name for (W-12) j

a) Pleomorphic adenoma b) Oncocytoma

c) Mucoepidermoid tumour d) Adenolymphoma I ^^ •
5. Commonest tumor in major salivary glands is (W-12)
a) Oncocytoma b)Acinic cell tumor
c) Warthin’s tumor d) Pleomorphic adenoma . •■
6. The most common salivary gland tumor is (S-13)
a) Pleomorphic adenoma b) Warthin’s tumour (D
c) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma d) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
7. The pseudocartilage in mixed salivary tumor is a product of (W-14)
a) Connective tissue mucin
b) Ductal epithelial cell origin
c) Myoepithelial cell origin
d) Combination of all mucin
8. Warthin's tumor is (W-14)
a) Adenolymphoma b) Acinic cell tumor
c) Adenoid cystic carcinoma d) Adenocarcinoma
SAQ
1. Name four malignant salivary gland tumours.(W-06)
2. Leukoplakia.(S-75)
3. Squamous cell carcinoma of tongue.(S-78)
LAQ
None _ ■..is,
18. The Gastrointestinal Tract.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Crypt abscess is typical of (S-03)
a) amoebic colitis. b) necrotising enterocolitis,
c) bacillary dysentery. d) ulcerative colitis.
2. The usual size of carcinoid tumour is (S-03)
a) less than 2 cms. b) 6-10 cms.
c) 3-4 cms. d) more than 10 cms.
3. Typhoid nodule j§ seen in (S-03)
a) skin bj bone c) liver d) intestine
4. The most common anatomic site for squamous cell carcinoma of
aesophagus is (S-04)
a) upper third. b) m iddle third.
c) lower third. d) gastro-oesophageal junction.
5. The most common complication of intestinal tuberculosis is (S-04)
a) stricture formation. b) peritonitis,
c) haemorrhage. d) none of the above.
6. The most common location for carcinoid tumour is (S-04)
M
^ 54 v
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication

a) foregut. b) mid gut.

c) hind gut. d) equal at all three sites.
7. ‘Skip lesions’ of intestine are characteristic of (W-08)
a) tuberculosis. b) crohn disease.
c) ulcerative colitis. d) adenocarcinoma.
8. Which of the following parasitic infestation of GIT lead to
malabsorption ? (W-08)
a) entamoeba histolytica b) taenia solium
c) ascaris lumbricoides d) giardia lamblia.
9. In ulcerative colitis the part of large intestine to be affected earliest is
the (S-09)
a) caecum. b) transverse colon,
c) sigmoid colon. d) rectum.
10. Colorectal carcinoma is associated with (W-09)
a) excess caloric intake. b) low fiber intake,
c) intake of red meat. d) all of the above.
11. The most common gross pattern of gastric carcinoma is. (S-10)
a) scirrhous. b) fungating. c) ulcerative. d) colloid.
12. The most frequent complication of peptic ulcer disease is. (S-10)
a) bleeding from ulcer. b) perforation.
c) obstruction. d) super infection.
13. 50% of cancers of esophagus occur in. (S-10)
a) upper 1/3rd of esophagus, b) middle 1/3rd of esophagus,
c) lower 1/3rd of esophagus. d) gastro-esophageal junction.
14. The polyps with virtually no malignant potential are. (W-10)
a) multiple juvenile polyps. b) familial polyps.
c) hyperplastic polyps. d) adenomatous polyps.
15. Peptic ulcers occur most frequently in the. (W-10)
a) first portion of the Duodenum.
b) jejunum.
c) gastro-oesophageal junction.
d) adjacent to Meckel’s diverticulum.
16. Barret’s oesophagus indicates following cell growth distrubance
(S-11,16)
a) Atrophy b) Hypertrophy
c) Hyperplasia d) Metaplasia
17. Which of the following is NOT related with carcinoma of stomach ?
(S-11)
a) Blood group A b) Smocked fish
c) Nitrosamines d) Blood group 0 .
18. The following are associated with Crohn’s disease EXCEPT (W-11)
M
l5 5 l
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Skip lesions b) Sinus tract formation
c) Creeping fat d) Pseudopolyps
19. Barrets esophagus shows change in epithelium from (S-12)
a) Squamous to columnar b) Columnar to squamous
b) Suamous to transitional d) Transitional to columnar •
20. Skip granulomatous lesions are seen in (S-12) o
a) Ulcerative colitis b) Crohn’s disease
c) Whipple’s disease d) Reiter’s disease 0
21. Which of the following has increased risk of carcinoma esophagus ? J
(S-13)
a) Hital Hernia b) Lacerations
c) Varices d) Plummer-Vinson syndrome ■■
22. Following is true about Typhoid (Enteric fever) EXCEPT (W-13)
a) Caused by Salmonella typhi Q
b) Hypertrophy of Peyers patches is present
C>
c) Peripheral blood shows neutrophilia
d) Ileal ulcers are longitudinal 1
23. Crypt abscess is characteristically seen in (W-13)

m
a) Amoebic colitis b) Ulcerative colitis
c) Necrotizing entero colitis d) Shigella infection

#
24. Virchows node is a manifestation of (W-13)
a) Esophageal carcinoma b) Gastric carcinoma
c) Salivary gland carcinoma d) Oro-pharengeal carcinoma
25. Peutz Jeghers colonic polyps are (S-14)
a) Inflammatory b) Hamartomatous ♦
c) Lymphoid d) Hyperplastic
26. Carcinoma colon stage B-2 is (S-15)
V
a) Involvement upto the muscularis propria w
b) Involvement upto the serosa
c) Serosa and Lymph node involvement
d) Hepatic metastasis
27. "Skip" lesions of bowel are classic features of (W-15)
a) Typhiod ulcer b) Tuberculous ulcer
c) Crohn disease d) Amoebic ulcer
28. The commonest complication of peptic ulcer is (S-16)
a) Perforation b) Hematemesis
c) Bleeding d) Obstruction
29. All are features of Crohn’s disease EXCEPT. (S-16)
a) Inflammation is limited to mucosa.
b) Granulomas are present in 35% of the cases.
c) It is present in Ileum and colon.

l5 6 l
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
d) Skip lesions.
30. Barrett’s oesophagus predispose to development of. (W-16)
a) Reflux oesophagitis b) Oesophageal varices
c) Squamous cell carcinoma d) Adenocarcinoma
31. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis occur most often in association
with. (W-16)
,, a) Shigella dysentery b) Candida enterocolitis
c) Cephalosporin antibiotics d) Clostridial food poisoning
SAQ
. 1. Gross and microscopic appearance of colon in amoebic colitis.
(S-01 )(S-97)
2. Difference between typhoid and tuberculous ulcers of intestines.
(W-01,02)
3. Route of spread of carcinoma of stomach.(W-01)
4. Differences between benign and malignant ulcers of stomach.(W-03)
5. Write differences between tuberculous and typhoid ulcer.(S-04)
6. Enumerate morphological types of gastric carcinoma.(W-04)
7. Enumerate the gross and microscopic differences of crohns disease
and Ulcerative colitis.(S-05)(W-07)
8. Gross and microscopic features of carcinoid tumour of GIT. (S-06)
9. Differentiate between benign and malignant gastric ulcer.(S-10)
10. Mention different ulcerative lesions of small and large intestine with
brief descriptions.(S-IO)
11. Describe gross and microscopic features of peptic ulcer. (S-12)
12. Enumerate the differences between ulcerative colitis and crohn’s
disease. (S-13) (W-13)
13. Describe gross and microscopic appearance of invasive Gastric
carcinoma. (S-14)
14. Enumerate various risk factors and describe the pathogenesis of
chronic peptic ulcer. (S-16)
15. Give an account of H. Pylori Gastritis. (W-16)
16. Give an account of ulcerative lesions of small and large intestine.
(W-16)
17. Describe morphology of Gastric carcinoma. (S-17)
18. Occult blood in stool. (W-70)
19. Chronic gastric ulcer. (S-72)(W-87)
20. Gastric ulcer. (W-73)
21. Chronic colitis. (S-74)(W-81)
22. Achlorhydria. (W-74)(S-76,85)
23.. Colon in acute amoebic colitis. (W-75,82,89)(S-77)
24. Ileum in typhoid fever. (S-78)(0-74,79)
M
^ 01
A. 57 J
^k.
 dM .B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs
2n I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
25.
Hyperchlorhydria. (S-78)
26.
Chronic gastric ulcer & its complications. (W-78)
27.
Utility of gastric analysis. (W-83)
28.
Colloid Carcinoma.(S-83)
29.
Gastric analysis. (W-84)
30.
Intestinal tuberculosis. (S-84)
31.
Enumerate causes of ulcerative lesions of intestines. Discuss how will you
t> differentiate the lesions.(W-84)(S-87)
32. Carcinoma of stomach. (W-85)
33. Amoebic ulcer. (S-94)
LAQ
1. Describe etiology & pathology of ulcerative lesions of large intestine.
(W-99) (S-90)
2. Enumerate difference between Crohn's disease & ulcerative colitis.
(W-00)
3. Describe pathogenesis, gross & microscopic picture of carcinoma
of stomach. Enumerate its complications. (W^-01 )(W-89)
4. Describe etiopathogenesis, gross & microscopic picture of benign
deodenal ulcer. (S-02)(S-89j
5. Describe etiology, morphological features and spread of gastric
carcinoma. (W-02)
6. Differentiate between typhoid and tubercular ulcers of intestine.
(W-02)
7. Gross and microscopic features of intestinal tuberculosis.(S-07)
8. Describe etiology, gross, microscopic findings and spread of
carcinoma colon. (W-12)
9. Write in brief on Carcinoma of rectum. (S-15)
10. List the ulcerative lesions o f bowel. Describe morphology of any
one of them. (W-15)
11. Describe the laboratory investigations on a case of pyrexia of
unknown origin. (W-15)
12. Describe pathogenesis, gross & microscopic picture of carcinoma of colon.
Enumerate the complications of carcinoma of colon. (W-92)
13. Describe clinical features, etiology pathological features of Intestinal tumours.
(W-93)
14. Describe etiopathogenesis, gross and microscopic appearance and
complications of enteric fever. (S-95,98)
15. Enumerate the ulcerative lesions of the intestine. Discuss their distinctive,
gross and microscopic features. (S-96)
19. The Liver, Biliary Tract and Exocrine Pancrine.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Unconjugated bilirubin is (S-03)

IS 8 l
i

dM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs

2n I I I rdE d itio n by Unique Publication
a) water soluble. * •
b) increased in Dubin Johnson Syndrome.
c) transported by albumin.
d) excreted by kidney.
2. W ilson’s disease affect the following organs EXCEPT. (S-03)
a) liver. b) brain. c) eyes. d) heart.
\ , 3. Mallory’s hyaline is seen in the following conditions EXCEPT. (S-03)
a) alcoholic liver disease. b) cardiac cirrhosis,
c) biliary cirrhosis (primary). d) indian childhood cirrhosis.
4. Casoni’s test is useful in the diagnosis of (S-03)
a) sarcoidosis. b) cryptococcal infection,
c) brucellosis. d) hydatid cyst.
5. Which of the following is not implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma ?
(S-03)
a) hepatitis B virus. b) hepatitis C virus,
c) aflatoxin Br d) liver fluke.
6. One of the following features is not characteristic of viral hepatitis.
(S-03) ~
a) pan lobular involvement b) lobular disarray
c) ballooning degeneration d) fibrosis
7. Councilman bodies in hepatocytes are seen in (S-04)
a) alcoholic hepatitis. b) hepatoma.
c) viral hepatitis. d) biliary cirrhosis.
8. The following enzyme is markedly raised in obstructive jaundice.
(S-04)
a) S.G.O.T. b) S.G.P.T.
c) acid phosphatase. d) alkaline phosphatase.
9. Common primary malignant tumor of liver is (W-08)
a) cholangio carcinoma. b) hepatocellular carcinoma.
c) angiosarcoma. d) liposarcoma. ,
10. All are features of acute viral hepatitis EXCEPT. (S-09)
a) ballooning degeneration. b) necrosis of hepatocytes.
c) councillman bodies. d) mallory bodies.
11. The serum marker for diagnosis of acute pancreatitis in the first 24
hours is (S-09)
a) serum amylase, b) serum lipase.
c) serum bilirubin. d) serum alkaline phosphatase.
12. Grossly pigmented liver is seen in (W-09)
a) crigler-najjar syndrome. b) gilbert syndrome.
c) rotor syndrome. d) dubin-johnson syndrome.
13. Major source of collagen in cirrhosis of liver is (W-09)

l5 9 l
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication

a) hepatocytes. * b) kupffer cells.

c) endothelial cells. ' d) perisinusoidal stellate cells.
14. Chronic hepatitis is NOT caused by (W-09)
a) HBV. b) HCV. c) HDV. d) HAV.
15. The most common type of cirrhosis of liver is. (S-10)
a) portal cirrhosis. b) post necrotic cirrhosis,
c) biliary cirrhosis. d) cardiac cirrhosis.
16. The carrier state in HBV infection is defined by the presence of HBsAg
in serum for months or longer after initial detection. (S-10)
a) 4 months. b) 6 months. c) 2 months, d) 1 month.
17. Primary biliary cirrhosis most commonly occurs in. (W-10)
a) childhood. b) middle aged men.
c) middle aged women, d) after the age of fifty years.
18. In viral hepatitis B, HBsAg appears in the serum in. (W-10)
a) the icteric phase. b) six months after exposure,
e) before the onset of symptoms, d) three months after exposure.
19. The following virus is faeco-orally transmitted (S-11)
a) Hepatitis B b) Hepatitis C
c) Hepatitis A d) Hepatitis D
20. The following are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma EXCEPT
(W-11)
a) Hepatitis B virus b) Hepatitis A virus
c) Hepatitis C virus d) Aflatoxin exposure
21. An aggregate of intermediate filaments is called (W-11)
a) Councilman body b) Mallory body
c) Aschoff body d) Psammoma body
22. An important serological marker of active viral replication and
infectivity in Hepatities B is (S-12)
a) Anti HBe b) HBsAg c) HBeAg d)HBcAg
23. All of the following are causes of Acute Pancreatitis EXCEPT (W-12)
a) Hemochromatosis b) Trauma
c) Gallstones d) Alcohol
24. Following morphological feature is seen in alcoholic hepatitis. (S-13)
a) councilman bodies b) mallory bodies
c) spotty necrosis d) periportal cytoplasmic inclusions
25. Markedly raised serum Alkaline phosphatase is a feature of (S-13)
a) Hepatocellular carcinoma b) Haemolytic jaundice
c) Obstructive jaundice d) Hepatocellular jaundice
26. Following are major etiologic factors associated with hepatocellular
carcinoma EXCEPT (W-13)
a) Chronic viral infection (HBV.HCV)
M
l6 0 l
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
b) Chronic alcoholism
c) Aflatoxins
d) Chronic Opisthorchis sinensis infection
27. Cirrhosis with skin pigmentation and diabetes is seen in (S-14)
a) Wilson disease b) Haemochromatosis
c) Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency d) Indian childhood cirrhosis
_ 28. Complications of hepatic failure are all EXCEPT (S-14)
a) Portal hypertension b) Multiple organ failure
c) Coagulopathy d) Encephalopathy
29. Risk factor for pigment gall stones is (S-14)
a) Hyperlipidemia b) Female gender
c) Biliary infection d) Oral contraceptives ,
30. The following zone of liver lobule is more prone to all forms of toxic
injury (W-14)
a) Zone 1 (periportal) b) Zone 2 (midzonal)
c) Zone 3 (centrilobular) d) Subcapsular
31. The most common hepatic benign tumor is (W-14)
a) Haemangioma b) Adenoma
c) Cholagioma d) Lipoma
32. Mortality rate is highest in pregnancy with infection of which
hepatotropic virus ? (S-16)
a) HAV b) HBV c) HDV d) HEV
.33. All are features of Acute Hepatitis with Hepatitis B virus EXCEPT. (S-16)
a) Ground glass appearance of the hepatocytes.
b) Ballooning degeneration.
c) Apoptosis.
d) Interphase, hepatitis.
34. Enzyme used as a marker for alcohol abuse is (S-16)
a) Aspartate amino transferase. b) Alanine amino transferase,
c) Gamma glutamyl transferase, d) Alkaline Phosphatase.
35. A 35 year Male emergency medical technician, is feeling fatigued
since past four months, he experienced an episode of jaundice in
childhood which resolved on its own, he has been healthy since. On
physical examination there are no remarkable findings. Laboratory
studies show his hemoglobin is 12 g/dL and serum electrolytes
normal, but he has a total protein of 5.4 g/dL, albumin 2.9 g/dL, ALT
132 U/L and AST 113 U/L with total bilirubin 3 mg/dL. A liver biopsy is
performed and microscopic examination shows interface
inflammation with extension of inflammation into the lobules from the
triads. There is focal ballooning degeneration of hepatocytes. Which
of the following laboratory test findings is most characteristic for his
M
1 611
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
disease ? (S-16)
a) Positive IgM anti A antibodies.
b) Positive hepatitis B surface antigen.
c) Positive anti mitochondrial antibody.
d) Increased serum ferritin levels.
36. The following conditions have unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) Dubin - Johnson syndrome b) Crigler - Najjar syndrome
c) Jaundice of prematurity d) Gilbert syndrome
SAQ
1. Gross & Microscopy of CPC liver.(S-99)
2. Describe investigation in Hepatocellular jaundice.(S-99)
3. Define and classify cirrhosis.(S-OI)
4. Lesions of chronic alcoholism in
a) Liver b) Stomach c) Pancreas d) Brain.(W-02)(S-03)
5. Describe the gross and microscopic features of chronic venous
congestion of liver.(S-04)
6. Enumerate etiological factors implicated in Hepatocellular carcinoma.
(S-04)
7. Enumerate investigations required to be carried out in a case of
steatorrhoea.(S-04)
8. Enumerate microscopic features of acute hepatitis.(W-04)
9. Gross and microscopic features of chronic passive congestion of .
liver. (W-04)
10. Mention the lesions of alcoholic liver disease.(S-05)
11. Mention the causes of fatty liver.(W-06)
12. Describe gross and microscopic features of nut-meg liver.(W-06)
13. Classification of cirrhosis.(S-07)
14. Describe the sequence of serologic markers for hepatitis B viral
hepatitis in acute infection.(S-10)
15. Write clinical features, gross and microscopic features of amoebic
liver abscess. (S-12)
16. Laboratory findings in a patient of obstructive jaundice. (W-12)
17. Describe pathogenesis and morphological features of primary
carcinoma of liver. (W-13)
18.. Tabulate differences in liver function tests in hemolytic, hepatocellular
and obstructive jaundice. (S-15)
19. Describe morphologic features of acute viral hepatitis. (W-15)
20. S.G.O.T. (S-70,83)
21. Amoebic liver abscess. (S-71,80)(W-81)
22. Liver fatty degeneration. (S-71,80)(W-81)
M
1621
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
23. Serum bilirubin. (W-71,74,79,81,84)
24. Liver in infectious hepatitis. (S-72)(W-87)
25. Liver in portal cirrhosis. (S-73,82)(W-78,81}
26. Serum proteins. (W-73,81,94) *
27. Urobilinogen.(W-73,90,92,96,)(S-77)
28. Urine in obstructive jaundice. (S-74)
29. Liver in C.P.C. (S-75)(W-71,76)
30. Serum transaminases. (S-78)
31. Post necrotic cirrhosis. (S-80)
32. Serum amylase. (W-80)(S-91)
33. Non - Anon - B hepatitis. (S-83)
34. Enzymes in liver diseases. (W-83)
35. Alkaline phosphatase. (W-83,90)(S-86)
36. Cirrhosis of liver and its complications. (S-84)
37. Chronic active hepatitis. (S-86)
38. Liver abscess. (S-90)
39. Biliary cirrhosis. (W-90)(S-96)
40. Alcoholic cirrhosis. (W-92)
41. Liver cirrhosis-gross & micro appearance. (W-95,98)
42. Hydatid cyst. (S-94)
43. Urinary & blood findings in a case of obstructive jaundice. (S-94)
44. Australia antigen. (S-95)
45. Fatty change in liver. (S-95)
46. Gross and microscopic appearance of Liver in hepatocellular carcinoma.
(S-97)
LAQ
1. Define jaundice. Describe the role of Lab. in diagnosis of jaundice
following Infective hepatitis. (W-99)
2. Discuss the Laboratory Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis of
Jaundice. (S-00,02)
3. Describe the etiological classification and complications of, cirrhosis
of the liver. Describe the gross & microscopic appearance of biliary
cirrhosis. (S-00)
4. Describe pathogenesis, lesions and laboratory investigations in viral
hepatitis. (]N’00)(W-93,96)(S-91)
5. Give chronological classification of cirrhosis of liver. Describe gross
& microscopic findings of alcoholic cirrhosis. (S-02)(S-94j
6. Define and classify jaundice. Discuss laboratory findings which
differentiate them.(S-04)
7. Define cirrhosis of liver. Describe morphology, histology,
complications of alcoholic cirrhosis.(W-04)
8. Discuss pathophysiology of Jaundice. Give an account of laboratory
tests for its differential diagnosis.(S-06)
1 63 I
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
9. Define cirrhosis. Describe morphological & etiological classification
of liver cirrhosis. Mention complications of liver cirrhosis.(W-07)
10. Discuss etiopathogenesis and morphology of hepatocellular
carcinoma. (S-f2)
11. Describe investigations in diabetes mellitus with their significance.
(W-12)
12. Classify cirrhosis and discuss the etiopathogenesis and morphology
of post necrotic cirrhosis. (S-13)
13. Describe the etiology and classify of Diabetes mellitus. Discuss the
laboratory diagnosis of Diabetes mellitus. (S-13)
14. Classify cirrhosis of liver. Describe morphology and complications of
alcoholic liver disease. (W-13)
15. Define cirrhosis of liver. Describe morphology, histology and
complications of alcoholic cirrhosis. (W-14)
16. Describe the pathogenesis and morphology of alcoholic liver disease.
(S-16)
17. Discuss etiopathogenesis of Fatty change. Describe morphology of
fatty liver. (W-16)
18. Discuss Alcoholic Liver Disease in detail. (W-16)
19. Define jaundice. Describe the role of laboratory in diagnosis of
obstructive jaundice. (S-17)
20. Discuss laboratory diagnosis in case of obstructive jaundice. (S-84)
21. Describe gross & microscopic structure of cirrhosis with its complications.
(S-87)
22. Discuss the laboratory investigations in viral hepatitis.(W-98)
20. The Kidney and Lower Urinary Tract
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Milky urine may be seen'in (S-03)
a) filariasis b) malaria
c) nephrotic syndrome d) hypwelipidaemia
2. Crystals appearing in alkaline urine are of (S-03)
a) uric acid. b) calcium oxalate,
c) triple phosphate. d) cystine.
3. Petechial Haemorrhages of ‘flea bitten kidney’ in the following
conditions EXCEPT. (S-03)
a) acute glomerulonephritis. b) benign nephrosclerosis.
c) malignant hypertension. d) subacute bacterial endocarditis.
4. Glomerular lesions in diabetic nephropathy does not include (S-03)
a) capsular drop. b) armani ebstein lesion.
c) fibrin cap. d) kimmelsteil wilson lesion.
5. The most common location for carcinoid tumour is (S-04)
M
1 641
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) foregut. b) mid gut.
c) hind gut. d) equal at all three sites.
6. Pagets cells in Paget’s disease of the breast are malignant cells of the
following type (S-04)
a) squamous cell carcinoma, b) basal cell carconoma.
c) melanoma. d) adenocacinoma.
7. Papillary necrosis is seen in (S-04)
a) diabetes. b) analgesic nephropathy,
c) sickle cell disease. d) all of the above.
8. Kimmeistiel-Wilson lesion of kidney is seen in (W-08)
a) systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE).
b) goodpasture syndrome. *
c) diabetes mellitus.
d) wegner granulomatosis.
9. RBC casts in urine. Likely source of hematuria is (S-09)
a) kidney. b) ureter. c) bladder. d) urethra.
10. Oliguria implies 24 hours urine sample less than (S-09)
a) 200 ml. b) 400 ml. c) 600 ml. d) 800 ml.
11. Splitting of glomerular basement membrane is seen in (W-09)
a) post streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
b) rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
c) membrano proliferative glomerulonephritis.
d) membranous glomerulonephritis.
12. All the following constitute features of nephrotic syndrome EXCEPT.
(S-10)
a) massive proteinuria (>3.5 gm), b) hyper albuminemia.
c) generalised edema. d) hyper lipidemia.
13. All the following are causes of flea-bitten kidney EXCEPT. (S-10)
a) acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
b) rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
c) haemolytic uraemic syndrome.
d) benign nephrosclerosis.
14. The normal serum creatinine level is. (S-10)
a) 2.5 to 4 mg/dl b) 0.5 to 1.5 mg/dl
c )5 to 6 m g /d l d) None of these
15. A “Tram Track” appearance of the glomerular capillary wall is
characteristic of. (W-10)
a) minimal change glomerulo nephritis.
b) lupus glomerulo nephritis.
c) membrano-proliferative glomerulo nephritis.
d) IgA nephropathy..

l6 5l
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
16. Deletion of small arm of chromosome 11 is seen in (S-11)
a) Wilm’s tumor b) Retinoblastoma
c) Osteogenic sarcoma d) Colonic carcinoma
17. Flea bitten appearance of kidney may be seen in all EXCEPT (S-11)
a) Malignant hypertension b) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
c) Diabetes mallitus d) Chronic pyelonephritis
18. Crescents are deived from (S-11)
a) Mesangium + fibrin + macrophage
b) Epithelial cells + fibrin + macrophage 1
c) Tubule + Mesangium + fibrin
d) Mesangium + fibrin
19. The most important cause of .Oedema in Nephrotic syndrome is
(W-11)
a) Increased hydrostatic pressure
b) Increased capillary permeability
c) Hypoprotelnmia
d) Lymphatic obstruction
20. Crescent formation in the Bowman’s space of the glomerulus is seen
in (W-11)
a) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
b) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
c) Membranous glomerulonerphritis
d) Chronic glomerulonephritis
21. The-following crystals are seen in acidic urine EXCEPT (W-11)
a) Uric acid b) Cystine c) Oxalate d) Triple phosphate
22. Deposits of antigen-antibody complex on glomerular basement
membrane are detected by (S-13)
a) light microscopy b) dark ground microscopy
c) polarizing microscopy d) immunofluorescene microscopy
23. The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in a 4 yr. child is
(S-12)
a) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
b) Minimal change disease
c) Membranous glomerulonephritis
d) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
24. Renal papillary necrosis is NOT seen in (W-12)
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Analgesic nephropathology
c) Sickle cell anaemia
d) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
25. Tram tract appearance is seen in (W-12)
M
l66l
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
b) Membranous glomerulonephritis
c) Minimal change disease
d) Post stretocoecal glomerulonephritis
26. Clear or granular cytoplasm of tumor cells in clear cell carcinoma of
kidney is due to accumulation of (W-13)
a) Lipids b) Glycogen
c) Water d) Glycogen and lipids
27. Postinfectious glomerulonephritis has following features EXCEPT
(W-13)
a) Granular IgG and C3 in GBM
b) Subepithelial humps
c) Subendothelial deposits
d) Enlarged, hypercellular glomeruli
' 28. Fixed specific gravity of 1010 in several specimens of the urine from
a patient (isosthenuric) is indicative of (W-13)
a) Nephritic syndrome b) Nephrotic syndrome
c) Severe renal damage d) Renal tumors
29. Benign nephrosclerosis shows all EXCEPT (S-14)
a) Hyaline thickening of vessel walls
b) F ibrinoid n e crosis
c) Diffuse tubular atrophy
d) Reduplication of elastic lamina
30. Most frequent cause of nephrotic syndrome in children is (S-14)
a) Membranous nephropathy
b) Minimal-change disease
c) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
d) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
31. Azotemia refers to (S-14)
a) polyuria, nocturia b) bacteriuria, pyuria
c) elevated urea, creatinine d) GFR lowered to < 20%
32. The most common features of nephritic syndrome include the
following EXCEPT (W-14)
a) Heavy proteinuria b) Hypertension
c) Microscopic haematuria d) Oliguria
33. The hallmark of Chronic pyelonephritis is (W-14)
a) Thyroidisation of tubules
b) Corticomedullary scar over deformed calyx
c) Asymmetrical renal involvement
d) Hyaline arteriosclerosis
34. Grade I Transitional cell carcinomas of urinary bladder are usually

l67l
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

(W-14)
a) Flat bj Invasive c) Non-invasive d) Papillary
35. Periglomerular fibrosis is a characteristic feature of (S-15)
a) Chronic glomerulonephritis
b) Chronic pyelonephritis
c) Acute glomerulonephritis
d) Benign nephrosclerosis
36. Papillary necrosis in kidneys is a feature of (S-15)
a) Analgesic nephropathy b) Sickle cell anaemia
c) Diabetes mellitus d) All of the above
37. A 5 year old presented with generalized edema, selective proteinuria,
hyperlipidema, lipiduria and hypoalbuminemia. Patient responded to
a short course of corticosteroid therapy. The key morphological
feature of patient's disease is (W-15)
a) Uniform and diffuse loss of the foot processes of the
podocytes.
b) Diffuse thickening of glomerular basement membrane.
c) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.
d) Crescents inside Bowman's capsule?
38. Epithelial Crescent formation can be seen in all EXCEPT. (S-16)
a) Acute diffuse proliferative GN.
b) Membranous GN.
c) Henoch Schonlein Purpura.
d) Rapidly progressive GN.
39. Renal cell carcinoma most commonly metastasizes to. (S-16)
a) Liver b) Brain c) Lungs d) Bones
40. Azotaemia results from elevation of following waste-products of
protein metabolism EXCEPT (W-16)
a) Blood urea b) Blood urea nitrogen
c) Serum uric acid d) Serum creatinine
41. Classic example of anti - GBM disease is. (W-16)
a) Minimal change disease.
b) Acute Proliferative Glomerulonephritis
c) Membranous GN
d) Goodpasture’s diease.
42. Causes of flea bitten kidney included the following EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) Acute post-streptococcal GN.
b) Rapidly progressive GN.
c) Benign nephrosclerosis.
d) Haemolytic uraemic syndrome.
SAQ
l6 8l
M
 M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
1. Crystals in Urine.(S-99)(W-97J
2. Gross & Microscopic appearance of flea-bitten kidney.(S-99)
3. Gross and microscopic features of renal cellcarcinoma.(S-99)(W-98J
4. Proteinuria. (S-99)(S-75,79,80,98)(W-83,90)
5. Bence Jones proteins. (W-99)(S-70,83)(W-81,88,92,95)
6. Hematuria. (S-00)(l^78,86)
7. Lab. diag. of nephrotic syndrome.(W-00)(S-87J
, 8. Contracted granular kidney.(S-01 )(W-84J(S-87J
9. Urinary sediments. (W-01)(W-96,94)
10. Nephrotic syndrome and its criteria.(W-03)
- 11. Compare findings in urine examination between acute
glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome.(W-03)
12. Define uraemia. Enlist minimum four causes.(S-04)
13. Enumerate differences between nephritic and nephrotic syndrome.
(W-04)
14. Proteinuria.(W-04)
15. Enumerate microscopic features of chronic pyelonephritis.(S-06)
16. What are urinary findings in acute post streptococcal
glomerulonephritis ?(W-06)
17. Describe microscopic features of chronic pyelonephritis. (W-06)
18. Mention gross and microscopic features of Wilm'S tumour.(W-07)
19. Enumerate the features of nephrotic syndrome. (S-13)
20. Give classification and pathogenesis of rapidly progressive
glomerulonephritis. (W-14)
21. Describe gross and microscopic features of Renal cell carcinoma.
(S-15)
22. Describe gross and microscopic appearance of kidneys in chronic
pyelonephritis. (W*15)
23. Classify glomerular diseases and describe the morphology of
membranous glomerulopathy. (S-16)
24. Gross and microscopic features of Renal Cell Carcinoma. (W-16)
- 25. Describe formation of Bence Jones protein and its detection in'urine.
(S-17)
26. Urea clearance test. (W-70)
27. Urine in acute glomerulonephritis. (W-71,75,76)
28. Urine in chronic glomerulonephrits. (S-73)
29. Kidney in chronic pyelonephritis. (W-73,82)(S-78)
30. Kidney in chronic glomerulonephritis. (W-74)(S-76)
31. Kidney in benign nephrosclerosis. (S-75)
32. Kidney in nephrosclerosis. (W-76,81)
33. Renal caiculi. (S-77,88)
34. Kidney in subacute glomerulonephritis.(W-79)(S-82)
l6 9l
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdE dition b y Unique Publication
35. Flea bitten kidney.(S-83,90)
36. Hypernephroma. (W-83)
37. Hydronephrosis. (S-84)
38. Renal Oedema. (S-85)(W-88)
39. Azotemia. (S-85)(W-88) ‘A
40. Kidney in hypertension.(W-85)
41. Serum creatinine. (W-86,90,92)
42. Kidney in diabetes.(W-86,97)
43. Urinary casts and its significance. (S-87,89)(W-88,89)
44. Renal function test. (S-88) .
45. Cresentic glomerulonephritis.(W-90,92)
46. Renal Calculi. (W-95) '
47. Urinary sediments.(W-95)
48. Casts in the urine. (W-98)
LAQ CJ
1. Describe aetiopathogenesis of nephrotic syndrome along with
characteristic blood and urine findings.(S-OI)
2. List the criterias for diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome and list the
causes of nephrotic syndrome.(W-01)
3. Classify tumours of kidney. Describe pathology of any two.(S-02)
4. Chronic pylonephritis.(W-02)
5. Grancular contracted kidney.(W-02)
6. Discuss information that obtained from different examinations of urine
and their interpretation in diseases of the kidney.(W-03) J
7. Classify glomerulonephritis. Describe subtypes, gross & microscopic
features of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.(W-06)(S-17)
8. Describe the etio-pathogenesis, morphology and clinical course of
poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. (S-14)
9. Enumerate major Glomerular Syndrome. Discuss in detail
etiopathogenesis, morphology and clinical course of Acute
Proliferative Glomerulonephritis. (W-16)
10. Describe briefly immunopathogenesis of glomerulonephritis. (W-84)
11. Give an account of renal function tests with emphasis on its clinical
application. (S-86,91)
12. Describe pathogenesis, gross & microscopic picture of acute
glomerulonephritis. Describe laboratory investigations. (W-89)
13. Discuss physical examination of urine. (S-90) ^
14. Describe etiology, pathogenesis and pathology of acute glomerulonephritis.
(S-92)
15. Describe the pathogenesis gross & microscopic picture of acute
glomerulonephritis. (S-93)
16. Describe immunopathogenesis, gross and microscopic picture of acute
proliferative glomerulonephritis. (W-94)
I
iT O l I
►4
 V * M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
17. Discuss the aetiopathogenesis and pathological (gross and microscopic)
feature of acute glomerulonephritis. (W-96,98)
21. The Male Reproductive System and Prostate.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The commonest germ cell tumour of the testes is (S-03)
a) embryonal carcinoma, b) teratoma.
c) seminoma. d) chloriocarcinoma.
2. Prostatic specific antigen level are raised in. (S-04)
a) prostatic malignancy. b) bladder malignancy,
c) urethelial caucinomas. d) none of the above.
3. Spermatocytic seminoma occurs in the age group of (W-08)
a) 3rd decade. b) 4th decade.
c) 5th decade. d) 7th decade.
4. Tumor marker for endodermal sinus tumor Is (W-09)
a)C EA. b) HCG c) Alfa fetoprotein, d) Cytokeratin.
5. Osteoblastic metastasis in bone in men is virtually diagnostic of
metastasis from (W-09)
a) lung b) liver c) prostate d) kidney.
6. Prostatic hyperplasia affects the following part of prostate the most.
(S-10)
a) Peripheral prostate. b) Periurethral prostate.
c) Capsule of prostate. d) Entire prostate.
7. The most common malignant testicular tumor is (S-11)
a) Teratoma b) Seminoma
c) Choriocarcinoma d) Lymphoma
8. Carcinoma of penis is rarest among (S-11)
a) Americans b) Indians c) Swedes d) Jews .
9. Condyloma accuminata is caused by (W-11)
a) Herpes simplex virus - 1
b) Herpes simplex virus - II
c) Human papilloma virus 6 and 11
d) Human Immunodeficiency virus I and II
mm . ....... ■Mr»ili:uFivl;a a a > ia te ta a l

10. Carcinoma of prostate commonly metastatises to (S-12)

a) Brain b) Liver c) Vertebrae d) Lungs
11. The most common malignant testicular neoplasm is (S-12)
a) Teratoma b) Seminoma
c) Choriocarcinoma d) Lymphoma
12. Findings of raised serum PSA levels and osteoblastic bone lesions
.

is diagnostic of carcinoma of (W-12)

a) Kidney b) Liver c) Prostate d) Pancreas
13. Carcinoma prostate commonly metastatizes to (W-13)
M
^71 ^
A. ' 1 A.
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication -jjf j

a) Lung b) Liver e) Brain d) Bone

14. Seminoma is a (W-14)
a) Benign tumor b) Borderline tumor
c) Malignant tumor d) Locally aggresive tumor
15. Following tumor is marked by ectodermal differentiation of
totipotential germ cell. (W-15)
a) Seminoma b) Dermoid cyst
c) Embryonal carcinoma d) Choriocarcinoma
16. In an undescended testis, the following tumour develops most often.
(W-16)
a) Teratoma b) Seminoma
c) Choriocarcinoma d) Yolk Sac Tumour
17. Prostatic Carcinoma leads to early metastasis in. (W-16)
a) Verterbrae b) Obturator lymph nodes
c) Lungs d) Brain
SAQ .
1. Seminoma testes. (S-02)(S-93)
2. What are Embryomas ? Mention any two of them.(S-02)
3. Describe etiology, pathology of seminoma of testis.(S-04)
4. Enumerate testicular germ cell tumors and describe anyone of them.
(W-13)
5. Describe morphology and modes of spread of classical seminoma.
(S-14)
6. Define and classify teratoma. Mention extragonadal sites of its
occurrence. (W-14)
7. Classify testicular tumors. Draw a well labelled diagram of seminoma.
(S-15)
8. Gross and Microscopic features of Seminoma. (W-16)(S-17)
9. Alpha feto protein. (W-96)(S-91,97,93,98)
LAQ
1. Teratoma.(S-01 )(W-72,73)(S-86,87,90)
2. Mention at least 4 germ cell tumours of testis.(S-OI)
3. Mention four germ cell tumours of testis.(S-05)
1. Prostate in benign prostatic hyperplasia. (S-95)
22. The Female Genital Tract.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Following are hormone dependent tumors EXCEPT (S-09)
a) Ovarian cancer. b) Endometrial cancer.
c) Prostate cancer. d) Breast cancer.
2. In high grade cervical intraepithelial lesion, the human papilloma
viruses implicated are. (W-10)
^ 7 2 yr
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) 6 and 11. b) 42 and 44. c) 16 and 18. d) 53 and 54.
3. Krukenberg’s tumor arises due to metastasis from all of the following
EXCEPT. (S-10)
a) gastric carcinoma. b) pancreatic carcinoma
c) hepatocellular carcinoma d) carcinoma of gall bladder.
4. The site of leiomyoma of the uterus is in (W-11)
a) The serosa b) The endometrium
c) The myometerium d) All of the above
5. Virus strongly associated with carcinoma cervix is (S-12)
a) HBV b) HPV c) EBV d) HTLV
6. Following strain of HPV is low risk for carcinoma cervix. (S-13)
a) 11 b) 16 c) 18 d) 31
7. Which of the following ovarian tumor is sex cord tumor ? (S-13)
a) Teratoma b) Chorio carcinoma
c) Fibroma d) Yolk Sac
8. Psammoma bodies may be observed in following EXCEPT(W-13).
a) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid b) Meningioma
c) Serous carcinoma of ovary d) Hepatocellular carcinoma
9. Following viral infection is causative factor for Carcinoma of uterine
cervix (W-13)
a) Cytomegalo virus (CMV) b) Ebstein Barr virus (EBV)
c) Human papilloma virus (HPV) d) Herpes-simplex virus (HSV)
10. Following is a benign tumor (S-14)
a) Hydatidiform mole b) Lymphoma
c) Melanoma d) Seminoma
11. Psammoma bodies are seen in (W-15)
a) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid b) Meningioma
c) Serous cystadenoma of ovary d) All of the above
12. Struma ovarii is composed predominantly of mature (W-15)
a) Thyroid tissue
b) Neural tissue
c) Collagenous stromal tissue
d) Bone and cartilage
13. Cervical carcinomas are diagnosed early in their course due to
examination of (W-15)
a) Fine needle aspiration cytology smears
b) Exfoliative cytology Pap smears
c) Histologic H and E sections
d) Colposcopy
14. Grape like chorionic villi occurs in (W-15)
a) Choriocarcinoma b) Hydatidiform mole
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication

c) Invasive mole d) None of the above

15. Schiller Duval body is found in which ovarian tumour ? (S-16)
a) Embryonal carcinoma b) Dysgerminoma
c) Chorio Carcinoma d) Yolk Sac tumour
16. High risk HPV types implicated in cervical intraepithelial lesions are
(W-16)
a) 6 and 11 b) 5 and 8
c) 16 and 18 d) 19 and 22
17. Krukenberg tumor is bilateral metastatic tumor from the following
primary sites EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) Stomach b) Colon c) Breast d) Endometrium
SAQ
1. Gross & microscopic picture ofuterus.(S-99)(0-99)(S-95)(W-93J
2. Define and classify teratoma. Mention difference teratomas occuring
in ovary. (S-03)
3. Well labelled diagram of cervical dysplasia and caeu noma in situ.
(S-03) ,
4. Enumerate etiologic factors of carcinoma of cervix. Describe gross
and microscopic features of carcinoma of cervix. (S-12)
5. Define and classify teratoma. Mention extragonadal sites of its
occurrence. (W-14)
6. Classify germ cell tumours of ovary and write down gross and
microscopic findings of dysgerminoma. (S-16)
7. Leimyoma. (S-71,85)(W-87,89)
8. Lab. investigations in a case of infertility. (W-93)
LAQ
1., Describe in brief etiopathogenesis, morphology and lab. diagnosis
of Cervical Dysplasia and Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia.(S-07)
2. Teratoma .(S-01)(W-72,73) (S-86,87,90)
3. Enumerate etiological factors in carcinoma cervix.(W-07)
4. Gross and microscopic features of Hydatidiform mole.(S-06)
5. Discuss etiopathogenesis and pathology of CIN & invasive cervical
cancer.(W-06)
6. Enumerate 4 functional tumours of ovary.(W-00)
23. The Breast
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Pagets cells in Paget’s disease of the breast are malignant cells of the
following type. (S-04)
a) squamous cell carcinoma. b) basal cell carconoma.
c) melanoma. d) adenocacinoma.
2. The term ‘mouse in the breast’ is used for (W-08)
^74 T”
a. 1* ±
M ■
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with SolvedM UHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) Infiltrating duct carcinoma of breast.
b) Fibroadenoma.
c) Galactocoele.
d) Tubular carcinoma of breast.
3. Phyliodes tumor is distinguished from fibroadenoma by having.(S-09)
a) More ductal hyperplasia. b) Dilated ducts.
c) More cellular stroma. d) More lobular hyperplasia.
4. Bilateral breast carcinoma is usually. (W-09)
a) Lobular carcinoma. b) Schirrhous carcinoma,
c) Medullary carcinoma. d) Colloid carcinoma.
5. One of the following carcinoma of breast is NOT invasive (S-11)
a) Comedocarcinoma b) Schirrhous carcinoma
c) Lobular carcinoma d) Paget’s disease
6. Staging of breast carcinoma is based on (S-13)
a) Tubule formation b) Lymphnode status
c) Abnormal mitotic figures d) Lymphovascular emboli
7. Which of following is NOT prognostic factor in Carcinoma breast ?
(S-14)
a) Oestrogen receptor status b) Histologic subtype
c) BRCA gene status d) Axillary lymph node metastasis
8. A blood stained discharge from the nipple indicates (S-15)
a) Breast abscess b) Fibroadenoma
c) Duct papilloma d) Fat necrosis of breast
9. Following carcinoma of the breast shows pronounced
lympho-plasmacytic infiltrate. (W-15)
a) Invasive ductal carcinoma b) Medullary carcinoma
c) Inflammatory carcinoma d) Invasive lobular carcinoma
10. Fibroadenoma of breast has following features EXCEPT (W-15)
a) Most common benign tumor.
b) Appears in young women.
c) Stromal cells are monoclonal.
d) Almost always become malignant.
11. Which type of breast carcinoma is most likely to be bilateral ? (S-16)
a) Mucinous carcinoma b) Medullary carcinoma
c) Infiltrating duct carcinoma NOS d) Lobular carcinoma
SAQ
1. Describe gross and microscopic features of fibroadenoma of breast.
(S-04,17)
2. Enumerate significant risk factors in etiology of breast carcinoma.
(W-04) .
3. Phylloides tumour. (S-15)
^ 75 ^
A . 13 A.
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by Unique Publication

4. Classify breast tumors. Write a note on fibroadenoma of breast.

(W-14)
5. Prognostic and Predictive factors in Carcinoma Breast. (W-16)
6. Carcinoma of breast. (S-71,74)
7. Fibroadenoma of breast. (S-76)(W-90,91,94,96)
8. Scirrhous carcinoma of breast. (W-78,92)
LAQ
1. List important gross and microscopic features of fibroadenoma of
breast.(S-03)
2. Discuss etiology gross and microscopic appearance of carcinoma
o f breast. And classify carcinoma.(W-00)(S-03)fS-94)
3. Mention classification of breast tumours. Write gross and microscopic
features of fibroadenoma of breast(S-05)
24. The Skin.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. ‘Rodent ulcer’ is another name for (W-08)
a) Squamous cell carcinoma of skin. b) Melanoma,
c) basal cell carcinoma. d) Compound nevus.
2. Cell of origin of mycosis fungoides/Sezary syndrome is. (W-09)
a) B-cell. . b) monocyte. c) NK-cell. d) Helper-T cell.
3. A rarely metastasizing tumor is. (W-10)
a) Squamous cell carcinoma, b) Basal cell carcinoma,
c) Melanoma. d) Sweat gland carcinoma.
4. Following type of nervus has increased risk of malignant
transformation. (S-13)'
a) Epidermal b) Congenital c) Dermal d) Compound
5. Which of the following is true about basal cell carcinoma ? (S-14)
a) tumor usually metastasizes
b) lesions are flat
c) lesion is always single
d) tumor is related to immunosuppression
6. Most common tumor arising on the Sun exposed sites in older people
is (W-15)
a) Squamous cell carcinoma b) Basal cell carcinoma
c) Malignant melanoma d) Nevocellular nevus
SAQ
1. Microscopic features of skin in tuberculoid Leprosy.(S-01)
2. Write short note on the melanoma of the skin. (S-13)
3. Describe the pathogenesis and morphology of squamous carcinoma
skin, (S-14)
4. Squamous cell papilloma. (W-70)
M
1 761
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
5. Malignant melanoma. (S-72.A82)
6. Basal cell carcinoma. (W-72)(S-84,98)
7. Rodent ulcer.(W-72,75,94)(S-73,79)
8. Junctional naevus. (W-83)
LAQ
1. Enumerate malignant neoplasm of skin. Give an account of
squamous cell carcinoma with emphasis on following sites, gross
appearance, histological types, route of spread, method for early
detection. (S-06)
2. Classify pigments. Describe the disorders assoiated with hemopoetin
derived pigments. (S-13)
25. The Endocrine System.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. A most useful indicator for assessing diabetic control of longer
duration is (S-04)
a) estimation of glycosylated Haemoglobin.
b) fasting and postmeal blood glucose.
c) glucose tolerance test analysis.
d) detection of urine sugar.
2. ‘Orphan Annie’ or ‘ground glass neclei’ are diagnostic features of
(W-08)
a) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid.
b) Thyroid lymphoma.
c) Follicular carcinoma of thyroid.
d) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid.
3. Thyroid cancer with best prognosis is (S-09)
a) Medullary carcinoma. b) Papillary carcinoma,
c) Follicular carcinoma. d) Anaplastic carcinoma.
4. The most common carcinoma of thyroid is (W-09)
a) Follicular carcinoma. b) Papillary carcinoma,
c) Medullary carcinoma. d) Anaplastic carcinoma.
5. The metaplastic cell lining atrophic thyroid follicles in Hashimoto’s
thyroiditis is called. (S-10)
a) Aschoff’s cell. b) Hurthle cell,
c) Langerhan’s cell. d) Anitschkow cell.
6. Hypoglycaemia (bllod glucose 50 mg/dl or lower) is a characteristic
findings in. (S-10)
a) Gastrinoma, b) Insulinoma, c) Glucagonoma. d) VIP oma.
7. The subtype of thyroid carcinoma that has the highest relative
frequency is. (S-10)
a) Papillary carcinoma. b) Follicular carcinoma.

A. ' 1 A.
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Medullary carcinoma. d) Anaplastic carcinoma.
8. Psammoma bodies are seen in (S-11)
a) Anaplastic carcinoma of throid
b) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
c) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
d) Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
9. Thyroid stimulating hormone antibodies in Graves’ disease are
(W-11)
a) IgA b) IgM c) IgG d) IgE
10. Multiple gastric ulcers are seen in (S-12)
a) Diabetes mellitus b) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
c) Sjorgen syndrome d) Cushing syndrome
11. Brown tumor of bone is caused by (S-12)
a) Hyperthyroidism b) Hypothyroidism
c) Hypoparathyroidism d) H yperparathyroidism
12. One of the following has better prognosis (W-12)
a) Infiltrating duct carcinoma b) Intraductal carcinoma
c) Phylioid tumour d) Medullary carcinoma
13. Following carcinoma of thyroid has the most indolent course (S-13)
a) Follicular b) Papillary
c) Medullary d) Anaplastic
14. Psammoma bodies may be observed in following EXCEPT(W-13)
a) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid b) Meningioma
c) Serous carcinoma of ovary d) Hepatocellular carcinoma
15. Hashimotos thyroiditis is (W-13)
a) Degenerative disease '
b) Inflammatory disease
c) Immunologically mediated disorder
d) Neoplastic disorder
16. Medullary carcinoma thyroid arises from (S-14)
a) C cells b) Follicular cells
c) Hurthle cells d) Primitive pluripotent cells
17. A solitary thyroid nodule is more likely malignant when (S-14)
a) It is hot (good radioiodine uptake)
b) Patient is older age group
c) It is cystic
d) Patient is young male
18. Following type of carcinoma of thyroid secrets Calcitonin. (W-15)
a) Anaplastic b) Follicular c) Medullary d) Papillary
19. Psammoma bodies are seen in (W-15)
a) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid b) Meningioma

1 781
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
c) Serous cystadenoma of ovary d) All of the above
20. In Hashimoto’s thyroiditis there fs highest risk of (S-16)
a) Carcinoma b) Lymphoma
c) Fibroma d) Sarcoma
21.. The following thyroid cancer is a neuroendocrine tumour. (W-16)
a) Papillary carcinoma b) Follicular carcinoma
c) Medullary carcinoma d) Anaplastic carcinoma
22. Long term assessment of diabetes is provided by. (W-16)
a) Whole blood glucose estimation.
b) Plasma glucose estimation.
c) Serum glucose estimation
d) Glycosylated haemoglobin.
SAQ
*1. Describe laboratory diagnosis of diabetis melitus.(W-02)
2. Hashimoto's thyroiditis.(S-99){W-96,86)(S-98j
3. Enumerate criteria for diagnosis of thyroid adenoma 2 m.(S-03)
4. Glucose tolerance test.(S-99)(S-72)
5. Glucose tolerance cUrve.(S-01 )(W-75)
6. Discuss laboratory diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.(W-06)
7. Describe gross and microscopic features of adenoma of thyroid.
(S-12)
8. Write short answer on Glycosylated Haemoglobin. (S-14)
9. Classify tumors of thyroid. Write note on colloid goitre. (W-14)
10. Give an account of Oral glucose tolerance test (Indications and
interpretation of result). (W-15)
11. MEN Syndrome. (W-16)
12. Ketonuria. (S-77)
13. Glycosuria. (W-74)(S-84)
14. Renal glycosuria. (S-78)
15. Ketone bodies. (S-80)
16. Follicular carcinoma. (S-91)
17 Glycosylated Haemoglobin. (S-92)
18. Lab. investigations in suspected diabetes mellitus. (W-93)(S-94,97)
19. Gross & Microscopic appearance - Hashimoto's Thyroditis. (S-95)
20. Describe the lab. inv. in case of suspected diabetes mellitus.(S-95)
21. Hashimoto's thyroiditis. (W-96)
22. Gross and microscopic features of nodular goitre. (W-98)
LAQ
1. Discuss laboratory diagnosis of Diabetes mellitus. (S-00)(S-85j(W-87)
2. Describe method and interpretation of oral glucose tolerance test.
(S-05)
3. Discuss laboratory diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.(W-06)
l7 9 l
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication

4. Describe renal changes and lab, diagnosis in diabetes mellitus.(S-07)

5. Describe etiology and classification of diabetes mellitus. Discuss
laboratory diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.(W-07)
6. Define diabetes mellitus. Classify it, and give its laboratory
investigations.(S-10)
7. Describe laboratory investigations in'a suspected case of diabetes
mellitus. (W-13)
8. Describe indications, method and interpretation of Oral Glucose
Tolerance Test (GTT). (W-14)
9. W rite down diagnosis criteria of diabetes mellitus. Describe the
pathogenesis and morphology of diabetic glomerulosclerosis. (S-16)
26. The Musculoskeletal System.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Giant cell tumour of the bone arises from (S-03)
a) Diaphysis. b) Metaphysis.
c) Epiphysis. d) None of the above.
2. Which of the following tumours is uncommon in childhood and
infancy. (S-03)
a) wilm’s tumour b) ewing’s sarcoma
c) neuroblastoma d) chondrosarcoma
3. High risk of HPV implicated in cervical intraepithelial lesions are.
(S-04)
a) 6 & 11. b) 5 & 8. c) 16 & 18. d)19& 22.
4. The commonest site for development of osteogenic sarcoma is
(S-04)
a) Around knee joint. b) Around hip joint,
c) Vertebral column. d) Bones of jaw.
5. Acetyl choline receptors of postsynaptic membranes of
neuromuscular junction are the antigenic targets in (S-04)
a) Muscular dystrophy. b) Inflammatory myopathies,
c) Myasthenia gravis. d) Myositis ossificans.
6. X ray picture of ‘Codman’s triangle’ is seen in (W-08)
a) Ewing’s tumor of bone. b) Osteogenic sarcoma,
c) Osteoblastoma. d) Chondrosarcoma.
7. Tophi’ are characteristics of (S-09)
a) Rheumatoid arthritis. b) Osteo arthritis,
c) Gouty arthritis. d) Psoriatic arthritis.
8. In giant cell tumor of bone, the tumour cells are. (S-10)
a) Osteoclastic giant cells. b) Fibroblastic cells.
c) Mononuclear stromal cells, d) Sinusoidal lining cells.
9. In Giant tumour of the bone tumour cells are. (W-10)
1801
►4
 2ndM.B.B.S. Book w ith Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
a) Osteoclastic gant cells, b) Mononuclear stromal cells,
c) Fibroblasts. d) Sinusoidal lining cells.
10. Multiple osteolytic lesions in the flat bones are common in. (W-10)
a) Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma. b) Multiple myeloma.
c) Hodgkin’s lymphoma. d) O steosarcom a.
11. ‘Tophi’ are characteristic of. (W-10)
iMtoMM

a) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Rheumatic arthritis,

c) Gouty arthritis. d) Osteoarthritis.
12. Homer-Wright’s rosettes are seen in (S-11)
a) Astrocytoma b) Neuroblastoma
c) Meningioma d)Pinealoma
13. Multiple osteomas are a feature of (W-11)
a) Albright’s syndrome b) Gardner’s syndrome
c) Felty’s syndrome d) All of the above
14. Gout is characterised by deposition of (W-12)
a) Sulphates b) Urates c) Nitrates d) Phytates
15. Dead bone in osteomyelitis is called (W-12)
a) Sequestrum b) Callus c) Involucrum d) Osteoid
16. Following pathogen is frequent cause of osteomylitis in individuals
with sickle cell disease. (W-13)
a) Escherichia coli b) Klebsiella
c) Haemophilus influenzae d) Salmonella
17. Sickle cell disease patients are susceptible to osteomyelitis caused
by (S-14)
a) Staph, aureus b) Salmonella ,
c) E.coli d) Streptococci
18. Complication of Tuberculous osteomyelitis is (S-15)
a) Pott's disease b) Psoas abscess
c) Amyloidosis d) All of above
19. HLA B27 is associated with increased risk of development of (W-16)
a) Osteoarthritis , b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Ankylosing spondylitis d) Reiter’s syndrome
20. Soap bubble appearance in X-ray is feature of (S-16)
a) Osteoclastoma b) Osteoid osteoma
c) Osteosarcoma d) Osteochondroma
SAQ
1. Chondrosarcoma. (S-99)
2. Gross & Microscopy of osteogenic sarcoma.(S-99)
3. Giant Cells.(S-00)(S-95J
4. Osteogenic sarcoma.(S-02 )(W-70,75,76,82,91)(S-84)
5. Osteoclastoma. (S-05)(W-71)(S-78,80,82,83)
M
■1*1 I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication

6. Radiological and microscopic features of osteosarcoma. (S-07)

7. Mention gross, microscopic and radiologic features of osteogenic
sarcoma. (W-07)
8. Classify bone tumors. Write radiologic, gross and microscopic
features of osteoclastoma. (S-12)
9. Gross and microscopic features of osteogenic sarcoma. (W-12)
10. Describe radiologic, gross and microscopic findings of osteogenic
sarcoma. (S-16)
11. C-Reactive proteins. (S-70)
12. Tuberculous osteomyelitis. (W-78)
13. Ewing's tumour. (W-86,89)
14. Giant cell tumour. (S-88)(W-91)
15. Acute Osteomyelitis. (S-89)(W-95)
16. Chronic osteomyelitis.(W-92)
LAQ
1. Classify bone tumours. Write gross & microscopic features of
osseogenic sarcoma.(W-OO)
2. W hat is osteomyelitis ? Describe gross and microscopic features of
pyogenic osteomyelitis. Describe clinical course of this disease.
(S-10)
3. Classify bone tumors. Describe clinical, gross and microscopic
features of osteosarcoma. (W-13)
4. Classify primary bone tumors. Describe morphology and clinical course
of osteosarcoma. (S-14)
5. W rite in brief on Rheumatoid Arthritis. (S-15)
27. Soft Tissue Tumours.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The commonest soft tissue tumor in adult is (S-11)
a) Leiomyoma- b) Fibroma c) Lipoma d) Histiocytoma
2. The most common soft tissue sarcoma in children is (W-14,16)
a) Liposarcoma b) Rhabdomyosarcoma
c) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma d) Synovial sarcoma
SAQ
1. Gross and microscopic features of meningioma. (W-12)
LAQ
None
28. The Nervous System.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Most common group of primary central nervous system tumour are
(S-03)
M
182:
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) Astrocytomas. b) Oligodendrogliomas,
c) Medulloblastomas. d) Ependymomas.
2. Cob-Web Coagulase in CSF is most often seen in (S-03)
a) tubercular meningitis b) pyogenic meningitis
c) viral meningitis d) amoebic meningitis
3. Glucose content of c.s.f. in unaltered in the following type of
meningitis. (S-04)
a) acute pyogenic meningitis b) acute viral meningitis
c) tuberculous meningitis d) none of the above.
4. Exudate is predominantly located at the base of brain in (W-08)
a) Viral meningitis. b) Pyogenic meningitis.
c) Tuberculous meningitis. d) Syphilitic meningitis.
5. Commonest glioma is. (S-09)
a) Oligodendroglioma. b) Craniopharyngioma,
c) Medulloblastoma. d) Astrocytoma.
6. India ink preparation of CSF is done to detect. (W-09)
a) Pyogenic meningitis. b) Viral meningitis.
c) Cryptococcal meningitis. d) Chemical meningitis.
7. The most common neoplasm of CNS seen in patients with HIV
infection is (W-09)
a) Astrocytoma. b) Oligo dendroglioma.
c) Medulloblastoma. d) Primary lymphoma of brain.
8. Astrocytomas belong to the group of CNS tumors called. (S-10)
a) Gliomas. b) Neuronal tumors.
c) Poorly differentiated neoplasms, d) Meningiomas.
9. The glucose content of the cerebrospinal fluid is nearly unaltered in.
(W-10)
a) Acute pyogenic meningitis, b) Acute viral meningitis,
c) Cryptococcal meningitis. d) Tuberculous meningitis.
10. Cryptococcus Neoformans is demonstrated in CSF using (W-12)
a) India Ink Stain b) Gram’s Stain
c) Fite Faraco Stain d) May Grunwald Giemsa Stain
11. Psammoma bodies may be observed in following EXCEPT(W-13)
a) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid b) Meningioma
c) Serous carcinoma of ovary d) Hepatocellular carcinoma
12. Cerebro-spinal fluid shows Cob web formation in (W-13)
a) Cryptococcal meningitis
b) Tuberculous meningitis
c) Viral meningitis
d) Metastatic mucin producing adenocarcinoma
13. Following is the rarely metastasizing tumor (S-14)
M
1831
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Melanoma b) Myeloma
c) Gliomas d) Seminoma
14. Cryptococcus neoformans can be visualized in Cerebrospinal fluid
(CSF) by (S-14)
a) Periodid acid-Schiff Stain b) India-ink preparation
c) MuciCarmine stain d) Silver stain
\ 15. Calcification usually occurs in (W-14)
a) Pilocystic astrocytoma
b) Brain stem glioma
c) Ependymoma
d) Oligodendroglioma
16. Which type of bodies are seen in Schwannoma ? (S-15)
a) Lewy bodies b) Picks bodies
e) Lafora bodies d) Verocay bodies
' 17. Medulloblastoma is a lesion of (W-15)
a) Cerebrum b) Cerebellum
c) Pons and Medulla d) Spinal cord
18. Psammoma bodies are seen in (W-15)
a) Papillary carcinoma of thyroid b) Meningioma
c) Serous cystadenoma of ovary d) All of the above
19. Following type of meningitis shows usually normal CSF glucose level.
(W-15)
a) Acute purulent meningitis
b) Acute lymphocytic meningitis
c) Tuberculous meningitis
d) Cryptococcal meningitis
20. Following brain tumor commonly shows calcification. (W-15)
a) Pilocytic astrocytoma b) Ependymoma
c) Oligodendroglioma d) Medulloblastoma
21. Cerebral infarcts occur most commonly in areas supplied by the
branches of the (W-15)
a) Anterior cerebral artery b) Middle cerebral artery
c)Posterior cerebral artery d) Internal carotid artery
22. Repair of the necrosed neuroglial tissue is brought about by (W-16)
a) Neuroglial cells b) Proliferation of neurones
c) Ependymal cells d) Lymphocytes
23. Verocay bodies are found in (S-16)
a) Neurofibroma b) Meningioma
c) Schwannoma d) Lymphoma
24. Drop Metastates is commonly observed in. (W-16)
a) Anaplastic astrocytoma b) Glioblastoma multiforme

1841
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdE dition b y U nique Publication
c) Medulloblastoma d) Ependymoma
SAQ
1. Gross & Microscopy of TB meningitis.(S-99)
2. C.S.F. in Pyogenic meningitis. (W-00)(W-82J
3. CSF finding in pyogenic meningitis.(W-03)
4. Describe gross & microscopic features of meningioma. (W-04)
5. List the CSF findings in Tuberculous meningitis. (S-05)
6. Histological types of gliomas.(S-06)
7. Etiology and CSF findings in acute pyogenic meningitis.(S-07)
8. Enumerate the CSF findings in a case of tuberculous meningitis.
(S-13)
9. Describe morphology and CSF findings in acute (purulent)
leptomeningitis. (W-13)
10. Describe gross and microscopic features of meningioma. (W-14)
11. Tabulate differences in CSF examination in pyogenic, tuberculous
and viral meningitis. (S-15)
12. Brain in pyogenic meningitis. (S-70,75,79,87,95)
13. Brain in tuberculous meningitis. (W-74,91)(S-80,82,87)
14. C.S.F. Meningitis. (W-75,86,88,96)(S-98)
15 T. B. Meningitis. (S-86)
16. Astrocytoma. (S-87)
17. C.S.F. in viral encephalitis. (S-91)
18. Pyogenic Meningitis. (W-98)
19. Meningioma. (S-98)
LAQ
1. a. Describe CSF findings in case of meningitis.
b. Describe the investigations in multiple myeloma.(W-01 )A98.
2. Aetiology of pyogenic meningitis list indications of csf scan.
CSF finding in pyogenic and tubercular meningitis.(S-03) '
3,. Enumerate causative organisms of acute pyogenic meningitis.
Describe C.S.F. picture in pyogenic meningitis. Give gross
appearance of the brain.(W-04)
4. List of indications for CSF examination. Give CSF findings in acute
pyogenic meningitis and tuberculous meningitis. (S-12)
5. Describe the aetiology of pyogenic meningitis. List the indications of
CSF examination. Give the CSF findings in pyogenic and
tuberculous meningitis. (W-14)
6. Describe the laboratory investigations on a case of pyrexia of
unknown origin. (W-15)
7. Describe etiology, gross microscopic features of pyogenic meningitis.(W-90)
29. Appendix I : Basic diagnostic cytology.
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

MCQ (MUHS)
1. Oil red 0 is used to demonstrate. (S-03)
a) glycogen b) mucin c) amyloid d) fat.
2. Masson’s trichrome stain is used to demonstrate . (W-04)
a) elastic fibres b) collagen c) glycogen d) mucus
3. The special stain for fat is (S-09)
a) prossian blue b) sudan Iv
c) congo-red.. d) periodic acid schiff (PAS)
4. Deposits of antigen-antibody complex on glomerular
basemembrane are detected by (W-09)
a) light microscopy b) dark ground microscopy
c) polarising microscopy d) immunofluorescence microscopy
5. Frozen section is useful for all of the following EXCEPT. (S-10)
a) immunofluorescence.
b) demonstration of fat.
c) studying detailed morphology of tumors.
d) demonstration of enzymes
6. Following fixative is needed for electron microscopic study of tumor
(S-14)
a) Formalin b) Glutaraldehyde
c) Absolute alcohol d) Ether-Alcohol
7. Frozen section is used for demonstration of (W-15)
a) Glycogen b) Amyloid c) Fibrin* d) Fat
SAQ
1. Exfoliative cytology.(W-04)
2. Westergreen tube.(S-06)
3. Mitochondria. (S-70)(W-73)
4. Immunofluorescence. (W-84)
5. Microscopes.(S-86)
6. Electron microscope as diagnostic aid. (S-87)
7. Fixatives used in histopathology. (S-97)
8. FNAC. (W-96)
9. Microscopic examination of sputum.(S-85,94)
10. Sputum examination.(S-98) -
11. FNAC. (S-97)
12. Phase contrast microscopy. (S-97)
13. Romanowsky stain. (W-97)
LAQ
None
30. Miscellaneous.
MCQ (MUHS)
M
2 >dM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
None
SAQ
1. Pregnancy tests. (S-99)(S -76M 92,93,97)(W-74,78,91)
2. Different anticoagulants uses.(W-04)
3. Thymol turbidity test. (W-70)(S-73)
4. Lipochrome pigments. (S-75)
5. Lung in CPC. (W-75,85)(S-80)
1 6. Anticoagulants. (S-76)
" 7. Significance of specific gravity of urine. (S-76,84)
8. Fetal haemoglobin. (S-80,91,94)
9. Isotopes. (S-83)
10. Schwartzman reaction. (S-84)
11. Importance of peripheral blood smear. (S-85,87,89,89,91,93,95)
12. Selection of kidney transplant donor. (S-87)
13. Describe investigations of a case of PUO. (S-90)(W-91)
14. Isoenzymes. (S-90)
15. Describe how will you investigate a case of PUO. (S-93)
16. Preservation of blood in a blood bank.(W-94)
17. Parasites found in peripheral blood smear. (W-95)
18. Serum Calcium. (S-96)
19. Widal Test. (S-96)
20. Utility of peripheral blood smear examination. (S-97)
21. Diagnostic values of serum enzymes.(W-98)
LAQ

M
87
>-4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

PATHOLOGY-I MUHS QUESTION PAPERS

W INTER -1 9 9 9

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION - B & SECTION - C
In struction s:
1) A ll questions are com pulsory.
2) The number to the rig h t indicates fu ll marks.
3) Draw diagrams w herever necessary. V,
4) D o not write anything on the blank po rtion o f the question paper, written
anything, such type of act will be consideredas an attempt to resort to unfair
means.
SECTION-B
1. A 10 yrs old boy presented with generalised convulsions since
monitoring-twice. He gave H/o fever, headache and vomiting for
last two days. He also gave H/o purulent discharge from (Left)
ear of and on for last 1 year. Soon after admission patient started
deteriorationg. Urgent L.P. was done and 2 ml. of turbid, purulent
C.S.F. was obtained, which was sent for further pathological
examination. Patient died before doing anything further. Describe
the salient autopsy findings and give clinicopathological correction.
Mention the autopsy investigations to be done to confirm the
diagnosis.
2. Describe etiopathogenesis and pathology of acute Rheumatic Heart
Disease. Mention various complications which may follow acute
Rheumatic Heart Disease. 12 Marks
OR
Enumerate various ulcerative lesions of small Intestine.
Give gross and microscopic appearance of any two of them.
3. Write short notes on any f o u r 16 Marks
a) Staining reactions of amyloid.
b) Dystrophic calcification. * .
c) Gross and microscopic appearance of leiomyoma of the Uterus.
d) Gross and microscopic appearance of Flear-beaten kidney.
- e) Gross and microscopic appearance of tuberculosis of
lung-primary complex.
4. Define inflammation. Describe the role of chemical mediators in
pathogenesis of acute inflammation. 12 Marks
OR
Define repair. Describe healing of skin Wound by primary intesion.
Enumerate various factors which affect wound healing.
5. Define jaundice. Describe the role of laboratory in diagnosis
M
l8 8 l
M
2"rfM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
ofjaundice following infective hepatitis. 12 Marks
OR
Classify anaemias. Describe the laboratory investigation in a C/o
Megaloblastic Anaemia.
6. Write short notes on any f o u r 16 Marks
a) Eosinophilia.
b) Bence Jones proteins.
c) Immunological pregnancy tests.
d) Sickle cell.
e) Blood Component therapy.
f ill1lill:
®

SUMMER -2 0 0 0
. ........ ...............
K» ir
(2 1/_ Hours) Total 35 Marks
SECTION-B
1. A 43 yrs old male executive, with type a personality, was
admitted to the hospital, with severe chest pain and sweating
he had a H/o hypertension and diabetes. He was admitted in
the ICCU, but developed ventricular fibrilation and expired.
Discuss the autopsy findings with clinicopathological correlation. 12 Mark
2. Describe the etiological classification and complications of,
cirrhosis of the liver. Describe the gross and microscopic
appearance of biliary cirrhosis.
OR
Describe the pathogenesis, gross, microscopic appearance and
complications of infective endocarditis.
3. Write short noes on any f o u r 16 Marks
a) Pathological Pigmentation.
b) Klinefelter’s Syndrome.
c) Fat Necrosis.
d) Arthus Phenomenon.
e) Amniotic Fluid Embolism.
f) Laboratory Diagnosis of Cancer.
4. Define chronic inflammation, mention the etiology of chronic
inflammation. Describe the differences between acute and
chronic inflammation. 12Marks
5. 12 Marks
a) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.
b) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis and differential diagnosis
of jaundice.
OR
a) Discuss the classification of hemolytic anemia.
b) Discuss the cytochemical stains for the diagnosis of acute leukamia.
6. Write short notes on any four:- 16Marks
M
1 891
K4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Rh Factor.
b) Giant Cells.
c) Barr Body.
d) Septic Shock.
e) Hematuria.
f) Diet and Cancer.

W INTER - 2000

SECTION-B
Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
1. Discuss briefly pathogenesis of irreversible cell injury
Enumerate any four conditions.
2. Define Thrombosis. Enumerate the difference between
antemortem thrombus and post mortem clot.
3. List the differences between carcinoma in situ and
precancerous lesions.
4. Enumerate the differences between transudate and exudate.
5. Describe in brief Apoptosis.
6. Define chemotaxis. List important chemotactic agents.
7. What is meant by carcinogenesis ?
Classify important chemical carcinogens.
SECTiON-C
Answer any t w o 14 Marks
1. How do you select a blood donor ? Discuss the various tests
carried out on a blood unit before it is transfused.
2. Classify and describe the pathology and pathogenesis of
amyloidosis.
3. State FAB classification of Acute myeloblastic leukaemia.
Describe peripheral blood smear, bone marrow and cyto
chemistry findings of acute leukaemia.

SUMMER - 2001

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
a. Enumerate differentiating features between necrosis,
gangrene and infarction.
b. What is meant by carcinogenesis ? i
Classify important chemical carcinogenesis.
c. Define repair. Enumerate the differences between wound
healing by primary intension and secondary intention.
d. Mention microscopic features of skin in tuberculoid leprosy
e. Enumerate the differences between Leukaemia and
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
Leukaemoid reaction.
f. Describe sex chromatin.
g. Define phagocytosis. List the factors modifying phagocytosis.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a. Define chemical mediators of Inflammation. Classify them.
Describe the functions of plasma derived chemical mediators.
b. Define anaemia. Discuss lab. diagnosis of megaloblastic anaemia.
c. Discuss different types of transfusion reaction.

W INTER - 2001

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
a. List the lab. investigations in sickle cell disease.
b. List the special stains used for detection of amyloid in sections.
c. Describe healing of clean surgical wound.
d. Enlist the lab. investigations and its findings in a suspected
case of multiple myeloma.
e. Tabulate differences between transudate and exudate.
f. How is haemosiderin pigment formed ?
Give its pathological significance.
g. Define and classify shock.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a. Define and classify necrosis. Describe the morphology of
coagulative necrosis in kidney.
b. Define and classify anaemia. Discuss lab. investigations in
Iron deficiency anaemia.
c. Define metastases.
Describe pathways of dissemination of,malignant tumours.

S U M M E R -2002

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
a. Enumerate the products released by activated macrophages.
b. List the steps involved in the mechanism of fatty chage in liver.
c. List the investigations carried out in haemolytic transfusion reaction.
d. Enumerate differentiating features between dystrophic and
metastatic calcification.
e. Define the following
i. Dysplasia. ii. Hyperplasia.
iii. Neoplasia. iv. Atrophy.
M
A. 91
X * 1^
A,
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
f. What is molecular basis of cancer ?
Explain by giving two examples.
g. Describe sex chromatin.
SECTION-C
2, Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
a. Define and classify Leukaemia. Describe the peripheral
blood picture and bone marrow findings of Acute Myeloid
Leukaemia. ♦
b. Define Repair. Discuss healing by secondary union and
enumerate factors modifying repair.
c. Define and classify Granulomas. Discuss in detail about :
evolution and progress of tuberculous granuloma. ;

W INTER - 2002

SECTION-B . ..>
1. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
a. Define and classify infarction.
Identify which type of infarcts occur in the following organs
a) Lungs. b) Spleen.
b. Write four characteristics of Down’s Syndrome.
c. List any four differences between transudate and exudate in
a table form. ,
d. List the important features of transcoelomic spread of neoplasia.
e. Make a simple chart showing the generation of arachidonic
acid metabolites and their roles in inflammation.
f. Describe megaloblast.
g. List four early and three, late complications of blood transfusion.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
a. What is acute inflammation ? Mention the sequence of
events in acute inflammation and describe the cellular
events. Mention the sequelae.
b. Define thrombosis. Discuss patogenesis, morphology and
fate of thrambi.
c. Discuss the lab. tests for the diagnosis of coagulation disorders.

S U M M E R -2003

SECTION-B
II. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
1. Describe the chemical nature of amyloid.
2. Define metastatic calcification.
Mention four sites of metastatic calcification.
l9 2 l
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
3. Enumerate four differences between dry and wet gangrene.
4. Draw a well labelled diagram of the microscopic features of
tubercular granuloma.
5. List the important manifestations (lesions) of Vitamin A deficiency.
6. Enumerate the criteria for the selection of blood donors.
7. Enumerate modes of spread of tumours with examples.
SECTION-C
III. Attempt any two 14 Marks
1. Describe healing by first intention (Primary Union) with the
help of a diagram.
2. Define and classify Neoplasia. Enumerate the factors involved
in carcinogenesis. Mention the role of genes in carcinogenesis.
3. Define and classify anaemia. Mention the lab. diagnosis of
megaloblastic anaemia.

W INTER -2 0 0 3

SECTION-B
II. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
1. Define hyaline change and give two examples.
2. List the important types of lesions seen in secondary
pulmonary tuberculosis.
3. Mention the stains for amyloid.
4. Enumerate the infections transmitted by blood transfusion.
5. Define neoplasm. List at least four examples of cancers due
to habits and custome.
6. Give FAB classification of acute leukaemia.
7. Compare the findings in urine examination in cases of acute
glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome.
SECTION-C
II. Attempt any two ' 14 Marks
1. . Describe the important clinical and haematological features
of chronic myeloid leukaemia.
2. Define thrombosis. Discuss the patogenesis of thrombosis.
3. What are the essential clinical and pathological features of
primary tuberculosis ? Give a brief description of the lesions
in primary tuberculosis.

S U M M E R -2 0 0 4

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
a. Define apoptosis. Give two examples of apoptosis.
b. . Define tumour markers. Enumerate four tumour markers
M
^ 93 ^
*4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
and the malignancy associated with each of them.
c. Define hypertrophy. Enumerate causes of hypertropy.
d. Describe the gross and microscopic features of chronic
venous congestion of liver.
e. Enumerate the differences between transudate and exudate.
f. Mention the indications for Direct and Indirect Coombs test.
g. Describe the immune mechanism in Type II hypersensitivity
with examples.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
a. Discuss the healing of a fracture.
Enumerate factors affecting wound healing.
b. Define neoplasms. What is metastases ?
Describe various methods of spread of tumours.
c. Give the classification of anaemias.
Disucuss the lab. diagnosis of sickle cell disease.

W IN T E R - 2004

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
a. Exfolitave cytology.
b. Vascular events in acute inflammation.
c. Describe the blood picture in chronic myeloid leukaemia.
d. Gross and microscopic features of chronic passive congestion
of liver.
e. Different anticoagulants - uses.
f. Hypersensitivity reactions - mention types with examples.
g. Proteinuria. *
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
a. Define and classify amyloidosis. State their chemical nature.
Enumerate the special stains used for its klentification.
b. Define neoplasia. Write the differences between benign and
malignant neoplasms. Describe the spread of malignant tumours.
c. What is the significance of blood grouping ? Describe
laboratory investigations in a case of mismatched transfusion
reaction.

SUMMER -20 05

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six questions. * 12 Marks
a. Enumerate the types of necrosis and give the example of each type.
M
l9 4 l
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
b. What is hemosiderin and how it is emonstrated. Enumerate
three causes of hemosiderosis, (systemic overioad of ironj.
c. Define dysplasia. Mention two most common examples of dysplasia.
d. Describe P-S and B-M findings in megaloblastic anemia.
e. Define shock. Enumerate type of shock with example of each.
f. Write types of hypersensitivity reactions and give one
example of each.
g. Draw a well labelled diagram of peripheral smear in chronic
myeloid leukaemia.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a. What is repair ? Describe healing of wound by first intention.
b. Write the various pathways of spread of cancer. Describe the
mechanisms of invansion and metastasis of turner.
c. Classify anemia according to mechanisms Of its production.

W INTER - 2005

2 Hours 26 Marks
SECTION-B
1. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
a. Define amyloidosis and classify on the basis of clinical conditions.
b. Enumerate various cells of immune system.
c. List chemical mediators of inflammation.
d. Describe Embolism. Give types of embolism with suitable examples.
e. Classify and enumerate causes of Haematuria.
f. Enumerate types of leprosy.
g. Define following:
i) Hypertrophy. ii) Metaplasia.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a. Describe peripheral blood picture in haemolytic anaemia.
b. Define infarct.
Discuss morphological features of various types of infracts.
c. Define anaplasia. Give details of histological features of anplasia.

S U M M E R -2 0 0 6

2 Hours 26 Marks
SECTION-B
1. . Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
a. Describe in brief the features of a tubercle.
b. Describe peripheral blood smear findings in chronic myeloid
2nd M.B.B.S. B ook with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
leukaemia.
c. Define necrosis. State the morphologic type.
d. Define metaplasia. Write the mechanism of metaplasia in brief.
e. Enumerate differentiating features between benign and
malignant tumours.
f. Define DIC. Give four causes of DIC.
g. Westergreen tube.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
a. Describe the cellular events in Acute Inflammation.
b. Define and classify anaemias.
Discuss lab. diagnosis of Megaloblastic anaemia.
c. Discuss etiopathogenesis of Thrombosis and sequelae of a
thrombus. . .

W IN T E R - 2006

2 Hours 26 Marks
SECTION-B
1. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
a. Mention the causes of fatty liver.
b. Describe gross and microscopic features of nut-mag liver.
c. Define granuloma. Describe microscopy of tuberculous granuloma.
d. Enumerate any 4 causes of DIC.
e. Describe PS in chronic Myeloid Leukaemia.
f. Describe PS and BM findings in Megaloblastic anaemia.
g. Enumerate the fungal infections in AIDS.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
Define the term embolism. Describe the different types and
clinical significance of embolism.
b. Mention lab. diagnosis of Tumors.
c. How will you select a blood donor ?
What are transfusion reactions ?

SU M M ER -2007

2 Hours 26 Marks
SECTION-B
1. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks
a. Enumerate in a tubular form the differences between
necrosis and aptoptosis.
b. Give the definition and morphology of granuloma.

l9 6 l
 2 ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHSMCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
* c. Enumerate the features of congenital syphilis.
d. Write the lab. findings in a case of Iron deficiency anaemia.
e. What is dysplasia ? Give two examples.
f. Enumerate the modes of spread of malignancies with examples.
g. Enumerate the cellular events taking place In acute inflammation.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a. Discuss the pathogenesis, types, morphology and fates of a
thrombosis.
b. Discuss the chronological events in wound healing by first
attention. Discuss the factors affecting wound healing.
c. Discuss the approach to lab. diagnosis in a case of .
haemolytic anaemia.

W INTER - 2007

2 Hours 26 Marks
SECTION-B
■ta M m

1. Answer any six questions. 12 Marks

a. Mention histomorphological difference between tuberculoid
and lepromatous leprosy.
r<itiT«#:^ i ^

b. Enumerate 8 factors affecting wound healing.

c. List the differences between leukaemia and leukemoid reaction.
d. Enumerate 8 causes of splenomegaly.
e. Enumerate sites of wet gangrene. Mention their causes.
Describe gross appearance of one of such site.
f. Enumerate transmission patterns (Modes of inheritance) of
single gene disorder with appropriate example of each.
g. Enumerate 8 precancerous lesions.
, SECTION-C
.iin 11.....

2. Attempt any t w o 14 Marks

a. Define embolus. Enumerate different types of embolic.
i -<.I

Write in brief about air embolism.

b. Enumerate modes of spread of malignant tumor.
Describe in brief mechanism of each.
c. Classify anemias.
Describe lab. investigations in Iron deficiency anaemia.

W INTER - 2008

2 Hours 32 Marks
SECTION-B
1. Answer any five questions. 20 Marks
M
1971
M
 dM.B.B.S.
2n Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a. Explain in brief Virchow’s triad. '
Describe the gross and microscopic features of a thrombosis.
b. List and describe the peripheral blood smear findings in sickle
cell disease.
c. Give the FAB classification, peripheral smear and bone
marrow picture in acute myeloid leukemia.
d. Describe the gross, microscopic features and fate of
Ghorfs complex.
e. Describe healing of wound by second intention.
f. Describe the gross, microscopic features and complications
of uterine leiomyoma.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two:- 12 Marks
a. Define inflammation.
Describe in detail the cellular events in inflammation.
b. Define neoplasia. Give classification, routes of spread and
lab. diagnosis of neoplasia.
c. What are blood components ?
Describe the various blood transfusion reactions.

S U M M E R -2009

2 Hours 32 Marks
SECTION-B
1: Answer any five questions. 20 Marks
a) Describe gross and microscopic features of amyloidosis of Kidney.
b) Classify pathological calcification. Describe differences
between the types and give three causes of each type.
c) Describe the principle of prothrombin time and enumerate four
conditions causing its prolongation.
d) Describe gross and microscopic features of Amoebic colitis.
e) Classify Hypersensitivity Reactions. Give two examples of
diseases caused by each type. Describe the mechanism of
any one of these reactions.
f) Mention the sites and complication of Bone marrow aspiration.
Enumerate eight specific indications.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Solve any two: (2x6=12)
a) Define granuloma. Classify granulomatous diseases giving
examples. Describe the formation of a tuberculous granuloma.
b) Classify chemical carcinogens. Describe the events involved in
chemical carcinogenesis.
c) Discuss transfusion reactions and enumerate lab. investigations
in a case of mismatched transfusion.
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication

W IN T E R - 2009

2 Hours 32 Marks
SECTION-B
1 Answer any five questions. 20 Marks
a) Enumerate the different types of necrosis. Write in detail
about coaguiative and liquefactive necrosis with examples.
b) * Describe gross and microscopic features, in liver and spleen
occuring due to right sided heart failure.
c) List common sites of primary tuberculosis. Mention components
of primary complex and draw schematic diagram showing
evolution of tubercle.
d) Explain process of chemical carcinogenesis giving examples.
e) ‘ A patient haemoglobin 8.5 gm%, PCV-30%, RBC count
3 million/cmm. Calculate the blood indices in this patient.
- Write your interpretation.
- Write peripheral smear and bone marrow findings in this patient.
f) List the different stains used for amyloid demonstration.
Write the gross and microscopic features of amyloidosis of spleen.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Attempt any two out of t h r e e ' (2x6=12)
a) Explain the terms regeneration and repair. Mention factors affecting
wound healing. Write in detail about healing of fracture.
b) Write the etiology, routes of transmission, natural history (phases)
and diagnosis of AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome).
c) Define leukemia. Classify them. Give FAB classification of acute
leukemia. Mention the cytochemical stains used and lab findings
of acute leukemia.

S U M M E R - 2010

2 Hours 32 Marks
SECTION-B
1. Answer any five questions. 20 Marks
a. Mention types of necrosis.
Describe morphology of caseous necrosis.
b. Describe cellular changes in acute inflammation.
c. Describe clinical features and peripheral Blood smear
findings in chronic myeloid leukaemia.
d. Classify amyloidosis. Mention special stains for amyloid.
e. Describe aetiopathogenesis of atherosclerosis.
f. Enumerate complications of wound healing and factors
M
1991
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
affecting wound healing.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any t w o 12 Marks
a. Write the different transfusion reactions and investigations
done in a case of blood transfusion reaction.
b. Define neoplasia. Enumerate the differences between benign
and malignant tumor. Add a note on teratoma. .
c. Define and classify anaemia. ,
Describe investigations in haemolytic anaemia.

W IN T E R -2010

2 Hours 32 Marks
SECTION-B
1. Answer any five questions. 20 Maries
a) Define atrophy. Describe morphology and causes of brown atrophy
of heart. *
b) Enumerate types of acute inflammation.
c) Differences between dystrophic and metastatic calcification.
d) Name four commonly used.blood components.
e) FAB classification of acute leukemias.
f) Peripheral smear and bone marrow findings in megaloblastic anaemia.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Answer any two questions. (2x6=12)
a) - Describe healing of a simple fracture of bone and enumerate its
complications.
» b) Enumerate and classify chemical carcinogens.
Describe chemical carcinogenesis,
c) Define and classify bleeding disorders. .
Describe in brief screening lab. tests to investigate them.

S U M M E R -2011

2 Hours 32 Marks
SECTION-B
1. Answer any five questions. 20 Marks
a) Give causes and lab. investigations in thrombocytopenia.
b) Give differences between necrosis and apoptosis.
c) Write about Coomb’s test, its principle, uses and interpretation.
d) • Give detailed account of wound healing by primary intention.
e) What is Amyloidosis?
Give classification of amyloidosis with appropriate examples.
f) What is leukemoid reaction? Give differences between leukemia
and leukamoid reactions.
:*> o :
M -'
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by U nique Publication
SECTION-C
3. Attempt any two out of three (Long Answer Q u e s t i o n s ) 2x6=12'
a) Define Neoplasm. Write about lab. diagnosis of Neoplasia.
b) What is Shock ? Enumerate the main causes of shock and
discuss etiopathogenesis of septic shock.
c) Classify haemolytic anaemias. Give an account of clinical
presentation and lab. investigations in a case of sickle cell anaemia.

W IN T E R -2011

Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
2. Brief answer questions (Attempt any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Define healing of wound by primary intention. Mention varios fectors
affecting wound healing.
b) Write etiopathogenesis of Sickle cell anemia and mention various
laboratory investigations for diagnosis.
c) Write in brief about criteria of selection of donor for blood transfusion.
d) Define inflammation and describe vascular events in brief.
e) Define and give examples of each of following :
1) Metaplasia
2) Hypertrophy and hyperplasia
3) Atrophy.
f) Define apoptosis and mention various physiological and pathological
causes.
SECTION-C
3. Long answer question (LAQ) (Attempt any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define Neoplasia. Describe Various modes of spreads of Maliganant '
neoplasm
b) Define Thrombosis. Write etiopathogenesis and mention fate of a
thrombus. _^
c) Write morphological classification of Anaemia along with appropriate
examples and write various laboratory findings in Iron deficiency
anaemia.

S U M M E R -2 0 1 2

Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
2. Briefanswerquestions(anyfiveoutofsix): (5x4=20)
a) Classify leprosy. Describe microscopy of lepromatous leprosy.
b) Define Apoptosis, give examples and enumerate morphological
changes.

> 11
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
c) Draw a well labelled diagram of peripheral smear in megaloblastic
\ anema. ,
d) Enumerate oncogenic viruses with example of cancer caused by each.
e) Enumerate special stains for diagnosis of amyloidosis.
Describe gross features of Amyloidosis spleen.
f) Define thrombus. Enumerate complications of thrombus.
SECTION-C
-3. Solve any two out of three: (2x6=12)
a) Describe risk factors, progression and opportunistic infections
associated with HIV infection.
b) Define metastasis. Describe the mechanism in brief apd routs of
metastasis.
c) Classify hemolytic anemias. Enumerate tests for diagnosis of
hemoglobinopathies, with principle.

W IN T E R - 2012

Total Duration : Section A+B+C=2 Hours Section B & C M arks: 32

SECTION-B
2. Write any five out of s ix :
a) Write about the major fractions of blood and their utility.
b) Define apoptosis. Describe various mechanisms of apoptosis.
c) Define reperfusion injury. Describe its mechanism.
d) Describe gross and microscopy of granulation tissue. Enumerate
causes of delayed wound healing.
e) Define embolism. Write in short about pulmonary thromboembolism.
f) Write short note on paraneoplastic syndromes.
SECTION-C
3. Solve any two out of three:
a) Define metastasis. Describe mechanism and routes of metastasis.
b) Define necrosis. Write about various types of necrosis with examples.
c) Describe normal haemostasis. Discuss factors causing thrombosis.

S U M M E R -2013

Total Duration : Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C M arks: 32

SECTION-B
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of s ix ): (5x4=20)
a) Define apoptosis. Give examples and enumerate
morphological changes.
b) Criteria for selection of blood donor.
c) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
d) Enumerate special stains for amyloid.
e) Enumerate oncogenic viruses with examles of cancer caused
M
► 4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with S olved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
by each.
f) Describe in brief laboratory diagnosis of cancer.
SECTION-C
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify pigments. Describe the disorders assoiated with
hemopoetin derived pigments.
b) Define and classify leukemia. Describe the peripheral smear
1 and bone marrow findings in chronic myoloid leukemia.
c) JDefine inflammation. Enumerate cardinal signs of inflammations.
Describe vascular events in acute inflammation.

W INTER-2013

Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32

SECTION-B (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Types of Necrosis.
b) Cellular events in acute inflammation.
c) _Discuss types of Calcifications.
d) Define oedema. Give classification of oedema.
e) Peripheral Blood picture in Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia.
f) Investigation of suspected blood transfusion reaction.
SECTION-C (12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Questions (any two out three): (2x6=12)
a) Define Neoplasia. Discuss Pathways of spread of Malignant Neoplasm.
b) What is hypersensitivity ? Classify & Discuss hypersensitivity reactions.
c) Classify anaemias. Discuss Laboratory Diagnosis of Iron Deficiency
Anaemia.

SUMMER-2014

Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32

SECTION-B (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Describe endogenous pigments.
b) Draw a figure showing pathways leading to systemic edema from
primary heart failure.
c) Describe morphology of anaplastic tumor cells.
d) Neoplasms found in patients with HIV infection.
e) Describe Trisomy 21.
f) Enumerate the causes of thrombocytopenia.
SECTION-C (12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) What are free radicals ? Describe free radical-induced cell injury.

. > 3 l
¥4
2"5 M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
b) Enumerate major chemical carcinogens. Describe mechanisms of
action of chemical carcinogens.
c) Enumerate causes of megaloblastic anemia. Describe its peripheral
blood and bone marrow findings.

W IN T E R -2 0 1 4

Total Duration: Section A+B + 0 = 2 Hours Section B &C Marks: 32

SECTION - B(SAQ)
(20 Marks)
Short answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) State various postmortem changes in body after death.
b) State the physicochemical properties of amyloid,
c) Mention the indications for direct and indirect Coomb’s test.
d) Write a note on Ridley and Jopling classification of leprosy.
e) Discuss the role of tumour markers and their role in diagnosis.
f) What is Virchow triad ? Discuss its role in thrombus formation.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define oedema, mention various types. Describe pathophysiologic
mechanism, gross and microscopic changes in pulmonary oedema.
b) Define, neoplasia. Describe the various steps in chemical
carcinogenesis with suitable examples.
c) Enumerate the causes of macrocytic anaemia. Give the peripheral
smear and bone marrow findings in a case of megaloblastic anaemia.

SUMMER -2 0 1 5

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32

SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
1. Short answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Lepromatous Leprosy.
b) Chemical mediators of inflammation.
c) Dystrophic calcification.
d) Phylloides tumour.
e) Megaloblast.
f) Exudate and transudate.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define neoplasia. Enumerate thedifferences between benign and
malignant tumour. Add a note on teratoma.

> 4 l
*4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition b y Unique Publication
b) Define and classify anaemia, Describe investigations in Iron deficiency
anaemia.
c) Define embolus. Enumerate different types of emboli. Write in brief
about air embolism.

W IN T E R -2 0 1 5

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
1. Short answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) -Enumerate the factors affecting wound healing.
b) Define amyloid. Give classification of amyloidosis.
c) Prothrombin time-Principle of the test and causes increased
prothrombin tim e.
d) Endogenous pigments.
e) ‘ Criteria for selection of a blood donor.
f) Discuss the pathogenesis of primary tubercolosis.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define thrombus. Discuss the pathogenesis, types, fate and
complications of a thrombus.
b) Define neoplasia. Enumerate the differences between benign and
malignant neoplasm. Mention different modes of metastasis.
c) Define anaemia. Give classification of anaemia. Enumerate laboratory
investigations in hemolytic anaemia.

S U M M E R -2 0 1 6

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Describe types of calcification.
b) Describe chemotaxis and phagocytosis.
c) Describe gross and microscopic findings in lepromatous leprosy.
d) Discuss mechanisms of autoimmune disorders.
e) Write a note on haemophilia.
f) Write a note on apoptosis.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define embolism. Discuss different types of embolisms with suitable
M
I105I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication ■Z

examples.
b) Define neoplasia. Enumerate differences between benign and malignant
neoplasms. Write laboratory diagnosis of neoplasia.
c) Write classification of anaemia. Discuss laboratory investigations of
iron deficiency anaemia.

W INTER -2016

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Telepathology.
b) Sago spleen.
c) Down’s syndrome. f
d) Precancerous lesions.
e) Hematological findings in a case of Megaloblastic anaemia.
f) Coomb’s Test.
SECTION-C
(12Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
;♦
a) Discuss etiopathogenesis of Fatty change. Describe morphology of fatty
liver.
b) Define autoimmunity. Discuss pathogenesis of autoimmunity.
c) Define Oedema. Discuss pathogenesis of oedema. Give an accout of
pulmonary oedema.

SUMMER-2017

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Define hypersensitivity reaction. Discuss Type I hypersensitivity
reaction. .
b) Critera for selection of a blood donor.
c) Give molecular structure and special stains for Amyloid.
d) Define infarct. Discuss types of infarct.
e) Enumerate the factors affecting wound healing.
f) Define oedema. Give differences between transudate and exudate.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define necrosis. Discuss different types of necrosis with suitable
I106I
M
 2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
/ examples.
-b) Give differences between benign and malignant neoplasms. Discuss
routes of spread of malignant neoplasms with suitable examples,
c) Discuss laboratory investigations in a case of megaloblastic anaemia.

Atr aV aV a$* At# aV At* At*

V V 7 *A ¥$* Vf* V Vf* T4A V4A T4A
illVi i[liiiiliiiiMrtiit^l<ii!il!fiiM iilili|iniii]>lli)llrtl.fllf|iilli^i)iiili)(ii^it^^
JijlliituiirtllliWll^ iMi'frliilrirnillillfii
liWiimilTil

%
i ii<i<iJljiife|iiMiiiiiMi>ii»ii^iii^ ii(iii^ iMi^ iiiiiil(i)i)ti^ f
i>i'tlii[ii<i^ itii|i»V^iw»iiiipi>iiiiiiiijiii »iii imjji lirr 111m1111
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication

W IN T E R -2 0 0 0

SECTION-B
Answer any s i x 12 Marks
1. Enumerate the risk factors associated with developing atherosclerosis.
2. Enumerate the lab. findings in nephrotic syndrome.
3. Brief description of gross and microscopic appearances of
infiltrating duct carcinoma of breast.
4. Enumerate distiguishing features between Chron’s disease and
ulcerative colitis.
5. Enumerate four functional tumours of ovary.
6. List the C.S.F. findings in Pyogenic meningitis.
7. List the differences between lobar and broncho pneumonia.
SECTION-C
Attempt any two 14 Marks
1. Describe aetiology, pathogenesis and pathological changes in
acute viral hepatitis.
2. Classify bone tumours.
Write gross and microscopic features of osteogenic sarcoma.
3. Discuss the pathogenesis and pathology of Rheumatic heart
disease. List any four extra cardiac lesions.

S U M M E R - 2001

SECTION-B
1. Answer any s ix :- 12 Marks
a. Enumerate differentiating features between necrosis,
gangrene and infarction.
b. What is meant by carcinogenesis ?
Classify important chemical carcinogens.
c. Define repair. Enumerate the differences between wound
healing by primary intention and secondary intention.
d. Mention microscopic features of skin in tuberculoid leprosy.
e. Enumerate the differences between Leukaemia and
Leukaemoid reaction.
f. Describe sex chromatin.
g. Define phagocytosis. List the factors modifying phagocytosis
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two :- 14 Marks
a. Describe Aetiopathogenesis of nephrotic syndrome along
with characteristic blood and urinary findings.
M
I108I
2nd M.B.B.S, Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
b. Classify Hodgkin’s disease. Describe the pathological features
of nodular sclerosts Hodgkin’s disease.
c. Describe methods and interpretation of oral glucose tolerance test.

W IN T E R - 2001

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six 12 Marks
a. Enumerate various types of hepatotropic viruses* their rout
of spread and complications of HBV infection.
b. Enumerate the criterias for diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome
and list the causes of nephrotic syndrome.
c. List the CSE findings in tubercular and pyogenic meningitis.
d. Define bronchiectasis and list the complications.
e. What are the routes of spread of carcinoma of stomach ?
f. List the sediments in urine wit cjinical significance.
g. Tabulate the differences between typhoid and tuberculous
ulcers of intestine.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a. Discuss etiopathogenesis, evolution and morphology of
gastric cancer.
b. Describe pathogenesis and patologic features of rheumatic
heart disease.
c. Discuss the aetiology, pathogenesis and pathology of chronic
pyelonephritis.

S U M M E R - 20 02

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a. What are Embryomas ? Mention any two of them,
b: Define and classify Hodkin’s Lymphoma.
c. Describe Aschoff’s nodule.
d. Enumerate 4 common sites for occurrence of osteogenic
sarcoma. Describe gross and microscopic features.
e. List the lab. investigations in a case of Jaundice and its
clinical significance.
f. Enumerate complications of myocardial infarction.
g. Describe gross and microscopic features of seminome.
SECTION-C
2 Attempt any two 14 Marks
a. Classify the tumours of kidney.
Describe the pathology of any two tumours of kidney.
I109I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
Jj. Define and classify cirrhosis.
Describe the pathology and complications ofAlcoholic cirrhosis,
c. Discuss aetiopathogenesis; investigations and complications
of peptic ulcer.

W IN T E R -2 0 0 2

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a. Classify Hodkin’s lymphoma.
List two important features of mixed cellularity type.
b. Enumerate four important microscopic features of chronic
pyelonephritis. , > > ..,•
c. Write the differentiating features between typhoid and
tubercular ulcers of the intestine;
d. List the causes of granular contracted kidney.
Write two important gross and microscopic features.
e. Enumerate complications of atheroscierosis.
f. Describe the various types of Reed-Sternberg cells.
9- Enumerate the malgnant epithelial tumours of the lung.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
a. Describe the etiology, morphological features and spread
of gastric carcinoma.
b. Describe the etiopatogenesis and morphological chages in
acute myocardial infarction.
c. Discuss the lab. diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.

S U M M E R - 2003

SECTION-B
Answer any six:- 12 Marks
a. List four minor and major risk factors for atherosclerosis.
b. List the four manifestations of rheumatic fever.
c. Enumerate the criteria for the diagnosis of thyroid adenoma.
d. Define and classify emphysema.
e. Define and classify teratoma.
Mention the different teratomas occuring in ovary.
f. List important gross and microscopic features of
fibroadenoma of the breast.
g. Draw a well labelled diagram of cervical dysplasia and
carcinoma in situ.
SECTION-C
Attempt any two 14 Marks
M
[110]
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a. Enumerate the common features that distinguish benigh
enlargements of lymph nodes from neoplastic enlargements
and give important bistopathojogical features that will help to
distinguish the common conditions causing benigh lymph
node enlargements.
b. Classify carcinomas of the breast. Describe the gross and
microscopic features with difference in the biological behaviour
of the important types of carcinoma breast.
c. Describe the aetiology of pyogenic meningitis. List the
indications of CSF examination. Give the CSF findings in
pyogenic and tubercular meningitis.

W IN T E R - 2 0 0 3

SECTION-B
1. Answer any s i x 12 Marks
a. List the difference between benign and malignant ulcers of
the stomach.
b. Enumerate the causes of splenomegaly,
c. Write the CSF findings in pyogenic meningitis.
d. Define paraneoplastic syndromes.
Give four examples of the same.
e. List the serum cardiac markers in myocardial infarction.
f. Define nephrotic syndrome and its criteria.
g. Name the lesions attributable to chronic alcoholism in
i) Stomach. ii) Liver.
iii) Pancreas. iv) Brain.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two ... 14 Marks
a. Classify lung tumors. Describe the aetiology, pathology and
clinical manifestations of bronchogenic carcinoma.
b. Define atherosclerosis. Describe the risk factors,
pathogenesis and morphology of atherosclerosis.
c. Discuss the information that can be obtained from different
examinations of urine and their interpretation in diseases of
the kidney.

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six:- 12 Marks
a. Classify endocarditis.
Describe gross appearance of heart in bacterial endocarditis.
b. Enumerate etiological factors implicated in Hepatocellular

Im l
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
carcinoma.
c. Describe gross appearance of kidney in amyloidosis, special .
stain used for its diagnosis on gross.
d. Describe gross and microscopic features of firboadenoma of breast.
e. Enumerate investigations required to be carried out in a care
of steatorrhoea.
s * f. Write differences between tuberculous and typhoid ulcer.
-g. Define uraemia. Enlist minimum four causes.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a. Define and classify jaundice.
Discuss lab. findings whiGh differentiate them.
b. Describe etiology, pathology of seminoma of testis.
c. What are pneumonias ? Give an account of lobar pneumonia.
Enumerate its complications.

W INTER - 2004

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six 12 Marks
a. Classify Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
List two important features of mixed cellularity type.
b. Enumerate complications of coronary atherosclerosis.
c. Enumerate differences between nephritic and nephrotic
syndrome. .
d. Enumerate significant risk factors in aetiology of breast carcinoma.
e. Enumerate microscopic features of acute hepatitis.
f. Enumerate morphological types of gastric carcinoma.
g. Describe gross and microscopic features of meningitis.
SECTION-C '■
2. Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
a. What is etiology of Rheumatic fever ? Enumerate clinical
manifestations of Rheumatic fever. Describe pathological
changes in heart. In case of acute rheumatic heart disease.
b. Define cirrhosis of liver. Describe morphology, histology,
complications of alcoholic cirrhosis.
c. Enumerate causative organisms of acute pyogenic meningitis.
Describe C.S.F. picture in pyogenic meningitis.
Give gross appearance of the brain.

SUMMER - 2005

SECTION-B
2. Answer any six:- 12 Marks

M
 dM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs
2n I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
a. Enlist four stages of lobar pneumonia and mention any four
complications.
b. Mention four germ cell tumours of testis.
c. List the CSF findings in Tuberculosis meningitis. -
d. Enumerate the gross and microscopic differences of crohns
disease and ulcerative colitis.
e. Mention gross and microscopic features and giant cell tumour
of Bone (Osteclastoma).
f. Mention the lesions of alcoholic liver disease.
SECTION-C
Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
a. Describe gross and microscopic changes in myocardial infarction.
b. Describe method and interpretation of oral glucose tolerance
test. (GTT).
c. Mention classification of breast tumours. Write gross and
microscopic features of fibroadenoma of breast.

W INTER - 2005

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six 12 Marks
a. List the stages of lobar pneumonia and write any four
complications of it.
b. Enumerate any four stains used for interpretation of kidney biopsy.
c. Write the gross and microscopic features of peptic ulcer.
d. List the different types of Heapatitis viruses and their route
of transmission. -
e. List any four sites of squamous cell carcinoma.
f. Write the gross and microscopic features of chronic pyelonephritis.
g. Mention different types of janundice, and write one cause of
each type.
SECTION-C
Attempt any two 14 Marks
a. Define infarction. List the enzymes used in the diagnosis of
Myocardial infarction and write gross and microscopic
features of it as per the age of infarct.
b. Write the 3 common bone tumours seen below 30 yrs age.
Write common sites and radiological appearance of each.
And describe gross, microscopy and behaviour of osteogenic
sarcoma.
c. Write 2 sites of CSF collection. Mention the indications of
CSF examination. How will you differentiate between the
pyogenic, tuberculosis and viral meningitis on the basis of
CSF examination.
M
I113I
'M
2nd M.B.B. S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication

S U M M E R - 2006

SECTION-B
Answer any six:- 12 Marks
a. Gross and microscopic features of Hydatidiform mole.
b. Histological types of gliomas.
c. Features of Tetralogy of Fallot. .
d. Mention 4 complications of myocardial infarction.
e. Enumerate types of Emphysema.
f. Enumerate microscopic features of chronic pyelonephritis.
g. Gross and microscopic features of carcinoid tumour df GIT.
■ SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two:- v ,v 14Marks
a. - Define Rheumatic fever and Rheumatic heartdisease.
Enumerate (major) jones criteria. DescribeArchoft nodule
formation and its fate. Mention complications of Rheumatic
heartdisease.
b. Enumerate malignant neoplasm of skin. Give an account of
squamous ceil carcinoma with emphasis on following
Sites, gross appearance, histological types, route of spread,
method for early detection.
c. Discuss pathophysiology of jaundice. Give an account of
■lab. tests for its differential diagnosis.

W IN T E R - 2006

SECTION-B
Answer any six:- 12 Marks
a. Name four important complications following acute myocardial
infarction...
b. What is rye classification ? Write the subhyper.
c. What is hyaline membrane disease also known as?
What is the basis defect in it ?
d. Name four malignant salivary gland tumours..,
e. Describe microscopic features of chronic pyelonephritis.
f. What are urinary fincfings in acute post streptococcal
glomerulonephritis?
g. Describe the gross appearance of bronchogenic carcinoma.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two:- 14 Marks
a. Discuss etiopathogenesis and pathology of CIN and invasive
cervical cancer;
14
114
W
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs m ri E dition by Unique Publication
b. Discuss lab. diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.
c. Classify glomerulonephritis. Describe subtypes, gross and
microscopic features of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.

SUM M ER - 2007

SECTION-B
Answer any s ix :- 12 Marks
a. Etiology and CSF findings in acute pyogenic meningitis.
b. Major pathologic changes in left sided heart failure. .
c. Classification of cirrhosis.
d. Gross and microscopic features of oat cell carcinoma of lung.
e. Classify Hodgkins lymphoma and describe Reed Sternberg cell.
f. Gross and microscopic features of intestinal tuberculosis.
g- Radiological and microscopic features of osteosarcoma.
SECTION-C
Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
a. Describe in brief etiopathogenesis, morphology and lab.
diagnosis of Cervical Dysplasia and Cervical Intraepithelial
Neoplasia (CIN).
b. Discuss morpholyg and lab. diagnosis in acute myocardial
infarction.
Describe renal changes and lab. diagnosis in diabetes mellitus.

W IN T E R - 2 0 0 7

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six 12 Marks
a. Mention histomorphological difference between tuberculoid
and lepromatous leprosy.
b. Enumerate etiological factors in carcinoma cervix.—
c. Enumerate complacations of atherosclerosis.
d. Write morphology and complications (cardiac) in bacterial
endocarditis.
e. Mention gross, microscopic and radiologic features of
osteogenic sarcoma.
f. Mention gross and microscopic features of Wilm’s tumour.
g . . Write differences between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis.
SECTION-C
Attempt any two:- 14 Marks
a. Define cirrhosis. Describe morphological and etiological
classification of liver cirrhosis. Mention complications of
liver cirrhosis.

115
V i'
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
b. Classify lung tumours. Write important risk factors involved.
Add a note on paraneoplastic syndrome.
c. Describe etiology and classification of diabetes mellitus.
Discuss lab. diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.

W IN T E R - 2008

SECTION-B
1. Answer any f i v e - 20 Marks
a. Write gross, microscopic features and complications of
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
b. Write classification, gross and microscopic features of
Hodgkin’s lymphoma. ■
c. Write clinical presentation, gross and microscopic features
of amoebic liver abscess.
d. Write etiology, gross and microscopic features of acute
post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
e. Write etiology, gross, microscopic features and complications
of bronchoiectasis.
f. Melanoma of skin.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
a. Describe pathogenesis, gross, microscopic appearance and
complications of acute myocardial infarction.
b. Describe pathogenesis and morphology of gastric carcinoma.
c. Write causes of jaundice. Discuss lab. diagnosis of jaundice.

SECTION-B
1 Answer any five 20 Marks
, a) Define bronchiectasis. Mention causes of bronchiectasis.
b) Describe coronary circulation. Mention risk factors for acute
myocardial infarction.
c) Describe a typical RS cell. Classify Hodgkin’s lymphoma and
give salient featurs of each type.
d) Describe gross and microscopic features and radiologic
appearance of giant cell humor of bone.
e) Describe gross and microscopic features of squamous cell
carcinoma of skin. Enumerate predisposing factors.
f) Describe CIN. Write about gross and microscopic features of
invasive carcinoma of uterine cervix. ’
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Attempt any two out three (2x6=12)
M
[116]
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
a) Enlist primary glomerulopathies. Describe pathogenesis,
clinical features and glomerular pathology in acute
post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
b) Define peptic ulcer. Mention sites. Describe etiology, pathology
and complications of chronic duodenal ulcer.
c) What is meningitis ? Mention the microorganisms that cause
acute pyogenic meningitis. Discuss gross and microscopic
features of the brain in acute pyogenic meningitis.

W INTER - 2009

SECTION-B
Answer any five :- 20 Marks
a. Write about role of H.Pylori in peptic ulcer.
b. Write CSF findings in meningitis.
c. Write morphological features of lesions of pulmonary tuberculosis.
d. Write about risk factors for atheroclerosis.
e. Pleomorphic adenoma of salivary gland.
f. Seminoma.
SECTION-C
Attempt any two 14 Marks
Classify diabetes mellitus. Enumerate its diagnostic criteria
and complications. Add a note on diabetic nephropathy.
b. Classify breast carcinoma. Enumerate risk factors for
carcinoma of breast. Add a note on invasive ductal carcinoma.
Describe in detail morphology and pathogenesis of alcoholic
liver disease.

SUMMER -2 0 1 0

SECTION-B
Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a. Describe pathogenesis, gross and microscopy of
atherosclerosis of aorta.
b. Differentiate between rheumatic and bacterial endocarditis.
c. Describe the stages of lobar pneumonia with gross and
microscopic of each stage.
d. Differentiate between benign and malignant gastric ulcer.
e. Mention different ulcerative lesions of small and large intestine
with brief descriptions.
f. Describe the sequence of serologic, markers for hepatitis B
viral hepatitis in acute infection.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
14
[117]
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
a. Classify ischaemic heart disease. Describe gross and
microscopy of myocardial infarction.
b. Define diabetes mellitus. Classify it, and give its lab.
investigations.
c. What is osteomyelitis ? Describe gross and microscopic
features of pyogenic osteomyelitis. Describe clinical course
of this disease.

W IN T E R -2 0 1 0

SECTION-B
1. Answer any five .20 Marks
a) Give the classification of Amyloidosis.
b) Enumerate the differentiating features between typhoid and
tuberculous ulcers of the intestine.
c) Describe the gross & microscopic features of chronic pyelonephritis.
d) Classify breast tumours. Describe the gross & microscopic
features of a fibro adenoma.
e) Classify non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and describe the
Reed-Sternberg cell and its variants.
f) Discuss the differences between acute and chronic inflammation.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Attempt any two out of three (2x6=12)
a) Describe the etiopathogenesis, gross, microscopic features
and complications of Lobar Pneumonia.
b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis, gross and microscopic features
of Gastric Carcinoma.
c) Define and classify Jaundice.
Discuss the jab. approach in a case of Jaundice.

SUMMER -2011
2 Hours 32 Marks
SECTION-B
1. Answer any five questions. 20 Marks
a) Discuss the role of biochemical markers jp myocardial infarction.
b) Describe various stages of pneumonia and its complications.
c) Discuss gross and microscopy of malignant nephrosclerosis
d) Reed-Sternberg cells.
e) Give gross and microscopic differences between regional ileitis
and ulcerative colitis.
f) Discuss various risk factors in the development of breast cancer.
SECTION-C
3. Attempt anytwo out of three (Long answer questions):- 2x6=12
a) Give histologic classification of salivary gland tumors.
n
I1 18 I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
Describe gross, microscopy and clinical features of
pleomorphic adenoma.
b) Describe aetiopathogenesis, gross and microscopic findings
in chronic hepatitis.
c) Define meningitis. Describe gross appearance of brain in
various types of meningitis. Discuss lab. findings of CSF in
various types of meningitis.

Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B
2. Brief answer questions. Attempt any five out of s ix : (5x4=20)
a) Discuss the etiopathogenesis of fatty liver.
b) Discribe the gross and microscopic features of osteosarcoma.
c) Discuss the utility of frozen sections.
d) Classify pigments. Describe disorders of melariin pigmentation.
e) Classify testicular tumours, descride the groos and microscopic
features of seminoma.
f) Discuss paraneoplastic syndromes.
SECTION-C
3. Long answer questions.Attempt any two out of three : (2x6=12)
a) Define infarction. List the enzymes used in the diagnosis of
myocardial infarction. Describe the groos and microscopic features
of myocardial infarction as per the age of the infarct.
b) Classify ulcerative lesions of the intestine. Describe the gross and
microscopic features of ulcerative colitis.
c) Define the term neoplasia. Discuss the etiopathogenesis of
neoplasms.

Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B
2. Brief answer questions. Attempt any five out of six: (5x4=20)
a) Describe gross and microscopic features of atherosclerotic lesion.
b) Classify bone tumors. Write radiologic, gross and microscopic
features of osteoclastoma.
c) Describe gross and microscopic features of adenoma of thyroid.
d) Write clinical features, gross and microscopic features of amoebic liver
abscess.
e) Enumerate etiologic factors of carcinoma of cervix. Describe gross
and microscopic features of carcinoma of cervix.
M
1119
P'^
2ndM .B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
f) Describe gross and microscopic features of peptic ulcer.
SECTION-C
3. Long answer questions. Attempt any two out of three: (2x6=12) ^
a) Discuss etiopathogenesis, morphology and clinical features of
rheumatic heart disease.
b) Discuss etiopathogenesis and morphology of hepatocellular carcinoma.
c) Lis indications for CSF examination. Give CSF findings in acute
pyogenic meningitis and tuberculous meningitis.

Total Duration : Section A+B+C=2 Hours Section B & Q Maries : 32

SECTION-B
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of s ix): (5x4=20)
a) Classification of splenomegaly.
b) Gross and microscopic features of osteogenic sarcoma.
c) Laboratory findings in a patient of obstructive jaundice.
d) Define Hypertension. Describe etiopathogenesis and classification
of hypertension.
e) Describe extracardiac lesions in rheumatic heart disease.
f) Gross and microscopic features of meningioma.
SECTION-C
3. Solve any two out of three :
a) Describe etiology, gross, microscopic findings and spread of
carcinoma colon.
b) Describe investigations in diabetes mellitus with their significance.
c) Define Pyrexia of Unknown Origin (PUO). Write laboratory
diagnosis in a suspected case of Pyrexia of Unknown Origin.

S U M M E R -2 0 1 3

Total Duration : Section A+B+C=2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Classify hodgkin’s disease and describe a Reed Sternberg cell.
b) Enumerate the differences between ulcerative colitis and
crohn’s disease.
c) Enumerate the complications of atherosclerosis.
d) Write short note on the melanoma of the skin.
e) Enumerate the features of nephrotic syndrome.
f) Enumerate the CSF findings in a case of tuberculous meningitis.
SECTION-C
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Discuss the morphological changes in myocardial infarction
I120I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
and complications of myocardial infarction.
b) Classify cirrhosis and discuss the etiopathogenesis and
morphology of post necrotic cirrhosis.
c) Describe the etiology and classify of Diabetes mellitus.
Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of Diabetes mellitus.

W IN T E R -2 0 1 3

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Describe morphology of hypertensive heart disease.
b) Describe morphology and CSF findings in acute (purulent)
leptomeningitis.
c) Enumerate testicular germ cell tumors and describe any one of them.
d) Describe pathogenesis and morphological features of primary
carcinoma of liver.
e) Describe morphology and complications of bronchiectasis.
f) Enumerate difference between ulcerative colitis and Crohns disease.
SECTION-C (12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify bone tumors. Describe clinical, gross and microscopic
features of osteosarcoma.
b) Classify cirrhosis of liver. Describe morphology and complications of
alcoholic liver disease,
c) Describe laboratory investigations in a suspected case of diabetes
mellitus.

Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32

SECTION-B (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Describe morphology and modes of spread of classical seminoma.
b) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction.
c) Describe gross and microscopic appearance of invasive Gastria
carcinoma.
d) Describe clinical presentations of lung carcinoma.
e) Describethepathogenesisandmorphologyofsquamouscarcinomaskin.
f) Write short answer on Glycosylated Haemoglobin.
SECTION-C (12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Questions (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Describe the etio-pathogenesis, morphology and clinical course of
poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis.
b) Classify primary bone tumors. Describe morphology and clinical
I i2 il
■M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
course of osteosarcoma.
c) Discuss pathogenesis, pathology & complications ofAtherosclerosis.

W IN T E R 2014

Total Duration: Section A+ B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
1. Short answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Classify breast tumors. Write a note on fibroadenoma o f breast.
b) Give classification and pathogenesis of rapidly progressive
glomerulonephritis. * \
c) Define and classify teratoma. Mention extragonadal sites of its
occurrence.
d) Classify tumors of thyroid. Write note on colloid goitre.
e) Describe gross and microscopic features of meningioma.
f) Classify lymphoma. Describe in short types ofHodgkins lymphoma.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three) v (2x6=12)
a) Define cirrhosis of liver. Describe morphology, histology and
complications of ailcoholic cirrhosis.
b) Describe indications, method and interpretation of Oral Glucose
Tolerance Test (GTT).
c) Describe the aetiology of pyogenic meningitis. List the indications of
CSF examination. Give the CSF findings in pyogenic and tuberculous
meningitis. •

S U M M E R 20 15

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
1. Short answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Enumerate types and causes of aneurysm: Describe gross features
of abdominal aortic aneurysm.
, b) Describe gross and microscopic features of emphysema.
c) Describe gross and microscopic features of Renal cell carcinoma.
d) Classify testicular tumors. Draw a well labelled diagram of seminoma.
e) Tabulate differences in liver function tests in hemolytic, hepatocellular
and obstructive jaundice.
f) Tabulate differences in CSF examination in pyogenic, tuberculous and
viral meningitis.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
M
I122I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three) : (2x6=12)
a) What are the causes of vegetations in heart ? Write in brief on
Subacute bacterial endocarditis.
b) Write in brief on Carcinoma of rectum.
c) Write in brief on Rheumatoid Arthritis.

W IN T E R 2 0 1 5

Total Duration: Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
1. Short answer question (any five out of s ix): (5x4=20)
a) Describe complication of acute myocardial infraction.
b) List the disorders associated with Splenomegaly.
c) Describe briefly pathogenesis of emphysema.
* d) Describe gross and microscopic appearance of kidneys in chronic
pyelonephritis.
e) Give an account of Oral glucose tolerance test (Indications and
interpretation of result).
f) Describe morphologic features of acute viral hepatitis.

SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) List the ulcerative lesions of bowel. Describe morphology of any one o f'
them.
b) Describe pathogenesis and morphology of atherosclerosis.
c) Describe the laboratory investigations on a case of pyrexia of unknown
origin.

S U M M E R -2 0 1 6

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Enumerate various risk factors and describe the pathogenesis of chronic
peptic ulcer.
b) List the various risk factors and describe the morphology of
atherosclerotic plaque.
c) Classify glomerular diseases and describe the morphology of
membranous glomerulopathy.
d) Classify germ cell tumours of ovary and write down gross and
M
I123I
M
Z * M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

microscopic findings of dysgerminoma.

e) Describe radiologic, gross and microscopic findings of osteogenic
sarcoma.
f) Write the histologic classfication of lung carcinoma and describe in
brief the morphology of small cell carcinoma.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Questions (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Describe the pathogenesis and morphology of alcoholic liver disease.
b) Write down diagnosis criteria of diabetes mellitus. Describe the
pathogenesis and morphology of diabetic glomeruloscle|osis! \t
c) Write the Lab evaluation of Myocardial infarction. Describe the
consequences and complications of myocardial infarction,

W IN T E R -2 0 1 6

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
'' ' ' (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Give an account of H. Pylori Gastritis.
b) Gross and microscopic features of Renal Cell Carcinoma.
c) MEN Syndrome.
d) Gross and Microscopic features of Seminoma.
e) Prognostic and Predictive factors in Carcinoma Breast.
f) Give an account of ulGerative lesions of small and large intestine.
SECTION-C
* (12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Questions (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) State WHO classification of Lung Tumors. Discuss its
etiopathogenesis and morphology.
b) Enumerate major Glomerular Syndrome. Discuss in detail
etiopathogenesis, morphology and clinical course ofAcute
Proliferative Glomerulonephritis.
c) Discuss Alcoholic Liver Disease in detail.

S U M M E R 2017

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Describe morphology of Gastric carcinoma.
b) Describe etiology and morphology of Lung Abscess.
T124T
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
c) Gross and microscopic features of seminoma.
d) Describe formation of Bence Jones prptein and its detection in urine.
e) Describe gross and microscopic features of fibroadenoma breast.
f) Classify Hodgkin’s Lymphoma. List two important features of mixed
ceHuiarity type Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3 Long Answer Questions (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define jaundice. Describe the role of laboratory in diagnosis of
obstructive jaundice. ,
b) Define Infarct. List the enzymes used in diagnosis of Myocardial
infarction and write its gross and microscopic features as per the age
of infarct. : : •
c) Classify glomerulonephritis. Describe types, gross and microscopic
features of Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.

A A
V V V V V V V ^4^V V

Vw

125
>V
 W

2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U n iq u e P u b lic a tio n

P arti
1. Historical Introduction .
MCQ {MUHS)
1. Father of antiseptic surgery is (S-03)
a) Robert koch. • b) Louis pasteur.
c) Lord lister. d) Paul ehrlich.
2. Staining technique in microbiology was introduced by (W-03)
a) Robert hook. b) Robert koch.
c) Ziehl neelsen. d) Louis pasteur. .
3. Microorganism which do NOT satisfy Koch’s postulate is (W-09)
a) Mycobacterium leprae. b) Pathogenic treponemes.
c) Viruses. d) All of above.
4. Who amongst the following introduced antiseptic techniques in
surgery ? (S-10)
a) Edward jenner. b) Robert koch.
c) Louis pasteur. d) Joseph lister.
5. Large amount of teichoic acid is present in (W-10)
a) Gram negative bacilli. b) Gram positive cocci,
c) Chlamydia. d) Mydoplasma.
6. The first bacterium to be isolated in pure culture by Robert Koch was
(S-11)
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) Bacillus anthracis
c) Vibrio choierae d) Yersinia pestis
7. Introduction of staining techniques is credited to (S-13) . .
a) Louis Pasteur b) Paul Enlrich
c) Robert Koch d)Leeuwenhoek
8. Sterilisation techniques are introduced by (W-14)
a) Joseph Lister b) Robert Koch
c) Louis Pasteur d) Ehrlich
9. Rabies vaccine was first developed by (S-14)
a) Joseph Lister b) Edward Jenner
c) Alexander Fleming d) Louis Pasteur
SAQ
1. Koch’s postulates.(W-02)
2. Describe the contributions of Louis Pasteur in Microbiology. (S-12)
3. Robert Koch and his contribution to Microbiology. (W-12)
M
I126I
M'
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
4.Write a short note on Robert Koch. (W-13)
5.Mention four contributions of Robert Koch. (W-14)
6.Contributions of Louis Pasteur to microbiology. (S-15)
7.Mention four contributions of Robert Koch in Microbiology. Discuss
Koch’s postulates. (S-17)
. LAQ '
1. Robert Koch.(S-99f6l)(W -83,89,90,94)
k 2. Louis Pasteur.(W-00,06,07)(S-02)(,S-83,88,89)
3. Koch's postulates.(W-01 )(W-81,84,82,87,88)(S-83)
2. Morphology and Physiology o f Bacteria.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Sporulation in bacteria occurs in (S-03)
a) Lag phase. b) Log phase.
c) Stationary phase. d) Phase of decline.
2. Bacteria growing at a temperature below 20°C are called as (S-03)
a) Thermophilic. b) Psychrophilic.
c) Mesophilic. d) Cryphilic.
3. Bacterium with a tuft of flagella at one pole is called as (S-03)
a) Peritrichate. b) Monotrichate.
c) Amphitrichate. d) Lophbtrichate.
4. 1Cell wall deficient organism is (S-03)
a) Mycobacteria. b) Mycoplasma,
c) Corynebacteria. d) Actinomycetes.
5. Generation time of mycobacteria is (S-03)
a) 20 minutes, b) 20 hours, c) 20 days, d) 20 seconds.
6. Bacterial capsule, when present, protects bacteria from all “EXCEPT”.
(S-03)
a) Bacteriophage. b) Phagocytosis,
c) Enzymes. d) Antibiotics.
7. Mesosomes of bacteria are analogous to (S-09)
a) Lysosomes of eukaryotes.
b) Mitochondria of eukaryotes.
c) Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes.
d) None of above.
8. Example of cell wall deficient bacteria is (W-09)
a) Treponema. b) Mycoplasma.
c) Clostridium. d) Haemophilus.
9. Silver impregnation method is used for demonstration of (W-09,15)
a) Spirochaetes. b) Flagella.
c) Both a and b. d) Mycoplasma.
10. The organs of adhesion in bacteria are (W-10)
Ii2 7 l
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) Fimbriae. b) Flagellae.
c) Microcapsule. d) Slime layer.
11. Which of the following characteristics is NOT a feature of plasmids ?
(W-11)
a) Self replication.
b) Essential for the normal life and functioning of host
bacterium.
: c) Composition is DNA.
d) Closely related plasmids cannot co-exist in the same bacterial
' cell. ■■'■ ■■■ i -
13. When a bacterium is seeded into a suitable liquid medium the
maximum rate of multiplication occurs in to following phase of growth
curve (S-11)
a) Log phase b) Lag phase
c) Stationary phase d) Decline phase
14. Exotoxins are produced in which phase of the bacterial growth
curve ? (W-11)
a) Lag b) Log c) Stationary d) Decline
15. Which of the following bacteria is cell waif deficient ? (W-12)
a) Treponema b) Mycoplasma
c) Clostridium d)Haemophilus
16. Bacteria multiply by (W-13)
a) Conjugation b) Sporulation
c) Binary fission d) Budding
17. Organ of locomotion is (W-13)
a) Fimbria b) Pili c) Flagella d) Slime layer
18. The limit of resolution with unaided eye i§ (W-13)
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 400
19. Microscope was invented by (W-13)
a) Antony Van Leeuwenhoek b) Hippocrates
c) Robert Koch d) Louis Pasteur
20. Lipopolysaccharide is a major constituent of the cell wall of (S-14)
a) Gram positive bacteria b) Gram negative bacteria
c) Mycobacteria d) Mycoplasma
21. Bacterial which derive their energy from chemical reactions are
called as (W-14)
a) Heterotrophs b) Chemotrophs
c) Autotrophs d) Phototrophs
22. Resolving power of Electron Microscope is (W-14)
a) 0.1 nm b) 10 nm c) 100 nm d) 1 nm
23. Which of the following is a organ of locomotion in bacteria ? (W-14)
M .
I128I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I * E dition by Unique Publication
a) Cilia b) Flagella e) Pseudopodia d) Pili
24. India ink staining is used to demonstrate (S-15)
a) B acterial capsule b) Cell wall
c) Bacterial flagella d) Bacterial spore
25. One o f the following staining method is an example of negative
staining. (W-16)
a) Gram staining b) Fontana staining,
c) India ink preparation d) Z - N staining.
26. Lipopolysaccharide is a major component of cell wall in (W-16)
a) Gram positive bacilli b) Parasites
c) Gram negative bacilli d) Fungi
SAQ
1. Structure and functions of a bacterial cell wall.(S~99)(S-97)
2. Flagellae.(W-99)(S-80,87)
3. List four, difference between Eukaryotic & Prokaryotic cells,(W-00)
4. Growth curve of Bacteria.(S-01,07)
5. Four differences between cell wall of Gram positive & Gram negative
bacteria.(W-03)
6. What is flagellum? Mention 2 methods for demonstrating flagella.
(W-04)
7. Name two bacteria producing capsules. What is the role of bacterial
capsule in establishing human infection by the microorganism ?
(S-06)
8. Bacterial capsule.(S-07)(S-72,73,84,93,96)(W-74,84,86,88,90,97)
9. What is a bacterial capsule ? Give two examples of capsulated
bacteria. List the methods of demonstrating capsule. (W-11)
10. Describe bacterial spore with diagram. (S-12)
11. Describe the cell wall-of gram positive organisms. What is the function
of the cell wall ? (W-10)
12. Bacterial Growth Curve. (W-12,16)(S-98)
13. Describe bacterial capsule, Name two capsulated bacteria. Mention
two methods of detection of capsule. (S-13)
14. Bacterial Spore. (S-14)(W-73,83,89,93,96)(S-86,92)
15. Write on metachromatic granules. (W-15)
16. Give four differences between Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes. (S-16)
17. Write a short note on determinants of bacterial virulence. (S-16)
18. Enumerate different types of microscopes and write in detail about
dark ground microscope. (W-16)
19. Minute structure of bacterial celJ.(W-76)
20. Importance of primary smear. (S-85,87,93)
21. Bacterial cell wall. (S-89,94)(W-94)

I129I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rd Edition by Unique Publication
22. Negative staining.(S-92)
23. Bacterial fimbria.(W-92)
24. Factors affecting bacterial growth.(W-93)
LAQ
1. Mention different methods of sterilisation. Describe method of moist
heat sterilization. (W-00)
2. W hat are the growth requirements of bacteria ? (S-07)
3. Describe the structure and function of bacterial cell wall. (W-12)
3. Sterilisation and Disinfection.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Fibre-optic bronchoscope is sterilized by (S-03)
a) Formaldehyde 4%. b) Phenol 5%.
c) Ethanol 70%. d) Glutaraldehyde 2%.
2. Glasswares are best sterilized by (S-03)
a) Autoclaving, b) Hot air oven, c) Boiling, d) Inspissation.
3. Alcohol as antiseptic best acts at a concentration of (W-03)
a) 70%. b) 80%. c) 90%. d) 100%.
4. Sterilization by hot air overn is carried out at (W-03)
a) 120°C x 1 hour. b) 160°C x 1 hour.
c) 140°C x 1 hour. d) 180°C x 1 hour.
5. Ultra violet light source is used in following microscope. (W-03)
a) Electron. ; b) Phase contrast.
c) Interference. d) Fluorescent.
6. Pathogen which can survice in milk pasteurized by holder method is
(W-03)
a) Salmonella typhi. b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis,
c) Brucella abortus. d) Coxiella burnetii.
7. All of the following statements are true regarding formaldehyde as
disinfectant EXCEPT. (W-03) . ........ .
a) Used for destroying anthrax spore in hair and wool.
b) Used for fumigaton of operation theater.
c) Less irritating to eyes than glutaraldehyde.
d) Markedly bactericidal and sporicidal.
8. Disposable plastic syringes are sterilised by (W-08,12)
a) Formaldehyde gas. b) Halogenes.
c) Ethylene oxide d) Phenolic compounds.
9. Biological indicator used to determine the efficiency of moist heat
sterilization in an autoclave is, the spores of (S-09)
a) Bacillus stearothermophilus. b) Clostridium welchii.
c) Bacillus subtlis. d) Clostricium tetani.
10. Following bronchoscopy, the bronchoscope is cleaned and immersed
M
I130I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition b y Unique Publication
in a solution of 2% glutaraldehyde for 30 minutes. This is done to
achieve. (S-09)
a) Sterilization, b) Disinfection, c) Antisepsis. d) Asepsis.
11. Most appropriate method to disinfect the endoscope is by (W-09) ’
a) 70% alcohol for 5 minutes.
b) 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes.
c) 2% formaldehyde for 10 minutes.
.d) 1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 minutes.
12. Spores of which of the following organisms is used as a biological
indicator for testing the efficiency of autoclave. (S-10)
a) Clostridium tetani-non toxigenic.
b) Bacillus stearothermophilus.
c) Clostridium perfringens.
d) Bacillus anthracis.
13. Sterilisation requires exposure to moist heat at 121 °C and 15 pound
pressure for (W-10)
a) 3 minutes. b) 5 minutes,
c) 10 minutes. d) 20 minutes.
14. Powders and oils are sterilized by (S-12)
a) Autoclave b) Inspissations
c) Hot air oven d) Tyndalization
15. Endoscopes are sterilized by (W-13)
a) Autoclaving b) 1% Sodium hypochlorite
c) 2 % Glutaraldehyde d) Hot air oven
16. Gluteraldehyde is used for sterilization of (S-14)
a) Laproscope b) Serum
c) Liquid paraffin d) Dressing materials
, 17. Holding time for. heat sterilization at 121 degree Centigrade in an
'autoclave is (S-15)
a) 3 mins b) 7 mins c) 15 mins d) 21 mins
18. Rideal Walker's test is used to determine the (W-15)
a) Potency of disinfectants b) pH of culture broth
c) Biochemical nature of bacteria d) Autoclave efficiency
19. Pasteurization of milk by Flash process is done by heating milk to
(W-15)
a) 63 deg C for 15 mins. b) 72 deg C for 15 sec.
c) 132 deg C for 0.5 sec. d) 121 deg C for 15 mins.
20. Which of these is a limitation of autoclave ? (S-16)
a) Takes too long to sterilize.
b) . Lacks ability to inactivate viruses.
e) Lacks ability to kill endospores.
M
I131I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd E dition by Unique Publication
d) Destroys heat labile materials.
• 21. Sterilization by autoclaving is done at. (W-16)
a) 100 degree Centigrade b) 121 degree Centigrade
c) 160 degree Centigrade d) 180 degree Centigrade *
22. Tyndallisation is a type of. (W-16)
a) Intermittent sterilization b) Pasteurisation
< c) Boiling d) Autoclaving
SAQ
1. Oxidising agents used as disinfectants.(S-99)
2. Sterilisation by ifiltration.(W-99)fS-88,93,98X1^-89/
3. Define sterilization. Describe physical method of sterilization.(S-OI)
4. Define antiseptics. 2 examples with their spectrum of activities.
(W-01)
5. Define sterlization 2 gaseous agents of sterlisation with use.(S-03)
6. Mention principle of Autoclave.(W-06)
7. Mention four criteria for an ideal antiseptic.(W-07)
.8. Define Tyndallisation. What is the principle and when is it used ?
(W-10)
9. Enumerate and classify chemical disinfectants and write uses.
(S-12)
10. W rite a note on Biochemical waste disposal. (S-12)
11. Describe morphology of Entamoeba histolytica and laboratory
, diagnosis of amoebic dysentery. (S-12)
12. Describe gaseous disinfectants with their uses. (S-13)
13. Name 4 classes of chemical agents used for disinfection. Describe
the properties of an ideal disinfectant. (W-15)
14. Methods of moist heat sterilisation.(S-71)
15. Tyndallisation. {S-71,84)(W-74,86,92,95) '
16. Autoclave. (S-83,85,91,94)
17. lnspissator&lnspissation.(W-83,85,90)(S-89)
18. Bacterial filters. (W-84,94)(S-86)
19. Sterilisation by dry heat. (S-85)
20. Disinfectants. (S-87)(W-88)
21. Seitz filter.(W-91)
22. Hot air oven. (S-92) •
23. Chemical disinfectants.(S-92)(W-93)
24. lnspissation.(S-95)
25. Sterilization by radiations.(W-96)
26. Sterilisation by steam under pressure. (S-97)
LAQ
1. What is sterilization ? List methods using Heat for it. Describe

14.
I132I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n fry U nique Publication
principle and application of an autoclave.(W-01)
2. Define Sterilization and disinfection. Describe the-principle & working
of Autoclave and also mention Biological Sterilization control of an
Autoclave.(W-04)
3. Define sterilization. Enumerate the various methods used for
sterilization in the hospital. Describe the principle and working of an
autoclave. (W-07)
4. Define sterilization and disinfection. Describe the principle and
working of autoclave and with biological sterilization control used in
autoclave. (S-11)
5. Define Sterilisation. Enumerate the different methods of sterilization.
Describe the principle, working and operational conditions for the
Autoclave. (W-11)
6. Define the terms sterilisation and disinfection. Enumerate the
methods of moist heat sterilisation. Describe the principle of
autoclave with a diagram. Mention four items sterilised i the
autoclave. (S-13)
7. Define sterilization and disinfection. Enumerate different methods of
sterilization and disinfection. Describe the principle and applications
of autocalve. (W-13)
8. Define sterilization. Mention two methods of dry heat sterilisation with
their principles. (W-14)
9. Define sterilization. How does it differ from disinfection ? Describe in
detail various methods of sterilization by dry heat. (S-15)
10. Define sterilization and disinfection. Enumerate the various methods
of dry heat sterilization.' Discuss the role of hot air oven in sterilization.
(S-17)
4. Culture Media.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Tetrathionate broth is an example of (S-03)
a) Enrichment medium. b) Simple medium,
c) Enriched medium. ' d) Indicator medium.,
2. The original pH of Sabouraud’s dextrose agar to grow fungi is one of
the following (S-03)
a) 5.6. b) 6.8. c) 7.0. d) 8.2.
3. MacConkey medium is an example of (W-08)
a) Transport medium. b) Indicator medium,
c) Enriched medium. d) Enrichment medium.
4. Indicator used in MacConkey Agar is (W-10)
a) Phenol red. b) Neutral red.
c) Cresol red. d) Andrade’s.
Il3 3 l
 -*• ■

2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
5. N .N .R medium is used for cultivation of (S-03)
a) Leishmania donovani. b) Giardiq lamblia.
c) Trichomonas vaginalis. d) Ankylostoma duodenale.
6. The pH of Sabourauds dextrose agar is (W-13)
a) 4.5 b) 5.4 c) 6.5 d) 7.2
7. . ■ is enrichment medium. (S-13)
a) Blood agar b) Chocolate agar
c) Selenite F broth d) Nutrient agar
8. MacConkey medium is an example of. (S-16)
a) Transport medium b) Enriched medium
c) Enrichment medium d) Differential medium
SAQ
1. Selective media.(W-99s07)(S-79)
2. Transport media with examples. (S-01)
3. Define enrichment medium. List 3 important Enrichment media. (S-02)
4. W rite down different indications of Blood culture. (S-11)
5. Classify culture media. Write about selective media. (S-14)
6. W hat is enrichment medium ? Enumerate two examples. (W-14)
7. Classify culture media with examples. Describe enriched media.
(S-15)
LAQ
1. Giardia Lamblia.(W-99)(W-85,87,89)(S-89,92)
2. Diagnosis of Giardia lamblia.(S-03)
5, Culture Methods.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. A bacterial growth medium that contains penicillin is a (W-13)
a) Basal medium b) Selective medium
c) Differential medium d) Enriched medium
2. Which of the following is used to grow bacterial culture’s*
continuously ? (W-14)
a) Chemostat b) Hemostat
c) Coulter counter d) Petroff hauser chamber
3. Palladium is used in anaerobic jar for (W-14)
a) Production of Carbondioxide b) Production of oxygen
c) Catalytic action d) None of the above
SAQ
1. Write a note on blood culture.(S-IO)
2. Mclntqsh-Fildes Jar.(S-OO)
3. Anaerobiosis. (S-71,87,93)(W-98)
4. Anaerobic cultivation.(W-77,79,88)(S-91)

I134I
M

l
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdE dition b y Unique Publication
LAQ
None ,
6. Identification o f Bacteria.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The o ocysts of isospora belli are (S-03)
a) Spherical; 5 M x 7 M. b) Spherical; 10 M x 15 M.
c) Oval; 15 M x 25 M. d) Oval; 30 M x 50 M.
SAQ
1. Oxidase - Reaction. (S-86)
LAQ j|,
None
7. Bacterial Genetics. is,.
'W M
MCQ (MUHS) W
1. Plasmids and episomes are. (S-03)
a) Chromosomal DNA.
b) Chromosomal RNA.
c) Extrachrom osom al genetic m aterial.
d) Chromosomal genetic material.
2. Bacteria multiply by (W-03)
a) C onjugation. b) Binary fission,
c) Sporulation. d) Budding.
Plasmids are responsible for (W-03)
a) Cell respiration. b) Mutation,
c) Cell division. d) Drug resistance.
Transduction involves transfer of genetic material through. (W-09)
a) R-factor. b) Agency of free DNA.
c) Bacteriophages. d) All of the above.
Bacterial genes are transferred by means of all the following
EXCEPT. (W-10)
a) Transformation, b) Transduction.
c) M utation. d) Conjugation.
6. Drug resistance in tuberculosis is due to (S-11)
a) Mutation b) Conjugation
c) Transformation d) Transduction
7. R-factor consists of (S-12)
a) F and F-prime factor b) F factor only
c) RTF + r determ inant d) Only RTF
8. Which of the following statement is TRUE for plasmid mediated drug
resistance ? (S-12)
a) This type o f resistance can spread very rapidly
14
135
 . \ . . . . . .

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

b) It can induce resistance to single drug at a time

c) It can be easily overcome by high degree of drug >
d) It decreases the virulence of the organism
9. Transfer to a DNA by bacteriophage is known as (W-14)
a) Transformation b) Conjugation
c) Transmission d)Transduction
, ,10. A copy of DNA molecule is precisely synthesized during the process
called. (S-16)
a) Translation b) Transcription
c) Transduction d) Replication
11. Drug resistance in tuberculosis is due to. (S-16) \
a) Transduction b) Conjugation
c) Mutation d) Transformation
SAQ
1. Mechanisms of bacterial drug resistance.(W-99)084,A88,089,A9f.
2. Plasmids.(S-00)(W-00)(S-86,89,94)(W-91,95)
3. Transferable drug resistance.(W-00,01)(S-75,76)
4. Four methods of transferring genetic material in Bacteria.(W-02)
5. Four methods of transfer of genetic material in bacteria.(W-03)
6. Virulence factors of bacteria.(W-03)
7. Define 'Mutation'. What is the significance of mutation in hospital
acquired infections ?(S-04)
8. Mention four differentiating points between mutational & transferable
drug resistance in tabulate form.(W-04)
9. Write down various mathods of acquiring drug resistance amongs
bacteria. (S-11)
10. Define mutation. Enumerate at least six differences between
mutational and transferable drug resistane. (W-13)
11. Mention four differences between Mutational drug resistance and
transferable drug resistance. (W-14)
12. Conjugation. (S-15)
13. Write on transduction. (W-15)(W-92)(S-96)
14. Mention four differences between mutational and plasmid mediated
drug resistance. (S-17)
15. Lysogeny. (S-86)
16. Mutation. (S-90,92,93)
17. Bacterial drug resistance. (S-95)(W-96,98)
LAQ
1. Give an account of the genetic mechanisms in antibiotic resistance
with specific examples. (S-12)
2. Enumerate the various methods of gene transfer in bacteria. Write
M
I1 3 6 I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
anyone of them in detail. (S-14)
Part-il
& Infection.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Carrier who acquires organisms from another carrier is called as
(W-03)
a) Paradoxical, b) Contact. c) Healthy, d) Convalescent.
2. An organism multiplies in a host and damages the host tissue. This is
an exmple of (W-11)
a) Saprophyte b) Commensal c) Oppurtunist d) Parasite
3. A 23 years old lady suffers from urinary tract infection. The Causative
organism is detected to be E.Coil derived from her own intestinal
tract. This infection can be classified as (W-11)
a) Endogenous b) Cross c) Secondary d) Inapparent
4. Enhancement of virulence in bacteria is known as'(W -14)
a) Excitation b) Exaltation
c) Attenuation d) Transformation
5. Which of the following toxins is the most toxic ? (S-15)
a) Cholera toxin b) Strict parasites of humans
c) Botulinum toxin d) Tetanus tbxin
6. Exotoxins are (W-15)
a) Highly antigenic b) Lipopolysaccharide in nature
c) Heat stable d) Present within the bacteria
7. Exotoxins have all the following properties EXCEPT that they. (S-16)
a) Are produced extra cellularly.
b) Are produced by both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria.
c) Can be converted into toxoids.
d) Are heat stable.
SAQ
1. P\asm\ds.(S4Q)(\N4Q)(S-86M94)(W-91,95)
2. Difference between endotoxin & exotoxin.(W-01)(S-03)
3. Describe the different modes of transmission of infectious agents
giving suitable examples.(S-IO)
4. Concentration method of stool for parasites identification.(S-07)
5. Enumerate Bacterial zoonotic disease. (S-11)
6. Mention four differences between exotoxins and endotoxins. (W-14)
7. Define the following terms (W-14)
i) Carrier ii) Contact carrier
iii) Paradoxical carrier iv) Convalescent carrier.
8. Bacterial toxins.(W-70,79,86)(S-74,82)
M
I1 3 7 I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
9. Endotoxin.(S-70,87,90)
10. Exotoxin. (S-83)
11. Insect Vectors. (S-96) \
12. Attenuation.(S-77)(W-78,83)
13. Carrier. (W-85,88)
LAQ
None ■
9. Immunity.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Clinical infection leads to (S-03)
a) Active natural im m unity. b) Active artificial immunity,
c) Passive natural immunity. d) Passive artificial immunity.
2. Collcetive resistance to the disease displayed by the community is
know as (S-03)
a) Individual immunity. b) Herd immunity,
c) Species immunity d) Racial immunity.
3. Lysozyme is present in (W-03)
a) Saliva. b) CSF. c) Sweat. d) White.
4. Clinical infection will produce the following type of immunity. (W-08)
a) Natural active. . b) Natural passive.
c) Artificial active. d) Artificial passive.
5. Innate defence against infection includes all of the following EXCEPT.
(S-09)
a) Specific antibody.
b) Lysozome in tears.
c) Mucus secretions in epithelial cells.
d) Ciliated cells in the respiratory tract.
6. Lysozyme is present in (W-09)
a) Saliva. r b) CSF. c) Sweat. d) Urine.
7. immunity developed after an acute attack of infection is (W-10)
a) Natural, active, b) Artificial, active.
c) Natural, passive, d) Artificial, passive.
8. A person who harbours the pathogen but never suffers from the
disease is known as (S-11)
a) Pradoxial carrier b) Contact carrier
c) Healthy carrier d) Convulucent carrier
9. Skin, lactic acid secretions, stomach acidity and motion of cilia
represent which type of immunity ? (W-11)
a) Natural b) Acquired c) Adaptive d)Auto
10. The skin test useful for diagnosis of hydatid cyst infection is (W-13)
a) Schick test b) Dick test

I138I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs , I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
c) Cason is test d) Mantoux test
11 Injection of antiserum from one individual to another individual is a
form of (S-14)
a) Artificial active immunity b) Artificial passive immunity
c) Natural active immunity d) Natural passive immunity
12. All statement in respect of "Active immunity" is true EXCEPT
(W-15)
a) Negative phase may occur *
' b) Booster effect on subsequent dose
c) Immediate immunity
d) Not applicable in immunodeficient.
SAQ
1. Differentiate active & passive immunity.(S-01)
2. Classify immunity. Give 2 examples of active immunity.(S-02)
3. Enumerate four live attenuated viral vaccines. (W-06)
4. Tabulate important differences between active & passive immunity.
(W-07)
5. Mention mertis and demerits of the use of live versus killed vaccines.
(W-11)
6. Describe passive type of immunity with suitable examples. (S-12)
7. Describe the mechanisms of innate immunity. (S-13)
8. Write a short note on Innate immunity. (S-17)
9. Methods of inducing active immunity.(W-71)
10. Live vaccines. (S-76,79)
11. Innate immunity. (W-84)
12. Non specific defence mechanism. (S-85)
13. Vaccines. (W-85,91)(S-90)
14. Acquired immunity.(W-86)(S-88,90)
15. Bacterial vaccines. (S-95)
16. Active immuhfty;(W-97,95,98)
LAQ
None
10. Antigens.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The example of a serological test based on heterophile antigen is
(W-09)
a) Widal test. b) Paul-bunnel test.
c) Brucell agglutination test. d) Anti-streptolysin O test.
2. All of the following are characteristics of a good immunogen
EXCEPT (W-11)
a) Internal complexity b) Large molecular weight
M
I139I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
c) The presence of numerous epitopes d) Found on host cells
3. For drugs with first order kinetics time required to achieve steady
state levels can be predicted from (S-13)
a) Volume of distribution b) Half life
c) Clearance d) Loading dose
4. Smallest unit of antigenicity is known as (W-14)
a) Epitope b) Paratose c) Mesotope d) Minitope
SAQ
1. Explain Heterophile antigen. Name any one serological test based
on jt.(S-01) t -
2. Four determints of antigenicity.(W-02)
3. Describe any four determinants of antigenicity.(S-04)(W-07)
4. Antigen.(W-76,94)(S-85)
5. Vi antigen. (S-74)
LAQ "■- - ' I
None
11. Antibodies - Immunoglobulins.
: MCQ (MUHS)
1. First antibody to appear following antigen stimulation is (S-03)
a) IgA. b) IgD. c) IgG, d) IgM.
2. W hich of the following antibodies can cross the human placenta ?
(W-08)
a) IgE. b) IgA. c) IgG d) IgD.
3. Most abundant class of immunoglobulin in the body is (W-09)
a) IgG. b) IgM. c) IgD. d) IgE.
4. First antibody to appear following intrauterine stimulation by an
antigen is (S-10)
a) IgM. b) IgG. * c) IgE. d) IgD,
5. Which of the following immunoglobulin crosses the placenta ? (W-10)
a) IgG. b) IgM. c) IgA. d) IgE.
6. All of the following are true of IgM, EXCEPT that it (W-11)
a) Can cross the placenta b) Fixes complement
c) Has J chain d) Is a primary response antibody
7. Which class of immunoglobulins can cross the placenta ? (W-13)
a) IgG b) IgM c) IgD d) IgE
8. The immunoglobulin useful in detection of infection in new born is
(S-14)
a) IgG b) IgM c) IgE d) IgA
9. A plasma cell produces (S-14,16)
a) Complement b) Interleukin c) Antibody d) Interferon
10. Natural passive immunity is due to (W-14)
I140I
 2ndM.B.B.S, Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) IgM b) IgG c) IgA d) IgE
11. J chain is present in which immunoglobulin (S-15)
a) IgG b) IgA c) IgD d) IgE
- 12. Natural passive immunity in new born is provided by (W-16)
a) IgA b) IgE c) IgG d) IgM
13. Type - 1 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by (W-16)
a) IgA b) IgE c) IgG d) IgM
SAQ
1. Draw a labelled diagram of IgG. (W-01) *
2. Define antibodies. Give 2 properties of IgA. (S-02)
3. Classify immunoglobins and Dia. of secretary IgA. (S-03)
4. Mention classes and compare four important properties of
%';
A*
-'i ?■
Immunoglobulins. (S-06)
5. Describe the structure and function of IgG. (W-10)
6. Mention properties and functions of IgM. (S-11,14)
7. Briefly describe the structure Of IgM antibody. (S-13)
8. Define and classify antibodies. Describe the structure and properties
of IgM. (W-13)
9. Draw a labeled diagram of any immunoglobulin. Enumerate the
properties of lgM.(W-15)
10. Immunoglobulin G. (W-16)
LAQ
1. Immunoglobulins A. (S-99)(W-87,93)(S-96)
2. Immunoglobulins M. (S*QQ)(S-88,89,92)(W-90,92)
3. Define ahtibody. Name various classes and sub classes of
immunoglobulins. Describe the structure and functions of IgG. (S-10)
4. Immunoglobulins. (S-72,82,76,84,91,80,86,93)
5. Antibodies. (S-75)(W-77,83)
6. Incomplete antibodies.(S-83)
7. Immunoglobulins G. (S-94)(W-94)
8. Secretory immunoglobulins.(S-98)
12. Antigen - Antibody Reactions.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Most specific test for the serodiagnosis of syphilis is (W-03)
a) Treponema pallidum immobilization test, b) VDRL test,
c) Kohn’s test. d) RPR test.
2. Amount of various immunoglobulin classes can be measured by
(W-03)
a) Single diffusion in one dimension.
b) Double diffusion in one dimension.

*4
141
2nd M.B.B.S. B ook with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Single diffusion in two dimensions.
d) Double diffusion in two dimensions.
3. Incomplete or blocking antibodies can be detected by (W-08)
a) Paul bunnel test. b) Coomb’s test.
c) Weil-felix test. d) All of above.
4. Reaction between a soluble antigen with its specific antibody is known
as (S-09)
a) Agglutination. b) Precipitation,
c) Neutralisation. d) Complement fixation.
5. Agglutination reaction is more sensitive than precipitation for
determination of (W-09)
a) Antigen. b) Antibody,
c) Antigen-antibody complex. d) Complement.
6. ' VDRL test is an example of (W-10)
a) Slide flocculation test. b) Tube agglutination test,
c) Single radial immunodiffusion, d) Complement fixation test.
7. Example of heterophile agglutination test is (S-11)
a) VDRL Test b) Wasserman Test
c) Weil-Felix Test d) Widal Test
8. VDRL test is an example of (S-11)
a) Agglutination reaction b) Complement fixation reaction
c) Neutralisation reaction d) Slide flocculation test
9. W hich of the following best describes agglutination ? (W-11)
a) A combination of soluble, antigen with soluble antibody
b) A combination of particulate antigen with soluble antibody
c) A reaction that produces no visible end point
d) A reaction that requires instrumentation to read
10. Genetically determined abnormal reactivity to a drug is termed as
(W-12)
a) allergyb) mutagenicity c) idiosyncrasy d) teratogenicity
11. A test in which a soluble antigen reacts with an antibody in the
presence of electrolytes to produce a visible reaction is termed
(W-13),
a) Precipitation b) Agglutination
c) Neutralisation d) Complement fixation test
12. VDRL test for syphilis is (W-14)
a) Agglutination test b) Precipitation test
c) Complement Fixation test d) Immunofluorescence test
13. Weil felix reaction is based on sharing of antigen between
a) Sheep RBCs and Ebstein Barr virus (S-15)
b) Rickettsial antigens and antigens of proteus species

I1 4 2 I
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
c) Mycoplasma and Human 0 group RBCs
d) Mycoplasma and streptococcus, MG
14. For measuring the quantity of IgE the following test is most useful
(S-15)
a) R adio im m u no assay
b) Signal diffusion in one direction
t> c) Radial Immunodiffusion
d) Counter current immune electrophoresis .
15. Example of serological test based on heterophile antigen is (W-15)
a)TPH A test b) W eil-Felix reaction •
c) Widal test d) ASO test ,
16. Failure of visible reaction due to antibody excess is known as
(W-15)
a) Post-zone phenomenon b) Zone of equivalence
c) Lattice zone d) Prozone phenom enon
17. Incomplete antibodies may be detected by (W-15)
a) Specific antigens b) Complement fixation test
c) Precipitation test d) Antiglobulin test
18. VDRL test is a following type of serological reaction. (S-16)
a) Precipitation b) Agglutination
c) Neutralisation d) Opsoriisation
SAQ
1. Principle and applications of agglutination reaction.(S-99)
2. Agglutin ation test.(W-99) (S-72,91) (W-87,89,93)
3. Complement fixation test.(A-00)(W-88J(S-90J
4. Define agglutination reaction and discuss its principal and application
of tube agglutination.(S-IO)
5. Give an account of enzyme linked immunosorbent assays with
applications. (S-12)
6. Enumerate and define agglutination reactions. Describe the Widal
test. (W-12)
7. Mention the difference between agglutination and precipitation. G ive'
two examples of each test. (S-14)
8. Cold agglutinins. (W-83)
9. Precipitation test. (W-87,88) ' *
10. Opsonins. (W-93)
11. Antigen antibody reaction. (W-95,97)
LAQ
1. What are Serological Reaction? Describe the mechanism of
precipitation reaction and its application in the diagnosis of infectious
disease. (W-01)

I143I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

2. Classify antigen-antibody reactions. Describe the different

precipitation reactions with on example each. (W-11)
3. Define Antigen Antibody reactions. Discuss types of agglutination
reaction with examples. (W-14)
4. Enumerate the types of antigen-antibody reactions. Describe the
principle and applications of precipitation reaction. (W-16)
. 5. Name the various antigen-antibody reactions. What is prozone
phenomenon ? Describe the principle and application of agglutination
reactions. (S-17)
13. The Complement System.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Number of proteins in the complement system is (W-03)
a) 5. b) 7. c) 9. d) 11.
2. Chemical nature of components o f the complement system is (S-10)
a) Lipid. b) Polysaccharide. c) Protein, d) Carbohydrate.
3. The classical complement pathway is activated by (W-11)
a) Most viruses b) Antigen-antibody complexes
c) Fungal cell wall d) All of the above
4. C1 inhibitor deficiency can cause (W-14)
a) SLE
b) Vascular diseases
c) Recurrent pyogenic infections .
d) Hereditary angioneurotic oedema
5. All of the following immunological effects are mediated by
complements EXCEPT (W-15)
a) Phagocytosis b) Type I Hypersensitivity
c) Agglutination d) Inflammatory response
6. Hereditary angioneurotic oedema is caused by. (S-16)
a) C6 deficiency b) C4 deficiency
c) C3 deficiency d) C1 inhibitor deficiency
SAQ
1. The complement cascade and its biological effects. (S-15)
2. Classical pathway of complement. (W-16)
3. Complement.(W-73,92)(S-76,87)
4. Discuss the Complement Cascade. (S-96,98)
LAQ
None
14. Structure and Functions o f the Immune System.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. CD4 cells recognise antigen in association with. (S-03)

I144I
 • * ' • . ■
, _

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

a) Ir genes, b) B cell receptor. c) MHC-II. d) MHC-I.
2. Which of the following is a major site for lymphocyte proliferation in
the body ? (W-08)
a) Spleen. b) Lymph node.^
c) Mucosa associated lymphoid tisse. d) Thymus.
3. HLA complex of gene is located on the short arm of (S-11)
a) Chromosome 6 b) Chromosome 8
c) Chromosome 4 d) Chromosome 2
4. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ ? (W-11)
a) Lymph node b) Spleen c) Thymus d) MALT
SAQ
1. Differentiation & functional, sub-population of T-lymphocytes.(A-99)
(S-97)
2. T & B lymphocytes.(W-00)(W-87)(S-89)
3. Differences between T & B cells.(W-02)
4. W rite four differences between T & B cells.(W-06)
5. Immunological apparatus.(W-83)
6. T lymp.hocyte.(W-92)
7. Lym phocytes.^-^)
8. lmmunocompetantcells.(W-98)
LAQ
None
15. Immune Response.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Interleukin-1 is produced by (S-03)
a) Macrophages. b) CD4+ lymphocytes,
c) CDB + lymphocytes. d) B-lymphocytes.
2. CD4 cells recognise antigen in association with. (S-03)
a) Ir genes b) B cell receptor c) MHC-II d) MHC-I
3. Negative phase is observed in (W-03)
a) Primary humoral response, b) Secondary humoral response,
c) Both of the above. d) None of the above.
4. Most widely accepted theory of antibody production is (W-03)
a) Direct template theory, b) Indirect template theory,
c) Side chain theory. d) Clonal selection theory.
5. CMI participates in (W-09)
a) allograft rejection b) graft Vs host reaction
c) delayed hypersensitivity d) all of the above.
Most widely accepted theory of antibody production is (S-10)
a) Direct template theory. b) Indirect template theory,
c) Side chain theory. d) Clonal selection theory.
M
I145I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
7. Most widely accepted theory of antibody production is (W-13)
a) Indirect template b) Direct template
c) Clonal selection d) Side chain
. 8. Toxoids are (S-14)
a) Antigenic and Toxic b) Antigenic and nontoxic
c) Nonantigenic and Toxic d) Nonantigenic and nontoxic
9. Cell mediated immunity does not play a role of (W-16)
a) Contact dermatitis b) Anaphylaxis
c) Graft rejection * d) Tumour immunity
SAQ
1. Cell mediated immunity.(W-99)(W-88,94)(S-93) ^
2. Define cytokines. Mention two cytokines with their function.(W-06)
3. Mention various tests for detection of cell mediated immunity. (S-16)
4. Immunological tolerance. (W-86,89,92)
5. Monoclonal antibodies & their application in clinical microbiology. (W-87)
6. Primary immune response. (W-91)
7. Monoclonal antibodies. (W-91)
LAQ
None
16. Immunodeficiency Diseases.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Lymphogranuloma venerum is treated by (S-03)
a) Sulphonamides. b) Amphotericin B,
c) Acyclovir. d) Nystacin.
2. Di- George’s syndrome is due to (W-09)
a) T cell defect. b) B cell defect,
c) Both of above. d) None of above.
3. C1 inhibitor deficiency can cause (W-14)
a) SLE
b) Vascular diseases
c) Recurrent pyogenic infections
d) Hereditary angioneurotic oedema
SAQ
1. Complement deficiency diseases.(S-07)
LAQ
None
17. Hypersensitivity.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Anaphylaxis is hypersensitivity of type (S-03)
a) I. b) II. c) III. d) IV.

I146I
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
2. Tuberculin test is an example of the following type of hypersensitivity
reaction. (W-08)
a) Type II. b) Type IV. c) Type I. d) Type III.
3. Anaphylactic reactions are mediated by this class of
immunoglobulins (W-09)
a) IgM- b) IgE. c) IgA. . d) IgD. -
4. Type I hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by (S-15)(W-16)
a) IgE b) IgG c) IgM d) IgD
SAQ
1. Anaphylaxis.(W-99)(S-00)(S-82,86,89,91,93)(W-83,84,91) .
2. Mechanisms, mediators and factors affecting anaphylaxis.(W-OI)
(S-97) ^
3. Type II Hypersensitivity reaction with two examples.(S-07)
4. Define hypersensitivity and briefly describe anaphylaxis. (S-10)
5. Describe type four hypersensitivity. (S-12)
6. Classify hypersensitivity reactions. Describe Type I hypersensitivity
reactions. (W-13)
7. Define hypersensitivity. Describe in type IV hypersensitivity. (W-14)
8. Describe briefly Type III hypersensitivity reaction. (S-15)
9. Classify hypersensitivity reactions. Describe Type III hypersensitivity.
(W-15)
10. Delayed hypersensitivity. (S-71,92)(W-87,90,89,95,97,98)
11. Hypersensitivity.(S-74,76)
12. Arthus phenomenon.(W-76) .
13. Immediate hypersensitivity (W-82)
14. Type II & III hypersensitivity reactions. (S-87)(W-88)
15. Type III hypersensitivity. (W-94)
16. Type I Hypersensitivity reaction. (S-95)
17. Serum sickness. (S-98)
LAQ % /
1. Describe the mechanism & mediators of Type I hypersensitivity
reaction. (S-02)
2. Define and classify hypersensitivity. Describe anaphylactic
hypersensitivity. (W-03)
3. Define hypersensitivity. Classify with pathogenesis. Write about type
III hypersensitivity.(W-06)
4. 1) Define the term "Hypersensitivity".
2) Describe three types of immediate hypersensitivity reactions
with appropriate example for each type. (S-14)
18. Autoimmunity.
MCQ (MUHS)

I147I
 dM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs
2n I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
1. In Myasthenia gravis, auto antibodies are produced against (S-09)
a) Insulin receptors. b) Erythrocytes.
c) Thyroglobulin. d) Acetylcholine receptors.
2. The diagnosis of Myasthenic crisis is done by using (S-12)
a) Edrophonium b) Neostigmine
c) Succinylcholine d) Atropine
3. Which of the following is a systemic autoimmune disease ? (W-14)
a) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
b) Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
c) Systemic Lupus Erythematous
d) Addisons disease
SAQ
; ' -3
1. Classify autoimmune diseases with one example each.(S-04)(W-07)
2. Autoimmunity.(W-78,83)(S-94)
LAQ
*
1. Define autoimmunity with mechanism classification of autoimmune
disease eg.(S-03)
2. Define autoimmunity. Write in detail the various mechanisms of
;'S
autoimmunity. (S-13)
3. Briefly describe the immunological mechanisms that lead to •
autoimmune disorders. (W-15)
m
19, Immunology o f Transplantation and Malignancy.
MCQ (MUHS) m
1. Grafts between identical twins is an example of (S-03)
%
a) Autograft. b) Lisograft. c) Allograft. d) Xenograft.
2. An allograft implies (W-08) m
a) A graft from an identical twin.
b) A graft across species barriers.
c) A graft from another area of the same individual’s body. m
d) A graft from one of same species. ■ - !
■ >
3. HLA typing and cross matching is required in which type of Grafts ? 7 f
, (S-10)
a) Autograft. b) Isograft, c) Allograft. d) Xenograft.
4. Graft versus host reaction is mediated by (S-11)
a) B cells b) T cells c) Macrophages d) HLA
5. Allograft is taken from (S-14)
a) Self
b) Genetically unrelated member o f same species
c) Genetically identical donor
d) Different species
6. A graft taken from an individual^and placed on another individual of .
. J <
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
the same genetic Constitution is called (W-15)
a) Isograft b) Xenograft c) Autograft d) Allograft
7. Grafts between two genetically non identified members of same
species are called (W-16)
a) Allografts b) Xenografts
c) Isografts d) Autografts
SAQ
1. Human leucocyte antigen system.(S-92,96)(W-94,98)
LAQ
None
20. Immunohematoloav.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The major cause of transfusion associated hepatitis is (W-03)
a) Hepatitis B. b) Hepatitis A.
c) Hepatitis E. d) Cytomegalo virus.
2. Universal precautions means (W-08)
a) Testing all samples for anti-HIV antibodies.
b) Testing all samples for BHsAg.
c) Use of protective barriers by health care workers.
d) Testing ail samples for anti-HIV antibodies; HBsAg &
anti-HCV antibodies.
SAQ
None
LAQ
None
Part-Ill
21. Staphylococcus.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Lancefield’s classification is used for (W-03)
a) Staphylococcus aureus, b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis,
c) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. d) Beta haemolytic streptococci.
2. Which of the following staphylococci produce coagulase ? (S-09)
a) Ephidermidis. b) Hemolyticus.
c) Aureus. d) Saprophyticus.
3. Cell component of staphyllococous aureus used for co-agglutination
test is (W-09)
a) Cell wall. b) Capsule, c) Protein A. d) Teichoic acid.
4. Which of the following organisms is used to enhance the growth of
Hemophilus influenzae on blood agar ? (S-10)
a) Streptococcus pyogenes. b) Hemophilus parainfluenzae.
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Coiynebacterium diphtheriae. -d) Staphyloccous aureus.
5. Staphyloccal food poisoning usually manifests after hours of
ingesting contaminated food. (S-10)
a) 2-6. b) 12-24. c) 24-48. d) 48-72.
6. Pigment production of staphylococcus species is enhanced on
(W-10)
a) Milk agar. b) Chocolate agar,
c) Pike’s medium. d) Blood agar.
7. Which of the following characteristics is a feature of only
staphylococcus aureus ? (W-11)
a) They are gram positive cocci arranged in clusters
b) They produce beta hemolysis on blood agar
c) They are resistant to penicillin
d) They are coagulase positive .
8. Ludlam’s medium is used for isolation of staph, aureus from (S-13)
a) Pus b) CSF c) Blood d) Stool
9. A group of patients having nausea and vomitting within 2-6 hrs after
* consuming sweet-meats from a common source is most likely caused
by (S-13)
a) Salmonella enteritides b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Clostridium welchii d) Yersinia enterocolitica
10. The toxin responsible for Toxic shock syndrome is (W-13)
a) Haemolysin b) Leucocidin
c) Exfoliative toxin d) Enterotoxin F
11. The tube coagulase test detects (S-15)
a) Bound coagulase b) Free coagulase
c) Both free and bound coagulase d) None of the above
12. After ingestion of contaminated food staphylococcal food
poisoning usually manifest within (W-15)
a) 2-6 hrs *•>., b) 6-12 hrs
c) Less than 1 hr d) More than 24 hr
13. Toxic Shock Syndrome [TSS] is caused by (W-15)
a) Clostridia b) Pneumococci
c) S.aureus d) Pseudomonas
SAQ
1. Name four diseases produced by Staphylococcus aureus. Describe
in brief Staphylococcal food poisoning. (S-16)
2. Laboratory diagnosis of Staphylococcal wound infection. (W-16)
3. Bacterial food poisoning.(S-75)
4. Organisms causing food poisoning.(S-85)
LAQ
M
Il5 0 l
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
1. Coagulase test.(S-00)(S-73,78,93)(W-85,86,87,95,92)
2. Describe the morphology and cultural characteristics o f staphylococci.
Mention its pathogenicity, biochemical reactions, antigenic
composition, antibiogram and laboratory diagnosis.(S-01)(S-77J
3. Four difference between streptococcus viridans and strepto coccus
pnemoniae. (W-02)
4. 4 diseases caused by staphylococcus aureus.(W-03)
5. Explain the basis of multisystem involvement & florid manifestations
in Staphylococcal food poisoning and toxic shock syncjrome.(W-04)
6. Describe infections caused by staph, aureus.(W-06)
7. Laboratory diagnosis of staphylococcal infection. (S-71)
8. Classify staphylococci. Describe morphology, cultural characteristics,
important biochemical reactions and pathogenicity of staphylococcus aureus.
(S-93) L . v '
9. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus. (S-98)
22. Streptococcus.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Neonatal meningitis is commonly caused by (W-08)
a) Staphylococcus aureus. b) Streptococcus Group A.
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae. d) Streptococcus Group B.
2. Which of the following conditions is a non-suppurative complication
(sequelae) following streptococcus pyogenes infection ? (S-09)
a) Tonsillitis. b) Erysipelas,
c) Necrotising fasciitis. d) Acute rheumatic fever.
3. “CAMP” test is used for-identifying which group of streptococci 9
(S-10)
a) A. b)B. c) C. d) D.
4. Streptococcal glomerulonephritis is more common after (W-10)
a) Sore throat. b) Tooth extraction,
c) Skin infection. d) Conjunctivitis.
5. Susceptibility to streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxin is indicated by
(S-11)
a) Dick test b) Schick test c) ASO test d) Elek test
6. Early onset neonatal meningitis is commonly caused by (W-12)
a) Streptococcus Group B b) Streptococcus Group A
c) Staphylococcus aureus d) E.coli
7. Lancefield grouping of Streptococci is based on (W-14)
a) M antigen b) T antigen
c) C antigen d) R antigen
8. CAMP test is exhibited by (W-15)
a) S. pneumoniae b) S. enteritidis
f

I151I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs H I14E dition by Unique Publication
c) S. agalactiae d) S. aureus
SAQ .
1. Mention rationale behind secondary prophylaxis in Rheumatic fever.
(S-02)
2. Enumerate four important enzymes or toxins produced by
streptococcus pyogenes. (S-04)
3. Streptoc6cci.(W-02)
4. Describe the morphology and cultural characteristics of Sreptococcus
peneumoniae. (W-11)
5. Describe eight differences between streptococcus virfdans and
streptococcus pneumoniae. (W-10) / ;r
6. Differentiate between Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus
viridans. (S-13)
7. Describe the non-suppurative complications of Streptococcus
pyogenes infection. (W-13)
8. Non supprative complications of Strepto pyogenes infection. (S-14)
9. Name causative agents for acute bacterial meningitis. Describe the
laboratory diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis. (S-16)
10. Discuss non suppurative sequelae of Streptococcus pyogenes
infection. .(S-17)
11. ASO test.(W-87)(S-89,92,95) ' * '
LAQ
1. Describe the classifications, morphology and cultural characteristics, of
streptococci. Describe their biochemical reactions. Enumerate the diseases
caused by them.(W-73,76)(S-90)
2. Enumerate microbiologic agents causing sore throat. Describe in briefthe
morphology, cultural characteristics and pathogenicity of streptococci.
(W-82)
3. How are Streptococci classified ? Enumerate various toxins and infections
produced by Streptococcus Pyogenes. Discuss laboratory diagnosis of
Rheumatic Heart Disease. (S-96)
23. Pneumococcus. (Diplococcus pneunoniae:
Str pneumoniae)
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Pneumococci has following characters EXCEPT. (S-03)
a) Capsulated. b) Alpha haemolytic.
c) Bile soluble. d) Sensitive to bacitracin.
2. CSF examination reveals plenty of pus cells and intracellular gram
negative diplococci, whose adjacent sides are flattend. The preferred
medium for isolating organism is (W-11)
a) Chocolate agar b) Mannitol salt agar
M
I152I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Nutrient agar d) Nutrient broth
3. Pneumococcal vaccine contains (W-12)
a) DNA of the organism b) Capsular polysaccharide
c) Whole killed bacteria d) Live attenuated bacteria
4. Shape o f Streptococcus pneumoniae is (S-14)
a) Safety pin b) Lanciolate
c) Owls eye d) Kidney shaped
5. Following organisms are capsulated EXCEPT (W-14)
a) Pneumococcus b) B. anthracis
* c) Shigella ^ d) Klebsiella
6. Pneumococcal antigen in CSF can be detected by. (S-16)
a) Coagglutination.
b) Counter current immuno electrophoresis.
c) Latex agglutination. . ,
d) All of the above. *
7. The following are features of Pneumococcus EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) Bile insolubility b) Optochin sensitivity
c) Gram positive d) Encapsulated
SAQ
1. Pneumococcal vaccine. (W-12)
LAQ
1. Difference between strep-viridans and strep-Pneumoniae.(S-OI)
LAQ (OTHER UNIVERSITIES)
1. Enumerate organisms causing pyogenic meningitis. Describe the
morphology and cultural characteristics of streptococcus pneumoniae.
Outline the laboratory diagnosis of acute pyogenic meningitis.(W-93)(S-98)
2. Morphology of Str pneumoniae.(W-82)
24. Neisseria.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Pathogenicity o f Neisseria gonorrhoeae is due to (W-03) .
a) M protein. b) Exotoxin. c) Pili. d) Capsule.
2. Example of oxidase positive bacteria is (W-08)
a) Gonococcus. b) Vibrio cholerae.
c) Pseudomonas. d) All of above.
3. Neisseria gonorrhoea possesses which of the following antigen/s ?
(S-09)
a) Pilins. b) Lipopolysaccharide.
c) Outer membrane protein I. d) All of above.
4. Which of the following sites is to be sampled for detecting the carrier
state of Neisseria meningitidis ? (S-10)

14
153
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) Skin. b) Nasopharynx. c) Rectum d) Middle ear.
5. Serogrouping of N. Meningitidis is based on (W-10)
a) Capsular polysaccharide. b) Protein.
c) Lipopolysaccharide. d) None of above.
6. The causative agent of water house Friderichsen syndrome is (S-11)
a) Neisseria meningitidis b) Treponema pallidum
c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Streptococcus pyogenes
7. Neisseria meningitidis is (S-13)
a) S trict aerobe b) Facultative anaerobe
c) Obligate anearobe d) Aerobe and facultative anearobe
8. Selective medium used for isolation of Nesseria meningitidis (S-14)
a) TCBS b) Mullar Hinton Agar
c) Modified Thayer Martin m edium d) Chocolate agar
9. Nongonococcal urethritis is caused by (W-14)
a) Chlamydia trachomatis b) Mycoplasma hominis
c) Ureaplasma urealyticum d) All of the above
SAQ
1. 4 causative agents of pyogenic meningitis.(S-01)
1. Enumerate four sexually transmitted infections. Describe media used
for culture of Neisseria gonorrhoeae.(W-04)
2. Enumerate four bacteria causing sexually transmitted infections. List
four common infections produced by organisms belonging to Genus
Neisseria.(S-06)
4. Mention morphology and two media for its cultivation of N.gonofrhoea.
(W-06)
5. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of bacterial'meningitis. (W-13)
6. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis (W-15)
7. Discuss Nongonococcal Urethritis [NGU]. (W-16)
8. N. Meningitidis. .....
9. Lab. diagnosis of meningitis. (S-73)
10. Lab. diagnosis of gonorrhoea. (S-77,83)
11. Non gonococcal urethritis. (S-85,96)
12. Nonspecific urethritis. (W-96)
LAQ
1. Enumerate organisms causing pyogenic meningitis. Describe
morphology, cultural characteristics, antigenic composition &
pathogenicity of any one of them.(W-01)(W-84)
2. Enumerate bacteria, causing pyogenic meningitis. Describe
morphology, cultural characteristics of N. Meningitidis. Outline its
laboratory diagnosis.(S-03)(S-86,89,99)
3. Morphology, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Neisseria
■ 14
I154I
■V^ 4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
gonorrhoeae and infections produced by it. (W-03)
4. Discuss laboratory diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis.(W-06)
5. Enumerate the organisms causing meningitis. Describe the lab.
diagnosis of N. Meningitidis meningitis. (W-10)
6. Mention organisms causing meningitis and describe lab. diagnosis of
Pyogenic meningitis. (W -12)
t 7. Enumerate the organisms causing meningitis. Write in detail about
the laboratory diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis. (S-14)
8. Describe morphology, cultural characteristics, biochemical reactions,
antigenic composition, pathogenicity & antibiogram of N. Gonorrhoea.
(S-83)
9. Morphology of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and complications caused by its
infection. (S-97)
25. Corynebacterium.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Toxin production in-C. diphtheriae depends on (W-03)
a) Conjugation. b) Transaduction. •
c) Lysogenic conversion, d) Transformation.
2. The organism most likely to demonstrate metachromatic babes-ernst
bodies when stained with aniline dyes would be (W-08)
a) Neisseria. b) Leptospira,
c) Corynebacteria. d) Pneumococci.
3. On which of the following media is growth of C. Diphtheria detected
earlier ? (S-09) -
a) Blood agar. b) Tellurite blood agar,
c) Loeffler’s serum slope. d) Chocolate agar.
4. Metachromatic granules of C.diphtheriae are seen best by (W-10)
a) Gram stain. b) Albert’s stain.
c) Ziehl-neelsen stain. d) India ink.
5. Laboratory diagnosis of Diphtheria is made by (W-11)
a) Demonstration of gram positive bacilli containing metachromatic
granules
b) Demonstration of the organism by microscopy and isolation by
culture
c) Isolation of diphtheria bacillus and demonstration of its
toxigenicity
d) Response to antimicrobial therapy
6. Diphtheria toxin production is under control of (W -12)
a) Plasmid b) Bacteriophage
c) Transposons d) Bacterial chromosome
7. Diphtheria toxin is demonstrated by (S-13)
m
I155I
 dM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs
2n I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Elek’s test b) Nagler’s test
c) Schick test d) Casoni’s test
8. W hich organism produces toxin that acts on organs and tissues
distant from the site of colonization ? (W-13)
a) Vibrio cholera b) Salmonella typhi
c) Corynebacterium diphtheria d) Escherichia coli
9. Eleks gel precipitation test is used to detect (S-14)
a) Diphtheria toxin b) Bottulinum toxin
c) Tetanus toxin d) Alpha toxin
10. Toxoids are (S-15)
a) Antigenic and toxic b) Antigenic and nontoxic
c) Nonantigenic and nontoxic d) Nonantigenic and toxic
SAQ
1. Immunoprophylaxis of Diptheria.(W-02)
2. Prophylaxis against diphtheria.(S-99,02)(W-73J
3. Describe the morphology of C. diphtheriae. Mention two methods
for testing for toxin production of this organism.(S-07)
4. Properties and tests for detection of toxin of C. diphtheriae. (S-12)
5. Toxigenicity tests of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. (S-15)
6. W rite on metachromatic granules. (W-15)
7. Discuss pathogenicity of diphtheria. (W-16)
8. Schick’s test. (W -74)
9. Toxoids as vaccines.(W-78,83XS-84)
10. Lab. diagnosis of diphtheria. (S-98) .
LAQ
1. Enumerate organisms causing sore throat. Describe morphology,
cultural characteristics, pathogenesis and lab. diagnosis of infection
caused by corynebacterium Diphtheriae.(W-0O)(W-95J
2. Enumerate four bacteria causing sore throat. Discuss the laboratory
diagnosis of diphtheria.(S-IO)
3. Enumerate organisms causing sore throat. Describe in detail the
laboratory diagnosis of Diphtheria. (S-14)
4. Enumerate bacteria causing sore throat. Describe the morphology, cultural
characteristics, biochemical reactions and pathogenicity of C. Diphtheriae.
Outline lab. diagnosis of diphtheria. (W -70,72,86,89,90,98)(S-78,79,85)
26. Bacillus.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test is performed to detect antigen in
tissues to diagnose! (S-03) ,
a) Brucellosis. b) Anthrax,
c) Plague. d) Rocky mountain spotted fever.
I1 5 6 I
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
2. “Medusa Head” appearance of colonies is characteristic of (W-09)
a) Proteus mirabilis. b) Clostridium tetani.
c) Bacillus anthracis. d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
3. “Medusa Head” calories are characteristic of (W-12)
a) Proteus Mirabilis b) Clostridium tetani
c) Bacillus anthracis dj Mycoplasma pneumoniae
4. The test used for presumptive diagnosis of anthrax is (S-14)
a) Quellung reaction b) McFadyeans reaction
c) CAMP test d) Coagulase test
, 5. String of pearls reaction is given by. (S-16)
a) Bacillus anthracis b) Lactobacillusacidophilus
c) Clostridium perfringens d) Corynebacterium diphtheria
6. Which of the following organisms is Gram negative ? (S-16)
a) Clostridium b) Bacillus
c) Bordetella d) Actinomyces
7. The capsule of B. anthracis is made of (W-16)
a) Polysaccharide b) Lipoic acid
c) Protein d) Polypeptide
SAQ
1. Food poisoning‘.(W-02)
2. Bacterial food poisoning. (S-75) ' '- .
3. Organisms causing food poisoning.(S-85)
LAQ,
None
27. Clostridium.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Clostridium difficile is given because it is (S-03)
a) seen in faeces.
b) difficult to be seen microscopically.
c) difficult to isolate in culture.
d) difficult to treat illness produced by it.
2. The only Clostridium species that produces serologically related
alpha toxin with that of Clostridium per fringens is : (S-03)
a) Cl. bifermentans. b) Cl. oedimatiens.
c) Cl. septicum. d) Cl. histolyticum.
3. Capsulated species of Clostridium is (W-03) '
a) Clostridium tetani. b) Clostridium histolyticum.
c) Clostridium sporogens. d) Clostridium perfringens.
4. Toxin responsible for target haem olysis in Clostridium perfringens is
(W-09)
a) Alpha and beta toxin. b) Alpha and theta toxin.
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Alpha and iota toxin. d) Alpha and epsilon toxin.
5. Animal used for pathogenicity test in Clostridium tetani is (W-09)
a) Mice. b) Guinea pig. c) R ab b it.' d) None of above.
6. A patient treated with tobramycin, clindamycin and carbenicillin
develops severe diarrhoea five days later. A clinical diagnosis of
is (S-10)
> a) Clostridium welchii type A. b) Clostridium sordeHi.
c) Clostridium difficile. d) Bacillus cereus.
* 7. On staining, Clostridium tetani gives the appearance of being. (W-10)
a) Club shaped. b) Safety pin.
c) Drumstick. d) Branched.
8. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) caused by Cl. Botulinum is
usually due to ingestion of (S-11)
a) Milk b) Fruit juice c) Honey d) Unfiltered water
9. Food borne botulism occurs due to (W-11)
a) Preformed toxin
b) Infection with Cl. botulinum
c) Both preformed toxin and infection with Cl. botulinum
d) Toxin released from growing bacteria
10. Nagler reaction is useful for identification of (S-12)
a) Clostridium tetani b) Clostridium perfringens
c) Clostridium botulinum d) Clostridium difficile
11. _ _ _ is the most important pathogenicity factor for Cl. tetani. (S-13)
a) Endotoxin „ b) Exotoxin
c) Invasiveness d) None of these
12. Antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis is caused by
(W-13)
a) Clostridium sordelli b) Clostridium botulinum
c) Clostridium tetani • d) Clostridium difficile
13. Stormy clot fermentation is seen in (W-14)
a) Clostridium perfringens b) Clostridium tetani
c) Staphylococcus aureus d) Salmonella paratyphi B
14. Alpha toxin of Cl perfringens can be detected by (S-15)
a) IMViC reactions b) Widal test
c) Eleks gel precipitation test d) Nagler reaction
15. Swarming is seen with (W-15)
a) Klebsiella aerogenes b) E. Coji
c) Clostridium tetani d) Vibrio cholera
16. Which of the following organisms is Gram negative ? (S-16)
a) Clostridium b) Bacillus
c) Bordetella d) Actinomyces

I158I
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
17. ToXigenecity of Clostridium perfringenes is confirmed by (S-16)
a) Nagler’s reaction b) CAMP reaction
c) Susceptibility to bacitracin . d) Susceptibility to polymyxin B
SAQ
1. Mention uses of primary smear in Lab. Diagnosis of gas gangrene.
(S-02)
2. Enumerate four bacteria producing exotoxins. What are the
mechanisms of action of the exotoxins of Clostridium tetani ?(S-07)
3. Describe segregation of Hospital Waste. (W-10)
4. Describe briefly the lab. diagnosis of Gas Gangrene. (W-10)
5. Pathogenesis of gas-gangrene. (S-11)
6. Properties and tests for detection of toxin of C. diphtheriae, (S-12)
7. Nagler’s reaction. (W-12)
8. Describe pathogenesis of gas gangrene. What is Nagler’s reaction ?
(S-13)
9. Describe in brief pathogenesis of Gas gangrene. (W-13)(S-16)
10. Immunoprophylaxis of tetanus. (S-15)
11. Write the aetiopathogenesis of gas gangrene. (W-15)
12. Discuss pathogenicity and prevention of Clostridium botulinum
infection. (S-17)
13. Lab. diagnosis of tetanus.(S-72)
14. Lab. diagnosis of gas gangrene. (S-74)(W -85)
15. Toxoids as vaccines. (W -78,83)(S-84)
16. Nagler reaction.(W-83,88,97)(S-86,88)
17. Toxins of Cl Welchii. (W -87)
LAQ
1. Enumerate Bacterial causes of wound infection. Give the Lab.
diagnosis of gas gangrene.(S-01,03)
2. Enumerate organisms causing gas gangrene; Describe the
morphology, cultural characteristics and pathogenicity of the lab.
diagnosis of gas gangrene.(S-06)(W-93,94)
3. Write a note on bacterial spore.(S-IO)
4. Define and classify Anaerobes. Discuss the pathogenesis and
laboratory diagnosis of “Gas Gangrene”. (W-11)
5. Enumerate Clostridia pathogenic to man, morphology, cultural
characteristics and toxins of Cl. Welchii. (W -75,85)
6. W hat is anaerobiosis ? Describe the morphology, cultural characteristic,
animal & human pathogenicity of any one of the anaerobic organisms.
(W -78)
7. Enumerate methods of anaerobiosis. Describe the morphology and cultural
characteristics of Cl. tetani. Discuss prophylaxis of tetanus. (W -92)

M
I159I
M
 w

2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
28. Nonsoorina Anaerobes.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The nonsporing anaerobe associated with Vincent’s angina is (S-13)
a) Bacteroides fragilis b) Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
c) Fusobacterium fusiforme d) Eubacterium lentum
V: SAQ
1. Non-sporing anaerobes.(W-99)
1. Non sporing anaerobes.(S-90,94)(W-96)
2. Importance of non sporing anaerobes.(S-85,89)
LAQ
None
29. Enterobacteriaceae I: Coliforms - Proteus.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Seremy test is used for the detection of which type of diarrheagenic
E. Coli ? (S-09)
a) Enteropathogenic. b) Enteroinvasive.
c) Enterotoxigenic. d) Enterohemorrhagic.
2. Bacteriuria is considered significant when the bacterial count per ml
of urine is more than (S-11)
a) 102 organisms b) 103 organisms
c) 104 organisms d) 105 organisms
3. Which of the following organisms demonstrates ‘Swarming’ growth
when grown on solid media ? (W-11)
a) E. Coli b) Klebsiella c) Proteus d) Pseudomonas
4. Travellers diarrhoea is caused by (W-13)
a) Enterotoxigenic E coli b) Enteropathogenic E coli
c) Enteroinvasive E coli d) Enteroaggregative E coli
5. Following organisms are capsulated EXCEPT (W-14) '
a) Pneumococcus b) B. anthracis
c) Shigella d) Klebsiella
6. Traveller's diarrhoeais caused by (S-15)
a) Enterohaemorrhagic Esch.coli (EHEC)
b) Enterotoxigenic Esch.coli (ETEC)
c) Enteroinvasive Esch.coli (EIEC)
d) Enteropathogenic Esch. coli (EPEC)
7. Traveler's diarrhoea is caused by (W-15)
a) EPEC b) ETEC c) EIEC d) VTEC
8. Which of the following bacteria can serve as indicator organism for
fecal pollution of water ? (S-16)
a) Fecal Streptococci b) Escherichia coli
M -
I160I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by Unique Publication
c) Clostridium perfringens d) All of the above
SAQ
1. Lab. Diagnosis of UTI.(S-99)(W-98J •
2. What is significant Bacteriuria ? Enumerated organism causing
urethritis.(W-OI)
3. W hat is significant Bacteriuria ? Enumerate 4 organism causing
urethritis. (W-01)
4. Types of E. coli causing Diarrhoea with test each.(S-03)
5. Types of E. coli causing Diarrhoea With test each.(S-03)
6. Mention the principle, interpretation and applications of Weil-Felix
reaction. (W-04)
7. Mention the principle, interpretation and applications of Weil-Felix
reaction.(W-04)
8. What are the clinical menifestation of Urinary Tract Infection (U.T.I.) ?
Enumerate the common causative agents of UTI and describe the
role of laboratory in diagnosis of such infection.(W-04)
9. Enterotoxigenic E. coli. (W-12)
10. Weil Felix reaction. (S-83,88,90)(W-92,94,97)
LA Q
1. Significant bacteriuria.(S-00,07)(S-88j(W-89,97J
2. Enumerate organisms causing urinary tract infections. Describe
morphology, cultural characteristics, pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis
of any one of them. (W-QQ)(S-03)(S-88)(W~91)
3. Enumerate organisms causing urinary tract infections. Define
significant bacteriuria and give the laboratory diagnosis of UTI.
(S-10,15,16)(W-12)
4. Enumerate organism causing G. I. tract infections. Describe
morphology, pathogenecity and lab. diagnosis of Esch. Coli. (S-12)
5. Classify enterobacteriacae. Explain in detail the laboratory diagnosis
of enteric fever. (W-15)
6. Describe the morphology, cultural characteristics biochemical reactions of
E. Coli. (S-73)
7. Pathogenesis of enterotoxigenic E. coli. (S-97)
30. Enterobacteriaceae II: Shigella.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Which of the following complications can be associated with shigella
dysentriae type I infection ? (S-09)
a) Arthritis b) Toxic neuritis,
c) Hemolytic uraemic syndrome. d) All of above.
2. Shingella are classified on the basis of fermentation of (W-09)
a) Glucose. b) Maltose. c) Mannitol. d) Sucrose.
>4
I161I
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rd Edition by Unique Publication
3. The following organisms are usually motile EXCEPT (W-10)
a) Shigell sp. * b) Salmonella typhi. *
c) E.coli. d) Proteus sp.
4. Which organism has the lowest infective dose ? (W-13)
a) Salmonella b) Shigella c) Vibrio d) Campylobacter
5. Following organisms are capsulated EXCEPT (W-14)
a) Pneumococcus b) B. anthracis ,
c) Shigella d) Klebsiella
6. Which of the following Shigella species does not ferment mannitol ?
(S-15)
a) Shigella dysenteriae b) Shigella flexneri
c) Shigella boydii d j Shigella sonnei
SAQ
1. Classify Shigellae. Describe in brief how these Organisms produce
dysentery. (S-10)
2. Discuss pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Shigella dysentery,
(W-15)
3. W rite a short note on determinants of bacterial virulence. (S-16)
LAQ
None
31. Enterobacteriaceae III: Salmonell.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Kauffman-white scheme of classification is the basis of serotyping of
(S-03)
a) Salmonella, b) Mycobacteria. c) Leptospira, d) Vibrio.
2. Wilson and Blair medium is selective for (W-03)
a) Salmonella. b) Shigella. c) Vibrio. d) Neisseria.
3. In partially treated cases of enteric fever, the most appropriate sample
for isolation of sajmonellae is (W-08) —•
a) Blood. b) Bone marrow. c) Urine. d) C.S.F.
4. Which of the following serotypes of Salmonella is/are anaerogenic ?
(S-09)
a) S. typhi. b) S. paratyphi A.
c) S. paratyphi B. d) All of above.
5. Example of anaerogenic bacteria is (W-09)
a) Salmonella typhi. b) Salmonella paratyphi A.
c) Salmonella paratyphi B. d) All of above.
6. Clinical sample likely to give a positive culture in the first week of
Typhoid fever is (W-09)
a) Blood. b) Urine. c) S.S.F. d) Faeces.
7. Enteric fever is best diagnosed^ in first week by (S-12)(W-16)
> 2 l
M
T dM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
a) Blood culture b) Stool culture
c) Urine culture d) Widal test
8. Wilson and Blair medium is an example of (S-14) ’
a) Selective medium b) Enrichment medium
c) Enriched medium d) Transport medium
SAQ
1. Mention 4 points of History that you will ask the patient before
interpretins the results of widal test.(S-01)
2. Mention two advantages of clot culture over blood-culture in
laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever.(S-04)
3. State factors to be considered while interpreting result of widal test.
(S-06)
4. W\da\test.{S-07)(W-70,86M90,98)(S-83,87,96,98)
5. Write a note on Widal test.(S-IO)
6. List organisms that cause pyrexia of unknown origin (PUO). Write
on diagnosis of enteric fever in 1st week of infection. (S-16)
7. Discuss briefly the laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever. (S-17)
8. Typhoid carrier. (W-71)(S-94)
9. Laboratorydiagnosisofentericfever.(W-72,91)
10. Indications for blood culture. (S-85)
LAQ
1. Enumerate four bacteria causing pyrexia of unknown-origin. Mention
incubation period and pathogenicity of Salmonella typhi. Describe
laboratory diagnosis of typhoid fever in the second week of infection.
(S-00)(S-97)
2. Enumerate bacteria causing pyrexia of unknown origin. Outline the
Lab. diagnosis of enteric fever.(S-02)
3. Enumerate the organisms causing'Pyrexia of unknown origin 1 (PUO).
Describe the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever.
(W-07)
4. Discuss pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever.
(W-06)
5. Enumerate disease caused by Salmonella. Discuss the pathogenesis
and laboratory diagnosis of Enteric Fever. (W-11)
6. Write down the lab. diagnosis of Enteric fever. Enumerate the
vaccines available against Enteric fever. (S-11)
7. Enumerate four bacteria causing fever of unknown origin (FUO).
Describe laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever in a 24-year old man
complaining of fever for ten days duration abdominal discomfort.
(S-13)
8. Describe the pathogenesis and Laboratory diagnosis of Enteric

I163I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

fever. (W-13)
9. Classify enterobacteriacae. Explain in detail the laboratory diagnosis
of enteric fever. (W-15)
10. Describe the morphology, cultural characteristics and biochemical reactions
of S. Typhi. Give a brief account of laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever.
(W-74,87)(S-91) - , ©
11. Enumerate the organisms causing enteric fever. Outline the steps in the
laboratory diagnosis of the diseases. (S-80,81) f
32. Vibrio. o
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Rice water stool is characteristically caused by (W-03) O
a) Helicobacter pylori. b) Shigella boydii. u
c) Salmonella enteritidis. d) Vibrio cholerae.
2. In stained films of mucous flakes from acute cholera cases, the ‘ -r
arrangement of vibrios is described as (S-10)
3
a) Swarm of gnats. b) Chjnese letter pattern,
c) Cigar shaped bundles. d) Fish in stream. 3
3. Halophilic vibrios can’t grow in media lacking (S-13)
a) Blood b) Sugar c) Bile salts d) Sodium chloride
4. Which of the following is NOT primarily recommended in a given 9
case of cholera ? (W-13)
a) Isolation of patient b) Examination of stool
c) Rehydration d)Antibiotics
5. Motility of Vibro cholera is described as (W-14)
a) Tumbling b) Glinding c) Darting d) Rotatory
6. Halophilic vibrios need (S-15)
a) High NaCi concentration b) Low pH
c) Fresh water conditions d) All of the above 3
7. Kanagawa phenomenon of human RBC’s is exhibited by. (S-16)
a) Vibrio cholerae b) Aeromonas hydrophila .
c) Vibrio parahaemolyticus d) Plesiomonas shigelloides
8. A 19 year old immunocompetent 'male patient presents with passage
of rice water stools, vomiting and shows rapid progressive signs of
dehyration. He is MOST likely suffering from. (S-16)
a) Cholera b) Shigellosis c) Typhoid d) Botulism
9. Viable but non cultivable state is seen. (W-16)
a) M. leprae b) M. tuberculosis
c) V. Cholera d) Staph saprophyticus
SAQ
1. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of cholera. (W-11 )(S-14)
2. Differentiating features of classical and Eltor vibrio. (W-12)

I164I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
3. List the differences between Classical vibrios and El Tor vibrios.
(S-15)
4. Gardner and Venkataraman’s classification of Vibrio. (W-16)
5. Eltor vibrio. (S-71,74,92)(W-75)
6. Cholera red reaction. (S-73)
7. Choleragen. (W-94)
8. Morphology & important growth requirements of Vibrio Cholera.(W-95)
LAQ
1. Enumerate organism causing diarrhoea. Describe the morphology,
cultural characteristics, biochemical reactions & laboratory diagnosis
o1V.Cho\era.(\N-99)(S-70,76,81,87)(W-79,88)
2. Describe laboratory diagnosis of a case of cholera.(W-03)
3. Describe laboratory diagnosis of cholera with respect to microscopy,
cultural characteristics and Biochemical tests.(W-04)
4. Enumerate four bacteria causing diarrhoea. Describe the role of
cholera toxin in pathogenesis of cholera. Discuss laboratory
diagnosis of cholera. (S-06)
5. Discuss laboratory diagnosis of cholera.(W-06)
6. Enumerate the organisms causing Diarrhoea. Describe the lab.
diagnosis of Cholera. (W-10)
7. Discuss pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Vibro cholera.
(W-14)
33. Pseudomonas.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Which of the following pigments is diagnostic of pseudomonas
aeruginosa ? (S-09)(W-16)
a) Pyoverdin. b) Pyocyanin. c) Pyomelanin. d) Pyorubin.
2. Pyocyanin is produced by (W-11)
. a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Clostridium perfringens
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Vibro cholera
3. Which of the following is most commonly associated with infection
in “Burns” cases ? (S-12)
a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae c) Escherichia coli
4. Melioidosis is a pyogenic infection caused by (S-15)
a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Bukholderia pseudomallei.
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Burkholderia cepacia
SAQ
None

I165I
2nd M.B.B.S. B ook with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
LAQ
None * \.
34. Yersinia, Pasteurella, Francisella.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The most useful specimen for diagnosis of bubonic plague is (S-03)
,, a) Blood. b) Sputum.
c) Lymph node aspirate d) Carebro-spinal fluid.
2. Vector transmitting plaque is (W-03)
a) Aedes aegypti. b) Xenopsylia cheopsis.
c) Phlebotomus argentipes. d) Culex fatigans.
3. “Safety pin” appearance of bacilli is seen in (W-09)
a) Haemophilus influenzae.b) Yersinia pestis.
c) Vibrio cholerae. d) Chlamydia trachomatis.
4. Plague is transmitted to man by bite of (S-12)
a) Mosquitoes b) Ticks c) Rat fleas d) Mites
5. Safetypin appearance of bacilli is seen in infection with (W-12)
a) Haemophilus influenzae b) Yersinia pestis
c) Chlamydiatrachomatis d) Vibrio cholerae
6. Shape of Yersinia pestis is(S-15)
a) Lanceolate b) Safety pin
c) Owls eye d) Kidney shaped
SAQ
1. Yersinia pestis.(W-95)
LAQ
None
35. Haemophilus.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. “Satellitism” around colonies of staphylococcus aureus is a feature,
of (S-03)
a) Haemophilus aphrophilus. b) H. influenzae,
c) H. para influenzae. d)H . ducreyi.
2. Chancroid is caused by (W-03)(S-16)
a) Haemophilus ducreyi b) H. infulenzae.
c) H. parainfluenzae. d) T. pallidum.
3. The peptic ulcer disease in humans is caused by (W-0.3)
a) Aeromonas hydrophilia. b) Plesiomonas shigelloides.
c) Helicobacter pylori. * d) Campylobacter jejuni.
4. For growth, hemophilus influenzae requires. (S-09)
a) X factor only. b) Y factor only.
c) Both X and Y factors, d) Neither X nor Y factor.

I166I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved M UHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
5. Streak of the following bacterium is used to demonstrate satellitism
of H. influenza. (S-11)
a) Yersinia pestis b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Proteus d) Escherichia coli
6. H. influenza requires for growth (S-12)
a) Both X and V factors b) Only X factor
c) Only V factor d) No factor
7. Which of the following bacteria shows satellitism ? (S-14)
a) H.influenzae b) Bord.pertusis
c) Y.pestis d) Brucella
8. Microscopic appearance of Haemophilus ducreyi is described as
(W-14)
a) School of fish b) Fish in stream
c) Thumbprint d) Lanceolate
9. The phenomenon of Satellitism is exhibited by (S-15)(W-16)
a) H. influenza b)S . aureus
c) N. meningitidis d) C. diphtheria
10. The features of satellitism is shown by (W-15)
a) S. aureus b) H. influenzae
c) S. pneumoniae d) C. diphtheria
11. Pandemic ofInfluenza results due to (W-16) .
a) Antigenic shift b) Antigenic drift
c) Antigenic diversity d) All of the above
SAQ
1. Name two important species of Haemophilus and mention infections
caused by each.(S-04)
LAQ
None
36. Bordetella.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. In DPT vaccine, the component which act as an adjuvant is (S-14)
a) Tetanus toxoid b) Diphtheria toxoid
c) Bordetella pertusis bacilli d) AH of the above
2. Which of the following organisms is Gram negative ? (S-16)
a) Clostridium b) Bacillus
c) Bordetella d) Actinomyces
3. Culture medium used for Bordetella pertusis is. (W-16)
a) Wilson Blair medium.
b) Bile Broth.
c) Bordet - Gengou Medium.
d) Robertson cooked meat medium.
I167I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

SAQ
None
LAQ
None
37. Btucella .
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Castaneda’s method of blood culture is advantageous because it.
(S-03)
a) Contains solid and liquid media in one bottle.
b) Reduces chances of contamination.
c) Reduces risk of infection to lab. personnel.
d) Has all above virtues.
2. Undulent fever is caused by (W-03)
a) Brucella melitensis. b) Brucella abortus,
c) Borrelia recurrentis. d) Borrelia brugdorferi.
3. Which of the following zoonotic diseases has no arthropod vector ?
(W-03)
a) Plague. b) Lyme disease,
c) Epidemic typhus. d) Brucellosis.
4. Diagnosis of Brucellosis is animals' is done using which of the ;
following tests ? (W-10)
a) Castaneda’s test. b) Complement fixation test,
c) Milk ring test. d) Coomb’s test.
5. ‘Milk Ring test’ is performed on whole milk for the detection of the
following infection in cattle (S-11)
a) Anthrax b) Brucellosis c) Typhoid d) Plague
6. All of the following statements about genus Brucella are true
EXCEPT (S-15)
a) Nonmotile coccobacilli b) Strict parasites of humans
c) Fastidious organism d) Causes undulant fever
7. Milk ring test is employed for detection of (W-15) ^
a) Clostridia b) Salmonella c) Brucella d) Bordetella
8. Milk ring test is used to identify which of the following infections in
animals.- (S-16)
a) Brucellosis b) Salmonellosis
c) Bovine tuberculosis . d) Anthrax
SAQ
1. Define Prozone Phenomenon. Mention its significance in clinical
diagnostic Microbiology.(W-OO)
LAQ
>4
I168I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd E dition b y Unique Publication
None
38. Mycobacterium I: Tuberculosis.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. For Montoux test, 5 tuberculin units of protein purified derivative are
injected intra dermally and result is read after. (S-03)
a) 30 minutes. b) 4 to 6 hours,
c) 48 to 72 hours. d) 4 to 6 weeks.
Drug resistance in tuberculosis is due to (W-08)
a) Mutation. b) Conjugation,
c) Transformation. d) Transduction.
3. In Petroff’s method of sputum concentration for M.tuberculosis, the
sputum is mixed w ith _____ and then centrifuged. (S-10)
a) 2% sodium carbonate. b) 9% sodium chloride.
c) 4% sodium hydroxide. d) 2% sodium hypochloride.
4. BCG vaccine is a (S-12)
a) Toxoid preparation b) Killed vaccine
c) Live attenuated vaccine d) Recombinant vaccine
5. Drug resistance in tuberculosis is due to (W-12)(S-16)
a) Mutation b) Conjugation
c) Transformation d) Transduction
6. BCG vaccine is prepared from strain of (S-13)
■a) M. tuberculosis b) M. bovis
c) M. kansasii d) M. microti
7. BCG vaccine is (S-14)
a) Killed vaccine b) Live attenuated vaccine
c) Toxoid d) None of the above
8. In Petroffs method of sputum concentration for tubercle bacilli,
sputum is treated with (W-15)
a) 2% sodium bicarbonate b) 4% sodium hydroxide
c) 9% sodium hydroxide d) 2% sodium hypochlorite
9. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical
mycobacteria by (W-16)
a) Niacin test b) AFB staining
c) PAS staining d) None of the above
10. Tuberculin test positivity is dependent on (W-16)
a) Erythema b) Nodule formation
c) Induration d) Ulceration change
SAQ
1. Enumerate 4 uses of Tuberculin test.(W-OO)
2. Describe the method of collection of sputum for the laboratory
diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.(S-06)

I169I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
3. Classify typical mycobacteriae which examples.(W-06)
4. Lab. diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.(S-07)088,090,/l93.
5. Describe the pathogenesis of tuberculosis. (W-11)
6. Lab. diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. (S-12)
7. Enumerate four methods with their principles for detection of
Mycobagterium tuberculosis. (W-14)
8. B.C.G. (S-71)(W-73,84)
9. Tuberculin test.(W-72,79,81)
10. Mantouxtest. (S-77)(W-79)
11. Methods of concentration of M. tuberculosis. (S-81)
12. Kochphenomenon.(W-87)(S-91)
LAQ
1. Enumerate four bacteria causing lower respiratory tract infection.
Describe morphology and cultural characteristics of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis. Describe laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary
tuberculosis. (S-13)
2. Enumerate bacteria causing lower respiratory tract infection. Describe
the laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis with special
reference to recent advances. (W-13)
3. Enumerate four bacterial causes of lower respiratory tract infection.
Discuss the laboratory diagnosis o f pulmonary tuberculosis. (S-17)
4. Enumerate the mycobateria. Describe the morphology, cultural
% characteristics of M. Tuberculosis. Mention in brief about B.C.G. vaccine.
(S-75,82,84)
4. Enumerate organisms causingJower respiratory tract infections. Describe
the morphology and cultural characteristics of M. tuberculosis. Discuss briefly
lab. investigations of pulmonary tuberculosis. (S-94)
39. Mycobacterium II: Non-Tuberculous Mycobacterium
(NTML
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Niacin test is positive in (S-03)
a) M. kansasii. b) M.xenopi.
c) M.bovis. d) M .tuberculosis.
2. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by (W-03)
a) M.marinum. b) M.chelonei.
c) M.ulcerans. d) M.fortuitum.
3. “Buruli ulcer” is caused by (W-08)
a) Bacillus anthracis. b) M ycobacterium ulcerans.
c) Corynebacterium diphtheriae. d) Mycobacterium gordonae.
4. The generation time for mycobacterium leprae is approximately on
an average. (S-09)

I l7 0 l
►i
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) 20 mins, b) 12-13 hrs. c) 12-13 days. d) 12-13 weeks.
5. This is a photochromogen (S-12)
a) M. scrofulaceum b) M. avium
c) M. kansasi d) M.szulgai *
6. Buriili ulcer is caused by (W-12)
a) Bacillus anthracis b) Mycobacterium Ulcerans
c) Mycobacterium gordanae d) Corynebacterium ulcerans
7. Which one of the following bacteria is a rapid grower ? (S-14)
a) M.gordonae b) M.simiae
c)M.marinum d) M.phlei
8. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from other atypical
mycobacteria by (W-16)
a) Niacin test b) AFB staining
c) PAS staining d) None of the above
SAQ
1. Atypical mycobacteria.(S-00,03)(S-72,73,96)(W-84)97,98)
Classify Atypical Mycobacteria (NOTT). Give one example of each
type. (W-07)
2. Describe briefly Runyun’s classification of atypical Mycobacteria. Give
two examples of each. (W-10)
LAQ
1. Classify Non-Tuberculous Mycobacteria (NTM) with examples.
Write on Buruli's ulcer. (W-15)
40. Mycobacterium III: M Leprae.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Lepromatous leprosy has following features EXCEPT. (S-03)
a) Thickening of peripheral nerves.
b) Numerous lepra bacilli in lesions.
c) Deficient cell mediated immunity.
d) Negative lepromin test.
2. Animal found most susceptible for multiplication of IVI.Ieprae is (W-10)
a) Hamster. b)Rat. c) Rabbit. d) Armadillo.
3. Which of the following features is seen in a case of Tuberculoid
leprosy ? (W-11)
a) A positive Lepromin test
b) Plenty of acid fast bacilli in the lesion
c) Anti mycobacterial antibodies in high titres
d) Plenty of plasma cells in lymphoid tissue
4. Cigar bundle appearance is a morphological feature of *(S-12)
a) Clostridium perfringens b) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

I171I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
c) Bacillus antracis d) Mycobacterium leprae
5. Undifferentiated histiocytes containing lepra bacilli are called (S-14)
a) Foamy cells b) Giant cells
c) Clue cells d) Epitheloid cells
6- Classification of leprosy into five groups on the basis of clinical,
histopathologieal and immunological findings have been introduced
by (S-15)
a) Ellerman and Bang b) Medawer and Burnet
c) Ridley and Jopling d) Rebecca Lancefield
7. Tuberculoid form of leprosy is seen in patients with (W-15)
a) Poor cell mediated immunity b) Good humoral immunity
c) Good cell mediated immunity d) Poor humoral immunity
8. Histoid Hansen’s is a variety of. (W-16)
a) Tuberculoid leprosy.
b) Borderline tuberculoid leprosy.
c) Borderline lepromatous leprosy.
d) Lepromatous leprosy.
SAQ
1. Lepromin test.(W-02)
2. Mycobacterium leprae. (S-88)
3. Lepromin test. (W-93,94)
4. Lab. diagnosis of Leprosy. (W-96)
LAQ
1. Describe the morphology of Mycobacterium leprae. Enumerate four
differences between tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy.(J-2010)
2. Classify mycobacteria. Write down the morphology and lab. A
diagnosis of Mycobacterium Leprae. (S-11)
41. Spirochetes.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Nichoi’s strain of Treponema pallidum is maintained in (S-03)
a) Rabbit’s tests. b) Foot pad of mice.
c) Eyes of guinea pig. d) Brain of mice.
2. Leptospirosis with severe hepatorenal damage is also called as
(W-03)
a) Relapsing fever. b) Hide porters disease,
c) Weil’s disease. d) Wool sorter’s disease.
3. Treponema pallidum can be cultivated in (W-08)
a) Rabbit testes. b) Choccolate agar.
c) Blood agar. d) Thayer martin medium.
4. “W eil’s disease” is caused by (W-09)
a) Borellia. b) Treponema.
I172I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
c) Haemophilus. d) Leptospira.
5. Premunition (infection-immunity) is spen in (W-09)
a) Tuberculosis. b) Whooping cough,
c) Enteric fever. d) Syphilis.
6. Relapsing fever is caused by (S-10)
* a) Leptospira icteroaemorrhagiae. b) Borrelia recurrentis.
c) Treponema pertenue. d) Salmonella typhi.
7. Treponema pallidum has been cultured on (W-10)
a) Dorset egg medium. b) Embryonated eggs,
c) Tissue culture. d) Rabbit testis.
8. The organism transmitted via water contamination by the urine of an
infected rat to man is (S-11)
a) Pasteurella pestis b) Leptospira icterohaemorrhagica
c) Toxoplasma gondii d) Brucellosis
9. Silver impregnation staining is used for (S-12)
a) Fimbria b) Flagella c) Spore d) Capsule
10. Vector for Borrelia recurrantis is (S-12)
a) Tick b) Louse c) Flea d) Mite
11. Lyme disease is caused by (S-12)
a) Borellia vincenti b) Leptospira species
c) Borellia burgodorferi d) Chlamydia trachomatis
12. Causative agent o f ‘Weils Disease’ is (W-12)
a) Borrelia b) Treponema c) Haemophilus d) Leptospira
13. Which test for Syphilis is most suitable for treatment follow up ?
(W-12)
a) TPHA -b ) FTA-ABS c) VDRL d) TPI
14. In patient of syphilis, which of the following test turns positive to
negative on treatment ? (W-13)
a) FTA-ABS b) TPHA c)TP I d) VDRL
15. Dark ground illumination is useful for demonstration of (S-14)
a) Spirochaetes b) Rickettisia
c) Chlamydia d) Mycoplasma
16. Lyme disease is caused by (W-14)
a) Borrelia vincenti b) Borrelia burgdorferi
c) Borrelia recurrentis d) Leptospira
17. VDRL test for syphilis is (W-14)
a) Agglutination test b) Precipitation test
c) Complement Fixation test d) Immunofluorescence test
18. Well's disease is caused by (W-15)
a) T. pallidum b) B. recurrentis
c) T. carateum d) L. icterohaemorrhagiae
' M
I173I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition fey Unique Publication
19. VDRL test is a following type of serological reaction. (S-16)
a) Precipitation b) Agglutination
c) Neutralisation d) Opsonisation
SAQ
1. VD.R.L(S-99)(l^-73,83,84)
2. Define Prozone Phenomenon. Mention its significance in clinical *
diagnostic Microbiology.(W-00)
3. Serological tests for syphilis.(S-01 )(S-77,93J(W-88)
4. Define zoonosis. Describe morphology & Lab. diagnosis of
' Leptospirosis.(S-02)
5. List genital ulcer diseases along with the names of the causative
bacteria. (W-03)
6. How do you visualise Treponemes ?(W-04)
7. Mention two standard tests and two treponemal tests for
sero-diagnosis of syphilis.(S-04)
8. Mention standard tests for syphilis. Which antigen is used for these
tests ?(W-06)
9. What are the Standard Tests for Syphilis (STS) ? What are Biological
False positive reactions ? Give one example of each type.(S-07)
10. Describe the principle, applications, advantages and limitations of
V.D.R.L. test. (W-11)
11. Serological diagnosis of syphilis. (S-14)
11. T. Pallidum.(W-77)
12. Laboratory diagnosis of syphilis. (S-79,91)
13. Sexually transmitted diseases. (S-86)
14. Specific tests for syphilis. (W-87,89) . -
15. Staining methods of spirochaetes. (S-90)
16. Standard tests for syphilis.(W-91,98)(S-98)
17. Leptospira Icterohaemorrhagica. (W-92)
18. Non-specific serological tests for syphilis.(W-94,97)
LAQ
1. Mention four routes by which Leptospires can infect humans. Discuss
laboratory diagnosis of Human Leptospirosis highlighting the utility of
each test during different stages of the disease.(S-06)
2. Enumerate organisms causing sexually transmitted infections.
Describe morphology, pathogenecity and lab. diagnosis of T.
palladium. (S-12)
3. Describe in detail the Serological diagnosis of syphilis. Mention the
advantages and disadvantages of each test. (W-10)
4. Discuss about Nonspecific and specific tests for diagnosis of
syphilis. (W-14)

I174I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
5. Enumerate organism causing sexually transmitted diseases. Discuss
the laboratory diagnosis of syphilis. (S-15)
6. Enumerate different Spirochetes and diseases caused by them.
Describe the laboratory diagnosis of primary stage syphilis. (S-16)
7. Give the classification o f Spirochetes and discuss the treponemal
tests for diagnosis of syphilis. (S-17)
, 8. Mention spirochaetes pathogenic to man. Describe the laboratory
diagnosis of syphilis. (W-71)
9. What is spirochaete ? Enumerate the spirochaetes you know. Describe
laboratory diagnosis of syphilis. (S-74)
42. Mycoplasma.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Which of the following tests can help in the provisional lab. diagnosis •
of primary atypical pneumonia ? (S-09)
a) Gram’s stained morphology in sputum.
b) Growth on blood agar.
c) Co-agglutination test.
d) Cold agglutination test.
2. The colony morphology of mycoplasma on an agar plate is like (W-10)
a) Silver paint. b) Fried egg.
c) Cut glass. d) Medusa head.
3. Primary atypical pneumonia is caused by (S-12)(W-16)
a) Klebsiella pneumoniae b) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c) Brucella melitensis d) Bordetella pertussis
4. Mycoplasma differ from other bacteria as they lack (S-13)
a) Cell wall b) Ribosomes c) Capsule d) Flagella
5. Colony morphology of Mycoplasma is described as (S-14)
a) Frogs egg b) Poached egg
c) Fried egg d) Medusa head
SAQ
1. Discuss Nongonococcal Urethritis [NGU]. (W-16)
2. Mycoplasma.(W-88,97)(S-95)
LAQ
None
43. Actinomvcetes.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Granulomatous lesions of cervico facial region which develop into
fistulae are often caused by members of which genus ? (S-11)
a) Bacteroides. b) Peptococcus
c) Actinomyces d) Clostridium
2. Granules of Actinomyces are topically (S-13)
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
a) Red b) Black c) Yellow d) White
3. Which of the following organisms is Gram negative ? (S-16)
a) Clostridium b) Bacillus
c) Bordetella d) Actinomyces
SAQ
1. Actinomycosis. (S-74,80,82)(W-83,85,89,92,93)
2. Sulphur granules. (S-80)
L4Q
None
44. Miscellaneous Bacteria.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. A biochemical test used for rapid identification of Helicobacter pylori
is (S-10)
a) Catalase. b) Urease, c) Coagulase. d) Oxidase.
2. Test used for the rapid identification of Helicobacter pylori is (S-11)
a) Oxidase test b) Urease test
c) Catalase test d) Nitrate reductase test
3. Colonisation of Helicobacter pylori is closely associated with (V\M3)
a) Pneumonia b) Dental caries
c) Peptic ulcer d) Diarrhoea
4. Tumbling motility is shown by (W-15)
a) Salmonella b) Proteus
c) Vibrio d) Listeria
SAQ
1. Campylobacter. (S-94)
LAQ
None
45. Rickettsiaceae.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Rickettsia mooseri causing endemic typhus is transmitted by (S-03)
a) Louce. b) Rat-flea. c‘) Tick. d) Mite.
2. Scrub typhus is caused by (W-03)
a) R. moospri. b) R. conori.
c) R.isutsugamushi. d) R.rickettsae.
3. Causative microorganism for scrub typhus is (W-08)
a) Rickettsia typhi. b) Rickettsia australis.
c) Rickettsia akari. d) Rickettsia tsutsugamushi.
4. Causative organism of cat sratch disease is (W-08)
a) Borellia vincentii. b) Spirillum minus,
c) Streptobacillus moniliformis. d) Bartonella henselae.
M
I1 7 6 I'
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by U nique Publication
5. Heterophile antibody detection in Typhus fever is carried out using
antigen derived from (S-09)
a) Streptococcus MG. b) EB virus.
c) Proteus species. d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
6. Weil Felix test will be negative in which of the following diseases ?
(S-09)
, a) Epidemic typhus, b) Endemic typhus,
c) Spotter fever. d) Q fever.
7. Human body louse is responsible for transmission of (W-09)
a) Epidemic typhus. . b) Murine typhus.
c) Rickettsial pox. d) Q fever.
8. Epidemic typhus is caused by which of the following Rickettsial spp.
(S-10)
a) Mooseri. b) Rickettsii. c) Prow azekii. d) Conori.
9. The vector transmitting Epidemic typhus is (W-11)
a) Rat flea b) Sand fly c) Neisseria d) Louse
10. Human body louse is responsible for the transmission of (W-12)
a) Epidem ictyphus b) Murine typhus
c) Rickettsial pox d) Q fever
11. Epidemic typhus is transmitted by (W-13)
a) Louse b) Rat flea c) Tick d) Gamasid mite
12. Scrub typhus is transmitted by (W-14)
a) Tick b) Mite c) Louse d) Reduviid bug
13. All of the following act as vector for rickettsial disease EXCEPT. (S-16)
a) Tick b) Mite c) M osquito d) Louse
14. Q fever is caused by (W-16)
a) R. tsutsugamushi b) R. provozaki
c) R. quintana d) C. burnetti
SAQ
1. Name two disease transmitted by body Louse & rat flea.(W-OO)
2. Mention the principle, interpretation and applications of Weil-Felix
reaction.(W-04)
3. What are Chlamydiae ? Name two human diseases caused by
Chlamydiae. (S-06)
4. Mention properties of chlamydiae which infections produced by this
organisms. (W-06)
5. Describe two morphological types of the chlamydiae. (S-07)
6. Enumerate four Rickettsial diseases and mention their etiological
agents. (W-07)
7. Mention four characteristics of Chlamydiae. (W-07)
8. Rickettsia.(W-71)
I177I
 2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
9. Weil Felix reaction. (S-83,88,90)(W-92,94,97)
10. Lymphogranuloma venereum.(W-83)(S-86)
11. TRIC.(S-84)(W-84)
12. Chlamydia trachomatis.(W-85)(S-90,94)
13. Trachoma.(W-88)
14. Rat flea. (Vtf-94)
15. Human diseases caused by Chlamydia and laboratory diagnosis of trachoma.
- (S-97)
LAQ
I None
46. Chlamydiae.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Psittacosis in man is caused by (W-03)
a) Clamydiae. b) Histoplasma.
c) Cryptococcus. d) Mycoplasma.
2. The infectious unit of chlamydia trachomatis is the (W-03)
a) Elementary body. b) Reticulate body.
c) Spore. d) Conidium.
3. Chlamydia trachomatis causes the following diseases EXCEPT. _
(W-08)
a) Trachoma. b) Lymphogranuloma venerum. *
c) Psittacosis, d) Non-gonococcal urethritis.
- 4. W hich of the following statements is NOT a characteristic feature of
Chlamydiae ? (S-09)
a) They have tropism for squamous epithelial surface.
b) They were called as ‘PLT’ agents.
c) They produce inclusion bodies in the cells they infect.
d) They can be isolated on cell-free media.

c
5. Infections particle of chlamydiae is called as (S-10)
a) Elementary body. b)‘Reticulate body. a
c) Inclusion body. d) Glycogen mass.
6. ‘Swimming-pool conjuctivitis’ is caused by (S-11) ,
a) Mycobacterium marium b) Herpes zoster
c) Chlamydia trachomatis d)Adenovirus
7. Which of the following organisms is an obligate intracellular parasite ?
(W-11)
a) Mycoplasma b) Chlamydia
c) Neisseria d) Mycobacteria
8. Chlamydia trachomatis, causes the following diseases EXCEPT
(W-12)
a) Trachoma b) LGV '
M
I178I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
c) Psittacosis d) Non-gonococal urethritis
9. _ _ _ _ _ _ is caused by L1( L2, L3 serotypes of chlamydia
trachomatis. (S-13)
a) Trachoma b) Lymphogranuloma venereum
c) Inclusion conjuctivitis d) Non-gonococcal urethritis
10. Lymphogranulom c) Fried egg a venereum is caused by (S-14)
a) Gardnerella vaginalis b) Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
c) Haemophilius ducrei d) Chlamydia trachomatis
SAQ
1. Write a note on Inclusion bodies. (W-10)
2. Differentiate Chlamydia from viruses. Enumerate the serotypes of
chlamydiae and mention infections caused by them. (S-13)
3. Write brief on inclusion bodies. (W-15)
4. Name four diseases caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis. Describe
in brief laboratory diagnosis of any one of them. (S-16)
5. Discuss Nongonococcal Urethritis [NGU]. (W-16)
LAQ
1. Classify Chlamydiae. Write the pathogenesis, complications and
laboratory diagnosis of Chlamydial infection. (W-15)
P art: IV
47. General Properties o f Viruses.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The term capsomer refers to (S-03)
a) Glycoprotein appendages protruding from the envelop.
b) Protein and lipid that encloses nucleocapsid.
c) Protein sub-units that form the capsid.
d) Internal core protein.
2. Which of the following group of viruses contain RNA dependent DNA
polymerase ? (S-03)
a) Adenoviruses. b) Retroviruses,
c) Reoviruses. d) Rhabdoviruses.
3. The example of primary cell line is (S-03)
a) KB cell line. b) HeLa cell line.
c) Hep-2 cell line. d) Monkey kidney cell line.
4. Which of the following is/are continuous cell line/s ? (W-09)
a) HeLa. b) Hep-2. c) KB. d) All of above.
5. The largest and most complex of all viruses are (S-11)
a) Adenoviruses b) Pox viruses
c) Papova viruses d) Parvo viruses
6. Which of the following statements is true for all viruses ? (W-11)
M
I179I
►i
2nd M.B.B.S. B ook with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd Edition b y Unique Publication
a) Contain DNA b) Contain RNA
c) Are intracellular parasites d) Are suceptible to lipid solvent
7. W hich of the hepatitis viruses belong to enterovirus group ? (S-14)
a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis D
SAQ
1. Cultivation of viruses in embryoniated egg.(S-99)
2. General properties of viruses.(W-99)(W-70,73,75,95,97)(S-79,82,84)
3. Multiplication of viruses.(S-00)(S-86,87,96)(W-92,94,98)
4 Cultivation of viruses.(W-00)(W-76,82,86,87,89)(S-81,84,91,98)
5. Enumerate 2 cytopathic effect of virus growth on cell lines giving
suitable example.(S-02)
6. Laboratory diagnosis & properties of viruses.(W-02)
7. Enumerate stages of viral replication.(S-04)(W-07)
8. W rite on methods of cultivation of viruses. (W-10)
9. Draw a cross section of an embryonated hens egg and label the
routes of inoculation in cultivation of viruses with one example for
each route. (S-14)
10. Detection of virus growth in tissue culture. (S-15)
11. Stages of viral multiplication. (W-16)
12. W rite methods of detecting viral growth in cell cultures. (S-17)
13. Tissue culture f$-72,74,85,93)(W-76,79,84,91)
LAQ
1. W rite different methods of cultivation of viruses. Give examples of
viruses growing in each method.(W-06)
2. Enumerate the various methods for cultivation of viruses. Describe
briefly the uses of embryonated hen's egg in virology.(S-10)
48. Virus-Host Interactions: Viral Infections.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ

3. Viral vaccines.(S-03)(S-87J(W-89,92j
4. W hat are interferons ? Write two properties of interferons.(W-06)
5. W rite a note on Inclusion bodies. (W-10)
6. Inclusion bodies of viruses. (S-13)
7. Inclusion bodies. (W-13) *
8. Mention two intraeytoplasmic and two intranuclear inclusion bodies.
(W-14)
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
9. Write short note on Negrie bodies. (S-17)
10. Lab. diagnosis of viral infections.(W-74,88)(S-87,95)
11. Immunity in viral infections. (S-88,90)(W-94)
LAQ
None
49. Bacteriophages<
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Which of the following bacteria can be typed by phase typing
method ? (W-03)
a) Staph, aureus. b) Salmonella typhi.
c) V.cholerae. d) All of above.
2. Viruses that infect bacteria are called (S-10)
a) Prions. b) Inclusion bodies.
c) Viriods. d) Bacteriophages.
3. Viruses that infect bacteria are called (W-13)
a) Prions b) Inclusion bodies
c) Bacteriophages d) Viriods
4. Lysogenic bacteria means (S-15)
a) A bacteria that is infected by a bacteriophage
b) A bacteria that is a virulent
c) A bacteria that has 'F' factor
d) None of the above
5. Bacteriophages entering into lysogenic cycle in a bacterium (W-15)
a) Cause lysis of the cell
b) Cause disruption the bacterial metabolism
c) Confers new properties like toxin production
d) Does not integrate with bacterial DNA
SAQ
1. Bateriophage.(W-99)(W-70,84,85,86,88,89)(S-84,92,94)
2. Define Bacteriophage. Draw a morphological figure with significance
of phage.(S-06)
3. Draw a labelled diagram of Bacteriophage.(W-06)
4. Write on transduction. (W-15)
5. Bacteriocin typing.(S-88,90)
LAQ
None ,
50. Poxviruses.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. W orld’s last naturally occuring case of smallpox was recorded in
(W-03)
14
181
Vi
2nd M.B.B.S Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

a) 1957. b) 1967. c) 1977. d) 1987.

2. Streptokinase overdose is treated with (S-13)
a) Warfarin b) Epsilon amino-caproic acid
c) Aspirin d) Vitamin K
3. Variolla and vaccinia viruses are grown in which part pf the
embryonated hens egg ? (W-13)
a). Chorioallantoic membrane b) Amniotic cavity
c) Allantoic cavity d) Yolk salk
4. Largest virus is (S-16)
a) Herpesvirus b) Hepatitis virus
c) Poxvirus d) Human immunodeficiency virus
SAQ
1. Small pox vaccine.(S-75)
LAQ ■- f
None
51. Herpesviruses.
MC Q (MUHS)
1. The lab. diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is done by (S-09)
a) Kahn’s test. b) Paul bunnel test.
c) Weil felix test. d) Sabin feldman test.
2. The typical lesion due to reactivation of Herpes simplex is (W-10)
a) Herpes labiaiis. b) Herpes zoster.
c) Genital herpes. d) Encephalitis.
3. Tzank cells are seen following infection with (S-11)
a) Rabies virus * b) Herpes simplex virus
c) Vaccinia virus d) Polio virus
4. Epstein Barr Virus (EBV) is NOT associated with (W-11)
a) Infectious mononucleosis . ..b) Burkitt’s lymphoma ._
c) Kaposi’s sarcoma d) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
5. How many herpes viruses can infect humans ? (S-15)
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 ' d) 12
6. Glandular fever is caused by (S-15)
a) Herpes simplex virus 1 b) Herpes sifriplex virus 2
c) Epstein Barr virus d) Human Herpes virus 6
7. Tzanck smear is used for diagnosis of (W-15)
a)H6patitisC b) Herpesvirus
c) Rhabdovirus d) Human papilloma virus
SAQ
1. Herpes simplex virus.(S-OO)
2. Herpes virus.(W-01)(S-84,86,91)(W-89,93,97)

I182I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
3. Lesions produced by Herpes simplex viruses.(W-02)
4. Classify Herpesviridae. Mention the viruses included in the
subfamilies and one infection caused by each'. (S-13)
5. . Cytomegalovirus inclusion disease. (W-85)(S-90,92)
6. Clinical lesions caused by herpes simplex and its laboratory diagnosis. (S-97)
LAQ
1. Classify Herpes viruses. Enumerate the lesions caused by HSVI & II.
Outline the laboratory diagnosis of Herpes - virus infection.(S-06)
2. Classify Human Herpes viruses. Describe clinical features and
laboratory diagnosis of infections caused by Varicella- Zoster. (S-15)
52. Adenoviruses.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Adenoviruses are causative agents of diseases EXCEPT. (W-03)
a) Eczema. b) Pharyngo-conjunctivitis.
c) Kerato-eonjunctivitis. d) Diarrhoea.
2. How many serotypes of adenoviruses are known ? (W-03)
a) 29. b) 37. c) 47. d) 50. .
SAQ
None
LAQ
None
53. Picornaviruses.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. All of the following statements are ‘True’ regarding polio virus
EXCEPT. (S-09)
a) Transmitted by feco-oral route.
b) Asymptomatic infections are common in children.
c) Single serotype is responsible fo r infection.
d) Live attenuated vaccine produces berd-immunity. •••- ■
2. Which of the following serotype of poliovirus is responsible for most
of the epidemics ? (S-10)
a) Serotype 1. b) Serotype 2. c) Serotype 3. d)AII of these.
3. Which of the following is an example of a live vaccine ? ‘(W-10)
a) TAB vaccine. b) DPT vaccine.
c) Oral polio vaccine. d) Cholera vaccine.
4. Quindine is a (S-12)
a) Sodium channel blocker b) Potassium channel blocker
c) Calcium channel blocker d) Chloride channel blocker
5. The following are live vaccines EXCEPT (W-13)
a)MMR * b) Measles

M-
I183I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Polio salk d) Oral polio vaccine
. ■ 6. In poliomyelitis the lesions are mainly in the (S-14)
a) Anterior horn cells of spinal cord
b) Hypthalamus
c) Posterior horn cells of the spinal cord
d) Neuromuscular junction
7. Salk vaccine is (W-14)
a) Killed b) Live attenuated
c) Recombinant d) Synthetic
8. Oral polio vaccine is (S-16)
a) Killed b) Live attenuated
c) Recominant d) Synthetic
• sa<
q V i i S r *

1. Polio and Immunoprophylaxis against polio.(W-99)(S-00,03)

(W-95)(S-98)
2. Four viral vaccines in use. Describe immunization against polio.
(W-03)
3. W hat are the merits and demerits of Salk’s and Sabina’s vaccines ?
(S-13)
4. Polio viruses and its pathogenicity. (W-87)(W-88)
5. Pathogenesis of polio virus.(S-94)
6. Polio vaccine.(W-70,90)
7. Oral polio vaccine. (S-78)
LAQ
1. Describe virology, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of polio.
(W-03)
2. Classify Enteroviruses. Give the pathogenesis and prophylaxis of
poliomyelitis. (W-07)
3. Discuss the pathogenicity, immunprophylaxis & laboratory diagnosis
of polio viruses. (W-13)
54. Orthomyxovirus.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Influenza virus growth in cell culture is identified by (S-09)
a) Haemadsorption. b) Cytopathic effect.
c) Interference. d) Transformation.
2. Pandemics of influenza results due to (S-11)
a) Antigenic stability b) Antigenic drift
c) Antigenic shifts d) Antigenic diversity
3. A subpharmacological dose of atropine is added to diphenoxylate
tablet/syrup to (S-13)
a) Suppress associated vomiting of gastroenteritis
' M
I184I
2nd M.B.B.S. B ook with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
b) Augment the antimotility action of diphenoxylate
c) Block the side effects of diphenoxylate
d) Discourage abuse by taking several tablets or teaspoonfuls of
syrup
4. Pandemics of Influenza result due to (W-13)
a) Antigenic drift b) A ntigenic s h ift
c) Antigenic diversity d) Antigenic stability
5. Eight segmented single stranded RNA is seen in (W-15)
•* a) Pox virus b) Cytomegalo virus
c) Rabies virus d) Influenza virus
SAQ
1. Draw well labelled diagram of influenza virus.(S-07)
2. Describe antigenic variations in type A influenza virus and mention its
importance. (S-11,14)
3. Draw a neat labelled diagram of Influenza virus and Human
Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). (W-14)
4. Morphology and antigenic variations of influenza virus. (S-88,90)
LAQ
1. Describe influenza viruses with reference to morphology,classification
and antigenic variation. (W-11)
2. Describe the morphology and antigenic variations of influenza viruses.
Discuss the pathogenesis of influenza. (S-13)
55. Paramyxoviruses.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Example of non-haemagglutinating virus is (S-03)
a) Measles virus. b) Respiratory syncytial virus,
c) Polio virus. d) Influenza virus.
2. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a complication of (W-09)
a) Mumps. b) Measles.
c) Influenza. d) Respiratory syncitial virus.
3. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis in clusters afe seen in (S-10)
a) Mumps, b) Measles, c) Influenza. d) Chicken pox.
4. Cytopathic effect produced by Measles virus is (W-14)(S-16)
a) Syncytia formation b) Rounding of cells
c) Crenation of cells d) Tumor formation
SAQ
1. Measles vaccine. (W-70,84,85,86,88,89)(S-86)
LAQ
None
56. Arboviruses.
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U n iq u e P u b lic a tio n

MCQ (MUHS)
1. How many serotypes of dengue virus are there ? (W-03)
a) 4. b) 5. c) 6. d) 10.
2. Which of the following viral haemorrhagic fevers are seen in India ?
(W -08)
' a) Chikungunya. b) Dengue type 1-4.
c) Kyasanur forest disease. d) All of the above.
3. The vector for chikungunya virus is (S-15)
a) Aedes Mosquito b) Anopheles Mosquito
c) Culex Mosquito d) Culista
4. The arboviral infection that does not exist in India is (W-16)
a) Dengue b) Japanese encephaltis
^ c)YeH ow fever •:-r- d)- Kyasanur forest disease1* ••
SAQ
1. Japanese B-encephalitis.(S-99)
2. Arbo viruses.(W-00)(S-84,95)(W-93,95)
3. Mention four characteristic features of arboviruses! Mention four
encephalitis causing members of the group.(S-04)
4. Dengue tiaemorrhagic fever with laboratory diagnosis.(S-07)
5. W rite a note on laboratory diagnosis of Dengue fever. (S-16)
LAQ
1. Enumerate the arboviral diseases in India and given an account of
Dengue fever. (S-12)
57. Rhabdoviruses.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. W hat is the shape of rabies virus ? (W-03)
a) Tubular. b) Spherical.
c) Polygonal. d) Bullet-shaped.
2. The following anti-rabies vaccine will not cause neurological
complications ? (W-08)
a) Tissue culture vaccine. b) Sample vaccine,
c) Beta-propiolactone vaccine. d) Infant brain vaccine.
3. Negri bodies are found in cells infected with (W-09)
a) Rabies virus. b) Vaccinia virus.
c) Fowl-pox virus. d) Para myxo virus.
4. Following are the characteristics of fixed virus EXCEPT. (S-10)
a) Short and fixed incubation period.
b) More neurotropic. ;
c) Negri bodies not seen.
d) isolated from natural case.
M
1186;
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition fey Unique Publication
5. Rabies virus in humans multiplies in (W-10)
a) Muscle. b) Nerve endings,
c) Connective tissue. dj All of above.
6. Rabies vaccine was first developed by (S-14)
a) Joseph Lister b) Edward Jenner
c) Alexander Fleming d) Louis Pasteur
7. Intracytoplasmic and intranuclear inclusion body is seen in (W-14)
a) Mumps virus b) Rabies virus
c) Measles virus d) Herpes virus
8. Inclusion body produced by the Rabies virus is. (S-16)
a) Cowdry A b) Negri body
c) Cowdry B d) H - P body
9. Following is most safe vaccine for prevention of Rabies. (W-16)
a) Semple vaccine.
b) Beta propiolactone vaccine.
c) Human Diploid Cell vaccine (HDC).
d) Suckling mouse brain vaccine.
SAQ
1. Anti-rabies vaccine.(S-99,01 )(S-86,89,93)
2. Write on Rabies Immunoprophylaxis. (S-11)
3. Briefly describe Immunoprophylaxis against rabies. (W-13)
4. Non neural vaccines for rabies and their schedule. (S-15)
5. Describe the immunoprophylaxis for Rabies. Add a note on the
dosage schedule. (W-15)
6. Briefly discuss immunoprophylaxis of Rabies. (S-16)
7. Write short note on Negrie bodies. (S-17)
8. Morphology and pathogenesis of Rabies virus. (S-88)
9. Negri bodies. (S-93)
10. Immunoprophylaxis of rabies. (S-95)(W-95)
11. Explain the terms Street Virus and Fixed Virus & discuss Immuno
prophylaxis for rabies. (S-96)
12. Non-neural vaccines for rabies. (S-97)
LAQ
1. Discuss in brief the pathogenesis, antemortem diagnosis and
Immunoprophylaxis of rabies.(S-02)
58. Hepatitis Viruses.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Incubation period of hepatitis B is (S-03)
a) 15 - 40 days. b) 40 - 60 days,
c) 60 - 160 days. d )> 160 days.
2. Which of the following serological markers is/are positive in a highly
M
IW l
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
infectious Acute HBV infection ? (W-09)
a) HBe Ag. b) HBs Ag. c) IgM anti-HBc. d) All o f above.
3. All of the following viruses can be transmitted by ingestion of
contaminated food/water, EXCEPT. (W-10)
a) Rota virus. b) Entero virus,
c) Polio virus. d) Hepatitis B virus.
4. Universal safety precautions should be followed while treating (S-11)
a) HIV positive patients b) HBsAG carriers
c) Septicaemic patients d) All patients
5. An individual with hepatomegaly, jaundice.and elevated liver enzymes
-- has the following laboratory results;
HBs Ag positive,
IgM anti HAV positive,
IgM anti HBs positive
anti HCV negative
These findings support the diagnosis of (W-11)
a) Hepatitis A b) Acute Hepatitis
c) Chronic Hepatitis B d) Hepatitis C
SAQ
1. Briefly describe the laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B infection.
(S-99)(W-16)(S-88,90)(W-98J
2. What are Danes Particles ? Enumerate the Serological markers that
will assist diagnosis in acute phase of Hepatitis. B virus infection.
(W-01)
3. Mention serological markers of Hepatitis B virus. Which of these are
present in super carrier ?(S-04)
4. Australia antigen. (W-74,75)
5. Hepatitis virus. (S-77,85)(W-90,91)
6. Lab. diagnosis of viral hepatitis. (S-94)(W-96)
7. " Hepatitis carriers arid their detection. (W-92)
8. Hepatitis B Virus. (W-94,97)
LAQ
1. Enumerate the viruses causing hepatitis. Describe lab. diagnosis of
Hepatitis-B virus infection.(W-00)(S-03,07fm
2. Classify Hepatitis viruses. Describe clinical features, laboratory
diagnosis & prophylaxis for infection caused by Hepatitis-A virus.
(S-04)
3. Describe the morphology, laboratory diagnosis and prophylaxis or
hepatitis B virus infection.(S-IO)
4. Enumerate hepatitis viruses and their modes of transmission.
Describe the lab. diagnosis of hepatitis B infection. (W-10)

I188I
2ndM.B.B.S . Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by Unique Publication
5. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B. (W-12)
6. Describe the morphology of Hepatitis B virus and laboratory
diagnosis of infection caused by it. Enumerate the serological
markers of HBV infection and their interpretation. (S-14)
7. Discuss Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B virus,
(W-14)
8. Classify hepatitis viruses. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of HBV
infection. (W-15)
59. Miscellaneous Virusesj
MCQ (MUHS) ' f
1. Viruses associated with severe gastroenteritis is (S-03)
a) Rota virus. b) Polio virus.
c) Rhino virus. d) Coxsackie virus A.
2. All of the following are dermatotrophic viruses EXCEPT. (W-08)
a) Variola virus. b) Varicell zoster virus.
c) Measles virus. d) Rotavirus.
3. Rota virus infection is diagnosed by the presence of (S-09)
a) Virus in stool by electron microscopy.
b) Antigen in stool by ELISA.
c) Antibody in stool by ELISA.
d) Antigen in blood by ELISA.
4. Which of the following can lead to cervical cancer ? (W-10)
a) EB virus. b) Pappiloma virus.
c) Adeno virus, d) Polyoma virus.
5. The virus associated with progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
is (S-15)
a) SV 40 b) JC virus
c) BK virus d) Mouse polyome virus
6. Which of the following virus have been implicated as the possible -
causative agent of genital maliganancies ? (W-15)
a) Cytomegalovirus b) Epstein barr virus
c) Human papiilama virus d) Adenovirus
7. The virus causing the disease SARS is a (W-15)
a) Parvovirus b) Influenza virus
c) Coronavirus d) Retrovirus
SAQ
1. Viruses causing gastroenteritis.(W-02)
2. Virus causing abnormalities in fetus. (S-87)
3. Rota virus.(W-92)(S-98)
4. Viral diarrhoea.(W-96)
LAQ
I189I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
1. Four haemorrhagic fever producing viruses.(W-03)
60. Oncogenic Viruses.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. W hich of the following group of viruses contain RNA dependent DNA
polymerase ? (S-03)
a) Adenoviruses. b) Retroviruses,
c) Reoviruses. d) Rhabdoviruses.
SAQ
1. W hat are Retro viruses ? Give 2 examples.(A-02)
2. Oncogenic viruses. (S-91,94,98)(W-98)
3. Viruses as oncogens. (W-78,86)(S-80,85,87)
LAQ
1. Onchogenic viruses. Two DNA and Two RNA onchogenic viruses.
(W-03)
2. Define retrovirus. Describe the lab. diagnosis of human
immunodeficiency virus infection. (S-11)
61. Human Immunodeficiency V irus: AIDS.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Universal safety precautions should be followed while treating (S-11)
a) HIV positive patients b) HBsAG carriers
c) Septicaemic patients d) Ail patients
2. The number of which cells decrease drastically in AIDS ? (W-13)
a) B cells b) CD8 cells
c) Eosinophils d) CD4 cells
3. W hich of the following tests can detect HIV infection in the window
period ? (S-14)
a) IgM ELISA b) P24 antigen test
c) igG ELISA d) Rapid HIV antibody test
4. Reverse transcriptase enzyme is involved in the replication process
of (W-16)
a) Retrovirus b) Enteroviruses
c) Pox viruses d) Herpes virus
SAQ
1. Morphology of Human Immunodeficiency virus and its various modes
of transmission.(S-99)(S-97J
2. Serological test for detection of antibodies to HIV.(S-OO)
3. Draw labelled diagram of HIV.(S-01)
4. ELISA test and its application.(S-07)
5. AIDS Lab Diagnosis.(S-06)(S-85,87,88,96,98)(W-88,89)
6. Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection. (W-11)
M
I K
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
7. Describe the pathogenesis of HIV disease and mention two
common opportunistic infections in AIDS. (S-12)(W-12)
8. Draw a neat labelled diagram of Influenza virus and Human
Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). (W-14)
9. ELISA. (S-90)(W-90)
10. Human Immunodeficiency virus. (W-91)
11. Principle and various applications of ELISA in diagnostic microbiology.
(S-97)
LAQ
1. Define Retroviruses. Describe Lab. diagnosis of HIV infection.(S-01)
2. Define retrovirus. Describe the lab. diagnosis of human
immunodeficiency virus infection. (S-11)
3. . Define window period. W rite laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection
and draw diagram of HIV. (S-1 7)
Part : V MEDICAL MYCOLOGY
62. General Aspects, f
MCQ (MUHS)
1.. Which of the following is not an asexual fungal spore (S-03)
a) Blastospore. b) Zygospore,
c) Glamydospore. d) Microconidia.
2. The diamorphic fungi grow as yeast forms at the following
temperature. (W-03)
a) 25°C. b) 30°C. c) 37°C. d) 44°C.
3. Which of the following fungus produces ergot alkaloid ? (S-09)
a) Claviceps. , b) Aspergillus.
c) Candida. d) Cryptococcus.
4. Fungi in whom sexual phases have yet NOT been identified are
classified as (S-09)
a) Basidiomycetes. b) Ascomycetes.
c) Phycomycetes. d) Fungi imperfecta.
5. Fungal elements in skin scrappings are best demonstrated by (S-09)
a) Saline mount. b) Lactophenol cotton blue mount.
c) Negative staining. d) 10% KOH mount.
6. Which of the following fungus can be cultured ? (S-10)
a) Rhinosporidium seeberi. b) Sporotrichum schenchii.
c) Loboa lobii. d) Malassezia furfur.
7. Fungal spores formed by fragmentation of hyphae are called as
(S-10)
a) Ascospores. b) Arthrospores.
c) Blastospores. d) Chlamydospores.

1191
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
8. The ability of fungal species to exist in either yeast or mycelial form is
refered to as (W-11)
a) Parasitism b) Metamorphism
c) Commensalism d) Dimorphism
9. Gomori methenamine silver stain is used to detect (W-13)
a) Bacteria b) Fungal structures
c) Virus inclusions d) Amoebae
10. Which of the following fungi is dimorphic ? (S-15)
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Histoplasma capsulatum
c) Candida albicans
d) Mucor
11. Following is a dimorphic fungus. (S-16)
a) Cryptococcus b) Coccidiodes im rtiltis
c) Aspergillus d) Sporothrix schehkii
12. An example of dimorphic fungus is (W-16)
a) Aspergillus b) Mucor ^
c) Histoplasma d) Penicillium •
SAQ
1. Mycotoxin.(W-99)
2. Give morphological classification of fungi giving one example each.
(S-02,06)
3. Four different types of yeast. (W-02)
4. Classify fungi morphologically giving exam ple of each. (W-06)
5. Classify fungi giving at least one example each. (W-10)
6. Classify medically important fungi. Describe Reynolds Braudes
phenomenon. (W-15)
LAQ
None
63. Superficial and Subcutaneous Mycoses.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Tinea nigra is caused by (S-03) •
a) Hortae werneckii. b) Cladophialophora carrionii.
c) Piedraia hortae. d) Battrasia mangiferae.
2. Sporothrix schenickii is a (S-03)
a) Yeast. b) Yeast like fungus,
c) Mould. d) Dimorphic fungus.
3. The colour of granules in Madurella mycetomatis is (W-03)
a) Black. b) Red. c) Yellow. d) White.
4. Presence of nasal polyp is a feature of (W-08)
a) R hinospiridiosis." b) Chromoblastomycosis.
I192I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
c) Sporotrichosis. d) Eumycetoma.
5. Tinea Cruris is a dermatophyte infection of (S-09)
a) Legs. b) Hands. c) Groin. d) Nails.
6. Which of the following fungi cannot be cultured ? (W-09)
a) Sporotrichium. b) Rhinosporidium .
c) Madurella. d) Phialophora.
7.. Pear shaped macronidia in clusters are seen in (S-10)
a) M icrosporum . b) Epidermophyton.
c) Trichophyton. d) a and b above.
8. The fungus whic can NOT be cultivated in laboratory is (W-10)
a) Trichophyton rubrum. b) Rhinosporidium seeberi.
c) Eipdermophyton floccosum. d) Sporothrix schenickii.
9. All of the following can cause systemic mycoses, EXCEPT. (W-10)
a) Cryptococcus neoformans. b) Candida parapsillosis.
c) Aspergillus flavus. d) Madurella grisea.
10. All of the following can cause dermatophytoses, EXCEPT. (W-10)
a) Trichophyton. b) Epidermophyton.
c) Microsporum. d) Tinea versicolor.
11. Tinea cruris is ringworm infection which involves. (W-10)
a) Groin. b) Bearded areas of face. c) Scalp. d) Foot.
12. Macroconidia of Trichophyton rubrum are (S-11)
a) Spindle shaped b) Pencil shaped
c) Club shaped d) Cigar shaped
13. Rhinosporidium seeberi has been cultivated on (S-11)
a) Sabouraud’s dextrose agar. •
b) Brain Heart Infusion agar.
c) Corn Meal agar.
d) It is not cultivable on artificial media.
14. Which of the following dermatophyte infect hair, skin & nails ? (W-11)
a) Candida b) Trichophyton
c) Microsporum d) Epidermophyton
15. Which of the following dermatophytes is geophilic ? (W-13)
a) Trichophyton rubrum b) M icrosporum gypseum
c) Microsporum canis d) Epidermophyton floccosum
16. Following are the characteristics of mycotic mycetoma EXCEPT
(S-14)
a) Chronic progressive disease.
b) Seen mainly in tropics.
c) Microcolonies of aetiological agents seen as granules.
d) Responds to antibiotics.
17. Dermatophytes from lesions are best demonstrated by the following

I193I
2ndM .B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs l l l ri Edition by Unique Publication
method (S-14)
a) Gram stain b) Acid fast stain
c) Negative stain d) KOH m ount
18. The causative agent of pityriasis versicolor is (S-15)
a) Piedraia hortae b) Malassezia furfur
c) Trichophyton rubrum d) Microsporum gypseum
19. A fungal infection initiated by thorn prick and characterized by a
pustular by a pustular lesion, with satellite lesions along lymphatics
is caused by (S-15)
a) Cryptococcos neoformans b) Candida albicans
c) Sporothrix schenkii d) Trichophyton rubrum
20. Epidermophyton floccosum infects. (S-16)
a) Skin, hair and nail b) Skin and nail
c) Skin and hair d) None of these above
21. Nails are not affected by (W-16)
- a) Trichophyton b) M icrosporum *** • • •*
c) Epidermophyton d) None of the above
22. The fungus which live exclusively on the dead layer of skin includes
(W-16)
a) Pityrosporum orbicularis b) Piedra hortae
c) Cladosporium wernickii d) All of the above
SAQ
1. Lab. diagnosis of mycetoma.(S-99)
2. Dermatophytes. {\N-99)(W-82,86,91,94,97)(S-89,93,95l
3. Mycetoma.(W-00)(S-07 )(S-96)
4. Clinical lesions and predisposing factors for infection by Candida
albicans. (W-01 )A97,097.
5. Four fungi causing madura foot. (W-02)
6. Diff. genera of dermatophytas with species. (S-03)
7. Rhinosporidiosis. (W-03,07)(W-92,98)(S-94)
, 8. Give classification, causative organisms, pathogenesis & laboratory
diagnosis of mycetoma. (S-04) ■*
9. What are dermatophytes ? Name the dermatophytes & one disease
caused by each. (S-04)
10. Enumerate the causative agents of Mycetoma and; briefly describe
laboratory diagnosis of Eumycetoma. (S-10)
11. Classify fungi giving at least one example each. (W-10)
12. Describe lab diagnosis of dermatophytosis. (S-11);
13. Classify dermatophytes. Give the laboratory diagnosis of
dermatophytosis. (W-13)
14. Describe laboratory diagnosis of Dermatophytosis.’ (S-14)
k4
I194I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
15. Describe briefly the laboratory diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis.
(S-15) '
16. Classify medically important fungi. Describe Reynolds Braudes
phenomenon. (W-15)
17. Madura foot. (S-84)
18. Factors predisposing to deep mycosis. (S-84)
19. Mycetoma. (W-84,88,95)(S-91,94,98,95) .
20. Common skin fungal infections.(S-85)
21. Deep mycotic infections. (S-88)
22. Madura mycosis.(W-96)
23. Lab. diagnosis of dermatophytoses.(W-96)
24. Lab. diagnosis of Superficial mycosis. (W-98)
LAQ
1. Enumerate the fungi causing superficial mycoses. Describe Lab.
diagnosis of Dermatophysis.(W-OO)
2. Enumerate fungi causing subcutaneous Mycosis and Mycetoma.
Describe Lab. diagnosis of Mycetoma.(S-01)
3. Give classification, causative organisms, pathogenesis & laboratory
diagnosis of mycetoma.(S-04)
5. Define Dermatophytes & give the laboratory diagnosis of
Dermatophytosis. (W-07)
6. Mention types and causative agents of mycetoma. Mention mode of
infection and progress of mycetoma. Describe lab. diagnosis of
mycetoma with respect to microscopy and culture. (S-11)
7. What is dermatophytosis. Mention various clinical types and lab.
diagnosis in dermatophytosis. (W-10)
8. Classify fungi based oh morphology with example. Discuss
laboratory diagnosis of dermatophytes. (W-14)
9. Describe morphology, clinical presentation, pathogenesis and
laboratory diagnosis of Dermatophytes. (S-15)
64. Systemic and Opportunistic Mycoses.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Reynolds-Braude phenomenon is seen in one of the following. (S-03)
a) Cryptococcus neoformans b) Candida albicans.
c) Geotrichum candidum d) Trichosporon cutaneum.
2. Candida albicans is differentiated from other Candida species by
(W-03)
a) Germ tube test. b) Clamydospore formation.
c) Sugar assimilation. d) All of the above.
3. Keratomycosis may be caused by (W-03)
a) Aspergillus fumigatus. b) Aspergillus niger.
m
I195I
 1
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
c) Fusarium. d) All of above.
4. Non septic hyphae and absence of rhizhoides is characteristic of
(W-03)
a) Mucor. b) Rhizopus. c) Absidia. d) All of above.
5. Which of the following fungi is NOT a mould ? (W-09)
a) Aspergillus. b) Penicillin,
c) Mucor. d) Cryptococcus.
6. Which of the following is NOT a Dimorphic fungus ? (S-10)
a) Cryptococcus neoformens. b) Histoplasma capsulantum.
c) Penicillin marneffei. d) Coccidioides immitis.
7. Following of the organisms gives a ‘positive’ germ tube test (S-11)
a) Candida albicans b) Candida guilliermondii
c) Cryptococcus neoformans d) Candida krusei
8. Aflatoxin is produced by (S-11)(W-13)
a) Aspergillus flavus b) Aspergillus niger
c) Aspergillus fumigatus d) Mucor
9. Which of the following fungus does NOT have a mycelial form ?
(S-14)
a) Histoplasma capsulatum b) Aspergillus
c) Penicillium d) Cryptococcus
10. Germ tube test is used for identification of (W-14) '
a) Candida albicans b) Candida glbrata
c) Candida tropicalis d) Cryptococcus neoformans
11. Aspergillosis in tissue is recognized by presence of (S-15)
a) Aseptate hyphae b) Septate hyphae
c) Spores d) Pseudohyphae
SAQ
1. Mycotoxin. (W-99)
2. Crytococcus neoformans.{S-Q0)(W-90)($-93)
3. Aspergillosis.(S-00)(S-91)
4. Laboratory diagnosis of fungal infections in AIDS. (W-03)(S-85J
5. Enlist fungi causing opportunistic infection in HIV infected individual.
Briefly describe laboratory diagnosis of Cardia albicans. (S-10)
6. W rite on lab. diagnosis-of meningitis due to cryptococcus neoformans
(S-11)
7. Opportunistic fungal infections. (W-11 )(S-91)(W-98)
8. Enumerate infections caused by cryptococcus neoformans and write
a note on laboratory diagnosis of cryptococcosis. (S-12)
9. W rite briefly about Candida albicans. (W-12)
10. Describe briefly the laboratory diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis.
(S-15)
14 \
I196I\
 dM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs
2n I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
11. Classify medically important fungi. Describe Reynolds Braudes
phenomenon. (W-15)
12. Aspergillosis in human. (S-16)
13. Write short note on Candida albicans.
(S-17)(W-81,86,87,95X8-85,89,90)
14. Write short note on opportunistic mycoses. (S-17)
15. Cryptococcosis.(W-83)(S-92,96)
16. Opportunistic Fungi. (S-86)(W-87,90)
17. Morphology and pathogenicity of Cryptococcus neoformans. (S-97)
18. Lab. diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis. (S-98)
LAQ
1. Enlist opportunistic fungi. Discuss the pathogenesis and laboratory
diagnosis of infection caused by Candida albicans. (S-06)
2. Write the morphological classification of fungi with examples and
mention the lesions produced by Candida albicans and laboratory
diagnosis of candidial infection. (S-07)
3. Give an account of aspergillosis with its laboratory diagnosis. (S-12)
(W-12)
4. Give morphological classification of fungi giving one example of each.
Classify Dermatophytes and discuss pathogenicity and laboratory
diagnosis of Dermatophytosis. (S-16)
5. Enumerate four fungi causing opportunistic fungal infections. Write
the laboratory diagnosis of candidiasis. (W-16)
P art: VI APPLIED MICROBIOLOGY
65. Normal Microbial flora o f the human body.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Which of the following microorganisms form the normal flora of the
skin ? (W-11)
a) Lactobacillus b) Coryneform bacilli
c) Haemophilus d) Enterococcus
SAQ
None
LAQ
None
66. Bacteriology o f water. Air, Milk and food.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Fecal pollution of water can be confirmed by the detection of (W-11)
a) Coliform bacteria b) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Pseudomonas d) Thermotolerant E. Coli
SAQ

I197I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
1. Mention in brief the lab. diagnosis and findings in a case of acute
Giardiasis. (W-10)
2. Describe laboratory diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis. (W-11)
LAQ
None
67. Laboratory control o f Antim icrobial therapy.
MCQ (MUHS)
None -
SAQ
1. List 2 mechanism of action of antimicrobial agents with suitable
examples. (W-01)
2. Antibiotic sensitivity tests. (S-80,84,87,89,93)(W-90,94)
LAQ
None
68. Immunoprophylaxis.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Mention the W.H.O. Universal Schedule of Immunisation (U.J.P.)
(S-06)
2. Immunisation schedule for an infant. (S-70)
LAQ
Norte
69. Healthcare associated infections.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The most common hospital acquired infection is (W-13)
a) Urinary tract infection b) Bacteraemia
c) Pneumonia d) Meningitis
2. The synonym for hospital acquired infection is (S-15)
a) Latrogenic infection b) Atypical infection
c) Nosocomial infection d) Subclinical infection
SAQ
1. Define nosocomial infections. Describe methods of disposal of
sharps. (S-02)
2. Define Hospital-acquired infections. Mention 2 common organisms
causing it.(S-04)
3. Define 'Mutation'. What is the significance of mutation in hospital
acquired infections ?(S-04)
4. Define hospital-acquired infections. Mention any two common
organisms causing hospital acquired infections (W-04)

I198I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
5. List four bacteria commonly responsible for nosocomial infection.
Name two antibiotics specifically used for treating infection by
Pseudomonas aeruginosa. (S-06) \
6. Define Nosocomial infections. Enumerate the commonest organisms
causing nosocomial infection jn burns patients. (W-07)
7. Enumerate the sources and mode Of transmission of hospital acquired
infections. (S-11)
8. Define hospital associated infection. Mention two organism that can
cause Hospital associated infection. (W-14)
9. Disinfection of operation theatre. (S-84)
10. Hospital infection. (S-85,81,91 )(W-94)
11. Universal Precaution for Infection Control. (S-96)(W-97)
12. Role of Microbiology Lab in Nosocomial. (W-96)
13. Sources and modes of transmission of nosocomial infections. (S-97)
LAQ
1. Discuss hospital acquired Infections.(3-10)
70. Biomedical Waste Management.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Hazardous waste constitutes what percentage of total hospital
waste ? (W-11)
a) <10 b) 10 - 20 c) 21 - 30 d ) 3 1 - 40
2. Human anatomical waste is disposed in (W-14)
a) Red bag b) Black bag
c) Yellow bag d) Blue bag
3. Human anatomical waste should be seggregated in which coloured
plastic bag/container for disposal. (S-16)
a) Yellow b) Red c) Blue d) Black
SAQ
1. Enumerate various.categories of biomedical wastes and their method
of disposal. (S-17)
LAQ
None
71. Emerging and Re-emerging Infections.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
None
LAQ
None
72. Recent Advances in Diagnostic Microbiology.

I199I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Prozone phenomenon is observed due to (S-14)
a) Excess antigen
b) Hyper immune reaction
c) Excess antibody
d) Equal antigen and antibody levels
SAQ
1. Describe pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Leptospirosis.
(W-13)
LAQ
None
Part: VII CLINICAL MICROBIOLOGY #
73. Bloodstream Infections.
MCQ (MUHS)
None '
SAQ $
None
LAQ $
None m
74. Respiratory Tract Infections.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
None
LAQ
1. Enumerate the organisms causing lower respiratory tract infections.
(S-07)
2. Enumerate four bacteria causing lower respiratory tract infection. >r/
Describe morphology and cultural characteristies of Mycobacterium
7^
tuberculosis. Describe laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary
tuberculosis. (S-13)
3. Enumerate bacteria causing lower respiratory tract infection. Describe
the laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis with special /I
reference to recent advances. (W-13)
4. Enumerate four bacterial causes of lower respiratory tract infection.
Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. (S-17)
5. Enumerate organisms causing lower respiratory tract infections. Describe
the morphology and cultural characteristics of M. tuberculosis. Discuss briefly
lab. investigations of pulmonary tuberculosis. (S-94)
75. Meningitis.
►4
200
Vi
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd Edition b y Unique Publication
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. (W-13)
2. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis. (W-15)
3. N. Meningitidis. (S-71)
4. Lab. diagnosis of meningitis. (S-73)
LAQ
1. Enumerate organisms causing pyogenic meningitis. Describe
morphology, cultural characteristics, antigenic composition &
pathogenicity of any one of them.(W-01 )(W-84)
2. Enumerate bacteria, causing pyogenic meningitis. Describe
morphology, cultural characteristics of N. Meningitidis. Outline its
laboratorydiagnosis.(S-03)(S-86,89,99)
3. Discuss laboratory diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis.(W-06)
4. Enumerate the organisms causing meningitis. Describe the lab.
diagnosis of N. Meningitidis meningitis. (W-10)
5. Mention organisms causing meningitis and describe lab. diagnosis of
Pyogenic meningitis. (W-12)
6. Enumerate the organisms causing meningitis. Write in detail about
the laboratory diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis. (S-14)
7. Enumerate the organisms causing meningitis. Write in detail about
the laboratory diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis. (S-14)
8. Enumerate bacteria causing pyogenic meningitis. Describe the
laboratory diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis. (W-16)
76. Urinary Tract Infections.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Non gonococcal urethritis. (S-85,96)
2. Nonspecific urethritis. (W-96)
LAQ
1. Enumerate organisms causing urinary tract infections. Define
significant bacteriuria and give the laboratory diagnosis of UTI. (S-16)
2. Enumerate organisms causing urinary tract infections. Describe
morphology, cultural characteristics, pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis
of any one of them. (\N-Q0)(S-Q3)(S-88)(W-91)
3. Enumerate organisms causing urinary tract infections. Define
significant bacteriuria and give the laboratory diagnosis of UTI.
(S-10,15,16)(W-12)
4. Enumerate organisms causing Urinary Tract Infection [UTI]. Add a
I201I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
note on laboratory diagnosis of UTI. (W-16)
77. Sexually Transmitted Infections.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Four bacteria producing sexually transmitted diseases. (W-03)
2. Enumerate four sexually transmitted infections. Describe media used
for culture of Neisseria gonorrhoeae.(W-04)
3. Enumerate four bacteria causing sexually transmitted infections. List
four common infections produced by organisms belonging to Genus
Neisseria.(S-06)
4. Lab. diagnosis of gonorrhoea. (S-77,83)
LAQ
1. Morphology, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Neisseria ft

gonorrhoeae and infections produced by it. (W-03)

2. Enumerate organisms causing sexually transmitted infections.
Describe morphology, pathogenecity and lab. diagnosis of T.
palladium. (S-12)
ft
3. Enumerate organism causing sexually transmitted diseases. Discuss
the laboratory diagnosis of syphilis. (S-15)
4. Enumerate the organisms causing sexually transmitted diseases.
*
Discuss the etiology, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis o f
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection. (S-16) ft
78. Diarrhoea and Food Poisoning.
*
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Viral diarrhoea is caused by (S-16) ft
a) Calcivirus b) Norwalk virus
f t
c) Rotavirus d) A ll o f the above
SAQ f t
1. Food poisoning. (W-02) '
2. Enumerate the organisms causing diarrhoea. (S-07)
3. Enumerate the etiological agents of diarrhoea. Describe the
pathogenesis of cholera and its laboratory diagnosis. (W-07)
4. Bacterial food poisoning. (S-75)
5. Organisms causing food poisoning.(S-85)
LAQ
1. Enumerate organism causing diarrhoea. Describe the morphology,
cultural characteristics, biochemical reactions & laboratory diagnosis
of V. Cholera. (W-99)(S-70,76,81,87)(W-79,88)
2. Enumerate organism causing Food Poisoning. Describe morphology,

I202I

I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
cultural characteristics, Pathogenicity and Lab-diagnosis of infection
cause by Staph - aureus. {S-Q2)(W-96,$7)
4. Enumerate four bacteria causing diarrhoea. Describe the role o f
cholera toxin in pathogenesis of cholera. Discuss laboratory
diagnosis of cholera. (S-06)
5. Enumerate the organisms causing Diarrhoea. Describe the lab.
diagnosis of Cholera. (W-10)
6. Enumerate organism causing G. I. tract infections. Describe
morphology, pathogenecity and lab. diagnosis of Esch, Coli. (S-12)
7. Name four diseases produced by Staphylococcus aureus. Describe
in brief Staphylococcal food poisoning. (S-16)
79. Skin and Soft Tissue Infections.
V MCQ (MUHS} : ;
None
SAQ . .
None
LAQ
1. Enumerate Bacterial causes of wound infection. Give the Lab.
diagnosis of gas gangrene. (S-01,03)
80. Pvrexia o f Unknown Origin.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Discuss briefly the laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever. (S-17)
LAQ
1. Enumerate four bacteria causing pyrexia of unknown-origin. Mention
incubation period and pathogenicity of Salmonella typhi. Describe
laboratory diagnosis of typhoid fever in the second week of infection.
(S-00 )(S-97) *"~~
2. Enumerate bacteria causing pyrexia of unknown origin. Outline the
Lab. diagnosis of enteric fever. (S-02)
3. Enumerate the organisms causing 'Pyrexia of unknown origin 1 (PUO).
Describe the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever.
(W-07)
4. Discuss pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever.
(W-06)
5. Define Pyrexia of Unknown Orgin (PUO). Enumerate etiological agent
of infections of PUO. Add a note on approach to the diagnosis of
PUO due to infectious causes. (W-16)
81. Zoonoses.
I203I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
None
LAQ
None
82. Miscellaneous.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
None
LAQ
None

M
[204
M
1. General Introduction.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. A host that harbour the asexual stage of the parasite is known as
(W-14)
a) Definitive host b) Intermediate host
c) Reservoir host d) Carrier
SAQ
1. Define zoonosis. Describe morphology & Lab. diagnosis of
Leptospirosis.(S-02)
2. Parasitic infection where man is intermediate host & mention the names
of their definitive host.(S-OO) .
3. Insect vectors.(S-75(83179,86)(W-85,82)
4. Mosquito as an insect vector. (S-76)
5. Host parasite relationship. (S-80)(W-83)
6. Zoonoses. (W-85)
LAQ
None
2. Protozoa: General Features.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Enumerate Protozoa pathogenic to man. Describe life cycle & pathogenicity
of Entamoeba Histolytica and Laboratory Diagnosis of infections caused by
it. (S-96)(W-97) *
LAQ
None ,
3. Amoebae.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Mature cyst of Etamoeba histolytica is (W-03)
a) Uninucleate. b) Binucleate.
c) Octanucleate. d) Quandrinucleate.
2. Maximum numer of nuclei seen in mature cyst of entamoeba histolytica
is (S-10)
a) Two. b) Four. c) Six. d) Eight.
3. Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis(PAM) is caused by (W-14)
a) Naegleria fowleri b) Acanthamoeba sp.

I205I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Entamoeba histolytica d) Giardia lamblia
4. Karatitis in healthy contact lens users is usually caused by (S-15)
a) Acanthamoeba culbertsoni
b) Endolimax nana
c) Entamoeba histolytica
d) Naegleria fowled
5. Flask shaped intestinal ulcers are caused by (W-15)
a) Strongyloides stercoralis b) Acanthamoeba
c) Nagleria fowled d) Entamoeba histolytica
SAQ
1. Lab. diagnosis of amoebic dysentery.(S-99)(W-95)
2. Enumerate organisms causing diarrhoea. Describe morphology, life
cycle and pathogenicity of E. Histolytica. Describe in brief the lab.
diagnosis of disease produced by it(S-00)(W-93J
3. Draw Labelled diagram of cyst of E. Histolytica. Name organism
causing primary Amoelsic meningoencephalitis.(S-OI)
4. Draw and label the diagrams of Entamoeba histolytica & Entamoeba
coli trophozoites showing differences between the two.(S-04)
5. Describe morphology of Entamoeba histolytica and laboratory
diagnosis of amoebic dysentery. (S-12)
6. Stool in acute amoebic dysentery.(W-70)
7. Hepatic amoebiasis.(S-74,83)
8. Morphology of E. Histolytica. (W-74,76)
9. Lab. diagnosis of amoebiasis.(S-78,79)
10. Extra intestinal amoebiasis.(W-86,96)
11. Enumerate Protozoa pathogenic to man. Describe life cycle & pathogenicity
of Entamoeba Histolytica and Laboratory Diagnosis of infections caused by
it. (S-96)(W-97) .
LAQ
1. Name the protozoa found in stool sample. Give an account of Lab.
diagnosis of intestinal amoeloicesi. (S-02)
2. Describe morphology, life cycle, pathogenesis & laboratory diagnosis
of entamoeba histolytica.(W-06)
4. Flagellates.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. N.N.N. medium is used for cultivation of (S-03)
a) leishmania donovani b) giardia lamblia
c) trichomonas vaginalis d) ankylostoma duodenale
2. Amastigote form of Leishmania donovani resides in the (W-03)
a) Cells of reticuloendothelial cells, b) Culture media.
c) Insect vector. d) All of the above.
M
][206l
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by Unique Publication
3. Commonest cause of steatorrhoea is (S-09)
a) Trypanosoma cruzi. b) Giardia lamblia.
c) Entamoeba histolytica. d) Toxoplasma gondri.
4. Sand fly is the vector for (S-11)(W-13)
a) Kala azar b) Malaria c) Q fever d) Filariasis
5. Intermediate host for visceral Leishmaniasis is (W-14)
a) Phlebotomus argentipes b) Tsetse fly
c) Reduvid bug d) Mosquito
6. The most sensitive test for demonstration of LD body is (W-15)
a) Liver aspirate „ b) Splenic aspirate
c) Bone marrow aspirate d) Peripheral blood smear
7. Motility of Trichomonas vaginalis is described as (S-16)
a) Amoeboid b) Falling leaf like
c) Stately d) Jerky
8. Enterotest is used to diagnose. (S-16)
a) Giardiasis b) Amoebiasis
c) Cryptosporidiasis d) Toxoplasmosis
9. Kala azar is transmitted by. (W-16)
a) Sandfly b) Reduvid bug
c) Tsetse fly d) Anopheles mosquito
SAQ
1. Draw neat and labelled diagram of the protozoan parasite causing
Leucorrhoea.(S-02)
2. Name four parasites with skin, as their portal of entry.(W-07)
3. L.D. Bodies. (S-16) (S-71,93)(W-98)
4. Lab. diagnosis of Kala Azar. (W-72,74,78)(S-76,95)
5. Morphology of L. Donovani. (S-73,75)
6. Sand fly.(S-73)(W-93)
7. Morphology of Haemaflagellates.(S-77)
8. Trichomona Vaginalis. (S-88)(W-90,92,93)
9. Life cycle of trypanosoma. (S-98)
LAQ
1. Describe morphology, life cycle & pathogenicity of Lieshmania
Donovani. Outline the laboratory diagnosis of Kala Azar.(S-99)(W-92)
2. Name the parasites that can be detected in blood smear. Describe the
life cycle and laboratory diagnosis in a case of visceral leishmaniasis.
(W-11)
3. Describe the life cycle of Leishmania donovani. Describe the
pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of kala azar.(visceral
leishmaniasis). (S-13)
4. Enumerate four protozoan parasites transmitted by vectors. Describe

> 7 l
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
pathogenicity and life cycle of Leishmania donovani in humans. Describe
laboratory diagnosis of Kala-azar. (S-97)
5. Malaria Parasites.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. For malarial parasite man is (S-03)
a) definitive host b) reservoir host
c) paratenic host d) intermediate host
2. Mann’s dots in red blood cells are seen in infection with. (W-03)
a) Plasmodium vivax. b) Plasmodium falciparum.
c) Plasmodium maleriae. d) Plasmodium ovale.
3. Which of the following is seen in Plasmodium falciparum infection in
man ? (W-08)
a) Cerebral malaria. b) Black water fever,
c) Severe anaemia. * d) All of the above.
4. All of the following is ‘TRUE’ about P. falciparum infection EXCEPT.
(S-09)
a) Relapses are not frequent, b) Longest incubation period,
c) ‘Accoli’ forms are seen. d j ‘James’ dots are seen.
5. Crescent shaped gamatocytes are found in (S-11)
a) Plasmodium ovale b) Plasmodium vivax
c) Plasmodium Malariae d) Plasmodium falciparum
6. Recrudescence in malaria is seen with which malarial parasite ? (W-13)
a) Pi.vivax b) PI.malariae
c) PI.ovale d) PI.falciparum
7. Relapse in vivax malaria is due to (S-14)
a) Gametogeny b) Pre erythrocytic schizogony
cj Hypnozoites d) Repeated mosquito bites
8. Definitive host in Malaria infection is (W-14)(S-16)
a) Man b) Reduvid bug
c) Mosquito d) Tsetse fly
9. The infective form of the malaria parasite transmitted by mosquito is
(S-15)
a) Trophozoite b) Schizont c) Merozoite d) Sporozoite
10. The form of Plasmodium falciparum NOT seen in peripheral blood
smear of patients is (W-15)
a) Ring form b) Schizonts
c) Microgametocytes d) Macrogametocytes
11. Relapse of malaria is not seen in infection with (W-16)
a) PI. vivax b) PI. falciparum
c) PI. malariae d) PI. ovale
SAQ
][208l
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
1. Lab. diagnosis of Malaria.(W-99)(W-96J
2. Morphology of P. Falciparum.(A-00)
3. Plasmodium Vivax (whole).(W-02)
4. Write a note on falciparum malaria complications. (W-11)
5. Mention the complications of Plasmodium falciparum infections. (S-13)
6. Describe laboratory diagnosis of Malaria. (S-14)
7. Schizogony. (S-70)
8. Malarial parasites in peripheral blood smear. (W-70)
9. Trophozoite form of P. vivax. (W-71)
10. GematocyteofP. falciparum.(W-72)
11. Asexual cycle of P. vivax. (S-73)(W-79)
12. Black water fever. (S-73)
13. Life cycle of P. vivax. (W-75,79)
14. Plasmodium vivax.(W-91)
15. Morphology of various stages of Plasmodium Falciparum in peripheral blood
smear and causes of relapse due to infection by Plasmodium vivax. (S-97)
(W-97)
LAQ
1. Enumerate parasites seen in peripheral blood smear. Write briefly
morphology, pathogenicity & lab. diagnosis of any.one.(W-00)(S-03)
(S-85,87)
2. List Malarial parasites. Morphology, Pathogenicity & Lab. diagnosis of
P-falciparum.(S-OI)
3. Classify phylum apicomplexa. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of
falciparum malaria.(S-IO)
4. Describe the life cycle of plasmodium falciparum in man and the
vector. Describe the complications of the disease. (S-12)
5. Describe life cycle, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of infection due
to p. vivax. (S-84)(W-86)
6. Describe life cycle, pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis of infection caused by
Plasmodium vivax. Write briefly on recent resurgence of Malaria. (W-95)
6. Miscellaneous Soorozoa and Microsoora.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The o ocysts of isospora belli are (S-03)
a) spherical; 5 M x 7 M. b) spherical; 10 M x 15 M.
c) oval; 15 M x 25 M. d) oval; 30 M x 50 M.
2. Which of the following can infect central nervous system ? (W-14)
a) Echinococcus granulosus b) Taenia solium
c) Toxoplasma gondii d) All of the above
3. Sabin Feldman dye test is used for the diagnosis of (S-16)
a) Toxoplasmosis b) Cryptosporidiosis
c) Trypanosomiasis d) Leishmaniasis
J209Z
M .
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
SAQ
1. Laboratory diagnosis of Pneumocystic carinii pneumonia.
(S-99 )(S-97)
2. Toxoplasmosis.(W-99)
3. Pneumocystis carinii. (W-93)
4. Toxoplasma gondii. (W-78)(S-90,91,94) >
LAQ
1. Enumerate parasites affecting Central Nervous System. Describe life
cycle, pathogenicity Lab. diagnosis of infections caused by Toxoplasma
gondii. Briefly write on "TORCH" group of infections. (S-99)(W-96J
2. Enumerate parasites affecting CNS. Write in brief on the life cycle and
pathogenicity of any one. Out line the lab. diagnosis of disease caused by it.
(S-87)(W-89)
7. Ciliate Protozoa.
MCQ (MUHS)
None ’
SAQ
None
LAQ
None
8. Helminths: General Features.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
None
LAQ
None
9. Trematodes; Flukes.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Operculated eggs are seen in following parasites EXCEPT. (W-03)
a) Fasciola hepatica. b) Schistosom a japonicum .
c) Clonarchis sinensis. d) Diphylobothrium latum!'
2. Helminths that principally infest the liver include (W-08)
a) Ankylostoma. b) Ascaris. c) Clonorchis. d) Paragonimus.
3. Which of the following trematode lives in the blood vessels of
humans ? (S-10)
a) Schistosoma sp. b) Fasciola sp.
c) Paragonism spl. d) Opisthorchis sp.
4. The parasite responsible for haematuria is (S-11)
a) S.mansoni b) S.haematobium
14
I 210;
. ►i
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) S.Japonicum d) None of the above
5. Specimen collected for the demonstration of eggs of schistosoma
haematobium is (W-11)
a) Urine b) Blood c) Stool d) Gastric contents
6. Paragonimus westermani resides commonly in (W-16)
a) Liver b) Intestine c) Blood d) Lung
SAQ
1. Life cycle of S. Haematobium. (S-73)
2. Pathogenicity of Schistosomes in man. (S-80)
LAQ
None .
10. Cestodes: Tapeworms.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. B12 deficiency anaemia is produced by (S-03)
a) taenia solium b) taenia saginata .
c) hymenolepsis nana d) diphylobothrium latum
2. Which is the intermediate host for Taenia saginata ? (W-03)
a) Man. b) Cattle. c)P ig. d)Dog.
3. Which of the following is the smallest cestode ? (W-08)
a) Echinococcus. b) Taenia saginata.
c) Taenia solium. d) Hymenolepis nana.
4. Hydated fluid for Casoni’s test is sterilised by (S-09)
a) Autoclave. b) Filtration.
c) Inspissator. d) Hotair oven.
5. Cysticercus cellulose is a larval stage of (W-10)
a) Taenia saginata. b) Taenia solium.
c) Echinococcus granulosus, d) Hymenolepis nana.
6. Casonis test is used in the diagnosis of (S-14)
a)Amoebiasis b) Hydatid disease
c) Cysticercosis d) Schistosomiasis
7. Which of the following is NOT a cestode ? (W-14)
a) Diphylobothrium latum b) Taenia saginata
c) Hymenolepis nana d) Schistosoma
8. Ribbon like helminth parasites are known as. (S-16)
a) Tapeworms b) Roundworms
c) Flukes d) Amoebas
9. The larval form of Taenia solium is called as (S-16)
a) Cysticercus bovis b) Cysticercus cellulosae
c) Cysticercoid d) Hydatid cyst
10. Cysticercus cellulose is a condition caused by (W-16)
a) T. saginata b) T. solium

I 211I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c)H.nana d) E. granulosus
SAQ
1. Laboratory diagnosis of hydatid disease.(S-99)(S-82J
2. Draw a labelled Diagram of the egg of T. Solium. Mention its definitive
& intermediate hosts.(W-OO)
3. Differentiate T. solium & T. saginata.(W-OI)
4. Four Cestodes (Enumerate).(W-03)
5. Hydatid cyst.(S-07,11 )(W-83,86)(S-84)
6. Enumerate differences between Taenia sodium and Taenia saginata.
Explain why it is necessary to differentiate them ? (W-13)
7. Mention four differences between Taenia saginata and Taenia
solium. Write in brief on tissue cyst caused by Taenia solium. (W-14)
8. Life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus. (W-15)
9. Write short note on Hydatid cyst. (S-17)
10. Larvae in Cestodes.(W-72)
11. Cysticircus.(W-76)
12. Life cycle of T. Solium.(W-74)
13. Cysticircus celluloasae.(W-78,86187)(S-83,96)
14. Life cycle of E.granulosus.(W-71)
15. Brood capsule. (S-79)
16. Casoni's test. (W-70,73,75,97)(S-95)
17. Life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus in humans. (S-97)
LAQ
1. Enumerate the parasites affecting liver. Describe the morphology, life
cycle, pathogenesis & Lab. diagnosis of E. granulosus.(W-99,00)(S-98)
2. Describe fie morphology, life cycle, pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis
of infection caused by Echinococcus granulosus.(S-03)(W-94)
3. Mention the parasites of class Cestodes. Describe the morphology,
pathogenesis, life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus $nd laboratory
diagnosis of Echinococcus infection.(S-07)
4. Classify cestodes. Describe the pathogenesis of cysticerosis.
(W-15)
5. Enumerate intestinal parasites. Describe the life cycle of E. granulosus.
Discuss its pathogenicity & lab. diagnosis of Hydatid disease. (S-88)(W-90)
6. Enumerate parasites causing diarrhoea. Describe morphology, Life Cycle &
Laboratory diagnosis of infection caused by Taenia saginata. (W-98)
11. Nematodes: General Features.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Infection of guinea worm occurs by (S-03)
a) larvae entering skin while walking bare-feet..
~T)) larvae entering skin while swimming.
M
I212I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
c) consuming contaminated ports
d) consuming contaminated water with cyclops.
2. The intermediate host for Dracunculus medinesis is (W-03)
a) Man. b) Snail. c) Cyclop. d) Fish.
3. Which of the following adult filarial Nematode is located lymphatics ?
(W-10)
a) Brugia timori. b) Brugia malayi.
c) Wuchreria bancrofti. d) All of above.
SAQ
None
LAQ
1. Classify nematodes. Describe morphology, life cycle, pathogenicity
and lab. diagnosis of Ascaris lumbrocoides in festation. (S-11)
2. Classify nematodes. Describe morphology, life cycle, pathogenicity
along with complications and laboratory diagnosis of Ascaris
lumbricoides. (S-16)
12. Trichinella Spiralis.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The smallest nematode infecting man is (S-15)
a) Ancylostoma duodenale
b) Enterobius vermicularis
c) Trichenelia spiralis
d) Trichuris trichuria
SAQ
None
LAQ
None
13. Whipworm.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Whip worm is the common name of (S-03)
a) trichenelia spiralis b) trichuris trichiura
c) strongyloides stercoralis d) necator americans
2. The bile stained eggs with bipolar mucus plug are seen in (W-03)
a) Trichuris trichura. b) Ascaris lumbricoides.
c) Ancylostoma duodenale. d) Taenia saginata.
3. Which of the following is an inhibitor of gastric mucosal proton pump ?
(S-12)
a) Carbenoxoione sodium b) Sucralfate
c) Famotidine d) Lansoprazole
4. All of the following are colloidal plasma substitutes EXCEPT (W-12)
2nd M.B.B.S. B ook with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
a) Dextran b) Ringer-lactate
c) Hydroxyethyl starch d) Polyvinyl pyrrolidone
SAQ
1. Four intestinal nematodes. Draw diagram of ovum of one of them.
(W-03)
2. Enumerate intestinal nematodes. Describe, morphology, life cycle and
pathogenicity of Trichuris Trichura. Describe in brief the lab. diagnosis of
disease produced by it. (S-93)
LAQ
None
14. Stronavloides.
MCQ (MUHS)
--------L— -None-— :----------------------------- L -i: . .. ■

1. Strongyloides stercoralis hypennfection. (W-16)

LAQ
None
15. Hookworm.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Infective form of ancylostoma duodenole is (S-09)
a) Rhabditiform larva. b) Filariform larva,
c) Embryonated egg. d) Adult worm.
2. Nematode gaining entrance through skin penetration in man is (S-14)
a) Dracunculus medinensis b) Enterobius vermicularis
c) Ancylostom a duodenale d) Trichuris trichiura
SAQ • ^ ' ..
1. List four parasites causing anemia. Mention life cycle of Ancylostoma
duodenale with diagrams wherever necessary. (W-10)
2. Enumerate the intestinal nematodes. Describe the morphology, life
cycle, pathogenicity & laboratory diagnosis Ancylostoma duodenale.
(W-13)
3. Hookworm infestation.(S-70)
4. Life cycle of Aduodenale. (S-75,78)
5. PathogenecityofA.duodenale.(W-81)
LAQ
1. Describe life cycle, morphology, pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis
of A. duodenale. (\N^)(W-87,91)(S-90)
2. Describe the life cycle pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of hook
worm, (W-12)
3. Enumerate the intestinal nematodes. Describe the morphology, life
14
:2i<
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rd Edition by Unique Publication
cycle, pathogenicity & laboratory diagnosis Ancylostoma duodenale.
(W-13)
4. 1) Enumerate Intestinal nematodes/
2) Describe life cycle, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis
of infection caused by hookworms. (S-14)
5. Describe pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis of infestation due to A. duodenale.
(S-83)
6. Describe the morphology life cycle, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis
of the infection caused byAnkylostoma duodenale. (S-95)
16. Pinworm.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. NIH swab is used in collecting material for diagnosis of infection by
(S-14)
a) Trichuris trichiura b) Trichinella spiralis
c) Enterobius vermicularis d) Ascaris lumbricoides
SAQ
1. Life cycle of E. Vermicularis. (W-82)
LAQ
1. Describe life cycle, pathogenecity and laboratory diagnosis of
Enterobius vermicularis. (W-16)
17. Roundworm.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Oval, bile stained eggs with outer mammilated coat are of (S-03)
a) taenia solium b) taenia saginata
c) ascaris lumbricoides d) trichuris trichiura.
SAQ
1. . Describe life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides. Mention complications
caused by it and write on lab. diagnosis of Ascariasis. (W-10)
2. Pathogenicity of Ascaristumbricoidesr(W-96) ~ *•-
LAQ
1 Describe the life cycle, pathogenicity, laboratory diagnosis of
infestation due to Ascaris Lumbricoides.(W-03) (W-85)
2. Enlist various intestinal nematodes. Describe morphology, life cycle,
pathogenecity and laboratory diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoides.
(S-10,17)
3. Classify nematodes. Describe morphology, life cycle, pathogenicity'
and lab. diagnosis of Ascaris lumbrocoides in festation. (S-11)
4. Describe morphology, life cycle, pathogenesis and laboratory
diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoids. (S-15)
18. Filarial Worms.
M
I215I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Which of the fo llo w in g biopsy may lead to diagnosis of Wuchereria
bancrofti infection 7 (W-08)
a) Liver biopsy. b) Lymph node biopsy,
c) Rectal biopsy. d) Muscle biopsy.
2. Which of the following adult filarial Nematode is located lymphatics ?
(W-10)
a) Brugia timori. b) Brugia malayi.
c) Wuchreria bancrofti. d) All of above.
3. Tail tip contains two nuclei in microfilariae of (S-11)
a) Wchereria bancrofti b) Brugia malayi
c) Loa loa d) Onchocerca vovulus
4. Blindness caused by a parasite transmitted to humans by the black fly
is the clinical"
a) Strogyloidosis b) Hydatid disease
c) Paragonimiasis d) Onchoceriasis
5. The filarial warm that can be seen in conjunctiva is (W-13)
a) Loa loa b) Onchocerca volvulus
*ur'
c) Mansonella perstance d) Mansonella Ozzardi
6. A sheathed microfilaria is a characteristic of (S-15) m

a) D.perstans b) Mansonella ozzardi

c) Brugia malayi d) Onchocerca volvulus t
7. Onchocerca volvulus is a (W-15)
a) Intestinal roundworm b) Flatworm
c) Tissue nematode d) Tapeworm
8. Parasite usually seen in conjunctiva is (W-15)
a) Wuchereria bancrofti b) Enterobius vermicularis
c) Loa loa d) Mansonella ozzaradi
9. Which of the following worms reside/s in subcutaneous tissue ? (W-16) |
a) Loaloa b) Onchocerca volvulus
c) Drancunculus medinensis d) All of the above
SAQ
1. Lab. diagnosis of Filariasis.(S-99)
2. 4 Clinical menifestation of Filariasis. (S-01)
3. Mention the definitive & intermediate lost of W. Bancrofti Enumerate
complication of it.(W-01)
4. Draw well diagram of Wibancrofti.(W-02)
5. Enumerate four different parasites found in peripheral blood smear.
Draw a labelled diagram of microfilariae of W. bancrofti. (S-11)
6. Describe morphology and outline laboratory diagnosis of
Wuchereria bancrofti. (W-12)
M
I216I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
7. Discuss occult filariasis. (W-14)
8. Life cycle of W. Bancrofti. (S -72,76)
9. M icrofilaria.(W -73)(S-96,98)
10. Filariasis. (S-77)
11. Morphology of microfilaria. (S-78,88)
12. Describe morphology, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of infestation
due to W. Brancrofti. (W -84)
13. Pathogenicity of W. Bancrofti. (W -86,89)
14. Enumerate tissue nematodes. Describe morphology, life cycle &
>pathogenicity of W. Bancrofti. Mention in brief the laboratory diagnosis of
filariasis.(W -88)(S-91,94)
LAQ
1. Enumerate parasites seen in peripheral blood smear. Write briefly
morphology, pathogenicity & lab. diagnosis of any one.(W-2000)
(S-03)(S-85,87)
2. Classify nematodes. Describe life cycle, pathogenicity and laboratory
diagnosis of Wuchereria bancrofti.(S-04)
3. Enumerate any four tissue nematodes. Describe morphology,
pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of infection caused by
Wuchereria bancrofti.(W-07)
19. Guinea Worm.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Which of the following worms reside/s in subcutaneous tissue ? (W-16)
a) Loaloa b) Onchocerca volvulus
c) Drancunculus medinensis d) A ll o f the above
SAQ
1. Write a short note on life cycle of guinea worm. (S-16)
2. Mode of infection of guinea worm.(S-71)
3. Life cycle of D. Medinensis.(S-72,74,82)(W -83)
4. Cyclops.(W-75)
5. D. Medinensis. (S-79)
LAQ
1. Enlist tissue nematodes. Describe the life-cycle, pathogenesis,
laboratory diagnosis & complications of Dracanculus Medinensis.
(S-06)
2. Describe life Cycle, pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of infestations
due to D. Medinensis. (W -83)
3. Describe morphology, life cycle and pathogenicity of Dracunculus Medinensis.
Outline the lab. diagnosis of dracunculosis. (S-92)
20. Miscellaneous Nematodes.
MCQ (MUHS)
m
I217I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication.
None
SAQ
1. Larva migrans.(S-00)(W-95)
LAQ
None
21. Diagnostic Methods in Parasitology.
MCQ (MUHS)
None **
SAQ
1. What are different types of concentration methods for parasites ?
(W-06)
2. Concentration method of stool for parasites identification. (S-07)
3. Stool concentration methods. (S-15)
3. Ova in stools. (S-80KW -81 ) ________
4. Parasites found in blood. (W -81)
5. Importance of stoofexamination in diagnostic parasitology. (S-97)
LAQ
None
22. Miscellaneous.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Prevention of parasitic infestations. (S-81)
LAQ
None
^4 >*4i ' i A ^4
VVVVVVVVVV

/
/

12181
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication

MICROBIOLOGY - I QUESTION PAPERS

4
W IN T E R - 2 0 0 0

Instructions:
1) A ll questions are com pulsory.
2) The number to the rig h t indicates full marks.
3) Draw diagrams w herever necessary.
4) Do n o twrite anything on the b lank portion o f the question paper, written
anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair
means.
SECTION-B
1. Answer any six 12 Marks
a) Enumerate four important contributions of Louis Pasteur.
b) List four differences between Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cell.
c) Define Plasmid. Nam e three methods of transfer of genetic
material from one bacterium to another.
d) Enumerate four uses of tuberculin test.
e) List four virulence factors of streptococus pyogenes.
f) List four differences between eltor and classical vibrio cholerae.
g) Name two diseases each transmitted by body louse and rat flies.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a. Enumerate the organisms causing urinary tract infection.
Describe the steps to arrive at the lab. diagnosis of infection
by E. Coli.
b. Mention different methods of sterilisation.
Describe the methods of moist heat sterilisation.
c. Enumerate the bacterial causes of upper respiratory tract
infection. Describe the lab. diagnosis of diphtheria.

S U M M E R - 2001
Ey
SECTION-B
Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Enumerate four important contributions Robert Koch.
b) Draw a labelled diagram of the growth curve of Bacteria.
c) Give four points of differentiation between streptococcus
viridans and streptococcus pneumoniae.
d) Mention four points of history that you will ask the patient
before enteropriting the results of widal test.
e) Define transport media. Give two examples of transport media.
M
I219I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
f) Mention four causative agents of acute pyogenic meningitis.
g) Mention four serological tests for diagnosis of syphilis.
SECTION-C
Attempt any two:- 14 Marks
a) Enumerate the bacterial causes of wound infection.
Give the lab. diagnosis of gas gangrene.
b) Define sterilisation. Describe physical methods of sterilisation.
c) Describe the morpholgy, patogenecity and lab. diagnosis
infections caused by staphylococcus aureus.

W IN T E R -2 0 0 1

SECTION-B
Answer any six :■ 12 Marks
-a)— Et
giving suitable examples.
b) Enumerate Koch’s postulates.
c) Give any four points differentiation between exotoxins and
endotoxina.
d) Compare and contrast mutational and tranferable drug resistance.
e) Define ntiseptics. Give 2 examples of commonly used
antiseptics and their specturm of activity.
f) List the methods used for lab. diagnosis of typhoid and the
appropriate twice of carrying them out in relation to the stage
of the disease.
g) W hat is significant becteriuria ? '
Enumerate 4 organism causing urethritis..
SECTION-C
Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Enumerate organisms causing pyogenic meningitis. Describe
the morphology and pathogenesis of any one of them.
Outline the lab. diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis.
b) Enumerate bacteria producing sexually transmitted diseases.
Describe the serological metods for the diagnosis o f syphilis.
a.
c) W hat is sterilization ? List methods using heat for sterilization.
Describe the principle and application of an autoclave.

S U M M E R - 2002

SECTION-B
Answer any six :- x 12 Marks
a) Mention four contribution of Louis Pasteur.
b) Define enrichment medium. List three important enrichment media.
c) Describe the mechanism of action of cholera toxin.
M
][220][
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by Unique Publication
d) Describe immunoprophylaxis of diphtheria.
e) Define nosocomial infection. Describe methods of disposal of sharp.
f) Mention use of primary smear in lab. diagnosis of gas gangrene.
g) Mention rationale behind secondary prophylaxis in rheumatic fever.
SECTION-C
Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Enumerate bacterial causes of food poisoning.
Describe morphology and pathogenesis of any one of them.
Outline the lab. diagnosis of a case of food poisoning.
b) Enumerate bacteria associated with pyrexia of unknown origin.
Outline the lab. diagnosis of enteric fever.
c) Define zoonosis. Describe morphology and lab. diagnosis of
leptospirosis.

^ W IN T E R - 2002

SECTION-B
Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Lepromin test.
b) Classification of streptococci.
c) Koch’s postulates.
d) Enumerate four differences between streptococcus viridans
and streptococcus pneumoniae.
e) Enumerate four methods of transfer of genetic material in bacteria.
f) Define food poisoning.
Enumerate four organism porducing food poisoning.
g) Immunoprophylaxis of Diphtheria.
SECTION-C
Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Enumerate patogenic mycobacteria.
Describe lab. diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.'
b) Enumerate organisms causing sexually transmitted diseases.
Describe serodiagnosis of syphilis. ^
c) Define sterilization. Describe sterilization by moist heat.

SUMMER - 2003v|
£j
SECTION-B
Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Define the term sterilization.
Name any two gaseous agents of sterilization and their use.
b) Enumerate 4 methods of anaerobiasis.
c) Define enriched media. Name any two enriched media.
d) Enumerate four differences between Exotoxin and Endotoxin.
12211
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
e) Mention four types of Escherichia coli causing diarrhoea.
Mention one test for identifying each type.
f) What do you understand by the term “halophilic vibrios” ?
Give two examples.
g) Classify a typical mycobacteria. Give example of each.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Enumerate bacterial causes of meningitis.
Describe lab. diagnosis of a case of acute pyogenic meningitis.
b) Enumerate organisms causing wound infection. Describe lab.
diagnosis of gas gangrene produced by Clostridium perfringens.
c) Enumerate organisms causing “urinary tract” infections. Describe
lab. methods used in the diagnosis of urinary tract infection.

SECTION-B
Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) List four difference between the cell wall of Gram positive
and Gram negative bacteria.
b) Define septicaemia.
Enumerate the names of four bacteria producing septicaemia.
c) List genital ulcer diseases along with* the names of the
causative bacteria.
d) Enumerate 4 diseases caused by staphylococcus aureus.
e) Enumerate four methods of transfer of genetic material in bacteria.
n Classification of vibrios.
9) Enumerate four bacteria producing sexually transmitted diseases.
SECTION-C
Attempt any t w o 14 Marks
a) Describe morphology, pathogenecity and lab. diagnosis of
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and infections produced by it.
b) Describe lab. diagnosis of a case of cholera. ^
c) Describe virulence factors of bacteria.

^SUM M ER - 2004 *
B
SECTION-B
Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Define Bacteremia and Septicemia.
b) Enumerate four important enzymes or toxins produced by
streptococcus pyogenes.
c) Define Hospital-acquired infections.
Mention 2 common organisms causing it.
M
^2221
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
d) Name two important species of Haemophilus and mention
infections caused by each.
e) Mention two standard tests and two trepo-nemal tests for
sera-diagnosis of syphilis.
f) Define‘Mutation’. What is the significance of mutation in
hospital-acquired infections ?
g) Mention two advantages of clot culture over blood-culture in
lab. diagnosis of enteric fever.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two :- 14 Marks
a) Enumerate four organisms causing upper respiratory tract
infections. Describe the lab. diagnosis of sore-throat due to
streptococcus pyogenes.
b) Describe the lab. diagnosis of enteric fever. What are the
various vaccines, available for prophylaxis of enteric fever ?
c) Describe lab. diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis with
respect to collection method, concentration methods and
microscopy of sputum.

W IN T E R -2 0 0 4

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six 12 Marks
a) Enumerate four sexually transmitted infections.
Describe media used for culture of Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
b) What is flagellum ? Mention 2 methods for demonstrating flagella.
c) Define hospital-acquired infections. Mention any two common
organisms causing hospital acquired infections.
d) How do you visualise Treponemes?
e) Mention the principle, interpretation and applications of
weil-felix reaction.
f) Explain the basis of multisystem involvement and florid
manifestations in Staphylococcal food poisoning and toxic
shock syndrome. >,
g) Mention four differentiating points between mutational and
transferable drug resistance in tabulate form.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two :- 14 Marks
a) What are the clinical menifestations of Urinary Tract Infection
(UTI). Enumerate the common causative agents of UTI and
describe the role of lab. diagnosis of such infection.
b) Define Sterilisation and disinfection. Describe the principle
and working of Autoclave control of an Autoclave.
c) Describe lab. diagnosis of cholera with respect to microscopy,

^223^
*4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
cultural characteristics and biochemical tests.

^WINTER - 2005 |

SECTION-B > i
Answer any six:- 12 Marks
\ '
a) How do you visualise Treponemes?
b) Define mutation.
What is the significance of mutation in hospital infections ?
c) Mention tetanus prophylaxis of clean, contaminated and ■
•' 1
infected wounds.
d) Define significant bacteriuria. Mention 3 screening tests ■)
employed for presumptive diagnosis of urinary-tract infection.
e) Mention the principle, interpretation and applications of
'4-
f) Draw a well labelled diagram of structured bacterial spore
and mention its types with diagrams.
g) Define anteseptics and disinfectants. Name few chemical
*.r-:44
agents used as disinfectants in the hospitals with their
concentrations.
SECTION-C
Attempt any tw o:- 14 Marks
a) Enumerate the organisms causing upper respiratory tract
infections. Give the lab. diagnosis of sore-throat due to
streptococcus pyogenes.
b) Define and enumerate causes of dysentery. Differentiate on
microscopy parasitic and bacillary dysentery. Outline the lab.
diagnosis of infection caused by shigella species.
c) Classify micro-organisms. What are the various aspects for
the identification of micro-organisms ?

gUMMER - 2006^

SECTION-B
Answer any s ix :- 12 Marks
a) Describe the method of collection of sputum for the lab.
diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.
b) Describe four precautions to be taken for preventing
‘sharps injury’.
c) Name two bacteria producing capsules. What is the role of
bacterial capsule in establishing human infection by the
micro-organism?
d) Enumerate four bacteria causing sexually transmitted infections.
List four common infections produced by organisms belonging
M
12241
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd Edition b y Unique Publication
to Genus Neisseria.
e) State factors to be considered while interpreting result of widal test.
f) List four bacteria commonly responsible for nosocomial
infection. Name two antibiotics specifically used for treating
infection by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
g) What are Chlamydiae ?
Name two human diseases caused by Chlamydiae.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Mention four routes by which Leptospires can infect humansr
Discuss lab. diagnosis of human leptospirosis highlighting the
utility of each test during different stages of the disease.
b) Enumerate four bacteria causing diarrhoea. Describe the role
of cholera toxin in pathogenesis of cholera. Discuss lab.
diagnosis of cholera.
c) Describe the pathogenic mechanisms in the production of gas
gangrene by Clostridium perfringens. Discuss lab. diagnosis
of gas gangrene.

W INTER - 2006
■: , r£j
SECTION-B
1. Answer any s ix :- 12 Marks
a) Mention morphology and two media for its cultivation of N.
gonorrhoea.
b) Describe infections caused by staph, aureus.
c) Mention standard tests for syphilis.
Which antigen is used for these tests ?
d) Mention properties of chlamydiae. Which infections produced
by this organisms ?
e) Classify typical mycobacteriae which examples.
f) Mention Louis Pasteur contributions to microbiology.
g) Mention principle of Autoclave. ^
SECTION-C
Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Discuss lab. diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis.
b) Discuss pathogenesis and lab. diagnosis of enteric fever.
c) Discuss lab. diagnosis of cholera.

r
ISUM M ER - 2007

SECTION-B
2. Answer any six:- 12 Marks
►4
12251
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Enumerate four bacteria producing exotoxins. What are the
mechanisms of action of the exotoxins of Clastridium tetani ?
b) What are the Standard Tests for Syphilis (STS) ? What are
Biological False positive reactions ? Give one example of each
type.
c) What is significant bacteriuria ?
Enumerate four organisms causing urethritis.
d) Mention two functions of the bacterial capsule.
Describe two methos to demonstrate it.
e) -. Describe two morphological types of the chlamydiae.
f) Describe two morphology of C. diphtheriae. Mention two
methods for testing for toxin production of this organism.
g) Mention any four points which must be kept in mind,
____ when interpreting the widal test._________________ •
SECTION-C
Answer any two 14 Marks
a) i) Enumerate the organisms causing diarrhoea.
ii) What is the mechanism of action of the cholera toxin ?
iii) Describe the lab. diagnosis
b) i) Enumerate the organisms causing lower respiratory^
tract infections.
ii) Describe the role of the lab. in the diagnosis of pulmonary
tuberculosis.
c) i) What are the growth requirements of bacteria ?
ii) Describe the bacterial growth curve.
iii) What are the types of commonly used culture media in
a bacteriology laboratory ? Give examples of each type.

W INTER - 2007
83 (2
SECTION-B
Answer any six > 12 Marks
a) What is a selective medium ? Give two examples.
b) Enumerate four Rickettsial diseases and mention their
etiological agents.
c) Classify Atypical Mycobacteria (NOTT).
Give one example of each type.
d) Mention four criteria for an ideal antiseptic.
e) Mention four characteristics of Chlamydiae.
f) Define Nosocomial infections. Enumerate the commonest
organisms causing nosocomial infection in burns patients.
g) Mention four contributions of Louis Pasteur to the field of
microbiology.
SECTION-C
M
I226I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
3. Answer any two 14 Marks
a) Enumerate the etiological agents of diarrhoea.
Describe the pathogenesis of cholera and its lab. diagnosis.
b) Define sterilisation. Enumerate the various methods used for
. sterilisation in the hospital. Describe the principle and working
of an autoclave.
c) Enumerate the organisms causing ‘Pyrexia of unknown origin’
* (PUO). Describe the pathogenesis and lab. diagnosis of
enteric fever.

W INTER - 200

SECTION-B
2. Answer any five 20 Marks
a) Tabulate four differentiating features of classical and El Tor vibrios.
b) Define bacterial flagella. Enlist different types with one
example each. Write two methods to demonstrate flagella.
c) Enumerate four important lesions caused by Haemophilus
influenzae.
d) Describe the principle, procedure and use of nagler reaction
in anaerobic bacteriology. , . - '
e) Explain the term ‘SWARMING’. List two bacteria producing it.
Write any two methods to inhibit swarming.
f) Enumerate the various lab. tests done to diagnosis enteric
fever during first week. Explain the role of co-agglutination
test in diagnosis of Enteric fever.
SECTION-C
3. Answer any two 12 Marks
a) Enumerate organisms causing acute pyogenic meningitis.
Discuss lab. diagnosis of Neisseria meningitis.
b) Define microbial pathogenicity and microbial virulence.
Discuss the determinants of bacterial virulence with
appropriate examples.
c) Enumerate organisms causing post operative wound infection.
Describe the causative organisms, pathogenesis and lab.
diagnosis of gas gangrene.

SECTION-B
2. Answer any five :- 20 Marks
a) Write a note on Koch’s postulates.
b) . Describe the bacterial growth curve.
c) Describe them morphology of streptococcus pneumoniae.
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd Edition b y Unique Publication
Enumerate four differences between streptococcus pneumoniae
and streptococcus viridans.
d) Classify vibrios. Enumerate four differences between E1 for
and classical vibrios.
e) What is significant bacteriuria ? Mention screening techniques
for presumptive diagnosis of significant bacteriuria.
f) Classify culture media. Give example of each type.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Attempt any two out of three : (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate four organisms causing wound infection. Describe
lab. diagnosis of gas gangrene produced by Clostridium perfringens.
b) Classify Mycobacteria. Discuss the lab. diagnosis of
pulmonary tuberculosis.
c) Enumerate four organisms causing sexually transmitted
diseases. Discuss serodiagnosis of syphilis.
■ " vara "
! WINTER - 2009 f
lib -
SECTION-B
2. Answer any five :- 20 Marks
a) Define biomedical waste. Enumerate categories of biomedical
waste and different colour code system of bags for its disposal.
b) Define enrichment media. How does it differ from enriched media ?
Write two examples of solid culture media without agar.
c) Mention diseases caused by different species and its serotypes
of chlamydia.
d) Describe Lepromin test. Write four uses of this test.
e) What are halphilic vibrios ? List two examples of it.
Describe Kanagawa phenomenon.
f) Enumerate various types of E.Coli responsible for causing
diarrhoea and write one lab. test to diagnose each type.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Attempt any two out of three : (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate the organisms causing “Lower respiratory tract”
infection. Describe the morphology, cultural characters and
lab. diagnosis of mycobacterium
b) Enumerate organisms causing Sexually Transmitted Diseases
(STD). Describe the morphology, cultural characters,
pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis of Neisseria Gonorrhoeae.
c) Enlist the various bacteria responsible for causing bacterial
food poisoning. Describe the pathogenesis and lab. diagnosis
of bacterial food poisoning .

►4
228;
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication

SUMMER

SECTION-B
2. Answer any five 20 Marks
a) Describe the morphology of Mycobacterium leprae’
Enumerate four differences between tuberculoid and
lepromatous leprosy.
b) Describe the different modes of transmission of infectious
agents giving suitable examples.
c) Write a note on blood culture..
d) Write a note on widal test.
e) Classify Shigellae.
Describe in brief how these organisms produce dysentery.
f) Write a note on bacterial spore.
SECTION-C
3. Answer any two 12 Marks
a) Enumerate four bacteria causing urinary tract infections.
Discuss the lab. diagnosis of UTI.
b) Enumerate four bacteria causing sore throat.
Discuss the lab. diagnosis of diphtheria.
c) Discuss hospital acquired infections.

W INTER

SECTION-B
2. Answer any five :- 20 Marks
a) Define Tyndallisation. What is the principle and when is it used ?
b) Describe the cell wall of gram positive organisms.
What is the function of the cell wall ?
c) Describe segregation of Hospital Waste.
d) Describe eight differences between streptococcus viridans and
streptococcus pneumoniae.
' e) Describe briefly the lab. diagnosis of Gas Gangrene,
f) Describe briefly Runyun’s classification of atypical
Mycobacteria. Give two examples of each.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Attempt any two: (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate the organisms causing meningitis.
Describe the lab. diagnosis of N. Meningitidis meningitis.
b) Enumerate the organisms causing Diarrhoea.
Describe the lab. diagnosis of Cholera.
c) Describe in detail the Serological diagnosis of syphilis.
Mention the advantages and disadvantages of each test.
^2291
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication

*9
^SUMMER - 201jJj

2 Hours 32 Marks
SECTION-B
1. Answer any fjve questions. 20 Marks
a) Write down different indications of Blood culture.
b) Enumerate various screening test for detection of significant
bacteriuria.
c) Enumerate the sources and.mode of transmission of hospital
acquired infections.
d) Pathogenesis of gas-gangrene.
e) Enumerate Bacterial zoonotic disease.
f) Write down various roathods^tacquiringdrug resistance
amongs bacteria.
SECTION-C
Attempt any two out of three (long answer q u e s t i o n s ) 2x6=12
a) Write down the lab. diagnosis of Enteric fever.
Enumerate the vaccines available against Enteric fever.
b) Classify mycobacteria. Write down the morphology and
lab. diagnosis of Mycobacterium Leprae.
c) Define sterilization and disinfection. Describe thfe principle
and working of autoclave and with biological sterilization
control used in autoclave.

WINTER-2011

Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B

2. Brief Answer Questions.Attempt any five out of s ix : (5x4=20)

a) What is a bacterial capsule ? Give two examples of capsulated
bacteria.List the methods of demonstrating capsu{e.
b) Write briefly on “Universal Safety precautions”.
c) Describe the morphology and cultural characteristics of
Sreptococcus peneumqniae.
d) Describe the pathogenesis of tuberculosis.
e) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of cholera.
f) Describe the principle, applications, advantages and limitations of
V.D.R.L. test.
SECTION-C
3. Attempt any two out of three ( Long Answer Questions):
a) Define Sterilisation . Enumerate the different methods of sterilization.
Describe the principle, working and operational conditions for the
T 230T
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
Autoclave.
b) Define and classify Anaerobes. Discuss the pathogenesis and
laboratory diagnosis of “Gas Gangrene”.
c) Enumerate disease caused by Salmonella. Discuss the pathogenesis
and laboratory diagnosis of Enteric Fever.

S U M M E R -2 0 1 2
a
Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32
SECTION-B
2. Brief Answer Questions.(any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Enumerate and classify chemical disinfectants and write uses.
b) Describe bacterial spore with diagram.
c) Write a note on Biochemical waste disposal.
d) Properties and tests for detection of toxin of C. diphtheriae.
e) Describe the contributions of Louis Pasteur in Microbiology.
f) Lab. diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.
SECTION-C
3. Solve any two out of three : (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate organism causing G. I, tract infections. Describe
morphology, pathogenecity and lab. diagnosis of Esch. Coli.
b) Give an account of the genetic mechanisms in antibiotic
resistance with specific examples.
c) Enumerate organisms causing sexually transmitted infections.
Describe morphology, pathogenecity and lab. diagnosis of T.
palladium.

W IN T E R -2 0 1 2

Total Duration : Section A+B+C=2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32

SECTION-B "
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of s ix): (5x4=20)
a) Differentiating features of classical and Eltor vibrios
b) Robert Koch and his contribution to Microbiology.
c) Bacterial growth curve. . *
d) Enterotoxigenic E. coli.
e) Pneumococcal vaccine.
f) Nagler’s reaction.
SECTION-C
3. Solve any two out of three: (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate organism causing urinary tract infection.
Describe lab. diagnosis of UTI.
b) Mention organisms causing meningitis and describe lab.
diagnosis of Pyogenic meningitis.
n
l2 3 ir
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
c) Describe the structure and function of bacterial cell wall.

SUMMER -2 0 1 3
i£j
Total Duration : Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32
Section-B
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) What are X and V factors ? Describe satellitism with a diagram.
b) Differentiate Chlamydia from viruses. Enumerate the serotypes
of chlamydiae and mention infections caused by them.
c) Describe gaseous disinfectants with their uses.
d) Differentiate between Streptococcus pneumoniae and
Streptococcus viridans.
e)— Describe bacterial capsule Name two capsulated bacteria.*
Mention two melliuds uf detection of uipsulu.
f) Describe pathogenesis of gas gangrene. What is Nagler’s reaction ?
SECTION-C
Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate four bacteria causing lower respiratory tract infection.
Describe morphology and cultural characteristies of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis. Describe laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis.
b) Define the terms sterilisation and disinfection. Enumerate the
methods of moist heat sterilisation. Describe the principle of
autoclave with a diagram. Mention four items sterilised in the
autoclave.
c) Enumerate four bacteria causing fever of unknown origin (FUO).
Describe laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever in a 24-year old
man complaining of fever for ten days duration abdominal discomfort.

WINTER-2013
Egge- -em '
Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32
SECTION-B (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Define mutation. Enumerate at least six differences between
mutational and transferable drug resistane.
b) Describe pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Leptospirosis.
c) Describe the non-suppurative complications of Streptococcus
pyogenes infection.
• d) Describe the pathogenesis of Gas gangrene.
e) Write a short note on Robert Koch.
f) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
M
I232I
M
r. : I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Describe; the pathogenesis and Laboratory diagnosis of Enteric fever.
f b) Enumerate bacteria causing lower respiratory tract infection.
Describe the laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis with
special reference to recent advances.
c) Define sterilization and disinfection. Enumerate different methods of
sterilization and disinfection. Describe the principle and applications of autocalve.

** S U M M E R -201
£1
Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 2 Hours . Section B & C Marks : 32
SECTION-B (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of s ix): (5x4=20)
a) Bacterial Spore.
b) Tabulate the differences between Exotoxins and Endotoxins.
c) Classify culture media. Write about selective media.
d) Laboratory diagnosis of cholera.
e) Non supprative complications of Strepto pyogenes infection.-
f) Serological diagnosis of syphilis.
SECTION-C (12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out three): (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate the various methods of gene transfer in bacteria. Write
any one of them in detail.
b) . Enumerate the organisms causing meningitis. Write in detail about
the laboratory diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis.
c) Enumerate organisms causing sore throat. Describe in detail the
laboratory diagnosis of Diphtheria.

W IN T E R 2014

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B & SECTION - C
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
2. Short answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) What is enrichment medium ? Enumerate two examples.
b) Mention four differences between Mutational drug resistance and
transferable drug resistance.
c) Define hospital associated infection. Mention two organism that can
cause Hospital associated infection.
d) Enumerate four methods with their principles for detection of
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
e) Mention four contributions of Robert Koch.
f) Mention four differences between exotoxins and endotoxins.
^2331
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Discuss pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Vibro cholera.
b) Define sterilization. Mention two methods of dry heat sterilisation with
their principles.
c)

S U M M E R 2015

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B & SECTION - C
SECTION-B (SAQ) © ;
(20 Marks)
2.__Brief answer question (anv five out of six): (5x4=20) m
a) List the differences between Classical vibrios and El Tor vibrios.

m m
b) Contributions of Louis Pasteur to microbiology.
c ) „ Conjugation.
d) Toxigenicity tests of Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
e) Classify culture media with examples. Describe enriched media. m
f) Immunoprophylaxis of tetanus.
*
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate organisms causing urinary tract infection. Discuss the
laboratory diagnosis of urinary tract infection.
b) Enumerate organism causing sexually transmitted diseases. Discuss
the laboratory diagnosis of syphilis.
c) Define sterilization. How does it differ from disinfection ? Describe in
detail various methods of sterilization by dry heat.
m i
W IN T E R 2015

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section! B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B & SECTION - C
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Name 4 classes of chemical agents used for disinfection. Describe the
properties of an ideal disinfectant.
b) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of pyogenic meningitis.
c) Discuss pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of Shigella dysentery.
d) Write on transduction.
e) Write the aetiopathogenesis of gas gangrene.
M
I234I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
f) Write on metachromatic granules.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify Chlamydiae. Write the pathogenesis, complications and
laboratory diagnosis of Chlamydial infection.
b) Classify enterobacteriacae. Explain in detail the laboratory diagnosis
of enteric fever.
c) Classify Non-Tuberculous Mycobacteria (NTM) with examples. Write
on Buruli's ulcer.

SUMMER 2016
gnj
Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32
SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Give four differences between Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes.
b) Name four diseases produced by Staphylococcus aureus. Describe
in brief Staphylococcal food poisoning.
c) Name four diseases caused by Chlamydia Trachomatis. Describe in
brief laboratory diagnosis of any one of them.
d) Describe in brief pathogenesis of gas gangrene.
e) List organisms that cause pyrexia of unknown origin (PUO). Write on
diagnosis of enteric fever in 1st week of infection.
f) Write a short note on determinants of bacterial virulence.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out three): (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate different Spirochetes and diseases caused by them.
Describe the laboratory diagnosis of primary stage syphilis.
b) Enumerate organisms causing urinary tract infections. Define significant
bacteriuria and give the laboratory diagnosis of UTU
c) Name causative agents for acute bacterial meningitis. Describe the
laboratorydiagnosis of pyogenic meningitis.

^ W IN T E R 201 e j j j

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Enumerate different types of microscopes and write in detail about dark
ground microscope.
I235I
M-
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
b) Bacterial growth curve.
c) Discuss Nongonocbccal Urethritis [NGU].
d) Laboratory diagnosis of Staphylococcal wound infection.
e) Discuss pathogenicity of diphtheria.
f) Gardner and Venkataraman’s classification of Vibrio.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out three) (2x6=12)
a) Define Pyrexia of Unknown Orgin (PUO). Enumerate etiological agent
of infections of PUO. Add a note on approach to the diagnosis of PUO
due to infectious causes.
b) Enumerate bacteria causing pyogenic meningitis. Describe the
laboratory diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis.
c) Enumerate organisms causing Urinary Tract Infection [UTI]. Add a note
^Hah^rat^ry tiiagnr>gig nf i JTI ------ZZZZ~

SUMMER 2017 1
gl \
Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32
SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Mention four contributions of Robert Koch in Microbiology. Discuss
Koch’s postulates. '
b) Mention four differences between mutational and plasmid mediated
drug resistance.
c) Discuss non suppurative sequelae of Streptococcus pyogenes
infection.
d) Discuss pathogenicity and prevention of Clostridium botulinum
infection.
e) Discuss br iefly the laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever.
f) Enumerate various categories of biomedical wastes and their method
ofdisposal.
SECTION-C "
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out three): (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate four bacterial causes of lower respiratory tract infection.
Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis,
b) Define sterilization and disinfection. Enumerate the various methods
of dry heat sterilization. Discuss the role of hot air oven in sterilization.
c) Give the classification of Spirochetes and discuss the treponemal tests
for diagnosis of syphilis.
i (4 i 'l i 'i A J 'i A i 'i

>36
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd Edition b y Unique Publication

WINTER - 2000

SECTION - B & SECTION - C

Instructions:
1) A ll questions are compulsory.
2) The number to the rig h t indicates full marks.
3) Draw diagrams w h erever necessary.
4) Do n o t write anythingon the blank portion o f the question paper, written
anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair
means. '
SECTION-B
1. Answer any six 12 Marks
a) Define Mycetoma. Name two fungi which cause Mycetoma.
b) List four differences between T and B ceils.
c) Enumerate four methods of detecting viral growth in cell cultures.
d) Draw a labelled diagram of the egg of Taenia solium.
Mention its definitive and intermedate hosts.
e) Enumerate four parasites that can be demonstrated in the
periferal blood smear of man.
f) Define arboviruses. Name two arboviruses prevalent in India.
g) Define prozone phenomenon. Mention its significance in
clinical diagnostic microbiology.
SECTION-C
2. Answer any. two 14 Marks
a) Enlist the cestodes. Describe the pathogenicity and lab.
diagnosis of Echinococcus granulosus.
b) Enumerate the fungi causing superficial mycoses.
Describe the lab. diagnosis of dermatophytosis.
c) Enumerate the viruses causing hepatitis. v
Describe the lab. diagnosis of Hepatitis B virus infection.

SUMMER - 2001

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Enumerate any four Antirabies vaccines.
b) Draw a labelled diagram of representing human
immunodeficiency virus.
c) List four conditions caused by candids albicans.
M
I237I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
d) Explain the term ‘Heterophile Antigen’.
Name anyone serological test based on it.
e) Give four differences between Active and Passive immunity.
f) Draw a labelled diagram of the cyst of Entamoeba histolyica
name of the organism causing primary amoebic
meningoencephalitis.
g) Menton four clinical manifestations of filariasis.
SECTION-C
2. Answer any t w o 14 Marks
a) Enlist the malarial parasites. Describe the morphology,
pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis of plasmodium falciparum.
b) Enumerate the fungi causing subcutaneous mycosis and
mycetoma. Describe the lab. diagnosis of mycetoma.
c^ Define retrovirus. Describe the lab, diagnosis of human
immunodeficiencyvirtisTnfectiort7^^^^-= = -----------

W INTER - 2001

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Classify Herpes viruses and enumerate one infection
produced by each one of them.
b) What are Dane particles ? Enumerate the serological
markers that will assist dianosis in the acute phase of
Hepatitis B virus infection.
c) Mention the definitive and intermediate host of Wucheraria
bancrofti. Enumerate 4 complications following infection with
this parasite.
d) Give four differentiating features between T. Saginata and
T. Solium.
e) What is anaphylaxis ? Name 2 mediators of anaphylaxis.
f) Draw a labelled diagram of IgG.
g) Enumerate fungi causing superficial mycosis. Nam§ 2
predisposing conditions for superficial fungal infections.
SECTION-C
2. Answer any t w o 14 Marks
a) What are Serological reactions ? Describe the mechanism
of precipitation reaction and its application in the diagnosis
of infectious diseases.
b) What is street virus ? Describe the pathogenesis and lab.
diagnosis of rabies virus infection.
c) Enumerate intestinal nematodes. Describe the mode of
infection, pathogenesis and lab. diagnosis of hookworm infestation.

I238I
*4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication

SUM MER - 2002

SECTION-B
1. Answer any s ix :- 12 Marks
a) Classify immunity. Give 2 examples of active immunity.
b) Define antibodies. Give 2 important properties of IgA.
c) Give morphological classification .of fungi giving one
example of each.
d) What are retroviruses ? Give 2 examples.
e) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of the protozoan parasite
which cause leucorrhoea.
f) Enumerate 2 differences between Taenia saginata and
Taenia solium. Explain why it is necessary to differentiate them.
g) Enumerate 2 cytopatic effects of virus growth on cell lines
giving suitable examples.
SECTION-C
2. Answer any t w o . 14 Marks
a) Discuss in brief the pathogenesis, antemortem diagnosis
and immunoprophylaxis of rabies.
b) Describe the mechanism and mediators of Tyep I
Hypersensitivity reactions.
c) Name the protozoa found in stool specimens.
Give an account of the lab. diagnosis of intestinal amoebiasis.

1. 12 Marks
a) Enumerate 4 fungi causing madura foot.
b) Enumerate different types of host.
c) Draw well labelled diagram of W:bancrofti.
d) Name four viruses causing gastroenteritis.
e) Lesions produced by Herpes simplex virus.
f) Enumerate four determinants of antigenicity.
g) Enumerate four differences between T and B cells.
SECTION-C
2. Answer any two 14 Marks
a) Describe morphology, life cycle, pathogenicity and lab.
diagnosis of plasmodium vivax.
b) Describe morphological classification of fungi giving one
example of each class.
c) Describe general properties and lab. dignosis of viruses.

►4
[2Z9l
 M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication

a*
'<3
SUMMER - 2003

SECTION-B
Answer any s i x 12 Marks
a) Draw well labelled diagram of Giardia lamblia.
b) Enumerate four different parasites found in peripheral blood smear.
c) Mention different genera of dermatophytes.
Enumerate one dermatophyte species of each genera.
d) Enumerate classes of immunoglobulins.
Draw a labelled figure of secretary IgA.
e) Mention types of interferons.
Mention anv four properties of interferon.

Descrbe immunization against polio,

g) Write about classification inclusion bodies with one example
of each class.
SECTION-C
Answer any t w o . 14 Marks
a) Describe morphology, life cycle, pathogenicity and
lab. diagnosis of Echinococcus granulosus.
b) Enumerate hepatitis viruses.
Describe lab. diagnosis and prophylaxis of Hepatitis ‘B’.
c) Define the term auto immunity. Describe mechanisms of auto
immunity; Write about classification of autoimmune diseases
with examples.

W INTER - 2003

SECTION-B
Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Define onchogenic viruses.
Enumerate two DNA and two RNA onchogenic viruses.
b) Enumerate four haemorrhagic fever producing viruses.
c) Rhinosporidiosis.
d) Enumerate opportunistic fungal infections in AIDS.
e) Enumerate four intestinal nematodes and draw diagram of
ovum of one of them.
f) Enumerate four cestodes.
g) Enumerate four viral vaccines in use.
Describe immunization against polio.
SECTION-C

t
[240]
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
2. Answer any two :- 14 Marks
a) Describe morphology, life cycle, pathogenicity and
lab. diagnosis ofAscaris lumbricoides.
b) Define and classify hypersensitivity.
Describe type anaphylactic hypersensitivity.
c) Describe virology, pathogenesis and lab. diagnosis of polio.

'm SUMMER - 2004

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Draw and label the diagrams of Entamoeba histolytica and
Entamoeba coli trophozoites showing differences between
the two.
b) Describe any four determinants of antigenicity.
c) Classify autoimmune diseases with one example each.
d) Enumerate stages of viral replication.
e) Mention serological markers of Hepatitis B virus.
Which of these are present in super carrier ?
f) Mention four characteristics features of arboviruses.
Mention four encephalitis causing members of the groups.
g) What are dermatophytes ? Name the dermatophytes and
one disease caused by each.
SECTION-C
2. Answer any t w o 14 Marks
a) Give classification, causative organisms, pathogenesis and
’ lab. diagnosis of mycetoma.
b) Classify nematodes. Describe life cycle, pathogenicity and
lab. diagnosis of Wuchereria bancrofti.
c) Classify Hepatitis viruses. Describe clinical features, lab.
diagnosis and prophylaxis for infection caused by Hepatitis-A virus.

W INTER - 2004
*5=

SECTION-B
1. Answer any s i x 12 Marks
a) Classify type I hypersensitivity. Name the immunoglobulin
and the most important mediator.
b) Enumerate the stages of viral replication.
c) Mention serological markers of Hepatitis B virus.
Which of these are present in super carriers ?
d) What are dermatophytes?
Name the dermatophytes and one disease caused by each.
e) Classify autoimmune diseases with one example evach.
M
>11
2 * M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd Edition b y Unique Publication
02!
f) Describe any four detenninants of antigenicity.
g) Draw a labelled diagram of Hydatid cyst.
SECTION-C
Answer any t w o 14 Marks
a) Broadly classify nematodes. Describe the life cycle, .
pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis of Ankylostoma duocdenale.
b) Write classification, causative organisms, patogenesis and
lab. diagnosis of myceloma.
c) Classify Hepatitis viruses. Describe clinical features, lab.
diagnosis and prophylaxis for infection caused by Hepatitis A virus.

W IN T E R - 2005

SECTION-B
1.— Answer any six :• 12 Marks
“a) Define following term s: =
Opsonization, hepten, epitone and hybridoma.
b) Enumerate four predisposing conditions for opportunistic
fungal infection.
c) Draw and label a structure of Human Immunodeficiency virus.
d) Classify immunity giving one example each.
e) List four virual diseases that may manifest in skin rash.
f) Compare the features of immediate and delayed
g) Write briefly on procedure on procedure
and interpretation of Casoni’s test.
SECTION-C
Answer any t w o 14 Maries
a) Describe morphology and life cycle of Leishmania donovani.
Briefly outline the lab. diagnosis of Kala-azar.
b) Describe structure, properties and functions of Ig M.
c) Outline the lab. diagnosis of viral infections.

S U M M E R - 2006

SECTION-B
1. Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Name the parasitic infections where man is the intermediate J
host and mention the names of their definitive hosts. 7\
/
b) Define Bacteriophage.
Draw a morphological figure with significance of phage.
c) Mentio the W.H.O. Universal Schedule of Immunisation (U.J.P.).
d) What is the principle of string test? Give two uses.
e) Write about morphological classification of fungi giving one
example of each class.
M
X
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rd E dition by Unique Publicati On
f) Mention classes and compare four important properties of
Immunoglobulins.
g) Name the lab. tests used to detect HIV infection.
SECTION-C
Answer any t w o 14 Marks
a) Enlist tissue nematodes. Describe the life-cycle, pathogenesis,
lab. diagnosis and complications of Dracanculus Medinensis. .
b) Classify Herpes viruses. Enumerate the lesions caused by
HSVI & II. Outline the lab. diagnosis of Herpes-virus infection.
c) Enlist opportunistic fungi. Discuss the pathogenesis and
lab. diagnosis of infection caused by Candida albicans.
a
W IN T E R -2 0 0 6 m
4 ?
SECTION-B
Answer any s i x 12 Marks
a) Defne cytokines. Mention two cytokines with their function.
b) What are interferons ? Write two properties of interferons.
c) Classify fungi morphologically giving example of each.
d) Draw a labelled diagram of Bacteriophage.
e) Enumerate four live attenuated viral vaccines.
f) What are different types of concentration methods for parasites ?
g) Write four differences between T & B cells.
SECTION-C
Answer any tw o:- 14 Marks
a) Describe morphology, life cycle, pathogenesis and
lab. diagnosis of entamoeba histolytica.
b) Write different methods of cultivation of viruses.
Give example of viruses growing In each method.
c) Define hypersensitivity. Classify with pathogenesis.
Write about type III hypersensitivity.

S U M M E R - 2007 m
$
SECTION-B
Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Aetiological agents of Mycetoma and its lab. diagnosis.
b) ELISA test and its application.
c) Complement deficiency diseases.
d) Type II Hypersensitivity reaction-with two examples.
e) Dengue haemorrhagic fever with lab. diagnosis.
f) Concentration method of stool for parasites identification.
g) Draw well labelled diagram of influenza virus.
SECTION-C
I243I
►4
 I

2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
r\
2. Answer any two:- - 14 Marks
a) Mention the viruses causing hepatitis. Write the morphology,
pathogenesis and lab. diagnosis of hepatitis B virus infection.
b) Write the morphological classification of fungi with examples
and mention the lesions produced by Candida albicans and
lab. diagnosis of candidal infection.
c) Mention the parasites of class cestodes. Describe the
morphology, pathogenesis, life cycle of Echinococcus
granulosus and lab. diagnosis of Echinococcus infection.

W INTER - 2007 m

SECTION-B
Answer any s i x 12 Marks
a) Tabulate important differences between active and passive immunity.
b) Describe any four determinanats of antigenicity.
c) Rhino sporidiosis.
d) Classify autoimmune diseases with one example each.
e) Enumerate the stages of viral replication.
f) Draw a well labelled diagram of Hydatid cyst.
g) Name four parasites with skin as their portal of entry.
SECTION-C
Answer any two 14 Marks
a) Define Dermatophytes and give the lab. diagnosis of
. Dermatophytosis.
b) Classify Enteroviruses - Give the pathogenesis and
prophylaxis of poliomyelitis.
c) Enumerate any four tissues nematodes. Describe morphology,
pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis of infection caused by
Wuehereria bancrofti.

WINTER - 2008

SECTION-B V
1. Answer any five:- 20 Marks
a) Passive agglutination tests.
b) Tests for detection of Cell Mediated Immunity (CMI).
c) Ectopic ascariasis.
d) Epstein-Barr virus.
e) Enumerate organisms causing hospital acquired infections.
Describe the measures for prevention of hospital acquired
infections in a ward setting.
f) Aspergillosis in humans.
SECTION-C
M
> 4 l
►1
 f 2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication

T Answer any two:- 14 Marks

a) Enumerate the cestodes affecting man. Describe morphology,
/ life cycle, pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis of Taenia solium.
b) Enumerate organisms causing STDs.
Describe the lab. diagnosis of HIV infection.
c) Enumerate the general features of antigen-antibody reactions.
Describe two tube-agglutination reactions used in clinical
acquired infections.

SUM MER - 2009

SECTION-B
Answer any five 20 Marks
a) Briefly describe the functions of Ig G, Ig M, Ig A and Ig E.
b) Define Coombs test.
Briefly describe the principle and utility of indirect Coombs test.
c) Define MHC. Briefly describe the method to detect Class I
histocompatibility antigens.
d) Define Bacterophase and briefly write on their importance.
e) Give the clinical classification of fungi with one example of each.
f) Briefly describe the lab. diagnosis of hydatid disease.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
Attempt any two :- (2x6=12)
a) Define and classify immunity.
Describe acquired immunity with examples.
b) Enumerate the various species of amoeba commonly found in
humans. Describe briefly the life cycle and lab. diagnosis of
amoebiasis due to E.histolytica.
c) Define and classify retroviridae. Describe the pathogenesis
and lab. diagnosis of HIV infection. '

W IN T E R -2 0 0 9

SECTION-B
Answer any five 20 Marks
a) Give morphological classification of fungi giving one example of each.
b) Draw a well-labelled diagram of secretory IgA immunoglobin.
c) Mention four differences between mutational and transferable
drug resistance.
d) Mention four features of autoimmune diseases.
e) Mention four oncogenic viruses.
f) Mention four differences between Taenia Saginata & Taenia Solium.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
Attempt any two:- (2x6=12)
M
> 5 l
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Describe morphology, life cycle and lab. diagnosis of
Plasmodium vivax.
b) Define hypersensitivity.'Classify with brief pathogenesis.
Write about type IV hypersensitivity.
c) Classify Herpes viruses. Enumerate lesions caused by
Herpes simplex virus. Outline lab. diagnosis of Herpes simpelx
virus infection.

SUMMER -2010

SECTION-B
1. Answer any five:- 20 Marks
a) Define agglutination reaction and discuss its principle and
^^ppliratiomDHube-aggltittnati^
by Enumerate the causative
describe lab. diagnosis o Eumycetoma.
c) Classify phylum apicomplexa.
Describe the lab. diagnosis of falciparum malaria.
d) Enumerate the various methods for cultivation of viruses.
Describe briefly the uses of embryonated hen’s egg in virology.
e) Define hypersensitivity and briefly describe anaphylaxis.
f) Enlist fungi causing opportunistic infection in HIV infected individual.
Briefly describe lab. diagnosis of Cardia albicans.
SECTION-C
Answer any t w o 14 Marks
a) Describe the morphology, lab. diagnosis and prophylaxis of
hepatitis B virus infection. <
b) Enlist intestinal nematodes. Describe morphology, life cycle,
pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoides.
c) Define antibody Name various classes and sub classes of
immunoglobulins. Describe the structure and functions of IgG.

m WINTER-2010
%
SECTION-B
1. Answer any five:- 20 Marks
a) Mention in brief the lab. diagnosis and findings in a case of
acute Giardiasis.
b) Classify fungi giving at least one example each.
c) List four parasites causing anemia. Mention life cycle of
Ancylostoma duodenale with diagrams wherever necessary.
d) Write on methods of cultivation of viruses.
e) Describe the structure and function of IgG.
f) Write a note on Inclusion bodies.
M
>61
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Answer on any two:- (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate hepatitis viruses and their modes of transmission.
Describe the lab. diagnosis of hepatitis B infection.
b) Describe life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides. Mention
complications caused by it and write on lab. diagnosis of Ascariasis.
c) What is dermatophytosis. Mention various clinical types and
lab. diagnosis in dermatophytosis.

SUMMER- 2011
2 Hours ■■ ........... ' —..... 32 Marks
SEQTION-B
1. Answer any five questions. 20 Marks
a) Describe antigenic variations in type A influenza virus and
mention its importance.
b) Describe lab diagnosis of dermatophytosis.
c) Write on Rabies Immunoprophylaxis.
d) Mention properties and functions of IgM.
e) Enumerate four different parasites found in peripheral blood
smear. Draw a labelled diagram of microfilariae of W. bancrofti.
f) Write on lab. diagnosis of meningitis due to cryptococcus neoformans.
SECTION-C
3. Attempt any two out of three : Long answer questions only. (2x6=12)
a) Mention types and causative agents of mycetoma. Mention
mode of infection and progress of mycetoma. Describe lab.,
diagnosis of mycetoma with respect to microscopy and culture.
b) Classify nematodes. Describe morphology, life cycle,
pathogenicity and lab. diagnosis of Ascaris lumbrocoides in festation.
c) Define retrovirus. Describe the lab. diagnosis of human
immunodeficiency virus infection.

WINTER ^2011 ma
Total Duration: Section A+B+G= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32
SECTION-B
Brief answer questions: (5x4=20)
2. Attempt any five out of six:
a) Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection.
b) Describe hydatid cyst.
c) Describe laboratory diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis.
d) Mention mertis and demerits of the use of live versus killed vaccines.
e) Write a note on falciparum malaria complications.
f) Opportunistic fungal infections.
SECTION-C
M
> 7 l
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. B ook with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
Long answer questions (LAQ): (2x6=12)
3. Attempt any two out of three: ~
a) Classify antigen-antibody reactions. Describe the different
precipitation reactions-with on example each.
b) Name the parasites that can be detected in blood smear. Describe
the life cycle and laboratory diagnosis in a case of visceral
leishmaniasis.
c) Discribe influenza viruses with reference to morphology,
classification and angenic variation.

& £ SUMMER

Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B

a) Describe morphology of Entamoeba histolytica and laboratory

diagnosis of amoebic dysentery.
b) Give an account of enzyme linked immunosorbent assays with
applications.
c) Enumerate infections caused by cryptococcus neoformans and
write a note on laboratory diagnosis of cryptococcosis.
d) Describe the pathogenesis of HIV disease and mention two
common opportunistic infections in AIDS.
e) Describe passive type of immunity with suitable examples.
f) Describe type four hypersensitivity.
SECTION-C
3. LAQs : Solve any two out of three :- (2x6=12)
a) Describe the life cycle of plasmodium falciparum in man and the
vector. Describe the complications of the disease.
b) Enumerate the arboviral diseases in India and given an account of
Dengue fever.
c) Give an account of aspergillosis with its laboratory diagnosis.

W IN T E R -2012

Total Duration: Section A+B+C=2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Describe morphology and outline laboratory diagnosis of
Wuchereria bancrofti.
b) Givean account of enzyme linked immunosorbent assays with
applications.
c) Describe the pathogenesis of HIV and mention two opportunistic
M
I248I
*4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
infections in AIDS.
d) W rite briefly about Candida albicans.
e) W hat are the different methods of observing growth on cell lines ?
f) Enumerate and define agglutination reactions.
Describe the W idal test.
SECTION-C
3. Solve any two out of th re e :
a) Describe the life cycle pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of
hookworm. .
b) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis B.
c) Give an account of aspergillosis with its laboratory diagnosis.

SUMMER -2 0 1 3

Total Duration : Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32

SECTION-B
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of s ix ): (5x4=20)
a) Describe the mechanisms of innate immunity.
b) W hat are the merits and demerits of Salk’s and Sabina’s vaccines ?
c) Classify Herpesviridae. Mention the viruses included in the
, subfamilies and one infection caused by each.
d) Mention the complications of Plasmodium falciparum infections.
e) Briefly describe the structure of IgM antibody.
f) Inclusion bodies of viruses.
SECTION-C
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of th re e ): (2x6=12)
a) Describe the morphology and antigenic variations of influenza
viruses. Discuss the pathogenesis of influenza.
b) Define autoimmunity. Write in detail the various mechanisms of
autoimmunity.
c) Describe the life cycle of Leishmania donovani. Describe the
pathogenicity and laboratory diagnosis of kala azar.(visceral
leishmaniasis).
*8
a
| |h WINTER-2013 m

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out Of s ix ): (5x4=20)
'• a) Briefly describe Immunoprophylaxis against rabies.
b) Briefly describe the laboratory diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis.
c) Define and classify antibodies. Describe the structure and properties
of IgM.
d) Inclusion bodies.
M
I249I
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
e) Classify dermatophytes. Give the laboratory diagnosis of
dermatophytosis.
f) Enumerate differences between Taenia sodium and Taenia saginata.
Explain why it is necessary to differentiate them ?
SECTION-C (12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate the intestinal nematodes. Describe the morphology, life
cycle, pathogenicity & laboratory diagnosis Ancylostoma duodenale.
b) Classify hypersensitivity reactions. Describe Type I hypersensitivity
reactions,
c) Discuss the pathogenicity, immunprophylaxis & laboratory diagnosis

SECTION-B (20 Marks)

2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Describe antigenic variations in Type-A influenza virus and mention
its significance.
b) Describe.laboratory diagnosis of Dermatophytosis.
c) Mention properties and functions of IgM.
d) . Describe laboratory diagnosis of Malaria.
e) Mention the difference between agglutination and precipitation. Give
two examples of each test.
f) Draw a cross section of an embryonated hens egg and label the
routes of inoculation in cultivation of viruses with one example for
each route.
SECTION-C (12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) 1) Define the term “Hypersensitivity”.
2) Describe three types of immediate hypersensitivity reactions with
appropriate example for each type.
b) 1) Enumerate Intestinal nematodes. ^
2) Describe life cycle, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of
infection caused by hookworms.
c) Describe the morphology of Hepatitis B virus and laboratory
diagnosis of infection caused by it. Enumerate the serological
markers of HBV infection and their interpretation.

Total Duration: Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

M
M
 dM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs
2n H iTi E dition by U nique Publication
SECTION - B & SECTION - C
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
2. Short answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Define the following terms
i) Carrier ii) Contact carrier
iii) Paradoxical carrier iv) Convalescent carrier.
b) Define hypersensitivity. Describe in type IV hypersensitivity.
c) Mention four differences between Taenia saginata and Taenia solium.
W rite in brief on tissue cyst caused by Taenia solium.
d) Discuss occult filariasis.
e) Mention two intracytoplasmic and two intranuclear inclusion bodies.
f) Draw a heat labeled diagram of Influenza virus and Human
Immunodeficiency Virus (H IV )

SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define Antigen Antibody reactions. Discuss types of agglutination
reaction with examples.
b) Classify fungi based on morphology with example. Discuss laboratory
diagnosis of dermatophytes.
c) Discuss Pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B virus.

SUMMER 2015

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B & SECTION - C
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Describe briefly Type III hypersensitivity reaction.
b) Describe briefly the laboratory diagnosis of cryptocqccal meningitis
c) Non neural vaccines for rabies and their schedule.
d) Detection of virus growth in tissue culture.
e) Stool concentration methods.
f) The complement cascade and its biological effects.

SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Describe morphology, life cycle, pathogenesis and laboratory
diagnosis of Ascaris lumbricoids.
b) Classify Human Herpes viruses. Describe clinical features and
M
I2 5 1 I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
laboratory diagnosis of infections caused by Varicella- Zoster,
c) Describe morphology, clinical presentation, pathogenesis and
laboratory diagnosis of Dermatophytes.

WINTER 2015

Total Duration : Section A + B + C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION -B & SEC TIO N -C
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Draw a labeled diagram of any immunoglobulin. Enumerate the
properties of IgM.
b) Write brief on inclusion bodies.
c) Classify medically important fungi. Describe Reynolds Braudes-----
phenomenon^
d) Classify hypersensitivity reactions. Describe Type III hypersensitivity. ■v* ;
e) Describe the immunoprophylaxis for Rabies. Add a note on the dosage
-1'
schedule.
f) Life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus. ^ ,
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Briefly describe the immunological mechanisms that lead to
autoimmune disorders.
b) Classify hepatitis viruses. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of HBV
infection. m
c) Classify cestodes. Describe the pathogenesis of cysticerosis.

SUMMER 2016 0%

m’4
Total Duration: Section.A+B+C = 2 Hours Sectidn B & C Marks: 32
SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Briefly discuss immunoprophylaxis of Rabies.
b) L.D. Bodies.
c) Write a note on laboratory diagnosis of Dengue fever.
d) Aspergillosis in human.
e) Write a short note on life cycle of guinea worm .
f) Mention various tests for detection of cell mediated immunity.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
M
12521
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by Unique Publication
a) Classify nematodes. Describe morphology, life cycle, pathogenicity
along with complications and laboratory diagnosis of Ascaris
lumbricoides.
b) Give morphological classification of fungi giving one example of each.
Classify Dermatophytes and discuss pathogenicity and laboratory
diagnosis of Dermatophytosis.
c) Enumerate the organisms causing sexually transmitted diseases.
Discuss the etiology, pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of Human
Immunodeficiency Virus (H IV) infection.

W INTER 2016

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Immunoglobulin G
b) Strongyloides stercoralis hyperinfection.
c) Classical pathway of complement.
d) Stages of viral multiplication.
e) Briefly describe the laboratory diagnosis of Hepatitis B.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Describe life cycle, pathogenecity and laboratory diagnosis of
Enterobius vermicularis,
b) Enumerate four fungi causing opportunistic fungal infections. Write the
laboratory diagnosis of candidiasis.
c) Enumerate the types of antigen-antibody reactions. Describe the
principle and applications of precipitation reaction.

SUMMER 2017

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Write methods of detecting viral growth in cell cultures.
b) Write a short note on Innate immunity.
c) Write short note on Candida albicans.
d) Write short note on Hydatid cyst.
e) Write short note on Negrie bodies.
f) Write short note on opportunistic mycoses.
SECTION-C
M
I253I
2 nd M . B . B . S . B o o k w i t h S o l v e d M U H S M C Q s I I I rd E d i t i o n fey U n iq u e P u b lic a tio n

(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Name the various intestinal nematodes. Describe life cycle and
laboratory diagnosis ofAscaris lumbricoides.
b) Name the various antigen-antibody reactions. What is prozone
phenomenon ? Describe the principle and application of agglutination
t. reactions.
c) Define window period. Write laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection and
draw diagram of HIV.

V V V V V V V V V V
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication

MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY
CHAPTERWISE DISTRIBUTION

Section 1
General Pharmacological Principles
L Introduction , Routes o f Drug Administration.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Insulin is not administered orally because (S-03)
a) It can cause severe nausea and vomiting
b) It is not absorbed from G.I.T.
c) It is destroyed by digestive enzymes in GIT.
d) It undergoes extensive first pass metabolism in the liver.
2. Glyceryl trinitrate is administered by all of the following routes
EXCEPT. (W-03)
a) Oral. b) Sublingual,
c) Intramuscular. d) Intravenous.
3. All the following drugs can be adminstered via transdermal delivery
system EXCEPT. (W-03)
a) Nitroglycerine. b) Dipyridamole,
c) Scopolamine. d)Clonidine.
4. Essential drug list contains. (S-09)
a) emergency drugs b) costly drugs
c) reserved drugs d) comm only used drugs
5. Drugs used for diagnosis, prevention or treatment of a rare condition
are called. (S-10)
a) essential drug b) orphan drug
c) spurious drugs d ) ‘P’ drug.
6. AH of the following drug available as transdermal adhesive patch
EXCEPT. (S-10)
a) nitroglycerine b) clonidine
c) scopolamine d) pentazocine
7. The purpose of administration of a drug in the form of transdermal
patch is (W-12)
a) to have local action b) for use in emergency
c) to maintain a constant drug level d) for immediate action
8. All of the following are local routes of drug administration EXCEPT
(S-13)
a) Topical b) Intra-articular c) Rectal d) Intra-thecal
9. All of the following drugs are available in the form of transdermal
12551
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
patch EXCEPT (S-14)
a) Scopolamine b) Fentanyl
c) Clonidine d) Neostigmine
10. The following statements about sublingual route of adminstration are
true ; Except. (W-16)
a) First pass metabolism is bypassed.
b) Medicament is spread over buccal mucosa.
c) Lipid insoluble drugs can be administred.
d) Suitable for emergency.
SAQ
1. Mention two advantages of new drug delivery system, giving suitable
examples.(S-04) /
2. Enumerate the merits and demerits of Intramuscular route of drug1 *
-administration. (8st2)— —
3. Write briefly about Transdermal route of drug administration. (S-12)
4. What are advantages and disadvantages of subcutaneous route of
drug administration? Give example of drugs given by this route.
(W-14)
5. Mention different routes of drug administration with one example of
drug for each route. (S-15)
6. State factors governing the choice of route of administration. Write
briefly about the transdermal therapeutic systems (TTS). (S-16)
7. Depot preparations. (S-82)
8. indication of intravenous therapy.(W-83)(S-87)
9. Merits and demerits of i.v. route. (W-87)
10. Drug delivery system. (W-96)(S-93)
LAQ
1. New drug delivery system.(W-99)
2. Mention 2 advantages & disadvantages of Intramuscular route of
administration.(W-OI)
3. Mention two advantages of new drug delivery system, giving suitable
examples.(S-04)
4. Four drugs which can be administered transdermal and mention four
advantages of transdermal route.(S-06)
5. Mention various routes of excretion of drugs with suitable examples.
Enumerate factors affecting renal excretion of drugs. Give clinical
significance of plasma half life of drugs.(S-07)
6. Mention different routes of drugs administration. Give one example *
of drug for each route. Give advantages of sublingual route. (S-11)
7. Describe various routes of drug administration giving their merits and
demerits with examples. (W-70,74)
M
^256^
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
8. Describe new drug delivery systems, giving appropriate examples, their
merits/demerits. (S-95,97)
2. Pharmacokinetics: Membrane Transport, Absorption
& Distribution o f Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Bioavialability of a drug is a measure of (W-03)
a) Rate and extent of absorption. b) Volume of distribution,
c) Steady state plasma concentration. d) Biological half life.
2. Redistributation is a feature of (W-04)
a) highly plasma protein bound drugs
b) repository preparations
c) highly water soluble drugs
d) highly lipid soluble drugs.
3. A weakly acidic drug is best absorbed in (W-10)
a) alkaline medium b) acidic medium
c) neutral medium d) any medium
4. A drug having extensive plasma protein binding is more likely to have
(W-13)
a) Rapid onset of action b) High rate of elimination
c) Low volume of distribution d) Less first pass metabolism
5. Which amongst the following biotransformation reactions is
classified as a Phase II reaction ? (W-13)
a) Oxidation b) Conjugation .
c) Reduction d) Hydrolysis
6. Which of the following is a prodrug ? (W-14)
a) Enalapril b) Clonidine
c) Salbutamo! d) Acetazolamide
7. Which of the following drugs is an example of a pro-drug ? (W-15)
a) Diltiazem b) Frusemide
c) L-dopa d) Heparin
SAQ
1. Protein binding of drugs.(S-99)(S-73,84)
2. Bioavailability.(W-78,81)
3. Pharmacokinetics.(W-78,75)
4. Plasma binding of drugs and its clinical significance. (S-96)
LAQ
1. Write in brief 4 different mechanism by which a drug may alter the
absorption of another drug giving suitable examples.(S-10)
2. Describe briefly bioavailability of drug. Mention different factors
affecting it.(S-01 )(W-98)
3. Describe the consequences when two or more drugs are administered

I257I
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
simultaneously.(S-70,80,82)(W-84)
4. Describe the factors influencing absorption and distribution of drugs in the
body with examples.(W-73,91 )(S-82) ' . •
5. Give an account of drug bioavailability. (W-82,85)
6. Enumerate factors modifying drug absorption from G.I .T. Define bioavailability
and its therapeutic importance with two suitable examples.(S-91 ,W96,91)
7. Discuss drug interaction with examples from use of two or more drugs in
body during
a. absorption.
b. distribution. ^
c. metabolism.
d. excretion in urine. (S-93)
3. Pharmacokinetics: Metabolism & Excretion of Drugs,
Kinetics o f Elimination. *%. . _____ __6 5
4
3
2
1
*
M n r t / u f iu e \ , _______________________ =
iwu m iviu n o j ------
1. A drug is said to follow zero order kinetics when. (S-03)
a) Half life (11/2) decreases with dose as clearance progressively
increases.
b) V I 2 increases with dose because clearance progressively
decreases.
c) t1/2 remains constant because clearance remains constant.
d) t1/2 increases because volume of distribution decreases.
2. Which of the following is a prodrug ? (S-03)
a) Phenytoin. b) Meperidine,
c) Prednisone. d) Phenobarbitone.
3. When the same dose of a drug is repeated at half life intervals, the
steady state plasma drug concentration is reached after. (W-03)
a) 2-3 half lives. b) 4-5 half lives,
c) 6-7 half lives. d) 8-10 half lives.
4. Which of the following drugs require therapeutic drug monitoring ?
(W-03)
a) Lithium. b) Paracetamol.
c) Bethanechol. d) Penicillin.
5. The frequency of administration of a drug depends mainly on its
(W-03)
a) Cost benefit ratio. b) Benefit risk ratio,
c) Plasma half life. d) All of the above.
6. Which of the following drug metabolizing reactions is entirely non
microsomal ? (W-04)
a) Glucoronide conjugation. b) acetylation,
c) oxidation d) reduction

>81
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
7. Half life of a drug is related to (S-09) ~ ” ”
a) dose of drug b) frequency of administration. ,
c) duration of treatment d) potency of a drug
8. All of the following are physical mode of drug actions EXCEPT. (S-09)
a) osmosis b) adsorption'
c) demulcent d) neutralization.
9. The loading dose of a drug is governed by its (S-09)
a) renal clearance b) plasma half life
c) volume of distribution d) elimination rate constant
10. Which of the following DOES NOT cause enzyme induction in man ?
(W-09)
a) enalapril b) phenobarbitone
c) phenytoin d) rifampicin
11. Loading dose of a drug depends on (W-10)
a) half life b) volume of distribution
c) rate of excretion d) route of administration.
12. Which of the following agent in inducer of liver enzyme system ? (W-11)
a) Cimetidine b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Phenobarbitone d) Quinidine
13. How many half liver are required for a drug to reach plateau level
in plasma ? (W-11)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 16
14. Which one of the following is a Cytochrome P-450 inhibitor ? (S-12)
a) Ketoconazoie b) Rifampicin
c) Phenytoin d) Isonicotinic acid Hydrazide
15. A prodrug is (S-12)
a) The prototype member of a class of drugs.
b) The oldest member of a class of drugs.
c) An inactive drug, that is transformed in the body to an
active metabolite- ;
d) A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually
released in the circulation.
16. After how many hours of administration will steady state
concentration be reached for a drug with 11/2 of 2 hours ? (W-12)
a) 8 b) 4 c) 20 d) 16
17. T h e purpose of adm inistration of a drug in the form of transderm al
patch is (W-12)
a ) to have local action b) for use in em ergency
c) to m aintain a constant drug level d) for immediate action
18. Loading does of a drug depends prim arily upon (W-14)
a) Volum e of Distribution b) C learance
M
I259I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
b) Rate of administration d) Half life
19. Which statement is true for first order kinetics of drug elimination ?
(W-14)
a) Rate of elimination is independent of drug concentration
b) A constant proportion of the drug present in the body is
eliminated per unit time
c) Half life increases with in drug concentration
d) Clearance decreases with increase in drug concentration
20. Name the drug which can induce its own metabolism (S-15)
a) Carbamazepine b) Diclofenac sodium
c) Diltiazem d) Aspirin
21. Loading does of drug is governed by its (S-15)
a) Volume of distribution b) Half life
— ------ c) Hepatic clearance---------------d)Elim ination rate-------------- — —— —
22. Microsomal enzyme induction can be useful in (S-15)
a) Acute intermittent porphyria
b) Congenital non-hemolytic jaundice
c) Chronic toxicity testing in animals
d) Tolerance
23. Which of the following drugs is an enzyme inhibitor ? (W-15)
a) Rifampicin b) Phenytoin
c) Carbamazepine d) Cimetidine
24. The frequency of administration of a drug mainly depends upon its.
(S-16)
a) Therapeutic index b) Cost benefit ratio
c) Biological half-life d) Bioavailability
25. All of the following are synthetic phase II reactions EXCEPT. (S-16)
a) Acetylation b) Methylation
c) Hydrolysis d) Glycine conjugation
26. Which of the following drug shows ‘Hoffmann elimination’ ? (S-16)
a) Pancuronium b) Vecuronium
c) Atracurium d) Rocuronium
SAQ
1. Pathways of biotransformation and factors affecting it.(W-99)(W-88)
2. First order versus zero order kinetics.(S-OO)
3. Prodrug.(S-01 )(W-95J
4. Biotransformation. Two chemical reactions of phase I and Phase II,
giving suitable e.g.(W-03)
5. Explain the term enzyme induction. List the implications of
microsomal enzyme induction giving suitable examples. (W-12)
6. Discuss in brief about enzyme induction by drugs giving suitable

>01
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with S olved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y U nique Publication
examples. (W-13)
7. Define plasma half-life of drug. Give its clinical significance with
suitable examples. (S-14)
8. Define the term therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) and give its
significance. List any four drugs having a narrow therapeutic index.
(W-15)
9. What is microsomal enzyme induction ? Discuss the clinical
consequence of enzyme induction with any two examples. (W-16)
10. Define prodrug and explain the advantages with examples. (S-17)
11. Pharmacokinetics.(W-75,78)
12. Factors modifying dose of drugs. (W-83)
13. Drugs excretion. (W-94)
14. First pass metabolism of drugs. (S-96)
15. Describe in brief: Factors modifying drug biotransformation. (S-98)
LAQ
1. Define biotransformation, what are the important pathway of
transformation of drugs in our body.(W-00)(W-84,87,92)
2. Describe the methods of prolonging the duration of action of drugs
with examples.(S-02,05)(S-75)
3. Describe the possible undersirable effects of prolonged drug
administration with examples.(W-01)(W-77)(S-83)
4. What is Biotransformation ? Give an account of reactions involved
with suitable examples. Enumerate factors affecting
Biotransformation. (W-11)
5. Give an account of biotransformation & factors influencing it with examples.
(S-74,78)(W-85)
6. Describe the mechanism of drug excretion and factors affecting them with
examples. (W-75)(S-87)
7. Define biotransformation, mention the drugs which inhibits microsomal
enzymes in the liver. (W-90)
8. Discuss briefly, giving examples of metabolism of drugs. (W-93)
9. Discuss drug interaction with examples from use of two or more drugs in
body during
a. absorption. b. distribution,
c. metabolism. d. excretion in urine. (S-93)
4. Pharmacodynamics: Mechanism o f Drug Action;
Receptor Pharmacology.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Therapeutic index is defined as (S-03)
a) Median effective dose
median lethal dose.
 I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
I
■2*.M.B:B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs
b) Effective dose !
lethal dose.
J
c) Letal dose
effective dose. I
d) Median lethal dose
median effective dose.
2. Ability of a drug to combine with a receptor is. (Sr03)
a) Affinity. b) Intrinsic activity.
c) Synergism. d) Antagonism.
3. A drug which activates a receptor to produce an effect in the
opposite direction to that of a well recognized agonist is called. (S-03)
a) Antagonist. b) Partial agonist. Tv
v
c) inverse agonist. d) Partial antagonist
Which of the following, represents an example of pharmacodynamic"
type of drug interaction ? (W-03)
a) Probenecid and penicillin G.
b) Cholestyramine and digoxin
c) Allopurinol and warfarin.
d) Adrenaline and aminophylline.
Receptor agonists possess. (W-04)
a) only affinity.
b) only intrinsic activity
c) neither affinity nor intrinsic activity.
d) both affinty and intrinsic activity.
Which of the following is an example of physiological antagonism ?
(W-04)
a) acid versus alkali
b) adrenaline versus histamine
c) acetylcholine versus atropine
d) adrenaline versus propranolol.
7. Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of (W-08)
a) potency b) affinity
c) safety d) effectiveness.
8 . The type of antagonism between Adrenaline and Histamine is (W-08)
a) physical b) chemical
c) pharmacological d) physiological
9. Therapeutic index gives information about (S-11)
a) Absorption b) Efficacy
c) Potency d) Safey of the drug
10. The type of antagonism between Adrenaline and Histamine is (W-11)
a) Physical b) Chemical

I 262I
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Receptor d) Physiological
11. Therapeutic Index of a drug is an indicator of (W-11)
a) Potency b) Safety c) Affinity d) Toxicity
12. Therapeutic index for a drug is the measure of (S-12)
a) Safety b) Potency c) Efficacy d) Toxicity
13. If the effect of combination of two drugs is equal to the sum of their
\ individual effects, the two drugs are exhibiting. (S-12)
a) Potentiation b) Additive effect
c) Cross tolerance d) Antagonism
14. For drugs with first order kinetics time required to achieve steady state
levels can be predicted from (S-13)
a) Volume of distribution b) Half life
c) Clearance d) Loading dose
15. Long and continuous exposure of receptors to an antagonist can lead
to their (W-13)
a) Desensitization b) Upregulation
c) Downregulation d) Degradation
16. Competitive type of drug antagonism is seen with (S-14)
a) Histamine - Norepinephrine b) Arsenic - BAL
c) Warfarin - Phenobarbitone d) Atropine - Acetylcholine
17. Inverse agonist is a drug which binds to the receptors to (W-15)
a) produce an effect similar to that of the physiological signal
molecule
b) produce an effect in the opposite direction to that of the
agonist
c) produce sub-maximal effect but antagonizes the action of full
agonist
d) prevent the action of agonist, but does not have any effect on its
own
18. Which of the following drugs is administered as a loading dose ? (W-15) .
a) Lidocaine b) Enalapril ^
c) Ferrous sulfate d) Vitamin B12
19. The drug that has full affinity and no intrinsic activity on a receptor is
called. (W-16)
a) Agonist b) Antagonist
c) Partial agonist d) Inverse agonist
20. Oral loading dose of a drug is dependent on the following clinical
pharmacokinetic Parameters ; EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) bioavailability b) volume of distribution
c) clearance d) target plama concentration
SAQ
n
I2 6 3 I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
1. Drug antagonism.{S-99)(W-74)(S-96)
2. Receptors.(S-00)(S-70)(W-94J
3. Down regulation of receptors with clinical significance.(W-03)
4. Enumerate four types of drug antagonism. Write one example for
each type with clinical application.(W-07)
f*
5. Describe the features of competitive antagonism citing suitable
examples. (W-10)
6. Define drug tolerance. Metion different types of tolerance, their
underlying mechanism quoting suitable examples. (W-11)
7. Write in brief about drug antagonism giving suitable examples. (W-14)
8. Substrate competition (W-71 )(S-74)
9. Drug action by substrate competition. (S-80)
10. Merits and demerits of drug combinations. (W-88)
----r w ^ i^ ftik briof- Dn ig ■'antagonism (S-Qfi)
LAQ
0
1. Describe the various sites where drugs can interact with each other.
Describe the consequences of this phenomenon citing suitable
example.(S-02)
2. Define competitive reversible antagonism. Explain one the
therapeutic indication based on its phenomenon.(S-02)
3. Explain with suitable examples how gastrointestinal diseases affect
drug action.(S-05)
4. Enumerate factors effecting drug action and describe the influence
of liver and kidney diseases on it.(S-06)
5. Define Receptors. Mention name of any six receptors on which drugs
act. Mention one agonist and one antagonist of each receptor. Describe
how these drugs are useful in the treatment of diseases. (W-07)
6. Classify drug interactions. Write a note on beneficial drug interactions
giving suitable examples. (W-10)
7. Describe the various types of drug antagonism with suitable examples.
(S-13)
8. Elaborate various mechanisms by which drugs produce their actions
in the body giving suitable examples. (S-14)
9. Describe the factors affect the drug action with clinical relevance.
(S-17)
10. Describe in brief the receptor concept of drug action. Enumerate receptors
affected by autonomic drugs, Give uses of drugs blocking any one of these
receptors. (S-71)
11. Describe the mechanism of drug action giving examples & factors
modifying drug action. (S-72,78)
12. Describe howform, time of administration and drug combination affect drug
action. (S-75)
M
> 4 l
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
13. Describe the terms antagonism and synergism giving examples. (W-77)
14. Describe host related factors affecting drug action.(W-82)(S-83,86)
5. Aspects o f Pharmacotherapy; Clinical Pharmacology
& Drug Development.
MCQ(MtlHS)
1. Phenomenon o f tachyphylaxis is seen with repeated doses of (S-03)
a) Epinephrine. b) Ephedrine.
c) Norepinephrine. d) Isoprenaline.
2. When the dose of a drug has to be increased during repeated
administration, in order to obtain the same response, the
phenomenon is known as. (W-04)
a) Cumulation. b) Tolerance,
c) Dependence. d) Habituation.
3. The cumulation of a drug usually occurs with drugs having. (W-04)
a) long half life b) short half life
c) first pass effect d) first dose effect
4. Young’s formula which is used to calculate the doses of drugs for
administration to children is as follows. (W-04)
a) Weight in pounds
---------------------x Adult dose.
150
b) Age in years
------------x Adult dose.
Age +12

c) BSA in M2 of child
— -------- ------- x Adult dos6.
1.7
d) Weight in kg
— ------ -------x Adult dose.
70 ^
5. Reasons for reducing drug dosage in elderly include all EXCEPT
(S-13)
a) decline in renal function
b) decrease in lean body mass
c) increased responsiveness of adrenergic receptors
d) decrease in plasma protein binding
6. Phase I Clinical trials are essentially carried out in (S-14)
a) Animals b) Healthy volunteers
c) Patients d) All of the above

265
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition fey Unique Publication
7. Therapeutic Index of a drug primarily refers to its (S-14)
a) Safety b) Efficacy
c) Potency d) Bioavailabiiity
8. Which of the following phases of clinical trial is often carried out on
healthy volunteers ? (W-16)
a) Phase 1 b) Phase 2 c) Phase 3 d) Phase 4
SAQ
1. Tachyphylaxis or Acute tolerance. Give the reason for its development
with examples.(S-IO)
2. Write three differences between Tachyphylaxis and Tolerance.(S-IO)
3. Describe four methods of prolonging duration of action of drugs with
suitable examples. (S-13)
4. What are advantages and disadvantages of subcutaneous route of
drug administration? Give example of drugs given by this route. (W-14)
lx Describe general principles o f drug use in children. (W-14)
6. Mention different routes of drug administration with one example of
drug for each route. (S-15)
7. Placebo. (S-71,75,97) -
8. Sources of drugs. (S-79)
9. Drug tolerance. (W-79,90)(S-87,88)
10. Factors modifying dose of drugs. (W-83)
11. Describe in brief: Placebo. (S-98)
12. Pharmacogenetics.(W-98)
LAQ
1. Define Drug tolerance. Mention different types of tolerance, their
underlying mechanism quoting suitable example. (W-01)
2. Define dose of a drug. Describe any six factors modifying dose of a
drug. (W-03)
3. Define 'tolerance'. What are the types of tolerance ? Explain the
mechanisms responsible for development of tolerance and explain
the terms 'Cross-tolerance’ and Tissue-tolerance'.(W-06)
4. Discuss any six factors modifying drug action giving suitable
examples. (W-12)
5. Enumerate factors modifying the action of a drug. Describe these
factors in detail with examples. (S-16)
6. Discuss the pros and cons of fixed dose rational combinations with
suitable examples. (W-16)
6. Adverse Drug Effects.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Adrenaline as an emergency drug' should be used immediately in
' (W-04)
M
I266I
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

a) wide angle glaucoma b) cardiogenic shock

c) local anaesthesia d) anaphylactic shock.
2. Genetically determined abnormal reactivity to drug is termed as
(S-10)
a) mutagenecity b) iatrogenecity
c) idiosyncrasy d) chirality
3. The following drug is contraindicated in pregnacy. (S-12)
a) Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitor
b) Calcium channel blocker
c) Alpha-Methyl dopa
d) Penicillin
4. Which of the following is prescribed,during pregnancy to prevent '
neural tube defects in the new born ? (W-12)
a) Folic acid b) Pyridoxine
c) Cyanocobalamin d) Thiamine
5. Genetically determined abnormal reactivity to a drug is termed as
(W-12)
a) allergy b) mutagenicity c) idiosyncrasy d) teratogenicity
6. Which one of the following drugs is a proven human teratogen ?
(S-13)
a) Warfarin sodium b) Chloroquine
c) Methyldopa * d) Dicyclomine
7. Which of the following adverse drug, reactions belong to Type A
category ? (W-13)
a) Systemic lupus erythematosus due to hydrallazine
b) Prolonged apnoea due to Succinylcholine
c) Anaphylaxis due to parenteral Iron
d) Nasal stuffiness due to Prazosin
8. Penicilline-induced anaphylaxis, an adverse drug reaction (ADR)
belong to (W-15)
a) Type A b)Type B c)TypeC d) TypeD
SAQ
1. Drug Allergy.(S-00)(W-78J
2. Define teratogenecity. Name four drugs which should be avoided in
the first trimester of pregnancy. (S-11)
3. Classify the adverse drug reactions with suitable examples. (S-17)
4. Anaphylactic shock. (S-70)
5. Drug addiction. (S-72,76,84)
6. Teratogenicity of drugs. (S-74)
7. Anaphylaxis. (S-76)
8. Drug toxicity. (S-79)
M
I267I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
9. Idiosyncrasy. (S-85)
10. Drug dependence. (S-85,87)(W-95) " .
11 Drug treatment of anaphylactic reaction.(W-85)(S-89,92)
12. Drugs of choice, dose & mode of use: Anaphylactic shock. (S-88)(W-97)
13. Pharmacological basis for: Anaphylactic shock.(W-95)
LAQ '
1. Mention two drugs which should be avoided in the last trimester of
pregnancy giving reasons. (W-00)(W-76)
2. Define teratogenicity. Name two drugs which are contraindicated
during first trimester of pregnancy due to their adverse effects.
(W-04)
3. Define teratogenicity. Name two drugs which are contraindicated
during first trimester of pregnancy due to their adverse effects.(W-04)
4. Define ADR. What is the difference between Type A & type B ADRs ?
(Q-07)
5. What is meant by teratogenicity ? Name two drugs having a
teratogenic potential. (W-08)
6. Define Adverse Drug Reactions. Describe the different types of
adverse drug reactions giving suitable examples. (S-12)
7. Define the term " Pharmacovigilance". Discuss different types of
adverse drug effects with suitable example. (S-15)
8. Describe with examples adverse effects of drug. (W-86,89)
9. Define adverse drug reaction. Discussbriefly nephrotoxicity produced by
drugs, including measures to minimise it.(W-93)
10. Describe types, prevention and management of various adverse Drug
reactions. (S-97)
Section 2
Drugs Acting on Autonomic Nervous System
L. Cholinergic System and drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Poisoning due to organophosphate compounds if detected early is
treated with (S-03)
a) Pyridostigmine. b) Pancuronium,
c) Pentolinium. d) Pralidoxime.
2. Physostigmine is preferred over neostigmine in belladona poisoning
because (S-03)
a) It can antogonize both peripheral and central actions of
belladona.
b) It does not antogonize peripheral actions of belladona.
c) It does not antogonize central actions of belladona.
d) It can degrade belladona very fast.
M
^2681
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
3. Neurotransmitters relaeased respectively at pre ganglionic and post
ganglionic neuro-effector junction sites in sympathetic nervous
system except sweat glands, hair follicles and some vasodilator
fibres are (S-03)
a) Acetyl choline and noradrenaline.
b) Noradrenaline and acetyl choline.
c) Acetyl choline and acetyl choline.
d) Adrenaline and Nor adrenaline.
4. Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that. (W-03)
a) It is more potent orally.
b) It produces less muscarinic side effects.
c) It also acts on ganglionic receptors.
d) It is longer acting.
5. Atropine does not antagonise the following features of
organophosphorus poisoning. (W-03)
a) Hypotension. b) Central excitation,
c) Muscle paralysis. d) Bronchoconstriction.
6. The following diagnostic agent is used for detection of myaesthenia
gravis. (W-03)
a) Metyrapone. b) Fluorescin.
c) Edrophonium. d) Bromocryptine.
7. Which of the following is not a contraindication of cholinomimetic
drugs ? (W -03)*
a) Post operative urinary retention, b) Bronchial asthma,
c) Coronary insufficiency. d) Peptic ulcer.
8. Actions of pilocarphihe include the following EXCEPT. (W-04)
a) sw eating.. b) salivation c) miosis d) cyclopiegia.
9. Post operative urinary relation can be best treated by using the
following cholinomimetic agent. (W-04)
a)carbachol b) methacholine
c) lobeline d) bethanechol
10. Which of the following pairs of drugs produces reversible inhibition
of true cholinesterase ? (W-04)
a) nicotine, atropine
b) physostigmine, echothiophate
c) neostigmine, pyridostigmine
d) endrophonium, d-tubocurarine
11. Pralidoxime is used in treatment of organo phosphorus poisoning as
it. (W-04)
a) reactivates cholinesterase. b) blocks cholinesterase
c) induces cholinesterase d) blocks cholinergic receptors.

I269I
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
12. Which of the following drugs is usepl to differentiate cholinergic crisis
from myasthenic crisis ? (W-08)
a) neostigmine b) edrophonium
c) physostigmine d) atropine
13. Acetylcholine is NOT used in therapeutic because. (W-08)
a) not absorbed orally b) rapidly degraded
c) rapidly excreted d) highly plasma protein bound
14. Genetic polymorphism is present with one of the following. (S-09)
a) anticholine esterases.
b) carbachol-W-methyl transfersase.
c) butaryl choline esterases.
d) tyrosine hydroxylase
15. Butylcholinesterase CAN NOT hydrolyse. (W-09)
------ a) acetyl cholinp h) benzoyl choline ..... ;
c) butyryl choline d) metha choline
16. Which of the following is a shortest acting anticholesterase agent ?
(W-09)
a) echothiophate b) edrophonium
c) neostigmine d) eserine
17. All are muscarinic effects of acetylcholine one eye EXCEPT,
a) miosis b) spasm of accommodation
c) lOP-dccreased d) mydriasis.(S-IO)
18. The anticholenesterase with the shortest duration of action (W-10)
a) neostigmine b) physostigmine
c) edrophonium d) ambenonium
19. Which drug can be used for diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis ? (S-11)
a) Edrophonium b) Neostigmine
c) Physostigmine d) None of above
20. The mechanism of action of Pralidoxime is (S-12) -
a) Reactivation of cholinesterase
b) Synthesis of cholinesterase
c) Inhibition of cholinesterase '
d) None of the above
21. The diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis is done by using (S-12)
a) Edrophonium b) Neostigmine
c) Succinylcholine d) Atropine
22. Which one of the following drugs specifically reverses the muscle
paralysis induced by competitive neuromuscular blockers ? (S-13)
a) Atropine b) Physostigmine
c) Tolterodine d) Neostigmine
23. The drug of choice for the treatment of early mushroom poisoning
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
is (W-13)
a) Atropine b) Propranolol
.c) Bethanecol d) Carbachol
24. Bethanecol is indicated for the treatment of (W-13)
a) Neurogenic bladder atony . - b) Gastroesophageal reflux
c) Congenital megacolon d) All of the above
25. An ameliorative test for diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis is carried out
by using (S-14)
a) Physostigmine b) Edrophonium
c) Tacrine d) d-Tubocurarine
26. All of the following have cholinergic action EXCEPT (W-14)
a) Tacrine
b) Gallantamine
c) Donepezil . , - .
d) Memantine
27. Pralidoxime acts by (S-15)
a) Reactivating cholinesterase enzyme.
b) Promoting synthesis of cholinesterase enzyme.
c) Promoting synthesis of acetylcholine.
d) Direct action on cholinergic receptors.
28. All of the following are cholinergic activators used in Alzheimer’s
disease EXCEPT. (S-16)
a) Rivastigmine b) Pralidoxime
c) Galantamine d) Donepezil
29. Which of the following effects of organophosphate poisoning cannot
be reversed by atropine ? (W-16) v
a) sweating b) bradycardia
c) miosis d) respiratory paralysis
SAQ
1. Neostigmine for reversal of neuromuscular block after surgery.(S-99)
2. Pharmacological basis o f: Describe pharmacological Action of
Pralidoxime.(S-02)
3. Pharmacological basis for: State how is useful in the treatment
of organo phosphorous poisoning. ?(S-04)
4. Describe the drug treatment of organophosphorus compound
poisoing. (W-11)
5. Give two examples each of reversible and irreversible
anticholinesterases. Explain why they are classified as reversible
and irreversible, stating the conditions in which this property is
exploited. (W-12)
6. Classify anticholinesterases and describe their any three therapeutic
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
uses. (S-13)
7. Classify Anticholinesterases and give their therapeutic indications
citing suitable examples. (W-13) *
8. What is the rationale behind use of atropine with neostigmine ? (W-16)
9. Neostigmine in curare dosage. (W-71,91)
10. Bethanechol in postoperative urinary retention. (S-81)
, 11. Treatment of myasthenia gravis. (S-83,92)(W-84)
12. Pharmacological basis for: Treatment of organophosphorus poisoning.
(S-83)(S-97)
13. Neostigmine in myasthenia gravis. (W-86) .
14. Neostigmine-Atropine in mysthenia gravis. (S-87)
15/ Pharmacological basis for: PAM in organphosphorus poisoning. (S-89,98)
(W-95)
• 16. Pharmacological basis for: Atropine in Organophosphorus poisoning.(S-89)
(W-93) • ; — ------------ -----------
17. Pharmacological basis for: Oximes in organophosphorus poisoning. (S-90,92)
18. Give reasons: Neostigmine in preferred to physostigmine in treatment of
myasthenia gravis. (S-93)
19. Drug of choice with reasons, doses and route of administration:
Organophosphorus poisoning. (S-95)
20. Bethanechol in postoperative urinary retention. (S-96)
21. Describe treatment of poisoning due to:OrganophosphOrous compounds.
(W-98)
LAQ
' ’ 1. W hy is physostigmine preferred over neostigmine in pts with belladona
poisoning having symptoms like restlessness, confusion,
hallocinations & delirium.(W-00)
2. Describe the symptoms and drug treatment of the poisoning due to
organophosphorous compounds. Give the pharmacological basis for
the use of each drug.(W-06)
3. Describe the drug treatment of Glaucoma giving pharmacological
rationale for, each drug. (S-12)
4. Discuss in brief on management of organophosph&te compound
(OPC) poisoning. (W-15)
5. Classify anti-cholinesterases. Discuss drug treatment of
vorgano-phosphate compound poisoning. (S-15)
6. Briefly describe the management of a case of organophosphorus
poisoning. (S-70)
7. Enumerate receptors on which autonomic neurotransmitters act.
Enumerate drugs acting on any one of these with their users.(W-82)
8. Anticholinergic Drugs and Drugs Acting on Autonomic
Ganglia.
M
I272I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Topical application of atropine substitutes in the eye produce
following effects EXCEPT. (W-04)
a) mydriasis
b) paralysis of accommodation.
c) reduction in intraocular tension
d) photophobia.
2. Atropine poisoning is best treated by giving. (W-04)
a) neostigmine b) physostigmine
c) pralidoxime d) tacrine
3. The following statements regarding atropine are true EXCEPT.(W-04)
a) it can prevent release of acetylcholine
b) it can produce initial bradycardia.
c) it it a competitive antagonist at muscarinic receptors.
d) it produces dryness of mouth.
4. In comparison to atropine scopolamine has more prominent effects
on (W-10)
a) bronchial muscle b) salivary secretions
c) cardiac muscle d) gut muscle
5. All EXCEPT one is useful asitocolytic. (S-09)
a) atropine b) ritodrine c) isoxsuprine d) salbutamol
6. Which is shortest acting mydriatic ? (S-11)
a) Atropine b) Tropicamide
c) Homatropine d) Cyclopentolate
7. Anticholinergic preferred in peptic ulcer is (W-11)
a) Oxyphenonium b) Pirenzepine
c) Propantheline d) Dicylomine
8. Which of the following mydriatics has the fastest and briefest
action ? (S-12)
a) Atropine . b) Homastropine
c) Tropicamide d) Cyclopentolate ^
9. Which of the following conditions is an absolute contraindication for
the use of atropine ? (W-12) :
a) narrow angle glaucome b) iritis
c) renal colic d) A-V block due to digitalis toxicity
10. Atropine is combined with Loperamide to prevent its (S-14)
a) Abuse liability b) Degradation from the tody
c) Teratogenic effects d) First-pass hepatic metabolism
11. Which of the following is NOT a pharmacological effect of atropine ?
(W-14)
a) Decreased salivary secretion
M
][273l
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
b) Decreased atrioventricular conduction
c) Tachycardia
d) Mydriasis
12. Atropine is combined with diphenoxylate to (W-15)
a) potentiate its pharmacological action .
b) decrease its abuse liability
c) reduce its frequency of administration
d) prevent its degradation
SAQ
1. Explain four clinical uses of Atropine. (S-10)
2. Discuss with suitable examples,'atropine substitutes' used for
ophthalmic purposes.(S-05)
3. List the therapeutic indications for atropine substitutes, mentioning
------- the drug of choice for each. (W-10)------------------------------------------ -
4. What is pre-anaesthetic medication ? Describe the purpose of each
drug in it. (S-14) '
5. Name drugs used in pre-anaesthetic medication. Explain
pharmacology basis for use of any two agents. (S-15)
6. Discuss in brief the important uses of atropine substitutes. (S-16)
7. Compare and contrast therapeutic use of atropine and tropicamide
as mydriatics. (W-16)
8. Give reasons: Atropine is used with neostigmine in myasthenia gravis.
(S-71)
9. Give reasons: Ganglion blocking agents may precipitate acute retention of
urine in elderly males. (S-71)
10. Motion sickness drug therapy. (W-71)
11. Atropine as pre-anaesthetic agent. (S-81)
12. Mydriasis produced by atropine. (S-85)
IgF |
13. Therapeutic uses & adverse effects of atropine sulphate. (W-87)
14. Pharmacological basis for: Physostigmine in treatment of atropine poisoning.
(S-94) lv
15. Pharmacological basis for: Atropine derivatives in eye. (W-90) :)
16. Mydriatics. (W-94)
LAQ
1. Classify anticholin esterase drugs giving eg. its therapeutic uses & )
explain to treat any two stated conditions, mention side effect with its I
use. (W-02)
2. Enumerate atropine substitutes. Discuss therapeutic indications.
(W-03)
3. Classify anticholinesterases. Describe the mechanism of action and
therapeutic uses of reversible compounds.(W-04)
4. Classify anticholinesterases and^discuss their clinical uses.(S-06)
I274I J
Ml
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
5. Mention the various sites at which acetylcholine is liberated in the body.
Name the drugs which block acetylcholine and describe the effects of
blockade at any one site. (S-72)
6. Describe the clinical uses and hazards of cholinesterase inhibitors.(W-79,89)
7. Describe actions, uses and toxicity of atropine. (W-86)
8. Describe with examples the various ways in which the effects of
endogenously released acetylcholine can be antagonised by drugs. Describe
the uses and contraindication of atropine. (S-88)
9. Adrenergic System and Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. IV infusion of Dobutamine in therapeutic doses acts as a selective
agonist of (S-03)
a) Alpha-1 receptor. b) D-1 receptor,
c) D-2 receptor. d) beta-1 receptor.
2. Intravenous infusion of Noradrenaline in man. (S-03)
a) Increases mean arterial blood pressure and reduces heart rate.
b) Increases mean arterial blood pressure and increases heart
rate.
c) Reduces mean arterial blood pressure and reduces heart rate.
d) Reduces mean arterial blood pressure and increases heart rate.
3. Clonidine is a selective. (S-03)
a) Alpha-1 antagonist. b) Alpha-2 antagonist,
c) Alpha-1 agonist. d) Alpha-2 agonist.
4. The drug of choice for cardiogenic shock is (W-03)
a) Hydralazine. b) Adenosine.
c) Dopamine. d) Adrenaline.
5. Which of the following is a selective a2 adrenoceptor antagonist ?
(W-04)
a) prazosin b) phentolamine c) yohimbine d) clonidine.
6. Alpha2 adrenoreceptor mediated responses includes all EXCEPT.
(S-09)
a) inhibit central sympathetic outflow. ^
b) inhibit release of norepinephrine from nerve ending
c) facilitate platelet aggregation.
d) contraction of vascular smooth muscle.
7. Which of the following is an orally effective nasal decongestant ?
(W-09)
a) adrenaline b) phenyl propanolamine
c) xylometazoline d) oxymetazoline
8. All of the following cytoplasmic enzyme involved in synthesis &
metabolism of norephinephine (NE) EXCEPT. (S-10)

I275I
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) catechol-o-methyl transferase. b) monoamine oxidase
c) tyrosine hydroxylase d) dopade carboxylase
9. Adrenaline is contraindicated in (W-10}
a) bronchial asthma b) cardiac asthma
c) anaphylaxis d) angioneurotic oedema
10. All of the following agents are tocolytics except. (S-03)
a) salbutamol b) quinine c) terbutaline d) ritodrine
11. Which of the following is tocolytic agent ? (W-08)
a) magnesium sulfate b) sulbutamol
c) isoxsuprine hydrochloride d) all of the above
12. A Sympathomimetic that is NOT a catecholamine is (S-12)
a) Adrenaline b) Ephedrine c) Dopamine d) Isoprenaline
13. All of the following drugs act at the dopaminergic D2 receptors
EXCEPT (S-13)

c) Domperidone d) Metoclopramide
14. The drug of choice for the treatment of anaphylactic shock is (S-14)
a) Dobutamine b) Ephedrine
c) Adrenaline d) Isoprenaline
15. Which of the following is non-catecholamine sympathomimetic
drug ? (S-15)
a) Dopamine b) Ephedrine
c) Isoproterenol d) Dobutamine
16. Dale's vasomotor reversal phenomenon is seen with (W-15)
a) Adrenaline b) Noradrenaline
c) Isoprenaline d) Dopamine
17. Which of the following is a primary indication for adrenaline ? (W-16)
a) Cardiogenic shock b) Anaphylactic shock
c) Septic shock d) Hemorrhagic shock
SAQ "
1. Dopamine.(S-OO)
2. Adrenaline with local anaesthetics.(W-01)(S-7?J(W-87,93J
3. Give pharmacological basis of dopamine in cardioganic shock.(W-02)
4. A therapeutic uses of adrenaline with reasons.(S-03)
5. Enumerate two topical nasal decongestants. What are the drawbacks
of these drugs ?(W-04)
6. Mention four uses of sympathomimetic agents with agent of choice.
(S-06)
7. Explain the basis for use of adrenaline along with lignocaine. Mention
a situation where adrenaline should not be used with lignocaine.
(W-06)

12761
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
8. Enumerate four Vasopressor agents. Explain why adrenaline is
contraindicated in hypotensive shock.(S-IO)
9. Give four therapeutic uses of adrenaline with justifiCations.(S-11,15)
10.. What are the therapeutic uses of Adrenaline ? (S-12)
11. Enumerates two therapeutic uses of adrenaline and explain briefly
the pharmacological basis for each for the use. (S-13)
12. Give the pharmacological basis for using adrenaline in the treatment
of anaphylactic shock. (W-15) -
13. Compare and contrast Catecholamines and Non-catechomines.
(S-15)
14. Compare and contrast .'Adrenaline & non-adrenaline. (S-71)
15. Isoprenaline. (S-72,73)
16. Vasomotor reversal phenomenon of Dale. (S-76) ‘
17. Pharmacological basis for: Use of adrenaline in anaphylactic shock.
(S-84,90,98) (W-98)
18. Therapeutic uses of sympathomimetic amines. (S-87)
19. Beta stimulants. (W-89)
LAQ
1. Mention two selective beta2adrenergic receptor stimulants,mentioning
two indications for their uSe.(W-04)
2. Classify parasympathomimetic drugs. Describe toxic manifestations
of organophosphorus compounds after and ingestion. Discuss in brief
its treatment.(S-05)
3. Classify sympathomimetic drugs, mention two important uses of
Adrenaline, giving rationale for the same.(S-07)
4. Classify adrenergic drugs. Describe the pharmacological actions and
therapeutic uses of Adrenaline. (W-11)
5. Discuss the therapeutic uses of adrenaline and mention the
precautions to be taken while administering adrenaline. (W-12)
6. Describe the pharmacological actions of adrenaline and its therapeutic
uses and adverse effects. (S-17)
7. Classify with examples parasympathomimetic agents with thpir therapeutic
uses. (S-70)
10. Antiadrenemic Drugs (Adrenergic Receptor
Antagonists) & Drugs for Glaucoma.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Dale’s vasomotor reversal phenomenon can be demonstrated usinq.
(S-03)
a) Alpha blocker and Noradrenaline.
b) Beta blocker and noradrenaline.
c) Alpha blocker and adrenaline.
►4
Z277l
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
d) . Beta blocker and adrenaline.
2. Which amongst the following alpha adrenergic blockers is preferred
for the treatment benign prostatic hypertrophy ? (W-03)
a) Terazosin. b) Phenoxy benzamine.
c) Ergotamine. d) Phentolamine.
3. The beta adrenergic blocker which possesses both beta-1 .
selectively as well as intrinsic sympathomimetic activity is (W-03)
a) Alprenolol. b) Atenolol. c) Acebutoiol. d) Metoprolol.
Phentolamine is used, to diagnose. (W-03)
a) Pheochromocytoma. b) Glaucoma,
c) Gastric paresis. d) Migraine.
5. Which of the following diuretics is most effective in acute congestive
glaucoma ? (W-04)
^a)lndapamide. b) Amilonde:
c) Mannitol. d) Furosemide.
6. Propranolol should not be used in patients with. (W-04)
a) hypertension b) hyperthyroidism
c) angina pectoris d) incomplete heart block.
7. All are cardioselective J3 blockers EXCEPT. (W-04)
a) atenolol b) metoprolol c) propranolol d) acebutoiol.
8. In asthmatic patients bronchospasm can be precipitated by the
following autonomic receptor blockers. (W-04)(S-16)
a) atropine b) metoprolol c) propranolol d) all of above.
9. Propanolol is contraindicated in (W-08)
a) bronchial asthma b) cardiac arrythmias
c) myocardial infarction d) thyrotoxicosis.
10? ‘Which of the following is a cardioselective beta blocker ? (W-08)
a) atenolol b) propranolol c) acebutoiol d) timolol
1 t Beta blocker with shortest duration of action is (S-09)
a) esmolol b) timolol c) acebutoiol d) pindolol
12. Which of the following decreased the formation of aqueous
humour? (W-10) v
a) timolol b) echothiophate c) pilocarpine d) dyflos.
13. Which' prostaglandin analogue is used in wide angle glaucoma ? (S-11)
a) Dorzolamide b) Latanoprost
c) Dinoprostone d) Misoprostol
14. Propranolol is contraindicated in (W-11)
a) Bronchial asthma b) Cardiac Arrythmia
c) Myocardial Infarction d) Thyzotoxicases
15. All of the following are selective betablockers EXCEPT (S-12)
a) Atenolol b) Esmolol c)Bisoprolol d) Sotalol
M V
I278I
►1
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
16. Postural hypotension is commonly seen with (S-12)
a) Prazosin b) Nifedipine c) Atenolol d) Enalapril
17. Prostaglandin analogue used in the treatment of Glaucoma is (W-13)
a) Mannitol b) Acetazolamide
c) Latanoprost d) Timolol v
18. Mydriasis without cycloplegia is seen following administration o f (S-14)
a) Phenylephrine b) Homatropine
c) Pilocarpine d)Tropicamide
19. Which of the following drug is third generation beta blocker ? (S-15)
a) Propranolol b)Tim olo c) Nadolo d) Nebivolol
20. All of the following options are indication for propranolol EXCEPT
(W-15)
a) Hypertension b) Prinzmetal'sangina
c) Thyrotoxicosis d) Magraine
21. Which of the following drugs produce mydriasis without (W-15)
cycloplegia ?
a) Atropine b) Pilocarpine
c) Phenylephrine d) Neostigmine
22. The preferred drug of choice in the treatment of benign prostatic
hypertrophy is (W-15)
a) Adrenaline b) Labetalol
c) Tamsulosin d) Verapamil
23. Tamsulosin is used in benign hypertrophy of prostate because of its
ability to block following receptors. (S-16)
a) 1 A b) 1 B c) 1 C d) 1 D
24. All of the following are used in the treatment of narrow angle
glaucoma EXCEPT. (S-16)
a) Acetazolamide b) Pilocarpine
c) Mannitol. _ d) Homatropine
25. ‘First dose effect’ is shown by the following drug. (S-16)
a) Amlodipine b) Prazosin
c) Propranolol d) Chlorthalidone
26. Which of the following drugs is used systemically in acute angle
closure glacucoma ? (W-16)
a) Physostigmine b) Timolol
c) Pilocarpine d) Acetazolamide
SAQ
1. Timolol meleate.(W-99)(W-89J
2. Timolol & Pilocarpin in glaucoma.(S-00)
3. Acetazolamide in therapy of acute congestive glaucoma.(W-00)
4. Timolol in the management of chronic simple glaucoma.(S-01)
M
I279I
P-i
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
5. Describe drug treatment of glaucoma giving the rationale for each
drug. (S-01)
6. Give reasons: Physostigmine over neostigmine as a miotic.(W-01)
7. Drugs used in open angle glaucoma.(S-05) 5
-” >

8. What is the pharmacological basis for using a combination of alfa &

beta adrenergic blockers in the treatment of pheochromocytoma ?
(S-05)
9. Give reasons: Why Beta blockers are preferred choice of drugs for
the treatment of chronic simple glaucoma ?(S-06)
10. Compare and contrast: Compare & contrast between physostigmine.
(W-07)
11. Enumerate four groups of drugs with suitable example used in acute
- — ^congestive glaucoma.(W-07) "% /.
12. Menttonthtrd ttig s usedin treatment oTglaucQma,g iv i
pharmacological rationale for each drug.(S-IO)
13. Mention eight clinically relevant differences between propranolol and
Atenolol.(S-10)
14. Enumerate the adverse effects and explain the uses of alpha
adrenergic blockers. (W-12)
15. Discuss in brief about drugs used in the treatment of open angle
glaucoma. (S-14)
16. Classify beta adrenergic receptor blockers. Enumerate their
therapeutic uses. (W-15)
17. Describe non-cardiovascular uses of beta-adrenergic blockers. (W-14)
18. Explain pharmacology basis for the use of ergometrine in post partum
haemorrhage. Write down contraindication to use of ergometrine.
(S-15)
19. Mention the drugs used in glaucoma with their mechanism of action.
(S-16)
20. Propranolol. (W-73,79)(S-88)
21. Indications & contraindications of Beta blockers. (W-87)^
22. Drug of choice with reasons, doses and route of administration: Acute
congestive glaucoma.(S-88)(W-97)
23. Drug of choice with reasons, doses and route Of administration: Glaucoma.
(S-89,95)
24. Uses of propranolol. (W-93)
25. Beta blockers. (S-94)
26. Pharmacological basis for: Alpha blockers in treatment of shock. (S-94)
27. Prazosin. (S-96)
28. Drug of choice with reason^, dosesand route of administration: Treatment
of wide angle glaucoma. (W-96)
LA Q
M
I280I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rd E dition by Unique Publication
1. Classify B. adrenargic blockers giving examples of drugs. Describe
adverse effects of propranolol. Also give indications for its use. State
why atenolol is preferred to propranolol in clinical practice ? (W-00)
2. Classify Beta blockers. Describe their adverse effects and
therapeutic uses. (S-12)
3. Classify beta adrenergic blocking drugs. Describe briefly their
t therapeutic uses. (S-13)
4. Classify drugs used in the treatment of glaucoma. Explain
mechanism of action and state adverse effect of any one of them.
(W-15)
5. Describe the therapeutic uses of propranolol with rationale. (W-16)
6. Describe with suitable examples, the various ways in which the effects of
endogenously released norepinephrine can be antagonised by drugs. (S-90)
Section 3
Autacoids and Related Drugs
11. Histamine and Antihistaminics.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which of the following H ^antagonists is claimed to. cause only mild
sedation. (S-03)
a) Cyciizine. b) Promethazine,
c) Pheniramine. d) Cetrizine.
2. Which of the following drugs has least sedative effect. (W-03)
a) diphenhydramine b) promethazine
c) chlorcyclizine- d) cetirizine
3. Antihistaminic with prominent sedative action is (W-04)
a) astemizole b) chlorpheniramine
c) diphenhydramine d) cetirizine
4. Nonsedative antihistamine is (W-08)
a) diphenhydramine b) dimenhydrinate
c) cetrizine d) promethazine
5. Which of the following antihistaminics is most effective in vertigo ?
(S-10)
a) loratidine b) diphenhydramine c) cinnerazine d) meclizine
6. Which one of the following is NOT used in motion sickness ? (W-10)
a) promethazine-chlorotheophyllinate b) cinnarazine
c) cyciizine d) meclizine
7. All of the following are indications for H1 anti-histaminics EXCEPT.
(W-12)
a) Allergic disorders ^ b) Motion sickness,
c) Bartter’s syndrome d) Pruritides
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdE dition byUnique Publication
8. All of the following are highly sedative antihistaminics; EXCEPT
(W-14)
a) Promethazine b) Dimenhydrinate •
c) Fexofenadine d) Hydroxyzine
9. Which of the following antihistaminic has good topical action ? (W-15)
a) Cetrizine b) Fexofenadine
c) Loratidine d) Azelastine
SAQ
1. Nonsedative antihistamines.(S-99)(W-98)
2. Preferred routes, dosage, uses & toxicity : 2 H1 receptor blockers
and 2 H2 receptor blockers.(W-03)
3. Enumerate non-sedative antihistaminics. Enumerate their advantages
and two indications. (S-13)
4. List the uses and adverse effects of H1 antihistaminics. (W-13)
5. Give 4 exaTuples of drugs from different classes
anesthetic medication. Give pharmacological basis for them. (W-13)
6. W hat is pre-anaesthetic medication ? Describe the purpose of each
drug in it. (S-14)
7. List the uses and adverse effects of H1 antihistaminics. (W-16)
8. Compare and contrast second generation antihistaminics with
conventional antihistaminics. (S-17)
9. Uses of antihistamines. (W-70,74)
10. Motion sickness drug therapy. (W -71)
11. Preferred routes, dosage„uses & toxicity: Diphenhydramine. (W-73)
12. Diagnostic use of Histamine. (W -75)
13. H2 Receptor blockers. (S-78) *
14. Pharmacological basis o f: Promethazine in anti allergic action. (S-78)
15. H 1 Receptor blockers. (W -81,91)
16. Antihistamines. (W -83)
17. H2 stimulant. (S-86) • * .......... ..
18. Adverse effects of Antihistamines. (S-96)
LAQ
1. Give clinical classification of H1 receptor antagonists. Mention 2
examples of each group. Mention therapeutic uses and adverse
effects of older H1 blockers. Also mention advantages and
disadvantages of newer H1 receptor blockers. (S-03)
12. 5-HvdroxvtrvDtamine, its Antagonists & Drug Therapy
o f Migraine.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Prokinetic action of cisapride is mediated through (S-09)
a) D2 receptor blockade ^b) 5 HT4 agonist
I 282I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by Unique Publication
c) 5 HT3 antagonist d) 5 HT2 antagonist
2. Which of the following is a selective 5 HTIDreceptor agonist ? (W-04)
a) buspirone b) ondansetron
c) sumatriptan d) a methyl 5 HT
3. Which of the following functions as antoreceptor ? (S-09)
a) 5 HTr b) 5 HT2. c) 5 HT3. d) 5 HT4.
SAQ
1. Describe non-cardiovascular uses of beta-adrenergic blockers. (W-14)
2. Enumerate drugs used for the prophylaxis of migraine. Discuss in
detail the mechanism of action and adverse effects of sumatriptan.
(W-14)
3. Explain pharmacology basis for the use of ergometrine in postpartum
haemorrhage. Write down contraindication to use of ergometrine.
(S-15)
LAQ
None
13. Prostaglandins, Leukotrienes (Eicosanoids) and
Platelet Activating Factor.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Zileuton is a selective inhibitor of (W-03)
a) cyclooxygenase b) lipoxygenase
c) phospholipase-G d) phosphodiexterase
2. Prostaglandins are used in following EXCEPT. (S-10)
a) chronic obstructive airway disease.
b) maintain patency of Ductus arteriosus
c) second trimester abortion.
d) cervical priming.
3. Which one of the following is a drug of choice for medical termination
of pregnancy in second trimester ? (W-11)
a) Ergometrine b) Oxytocin
c) Ritodrine • d) Gemeprost
4. Which of the following is beneficial in NSAID-induced gastric ulcer ?
(W-13)
a) PGE1 agonist b) PGE2 agonist
c) PGD agonist d) PGE2 agonist
5. Misoprostol is a synthetic analogue of (W-16)
a) PGE 1 b) PGE 2 c) PGI2 d) PGD2
SAQ
1. Enlist four therapeutic uses of prostaglandins mentioning agent of
preference for each. Write the conditions in which prostaglandins are

I 283I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
preferred for induction of labour. (W-15)
2. Describe the therapeutic uses of prostaglandin analogues during
pregnancy and labour. (S-17)
3. Prostaglandins. (S-76,84)(W-77)
LAQ
None,
14. Nonsteroidal Antiinflammatory Drugs and Antipyretic-
Analgesics.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which of the following NSAID’s itself causes headache as a side
effect most frequently ? (S-03)
a) indomethacin b) diclofenac c)Jbuprofen d) piroxicam
2. NSAID which causes less gastric irritation (less ulcerogenic action)

a) piroxicam b)celecoxib c) diclofenac d)ibuprofen.

3. Which one of the following is preferential COX-2 inhibitor ? (W-10)
a) paracetamol b) acelofenac c) meloxicamd) piroxicam
4. Aspirin inhibits (S-14)
'w i
a) Lipooxygenase b) Lipocortins
c) Cyclooxygenase d) Phospholipase
5. Low dose aspirin is to be given__________a day. (W-14)
a) Once b) Twice c) Thrice d) Four times
SAQ -H
1. Aspirin in sub-analgesic dose (40=325 mg/day). acts as an antiplatelet
agent.(W-03)
2. Explain antiinflammatory action of Aspirin.(W-07)
3. Migraine.(S-00)(S-95)
4. Acute attack of Migfain.(S-OO)
5. Give 4 major differences between opioid and non-opoid analgesics. 1

What are the therapeutic uses of aspirin ?(S-Q1)

c-.-i
6. Pharmacological basis of:Explain the basis of development of
giddiness, sweating, tremors etc. in a NIDDM patient well controlled ‘
A
' J

on tolbutamide when oxyphenbutazone was administered to him for I

sprain.(S-04)
7. 4 advantages effects of non steroidal anti inflammetory drugs.(S-03)
8 . Mention a use of low dose aspirin giving the rationale. (S-07)
9. State major differences between opioids and NSAIDs (Non Steroidal
Anti-Inflammatory Drugs) depe ding on mechanism of actions, uses,
adverse drug reactions. (W-15)
10. Compare and contrast between macrolide and tetracycline antibiotics
#
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
depending on spectrum, uses, adverse reaction and precautions to
be taken for its use. (W-15)
11. Write in brief about Diclofenac Sodium. (S-15)
12. Classify nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. List their important uses
and two adverse effects. (W-16)
13. Use of salicylates in arthritis. (W-75)
14. Drug treatment of migraine. (S-80)
15. Pharmacological basis o f: Aspirin in rheumatoid arthritis. (S-85)
16. Ibuprofen. (W-86,88)
17. Therapeutic uses & adverse effect of acetyl salicylic acid. (W-87)
18. NeweF uses of acetyl salicylic acid. (W-89)
19. Pharmacological basis o f: Salicylates in patent ductus arteriosus. (S-90,92)
20. Piroxicam. (W-90,91)
21. Pharmacological basis of:
Low doses of aspirin are used in prevention of myocardial infarction.(S-93)
22. Pharmacological basis of: Aspirin in Toothache. (W-95)
23; Diclofenac Sodium. (W-96)
LAQ
1. Classify NSAIDs. Discuss selective Cox-2 inhibitors and adverse
probable drug reactions associated with these new agents. (W-06)
2. Compare and contrast aspirin and COX-2 inhibitors with respect to
pharmacological actions, therapeutic uses and adverse affect
profile. (S-17)
3. Give the drugs of your choice-modeOf administration and precautions in the
treatment of acute rheumatic fever. (W-71)
4. Drug treatment of rheumatic arthritis. (S-81,91)
5. Enumerate non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and describe actions,
indications and contrandications of any one of them. (W-85)
6. Drug treatment of rheumatic fever. (S-87)
15. Antirheumatoid and Antiaout Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which of the following drugs is not indicated in treatment of Gout ?
(S-03)
a) allopurinol b) colchicine c) aspirin d) indomethacin
2. Which of the following is dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor ? (W-03)
a) mebendazole b) metronidazole •
c) methotrexate d) mithramycin
3. Which of the following is an immunosuppressant. (W-03)
a) cycloserine b) cyclosporine
c) cyclopentolate d) cyclopiroxolamine
4. Following drugs are used to treat an acute attack of gout EXCEPT
(W-13)
• M
I285I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

a) Naproxen b) Prednisolone
c) Colchicine d j Probenecid
5. Xanthine oxidase enzyme is inhibited by (W-14)
a) Colchicine b) Probenecid
c) Allopurinol d) Sodium cromoglycate
SAQ
1. Penicillamine in Rheumatoid arthritis.(W-99)
2. What is chemoprophylaxis ? How is it achieved in rheumatic fever ?
(S-10)
, 3. Enumerate drugs used for treatment of gout and mention their
mechanism of action. (W-14)
4. Probenecid. (S-79,85)
5. Treatment of choice in rheumatoid arthritis. (S-83)

7. Pharmacological basis of: Gold salts in Rheumatoid Arthritis. (S-96)

8. Mechanism of action of allopurinol in gout. (S-98)
9. Gold Salts. (S-98)
LAQ
1. Give the drugs of your choice-mode of administration and precautions in the
treatment of acute rheumatic fever. (W-71)
Section 4
Respiratory System Drugs
16. Drugs for Cough and Bronchial Asthma
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which of the following antitassives is an opium alkloid but has no
analgesic and addictive property ? (S-03)
a) codeine b) noscapine c) pholcodeine. d) ethyl morphine
2. Which of the following antiasthmatic drug is not a bronchodilator ?
(S-03) ■5 t
a) ipratropium b) terbutaline
c) sodium cromoglycate d) theophylline
3. Which of the following drugs is used in status asthmaticus. (W-03)
a) beclomethasone
b) ipratropium
c) hydrocortisone hemisuccinate
d) hydrocortisone acetate
4. Which of the following antiasthma drug is not a bronchodilator ?
(W-04)
a) Ipratropium bromide b) theophylline
c) terbutaline d) sodium chromoglycate
5. An antitussive not recommended in children below 3 years of age is
I 286I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
jW _Q4) — “ “

a) noscapine b) dextrometharphan.
c) promethazine d) codeine
6. Cromolyn sodium exerts following action. (S-09)
a) bronchodilatation. b) tachycardia
c) mast cell stabilization. d) rise in B.P.
7. Which of the following anti tussive drug does NOT act through opioid
receptors ? (W-09)
a) terbutalin b) codeine
c) dextromethorphan d) pholcodeine
8. Which one of the following steroids can be given only by inhalation
• route in the treatment of bronchial asthma ? (W-10)
a) prednisolone b) betamethasone
‘ c) budesonide d) dexamethasone
9. All of these are used as antitussives EXCEPT. (S-12)
a) Pholcodeine b) Dextromethorphan
c) Dextropropoxyphene d) Chlophedianol
10. The inhaled sympathomimetic amine which is NOT used to relieve an
acute attack of bronchial asthma is (S-13)
a) Salbutamol b) Terbutaline c) Isoprenaline d) Salmeterol
-11. Bromhexine is a (W-13)
a) Mucolytic agent b) Mukokinetic
c) Expectorant d) Central cough suppressant
12. Leukotriene receptor antagonist used for bronchial asthma is (S-14)
a) Zafrrlukast b) Zileuton
c) Cromolyn sodium d) Aminophylline
13. Zileuton is (W-14)
a) Selective LOX inhibitor b) Selective COX inhibitor
c) Non selective COX inhibitor d) Non selective LOX inhibitor
14. Which of the following drug is NOT useful during acute severe
bronchial asthma ? (S-15)
a) Salbutamol b) Hydrocortisone ^
c) Cromolyn Sodium d) Aminophylline
15. Which of the following adverse effect is more likely to occur with
inhaled corticosteroids ? (S-15)
a) Oral Candidiasis b) Cushing Syndrome
. c) Suppression of ACTH d) Osteoporosis
16. Which one of the following is a mucolytic ? (S-16)
a) Bromhexine b) Chlorpheniramine
c) Noscapine d) Dextromethorphan
SAQ
12871
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
1. Salbutamol.(S-99)(W-85J
2. Pharmacological basis o f : Beclomethazone in Br. Asthma. (S-99)
3. Drug of choice, route of administration & side effects : Status
Asthmaticus. (W-99)
4. Different dosage forms available to deliver anti asthma drugs.(W-01)
5. Beneficial effects of Beta adrenergic agonists in branchial asthma.
(S-03)
6. Drug of choice, route of administration & side effects : Antitussives.
2 mention nonnarcotic antitussive drugs & their uses.(W-03)
7. List four autonomic drug groups with examples useful in bronchial
asthma stating mechanism of each group.(S-05)
8. Role of inhalational corticosteroids in chronic bronchial asthma.
Enumerate t h e m . ( W - 0 6 ) _____________ ^_________ _ _
ft
action of Bromhexine ? Mention the dose.(S-IO)
10. Name four drugs used in the treatment of cough with pharmacological
basis of their uses. (W-10)
11. Classify bronchodilators. Write mechanism of action and adverse
effects of aminophylline. (S-13)
12. Name the four drugs used in the treatment of cough with
pharmacological basis of their use. (S-14)
13. Classify bronchodilators. Write the mechanism of action and adverse
effects of selective 2 agonists. (W-14)
14. Enumerate various groups of drugs used in the treatment of
bronchial asthma with one example each. State their mechanism of
action. (W-15)
15. Name two Mucolytic agents. Give their indications and explain mode
of action. (S-15)
16. Describe the drugs used in the treatment of Bronchial asthma and
write mechanism of action of any one drug. (S-17)
17. Status asthmaticus. (S-70)
18. Expectorants. (W -70,77)(S-84)
19. Codeine phosphate. (W -71)
20. Theophylline. (W -71)
21. Antitussive agents. (W -72,87)
22. Pharmacological basis of: Isoprenaline in bronchial asthma. (W -74,84)
23. Aminophylline. (S-78)
24. Pharmacological basis o f:Aminophylline in PND. (S-80,81)
25. Noscapine. (W -82)
26. Disodium cromoglycate. (S-83,87)(W -96)
27. Drug treatment of acute bronchial asthma. (W -83)(S-89,92)

M
[288
Vi
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by Unique Publication
28. Pharmacological basis o f: Salbutamol in bronchial asthma.(W-84,91)
(S-86)
29. Properties of ideal antitussives. (W-87)
30. Non narcotic antitussives. (S-88)(W-84)
31. Drug of choice, route of administration & side effects: Acute attack of
bronchial asthma. (S-94)
32. Mucolytic agents. (W-94,95)
33. Pharmacological basis of: Codeine Phosphate in dry cough. (S-96)
34. Pharmacological basis o f: Disodium chromoglyate in Br. Asthma. (W-97)
35. Cough Suppressants. (S-98)
36. Pharmacological basis of: Bromhexine in chronic bronchitis. (W-98)
LAQ
1. State mechanism of action of various bronchodilators. Outline the
management of status asthmaticus (severe acute asthma). (S-11
2. Describe the pharmacological basis of drugs used in treatment of bronchial
asthma.(W-73) -
Section 5
Hormones and Related Drugs
17. Anterior Pituitary Hormones.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Hyper prolactinemia is caused by all of the following drugs except.
(S-03)
a) bromocriptine b) haloperidol
c) methyl dopa d) metoclopramide
2. Antithyroid drug, which is safe in pregnancy is (W-14)
a) Radioactive Iodine b) Propylthiouracil
c) Carbimazole d) Methimazole
SAQ
1. Bromocriptine. (S-93)
LAQ
None
18. Thyroid Hormone and Thyroid Inhibitors.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. The drug which is preferred for the treatment of hyperthyroidism in
pregnancy is (S-03)
a) carbamazole b) methimazole
c) iodides d) propyl thiouracil
2. Following is an example of accumulation of drugs in specific organ
(Selective distribution). (S-03)
a) use of norfloxacin in urinary tract infection.
b) use of verapamil in cardiac arrythmia.
M
^2891
> i
 j

2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) use of chloroquin in acute attack of malaria ■n
.I
d) use of radio iodine (131 I) in thyrotoxicosis.
3. Carbimazoie mainly acts by inhibiting. (W-03)
' a) iodide uptake b) coupling of tyrosine residues,
c) release of thyroxine d) peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
4. Which of the following antithyroid agent inhibits peripheral conversion
o f thyroxine to triiodothyronine ? (W-04)
a) propyl thiouracil b) methimazole t
c) carbimazoie d) radioactive iodine
5. Iodides apt by following mechanism. (S-10)
a) inhibit iodine uptake b) emit beta rays
c) inhibit tyrosine iodination
d) inhibit thyroxine release for acini.
-------6.— Which one of the following antithyroid drugs ispreferredto be used
“ in pregnancy ? (W-iOj
a) carbemazole b) methimazole
c) propylthiouracil • d) potassium perchlorate
7. Which one of the following antithyroid drugs is the safest in
pregnancy ? (S-11) *
a) Potassium iodine b) Carbimazoie
c) Propylthioruacil d) Patassium perchlorate
8. Radioactive iodine used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism. (S-12)
a) 1131 b) I 123 c) I 121 d) All of above
9. As compared to Thyroxine (T4),Triiodothyronine (T3) (S-15)
a) is more plasma protein bound <
b) is short acting
c) is less potent
d) has delayed action
10. Which of the following thyroid inhibitor drug produces fastest action
on thyroid gland ? (W-15)
a) Lugol’s iodine b) Radioactive iodine
c) Propyl thiouracil d) Carbimazoie '
SAQ
1. Advantage of using radioactive iodine for for patients with
thyrotoxicosis. (S-01)
2. Carbimazole.(S-02 )(S-91,92)
3. Differences between triiodothyronine and thyroxine & their uses of I3
triiodothyronine.(S-03)
4. Classify antithyroid agents. Action and adverse effects of radio .. ^
active iodine (131 ,).(W-03)
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE d itio n by Unique Publication
5. Enumerate four different drug groups useful in the management of
hyperthyroid states, giving the mechanism and indication.(S-05)
6. What is Lugol's Iodine ? Mention its basis of use in Hyperthyroidism.
(W-07)
7. Give pharamcological basis for the use of antithyroid drug and iodide
preparations preoperatively in a patient posted for subtotal
thyroidectomy. (S-11)
8. Write advantages and disadvantages of radiactive iodine. (S-13)
9. Classify beta-blockers. Discuss in brief about their cardiac and
noncardiac uses giving suitable examples with rationale. (W-13)
10. Give 4 examples of drugs from different classes used as pre­
anesthetic medication. Give pharmacological basis for them. (W-13)
11. Describe non-cardiovascular uses of beta-adrenergic blockers.
(W-14)
12. Give pharmacological basis for the use of propranolol in the
treatment of thyrotoxicosis. (W-16)
13. Radioactive iodine. (W-73)85,97)(S-89,90;92,94)
14. Drug treatment of thyrotoxicosis. (S-80,87)
15. Propyl thiouracil & its side effects.(W-82)
16. Calcitonin.(W-84)
17. Compare uses and actions and contrast: Methimazole and Radioactive
iodine. (S-85)
18. Iodine in thyrotoxicosis. (S-86,90)
19. Antithyroid drugs.(W-91)
20. Pharmacological basis of: Radioactive Iodine in Thyrotoxicosis. (S-96)
21. Iodides in thyrotoxicosis.(W-98)
22. Propranolol in Hyperthyroidism. (S-99)
LAQ
1. Describe the mechanism of action and important uses of different
antithyroid agents in the management of hyperthyroidism.(S-04)
2. Classify Anti-thyroid agents. Discuss mechanism of action, adverse
reactions and uses of each group.(W-08)
3. Classify antithyroid drugs. Give their mode of action, merits, demerits and
toxic effects. (S-71)(W-75) '
4. Classify antithyroid drugs. Describe actions, uses and tdxic effects of
thiouracil derivatives.(S-72)
5. Describe Pharmacotherapy of hyperthyroidism. (S-86)(W-96)
6. Explain the basis of combining methimazole and propranolol in
hyperthyroidism. (W-87)
19. Insulin. Oral Hvooglvcaemic Drugs and Glucagon.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. The sulfonyl urea which is most prone to cause cholestatic jaundice
M
I291I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
* as an adverse effect is (S-03)
a) tolbutamide b) glipizide ;
c) giibenclamide* d) chlorpropamide
2. Which of the following antidiabetics reduces insulin resistance. (W-03)
a) tolbutamide b) giibenclamide c) pioglitazone d) acarbose
3. Which of the following drugs stimulates beta cells of pancreas to
t release insulin. (W-03)
a) tolbutamide b) phenformin c) metformin d) acarbose
4. Sulfonyl ureas do not lower blood sugar level in (W-04)
a) non diabetic b) non insulin dependent diabetic
c) insulin dependent diabetic d) none of the above.
5. Insulin preparation of choice in the management of diabetic
ketoacidosis is (W-04)1 *
a) isophane insulin_______ b) lente insulin
c) ulfralente insulin d) plain soluble insulin
6. Main clinically useful property of Isophane insulin is (S-09)
a) quick onset b) long action
c) intermediate action d) lipolysis.
7. Which one of the following oral hypoglycemic agents is used for
controlling post-prandial hyperglycemia ? (W-09)
a) metformin b) glipizide c) repaglinide d) rosi glitazone
8. Which of the following insulins is used in treatment of Diabetic keto
acidosis ? (S-10)
a) PZI (Protamine Zinc Insulin) b) isophane
c) regular d) lente
9. Which one of the following preparations of insulin is used in the
treatment of diabetic coma ? (W-10)
a) lente insulin . b) PZI insulin
c) ultralente insulin d) plain-insulin
10. Regular insulin cannot be mixed with (S-11)
a) Glargine b) Lispro e)NPH d)Aspart
11. Which of these is a long acting preparation of insulin ? (S-12)
a) Insulin aspart b) Insulin lispro
c) Insulin glulisine d) Insulin glargine
12. Lactic acidosis is liable to occur in alcoholic diabetics treated with
(S-13)
a) Phenformin b) Glipizide c) Tolbutamide d) Insulin
13. Which of the following insulin preparation has the longest duration of
activity? (W-13)
a) Regular insulin b) Lente insulin
c) isophane insulin d) Protamine zinc insulin
I292I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication

14. The most common adverse reaction to insulin is (S-14)

a) Hypoglycemia b) Lipodystrophy
c) Urticaria d) Angioedema
15. Oral antidiabetic that inhibits Dipeptidyl Peptidase 4 (DPP-4) is
(S-14)
a) Exenatide b) Sitagliptin
c) Pramlintide d) Guargum
16. Action of Insulin include all of the following EXCEPT (S-15)
a) Increased glycogen synthesis
b) Increased ketogenesis
c) Decreased gluconeogenesis
d) Decreased lipolysis
17. Which of the following antidiabetic drug promotes peripheral glucose
utilization through anaerobic glycolysis ? (S-16)
a) Metformin b) Meglitinide
c) Miglitol d) Pramlintide
18. Which of the following insulin analogue is callechas ‘peakless
insulin’ ? (W-16)
a) Glargine b) Glulisine c) Lispro d) Aspart
SAQ
1. Insulin preparations.(S-00)(W-93)(S-94,96J
2. Enumerate two commonly used sites for insulin injection. Why should
the site of injection be changed frequently ?(W-00)
3. Newer \nsu\ms.(S-02)(S-87,91)
4. 2 intermediate acting Insulins and adverse effects.(W-03)
5. Explain the basis of development of giddiness, sweating, tremors
etc. in a NIDDM patient well controlled on tolbutamide when
oxyphenbutazone was administered to him for sprain.(S-04)
6. What is the mechanism of action of acarbose ? What is its main side
effect ? (S-07)
7. What are mechanism of action of Metformin ?(S-10)
8. Classify oral antidiabetic drugs with examples. State the mechanism
of action and adverse effects of metformin. (W-14)
9. , Enumerate different types of insulin preparations and insulin
analogues. Outline the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis. (Sr16)
10. Diabetic coma & its treatment. (S-70,90)(W-82)
11. Mechanism of action of sulfonylureas.(W-70)
12. Preferred routes, dosages, uses and toxicity: Phenformin. (S-73)
13. Phenformin. (S-73)(W-85)
14. Discovery of insulin. (W -78)
15. Oral hypoglycemic agents.(W-79)(S-92,94)
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
16. Mechanism of action of sulfonylureas. (S-81)
17. Arrange in order of choice with explanation: Lente insulin, chlorpropamide &
Crystalline insulin,
18. Compare uses and actions and contrast: Insulin and Tolbutamide. (S-85) .
19. Giibenclamide. (W-86)
20. Compare uses and actions and contrast: Tolbutamide and phenformin. (W-88)
21. Pharmacotherapy of non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus [NIDDM].
(S-97)
22. Pharmacological basis of: Sulfonylureas in Diabetes Mellitus. (S-98)
23. Factors affecting insulin dose requirement and choice of insulin. (S-99)
LAQ
1. What are the therapeutic objective while planning a treatment for an
obese patient aged 45 years. Suffering from Diabates Mellitus
Mention the groups of oral antidiabetic drugs which can be used for
this patient. Select a drug of vour choice from these groups qividd I
rationale for its use; and mechanism of action.{S-01}
2. Mention insulin preparations & enumerate four absolute indications
for insulin therapy in Diabetes mellitus.(W-01)
3. Classify antidiabetics giving their mechanisms of action and examples.
How a case of newly diagnosed diabetes is managed ? Mention any
two antidiabetic combinations and their advantage.(S-05)
4. Classify oral hypoglycaemic agents, Describe in detail pharmacology
of sulphonylureas. (W-10)
5. Classify Oral hypoglycemic agents and describe mechanism of action
and adverse effects of Sulfonylureas. (S-14)
6. Classify oral hypoglycemic drugs. Describe mechanism of action and
adverse effects of biguanides. (S-15)
7. Classify oral hypoglycemic agents. Explain mechanism of action,
adverse effects and uses of biguanides. (W-15)
8. Mention the various drugs affecting blood sugar level. Give an account of
oral hypoglycemic agents. Give its actions, uses and role in management of
diabetes.(W-71)(S-78,83)
9. Describe the pharmacological actions preparations and Untoward effects of
insulin. (S-76) k
10. Give actions, uses and role in management of diabetes of oral antidiabetic
drugs. (S-84)
11. Mention drug of choice with its rationale in juvenile diabetes. (W-87)
20. Corticosteroids.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Drug induced myopathy is most likely to occur after the use of (S-03)
a) triamcinolone b) insulin
c) tolbutamide d) bromocroptine
M
> 4 :
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
2. One of the following is not an indication of glucocorticoid therapy.
(S-03) , .
a) rheumatoid arthritis b) tubercular meningitis
c) herpes simplex keratitis d) anaphylaxis
3. Which o f the following glucocorticoids is effective locally. (W-03)
a) prednisolone b) methyl prednisolone
c) betamethasone d) prednisone
4. Which of the following is a contraindication for chronic glucocorticoid
therapy. (W-03)
a) hypertension b) lymphatic leukaemia
■ c) hodgkin’s disease d) pemphigus
5. Which one of the following glucocorticoids is long acting ? (W-09)
a) prednosolone b) hydrocortisone
c) tri amcinolone d) dexamethasone
6. Which one amongst the following is an life saving Indication for
corticosteroids ? (W-12)
a) Diabetes mellitus b) Psychosis
c) Herpes simplex keratitis d) Polyarteritis nosoda
7. Dexamethasone differs from Prednisolone in that it is (S-14)
a) Longer acting b) More potent
c) More selective d) All of the above
8. Which one of the following glucocorticoids is used by parenteral route
in cerebal oedema ? (W-14)
a) Dexamethasone b) Budesonide
c) Prednisolone d) Clobetasol
9. All of the following drugs have potent mineralocorticoid activity
EXCEPT (W-15)
a) Aldosterone b) Desoxycorticosterone acetate
c) Dexamethasone d) Fludrocortisone
SAQ
1. Beclomethasone.(S-OO)
2. What action of glucocorticoids forms the basis of their uses in
malignancy. (W-01)
3. Describe the pharmacological actions, uses and adverse effects of
glucocorticoids.(S-02)(S-70)fW-85,90)
4. Enumerate four common adverse effects of prolonged
corticosteroid therapy. (W-04)
5. Pharmacological basis o f : Explain pharmacological basis of use of
topical steroids in dermatological conditions, Name two topically used
steroids. (W-07)
6. Anaphylactic shock. (S-70)
M
I295I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
7. Toxicity of corticosteroids.(W-71)(S-74)
8. Dexamethasone. (S-77)
9. Pharmacological basis o f: Steroids in shock. (S-79) .
10. Indications for corticosteroids.(W-79,83)
11. Drug treatment of rheumatic arthritis. (S-81,91)
12. Contraindications for steroids.(W-81)
13. Steroids in Rheumatoid arthritis.(W-82)
14. Uses of glucocorticoids. (S-85,90,93,99)
15. Prednisolone. (W-85)
16. Drug treatment of anaphylactic reaction.(W-85)(S-89,92)
17. Prednisolone in acute leukemia. (S-86)
18. Drug treatment of rheumatic fever. (S-87)
19. Indications & contraindications of corticosteroids.(W-87)
20. Drugs of choice, dose & mode of use: Anaphylactic shock. (S-88)(W-97)
21. Use of corticosteroid. (S-95)1*
c. (W-95)
LAQ
1. Enumerate 2 indications and contraindication of dermatological uses
of topical steroids.(S-02)
2. Classify corticosteroids. Give therapeutic and adverse effects of
corticosteroids. (S-06,10)
3 Describe all the adverse effects produced by long term corticosteroid
therapy. What precautions should be taken during long term
corticosteroid therapy ? (S-07)
4. Enumerate various Glucocorticoids. Describe the actions and adverse
effects.(S-10)
5. Classify corticosteroids. Describe adverse effects of corticosterioids.
(S-11)
6. Classify glucocorticoids. Write therapeatic uses and percautions to
be taken while using them. (S-13)
7. Classify corticosteroids. Describe adverse effects and therapeutic,
uses of glucocorticoids. (W-14)
8. Discuss therapeutics uses, contraindications and adverse drug
reactions of glucorticoids. (S-16)
9. Describe in detail the anti-inflammatory and immuno suppressant
actions of corticosteroids. Add a note on their therapeutic uses and
adverse effects of corticosteroids. (S-17)
10. Give the drugs of your choice-mode of administration and precautions in the
treatment of acute rheumatic fever. (W-71)
11. Name the hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex. Describe uses and
unwanted effects of commonly used corticosteroids. (W-78)(S-84)
12. Differences between exogenous glucocorticoid therapy and ACTH therapy.

;296l
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
(W-86) _ * ” " ~
21 Androgens and Drugs for Erectile Dysfunction.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Antiandrogen found beneficial in BHP is (W-08)
a) danazol b) finasteride
c) ketoconzole d) cyproterone acetate
2. Sildenafil is an inhibitor of (S-11)
a) Na+ - K+ATPase b) H+- K+ATPase
c) Phosphodiasterase d) Lactic dehydrogenase
3. Which one amongst the following mentioned agents is tried for
erectile dysfunction in men ? (W-12)
a) Dutasteride b) Stanozolol c) Sildenafil d) Gossypol
SAQ
None
LAQ
None
22. Estrogens, Progestins and Contraceptives.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Both progesterone and glucocorticoid antagonist drug is (S-03)
a) clomiphene b) danazol c) mifepristone d) tamoxifen
2. Which of the following pairs of drugs is present in combination oral
contraceptive pill ? (W-03)
a) ethinyl oestradiol & mestranol.
b) ethinyl oestradiol & levonorgestrel.
c) levonorgestrel and megestrol.
. d) megestrol and norgestrel.
3. Mifepristone is a (W-04)
a) anti estrogenic b) antiprogestin -
c) antigonadotropin d) prostaglandin analogue.
4. Most common and important adverse effect of injectable cotraceptive
depot medroxy-progesterone acetate is (W-04)
a) nausea and vomiting.
b) disruption of cyclic menstrual bleeding.
c) hypertension
d) venous thrombosis.
5. Mechanism of action of an oral contraceptive pill containing a
combination of Estrogen+Progesterone is the following EXCEPT.
(W-08)
a) inhibition of ovulation.
b) a change in the cervical mucus.
M
I297I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication

c) inhibition of motility of uterine tube

d) changes in the uterine endometrium
6. Metabolic effect of oestrogen is (S-09)
a) reduced LDL cholesterol. b) reduced HDL cholesterol
c) salt and water loss. d) hypoglycemia.
7. Male^ contraceptive obtained from cotton seed is (S-10).
a) gossypol b) cyproterone c) tamoxifen d) cadmium.
8. Which one of the following adverse effects is most likely to occur
with the use of progesterone - only OC pills ? (W-11)
a) Endometrial cancer b) Hypertension
c) Breakthrough d) Psychosis
9. Which of the following is anti progestinic ? (S-13)
a) Mifepristone b) Levonorgestrel1 *
c) Tamoxifen d) Cyproterone ___
10. Steroidal and irreversible aromatase inhibitor is (W-13)
a) Exemestane b) Anastrozole
c) Letrozole d) None of above
11. The most important indication of Mifepristone is (S-14)
a) Endometriosis b) Cushing syndrome
c) First trimesterabortion d) Secpnd trimester abortion
12. The primary indicataion of tamoxifen citrate is (W-14)
a) Female infertility b) Carcinoma of breast
c) Endometrial carcinoma d) Endometriosis
13. Finasteride acts by blocking (S-15)
a) Prostacycline synthase
b) 5-Alpha reductase
c) Alpha receptors .
d) Beta receptors
14. Estrogen therapy can worsen all of the following conditions, EXCEPT
(W-15)
a) Migraine b)Acne
c)Cholelithiasis d)Endometriosis * ,
15. Post-menopausal osteoporosis is treated with (S-16)
a) Raloxifene b) Tamoxifen *
c) Ormeloxifene c) Clomiphene
16. Tamoxifen is used in the treatment of (W-16)
a) Sterility due to anovulatory cycles.
b) Suppression of lactation after still birth.
c) Estrogen dependent carcinoma of breast.
d) Menopausal syndrome. •
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition feyUnique Publication
1. Two drugs which are used to postpone the labour. Give two adverse
effects for each.(S-06)
2. Drug of choice, route of administration and side effects : important
precaution before use of oral contraceptive.(S-03)
3. Oestrogen: Therapeutic uses.(S-OO)
4. What is the indication of Mifepristone ? What are is common side
effects ? (S-01)
5. Write in brief mechanism of action of oral combination contraceptives.
(W-04)
6. Mention any four types of drug contraceptives: List two merits of
combination and phasic pills.(S-05)
7. Mechanism of action of combination contraceptive. Give its two
contraindications. (S-06)
8. Enumerate oyulation inducing agents and their common ADR &
problems encountered.(W-06)
9. Enlist the regiments for Emergency Contraception. Add a note on the
mechanism of action and uses of Mifepristone. (W-13)
10. Write any four use and four adverse effects of progesterone. (W-15)
11. Write a note on selective estrogen receptor modulators and their
therapeutic uses. (S-17)
12. Oral contraceptives. (S-76,92)(W-83,85)
13. Adverse effects of oral contraceptives. (S-81)
14. Pharmacological basis o f: Estrogen and progesterone in OC pills.
(W-84,89,91,92)(S-88)
15. Ethinyl estradiol. (W-85)
16. Pharmacological basis of :Clomiphene in infertility. (W-89)(S-96)
17. Estrogen antagonists. (S-93)
18. Clomiphene citrate.(W-93)(S-98)
19. Mechanisms of action of oral contraceptives. (S-94)
20. Progestins as contraceptives. (W-94)
21. Pharmacological basis o f: Use of estrogen apart from contraception. (S-95)
22. Pharmacological basis Of: Estrogen and progestagen combination for oral
contraception. (W-95) ^
23. Mifepristone.(W-96)
LA Q
1. Discuss various ways of achieving contraception using hormones,
explaining pharmacological basis for the same. State the adverse drug
reaction of oestrogen progesteron combination. (W-00)
2. Enumerate the different types of contraceptive preparations available
for use in females. Explain mechanism of action and toxicity of
oestrogen. Progestreron combination pill. (W-01)
3. Explain the mechanism of action and dosage schedule of oral

I299I
> i
 jpM IP lf

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

contraceptive pills. Outline the management of postcoital (emergency)
contraception. (W-16)
4. Enumerate ovarian hormones. Describe the pharmacological actions of
progesterone and a note on oral contraceptives.(W-70)
23. Oxytocin and Other Drugs Acting on Uterus.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which of the following is administered by slow intravenous infusion
after diluting with normal saline ? (W-08) '
a) phenylephrine b) oxytocin c) neostigmine d) atropine
2. Methyl ergometrine is used in Post Partum haemorrhage because it
produces. (W-03)
a) intermittent uterine contraction of upper segment.
b) intermittent uterine relaxation of lower segment.

d) persistent relaxation of upper and lower segments of uterine^

3. Drug of choice amongst selective p2 agonists as a tocolytic agent is
(W-04)
a) Terbutaline b) orciprenaline
c) isoetharine d) ritodine
4. Drug choice for Induction of labour. (W-09)
a) oxytocin b) ergometrine c) PGE2. d) prostacyclin
5. Drug of choice for induction of labour is (S-14)
a) Oxytocin b) Ergotamine
c) Ergometrine d) Dihydroergotamine
6. Drug of choice for controlling postpartum haemorrhage is (W-14)
a) Oxytocin b) Methyl ergometrine
c) Dihydroergotamine d) Prostaglandin. E2
SAQ
1. Pharmacological basis o f : B2 stimulants in-preterm labour(S-99)
2. Precautions to be taken before starting oxytocin therapy.(W-01)
3. Indication for use of uterotonic agents.(S-02)
4. Enumerate 3 differences between Ergometrine arid Oxytocin.(W-06)
5. Drug of choice, route of administration and side efects : Describe
how oxytocin is administered for induction of labour. Mention one
contraindication for the use of oxytocin as inducing agent.(S-07)
6. Why oxytocin is used for induction of labour & not methylergometrine ?
(S-10)
7. Enumerate oxytocic agents. Write clinical indications of each agent.
(W-10)
8. Enumerate uterine stimulants. Write a short note on any one of them.
(S-11)
M
I3 0 0 I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
9. Compare and contrast between oxytocin and ergometrine. (S-13)
10. Compare and contrast between Nifedipine and Verapamil. (W-13)
11. Classify uterine stimulants. Compare and contrast between oxytocin
and prostaglandin analogue as oxytocics. (W-13)
12. Compare and contrast Oxytocin and Ergometrine. (S-14)
13. Explain pharmacology basis for the use of ergometrine in post partum
haemorrhage. Write down contraindication to use of ergometrine.
(S-15)
14. Classify oxytocics. Write uses and adverse effects of oxytocics. (S-16)
15. Post partum haemonhage. (W-71)
16. Pharmacological basis of: Ergometrine in post partum haemonhage.
(W-72)(S-86,89)
17. Synthetic oxytocin. (S-75)
18. Abortifacients. (W-83)
19. Ergometrine. (W-86)
20. Pharmacological basis of: Oxytocin as uterine stimulant. (S-88)
21. Compare uses and actions & contrast: Oxytocin and Ergometrine. (S-88)
^ 22. Oxytocin. (S-93)(W-97)
23. Select better one giving reasons: Ergometrine or oxytocin in induction of
labour. (W-93)
24. Drug of choice, route of administration and side efects: Induction of labour.
(S-94)
25. Uterine relaxants. (W-94)
26. Indications and contraindications for use of oxytocin. (S-96)
LAQ
None
24. Drugs Affecting Calcium Balance.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which one of the following agents inhibits bone resorption ? (S-11)
a) Fluoride b) Parathromone ""
c) Strontium d) Risedronate
2. Shortest acting neuromuscular blocking agent is (S-15)
a) Pancuronium b)Atracurium
c) Vecuronium d) Mivacurium M
SAQ
1. Calcitonin.(W-84)
LAQ
None
Section 6
Drugs Acting on Peripheral (Somatic) Nervous System
25. Skeletal Muscle Relaxants.
►4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

MCQ(MUHS)
1. A petient develops prolonged muscle paralysis after succinyl choline
injection. The reason is (S-03)
a) The patient has poor renal function.
\ b) The patient has poor liver function
c) The patient has atypical cholinesterase enzyme in blood.
s d) The patient has abnormal nicotinic receptors in the myoneural
junction.
2. Which of the following muscle relaxant is degraded in plasma by
spontaneous non enzymatic degradation (Hoffmaun elimination) ?
(S-03) .
a) Succinyl choline. b) Atracurium.
c) D-Tubocuranine. d) Pancuronium.
3. A skeletal muscle relaxant that acts directly on the contractile _
mechanism of the muscle fibre is (W-04)
a)gallamine b) dantrolene
c) pancurorium d) carisoprodol
4. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants has the shortest
duration of action ? (W-04)
a) pancurorium b) vecurorium
c) succinylcholine d) d-tubocurarine
5. Skeletal muscle relaxant Safe for use during pregnancy is
a) d-tubocurarine b) atracurium
c) pancurorium d) gallamine.(S-09) :
6. Intracellular release of calcium is inhibited by (S-09)
a) mephenesin b) dantrolene
c) diazepam d) d-tubocurarine
7. One of the following skeletal muscle relaxant is more potent than
5-tubocurorine. (S-tO)
a) atracurium b) vecuronium c) mivacurium d)gallamine
8.. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants undertoes
spontaneous nonmetabolic degradation (Hoffman'reaction) ? (W-10)
a) pancuronium b) vecuronium c) atracurium d)mivacurium
9. Which one of the following drugs specifically reverses the muscle
paralysis induced by competitive neuromuscular blockers ? (S-13)
a) Atropine b) Physostigmine c) Tolterodine d) Neostigmine
10. Which one of the following is a centrally acting skeletal muscle
relaxant ? (W-14)
a) Succinyl choline b) D-tubocurarine
c) Baclofen d) Dantrolene
SAQ
][302l
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
1. Why succinyl choline occassionally produces prolonged apnoea ?
How to manage such patient with prolonged succinyl chorine induced
apnoea ? (W-00)
2. Succinyicholine. (S-70)(W-71,73,95) ‘
3. Give reasons: Duration of succinyi choline is prolonged in certain
individuals. (S-71)
4. Compare and contrast: Succinyicholine and dTC. (S-71)
5. Chemotherapy of tetanus. (S-75) -
•6. Therapeutic uses of peripherally acting skeletal muscle reiaxant.(W-92)
LAQ
1. Classify skeletal muscle relaxants on the basis of mechanism of
action. Describe the uses of curare- alkaloids. (W-10)
2. Classify Skeletal Muscle Relaxants. State the mechanism of action,
adverse effects and therapeutics uses of Succinyicholine. (S-14)
3. Classify Neuromuscular blocking drugs and write in brief about
drug interactions and therapeutic uses of peripherally acting
Neuromuscular blocking drugs. (W -13)
26. Local Anaesthetics.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which of the following local anaesthetics is more likely to produce
allergic reactions ? (S-03)
a) bupivacaine b) procaine e) lignocaine d) dibucaine
2. Which of the following nerve fibres is affected first by local
anaesthetics. (W-03)
a) autonomic b) touch sensory
c) pain sensory d) motor
3. A local anaesthetic used exclusively for surface anaesthesia is
(S-09)
a) benzocaine *bj lidocaine c) cocaine d) bupiracaine
4. Local anaesthetic agent used for topical application to the eye is
(W-12)
a) Benzocaine b) Dibucaine c) Lidocaine " d) Tetracaine
SAQ
1. Spinal anesthesia. (S-79)
LAQ
None
Section 7
Acting on Central Nervous System
27. General Anaesthetics.
MCQ(MUHS)

I303I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

1. Which of the following pairs form neuroleptanalgesia (W-03)

a) haloperidol and* droperidol b) droperidol and fentanyl
c) fentanyl and morphin . d) morphine and ketorotac.
2. Opioid analgesic more potent than morphine is (W-04)
a) pethidine b) pentazocine c) fentanyl d) codeine
3. Ultrashort acting Barbiturate is (W-08)
a) thiopental sodium b) phenobarbitone
c) pentobarbitone d) hexobarbitone
4. A systemic adverse effect of Halothene is (S-09)
a) respiratory irritation. b) bronchospasm
c) hepatitis d) myoglobinuria.
5. Which one of the following general anaesthetics possess good '
analgesic activity ? (W-09)______ .______ - ' - '

c) nitrous oxide d) halothane

6. Which one of the following benzodiazepine is used as intravenous
general anaesthetic ? (W-09)
a) clobazam b) nitrezepam c) loruzepam d) midazolam
7. The dissociated anaesthesia is produced by (W-10)
a) halothane b) haloperidol
c) thiopental sodium d) ketamine
8. Now-a days the most preferred general anaesthetic because of its
short duration during day-care surgery is (W-11)
a) Propofol b) Thiopental
c) Etomidate d) Ethyl chloride
9. Out of the following pair which one is used to produce
neuroleptanalgesia ? (W-13)
a) Nitrous oxide + Ether b) Morphine t Pethidine
c) Droperidol + Fentanyl d) Dextropropoxyphene + Codeine
SAQ
1. Preanesthetic medication. Two drugsof different,classes with their
route of administration and dose.(W-03)
2. Give rationale for use of atropine as a preanae^thetic agent. (S-07)
3. Atropine Sulphate as preanaesthetic medication.(S-01)(S-96)
4. Give 4 examples of drugs from different classes used as pre­
anesthetic medication. Give pharmacological basis for them. (W-13)
5. What is pre-anaesthetic medication ? Describe the purpose of each
drug in it. (S-14)
6. Name drugs used in pre-anaesthetic medication. Explain
pharmacology basis for use of any two agents. (S-15)
7. Halothane. (W-71 )(S-84)
M
> 4 l
M
•? F . . - . ....
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
’ 8. Nitrous oxide. (S-74)
I 9. Therapy of mental depression. (W-76)
10. intravenous anaesthetic agent. (S-89)
1 LAQ
1. What is preanaesthetic medication ? Mention Two drugs of different
classes with their route of administration and dose.(W-03)
2. Define pre-anaesthetic medication. Enumerate different classes of
j drugs used for pre-anaesthetic medication giving the basis for use of
each and mentioning disadvantages if any.(S-07)
3. Classify sedative and hypnotic drugs. State advantages of
benzodiazepines over barbiturates. Describe mechanism of action
and therapeutic uses of benzodiazepines. (W-14)
1 4. Describe the various stages ofanaesthesia. Explain in detail any one of the
J volatile liquid anaesthetic agents with merits & demerits. (S-75)
28. Ethyl and Methyl Alcohols.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Mechanism of action of Disulfiram involves. (S-09)
1 a) blocking methanol receptors.
| b) inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogenase.
| c) metabolism of ethanol.
1 d) enzyme induction.
i 2. Ethanol is used in treatment of methanol intoxication because it
(S-10)
i a) stimulates methanol metabolism.
b) reverse acidosis.
c) saturates alcohol dehydrogenases competing with
methanol
d) promotes formaldehyde excretion.
3. Which of the following drug is commonly used in narcoanalysis ?
(S-15)
a) Atropine sulphate b) Scopalamine hydrochloride
e) Phenobarbitone d) Morphine *
4. All of the following can be used to treat alcohol dependence
EXCEPT (S-15)
a) Naltrexone b) Acamprosate
c)Flumazenil d) Disulfiram
5. Which of the following drugs is NOT used to treat methanol
poisoning ? (W-15)(S.-1
a) Sodium bicarbonate b) Ethyl alcohol
c) D isulfiram d) Folinic acid
6. The action of pentothal sodium is terminated through all these routes
M
I305I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
EXCEPT (W-15)
a) Renal elimination b) Hepatic metabolism
c) Tissue redistribution d) Pulmonary excretion.
7. Which one of the following agents is NOT used in the treatment o f
methanol poisoning ? (W-16)
a) Ethyl alcohol , b) Naloxone .*)
c) Fomepizole d) Sodium bicarbonate
SAQ
1. Explain how disulfiram produces aversion for ethyl alcohol.(S-07)
2. Pharmacological basis of:Ethanol in methanol poisoning.(W-00)(S-92)
3. Describe Pharmacological basis for the use of 4-methyi pyrazole in v
the treatment of methyl alcohorpoisoning.(W-06) '•~v
4. Procaine hydrochloride. (S-70)
5. Chlordiazepoxide.(S-7T) &-
6. Pharmacological basis of: Disulfiram irfchronlc alcoholism. (S-72)
7. Lignocaine. (S-72,93)(W-79)
8. Exprimental methods for testing local anaesthetics. (S-74,75) ■
9. Treatment of methanol poisoning.(W-81)
10. Compare uses & actions and contrast: Ether and Halothane.(W-84)
11. Disulfiram.(W-88,91)
12. Alcohol dependence.(S-95)
LAQ /
1. Describe the various stages of anaesthesia. Explain in detail any one of the
volatile liquid anaesthetic agents with merits & demerits. (S-75)
29. Sedative-Hypnotics,
MCQ(MUHS)
1. The mechanism of action of benzodiazepine is (S-11)
a) Suppress sodium influx
b) Open chloride channels
•/ f
o) Suppress NMDA mediated calcium current
d) Facilitate GA5A mediated chloride influx r •
2. All the following benzodiazepines generate active metabolites EXCEPT.
(S-13)
a) Diazepam b) Flurazepam c) Oxazepam d) Prazepam
.

3. Which of the following benzodiazepines is preffered to treat anxiety

associated with depression ? (W-13)
a) Diazepam b) Triazolam
c) Alprazolam d) Lorazepam
4. Which of the following barbiturate is the shortest acting ? (W-16)
a) Phenobarbitone b) Secobarbitone
c) Pentobarbitone d) Thiopentone sodium
M
I306I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I * E dition by Unique Publication
SAQ
1. Pharmacological basis of:Diazepam preferred over phenobarbitone
as a sedative agent. (W-00)
2. Pharmacological basis o f : Forced alkaline diuresis in the treatment
of Barbiturate Poisoning.(S-02)
3. Compare uses & actions and contrast: Diazepam & Phenobarbitone.
(S-05)
4. W hy Diazepam is preferred over Phenobarbitone as hypnotic ?
(S-10)
5. Why benzodiazepines preferred over bariturates as sedative and
•hypnotic agents ? (S-13)
6. Compare and contrast: Benzodiazepines and Barbiturates. (S-16)
7. Why benzodiazepines are preferred over barbiturates as
hypnosedatives ? Write four uses of benzodiazepines. (W-16)
8. Chloral hydrate. (W-70)
9. Chlordiazepoxide.(S-71)
10. Phenobarbitone. (S-74,79)
11. Pharmacological basis of:Mannitol in barbiturate poisoning. (W-74)
12. Diazepam. (W-78)87,89,90,97)(S-88)91,95,98)
13. Therapeutic uses of barbiturates. (S-81,85)
14. Therapeutic uses Of benzodiazepines. (S-87)
LAQ
1. Discuss mechanism of action of benzodiazepines. Describe
therapeutic uses and adverse effects of diazepam.(W-01)
2. Classify antianxiety drugs. Write in short mechanism of action, uses
and contra-iridications of Diazepam.(W-07)
3. Classify sedative and hypnotic drugs. State advantages of
benzodiazepines over barbiturates. Describe mechanism of action
and therapeutic uses of benzodiazepines. (W-14)
3. Describe the pharmacology & therapeutic uses of barbiturates. Add a note
on treatment of its poisoning. (S-70,75,84)
4. Classify hypnotics. Give the desirabie properties in an 1,deal hypnotic.
Describe the various uses of barbiturates giving preparation of choice for
each one. (S-78)(W-79)
30. Antiepileptic Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. The drug used in treatment of absence seizure is (S-03)
a) phenytoin b) carbamazepine
c) phenobarbitone d) ethosuxim ide
2. Which of the antiepileptics produce gingival hyperplasia ? (W-03)
a) phenobarbitone b) phenytoinsodium '

I3 0 7 I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
c) carbamazepine d) sodium valproate
3. Drug of choice in mixed epilepsy (Grand mal and petit mal) is (W-04)
a) phenytoin b) sodium valproate
c) ethosuccimide d) phenobarbitone
4. Which of the following cross the placental barrier ? (W-04)
a) phenytoin b) diazepam
c) enalapril d) all of the above
5. Ethosuccimide is useful in (W-08)
- a) grandma! epilepsy b) petitmal epilepsy
c) temporal lobe epilepsy d) all of above.
6. Following benzodiazepine is antiepileptic (W-08)
a) clonazepam b) diazepam c) nitrazepam d)flurazepam
7. Gumhyperplasia may be adverse effect of (S-09)*1
------- a) carbamazepine b) ethosuximide ^
c) valproic acid d) phenytoin ~
8. Which of the following is the drug of choice for Absence seizures ?
(S-1G)
a) phenytoin b) lamotrigine c) topiramate d) ethosuxim ide
9. Which one of the following drugs is used in the treatment of
trigeminal neuralgia ? (W-10)
a) .carbamazepine b) phenobarbitone
c) clonazepam - d) diazepam
10. The drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia is (S-11)
a) Aspirin b) Imipramine c) Carbamazepine d) Celecoxib
11. Ethosuximide acts by (W-11)
a) reducing low threshold calcium current
b) enhancing GABA mediate chloride conductance
c) inhibiting NMDA evoked neuronal excitation
d) delaying recovery of voltage activated sodium channels
12. The antiepileptic'idrug which can cause hepato-toxicity in children is
(S-13) V
a) Sodium valproate b) Clonazepam ^
c) Phenobarbitone d) Etosuximide
13. Drug of choice for the treatment of status epilepticus is (W-13)
a) Diazepam b) Sodium valproate
c) Carbamazepine dj Ethosuximide
14. Drug qf choice for epilepsy in pregnancy is (S-14)
a) Carbamazepine b) Sodium Valproate
c) Phenobarbitone d) Phenytoin
15. All of the following drugs are effective for chronic neuropathic pain
EXCEPT (W-15)

^308^

/
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication

a) Gabapentin b) V igabatrin
c) Duloxetine d) Pregabalin
16. Which of the following drug acts by inhibiting GABA transaminase ?
(S-16)
a) Lamotrigine b) Tiagabine
c) Gabapentin d) V igabatrin
SAQ
1. Drug of choice & mode of action & side effects: Grandmal epilepsy.
(S-99 )(S-70,94)
2. Eldepryl in parkinsonism.(W-99)
3. State giving reasons which supplement should be administered.to a
pregnant epileptic women on Phenytoin therapy and to her newborn.
(W-02)
4. What are the problems encountered in pregnant ladies on
Anti-epileptic medication ? List few precautions and actions that should
be taken.(W-06)
5. Which anti-epileptic can be used when the patient is having both
grandmal and petit mal epilepsy ? Give its two adverse effects.(S-07)
6. Compare uses & actions and contrast: Diazepam & Phenobarbitone.
(S-05)
7. Pharmacological basis o f: Pherobarbitone in grandmal epilepsy.(W-71,81)
8. Compare uses & actions and contrast: Phenobarbitone and Thiopentone
Sodium. (S-73)
9. Preferred Routes, Dosage, Uses & Toxicity: Phenytoin sodium. (S-73)
10. Preferred Routes, Dosage, Uses & Toxicity: Thiopentone sodium.(W-73,88)
11. Pharmacological basis ofrStatus epiiepticus drug treatment. (S-74)
12. Treatment of grandmal epilepsy. (S-80,89,90)(W-82)
13. Phenytoin sodium. (S-82,85,88,91,95)
14. Side effect of repeated use & ways of avoiding them:Phenobarbitone.(S-82)
15. Pharmacological basis of:Sodium valproate in epilepsy. (S-84) "
16. Sodium valproate. (W-85)
17. Pharmacological basis of:Phenytoin sodium in grandmal epilepsy. (S-86)
(W-91) "
18. Carbamazepine.(W-89,95)(S-97)
19. Drug treatment of Petitmal epilepsy. (W-92)
20. Status epiiepticus.(W-95)
21. Describe treatment of poisoning due to : Phenobarbitone.(W-98)
LAQ
1. Classify drugs used in convulsive disorders. Describe clinical uses,
mechanism of action, and adverse effects of Phenytoin sodium.
Describe management of status epiiepticus.(S-00)
2. Enumerate drugs used in the treatment of grand mal epilepsy.
 2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
Describe their probable mechanism of action. Discuss the
• pharmacology, uses and toxicity of Phenytoin sodium. (W-00)(S-74)
3. Enumerate the principles of treatment of epilepsy. List the drugs used
in grandmal epilepsy. Describe indications & side effects of
Phenytoin sodium.(S-02) 1
4. Classify antiepileptic drugs. Describe mechanism of action, o
pharmacological actions, adverse effects and uses o f carbamazepine.
(W-04) 3
5. Classify antiepileptic drugs. Give mechanism of action and adverse 3
effects of diphenylhydantoin sodium.(S-06)
O
6. Enlist the drugs used in grand mal epilepsy. Describe the
mechanism of action and adverse effects of phenytion sodium. w
(S-13)
- 7.. C lassify the drugs used in the treatm ent of Epilepsies. W rite
mechanism of action, adverse effects and therapeutic uses of
Phenytoin Sodium. (W-13)
8. Classify anti-seizure drugs on the basis of mechanism of action.
Describe adverse effects and therapeutic uses of phenytoin. (S-15) 0
9. Classify antiepileptics on the basis of clinical utility giving examples.
Enumerate principles of trearment of epilepsy. Describe the mechanism
of action and adverse effects of sodium valproate. (W-15)
10. Classify antiepileptic drugs. Describe mechanism of action, adverse i
effects and therapeutic uses sodium valproate. (S-16)
11. Classify antiepileptic drugs. Explain the mechanism of action of
phenytoin. - Outline the management of status epiiepticus. (W-16)
31. Antiparkinsonian Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Benserazide inhibits which of the following enzymes. (W-03)
a) hydroxylase b) decarboxylase
c) betaoxidase d) monoamine oxidase f^
2. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme inhibitor*/? (W-09)
a) acetazolamide b) meprobamate
c) disulfiram d) selegiline
3. All of the following drugs act at the dopaminergic D2 receptors
EXCEPT (S-13)
a) Dobutamine b) Dopamine
c) Domperidone d) Metoclopramide
4. Selegiline is (W-13)
a) Selective MAO-A inhibitor c) Selective MAO-B inhibitor
c) Nonselective MAO inhibitor d) None of above
5. Livedo reticularis is a side effect^of which of the following
I310I
M

■-I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
antiparkinson drug ? (W-14)
a) L-dopa b) Selegiline
c) Am antadine d) Trihexyphenidyl
SAQ
1. A patient of Parkinsonism stabilised on L-DOPA takes a multivitamins
preparation on his own. What are the possible consequences ?
Explain why they occur ?(S-02)
2. Explain why l-dopa is not useful is drug induced Parkinsonism.(W-07)
3. Levodopa & Carbidopa in parkinsonism.(S-10)(W-82,89,97,98.J(S-87)
4. Levodopa. (S-79,85,94)
5. Amantldine. (S-79)(W-86,89)
6. Pharmacological basis for: Levodopa parkinsonism. (S-89)
7. Amantidine in Parkinsonism. (S-90,91,92)(W-93,95)
8. Levodopa i? not effective in drug induced parkinsonism. (S-93)
LAQ
1. Explain pharmacotogll I teasis of Levodopa in Parkinsonism and
explain its advantages and disadvantages ?(S-03)
2. Drugs used for Parkinsonism. Describe action and adverse effects
of Levodopa. (W-03) ' .
3. Classify Antiparkinsonian drugs. What is the rationale of use of
Levodopa with carbidopa ?(S-10)
32. Drugs Used in Mental Illness: Antipsychotic and
Antimanic Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS) V
1. Prolong lithium therapy can cause. (S-03)
a) diabetes mellitus b) goiter c) parkinsonism . d) gout
2. Chlorpromazine produces all of the following adverse effects except.
(S-03)
a) galactorrhoea b) parkinsonism
c) anorexia and w eight loss d) hypotension.
3. Which one of the following antipsychotic agents produce less
extrapyramidai adverse effects ? (W-09)
a) haloperidol b) risperidone '
c) chlorpromazine d) flupenthioxole .
4. Which of the following cause galactorrhoea on long term use ? (S-10)
a) bromocryptine b) chlorprom azine
c) levodopa d) diazepam
5. The drug of choice in manic depressive psychosis is (W-10)
a)imipramine b) amitryptyline
e) fluoxetine . d) lithium carbonate
6. Haloperidol is the preferred drug for (W-12)
2nd M .B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Gilles de la Tourette’s syndrome.
b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder.
c) Neuropathic pain.
d) Status epiiepticus.
7. Lithium toxicity can occur because of. (W-16)
a) Excess intake of sodium.
b) Imparied hepatic function.
c) Loss of sodium.
d) Excess calcium uptake. .
SAQ
1 State mechanism of action of sodium valproate and its adverse
reactions. (S-11)
2. Toxicity of chlorpromazine & Its Treatment. (W-74,93)
3. Chlorpromazine.(W-85,89,91)
4. Drug treatment of Schizophrenia.(S-92)
5. Lithium. (S-93)
LAQ
1. Explain the term tranqullisers. Classify them according to their therapeutic
uses. Describe pharmacological actions, uses & toxicity of chlorpromazine.
(W-72)
33. Drugs Used in Mental Illness: Antidepressant and
Antianxietv Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. The non-sedative anxiolytic is (S-03)
a) meprobamate b) alprazolam
c) buspirone d) hydroxyzine
2. Which of the following benzodiazepines has short half life. (W-03)
a) diazepam b) flurazepam
c) lorazepam d) alprazolam
3. An anxiolytic benzodiazepine with mild anti depressapt activity is
(W-04)
a) chiordiazepoxide b) oxazepam
c) alprazolam d) lorazepam
4. Imipramine produces following actions EXCEPT (W-04)
a) euphoria b) dryness of mouth
c) tachycardia d) lowering of seizure threshold.
5. Which of the following antidepressants blocks a-2 receptors ? (S-10)
a) imipramine b)mianserine
c) paroxetine d) trazodone
6. The antidepressant used in obsessive compulsive disorder is (S-11)
a) Imipramine b) Fluoxetine

I312I

[
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
• c) Nortryptylline d) Amitrypylline
7. Which of the following is an Atypical Neuroleptic drug ? (S-14)
a) Loxapine b) Olanzapine
c) Pimozide d) Flupenthixol
8. Antidepressant drug that canbe used in nocturnal enuresis (S-15)
a) Im ipram ine b) Fluvoxamine *;
c) Phenelzine d) Bupropion
9. Which of the following antidepressant is referred to as ‘Serotonin
and Noradrenaline Reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)’ ? (W-16)
a) Bupropion b) Trazodone
c) Venlafaxine d) Citalopram
SAQ
1. Pharmacological basis of:Fluoxetine in endogenous depression.
(S-99)(S-97)
2. Enumerate adverse drug reactions observed with use of Tricyclic
antidepressants.(W-06)
3. Describe non-cardiovascular uses of beta-adrenergic blockers.
(W-14)
4. Write short note on selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. (W-14)
5. Chlordiazepoxide.(S-71)
6. Imipramine. (S-74,79,84)
7. Therapy of mental depression.(W-76)
8. Compare uses & actions and contrast: Amphetamine and Imipramine.
(S-78)
9. Pharmacological basis o f: Imipramine in Endogenous Depression.(W-97)
LAQ
1. Classify antianxiety drugs. Write in short mechanism of action, uses
and contra-indications of Diazepam.(W-07)
2. Classify Antidepressants. Discuss therapeutic uses and adverse
effects of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs), (S-14)
3. Classify sedative and hypnotic drugs. State advantages of
benzodiazepines over barbiturates. Describe mechanism of action
and therapeutic uses of benzodiazepines. (W-14)
4. Discuss the pharmacotherapy of endogenous depression. (S-86)
5. Classification, mechanism of action, adverse effects and uses of cyclic
antidepressants. (W-90,92)
34. Opioid Analgesics and Antagonists.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Morphine addicts do not show tolerance to following effect of
morphine (S-03)
a) euphoria b) respiratory depression

I313I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication

c) analgesia d) constipation
2. Analgesic of choice in Acute Myocardial infarction is (W-03)
a) aspirin b) codeine c) morphine d) noscapine
All of the following actions qf morphine are completely reversed by
haloxone EXCEPT. (W-04)
a) mipsis b) analgesia
c) respiratory depression d) sedation.
Which of the following analgesics causes vasoconstriction ? (S-09)
a) morphine b) buprenorphine
c) pentazocine d) meperidine
5. Which of the following drug is used as substitution therapy in morphine
abuse ? (W-09)
a) codeine b) methadone c) fentanyl d) buprenorphine
6. W hich of the following can be used during opioid withdrawal ? (S-10)
a) naloxone b) naltrexone. c) pentazocine d) methadone
7. Morphine causes vasodilatation due to (S-12)
a) Depression of vasomotor centre.
b) Histamine release.
c) Direct action on blood vessels.
d) All of above.
8. Pentazocine is contraindicated for relieving pain in patients suffering
from (S-13)
a) Acute myocardial infarction b) Cancer
c) Biliary colic d) Renal colic.
Which of the following is antidote of Morphine ? (S-14)
a) Naloxone b) Methadone
c) Pentazocine ■ d) Fentanyl
10 Tolerance develops to all of the following actions of opioids EXCEPT
(S-15)
a) Miosis ' ’ b) Analgesia
c) Euphoria d) Nausea and Vomiting
SAQ
1. Drug of choice & mode of action & side effects: Morphine poisoning.
(S-99)
2. Morphine poisoning.(S-00)
3. Give 4 major differences between optoid and non-optoid analgesics.
What are the therapeutic uses of aspirin ?(S-01)
4. Pharmacological basis o f : Morphine avoided in patient with head
injury. (S-01)
5. Compare and contrast opioids and non-opioid analgesics. (S-11)
6. Classify Opioid antagonists. State their therapeutic uses. (S-14)
M
SHI
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
7. State major differencesbetween opioids and NSAIDs (Non Steroidal
Anti-Inflammatory Drugs) depe ding on mechanism of actions, uses,
adverse drug reactions. (W-15)
8. Write uses of morphine and other opioids. Why morphine is
contraindicated in head injury? (S-16)
9. What are the advantages of pethedine over morphine ? (S-17)
10. Untoward effects Of morphine. (S-70)(W-88)
11. Pharmacological basis of:Naloxone in morphine poisionlng. (W-74)(S-92)
12. Clinical status of naloxone. (W-78)
13. Pentazocine. (S-79)
14. Indications & contraindications of morphine.(W-87)
15. Treatment of morphine addiction. (W-94)
16. Pharmacological basis o f: Methadone in Machine addicts. (S-98)
LAQ
1. Enumerate four different uses of opioids and non-opioids giving drug
of choice with dose schedule for each use. Compare undesired
effects and contraindications of opioids and non-opioids.(S-05)
2. Enumerate opium alkaloids. Describe mechanism of actions, adverse
effects and clinical uses of morphine. (W«10)
3. Classify analgesics. Discuss the pharmacology of salicylates. (S-73)(W-79)
4. What is opium ? Enumerate the active constituents of opium. Describe the
pharamcology of morphine and give its uses.(W-73,75)
5. Define analgesic. Define actions, indications and contra indications of any
one commonly used analgesic. (W-83)
35. CNS Stimulants and Cognition Enhancers.
MCQ(MUHS) *
1. Drug causing least physical dependence is (S-14)
a) Alprazolam b) Fluoxetine
c) Dextropropoxyphene J d) Pentazocine
2. Which of the following drugs prolongs survival in the patients of
Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) ? (W-14)
a) Furosemide b) Losartan '■
c) Inamrinone d) Digoxin
3. Dry cough, an adverse effect seen withthe use o f ACE inhibitors, is
due to (W-15)
a) Bradykinin b) Serotonin
c) Histamine d) Prostaglandin
SAQ
None
LAQ
None

I315I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication

Section 8
Cardiovascular Drugs
36. Drugs Affecting Renin-Angiotensin System & Plasma
Kinins.
MCQ(MUHS) .
1. Which of the following is a nonpeptide angiotensin II antagonist
without partial agonistic activity. (S-03)
a)Sara!asin. b) Captopril. c)Ram ipril. d) Losartan.
2. Lisinopril acts by inhibiting.
a) Carbonic anhydrase enzyme.
b) Renal dihydro peptidase.
c) Monoamine oxidase.
d) Angiotensin converting enzyme. **1
3. Persistent dry cough may occur as a "side effect of the following
antihypertensive drug. (W-03)
a) Enalaprii. b) Atenolol.
c) Diltiazem. d) Dethyldopa.
4. Dry cough is the adverse effect of (W-08)
a) captopril b) propranolol c) nifedipine d) clonidine
5. The following drug is contraindicated in pregnancy. (S-12)
a) Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitor
b) Calcium channel blocker
c) Alpha-Methyl dopa
d) Penicillin
6. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to produce dry mouth,
dysgeusia and angioedema as effect ? (S-14)
a) Propranolol b) Enalaprii
c) Losartan d) Minoxidil
SAQ ...... .......... .............
1. Draw a well labelled diagram to indicate drug acting on Renin-
Angiotensin-Aldosteron axis. (W-01) 51
2. Why do ACE inhibitors produce dry cough ? Why is losartan free
from this adverse effect ? (W-06) ’
3. Describe adverse effects of Angiotensin Converting Emzyme
Inhibitors (ACEIS). (W-14)
4. Enumerate drug acting on rennin-angiotensin aldosterone system
(RAAS).Write a note On any one of them. (W-15)
5. Give rationale for the use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
in chronic heart failure and discuss in brief their four uses. (S-16)
6. Compare the adverse effects of angiotensin receptor blockers with
M
I316I

i
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
that of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors. (W-16)
LAQ
None *
37. Cardiac Glycosides and Drugs fo r Heart Failure.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which of the following drugs is a competitive antagonist of aldoster
one (S-03)
a) Triamterene. b) Spironolactone,
c) Amiloride. d) Hydrochlorothizide.
2. Digitalis induced enhanced automaticity of heart and binding o f
glycosides to Na+K+ATPase enzyme is decreased by (S-03)
a)C a++. b)M g++. c) Na++. d) K+.
3. In a patient of congestive heart failure (CHF) which of the following is
the clinical sign of digitalization. (S-03)
a) Pulsus bigeminus. b) Diarrhoea,
c) Decrease in pulse rate. d) Increase in pulse rate.
4. Digoxin and Quinidine act synergistically at (S-09)
a) S A n o de b) A.V.node
c) bundle of his d) purkinje fibers
5. Which of the following adverse reaction is NOT caused by thiazide
diuretic ? (W-09)
a) hypokalemia t>) hyperglycemia
c) hypermagnesemia d) hyperuricemia
6. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of digitalis toxicity ?
(W-09)
a) cardiac arrhythmia b) drug fever c) nausea d) vomiting
7. Drug of choice in congestive heart failure with atrial fibrillation. (W-10)
a) lignocaine b) propranolol c) digoxin d) phenytoin
8. The following electrolyte disturbance can precipitate digoxin toxicity.
(W-10)
a) hypocalcemia b) hypokalemia
c) hyperkalemia d) hypernatraemia I
9. The scientist who described properties of cardiac glycosides (W-11)
a) William Withering b) Fredrick Banting
c) Henry Dale d) Claud Bernard
10. Which of the following conditions is a contra-indication to digoxin
therapy ? (W-13)
a) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.
b) Congestive Heart Failure.
c) Atrial Fibrillation.
d) Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia.
13171
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
11. Which of the following drugs is an inodilator ? (W-16)
a) Digoxin b) Enalaprii c) Milrinone d) Prazosin
SAQ
1. Drug of choice, dose & mode of use, fo r : Digoxin induced fibrillation.
(S-99)
2. Drug of choice, dose & mode of use, fo r : CCF of moderate degree.
(W-99)
3. Enumerate four differences between digoxin and digitoxin.(W-Q4)
4. Pharmacological basis o f : Give the rationale for the use of
dopamine in cardiogenic shock.(W-04)
5. State the pharmacological basis for using enalaprii in congestive
* heart failure. (W-12)
6. — Deseribe4heuued3anjsrrLPLaction of digitalis. (S-13)

the treatment of left ventricular failure. (W-13)

8. Describe pharmacological basis for use of Digoxin in congestive
heart failure (CHF). (W-14)
9. Mention manifestation and drug treatment of digitalis toxicity. (S-15)
10. Describe the rationale behind use of spironolactone in a patient of
congestive cardiac failure. Add a note on possible drug interactions
in such a case. (W-16)
11. Digitalis toxicity. (S-72,82)
12. Pharmacological basis o f: Morphine in acute LVF. (S-78)(W-97)
13. Pharmacological basis o f: Furosemide in acute LVF. (S-78)
14. Digoxin. (S-84)(W-85,89)
15. How will you evaluate digitalis response in patient with CCF. (W-83)
16. Treatment of digitalis toxicity. (W-90)
17. Treatment of acute left ventricular failure. (S-83)
18. Arrange in order of choice giving reasons: Digitoxin, Tincture digitalis and
Ouabain in CCF. (S-84)
19. Pharmacological basis of: Dopamine in cardiogenic shock. (W-84,86,92)
(S-91) ^
20. Pharmacological basis o f: Digoxin in CCF. (S-85,90,98)(W-94)
21. Pharmacological basis o f: Vasodilators in CCF. (W-86).
22. Pharmacological basis o f:ACE inhibitors in congestive cardiac failure.
(S-94,97)(W-98)
23. Drug of choice, dose & mode of use, fo r: Cardiogenic shock. (S-95)
LAQ
1. Describe the therapeutic objectives of treatment of patient with CCF.
Enumerate drugs used in these patients giving their basis for their
use.(W-01)
2. Pharmacological basis o f : Mention drug used in treatment of CHF.
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition b y Unique Publication
Give pharmacological basis for use of ACE Inhibitors and cardiac
glycosides in CHF,(S-10) *
3. Describe therapeutic objectives of treatment of patient with
• congestive heart failure. Enumerate drugs used in these patients
' giving pharmacological basis for their use. (W-11)
4. Classify beta-blockers. Discuss in brief about their cardiac and
noncardiac uses giving suitable examples with rationale. (W-13)
5. Enlist various drugs used for the treatment of Congestive Heart
failure. State the mechanism of action, indications, adverse drug
reactions and drug interactions of Angiotensin Converting Enzyme
(ACE) inhibitors. (S-14)
6. Enumerate source of cardiac glycosides and discuss the pharmacology of
digitalis. (S-74,80)
7. Describe the pharmacological actions and toxicity of digitalis and its
treatment. (W-75,83)
8. Describe pharmacotherapy of congestive cardiac failure. (S-93)
38. Antiarrhythmic Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. In therapeutic doses which of the following drugs has maximum
negative chronitropic and inotropic actions on the heart. (S-03)
a) Nifedipine. b) Diitiazem.
c) Verapamil. d) Amlodipine. • \
2. All are extracardiac adverse effects of Amidarone EXCEPT. (S-09)
a) pulmonary toxicity b) ocular toxicity
c) haemolytic anemia d) hyperthyroidism
3. Digoxin and Quinidine act synergistically at
a) S.A.node b) A.V.node
c) bundle of his d) purkinje fibers.(S-09)
4. Bretylium belongs to which type of antiarrhythmic agent ?(W-09)
a) Class I b) Class II c) Class III. d)Class IV.
5. Which of the following calcium channel blockers increases serum
digitalis concentration when coadministered with digitalis ? (W-09)
a) nimodipine b) nicardipine - c) nifedipine d) verapamil
6. All are class-ill antiarrhythmic agents EXCEPT. (S-10)
a)amiodarone b) esmolol c) sotalol d) bretylium
7. The most serious adverse effect during chronic Amiodarone therapy
is (W-11)
a) Abdominal pain b) Pulmonary fibrosis
c) Diarrhoea d) Tremors
8. Q u in d in e is a (S-12)
a) Sodium channel blocker b) Potassium channel blocker
M
13191
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Calcium channel blocker d) Chloride, channel blocker
9. All of the following are selective betablockers EXCEPT (S-12)
a) Atenolol b) Esmolol c) Bisoprolol d) Sotalol
10. The drug of choice for the treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular
tachycardia (W-12)
a) Verapamil b) Propranolol c) Digoxin d) Adenosine
11. The drug of choice in Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia
(PSVT) is (S-13)
a) Nifedipine b) Adenosine
c) Propranolol d) Lignocaine
12. Drug of choice for supraventicular tachycardia is (S-15) _
_ a) Verapamil b)Diltiazem
c)Digoxin __________ d)Captopril

attack of supraventicular tachycardia ? (W-16)

a) Adenosine b) Adrenaline
c) Atropine d) Atenolol
SAQ
1. Rational use of digotoxin in patient of atrial fribillation.(W-02)
2. Compare and contrast between Nifedipine and Verapamil. (W-13)
3. Give reasons : Digitalis is used in atrial flutter. (S-70)
4. Drug of choice, dose & mode Of use, for : Auricular fibrillation. ($-71)
5. Pharmacological basis o f: Digitalis in atrial fibrillation. (S-78,83)(W-78)
6. Pharmacological basis o f: Quinidine in atrial fibrillation. (W-81)
7. Pharmacological basis of . Phenytoin in digitalis induced arrhythmias.
(W-86)
8. Drug treatment of digitalis induced arrhythmias. (S-89)
9. Drug of choice, dose & mode of use, for: Ventricular fibrillation. ($-94)
10. Pharmacological basis o f: Verapamil in supraventricular tachycardia.
(W-96) '
LAQ
1. Enumerate drugs used in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmia. Describe
actions and toxicity of quinidine.(S-76)
39. Antianainal and Other Anti-ischaemic Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. In hypertensive emergency which of the following is used. (S-03)
a) Sublingual nifedipine. b) IV clonidine.
c) Oral nifedipine. d) IV guanethidine.
2. One of the following calcium channel blocker is having higher affinity
and selectivity for cerebral blood vessels. (S-09)
a) Nicardipine b) Nifedipine c) Nimodipine d) Nitrendipine.
M
I320I 1
k
"vt :
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
3. Which of the following drug is approved for prophylaxis & treatment
of neurological defect due to cerebral vasospasm following
subarachnoid haemorrhage ? (S-10)
a) diltiazem b) nimodipine c) verapemil d) amlodepine.
4. The beneficial effect of beta adrenergic blockers in chronic angina
pectoris is explained on the following. (W-10)
a) antithrombotic effect
b) coronary vasodilatation
c) decreased myocardial oxygen demand
d) reduced total peripheral resistance.
5. Nitrates can cause all the following adverse effects EXCEPT. (W-10)
a) headache b) haemolytic anemia
c) drug rashes d) syncope
6. The preferred drug in variant angina of Prinzmetal is (W-11)
a) Metaprolol b) Atenolol c) Dipyridamol d) Nifedepine
7. The nitrate which does NOT under go first pass metabolism is (S-13)
a) Isosorbide mononitrate b) Glyceryl trinitrate
c) Isosorbide dinitrate d) Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
8. Which amongst the following Calcium channel blockers is preferred
for the treatment of subarachnoid haemorrhage ? (W-13)
a) Verapamil b) Nimodipine
c) Nicardipine d) Amlodipine
9. The predominant mechanism of pain relief by nitrates in classic stable
angina is by (W-13)
a) Reduction in venous return .
b) Dilatation of coronary arteries
c) Decrease in peripheral arterial resistance
d) Reduction in myocardial contractility
10. The anti-anginal effect of nitrates in stable angina is primarily
attributed to (W-14)
a) Negative ionotropy b) Negative chronotropy
c) Preload reduction d) Antiplatelet effect
11. The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of Glyceryl trinitrate in
classical angina pectoris is (S-15)
a) Increase in total coronary blood flow
b) Redistribution of coronary blood flow
c) Reduction of cardiac Preload
d) Reduction of cardiac Afterload
12. Calcium channel blocker which crosses blood brain barrier is (S-15)
a) Nifedipine b) Nimodipine
c) Diltiazem d) Verapamil

13211
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
SAQ
1. Low dose aspirin in prevention of Ml in a patient with coronary artery
disease.(S-99)
2. What is the mechanism of development of Nitrate Tolerance ?
How can it be prevented ?(S-07) V
3. Write four organic nitrates and four adverse effects.(W-07)
4. Drug of choice, dose & mode of use, fo r : Acute Myocardial
Infarction. (S-99)
5. Write role of p blockers in Angina pectoris and myocardial infarction.
(S-11)
6. Describe in brief mechanism of action of Nitrates. (W-11)
7. Compare and contrast between Nifedipine and Verapamil. (W-13)
8. Explain "Coronary steal phenomenon" and its clinical significance.
(S-14)1*
9; What is the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers in
angina pectoris ? What are their adverse effects ? (S-17)
10. Pharmacological basis o f: Propranolol in angina pectoris. (S-72)(W-81)
11. Treatment of angina pectrois. (S-83)(W-85)
12. Treatment of myocardial infarction. (W-82)
13. Drug of choice, dose & mode of use, for: Acute angina. (S-88)
14. Angiotensin, converting enzyme inhibitors. (S-91,96)
15. Sodium nitrite with sodium thiosulfate.(W-92)
16. Drug of choice, do§e & mode of use, fo r: Acute attack & angina pectoris.
(W-95)
17. Pharmacological basis o f: Urokinase in myocardial infraction. (S-97)
LAQ
1. List commonly used groups of drug for the therapy of angina
pectoris.Give exampjes of atleast 2 drugs from each group. Give'
pharmacological basis for use of any two groups in this condition.
State why combination therapy is prefered.(S-Ot)
2. Pharmacological basis of drugs used in angina pectoris ?(S-03)
3. Describe the drug management of myocardial infarction. (W-10)
4. Explain the rationale for the use of Nitroglycerine in Angina Pectoris.
(S-12)
5. Classify beta-blockers. Discuss in brief about their cardiac and
noncardiac uses giving suitable examples with rationale. (W-13)
6. Discuss therapeutic managementof angina pectoris.(W-72)
7. ! Discuss pharmacological basis of drugs used in myocardial infarction.
(W-72)
8. Classify vasodilators. Describe actions; uses and toxicity of nitrites. (W-75,77)
9. List various anti-anginal drugs giving their mechanism of action. (W-83)
(S-86)
M
^322][
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I " 1E dition by U nique Publication

40. Antihypertensive Drugs.

MCQ(MUHS)
1. Rebound hypertension on sudden stoppage of medication is most
likely to occur with (W-03)
a) Hydrochlorothiazide. b) Prazosin,
c) Lisinopril. d) Clonidine.
2. Furosemide is to be preferred over hydrochlorothiazide when
hypertension is accompaied by (W-03)
a) Acute bronchial asthma. b) Acute gout.
c) Diabetes mellitus. d) Acute congestive cardiac failure.
3. The following antihypertensive drug has a favourable effect on plasma
lipid profile. (W-04)
a) prazosin b) propranolol
c) hydrochlorothiazide d) chlorthalidone
4. Potassium sparing diuretics is (W-08)
a) frusemide b) amiioride
c) mannitol d) hydrochlorothiazide
5. The drug of choice for treatment of hypertension in a pregnant woman
is (W-08)
a) hydrochlorothiazide b) methyl dopa
c) propranolol d) enalaprii.
6. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is preferred in a
diabetic patient ? (W-09)
a) propranolol b) ramipril
c) hydrochlorothiazide d) metoprolol
7. The drug of choice for the treatment of hypertension in pregnancy is
(W-11)
a) Hydrochlorothiazide b) Propranolol
c) Methyl Dopa d) Enalaprii
8. Postural hypotension is commonly seen with (S-12)
a) Prazosin b) Nifedipine c) Atenolol d) Enalaprii
9. Which of the following anti-hypertensive drugs is &afe for treatment
of hypertension during pregnancy ? (W-13)
a) Enalaprii b) Losartan c) Methyldopa ’ d) Propranolol
10. Drug of first choice in the treatment of hypertension in pregnancy is
(W-15)
a) Atenolol b) Methyldopa
c) Hydrochlorothiazide - d) Nifedipine
11. Which of the following is avoided with propranolol ? (S-16)
a) Nifedipine b) Verapamil
c) Amlodipine ^ d) Nicardipine
^3231
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

12. A female patient of essential hypertension was prescribed an

antihypertensive drug. Consequently she developed hair growth on
the face. Which of the following drugs may be responsible for this
effect ? (W-16)
a) Propranolol * b) Lisinopril
c) Amlodipine d) M inoxidil
SAQ
1. Pharmacological basis o f: Enalaprii in Hypertension. (W-99)
2 . Pharmacological basis o f : Amlodepine & Atenolol in Hypertension.
(S-00)
3. Sodium Nitroprusside.(S-OO)
4. Pharmacological basis o f : ACE inhibitor in Hypertension.(W-00)
5. A female receiving antihypertensive agent enalaprii (5 mg/day) is
mm o giver M l
regarding her hypertensive medication and Why ?(S?02)
6. 4 difference between Captopril & enalaprii. (W-02)
7. Why combination of Verapamil & J3 Blockers used for treatment of
moderate hypertention.(W-02)
8. What is nifedipine ? When it is used subiingually ? Mention one
common adverse effect.(S-04)
Mention one common adverse effect.(S-04)
9. Brief 4 salient features of minoxidil.(S-05)
10: Nonselective alpha blockers are not preferred for the treatment of
essential hypertension ?(S-06)
u . Why do ACE inhibitors produce dry cough ?
Why is losartan free from this adverse effect ? .(W-06)
12. What is the mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide
diuretics ? (W-06)
13. Mention four phosphodiesterase inhibitors used as drugs with
example. Mention theiLclinical uses.(W-07)
14. Compare and contrast enalaprii and losartan with Respect to their
mechanism of action, therapeutic indications and adverse effects.
(W-10) . .
15. Describe the treatment of Hypertensive crisis. (S-12)
16. Give reasons: Guanethidine is contraindicated in pheochromocytoma.
(S-70)
17. Undesirable-effects of reserpine. (W-70)
18. Pharmacological basis o f: Guanethidine in hypertension. (S-72,85)
19. Guanethidine. (W-72)(S-79)
20. Give reasons: Guanethidine initially causes rise in blood pressure before
reducing it. (S-76) "

1324
*4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
21. Pharmacological basis o f: Methyldopa in hypertension. (S-80)
22. Hydralazine. (S-80)
23. Pharmacological basis o f: Clonidine in hypertension. (W-82)
24. Pharmacological basis of: Vasodilators in hypertension. (W-82) ,
25. Propranolol with thiazide & hydralazine in moderate hypertension. (S-84)
26. Phenytpin sodium & propranolol for digitalis toxicity. (W-84)
27. Pharmacological basis o f: Betablockers in hypertension. (S-86,96)
" 28. Nifedipine. (W-87,88,95)
29. Prazosin. (W-88) ^ -
30. Calcium channel blockers. (S-90,91)
31. Pharmacological basis of : Nifedipine in hypertension. (W-90)
32. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors. (S-91,96)
33. Verapamil. (W-91)
34. Drug treatment of moderate hypertension. (W-92)
. 35. Pharmacological basis of: Vasodilators are combined with b blockers in
management of hypertension.(S-93)
36. Mechanism of action of captopril. (W-93)
37. Pharmacologfcal basis o f: Hydrochlorothiazide in hypertension. (W-93,96,97)
38. Pharmacological basis of: Propranolol in hypertension. (W-94,98)
39. Antihyperlipidemicdrug. (S-95)
40. Furosemide. (W-95,98)(S-98)
LA Q
1. Mention the groups of agents (with suitable examples) used for
Hypertension. Describe merits & Demerits of angiotensin converting •
enzyme inhibitors.(S-02)
2. Classify antihypertensive agents. Give the therapeutic uses of beta
adrenergic receptor blockers, giving the drug of choice.(W-04)
3. Classify 'Calcium channel blockers'. Describe their pharmacological
actions and therapeutic uses'.(W-06)
4. Classify antihypertensive drugs. Which is the preferred group of drugs
used in hypertensive patients with diabetes mellitus. Give reasons
for the choice. Describe the ADRs of this group of drugs.(S-07)
5. Classify antihypertensive drugs. Describebrieflythepreparations,-
clinical uses and adverse effects of ACE inhibitors.(W-07)
6. Classify antihypertensive drugs. Write therapeutic uses and adverse
drug effects of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors. (S-11)
7. Classify anti-hypertensive drugs. Discuss in brief about indications,
contraindications, adverse drug reactions and drug interactions of
angiotensinconverting-enzyme inhibitors. (W-13)
8. Classify beta-blockers. Discuss in brief about their cardiac and non
cardiac uses giving suitable examples with rationale. (W-13)
9. A 50 year old male patient who is a known case of type 2 diabetes

13251
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
mellitus for the last 7 year visits a hospital for routine follow up. His
blood pressure was found to be 158/98 mm of Hg. State the
anti-hypertensive drug you will prefer in this patient giving suitable
justification and discuss its pharmacology in brief. (W-15)
10. Classify anti-hypertensive drugs. Write mechanism of action, adverse
effects and therapeutic uses of calcium channel blockers. (S-15)
11. Classify antihypertensive drugs. Discuss mechanism of action of
thiazide diuretics as antihypertensive. Comment on combination
therapy in the treatment of hypertension. (S-16)
12. Classify antihypertensive drugs. Describe the management of
hypertensive emergencies and urgencies. (S-17)
13. Describe site and mode ofdrugs used in treatment of hypertension.
Mention undesirable effects of anyone of them. (W-71)
------- 14. Describe pharmaedogrcal basts ofdrugs used in-treatm ent of hypertension.---- —
(S-73) 1
15 Classify anti-hypertensive drugs. Describe drug tfeament of moderate
hypertension. (S-75,81 )(W-83)
Section 9
Drugs Acting on Kidney
41. Diuretics.
MCQ(MUHS)
. 1. Which of the following is a potasisum retaining diuretic ? (W-03)
a) Trimethoprim. b) Triamterene,
c) Trimetaphan. d) Trimethadione.
2. Which of the following diuretics is most effective in acute congestive
glaucoma ? (W-04)
a) indapamide b) amiloride c) 'mannitol d) furosemide
3. Which of the following is an osmotic diuretic ? (W-09)
a) chlorothiazide b) furosemide
c) mannitol d) spironolactone
4. The following drug is avoided in chronic heart failure. (W-10)
a) ethacrynic acid . b) mannitol
c) hydrochloro thiazide d) spironolactone
5. Which diuretic is used for cerebral oedema ? (S-11)
a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor b) Triamterene
c) Hydrochlorothiazide d) Mannitol
6. Potassium sparing diuretic is (W-11)
a) Amiloride b) Hydrochlorothiazide
c) Furosemide d) Mannitol
7. Thiazides causes all EXCEPT (S-12)
a) Hyperglycemia b) increased calcium excretion
^3261
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
b) Increased blood uric acid level d) Hyperlipidemia
8. Which of the following diuretics produces gynaecomastia as an
adverse effect ? (W-12)
a) Acetazolamide b) Hydrochlorothiazide
c) Furosemide d) Spironolactone
9. Which one of the following drug is employed to break the resistance
to thiazide diuretics in refractory oedema ? (S-13)
a) Indapamide b) Mannitol
c) Acetazolamide d) Spironolactone
10. The diuretic of choice for the treatment of pulmonary oedema with
renal failure is (S-14)
a) Hydrochlorothiazide b) Acetazolamide
c) Furosemide d) Mannitol
11. Furosemide should be preferred over hydrochlorothiazide when
hypertension is accompanied by (S-15) v
a) Asthma b) Hyperuricaemia
c) Diabetes d) Congestive heart failure
12. Which of the following drugs is used systemically in acute angle
closure glacucoma ? (W-16) •
a) Physostigmine b) Timolol
c) Pilocarpine d) Acetazolamide
SAQ
1. Hydrochlorothiazide.(S-99)(W-79,82,85,88,89,91)(S-86)
2. High Ceiling Diuretics.(S-OO)
3. Are potassium supplement, indicated in a patient suffering from CCF
and taking digoxin and frusemide ? Why ?(S-01)
4. What is forced alkaline diuresis? Give its pharmacological basis and
indicate where it is used. (W-04)
5. Name two osmotic diuretics and four indications of thes.e drugs.
(S-06)
6. What is the mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide
diuretics ? (W-06)
7. Write adverse drug reactions of high ceiling diuretics. (S-11)
8. Therapeutic use and complications of Diuretic therapy. (W-11)'
9. Explain the uses of high ceiling diuretics. (W-12)
10. Describe 4 therapeutic uses and 4 adverse effects of furosemide.
(S-13)
11. Chlorthiazide. (S-70)
12. Compare and contrast: Mersalyl and Acetazolamide. (S-71)
13. Acetazolamide in glaucoma. (W-71)
14. Drug of choice: Mention diuretic cf choice in following condition, giving the
►4
I327I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
rationale:
a) Cerebral oedema.
b) Case of poisoning. (W-71)
15. Frusemide. (W-71,86^9,95,98)(S-88,91,98)
16. Preferred routes, dosage, uses & toxicity:Acetazolamide. (W-71)
17. Compare and contrast: Hydrochlorothiazide and spironolactone. (S-72)
18. Potassium chloride. (S-74)
19. Triamterene. (S-75)
20. Pharmacological basis o f: Furosemide in actue left ventricular failure. (W-75)
21. Spironolactone: (W-77)(S-85) .
22. Pharmacological basis o f: Furosemide as a diuretic. (W-78)
23. Amiloride hydrochloride. (S-79)
24. Complications of diuretic therapy. (S-81)
25. Mannitol. (W-82,86) '
----- 26. Compare and contrast: Thiazides and high ceiling diuretics. (W-84) ---------------
27T Osmotic diuretics. (W-87,90,92)(S-95=
28. Loopdiurectics. (S-93)
29. Furosemide. (W-95,98)(S-98)
LA Q
1. Explain how frusemide produces diuretic effect. Describing the
changes in urinary electrolytes. Mention the consequences of long
term therapy with this drug & precautions to be taken. Describe the
role of frusemide in management of pulm. oedema.(W-00)
2. Classify diuretics giving e.g. of each group & explain therapeutic uses
of diuretics & complication of diuretic therapy.(W-02)
3. Name two loop diuretics. Mention two therapeutic indications and two
adverse effects.(S-04)
4. Name two osmotic diuretics and four indications of these drugs.
(S-06)
5. Describe mechanism of action, indication and adverse effects of
Frusemide. (W-14)
6. Classify diuretics. Describe the pharmacology of benzothiadizines.(S-74)
7. Describe the experiments for evaluating diuretics. Classify diuretics. Explain
changes in plasma and urine brought about by
[a] Acetazolamide
[b] Aldactone
[c] Mersalyl. (S-76)
42. Antidiuretics.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. One of the following is drug of choice for the treatment of Syndrome
of Inappropriate AntiDiuretic Hormone (SIADH) secretion. (S-15)
a) Chlopropamide b) Vasopressin

^3281
*4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
c) Thiazides Diuretics d) Demeclocycline
SAQ
1. Vasopressin In bleeding of varices. (W-84)
LAQ
None
Section 10
Drugs Affecting Blood and Blood Formation
43. Haematinics and Erythropoietin.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Commonest side effect of oral iron therapy is (W-03)
a) Gastrointestinal disturbance. b) Allergic reaction,
c) Blood dyscrasia. d) Skin pigmentation.
2. The percentage of elemental iron in hydrated ferrous sulphate is
(W-04)
a) 5% b) 10% c) 20% d )3 3 %
3. One of the following ferrous salt provide highest yield of
elemental iron. (S-09)
a) ferrous sulfate b) ferrous furamate
c) ferrous succinate d) ferrous gluconate.
4. Folic acid can correct the megaloblastic anemia caused by the
following EXCEPT (W-10)
a) phenobarbitone b) methotrexate
c) phenytoin d) primidone
5. Acute Iron poisoning is treated by (W-11)
a) EDTA b) Dimercaprol
c) Desferrioxamine d) D-Penicillamine
6. Pernicious anaemia is best treated by administration of (S-14)
a) Iron dextran b) Folic acid
c) Vitamin B12 d) Erythropoetin
7. All of the following drugs retard absorption of oral iron EXCEPT
(W-15)
a) Phytates b) Vitamin C
c) Calcium d) Chelating agents
SAQ
1. Cyanocobalamine (Vit.B12).(W-99)fS-75)
2. Folic acid.(S-OI)
3. What is folinic acid? State its advantage and Indicate where it is
used. (W-03)
4. Name two parenteral iron preparations. Give indications for parenteral
iron therapy. (S-11)
M
^3291
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

5. State the adverse effects of and indications for parenteral iron

therapy. (W-12)
6. Name 2 oral and 2 parenteral iron preparations. Describe the
indications and adverse effects of iron therapy. (S-13)
7. Explain why folic acid is started from the first trimester but iron is
started in second trimester of pregnancy, even if Hb levels is
t normal ? (S-15)
8. Enumerate parenteral iron preparations. Write indications and adverse
effects of parentaral iron therapy. (S-16)(W-16)
9. What is the mechanism of action of desferrioxamine and enlist the
therapeutic uses ? (S-17)
10. Drug of choice, dose & mode of use: iron deficiency anemia in last
trimester. (S-70)
11. Iron deficiency anemia in last trimester. (W-70)1 *
-------1 2 --Parenteralpreparations-of iron. (S-71,76,79ffi3,8§)
13. Drug of choice, dose & mode of use: Pernicious anemia. (W-71)
14. Compare & Contrast: Cyanocobalamin and Folic acid. (S-72)
15. Preferred routes, dosage, uses & toxicity: Iron Sorbitol Citric acid complex.
(W-72)
16. Anti anemic vitamins. (W-73)
17. Factors modifying absorption of iron. (S-75)
18. Intravenous iron therapy. (W-77)
19. Preparations of iron. (W-86) •
. 20. Ferrous sulphate. (S-95)
21. Drug of choice, dose & mode of use-.Anemia in 3rdtrimester. (W-95)
22. Describe treatment of poisoning due to: Iron. (W-98)
LAQ
1. A patient of megaloblastic anaemia was treated with 5 mg of folic
acid tablets. A month later, megaloblasts disappeared and the
hemoglobin level improved. However, the patient developed sensory
abnormalities and cognitive deficit. What is the reason for
neurological manifestation ? (S-01)
2. Enumerate oral iron preparations, Describe the mechanism of and
factors affecting iron absorption.(W-04)
3. Enumerate various oral and parenteral Iron preparations. Mention
indications for parenteral iron therapy and discuss in brief about
treatment of Iron poisoning. (W-13)
4. Enumerate various oral iron preparations. What are adverse effects
of oral iron ? Describe drug treatment of iron deficiency anaemia.
(W-14)
5. Describe the pharmacology of drugs used In the treatment of megaloblastic
anaemias. (S-74)
M
^3301
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
44. Drugs Affecting Coagulation, Bleeding & Thrombosis.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Control of heparin therapy is done with (W-04)
a) circulation time
b) prothrombin time
c) activated partial thromboplastin time
d) gastro intestinal transit time
2. Which of the following is used to reverse the effect of warfarin
sodium ? (W-08)
a) Vit K. b) Vit D. c)VitE . d)VitA.
3. All of the following antiplatelet drugs are adinosine diphosphate
antagonist EXCEPT. (S-09) .
a) aspirin b) ticlopidine c) clopidogrel d) dipyridamole
4. Which adverse reaction is seen with streptokinase infusion ? (W-09)
a) severe pruritus b) anaphylactic reaction
c) arrhythmia d) cough
5. Which of the following agents inhibits platelet aggregation by
blocking the Gp Ilb/lla receptor ? (S-10)
a) aprotinin b) aspirin c) abciximab d) alteplase °
6. Heparin is contraindicated in all of the following EXCEPT. (S-10)
a) bleeding disorder, b) deep vein thrombosis
c) hypersensitivity d) surgery of brain, spinal cord, eye.
7. Which is the antagonist of heparin ? (S-11)
a) Protamine sulfate b) Vitamin K
c) Desferrioxamine d) All of the above
8. Following all drugs are fibrinolytic EXCEPT (S-11)
a) Streptokinase b) Urokinase
c) Tranexaemic acid d) Alteplase
9. Which antiplatelet acts as an antagonist of glycoprotein II b/lll a
receptor ? (S-11)
a) Aspirin b) Clopidogrel c) Abciximab gJ) Dipyridamole
10. Which of the following is used to treat overdose of oral
anticoagulants ? (W-11) - ■.
a) Vitamin.A b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin K
11. Hemorrhage secondary to heparin administration can be corrected
by administration of (S-12)
a) Vitamin K b) Whole blood
c) Protamine sulphate d) Ascorbic acid
12. Aspirin is indicated for all of these conditions EXCEPT. (S-12)
a) Osteoarthritis. b) Chronic gout
c) Acute rheumatic fever d) Stroke
M
►i
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by Unique Publication
13. All of these are reversible inhibitors of eyclo-oxygenase enzyme
EXCEPT. (S-12)
a) Acetyl salicyclic acid b) Diclofenac
c) Indomethacin d) Ketorolac
14. Which of the following is a fibrin specific thrombolytic agent ? (W-12)
a) Streptokinase b) Alteplase
c) Aprotinin d) Tranexaemicacid
15. Antidote for heparin over dose is (W-12)
a) Proguanil b) Protamine
c) Probenecid d) Phenindione
16. Streptokinase overdose is treated with (S-13)
a) Warfarin b) Epsilon amino-caproic acid
c) Aspirin d) Vitamin K
-------17. Which one of the-foHowing drugs is a proven fruman teratogen ? —
(S-13) ------- ~
a) Warfarin sodium b) Chloroquine
c) Methyldopa d) Dicyclomine
18. Antidote used for the treatment of Heparin overdosage is (W-13)
a) Vitamin K b) Protamine sulphate
c) Epsilon-aminocaproic acid d) Ethamsylate
19. The absorption of oral iron is enhanced by co-administration of
(W-13)
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D
20. The antidote used for the treatment of Warfarin toxicity is (S-14)
a) Protamine sulphate b) Desferrioxamine
c) Atropine d) Vitamin K
21. The anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy is (W-14)
a) Heparin b) Warfarin
c)Dicumarol d) Phenindione
22. Which of the following drug can be safely prescribed in pregnancy ?
(S-15)
a) Warfarin b) ACE Inhibitors '*■
c) Heparin d) Beta Blocker
23. Which of the following drug can be used in heparin induced
thrombocytopenia for short-term indications ? (S-16)
a) LMWH b) Warfarin c) Argatroban d) Aspirin
24. Which of the following drug is a glycoprotein (GP) llb/llla
antagonist ? (S-16)
a) Abciximab b) Ticlopidine
c) Dipyridamole d) Clopidogrel
25. Which of the following anticoagulants is preferred for prevention of

^332^
d M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
deep vein thrombosis during pregancy ? (W-16)
a) Warfarin b) Heparin
c) Enoxaparin d) Dalteparin
SAQ
1. Use o f U eparinin Deep Vein Thrombosis.(W-00)
2. Compare & C ontrast: Heparin and Warfarin sodium.(S-01 )(S-85J
3. Warfarin toxicity with rationale of management of it. (S-02)
4. Mention two antiplatelet agents. Mention two indications, where they
are used.(W-04)
5. Name three fibrinolytic agents. Which of these is antigenic and why ?
(W-06)
6. Compare and contrast between unfractionated heparin and low
molecular weight heparin.(W-07)
7. What is the mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparins ?
Mention their therapeutic uses. (W-10)
8. Mention fibrinolytic agents and their importance in clinical use. (W-11)
9. Write a short note on anti-platelet drugs. (W-13)
10. Compare and contrast between Streptokinase and Alteplase. (S-14)
11. Write briefly on mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of
warfarin. (W-15)
12. Enumerate comparative features of unfractioned heparin and low
molecular weight heparin. (S-16)
13. What are the differences between conventional heparin and low
molecular weight heparin ? (S-17)
14. Warfarin Sodium. (S-71,93)(W-89)
15. Compare & Contrast :
Heparin and Dicoumarol. (S-72)(W-84,88)
16. Indications & Contraindications for use of oralanticoagulants. (W-72,90)
17. Fibrinolytic agents. (S-76)
18. Sclerosing agents. (S-76)
19. Oralanticoagulants.(W-81,83,91) *
20. Heparin. (W-85)(S-89,98)
21. Antithrombotics. (W-86)
22. Select better one giving reasons:
Heparin or warfarin in management of DVT in pregnancy (W-93)
23. Protamine sulphate in heparin induced bleeding. (S-94)
24. Urokinase. (W-97)
LAQ
1. Explain pharmacological basis of using heparin in deep vein
thrombosis. Write down adverse effects of heparin and its antidote.
(W-02)
2. 4 advantages of low molecular weight(LMW) heparin over
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
Unfractionated Heparin (UFH) with 2 e.g.(W-03)(S-06)
3. Enumerate various thrombolytic drugs. Discuss mechanism of
action, indications and adverse effects of Alteplase. (W-14)
4. Classify anticoagulants. Describe their mode of actions uses and antidote
for their toxicity. *
45. Hvoolipidaemic Drugs and Plasma Expanders.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which of the following hypolipidemic drugs act by inhibiting
HMG-CoA reductase. (S-03)
a) Gemifibrozil. b) Lovastatin,
c) Cholestyramine. d) Nicotinic acid.
2. Which hypolipidemic drug inhibits HMG-CoA reductase ? (S-11)
—— a) Atorvastatin_____ b) Cholestyramine

3. All of the following are colloidal plasma substitutes EXCEPT (W-12)

a)Dextran b) Ringer-lactate
c) Hydroxyethyl starch d) Polyvinyl pyrrolidone
4. All of the following hypolipidemic drugs are matched with their
mechanism of action, EXCEPT (W-12)
a) atorvastatin - inhibition of cholesterol synthesis
b) gemfibrozil - activation of lipoprotein lipase
c) ezetimibe - sequestration of bile acids
d) niacin - inhibition of triglyceride synthesis
5. Antilipidemic drug that prevents hypercholesterolemia by inhibiting
intestinal absorption of cholesterol is (S-13)
a) Niacin . b) Ezetimibe
, c) Colestipol d) Cholestyramine
6. Which amongst the following Hypolipidaemic drugs predominantly
act by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase enzyme ? (S-14)
a) Colestipol b) Fenofibrate
c) Niacin d) Atorvastatin
7. Statins produce their lipid lowering effects by (W-14)
a) Inhibition of HMG CoA synthase
b) Simulation of HMG CoA reductase
c) Indirect increase of LDL receptors synthesis
d) Inhibition of intestinal cholesterol absorption
8. Which of the following hypolipidemic drug is most effective in
increasing HDL cholesterol ? (W-14)
a)Lovastatin b) Simvastatin
c) Gemfibrozil d) Niacin
9. Which hypolipidemic drug acts through peroxisome proliferator
M
I334I

i
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
activated receptor ? (S-16)
a) Simvastatin b) Gemfibrozil
c) Ezetimibe d) Niacin
SAQ
1. Write short answer on - HMG - CoA reductase inhibitor.(S-IO)
2. What are plasma expanders ? Outline their uses. (W-10)
3. Nicotinic acid. (W-74)
LAQ
1. Describe the mechanism of action, therapeutic uses of and adverse
effects of statins. (W-16)
Section 11
Gastrointestinal Drugs
46. Drugs for Peptic Ulcer & Gastroesophageal reflux
disease.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Anti androgenic action is a common adverse reaction of (S-03)
a) Ranitidine. b) Loratidine.
c) Cimetidine. d) Famotidine.
2. Mechanism of action of Omeprazole in peptic ulcer is (S-03)
a) Blockade of H.2 receptors.
b) Inhibition of H+K+ ATPase enzyme.
c) Inhibition of Na+K+ATPase enzyme.
d) Blockade of S_3 receptors.
3. For treating duodenal ulcer the usual duration of R, blocker treatment
is. (W-03)
a) 4 weeks, b) 6 weeks. c) 8 weeks. d) 12 weeks.
4. Which of the following is a ulcer healing agent ? (W-08)
a) sucral fate b) magnesium trisilicate.......
c) metoclopramide d) domperidone.
5. In peptic ulcer, antacids are now primarily used for. |W -04)
a) prompt pain relief b) ulcer healing.
c) preventive ulcer recurrence d) control of bleeding from ulcer.
6. Which drug DOES NOT act intracellularly ? (S-11)
a) Vitamin A b) Steroid Hormone
c) Vitamin D d) Antacids
7. Which of the following is an inhibitor of gastric mucosal proton
pump ? (S-12)
a) Carbenoxolone sodium b) Sucralfate
c) Famotidine d) Lansoprazole
8. Which one of the following drugs is NOT used in an anti H.pylori

I335I
 2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
regimen ? (W-12)
a) Colloidal bismuth subcitrate b) Sucralfate
c) Clarithromycin d) Tinidazole
9. Anti-H. pylori regimens include ail of the following drugs EXCEPT
(W-13)
a) Colloidal Bismuth Subcitrate b) Metronidazole
c) Amoxicillin d) Sucralfate
10. Which of the following drugs is NOT a part of any H.Pylori regime ?
(W-14)
a) Metronidazole b) Omeprazole
c) Bismuth compound d) Cisapride
11. Which of the following agents is preferred to treat Non-steroidal
Anti-inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDS) Induced ulcer ? (W-14)
-----------------af Misoprostal------------- b)-Pirenzepine_____ _ _ ______ _
c) Ranitidine d) Omeprazole
12. Which of these is a systemic antacid ? (W-14)
a) Calcium carbonate b) Sodium bicarbonate
c) Magnesium trisilicate d) Magnesium hydroxide
13. Which of the following is a pro-drug that requires an acidic pH for its
activation ? (S-16)
a) Omeprozole b) Bismuth subcitrate
c) Misoprostol d) Pirenzepine
14. Which of the following drug has maximum efficacy with respect to
inhibition of gastric acid production ? (W-16)
a) Omeperazole b) Ranitidine
c) Sucralfate d) Misoprostol
SAQ
1. Phamacological basis of: Omeprazole in peptic ulcer.(S-99)(W-90j
2. Omeprazole.(W-99)(S-97)
3. Phamacological basis o f: For not giving antacids along with sucralfate
in patient with peptic ulcer.(W-OO)
4. Enumerate the indications for the use of ranitidine and mention its
adverse effects. (W-10)
5. Explain the pharmacological basis for the use of Omeprazole in the
treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. (S-14)
8. Write mechanism of action of Omeprazole as anti-ulcer drug. (S-15)
9. Discuss in brief on various treatment regimens used for eradication
of H-pylori positive gastric ulcer. (W-15)
10. Non systemic antacids. (W-70)(S-75)
11. Aluminium hydroxide. (W-71)
12. Phamacological basis of: Magnesium trisilicate in peptic ulcer. (S-72)
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
13. Sodium bicarbonate. (S-73)
14. Magnesium trisilicate. (W-74)
15. Antacids. (W-79)
16. Phamacological basis of: Cimetidine in peptic ulcer. ($-81,88)(W-82,89)
17. Drug treatment of peptic ulcer. (S-87)
18. Sucralfate. (W-91)
19. Ranitidine. (W-95)(S-98) .
20. Select better one giving reasons: Cimetidine or Ranitidine in peptic ulcer. (W-93)
21. Phamacological basis of: Sucralfate in peptic ulcer. (W-94)
LAQ
1. ' Describe the ways in which drugs affect gastric secretion with
examples. Give an account of drug therapy of peptic ulcer. (S-01)
(W-72)
2. Omeprazole and its uses.(W-03)
3. Classify drugs used for the treatment of peptic ulcer and discuss the
pharmacology of omeprazole.(S-06) .
4. Name four categories of drugs which inhibit gastric acid secretion.
Give one example from each category.(W-06)
5. Classify drugs used in peptic ulcer. Describe pharmacotherapy of
peptic ulcer. (W-07)
6. Classify drugs used in treatment of peptic ulcer. Write mechanism of
action of proton pump inhibitor. Write two drug regimens for H. pylori
infection. (S-11)
7. Classify the drugs used in the treatment of peptic ulcer and describe
the pharmacological basis for their use. (S-13)
8. Classify drugs used in peptic ulcer. Write.mechanism of action and
adverse effects of omeprazole. (S-16)
9. Discuss the pharmacotherapy of peptic ulcer. (S-92)
10. Classify agents used in management of Acid Peptic disease. Describe
mechanism of action & adverse effects of any four agents used for this
disorders. (S-92)
47. Antiemetics, Prokinetics and Digestant Drugs .
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which of the following antiemetic drugs produces-extrapyramidal
effects ? (W-03)
a) Metoclopramide. b) Cisapride,
c) Domperidone. d) All of the above.
2. Which of the following is a prokinetic drug ? (W-08)
a) promethazine b) ondansetron '
c) scopolamine d) metoclopramide
3. Which of the following antiemetic drugs CAN NOT be used in motion
sickness ? (W-09)
I3 3 7 I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) chlorpromazine b) hyoscine
c) dimenhydrinate d) promethazine
4. Which of the following statement about domperidone is URINE ?
(s-io)
a) It is a D2 receptor antogonist.
b) It frequently produces Parkinsonian symptoms.
c) It has prokinetic property.
d) It may cause hyperprolactinomia.
5. Which receptor antagonised by ondansetron ? (S-11)
a )H r b) D2. c) 5HT3. d) Muscarinic.
6. Which of the following is prokinetic drug ? (W-11)
a) Promethazine b) Chlorpheniramine
c) Metoclopramide d) Dicyclomine1 *
7. Which one of the following agents has both, calcium channel

a) Cyproheptadine b) Cinnarizine
c) Chlorpheniramine d) Cetirizine
8. All of the following statements about Domperidone are FALSE,
EXCEPT (W-12)
a) It crosses the blood brain barrier easily
b) It is a D2 receptor antagonist
c) It has a prokinetic action
d) It can lead to galactorrhoea
9. Morning sickness in early pregnancy is best treated by administration
of (S-14)
a) Thiamine b) Riboflavine c) Pyridoxine d) Niacin
10. Which of the following prokinetic drugs produces extrapyramidal
side effects ? (W-14)
a) Cisapride b) Domperidone
c) Metoclopramide d) All of the above
11. All of the following statements are true about metoclopramide
EXCEPT (S-15) ~ ^
a) It antagonizes D2 receptors
b) It causes muscle dystonias in children *
c) Decreases lower esophageal sphincter tone
d) It antagonizes 5HT3 receptors
12. The drug of choice for the treatment of chemotherapy-induced
emesis is (W-15)
a) Scopolamine b) Promethazine
c) Diphenhydramine d) Ondansetron
13. Which of the following drug is less effective for prophylaxis in motion

T338T
*4
f

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication

sickness ? (S-15)
a) Metoclopramide b) Cyclizine
c) Cinnarizine d) Scopolamine
14. Aprepitant acts by the following mechanism. (S-16)
a]LNK1 antagonism b) D2 receptor antagonism
c) 5HT4 agonistic action d) 5HT3 antagonism
15. Person planning to travel to a hill station by bus complains of
previous experiences of bouts of vomiting during travel. Which of the
following drugs would you recommend to prevent this condition ?
(W-16)
a) Ondensetron b) Dexamethasone
c) Cinnarizine d) Domperidone
16. The drug of choice in mild to moderate morning sickness is. (S-16)
a) Metoclopramide . b) Ondansetron
c) Doxylamine + pyridoxine d) Proehloperazine + pyridoxine
S A Q

1. Pharmacological basis o f : Ondansetron in emesis.(S-99)

2. Phamacological basis of: Metoclopramide before radiological
examination.(W-99)
3. Antiemetics. {S-05)(S-75)
4. How is ondansetron useful in cancer chemotherapy induced
vomiting ?(W-Q6)
5. Explain the mechanism of action of Metoclopramide and discuss its
therapeutic uses. (W-13)
6. Metoclopramide. (S-87)(W-95)
7. Cisapride. (W-96)
8. Domperidone, (S-97)
L A Q

1. Compare & contrast between metoclopramide and domperidone.

(W-02)
2. Write names of four prokinetic agents. Write briefly the mechanism
of action for each drug.(W-07)
48. Drugs for Constipation and Diarrhoea.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. Which of the following laxative lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic

encephalopathy ? (S-09)
a) bisacodyl b) liquid paraffin
c) magnesium sulphate d) lactulose
2. Drug abuse potential is least with. (W-04)
a) pethidine b) morphine
c) butarphenol d) diphenoxylate
I3 3 9 I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

3. Loperamide is (W-10)
a) antihistamine b) anticholinergic
c) opioid d) salicylate
4. Which drug is used in hepatic encephalopathy ? (S-11)
a) Lactulose b) Bisacodyl
c) Liquid paraffin d) Magnisium sulfate
5. Which of the following laxatives reduces blood ammonia level in
hepatic encephalopathy ? (W-11)
a) Lactulose b) Liquid Paraffin
c) Bisacodyl d) Castor oil
6. A saline purgative is recommended following administration of (S-11)
a) Niclosamide b) Mebendazole
c) Pyrantel palmoate d) Thiabendazole
—— 7.— The following laxative lowers blood ammonia level in hepatic— — - — —1 *
encephalopathy (3-13) ----------- - =
a) Bisacodyl b) Liquid paraffin
c) Lactulose d) Magnesium sulfate
8. A subpharmacological dose of atropine is added to diphenoxylate
tablet/syrup to (S-13)
a) Suppress associated vomiting of gastroenteritis.
b) Augment the antimotility action of diphenoxylate.
c) Block the side effects of diphenoxylate.
d) Discourage abuse by taking several tablets or teaspoon
fuls of syrup.
.9. Which of the following drugs is classified as osmotic purgative ?
(W-13)
a) Lactulose b) Methylcellulose
c) Docusates d) Bisacodyl •
10. Which of the following drug produces prokinetic action by acting on
motilin receptors in the gastrointestinal tract ? (S-14)
a) Metoclopramide b) E rythrom ycin
c) Domperidone d) Cisapride ^
11. Which of the following is a stimulant purgative ? (S-15,16)
a) Bisacodyl b) Docusates
c) Lactulose d) Liquid Paraffin
12. Which of the following is the drug of choice for constipation during
pregnancy ? (W-16)
a) Castor oil b) Bisacodyl
c) Senna d) Lactulose
SAQ
1. Phamacological basis of: Diphenoxylate & Atropine in Diarrhoea.
M
I340I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition b y U nique Publication
(S -o o ): “ — —
2. Mention two bulk forming laxatives,giving two indications tor their use.
(S-04)
3. Name two emollient laxatives. Mention three indications of these drugs.
(W-04)
4. Name two antimotility drugs and four contraindications of these.
(S-06)
5. Name a lubricant laxative. Mention its uses and disadvantages.
(W-06)
6. What are the indications and contraindications of laxative therapy ?
(W-11)
7. Write mechanism o f action of Ispaghula a laxative. (S-15)
8. Describe the mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of lactulose.
(S-17)
9. Senna. (S-71)
10. Liquid paraffin. (S-72,84)(W-73,91)
11. Bisacodyl. (S-73)(W-92)
12. Preferred routes, dosage, uses & toxicity: Liquid paraffin. (W-73)
13. Anthracene purgatives. (S-76)
14. Phenopthalein.(S-79)
15. Rational use of purgatives. (W-79)(S-81) .
16. Stool softeners. (S-86)
17. Osmotic purgatives. (W-88,89)
18. Emolient Laxatives. (S-96)(W-97)
19. Lactulose. (S-97)
LA Q
1. Classify purgatives with examples. Describe their indications and
contraindications. Mention the adverse effects of any one purgative.
(W-03)(S-05)
2. Classify Laxative-Purgatives. Describe in brief, mechanism of action,
indications for use of any two of these classes.(S-10)
3. Classify Laxatives according to their mechanism of action. Explain
the various indications for use of’lexatives and state
contraindications for their use. (W-12)
4. Classify cathartics. Describe the valid therapeutic uses and adverse effects on
cathartics. (S-73)
5. Describe the pharmacology of drugs used in treatment of non-infective
diarrhoea. (W-78)
Section 12
Antimicrobial Drugs
49. Antimicrobial Drugs: General Considerations.

13411
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
MCQ(MUHS) ;
1. Superinfections are common with (S-14)
a) Use of narrow spectrum antibiotics
b) Short courses of antibiotics
c) Use of antibiotics that are completely absorbed from small
intestine
d) Use of antibiotic combinations covering both gram
positive and gram negative bacteria.
SAQ
1. Sequential blockade & two examples.(W-03)
2. Drug resistance. (S-71)(W-74)
3. Bacterial resistance. (S-76)
4. Super infection. (S-76)
-------5. Prophylactic uses of antibiotics. (S-79)___________________ ________
LAQ
1. Discuss any four factors important in the choice ofantimicrobial
regime, giving suitable examples. Explain any two mechanisms of
microbial resistance and two ways to prevent or overcome it. (S-05)
2. Classify Cephalosporins, Write mechanism of action, adverse effects
and therapeutic uses of Cephalosporins. (S-14)
3. Resistance to antimicrobial drugs. (S-86,87)(W-89)
4. Describe adverse drug reactions encountered during antibacterial therapy.
(S-86)
50. Sulfonamides, Cotrimoxazole and Quinolones.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Cotrimoxazole is used to treat the following conditions except. ($-03)
a) chancroid b) syphilis
c) pneumocystic carinii pneumonia d) shigella enteritis
2. Cotrimoxazole contains which of the following sulfonamides. (W-03)
a) sulfadoxine b) sulfasomidine
c) sulfasalazine d)sulfamethoxazole
3. Which of the following drug has markedly enhanced activity against
gm +ve bacteria and anaerobes ? (W-04)
a) pefloxacin b) sparfloxacin
c) norfloxacin d) ciprofloxacin
4. Which one of the following sulphonamide preparation is used in
ophthalmic practice ? (W-10)
a) sulfadoxine b)sulfamethoxazole
c) sulfacetamide d) sulfasalazine
5. Fluroquinolones act by inhibiting the bacterial enzyme. (W-12)
a) DNA gyrase b) Transpeptidase

I342I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) RNA polymerase d) Folate synthetase
6. A topical sulphonamide used to treat infection in burns wound is
(W-13)
a) Sulfadoxine b) Sulfasalazine
c) Sulfacetamide d) Silver sulfadiazine
7. Which one of the following sulfonamides is used to treat ulcerative
colitis ? (W-14)
a) Sulfasalazine b) Sulfacetamide .
c) Silver sulfadiazine d) Mafenide
8. Which pharmacokinetic parameter of sulphadoxin and pyrimethamine
is similar ? (S-16)
a) Plasma 1 1/2 b) AUC
c) C max d) Volume of distribution
S A Q

1. Fluoroquinolones and two adverse effects. (W-03)

2. Define Urinary antiseptics. Give two examples.(S-04)
3. Compare and contrast nalidixic acid with ciprofloxacin.(S-04)
4. Two microbial causes of vaginal discharge and give pharmacotherapy
of choice for each. (S-05)
5. What is cotrimoxazole ? Give mechanism of action of cotrimoxazole.
(S-06)
6. What is cotrimoxazole. Describe the mechanism of action.
Enumerate four therapeutic uses of it. (S-13)
7. Classify fluoroquinolones. Write their four therapeutics uses and any
two adverse effects. (W-16)
8. Long acting sulfonamides. (S-70)(W-77)
9. Combination of trimethoprim & sulfonamide in therapy. (S-76,87)(W-86,96)
10. Treatment of E.coliU.T.I.(S-81,89)
11. Norfloxacin. (W-91)
12. Drug treatment of urinary tract infection. (S-92)
13. Ciprofloxacin. (W-92)
14. Pharmacological basis of: Cotrimoxazole in UTI.(S-96) *<
15. Pharmacological basis o f: Methenamine in urinary tract infection. (S-97)
16. Compare & contrast: Nalidixic acid V/s Ciprofloxacin. (W-98)
L A Q

1. What is sulfasalazine and state its mm ?(S-03)

2. Compare and contrast Nalidixic acid with Ciprofloxacin. Discuss their
spectrum, uses ana adverse drug reactions. (W-06)
3. Discuss the pharmacotherapy of urinary tract infection. (S-79,90)(W-82,94)
51. Beta-Lactam Antibiotics.
M C Q (M U H S )

M
I343I
2nd A f B . B . S . Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
1. The drug of choice in treatment of methicillin resistant staphylococcal

'tim A .
infection is (S-03)

4R)p|N I ^
a) erythromycin b) doxycycline
c) .vancomycin d) clindamycin
2 Penicillinase resistant penicillin is (W-03)
a) ampicillin b) amoxycillin c) carbenicillin d) cloxacillin
3. Drug of choice for treating multidrug resistant typhoid fever in
children is (W-04)
a) ciprofloxacin b) chloramphenicol
c) ceftriaxone d) amoxycillin.
4. All of the following semisynthetic penicillins are acid resistant
, EXCEPT. (W-04)
a)phenoxymethyl penicillin b) ampicillin

5. Antipsuedomonial penicillin is (W-08)

a) ampicillin b) amoxicillin
c) benzyl penicillin d)carbeneciilin
6 . Cephalosporin dffective orally is (W-08)
a) cephalexin b) cefotaxime c) ceftriaxone d) ceftazidime
All of the following antimicrobial agents are contraindicated in
pregnancy EXCEPT. (W-09)
a) ampicillin b) tetracycline
c) ciprofloxacin d)metronidazole
8. Which one of the following penicillins has longest duration of action ?
(W-10)
a) benzathine penicillin b) procaine penicillin
c) penicillin V d) crystalline penicillin
Which one of the following cephalosporins is administered by oral
route only ? (W-12) 7t- |
a) Ceftazidime b) Cefadroxil c) Cefipime d) Ceftriaxone
10. The cephalosporin which is highly active against pseudomonas is
(S-13)
a) Cefadroxil b) Ceftazidime
c) Cefuroxime d) Cefotaxime
11. Advantages of 3rd generation Cephalosporins over 1st and 2nd
generation Cephalosporins in that they are (S-14)
a) Beta lactamase sensitive
b) • Not orally administered
c) Effective against gram positive bacteria
d) Effective against gram negative bacteria
12. Which one of the following is a fourth generation cephalosporin ?
M
> 4 l
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
(S-15) — ~ ~
a) Cefuroxime b) Ceftazidime
c) Cefipime d) Cefamandole
13. Which of the following is NOT a beta lactamase inhibitor ?
(W-15)(S-16)
a) Tazobactam b) Monobactam
c) Clavulanic acid d) Sulbactam
14. All of the following are antipseudomonal antimicrobial agents
EXCEPT. (S-16)
a)Aztreonam b) Clarithromycin
c) Ceftazidime d) Carbenicillin
15. All of the following are beta lactam antibiotics EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) Cefoperazone b) Dicloxacillin
c) Sulbactam d) Imipenem
SAQ
1. Newer penicillin.(W-99)
2. Pharmacological basis o f : Amoxycillin & clavulanic acid in Urinary
Tract infection.(S-00)
3. Pharmacological basis o f : Clavulanic acid along with Amoxycillin.
(S-01 )(W-96)
4. Compare & contrast: Penicillin & Cephalosporins. (S-02)(W-88)
5. Apart from cefpirome, mention other fourth generation
cephalosporins. Mention 3 factors in which cefpirome
differs from IIIrd generation cephalosporins.(S-04)
6. Enumerate Penicillinase inhibitors. Why they are combined with few
antibiotics ?(W-07)
7. What are mechanisms of bacterial resistance to penicillin ? What is
the basis of use of clavulanic acid with Amoxycillin ?(S-10)
8. Select better one giving reasons: Procaine penicillin G or benzathine
penicillin in prophylaxis of rheumatic fever.(S-10)(W-93J
9. Enumerate generations of cephalosporins with suitable examples.
Write mechanism of action, adverse effects and therapeutic uses of
cephalosporins. (W-10)
10.. Write a short note on beta-lactamase inhibitors. (S-11)
11. Ampicillin. (S-71)(W-77)
12. Pharmacological basis o f: Penicillin in Gram positive infection. (W-73)
13. Extended spectrum penicillin. (S-74,88,94,98)
14. Drug of choice, dose and mode of action: U.T.I. with Pseudomonas. (S-78)
15. Pharmacological basis o f: Penicillin in tetanus. (W-83)
16. Pharmacological basis o f: Penicillin & streptomycin in endocarditis due to
Strep faecalis. (W-87)

13451
►4
2ndM.B.B S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
17. Drug of choice, dose and mode of action: Typhoid fever. (W-87)
18. Mention conditions for whiclrthe following drugs are used & explain the
basis: Gentamicin. (W-88)
19. Cephalosporins. (S-89)
20. Drug therapy of typhoid fever. (S-91)
21: Cefotaximev(S-93)
22. 3rdgeneration of cephalosporins. (W-95)(S-99)
23. Pharmacological basis o f: Benzathine Penicillin in prophylaxis of
Rheumatic Fever. (S-96)(W-98)
24. Describe drug therapy of Pseudomonas infections. (W-96)
LAQ
I. State the mechanism of action of p-Lactum antibiotics. Mention the
advantages of 3rd generation cephalosporin Over the 1st generation.
Discuss therapeutic uses of 3rd generation cephalosporins. (W-00)
— 2 Classify penidllirLDescribe therapeutic indications & side effect of
amoxicillin.(S-02) .
3. Classify cephalosporins and discuss uses of third generation
cephalosporins.(W-04)
4. Classify cephalosporins. Discuss, their mechanism of action, uses
and adverse reactions.(S-06)(W-90) .
5. Enumerate p-lactum antibiotics. Describe in brief mechanism of
action adverse effect and four clinical uses of Penicillin G. (W-07)
6. Classify penicillins. Describe the mechanism of action, adverse
effects and therapeutic uses of ampicillin. (S-13)
7. Classify Cephalosporins. Write mechanism of action, adverse effects
and therapeutic uses of Cephalosporins. (S-14)
8. Classify pencillins. Describe its mechanism of action, adverse effects
and therapeutic uses. (S-16)
9. Enumerate third generations cephalosporins. Describe therapeutic
uses and adverse effects of parenterally used third generation
cephalosporins. (S-17)
10. Discuss the pharmacotherapy of urinary tract infection . (S-79,90)(W-82,94)
I I . Classify antibiotics according to their mode of action. Describe adverse
effects of penicillin and management of severe reactions. (3-80)(W-82)
12. Describe the pharmacotherapy of typhoid. (W-92)(S-98)
52. Tetracyclines and Chloramphenicol (Broad-Spectrum
Antibiotics).
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Tetracycline which cause vestibular toxicity in children is
(S-03)(W-16)
a) oxytetracycline b) doxycycline
M
I346I
M

V
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) demeclocycline d)minocycline
2. All the following drugs act at 30 S ribosomal subunit EXCEPT.
(W-04)
a) Chloramphenicol b) tetracycline
c) doxycycline d) streptomycin
3. Which of the following antibiotics is contraindicated in children ?
(S-10)
a) erythromycin b) cefadroxyl
c) tetracyclines d) gentamicin
4. Which of these is a broad spectrum antibiotic ? (S-12)
a) Penicillin G b) Chloramphenicol
c) Streptomycin d) Erythromycin
5. Amongst the following mentioned syndromes which one occurs with
the use of chloramphenicol ? (W-12)
a) Reye b) Gray baby c) Red man d) Fancony
SAQ
1. What are advantages of doxycycline over other tetracycline
preparations ?(S-07)
2. Compare and contrast between macrolide and tetracycline
antibiotics depending on spectrum, uses, adverse reaction and
precautions to be taken for its use. (W-15)
3. Chloramphenicol. (W-72,91) '
4. Side effects of tetracyclines. (W-88)
LAQ
1. Enumerate brbad spectrum antibiotics. Give the actions, uses and unwanted
effects of any one of them. (S-72,79)(W-81,89,96)
2. What are broad spectrum antibiotics ? Describe actions, uses and toxicity
of tetracyclines. (S-73)
3. Therapeutic uses and adverse effects of tetracyclines. (S-96)
4. Mechanism of action, uses and adverse effect of chloramphenicol. (W-97)
53. Aminoglycoside Antibiotics.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Antibiotic whic can be used in impaired renal function is (W-08)
a) streptomycin b) tobramycin c) doxycycline d) gentamicin
2. Which of the following aminoglycoside antibiotics is used for
preoperative preparation for bowel surgery ? (S-10)
a) streptomycin b) gentamicin c) tobramicin d) neomycin
3. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ? Aminoglycosides
are (S-15)
a) Bacteriostatic
b) Distributed only extracellularly
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs , IIIrdEdition byUnique Publication
c) Excreted unchanged in urine
c d) Teratogenic
SAQ
1. Streptomyci n.(S-00) (W-91)
2. Mention important characteristics of aminoglycosides antibiotics.
(W-01)
3. Enumerate aminoglycoside antibiotics. Write common features of
aminoglycosides. (W-10)
4. Neomycin in hepatic coma. (S-78,98)
5. Gentamicin. (W-85)
6. Mention conditions for which the following drugs are used & explain the
basis: Gentamicin. (W-88)
LAQ
1. Name aminoglycosides mention their mode of action. (S-03)

c) Clarithromycin d) Roxithromycin
3. Which one of the following is the drug of choice in
opseudomembranous colitis?
f action, adverse effects and(W-11)
therapeutics uses of.Streptomycin.
a) Vancomycin
(W-13) b) Clindamycin
3. c) Ampicillinaminoglycosides.
Enumerate d) Tetracycline
Describe common properties, shared
4. toxicities
Cholestaticandhepatitis occurs
therapeutic most
uses of commonly with use(W-14)
aminoglycosides. of
4. erythromycin.
Give the mode of.($-12)
action and adverse effects of aminoglycosides'. (W-80)
a) Estolate
54. Macrolide, Lincosamide, b) Ethylsuccinate
Glvcopeptide and Other
c) Stearate d) All of above
Antibacterial Antibiotics; Urinary Antiseptics.
5. Which dye amongst the following exerts analgesic action in the
MCQ(MUHS)
urinary tract ? (W-12)
1. Erythromycin is drug of choice for (S-09)
a) Phenazopyridine b) Acriflavine * :
a) typhoid. b) whooping cough
c) syphilis d) anaerobic infections
2. Whieh one of the following macrolides has significant activity against
Mycobacterium leprae ? (W-11)
a) Erythromycin b) Azithromycin
2n„d M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
O
. c) Gentian violet d) Rose Bengal
6. Highest incidence of antibiotic associated pseudomembranous
enterocolitis has been noted with the use of (S-13)
a) Vancomycin b) Clarithromycin
c) Clindamycin d) Roxithromycin
7. Drug of choice for Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)
is (S-14)
a) Amoxycillin + Clavulanate b) Vancomycin
c) Clindamycin d) Erythromycin
8. Red Man syndrome occurs with (S-15)
a) Linezolid b) Polymyxin
c) Vancomycin d) Clindamycin
9. Which of the following antibiotic is more likely to cause pseudo­
membranous colitis ? (S-15)
a) Tobramycin b)Clindamycin
c) Erythromycin d) Vancomycin
10. Which of the following aminoglycosides has widest antimicrobial
spectrum ? (W-15) '
a) Amikacin b) Gentamicin
c) Tobramycin d) Streptomycin
11. Which of the following is used in pseudomembranous enterocolitis ?
(S-16)
a) Clotrimazole b) Clarithromycin
c) Vancomycin d) Spiramycin
SAQ
1. Mention 4 advantages of azithromycin over other macrolides in terms
of spectrum, pharmacokinetics, tolerability and drug interactions.
(W-04)
2. Enumerate four macrolide antibiotics. Give four therapeutic uses of
erythromycin. (S-06)
LAQ
None
55. Antitubercular Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which of the following anti tubercular drug is not hepatotoxic ? (S-03)
a) ethambutol b) isoniazid c) rifampicin d) pyrazinamid
2. Drug to be avoided in children (below 5 yrs age) having tuberculosis
is (W-04)
a) isoniazid b) ethambutol.
c) rifampicin d) pyrazinamide

I349I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition by Unique Publication
3. The only drug effective against persisters in tuberculosis is (W-08)
a) rifampicin b) INH c) ethambutol d) pyrazinamide
4. Macrolide antibiotic which causes minimal hepatic cytochrome 450
involvement is (W-08)
a) erythromycin b) azithromycin c) roxithromycin d) none
5. Which one of the following drugs is a choice for prophylaxis of
meningococcal meningitis ? (S-11)
a) Vancomycin b) Azithromycin
c) Rifampicin d) Ciprofloxacin
6. Which of the following anti-tubercular drugs is hepatotoxic ? (W-12)
a) Ethambutol b) Cycloserine
. c) Pyrazinamide d) Streptomycin
7. Colour vision may be impaired by (W-13)*1
a) Ethambutol b) Streptomycin c) INH d) Rifampicin
8. Which Of the following anti-tubercular drug is associated with
retrobulbar neuritis ? (S-15)
a) Ethambutol b) Rifampicin
e) Pyrazinamide . d) Streptomycin
9. Drugs that can be used to treat Mycobacterium avium complex
infection include all of the following EXCEPT (W -15)
a) Rifabutin b) Ethambutol
c) Clarithromycin ' d) Pyrazinamide
SAQ
1. Pharmacological basis o f : A patient taking anti-tubercular therapy
developed peripheral neuropathy What could be the possible
reason ? Which agent will you prescribe to prevent its progression ?
(W-00)
2. Describe treatment of multi drug resistant tuberculosis in brief.
(W-06)
3. Enumerate the drugs used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Describe
in short about DOTS. (W-10)
4. Classify antitubercular drugs with their mechanism of actions. List
drugs used in extensively drug resistant TB. (S-1 6) *
5. Classify antitubercular drugs. Discuss in brief the indications for
chemoprophylaxis in tuberculosis. (W-16)
6. Elhambutol. (S-75,91)
7. Drug of choice, dose and mode of action: Tubercular meningitis. (S-78)
8. Rifampicin. (W-78,91 )(S-85)
9. Pharmacological basis o f: Rifampicin in leprosy. (W-83)
10. Isoniazid. (W-85)(S-94)
11. Short course chemotherapy of tuberculosis. (W-93)(S-99)
>4
I350I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
12. Pharmacological basis o f: Single dose once a month Rifampicin treatment
in Leprosy.' (W-06)
13. Pharmacotherapy of resistant TB. (S-97)
LAQ
1. Standard drugs for the treatment of tuberculosis. Describe
mechanism of action, adverse effects and uses of rifampicin.(W-03)
2. Classify antitubercular drugs. Describe the mechanism of action &
adverse effects of isonicotinic acid hydrazide (I.N.H.). (W-04)
3. Classify antitubercular agents. Describe the mechanism of action,
therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Rifampicin. (S-04)
4. Enumerate anti TB drugs. What is DOTS (Directly Observed
Treatment Shortcourse) ? Describe various category DOTS regimens
used in management of tuberculosis. (W-07)
5. Classify Antitubercular drugs. Describe the antimicrobial actions,
pharmacokinetics and adverse effects of Rifampicin. (S-10)
6. Give rationale for use of combinations of drugs in tuberculosis.
Define multi-drug resistant tuberculosis. Discuss the management of
multi-drug resistance for a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis (no
need to mention doses of the drugs). (S-11)
7. Discuss the chemotherapy of tuberculosis. (W-74)
8. Discuss drug treatment of tuberculosis and leprosy and prevention and
management Oi problems encountered therein. (S-95)
56. Anti leprotic Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Clofazimine is used to treat Lepra reaction primarily due to which of
the following actions. (W-03)
a) antibacterial effect. b) analgesic effect
c) anti-inflammatory effect d) immunosuppressive effect.
2. Thalidomide is one of the agents for treatment of (S-09)
a) vomiting of pregnancy. b) lepra reaction
c) malaria d) breast cancer.
3. Which one of the following drugs causes reddish discolouration of
skin ? (S-11)
a) Rifampicin b) Clofazimine
c) Dapsone d) Prednisolone
4. Reddish black discolouration of skin is produced by (S-13)
a) Clofazimine b) Dapsone
c) Rifampicin d) Minocycline
5. Which*of the following macrolide is effective against ‘mycobacterium
leprae’ infection ? (W-16)
a) Azithromycin b) Erythromycin

l3 5 il
►1
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Sotted MUHS MCQs IIIrd Edition b y Unique Publication
c) Roxithromycin d) Clarithromycin
SAQ
1. Pharmacotherapy of Multibacillary leprosy. (W-99)(S-06)(W-97)
2, Drug treatment of Lepromatous Leprosy & Lepra reactions.(S-OO)
3. What is Lepra reaction and how it is caused ? List its types and drugs
used to treat them.(S-05)
4. Pharmacological basis o f: Treatment of leprosy. (W-70)
5. Drug of choice, dose and mode of action: Leprosy. (S-71)
6. Drug treatment of Leprosy. (S-72)
7. Dapsone. (W-80)(S-91)
8. Drug treatment of Lepra reaction [ENL type II]. (S-89)
9. Lepra reaction. (W-94,98)
LAQ

reaction & give therapy for same.(S-OI)

2. Discuss the chemotherapy of leprosy. (S-74,83,86)(W-74,97)
57. Antifungal Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Antifungal agent which crosses blood brain barrier and is effective in
cryptococcal meningitis is (S-03)
a) amphotericin-B b) ketoconazole
c) fluconazole d) clotrimazole «
2. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of
dermatophytosis by oral administration. (W-03)
a) amphotericin-B b) griseofulvin
cj clotrimazole d) tolnaftate
3. Oral griseofulvin is used to treat. (W-04)
a) histoplasmosis. b) cryptococcal infection
c) round .worm infestation d) ring worm infection.
4. Griseofulvin is useful in (S-09)
a) vaginal candidiasis b) dermatophytosis
c) otomycosis d) intestinal candidiasis
5. Reduction in particle size increases the rate of pral absorption of
following drugs EXCEPT. (W-10)
a) spironolactone b) griseofulvin
c) chloramphenicol d) clotrimazole
6. Which one of the azole antifungal drugs is used only topically ? (S-11)
a) Ketaconazole b) Fluconazole
c) Itraconazole d) Econazole
7. Which of the. following drug causes increased intracranial pressure ?
(W-13)
M
I3 52 I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

a) Sparfloxacin c b) Tetracycline
c) Gentamicin d) Clofazimine
8. Tolnaftate is used in treatment of (W-13)
a) Superficial fungal infection b) Superficial bacterial infection ..
c) Systemic fungal infection d) Systemic bacterial infection
9. Gray baby syndrome is^an adverse effect caused by (W-14)
a) Chloramphenicol b) Tetracyclinesv
c) Sulphonamides d) Cephalosporins
10. Tigecycline is NOT recommended in following type of hospital
acquired infection (S-15)
a) Urinary tract infections b) Skin infections
c) Intraabdominal infections d) Pneumonia
11. The antifungal agent that can easily enter cerebrospinal fluid is
(W-15)
a) Ketoconazole b) Miconazole
c) Clotrimazole d) Fluconazole
12. The preferred antifungal agent to treat invasive aspergillosis is (W-16)
a) Voriconazole b) Ketoconazole
c) Clotrimazole d) Miconazole
SAQ
1. Griseofulvin. (S-70,91)(W-73,92)
2. Pharmacological basis of: Griseofulvin In ringowrm. (S-72,80)
3. Amphoterecin B. (S-94)
4. Pharmacological basis o f: Fluconazole in candidiasis. (S-99)
LAQ
None
58. Antiviral Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. All of the following drugs are used to treat HIV except. (S-03)
a) ritonavir b) indinavir c) acyclovir d) zidovudine
2. Which of the following is effective against HIV. (W-03)
a) acyclovir b) ganciclovir
c) amantadine d) azidothymidine
3. Which of the following antiviral agents is used only locally ? (S-10)
a) idoxuridine b) acyclovir c) ganciclovir d) amantadine
4. The viral encoded “reverse transcriptase” enzyme is inhibited by
(S-11)
a)Amantadine b) Zidovudine c) indinavir d) Acyclovir
5. Which one of the following anti-retroviral agents belongs to the class
of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor ? (W-11)
a) Abacavir b) Delavirdine c) Efavirenz d) Nevirapine
M
I353I
►4
2ndM'B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs r IIP dEdition by Unique Publication
- gSKs&gS8!3%a*ggtBg£«gSSaaBasgMg«Basg5KSSRff^ ^ ./,^'awM^.iLwiB^^ mp||aMHWIIlll»— IIWHUBWIIIMWI 'Mmill mill I II HIIW
IiH'I'IH'll'HIHIIHTlimBIHITlTn~lirrr

6.
All of these antivirus are reverse transcriptase inhibitors EXCEPT.
(S-12) .
a) Zidovudine b) Didanosine c) Nevirapine d) Indinavir
7. Which one amongst the following retroviral protease inhibitor
increases the risk of urinary calculi ? (W-14)
a) Nelfinavir b) Indinavir c) Ritonavir d) Saquinavir
V 8. All of the following drugs are effective against herpes virus infection
EXCEPT (W-15) °
a) Acyclovir ' b) Cidofovir
c) Zanamavir d) Fomivirsen
9. Which of the following is the essential component of any antiretroviral
‘Boosted protease inhibitor regimen’ ? (S-16)
a) Saquinavir b) Indinavir
______c) Ritonavir________ d) Lopinavir
10. Zanamivir is a. (W-16)
a) Purine nucleoside analogue.
b) Neuraminidase inhibitors.
c) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
d) Deoxycytidine analogue.
SAQ
1. Drugs used in AIDS. (S-92)
LA Q
None
59. Antimalarial Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. The antimalarial drug which kills the hypnozoites of P.Vivax and
prevents relapse is (S-03)
a) chloroquine b) primaquine c) quinine d) proguanil
2. An antimalarial used for suppressive prophylaxis should act on
(W-04)
a) schizonts b) merozoites c) sporozoites d) gametes
3. Pyrimethamine is effective as (S-09)
a) suppressive prophylaxis for malaria. ;
b) redical cure of malaria.
c) gametocidal in malaria.
d) none of above.
4. Which one of the following antimalarials is the drug of choice in
cerebral malaria ? (W-10)
a) chloroquine b) mefloquine c). primaquine d) quinine.
5. The hypnozoits of P. Vivax are eradicated by (S-13)
a) Primaquine b) Proguanil^ c) Mefloquine d) Quinine
I354I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
. in i - n r in'in .................................................. — - - ......................................— ---------------- ---- ; ' ' ■■--....................— - -■ ' ' ~

6. Anti-malarial drug effective in‘-pre-eryihrocytic phase in liver is (S-14)

a) Proguanil b) Chloroquine
c) Mefloquine d) Quinine
7. The drug of choice for radical cure of vivax and ovale malaria is.
(S-16)
a) Chloroquine b)Prim aquine
c) Quinine d) Mefloquine*
8. Fast acting erythrocytic schizontocides include all of the following
EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) D oxycycline b) Artemisinin
« c) Mefloquine ° d) Quinine
S A Q

1. Enumerate four drugs used in chloroquine resistant malaria.(S-04)

2. Chloroquine an excellent killer of trophozites is not recommended
for acute, amoebic dysentry ? Why ?(W-00)
3. Write mechanism of action of chloroquine. Enumerate its two
antimicrobial and two antiinflammatory uses. (S-11)
4. Classify antimalarial drugs. Mention four therapeutic uses of
chloroquine. (W-13)
5. What is the indication for artemisinin based combination therapy
(ACT) ? What are its advantages over other antimalaria drugs ?
Write any one ACT regimen. (W-14)
6. Drug of choice, dose and mode of action: Vivax malaria. (S-71)
7. Chloroquine. (S-73)(W-97) .
8. Therapeutic uses of chloroquine. (W-77)
9. Radical cure of vivax malaria. (S-81,82)
10. Primaquine. (S-85)
11. Chemotherapy of Plasmodium falciparum. (S-88,92)
12. Drug treatment-chloroquine resistant malaria. (S-93)
13. Quinine.^ - 9 6 ) *
14. Describe adverse effects & therapeutic uses o f: Chloroquine. (W-98)
15. Pharmacological basis o f: Chloroquine given as a loading dose in acute
attack of Malaria. (S-99)
L A Q

1. Enumerate drugs useful in treatment of malaria. Indicate their site of

action in the life cycle of protozoa-Describe uses and adverse
effects of any one of them. (W-01)
2. What is rationale behind use of Artemisinin-based Combination
Therapy (ACT) in acute uncomplicated falciparum malaria ? Describe
any tree ACT regimens. (S-15)
3. Define various terms used to describe antimalarial action of drugs in
relation to life cycle of P. vivax.^Write various Artemisinin based
I355I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd Edition b y Unique Publication
Combination Therapy (ACT) regimens for umcomplicated falcipcii'um
malaria. Give justification for combining two drugs together in ACT
regimens. (W-15)
4. Enumerate antimalarial drugs. Describe mechanism of action and
adverse effects of artemisinin derivatives. Add a note on artemisinin
- based combination therapy. (W-16)
4. Discuss the chemotherapy of malaria with prophylaxis. (W-86)
5. Discuss mechanism of action, side effects and uses of chloroquine and
quinine.(W-93)
6. Describe the mechanism of action, adverse reactions and therapeutic uses
Of following antimalarial drugs - Chloroquine, Quinine, Primaquine,
Mepacrine. Pyrimethamine and Mefloquine. (S-91)
5. Classify antimalarial agents. Describe the mechanism of action, adverse
reaction & therapeutic uses of any two anti malarial drugs. (W-95)1*

MCQ(MUHS)
1. In addition to antiamoebic activity, tinidazole inhibits. (W-04)
a) aerobic bacilli b) anaerobic bacilli
c) Gm +ve cocci d) G m -ve cocci.
2. Which of the following antiamoebic drugs NOT effective in extra
intestinal ameobiasis ? (W-09)
a) chloroquine b) metronidazole c) diloxanide d) tinidazole
3. Which one of the following agents is the drug of choice in acute
attack of intestinal amoebiasis ? (W-10)
a) diloxanide b) metronidazole
e) iodochlorhydroxyquinolline d) tetracycline
4. The drug of choice for treatment of invasive amoebic dysentery is
(W-12)
a) Niclosamide b) Mebendazole
c) Metronidazole d)Natamycin
5. Which of the following drug is most effective in amoebic cyst
passers ? (W-15,16)
a) Tinidazole b) Metronidazole
c) Secnidazole d) Diloxanide furoate
SAQ
1. Discuss the adverse effects and therapeutic uses of Metronidazole.
(S-14)
2. Describe any four therapeutic uses of metronidazole with respect to
place in therapy,dose,frequency,route of administration and duration
of treatment. (S-15)
3. Write four uses and adverse effects of Metronidazole. (W-15)

I356I
M
/
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
4. Drug of choice, dose and mode of action: Trichomoniasis. [S -7 8 )
5. Pharmacological basis of: Chloroquine in amoebic hepatitis.(W-70,83)
(S-99)
6. Treatment of amoebic hepatitis. (S-81)(W-82,85)
7. Metronidazole. (S-85,88)
8. Mebendazole. (S-89)(W-89,91)
9. Pharmacological basis of: Diloxanide furoate in amoebiasis. (S-86)
10. Drug of choice, dose and mode of action:Acute amoebic dysentery. (W-87)
11. Albendazole. (W-94)
12. Describe adverse effects & therapeutic uses o f: Metronidazole. (W-98)
L A Q

1. Describe therapeutic uses and ^adverse effects of metronidazole.

Mention one interaction occurring with metronidazole. (S-07)
2. Discuss the chemotherapy of amoebiasis. (W-71)(S-90)
3. Classify amoebicidal drugs. Describe the uses & toxicity of Emetine and
Metronidazole. (W-74)
4. Discuss the chemotherapy of amoebic hepatitis. (W-89)
5. 'Describe pharmacotherapy of intestinal amoebiasis. (S-98)
61. Anthelmintic Drugs.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. Drug of choice in neurocysticercosis is (S-03)

a) niclosamide b) ivermectin
c) mebendazole d) praziquantel
2. Drug of choice for ascariasis is (W-03)
a) cotrimoxazole b) clotrimazole
c) mebendazole d) metronidazole
3. Which of the following anthelmintic drugs is effective as
immunostimulant ? (W-09)
a) albendazole b) levamisole
c) praziquantel d) mebendazole
4. Which one of the following anthelmintics is used in neurociste
cercosis ? (W-09)
a) metronidazole b) mebendazole
c) albendazole d) levamidazole
5. Which of the following is preferred for treatment of
neurocysticercosis ? (S-10)
a) praziquantel b) ivermectin
c) mebendazole d) niclosamide
6. A saline purgative is recommended following administration of (S-11)
a) Niclosamide b) Mebendazole
c) Pyrantel palmoate d) Thiabendazole
7. The drug of choice for the treatment of neurocysticercosis is (W-11)
T357T
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUMS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Albendazole '' b) Mebendazole , •
c) Praziquantel d) Niclosamide
8. The drug which is an immunostimularit is (S-13)
a) Cyclophosphamide b) Levamisole
c) Methotrexate d) Cyclosporine
9. Which of the following antihelminthic is most safe during pregnancy?
(W-15)
v a) Piperazine b) Pyrentel pamoate
c) Albendazole d) Thiabendazole
10. Ivermectin is used in the treatment of all of the following EXCEPT ?
(S-16)
a) Ringworm b) Scabies
c) Pediculosis d) Onchocerciasis
----- SAQ ----- — —-----
1. Why albendazole preterecT over mebendazole ?(S-01) ;
2. Why praziquantel is preferred to niclosamide in the treatment of
Taenia solium infestation ?($-07)
3. Name two drugs used in mixed round worm infestation. Write
mechanism of action of each.(W-07)
4. Drug of choice, dose and mode of action: Hookworm infestation. (S-71,78)
5. Treatment of threadworm infestation. (W-70)
6. Drug therapy of filariasis. (WT72)
7. Treatment of hookworm infestation. (W-73)
8. Drugs used in roundworm infestation. (S-90,94)
9. Pharmacological basis o f: Diethylcarbamazine in filariasis. (S-79)
10. Drug of choice, dose and mode of action: Threadworm infestation.(W-85)
11. Drug treatment of mixed worm, roundworm and hookworm infestation.
(S-89)(W-90)
LAQ
None
Section 13
Chemotherapy of Neoplastic Diseases
62. Anticancer Drugs.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Which one of the following anti-cancer drugs is cardiotoxic ? (W-09)
a) cyclophosphamide b) vincristine
c) cisplatin d) doxorubicin
2. Among following anticancer drugs which is useful in psoriasis ?
(S-10)
a) cyclophosphamide b) methotrexate
c) meclorithamine d) mitomicin-C
M
][358l
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
3. Which amongst the following is used as immuno suppressant for
organ transplantation ? (W-12)
a) Amphotericin B b) Levamisole
c) Ivermectin d) Cyclosporin
4. Folinic acid is specifically indicated for (S-13)
a) pernicious anemia b) anti epileptic therapy t °
c) methotrexate toxicity d) pregnancy
. o5. 'W hich one of the following is immunostimulant ? (W-14)
a) BCG vaccine b) Prednisotone
.c) Cyclophosphamide d) Cyclosporine
6. The following sites are most vulnerable to acute toxicity with
anticancer drugs EXCEPT (W-15)
a) Bone marrow cell b) Brain cell
c) Hair follicles d) Intestinal endothelial cells
7. Which of the following immunosuppressants is a calcineurin
inhibitor ? (S-16)
a)Azathioprine b) Tacrolimus
c) Methotrexate d) MycophenolateMofetil
\ S A Q

1. Mention four uses of Methotrexate.(W-07)

2. Mention 4 uses of methotrexate with pharmacological basis of each.
(W-10)
3. Write a short note on alkylating agents used in cancer chemotherapy.
(S-17)
4. Folic acid antagonists. (S-73)
5. ill effects of radiation. (W-75)
6. Methotrexate. (W-77,90)(S-84)
7. Antimetabolites. (S-79)
8. Indications of radioactive drugs. (W-79)
9. Cyclosporin. (S-97)
L A Q

None
Section 14
Miscellaneous Drugs
63. Immunosuppressants, Gene Therapy.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. Which of these is not an immunostimulant ? (S-12)

a) Levamisole b) Thalidomide
c) BCG vaccine d) Tacrolimus
2. Which of the following is the drug of choice in treatment of (W-13)
pseudomembranous colitis ? ^
^3591
 ' Cw iK
/?
K /-
1V 17frdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Tetracycline b) Clarithromycin
c) Vancomycin d) Amoxicillin
SAQ
1. Mention two Immusuppressive agents and state two clinical
conditions in which they are used.(W-00)
2. Gene Therapy.(W-OI)
3. Name two immunosuppressive agents. Give one therapeutic use of
any one of them.(S-06)
t I
4. Enumerate 4 classes of immunosuppressant, stating mechanism
of action, example of drugs and therapeutic uses. (W-13) m •'./V
5. lmmunosuppresants.(W-75,96)
6. Immunopharmacology. (S-94)
LAQ

64. Drugs Acting on Skin and Mucous Membranes.

MCQ(MUHS)
1. Environmental pollutants which produce health hazards include all of
the following EXCEPT. (W-03)
a) Arsenic. b) Mercury. c) Asbestos. d) Selenium.
2. All of the following agents are used as sunscreens except. (S-03)
a) para-amino benzoic-acid b) calamic lotion
c) benzophenones d) betamethasone
3. Orally effective drug in scabies is (W-08)
a) ivermectin b) benzylbenzoate
c) permerthin d) all of above
4. All of the following agent possess keratolytic property EXCEPT
(W-11)
a) propylene glycol b) salicylic acid
c) selenium sulfide d) urea
5. Which one of the following is a constituent of artificial tears ? (W-12)
a) Fluorescien b) Hydrocortisone
c) Benzalkonium chloride d) Hydroxy methyl cellulose
6. Which one amongst the following Vitamin D preparation is a
prodrug ? (W-12) •
a) Calcitriol b) Calciferol
c) Choiecalciferol d) Alfacalcidol
7. Which one amongst the following is used in the treatment of
scabies ? (W-12)
a) Permethrin b) Minoxidil
c) Dimethicone d) Benzoyl peroxide
8. All of the following statements about calamine are incorrect
I360I
M
2 ndM.B.B.S. Bookwith Solved MUHSMCQs I I I rdEdition by U n iq u e " P u b lic a tio n

“’“except (W-i4) :
a) It is pink colour due to ferric chloride
b) It has good soothing and protective action
c) It has no astringent effect
d) It has counterirritant effect
9. One of the following drug for treatment of acne vulgaris have very
high teratogenic potential. (W-15)
i a ) Isotretinoin b) Benzoyl peroxide
c) Clindamycin d) Erythromycin
10. The nonhypercalcemic analogue of vitamin D that is used topically in
the treatment of plaque psoriasis is (W-16)
a) Calciferol b) Calcipotriol
c) Alfacalcidol d) Calcitriol
SAQ
1. Explain in brief about topical use of steroids in dermatological
conditions. ( S - 1 4 )
LAQ
None
65. Antiseptics. Disinfectants and Ectoparasiticides.
MCQ(M UHS)
1. The drug of choice for scabies is (W-03)
a) benzyl benzoate b) benzoic acid
c) salicyclic acid d) selenium sulfate
2. Orally effective drug in scabies is (W-08)
a) ivermectin b) benzylbenzoate
c) permethrin d) all of above
3. Which one of the following disinfectant is used to disinfect
endoscopes ? (W-09)
a) glutardehyde b) ethanol
c) sodium-hypochlorite d) tincture-iodine
4. Scabies can be treated with the use of (S-10)
a) psoralens b) resorcinol
' c) benzyl benzoate d) retinoic acid ■<
SAQ
1. Select better one giving reasons: A child aged 8 years presented with
scabies with secondary infection. How will you treat this condition with
reason ? (W-00)
2. Mention two drugs used in the treatment of scabies & principles of
the treatment of scabies. (W-04)
3. Name four drugs used in the treatment of scabies. Write merits and
M
I361I
«P
Cj r»<
■
>r>:l£, r>- , vni f UJQ /|»rOo 17JrdEdition hv Unique Publication
, Gcii ic-iiis ot each one of th:/:m in tieacment of scabies. (W-1U)
4. Hexachlorophene. (W-72)
5. Treatment of Scabies. (W-72)(S-78)
L4Q
None
66v Chelating Agents.
M C Q (M U H S ) J
U Chelating agent specifically used in lead poisoning is. (S-03)
a) British anti lewisite (BAL). ’ b) Calcium disodium edetate.
c) Calcium disodium edetate. d) Desferrioxamine.
2. Dimercaprol is indicated for counteracting the following. (W-03)
a) Mercury. b) Zinc. c) Cadmium. d) Silver.
3. Which one amongst the following chelating agents is NOT used for
treatment of copper poisoning ? (W-04)
a) desferrioxamine fc>) dithiocarb
c) dimercaprol d) D-penicillamine
4. Iron poisoning is treated by (W-08)
a) EDTA b) dimercaprol
c) desferrioxamine d) D-penicillamine.
5. An orally effective iron used to treat iron overload in patients of
Thalassemia major. (S-09)
a) desferroxamine b) deferiprone c) unithiol d) dimercaprol.
6. Dimercaprol is contraindicated in poisoning due to (S-10)
a) iron b) arsenic c) mercury d) gold.
7. Which chelating agent is used in lead poisoning ? (S-11)
a) Deferiprone b) Dimercaprol
c) Desferrioxamine d) Calcium disodium edetate
8. Penicillamine is useful in treating poisoning mainly of (S-12)
a) Copper b) Arsenic c) Iron d) Lead—
9. A chelating agent available for oral use. (S-12)
a) Dimercaprol b) Calcium disodium EDTA
c) Succimer d) Deferroximine
10. Which of the following is the preferred chelating agent for the
treatment of lead poisoing ? (W-12)
a) Calcium disodium edetate b) Penicillamine
c) Dimercaprol d) Deferiprone
11. An orally active iron chelator which can be used in the treatment of
transfusion siderosis in thalassemia patients is (S-13)
a) Penicillamine b) Succimer
c) Desferrioxamine d) Deferiprone
12. Chelating agent used for the treatment of Arsenic poisoning is
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd Edition b y Unique Publication
(W-13)
a) Desferrioxamine b) d-Penicillamine
c) Calcium Disodium Edetate d) D im ercaprol
13. All of tbe following are true about Dimercaparol EXCEPT (W-14)
a) It is an oily pungent liquid
b) It is desirable to maintain its plasm levels in excess
c) It is contraindicated in irop poisoning -
% d) The urinary pH must be kept acidic
14. BAL is useful in treating poisoning due to a ll; EXCEPT (S-15)
a) Lead b) Organic mercury
c) Cadmium d) Arsenic
15. The preferred chelating, agents for the treatment of arsenic
poisoning is (W-15)
a) d-penicillamine b) calcium di-sodium edetate
c) BAL . d) Desferrioxamine
16. Which of the following drug can chelate circulating iron, by oral
route ? (S-16)
a) Dimercaprol b) Desferrioxamine
c) Deferiprone d) Dithiocarbs
17. Drug of choice for copper chelation in Wilsons disease is (W-16)
a) Desferrioxamine b) Penicillamine
c) Deferipone d) Dimercaptosuccinic acid
S A Q

T. Pharmacological basis of :
Desferroxamine in acute iron poisoning.(S-OI) (W-91,93,97)
2. Chelating agents.(S-02)(S-70,72,87,92)(W-81,83,87)
3. What is chelation ? Name 2 & their uses.(S-02)
4. Mention two uses of desferoxamine. Describe its mechanism of
action. (W-06) „ *
5. List and elaborate briefly on various chelating agents used in clinical
practice. (S-14)
6. Pharmacological basis of: Dimercaprol in Arsenic poisoning. (W -72)
7. Uses of chelating agents. (S*80)
8. Penicillamine. (S-96)
9. D-penicillamine. (W-91,94,98)(S-99)
L A Q

None
67. Vitamins.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. A patient presenting with diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia is

probably having the following vitamin deficiency. (W-03)
2nd Vt.R.B.S. Rook with Rofvorf mjHS MCQs JJJrdEdition hv Unirnie Publication
. x ! i oJ . • <J j ! ' j i Ov,.'^Xin8.

c) N icotinic acid. 1 d) Ascorbic acid.

Megaloblastic anaemia occurs in (W-04)
a) Vitamin B12 but not folic acid deficiency.
b) folic acid but not vit. B12 or folic acid deficiency.
c) either vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency. 2
d) only combined vit. B12 and folic acid deficiency.
Daily requirement of Vit-B 12 in an adult is (W-08)
a) 1 pg. b) .10. ng. c) 100 pg. d) 1000 pg.
Which of the following is having antioxidant property ? (W-08)
a) Vit B.6. b) Vit B.12. c) Vit K d) Vit C.
5. Which of the following DOES NOT cause, harm to the pregnant mother
and her foetus ? (W-09)*1

d) warrarin sodium
6. Which of the following vitamin D analogs DOES NOT require
metabolic activation ? (W-09)
a) alfa calcidol b) caciferol c) calcitriol d) cholecalciferol
7. One of the following vitamin is of choice to treat Pallegra. (S-10)
a) thiamine b) riboflavine c) niacin d) pyridoxine
8. In a patient of parkinsonism being treated with L-DOPA, following
vitamin is not adminstered.. (W-04)
a)’vitamin Br b) vitamin B6. c) vitamin B12. d) folic acid.
9. The dose of pyridoxine to prevent the peripheral neuropathy due to *
INH is (W-10)
a) 10 mg/day b) 50 mg/day
c) 100 mg/day d) 200 mg/day
10. Which one of the following vitamins can prevent the neuropathy caused 9
. by INH ? (W:11) ........... :9
a) Thiamine b) Riboflavine
c) Pyridoxine d) Nicotinic acid
11. Which of the following is prescribed during pregnahcy to prevent
neural tube defects in the new born ? (W-12)
a) Folic acid b) Pyridoxine ' >
c) Cyanocobalamin d) Thiamine
12. Which one of the following vitamins is most likely to produce
a teratogenic effect ? (S-14)
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin K
13. All of the following are properties of Vitamin C EXCEPT (W-14)
a) It plays a role in formation of collagen

l364][
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
b) It is an oxidising agent
c) It can be used to acidify urine
d) It enhances iron absorption
14. Rickets and Osteomalacia are caused due to deficiency of (W-15)
y a) Vitamin A / ' b)Vitam in B
c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin D
15. Which of the following is an antioxidant vitamin ? (W-16)
a) Ascorbic Acid b) Niacin
c) Riboflavin d) Thiamine
S A Q

1. Antioxidant Vitamins.(S-OO)
2. Vit B12. (W-99)
3. Give two uses of vitamin B1f B6, B12 and nicotinic acid. (S-11)
4. Pyridoxine. (S-70)(W-71,73)
5. Vit. Kin coumarin overdosage. (W-70)
6. Rickets. (W-70)
7. Vitamin D.(S-71,79,90)(W-72,75,82,89)
8. Thiamine.(W-73)
9. Ascorbic Acid. (S-76)
10. Vit K. (W-77)
L A Q

1. Write briefly a b o u t‘Antioxidants’. (S-12)

68. Vaccines and Sera,
M C Q (M U H S )

1. All of the following vaccines contain killed micro organisms except

(S-03)
a) BCG vaccine b) typhoid paratyphoid vaccine
c) pertussis vaccine d) salk polio vaccine
2. Human diploid cell vaccine for rabies to a nonimmunized subject is
given as a course of (W-03)
a) single injection. b) 6 injections
c) 14 injections , d) 21 injections.
3. Which of the following agents acts at the site of antigen recognition ?
(W-Q4)
a) Rh (D) immune globulin b) cyclosporine
c) methotrexate d) cyclophosphamide
4. Live vaccine is (W-10) '
a) hepatitis b) BCG c) cholera d) Rabies.
5. Which one of the following confers active immunity ? (S-11)
a) Antitoxins b) Antisera c) Toxoids d) Immunoglobulins
6. Which one of the following is a live attenuated vaccine ? (W-11)

I 365I
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Typhoid 21 A b) Typhoid Vi
c) Hi influenzae type B (Hib) d) Pneumococci - 7 valent
7. Which one of the following vaccines is a live attenuated bacterial
vaccine ? (W-12)
a) Cholera b) BCG c) Plague d) Pertussis
8,. Typhoid-Paratyphoid A,b (TAB) Vaccine is administered by (W-13)
a) Intramuscular route b) Oral route
c) Subcutaneous route d) Intradermal route
9. Which of the following is live attenuated vaccine ? (S-14)
a) Mumps b) Cholera c) Plague d) Pertussis
10. Salk vaccine is a (W-14)
a) Oral polio vaccine b) Measles vaccine
c) Inactivated polio vaccine d) Typhoid vaccine
11 w h irh nf the following vaccine is used as an adjuvant in
immunotherapy of cancer ? (W-16)
a) BCG b) TAB c) DPT d) MUMPS
S A Q

1. Difference between : Vaccine & Sera,(S-02)

2. What is passive immunization ? Name two infective diseases which
are treated with passive immuhization.(S-07)
3. Define Vaccine. Write in brief about BCG vaccine. (S-15)
4. Define antisera. Write in brief about four different antisera and their
indications. (S-16)
5. Antitetanus serum. (W-70)(S-75)
6. Poliomyelitis vaccine. (W-71,91)
7. B.C.G. (S-73)(W-74,82)
8. Pharmacological basis of: Vaccines in immunological procedures. (W-73)
9. Rabies vaccine. (S-89,97)
10. Hepatitis Vaccclne. (W-90)
L A Q

None
69. Drug Interactions.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. Combination of Penicillin+Probenecid offer following advantages to

penicillin (W-08)
a) extends spectrum of action, b) improve pharm acokinetic
c) improves bioavailability d) reduce allergic reactions
S A Q

1. Drug interactions.(S-00)(kl/’-72,95)('S-85,94)
L A Q

1. Name two drugs which stimulate microsomal liver enzymes. Give an

M
J366I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rd Edition by Unique Publication
example of a drug interaction occurring due to stimulation of
microsomal liver enzymes.(W-06)
70. Miscellaneous.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Pseudocholinesterase destroys. (W-03)
a) scoline b) atropine c) neostigmine d) pilocarpine
2. Alkalinisation of urine hastens the excretion of (W-03)
' a) weakly basic drugs b) weakly acidic drugs
c) strong electrolysis d) non polar drugs.
3. Which ope of the following is the most prevalant air pollutant ? (W-12)
a) Sulfur dioxide b) Carbon monoxide
c) Organic volatile compounds d) Particulate matter
4. Reasons for reducing drug dosage in elderly include all EXCEPT
(S-13)
a) decline in renal function.
b) decrease in lean body mass.
c) increased responsiveness of adrenergic receptors.
d) decrease in plasma protein binding.
5. In case of a new drug, adequate studies in pregnant women have
failed to demonstrate a risk to the foetus, but animal studies have
shown an adverse effect on the foetus, then such a drug would be
classified as (S-16)
a) Category A b) Category B
c) Category C . d) Category D
6. Colchicine acts by one of the following mechanisms. (S-16)
a) Inhibition of prostablandin synthesis.
b) Inhibition of release of glycoprotein and chemotactic factors.
c) Inhibition of uric acid synthesis.
d) Promotion of uric acid excretion.
SAQ
None
LAQ
None

14
> 7 l
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication

(S PHARMACOLOGY &
PHARAMACOTHERAPEUTICS-I
■ QUESTION PAPERS Mm)

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION - B&SECTION-C
In s t r u c t io n s :
1) A llquestions are c o m p u l s o r y .
2) The number to the r i g h t indicates f u l l marks.
3) Draw diagrams w h e r e v e r necessary,*1 2

written anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort

to unfairmeans.
SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) Why is physostigmine preferred over neos-tigmine in patients
with belladona poisoning having symptoms like restlessness,
confusion, hallucinations and delirium ?
b) Describe pharamcological basis for use of ACE inhibitors in
the treatment of hypertension.
c) Mention the rationale for use of hepanin in therapy of deep
vein thrombosis.
d) Mention why succinyl choline occasionally produces
prolonged apnoea. How to manage such patient with
prolonged succinyl choline induced anoea ?
e) State the reason for not giving antacids along with sucralfate
in patients with peptic ulcer.
f) Why is the role of acetazolamide in therapy of acute
congestive glaucoma ?
g) Mention 2 drugs which should be avoided in te fast trimester
of pregnancy, giving reasons for the same.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Define ‘biotransformation’. State the changes occuring in the
activity of a drug following biotransformation, giving examples.
Enumerate the factors affecting biotransformations. Explain
how these factors are responsible for altering therapeutic response.
b) Classify beta adrenergic blockers giving examples of drugs.
Describe adverse effects of propranolol. Also give indications
for its use. State why atenolol is preferred to propranolol in
M
I368I
M

m
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
clinical practice.
c) Explain how furosemide produces diuretic effect, describing
the changes in urinary electrolytes. Mention the consequences
of long term therapy with this drug and precautions to be taken.
Describe the role of furosemide in the management of
pulmonary edema.

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) Explain the meaning of the term ‘prodrug’ and
give 2 examples of prodrug.
b) Give pharamacological basis for the use of atropine as a
preanaesthetic medication.
c) Are potassium supplements indicated in a patient suffering
from congestive cardiac failure and taking digoxin and
furosemide ? Why ?
d) Write 4 differences between heparin and war farin sodium.
e) Give rationale for use of timolol simple glaucoma.
f) Mention the drug of choice for treating iron poisoning.
Give reason for its use.
g) A patient of megaloblastic anaemis was treated with 5 mg of
folic acid tablets. A month later, megaloblasts disappeared
and the haemoglobin level improved Sensory abnormalities
and cognitive dificit. What is the reason for neurological
manifestations.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Define ‘bioavailability’ of a drug. Discuss how various factors
can modify bioavailability of a drug giving suitable examples.
b) List commonly used groups of drug for the therapy of angina
pectoris. Give examples of at least 2 drugs from each group.
Give pharamacological basis for use of any two groups in this
condition. State why combination therapy is preferred.
c) Describe mechanism of action of various groups drugs
inhibiting gastric acid secretion. Give example of one drug
from each group. Mention adverse drug reactions for one of
these drugs.

W IN T E R -2 0 0 1

►4
'369
V i '
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

(2 1/ Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six 12 Marks
a) Define drug tolerance. Mention different types of tolerance,
their underlying mechanism of quoting suitable examples.
b) Compare and contrast between clofibrate and Sim vastatin
(any 4 points).
c) Draw a well labelled diagram to indicate drugs acting on
Renin-Angiotensin-AI dosterone axia.
d) Mention two advantages and two disadvantages of
intramuscular route of administration of drugs.
e) Explain why physostigmine is preferred over neostimine as
a miotice.
f) Explain the term ‘Gene Therapy’.
7" Give two examples of disorders where it can be advocated?
g) Describe merits and demerits of using adrenaline along with
local anaesthetic.
SECTION-C
2 Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Define ‘Adverse Drug Reactions’. Describe different types
of adverse reactions giving suitable examples.
b) Describe the therapeutic objectives of treatment of patient
with congestive cardiac failure. Enumerate drugs used in
these patients giving pharamcological basis for their use.
c) Describe drug treatment of glaucoma giving the
pharmacological rationale for each drug.

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) Enumerate 4 ways of prolonging action of a drug administered
by a parenteral route.
b) Describe the pharmacological action of pralidoxime.
c) A female receiving antihypertensive agent enalapril (5 mg/day),
is planning to have a child. What advice you will like to give to
her regarding her antihypertensive medication and why ?
d) Mention the diuretic of choice In following condition, giving
the rationale:
i) Cerebral oedema.
ii) Case of poisoning.
e) Define competitive reversible antogonism.
Explain one therapeutic indication based on this phenomenon.
M
I370I
M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition by Unique Publication
f) What is chelation ?
Name any two chelating agents with indication for their use.
g) How do you manage warfarin toxicity ? Give its rationale.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two :- 14 Marks
a) Describe the various sites where drugs can interact with each
other. Describe the consequences of this phenomenon citing
, suitable examples.
b) Classify agents used in management of Acid Peptic Disease.
Describe mechanism of action and adverse effects of any four
agents used for this disorder.
c) Mention the groups of agents (with suitable examples) used for
hypertension. Describe merits and demerits of angiotensin
converting enzyme inhibitors.

(2 1/2Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) State four situations wherein therapeutic drug monitoring is
particularly useful.
b) Mention four difference between Captopril and Enalapril.
c) Explain why combination of Verapamil and beta blockers
should be avoided for treatment of moderate hypertension.
d) Give pharmacological basis for using dopamine in cardiogenic
shock. -
e) Explain the rationale for use of digoxin in patient of atrial fibrilation.
f) Compare and contrast between Metodopramide and demperidone.
g) State giving reasons which supplement should be administered
to a pregnant epileptic women on phenytoin therapy and to her
newborn.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any tw o;- 14 Marks
a) Classify anticholin esterase drugs giving examples.
Enumerate their therapeutic uses. Explan rationale for using
them to treat any two of the stated conditions. Mention side
effects associated with their use. ■
b) Classify diuretics giving examples of each group. Enumerate
therapeutic uses of diuretics and complications of diuretic therapy.
c) Explain the pharamcological basis for using heparin in deep
vein thrombosis. Mention adverse effects of heparin and its
antodote. Also mention advantages of low molecular weight
heparin over unfractionated heparin.
I371I
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

(2 V2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six 12 Marks
/ a) How will you monitor the effect of warfarin ?
1 How will you treat its toxicity ?
b) Give rationale for use of mannitol in cerebral, oedema.
c) What is informed consent ? When is it necessary to take it ?
d) Mention two important adverse effects of parenteral iron therapy.
-What precautions will you take to avoid them ?
e) Name two plasma expanders.
Write two important differences between the two.
f) Give rationale for the use of colloidal bismuth in the treatment
of peptic ulcer. “ “ “
g) Name thrombolytic agents and their importance in clinical uses.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) What is Therapeutic Drug Monitoring ? Name the drugs for
^ which it is essential. Mention characteristics of drugs requiring
therapeutic drug monitoring.
b) Name drugs used in Angina Pectoris.
Write pharamacological basis for their use with present status.
c) Describe in brief the therapeutic uses of adrenaline with reasons.

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six 12 Marks
a) What is folinic acid ? ■'
State it&advantage and indicate where it is used.
b) f Define the term Biotransformation. Mention two chemical
,>— reactions each of Phase I and Phase II, giving suitable examples.
c) What is down regulation of receptors ?
Mention its clinical significance.
d) What is omeprazole ? Indicate where it is used.
e) Define essential drugs.
Give two criteria of WHO for selection of essential drugs.
f) Write four advantages of low molecular weight (LMW) heparin
over Unfractionated Heparin (UFH).
g) Mention four indications of parenteral iron therapy.
M
> 2 l
2 nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
Give two example of parenteral iron preparations.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Classify purgatives with examples. Describe their indications
and contraindications. Mention the adverse effects of any one
purgative.
b) Enumerate atropine substitues.
t Discuss therapeutic indications with the drugs of choice.
c) Define dose of a drug.
Describe any six factors modifying dose of drug.

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) Name two loop diuretics.
Mention two therapeutic indications and two adverse effects.
b) What is the basis of using adrenaline in the treatment of
anaphylactic shock ?
c) Mention two advantages of new drug delivery system, giving
suitable examples.
d) Mention two bulk forming laxatives, giving two indications
for their use.
e) What is a placebo and where is it used ?
f) State how pralidoxine is useful in the treatment of organo
phosphorus poisoning.
g) What is nifedipine ? When is it used sublingually ?
Mention one common adverse effect.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Outline the principles of treatment of non-infective diarrhoea.
Enumerate the groups of agents used, giving suitable examples.
b) What is biotransformation ? Give an account of tf\e reactions
involved with suitable examples. Enumerate four factors
affecting biotransformation.
c) Enumerate the drugs used in peptic ulcer. Discuss mechanism
of action of H2 blockers and proton pump exhibitors.

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B

►4 '
I373I
►1
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
1. Attempt any six:- 12 Marks
a) What is forced alkaline diuresis ?
Give its phannacological basis and indicate where it is used.
b) Define teratogenicity. Name two drugs which are contraindicated
during first trimester of pregnancy due to their adverse effects.
c) Enumerate four differences between digoxin and digitoxin.
d) Mention two selective beta2adrenergic receptor stimulants,
mentioning two indications for their use.
‘ e) Give the rationale for the use of dopamine in cardiogenic shock.
f) Enumerate two topical nasal decongestants.
What are the drawbacks of these drugs ?
g) Mention two antiplatelet agents.
Mention two indications, where they are used.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any t w o 14 Marks r.A
a) Eilumui ulu oi al ironpreparations. Describedfremechanism
of and factors affecting iron absorption.
b) Classify antihypertensive agents. Give the therapeutic uses
of beta adrenergic receptor blockers, giving the drug of choice.
c) Classify anticholinesterasis. Describe the mechanism of action
and therapeutic uses of reversible compounds.
y/////////7 //////////////^
mmI

(2 1/_ Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) Explain with suitable examples how gastrointestinal diseases
affect drug action.
b) Classify drugs used in open angle glaucoma.
c) Discuss with suitable examples, ‘atropine substitutes’ used
for ophthalmic purpose.
d) What is the pharamocological basis for using a combination
of alfa and beta adrenergic blockers in the treatment of
pheochromocytoma ?
e) Enumerate the adverse reactions of thiazide diuretics
(Brief explanation wherever necessary may be given).
f) Write in brief four salient features of minoxidil.
g) Classify antiemetic drugs.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Classify purgatives and discuss in brief indications for the
use of purgatives.
b) Classify parasympathomimetic drugs. Describe toxic
M
I374I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rd Edition by Unique Publication
manifestations of organophosphorus compounds after and
ingestion. Discuss in brief its treatment,
c) Discuss the methods of prolongation of drug action.
Give suitable examples in support of these methods.

(2/1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six 12 Marks
a) Describe drug tolerance.
Furnish your answer giving suitable examples.
b) Describe rational for use of hydro chlorothiazide in hypertension.
c) Enumerate 4 atropine substitutes from different groups and
mention their therapeutic uses.
d) Enumerate fibrinolytic agents and describe their mechanism
of action.
e) Enumerate therapeutic uses and contra indication of monitol.
f) Compare and contrast between Metaclopremide and Domperidone.
g) Mention four therapeutic uses of Erythropoietin.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Define bioavailability of drug.
Describe various factors affecting bioavailability.
b) Classify alpha adrenergic recetor antagonist.
Describe their therapeutic uses and adverse effects.
c) Classify drugs used in congestive cardiac failure.
Describe pharamacotherapy of C.C.F.

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six 12 Marks
a) Name four drugs which can be administered transdermally
and mention four advantages of transdermal route.
b) Mention four uses of sympathomimetic agents with agent of choice.
c) Why nonselective alpha blockers are not preferred for the
treatment of essential hypertension ?
d) Enumerate four advantages of low molecular weight heparin
over unfractionated heparin.
e) Name two osmotic diruetics and four indications of these drugs.
f) Name two antimotility drugs and four contraindications of these.
M
3751
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
g) Why Beta blockers are preferred choice of drugs for the
treatment of chronic simple glaucoma ?
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two:- 14 Marks
a) Enumerate factors effecting drug action and describe the
influence of liver and kidney diseases on it.
. b) Classify anticholinesterases and discuss their clinical uses,
c) Classify drugs used for the treatment of peptic ulcer and
discuss the pharmacology of omeprazole.

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B ________
1 . Attomptany six: ------- 12J/larks
a) Name two drugs which stimulate microsomal liver enzymes.
Give an example of a drug interaction occuring due to
stimulation of microsomal liver enzymes.
b) Explain the basis for use of adrenaline along with lignocaine.
Mention a situation where adrenaline should not be used with
lignocaine.
c) What is the mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide
diuretics ? 7
*2
d) Name four categories of drugs which inhibit gastric acid secretion.
Give one example from each category.
e) Name three fibrinolytic agents.
Which of these is antigenic and why ?
f) What is meant by teratogenicity ?
Name two drugs having a teratogenic potential.
g) Why do ACE inhibitors produce dry cough ?
Why is losartan free from this adverse effect ?
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Define ‘tolerance’. What are the types of tolerance ? Explain
the mechanisms responsible for development of tolerance
and explain the terms ‘Cross-tolerance’ and ‘Tissue-tolerance’.
b) Describe the symptoms and drug treatment of the poisoning
due to organophosphorus compounds. Give the
pharmacological basis for the use of each drug.
c) Classify‘Calcium channel blockers’.
Describe their pharmacological actions and therapeutic uses.
r d M.B.B.S. Book With Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

(2 1/2Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six :- 12 Marks
a) Define ADR.
% What is the difference between type A and type B ADRs ?
b) What is the mechanism of development of Nitrate Tolerance ?
How can it be prevented ?
c) Give rationale for use of atropine as a preanaesthetic agent.
d) Name a lubricant laxative. Mention its uses and disadvantages.
e) Mention a use of low dose aspirin giving the rationale.
f) How is ondansetron useful in cancer chemotherapy induced
vomiting?
g) Mention two uses of desferrioxamine.
Describe its mechanism of action.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Mention various routes of excretion of drugs with suitable
examples. Enumerate factors affecting renal excretion of
drugs. Give clinical significance of plasma half life of drugs.
b) Classify sympathomimatic drugs. Mention two important uses
of Adrenaline, giving rationale for the same.
c) Classify antihypertensive drugs. Which is the preferred group
of drugs used in hypertensive patients with diabetes mellitus ?
Give reasons for the choice. Describe the ADRs of this group
of drugs.

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six 12 Marks
a) Enumerate four types of drug antagonism.
Write one example for each type with clinical application.
b) Write names of four prokinetic agents.
Write briefly the mechanism of action of each drug.
c) Compare and contrast between physostigmine and neostigmine.
d) Enumerate four groups of drugs with suitable example used
in actute congestive glaucoma.
e) Mention four phsphodiesterase inhibitors used as drugs with
example. Mention their clinical uses.
f) Write four organic nitrates and four adverse effects.
13771
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
g) Compare and contrast between unfractionated heparin and
low molecular weight heparin.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two:- 14 Marks
a) Define‘Receptors’. Mention name of any six receptors on
• which, drugs act. Mention one agonist and one antagonist of
each receptor. Describe how these drugs are useful in the
% treatment of diseases.
b) Classify antihypertensive drugs. Describe briefly the
preparations, clinical uses and adverse effects of ACE inhibitors.
c) Classify drugs used in peptic ulcer.
Describe pharmacotherapy of peptic ulcer.

(2 1/2Hours) Total 32 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any five.:- 20 Marks
a) Enumerate four drugs given by intravenous route. Write
advantages and disadvantages of intravenous route of
administrations.
b) Classify cholinergic drugs. ,
How will your treat a patient suffering from Myasthenia gravis ?
c) Classify laxatives.
What are therapeutic uses and contraindications for laxatives ?
d) Write the therapuetic uses, routes of administration and
adverse effects of Nitroglycerin.
e) Enumerate parenteral iron preparations. Write preparations.
Write indications for parenteral iron therapy.
f) What is daily requirement of Vitamin A ?
Write therapeutic uses of Vit. A.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any tw o :- 12 Marks
a) Define bioavailability of a drug. Describe various factors
affecting bioavailability with suitable examples.
b) Classify antihypertensive agents. Write mechanism of action
and therapeutic uses of ACE-inhibitors. .
c) Classify the drugs used in peptic ulcer. Describe the
mechanism of action and adverse effects of Omeprazole.

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

V4
I378I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
SECTION-B
1. Attempt any f i v e 20Marks
a) Enumerate and explain four beneficial drug-drug interactions
leading to increased therapeutic effect.
b) Write short notes on transmucosal route of drug administration.
c) Classify sympathomimetjc agents.
d) Write mechanism of action of - • :
i) metoclopramide as antiemetic.
ii) clonidine as antihypertensive.
e) Explain pharmacological basis ofuse of Vasodilators in CHF.
Mention 2 uses and adverse effects of ACE inhibitors.
f) Give reason-Antacids are not used along with sucralfate in
patient with peptic ulcer.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Attempt any two out of th re e :
a) Describe the methods of prolonging the duration of drug acton
with suitable examples.
b) Classify antianginal drugs. Describe in brief mode of action,
therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Nitrates.
c) Enumerate drugs used in pharmacotherapy of Parkinsonism.
Mention rationale for use of drug combination in treatment of
above disorder.

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any five > 20 Marks
a) Kinetics of drug administration.
b) Atropine substitutes.
c) Drug therapy of Glaucoma.
d) Dimercaprol.
e) Antioxidant vitamins and their uses.
f) Drugs used in peptic ulcer.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any t w o * 12 Marks
a) Describe general principles of treatment of acute poisoning.
Mention treatment of organophosphate compound poisoning.
b) Classify antiarrhythmic drugs. Describe mechanism of action.
Antiarrhythmic effects and therapeutic uses of proranolol.
c) Classifycholinergic drugs.
Write pharmacological actions and clinical uses of Neostigmine.

M
379
Vi
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition fey Unique Publication

(2 V2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B 1
1. Attempt any s i x l 12 Marks
a) Write in brief 4 different mechanism by which a drug may
after the absorption of another drug giving suitable examples.
' b) Mention eight clinically relevant differences between
propranolol and Atenolol.
c) Define term
i) Tachyphylaxis or Acute tolerance.
ii) Give the reason for its development with examples.
iii) Write three difference between Tachyphylaxis and Tolerance.
d) Enumerate four Vasopressor agents.
- Explain why adrenaline is contraindicated in hypotensive shock. ~
e) Explain four clinical uses of Atropine.
f) Write short answer on -HMG-CaA reductase inhibitor.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Mention the drugs used in treatment of glaucoma, giving the
pharmacological rationale for each drug.
b) Classify Laxative-Purgatives. Describe in brief mechanism of
action, indications for use of any two of these classes.
c) Mention drug used in treatment of CHF. Give pharmacological
basis for use of ACE inhibitors and cordiac glycosides in CHF.

(2 1/zHours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) Describe the features of competitive antagonism citing suitable
examples.
b) List the therapeutic indications for atropine substitutes,
mentioning the drug of choice for each.
c) What are plasma expanders ? Outline their uses.
d) Compare and contrast enalapril and losartan with respect to their
mechanism of action, therapeutic indications and adverse effects.
e) What is the mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparins ?
Mention their therapeutic uses.
f) Enumerate the indications for the use of sanitidine and mention
its adverse effects.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
M
13801
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
3. Answer any two out of three. (2x6=12)
a) Classify drug interactions. Write a note on beneficial drug
interactions giving suitable examples.
b) Classify skeletal muscle relaxants on the basis of mechanism
of action. Describe the uses of curare alkaloids.
c) Describe the drug management of myocardial infarction.

(2 1/, Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six 12 Marks
a) Define teratogenecity. Name four drugs which should be
avoided in the first trimester of pregnancy.
b) Give four therapeutic uses of adrenaline with justifications.
c) Name two parenteral iron preparations.
Give indications for parenteral iron therapy.
d) Give two uses of vitamin B6, B12 and nicotinic acid.
e) Write adverse drug reactions of high ceiling diuretics.
f) Write role of p blockers in Angina petoris and myocardial infarction.
SECTION-C
3. Attempt any two out of three ( L A Q ) 2 x 6 = 12
a) Mention different routes of drugs administration. 2
' Give one example of drug for each route. 2
Give advantages of sublingual route. 2
b) Classify antihypertensive drugs. Write^therapeutic uses
and adverse drug effects of angiotensin converting enzyme
inhibitors. 2+2
c) Classify drugs used in treatment of peptic ulcer. 2
Write mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitor. 2
Write two drug regimens for H. pylori infection. 2

Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B
Brief answer questions.
2. Attempt any five out of s ix : (5x4=20)
a) Define drug tolerance. Metion different types of tolerance, their
underlying mechanism quoting suitable examples.
b) Describe in brief mchanism of action of Nitrates.
c) What are the indications and contraindications of laxative therapy ?
d) Describe the drug treatment of organophosphorus compound
poisoing.
e) Therapeutic use and complications of Diuretic therapy.
M
I381I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

f) Mention fibrinolytic agents and their importance in clinical use.

SECTION-C
Long answer questions:
3. Attempt any two out of three (2 x 6=12)
a) Describe therapeutic objectives of treatment of patient with
congestive heart failure. Enumerate drugs used in these patients
givin pharmacological basis for their use
b) What is Biotransformation ? Give an account of reactions involved
with suitable examples. Enumerate factors affecting
Biotransformation.
c) Classify adrenergic drugs. Describe the pharmacological actions and
therapeutic uses of Adrenaline.

Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32 •'>V/

SECTION-B
2. Brief answer questions, (any five out of s ix ): (5x4=20) /o
a) Enumerate the merits and demerits of Intramuscular route of
tO
drug administration.
b) What are the therapeutic uses of Adrenaline ?
c) Write briefly about Transdermal route of drug administration.
d) Describe the treatment of Hypertensive crisis. %>
e) Explain the rationale for the use of Nitroglycerine in Angina Pectoris.
f) Write briefly about ‘Antioxidants’.
SECTION-C
3. Solve any two out of three (2x6=12)
a) Define Adverse Drug Reactions. Describe the different types
of adverse drug reactions giving suitable examples.
b) Classify Beta blockers. Describe their adverse effects and
therapeutic uses.
c) Describe the drug treatment o f Glaucoma giving pharmacological
rationale for, each drug. ■C

Total Duration : Section A+B+C=2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32

SECTION B
2. Brief answer questions (attempt any five oufof six): (5x4=20)
a) Enumerate the adverse effects and explain the uses of alpha
adrenergic blockers.
b) State the pharmacological basis for using enalapril in congestive
heart failure.
c) State the adverse effects of and indications for parenteral iron
M .
I382I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rd Edition by Unique Publication
therapy. .
d) Explain the term enzyme induction. List the implications of
microsomal enzyme induction giving suitable examples.
e) Explain the uses of high ceiling diuretics.
f) Give two examples each of reversible and irreversible
anticholinesterases. Explain why they are classified as reversible
and irreversible, stating the conditions in which this property is
exploited.
SECTION - C
3. Long Answer Question (attempt any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Discuss any six factors modifying drug action giving suitable
examples.
b) Classify Laxatives according to their mechanism of action.
Explain the various indications for use of lexatives and state
contraindications for their use.
c) Discuss the therapeutic uses of adrenaline and mention the
precautions to be taken while administering adrenaline.

Total Duration : Section A+B+C=2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32

SECTION - B
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Describe four methods of prolonging duration of action of
drugs with suitable examples.
b) Enumerates two therapeutic uses of adrenaline and explain
briefly the pharmacological basis for each for the use.
c) Classify anticholinesterases and describe their any three
therapeutic uses.
d) Name 2 oral and 2 parenteral iron preparations. Describe the
indications and adverse effects of iron therapy.
e) Describe the mechanism of action of digitalis.
f) Describe 4 therapeutic uses and 4 adverse effects of furosemide.
SECTION-C
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Describe the various types of drug antagonism with
suitable examples.
b) Classify beta adrenergic blocking drugs. Describe briefly
their therapeutic uses.
c) Classify the drugs used in the treatment of peptic ulcer and
describe the pharmacological basis for their use.

M
383
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks :32

SECTION-B (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
t a) Explain the pharmacological basis for the use of Furosemide in the
. treatment of left ventricular failure. ,
b) Compare and contrast between Nifedipine and Verapamil.
c) Explain the mechanism of action of Metoclopramide and discuss its
therapeutic uses.
d) Write a short note on anti-platelet drugs.
e) Discuss in brief about enzyme induction by drugs giving suitable
examples. ' % -
f) Classify Anticholinesterases and give their therapeutic indications___ I
citing suitable examples.
SECTION-C (12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify anti-hypertensive drugs. Discuss in brief about indications,
contraindications, adverse drug reactions and drug interactions of
angiotensinconverting-enzyme inhibitors.
b) Classifybeta-blockers. Discuss in brief about their cardiac and non-
cardiac uses giving suitable examples with rationale.
c) Enumerate various oral and parenteral Iron preparations. Mention
indications for parenteral iron therapy and discuss in brief about
treatment of Iron poisoning.

Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32

SECTION-B (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Define plasma half-life of drug. Give its clinical significance with
suitable examples.
b) List and elaborate briefly on various chelating agents used in clinical
practice. '
c) Discuss in brief about drugs used in the treatment of open angle
glaucoma.
d) Explain the pharmacological basis for the use of Omeprazole in the
treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.
e) Compare and contrast between Streptokinase and Alteplase.
f) Explain “Coronary steal phenomenon” and its clinical significance.
SECTION-C (12 Marks)
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with S olved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
3. Long answer Questions (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify Skeletal Muscle Relaxants. State the mechanism of action,
adverse effects and therapeutics uses Of Succinylcholine.
b) Enlist various drugs used for the treatment of Congestive Heart
failure. State the mechanism of action, indications, adverse drug
reactions and drug interactions ofAngiotensin Converting Enzyme
(ACE) inhibitors.
.t c) Elaborate various mechanisms by which drugs produce their actions
in the body giving suitable examples.

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hour Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B & SECTION - C
SECTION - B (20 Marks)
(SAQ)
2. Short answer question (any five out of six) (5x4=20)
a) Write in brief about drug antagonism giving suitable examples.
b) What are advantages and disadvantages of subcutaneous
route of drug administration? Give example of drugs given by
this route.
c) Describe non-cardiovascular uses of beta-adrenergic blockers.
d) Describe adverse effects of Angiotensin Converting Emzyme
Inhibitors (ACEIS).
e) Describe pharmacological basis for use of Digoxin in
congestive heart failure (CHF).
f) Describe general principles of drug use in children.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three) (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate various oral iron preparations. What are adverse effects of
oral iron ? Describe drug treatment of iron deficiency anaemia.
b) Enumerate various thrombolytic drugs. Discuss mechanism of action,
indications and adverse effects of Alteplase.
c) Describe mechanism of action, indication and adverse effects of
Frusemide.

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B & SECTION - C
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Mention different routes of drug administration with one example
of drug for each route.
b) Give four therapeutic uses of adrenaline with justification.
c) Explain why folic acid is started from the first trimester but iron is started
in second trimester of pregnancy, even if Hb levels is normal ?
d) Compare and contras Catecholamines and Non-catechomines.
*; e) “Mention manifestation and drug treatment of digitalis toxicity.
f) Write mechanism of action of ,
1) Ispaghula a laxative and
2) Omeprazole as anti-ulcer drug.
SECTION-C(LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
> Dismiss different types of
adverse drug effects with suitable example.
b) Classify anti-cholinesterases. Discuss drug treatment of organo-
phosphate compound poisoning.
c) Classify anti-hypertensive drugs. Write mechanism of action, adverse
effects and therapeutic uses of calcium channel blockers.

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B & SEQTION - C
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Give the pharmacological basis for using adrenaline in the treatment of
anaphylactic shock.
b) Classify beta adrenergic receptor blockers. Enumerate their
therapeutic uses.
c) Write briefly on mechanism of action and therapeutic uses of warfarin.
d) Discuss in brief on various treatment regimens uled for eradication of
H-pylori positive gastric ulcer.
e) Enumerate drug acting on rennin-angiotensin aldosterone system
(RAAS).Write a note on any one of them.
f) Define the term therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) and give its
significance. List any four drugs having a narrow therapeutic index.

SECTION - C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) A 50 year old male patient who is a known case of type 2 diabetes
M
I386I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
mellitus for the last 7 year visits a hospital for routine follow up. His
blood pressure was found to be 158/98 mm of Hg. State the anti­
hypertensive drug you will prefer in this patient giving suitable
justification and discuss its pharmacology in brief.
b) Dis.cuss in brief on management of organophosphate compound (OPC)
poisoning.
c) Classify drugs used in the treatment of glaucoma. Explain mechanism
of action and state adverse effect of any one of them.
%
yZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZ

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Discuss in brief the important uses of atropine substitutes.
b) State factors governing the choice of route of administration. Write briefly
about the transdermal therapeutic systems (TTS).
c) Enumerate parenteral iron preparations. Write indications and adverse
effects of parentaral iron therapy.
d) Enumerate comparative features of unfractioned heparin and low
molecular weight heparin.
e) Give rationale for the use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
in chronic heart failure and discuss in brief their four uses.
f) Mention the drugs used in glaucoma with their mechanism of action.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer Questions (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify antihypertensive drugs. Discuss mechanism of action of
thiazide diuretics as antihypertensive. Comment on combination
therapy in the treatment of hypertension.
b) Enumerate factors modifying the action of a drug. Describe these factors
in detail with examples.
c) Classify drugs used in peptic ulcer. Write mechanism of action and
adverse effects of omeprazole.

Total Duration; Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Enumerate parenteral iron preparations. What are the indications for

M
387
Vi
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
parenteral iron therapy ?
b) Compare the adverse effects of angiotensin receptor blockers with that
of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors.
c) What is the rationale behind use of atropine with neostigmine ?
d) Compare and contrast therapeutic use of atropine and tropicamide as
mydriatics.
e) What is microsomal enzyme induction ? Discuss the clinical
consequence of enzyme induction with any two examples.
f) Describe the rationale behind use of spironolactone in a patient of
congestive cardiac failure. Add a note on possible drug interactions in
such a case.
SECTION-C I'J t
(12 Marks)
3
3. Long answer Questions (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Describe the mechanism ofaction. therapeutic uses of and adverse
'•■3w
b) Discuss the pros and cons of fixed dose rational combinations with
suitable examples.
3
c) Describe the therapeutic uses of propranolol with rationale. -
a

7p -
Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32
SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Classify.the adverse drug reactions with suitable examples.
b) What is the mechanism df action of calcium channel blockers in angina
pectoris ? What are their adverse effects ?
c) Define prodrug and explain the advantages with examples. m
d) What are the differences between conventional heparin and low
molecular weight heparin ?
e) What is the mechanism of action of desferrioxamine and enlist the
therapeutic uses ? A
f) Describe the mechanism ofaction and therapeutic uses of lactulose. 3
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
Long answer Questions (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify antihypertensive drugs. Describe the management of
hypertensive emergencies and urgencies.
b) Describe the pharmacological actions of adrenaline and its therapeutic
uses ancfadverse effects.
c) Describe the factors affect the drug action with clinical relevance.
A
VVVVVV VVv
yc a

^388][
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd Edition b y Unique Publication

PHARMACOLOGY&
PHARAMACOTHERAPEUTICS - II
QUESTION PAPERS
W IN T E R -2 0 0 0

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B & SECTION-C
In s t r u c t io n s :

1) A llquestions are c o m p u l s o r y .
2) The number to the r i g h t indicates f u l l marks.
3) Draw diagrams w h e r e v e r necessary.
4) D o n o t write anything on the b l a n k p o r t i o n o f t h e q u e s t i o n p a p e r , written

anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair

means.
SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six 12 Marks
a) Why is diazepam preferred over phenobarbitone as a
sedative agent ?
b) Which drug is used to treat methanol poisoning and why ?
c) Name two immunosuppressive agents and state two clinical
conditions (one for each) in which they are used.
d) A patient taking anti-tuberculous therapy developed peripheral
neuropathy. What could be the possible reason ?
Which agent will you prescribe to prevent its progression ?
e) Chloroquine an excellent killer of trophoziotes is not
recommaded for the acute amoebic dysentry. Why ?
f) A child aged 8 years presented with scabies with secondary
infection. How will you treat this condition ?
Give reasons for the same.
g) Enumerate two commonly used sites for insulin injection.
Why should the site of injection be changed frequently ?
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) State the mechanism of action of B lactam antibiotics.
Mention the advantages of 3rd generation cephalosporins
over the 1st generation. Discuss therapeutic uses of 3rd
generation cephalosporins.
b) Which are the anti-epileptic agents used to treat grand
mal epilepsy ? State the mechanism of action of any one of
them. Also describe adverse drug reactions and precautions
to be taken while using them.

I389I
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Discuss various whays of achieving contraception using
harmones, explaining pharmacological basis for the same.
State the adverse drug reactions of estrogen-progesterone
combinations. pr

S U M M E R -2001

(2 1(2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1 Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) What is a drug of choice of drug induced park insonism ? Why ? m
b) Why should morphine be avoided in patients with head injury ?
c) Which dosage form of scopolamine will you prefer for a patient
who is feeling giddy and is vomiting while travelling in a bus ? Why ?
d) Why amoxycilin is combined with clavulanic acid ? __
e) Why is albendazole preferred over mebendazole ?
f) What are the advantage of using radioactive iodine for
patients with thyroxicosis ?
g) What is the indication of mifepristone ?
What are its common side effects ?
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Give 4 major difference between opioid and non-opioid
analgesics. What are the therapeutic uses ?
b) Outline the therapeutic regime for multi-bacillary leprosy.
What is ENL reaction ? What is the therapy for the same ?
c) What are the therapeutic objectives while planning a treatment
for an obese patient, aged 45 yrs suffering from diabetes
mellitus ? Mention the groups of oral an tidiabetic drugs which
can be used for this patient. Select a drug of your choice from
these groups giving rationale for its use. State also its
mechanism of action.

WINTER - 2001
a

(2 1/2Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six :- 12 Marks
a) Mention insulin preparations and enumerate four absolute
indications for insulin therapy in diabetes mellitus.
b) What are the precautions to be taken before starting oxytocin
therapy ?
c) Enumerate drugs used as pre-anaesthetic medication,
M
I390I
M
a
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
giving rationale for their use.
d) Enumerate different dosage forms available to deliver
anti-asthma drugs.
e) Why is a patient receiving MAO inhibitors asked to avoid cheese ?
f) What actions of glucocorticoids form the basis of their use in
malignancy?
g) Mention important characteristics of aminoglycoside antibiotics.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Enumerate drugs useful in treatment of malaria. Indicate their
site of action in the life cycle of protozoa. Describe uses and
adverse effects of any one of them.
b) Enumerate the different types of contraceptive preparations
available for use in females. Explain mechanism of action and
toxicity of oestrgen-progesterone combination pill.
c) Discuss the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines.
Describe therapeutic uses and adverse effects of diazepam.

SUMMER-2002

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) What is the basis for using forced alkaline diuresis in
treatment of barbiturate poisoning ? ,
b) Mention mode of action of carbimazole as an antithyroid agent.
c) Enumerate 4 differences between penicillins and cephalosoprins.
d) What is a difference between vaccine and sera ?
Give two examples each with indications for use.
e) A patient of Parkinsonism stabilised on L-DOPA takes a
multivitamin preparation on his own. What are the possible
consequences ? Explain why they occur.
f) Mention indications for use of uterotonic agents. ,
g) What are the advantages of newer insulins ?
Enumerate any two preparations belonging to his group.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Classify penicillins.
Describe therapeutic indicatons and side effects of amoxicillin.
b) Classify glucocorticoids. Describe their therapeutic uses and
precautions to be taken while using them.
c) Enumerate the principles of treatment of epilepsy List the
drugs used in grandmal epilepsy. Describe indications and
side effects of phenytoin sodium.

I391I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication

W IN T E R - 2002
(2 % Hours) Total 35 Marks
SECTION-I
1. Describe briefly :- 12 Marks
a) Sources of Drugs.
b) Placebo.
2 Give the pharmacological basis for the use of any four 16 Marks
a) Disodium cromoglycate in bronchial asthma.
b) Nitrites in cyanide poisoning.
c) Warfarin as an anticoagulant.
d) Disulfiram in chronic alcoholism.
e) Iodides in hyperthyroidism.-
3. Write short notes on any three :- 12 Marks
a) Mucolytic agents.
b) Neostigmine.
c) Vit. D.
d) Salbutamol.
SECTION-II
4. Describe adverse effects and uses of tetracyclines. 12 Marks
5. Describe briefly:- 16 Marks
a) Treatment of status astamaticus.
b) Adverse effects of chlorpromazine.
6. Write short notes on any three :- 12 Marks
a) Rabies vaccine. /
b) Mebendazole.
c) Glybenclamide.
d) Magnesium trisilicate.

S U M M E R - 2003

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s ix :- 12 Marks
a) Mention four beneficial effects of beta-adrenergic agonists
in bronchial asthma.
b) Mention two uses and two adverse effects of Cyclosporine.
c) Mention any fpur important precautions which should be taken
before starting the combinaton type of oral contraceptive pill in
a woman.
d) Mention three differences between triiodo thyronine and
thyroxine and state one therapeutic use of tri iodo thyronine.
e) Enumerate the four common adverse effects of nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drugs.
> 2 l
■ ' ' .
r dM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
f) What is sulfasalazine ? Mention its two uses stating which
component in responsible for production beneficial effect in
stated condition. ,
gj Enumerate two indications and two contra indications for
dermatological use of topical steroids.
SECTiON-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Name aminoglycosides. Describe their mechanism of action.
Enumerate their 3 therapeutic uses and 2 common adverse effects.
b) Explain the pharamacological basis for the use of Levodopa in
Parkinsonism. Mention its adverse effects. Mention advantages
and disadvantages of using Levodopa with carbidopa.
c) Give clinical classification of H1receptor antagonists. Mention
2 examples of each group. Mention therapeutic uses and
adverse effects of older H1blockers. Also mention advantages
and disadvantages of newer H1receptor blockers.

W INTER - 2003

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s ix :- 12 Marks
a) What is preanaesthetic medication ? Mention two drugs of
different classes with their route of administration and dose.
b\ Name two intermediate acting insulins and mention their
adverse effects.
c) What is sequential blockade ? Give two examples.
d) What are antitussives ?
Mention two non-narcotic antitussive drugs. Mention their uses.
e) Name two Fluoroquinolones and mention two adverse effects
produced by them.
f) Name two H1receptor blockers and two H2 receptor blockers.
g) How aspirin in subanalgesic dose (40-325 mg/day) acts as
an antiplatelet agent ?
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two :- 14 Marks
a) Mention standard drugs for the treatment of tuberculosis.
Describe mechanism ofaction, adverse effects & uses of rifampicin.
b) Classify antithyroid agents. Describe mechanism of action
and adverse effects of radio active iodine (131).
c) Name the drugs used for treatment of Parkinsonism.
Describe mechanism of action and adverse effects of Levodopa.

M
393
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication f |

S U M M E R -2 0 0 4

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six :- 12 Marks
a) Enumerate fourdrugs used in chloroquin resitant malaria.
b) Mention two tocylotic agents and two indications for their use.
c) Define urinary antiseptics. Give two examples.
d) Apart from cefpirome, mention other fourth generation
cephalosporins. Mention 3 factors in which cefpirome differs
from IIIrdgeneration cephalosporins.
e) Compare and contrast nalidixic acid with ciprofloxacin.
f) Enumerate uses of chloroquin other than malaria.
g) Explain the basis of development of giddiness, sweating,
tremors etc. in a NIDDM patient well controlled on tolbutamide —
when oxyphenbutazone was administered to him for sprain.
SECTION-C K>
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Describe the mechanism of action and important uses of
different antithyroid agents in the management of hyperthyroidism.
b) Classify anti amoebic agents. Discuss the drug treatment
c) Classify antitubercular agents. Describe the mechanism of
action, therapeutic uses and adverse effects of Rifampicin.

I W IN T E R -20 04 P * '

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six 12 Marks
a) Mention 4 advantages of azithromycin over other macrolides
in terms of spectrum, pharmacokinetics, tolerability and drug - ' l
interactions. P r
b) Explain why thiopentone sodium is used for induction and I
nitrous oxide for maintenance of general anaesthesis.
c) What is clomiphere citrate ?
Name two indications and two important adverse effects of it.
d) Name two emollient laxatives.
Mention three indications of these drugs.
>
e) Write in brief mechanism of action of oral combination
contraceptives. ■1
f) Mention two drugs used in the treatment of scabies and
principleaof the treatment of scabies. ;)
*■v
13941
M-
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
g) Enumerate four common adverse effects of prolonged
corticosteroid therapy.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Classify antitubercular drugs. Describe the mechanism of
action and adverse effects of isonicotinic acid hydrazide (I.N.H.)
b) Classify antiepileptic drugs. Describe mechanism of action,
pharamcological actions, adverse effects and uses of
carbamazepine.
c) Classify cephalosporins and disucuss uses of third generation
cephalosporins.

S U M M E R -2 0 0 5

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) List four non autonomic drug groups with examples useful in
bronchia asthma stating mechanism of each group.
b) Compare Diazepam with phenobarbitone as regards their
mechanism of action and safety. Mention 3 uses of each.
c) List two microbial causes of vaginal discharge and give
pharmacotherapy of choice for each.
d) Mention any four types of drug contraceptives.
List two merits of combination and phasic pills.
e) Define the terms vermifuge and vermicide giving one
commonly used example of each with its mechanism of action.
f) What is Lepra reaction and how it is caused ? _ ■
List its types and drugs used to treat them.
' g) Enumerate four different drug groups useful in the management
of hyperthyroid states, giving the mechanism and indication for each.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two :- 14 Marks
a) Discuss any for factors important in the choice of antimicrobial
regimen, giving suitable examples. Explain any two mechanisms
of microbial resistance and two ways to prevent or overcome it.
b) Classify antidiabetics giving their mechanisms of action and
examples. How a case of newly diagnosed diabetes is managed ?
Mention any two antidiabetic combinations and their advantages.
c) Enumerate four different uses of opioids and non-opioids giving
drug of choice with dose schedule for each use. Compare
undesired effects and contra indications of opioids and non-opioids.

M
395
W
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

WINTER - 2005

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) Why amantadine is used in therapy of parkinsonism ?
b) Chloroquine despite its excellent trohoziticidal action, is not
used to treat acute intestinal amoebiasis. Why ?
•*
c) Why pyridoxine is prescribed with isonized?
d) Why the naturally occuring hormone progesterone rarely
used in therapeutics ? What is the alternative ?
e) A 25 yrs old lactating woman is diagnosed to have
hyperthyroidism. What will be your treatment of choice and why ?

g) Why prednisolone is preferred to prednisone in patients with

impaired liver function tests ?
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) State indications for use of insulin in diabetes mellitus.
Describe adverse reactions to insulin and measures taken to '
treat / prevent them.
b) Compare and contrast opioid and non-opioid analgesics.
State therapeutic uses of aspirin, giving rationale for the same.
c) Discuss the factors involved in determining choice of an
antimicrobial agent giving suitable Examples.

SUMMER - 2006

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) Enumerate four macrolide antibiotics.
Give four therapeutic uses of erythromycin.
b) What is cotrimoxazole ?
Give mechanism of action of cotrimoxazole.
c) What is WHO schedule for treating multibacillary leprosy ?
d) Name two immunosuppressive agents.
Give one therapeutic use of any one of them.
e) Which antiepileptic can be used when the patient is having
both grand mal and petit mal epilepsy ? Give its two adverse effects.
f) Name two drugs which are used to postpone the labour.
Give two adverse effects for each of them.
M
1396^

>1
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
g) Give mechanism of action of combination contraceptive pill.
Give its two contraindications.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two:- . 14 Marks
a) Classify corticosteroids.
Give therapeutic and adverse effects of corticosteroids.
b) Classify cephalosporins. Give mechanism of acton,
therapeutic uses and adverse effects of cephalosporins.
c) Classify antiepileptic drugs. Give mechanism of action and
adverse effects of diphenylhydantoin sodium.

WINTER - 2006
i
(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks
SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s ix :- 12 Marks
a) Describe Pharmacological basis for the use of 4-methyl
pyrazole in the treatment of methyl alcohol poisoning.
b) What are the problems encountered in pregnant ladies on
Anti-epileptic medication ? List few precautions and actions ’
that should be taken.
c) Enumerate adverse drug reactions observed with use of
Tricyclic antidepressants.
d) Describe treatment of multi drug resistant tuberculosis in brief.
e) Enumerate ovulation inducing agents and their common
ADR and problems encountered. /
f) Role of inhalational corticosteroids in chronic bronchial asthma.
Enumerate them.
g) Enumerate 3 differences between Ergometrine and Oxytocin.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two :- 14 Marks
a) Compare and contrast Nalidixic acid with Ciprofloxacine.
Discuss their spectrum, uses and adverse drug reactions.
b) Classify Anti-thyroidagents. Discuss mechanism ^faction,
adverse reactions and uses of each group.
c) Classify NSAIDs. Discuss selective Cox-2 inhibitors and
adverse probable drug reactions associated with these new agents.

SUMMER -2007

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any six :- 12 Marks
M
\ I397I
; M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Explain how disujfiram produces aversion for ethyl alcohol.
b) What are advantages of doxycycline over other tetracycline
preparations?
c) Why praziquantel is preferred to niclosamide in the treatment
of Taenia solium infestation ?
d) What is the mechanism of action of ecarbose ?
What is its main side effect ?
e) ^What is passive immunization ? Name two infective diseases
which are treated with passive immunization.
f) Describe how oxytocin is administered for induction of labour.
Mention one contraindication for the use of oxytocin as
inducing agent.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks2
1
*
a) p pfino pro-angpcthetic different
classes of drugs used for pre-anaesthetic medication giving
the basis for use of each and mentioning disadvantages if any.
• b) Describe therapeutic uses and adverse effects; of metronidazole.
Mention one interaction occuring with metronidazole,
c) Describe all the adverse effects produced by long term
corticosteroid therapy. What precautions should be taken
during long term corticosteroid therapy.

W IN T E R - 2007

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any s i x 12 Marks
a) Enumerate Penicillinase inhibitors.
Why they are combined with few antibiotics ?
b) Explain pharmacological basis of use of topical steroids in .
dermatological conditions. Name two topically used steroids.
c) What is Lugol’s Iodine ? Mention its basis of use in hyperthyroidism.
d) Name two drugs used in mixed round worm infestion.
Write mechanism of action of each.
e) Explain why L-dopa is not useful is drug induced Parkinsonism.
f) Mention four uses of Methotrexate.
q) Explain antiinflammatory action of Aspirin.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 14 Marks
a) Enumerate beta lactum antibiotics. Describe in brief
mechanism of action adverse effect and four clinical uses of
Penicillin G.
b) Enumerate anti TB drugs. What is DOTS (Directly Observed
M
I398I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
Treatment Shortcourse) ? Describe various category DOTS
regimens used in management of tuberculosis,
c) Classify antianxiety drugs. Write in short mechanism of acton,
uses and contra-indications of Dizepam.

W INTER - 2008

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any f i v e 20 Marks
a) Give four common characteristics ofAminoglycoside
antibiotics, give four therapeutic usep of streptomycin.
b) Give four therapeutic uses of Morphine.
How will you treat acute Morphine Poisoning ?
c) Define Vaccine. Give four examples of Viral Vaccines.
d) Give four drugs effective in typhoid fever.
How will you treat typhoid carriers ?
e) What are antitussives ?
Mention two non opioid antitussive drugs. Mention their uses.
f) Give Pharmacological basis for the use of Inhalationa!
corticosteroids in Bronchial Asthma.
SECTION-C
2. Attempt any two 12 Marks
a) Classify drug used in tuberculosis. Enumerate causes of
failure of drug treatment of tuberculosis. TBive treatment of
multidrug resistant tuberculosis. y
b) Name drugs useful in Malaria. Describe mechanism of action
and therapeutic uses of chloraquine.
c) Describe therapeutic uses of Aspirin. Mention its mechanism
of action. What are the contraindication of use of Aspirin ?

^21/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any five 20 Marks
a) Enumerate 4 uses of Metronidazole with dose and duration of
therapy (with route).
b) Mention 4 uses of Gonadotropins with pharmacological basis.
c) Name 2 drugs with different mechanism of action for chronic gout.
d) Mention 2 peripheral muscle relaxants with separate mechanisms
of action.
e) Mention 4 adverse effects ofchlorpromazine related to
' 14
I399I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIP4 Edition b y Unique Publication
extrapyramidal system.
f) Mention 2 drugs for Tape worm infestation having different
mechanism of action; mention doses.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3, Attempt any 2 out of 3 : (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate various types of preparations for oral hormonal
contraception in females. Describe the mechanisms of
actions and adverse effects of combined oral contraceptives.
b) Classify antimalarial drugs. Outline the drug treatment of quite
attack of Falciparum malaria for Chloroquine sensitive and
resistant cases.
c) Classify opioid analgasics. Describe the actions, adverse
effects and contra indications to Morphine.

W INTER - 2009

(2 1/2Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any five 20 Marks
a) * Classification of Barbiburates. Four reasons as to why
Benzodiazepines are preferred to Barbiturates as hypnotic.
b) Name the drugs used in treatment of Parkinsonism. Mention
advantages and disadvantages of Levo-Dopa-Carbidopa
combination.
c) Write the treatment of multibacillary leprosy. Mention adverse
drug effect and other therapeutic uses of Rifampicin.
d) Name drugs used in pre-anaesthetic medication.
Write mechanism of action of any two agents.
e) Classify anti histaminics. Give four uses of them.
f) Classify drugs used in treatment of Bronchial Asthma.
Give two adverse effect of any one of them.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
,3. Attempt any two out of three: ,, (2x6=12)
a) Name the drugs used in the treatment of generalised tonic-clonic
seizure. Write mechanism of action, adverse effect and
therapeutic uses of Carbamazepine.
b) Classify fluoroquinolones, compare and contrast first and
second generation fluoroquinones in respect to spectrum of
activity, advantages, adverse effects and indications.
c) Name different sources of Insulin. Write advantages of human
insulin over conventional insulin. Write indications for insulin.

M
> o I
M
2nd M.B.B. S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

SUM MER -2 0 1 0
p

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any five:- \ 20 Marks
a) What is chemoprophylaxis ?
How is it achieved in rheumatic fever ?
b) Why oxytocin is used for induction of labour and not *
methylergometrine ?
c) Why Diazepam is preferred over Phenobarbitone as hypnotic ?
d) What are mechanisms of bacterial resistance of penicillin ?
What is the basis of use of clavulenic acid with Amoxycillin ?
e) What are mechanism of action of Metformin ?
SECTION-C
3. Attempt any two 12 Marks
a) Classify Antiparkinsonism drugs.
What is the rationale of use of Levodopa with carbidopa ?
b) Enumerate various Glucocorticoids.
Describe the action and adverse effects.
c) Classify Antitubercular drugs. Describe the antimalarial
actions, pharmacokinetics and adverse effects of Rifampicin.

W IN T E R -2 0 1 0

(2 1/2 Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any five 20 Marks
a) Enumerate the drugs used in the treatment of tuberculosis.
Describe in short about DOTS.
b) Name four drugs used in the treatment of cough with
pharmacological basis of their uses.
c) Enumerate aminoglycoside antibiotics. Write common features
of aminoglycosides.
d) Enumerate oxytocic agents. Write clinical indications of each agent.
e) Name four drugs used in the treatment of scabies. Write merits
and demerits of each one of them in treatment of scabies.
f) Mention 4 uses of methotrexate with pharmacological basis of each.
SECTION-C(LAQ)
3. Attempt any two out of three : (2x6=12)
a) Enumerate generations of cephalosporins with suitable examples.
Write mechanism of action, adverse effects and therapeutic uses
of cephalosporins.
M
401
Vi
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHSMCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
b) Classify oral hypoglycaemic agents.
Describe in detail pharmacology of sulphonylureas.
c) Enumerate opium alkaloids. Describe mechanism of actions,
adverse effects and clinical uses of morphine.

^SUM M ER - 2011

(2 1/2Hours) Total 35 Marks

SECTION-B
1. Attempt any five 20 Marks
a) Write a short note on beta-lactamase inhibitors.
b) Give pharamcological basis for the use of antithyroid drug
and iodide preparations preoperatively in a patient posted
for subtotal thyroidectomy.
c) Compare and contrast opioids and non-opioid analgeslcs.
d) State mechanism of action of sodium valproate and its adverse
reactions.
e) Enumerate uterine stimulants.
Write a short note on any one of them.
f) Write mechanism of action of chloroquine. Enumerate its
two antimicrobial and two antiinflammatory uses.
SECTION-C
3. Attempt any two out of three ( L A Q ) 12
a) Give rationale for use of combinations of drugs in tuberculosis.
Define multi-drug resistant tuberculosis. Discuss the management
of multi-drug resistance for a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis
(no need to mention doses of the drugs).
b) Classify corticosteroids. Describe adverse effects of corticosterioids.
c) State mechanism of action of various bronchodilators. Outline the
management of status asthmaticus (severe acute asthma).

W IN T E R -2011

Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
2. Attempt any five out of six (brief answer questions): (5x4=20)
' a) Write a short note on antimirobial prophylaxis.
b) State pharmacological basis for use of budesonide in therapy of
bronchial asthma.
c) Compare and contrast oxytocin and ergometrine.
d) Enlist the mucolytic agents and describe their role as antitussive
agents.
e) Classify opioid antagonists. State their therapeutic u'ses.
M
>021
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
f) Give the pharmacological basis for use of methotrexate in
rheumatoid arthritis.
SECTION-C
Attempt any two out of three (LAQ):
a) Describe various factors involved in selection of an antibiotic for a
given infection.
b) Classify antidiabetic agents. Explain the mechanism of action of
thiazolidinediones and describe their pharmacological actions List
their adverse reactions.
c) Exaplain the mechanism of action of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
drugs (NSAIDs). Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of
selective NSAIDs. .

SUMMER-2012

Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B
2 . Brief answer questions (any five out of s ix : (5x4=20)
a) Enumerate two drugs acting through 5 HT3 antagonism and
enumerate its uses and adverse effects.
b) Enumerate the advantages and disadvantages of the combined
use of antimicrobials.
c) Classify Benzodiazepines and enumerate uses of •diazepam.
d) What is super infection, enumerate ways to reduce it ?
e) Enumerate two advantages and two disadvantages of
combining lignocaine with adrenaline.
f) Enumerate drugs used in the treatment of leprosy and mention
uses and adverse effects of clofazimine.
SECTION-C
3., Solve any two Out of three : (2x6=12)
a) Classify Neuromuscular blocking drugs and write in brief about
Succinylcholine.
b) Classify drugs used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
and discuss in brief about Leflunomide.
c) Classify drugs used in the treatment of bronchial asthma and
write in brief about the mechanism of action and adverse effects
of methylxanthines.

SUMMER-2013
p
Total Duration : Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32
SECTION-B
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
M
>31
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique .Publication
a) Why benzodiazepines preferred over bariturates as
sedative and hypnotic agents ?
b) Write advantages and disadvantages of radiactive iodine.
c) Compare and contrast between oxytocin and ergometrine.
d) What is contrimoxazole. Describe the mechanism of action.
Enumerate four therapeutic uses of it.
e) Enumerate non-sedative antihistaminics. Enumerate their
advantages and two indications.
f) Classify bronchodilators. Write mechanism of action and
adverse effects of aminophylline.
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify penicjllins. Describe the mechanism of action,
adverse effects and therapeutic uses of ampicillin.
b) Classify glucocorticoids. Write therapeatic uses and
percautions to be taken while using them.
c) Enlist the drugs used in grand mal epilepsy. Describe the
mechanism of action and adverse effects of phenytion sodium.

WINTER-2013

Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32

SECTION-B (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Classify uterine stimulants. Compare and contrast between oxytocin
and prostaglandin analogue as oxytocics.
b) Classify antimalarial drugs. Mention four therapeutic uses of
chloroquine.
c) List tiie uses and adverse effects of H1 antihistaminics.
d) Give 4 examples of drugs from different classes used as
pre-anesthetic medication. Give pharmacological basis for them.
e) Enumerate 4 classes of immunosuppressant, stating mechanism of
action, example of drugs and therapeutic uses.
f) Enlist the regiments for Emergency Contraception. Add a note on the
mechanism of action and uses of Mifepristone. '
SECTION-C (12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Questions (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify the drugs used in the treatment of Epilepsies. Write
mechanism of action, adverse effects and therapeutic uses of
Phenytoin Sodium.
b) Mention common properties of Aminoglycosides. Mention
mechanism of action, adverse effects and therapeutics uses of
Streptomycin.
c) Classify Neuromuscular blocking drugs and write in brief about drug
interactions and therapeutic uses of peripherally acting
M
X
YA
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I F dEdition by Unique Publication
Neuromuscular blocking drugs.

S U M M E R -2 0 1 4

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B (20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Explain in brief about topical use of steroids in dermatological
conditions.
b) Name the four drugs used in the treatment of cough with
pharmacological basis of their use.
c) Discuss the adverse effects and therapeutic uses of Metronidazole.
d) Compare and contrast Oxytocin and Ergometrine.
e) Classify Opioid antagonists. State their therapeutic uses.
f) What is pre-anaesthetic medication ? Describe the purpose of each
drug in it.
SECTIONS (12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify Cephalosporins. Write mechanism of action, adverse effects
and therapeutic uses of Cephalosporins.
b) Classify Antidepressants. Discuss therapeutic uses and adverse
effects of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRls).
c) Classify Oral hypoglycemic agents and describe mechanism of
action and adverse effects of Sulfonylureas.

W IN T E R 2 0 1 4

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B & SECTION - C
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
2. Short answer question.(any. five'out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Write short note on selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
b) Enumerate drugs used for treatment of gout and mention their
mechanism of action.
c) Classify bronchodilators. Write the mechanism of action and adverse
effects of selective 2 agonists.
d) What is the indication for artemisinin based combination therapy
(ACT) ? What are its advantages over other antimalaria drugs ? Write
any one ACT regimen.
e) Classify oral antidiabetic drugs with examples. State the mechanism of
action and adverse effects of metformin.
f) Enumerate drugs used for the prophylaxis of migraine. Discuss in
detail the mechanism of action and adverse effects of sumatriptan.
M
>05l
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify sedative and hypnotic drugs. State advantages of
benzodiazepines over barbiturates. Describe mechanism of action
and therapeutic uses of benzodiazepines.
b) Enumerate aminoglycosides. Describe common properties, shared
toxicities and therapeutic uses of aminoglycosides.
c) Classify corticosteroids.Describe adverse effects and therapeutic uses
of glucocorticoids.

SUMMER-2015

Total Duration: Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

^ SECTION - B & SECTION - C % _______
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
2. Short answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Describe any four therapeutic uses of metronidazole with respect to
place in therapy,dose,frequency,route of administration and duration of
treatment.
b) Write in brief about Diclofenac Sodium. .
c) Define Vaccine. Write in brief about BCG vaccine.
d) Name drugs used in pre-anaesthetic medication. Explain
pharmacology basis for use of any two agents. #
e) Name two Mucolytic agents.’Give their indications and explain mode
of action.
f) Explain pharmacology basis for the use of ergometrine in post partum
haemorrhage. Write down contraindication to use of ergometrine.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks) 1*T7i
3. Long answer question (any twoout of three): (2x6=12)
a) Classify oral hypoglycemic drugs. Describe mechanism of action and
adverse effects of biguanides.
b) What is rationale behind use of Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy
(ACT) in acute uncomplicated falciparum malaria ? Describe any tree
ACT regimens.
c) Classify anti-seizure drugs on the basis of mechanism of action.
Describe adverse effects and therapeutic uses of phenytoin.

WINTER 2015
»
Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

M
[406]
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
SECTION - B & SECTION - C
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
2. Short answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Enlist four therapeutic uses of prostaglandins mentioning agent of
preference for each. Write the conditions in which prostaglandins are
preferred for induction of labour.
b) State major differencepbetween opioids and NSAIDs (Non Steroidal
Anti- Inflammatory Drugs) depending on mechanism of actions, uses,
adverse drug reactions.
c) Write four uses and adverse effects of Metronidazole.
d) Enumerate various groups of drugs used in the treatment of bronchial
asthma with one example each. State their mechanism of action.
e) Compare and contrast between macrolide and tetracycline antibiotics
depending on spectrum, uses, adverse reaction and precautions to be
taken for its use. ,
f) Write any four uses and four adverse effects of progesterone.
SECTION - C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define various terms used to describe antimalarial action of drugs in
relation to life cycle of P. vivax. Write various Artemisinin based
Combination Therapy (ACT) regimens for uncomplicated falciparum
malaria. Give justification for combining two drugs together in ACT
regimens.
b) Classify antiepileptics on the basis of clinical utility giving examples.
Enumerate principles of trearment of epilepsy. Describe the
mechanism of action and adverse effects of sodium valproate.
c) Classify Oral hypoglycemic agents. Explain mechanism of action,
adverse effects and uses of biguanides.

SUMMER -2016

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Classify oxytocics. Write uses and adverse effects of oxytocics.
b) Write uses of morphine and other opioids. Why morphine is
contraindicated in head injury ?
c) Compare and contrast: Benzodiazepines and Barbiturates.
d) Define antisera. Write in brief about four different antisera and their
indications.
e) Enumerate different types of insulin preparations and insulin analogues.
M
> 7 l
M
 w

2mtM,B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

Outline the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis.

f) Classify antitubercular drugs with their mechanism of actions. List drugs
used in extensively drug resistant TB.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Discuss therapeutics uses, contraindications and adverse drug reactions
ofglucorticoids.
b) Classify pencillins. Describe its mechanism of action, adverse effects
and therapeutic uses.
c) Classify antiepileptic drugs. Describe mechanism of action, adverse
effects and therapeutic uses sodium valproate.
& i
W IN T E R -2 0 1 6

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) List the uses and adverse effects of H1 antihistaminics.
b) Classify fluoroquinolones. Write their four therapeutics uses and any
two adverse effects.
c) Why benzodiazepines are preferred over barbiturates as
hypnosedatives ? Write four uses of benzodiazepines.
d) Give pharmacological basis for the use of propranolol in the treatment
of thyrotoxicosis.
e) Classify antitubercular drugs. Discuss in brief the indications for
chemoprophylaxis in tuberculosis.
f) Classify nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. List their important uses
9
and two adverse effects.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Explain the mechanism of action and dosage schedule of oral
contraceptive pills. Outline the management of postcoital (emergency)
contraception.
b) Classify antiepileptic drugs. Explain the mechanism of action of r
phenytoin. - Outline the management of status epilepticus.
c) Enumerate antimalarial drugs. Describe mechanism of action and
adverse effects of artemisinin derivatives. Add a note on artemisinin
- based combination therapy.

M
[m]
*4
i
2ndM B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHSMCQs I l l ri Edition by U nique Publication

SUMMER 2017

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B&C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Briefanswerquestions(anyfiveoutofsix): (5x4=20)
a) Describe the therapeutic uses of prostaglandin analogues during
pregnancy and labour.
b) Write a note on selective estrogen receptor modulators and their
therapeutic uses.
c) Compare and contrast second generation antihistaminics with
conventional antihistaminics.
d) What are the advantages of pethedine over morphine ?
e) Write a short note on alkylating agents used in cancer chemotherapy.
f) Describe the drugs used in the treatment of Bronchial asthma and write
mechanism of action of any one drug.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Compareand contrast aspirin and COX-2 inhibitors with respect to
pharmacological actions, therapeutic uses and adverse effect profile.
b) Enumerate third generations cephalosporins. Describe therapeutic uses
and adverse effects of parenterally used third generation
cephalosporins.
c) Describe in detail the anti-inflammatory arid immunosuppressant
actions of corticosteroids. Add a note on their therapeutic uses and
adverse effects of corticosteroids.
V V V V V W V

M
409
Vi
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

SECTION - 1FORENSIC MEDICINE

1. Introduction.
MCQ(MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Define medical jurisprudence.(S-01)
LAQ
— — None__ .. • ...... '.______
2. Legal Procedure.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Murder cases are first tried in court of (W-03)
a) first class judicial magistrate. b) sessions court
c) hfgh court d) supreme court.
2. The maximum punishment (in one offence) which can be awarded by
first class judicial magistrate can be (W-03)
a) life imprisonment
b) 7 yrs imprisonment
c) one yr imprisonment and 1000 Rs. fine
d) three yrs imprisonment and 5000 Rs. fine.
3. Statement on oath made by dying person to the magistrate in the
presence of accused and his lawyer is know as (W-03)
a) dying declaration. b) affidavit
c) dying deposition d) confession
4. Magistrate inquest is done in following cases, EXCEPT. (S-04)
a) road traffic accidents b) exhumation.
c) death in police custody d) death of prisoner in jail.
5. Section 174 Cr.P.C. deals with (S-04)
a) inquest b) inquiry c) injury d) infanticide
6. Best method of Inquest is (S-04)
a) police inquest b) magistrate inquest
c) coroner’s inquest d) medical examination system
7. Oath is not necessary before recording. (S-04)
a) dying declaration. b) dying deposition
c) evidence in the court d) all of the above.
8. _______ is NOT an example of congnizable offence (W-08)
a) rash or negligent act b) dowry death c) assault d) none
T410T
 2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
9. If a person is under the guardianship of the court of law, he attains
measarity (maturity) on the completion of (S-09)
a) 16 yrs b) 18 yrs c) 19 yrs d) 21 yrs
10. Under Section 28 (3) of criminal procedure code an Assistant
sessions judge can pass sentence of imprisonment upto (W-G9)
a) One year b) three years c) seven years d) ten years
11. One of the following offences is NOT a cognisable offence (W-09)
a) murder b) ragging c) rape d) grievous hurt
12. Conduct money is the fee offered or paid to a witness in (S-10)
a) civil cases only b) civil as well as criminal cases.
c) criminal case only d) magistrates inquest
13. A method to verify the actual possession of an object from the time of
its was first identified until it is offered as evidence in the court is called
(S-10)
a) chain of evidence ' b) proof of evidence
c) chain of custody d) proof of custody of evidence
■' 14. A suicidal note (S-10)
a) is treated as a dying declaration when it is signed.
b) is treated as a dying declaration when found by police.
c) is treated as a dying declaration when found by magistrate.
d) is not treated as a dying declaration.
15. As an expert witness, a medical practioner may volunteer a
statement. (S-10)
a) if he has serious objection to remarks made by defence lawyer.
b) if he thinks that injustice will result if he keeps quite.
c) if he thinks that he has a better understanding of the facts of the
case.
d) if he thinks that he has not been asked the correct questions.
...

16. In a consumer forum, the limitation period for filing a complaint is

(S-10)
a) 18 months from the date on which cause of action arises.
b) 24 months from the date on which cause of action has arise
c) 36 months from the date on which cause of action has arise
d) 48 months from the date on which cause of action has arise
17. Leading questions are permitted in (S-11)
a) Examination in chief b) Cross examination
c) Re-examination d) Dying declaration
18. Dying deposition is recorded by (S-11)
a) Doctor b) Magistrate c) Police officer d) Lawyer
19. Issuing and giving false medical certificates is punishable under
Section of (PC (S-12)

I411I
►1
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) 191 b) 269 c) 320 d) 197
20. Leading questions are permitted in (W-12)
a) Examination in chiefb) Cross-examination
c) Re-examination d) Dying-declaration
- 21. To become a competent witness, a person should attain the age of
(S-13)
a) 12 years b) 10 years c) 8 years d) None of these
22. The doctor should volunteer a statement if he thinks that (W-14)
a) He will not get the conduct money
b) Witness will turn Hostile
c) The accused age is less than 12 years
d) Injustice wifi result
- ___23. Section 176 CrPC related to (W-15)
= UcHonetunquest— =-------- b) Magistrate inquest
c) Police inquest d) Summons
24. A lady died due to unnatural death within 07 years of her marriage.
The inquest in this case will be done by (W-15)
a) Assistant Sub-inspector of police
b) Coroner
c) Forensic Medicine expert
d) Sub-divisional magistrate
25. Dying declaration comes under (W-15)
a) Section 30 CrPC b) Section 32 CrPC
c) Section 30 IPC d) Section 32 IPC
SAQ
1. Oral Evidence.(S-99)
2. How the medical evidence is recorded in court of Law ? (S-01)
3. Expert witness. (W-03)(S-71,79..85)(W-89,91I95)
4. Cross examination of Doctor in court of law.(S-06)
5. Indication of Magistrate lnquest.(W-07)
6. What is subpoena ? (W-10)(S-15)(W-74,76)
7. Medical Evidence. (S-11)
8. Inquest. (S-13)(W-87)
9. Consent. (W-15)
10. Leading question. (S-70)
11. Cross examination. (S-70)
12. Oral evidence and documentary evidence. (S-70,86,88,90)(W-88)
13. Volunteering of a statement. (W-70)(S-78,80)
14. Conduct money. (W-74,76)(S-76)
15. Dying declaration and death certificate. (S-76)
16. Hostile witness. (W-77)
►4,
I412I
M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
17. Dying declaration and dying deposition. (W-77)(S-80,83)
18. Common witness & expert witness. (S-78)
19. Dying deposition. (S-82,83)
20. Magistrate's inquest. (S-85)
21. Dying declaration. (W-90,91)(S-96,98)
22. Exception for oral evidence. (S-92) -
23. Powers of different criminal courts in Bombay. (S-95)
24. Police Inquest and Coroner's Inquest. (S-96)
25. Coroner's inquest. (S-97)
LAQ
1. What are disadvantages of not visiting the scene of crime by doctor ?
Discuss basic rules of preservation and collection of medicolegal
evidence at scene of crime.(S-OO)
2. Enumerate powers of various courts in relation with punishment which
they can award.(W-OO)
3. What is inquest ? Discuss different types of inquest prevalent in
India. Add a note on Medical Examiners System. (S-16)
4. Define Medical evidence. Enumerate types of evidence. Write in
detail about documentary evidence. (S-17)
5. Define Dying declaration. In what circumstances is it made. How should a
doctor proceed in order to obtain one ? (S-70,83)(W-74,88)
6. What makes a good medical witness. (W-74,76)
7. What do you mean by the terms witness and evidence. Describe the classes
of witness and evidence. Describe the classes of witness and their
functions in courts. In what cases can evidence be admitted without the
presence of a witness in court. (S-76)(W-87)
8. For what purposes are medical certificates granted. What are the points
involved in doing so. What are obligations resting on any RMP signing such
certificates. (S-77)
9. Describe kinds of witness. Give in procedure of recording medical evidence
in court of law. (S-82,83)
10. Describe various types of inquests in sudden violent unexpected deaths.
Describe their relative merits. (W-84)
11. Define inquest. What are different types of inquests write with description.
(W-87)
12. Define and classify evidence. Briefly describe the types of evidence that a
medical witness can provide to a court of law. (W-92)
3. Medical Law and Ethics.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The following are some of the funcitons of indian medical council
EXCEPT. (W-03)
a) maintenance of medical register.

I413I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
b) recognition of medical institutions.
c) trial regarding cases of medical negligence.
d) directives regarding syllabus for medical education.
2. Medical examination without consent can be carried out in a case of
(W-03)
a) prisoner ' b) accused in a criminal case as per Cr.P.C.53.
c) rape accused d) ali of the above.
3. Professional death sentence is given by (S-04,15)
a) high court b) 1st class magistrate,
c) session court d) none of the above.
4. Professional secrets can be disclosed under protest to (S-04)
a) wife b) courts authority c) L.I.C. d) none of above
5. The main cause for penal erasure is a (W-08)
a) serious professional misconduct— b) criminal negligence____
c) privileged communication d) civil negligence
6. Liability of negligence DOES NOT arise if there is (W-08)
a) existence of a duty to care
b) no failure to maintain care and skill
c) reasonably foreseeble damage
d) proximate cause resulting in damage
7. In an appeal against disciplinary action taken for professional
misconduct, the final authority is (S-09)
a) central government b) medical council of India
c) state government d) president of State Medical Council
8. If the name of a doctor is removed from the state medical register,
after exhausting all the remedies under the state medical council act,
he may appeal to the (W-09)
a) indian medical council b) state government
c) central government d) high court
9. Appeal against removal of name from the state medical register is
made to the (S-10) ,
a) medical council of India. b) state government
c) central government d) MCI as well as State Government.
10. Disciplinary control over medical practitioners in mainly exercised by
(W-10)
a) state medical council b) indian medical association
c) medical council of India d) central government
11. The current status of Active Euthanasia in India is that it is (W-10)
a) legal b) illegal c) permissible . d) ambiguous
12. Adultery is punishable under section (S-11)
a) 375 IPC b) 377 IPC c) 354 IPC d) 497 IPC
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
13. Privileged communication means exception to the general rule of
(S-11)
a) Professional negligence b) Professional secrecy
c) Product liability d) The dctorine of Res Ipsa Loquitor
14. State consumer redressal commission can entertain claims for
compensation. (W-11)
a) upto 1 lakh Rs. b) upto 25 lakhs Rs
c) 5 lakhs Rs. to 20 lakhs d) 20 lakhs Rs.to one crore Rs.
15. Contributory negligence can be a valid defence to the registered
medical practitioner in (W-11)
a) Civil negligence b) Criminal negligence
c) Both civil and criminal negligence d) Ethical misconduct
16. Which of the following concept of death is duly recognised by “The
Transplantation of Human Organs Act 1994” ? (W-11)
a) Whole brain death -
b) Brain stem death
c) Extinction of the tripod of life
djComplete and irreversible cessation of respiration
17. Dichotomy means (S-12)
a) Violating prohibitions of The Drugs Act
b) Association with the manufacturing firms
c) Issuing a false, misleading or improper certificate
d) Receiving or giving commission
18. Contributory negligence is a valid defends to the doctor in (W-12)
a) Civil negligence b) Criminal negligence
c) Both civil and criminal negligence d) Ethical misconduct
19. Privileged communication means exception to the general rule of
(W-12)
a) Professional Negligence b) Professional secrecy
c) Product liability d) The doctrine of ‘Res Ipsa Loquitor’
20. Criminal negligence on the part of the doctor is offenqe under Section
(S-13)
a) 302 IPC b) 320 IPC
c) 306 IPC d) 3 0 4 -A IP C
21. Best type of consent is (S-13)
a) Oral b) Oral witnessed
c) Implied d) Written Informed
2 2 . Professional death sentence means (W-13)
a) Capital punishment
b) Imposition of fine
c) Permanent erasure from Medical Register
M
14151
►^
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition fey Unique Publication -V
d) Rigorous imprisonment
23. Dichotomy is an example of (W-14)
a) Professional Misconduct
b) Rmifessional Negligence
c) Professional Misadventure
d) Professional hazards
SAQ
1. Infamous conduct [professional misconduct].(S-99)(S-70)(W-83,88)
2. Medical indemnity lnsurance.(W-99)
3. Contributory negligence.(W-OI)
4. Precautions to prevent medical negligence.(W-03)
5. Describe what are the different laws & acts in relation to practice of*1

6. Define privileged^m m unicafi5h7^ive^aiW e"^rrrpfgSTfSi 94)

7. Describe what are the different laws and acts in relation to practice of
medicine.(S-04)
8. Describe what are the different laws and acts in relation to practice of
medicine.(S-04)
9. What are medical ethics and medical etiquettes ?(S-06)
10. Rights and privileges of registered medical practitioners.(S-06)
11. Describe redressal mechanisms for civil negligence. (S-10)
12. Professional Misconduct. (S-11)
13. Define professional misconduct. Givq six examples of it. (W-11)
14. What is privileged communication ? (S-12)(W-16) (W-73,79)(S-75,82)
15. Section 320 IPC. (S-12)
17. RES IPSA LOQUITOR. (W-13)(S-14)
18. Vicarious Liability. (S-15)
19. Functions of MCI. (S-t6)
20. Euthanasia. (S-16)
21. Infamous conduct in professional respect. (S-17)
22. Duties of an RMP. (S-70,81)
23. Functions of State Medical Council. (S-70,82,83,87)(W-78)
24. Acts ofommission and act of commission. (S-70,79,83)
25. Differentiate between Privileged communication & professional secrecy.
(S-70,80)(W-77)
26. Medicolegal importance of consent. (S-72)
27. Indian Medical Register. (W-74,76)(S-77)
28. Professional secrecy. (S-78,84,87,92)
29. Valid Consent. (S-78)
30; Medicolegal problems of Organ Transplantation. (S-81)
31. Medical Council of India. (S-90)
32. Consumer protection Act. 1986. (W-93,97)
l4 1 6 l

1
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdE dition by U nique Publication
33. Differentiate between Civil & criminal malpraxis. (S-95)
34. informed consent. (VV-98)
LA Q
1. What is medical council ? What are the functions and the powers of
Indian Medical Council and Maharashtra Medical Council ?(W-00)
(S-86)
2. Define medical negligence. What are the different type of medical
negligence. What precautions should a doctor take being occured of
negHgence.(W-00)(W-95J(S-98j
3. Describe in brief the function of state medical council. (S-01)(S-96J
4. Define consent. Discuss its importance in GP & medicolegal practice.
(.$"01)
5. What is meant by "Professional Secrecy" ? When where and to whom
will you safely divulge or decline to disclose professional secrets that
have come to your knowledge in course of your professional duty ?
(W-01 )(W-90)
6. Describe the Functions & Powers of state medical.(W-02)
7. Define medical negligence. Enumerate examples of criminal
negligence. Discuss "Res ISPSa Loquitur.(S-03)
8. Describe what are the different laws and acts in relation to practice of
medicine.(S-04)
9. Define and classify professional negligence in medical practice. What
precaution should a general practitioner to take to avoid charge of
negligence ? (W-04)
10. Define infamous conduct, give known examples. What is the judicial
procedure of State Medical Council to deal with the complaint of
infamous conduct against registered medical practitioner ?(S-05)
11. Describe privilege communication.(W-07)
12. Define and classify consent in Medical care. Describe in detail the
doctrine of informed consent.(S-IO)
13. Define professional negligence. State four differences between civil
and criminal negligence. What is Novus Actus Interveniens ? (S-12)
"14. Define privileged communication. Enumerate various circumstances
where disclosure of professional secrets is justified. (W-12)
15. Define Medical Negligence. What are essential elements of Medical
Negligence ? What are defences against Medical Negligence ?
(W-10)
16. Define negligence in medical practice. How will you differentiate
between civil and criminal negligence ? What are the defences
available to a medical practitioner against the charge of negligence ?
(W-12,16)
►4
417
Vi'
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

17. What are the duties of a registered medical practitioner ? (S-13)

18. What do you mean by infamous conduct in a professional respect ? Has the
Indian Medical Council laid down any generalisation. (S-71)(W-74,76,85)
19. Outline the procedure of inquiry into a professional misconduct of an RMP.
Mention grounds on which such action is taken. (S-71)(W-74,76,85)
20. What is Malpractice ? How will you avoid it. (W-71,97)(S-79,84)
21. How will you confirm that an unconscious man smelling of alcohol & having
a wound on the scalp is unconscious because of head injury rather than
alcoholic intoxication.(W-72)
22. What do you mean by medical negligence ? What precautions should a
general medical practitioner take to avoid charges of negligence.
(S-75,81,90)(W-81,85,88)
23. What are the duties of an R.M.P. to perform on behalf of the state and
patients ? What notifications are compulsory for an R.M.P. to make ?

24. Enumerate circumstances under whichthe registration of a medical ~

practitioner can be cancelled. What is professional misconduct ? Give
examples. (W-80)
25. What constitutes "medical negligence" ? Who are the authorities to enquire
into alleged medical negligence ? What are their powers ? (W-89)
26. Describe nature of professional relationship between a medical practitioner
and his patients and the medicolegal problems that they may face
consequent to those relationship. (S-91)
27. What are the functions of state medical council ? Briefly enumerate the
circumstances which amount to professional misconduct by a medical
practitioner. (W-91)
28. Define and classify "Professional Negligence" in medical practice. Describe
the circumstances that a medical practitioner can site as defences against a
charge of professional negligence. (W-92)
29. Describe the voluntary & computory duties of a registered medical
practitioner & the consequences & tailing in them. (S-93)
30. What are the truncheons of Indian Medical council ? What amount to
professional misconduct. (S-94)
31. Define Consent. Enumerate the different types of consents giving suitable
examples. Discuss briefly the relavance of consent in medical practice.
(W-96)
32. Describe the composition, functions and powers of Indian Medical Council.
(S-97)
33. a] Define Medical Negligence.
b] Enumerate the differences between civil & criminal negligence.
c] Add a short note on the doctrine of "Res ipsa loquitur". (W-98)
4. Identification.
M CQ (MUHS)
M
1418l
 i illi » lir t ,i|)
1.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique "Pu
1. Cephalic index in a'person belonging to Mongoloid race is (S-03)
Iimniii n .... .

a) 56 to 60 b) 60 to 70 c) 80 to 90 d) 70 to 80.
2. Rule of Hasse is useful to determine. (W-03)
a) death of a foetus in utero. b) age o f the foetus,
c) intrauterine age of the foetus d) paternity of the foetus.
3. Cephalic index in a person belonging to Mongoloid race is ($-03)
Imiiiwiiiii*^— Imii»ilii«>iinni«MiII. I

a) 56 to 60 b) 60 to 70 c) 80 to 90 d) 70 to 80.
4. Surest evidence about the sex of an individual is obtained b y (W -0 3 ^ 4 ’
a) examination of external genitalia b) hormonal assay
c) examination of skeleton d) chromosomal analysis
5. Evidence of disappeared tattoo mark from skin can be obtained
... .

autopsy in the (W-03)

.I.iw.imu— «i»wm i lii.iiii n

a ) bone m arrow . b) blood

c) regional lymph nodes d) hair roots
6. Cephalic index helps to determ ine. (S-04)
a) age from skull bone b) sex from skull bone
...... . ....... . nn

c) race from skull bone d) none of the above.

. .

7. Best method of identification of person is (S-04)

a) foot print b) lip print . c) skin print d) finger print
8. Galton’s system o f identification is based on finding of (S-04)
ifciai.-i j Ml1ii.iii III.a«

a) skull b) fingers c) m andible d) bone age

9. Nails extend beyond finger tips at the end of (S-04)
a) 20 weeks b) 30 w eeks c) 40 weeks d) after bi^!1
10. Reddish angry scar indicates its age of (W-08)
a) 5-6 days b) 14 days c) 2 months d) 6 months
11. The single best criterion for determining age between 3 rd to 5th dec^°e
is (W -08)
a) pubic symphysis b) skull
c) dental status d) dental status and physical examination-
12. Perm anent second molar erupts at (W -08)
a) 11 to 12 yrs b) 10 to 12 yrs c) 12 to 14 yrs d) 14 to 1 ^ ^ rs
13. In Brachy-Cephalic (short headed) type o f skull of Mongols r a c e ,the
cephalic index will be (S-09)
a) 65-70 b) 70-75 c) 75-79 d) 8 0 -8 5
14. Karl Pearson’s formula is used to ascertain (S -09)
a) stature b) weight . c) sex d) race
15. In cheiloscopy, for analysis lip prints are divided into (S-10)
a) six patterns b) seven patterns
c)'eight patterns d) ten patterns
16. The diam eter of an adult human hair is (S -1 0)
a) 0.036 m.m. b) 0 .070 m .m . c) 0.089 m.m. d) 0.096 ^]-rPu
M
I419I
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

17. Detection of Barr body/Davidson body helps in identification of

(W-10)
a) race b) sex c) age d) stature
18. Karl Pearson’s formula is used for determination of (S-11)
a) Age b) Race c) Sex d) Stature
19. After removal of tattoo mark, the pigment may be traced in (S-12)
a) Underlying muscle b) Underlying bone
c) Regional lymph node d) Skin
20. The center of ossification appears in the lower end of femur by
weeks of intrauterine life. (S-12)
a) 36 b) 34 c) 32 d)30
21. The obturator foramen in female is (S-13)
a) oval b) round c) triangular d) square
22.
between (S-13)
a) Human and Animal b) Dried blood and rust
c) Arterial and venous d) All of the above
23. Human hair can be differentiated from animal hair by (S-13)
a) Cuticular Index b) Cortical Index
c) Medullary index d) All of the above
24. The surest identification method even applied for identical twins is
(W-13)
a) Anthropometry b)Dactylography
c) DNA Fingerprints d) Superimposition
25. Scars become white, glistening, tough and non-tender in about
(S-14)
a) One week c) One month
c) Two weeks d) Two months
26. Cephalic index is used to determine the (S-14)
a) Height from long bones b) Cranial capacity
c) Race from the skull d) Sex from the skull
27. Number of teeth at the time of full term live born child is (W-14)
a) Two b) Four c) Zero d) Sixteen I
28. Human hair grows at an average rate of (W-14)
a) 2 mm/day b) 0.4 mm/day c) 1 mm/day d) 9 mm/day
29. System of identifying and utilizing Fingerprints is called as (W-15)
a) Anthropometry b) Bertillon system
c) Galton system d) Poroscopy
30. Rule of Haase is used to determine (W-16)
a) The Age of the Foetus b) The race of person
c) Height of an adult from long bones d) All of the above
M
I420I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
S A Q

1. Sex Cromatin.(W-99,06)
2. Describe various methods of removing tattoo marks.(S-01)
3. Medicolegal importance of tattoo mark.(W-01,02)
4. Dactyfography.(S-02 )(S-73,91)(W-75,77,80,81)
5. How will you definitely determine that girl is above 16 years old ?
(S-04)
6. Enumerate under what the circumstances identification of living
persons are required. (W-06) -
7. Means of Identification. (W-07)
8. What is anthropometry system of identification ? (W-10)
9. Dactylography. (S-11)
10. Age determination from Gustafson’s Method of Dental Examination.
(W-16)
11. Medicolegal importance of hair. (S-73,80)
12. True hermaphroditism. (W-74)(S-75)
13. Female pelvis. (S-75)
14. Barr Body. (S-76)
15. Anthropometry. (W-78,79)
16. Medicolegal importance of age 12 & 16. (S-79)
17. Footprints. (W-79,82,84)
18. Medicolegal importance otscar. (S-80)(W-90)
19. Gonadal dysgenesis. (S-81,83)
20. Superimposition photography.(W-81)(S-88)
21. Intersex & secondary sexual characteristics and adolesecent boy. (S-83)
22. Secondary sexual characteristic in an adolescent female. (W-83)
23. Poroscopy. (S-85,89)
24. Cephalic index. (W-87)
25. Genetic markers. (W-90)
26. Pseudohermaphroditism.(W-92,98)
27. Gustafson's method. (W-92)
28. Klienefelter syndrome. (S-95)
L A Q

1. How will you determine the age of an adolescent girt. Give the
medicolegal significance of ages 16 and 18 in both sexes. (W-99)
(W -7 0)
2. Define identity. What is its medicolegal importance ? What particular points
must you note in establishing the identity of a living person. (S-70,86)
3. What is person identity. Describe factors used to identify a dead
body. (W-71)(S-80,86)
4. A skull, pelvis and femur have been sent for autopsy. How will you confirm
that they are of a 20 year old lady with ht. 64" and that she died due to
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
arsenic poisoning 10 days ago ? (W-73)
5. What are the main types of hermaphrodite. What are the presumptive
evidence of sex ? (W-75)
6. Define a scar. How would you opine on [a] use of scar and [b] nature of
lesion causing it. (S-76)
7. How is the sex determined from exhumed bones of skull and pelvis. (S-79)
8. Describe the medicolegal importance of age. (W-86)(S-92)
9. Enumerate points used to establish an identity of an individual. Describe in
detail about finger print systems, (W-89)
10. What is the medicolegal importance of performing an autopsy ? How would
you establish the identity of an individual during post mortem examination.
(W-91)
11. How will you ascertain age of a person by examining teeth. Describe in
shortinedicofedal importance of age. (S-95)—— --------------------- --------- _ _
5. Medicoleaai Autopsy.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The substance commonly used to preserve viscera for chemical
analysis at post mortem is (S-03) ,
a) 10 % formalin b) 40 % formalin
c) normal saline d) saturated solution of common salt
2. Determination of all of the following are the aims and objectives of
medicolegal post mortem EXCEPT. (S*03)
a) cause of death b) time since death
c) identity d) blood levels of suspected person
3. Viscera should NOT be preserved in (W-08)
a) sodium chloride b) rectified spirit
c) formaldehyde d) sodium or potassium fluoride
4. In India the time limit of exhumation of a body is (S-12)
a) 2 years b) 4 years, c) 10 years d) No time limit
5. To detect poison by chemical analysis, viscera is preserved in (S-14)
a) 10% formalin b) Saturated common salt solution
c) Absolute alcohol d) Potassium osalate '
6. Subendocardial hemorrhage is seen in left ventricle in cases of
poisoning by (S-14)
a) Sulphuric acid b) Carbolic acid
c) Cannabis d) Arsenic compounds
7. Karl Pearsons Formula is used for (S-15) ■
a) Cephalic Index b) Stature
c) Brachial Index d) Sex
8. Underwater autopsy of heart is done in cases of (W-15)
a) Air embolism b) Myocardial infraction
c) Pneumothorax d) Pulmonary embolism

IM
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition fey U nique Publication
9. Exhumation can be done in India (W-15)
a) after 02 years b) after 07 years
c) after 10 years d) no time limit '
10. Before doing postmortem examination, body should be identified by.
(W-16)
a) Relatives b) Police on duty
c) Medical officer on duty d) All of the above
S A Q

1. Objective of Medicolegal Autopsy.(S-02)

2. What are the aims and objectives o f medicolegal autopsy ?(W-04)
3. Describe what precautions are to be taken during post-mortem
examination of a suspected case of death due to AIDS.(W-04)
4. Cross examination. (S-14)
5. Postmortem artifacts. (W-15)
6. Exhumation. (S-16)
7. Viscera preservation. (S-87)(W-01)
8. Stomach contents. (S-92)
9. Preservation of Viscera in a case of rabies & snake bite [CA.] (S-95)
L A Q

1. Enumerate the aims and objectives of medicolegal autopsy.(S-03)

(W-92)
2. What viscera must be preserved for medicolegal autopsies ? Describe the
methods for preservation. Name the viscera to be preserved for chemical
analysis in suspected case of white phosphorus poisoning. (S-70)
3. What authority you require for doing an autopsy ? Describe the procedure
of an autopsy for medical purposes. (W-77)
4. A bundle of bones is sent to you. How will you examine them and what
points you will look for ? (W-83)
5. Describe the objective of medicolegal autopsy. (S-85)
6. What is the medicolegalimportance of performing an autopsy? How would
you establish the identity of an individual during post mortem examination.
(W-91)
6. Death and its Cause.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. Which of the following is not a form of violent mechanical asphyxia ?

(W-03)
a) Inhalation o f irrespective gases b) hanging
c) chocking d) throttling
2. Coma, syncope and asphyxia are know as (W-03)
a) modes of death b) mechanism of death
c) causes of death d) manner of death.
M
l423][
M
 IT-

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

3. Anoxia resulted due to inefficient circulation of blood due to traumatic
shock or heat stroke is type of (S-09)
a) Anoxic anoxia b) anaemic anoxia
c) histotoxic anoxia d) stagnant anoxia
b
4. Tardieu spots are (S-09)
a) tattoo marks b) tell-tale haemorrhages
cjtache noire d) petechial haemorrhages
5. After the onset of terminal illness, the death is called as sudden death
if it occurs within (W-09)
a) 1 hour b) 12 hours * c) 24 hours d) 48 hours
6. Cyanosis is seen when more than (S-10) 3 f
a) 5 g of reduced Hb is present per 100 ml blood.
bl 6 a of reduced Hb is present per 100 ml blood.
U
100 ml blood.
d) None of the above.
7. Last organ to putrefy in male is (W-12)
a) Brain b) Lungs c) Liver d) Prostate
8. Which of the following concept of death is duly recognised by The
Transplantation of Human Organs Act, 1994” ? (W-12)
a) Whole brain death
b) Brainstem death
c) Extinction of the tripod of life
d) Complete and irreversible cessation of respiration
S A Q

1. Classify asphyxial death.(W-07)

2. How to diagnose Brain stem death ?(S-95)(W-95,97) (W-14,15)
3. Tardieu’s spots. (W-70)(S-83,85)
4. Molecular death and Somatic death. (S-78)
5. Medicolegal importance of Tardieu’s spots. (S-79)
L A Q

1. Define death. What is meant by postmortem interval ? Outline in brief

about P.M. lividity and Rigor mortis.(S-99)(W-88)
2. Define 'Thanatology' ? Write in detail about clinical assessment of &
Brain death. What are the criteria to be followed to label as "Brain
death" ?(W-99)
3. Enumerate early signs of death. Describe mechanism, factors
affecting and medico-legal importance of Rigor mortis. (W-13)
4. What ere the causes of sudden death ? What is the medicolegal
significance of sudden death. (W-75)
5. Describe sudden unexpected death due to natural causes. What is the
relationship of disease with work trauma and crime ? (S-76)
►4
424
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
6. What are the proximate causes of death ? What do you mean by somatic &
molecular death ? Describe briefly the changes taking place after
molecular death. (S-77,98)
7. Define Thanatology'. Explain the machanism and various changes occuring
as a result of puterfaction in a cadaver. (W-96)
7. Postmortem Changes.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Rigor of erector pillae muscles is known as (S-03)
a) goose skin. b) cadavaric spasm
c) cold stiffening d) beaded appearance of skin
2. Hydrogenation and hydrolysis of body fats to higher fatty acids in a
dead body is know as (S-03)
a) autolysis b) adipocere
c) mummification d) fatty changes
3. Cherry red discoloration of postmortem lividity is diagnostic of death
due to (W-03)
a) cyanide poisoning. b) carbon monoxide poisoning.
c) asphyxia . d) lead tetra oxide poisoning.
4. The following conditions can be produced artificially in a dead body
EXCEPT. (W-03)
a) cold stiffening. b) heat stiffening
c) cadavaric spasm d) none of the above.
5 Red brown color post-mortem lividity seen in (S-04)
a) cyanide b) phosphorous c) carbon monoxide d) aniline
6. The victim of electrocution may remain in a state of (S-04)
a) coma b) shock
c) convulsion d) suspended animation
7. Post mortem caloricity is seen in cases of death due to (S-04)
a) tetanus b) shock and haemorrhage
c) hanging d) none of above
8. Marbling of veins is prominant between (W-08)
a) 12 to 24 hrs b) 24 to 36 hrs
c)36to48hrs d) 48 to 72 hrs
9. Seeds o f______ resist putrefaction for long duration. (W-08)
a) abrus precatorius * b) nux vomica
c) dhatura d) papavera somniferum
10. The intra-ocular tension after death becomes zero within the period of
($-09)
a) 30 minutes after death b) 60 minutesafter death
c) 90 minutes after death d) 2 hours after death
11. 'After death, on biochemical examination vitreous humour shows a
►4
I425I
yi
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

steady rise in the values of (W-09)

a) sodium b) potassium c) creatinin d) glucose
12. Colliquative putrefaction of the body begins from (W-09)
a)3rto4days b) 5 to 10 days
c) 11 to 25 days d) 26 to 32 days
13. The rate of decomposition is (S-10)
a) faster in female bodies, b) faster in male bodies,
c) same in both sexes d) faster in thin females and fat males.
14. The following terms are synonymous with postmortem lividity EXCEPT
(W-10)
a) hypostasis b) livor mortis
c) postmortem staining d) postmortem discolouration.
15. Algor mortis is (S-11,15) —~ _______ _
a) Contraction and stiffening o f muscle after death - —
b) Post mortem staining
c) Post mortem cooling of body
d) Cadaveric spasm
16. Last organ to putrefy after death in male is (S-11)
a) Brain b) Lungs c) Liver d) Prostate
17. Fixation of postmortem staining would taken place ip (S-13)
a) 3 to 4 hours b) 4 to 6 hours
c) 6 to 8 hours d) 12 to 18 hours
18. The first external sign of putrefaction is (W-13)
a) Blister formation
b) Greenish discoloration of right iliac fossa
c) Maceration
d) Marbling appearance of the skin
19. The last organ to putrefy in a male body is (S-14)
a) Esophagus b) Diaphragm
c) Prostate d) Blood vessels
20. The intraoccular tension becomes nil after death in about (S-14)
a) One hour b) 2 hours
c) 4 hours d) 6 hours
21. Which of the following is NOT useful for determining time of death ?
(W-14)
a) Color of postmortem lividity b) Stomach contents
c) Urinary bladder contents d) Rigor mortis
22. Foamy liver is seen in (S-15)
a) Arsenic Poisoning b) Electrocution
c) Phosphorus Poisoning d) Putrefaction
SAQ
M
I426I
M
M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
1. Rigor mortis & cadaveric spasm. (W-00)
O fV/ l A r i I n r k l / \ / ^ n l im r v r v r ln n n r i
i v n s u i u u i c y a i n i i p u i ic ii i u c u i a u i p u t ^ c i c
fr o n n fir \«
iia iii/iiu n .
/O AO\

3. Medicolegal importance of rigor mortis. (S-05)

4. Apparent Death.(S-06)
5. What are the common preservative used for preservation of viscera
for chemical analysis during P. M. ? (W-06)
6. What is casper disctum ? (W-07)
7 .. What is suspended animation ? (W-10)(S-75,90)(W-77,89)#
8. Rigor Mortis. (S-11)(W-95)(S-97)
9. Describe the posmortem changes seen by examination of eyes, give
their medicolegal importance. (W-11)
10. Postmortem cooling of the body. (S-13)(S-88)
11. Cadaveric spasm. (W-13) (S-15)
12. Enumerate conditions causing stiffness in dead body. Describe
instantaneous rigor. (W-14)
13. Role of Post Mortem Cooling in determination of Time since death.
(W-16)
14. Adipocere formation. (S-17)
15. Putrefaction. (S-70)
16. Medicolegal importance of postmortem hypostasis. (S-70,80,96)(W-78)
17. First & second degree relaxation. (S-70)
18. Cadaveric spasm. (S-71,86)
19. Medicolegal importance of cadaveric spasm. (S-72,82)
20. Medicolegal importance of rigor mortis. (S-75)
21. Presumption of survivorship. (S-75)
22. Presumption of death. (S-75)
23. Suspended animation and death. (S-76)
24. Embalming and Mummification. (S-76,77)
25. Presumption of death & presumption of survivorship. (S-77)
26. Entomology of the dead. (S-78)
27. Differentiate between Bruise and postmortem lividity. (S-83)(W-84,87)
28. Postmortem caloricity. (S-83)
29. Changes in muscles after death. (S-90)
30. Stomach contents. (S-92)
31. Rigor mortis & pugilistic attitude.
32. Postmortem Lividity.(W-97)
LA Q
1. Define death. What is meant by postmortem interval ? Outline in brief
about PM. lividity and Rigor mortis.(S-99)(W-88)
2. What is postmortem interval? Enumerate & describe different
factors useful to estimate postmortem interval, while doing
postmortem examination. (W-03)
14
I427I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
3. What are different parameters of estimating time since death ? (W-
1°)
4. Describe the changes seen in the muscles after death and what is their
medicolegal importance. (S-71,79j(W-74,76,98)
5. What is adepocere ? What do you mean by saponification & summufication
mummification. (W-77)
6. Briefly describe how you would estimate the time passed since death of a
60 year old male, recovered from a running river, a summer's afternoon,
who had been reported missing since that morning. (W-92)
8. Mechanical Injuries.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The study of the motion of a projectile after it leaves the muzzle end
of barrel is known as (S-03)
a) interior ballistics b) exterior ballistics__________
c) terminal ballistic ---------- d) wuund baHislics —
2. Abrasion collar is a feature of (W-08)
a) exit wound b) entrance wound c) artefact d) none
3. Brushburn are caused due to (S-09)
a) flame b) steam
c) rough and broad object d) sharp object
4. Smokeless powder propellant of a firearm cartidge consist of
(S-09,15)
a) potassium nitrate b) sulphur
c) nitrocellulose d) all of the above.
5. A zip gun is a (S-10) ,
a) handy small revolver. .
b) folding shot gurr
c) gun with a zipper to cover chambers
d) single shot rifled firearm
6. “Brush burn” is another term for (W-10)
a) scratch from hair brush. b) graze
c) first degree burn d) contact abrasion.
7. “Black Eye” is a classical example of (W-10)
a) ectopic contusion b) imbact abrasion
c) postmortem contusion. d) patterned injury
8. Incised looking wound is possible by (S-11) (W-12)
a) Hard and blunt object
b) Sharp cutting edged weapon
c) Sharp edged weapon with pointed tip
d) Firearm projectile
9. Colour of contusion is blue indicates the age of injury as (W-11)

I428I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Fresh within 6 hrs. b) Recent within 24 hrs
c) 1 to 2 days d) 4 to 5 days
10. In a shotgun fire arm wound there is a large central hole with a few
small holes surrounding it. Wad is seen inside the central wound,
there is tattooing. T he ran ge o ffirin gca n be (W -1 1 )-
a) 0 to 30 cms b) 30 to 60 cms
c) 60 to 90 cms d) 100 to 200 cms
11. In a case of reticular accident leading to laceration, the margins of
laceration. Show the following secondary impact injuries. (W-11)
a) Abrasion b) Contusion
c) Microabrasion d) Microcontusion
12. Blue colour of the bruise is due to (S-12)
a) Hemosiderin b) Deoxygenated Hemoglobin
c) Bilirubin d) Hematodin
13. Dermal nitrate test is done to detect (S-12)
a) Gun powder b) Organophosphorus
c) Blood stain d) Nitrate poison
14. The shape of bruise when a cane is used (S-13)
a) Linear b) Two parallel lines
c) Semicircular d) Round
15. Tearing of skin & subcutaneous tissue is called (W-13)
a) Abrasion b) Contusion
c) Laceration d) Stab
16. All are components of gun powder EXCEPT (W-14)
a) Charcoal b) Potassium nitrate
c) Lead peroxide d) Sulphur
17. Incised looking lacerated wound by a blow from hard and blunt object
is generally produced over
a) Palm b) Forehead c) Abdomen d) Buttocks
18. Spiit Lacerations are due to (S-15)
a) Blunt object b) Sharp object
c) Pointed object d) Sharp heavy object
19. Brain of cartridge is (W-15)
a) Black powder b) Primer
c) Projectile d) Smokeless gun powder
20. Yellow color of contusion is due to (S-16)
a \ Bilirubin b) Hemosiderin
c) Hematoidin ^ d) De-oxyhemoglobin
21. Chop wounds are caused by (S-16)
a) Blunt object b) Sharp object
c) Sharp heavy object d) Pointed object
M
I429I
 -V

2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

22 Gunshot residue on hands can be detected by (S-16)

a) Phenolphthalein test b) Dermal nitrate test
c) Benzidine test d) H2 activation test
23. Contusion does not require great force to produce over the following
area EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) Abdomen b)Face c) Scrotum d) Vulva
S A Q

1. Ricochet Bullet. (W-99)

2. Entry & exit wounds inflicted by bullets. (S-00)(S-78,85J
3. Hypostasis & Bruise. (S-01)
4. Medicolegal classification of wound & injuries. (S-02)
5. Abrasion collar. (W-02)(S-88)
Defence wounds. (W-02)(S-17)fo-98/)
What aro the composition of cartridge of shotg un ? (S-04)
8. How will you determine the age of bruise ?(W-04) ~
9. Features of self inflicted injuries. (S-05)
10. Tailing of a wound. (W-07)(S-78) 7t
11. Briefly describe mechanisms of injury in Bomb explosions. ($-10)
12. Abrasions. (S-11)
13. Define firearm injury. State four differences between entry and exit
wound of rifled weapon. (S-12)
14. How will your differentiate between suicidal and homicidal cutthroat ?
(W-12)
15. How will your differentiate between entry and exit wounds of rifled
firearms ? (W-12)
16. Ammunition used in smooth bore guns. (S-14)
17. Bomb blast injuries. (S-15)
18. Differentiate between Lacerated and Incised Wounds. (S-15)
19. Difference between split laceration and incised wound. (W-15)
20. Injuries due to blunt impact. (W-70)
21. Exit wound in a fire arm injury. (W-70)
22. Fabricated wounds. (S-71)
23. Differentiate between Incised wound and incised looking wound. (W-73)
24. Impact abrasion. (S-76)
25. Hesitation cuts. (S-79)
26. Medicolegal importance of abrasion. (S-80)
27. Imprint abrasion. (S-81) i
28. Exit wound. (S-81)
29. Differentiate between Contusion and vibices. (S-81)
30. Differentiate between Antemortem incised wound and post mortem incised
wound. (W-92)(S-95)

I430I nr
M
18
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition feyUnique Publication
31. Differentiate between True & false contusion Bruises. (S-95)
32. Entrance and exit wound due to refiled firearms. (S-96)
33. Tandem Bullet. (S-98)
LA Q
1. What is weapon of offence ? What are the characteristics of injuries
caused by hard and blunt impacts ? How do you determine the age
of bruise ? (S-99)(S-87)
2. What are characteristics of an incised wound. Differentiate them from
lacerated wound. Differentiate suicidal cut throat from homicidal cut
throat. (\N-00)(S-70,82)
3. Classify mechanical injuries. Write in detail about abrasion. (S-02)
4. Describe appearance of wounds produced by a revolver at different
range of fire. Differentiate between entry wound from exit wound
caused by firing of arevolver.(W-03)
5. Differentiate between incised wound and lacerated wounds giving
important features and suitable exampies.(S-05)
6. Classify injury.(W-07)
7. Define and classify firearms. Discuss injuries caused by Rifle firearm
at different range of firing and its investigation. (S-11)
8. Describe specific features at entry wound of revolver in a victim at
different ranges of firing. (W-11)
9. Define section 44 IPC. Classify Mechanical injuries. Add a note on
stab wounds with its medico-legal importance. (W-13)
10. Opine
[a] Apistol bullet wound surrounded by gun powder tattoing. What is
distance of firing ?
b] scalp hair of a girl forcibly shaved causing disfigurement of face and
head - simple or grievous hurt.
[c] three superficial parallel spin cutset root of penis-suicidal or homicidal.
(W -72)
11. Describe the injuries caused by blunt object. Name the conditions which a
lacerated wound may simulate as incised wound. (W-74,76)
12. How will you classify wound medicolegally ? Describe their characteristic
appearance. How would you determine whether they are suicidal homicidal
or accidental ? (W-75)(S-77)
13. What are the characteristics of a fire arm wound? Can you differentiate
between entry and exit wound ? Can entry and exit would be differentiated
in the skull ? (W-77)(S-84,91).
14. Describe the injuries caused by a blow of a stick. (W -78)
15. How do you determine the age of abrasion, bruise and incised wound ?
(W-79)
16. Describe the injuries caused by sharp cutting weapons. (S-85)
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
17. Describe entry wound from shot gun at varying range. (W-86) '
18. Classify mechanical injuries. Describe features of stab wound. How will you
distinguish suicidal and homicidal stab wounds ? (W-87)
19. What is weapon of offence ? What are characteristic features of different
types of injuries caused by sharp cutting impacts. Also mention its
medicolegal aspects. (W-88)
20. Enumerate grievous injuries. Write in detail about laceration. (S-89)
21. Classify fire arms. Differentiate between entry & exit wound in fire arms.
(S-92)
22. Classify injuries & give examples of grievous hurt. Differentiate incised wound
from stab wound. (W-95)
23. Classify fire arm weapons. Draw labelled diagram of the cartridge of Rifled
FireArm. Describe briefly the characteristic features of wound of entry
produced by Rifled Fire Arm at different ranges. (W-96)
24, Definelaceratibn.Describe characteristicsof lacerations, itstypes
medicolegal importance. (S-97)
25. Define >
i] injury,
ii] hurt. (W-98)
26. How would you estimate the age o f:-
i] abrasions.
ii] contusions. (W-98)
27. Enumerate differences between:
i] Wounds of entry & exit caused by rifled firearms. (W-98)
9. Regional Injuries.
MCQ(MUHS)
1. Rupture of middle meningeal artery leads to (S-04)
a) extradural haemoatoma. b) intracerebral haematoma
c) subdural haematoma d) scalp haematom
2. Bumper fracture can occur in (S-09)
a) skull bone b) cervical vertebrae c) ribs d) femur or tibia
3. Transverse fracture of Middle Cranial fossa is called as (W-09)
a) ring fracture b) hinge fracture
c) diastatic fracture d) fissured fracture
4. In Mild Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI) there is (S-10)
a) coma for upto 6 hrs b) coma for 6 to 12 hrs.
c) coma for 12 to 18 hrs d) coma for 6 to 24 hrs.
5. Lucid interval is commonly seen in the following type of intracranial
haemorrhage (W-11,12)
a) Subdural b) Subarachonoid
c) Extradural d) Intracerebral
6. Pond fracture is usually seen in (W-12)
M
[432*
M
i r
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
a) Infants b) Adolescent c) Adult d) Old age
7. Extradural haemorrhage is mainly due to rupture of (S-13)
a) Middle meningeal artery b) Antefier cerebral artery
c) Internal carotid artery d) Middle cerebral artery
8. The subdural hemorrhage occurs due to (S-14)
a) Rupture of bridging and communicating veins
b) Rupture of Berrys aneurysm
c) Rupture of middle meningeal artery
d) Rupture of superior sagital sinus
9. Fracture a la signature is (S-15,16)
a) Gutter fracture b) Depressed fracture
c) Ring fracture d) Sutural fracture
10. Commonest source of extradural hemorrhage. (S-16)
a) Middle meningeal artery b) Charcot’s artery
c) Basilar artery d) Middle cerebral artery
11. Contre-coup injury of the brain is seen (W-16)
a) Just opposite to the site of impact. *
b) Adjacent to the site of impact.
c) Away from the site of impact.
d) Around the site of impact.
S A Q

1. Drunkenness and Head Injury.(S-00)

2.. What do you mean by 'contrecoup' injuries ?(W-06)
3. Classify and briefly describe fracture of skull.(S-10)
4. What is punch drunk syndrome ? (W-10)
5. Medicolegal importance of depressed fractures. (S-78)
6. Railway spine. (S-89)
7. Lucid interval. (W-95)
L A Q

1. Enumerate various skull fractures. Describe various intracranial

hemorrhages. Add a note on contrecoup ipjury.(S-06)
2. Describe the various types of fracture of skull.(W-06)
3. Define head injury. State types of intracranialhemorrhage, their causes
and medicolegal importance. (S-12)
4. Enumerate five types of skull fractures with their causative
mechanism. How will you estimate the age of fracture ? (W-14)
5. How will you confirm that an unconscious man smelling of alcohol & having
a wound on the scalp is unconscious because of head injury rather than
alcoholic intoxication.(W-72)
10. Medicolegal Aspects of Wounds.
M C Q (M U H S )

I4 3 3 I
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition fey Unique Publication
1. The possibility of suicide is very unlikely. (S-03)
a) if no weapon is seen at the scene of offence.
b) if there is no farewell letter present.
c) if the fatal injury is on inaccessible part of the body.
d) none of the above.
2. The death sentence awarded by court is called (S-03)
a) lawful homicide b) excusable homicide
c) culpable homicide d) culpable homicide not amouting to murder.
3. Ewing’s Postulates corelate trauma with (W-03)
a) heart attack b) tuberculosis
c) cancer d) compensation for trauma.
4. Which of the following is not a grievous hurt. (W-03)
— — a) partial permanant hearingJossi._____b) fracture of a tooth.
a4
5. Legally speaking-Any offer, threat or attempt to apply criminal force
to the body of another in a hostile manner is called (W-11)
a) Injury b) Grievous hurt c) Assault d)Hurt
6. Section 304 B IPC deals with. (W-16) Q
a) Dowry death.
0
b) Attempt to murder.
c) Abetting suicide.
d) Death by Rash and Negligent Act.
S A Q

1. Enumerate grievous injuries.(W-04)

2. What is homicide ? Mention various types of homicides. (W-10)
3. Section 320 IPC. (S-12)
4. Grievous hurt. (W-13) $
5. Various methods of Torture. (W-45)
6. Justifiable homicide. (W-76)
7. Medicolegal importance of an injury. (W-89)
8. Grievous hurt. (W-91)
9. Culpable homicide. (S-95) o
L A Q

1. Define section 44 IPC. Classify Mechanical injuries. Add a note on

stab wounds with its medico-legal importance. (W-13)
2. What are grievous hurts ? Draw proforma to be used for writing medicolegal
reports in case of assault. Write a hypothetical report with atleast 2 injuries.
(W-71)
3. A dead body with cutthroat has been brought for autopsy. How would you
decide regarding the homicidal/suicidal & ante/post mortem nature of wound.
(S-72)(W-87)
Y4
;434i ■f
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
4. Opine :-
[a] A pistol bullet wound surrounded by gun powder tattoing. What is
distance of firing.
b] scalp hair of a girl forcibly shaved causing disfigurement of face and
head - simple or grievous hurt
[c] three superficial parallel spin cuts at root of penis- suicidal or
homicidal. (W -72)
5. What do you mean by fatal injury ? Describe the immediate cause of deaths
from wound. What questions will arise in the case of the injured and what
are the accepted positions of medical witness with regard to such auestion.
(S-75)
6. How will you classify wound medicolegally ? Describe their characteristic
appearance. How would you determine whether they are suicidal homicidal
or accidental ?(W -75)(S -77)
7. Describe the immediate causes of death from wounds. (W -82)
8. Describe in detail the cause of death from wound. How will you distinguish
between antemorterm and post mortem injury. (W-85)
9. A Dead body bearing multiple injuries has been brought for post mortem
examination. What conclusions can be drawn from examination of these
injuries. ($-88)
10. How will you, proceed to examine a case of injury, outline duties of a C.M.O.
in case of criminal wounding. How would you certify a case as one of
grievous hurt only ? (W -90)
11. Classify injuries & give examples of grievous hurt. Differentiate incised wound
from stab wound. (W -95)
11. Thermal Deaths.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. It is not a characteristic feature of scald. (S-04)

a) singeing of hair present. b) splashing marks present.
c) less fatal than bum s d )c a u s e d by moist heat.
2. Joule burns seen in (S-04)
a) electrocution b) radiation burns
c) lightning d) thermal burn
3. Blackening of skin is N O T seen with burns caused by (W-08) *
a) flam e burns b) petrol burns
c) explosions d) corrosives
4. Frost bite are com monly seen when the environem entai temp, is
(W-11)
a) 0° C to 5° C b) 0°C t o - 2.5° C
c) 5° C to 10° C d) 10° C to 20° C
5. Filigree burns are seen in (S-12,15)
a) Lightening b) Electrocution

m
4351
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

c) Scalds d) Thermal burns

6. Joule burns are seen in burns due to (S-12)
a) Lightning b) Kerosene burns
c) Electrocution d) Radiation injuries
7. Arborescent marks are seen in (W-13)
a) Brush burns b) scald
c) Lightning d) Radiation burns
8. Pugilistic attitude of a dead body is due to (W-13)
a) Rigor mortis b) Coagulation of muscle proteins
c) Fracture of bones d) Defence mechanism of body
9. Blisters of the skin do not occur in (W-14)
a) Flame burns b) Scalds
c) Heat stroke d) Putrefaction
10. Domestic electric supply in India is (W-14) ------ — *1
^ “ a T 190 -270 Volts D (T —
b) 220-240 Volts DC
c) 250-270 Volts AC
d) 220-240 Volts DC
11. Pugilistic attitude is seen
a) Antemortem Burns b) Postmortem Burns
c) Both a) and b) d) Electric Burns
12. According to ‘rule of 9’, perineum burns constitute. (S-16)
a) 1% burns b) 9% burns
c) 18% burns d) 27% burns
13. Pugilistic attitude is due to (S-16)
a) Lipolysis b) Protein coagulation
c) Carbohydrate coagulation d) Lipogenesis
14. A dead body is found to have marks like branching of a free on front
of the chest. Most likely cause of death could be. (S-16)
a) Firearm injury b) Bomb blast injury
c) Lightning injury d) Road traffic accident
15. Heat haematoma is seen in (W-16)
a) Subcutaneous tissue b) Suarachnoid space
c) Subdural space d) Extradural space
S A Q .

1. Antemortem & Postmortem Bliste'rs.(S-OO)

2. Extradural Haematoma due to burns and due to blunt force.(S-00)
3. Antemortem thermal burn & post mortem thermal burn.(S-03)478,
(S -80,95)
4. Enumerate the Post mortem features in death due to electrocution.
(S-04)

I436I
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book With Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
5. Preservation of viscera in a case of rabies & snakebite. (S-05)(S-95)
6. Causes of death due to burns. (W-13)
7. Joule burn. (S-17)
8. Antemortem thermal burns. (S-70)
9. Pugilistic attitude. (S-75)(W-79)
10. Dhatura poisoning and sun stroke. (S-76)
11. Preternatural combustion. (S-76)
1 12. External injuries at points of entry electrical current. (W-92)
13. Enumerate differences between: Burns & Scalds. (W-98)
LAQ
1. Classify thermal injuries. What are causes of death, postmortem
findings and medicolegal aspects of burn injuries ? (S-13)
2. Write about the mechanism of injury by lightening. Describe autopsy
appearances in case of death due to lightening. (S-14)
3. Define burns and classify. How will you differentiate between
Ante-mortem and Post-mortem burns ? What are the causes of
death due to burns ? (S-16)
4. A body of old lady was removed from burnt hut. Discuss how will you opine
the case of death by autopsy findings. (W-84)
5. What precautions are to be observed for post mortem examination of burn
case ? Differentiate between antemortem and post mortem burn injuries.
i (S-92)
6. How will you assess the area of surface bums ? What are differentiating
features between antemortem and post-mortem burns. (S-96)(W-97)
12. Starvation.
M C Q (M U H S )
1. Subepicardial fat is replaced by a watery gelatinous material in
(W-09)
a) brown atrophy of heart b) starvation
c) myocardial infarction d) deep burns
SAQ
None
LAQ
None
13. Mechanical Asphyxia.
M C Q (M U H S )
1. Pulmonary oedem a with hypovolaemia is characteristically seen in
(S-03)
a) salt water drowning. b) secondary drowning
c) fresh water drowning. d) Immersion syndrome.
2. In death due to sea water drowning biochemical examination of blood

14371
►4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

will show (S-03)

a) hypokalemia b) hyperkalemia
c) hyper magnesia d) hypomagnesia
3. Vagal inhibition is commonly seen leading to death in (S-03)
a) hanging b) mugging
c) dry drowning d) immersion syndrome
4. This is a definite sign of death due to hanging. (S-03)
a) protrusion of tongue from mouth.
b) dribbing of tongue mark from mouth. .
c) oblique and incomplete ligature mark on neck.
d) hypostasis present in hands and lower limbs.
5. The classical feature in death due to traumatic asphyxia on
~ post mortem examination is (S-03)
ine of mosis
c) pulmonary oedema d) tongue bite
6. The following is not a type of suffocation. (W-03)
a ) traumatic asphyxia b) Chocking c) lynching d) smothering
7. Burking was a mechanical asphyxia of the following type. (W-03)
a) suicidal hanging b) suffocation o
c) strangulation - d) homicidal suffocation.
8. In dry drowning death results from (W-08)
a) inhalation of water , b) sustained laryngeal spasm
c) electrolyte imbalance d) vagal inhibition
9. ‘Cutis Anserina’ is commonly seen in cases of (S-09)
a) hanging b) poisoning c) decomposition d) drowning
10. The manner of death in sexual asphyxjal death is (W-09)
a) natural b) accidental c) suicidal d) homicidal
11. Asphyxia caused by closure of external orifices is called. (W-10)
a) choking b) smothering c) suffocation d) gagging
12. Cafe coronary is due to (S-11)
a) Myocardial infration b) Hypertension
c) Choking d) Strangulation
13. Diatoms Test is performed for confirmation of diagnosis in the death
following (S-11)
a) Hanging b) Strangulation
c) Burking d) Drowing
14. Diatom test is performed for diagnosis of death following (W-12)
a) Hanging b) Strangulation
c) Burking d) Drowning
15. Gettlers test is done in (W-13)
a) Hanging b) Strangulation
M
I438I
M ■ ”
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
c) Drowning d) Fire-arm
16. In Cafe coronary death is due to (W-13)
a) Reflex cardiac arrest b) Asphyxia
c) Myocardial Infarction d) Choking
17. Following method is a type of strangulation (S-14) (W-14)
a) Gagging b) Burking c) Smothering d) Garroting
18. The most characteristic internal finding in antemortem wet drawing is
(S-14)
a) Water in stomach
b) Froth in trachea
c) Mud and sand particles in terminal bronchioles
d) Diatoms in the lungs
19.. Reflex vagal stimulation may occur in (W-14)
a) Typical hanging b) Jumping in ice cold water
c) Impaction of food in larynx d) All of the above
20. Paltauffs haemorrhage can be seen in (W-14)
a) Head injury b) Hanging c) Strangulation d) Drowning
2T. Le Facie Sympathique is seen cases of (S-15)
a) Strangulation b) Throttling c) Hanging d) Drowning
22. Cafe coronary refers to death in intoxicated person during meals is
due to (W-15)
a) Cardiac arrest b) Chocking
c) Smothering d) Suffocation
SAQ
1. Sexual Asphyxia.(S-00)(S-96)
2. Fracture of Hyoid Bone.(S-OO)
3. Define and briefly describe Chocking. (W-01)(S-16)
4. Define & classify mechanical asphyxia.(S-02)
5. Cafe coronary.(W-03)fl4A86J(S-89)
6. Postmortem features in a death due to strangulation.(W-03)
7. Diatom s.(M 05)(S-85)(W -85)
8. Describe the internal post-mortem finding in. death due to drowning.
(W-06)
9. What is typical hanging ? Give causes of death in hanging. (S-12)
10. Medico legal importance of Hyoid bone. (S-14)
11. Define Garoting. Enum erate Important P M findings on Face &
Neck. (W-16)
12. Cutis anserina. (S-75,76)(W-85)
13. Presence of froth at the nostril. (S-78)(W-78)
14. Ligature mark in hanging. (S-82)
15. Dry drowning. (S-83)

I439I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
16. Ligature strangulation. How does it differ from that of hanging ? (W-83)
17. Oedema aquasum. (W-85)
18. Judicial hanging. (S-87)
19. Secondary drowning syndrome. (S-89)
20. Auto erotic hanging. (S-92)
21. Burking. (W-92) ’
22. Traumatic asphyxia. (S-96)
LA Q
1. Enumerate the various modes of death in hanging. Describe the
autopsy features in a case of hanging. What are the diagnostic signs
in case of hanging.(S-99)A70,084,087.
2. Explain suffocation. What are different forms and their diagnosis from
post mortem examination.(S-00)(S-87,88J(W-88,90)
3. Explain the termsuffocation and define different types of suffocation. —
[Define only]. How will you diagnosis each one of them from .....
postmortem findings.(S-00)(S-95)
4. Define drowning. Describe the post mortem appearance seen in a
case of drowning and indicate to which of them you would like to
attach more importance in establishing the cause of death.(S-01 j
(S-71,90)(W-73,86,89)
5. Classify medicolegal asphyxial death. Write about the post mortem
findings in a case of hanging. How will you confirm the nature of
hanging ?(W-00)A72,082,087.
6. Define strangulation. Describe PM finding and medicolegal aspects
of strangulation by Ligature and throttling.(W-01)
7. Classify violent Asphyxia death: Write Post mortem findings case of
death due to manual strangulation.(W-02)
8. Define hanging. Describe postmortem findings and cases of death in
case of typical (suicided) hanging.(S-03)
9. What is the mechanism of drowning in fresh and salt water ? Describe
autopsy findings in a case of typical wet drowning. Add a note on dry
drowning.(S-06)
10. Define hanging. Describe the internal & external features of
post-mortem finding in case of death due to hanging.(W-06)
11. Describe the post-mortem finding in a case of typical complete
hanging with a drop using a soft stretchable ligature material.(S-10)
12. Describe Sexual Asphyxia.(S-10)
13. Define violent asphyxia, describe different types of it. Define hanging
and describe defferent type of hanging giving postmortem features of
each of them. (W-11)
14. Define strangulation. Mention its different types. Describe
M
X
f. 2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
postmortem findings in a case of death due to ligature strangulation.
(S-15)
15. Define and classify Violent Asphyxia! Deaths. Discuss Post-mortem
findings on Face and Neck in a case of Complete Typical Hanging.
(S-16)
16. Define Strangulation. Enumerate its various types. Describe the
post mortem findings in case of Throttling. (W-16)
17. Enumerate types of drowning. Describe postmortem findings in
drowning with its medicolegal importance. (S-17)
18. Enumerate various types of deaths due to asphyxia. Describe autopsy
features of strangulation by hand. (S-70)
19. What is traumatic asphyxia ? Give the autopsy appearance in a case of
throttilng. (W-70)
20. A woman who had given birth to a full term child 6 days ago is alleged to
have committed suicidebydrowning. What autopsy findings will confirm the
allegation.(W-71)
21. Give reason. Chloride content of left side heart blood is less in fresh water
drowning. (S-73)
22. Give reasons. Froth at nose and mouth of a victim of drowning is fine, white,
leathery and lasting. (S-73)(W -82,84)
23. Why in death by drowning in well water the post mortem staining is on the
face whereas it has an even distribution in running water. (S-73)
24. What is traumatic asphyxia ? Give the criminal causes of asphyxia. Mention
autopsy appearance in death from suffocation. What are different forms and
their diagnosis from post mortem examination. (W-77)(S-81 j
25. Enumerate asphyxial deaths. An adult female's dead body is sent to you
with a history that it had recovered from sea water. Describe autopsy
findings in brief. (W -78,89)(S-84)
26. Describe the autopsy features in death due to partial hanging.(S-79,83)
27. Describe the objective of a medicolegal autopsy. Mention salient features
observed at autopsy in a case of drowning. (S-81,84)
28. What is strangulation ? What are post mortem findings of a typical case of
strangulation ? How does it differ from hanging ? (S-86)
29. Dead body of a young woman is recovered from a river. How will you
establish the cause and nature of death. (S-91)
30. What is mechanical asphyxia? How would you establish a death due to
strangulation during post mortem examination. (W-91)
31. Define asphyxia. What is mechanical asphyxia Describe post mortem
finding in case of a typical wet drowning in a well. (W-95,97)
32. Define hanging. Explain the post mortem appearances in a case of
Antemortem hanging. Add a note on bloodless dissection of neck. (W-96)
33. Define asphyxia. Discuss postmortem appearances in a case of
strangulation by a ligature. (S-97)
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
34. Enumerate various types of constrictions around neck of homicidal nature.

hanging.(S-98)
35 a] Define asphyxia.
b] Classify mechanical asphyxia.
c] Describe the circumstances, cause of death and findings at autopsy in a
case of death by traumatic asphyxia. (W-98)
14.Anaesthetic and (Operative Deaths.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
None - #' ’ ■'
r o
LA Q :

15. Impotence and Sterility.

MCQ (MUHS)
1. T h e inability to initiate or maintain the sexual arousal in the female is >5
known as (W-09)
a) impotence b) sterility c) frigidity d) infertility
2. In a case of artificial insemination, consent should be obtained from •£
(W-10)
B
a) wife b) husband
c) donor c) both husband and wife %
3. Question of impotence and sterility arises in. (S-16)
m
a) Civil cases b) Criminal cases
c) Ail of the above d) None of the above i
SAQ
1. W h at is compulsory sterilization ?(W -00)
2 . Legal complications of artificial insemination (donar).(S-02)
3. Causes of impotency in m ale.(S -05)
4. Artificial insemination. (W-73,86)(S-91)
5. Impotence. (S-75)(W-77)
LAQ
1. W rite various causes of impotence and sterility in both sexes. W h at
are the guiding principles for carrying out artificial insemination ?
(S -1 5)
2. Define impotence. Discuss its causes in male. In what form would you
express your opinion if you find on examination the male to be a healthy
normal person of 25 years. (S-70,85)(W-87)
3. Define ’impotence' and 'sterility' and mention medicolegal importance of each.
Write the report of clinical examination of a case of alleged impotence.
M
I442I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
- _ _ : — _ _ _ _ _

4. Enumerate causes for impotency & sterility. How will you examine & deduce
opinion when a male person be sent for potency certification. (S-98)
16. Virginity, Pregnancy and Delivery.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Vaginal discharge during the initial four days after normal delivery is
known as (S-03)
a) leucorrhea b) lochia alba
c) lochia rubra d) none of above
2. W hich of the following is not a positive sign of pregnancy. (W-03)
a) foetal heart sounds.
b) quickening.
c) palpation of foetal m ovements.
d) radiograph of abdom en showing foetal sekeleton.
3. Traum atic rupture of hymen is seen on the (S-04)
a) anterior aspect b) posterior aspect
c) lateral aspect d) postero-jateral aspect
4. Foetal parts can be detected by X-rays usually by (S-04)
a) 8 w eeks b) 12 w eeks c) 14 w eeks
d) 16 weeks
5. The child which is born after death of ifs father is called as (S-09)
a ) bastered child b) battered child
c) posthumous child d) suppositious child
6. “Lochia A lba” can be noted within following periods after delivery
(S-09)
a) within first 2 4 hrs b) within 4 8 to 72 hrs
c) within 5 to 6 days d) 10 days onwards
7. In pregnancy, colostrum is usually secreted and can be expressed
from the breast by gentle m assage in (W-09)
a) 3rd month b) 4 th month c) 6th month d) 8th month
8. A child born outside lawful m arriage is referred to as (W-10)
a) illegitimate b) orphan c) illicit d ) posthumous
9. The age of viability to foetus is (S-13)
a) 150 days b) 180 days
c) 210 days . d) 270 days
10. In artificial insemination sem en is introduced. (S-16)
a) 1 ml b) 2 ml c) 5 ml d) 10 ml
SAQ
1. Atavism. (W-99)(S-00)
2. W ife Battering. (S-00)
3. W hat is Pseudocyesis ? (W-10)
4. Howwili you differentiate between parous uterus and nulliparous uterus
M
I443I
M
2nd M.B.B.S; Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
at postmortem examination ? (W-11) .
5. Probable signs of pregnancy. (S-13)
6. True & false virgin. (S-70,95)(W -90,92)
7. Positive signs of pregnancy. (W -70)(S-79)
8. Superfoetation. (W-75)
9. Paternity tests. (W -75,77)
10. Affiliation cases. (W -75,77)
11. Biological tests for pregnancy. (S-78)
12. Signs of recent delivery. (W-78)
13. Virginity. (W-79)(S-80)
14. Defloration. (S-81)
15. Hymen.(W-85,95)(S-86)
LAQ
~~~ 1. Comments on Intact Hymen is not definitesigrrsQ f virginity.(S-04)___ _
2. Intact hymen is not a sure sign of virginitycomment. (IS-^2,90) - =
3. W hat is medicolegal importance of virginity ? How will you establish
virginity in case for medicolegal purposes. (S-76)
4. Outline in brief gross anatomy of female external genitalia. (S-90)
17 Abortion.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. T h e grounds under which medical termination of pregnancy is
permitted in likelihood of birth of a mentally or physically abnormal
child as. per M.T.P.Act 1971 is (S-03)
a ) humanitarian b) environment c) social d) eugenic
2. T h e doctor must obtain consent before proceeding medical
termination of pregnancy on pregnant married fem ale from (S-03)
a) Pregnant female alone, b) pregnant fem ale and husband,
c) husband alone. d) father of the pregnant female.
3. W h en pregnancy has been caused by rape it can b e terminated
under M TP Act (1971) on one of the following grounds. (W-09)
a ) therapeuticb) eugenic c) humanitarian d) social
4. T h e medical termination of pregnancy act was passed in (W-10,16)
a ) 1970. b) 1971 c) 1975 d) 1979.
5. T h e prevalent M TP rules are framed in (W-11)
a) 1972 b) 1975 c) 20 0 3 d) 2 0 0 7
6. Statutory Rape is (W -13) (S -15)
a ) Rape of an insane women b) R ape of another persons wife
c) Rape in police custody d) Rape of girl under 16 year
7. Recently following IPC section has been am ended (W-14)
a) 375 b) 82 c) 83 d) 3 0 4 A
S j4 Q

> 4 l
M
2nrfM.B.B.S Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
1. Write indications for termination of pregnancy under MTP Act 1971.
(S-12)
2. MTP Act 1971. (S-17)
3. Natural and criminal abortions. (S-70,95)
4. Abortion stick.(W-73)
5. M.T.P. act (W-73,78)(S-87)
6. Criminal abortion. (S-86)
7. Indications of M.T.P. (W-88)
8. Abortifacient drugs. (S-88)
9. Natural & criminal abortion. (S-95)
LAQ
1. Define abortion in medicolegal terms. Describe in brief the salient
features of medical termination of pregnancy act 1971 .(W-99)(W-95,97)
2. What is meant by therapeutic abortion ? Describe the indication of the
therapeutic abortion. Mention precautions to be taken while performing it.
(W-71)
3. Discuss indication and rules for termination of pregnancy under MTP Act.
Describe danger of criminal abortion. Differentiate between parous &
nulliparous uterus. (W-74,76,79,85)(S-82)
4. Define abortion. What are methods used to produce criminal abortion ?
What are its complications ? (W-88)
18. Sexual Offences.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The section of Indian Penal code defining Rape is (S-03)
a) 44 b) 302 c) 375 d) 320
2. Age of consent for sexual intercourse in a female is (W-03)
a) 16 yrs b) 18 yrs c) 20 yrs d) 21 yrs.
3. Following is not a sexual perversion. (S-04)
a) sadism b) exhibitionism c) sodomy d) voyeurism
4. The absolute proof of semen is (W-08)
a) positive precipitin test
b) high level of acid phosphatase
c) unbroken spermatozoa
d) characteristic fluorescence in u.v. light
5. In Barberio’s test, the following reagent is used (S-09)
a) benzidine b) phenolpthalin c) potassium iodide d) picric acid
6. Sexual satisfaction, when obtained by a male by rubbing his private
parts against body of a female is (W-09)
a) frotteurism b) undinism c) mixoscopia d) masturbation
7. Having sexual intercourse with an animal is termed as (S-11)
a) Bestiality b) Sadism c) Voyeurism d) Masochism

M
445
VV
 2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

8. All are tests for sperms, EXCEPT (S-12)

a) Florence test b) Luminal test
c) Barberio test d) Acid phosphatase test
9. Section 376(B) IPG states punishment for (S-12)
a) Intercourse by a man with his wife during separation
b) Intercourse by a public servant with a woman in his custody
c) Intercourse by a member of the management of staff of a hospital
with any woman in that hospital
d) Intercourse by a superintendent of a jail, remand home etc.
10. Having sexual intercourse with an animal is termed as (W-12)
a) Bestiality b) Sadism
c) Voyeurism d) Masochism '1
11. MTP Act was introduced in (W-13)

12. M.T.P. cannot be done if duration of pregnancy is more than (S-14)

a) 16 weeks b) 12 weeks
c) 20 weeks d) 18 weeks
13. According to the MTP Act, opinion of two doctors required when
pregnancy is of (W-15)
a) 06 weeks b) 10 weeks
c) More than 12 weeks c) More than 12 weeks
14. Which of the following examinations is banned in examination of
Victim of Sexual Assault ? (W-16)
a) Two Finger Test h) Examination of Body injuries
c) Per Vaginal Examination d) Age Determination
S A Q

1. Define Rape.(W-00,07) ,
2. Sodomy.(W-GI)
3. Sadism. (W-02)(W-77)
4. Define Section 375 IPC. How will you collect various evidence in a
victim of Rape ? (W-12)
5. Consent in relation to examination of Victim of Sexual Assault.
(S-16)
6. Smegma.(W-70)
7. Medicolegal importance of smegma. (S-72)
8. Indecent assault. (W-74,76)
9. Lesbanism. (S-78)
10. Homosexual.(W-78)
11. Positive findings in bestiality victim. (S-81)
12. Incest. (S-82,85)(W-98)
13. Passive agent. (W-84)(S-86)
I
►4
X
>4
v\
I
I
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
14. Classify sexual offences.(S-87)
15. Buccal coitus. (S-88)
16. Detection of seminal stains. (S-89)
17. Sodomy.(W-91)
18. Hijara and Zenanas. (S-95)
L A Q

1. Enumerate unnatural sexual offences. Describe signs found in a

habitual passive agent in Sodomy. (S-02)(S-79j(14/-83,90)
2. Define Rape. Describe the procedure for the examination of an
accused of sexual assault.(W-02) r.
3. Define Rape. Describe the procedure of examination of victim of
age. What laboratory investigation you will carry out in case of victim
to prove the charge of alleged rape.(W-04)
4. Define Rape as per section 375 of IPC. Describe the examination,
investigations and opinion in a case of victim of Rape. (S-11)
5. Define virginity ? How will you examine a case of alleged rape. Indicate the
possible value of your findings ? (S-71,79,83)(W-81)
6. Define rape. How will you examine an 8 year old victim of rape ? Draw a
proforma and write possible positive findings. (S-72,87)
7. A 17 year old virgin is alleged to have been raped a day before. How will you
proceed to examine her. Draw a proforma and write positive findings
confirming the allegation.(W-73)(S-88)
8. Enumerate sexual offences and sexual perversions. Explain what
constitute rape. (W-89)
9. Define rape, outline the procedure of examination of a victim of rape.
Discuss the detail the medicolegal importance of vaginal swab collection in
such cases. (S-96)
10. Define sexual offences. Enumerate and describe them. Describe the
findings of medical examination in a passive agent of sodomy. (S-97)
19. Infant Deaths.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. Hydrostatic test need not be performed if (S-03)

a) somebody heard the cry of the child.
b) lungs appear ballooned up.
c) sem idigested m ilk is present in the stomach.
d) umbilical cord is cut & tied.
2. Spadling’s.sign is seen in (S-04)
a) still born b) dead born
c) live born d) intrauterine growth retardation.
3. Cephalic haematoma seen in case of (S-04)
a) primi-gravida b) multi-gravida
c) pricipited delivery d) none o f the above.
M
14471
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
A viable child is one who is born after days of gestation. (W-10)
a) 200. b) 210. c) 240. d) 280.
5. Vaptus vaginalis means (S-14)
a) Female is impotent because of absence of vagina
b) Changes in vaginal canal after delivery
c) Crying of fetus in vaginal canal •)
d) Inflammation due to vesico-vaginal fistula
6. Spalding sign suggests (W-16)
a) Fetal distress b) Fetal abnormality 3
c) Fetal Death d) Live born fetus »
In Battered baby syndrome, injuries commonly seen are (W-16)
a) Lacerated wounds b) Incised wounds
c) Contusions d) None of the above

1. Hydrostatic test(S-02)(W-82,87)(S-84,86,98)
2. Signs of live borne fetus at postmortem e.g.(S-03)
3. Sudden infant death syndrome. (W-14)
4. Viable foetus. (S-71)(W-75)
5. Still bom foetus and live born foetus. (W-73)
6. Battered baby syndrome. (W-75,83,96) 3: -
Iv
7. Breathed lung and unbreathed lung. (S-78,81) ,1 ;f ) t-
8 . Child abuse syndrome. (S-91)
9. Cranial and facial injuries in caffe's syndrome. (W-92) CJ ;
10. Examination of thorax in still born and live born infants. (W-92)
11. Viable and non - viable. (S-95) 3 E
LAQ
3 l
1. Define 'Live birth’, 'Dead Birth', and 'Still Birth'. How will you
distinguish between head injury due to blunt force and due to labour o -
during p.m. exact of Infant ?(S-00)
2. Fallacies of hydrostatic test.(W-OS)
3. Enumerate different signs of live birth. Writer a note on hydrostatic K.J
test. (W-15)
4. A dead body of newly born infant has been picked up from a dust bin by the
police and brought to you for postmortem. Examine and come to the
conclusion as to cause of death. (W -70)
5. What is hydrostatic test ? How is it done and what are its fallacies ?(S-72)
(W-84)
6. Define infanticide. A foetus found in dust bin is sent to you for autopsy. How
will you decide whether it was still born or alive ? (W-72)
7. Define infanticide. VVhat is the role of a medical man in case of infanticide ?
Describe hydrostatic test and mention its fallacies. (S-80)
8. Describe autopsy of dead body of an infant found under suspicious

I448I
d M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
circumstances.(W-86)
9. Define infanticide. Write about the principle method and fallacies about
'Hydrostatic test'. (S-92)
20. Blood Stains^
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Substances resembling blood stain include. (S-16)
a) Rust stains b) Vegetable stains
c) Mineral stains d) All of above
2. Inclusion test for paternity is (W-16)
a) Blood grouping b) Red cell enzyme
c) HLA system d) DNA Finger printing
SAQ
1. Blood stain at crime scene.(S-80)
2. Medicolegal importance of Blood Groups.(S-80)
3. Identification of Blood Stains.(W-96)
LAG
1. Enumerate four indications of DNA test. What material can be used
for it ? Describe procedure of DNA typing in short. (W-14)
21. Artefacts.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Negative viscera report from Chemical analyzer. (W-14)
LAQ
1. Discuss in brief post mortem artefact. (S-94)
22. Forensic Science Laboratory.
MCQ (MUHS)
1.Following test is NOT done by Chemical Analyser of FSL (W-14)
a) Analysis of narcotic drugs
b) Ballistic examination
c) Histopathological examination
d) DNA fingerprinting
2. In Polygraph test, GSR stand for (W-15)
a) Galvanic Sensor Radiation b) Galvanic Skin Reaction
c) Guit Score Reaction d) Guit Sensitivity Reaction
SAQ
1. Me Naughtens rule. (S-14)
LAQ
1. Write a brief essay on -'Insanity and Murder'. (W-15)
2. What are the features of personality disorders ? Describe civil
I449I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I r^EditioH by U n iq u e -P u b lic a tio n | t

responsibilities of a mentally ill person. (W -14).

23. Forensic Psychiatry.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. False interpretations of sensory stimuli is called as (S-03)
a) delusions b) illusions c) hallucinations d) delirium
2. The person whose intelligent quotient is between 50 to 70 is termed
as (S-03)
a) idiot b) imbecile c) moron d) normal
3. Wandering away from home for some days followed by loss of
memory for that period is known as (S-03)
a) ego b) fugae c) mania d) delusion
4. Section 84 of Indian penal code is concerned with. (\N-Q2)
a) restraint of insane_____ b) criminal responsibility of insane
------ c) discharge of insane d) civil responsibility of insane
5. Perception of sensations without any external stimulus is known as
(W-03)
a) delusions b) illusions c) hallucinations d) delirium
6. Delirium can be present in (W-03)
a) organic fever b) psychiatric illness
c) dhatura poisoning * d) all of the above.
7. MacNaughten’s rules are regarding. (S-04)
a) criminal responsibility of insane.
b) civil responsibility of insane.
c) restraint of an insane.
d) none of the above.
8. The false and firm belief in something that is not a fact is (W-08)
a) delusion b) illusion c) hallucination d) kleptomahia
9. Me Naughten’s rule is concerned with (S-11)
a) Civil responsibility of mentally ill person
b) Criminal responsibility of mentally ill person
c) Alcoholic intoxication
d) Drug dependence
10. Me Naughten’s Rule is concerned with (W-12)
a) Civil responsibility of mentally ill
b) Criminal responsibility of mentally ill
c) Alcoholic intoxication
d) Drug dependence
11. False perception without any external stimulus to produce it, is known
as (S-13)
a) Illusion b) Hallucination
c) Delusion d) Obsession
M
I450I
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
12. McNaughten (W-13) ~~ ~ " '
a) Restraint of an insane.
b) Discharge of an insane.
c) Criminal responsibility of an insane.
d) Civil responsibility of an insane.
13. Hallucination is a disorder of (W-13)
a) Thought b) Perception
c) Affection d) Memory
14. Irresistable force compelling a person to an action without motive is
. called as (S-14)
a) Impulse b) Obsession b) Illusion d) Euphoria
15. McNaughten was suffering from (S-16)
a) Nihilistic Delusions b) Delusions of Persecution
c) Delusions of Grandeur d) None of the above
16. Indian Law for criminal responsibility of mentally ill person is based
on (W-16)
a) Me Naughten’s rule b) Durham’s rule
c) Curren’s rule d) Irresistable impulse test
SAQ
1. Hallucinations.(W-02)O96.
2. Delusions.(W-03)
3. McNaughten's Rules.(S-06)
4. What do you mean by "unfit to plead"?(W-07J
5. Enumerate “civil responsibilities of mentally ill person”. Write a note
on testamentary capacity. (W-11)
6. Give civil responsibility of a mentally ill person. (S-12)
7. Differences between true and feigned insanity. (S-13,16)
8. Define Delusion. Write types of delusion in brief. (W-16)
9. Define Delusion and mention its types. (S-17)
10. Automatism. (W-70)
11. True and feigned insanity. (S-95)
12. Testamentary capacity. (W-95,96,98)
13. True mental illness and feigned mental illness. (S-96)
14. Delusions.(W-98)
. LAQ
1. Discuss on "Restrains of the mentally ill person".(S-99)
2. Write about restraint of an insane. (W-07)
SECTION - II TOXICOLOGY
24. General Considerations.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The route of administration of British Anti Lewisite in Arsenic
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
poisoning is (S-Q3)
a) intramuscular b) intravenous
c) intradermal d) subcutaneous
2. Amongst the emetics mentioned below the strongest emetic is
(S-03)
a) zinc sulphate b) tartar emetic
c) apomorphine d) mustard powder
3. Registered medical paractitioner should inform police about his
patient from private clinic. (W-03)
a) in a case of self induced poisoning, b) hom icidal poisoning,
c) accident injury d) incomplete abortion.
4. When activated charcoal is used as antidote, it acts as a (S-09)
a) mechanical antidote b) chemical antidote
c) physiological antidote d) specific receptor antagonist1 *
5. Narcotrc drug & Psychotropic “Substance act was passed ii i year
(W-13)
a) 1981 b) 1983 c) 1985 d) 1986
6. Universal antidote consist of following EXCEPT (S-15)
a) Powdered Charcoal b) Magnesium Oxide
c) Tannic Acid d) BAL
7. Universal antidote contains all EXCEPT. (W-16)
a) Activated Characoal b) Magnesium Oxide
c) Potassium permanganate d) Tannic acid
S A Q

1. Universal antidote.(W-02)O89.
2. Classify antidotes, giving one example of each.(S-04)
3. Erethism. (S-99)(W-80j
4. Enumerate diff. industrial poisons.(W-03)
5. Duties of RMP in case of suspected poisoning.(S-06)(S-70)
6. Antidotes. (S-11)(W-12)(S-70)(W-85,97)
7. Duties of a doctor in poisoing cases. (S-13)
8. Chelating agents in treatment of poisoining. (W-13)
9. Household emetics. (S-70)
10. Stomach Tube. (S-76)7. Pharmacological antidote. (S-75,84)
11. Gastric lavage. (S-86)(W-87,98)
12. Chelating agents.(W-92)
13. Stomach contents. (S-92)
L A Q

1. Classify antidotes with suitable examples.(W-00)(S-73,80,87)(W-78)

2. Mention the medicolegal responsibilities of a medical practitioner in
the case of suspected poisoning. Outline the principles of general
M
14521
M
r dM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

management of a case of poisoning.(S-01 )(S-77J(W-79,82)

3. Describe the method of preservation of viscera and other materia! in
medicolegal Autopsy of a suspected case of poisoning.(W-03)
4. Name any five common household poisons. Describe mechanism of
action, signs & symptoms, treatment and post-mortem appearance
along with medicolegal importance of any one of them.(W-04).
5. Classify poisons. Describe signs, symptoms and management of
acute alcohol poisoning.(S-04)
6. Classify poisons ? Differentiate between venomous &
non-venomous snake and add a note on treatment of Cobra bite.
(W-13)
7. Classify poisons with examples. Describe factors modifying actions
of poisons on body. (S-14)
8. Discuss the duties of doctor in cases of poisoning. (W-15)
9. Classify poisons. Describe in brief clinical features, treatment and
medico legal importance of opium poisoning. (W-16)
10. Discuss the diagnosis of poisoning in a dead body. (W-70)(S-79,95)
11. Describe the signs, symptoms and treatment of acute barbiturate
poisoning. Discuss the medicolegal importance as a poison. What are the
qualities of ideal homicidal poison.(S-72,77,80,85,86,89)(W-96)
12. What is the principle of a Gastric lavage ? Describe the apparatus ,procedure,
indications and contraindications for gastric lavage. (S-72)
13. Describe the method of collection, preservation and despatch of viscera to
the chemical analyser in a case of poisoning. Which viscera would you
preserve ? (W-72)(S-75,82)
14. Give the mechanism of action and physiological antidote for Arsenic,
Morphine, Carbolic acid and Carbon monoxide. (S-73)
15. Classify poisons according to their chief symptoms and medicolegal
purposes they are used. Name the material to be preserved &
preservations to be used in the autopsy of case of suspected poisoning.
(S-78)
16. Name some commonly used household substances which are poisonous,
its prevention measures in general and detail of any one. (S-87)
17. What are the qualities of ideal homicidal poison? Describe sign &
symptoms, diagnosis, treatment, postmortem appearance and medicolegal
aspects of acute cyanide or arsenic poisoning. (S-82,84)
18. How are poisons classified? Write in detail about the mode of action,
treatment and medicolegal aspect of carbolic or oxalic acid poisoning.
(S-93)
19. Classify poisons, antidote. Describe the mechanism of action and specify
antidote in a case of organophosphorus compound.(W-95)
20. Describe various mechanism of action of the poisons with suitable examples.
(S-96)
M
I4 5 3 I
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
21. Classify poisons. Describe in general the signs, symptoms, and treatment
of acute case of poisoning. (W-97)
22. Enumerate common homicidal poisons. Describe the clinical features,
treatment & postmortem findings in a case of cyanide poisoning.;(S-98)
25. Agricultural Poisons.
M CQ (MUHS)
1. The fatal dose of Aluminium phosphide for adult is (S-10)
a) 1-1.5 g. b) 0.5 -1 g c )1 .0 -3 .0 g d )3 .0 -5 .0 g .
2. Carbamates poisoning differs from organophosphorous compound
poisoning and the difference is (W-11)
a) pupils are dialated
b) there is no role of atropine in treatment
c) there is no role of PAM like drugs in treatment
________ d) there is no hydrolysis from enzymatic site
3. In organophosphorus compound poisoing pupils are (S-13)
a) Contracted b) Dilated
c) Widely dilated d) Alternate dilatation and contraction
SA Q
None
LA Q
1. Describe the symptoms, signs, treatment and postmortem
appearance of poisoning by organophosphorous compound. (S-02)
(S-76)(W-86)
2. Write clinical features, treatment, postmortem appearances and
medicolegal aspects of aluminium phosphide poisoning. (S-13)
3. A child aged 4 years is admitted in comatose state with constricted pupil.
Diagnose and treat the case. (S-81)
4. Classify poisons, antidote. Describe the mechanism of action and specify
antidote in a case of organophosphorus compound. (W-95)
26. Corrosive Poisons.
M CQ (MUHS)
1. Exothermic reaction is a classical feature in cases Of injury by (W-03)
a) sulphuric acid. b) hydrochloric acid
c) nitric acid d) carbolic acid.
2. Leather bottle appearance of a stomach is seen in (W-03)
a) sulphuric acid poisoning. b) carbolic acid poisoning
c) oxalic acid poisoning d) nitric acid poisoning.
3. Teeth are chalky white in poisoning due to (S-04)
a) Sulphuric acid b) hydrochloric acid
c) nitric acid d) carbolic acid
4. Death due to sulphuric acid poisoning is the result of its (W-09)
M
1454:
M
r .. ' ' . .
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U n iq u e P u b lic a t io n
a) local action b) systemic action
c) remote action d) chemical properties
5. Black discoloration of gastric mucosa in concentrated sulphuric acid
poisoning is due to (W-11)
a) Burning due to heat production b) Acid haematin
c) Corrosion d) Hygroscopic action
6. Vitriolage means (W-13)
a) Using vitriol for suicide
b) Using vitriol for murders
c) Throwing H2S04 over face
d) Perforation of stomach by H2S04
7. Leathery stomach is seen in poisoning due to (S-15)
a) HCL b) H2S04
c) Carbolic acid d) Oxalic acid
S A Q

1. ; Vitriolage.(W-SS){W-82, 83,84,89)(S-86,97)
2. Carboluria.(S-05,13 )(S-70,82)(W-95)
3. Describe Oxalic Acid Poisoning.(S-10)
4. Classify corrosive poisons. Add a note on vitriolage. (W-14)
5. Carbolism. (S-15)
6. Post Mortem appearances of Stomach in Poisoning by corrosive
Mineral acids. (W-16)
7. Acid burns.(W-74,76)
8. PM appearance in corrosive acid poisoning. (S-79)
L A Q

1. How are poisons classified ? Write in detail about the mode of action,
treatment and medicolegal aspect of carbolic or oxalic acid poisoning.
(S-93)
2. Describe the signs, symptoms & treatment of acute carbolic acid poisoning.
(W-78)
27. Metallic Poisons.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. Dermatitis with rain drop appearance is seen in poisoning by (S-03)

a) copper salts b) arsenic salts c) lead salts d) castor oil seeds
2. Hydragyrism is caused by chronic (W-09)
a) mercury poisoning b) lead poisoning
c) arsenic poisoning d) copper poisoning
3. Red velvety appearance of stomach is seen in poisoning with (S -11)
a) Copper sulphate b) Arsenic c) Nitric Acid d) Lead
4. Fem ale patient presenting with anaem ia, blood pressure 160/120
mm Hg, history of repeated abortions on investigation basophilic
M
I455I
M
 w *
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

stiplings of rbcs on prepheral smear suggest the diagnosis as

(W-11)
a) Chronic arsenic poisoning b) Chronic mercury poisoning
c) Ergot poisoning d) Chronic lead poisoning •7
5. The following case of poisoning can be diagoned by slit lamp
examintaion (W-11)
a) M ercury b) Arsenic c) Morphine d) Cocaine
Which is excreted typically in lead poisoning ? (S-12)
a) Urobilinogen b) Biiirunbin
c) Bile salts d) C oproporphyrin
7. Marsh test is used for detection of (S-12)
a) Arsenic b) Lead c) Strychnine d) Opium
J5L*1 Female patient presented with anaemia with basophilic stipling on
of 160/120 mmHg and history of
repeated abortion. Most probable diagnosis is (W-12)
a) Chronic Arsenic poisoning b) Chronic Mercury poisoing
c) Ergot poisoing d) Piumbism
9. Red velvety appearance of stomach mucosa is seen in poisoing with "''W
(W-12)
a
a) Copper sulphate b) Arsenic *9, -
c) Nitric acid d) Lead
10. Clinical diagnosis of one of the following poisoning can be done on
slit lamp examination of eyes (W-12) +
a) M ercury b) Arsenic c) Morphine d) Cocaine
11. Punctate basophilia is seen in (S-13)
a) RBCs b) Basophils
c) Lymphocytes d) Eosinophils
%
12. Malt brown reflex from anterior lens capsule can be elicited in
poisoning by (S-14) 4
a) Arsenic b) M ercury
c) Methyl alcohol d) LSD
13. Mees lines are characteristic of (S-15)
a) Mercury poisoning b) Copper poisoning
c) Arsenic poisoning d) Lead poisoning
14. Stomach wall shows ‘red velvety’ or ‘flea bitten’ appearance in (S-16)
a) Lead poisoning b) Arsenic poisoning
c) Mercury poisoning d) Abrus Precatorius poisoning
SAQ
1. Piumbism.(W-98) (W-15)
2. Differentiate between Acute arsenic poisoning & cholera. (S-76,85)(W-92)
3. Diagnosis of acute lead poisoning. (S-91)
M
I456I
/
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition b y Unique Publication
L A Q

1. Enumerate the poisons acting directly on kidney. Describe their

mechanism of action, signs and symptoms, treatment and
post-mortem appearance o f any one of them.(W-06)
2. Discuss the toxicology of lead poisoning. (S-11)
3. Describe clinical features and management in a case of chronic lead
poisoning ? (W-12)
4. Describe the source,clinical features and management of Chronic
Lead poisoning. (S-15)
5. Name some poisons which impart distinct colour to postmortem lividity. Write
sign and symptoms, management and PM findings in any one of such
poisons.(W-70)
6. A skull, pelvis and femur have been sent for autopsy. How will you confirm
that they are of a 20 year old lady with ht. 64" and that she died due to
arsenic poisoning 10 days ago ? (W-73)
7. What are the qualities of ideal homicidal poison? Describe sign &
symptoms, diagnosis, treatment, postmortem appearance and medicolegal
aspects of acute cyanide or arsenic poisoning. (S-82,84) .
28. Inorganic Irritant Poisons.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. The following poison can be identified its peculiar odour (S-03)

a) oxalic acid b) yellow phosphorous
c) lead tetraoxide d) mercury salts
2. Phossy jaw is a finding in cases of poisoning by (S-14)
a) Yellow phosphorus b) Organo phosphorous insecticides
c) Hydrogen cyanide d) Organo chloro insecticides
S A Q

1. How will you manage a case of poisonous snakebites ? (W-12)

2. Phossyjaw. (W-86,91,97)
3. Differentiate between Red & White phosphorus. (S-95)
L A Q

1. What viscera must be preserved for medicolegal autopsies ? Describe the

methods for preservation. Name the viscera to be preserved for chemical
analysis in suspected case of white phosphorus poisoning. (S-70)
29. Organic Irritant Poisons.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. It is not poisonous snake. (S-04)

a) viper b) krait c) sea snake d) rat snake
2. ‘Russell’s viper’ snake is a type of (S-09)
a) non-poisonous snake b) neurotoxic snake
c) haemotoxic snake d) myotoxic snake
M
I457I
►i
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U n iq u e P u b lic a tio n

3. Blisters can be caused by application of (S-13)

a) Brucine b) Capsicum annum
c) Cantharidin d) Dhatura
4. Sui poisoning refers to poisoning by (W-13)
a) Calotropis b) Dhatura
c) Abrus precatorius d) Nux vomica
5. Which of the following does NOT cause skin irritation ? (W-14)
a) Calotropis b) Calamine
c) Semecarpusanacardium d) Capsicum
6. Ricin is obtained from (W-15)
a) Caster seed b) Croton seed
c) Marking nut d) Poppy seed
7. Priapism occurs in (W-15)1 *

c) Snake bite d) Rat poisoning

8. Abrus Precatorius Symptoms resembles. (S-16)
a) Viper bite b) Cobra bite
c) Dathura Poisoning d) All of the above
S A Q

1. Differentiate between Poisonous, Non-poisonous snakes and their

bite marks. (S-00)
2. Describe the characteristic features of cobra snake.(W-06)
3. Treatment of snake bite victim. (W-11)
4. Treatment of snake bite poisoning. (S-87)
5. Antivenom. (S-87,80)
6. Toxalbumin. (S-89)(W-90)
7. Cobra & V iper. (S-95)
8. Snake venom. (S-96,97)
L A Q

1. Broadly classify poisonous snakes found in India. Mention signs,

symptoms and treatment of a cobra bite poisoning.(\N-00)(W-85)
2. Differentiate between poisonous and non poisonous snakes.
Describe the treatment of snake poisoning and snake bite.
(W-01 )(W-74,76)(S-82)
3. Describe general principle in treatment of snake bite.(W-03)
4. Describe steps for identification of a poisonous snake. Briefly
describe features of poisoning by viperine bite.(S-IO)
5. Classify poisons ? Differentiate between venomous &
non-venomous snake and add a note on treatment of Cobra bite.
(W-13)
6. How will you differentiate between cobra and viper snake ? What
14
;458;
*4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
postmortem features you will get in death due to viperine snake bite ? Why,
and how samples are preserved for laboratory diagnosis in such oases ?
(S-92)
7. Describe identifying features of Russel viper and sowscaled viper. Describe ■
postmortem finding in case of death due to viper snake bite. How will you
treat case of snake bite ? (S-92)
30. CNS Depressants.
M C Q (M U H S )

1. Alcohol is a (W-03)
a) stimulant of C.N.S. b) depresant of C.N.S.
c) initial stimulant and later depressant d) none of the above.
2. Blindness is a symptom of poisoning due to (S-04)
a) ethyl alcohol b) glycol
c) methyl alcohol d) rectified spirit
3. Ethanol has following action on C.N.S. (S-04)
a) stimulation b) depression
c) alternate stimulation and depression, d) none of the above
4. Presence of skin blisters in suggestive of poisoning by (S-11)(W-12)
a) Arsenic b) Barbiturates c) Cocaine d) Dhatura
5. Widmark’s formula is used for estimation of (S-12)
a) Cyanates b) Alcohol
c) Cocaine d) Organophosphorus compounds
6. Korsakoffs psychosis is seen in (S-15)
a) CRF b) Chronic Alcoholism
c) Acid Base Imbalance d) Hepatic Encephalopathy
7. More than 40% Alcohol is present in (S-16)
a) Whisky b) Wine
c) Champagne d) Strong Beers
8. The triad of coma, pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression is
almost pathognomonic of (S-16)
a) Opiate poisoning b) Cocaine poisoning
c) Cyanide poisoning d) Dathura poisoning
9. Which one of the following poisons is excreted in to the stomach ?
(W-16)
a) Arsenic b) Mercury c) Opium d) Lead
10. Haemodialysis gives best results in. (W-16)
a) Organo Phosphorous Poisoning.
b) Dhatura Poisoning.
c) Barbiturate Poisoning.
d) None of the above.
SAQ
M
4591

/
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

1. McEwan Sign.(S-OO)
2. Clinical features of acute alcoholic intoxication.(W-03)
3. Describe the line of treatment in a case of barbiturate poisoning.(O04)
4. Drunkenness and Head Injury.(S-OO)
5. Stages of Alcoholic intoxication. (W-13)
6. Symptoms of ethyl alcohol poisoning and postmortem appearances.
(W-14)
7. Barbiturate Blisters. (W-70)
8. Delirium tremens. (S-82,83)
9. Methyl alcohol poisoning. (S-84)
10. Barbiturate poisoning. (S-92)
■ L A Q '■ . , ’ ■ £ # ' ■
1. Classify Neurotic poisons. Describe signs, symptoms, diagnosis,
Treatment and autopsy findings in a caso of ocuto opium poisoning.___
(S-99)
2. Define drunkenness and enumerate the various stages of acute
intoxication giving the appropriate blood alcohol cone and the the
manifestation.(S-OI)
3. Classify poisons. Describe signs, symptoms and management of
acute alcohol poisoning. (S-04)
4. Classify poisons according to mode of action. Describe clinical
features, treatment of Dhatura poisoning. Add a note on its
medicolegal aspects.(S-06)
5. Discuss symptoms, signs, treatment and medicolegal aspects of
Barbiturate poisoning. (W-10)
6. Define ‘Dangerous drug’ as per NDPS Act. Describe the clinical
features of poisoning differential diagnosis, treatment & postmortem
features of acute opium poisoning. (W-11)
7. What is drunkenness ? How do you diagnose drunkenness ? What
are the recommended laboratory tests ? (S-12)
8. Classify poisons. Describe in brief clinical features, treatment and
medico legal importance of opium poisoning. (W-16)
9. What are the causes of contracted pupils? Describe the signs, symptoms
and treatment of a case of opium poisoning. Give the differential diagnosis.
(S-72,78)
10. Differentiate between drug addiction and drug habituation. Describe the
symptoms signs and treatment of acute alcohol poisoning. (W-75)(S-85)
11. Outline the management of a case of chronic alcoholism. (W-88)
12. Explain the term ’Drunkenness’.write about Drunkenness and driving.
Drunkenness and criminal responsibility. Drunkenness and medical
practice. (-W-88)(S-90)
13. Which are the poisons that give rise to dilated pupils? Describe symptoms,
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
signs and management of acute alcohol poisoning. (W-91)
14. Describe forensic toxicological aspects of acute opium poisoning. (W-98)
31. Psychotropic Drugs.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Name four hallucinogenic agents. What is cocainism ? What is its
medicolegal importance ? (W-11)
LAQ
None
32. Deliriant Poisons.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Magnan’s symptom is seen in poisoning with (W-08)
a) cannabis b) opium c) djiatura d) cocaine
2. Which of the following drugs can induce tactile hallucinations ?
(W-10) *
a) cocaine b) cannabis c) morphine d) LSD
3. All of the following produce miosis in overdose EXCEPT. (W-10)
a) caffeine b) cocaine d) phenol d) morphine

1. Signs & Symptoms of dhatura poisoning.(S-99)(S-79J

2. Describe the various preparation made from cannabis India.(W-06)
3. Name four hallucinogenic agents. What is cocainism ? What is its
medicolegal importance ? (W-11)
4. Criminal use of dhatura. (S-70)
5. Running amok.(W-75,86,95)(S-78)
6. Dhatura poisoning and sun stroke. (S-76)
7. Mydriatic test. (S-77)
8. Stupefying poisons. (S-84)(W-85)
9. Preparations of cannabis Indica. (W-85)
10. Dhatura seeds & capsicum seeds. (S-95)
LAQ
1. Enumerate the poisons which cause delirium. Describe the signs,symptoms
and treatment in such cases of poisoning. (S-71)
2. Describe signs, symptoms and treatment of Dhatura poisoning. (S-83)
‘(W-87)
33. Drug Dependence.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Drug addiction and drug habit. (W-81)
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
2. Drug Addiction. (S-94)
3. Drug dependence. (S-96)
4. Drug Abuse. (W-97)
LAQ
1. Describe signs and symptoms of strychnine poisoing. How will you
distinguish between strychnine poisoning and Tetanus ? (S-14)
34. Spinal Poisons.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Strychnine mainly acts at (S-04)
a) heart b) ant horn cell
c) post horn cell d) none of the above
2. Seeds of _ _ _ _ _ resist putrefabtion for long duration, (W-08)
a) abrus precatorius b) nux vomica

SAQ
1. Treatment of,acute Nux Vomica poisoning.(S-99)
2. How will you differentiate strychnine poisoning from tetanus ?(W-04)
3. Write treatment of strychnine poisoning.(W-07)
4. Strychnine poisoning and Tetanus. (S-76,81,98)(W-88)
5. Mechanism of action of strychnine. (S-82)
6. Opisthotonus. (S-86)
LAQ
1. Discuss signs, symptoms and differential diagnosis of strychnine poisoning.
(W-84)
2. Enumerate arrow poisons. Describe signs and symptoms, management and
differential diagnosis in a case of strychnine [Kuchila Poisoning]. (S-97)
35. Cardiac Poisons.
M CQ (MUHS)
1. Most poisonous part of aconite plant is (S-13)
a) Leaves b) Shoots c) Flowers d) Roots
2. Alternate contraction and dilatation of pupil is seen in poisoning by
(S-13)
a) Aconite b) Alcohol c) Barbiturate d) Endosulfan
SAQ
None
LA Q
None
36. Asphyxiants.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. The type of anoxia present in potassium cyanide poisoning is (S-03)
M
>21
 2ndM B & iS.:.Btok&ith7$GlvGd;MUH&:MCQs- IIIrd-Edition by Unique Publication
a) anaemic b) histotoxic c) anoxic d) stagnant
2. Bitter almonds are known to contain the following poison. (S-03)
a) prussic acid. b) arsenic compound
c) aconitine d) hyoscyamine
3. Amyl nitrate is an antidote for poisoning with (S-04)
a) H2S 04. b) HCI c) HCN d) carbon monoxide.
4. In carbon-monoxide poisoning colour of postmortem lividity is
(W-08)
a) cherry red b) bright red c) red brown d) blackish
5. Rapid death from respiratory arrest can be caused in carbon
monoxide poisoning when its blood concentration is (W-09)
a) 20 to 30 % b) 40 to 50 %
c) 60 to 70 % d) above 80 %
6. The poison having rotten egg odour is (S-12)
a) Hydrogen sulphide b) Zinc phosphide
c) Hydrogen dioxide d) Carbon dioxide
SAQ
1. What specific antidotes are used in the management of a case
cyanide poisoning. & what is the mechanism of action of each ?
(S-02)
2. Treatment of cyanide poisoning.(S-03)
LAQ
1. Enumerate poisons which can discolour skin and/or mucus
membrane. Describe in detail signs, symptoms, clinical management
and P.M. findings of carbon monoxide poisoning.(S-05)(W-90|
2. What poisons cause sudden death ? Describe signs and symptoms and
treatment by one of them if the dose does not cause death . (S-75)
3. What are the qualities of ideal homicidal poison ? Describe sign &
symptoms, diagnosis, treatment, postmortem appearance and medicolegal
aspects of acute cyanide or arsenic poisoning. (S-82,84)
4. Sub classify asphyxiant poisons. Write clinical picture, diagnosis treatment,
P.M.appearance and medicolegal aspect of any one asphyxiant poisons.
(S-91)
5. Enumerate common homicidal poisons. Describe the clinical features,
treatment & postmortem findings in a case of cyanide poisoning. (S-98)
37.Miscellaneous Poisons.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Specific antidote in dhatura poisoning is (S-14)
a) Hyoscyamine b) Physostigm ine
c) Atropin d) None of the above
/ 2. Magnans syndrome is seen with (S-15)
M
I463I
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
a) Cocaine b) Barbiturates c) Snake bite d) Alcohol
3. Rave drug is (W-15)
a) Cannabis b) Cocaine c) Heroin d) Methamphetamine
SAQ
1, Run amok. (S-14)
2. Aspirin Toxicity. )
LAQ
None
38. Food Poisoning.
MCQ (MUHS)
1. Epidemic dropsy is caused by (W-15)
a) Argemone oil b)Kesharidal
c) Poisonous mushroom d) Shell fish
SAQ
None
LA Q
None
39. Appendix.
MCQ (MUHS) " „
1. State Consumer Redressal Commission can entertain claims for
compensation (W-12)
a) Upto Rs.1 lakh only
b) Upto Rs.25 lakh only
■Sts
c) Between Rs.5 lakh and 20 lakh
d) Between Rs.20 lakh and one crore
SAQ
None
LA Q
None
40. Miscellaneous.
MCQ (MUHS)
None
SAQ
1. Dirt collar.(S-05)
2. Marsh's Test.(S-OO)
3. Post mortem fractures. (S-77)
4. Difficulty in crime detection. (S-81)
5. Secretors. (W-90)
6. Biotransformation of poisons. (S-91)

M
> 4 l
►i

I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by UniquePublication
LA Q " ~
1. Describe steps of Forensic D.N.A. fingerprinting.(S-IO)
^ ) 00000000000( ^

M
465
W
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY

QUESTION PAPERS

■i

1. Define and discuss "medical negligence". What precautions should a

medical practitioner take to avoid charges of negligence ? 12
2. Classify mechanical injuries. Write in detail about'Abrasions' including
medicolegal aspects. 12
3. Define drowning. How would you conclude from postmortem findings ;jj
that death was due to drowning. 12
4. Outline in brief gross anatomy of female external genitalia.
Comment on "intact hymen is not necessarily the sign of virginity". 12

Write signs, symptoms, management and postmortem findings in any

one such poison. 16
Write short notes on any four: 16
a. Oral evidence.
b. Delusions.
c. Medical council of India.
d. Suspended animation.

1] What is meant by "Professional Secrecy" ? Where and to whom you

will safely divulge or decline to disclose professional secrets that have
come to your knowledge in the course of your professional duty ? 12
2] How will you proceed to examine a case of injury. Outline the duties
of a casualty medical officer in a case of "Criminal Wounding".
How would he certify a case as one of "Grievous Hurt" only ? 12
3] Explain the term "Suffocation". What are different forms of
suffocation ? How do you diagnose each one of them from
postmortem examination. 12
4] Enumerate "Unnatural sexual offences". Describe the findings in a
habitual passive agent of sodomy. 12
5] Enumerate some nephrotoxic poisons and describe symptoms, signs
and treatment in acute poisoning by one of them. 16
6] Write short notes on any four of the following :
a. Dying declaration.
b. Secretors.
c. Medicolegal importance of scar.
d. Toxalbumin.
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
e. Genetic markers.
f. Changes in muscle after death.

1. Describe the nature of professional relationship between a medical

practitioner and his patients and the medicolegal problems that the
practitioner may face consequent to this relationship. 12
2] Discuss the factors that determine the appearance of fire arm injuries.
How will you distinguish between the wounds of entry and exit of a
bullet? 12
3] The dead body of young woman is recovered from a river.
How will you establish the cause and nature of death ? 12
4. Define the terms'Impotence'and'Sterility'and mention the
medicolegal importance of each. Write the report of clinical
examination of a case of alleged impotence. 12
5} How are asphyxiant poisons subclassified ? Write about the clinical
picture, diagnosis, treatment, postmortem appearances and
medicolegal aspect of any asphyxiant poison. 16
6] Write notes on any four of the following : 16
a. Child abuse syndrome.
b. Artificial insemination.
c. Aspirin toxicity.
d. Dactylography.
e. Diagnosis of acute lead poisoning.
f. Biotransformation of poisons.1

1] What is infanticide ? How is it brought ? What are the signs of live

birth ? 12
2] What is medicolegal importance of performing an autopsy ? How would
you establish the identify of an individual during P.M. examination ? 12
3] What is mechanical asphyxia ? How would you establish a death due
to strangulation during PM examination ? 12
4] What are the functions of State Medical Council ? Briefly enumerate
the circumstances which amount to professional misconduct by a
medical practitioner. 12
5] What are the poisons that give rise to dilated pupils ? Describe signs,
symptoms and management of acute alcohol poisoning. 12
6] Write short notes on any four:
a] Phossyjaw.
b] Grievous hurt.
c] Viscera preservation.
M
 Kh
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication
d] Dying declaration,
ej Sodomy,
f] Expert witness.

1] Describe the medicolegal importance of age. 12

2] Define infanticide. Write about the principle, method & fallacies of
"Hydrostatic Test". 12
3] What precautions are to be observed for postmortem examination of a
burn case, a dead body of a recently married woman ?
Differentiate between antemortem and postmortem burn injuries. 12
4] Classify firearms. Differentiate between entry and exit wounds in
firearms. 12
between Cobra and Viber
-1? snake
-ass ? What
_
postmortem features will you get in death due to viperine snake bite
Why, what and how are samples preserved for laboratory diagnosis in
such a case-? .. % ; 12
6] Write short notes on any fo ur: 20
a. Barbiturate poisoning.
b. Artificial insemination.
c. Professional secrecy.
d. Exception for oral evidence.
e. Autoerotic hanging.
f. Stomach contents.

1] a] Define and classify "evidence”.

b] Briefly describe the types of evidence that a medical witness can
provide to a , court of law.
2] a] Enumerate the aims and objectives of a medicolegal autopsy.
b] Briefly describe how you would estimate the time passed since
death by gross examination of the fully clothed body of a 60 year
old male, recovered from a running river on a summer's afternoon,
who had been reported missing since that morning.
3] a] Define’Drunkenness’.
b] Describe the alcoholic insanities with special reference to civil and
criminal responsibilities in the conditions.
4. a] Define and classify 'Professional Negligence' in medical practice.
b] Describe the circumstances that a medical practitioner can cite as
defences against a charge of professional negligence.
5] Difference between any three of the following
a] Entry and exit wounds inflicted by bullets.
I468I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
b] Suicidal and homicidal cut throat injuries,
cj True and false virginity.
d] Examination of the thorax in stillborn and liveborn infants.
e] Acute arsenic poisoning and cholera.
6] Write short notes on any four of the following :
a] Pseudohermaphroditism,
bj Gustafson's method.
c] External injuries at point of entry of electric current.
d] Cranial and facial injuries in Caffey syndrome.
e] Burking.
fj Chelating agents.

Describe the voluntary and compulsory duties of a registered medical

practitioner & the consequences of failing in them.
Explain the terms 'injury', 'wound'. How does the examination of any
given weapon, help in correlating the injuries in homicidal deaths ?
Define suffocation. Describe its subtypes. Write the positive findings
in an adult victim rape.
Define suffocation. Describe its subtypes. Write the positive findings
in a case of death due to traumatic asphyxia.
How are poisons classified ? Write in details about the mode of action,
treatment and medicolegal aspects of carbolic acid or oxalic acid poisoning.
Write notes on any four of the following :
a] Subdural haematoma.
b] Contributory negligence.
c] Hallucinations.
d] Grievous hurt.
e] Adipocere.
f] Toxalbumin.

What comprises medical records ? What is medico-legal importance of

such records ? How would you preserve the medical records and for
how long ?
Enumerate sexual offences. Describe the findings on the medical
examination in passive agent of sodomy. What lab. investigation would
you like to carry out in the case of habitual passive agent.
Describe the features of the stab wound. How would you differentiate
between self-inflicted and homicidal stab wounds ?
Explain the terms wet drowning and dry drowning.
Describe the post mortem findings in death due to wet drowning.
M
I469I
*4
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHSMCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

5] Enumerate the poisons which inhibit enzyme systems. Describe clinical

picture and post mortem findings In a case of poisoning due to any
one of them.
6] Write short notes on any four of the following:
a] Dactylography.
b] Lucid interval.
c] Ricochet bullet.
d] Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
ej Plumbism.
f] Carboluria.

H -a]— What am the functions of the Indian Medical Council ?

b] WhatamountstoProfessionalmisconduct ?
23 Discuss in brief the 'Postmortem artefacts'.
3] Describe the features of injuries caused by rifled firearms. 12
4] Write an account of Civil & Criminal responsibilities of a mentally
person. 16
5] Describe various mechanisms of action of poisons with suitable
examples. 16
6] Write short notes on : 16
a] Dactylograpy.
b] Catamite.
cj Drug addiction.
d} Medicolegal significance of blood groups.

1] a] Define 'Professional Negligence' in medical practice. 2

b] Enumerate the difference between its types. 4
c] Add a short note on the doctrine of Res ipes loquitru. A
2] a] What is 'livor mortis' ? 3
b] Describe:
i] its appearance & development, 3
ii] the factors which affect these, and 3
iii] its medicolegal Importance. 3
3] The police has brought to you the following material: 16
a] A skull, with a fragment of scalp attached, and
b] A humerus, ulna, femur and tibia.
It is felt that these might be the remains of a 45 year old, 170cm
European male tourist, who disappeared about 6 months ago.
How will your proceed to confirm or deny their suspicion ?
4] a] Define and classify "mechanical asphyxia". 3
M
I470I
M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
b] What are the cirumstanCes of death and the findings at autopsy
in a case of'traumatic* asphyxia ? 6
c) Add a short note on 'burking'.
5] Enumerate the differences between: 12
a] Acute arsenic poisoning and cholera.
b] Drunkenness and traumatic subdural haemorrhage.
c] . Strychnine poisoning and tetanus.
6] Write short notes on : 20
a] Irresistible impulses.
b] Lucid interval.
AND ANY THREE OF THE FOLLOWING.
c] Professional secrecy. -
d] Age in relation to consent.
ej Medicolegaiimportance of abrasions.
f] Difference between incised wounds and split Icerations.
g] Identification of seminal stains.

1] How will you differentiate between : 12

a] Rigor-mortis and pugilistic attitude,
bj Civil and criminal'malpraxis.
c] True and feigned insanity.
OR
a] How will you ascertain age of a person by examining the teeth ?
b] Describe in short medicolegal importance of age.
2] Distinguish between on any two : 12
a] Antemortem and post mortem incised wound.
b] Antemortem and post mortem thermal burn.
c] True and false contusion [bruise],
3] a] Explain the term suffocation and define different types of
suffocation [define only]. 12
b] How will you diagnose each one of them from post mortem findings ?
4] Differentiate between any three of the following: 12
a] True and false virgin.
b] Natural and criminal abortion.
c] Hijara and Zenanas.
d] Viable and non-viable.
5. Discuss diagnosis of poisoning in the dead body.
OR
Differentiate Between:
i] Cobra and viper.
ii] Dhatura seeds and capsicum seeds.
iii] Red phosphorus and white phosphorus.
M
I471I
• M
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
Write about any four: 20
a] Preservation of viscera in a case of rabies and snakebite [CA.].
b] Brain stem death.
cj Testamentary capacity.
|v
d] Klinefelter's syndrome.
e] Power of different criminal courts in Bombay.
f] Culpable homicide.

SECTION -1
1] Describe in brief the functions of state medical council.
2] Define rape, outline the procedure of examination of a victim of rape.
— —DtscussJn-detaiLthe medicolegal importance of vaginal swab collection
in such t:ases. — ------ . - - -
3] How will you assess the area of surface burns ? what are
differentiating features between antemortem and post-mortem bums.
SECTION-II
4] Differentiate between any three :
a] True mental illness and feigned mental illness.
b] Police inquest and coroner's inquest.
c] Entrance and exit wound due to rifled firearms.
d] Nulliparous and parous uterus.
5. Describe various mechanism of action of the poisons with suitable examples.
6. Write short notes on any four of the following :
a] Dying declaration.
bj Traumatic asphyxia.
c] Snake venom.
d] Drug dependence.
e] Vitriolage.
f] Viscera preservation.

1} Define Consent. Enumerate the different types of consents giving

suitable examples. Discuss briefly the relavance of consent in medical
practice. 12
2] Define 'Thanatology'. Explain the mechanism and various changes
occuring as a result of putrefaction in a cadaver. 12
3] Classify fire arm weapons. Draw a labelled diagram of the cartridge of
Rifled Fire Arm. Describe briefly the characteristic features of wound of
entry produced by Rifled Fire Arm at different ranges. > 12
4] Define Hanging. Explain the post mortem appearances in a case of
Antemortem hanging. Add a note on bloodless dissection of neck. 12
M
I472I
M ■
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
5] W rite briefly on signs, symptoms, treatment and postmortem findings
in a case of acute barbiturate poisoning. Add a note on 'Medicolegal
significance on barbiturate automatism . 12
6] W rite short notes on any four: 16
a] Hallucinations.
b] Battered Baby Syndrome.
c] Identification of Blood Stains.
d] Sexual Asphyxia.
e] Testamentary capacity.

1] Describe the composition, functions and powers of Indian Medical

Council. 12
2] Define laceration. Describe characteristics of lacerations, its types and
medicolegal importance. 12
3] Define asphyxia. Discuss postmortem appearances In a case of
strangulation by a ligature. 12
4] Define sexual offences. Enumerate and describe them. Describe the
findings of medical examination in a passive agent of sodomy. 12
5] Enumerate arrow poisons. Describe signs and symptoms, management
and differential diagnosis in a case of strychnine [Kuchila Poisoning]. 18
6] W rite notes on any four of the following : 16
a] Grievous hurt.
b] Testamentary capacity.
c] Vitriolage.
d] Snake venom.
e] Coroner's inquest.
n Rigor mortis.

1] W hat is medical malpractice ? Give its examples. How should a doctor

conduct himself to avoid a charge of medical malpractice ? 12
2] Classify burns. How would you distinguish between antemortem and
post mortem burns ? 12
3] Define asphyxia. W hat are its various types ? Describe postmortem
findings in a case of typical drowning in fresh water. 12
4] Discuss the salient features of medical termination of pregnancy act,
1971. 12
5] Classify poisons. Describe in general the signs, symptoms and
treatment of a case acute poisoning. 16
6] Write short notes on any four of the following: 18
a] Antidote.
►4
473
w
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

b] Drug abuse.
o] Phossyjaw.
d] Brain Stem Death.
e] Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
f] Post Morten Lividity.

Immmmmm
W/W/ymWMWM.

1] Define and explain "Medical Negligence". Give suitable examples.

W hat precautions should a medical practitioner take to avoid
charges of negligence ? 12
2) Define the terms "Somatic and Molecular Death".
Describe the changes which occur in the body after molecular death. 12 .Q
3] Enumerate various types of constrictions around neck of homicidal
nature. Write about ligature strangulation and its differentiation with 9_
suicidal hanging.
4] Enumerate causes for "Impotency and sterility". How will you examine & ¥ <6?

deduce opinion when a male person be sent for potency certification ? 12 #

5] Enumerate common homicidal poisons. Describe the clinical features,
treatment and postmortem findings in a case of cyanide poisoning. 16 m
6] W rite short notes on any four ot the following :
a] Dying declaration. m *
bj Differences between strychnine poisoning tetanus.
c] Phossyjaw.
d] Hydrostatic test.
e] Defence wounds.
f] Tandem bullet.

1] a] Define "medical Negligence". 2 :

b] Enumerate the differences between civil and criminal negligence. 5
c] Add a short note on the doctrine of "Res Ipsa loquitur". 5
2] Describe the changes in muscles which occur after death, with a
note on the medicolegal importance of each, 12
3] a] D efine: 2
i] "injury".
ii] "hurt".
b] How would you estimate the age o f:
i] abrasions ?
ii] contusions?
c] Enumerate the differences between:
i] Wounds of entry and exit caused by rifled firearms.
ii] Burns and scalds.
M
I474I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
4] a] Define "asphyxia". 2
b] Classify "mechanical asphyxia". 3
c] Describe the circumstances, cause of death & findings at autopsy
in a case of death by "traumatic" asphyxia. 7
5] Describe the forensic toxicological aspects of acute plum poisoning. 12
6] Write short notes on : 20
a] Delusions.
b] Testamentary capacity.
AND ANY TWO OF THE FOLLOWING :
c] Informed consent.
d] Pseudohermaphroditism.
e] Incest.
f] Gastric lavage.
g] Plumbism.

1] Define death. What is meant by "postmortem-interval". Outline in brief:

a] Post-mortem lividity.
b] Rigor Mortis. 12
2] What is dangerous weapon ? What are characteristic features of
different type of injuries caused by blunt and hard object ?.
Add note on medicolegal aspects of one of these injuries. 12
3] Define "hanging". Describe different types of ligature marks around
neck. Describe post-mortem findings in a case of typical hanging. 12
4] Discuss on "Restraint of the mentally ill person". 12
5] Classify Neurotic poisons. Describe signs, symptoms, diagnosis,
treatment and autopsy finding in a case of acute opium poisoning. 16
6] Write short notes on any four: 16
a} Erythism.
b] Treatment of acute Nux Vomica poisoning.
c] Signs and Symptoms of acute Dhatura poisoning.
d] Oral evidence.
e] Infamous conduct.

SECTION - B & SECTION - C

1) Enumerate factors for identification of persons. Write in detail
about various prints and their medicolegal imortance to confirm
identify. 12 Marks
2) What is Thanatology? Write in detail about clinical assessment
of somatic death and brain death . What are the criteria to be
followed to label as “Brain Death”. 12 Marks
14751
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication 2 M
3) Define ;Grievous Hurt’ according to the Indian Penol Code, 1860.
Write in detail about causes of death from wounds. 12 Marks
4) Define‘Abortion’ in medicolegal content. Discuss the salient
features of Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971. 12 Marks
5) Enumerate common suicidal poisons. Describe the clinical features,
differential diagnosis and postmortem examination findings in a
victim of organo-phosphorous compound poisoning. 16 Marks
6) Write short notes on any four of the f o l l o w i n g 16 Marks
a) Medical indemnity insurance.
b) Ricochet Bullet.
c) Sex chromatin.
d) Atavism.
e) Vitrioiage. -

1) What are disadvantages of not visiting the scere of crime by doctor ?

Discuss basic rules of preservation and collection of medicolegal
evidence at scere of crime. 12 Marks
2) Enumerate the differences between
a) Entrance and Exit wound of a bullet. 4 Marks cc;>
b) Antemortem Blister and Postmortem Blister. 4 Marks t
c) Extradural Haematoma due to burns and due to blunt force. 4 Marks S I
3) Explain suffocation and define types of suffocation. How will youI
diagnose each of them from post-mortem examination. 12 Marks ! jh a
4) Define ‘Live birth’, ‘Dead Birth’, and ‘Still Birth’. How will you
distinguish between head injury due to blunt force and due to l^
labour during p.m. exact of infant ? 12 Marks ■Af.. <3
5) Differentiate between i ; ,
r- -•!
a) Poisionous, Non-poisionous snakes and their bite marks. 8 Marks 1 It*, ^
b) Drunkness and Head injury. 8 Maries
6) Write short notes on any four 16 Marks 1
a) Atavism.
b) Wife Battering.

SECTION-B
2. Answer any six:- 12 Marks
a) Whatare the medicolegal importance of incised wound.
b) Mention the differences between rigor mortis and cadaveric spasm.
c) Classify antidotes with giving suitable examples.
d) How medical council of India is constituted ?
e) What is Compulsory sterilization ?

| I476I
 2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication

f) Define rape? .
g) Enumerate the powers of various courts in relation with
punishment which they can award.
SECTION-C
Answer any t w o " 14 Marks
a) Enumearate different types of asphyxial deaths ?
Describe External postmortem findings in a case of hanging.
b) Classify poisonous snakes giving important features, write
signs, symptoms and treatment and post mortem appearance
of a Cobra bite poisoning.
c) Define medical negligence ? What precautions should a
general practitioner should take to prevent charges of negligence.

SECTION-B
Answer any six 12 Marks
a) How the medical evidence is recorded in court of law ?
b) What are the functions of state medical council ?
c) Describe the various methods for removing tatoo marks.
~ «*«~ ******

d) Define drowning and write the characteristic of the froath in

death due drowning.
. . j X i f j i M if ifiin i] ■i r ir - - ^ ^ f * * *

e) What are the duties of RMP in case of suspected pqisoning ?

f) Write differences between hypostasis and Bruise.
9) Define medical jurisprudence.
SECTION-C
Answer any two 14 Marks
a) Classify thermal injuries. Describe external post-mortem
features in death due to burn and differentiate between
ante mortem and post mortem burn injury.
b) Define drunkness and enumerate the various stages of
acute intoxication giving the approximate blood alcohol
concentration and the manifestations.
c) Define consent. Discuss its importance in general practice
and medicolegal practice importance.

SECTION-B
Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Contributory negligence.
b) Medicolegal significance of tattoo marks.
c) Grievous hurt.
d) Chocking.
M
14771
*4
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

e) Sodomy.
f) Universal antidote.
g) Preservation of viscera.
SECTION-C
Answer any two 14 Marks
a) Define professional secrecy. Give some examples where the
doctor should divulge professional secrets in the greater in
terest of the society.
b) Define strangulation. Describe postmortem findings and
medicolegal aspects of strangulation by ligature and throttling.
c) How will you differentiate between poisonous and non
poisonous snakes ? Describe the treatment of a case of
snake bite (ophitoxemia).

SECTION-B
2. Answer any s i x 12 Marks
a) How dactylography is helpful in the detection of crime ?
b) What is the medicolegal classification of wounds and injuries ?
c) Define and classify mechanical asphyxia.
. d) Objectives of medicolegal autopsy.
e) What are the legal complications of artificial insemination (donar) ?
f) How hydrostatic test is done and what are its fallacies ?
g) What specific antidotes are used in the management of acute
cyanide poisoning, and what is the mechanism of action of each ?
SECTION-C
3. Answer any t w o 14 Marks
a) Write what you known of the medicolegal importance of
abrasions.
b) Describe the findings of your medicolegal examination, and
the investigations you would ask for, in a habitual passive
agent of sodomy.
c) What are the circumstances, mechanism of action,
diagnostic clinical features, specific management, fatal dose,
fatal period and causes of death in a case of acute poisoning
by organophosphorous compounds ?1

1) Describe the functions and powers of state medical council. 12

2) Classify mechanical injuries. Describe the characteristics, types
and medicolegal importance of a Lacerated wound. 12
3) Classify violent asphyxial death. Write postmortem findings in
M
I478I
M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
case of death due to manual Strangulation. 12
4) Define Rapte. Describe the procedure for the examination of an
accused of sexual assault. 12
5) a) Describe the method of preservation of viscera and other
material in a medicolegal autopsy of a suspected case of
poisoning. 6
b) Describe the general principle of treatment of snakebite. ' 6
6) Write short notes on any four:- 12
a) Medicolegal importance of tattoo mark.
b) Abrasion collar.
c) Sadism.
d) Hallucinations.
e) Universal antidote.
f) Defence wound.

SECTION-B
2. Answer any six 12 Marks
a) Aims and objectives of conducting medicolegal postmortems.
b) Dying deposition.
c) Medicolegal importance of adipocere formation.
d) Medicolegal importance of abrasions.
e) How will you differentiate antemortem burns from postmortem
burns ?
f) Signs of live born foetus at postmortem examination.
g) Treatment of cyanide poisoning.
SECTION-C
3. Answer any two 14 Marks
a) Define Hanging. Describe postmortem findings and causes
of death in case of Typical (Suicidal) Hanging.
b) Define medical negligence. Enumerate examples of criminal
negligence. Discuss “Res Ispsa Loquitur”.
c) Describe identifying features of Russel Viper and Sawscaled
Viper. Describe postmortem findings in a case of death due
to Viper snake bite. How will you treat a case of snake bite
poisoning ?

SECTION-B
2. Answer any s i x 12 Marks
a) Clinical features of acute alcoholic intoxication.
b) Delusions.
M
I479I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

c) Expert witness.
d) Cafe coronary.
e) Fallacies of hydrostatic test.
f) Postmortem features in a death due to strangulation.
g) What precautions one registered medical practitioner should
take to prevent a case of medical negligence ?
SECTION-C
Answer any two:- 14 Marks
a) • What is postmortem interval? Enumerate and describe
different factors useful to estimate postmortem interval,
while doing postmortem examination.
b) Describe appearance of wounds produced by a revolver at
different range of fire. Differentiate between entry wound
from exit wound caused by firing of a revolver.

features and management of chronic lead poisoning.

SEfcTION-B
Answer any six 12 Marks
a) Describe what are the different laws and acts in relation to
practice of medicine.
b) Describe the healing of fracture bone.
c) Classify antidotes, giving one example of each.
d) How will you definitely determine that girl is above 16 years old ?
e) Define privileged communication. Give suitable example.
f) What are the composition features of shotgun ?
g) Enumerate the postmortem features in death due to electorcution.
SECTION-C
Answer any t w o 14 Marks
a) Define contusion. Discuss the factors influencing its
formation and appearance. What is the medicolegal
importance of contusion ?
b) Comments on Intract Hymen is not definite signs of virginity.
c) Classify poisons. Describe signs, symptoms and management
of acute alcohol poisoning.

SECTION-B
2. Answer any six 12 Marks
a) What are the aims and objectives of medicolegal autopsy ?
b) Describe what precautions are to be taken during post-mortem
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
examination of a suspected case of death due to AIDS.
c) Define Deiusion and describe the types of it,
d) How will you differentiate strychnine poisoning from tetanus ?
e) Describe the line of treatment in a case of barbiturate poisoning.
f) How will you determine the age of bruise ?
g) Enumerate grievous injuries.
SECTION-C
3. Answer any t w o 14 Marks
a) Define Rape. Describe the procedure of examination of
victim of rape. What lab. investigation you will carry out in
case of victim to prove the charge of alleged rape ?
b) Name any five common household poisons. Describe
mechanism of action, signs and symptoms, treatment and
post-mortem appearance along with medicolegal importance
of any one of them. '
c) Define and classify professional negligence in medical practice.
What precaution should a general practitioner to take to avoid
charge of negligence ?

SECTION-B
2. Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Medicolegal importance of rigor mortis.
b) Diatoms.
c) Features of self-inflicted injuries.
d) Dirt collar.
e) Causes of impotancy in male.
f) Carboluria.
g) Viscera preservation.
SECTION-C
3. Answer any two:- 14 Marks
a) Define infamous conduct, give known examples. What is the
judicial procedure of State Medical Council to deal with the
complaint of infamous conduct against registered medical
practitioner?
b) Differentiate between incised wound and lacerated wounds
giving important features and suitable examples.
c) Classify poisons according to the mode of its action.
Enumerate the poisons which discolour/impact colour to the
skin and mucus membrance.

M
2»1I
M
 O nd

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

SECTION-B
2. Answer any six:- 12Marks
a) Privileged communication.
b) Informed consent.
c) Age of Bruises.
d) Cerebral concussion.
U
e) Grievous injury.
f) Criminal responsibility of an intoxicated person.
g) Functions of Indian Medical Council.
SECTION-C
3. Answer any two 14 Marks
a) A partially skeletonised dead body of a 12 yrs old boy was
recovered by the police.
t-
One 12 yrs old school boy was missing since one month
^ nd police suspect that it is the dead body of the same
missing child. Police has send the recovered skeleton
remains along with the photographs of the missing child to
prove the identity.
How will you proceed with the medicolegal examination to
establish the identity ?
b) Define Rape. How will you proceed with the medicolegal i.i /
examination of an alleged victim of rape ? What trace
evidence you will preserve for further lab. examination ? i I ,v \
c) Define Drug Dependance. How will you proceed with the
investigations of Drug Abuse Deaths ? l &

■©
SECTION-B
- f') l
Answerany six > 12 Marks
a) Sexchrbmatin. K. 1
b)
c)
d) McNaughten’s Rules.
e)
f)
g) Dutiesofdoctor in dealing with a case of poisoning;
SECTION-C
Answer any two :- 14 Marks
a) What is the mechanism of drowning in fresh and saltwater ?
Describe autopsy findings in a case of typical wet drowning.
Add a note on dry drowning.
b) Enumerate various skull fractures. Describe various intracranial
haemorrhages. Add a note on contrecoup injury.
M
14821
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
KM WIIMlWMMMMMMMMMWtWWMaM— — aaaH— BM— >■ *WTMiff Hit Iir II11HI W a M W I I

c) Classify piosons according to mode of action. Describe

clinical features, treatment of Dhatura poisoning.
Add a note on its medicolegal aspects.

SECTION-B
2. Answer any s i x 12 Marks
' a) Describe the internal postmortem finding in death due to drowning.
b) What are the common preservative used for preservation
of viscera for chemical analysis during P.M. ?
c) What do you mean by ‘contrecoup’ injuries ?
d) Describe the various preparation made from cannabis India.
e) What do you mean b y‘unfit to plead’ ?
f) Enumerate under what the circumstances identification of
living persons are required.
g) Describe the characteristic features of cobra snake.
SECTION-C
3. Answer any two 14 Marks
a) Describe the various types of fracture of skull.
b) Enumerate the poisons acting directly on kidney. Describe
their mechanism of action, signs and symptoms, treatment
and postmortem appearance of any one of them.
c) Define hanging. Describe the internal and external features
of postmortem finding in case of death due to hanging.

SECTION-B
2. Answer any six:- 12 Marks
a) What is Dactylography? Mention four basic patterns of finger
prints with percentage of their distribution in populationr^^
b) What is Cadaveric spasm ? List four differences between
rigor mortis and cadaveric spasm.
c) Enumerate injuries sustained by Hyoid bone.
What is their medicolegal importance ?
d) What is negative chemical analyser’s report ?
List its four common causes.
e) What are antidotes ?
Mention types of antidotes with one example of each.
f) What are delusions ? Classify them.
Mention their medicolegal importance.
g) What is Jouie burn ? List four differences between
antemortem and postmortem burns.
M
I483I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication U.
SECTION-C
Answer any t w o 14 Marks
a) Classify Insecticides. Describe their mechanism of action,
clinical features and management of organophosphorous 4 1
i
compound poisoning.
b) What is Professional negligence ? Differentiate between civil
and criminal negligence with suitable examples. Add a note
on contributory negligence.
c) What is postmortem interval? How will you decide it? '■
What is its medicolegal importance ?

i
SECTION-B
2. An;MlfAK OfllfCIV *_
12 Marks - m

a) Write treatment of strychnine poisoning.

: o
b) Meansof Identification. ■

c) Indication of Megistrate Inquest. S

d) What is casper disctum ?
e) Define Rape.
f) What is tailing of wound - medicolegal importance.
♦
g) Classify asphyxia! death.
SECTION-C #
Answer any two 14 Marks
a) Describe privilege communication.
b) Write about restraint of an insane.
c) Classify injury.

SECTIQN-B -
2. Answer any five:- 20 Marks
a) Retarding of evidence in a court of law.
b) Lat signs of death.
c) Causes of death from wounds.
d) Postmortem finds in case of a death due to burns.
e) Death due to strangulation by a ligature.
f) Methyl alcohol poisoning.
SECTION-C
3. Answer any two:- 12 Marks
a) Duties of a medical practitioner.
b) What is a ‘Head Injury’ ? Write in brief about intracranial injuries.
c) Describe in brief clinical features, treatment and postmortem
findings in a case of death due to organophosphorous
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
compound poisoning.

SECTION-B
2. Answer any six:- 12 Marks
a) Dying Declaration.
b) Functions of the “M.C.I.”
c) Dactylography. .
d) Legal definition of Injury and classify Injuries.
e) Enumerate complication of criminal abortion.
f) Treatment of methanol poisoning.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Attempt any two (2x6=12)
a) Define professional negligence in medical practice.
What is the difference between civil and criminal negligence ?
What are the defences for doctor against the charge of negligence ?
b) Describe civil and criminal responsibility of mentally ill person
by reason of unsoundness of mind.
c) Enumerate the poisons, which act through enzyme systems
of body. Write in detail about their clinical signs, treatment
and post-mortem features of any one of them.

SECTION-B
2. Answer any six :- 12 Marks
a) Dying declaration.
b) “Ideal” Identification Mark.
c) Preservation of viscera for chemical analysis.
d) Indications for radiography of-a dead body.
e) Grievous Hurt.
f) Ligature mark in Hanging.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
3. Write any t w o (2x6=12)
a) Discuss the toxicology of organochlorines.
b) Classify Mechanical Injuries. Give brief account of contusions.
c) Write an essay on lightning fatalities.

SECTION-B
2. Answer any five :- 20 Marks
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrd Edition b y Unique Publication
a) Describe Oxalic Acid poisoning.
b) Describe Sexual Asphyxia.
c) Describe steps of Forensic PNA fingerprinting.
d) Classify and briefly describe fracture of skull.
e) Describe redressal mechanisms for civil negligence.
f) Briefly describe mechanisms of injury in Bomb explosions.
SEGTION-C
Answer any two:- 12 Marks
a) Define and classify consent in Medical care.
Describe in detail the doctrine of informed consent.
b) Describe the post-mortem finding in a case of typical complete
hanging with a drop using a soft stretchable ligature material.
c) Describe steps for identification ofa poisoning snake.
Briefly describe features of poisoning by viperine bite.

SECTION-B
Answer any s i x 12 Marks
a) What is subpoena ?
b) What is anthropometry system of identification ?
c) What is suspended animation ?
d) What is punch drunk syndrome ?
e) What is Pseudocyesis ?
f) What is homicide ? Mention various types of homicides.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
Attempt any tw o:- (2x6=12)
a) Discuss symptoms, signs, treatment and medicolegal aspects
of Barbiturate poisoning.
b) Define Medical Negligence. What are essential elements of
Medical Negligence ? What are defences against Medical
Negligence?
c) What are different parameters of estimating time since death ?

2 Hours 32 Marks
i
SECTION-B
1. Answer any five questions. 20 Marks
a) Medical Evidence.
b) Professional Misconduct.
c) Dactylography.
d) Rigor Mortis.
e) Abrasions.
f) Antidotes.
14861
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
S E C T |0 N .C •

2. Attempt any two out of three: (2X6=12)

a) Discuss the toxicology of lead poisoning.
b) Define and classify firearms. Discuss injuries caused by
Rifle firearm at different range of firing and its investigation.
c) Define Rape as per section 375 of IPG, Describe the
examination, investigations and opinion in a case of victim of Rape.

Total Duration: Section A+B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
2. Attempt any five out of six : (5x4=20)
a) Name four hallucinogenic agents. What is cocainism ?
What is its medicolegal importance ?
b) Treatment of snake bite victim.
c) Describe the posmortem changes seen by examination of eyes,
give their medicolegal importance.
d) How will you differentiate between parous uterus and nulliparous
uterus at postmortem examination ?
e) Enumerate “civil responsibilities of mentally ill person”.
Write a note on testamentary capacity.
f) Define professional misconduct. Give six examples of it.
SECTION-C
3. Attepmt any two out of three: (6x2=12)
a) Define violent asphyxia, describe different types of it. Define hanging
and describe defferent type of hanging giving posmortem features of
each of them.
b) Describe specific features at entry wound of revolver in a victim
attlifferent ranges of firing.
c) Define ‘Dangerous drug’ as per NDPS Act. Describe the clinical
features of poisoning differential diagnosis, treatment and
postmortem features ofacute opium poisoning.

Total Duration: Section A*B+C= 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION +B
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Define firearm injury. State four differences between entry and exit wound
of rifled weapon.
b) What is typical hanging ? Give causes of death in hanging.
c) Give civil responsibility of a mentally ill person.
d) Section 320IPC.
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
T
e) What is privileged communication? , j
f) WriteindicationsforterminationofpregnancyunderMTPAct1971. .
SECTION-C
3. Solve any two out of three :
a) What is drunkenness ? How do you diagnose drunkenness ?
What are the recommended laboratory tests ?
b) Define head injury. State types of intra cranial hemorrhage, their
causes and medico legal importance.
c) Define professional negligence. State four differences between civil
and criminal negligence. What is Novus Actus Interveniens ?

Total Duration: Section A+B+C - 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

— s e c t io n - b ------------------------
2 Brief answer questions (any five out six): (5x4=20)
a) How will your differentiate between suicidal and homicidal
cutthroat?
b) How will your differentiate between entry and exit wounds
of rifled firearms ?
c) Define privileged communication. Enumerate various
circumstances where disclosure of professional secrets is
justified.
d) How will you manage a case of poisonous snakebites ?
e) Antidotes.
SECTION-C
3. Attempt any two: - (2x6=12)
a) Define Section 375IPC. How will you collect various evidence
in a victim of Rape ?
b) Describe clinical features and management in a case of chronic
lead poisoning ?
c) Define negligence in medical practice. How will you
differentiate between civil and criminal negligence ? What
are the defences available to a medical practitioner against the
charge of negligence ?

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B&C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
2 Brief answer questions (any five out six): (5x4=20)
a) Postmortem cooling of the body.
b) Probable signs of pregnancy.
c) Duties of a doctor in poisoing cases.
M
I488I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
d) Carboluria.
e) Differences between true and feigned insanity.
f) Inquest.
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): 1 (2x6=12)
a) Classify thermal injuries. What are causes of death, postmortem
findings and medicolegal aspects of burn injuries?
b) Write clinical features, treatment, postmortem appearances and
medicolegal aspects of aluminium phosphide poisoning.
c) What are the duties of a registered medical practitioner ?

Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks : 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Chelating agents in treatment of poisoining.
b) Causes of death due to burns.
c) Grievous hurt.
d) Stages of Alcoholic intoxication.
e) Cadaveric spasm.
f) RES IPSA LOQUITOR.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define section 44IPC. Classify Mechanical injuries. Add a note on
stab wounds with its medico-legal importance.
b) Enumerate early signs of death. Describe mechanism, factors
affecting and medico-legal importance of Rigor mortis.
c) Classify poisons ? Differentiate between venomous & non-venomous
snake and add a note on treatment of Cobra bite.

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Cross examination.
b) Res ipsa loquitur.
c) Ammunition used in smooth bore guns.
d) Me Naughtens rule.
e) Medico legal importance of Hyoid bone.
f) Run amok.

I « 9 l
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Write about the mechanism of injury by lightening. Describe autopsy r \
appearances in case of death due to lightening.
1
b) Describe signs and symptoms of strychnine poisoing . How will you
distinguish between strychnine poisoning and Tetanus ?
c) Classify poisons with examples. Describe factors modifying actions
of poisons on body.

Total Duration : Section A+ B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

^ ___________ SECTION-B&SECTIQN-C______________
SECTION-B(SAQ)
w
(20 Marks)
2. Short answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20) <;■
a) Sudden infant death syndrome
b) How to diagnose Brain stem death ?
c) Classify corrosive poisons. Add a note on vitriolage.
d) Symptoms of ethyl alcohol poisoning and postmortem appearances.
e) Negative viscera report from Chemical analyzer.
f) Enumerate conditions causing stiffness in dead body. Describe
instantaneous rigor. • :
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks) ■' I
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12) €> i
j
a) What are the features of personality disorders? Describe civil
^ ;
responsibilities of a mentally ill person.
b) Enumerate four indications of DNA test. What material can be used for
it? .
Describe procedure of DNA typing in short.
c) Enumerate five types of skull fractures with their causative mechanism.
How will you estimate the age of fracture ?

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B & SECTION - C
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
Brief answer question (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Vicarious Liability
b) Subpoena
M
i$ p i
M
( v -

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs IIIrdEdition b y Unique Publication

c) Bomb blast injuries
d) Cadaveric Spasm
e) Differentiate between Lacerated and Incised Wounds.
f) Carbolisni.
SECTION-e (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define strangulation. Mention its different types. Describe postmortem
findings in a case of death due to ligature strangulation.
b) Write various causes of impotence and sterility in both sexes. What are
the guiding principles for carrying out artificial insemination ?
c) Describe the source,clinical features and management of Chronic Lead
poisoning.

Total Duration : Section A + B + C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION - B & SECTION - C
SECTION - B (SAQ)
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer question (any five out of six) : (5x4=20)
1
a) Brain stem death.
b) Postmortem artifacts.
c) Difference between split laceration and incised wound.
d) Consent.
e) Various methods of Torture.
f) Plumbism.
SECTION-C (LAQ)
(12 Marks)
3. Long answer question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Write a brief essay on -'Insanity and Murder.'
b) Discuss the duties of doctor in cases of poisoning .
c) Enumerate different signs of live birth. Writer a note on hydrostatic test.

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
Brief answer questions (any five out of six) (5x4=20)
a) Difference between True and Feigned Insanity.
b) Consent in relation to examination of Victim of Sexual Assault.
c) Functions of MCI.
d) Euthanasia.
M
1491’
M'
;
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
e) Exhumation.
f) Define and briefly describe Chocking.
SECTION-C
(12Marks)
Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define and classify Violent Asphyxial Deaths. Discuss Post-mortem
findings on Face and Neck in a case of Complete Typical Hanging.
b) What is inquest ? Discuss different types of inquest prevalent in India.
Add a note on Medical Examiners System.
c) Define burns and classify. How will you differentiate between Ante­
mortem and Post-mortem burns ? What are the causes of death due to
burns ?

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six): (5x4=20)
a) Role of Post Mortem Cooling in determination of Time since death.
b) Age determination from Gustafson’s Method of Dental Examination.
c) Define Garoting. Enumerate Important P M findings on Face & Neck.
d) Privileged communication.
e) Define Delusion. Write types of delusion in brief.
f) Post Mortem appearances of Stomach in Poisoning by corrosive
Mineral acids.
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define negligence in medical practice. How will you differentiate
between civil and criminal negligence ? What are the defences
available to a medical practitioners against the charge of negligence ?
b) Define Strangulation. Enumerate its various types. Describe the post
mortem findings in case of Throttling.
c) Classify poisons. Describe in brief clinical features, treatment and
medico legal importance of opium poisoning.

Total Duration: Section A+B+C = 2 Hours Section B & C Marks: 32

SECTION-B
(20 Marks)
2. Brief answer questions (any five out of six) (5x4=20)
a) Defence wounds.
M
T 492r
2nd M.B.B.S. Book with Solved MUHS MCQs I I I rdEdition by U nique Publication
b) infamous conduct in professional respect.
c) Adipocere formation.
d) Joule burn.
e) Define Delusion and mention its types.
f) MTPAct 1971
SECTION-C
(12 Marks)
3. Long Answer Question (any two out of three): (2x6=12)
a) Define Medical evidence. Enumerate types of evidence. Write in detail
about documentary evidence.
b) Define drunkenness. What are signs, symptoms and treatment of
methanol poisoning ?
c) Enumerate types of drowning. Describe postmortem findings in
drowning with its medicolegal importance.*
^4 ^ 4 *^4 ^ 4 ^ 4 *^4
•A. . A« /4\ /4\ 7^v ^

*4
493
$ / .
I
Q

- *A^^
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved M.P.M.S.U. MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

M.P.M.&Ci. QUESTION PAPERS OF

1j 2ndM.B,B»S. -
Madhya Pradesh Medical Science Universityy Jabalpur
MBBS 2 ^ P r o f e s s i o n a l E x a m i n a t i o n 2 0 1 7 ( S u m m e r)

Question Paper Code - TTAMOOOOI00511

P a th o lo g y (P a p e r-1 )

Time : 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 08

Instruction :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) MCQ Question paper should be conducted and completed in first 30 min.
3) Fill (dark) the appropriate empty circle against the question number once only.

5) Each MCQ carries one/half mark.

6) Student will not be alloted mark if he/she overwriteS/strikes or put white ink on
the cross once marked on MCQ. < .
Total MCQs: 16
16 x 1/2= 08
1. The presence of small vacuoles in cytoplasm due to distended endoplasmic
reticulum in non-letha! injury is
a) Necrosis b) Hydropic Change
c) Apoptosis' d) Calcification
2. Nuclear shrinkage and increased basophilia in necrotic and apoptotic cell death
is called: -
a) karyolysis b) Calcification c) Karyorrhexis d) Pyknosis
3. In plasma cell the large Homogeneous eosinophilic inclusions in the cytoplasm
are known as
a) Fibrillin b) Crystalline rod c) Dutcher Bodies d) Russel Bodies
4. The special stain for iron is.
a) PAS b) Congo Red c) Sudan Black d) Prussian Blue
5. The prostaglandins are generated in
a) Classical Pathway b) Cycloxygenase Pathway
c) Alternate Pathway d) Lipoxygenase Pathway
6. Finding a casseating granuloma in lesion is diagnostic of
a) Leprosy by Sarcoidosis c) Tuberculosis d) None of the above
7. Confirmation of diagnosis of Lardaceous spleen is done by
a) Congo Red Stain b) H & E Staining .
c) Grams Staining d) Reticulin Staining
8. Nutmeg liver is a feature of
a) Alcoholic liver disease b) Right heart failure
c) Hepatocellular Carcinoma d) Amyloidosis of liver

I561I
I
'

2ndM.B.B.S. Bookwith Solved M .M IIF iE

9. Venous Emboli most often lodge in.
a) Intestine b) Kidney c) Heart d) Lung
10. Klienfelters Syndrome produces . -
a) Male hypogonadism b) Mental Retardation
c) Female Hypogonadism d) Organomegaly
11. Chronic Iron Deficiency Anaemia p r o d u c e s .
a)Spleenomegaly b) Jaundice ..
c) Pain Crisis d) Atrophic Glossitis
12. Most common manifestation of DIC is > .
a) Bleeding . b) Thrombosis
c) Microangiopathic Hemolytic Anaemia d) Organ Damage
13. Hand Food Syndrome is one of the manifestation in. .
a) Sickle cell disease b) Haemophilia A
c) U P d) Pernicious Anaemia
14. p thalassaemia major genotype is.
a) p°/p° b) a/p c) a/p° c) p/p°
15. Activity of which of the following coagulation factor is reduced in von willebrand
disease type II.
a) Factor VIII b) Factor XI c) Factor II d) Factor III
16. Dystrophic Calcification occurs in.
a) Hyperparathyroidism b).Vitamin D intoxication
c) Renal Failure , d) Necrotic Tissue
• ____________________________ - '
M B B S 2 s* P r o fe s s io n a l E x a m in a tio n 2017 (S u m m e ry .
Question Paper Code - 17AM0000100511
P a th o lo g y (P a p e r-1 )

Time : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 32

Instruction :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw diagrams wherever necessary for Question no. 2 ,3 and 4.
3) Answers of Questions and Sub questions must be written strictly according to
the serial order of question paper, otherwise the question shall not be valued.
4 ) ' Do not write anything on the blank portion of the question paper. If written
anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair
means.
2. Long Answer Question (2x5=10)
a) Discuss the vascular changes in Acute Inflammation.
b) Describe the Clinicopathoiogical features of pthalassaemia.
3. W rite Short Notes (4x3=12)
a) Explain in short the metastatic cascade.
b) What are the laboratory findings in a case of megaloblastic anaemia.
c) Describe the staining characteristics ofAmyloid.
d) Define Embolism, Enumerates its types and complications.

: M.
I562I
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved M.P.M.S.U. MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
4. Write in Brief:- ~ (10x1=10)
a) Define chemotaxis.
,, b) Enumerate three infections which cause spleenomegaly.
c) Enumerate three tests done in bleeding disorders.
d) Name three important tumour suppressor genes.
e) Name two blood components. '
s- f) Name two main disorders of Haemoglobin. ,
g) Give two examples of Metaplasia.
h) Name any three oncogenic viruses.
i) Name three cytochemical stains used to type the Acute Leukemia.
j) Which two essential phenomena distinguish reversible from irreversible
injury.

M B B S 2*4 P ro fes sio n al E xam in atio n 2017 (S um m er) *1

6
5
4
3
2

P athology (P a p e r-II)
Time : 30 Minutes ' Maximum Marks : 08
Instruction:
1) ' All questions are compulsory. .
2) MCQ Question paper should be conducted arid completed in first 30 min.
3) Fill (dark) the appropriate empty circle against the question number once only
4) Use blue/black ball point pen only.
5) Each MCQ carries one/half mark,
6) ♦ Student will not be alloted mark if he/she overwrites/strikes or put white ink on
the cross once marked on MCQ. -
Total MCQs: 16
16 x 1/2= 08
1. Which of ihe following histological types of lung carcinoma has worst
prognosis.;:;:'-; - : ■ . ':
a) Squamous cell carcinoma b) Small cell carcinoma
c) Adeno carcinoma d) Large cell carcinoma
2. is' ;
a) Consolidation b)Abscess formation- ". ‘ v ;:- '
c) Resolution d) Empyema ,
3. Alpha-I anti-trypsin deficiency is associated with.
a) Cystic Fibrosis b) Carcinoma Lung
c) Bronchiectasis d) Emphysema
4. Most common cause of aortic dissection.
a) Marians Syndrome b) Hypertension
c) Smoking . d) Atherosclerosis
5. Which of the following are most likely to be found in the heart of child suffering
from rheumatic fever. ;
a) p Haemolytic Streptococcus * b) Langhans Giant Cells

' M
; I563I ■ .
• M
i

t Z,dM.BiJB.S Book with Solved M PM SM M C Q s I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

• c)J^mosiderin Laden Macrophages d) Anitschkow cells
4 6. All the following are true for nephrotic syndrome except:- ,
4 a) Heavy Proteinuria - ' b) Hypertension
c) Hypoalbuminemia , d) Hyperlipidemia
4 7. “Thyroidisation” is characteristic findings in
. a)Acute'pyelonephritis b) Chronic glomerulonephritis
I ' c) Benign Nephrosclerosis d) Chronic pyelonephritis
8. What is the histological criteria for diagnosis of acute appendicitis..
I a) CytologicalAtypia
b) Mucosal Atrophy
c) Sub-piucosal fibrosis
d) Neutrophilic infiltration of muscularis propria
9. Skip lesions are characteristic of.
a) Crohns disease b) Ulcerative colitis
c) Amoebic colitis d) None of the above
10. .Ebstein Barr Virus is associated with all except
a) Infectious mononucleosis b) Burkitts Lymphoma
' c) Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma d) Gastric Carcinoma ■
11. Lacunar type of Reed Sternberg cell is characteristic of which Hodgkins
disease.
a) Nodular sclerosis b) Lymphocytic predominant
c) Mixed cellularity d) Lymphocytic depletion .. /
12. Barret’s oesophagus is a predisposing factor for: -
a) Squamous cell carcinoma b) Basal cell carcinoma
c) Gastric Carcinoma d) Adeno carcinoma
13. Which of the following typically cause fatty change in liver
a) Amebic infection , b) Chronic Alcoholism
c) Wilsons disease d) Hepato Cellular Carcinoma
14. Brown Tumour of bone is seen in
a) Hyperparathyroidism b) Hypothyroidism
c) Hyperthyroidism d) Hypoparathyroidism
15. Flea bitten kidney is characteristic o f: " ;
a) Malignant Nephrosclerosis b) Minimal change disease
c) Chronic Glomerulonephritis d) Benign Nephrosclerosis
16. Which features are seen with Falfots Tetralogy. “
a)VSD b) Overriding Aorta
c) Right Ventricular Hypertrophy d) Alt of theebove

MBBS 2°^ Professional Examination 2017 (Summer)

Question Paper Code - 17AM0000100512
Pathology (Paper- II)
Time : 2.30 Hours Maximum ^
Instruction :
14
l564l
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved M.P.M.S.U. MCQs I I I rdEdition fry Unique Publication
1) All questions are compulsory. • *
2) Draw diagrams wherever necessary for Question no. 2 ,3 and 4.

; the serial order of question paper, otherwise the question shall not be valued.
4) Do not write anything on the blank portion of the questiqn paper. If written
anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair
means.
Long Answer Question (2x5=10)
a) A 45 years male was admitted with profuse sweating dyspnea and severe
Chest pain. On Examination BP was low and pulse was thready.
1. What is the provisional diagnosis ? „
2. Which lab investigations will help in diagnosis ?
3. What is etiopathogenesis of this condition ?
W hatareitie possible eomplieatioes?
b) Describe the classification, etiopathogenesis andtnorphologyof- - - = - -
Bronchogenic Carcinoma ?
Write Short Notes (*4x3=12)
a) Renal lesions in diabetes meilitus.
b) Aschoffs body.
c) Serological markers of hepatitis B.
d) Bronchiectasis: .
W rite in B r i e f , (10x1=10)
a) List two infected ulcers of the small intestine.
b) Enumerate four morphological types Of emphysema.
c) What is Krukenberg tumour.
d) Mention two differences in Nephrotic and Nephritic syndrome.
e) Enumerate risk factors for Atherosclerosis.
f) Give two causes of Cirrhosis.
g) Enumarate stages of Lobar Pneumonia.
h) Write Histological features of Giant cell tumour.
i) What is Wadbins tumour?
j) ’Name three infections associated with Splenomegaly.

M B B S 2 ^ P r o fe s s io n a l E x a m in a tio n 2017 (S u m m e r)

Question Paper Code - 17AM0000100381

M/croh/o/og/ - P a p e r !
Time : 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 08
Instruction :
1) All questions are compulsory. . *
2) MCQ Question paper should be conducted and completed in first 30 min.
3) Fill (dark) the appropriate empty circle against the question number once only.
4) Use blue/black ball point pen only. , : ;
5) Each MCQ carries one/half mark.

'M :
: 1565^
►i ■
 2ndM.8.B.S. Book with Solved M.P.M.S.U. MCQs ■ .iW igation.
6) Student will not be alloted mark if he/she overwrites/strikes or put white ink on
the cross once marked on MCQ. -r^vv-
Total MCQs : 16
1 6 x 1/2 = 08
1 . Bacterial capsule can be best demonstrated by
a) Gram’s Staining b)Acid Fast Staining
c) Negative Staining d) Albert’s Staining
Agar concentration to make nutrient agar is
a) 2% b) 6% c) 0.25% d)0.5%
3. Which is the selective medium for isolation of Corynebacterium diphtheriae
a) Tellurite Blood Agar b) Loeffler’s Serum Slope
c) Lowenstein Jensen’s Medium d) Chocolate Agar
Mcfadyean’s reaction is used for the presumptive diagnosis o f:
a) Tetanus b) Anthrax c) Cholera d) Gas Gangrene
5. Stormy fermentation is useful in the identification o f:
a) Clostridium perfringens b) Clostridium botulinum
c) Clostridium tetani d) Clostridium difficile
6 . Selective medium used for the isolation of Clostridium difficile from faeces is
a) Cycloserine Cefoxitin-Fructose.
b) Mansur’s gelatin taurocholate trypticase tellurite agar.
c) Cefsulodin - irgasan-novobiocin agar.
d) All of the above.
7. Who discovered Helicobactor pylori
i
a) Louis Pasteur b) Karry Mullis
c) Stanley B. Prusiner d) Warren & Marshall
8 . The name black death has been given to :
a) Plague b) Miliary Tuberculosis
c) Tularensis d) Legionnaire’s disease
r 9. Which one of the following media is most frequently used for isolation of Bordetella
J' pertussis
a) Chocolate agar b)MacConkeyagar
c) Bordet-Gengou agar d)Tinsdale agar
10. BCG vaccine is a
y ,-s a) Live attenuated vaccine b) Killed Vaccine
A
c) Toxoid d) None of above
11. Which of following mycobacteria can cause pulmonary disease:-
a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis b) Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
c) Mycobacterium Kansasi d) All of the above
12. Lepromin test is negative in which type of leprosy
a) Tuberculoid Leprosy b) Lepromatous Leprosy
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
13. Causative agent of lyme disease is
a) Borrelia recurrentis b) Borrelia duttoni
c) Borrelia vincenti d) Borrelia burgdorferi

I566I
V4
2n* MM:B.S,BookmmS<MedM.KM.SM,m I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
14. What is causative agent of epidemictyphus
a) Rickettsia prowazekii b) Rickettsia typhi
e) Rickettsia conori d) Rickettsia australis
15. Which is causative agent of primary atypical pneumonia
a) Mycoplasma pneumonia b) Streptococccus pneumoniae
c) Haemophilus influenzae d) Influenza virus
16. Which of the following-bacteria does not require an arthropod vector for its
transmission
a)Coxiella bumetti b) Rickettsia akari
c) Bartonella quintana d) Rickettsia prowazekii

M B B S 2 ^ P r o fe s s io n a l E x a m in a tio n 2017 ( S u m m e r ) *1
4
3
2

Question Paper Code— 17AM0000100381_____ _ _ _ _

M ic r o b io lo g y - P a p e r - 1

Time : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 32

instruction :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw diagrams wherever necessary for Question no. 2 ,3 and 4.
3) Answers of Questions and Sub questions must be written strictly according to
the serial order of question paper, otherwise the question shall not bevalued.
4) Do not write anything on the blank portion of the question paper. If written
anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair
means.
2. Long AnswerQuestion (2x5=10)
a) Discuss the Morphology, cultural characters and pathogenecity of
Mycobacterium leprae. Add a note on laboratory diagnosis of leprosy.
b) Discuss thelaboratorydiagnosis oftyphoid fever.
3. Write ShortWotes (4x3=12)
a) Alphahaemolytic streptococci.
b) Pathogenecity of Psedomonas aeruginosa.
c) Lymphogranuloma venerium.
d) Autoclave.
4. Write in Brief:- (10x1=10)
a) Give twoexamplesoftransport media.
b) Define stenliiation.
c) What is the role of bacterial pili.
d) Name two capsulated bacteria.
e) EilOTeratethe positive biochemical reactions of Streptoc^peus

f) Enumerate complications of gonorrhea.

g) What istheuseofformaldehydeinsterilization.
h) Enumerate the bacteria causing urinary tract infection,
j) Enumerate thebaGteriaoausing meningitis.

>71
>1
1

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved M.P.M.S.U, MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication

...... : J)

M B B S 2 ^ P r o fe s s io n a l E x a m in a tio n 2017 (S u m m e r}

Question Paper Code - 17AM0000100382

M ic r o b io lo g y - P a p e r - ll

Time : 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 08

instruction :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) MCQ Question paper should be conducted and completed in first 30 min.
3) Fill (dark) the appropriate empty circle against the question number once only.
4) Use blue/black ball point pen only.
5) Each MCQ carries one/half mark.
6) Student wjll not be alloted mark if he/she overwrites/strikes or put white ink on
the cross once marked on MCQ.
Total MCQs: 16
16x 1/2= 08
1. Which is the longest tape worm found in m an: -
a) Diphyllobothrium latum b) Taenia saginata
c) Taenia solium d) Echinococcus granulosus
2. Stoll’s method is used for
a) Determining number of helminthic eggs in faeces.
b) Demonstration of Cryptosporidium oocyts in faeces.
c) Concentrating microfilaria in blood.
d) Staining lymph node impression smear for Leishmania donovani.
3. The causative agent of favus is :
a) M. audouinii b)M. canis
c) T. mentagraphyte d) T. schoenleinii
4. Which of the following fungi is not a mould
a) Aspergillus b) Penicillium c) Mucor d) Cryptococcus
5. Most widely accepted theory of antibody production is
a) Natural selection b) Clonal selection
c) Side chain d) Indirect template
6. Amount of various immunoglobulin classes can be measured by
a) Single diffusion in one dimension.
b) Single diffusion in two dimension.
c) Double diffusion in one dimension.
d) Double diffusion in two dimension.
7. Class I histocompatibility antigens are product of
a) HLA-C locus b) HLA-DP locus
c) HLA-BI locus d) HLA-C2 locus
8. T eyen phages possess
a) Double stranded DNA b) Single stranded DNA
c) Double stranded RNA d) Single stranded RNA

I568I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved M.P.M.S.U. MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
9. All are teratogenic viruses EXCEPT
a) Rubella b) Rubeola
c) Herpes Simplex-2 d) Cytomegalovirus
10. Which of the following arboviral diseases is NOT seen in India
a) Yellow fever b) Dengue
c) Japanese encephalitis d) Kyasanur forest disease
11. All of the following trematodes are monoecious EXCEPT
a) Fasciola hepatica b) Paragonimus westermani
c) Schistosoma hematobium d) Clonorchis sinensis
12. Which of the following class of fungi is known as “Fungi imperfecti"
a) Phycomycetes b) Basidiomycetes
c) Ascomycetes d) Deuteromycetes
13. Which of the following is an organ specific Autoimmune disease.
a)7Vaaison,sdisease - T^Ttheui-natoid arthritis -,- ~
c)3LE > ; ^ d)Sjogren’ssyrjdrome
14. Recrudescence is a features of ir’
a) P. falciparum b) P. vivax
c) P. ovale d) P. malariae
15. Tzanck cells are seen in the infection with which of the following virus
a) Polio Virus b) Herpes simplex virus
c) Rabies virus d) Hepatitis D virus
16. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a complication of
a) Mumps b) Measles c) Influenza d) Respiratory syncytial virus

MBBS 2s? Professional Examination 2017 (Summer)

Question Paper Code - 17AM0000100382
Microbiology - Paper-ll
Time : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 32
Instruction :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw diagrams wherever necessary for Question no. 2 ,3 and 4.
3) Answers of Questions and Sub questions must be written strictly according to
the serial order of question paper, otherwise the question shall not be valued.
4) Do not write anything on the blank portion of the question paper, if written
anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair
means.
2. Long Answer Question (2x5=10)
a) Enumerate four blood sucking arthropods which transmit parasitic
infections. Briefly write about laboratory diagnosis of Kala azar.
b) Define hypersensitivity. Enumerate various types of hypersensitivity
reactions. Write in brief about systemic type of Type-I hypersensitivity
reactions.
3. Write Short Notes (4x3=12)

M
I569I
M
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved M.P.M.S.U. MCQs. I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) Strategies of HIV testing.
b) Hepatitis D virus.
c) Laboratory diagnosis of Cryptococcal meningitis.
d) Rhinosporidiosis.
4. W rite in B rief:- (10x1=10)
a) Define Arboviruses. Give two examples.

Epidermophyton.
c) Define viviparous parasite and give one example.
d) Give two examples of humoral immunodeficiencies.
e) Tabulate two differences between T and B cells.
f) What do you understand by cytopathic effects.
g) Define dimorphic fungi. Give one example.
h) Draw a well labeled diagram oftrophozoite of-Giardialafftblia;
i) Name two methods of detecting viral growth in tissue celt lines.
j) Enumerate three important complications of Plasmodium falciparum
infection.6
5
4
3
2
1
*

M B B S 2°^ P ro fe s s io n a l E xam in atio n 2 0 1 7 ( S u m m er)

Question Paper Code - 17AM0000100531
P h a rm a c o lo g y - Paper-1
Time : 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 08
instruction:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) MCQ Question paper should be conducted and completed in first 30 min.
3) Fill (dark) the appropriate empty circle against the question number once only.
4) Use blue/black ball point pen only.
5) Each MCQ carries one/half mark.
6) Student will not be alloted mark if he/she overwrites/strikes or put white ink on
the cross once marked on MCQ.
Total MCQs: 16
16 x 1/2 = 08
1. Which drug is microsomal enzyme inhibitor
a) Rifampicin b) Cimetidine
c) Phenytoin d) Ethyl Alcohol
2. InAlzheimer’s disease preferred drug for treatment is
a) Donepezil b) Pilocarpine
c) Neostigmine d) Physostigmine
3. p Blockers can cause all adverse effects, except
a) Bronchospam b) Raynaud’s Phenomenon
c) Agina Pectoris d) Delayed recovery from hypoglycemia
4. The most common adverse effect of systemic salbutamol is
a) Anxiety b) Tremor c) Apprehension d) Tachycardia
14
5701
►1
 •>
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with SoJvedM.PMS.U. MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
5. Which drug is not an antiplatelet agent
a) Aspirin b) Streptokinase c) Abciximab d) Clopidogrel
6. Contraindication to use of p blocker is : -
a) Asthma b) Hypertension c) Angina d) Essential Tremor ! ;-}
Newer inhalational gincocorticoids are preffered over older agents
(Bectomethasone) for treatment of bronchial asthma, because
a) Their oral absorption is poor. .;■) :
b) Their efficacy is higher.
c) They do not produce gastric irritation.
d)
8. In Printzmetal’s angina preferred drugs are
a) Nitrates and p blockers b) Nitrate & Verapamil
c) Nitrate and Nifedipine d) Nitrates and Aspirin

modulation
a) Hydralazine b)Diazoxide
c) a Methyldopa d) Sodium Nitropmsside >
• /
10. In a patient with peptic ulcer, which pair should be avoided
a) NSAIDS and p Blockers b) p blockers and glucocorticoids .rrA
c) NSAIDS and glucocorticoids d)p blockers and Anticholinergics
11. Selective a 2agonists can be used in all conditions except
a) Sedation b) Hypertensbn c) Glaucoma d)BPH
12. Cough and angioedema in patient ACE inhibitor, are due to \® I
a) Bradykinin b) Renin c) Angiotensin II d) Aldosterone
13. Atropine is used in all conditions except | ©i
a) Iridocyclitis b) Glaucoma i ^ j
c) Digitalis Overdose d)Organo Phosphorus Poisoning
14. A New born baby is bom with phocomelia. It may be due to a drug, consumed
by mother during pregnancy, that drug is
a) Tetracycline b) ACE inhibitors 1 ■. |;i
!'■
c)Thallidomide d) Phenytoin
15. Which of the following is a prodrug •);
a) Propranolol b) Atropine
c)Enaiaprii d)Aspirin
16. Which drug does not slow A.V. conduction
a) Propranolol b) Diltiazem
c) Atropine d) Adenosine

MBBS 2 ^ Professional Examination 2017 (Summer)

Q uestion P aper Code - 17A M 0000100531
Pharmacology - Paper-1
Tim e : 2.30 Hours M axim um M arks : 32
Instru ctio n :
M
I571I

l
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved M.PM.S.U. MCQs I I I * Edition by Unique Publication
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw diagrams wherever necessary for Question no. 2 ,3 and 4.
3) Answers of Questions and Sub questions must be written strictly according to
the serial order of question paper, otherwise the question shall not be valued.
4) Do not write anything on the blank portion of the question paper. If written
anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair
means.
2. Long Answer Question (2x5=10)
a) Classify p blockers. Describe therapeutic uses and adverse effects of (3
blockers.
b) Classify the drugs used in treatment of congestive heart failure. Discuss
the drug used in CHF to improve survival.
3. W rite Short Notes (4x3=12)
a) Pharmacogenetics.
b) Therapeutic Index.
c) Management of digitalis overdosage.
d) Therapeutic uses of Neostigmine.
4. W rite in B rie f:« (10x1=10)
a) Benign prostatic hyperplasia.
b) Torsade depointes.
c) Motion sickness.
d) Open angle glaucoma.
e) NSAID induced peptic ulcer.
f) Nocturnal asthma.
g) Chemotherapy induced fate emesis.
h) Hypertension during pregnancy.
i) Dissecting aortic aneurysm.
j) Prophylaxis of migraine.1
*

M B B S 2 ^ P r o fe s s io n a l E x a m in a tio n 2 0 1 7 (S u m m e r )
Q uestion P aper C ode - 17A M 0000100532
P h a r m a c o lo g y ( P a p e r - ll)

T im e : 30 M inutes M axim um M arks : 08

In stru ctio n :
1) M questions are compulsory
2) MCQ Question paper should be conducted and completed in first 30 min.
3) Fill (dat^) the appropriate empty oircle against the question number once only
<$) . Use blue/black ball point pen only.
^ % :ti|a c h MCQ carries one/half mark.
6) Student will not be alloted mark if he/she overwrites/strikes orput white ink on
the cross once marked on MCQ.
Tota l M CQs : 16
1 6 x V 2 = 08
2ndM B B S . Book with Solved M.P.M.S.U. MCQs l i r dEdition by Unique Publication
1. Following drug is not an immunosuppressant :-
a) Prednisolone b) Indomethacin
c) Cyclophosphamide d) Cyclosporine
2. Chlorpromazine a prototype antipsychotic drug produces adverse effects which
■ -includes. ' v, y
a) Mania b) Hypertension
c) Bradycardia d) Tardive dyskinesia
3. Pentazocine
a) is used only parenterally (i.v.i.m.)
b) has high potential for abuse liability. -
c) is used for post operative pain.
d) reduces blood pressure.
_____4. Aspirin
f"—

in children.
b) is used in large doses for anti-platelet effect.
c) induced anti-platelet effects is immediately reversible.
d) inhibits lipooxygenase enzyme.
Following is a correct statement regarding analgesic drugs :-
a) Ketorolac is an opioid analgesic having a good efficacy.
b) Tramadol is a strong anti-inflammatory drug useful in post operative pain.
c) Codeine is an opiod analgesic having low efficacy.
d) Valdecoxib is efficacious, very safe and commonly used drug.
Following statement is correct about disulfiram (Antabuse).
a) It is useful for deaddiction programme for addiction with all sedative drugs.
b) It inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme.
c) Therapy with disulfiram is called as ‘aversive therapy’.
d) Therapy with disulfiram is called as ‘substitution therapy’.
In relation to the drugs for Rheumatoid Arthritis following statement is correct :-
a) Aspirin like drugs reduce pain, inflammation and stop further progression
of the disease.
b) Chloroquine is used for a week to half the progression of the disease.
c) Methotrexate is an alkylating agent and is a quickly acting DMARD.
d) TNFalpha inhibitor like infliximab produces comparative quicker
response.
8. Following statement is correct in relation to general anesthetic agent :-
a) During ether anesthesia 2ndstage is very short.
b) Halothane has high blood solubility and hence acts slowly like ether.
c) Sevofluane is preferred as it produces quick induction and rapid
recovery from anesthesia.
d) Nitrous oxide is highly efficacious for induction and maintenance of
general anesthesia.
Following statement is correct in relation to local anesthetic drugs :-
a) Lignocaine is given i.v. to produce local anesthetic effect.
(

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved M.PM.S.U. MCQs I I I rdEdition fey Unique Publication
b) Lignocaine is useful for local anesthesia on intact skin.
c) Oxethazeine is active locally in stomach and used to reduce pain of
peptic ulcer.
d) Bupivacaine being short-acting is not preferred.

MBBS Professional Examination 2017 (Summer)

Question Paper Code - 17AM0000100532
Pharmacology - Paper-ll
Time : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 32
Instruction :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw diagrams wherever necessary for Question no. 2 ,3 and 4.
3) Answers of Questions and Sub questions must be written strictly according to
the serial order of question paper, otherwise the question shall not be valued.
4) Do not write anything on the blank portion of the question paper. If written
| anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair
means.
2. Long Answer Question (2x5=10)
a) Describe important features of artemisinin.
b) Describe the uses and adverse effects of gentamicin.
3. Write Short Notes (4x3=12)
a) Give justifications of co-administration of anti-microbial drugs, give
suitable examples.
b) Enumerate the drugs useful in osteoporosis. How are these drugs are
likely to bring benefit ?
c) Compare phenytoin sodium and valproic acid as anti-epileptic drugs.
d) Uses of Opioid.
4. Write in B r i e f ( 10x1=10)
a) In case of phenytoin sodium why do we see a change in elimination
kinetics from first order to zero order ? Point out its clinical significance.
b) Mention two uses of prostaglandins/prostaglandin - analogues.
c) Name two drugs (Having different mechanisms) useful in treatment of acute
gouty arthritis.
d) Name two drugs useful in treatment of endometriosis.
e) Mention two uses of ivermectin.
f) Mention two selective serotonin Reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), used as anti
-depressants.
g) Why do we use, Lugol’s iodine (aqueous iodine solution) before surgery
of thyroid gland ?
h) Name of two drugs useful in mania.
i) Name two azoles useful in fungal infection : one locally used on skin and
another one used systemically.
j) Among anti-retroviral drugs, name one drug each, from Nucleoside

M
5741
 ?

2ndM.B.B.S. Book with SolvedMMM&ll. MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication i

Reverse Transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) and Non-Nucleoside Reverse ]
Transcriptase Inhibitor (NNRTI). \

Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur

MBBS 2nd Professional Examination 2017 (Summer)
Question Paper Code - 17AM0000100201
Forensic Medicine
Time : 30 Minutes Maximum Marks : 08
Instruction :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) MCQ Question paper should be conducted and completed in first 30 min. *
3) Fill (dark) the appropriate empty circle against the question number once only.9
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
1
*
4)
5) Each MCQ carries one/half mark.
.6) Student will not be alloted mark if he/she overwrites/strikes or put white ink on
the cross once marked on MCQ.
Total MCQs: 16
16 x 1/2 = 08 9
1. Judge can ask questions :-
a) During cross examination b) Examination-in-chief
c) Any time during trail d) During re-examination
2. Garden's classification of death signifies :-
a) Mechanism of death b) Cause of death
c) Mode of death d) Manner of death
3. Vitreous humor is preserved in suspected poisoning by :-
a) Morphine b) Anthrax c) Carbon Monoxide d)Alcohol
4. The most reliable dental change used in Gustafson’s method is :-

m
a) Attrition b) Cementum apposition
c) Transparency of root d) Secondary Dentine deposition

s
5. Tissue bridging is seen in :-
a) Laceration b) Abrasion
c)Contusion d) Stab wound
6. Duret haemorrhage are seen :-
a) Heart b) Brain c) Liver d) Kidney
7. Pugilistic attitude is due to :-
a) Coagulation of protein b) Depletion of ATP
c) Accumulation of Ca+2 d) Accumulation of Mg+2
8. Fat embolism commonly occurs in :-
a) Psoriasis b) Scurvy
c) Paget’s disease d) Fracture of long bone
9. Cafe coronary refers to death in intoxicated person during meals due to :-
a) Chocking b) Suffocation
c) Smothering d) Cardiac arrest

M
I575I
2ndMMB,S. BookwithSoived M ;R M S M M C Q i I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
10. Benzidine test is done to detect
a) Semen b) Blood c) Saliva d) Bile
11. According to MTP Act, to terminate pregnancy, opinion of two doctors is
required whenthe pregnancy is
a) 10 weeks b) 6 weeks c) >12 weeks d) >20 weeks
12. Nihilistic ideas are seen in
a) Depression b) Obsessive compulsive disorder
c) Anxiety Disorder d) Schizophrenia
13. Registered medical practitioner protecting the unqualified person in practice is
called
a) Touting b) Covering
c) Dichotomy d) Laquitor
14. Magnon’s symptoms seen in
a) Cocaine b) Orgnophosphorus compound
c) Snake bite d) Alcohol
15. Yawning is a common feature of
a) Cocaine withdrawal b) Cannabis withdrawal
c) Opioid withdrawal d) Alcohol withdrawal
16. Drug of choice in mushroom poisoning.
a) Atropine b) Physostigmine
c) Adrenaline d)Carbachol

MBBS 2s* Professional Examination 2017 (Summer)

Question Paper Code - 17AM0000100201
Forensic Medicine
Time : 2.30 Hours Maximum Marks : 32
Instruction :
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Draw diagrams wherever necessary for Question no. 2 ,3 and 4.
3) Answers of Questions and Sub questions must be written strictly according to
the serial order of question paper, otherwise the question shall not be valued.
4) Do not write anything on the blank portion of the question paper. If written
anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair
means.
2. Long Answer Question (2x5=10)
a) How would you establish identity of a person by examination of skull ?
b) Describe the autopsy findings in a case with ante-mortem burns.
3. Write Short Notes (4x3=12)
a) What is documentary evidence ? Explain with examples.
b) State the McNaughten Rule.
c) How would you determine that newborn is a dead born ?
d) Define death in its current context.
4. Write in Brief (10x1=10)
2ndM.B.B.S. Book with Solved M.P.M.S.U. MCQs I I I rdEdition by Unique Publication
a) What is lucid interval ?
b) What are contrecoup injuries ?
c) State the objectives of medico-legal autopsy.
d) Temporary teeth; Number and types.
e) Railway pattern bruise-how is it produced?
f) Primer in the cartridge of a firearm.
g) Pond fracture: explain.
h) What is cardiac tamponade?
i) What is adultery?
j ) What is indecent assault?
&A f£ * d d d

_ ^ ^ ^.. .... jy ...• ....... .... |

i ,
r " . ' ~ .................................... ..... .................................................... .................................^ ................................. ................................................................................................................................................ " ........~ " " ] j ] r

1 . ism. ??? I :: V 'N

'' ................................. .. ................... ....... ■ ■ - .....; i Q .

.... ............... ...... ' ' tS te T * ' ' ■ ■...... .................... - &

©
® j

y j

O ;

3 ;

M
w577^
M