1. What do you call tin mill steel without a coating?

(a) Black plate

(b) Tin steel plate
(c) White plate
(d) Dechromate tin
2. What combination of elements has high electrical resistance, high corrosion resistance, and high strength at
red heat temperatures, making it useful in resistance heating?
(a) Alnico
(b) Aluminum bronze
(c) Hastelloy
(d) Nichrome
3. A steel cannot qualify for stainless prefix until it has at least how many percent of chromium?
(a) 25%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 5%
4. What do you add to compensate for the remaining high iron oxide content of the steel?
(a) Deoxidizers
(b) Deorizers
(c) Deterrent
(d) Detoxifiers
5. Which of the following cast irons is a high-carbon, iron-carbon-silicon alloy?
(a) Gray iron
(b) White iron
(c) Alloy iron
(d) Malleable iron
6. Which of the following cast irons is heat-treated for ductility?
(a) Ductile iron
(b) Gray iron
(c) Malleable iron
(d) White iron
7. Which cast iron is hard and wear resistant?
(a) White iron
(b) Malleable iron
(c) Gray iron
(d) Ductile iron
8. What is considered as the general purpose, oldest type and widely used cast iron?
(a) Ductile iron
(b) Alloy iron
(c) Malleable iron
(d) Gray iron
9. The effect of manganese in cast iron is to?
(a) increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature
(b) reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5%
(c) affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage depending on form
(d) deoxidize molten cast iron
10. The effect of aluminum in cast iron is to?
(a) increase hardness above 0.5%
(b) affect the machinability, ductility, and shrinkage depending on form
(c) deoxidize molten cast iron
(d) reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%
11. The effect of silicon in cast iron is to?
(a) soften iron and increase ductility below 3.25%, hardens iron above 3.25% and increase acid and corrosion
resistance above 13%
(b) increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature
(c) deoxidizes molten cast iron
(d) reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5%
12. Iron is said to be abundant in nature. About how many percent of the Earth's crust is iron?
(a) 8%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 5%
13. What is the advantage of quench hardening?
(a) Improved strength
(b) All of the choices
(c) Wear Characteristics
(d) Hardness
14. What is the lowest-temperature diffusion-hardening process and does not require a quench?
(a) Carburizing
(b) Tempering
(c) Nitriding
(d) Heat-treating
15. The following statements are true except one. Which one?
(a) Quench-hardened steel does not require tempering to prevent brittleness.
(b) Induction hardening is usually most efficient on small parts.
(c) Carburizing does not harden a steel.
(d) Flame and induction hardening require the use of hardenable steels.
16. Which of the following is a requirement for hardening a steel?
(a) All of the choices
(b) Sufficient carbon content
(c) Adequate quench
(d) Heating to the proper temperature
17. What field of study encompasses the procurement and production of metals
(a) Metallurgy
(b) Metalgraphy
(c) Geology
(d) Material Science
18. What do you call earth and stone missed with the iron oxides?
(a) Hematite
(b) Gangue
(c) Magnetite
(d) Ore
19. What is a coal that has been previously burned in an oxygen-poor environment?
(a) Diamond
(b) Tuyere
(c) Coke
(d) Hematite
20. What is the most common alloying ingredient in copper?
(a) Nickle
(b) Brass
(c) Aluminum
(d) Zinc
21. What refers to the casehardening process by which the carbon content of the steel near the surface of a
part is increased?
(a) Martempering
(b) Annealing
(c) Normalizing
(d) Carburizing
22. What is the process of heating a hardened steel to any temperature below the lower critical temperature,
followed by any desired rate of cooling?
(a) Carburizing
(b) Spheroidizing
(c) Tempering
(d) Normalizing
23. What is defined as an intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite composition and a
definite temperature of transformation within the solid state?
(a) Delta solid solution
(b) Pearlite
(c) Austernite
(d) Eutectoid
24. What is the most undesirable of all elements commonly found in steels?
(a) Sulfur
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Manganese
(d) Silicon
25. What impurity in steel can cause "red shortness", which means the steel becomes unworkable at high
temperature?
(a) Silicon
(b) Sulfur
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Manganese
26. What is a method of casehardening involving diffusion in which the steel to be casehardened is machined,
heat-treated, placed in an air-tight box and heated to about 1000° F?
(a) Nitriding
(b) Carburizing
(c) Annealing
(d) Normalizing
27. What is a process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon content to respond
to hardening by a rapid cooling of the surface?
(a) Induction hardening
(b) Flame hardening
(c) Cyaniding
(d) Nitriding
28. What is the most common reinforcement for polymer composites?
(a) Ceramic
(b) Graphite
(c) Boron
(d) Glass fiber
29. In electrochemistry, oxidation is a loss of
(a) anode
(b) ion
(c) proton
(d) electron
30. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to a metal?
(a) Corrosion
(b) Reduction
(c) Ionization
(d) Oxidation
31. Oxidation in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?
(a) At the anode
(b) At the electrode
(c) At both cathode and anode
(d) At the cathode
32. Reduction in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?
(a) At the cathode
(b) At the electrode
(c) At the anode
(d) At both cathode and anode
33. What do you call a fluid that conducts electricity?
(a) Acid
(b) Water
(c) Solution
(d) Electrolyte
34. The _____ of an environment serves as a measure of the strength of acids or bases.
(a) impurities
(b) passivity
(c) humidity
(d) pH measurement
35. What is the pH value for a neutral solution?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) 9
36. The solutions with pH values from 1 to 6 are
(a) alkaline
(b) base
(c) neutral
(d) acid
37. The solutions with pH values from 7 to 12 are
(a) acid
(b) neutral
(c) base
(d) alkaline
38. "pH" stands for
(a) polyhydrate
(b) positive hydrogen ion
(c) positive helium ion
(d) polyhelium
39. What is defined as a local corrosion damage characterized by surface cavities?
(a) Cracking
(b) Cavitation
(c) Pitting
(d) Erosion
40. What do you call the removal of zinc from brasses?
(a) Stabilization
(b) Dezincification
(c) Graphitization
(d) Dealloying
41. What is the scaling off of a surface in flakes or layers as the result of corrosion?
(a) Fretting
(b) Scaping
(c) Corrosion fatigue
(d) Expoliation
42. What corrosion occurs under organic coatings on metals as fine, wavy hairlines?
(a) Filiform corrosion
(b) Microbiological corrosion
(c) Stray current corrosion
(d) Fretting corrosion
43. What refers to the deterioration of material by oscillatory relative motion of small amplitude (20 to 100
micrometer) between two solid surfaces in a corrosive environment?
(a) Filiform corrosion
(b) Microbiological corrosion
(c) Fretting corrosion
(d) Stray current corrosion
44. Indicate the false statement about corrosion.
(a) Corrosion of metals is usually electrochemical in nature.
(b) Passivity is a prerequisite for the corrosion protection of many metals.
(c) The corroded member in a corrosion cell is the cathode.
(d) Plastics and ceramics are immune to many forms of corrosion because they are not good conductors of
electricity.
45. Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon with limits on the amount of carbon to less than _____ percent.
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 1 to 5
46. What is the approximate chromium range of a ferristic stainless steel?
(a) 12% to 18%
(b) 10% to 12%
(c) 20% to 24%
(d) 16% to 20%
47. Indicate false statement about stainless steel?
(a) Stainless steels are poor conductors of electricity.
(b) Stainless steels have tensile moduli greater than those of carbon and alloy steels.
(c) The density of stainless steel is about the same as carbon or low-alloy steels.
(d) Stainless steels are poor conductors of heat.
48. What are the four major alloying elements of austenitic stainless steels?
(a) iron, chromium, carbon and nickel
(b) iron, chromium, carbon and copper
(c) iron, chromium, carbon and zinc
(d) iron, chromium, zinc and nickel
49. The electrical resistance of stainless steels can be as much as _____ times that of carbon steel.
(a) 15
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 10
50. What refers to a shape achieved by allowing a liquid to solidify in a mold?
(a) Casting
(b) Molding
(c) All of the choices
(d) Forming
51. Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for die casting?
(a) Metal mold (maching halves)
(b) Machined metal holding blocks
(c) Water-cooled metal cavities
(d) Ejection mechanism
52. What cast iron has nodular or spheroidal graphite?
(a) White iron
(b) Wrought iron
(c) Ductile iron
(d) Gray iron
53. What is a process for making glass-reinforced shapes that can be generated by pulling resin-impregnated
glass strands through a die?
(a) Bulk molding
(b) Vacuum bag forming
(c) Resin transfer moulding
(d) Continuous pultrusion
54. What is a natural substance that makes up a significant portion of all plant life?
(a) Polyacetal
(b) Polycarbonates
(c) Cellulose
(d) Polyimides
55. What term is used to denote a family of thermosetting polymers that are reaction products of alcohols and
acids?
(a) Alkydes
(b) Alkaline
(c) Alcocids
(d) Aldehyde
56. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for nickel 3.50 alloy?
(a) 23XX
(b) 25XX
(c) 31XX
(d) 13XX
57. What is the AISI-SAE designation for resulfurized and rephosphorized carbon steel?
(a) 12XX
(b) 13XX
(c) 23XX
(d) 31XX
58. The Group H steels can be used in what temperature range?
(a) 1100°C to 2000°C
(b) 1000°C to 1500°C
(c) 600°C to 1100°C
(d) 200°C to 800°C
59. The following are primary alloying ingredients of Group H steels except:
(a) Tungsten
(b) Cobalt
(c) Chromium
(d) Molybdenum
60. The chrome-vanadium steels contain how many percent of vanadium?
(a) 0.15 to 0.30
(b) 0.45 to 0.60
(c) 0.05 to 0.15
(d) 0.30 to 0.45
61. The chrome-molybdenum steels contain how many percent of molybdenum?
(a) 0.40
(b) 0.30
(c) 0.10
(d) 0.20
62. Manganese steel usually contains how many percent of manganese?
(a) 1 to 5
(b) 14 to 18
(c) 11 to 14
(d) 5 to 10
63. The wear-resistance of this material is attributed to its ability to _____, that is, the hardness is increased
greatly when the steel is cold worked.
(a) strain harden
(b) cold harden
(c) cool-temperature resistant
(d) stress harden
64. The special chrome steels of the stainless variety contain how many percent of chromium?
(a) 17 to 21
(b) 4 to 8
(c) 9 to 10
(d) 11 to 17
65. What refers to the application of any process whereby the surface of steel is altered so that is will become
hard?
(a) Annealing
(b) Carburizing
(c) Surfacehardening
(d) Casehardening
66. What prefers to the ability of steel to be hardened through to its center in large section?
(a) Rigidity
(b) Spheroidability
(c) Malleability
(d) Hardenability
67. What is the equilibrium temperature of transformation of austenite to pearlite?
(a) 1222° F
(b) 1333° F
(c) 1000° F
(d) 1666° F
68. What structure is formed when transformation occurs at temperatures down to the knee of the curve?
(a) Bainite
(b) Austenite
(c) Martensite
(d) Pearlite
69. What allotropic form of iron refers to iron that has a temperature range of room temperature to 1670° F?
(a) Alpha iron
(b) Gamma iron
(c) Delta iron
(d) Beta iron
70. The alpha iron will become paramagnetic at temperature above
(a) 550° C
(b) 770° C
(c) 440° C
(d) 660° C
71. What steel surface hardening process requires heating at 1000° F for up to 100 hours in an ammonia
atmosphere, followed by slow cooling?
(a) Precipitation hardening
(b) Carburizing
(c) Flame hardening
(d) Nitriding
72. What is the chief ore of tin?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Ilmanite
(c) Cassiterite
(d) Galena
73. What is the chief ore of zinc?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Ilmanite
(c) Sphalerite
(d) Cassiterite
74. What is the chief ore of titanium?
(a) Cassiterite
(b) Bauxite
(c) Sphalerite
(d) Ilmanite
75. What is a mixture of gibbsite and diaspore, of which aluminum is derived?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Rutile
(c) Sphalerite
(d) Galena
76. The term "brass" is very commonly used to designate any alloy primarily _____ and _____
(a) copper and aluminum
(b) copper and zinc
(c) aluminum and iron
(d) zinc and nickel
77. The term "bronze" is used to designate any alloy containing:
(a) copper and tin
(b) copper and aluminum
(c) copper and zinc
(d) copper and nickel
78. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, a four digit number is used. What does the first digit
indicate?
(a) The alloy group
(b) The strength of the alloy
(c) The purity of aluminum
(d) The identity of the alloy
79. In a system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, what does the second digit represent?
(a) The identity of the alloy
(b) The purity of aluminum
(c) The alloy group
(d) The modifications of the alloy group or impurity limits
80. In the system of designating wrought aluminum alloys, the letter F that follows the number indicates what
condition of the alloy?
(a) As fabricated
(b) Artificially aged
(c) Strain hardened
(d) Annealed
81. The following alloys are the chief alloys that are die-cast except:
(a) Aluminum alloys
(b) Manganese alloys
(c) Zinc alloys
(d) Magnesium alloys
82. What is the minimum tensile strength of Gray Cast Iron class 50?
(a) 100000 lbf/in^2
(b) 25000 lbf/in^2
(c) 50000 lbf/in^2
(d) 35000 lbf/in^2
83. What is the carbon content of wrought iron?
(a) less than 0.1 percent
(b) exactly 0.1 percent
(c) more than 0.1 percent
(d) ranges from 0.1 percent to 0.2 percent
84. Alnico is an alloy containing how many percent nickel?
(a) 10%
(b) 18%
(c) 14%
(d) 22%
85. The most common beta brass with a composition of 60% copper and 40% zinc is called
(a) Muntz metal
(b) yellow brass
(c) white brass
(d) red brass
86. Red brass contains about how many percent of zinc?
(a) 25%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) 20%
87. Yellow brass contains approximately how many percent of zinc?
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) 50%
88. Indicate the false statement:
(a) Tin is relatively soluble in copper.
(b) Silicon bronzes are usually used for marine application and high-strength fasteners.
(c) Bronze is a copper-tin alloy.
(d) Aluminum bronzes contain no tin.
89. What is the most abundant metal in nature?
(a) Aluminum
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Steel
90. Indicate the false statement about aluminum:
(a) It has high strength-to-weight ratio.
(b) It has poor thermal and electrical conductivity.
(c) It has 1/3 the weight of steel.
(d) It has 1/3 of the stiffness of the steel.
91. What is the effect to aluminum with iron as the alloying element?
(a) Lowers castability
(b) Improves machinability
(c) Improve conductivity
(d) Reduce hot-cracking tendencies in casting
92. What is the effect to aluminum with copper as alloying element?
(a) Increases fluidity in casting
(b) Increases strength up to about 12%
(c) Reduces shrinkage
(d) Improves machinability
93. Which of the following are two well-known nickel alloys with magnetic properties ideal for permanent
magnets?
(a) Invar and Nilvar
(b) Alnico and Cunife
(c) Nichrome and Constantan
(d) Elinvar and Invar
94. The Portland cement is manufactured from the following elements except:
(a) lime
(b) asphalt
(c) silica
(d) alumina
95. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain for materials operating in the nonlinear region in the
stress-strain diagram?
(a) Secant modulus
(b) Modulus of elasticity
(c) Tangent modulus
(d) Proportionality limit
96. What is the ratio of the ultimate failure strain to the yielding strain?
(a) Ductility
(b) Poisson's ratio
(c) Ductility
(d) Resilience
97. What test determines the hardenability of a steel specimen?
(a) Jominy end-quench test
(b) The lever rule
(c) Stress relief test
(d) Gibb's phase test
98. What steel relief process is used with hypoeutectoid steels to change martenite into pearlite?
(a) Annealing
(b) Tempering
(c) Spheroidizing
(d) Normalizing
99. What is another term for tempering?
(a) Annealing
(b) Spheroidizing
(c) Drawing or toughening
(d) Recrystallization
100. All are steel surface hardening processes except one. Which one?
(a) Carburizing
(b) Annealing
(c) Flame hardening
(d) Nitriding