1.

Nurse would suspect an ectopic pregnancy if the client complained of: * 0/1

A. An adherent painful ovarian mass

B. lower abdominal cramping for a long period of time.

C. Leukorrhea and dysuria a few days after the first missed period

D. Sharp lower right or left abdominal pain radiating to the shoulder.

2. A client who has missed two menstrual cycle period comes to the *1/1
prenatal clinic complaining of vaginal bleeding and one-sided lower-
quadrant pain. The nurse suspects that this client has.

A. Abruptio placentae

B. An ectopic pregnancy

C. An incomplete abortion

D. A rupture of a graafian follicle.

3. Variable decelerations indicates: * 1/1

A. cord compression

B. placental insufficiency

C. fetal head compression

D. hypoxia
4. Late deceleration indicates: * 1/1

A. cord compression

B. placental insufficiency

C. fetal head compression

D. hypoxia

5. Early deceleration indicates: * 1/1

A. cord compression

B. placental insufficiency

C. fetal head compression

D. hypoxia

6. Blood therapeutic level of magnesium So4? * 0/1

A. 1.3 – 2.1 mEq/L

B. 0.5 – 1 meq/L

C. 1.3 – 5meq/L

D. 0.5 – 2 meq/L
 7. A client is on Magnesium So4 therapy for severe preeclampsia. The *0/1
nurse must be alert for the first sign of an excessive blood magnesium
level which is:

A. Disturbance in sensorium

B. Increased in respiratory rate

C. Development of cardiac dysrythmia

D. Disappearance of the knee-jerk reflex

Situation: Diane is arrived to the labor and delivery area in labor. She complains of
regular uterine contractions with 8 to 10 minutes interval and states that her bag
of water has been ruptured. The fetus is in a left occiput anterior position (LOA).

8. The nurse’s first action should be to: * 1/1

A. check the FHR

B. start IV fluid as ordered

C. call the physician

D. place to lying position

9. Which procedure would best determine if Diane’s BOW has ruptured * 1/1

A. A complete blood count

B. Nitrazine Paper test

C. Urinalysis

D. Vaginal examination

10. Initial assessment done and revealed the following FH = 30cm, FHT *0/1
145bpm, BP =110/70 mmHg. IE done by Dr. Mar and revealed 4 cm
cervical dilatation. Diane asked for Demerol. The nurse’s best response is:

A. “Try to wait until you really need it.”

B. “It is too early in your labor; medication will retard progress of uterine
contraction.”

C. “I know you are in pain. I’ll just prepare the medication.”

D. “Perhaps a change in position will make you more comfortable.”

11. The pregnant woman ask “When does the heart and the brain of the *0/1
baby form”. The best response made by the nurse is:

A. First month

B. Second month

C. Third month

D. Fourth month
12. When the client is only 15 years old, the nurse caring for such client *0/1
during labor process should assess the client for signs of:

A. uterine atony

B. cephalo-pelvic disproportion

C. rapid second stage of labor

D. early deceleration pattern

13. Due to hyperventilation ,the nurse should assess the client for signs *1/1
and symptom of:

A. metabolic alkalosis

B. metabolic acidosis

C. respiratory acidosis

D. respiratory alkalosis

14. The client experiences severe back pain the nurse should instruct that *1/1
her severe back pain is cause by what fetal position?

A. oblique

B. transverse

C. posterior

D. anterior
15. The client calls out the nurse, ”the baby is coming” the nurse first *1/1
action is:

A. inspect the perineum

B. open the emergency delivery box

C. auscultate the heart sound

D. contact the birth attendant

16. To help the client remain calm and cooperative during imminent *1/1
delivery, the nurse should tell the client:

A. ”you are right the baby is coming”

B. ”do you want to help me get you through this”

C. “your doctor will see you soon”

D. ”ill explain what’s happening”

17. The nurse is caring to woman in active labor. Which information is *0/1
most important to assess in order to prevent the complication during
labor and delivery.

A. family history of lung illness

B. food allergies

C. number of cigarette smoked per month

D. last food intake

18. When the bag of water rupture’s, the nurse should expect to see? * 1/1

A. a large amount of bloody fluid

B. a moderate amount of clear to straw-colored

C. a small segment of umbilical cord

D. greenish fliud

19. When bag of water rupture, the nurse first action is? * 0/1

A. notify the physician

B. measure the amount of fluid

C. monitor fetal heart tone

D. perform vaginal examination

20. The client has midline episiotomy. The purpose of the episiotomy is? * 1/1

A. allow forcep to be applied

B. enlarge the vaginal opening

C. c, eliminate possibility of laceration

D. eliminate the need for CS

21. Baby boy Ross is under photo therapy, the nurse should; * 1/1

A. limit fluid intake

B. cover infant’s eye

C. keep the baby covered with cloth

D. The light is 25 inches away from the baby

22. During the oedipal stage of growth and development, the child: * 1/1

A. Loves and hates both parents

B. Loves the parent of the same sex and the parent of the opposite sex

C. Loves the parent of the opposite sex and hates the parent of the same sex

D. Loves the parent of the same sex and hates the parent of the opposite sex

23. When teaching a parents’ class, the nurse explains that medication *1/1
and household cleaning products should be kept out of the reach of the
pre – school because:

A. They have high level of curiosity

B. Their sense of taste is developing at this time

C. Their appetite is greater to support rapid growth

D. They rebel against parental authority during this phase

24. A 5-year-old boy believes that there are “bogeymen and monsters” in *0/1
his bedroom at night. What advice can the nurse give to Joey’s parent to
help Joey cope with his fears?

A. Let Joey sleep with his parent

B. Tell Joey that bogeymen and monster do not exist

C. Keep a night-light on in Joey’s room

D. Tell Joey that no one else sees any monsters, so he must not see them either

25. A 6 year old is brought to the pediatric clinic for a routine visit. When *0/1
assessing the child’s relationship with other children, the nurse would
expect to observe:

A. Solitary play

B. Parallel play

C. Initiative play

D. Cooperative play
26. The mother of a 5 year old asks, “When do the deciduous teeth *1/1
usually begin to fall out?” Which of the following is the nurse’s most
appropriate response?

A. Age 5 years

B. Age 6 years

C. Age 7 years

D. Age 8 years

27. Which of the following statements about causes of accidents during *0/1
the school-age years is inaccurate?

A. School-age children are more active and become more adventurous and daring

B. School-age children are more susceptible to hazards in the home environment

C. School-age children are the age group commonly aspirated

D. School-age children are less subject to parental control over their behavior

28. Practices common to school-age children include all the following *0/1
except:

A. Talking in code

B. Starting collections

C. Telling jokes

D. Participating mostly in activities with both boys and girls

29. An adolescent client has just had surgery and has a dressing on the *1/1
abdomen. Which of the following questions would the nurse expect the
client to ask initially?

A. “Did the surgery go okay?”

B. “Will I have a large scar?”

C. “What complication can I expect?”

D. “When can I return to school?”

30. On average, the adolescent growth spurt begins * 1/1

A. Earlier for boys than for girls

B. Earlier for girls than for boys

C. At approximately the same time for both sexes

D. Between the seventh and eighth years

31. A child with leukemia complains of fatigue. The nurse assesses the *1/1
skin color as pallor. Considering the child’s diagnosis, which of the
following data explain these findings?

A. Cerebrospinal fluid with elevated white cells

B. Hemoglobin of 8 g/dl

C. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3

D. Sodium level of 130

32. A 7-year-old child complains of shakiness, hunger, and headache. *1/1
Based on these findings, the school nurse should suspect the student has
which of these conditions?

A. Diabetic ketoacidosis

B. Hyperglycemia

C. Hypoglycemia

D. Polyphagia

33. A mother of newly diagnosed diabetic is receiving nutritional *0/1

counseling. Which of these statements by the mother indicates the need
for further teaching?

A. “Calories and nutrient proportions have to be consistent on a daily basis.”

B. “Chocolate milk with meals is accepted.”

C. “Meals and snacks must be eaten at the same time each day.”

D. “Cola may be exchanged for fruit juice.”

34. The mother of a newly diagnosed diabetic asks why insulin needs to *0/1
be injected. The nurse responds that the child cannot take oral insulin
because it

A. Is not tolerated well in oral form by children

B. Is not available in pill form

C. Is destroyed by digestive enzymes

D. Will cause gastric ulcers

35. A 9-year-old girl has been brought to the emergency department *1/1
following an automobile accident and is diagnosed with femoral fracture.
Which of these goals should receive priority in the child’s care?

A. Adequate nutrition will be maintained

B. Infection will be prevented

C. Disturbance in body image will be reduced

D. Pain will be reduced

36. Which of these assessments of a child with a cast for correction of a *1/1
clubfoot needs to be reported?

A. Cast has not dried in 2 hours

B. Color change and cool skin proximal

C. Moves toes and capillary refill is <3 seconds

D. Rough edges on the cast

37. A child diagnosed with rheumatic fever is prescribed aspirin. The *1/1
purpose of this medication is to

A. Decrease fever

B. Prevent headache

C. Promote relaxation

D. Reduce inflammation

38. Following surgical correction for Tetralogy of Fallot, which of these *0/1
goals should receive priority in a child’s care?

A. Adequate sleep and rest periods provided

B. Adequate nutrition

C. Pain management

D. Prevention of vascular complications

39. An infant is experiencing uncontrolled vomiting. Based on this finding, *1/1

the nurse would expect which acid- base imbalance?

A. Metabolic alkalosis

B. Metabolic acidosis

C. Respiratory alkalosis

D. Respiratory acidosis
40. When performing a postoperative assessment on an infant with *1/1
surgical correction of a myelomeningocele, the nurse observes bulging
anterior fontanel and increased head size. Based on these findings the
nurse knows the infant is at imminent risk for developing.

A. Encephalitis

B. Hydrocephalus

C. Meningitis

D. Fluid overload

41. A child has diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Which statement *1/1
about appropriate dietary choices should be given to the parents?

A. The child should drink adequate amounts of water and juices

B. Carbonated and caffeinated beverages are recommended

C. Citrus juices are highly effective in eliminating urinary tract infection

D. No special recommendations should be made

42. When performing a physical assessment on an infant with *1/1
hypospadias with chordee, the nurse should expect which of the
following findings?

A. Bladder exposed with visible urethral opening

B. Bulge in the scrotal sac

C. Urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis

D. Urethra opens on the ventral side of the penis

43. The following are components of a clinical question, except: * 1/1

A. Intervention

B. Outcome

C. Comparison

D. Relationship

44. The following are elements of a research question, aside from: * 1/1

A. Independent and dependent variables

B. Relationship

C. Population

D. Outcome
45. In the research question, “Among senior citizens in Manila, is the free *1/1
cinema screening associated with their happiness levels?”, the “free
cinema screening” is referred to as:

A. Population

B. Dependent variable

C. Independent variable

D. Intervention

46. In the clinical question, “Is chlorhexidine solution more effective than *1/1
povidone-iodine solution in reducing bacterial growth among pediatric
patients?”, which is the intervention?

A. Povidone-iodine solution

B. Chlorhexidine solution

C. Reducing bacterial growth

D. Pediatric patients

47. In the above clinical question, which is considered as the *1/1

comparison?

A. Povidone-iodine solution

B. Chlorhexidine solution

C. Reducing bacterial growth

D. Pediatric patients
48. The following are characteristics of a qualitative design, except: * 1/1

A. Naturalistic

B. Flexible

C. Controlled

D. Narrative data

49. The title of a study is, “Discovering meaning in the experiences of *1/1
Metro Manila college students who moved from provinces.” The design of
the study is most likely:

A. Correlational

B. Randomized controlled trial

C. Ethnography

D. Phenomenology

50. A student nurse arrived at a sitio of Igorot people with the purpose of *1/1
observing and studying their culture and lifeways. The design of the study
is most likely:

A. Ethnography

B. Case Study

C. Participatory action research

D. Phenomenology
51. A group of community health nurses were gathered by the municipal *1/1
health officer to conduct community diagnosis and implement programs
based on the results of their assessment. Which of the following research
designs was used?

A. Descriptive

B. Case Study

C. Participatory action research

D. Phenomenology

52. Which of the following is a characteristic of a quantitative study? * 0/1

A. Empirical

B. Firm/rigid research proposal

C. Analysis of transcripts of interviews

D. Understands human experience

53. Nurse Jess knows that the hallmark of a quasi-experimental design is *0/1
the:

A. Manipulation of independent variable

B. Presence of control group

C. Use of a treatment

D. Absence of randomization
54. The following statements are true about null hypothesis except: * 1/1

A. It is formulated at the beginning of a study.

B. Null hypothesis is denoted by “H0.”

C. It may start with “There is no significant difference...”

D. Null hypothesis predicts a possible relationship between two variables.

55. Which among the following hypotheses is considered non- *0/1

directional?

A. Longer duration of playing video games increases the risk of developing carpal
tunnel syndrome.

B. There is a significant difference between white rice and brown rice in

decreasing the risk for diabetes mellitus.

C. Exclusive breastfeeding is associated with the rate of development of infants.

D. There is no significant difference between staying up late and waking up early to

study in increasing exam scores.

56. A prospective/cohort design involves the use of multiple data *0/1

collection points to gather complete data about the subjects. Multiple
data collection is called:

A. Longitudinal

B. Survey

C. Cross-sectional

D. Case-control
57. The results of a prospective study is considered as more reliable than *1/1
those of a retrospective study because:

A. Prospective study is cheaper and requires less resources.

B. The status of subjects can be followed and monitored.

C. There is lesser recall bias in a retrospective study.

D. Prospective study is easier to conduct than retrospective.

58. In many cases, a non-experimental design is more applicable than an *1/1

experimental design because:

A. There are independent variables that cannot be manipulated.

B. A non-experimental design is more affordable.

C. Safety of subjects are considered second priority.

D. An experimental design is meticulous and requires a huge amount of time.

59. This is the characteristic of a study in which conclusions and results *0/1
remain the same even after conducting it in different settings:

A. Internal validity

B. Reliability

C. External validity

D. Objectivity
60. A researcher is observing the performance of staff nurses in wound *1/1
dressing. Because the nurses know that they are being observed, the
researcher must be aware that this might cause a bias called:

A. Selection bias

B. Rosenthal effect

C. Hawthorne effect

D. Personal bias

61. Which of the following is considered as an in vitro biophysiologic *1/1

measure?

A. Blood pressure

B. Pulse oximetry

C. Pupillary response

D. Urine osmolarity

62. The following are elements of a validly obtained informed consent *0/1
form, except:

A. Voluntary

B. Coherence of subject

C. Signature of parent

D. Legal age of subject

63. The principle that refers to treating all research participants fairly and *1/1
subjecting them to equal risks and benefits:

A. Autonomy

B. Justice

C. Self-determination

D. Fidelity

64. A patient status post-myocardial infarction must be given what *0/1

medication to prevent cardiac complications?

A. Atropine (Isopto Atropine)

B. Psyllium husks (Metamucil)

C. Loperamide (Imodium)

D. Milk of Magnesia

65. A 30-year old female underwent right modified radical mastectomy. *1/1
How should the nurse position the patient’s arm?

A. Right arm abducted and internally rotated.

B. Left arm is adducted and placed over the abdomen

C. Right arm is elevated using stacked towels.

D. A pillow is placed under right arm.

 66. A client needs surgery to relieve an intestinal obstruction. The nurse *0/1
receives the following set of orders for the client. Which of the following
orders should the nurse question before performing?

A. Tap water enemas until clear.

B. Out of bed as tolerated.

C. Neomycin sulfate 1 g P.O. every 4 hours.

D. Betadine scrub to abdomen.

67. Which among the following findings will the nurse expect to find in the *1/1
patient with osteomyelitis at the right tibia?

A. Cold to touch

B. Loss of hair

C. Decreased pulse grade

D. Pain that intensifies with movement

Situation –Patients with metabolic problems were admitted in the medical ward of
Hospital A. The following questions apply.
68. The nurse should include which instruction when teaching a client *1/1
about insulin administration?

A. Administer insulin after the first meal of the day.

B. Administer insulin at 45-degree angle into the deltoid muscle.

C. Shake the vial of insulin vigorously before withdrawing the medication.

D. Draw up regular insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe.

69. A client admitted with a serum glucose level of 618 mg/dL. The client *1/1
is awake and oriented, with hot, dry skin, temperature of 100.6 F (38.1C),
pulse rate of 116 bpm, and BP of 108/70 mmHg. Based on these findings,
which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?

A. Fluid volume deficit related to osmotic diuresis.

B. Decreased cardiac output related to increased heart rate.

C. Altered nutrition less than body requirements related to insulin deficiency.

D. Ineffective thermoregulation related to dehydration.

70. A client has just been diagnosed with Type 1 (insulindependent) *1/1
diabetes mellitus. Which client comment correlates best with this
disorder?

A. “I was thirsty all the time. I just couldn’t get enough drink.”

B. “It seemed like I had no appetite. I had to make myself eat.”

C. “I had a cough and cold that just didn’t seem to go away.”

D. “I notice I had pain when I went to the bathroom.”

71. The nurse should expect a client with hypothyroidism to report which *0/1
of these health concerns?

A. Increased appetite and weight loss

B. Puffiness of the face and hands

C. Nervousness and tremors

D. Increasing exophthalmos

72. A client with hypothyroidism is receiving levothyroxine sodium *0/1

(Synthroid) 50 mcg po daily. Which of these findings should the nurse
recognize as an adverse drug effect?

A. Dysuria

B. Leg cramps

C. Tachycardia

D. Blurred vision
73. A client’s arterial blood gas values are pH: 7.12; paCO2: 40 mmHg; *0/1
HCO3: 15 mEq/L. Which disorder does these ABG values suggest?

A. Respiratory alkalosis

B. Respiratory acidosis

C. Metabolic alkalosis

D. Metabolic acidosis

74. A client is being returned to the room after a subtotal thyroidectomy. *1/1
Which piece of equipment is most important for the nurse to bring to this
client’s bedside?

A. Indwelling urinary catheter kit

B. Tracheostomy set

C. Cardiac monitor

D. Humidifier

75. The nurse should expect to administer which of these drugs to a *1/1
client with diabetes insipidus?

A. Vasopressin

B. Furosemide

C. Regular insulin

D. 10% dextrose
 76. Which outcome indicates that treatment has been effective for a *1/1
client with diabetes insipidus?

A. Fluid intake of less than 2, 500 mL in 24 hours

B. Urine output of more than 200 cc/hour

C. Blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg

D. Pulse rate of 126 bpm

77. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a client with *1/1
Addison’s disease?

A. Ineffective stress coping

B. Fluid volume excess

C. Impaired bladder pattern: Urinary retention

D. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance related to Hypokalemia

Situation – A 60-year old developed shock after a severe myocardial infarction.

He now has acute renal failure.
78. The client’s family asks the nurse why the client developed acute *1/1
prerenal failure. The nurse should base the respond on the knowledge
that there is:

A. An obstruction of flow from the kidneys

B. A surge of the blood flow into the kidneys

C. A prolonged episode of inadequate cardiac output

D. Histologic damage to the kidney resulting in acute tubular necrosis

79. The most significant sign of acute renal failure is: * 1/1

A. Decreased urine output

B. Decreased filtration rate

C. Increased urine specific gravity

D. Elevated BUN and Crea

80. The client’s blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is elevated. This most *1/1
likely resulted from:

A. Hemolysis of RBC

B. Reduced renal blood flow

C. Below normal metabolic rate

D. Destruction of kidney cell

81. The client’s serum potassium is elevated, and the nurse administers *0/1
sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The drug is administered
because of its ability to:

A. Exchange sodium and potassium ions in the colon

B. Increase potassium excretion from the colon

C. Increase calcium absorption in the colon

D. Exchange potassium into the colon and sodium to the feces

82. If the client’s potassium level continues to rise, the nurse should be *0/1
prepared for which of the following emergency situations:

A. Myocardial damage

B. Cardiac atrophy

C. Ventricular hyperstimulation

D. Circulatory collapse

83. A high carbohydrate, low protein diet is prescribed for the client. The *1/1
rationale for high carbohydrate diet is that carbohydrates will:

A. Act as a diuretic

B. Help maintain urine acidity

C. Prevent the development of ketosis

D. To prevent accumulation of toxic substances

84. The client has an external cannula inserted in her forearm for *1/1
hemodialysis. Which of the following measures should the nurse avoid
when caring for the client?

A. Using the unaffected arm for blood pressure measurements.

B. Performing venipuncture on the arm with fistula.

C. Auscultating the cannula for bruits every 4 hours.

D. Checking of bleeding at the needle insertion site.

85. Nurse Ces is assessing a client with epididymitis. The nurse *0/1
anticipates which findings on physical examination?

A. Fever, diarrhea, groin pain, and ecchymosis

B. Nausea, vomiting, scrotal edema, and ecchymosis

C. Fever, nausea, vomiting, and painful scrotal edema

D. Diarrhea, groin pain, testicular torsion, and scrotal edema

86. A hemodialysis client with a left arm fistula is at risk for arterial steal *1/1
syndrome. Nurse Ces should assess the client for which manifestations
of this complication?

A. Warmth, redness, and pain in the left hand

B. Aching pain, pallor, and edema of the left arm

C. Edema and reddish discoloration of the left arm

D. Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand

87. A client who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)- positive has had *1/1
a tuberculin skin test (TST). Nurse Ces notes a 7-mm area of induration
at the site of the skin test and interprets the result as which finding?

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Inconclusive

D. Need for repeat testing

88. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has *1/1

histoplasmosis. Nurse Ces should assess the client for which expected
finding?

A. Dyspnea

B. Headache

C. Weight gain

D. Hypothermia
89. Nurse Ces is giving discharge instructions to a client with pulmonary *1/1
sarcoidosis. Nurse Ces concludes that the client understands the
information if the client indicates to report which sign of exacerbation?

A. Fever

B. Fatigue

C. Weight loss

D. Shortness of breath

90. Nurse Ces is conducting an educational session with community *0/1

members regarding the symptoms associated with tuberculosis. Which is
one of the first manifestations associated with tuberculosis?

A. Dyspnea

B. Chest pain

C. A bloody, productive cough

D. A cough with the expectoration of mucoid sputum

91. The low-pressure alarm sounds on a ventilator. Nurse Ces assesses *1/1
the client and then attempts to determine the cause of the alarm. If
unsuccessful in determining the cause of the alarm, Nurse Ces should
take what initial action?

A. Administer oxygen

B. Check the client’s vital signs

C. Ventilate the client manually

D. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

92.A client has undergone esophagogastroduodenoscopy. Nurse Ces *1/1

should place highest priority on which item as part of the client’s care
plan?

A. Monitoring the temperature

B. Monitoring complaints of heartburn

C. Giving warm gargles for a sore throat

D. Assessing for the return of the gag reflex

93. Nurse Ces has taught the client about an upcoming endoscopic *1/1
retrograde cholangiopancreatography procedure. Nurse Ces determines
that the client needs further information if the client makes which
statement?

A. “I know I must sign the consent form.”

B. “I hope the throat spray keeps me from gagging.”

C. “I’m glad I don’t have to lie still for this procedure.”

D. “I’m glad some IV medication will be given to relax me.”

94. The health care provider has determined that a client with hepatitis *1/1
has contracted the infection from contaminated food. Nurse Ces
understands that this client is most likely experiencing what type of
hepatitis?

A. Hepatitis A

B. Hepatitis B

C. Hepatitis C

D. Hepatitis D
 95. Nurse Ces is caring for a client with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. *1/1
Nurse Ces monitors the client knowing that this client is at risk of which
vitamin deficiency?

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B12

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin E

Situation – Nurse Otin is caring for several pediatric clients in a pediatric ward in
Hospital X. The following questions apply.

96. At 1 month, what health teaching must be communicated to parents *0/1

to promote optimum safety?

A. Remove small objects from floor.

B. Remove poisonous substances from low areas.

C. Provide head gear for temper tantrums.

D. Raise side rails high.

97. The parents are planning to give their child fresh oregano leaves for *0/1
cough. How will the nurse respond best?

A. Please wait. I will just get a prescription for that.

B. It is not prescribed by the physician.

C. I will allow as long as it does not harm the child.

D. It is better to give child lagundi syrup than fresh oregano leaves.

98. Which is the very first deciduous tooth that erupts during a child’s life? * 1/1

A. Lower lateral incisor

B. Lower central incisor

C. Upper lateral incisor

D. Upper central incisor

99. An 8-year old child is sick and is recovering at home. Which of the *1/1
following is helpful for faster recovery of the child?

A. Call the classmates to visit him at home.

B. Encourage him to watch television if he wants to.

C. Ask him his interests.

D. The child stays with the parents.

 100. A 6-year old asked is mother, “When I die, how many days will you *1/1
wait until you wake me up?” What does the nurse infer from the child’s
question?

A. Child’s anxiety levels manifest by asking about his own death.

B. The child’s concept of death is still not completely developed.

C. He has a fear of body mutilation.

D. He needs the presence of his parents at this developmental stage.

101. What is the appropriate response to a mother who is anxious to have *1/1
her child undergo pyloromyotomy?

A. You cannot do anything about it.

B. How do you feel about the procedure?

C. The case is an emergency. If he does not undergo surgery he will die.

D. Why do you feel that way? Please tell me.

Situation – Nurses should be knowledgeable regarding the laws and policies that
surround the nursing practice.
 102. Which of the following is an example of unintentional tort? * 1/1

A. The nurse did not come to the patient’s room upon turning of the call light.
Patient suffered from myocardial infarction.

B. Two nurses are talking about a patient in a cafeteria when another nurse heard
the conversation.

C. The nurse threatens the child that he will not be fed if he will not take the
medicine.

D. A nurse checks on the health records of a patient she is not assigned to.

103. The nurse entered a patient’s room to perform blood extraction. The *0/1
patient refused the attempt, but the nurse continued to insert the
intravenous catheter. The nurse has committed what tort?

A. Assault

B. Battery

C. False imprisonment

D. Invasion of privacy

Situation – Nurse Poy is being considered as a nursing supervisor in one of their

hospital departments. He must be equipped with principles of leadership and
management before being committed to his position.
104. Which of the following conflict resolution strategies lead to a lose- *1/1
lose situation?

A. Accommodating

B. Compromise

C. Collaborating

D. Competing

105. Which of the following should be delegated to an unlicensed nursing *1/1

assistant?

A. Discuss about stroke.

B. Teaching on physical rehabilitation for stroke.

C. Administration of mannitol.

D. Turning every 2 hours.

106. The charge nurse is managing a group of staff nurses for the night *1/1
shift. Which of the following actions by the charge nurse demonstrates
the most important communication skill?

A. Shares jokes with the staff nurses during break time.

B. Being assertive and firm with her requests.

C. Assertive and directive only during emergency events in the ward.

D. Listening attentively to what the nursing staff verbalize.

 107. A nurse from nursing service department is evaluating the *1/1
performance of staff in a neurosciences unit. Which of the following
must be done for proper evaluation?

A. Observe the nurses from afar to avoid Hawthorne effect

B. Review the records of recently discharged patients.

C. Interview patients and their significant others’ randomly.

D. Use of measurable standards

108. Among which of the following is not a sophisticated technology? * 0/1

A. Magnetic resonance imaging

B. Pulse oximeter

C. Chest X-ray

D. Vein finder

Situation – A 21 year old male is admitted to the burn unit of x hospital. He

sustained burns on the chest, abdomen, right arm and right leg.
109. The nurse assigned to his care anticipates that the client would be *0/1
particularly susceptible to which of the following fluid and electrolyte
imbalances during the emergent phase of burn case.

A. Metabolic acidosis

B. Hypernatremia

C. Hypokalemia

D. Metabolic alkalosis

110. The nurse assesses the client for fluid shifting. During the emergent *1/1
phase of a burn injury, shifts occur due to fluid moving from
the_______________.

A. Extracellular to intracellular space.

B. Intracellular to extracellular space.

C. Vascular to interstitial space.

D. Interstitial to vascular space

111. The nurse understands that the fluid shift results from an increase in *1/1
the_____________.:

A. Total volume of intravascular plasma

B. Total volume of circulating whole blood

C. Permeability of capillary walls

D. Permeability of the kidney tubules

 112. The client receives fluid resuscitation therapy. The nurse adjusts the *1/1
infusion rate by evaluating the client’s __________:

A. Hourly urine output

B. Daily body weight

C. Hourly urine specific gravity

D. Hourly body temperature

113. The client receives total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse *0/1
understands this therapy will help the client__________.

A. Provide adequate nutrition

B. Ensure adequate caloric and protein intake

C. Correct water and electrolyte imbalances

D. Allow the gastrointestinal tract to rest

Situation - The nurse cares for a female client who is terminally ill and is
experiencing pain.
114. The nurse prepares a care plan for the client. The overall goal for the *1/1
client is ________. The client will:

A. Achieve control of pain and discomfort.

B. Receive adequate cerebral oxygenation and perfusion.

C. Be free from infection.

D. Receive life sustaining food and liquids.

115. The nurse is aware of the document that expresses a client’s wish *0/1
for life sustaining treatment in the event of terminal illness or permanent
unconsciousness. This document is the ______;

A. No-code order

B. Durable power of attorney

C. Living will

D. Last will and testament

116. The client nears death and requests that no medication be given that *0/1
would cause a loss of consciousness, including pain medication. The
nurse would promote the best end-of-life care for the client by which of
the following?

A. Discuss the request of the dying client with family members and respect their
wishes.

B. Comfort is the highest priority in this situation so give medications as ordered.

C. Respect the client’s wishes and withhold pain medications and other
medications ordered.

D. Be compassionate and give half of dose of the medication ordered.

117. An ultrasound is performed on a client at termgestation who is *1/1

experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. The results of the ultrasound
indicate that abruptio placentae is present. On the basis of these findings,
the nurse should prepare the client for which anticipated prescription?

A. Delivery of the fetus

B. Strict monitoring of intake and output

C. Complete bed rest for the remainder of the pregnancy

D. The need for weekly monitoring of coagulation studies until the time of delivery
118. The nurse is monitoring a client who is in the active stage of labor. *1/1
The client has been experiencing contractions that are short, irregular,
and weak. The nurse documents that the client is experiencing which
type of labor dystocia?

A. Hypotonic

B. Precipitous

C. Hypertonic

D. Preterm labor

119. The nurse in a labor room is preparing to care for a client with *0/1
hypertonic uterine contractions. The nurse is told that the client is
experiencing uncoordinated contractions that are erratic in their
frequency, duration, and intensity. What is the priority nursing action?

A. Provide pain relief measures.

B. Prepare the client for an amniotomy.

C. Promote ambulation every 30 minutes.

D. Monitor the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion closely.

120. The nurse has developed a plan of care for a client experiencing *1/1
dystocia and includes several nursing actions in the plan of care. Which is
the priority nursing action?

A. Providing comfort measures

B. Monitoring the fetal heart rate

C. Changing the client’s position frequently

D. Keeping the significant other informed of the progress of labor

121. The nurse in the postpartum unit is caring for a client who has just *1/1
delivered a newborn infant following a pregnancy with a placenta previa.
The nurse reviews the plan of care and prepares to monitor the client for
which risk associated with placenta previa?

A. Infection

B. Hemorrhage

C. Chronic hypertension

D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

122. The nurse in a labor room is performing a vaginal assessment on a *1/1
pregnant client in labor. The nurse notes the presence of the umbilical
cord protruding from the vagina. What is the first nursing action with this
finding?

A. Gently push the cord into the vagina.

B. Place the client in Trendelenburg’s position.

C. Find the closest telephone and page the health care provider stat.

D. Call the delivery room to notify the staff that the client will be transported
immediately.

123. The nurse is caring for a client in labor. Which assessment finding *1/1
indicates to the nurse that the client is beginning the second stage of
labor?

A. The contractions are regular.

B. The membranes have ruptured.

C. The cervix is dilated completely.

D. The client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid.

124. The nurse in the labor room is caring for a client in the active stage *0/1
of the first phase of labor. The nurse is assessing the fetal patterns and
notes a late deceleration on the monitor strip. What is the most
appropriate nursing action?

A. Administer oxygen via face mask.

B. Place the mother in a supine position.

C. Increase the rate of the oxytocin (Pitocin) intravenous infusion.

D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the fetal patterns.

125. The nurse is reviewing the record of a client in the labor room and *1/1
notes that the health care provider has documented that the fetal
presenting part is at the -1 station. This documented finding indicates
that the fetal presenting part is located at which area?

A. 1 inch below the coccyx

B. 1 inch below the iliac crest

C. 1 cm above the ischial spine

D. 1 fingerbreadth below the symphysis pubis

126. A client arrives at a birthing center in active labor. Her membranes *1/1
are still intact, and the health care provider prepares to perform an
amniotomy. What will the nurse relay to the client as the most likely
outcome of the amniotomy?

A. Less pressure on her cervix

B. Decreased number of contractions

C. Increased efficiency of contractions

D. The need for increased maternal blood pressure monitoring

127. The nurse is monitoring a client in labor. The nurse suspects *1/1
umbilical cord compression if which is noted on the external monitoring
tracing during a contraction?

A. Variability

B. Accelerations

C. Early decelerations

D. Variable decelerations
128. Laboratory studies are performed for a child suspected of having *0/1
iron deficiency anemia. The nurse reviews the laboratory results, knowing
that which of the following:

A. elevated hemoglobin level

B. decreased reticulocyte count

C. elevated RBC count

D. RBCs that are microcytic and hypochromic

129. When comparing the hematocrit levels of a post-op client, the nurse *1/1
notes that the hematocrit decreased from 36% to 34% on the third day
even though the RBC and hemoglobin values remained stable at 4.5
million and 11.9 g/dL, respectively. Which nursing intervention is most
appropriate?

A. check dressing for possible frank bleeding

B. call the physician

C. continue to monitor Vital Signs

D. start oxygen at 2lpm

130. A clinic nurse instructs the mother of a child with sickle cell disease *0/1
about the precipitating factors related to pain crisis. Which of the
following, if identified by the mother as a precipitating factor, indicates
the need for further instructions?

A. infection

B. trauma

C. fluid overload

D. stress

131. The primary purpose of the Schilling test is to measure the client’s *1/1
ability to:

A. store vit b12

B. digest vit b12

C. absorb vit b12

D. produce vit b12

132. The nurse would instruct the client to eat which of the following *1/1
foods to obtain the best supply of vitamin B12?

A. whole grains

B. green leafy vegetables

C. meats and dairy

D. broccoli
133. A client with iron deficiency anemia is scheduled for discharge. *0/1
Which instruction about prescribed ferrous gluconate therapy should the
nurse include in the teaching plan?

A. take medication with antacid

B. take medication with glass of milk

C. take the medication with cereal

D. take medication on an empty stomach

134. A client with anemia may be tired due to a tissue deficiency of which *1/1
of the following substances?

A. carbon dioxide

B. factor VIII

C. oxygen

D. T cell antibodies

135. The nurse is teaching a client with polycythemia vera about potential *1/1
complications from this disease. Which manifestations would the nurse
include in the client’s teaching plan, except?

A. dizziness

B. splenomegaly

C. headache

D. bronze pigmentation of skin

136. The nurse devises a teaching plan for the patient with aplastic *1/1
anemia. Which of the following is the most important concept to teach
for health maintenance?

A. Eat animal protein and dark leafy vegetables each day

B. Avoid exposure to others with acute infection

C. Practice yoga to decrease stress and anxiety

D. Get 8 hours of sleep at night

137. When a client is diagnosed with aplastic anemia, the nurse monitors *1/1
for changes in which of the following physiological functions?

A. Bleeding tendencies

B. Intake and output

C. Peripheral sensation

D. Bowel function

138. Which of the following disorders results from a deficiency of factor *1/1
VIII?

A. Sickle cell disease

B. Christmas disease

C. Hemophilia A

D. Hemophilia B
139. The nurse implements which of the following for the client who is *1/1
starting a Schilling test?

A. Administering methylcellulose (Citrucel)

B. Starting a 24- to 48 hour urine collection

C. Maintaining NPO status

D. Starting a 72 hour stool specimen collection

140. The nurse explains to the parents of a 1-year-old child admitted to *1/1
the hospital in a sickle cell crisis that the local tissue damage the child
has on admission is caused by which of the following?

A. Autoimmune reaction complicated by hypoxia

B. Lack of oxygen in the red blood cells

C. Obstruction to circulation

D. Elevated serum bilirubin concentration.

141. Which of the following diagnostic findings are most likely for a client *1/1
with aplastic anemia?

A. Decreased production of T-helper cells

B. Decreased levels of wbc, rbc, and platelets

C. Increased levels of WBCs, RBCs, and platelets

D. Reed-Sternberg cells and lymph node enlargement

142. Which of the following would the nurse identify as the priority *0/1
nursing diagnosis during a toddler’s vasoocclusive sickle cell crisis?

A. Ineffective coping related to the presence of a lifethreatening disease

B. Decreased cardiac output related to abnormal hemoglobin formation

C. Pain related to tissue anoxia

D. Excess fluid volume related to infection

143. A client is to receive epoetin (Epogen) injections. What laboratory *1/1

value should the nurse assess before giving the injection?

A. Hematocrit

B. Partial thromboplastin time

C. Hemoglobin concentration

D. Prothrombin time

144. Which of the following assessments in a child with hemophilia *0/1

would lead the nurse to suspect early hemarthrosis?

A. Child’s reluctance to move a body part

B. Cool, pale, clammy extremity

C. Ecchymosis formation around a joint

D. Instability of a long bone in passive movement

145. A client states that she is afraid of receiving vitamin B12 injections *1/1
because of the potential toxic reactions. What is the nurse’s best
response to relieve these fears?

A. “Vitamin B12 will cause ringing in the eats before a toxic level is reached.”

B. “Vitamin B12 may cause a very mild skin rash initially.”

C. “Vitamin B12 may cause mild nausea but nothing toxic.”

D. “Vitamin B12 is generally free of toxicity because it is water soluble.”

146. Which of the following blood components is decreased in anemia? * 1/1

A. Erythrocytes

B. Granulocytes

C. Leukocytes

D. Platelets

147. The physician has ordered several laboratory tests to help diagnose *0/1
an infant’s bleeding disorder. Which of the following tests, if abnormal,
would the nurse interpret as most likely to indicate hemophilia?

A. Bleeding time

B. Tourniquet test

C. Clot retraction test

D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

 148. The mothers asks the nurse why her child’s hemoglobin was normal *0/1
at birth but now the child has S hemoglobin. Which of the following
responses by the nurse is most appropriate?

A. “The placenta bars passage of the hemoglobin S from the mother to the fetus.”

B. “The red bone marrow does not begin to produce hemoglobin S until several
months after birth.”

C. “Antibodies transmitted from you to the fetus provide the newborn with
temporary immunity.”

D. “The newborn has a high concentration of fetal hemoglobin in the blood for
some time after birth.”

Situation - As a part of professional development, Nurse Patch, a psychiatric

nurse, attends an enhancement program on Crisis Intervention. On the first day of
the program, a pre-test was administered to the participants to gauge their
knowledge on Crisis Intervention.

149. A crisis that is an acute response to an externalsituational stressor *0/1

is called:

A. Dispositional

B. Traumatic

C. Maturational

D. Transitional
150. A psychiatric patient exhibits symptoms of a person on the early *1/1
state of crisis. A competent nurse knows that his/her most appropriate
intervention is to:

A. Have the client evaluate the situation

B. Encourage the client to begin development of insight

C. Encourage client to verbalize feelings related to crisis

D. Require client to take part in establishing goals

151. The psychiatric nurse understands the concept of crisis. She knows *0/1
that the following statements are true of crisis excluding:

A. Specific identifiable events lead to crisis

B. All individuals experience a crisis

C. Crisis is acute and is resolved within a short period of time

D. Crisis halts the emotional development of a person

152. In providing crisis intervention, a psychiatric nurse knows that the *1/1
main goal is to:

A. Ensure the patient's safety

B. Eliminate the patient's stressor

C. Return the person to the root of the crisis to identify the cause

D. Make the person realize his/her mistake

Situation: The community health nurse plays an important role in the community
as the primary agent of information and dissemination on certain infectious
diseases. The following questions apply.

153. An important role of the community health nurse in the prevention *1/1
and control of Dengue Hemorrhagic- fever includes:

A. Advising the elimination of vectors by keeping water containers covered

B. Conducting strong health education drives/campaign directed toward proper

garbage disposal

C. Explaining to the individuals, families, groups and community the nature of

the disease and its causation.

D. Practicing residual spraying with insecticides

154. Community health nurses should be alert in observing a Dengue *0/1

suspect. The following is NOT an indicator for hospitalization of H-fever
suspects?

A. Marked anorexia, abdominal pain and vomiting

B. Increasing hematocrit count

C. Cough of 30 days

D. Persistent headache
155. The community health nurse’s primary concern in the immediate *0/1
control of hemorrhage among patients with dengue is:

A. Advising low fiber and non-fat diet

B. Providing warmth through light weight covers

C. Observing closely the patient for vital signs leading to shock

D. Keeping the patient at rest.

156. Which of these signs may NOT be REGARDED as a truly positive *0/1
signs indicative of Dengue H-fever

A. Prolonged Bleeding Time

B. Appearance of at least 20 petechiae within 1 cm square

C. Steadily increasing hematocrit count

D. Fall in the platelet count

157. Which of the following is the most important treatment of patients *1/1
with Dengue H-fever?

A. Give aspirin for fever

B. Replacement of body fluids

C. Avoid unnecessary movement

D. Ice cap over abdomen in case of melena

Situation: Sexuality is a major issue in psychosocial health that is often not
emphasized or considered taboo by many nurses. Good thing you are a nurse who
is nonjudgmental when it comes to issues in sexuality.

158. Dave, 25, admits to you that he has multiple sexual partners. Which *1/1
among the following will you do regarding this?

A. Counsel him that it is shameful for men to have multiple sexual partners.

B. Educate him regarding safe sex practices.

C. Terminate care right away for it is dangerous to be dealing with people like him.

D. Refer him to a psychiatrist.

159. Robert is a teenager admitted to the ward because of gastric ulcer. *1/1
He tells a female nurse that he has a crush on her and asks her if they
can have a date once he is discharged. What is the best statement the
female nurse should make?

A. “How dare you say that to me? Do you not see I am your nurse and you are just a
patient?”

B. “If it makes you recover faster, I’ll be glad to.”

C. “Your statements make me uncomfortable. Please remember that I am here

to care for you as your nurse.”

D. “In your dreams, Bert.”

160. Jennica comes to a clinic to complain of involuntary vaginal spasms *1/1
that make it difficult for her to have intercourse. This is referred to as:

A. Dyspareunia

B. Vaginismus

C. Vulvodynia

D. Vestibulitis

161. Which among the following medications can decrease sexual *0/1
desire?

A. Phenytoin

B. Morphine

C. Atenolol

D. All of the above

162. Homosexuality, heterosexuality, and bisexuality are varieties of *0/1

which of the following:

A. Sexual orientation

B. Transgenderism

C. Gender identity

D. Intersex condition
 163. What is the ethical principle that is violated if you informed the *1/1
neighbor of your patient regarding his medical condition?

A. Fidelity

B. confidentiality

C. privacy

D. beneficence

Situation: Nurse Charmaine wants to improve in her care for patient Donny
Pascual, who is an alcoholic. She asks help from her head nurse Kivs.

164. Charmaine goes to Donny's bedside to greet him. Kivs corrects *0/1
Charmaine of her greeting which is NOT appropriate to Donny Pascual

A. "Hi, Donny! So you got drunk last night"

B. "Hi, Donny! I heard you enjoyed yourself last night"

C. "Hi, Donny!, I heard you had a drinking spree last night"

D. "Hi, Donny!, How was your drinking affair last night"

165. Donny turned his back away from Nurse Charmaine, saying "It's none *1/1
of your business, you ugly duckling." The appropriate response of Nurse
Charmaine would be:

A. "What you said hurt me, you alcoholic!"

B. "You beast, you are as ugly as I am"

C. "You really are a drunkard"

D. "I don't think you mean what you have just said. Do You?"

166. Kivs wished that Charmaine should have used a/an: * 1/1

A. non-verbal communication

B. therapeutic communication

C. emphatic communication

D. casual communication

167. Kivs suggested that Charmaine should use communication *1/1

technique appropriate for the condition of Donny Pascual such as:

A. Concluding

B. Analyzing

C. Questionaing

D. Rephrasing
168. Charmaine should have used according to Kivs, which kind of *0/1
attitude?

A. motherly

B. friendly

C. passive

D. matter of fact

169. The nurse in charge formulates a nursing diagnosis of Activity *0/1

intolerance related to inadequate oxygenation and dyspnea for a client
with chronic bronchitis. To minimize this problem, the nurse instructs the
client to avoid conditions that increase oxygen demands. Such conditions
include:

A. Drinking more than 1,500 ml of fluid daily.

B. Being overweight.

C. Eating a high-protein snack at bedtime.

D. Eating more than three large meals a day.

170. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis *1/1
as a result of reduced alveolar ventilation. Which combination of arterial
blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis?

A. pH, 5.0; PaCO2 30 mm Hg

B. pH, 7.40; PaCO2 35 mm Hg

C. pH, 7.35; PaCO2 40 mm Hg

D. pH, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg

171. A nurse instructs a client diagnosed with COPD to use purse-lip *0/1
breathing. The client inquires the nurse about the advantage of this kind
of breathing. The nurse answers that the main purpose of purse-lip is to:

A. Prevent bronchial collapse

B. Strengthen the intercostals muscle

C. Achieve maximum exhalation

D. Allows air trapping

172. Nurse Jobert teaches a patient about the use of respiratory inhaler. *1/1
Arrange the steps in using an inhaler chronologically.

1. Press the canister down with your fingers as you breathe in

2. Wait one minute between puffs if more than one puff is prescribed

3. Inhale the mist, hold your breath at least 5 to 10 seconds before

exhaling

4. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler

A. 4, 1, 2, 3

B. 4, 1, 3, 2

C. 3, 4, 2, 1

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

173. The physician prescribed monitoring closely of clients oxygen *1/1

saturation of the blood. Which of the following will you prepare?

A. Electrocardiogram machine

B. Spirometer

C. Pulse oximeter

D. Blood Pressure apparatus

174. Patients suffering from COPD are taught to avoid shifts to *1/1
temperature and humidity. It should be emphasized that heat increases
body temperature and thereby raising the:

A. Risk for infection

B. Anxiety level

C. The oxygen requirements

D. Fluid intake

175. COPD patients may be taught the following pulmonary hygiene *0/1
measures to improve clearance of airway secretion, except:

A. Postural drainage

B. Complete bed rest

C. Effective coughing

D. Measure fluid intake

176. Upon physical assessment, you noted the following: RR 37breaths *1/1
per minute, dyspneic, and dusky-colored skin. Which of the following
should you perform initially?

A. Monitor the client’s ECG tracing

B. Attach Mr. De Leon to an oxygen source via nasal cannula regulated at 10lpm

C. Position the patient to High-Fowler’s

D. Contact the doctor immediately

177. Which assessment finding by the staff nurse in a client with COPD *0/1
would require the supervisor to intervene?

A. Presence of barrel chest and dyspnea

B. Oxygen flow meter set at 2lpm while the client is ambulating

C. Rust-colored specimen collected early in the morning

D. Use of accessory muscles during inspiration

178. Mr. Pepito, a 43-year-old client, is currently prescribed with *1/1

Propranolol for his hypertension. As you browsed through this patient’s
chart, you noted history of bronchial asthma, what should he take first
before administering Propranolol?

A. Measure the apical pulse rate for a full minute

B. Instruct the patient to change position slowly

C. Contact the physician to verify order

D. Give drug with meals

 179. A nurse is completing the admission assessment of a patient with *1/1
Reactive Airway Disease. Which manifestation would indicate to the
nurse that

A. Complaints of chest tightness and difficulty of breathing

B. Crackles head upon auscultation of the lung fields, and presence of red raised
areas on the chest

C. Symmetrical expansion of the thoracic cavity during inspiration

D. Temperature reading of 37.8C with feelings of nausea

Situation: Primary Health Care (PHC) is defined by the WHO as essential health
care made universally accessible to individuals, families and communities.

180. The WHO held a meeting in this place where Primary health Care *1/1
was discussed. What country?

A. Alma Ata

B. Russia

C. Vienna

D. Geneva
181. Accessibility of health service implies that: * 0/1

A. Health care providers maximize the service of traditional healers whom the
people commonly approach for health problems

B. The people and the government can afford the health services being provided

C. Health service providers are within 4 kilometers from most of the catchment
population

D. Health services are available in health facilities on a round the clock basis

182. A major lesson of the Alma-Ata and the different charters of health *1/1
promotion is that

A. health workers must be effective in advocacy and mediation to enable to people

to gain control over their lives

B. Community participation is a fundamental requirement to achieve health and

sustainable development

C. creation of supportive environment is crucial to achieving health and sustainable

development

D. meaningful improvements in the socioeconomic determinants of health are

required to have significant improvements in people’s health
183. The focus of activities in specific protection is a level of prevention *1/1
classified is:

A. Secondary intervention

B. Intervention prevention

C. Tertiary prevention

D. Primary prevention

184. Secondary prevention of malaria may be achieved through *0/1

cooperation of community residents by:

A. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places

B. Determining whether a place is an endemic area

C. Residual spraying of insecticides at night

D. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees

185. Martha BEST exemplifies secondary prevention by which of the *1/1

following activities?

A. teaching new mothers infant care

B. infant phototherapy

C. oxygen humidification

D. tracheostomy care
186. Which of Martha’s teaching activities would be considered PRIMARY *1/1
prevention when caring for clients in her case load?

A. providing families with her telephone number for any home emergencies

B. educating parents on the importance of routine immunization

C. teaching parents first aid for insect bites

D. educating parents on the signs of lead poisoning

187. Martha finds that a toddler has some developmental delays during a *0/1
home visit. When looking for a cause or contributing factor, which of the
following environmental factors would she consider MOST important to
assess?

A. dust mites in child’s toys

B. lead paint in the crib

C. house pets

D. presence of asbestos in the home

 188. Martha’s functions include activities for secondary prevention. In a *0/1
family, the health profile reveals diabetes in the father of the family. A
classic demonstration of secondary prevention would be:

A. teaching the diabetic patient about foot care

B. assisting the diabetic patient in his daily insulin injections

C. helping the patient obtain a glucometer for accurate monitoring of blood sugar

D. informing the client how to maintain HbA1C value at 5.5 or less

Situation: With the increasing documented cases of CANCER the best alternative
to treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. The following conditions apply.

189. Which among the following is the primary focus of prevention of *0/1
cancer?

A. Elimination of conditions causing cancer

B. Diagnosis and treatment

C. Treatment at early stage

D. Early detection
190. In the prevention and control of cancer, which of the following *0/1
activities is the most important function of the community health
midwife?

A. Conduct community assemblies.

B. Referral to cancer specialist those clients with symptoms of cancer.

C. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as parameters in our process of detection,
control and treatment modalities.

D. Teach woman about proper/correct nutrition.

191. Who among the following are recipients of the secondary level of *1/1
care for cancer cases EXCEPT:

A. Those under early case detection

B. Those under post case treatment

C. Those scheduled for surgery

D. Those undergoing treatment

192. Who among the following are recipients of the tertiary level of care *1/1
for cancer cases?

A. Those under early treatment

B. Those under supportive care

C. Those under early detection

D. Those scheduled for surgery

193. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), one of the *1/1
leading causes of mortality in the Philippines is which of the following?

A. Leukemia

B. Heart Disease

C. Malignant Neoplasm

D. Lower respiratory tract infections

194. A client comes to the emergency room with manifestations of *1/1

difficulty of breathing. Upon assessing, the client is hyperventilating, with
an RR of 25 cycles/min. Which of these imbalances would likely occur
with the patient’s status?

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic alkalosis

195. Which of these ABG results would be consistent with the imbalance *1/1
in the previous number?

A. pH 7.48, PaCO2 46mmHg, HCO3 29mEq/L

B. pH 7.26, PaCO2 32mHg, HCO3 21mEq/L

C. pH 7.47, PaCO2 34mmHg, HCO3 21mEq/L

D. pH 7.30, PaCO2 47mmHg, HCO3 29mEq/L

196. Mr. Kris, 47 y.o., was diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of *1/1
the following ABG findings would be expected?

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. Respiratory alkalosis

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic alkalosis

197. A 60-year-old client is admitted to the hospital presenting shortness *1/1

of breath, fever, and productive cough. Which ABG finding is most related
to the diagnosis of COPD?

A. pH 7.33, PaCO2: 48mmHg; HCO3: 24mEq/L

B. pH 7.48; PaCO2: 30mmHg; HCO3: 23mEq/L

C. pH 7.30; PaCO2: 40mmHg; HCO3: 20mEq/L

D. pH 7.49; PaCO2: 38mmHg; HCO3: 29mEq/L

198. A patient is taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Which *1/1

among these ABG findings would you expect in his long-term use of the
diuretic?

A. pH 7.48, PaCO2: 46mmHg; HCO3: 28mEq/L

B. pH 7.26; PaCO2: 32mmHg; HCO3: 21mEq/L

C. pH 7.35; PaCO2: 40mmHg; HCO3: 25mEq/L

D. pH 7.30; PaCO2: 33mmHg; HCO3: 20mEq/L

199. While performing endotracheal suctioning on Patient Sam, the nurse *1/1
can avoid trauma to the tract by:

A. Using gloves to prevent introduction of pathogens to the respiratory system

B. Applying suction for at least 30 seconds while inserting the catheter

C. Applying suction only while the catheter is being withdrawn

D. Rotating the catheter as it is inserted for higher yield

200. A nurse is doing her morning care to a patient. In cleaning the *1/1
tracheostomy of a patient, the nurse should immerse the inner cannula in
which of the following solutions?

A. Half-strength hydrogen peroxide and normal saline

B. Tap water

C. Dakin’s solution

D. Betadine

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