You are on page 1of 128

1.

Corrosion is defined as

a) Rusting of Cathode

b) Oxidation of iron in contact with water

c) Degradation of a material by chemical or electrochemical means

d) Breakdown of metal by hydrogen

2. What is an electrolyte?

a) It is a mixture of Salts and water

b) A substance which will conduct electricity and cause rusting

c) Oxidation liquid which will attack steel.

d) A substance which will conduct a current and be broken down by it.

3. The degradation of material by chemical or electrochemical means is

a) Pickling followed by passivation

b) Acid cleaning

c) Corrosion

d) An Electrolyte

4. Is the electrical circuit in a corrosion reaction?

a)AC

b)DC

c) Negative charge

d) Positive charge

5. Hydrogen is evolved at

a) The anode at all times.

b) The Cathode at all times.

c) The cathode as a byproduct of the corrosion reaction

d) The Anode as corrosion takes place


6. Positively charged area

a) Anode

b) Cathode

c) Electrolyte

d) Electron

7. Negatively charged area

a) Anode

b) Cathode

c) Electrolyte

d) Electron

8. What are three elements needed for corrosion to occur?

a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Water

b) Electron, Proton, Neutron

c) Anode, Cathode, Electrolyte

d) Temperature, Salt, Acid

9. Water will be drawn through the film and the resulting solution builds up a pressure under the
film forced to form

a) Blister

b) Micron

c) Sulphates

d) Chloride

10. Hygroscopic blisters are called

a) Sulphates

b) Chlorides

c) Pinhead size water filled

d) Corrosion
11. Presence of oxygen into the Cathodic reaction the Number of Hydroxyl ions doubles

a) Sulphates

b) Double the corrosion rate

c) Pinhead size water filled

d) Corrosion not occur

12. Another name for the Galvanic List, is

a) The Corrosion list

b) Electro Negative List

c) Electrical Corrosive properties series

d) Electromotive Forces Series

13. Two examples of hygroscopic salts would be

a) Iron phosphates and Iron Chromates

b) Iron Chordates and Iron Oxides

c) Iron Sulphates and Iron Chlorides

d) Iron Sulphates and Iron Silicates

14. If Zinc and Aluminium were in close contacts, in the presence or electrolyte

a) Aluminium would corrode

b) They would corrode equally.

c) Zinc would corrode

d) None of the above

15. MEM’s are also known as

a) Moisture Enriched Mat2erials

b) Metal Eating Microbes

c) Maximum Evolved Moistures

d) Material Electron Mobility


16. SRB’s are also known as

a) Salts Reducing Bacteria

b) Substrate Reducing Bacteria

c) Solid Reducing Bacteria

d) Sulphur Reducing Bacteria

17. The factors which can affect the rate corrosion are

a) Temperature, Time and Coating system

b) Bi-Metallic contact, Hygroscopic Salts and Bacteria

c) Coating system, Pipe diameter and Ultra Violet Light

d) Blasting Grades, Rust Grades and surface profile

18. The thickness of Mill scale is

c) Zero

d) Dependent upon the material thickness

19. The three compressed oxides which from Mill scale are

a) Iron Oxide, Rust and Iron Sulphate

b) Wusite (FeO), Hematite (Fe3O4) and Magnetite (Fe2O3)

c) Iron sulphate, Iron Chloride and Iron Phosphate

d) RSC, RSJ and RSA

20. Name of sub atomic particles

a) Proton, Neutron, Electron

b) Micron, poron, Moron

c) Wusite, Hematite and Magnetite

d) Anode, Cathode, Electrolyte


21. Which of the following is the best noble metal?

a) Magnesium

b) Tungsten

c) Mill scale

d) Zinc

22. Which is cathode in corrosion?

a)Water

b)Oxygen

c)Substrate

d)Electrons released

23. Which one is more noble?

a)Silver

b)Steel

c)Magnesium

d)Zinc

24. Fe++ is ______________

a)An atom

b)Molecule

c) Iron Ion

d)Iron Substrate

25. Which one is not a compound in mill scale?

a) FeO

b) Fe2O3

c) Fe2 O4

d) Fe3O4
26. Which metal corrode fast according to bimetallic principle?

a) Less electronegative

b) More Electropositive

c) More noble

d) Less Noble

27. Which one of the following is more noble?

a) Zinc

b) Steel

c) Millscale

d) Aluminium

28. The corrosion will takes place at

a) The Anode

b) The Cathode

c) The electrolyte

d) Anode first than cathode

29. The by production of corrosion reaction is

a) Iron oxide

b) Iron sulphates

c) Iron chromate

d) Iron chloride

30.Aerobic condition would refer to?

a) Hydrogen

b) Oxygen

c) Nitrogen

d) Moisture
31. Which of the following is the highest known potential value?

a) Mill scale

b) Tin

c) Copper

d) Iron

32. The chemical composition of Hematite?

a) Fe2 O3

b) Oxygen

c) Nitrogen

d) Moisture

33. Which two materials are commonly used as sacrificial anodes?

a) Copper and Tungsten

b) Aluminium and Graphite

c) Zinc and Aluminium

d) Lead and Tin

34. Which of the following could be classified as a major cause of microbial corrosion?

a) Sulphur Eating Metal

b) Sulphur Reducing Bacteria

c) Rust inhibitive salts

d) Iron phosphates

35. Which is the more noble metal?

a) Steel

b) Aluminum

c) Magnesium

d) Tin
36. Which of the element will corrode quickly as per bimetallic principle?

a) Steel-Magnesium

b) Steel – Zinc

c) Steel - Aluminium

d) Carbon

37. Bi metallic corrosion causes

a) Causes a material of a higher nobility to corrode faster

b) Causes a material of the same nobility to corrode faster

c) Causes a material of lower nobility to corrode faster

d) Causes a material containing carbon to corrode faster

38. Molecular freedom of steel metal increases when

a) substrate contains salt

b) presence of oxygen

c) temperature increases

d) Bacteria Affected

39. Which is more electropositive?

a) silver

b) steel

c) mill scale

d) magnesium

40. Mill scale is formed during steel rolling manufacturing operations in temperature at

a) Below 580oC

b) Excess 580oC

c) up to 580oC

d) on 580oC
41. Chemical name of rust

a) Hygroscopic salts

b) Hydrous iron oxide

c) mill scale

d) Hygroscopic blisters

42. Hygroscopic slats cause

a) Rash rusting

b) Pinholes

c) Rogue peak

d) Blisters

43. In the corrosion circuit, electron travel from

a) Anode to Cathode

b) Cathode to Anode

c) Electrolyte to both Cathode to Anode

d) None of the above

44. In the corrosion circuit, electron flow from

a) Anode to Cathode, via Electrolyte

b) Positive to Negative

c) Electrolyte to both Cathode to Anode

d) Anode to Cathode, via metallic path

45. In which salts would be found in Marine environment?

a) Potassium

b) Chloride

c) Sulphate

d) Zinc sulphate
46. In which salts would be found in Agricultural environment?

a) Sulphate

b) Potassium

c) Chloride

d) Potassium chloride

48. An Anode becomes positively charged by

a) Releasing proton to the cathode

b) Releasing electrons to the cathode

c) Receiving atoms from the cathode

d) None of the above

49. In the galvanic list, which of the following materials has the highest known potential values?

a) Mill scale

b) Copper

c) Al

d) Graphite

50. An Steel becomes positively charged by

a) Releasing proton to the cathode

b) Releasing electrons to the cathode

c) Receiving atoms from the cathode

d) None of the above

51. In the galvanic list, which of the following materials has the lowest known potential values?

a) Mill scale

b) Copper

c) Aluminium

d) Graphite
52. Atom acquire the electric charged are

a) Atomisation

b) Solaration

c) Polarisation

d) Electromation

SURFACE PREPARATION METHODS & STANDARDS # 2

Types Of Abrasive Blasting

a) Dry Abrasive Blast Cleaning

b) Water Blasting

c) Hand and Power Tool Cleaning

d) Flame Cleaning

e) Pickling

f) Vapour Degreasing

g) Weathering

Types of Abrasive ( BS 7079 pt E)

None metallic (Mineral) expendable

Copper Slag, Nickel Slag, Garnet, Sand.

Metallic (Recyclable)

Steel Grit, Steel Shot, Grit and Shot Mix, Garnet

Agricultural by-product

Walnut Shell , Coconut Shell

Grit cuts the profiles; shot controls the peak (so uniform profile)

Digital gauges (measuring methods)

Tape.

Dial Micrometer and Replica Tape (Mylar tape)


Steel surface

Rust Grade A - largely covered with adherent mill scale

Rust Grade B - begun to rust / which the mill scale has begun to flake.

Rust Grade C - mill scale has rusted away /can be scraped / slight pitting

Rust Grade D - mill scale has rusted away / general pitting

Abrasive Blasting Grades

Sa 1 Light Blast Cleaning Poorly adhering mill scale, rust

Sa 2 Thorough Blast Cleaning Most of the mill scale, rust Any residual

Contamination shall be firmly adhering Sa 2 ½

Very Thorough Blast Cleaning Mill scale, rust and show only as slight

stains in the form of spots or stripes

Sa 3 Blast Cleaning to Visually Clean Steel Uniform metallic colour / White Metal

Hand and Power Tool Grades

St2 Thorough hand and power tool cleaning poorly adhering mill scale rust

St3 Very thorough hand and power tool cleaning metallic sheen arising from the metallic substrate

Rust Grade:

A - Covered in Mill scale with little or no rust

B - A Mixture of Mill scale and rust.

C - Mill scale gone, rusted with slight surface pitting.

D - Heavily rusted and pitted.

Grades of wire brushing

St 2- Thorough hand and power tool cleaning (manual)

St3 - Very thorough hand and power tool cleaning (Mech.)


1. The British standard for preparation of steel substrate?

a) BS 3900

b) IGE SR 21

c) BS 7079

d) ISO 8501

2. The two factors to consider when inspecting a surface preparation

a) Degree of cleanliness and time taken

b) Surface profile and material condition

c) Surface profile and degree of cleanliness

d) Dependent upon the material thickness

3. Which is nota surface preparation cleaning methods in before paint application?

a) Dry abrasive blast cleaning

b) Hand and power tool leaning

c) Flame cleaning

d) Light blast cleaning

4. Which pressure suitable for dry blasting?

a)20psi

b)100psi

c)220psi

d)450psi

5. When using a Venturi Nozzle at 100 psi the abrasive exits at approximately what speed?

a) 200 mph

b) 450 mph

c) 1200 mph

d) 100 mph
6. Sand is not permitted as a dry blast abrasive, as directed by

a) BGC/PS/CW5

b) BS 7079 Part A

c) COSHH

d) BS 410

7. Which standard is not permitted as a Sand blast abrasive?

a) BS 4800

b) BS 7079 Part A

c) SI 1657

d) BS 410

8. Which one is non-metallic abrasive?

a) Iron Silica

b) Steel Shot

c) Steel Grit

d) Grit-Shot Mix

9. Copper slag is a

a) Metallic

b) None metallic

c) Agriculture product

d) Dry sand

10. Copper slag is a

a) Metallic

b) Mineral

c) Agriculture product

d) Dry sand
11. Copper slag is a

a) Recyclable

b) Expendable

c) Reuse

d) Angular chilled iron

12. Which abrasive shattering on impact release silica?

a)Sand

b) Garnet

c)Copper

d) Angular chilled iron

13. Which is grit form?

a) Random

b) Sharp

c)Amorphous

d) All the above

14. Metallic abrasive are

a) Expendable

b) Recyclables

c)Silica free

d) None of the above

15. Copper slag is also known as

a) Garnet

b) Black sand

c) Iron silica

d) Steel Grit
16. Colour of Copper slag is

a) Black shining

b) Brown

c) Red

d) Yellow

17. The most common type of abrasive used for British Gas site work is

a) Copper slag

b) Grit & Shot mix

c) Garnet

d) Angular Chilled Iron

18. Abrasive used on site for British Gas projects must be

a) Mixed with sand, to reduce cost

b) Stored correctly prior to use

c) Expendable

d) Used up to a Maximum of three times only

19. How many times can Garnet be used as abrasive for BGas site use?

a) Upto 3 times

b) None

c) It must be expendable

d) 20 times

20. Angular chilled iron is formed from

a) Metallic shot

b) Metallic grit

c) Metallic gritand Metallic shot

d) Garnet
21. Metallic shot is

a) Shatters

b) Spherical

c) Random

d) Cutting Edges

22. Irregular profile are given

a) Girt

b) Shot

c) Girt and shot

d) Garnet

23. Which type of abrasive give more uniform profile?

a) Metallic Shot

b) Steel Grit

c) Copper Slag

d) Metallic Shot & Grit Mixed

24. Which type of abrasive used for controlling Rash Rusting?

a) Metallic Shot

b) Steel Grit

c) Copper Slag

d) Metallic Shot & Grit Mixed

25. Which of the effect produce when rogue peaks are concentrated areas?

a) Rash Rusting

b) Flash Rusting

c) Rust Staining

d) Rust Blooming
26. What is the cause of rash rusting?

a) Mill scale contamination

b) Hygroscopic salts

c) Rogue Peaks

d) Contaminated blast abrasive

27. What is the reason for spot rusting?

a) Surface contamination

b) Millscale

c) Rogue peak

d) Hygroscopic salt

28. The correct ratio of a working mix would be

a) 70-80% Grit : 20-30% Shot

b) 50% Grit : 50% Shot

c) 70-80% shot : 20-30% Grit

d) 20-25% Sand : 75-80% Copper Slag

29. Metallic Shot also has which affect upon the material?

a) Stress relieves

b) Physically deforms

c)Work hardens

d) Causes Slivers

30. What are the properties of an abrasive?

a) Size ,Hardness,Density,shape

b) Velocity, Impingement, Time spend, Shape

c) Rash, Rust rashing, Rust spotting, Rust blooming

d) Rogue peak, Key, Amplitude, Peak to through


31. Degree of cleanliness not depends

a) Time spent on area

b) Angle of impingement

c) Velocity of the particles

d) Substrate rust grade

32. The standard for sizing of abrasives is

a) BS 7079

b) BS 410

c) BGC/PS/PA10

d) SI 1657

33. The force required to separate two surfaces in touch.

a) Profile

b) Adhesion

c) Anchor pattern

d) Amplitude

34. The two theories of adhesion are

a) Molecular interference and molecular attraction

b) Molecular integration and molecular connection

c) Molecular cross linking and molecular coalescence

d) Microscopic interaction and microscopic collaboration

35. Another names of profile is?

a) Anchor pattern

b) Key

c) Amplitude

d) All of the above


36. Amplitude refers to what?

a) The peak to through height of a blast profile

b) The height required for scaffolding prior to blast cleaning

c) The velocity of abrasive particles

d) The roughness of an abrasive particle

37. Anchor pattern, key, peak-to-through height and amplitude are names given to what?

a) The abrasive properties

b) The cross section of a blasted area

c) The total area of blasted substrate

d) The potential of adhesion

38. Degree of roughness related to

a)Abrasive blasting

b)Hand and power tool

c) Anchor pattern

d)Abrasive hardness

39. Flash Rust

a) Due to rogue peak

b) Due to Moisture

c)Due to air temperature

d) Due to steel temperature

40. Profile thickness as per BGAS

a) 30-75 microns

b) 25-100 microns

c) 30-70 microns

d) 25-70 microns
41. Blasting in one area for too long, produces what?

a) Hackles

b) Rogue Peaks

c) Silvers

d) Laminations

42. Longitudinal crack is called

a) Laminations (slivers)

b) Hackles

c) Rogue peaks

d) Amplitude

43. Surface profile thickness is measured by?

a) Comparators

b) Digital profile needle gauge

c) Surface profile needle gauge

d) Dial micrometer with replica tape

44. Surface needle gauge calibrated by

a) Blasted surface

b) Smooth piece of glass

c) Bare metal

d) Coated metal

45. Replica tape supplied in grades

a) Coarse and Extra Coarse

b) Coarse and fine coarse

c) Extra coarseand mediumcoarse

d) Coarse and below coarse


46. Trade name of Replica tape

a) Mylar

b) Paper

c) Testex

d) Polyester

47. Testex also called

a) Mylar

b) Paper

c) Polyester

d) Corn plaster

48. Thickness of Replica tape

a) 20 microns

b) 40 microns

c) 50 microns

d) 30 microns

49. What is the material used in surface replica tape, used to measure profile?

a) Mylex

b) Testrex

c) Mylar

d) Mylon

50. What is the minimumNumber of readings required for a dial micrometer?

a) Minimum of 101

b) Minimum of twelve

c) One only

d) As many as you wish, but the average reading must be measured


51. Transparent layer in replica tape is ____________

a)Milar

b)Mylex

c)Mylar

d)Testex

52. When checking surface profiled using X-Course replica tape :

a) 50 microns must be added to the final reading

b) The average Number of readings must be taken

c) 50 microns must be deducted from the reading

d) A minimum of ten readings must be taken.

53. ______________ not suitable for profile measurement.

a)Dial micrometer

b) Surface profile needle gauge

c) Surface comparator

d)Corn plasters method

54. What is the main advantage of using Testex papers for surface profile measurement?

a) It also measures cleanliness

b) Most accurate over a large area

c) Easy to use

d) Permanent record

55. When using replica tape 50µm deducted because _________

a) Thickness of paper

b) Thickness of transparent layer

c) Thickness of Testex

d) Dial micrometer Criteria


56. Coarse grade for measuring profile range is

a) 30-50 µm

b) 37-115µm

c) 20-50 µm

d) 30-75 µm

57. Extra Coarse grade for measuring profile range is

a) 30-50 µm

b) 37-115 µm(40-115µm)

c) 20-50 µm

d) 30-75 µm

58. 1000 µm =

a) 1cm

b) 1mm

c) 10mm

d) 0.1mm

59. 1mill (thou) =

a)24.5 microns

b)25.4 mm

c)25.4 microns

d)24.4 mm

60. Dial position gives the Number of complete full revolutions of needle gauge on the scale

a)2 µm scale is 100µm

b)5 µm scale is 500µm

c) 2 µm scale is 200 µm

d)5 µm scale is 250µm


61. Assess the roughness

a)Naked eye

b)Visual aid

c)Tactile

d)All of the above

62. Size of comparators diameter hole in the middle

a) 4 cm square with 2 cm

b) 8 cm square with 2 cm

c)6 cm square with 2 cm

d)10 cm square with 3 cm

63. Any profile below the lower limit for fine grading is referred to

a) Coarser than fine

b) Coarser than Coarse

c) Finer than fine

d) Finer than Coarse

64. Any profile above the upper limit for fine grading is referred to

a) Coarser than fine

b) Coarser than Coarse

c) Finer than fine

d) Finer than Coarse

65. Preparation of steel substrate before application of paints and related products

a) BS 7079 Pt C

b) BS 7079 Pt. A

c) BS 7079 Pt B

d) BS 7079 Pt D
66. Rust Grade A can be described as

a) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with evident heavy pitting

b) Clean white metal

c) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with no apparent corrosion

d) Mill scale which has begun to flake, or can be scraped away

67. Rust Grade B can be described as

a) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with evident heavy pitting

b) Clean white metal

c) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with no apparent corrosion

d) Mill scale which has begun to flake, or can be scraped away

68. Rust Grade C can be described as

a) Tightly adhering mill scale, this can be brushed clean

b) Loosely adhering mill scale, with no evident pitting

c) Mill scale almost totally removed, visible rust, slight pitting

d) Heavy pitting visible, heavy corrosion

69. Rust Grade D can be described as

a) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with evident heavy pitting

b) Mill scale rusted away, generalpitting, clearvisible.

c) Tightly adhering Mill scale, with no apparent corrosion

d) Mill scale which has begun to flake, or can be scraped away

70. Corrosion begins on the metal and mill scale begins of flake away?

a) Rust Grade A

b) Rust Grade B

c) Rust Grade C

d) Rust Grade D
71. Thorough Blast Cleaning

a) poorly adhering mill scale, rust

b) most of the millscale, rust and residual contamination shall be firmly adhering

c) millscale, rust, slight stains in the form of spots or stripes

d) free from mill scale, have a uniform metallic colour

72. Very Thorough Blast Cleaning

a) poorly adhering mill scale, rust

b)most of the millscale, rust and residual contamination shall be firmly adhering

c) millscale, rust, slight stains in the form of spots or stripes

d) free from mill scale, have a uniform metallic colour

73. Blast cleaning to visually clean steel

a) poorly adhering mill scale, rust

b) most of the millscale, rust and residual contamination shall be firmly adhering

c) millscale, rust, slight stains in the form of spots or stripes

d) free from mill scale, have a uniform metallic colour

74. Which blasting Grade best describes light blast cleaning?

a) Sa 2

b) Sa 21/2

c) Sa3

d) Sa1

75. Which blasting Grade best describes Thorough blast cleaning?

a) Sa 2

b) Sa 21/2

c) Sa3

d) Sa1
76. Very thorough blast cleaning is refers to

a) Sa1

b) Sa2

c) Sa2½

d) Sa3

77. Blast cleaning to visually clean steel is refers to

a) Sa1

b) Sa2

c) Sa2½

d) Sa3

78. How many photographs of Rust grade are in BS 7079 part A?

a) 4

b) 14

c) 8

d) 16

79. How many Abrasive Blast Cleaning Photographs are in BS 7079 part A?

a) 4

b) 14

c) 8

d) 16

80. How many photographs of flame cleaning standards are in BS 7079 part A?

a) 4

b) 14

c) 8

d) 16
81. How many photographs available by using tools according to BS 7079?

a) 14

b) 6

c) 4

d) 16

82. BS 7079 does not contains

a) Rust Grades

b) Blast Grades

c) Hand and Power tool Grades

d) Salt tests on Substrate

83. Wheelabrators sometimes called as

a) Centrifugal blast unit

b) Dry abrasive blasting

c) Wheel jetting

d) Water blasting

84. ____________ Abrasive is preferred for Wheelabrators

a) Steel Grit

b) Steel Shot

c) Grit and Shot Mixed

d) Copper Slag

85. What is the approximate speed of the abrasive particles exiting a Wheelabrators?

a) 450 mph

b) 220 mph

c) Mach 3

d) 100 psi
86. Air pressure measured by

a) Pound per square inch

b) Pound per square feet

c) Cubic feet per min

d) Cubic feet per inch

87. Air pressure delivered through

a) Pound per square inch

b) Pound per square feet

c) Cubic feet per min

d) Cubic feet per inch

88. Which blasting use is removal for soluble salts?

a) Wet abrasive blasting

b)Dry abrasive blasting

c) Solvent / with water

d) Water wash

89. Which blasting use are removal for Sulphate and chloride?

a) High pressure water blasting

b)High pressure water plus abrasive

c) Low pressure water plus abrasive

d) Water wash

90. Which blasting use is removal for toxic materials?

a) Wet abrasive blasting

b)Dry abrasive blasting

c) Solvent / with water

d) Water wash
91. How many photographs totally covered as per BS 7079?

a) 32

b) 24

c) 28

d) 30

92. Another name for a Vapour Trap is?

a) Air wash cup

b) Dry out pot

c) Knock out pot

d) Pressure regulator

93. One of the most important safety items of equipment in abrasive blasting is

a) Dry abrasive mix

b) The banana gauge

c) Dead means handle

d) 100 psi compressor

94. Miser Valve ___________________ in dry blasting

a) Controls the Air Pressure

b) Controls the flow of abrasives

c) Removes oil and water

d) Avoids leakage

95. The optimum pressure to achieve 100% efficiency in abrasive blast cleaning is?

a) 75 psi

b) 450 psi

c) 100 psi

d) 220 psi
96. Reccova valve is ____________

a)Control abrasive transfer

b)Stores abrasives

c)Removes water

d)Control air from compressor

97. With every 11 degree rise in temperature, the air’s ability to hold water

a) Would rise by 11%

b) Would half

c) Would double

d) Would decrease by 11%

98. Carbon Impregnated hoses are used to

a) Conduct Electricity

b) Prevent static electricity

c) Reduce friction

d) Discharge static electricity

99. _______________ can be used to check air pressure

a) Hygrometer

b) Surface profile needle gauge

c) Hypodermic needle gauge

d) Touch pyrometer

100. Why steam cleaning is not conducive the oil and gas industry?

a) Require electricity

b)Need more water

c) Require heat source

d) Highly expensive
101. Air/Abrasive stream is using water approx.

a) One and a half litre /min

b)Need more water

c) Two litre/min

d) Three litre / min

102. Sometimes use flame cleaning at site, what should be followed?

a) Approval site engineer

b) Once get approval from client

c) Using wire brushing grades

d) Not to be used oil and gas industry

103. The blasting hose should be carbon impregnated?

a) Under direct operator control for his/her own safety

b) To reduce the chance of the operator getting shock form static

c) Black color gives good look

d) Carbon hose increase the speed of abrasive speed

104. How much air supplied, if nozzle size is ½ inch

a)450 cfm

b)413cfm

c)100 cfm

d)220 cfm

105. Which of the recommended stand-off distance and speed at which the abrasive leaves a
Venturi Nozzle?

a) 450 mm and 200 mph

b) 220 mm and 450 mph

c) 220 mm and 220 mph

d) 450 mm and 450 mph


106. Compared to a Venturi Nozzle, a straight bore nozzle would give

a) Better paint application

b) More speed

c) Larger area coverage

d) Greater accuracy

107. Operating pressure at

a) 200 psi

b) 450 psi

c) 100 psi

d) 220 psi

108. What safety requirement covered for blasting equipment used?

a) HASAWA

b) COSHH

c) EPA

d) IGE/SR21

109. IGE SR 21 is associated with

a) Gas Plant Manufacture

b) Handling of Methanol

c) Abrasive Blasting Safety

d) Using of Sand Abrasive

110. Burnishing will produce by

a) Needle gun

b) Wire brush

c) Emery cloth

d) Grinders
111. Which one is not associated with wet blasting?

a) Spark free

b) Profile roughness

c) Remove Toxic contents

d) Remove Soluble Salts

112. High pressure water blasting operates up to which pressure?

a) 100 psi

b) 10,000 psi

c) 250 psi

d) 30000 psi

113. High pressure water plus abrasive injection operates up to which pressure?

a) 100 psi

b) 20,000 psi

c) 250 psi

d) 30000 psi

114. Low pressure water plus abrasive injection operates up to which pressure?

a) 100 psi

b) 20,000 psi

c) 250 psi

d) 30000 psi

115. Which type of the cleaning not allowed in the Oil and Gas industry?

a) Dry abrasive

b) Water jetting

c) Steam cleaning

d) Hand and power tool


116. Which application not in hand and power tool?

a) wire brushing

b) needle gunning

c) grinding

d) None of the above

117. Wire brushes used for BGas hand & power tool cleaning, must be made from which

material?

a) Tungsten or Stainless steel

b) Copper or Brass

c) Beryllium Bronze or Phosphor Bronze

d) The same material as the pipe

118. A typical remedy for burnishing would be.

a) Power brushing

b) Emery paper or similar

c) Needle gun

d) Addition of thinners

119. Very coarse profile will occurs when

a)High pressure Water blasting

b)Flame cleaning

c)Dry Abrasive blasting

d)Needle Gunning

120. Phosphor Bronze/Beryllium Bronze refers to

a) Sparking Alloys

b) Non Sparking Alloys

c) Alloys of Nickel

d) Ferroalloys
121. Which of the hand and power tool equipment not allowed in the Gas industry?

a) Phosphor bronze

b) Beryllium bronze

c) Grinding wheel

d) Emery cloth

122. Which grade is not having photographs in wire brushing?

a) Rust Grade B

b) Rust Grade C

c) Rust Grade A

d) Rust Grade D

123. Which one factor is not flame cleaning?

a) Expansion

b) Dehydration

c) Heat penetration

d) Passivation

124. Phosphate process of steel structure is termed as

a) Expansion

b) Passivation

c) Cathodic protection

d) Salt Detection

125. Which of the following do not belong to the Footners Duplex System?

a) Chromic Acid or Phosphoric acid

b) Sulphuric Acid

c) Iron Sulphates and IronChloride

d) Iron fillings
126. Chemical cleaning is another name for

a)Silver nitrate test

b)Potassium ferry cyanide test

c) Pickling

d)Copper sulphate test

127. Concentration and temperature of sulphuric acid in pickling process

a) 5-10% , 65-70 oC and 5-25 minutes

b) 65-70% , 5-10oC and 5-20 minutes

c) 2%, 80oC and 5-25 minutes

d) 80%, 65-75 oC and 5-20 minutes

128. Concentration and temperature of phosphoric/chromic acid in pickling process

a) 5-10% , 65-70 oC and 5-25 minutes

b) 2% , 80 oC and 1-2 minutes

c) 2%, 80oC and 5-25 minutes

d) 80%, 65-75 oC and 5-20 minutes

129. What is pH?

a) Percentage of Hydrogen

b) Percentage of Helium

c) Potential of Hydrogen

d) Potential of Helium

130. Which pH range covers Acids?

a) 7 to 14

b) 0 to 7

c) 0 to 14

d) 5 to 10
131. Which pH range covers Alkalinity?

a) 7 to 14

b) 0 to 7

c) 0 to 14

d) 5 to 10

132. When measuring acidity, alkalinity, distilled water has a pH value is?

a) 1

b) 3.5 to 4.5

c) 0 to 14

133. Which PH range is required after chemical cleaning of steel substrate?

a) 7

b) 7 - 14

c) 4.5 – 7

d) 0

134. What is the neutral figure on the pH scale?

a) 7

b) 7 - 14

c) 4.5 – 7

d) 0

135. What is the main cause of flash rusting on a substrate?

a) Rogue Peaks

b) Moisture

c) Hackles

d) Hygroscopic salts
136. Inclusion is defect related to

a)Rogue peak

b)Lamination

c)Hackle

d)High thickness profile

137. If Profile thickness is higher than specified, result will be

a) Rash rusting

b) Cause Paint adhesion

c) Blisters

d) Mill scale

138. Where would you normally use a comparator gauge?

a) At CP system reference point

b) To determine surface roughness

c) Check for correct pre-heat prior to application of FBE

d) To assess the rust Grade of a material.

139. Wet abrasive blast cleaning of a surface should be followed by dry abrasive blast cleaning?

a) Only as directed by the engineer

b) To remove the surface profile created by the wet process

c) Because the immediate oxidation of the substrate after wet blasting must be removed

d) Does not required

140. Un fused area in steel is _____________

a)Sliver

b)Rogue Peak

c)Hackle

d)Pinhole
141. Lamination found must referred to

a) Engineer

b) Site inspector

c) Contractor

d) Project Manager

142. Which of the recommended stand-off distance and speed at which the abrasive leaves a

Straight bore Nozzle?

a) 450 mm and 200 mph

b) 220 mm and 450 mph

c) 220 mm and 220 mph

d) 450 mm and 450 mph

143. Surface profile thickness assets by

a) The Comparators

b) Dial micrometer and needle gauge

c) Dial micrometer with replica tape

d) Digital surface needle gauge

144. Every 1psi drop in pressure results in an efficiency drop of

a) 2 psi

b) 1 ½ psi

c) 3 psi

d) None

145. Enclosed blasting chambers are used because

a) They protect other people and equipment from blast scatter

b) They are cheap to set up

c) They provide adequate surface profile

d) They normally use expendable abrasives


146. Burnishing needs to be treated by

a) Needle gun

b) Wire brushes

c) Grinders

d) Emery cloth

147. Enclosed system is

a) Water blasting

b) Wheelabrators

c) Flame cleaning

d) Hand and power tool

148. Open blasting system is

a) Water Jetting

b) Wheelabrators

c) Flame cleaning

d) Chemical process

149. Mill scale removed by

a) Use needle gun

b) Bristle on the brushes

c) Water Jetting

d) Dry blasting

150. Which type of nozzle given greater control?

a) Venture Nozzle

b)Short bore Nozzle

c) Straight bore Nozzle

d) Angled Nozzle
151. Copper Slag is

a) Shatters

b) Does not shatters

c) Spherical

d) None of the above

152. Limits for Testex Tape use Coarse

a) 0.8 to 2.0 mil

b) 0.6 to 2.0 mil

c) 0.8 to 4.0 mil

d) 0.6 to 4.0 mil

153. Limits for Testex Tape use X - Coarse

a) 0.8 to 2.0 mil

b) 0.6 to 2.0 mil

c) 1.5 to 4.5 mil

d) 1.6 to 4.0 mil

SURFACE CONTAMINANTS AND TESTS FOR DETECTION # 3

Qualitative test Quantitative test

Test for soluble iron salts Merkoquant

Potassium Hexa-cyanoferrate Test Bresle sample patch

Test to detect soluble chlorides Salt contamination meters

Silver Nitrate Test dolly test

Copper Sulphate Test

Test to detect the presence of mill scale

Test to detect the presence of dust on a substrate

Test to detect the presence of moisture on a substrate


01. A procedure to test for the presence of Hygroscopic salts, is the

a) PotassiumHexa-cyanoferrate test

b) Copper sulphate test

c) Footners Duplex test

d) Hegman Grind test

02. The test for detecting soluble chloride salts?

a) The silver Nitrate Test

b) The Copper Sulphate Test

c) Ford Flow cup test

d) The ultra violet test

03. Which of the following is not a test for contaminants?

a) Silver Nitrate Test

b) Gold leaf test

c) Copper sulphate test

d) Powdered chalk or Talcum powder test

04. Which one is not quantitative test?

a)Silver nitrate test

b)Dolly test

c)Bresle sample patch test

d)Banana gauge test

05. ___________ can be used to detect the presence of oil or grease

a) Copper sulphate

b) Transparent Sticking Paper

c) UV Light

d) Bresle Sample Patch


06. Colour of Mill scale

a) Dark Blue

b) Dark Grey

c) Black

d) No Colour

07. Colour of Blasted Steel

a) Dark Blue

b) Dark Grey

c) Black

d) No Colour

08. Which test are measure the resistivity and conductivity?

a) Bresle sample patch

b) Salt contamination meters

c) The potassium hexa-cyanoferrate test

d) The wolf will born Test

09. Which test cannot detect hygroscopic salts?

a) Potassiumferricyanide

b) Silver nitrate

c) Bresle sample patch

d) Copper Sulphate

10. Which of the following is a quantitative test to detect chloride salts?

a) Silver nitrate test

b) Potassium test

c) Bresle Sample test

d) All of the above


11. Which of the following test to use marine environment?

a) Silver nitrate test

b) Potassium test

c) Bresle Sample test

d) copper sulphate test

12.Test to find out the presence of Mill scale in SA 3 finish?

a) Silver nitrate test

b) Merkoquant test

c) Bresle sample test

d) Copper sulphate solution

13. The test for soluble iron salts (ferrous) is important because

a) these salts may be present because of active corrosion cells.

b) these salts may be present because of improper manufacturing procedures at the steel

rolling mill.

c) these salts will mix with the coating and improve adhesion.

d) these salts will leach out and create an acidic surface.

14. Which of the following are quantitative test?

a) PotassiumHexa-cyanoferrate

b) Copper sulphate

c) Silver Nitrate Test

d) Bresle Sample Patch

15. Which of the following is not a test for contaminants?

a) Sellotape

b) Banana gauge

c) Talcum Powder

d) Solvent
16. Why a painting inspector keep potassium ferry cyanide solution

a) For checking mill scale

b) For checking hygroscopic salts

c) For detecting oil and grease

d) For pickling process

17. Mill scale test done, which Blast grade is

a) Sa1

b) Sa2 and Above

c) Sa2½ and Above

d) Sa3

18. ___________ can be used to detect the presence of moisture

a) Copper sulphate solution

b) Transparent Sticking Paper

c) UV Light

d) Talc powder

19. What type of test is used in photographic developer?

a) Potassium hexa-cyanoferrate test

b) Copper sulphate test

c) Silver nitrate test

d) Merkoquant test

20. The text for detecting soluble sulphates and chloride salts on the steel substrate is

a) The Xylene salt solution

b) The copper sulphate solution

c) The potassiumhexa-cyanoferrate test

d) The wolf Wilborn Test


PAINT CONSTITUENTS AND BASIC TECHNOLOGY # 4

Basic ingredients in Paints

1. Binder

2. Pigments and other additives

3. Solvent (where applicable)

Paints are supplied as either liquids or solids in powder form.

Binder;

Binds the particles together and holds them in suspension

Gives the paint its finish

Makes the coating adhere in to the surface

Gives flexibility to the paint film.

Converts the coating to a solid dry film.

Gives resistance to water, chemical, and abrasion.

Pigment:

Gives colour to the paint.

Gives opacity to the paint.

Gives resistance to acids, alkalis and light.

Solvent:

Forms the evaporative part of the drying process.

Thins the paint so it can be applied easily.

Washes out the brushes and equipment.

Acts as a degreasing agent if approved.

Types of Binder

Acrylic

Alkyd
Asphaltic bitumen’s

Cellulose resins

Chlorinated rubber

Emulsions

Epoxies

Ethyl and Methyl Silicates

Phenolic resins

Polyurethane’s

Silicones

Styrene

Vinyl

Natural oils

Linseed Oil, Tung Oil (also known as China Wood Oil), Soya Oil, Tall Oil and Safflower Oil.

Natural resins

Copals, dammars and Coumarones

Binder solvent combinations

Solvent water

Common name nil

Combination binder Emulsions PVC/PVA, Vinyl’s,

Acrylics , Polyurethane

Strength Low → compare to aliphatic HC

Solvent Aliphatic Hydrocarbons

Common name White sprit

Combination binder Natural oil, natural resins , alkyds,

phenolic

Strength Low → compare to aromatic HC


Solvent Aromatic Hydrocarbons

Common name Xylene

Combination binder Chlorinated rubber

Strength Low → compare to ketones

Solvent Ketones

Common name Acetone

Combination binder epoxy

Strength high→ compare to others

on’t use binder with strong solvent over a weak solvent. ( Existing coat )

Example: Chlorinated Rubber coated over an Alkyd would result in lifting, and wrinkling,

Would it be acceptable practice to apply an Alkyd over Chlorinated Rubber?

Advisable

Would it be acceptable practice to apply Chlorinated Rubber over Phenolic?

Not Advisable

Would it be acceptable practice to apply Phenolic Resin over Chlorinated Rubber?

Advisable

Would it be acceptable practice to apply Epoxy over linseed oil base?

Not Advisable

Would it be acceptable practice to apply Chlorinated Rubber over Epoxy?

Advisable

Would it be acceptable practice to apply Epoxy Resin over Alkyd Resin?

Not Advisable

Polymers

Liner Polymer
Non-convertible or reversible material

Thermoplastic

Binders:

Acrylics, Vinyl’s, Chlorinated Rubber, Asphalt and Coal Tars and Cellulosic Resins.

Branched Polymer

Non-reversible or convertible coatings

Thermosetting.

Binders:

Natural Oils and Natural Resins, and isomers such as Alkyds and Phenolic.

Cross linked Polymer

Non-reversible or convertible coatings

Thermosetting.

Binder:

Epoxies

Oils

Natural oils (vegetable oils)

Linseed, castor, olive, coconut, soya and Tung oil.

Saturated oil (Non-drying oil) cannot be used

Ex: Castor oil, coconut oil, palm oil

Non-Saturated oil (Drying oil) can be used

Ex: Linseed oil, Tung oil, china wood oil, olive oil, safflower oil.
Long oil paint more than

60%

slower drying / domestic applications, decorative

materials

Medium oil

paint

between 45 – 60%

oil to resin

Short oil paints less than 45% faster drying / shorter over coating time / steel work

Pigments

Rust inhibitive pigments - anti-corrosive

a) Red lead * Red

b) Calcium plumbate * White

c) Coal tar * Black

d) Zinc chromate * Yellow

e) Zinc phosphate (most commonly used)white.

f) Barium metaborate

g) Zinc phosphosilicate Yellow

Metallic Pigments

Zinc, Aluminium

Opaque pigments

Opaque pigments are given covering power, (opacity) and colour.

Carbon Black

Compound of Cobalt Blue

Compound of Chromium Greens Yellows and Oranges

Compound of Iron Browns Reds and Yellows


Compound of Calcium Reds and Yellows

Titanium Dioxide White

Extender pigments

Properties

adhesion

cohesion

film strength

durability

Materials used

Clays Kaolin, China clay

Chalk Calcium carbonate

Talcum Magnesium silicate

Slate flour Aluminium silicate

Laminar pigments

Plate like pigments are MIO (Micaceous Iron Oxide), Aluminium Flake, Glass Flake, Mica and
Graphite

PVC (Pigment Volume Concentration)

CPVC, Critical Pigment Volume Concentration

Below CPVC

Too much of binder

good gloss properties

poor covering power (opacity)

low cohesive strength

Above CPVC
Near CPVC (good pigment to binder ratio)

Solvents

Anti-settling agents or Thixotropic agents

Plasticisers

A plasticizer is a paint reduces the brittleness of the dried film by allowing the molecules of

the paint to move more easily. There by making it more plastic.

Driers or catalyst

Driers added to accelerate the drying process. Drier consists of compound of metal e.g.

Napthenats of cobalt, zirconiµm Manganese.

Octoic Acid and Naphthanic Acid Stabilisers

Holds modern synthetic film formers intact and helps to prevent flocculation occurring intin. Anti-
skinning

Methyl Ethyl Ketoxime.


1. A barrier type paint system, must be capable of providing?

a) Good capacity

b) Low permeability

c) High permeability

d) Low opacity

2. Example for paint involving barrier principle

a) Zinc rich epoxy

b) Zinc or Aluminium

c) Urethane

d) Rust inhibitive primers

3. Rust inhibitive primers operate by?

a) Oxidation to protect the substrate

b) Pigmentation

c) Zinc phosphate

d) Passivation

4. Cathodic protection using pigmentation?

a) Rust inhibitive primers

b) Zinc in Zinc rich primers

c) Zinc phosphate

d) Urethane

5. Paint is constructed of which 3 basic ingredients?

a) Polymers, Epoxy, and Colourant

b) Natural Oils, Dyes and Hardeners

c) Oil, Color and extenders

d) Binder, Solvent, Pigments & other Additives


6. Which term is not relate with binder

a) VOC

b) Film former

c) Vehicle

d) Non volatile

7. Vehicle is

a) pigments

b) binder

c) solvent

d) MLC

8. Major considerations of a binder are:

a) Flow properties or viscosity

b) Resistance to chemical attack according to environment.

c) Cohesive strength and Dialectric strength.

d) All the above

8. Which is not a property of binder?

a)Cohesive strength

b) Leafing effect

c)Resist water

d) Hold pigments in suspension

9. Alcohol –Acid are derived

a) Acrylic

b) Alkyd

c) Asphaltic bitumen

d) Cellulose resins
10. The paint which prone chalking in top coat?

a) The Epoxy

b) The polyurethane’s

c) The Chlorinated rubber

d) The acrylic

11. Which of the following binders are reversible?

a) Epoxy

b) Urethane

c) Chlorinated Rubber

d) Silicone

12. Which of the following is not a commonly used binder?

a) Epoxy

b) Zinc

c) Urethane

d) Vinyl

13. Which of the following is natural oil?

a) Dammar

b) Alkyd

c) Castrol

d) Xylene

14. Which of the following is natural oil?

a) Copals

b) Amber

c) Olive

d) Dammars
15. Which of the following is not natural oil?

a) Castor

b) Amber

c) Olive

d) Linseed

16. Natural oils are

a) Slow drying properties

b) Hot drying oil

c) Fast drying

d) Non-drying oil

17. Natural oils are

a) Linseed oil

b) Tung oil

c) Soya oil

d) All the above

18. Natural oils are

a) China wood oil

b) Tall oil

c) Safflower oil

d) All the above

19. Natural oils are

a) Linseed oil

b) Castor oil

c) Coconut oil

d) All the above


20. China wood oils known as

a) Linseed oil

b) Tung oil

c) Tall oil

d) All the above

21. Which of the following is not a natural resin?

a) Copal

b) Amber

c) Dammar

d) Linseed

22. Examples for natural resin

a) Amber, Laq

b) Soya Oil, Tung Oil

c) Bitumen , Coal tar

d) Phenolic resin, Cellulosic resin

23. Examples for natural resin

a) Copals

b) Coumarones

c) Dammars

d) All the above

24. Oleoresinous known as

a) A mixture of oil and resin

b) A mixture of oil and water

c) A mixture of resin and acid

d) A mixture of water and resin


25. Natural resins are

a) Slow drying properties

b) Hot drying oil

c) Fast drying

d) Semi-drying oil

26. Hot drying oils are

a) Phenolic resins

b) polyurethanes

c) Cellulose resins

d) Styrene

27. Metal sprayed surfaces can be sealed with

a) Phenolics

b) Silicones

c) Cellulose Resins

d) Vinyl

28. Which one is convertible?

a) CR

b) Vinyl

c) Natural Resin

d) Emulsion

29. Which binder has no problem to overcoat on white spirit based binder?

a) Alkyds

b) Epoxy

c) CR

d) Natural Resin
30. Which solvent group is suitable for chlorinated rubber paints?

a) Xylene

b) Ketones

c) Water

d) White Spirit

31. Example for aliphatic HC solvents

a) Water

b) Xylene

c) Turpentine

d) Acetone

32. Which one is more suitable for CR paint to increase flexibility

a) Alkyd resin

b) Linseed oil

c) Bentones

d) Coconut oil

33. What will happen when applying strong solvent binder paint over a week solvent binder paint?

a) Strong solvent will dissolved into weak solvent & cause of wrinkle or lifting

b) Nothing happen

c) Paint appearance more glossy

d) Viscosity of paint will reduce

34. Which paint from below, can be applied over Phenolics?

a) CR

b) Epoxy

c) Alkyd

d) None of these
35. Which paint from below, can be applied over CR?

a) Phonelics

b) Epoxy

c) Alkyd

d) None of these

36. Which paint frombelow; can be applied over Natural resins?

a) CR

b) Acrylics

c) Epoxy

d) None of these

37. Which paint from below, cannot be applied over Alkyd?

a) Acetone

b) Epoxy

c) Chlorinated Rubber

d) None of these

38. Which paint from below, cannot be applied over CR?

a) Phonelics

b) Epoxy

c) Alkyd

d) None of these

39. Which one material is used on operating temperature?

a) Epoxy

b) Xylene

c) Silicone

d) China Clay
40. Cobwebs happened

a) Brush application

b) Spray application

c) Roller application

d) None of the above

41. Solution polymer as a

a) Branched polymer

b) Crossed link polymer

c) Linear polymer

d) None of the above

42. Backbone of the structure in form of the polymerisation

a) Hydrogen

b) Carbon

c) Chlorine

d) Nitrogen

43. Example for linear polymerisation?

a) Acrylics

b) Vinyl’s

c) Chlorinated rubber

d) All the above

44. Which is not a linear polymerisation?

a) Asphalt

b) Coal tars

c) Cellulosic resins

d) Alkyds
45. Which of the following are said to be reversible?

a) Cross linked polymer

b) Branched polymer

c) Linear polymer

d) Convertible coating

46. Which of the following are said to be non-convertible?

a) Cross linked polymer

b) Branched polymer

c) Linear polymer

d) Convertible coating

47. Which of the following are said to be thermoplastic?

a) Cross linked polymer

b) Branched polymer

c) Linear polymer

d) Convertible coating

48. Which of the following are said to be non-reversible?

a) Branched polymer

b) Linear polymer

c) Convertible coating

d) None of the above

49. Which of the following are said to be convertible?

a) Branched polymer

b) Linear polymer

c) Convertible coating

d) None of the above


50. Which of the following are said to be thermosetting?

a) Branched polymer

b) Linear polymer

c) Convertible coating

d) All of the above

51. Example for Branched polymerisation?

a) Alkyds

b) Isomers

c) Phenolics

d) All the above

52. Example for not Branched polymerisation?

a) Natural oils

b) Natural resins

c) Phenolics

d) Epoxies

53. Which of the following are said to be non-reversible?

a)Linear polymer

b) Cross linked polymer

c) Convertible coating

d) None of the above

54. Which of the following are said to be convertible?

a)Linear polymer

b) Cross linked polymer

c) Convertible coating

d) All of the above


55. Which of the following are said to be thermosetting?

a)Linear polymer

b) Cross linked polymer

c) Convertible coating

d) None of the above

56. Example for Cross linked polymerisation.

a) Acrylics

b) Alkyds

c) Isomers

d) Epoxy

57. By which polymerisation method a two pack epoxy paint dry

a) Cross linked Polymer

b) Branched Polymer

c) Solution Polymer

d) Linear Polymer

58. A paint drying by chemical reaction is said to be

a) Linear polymer

b) Convertible

c) Non-convertible

d) Reversible

59. Which polymerisation done in oxidation drying paints?

a) linear

b) Solution

c) Branched

d) Cross linked
60. Which one is saturated oil?

a) Linseed oil

b) Tung oil

c) Palm oil

d) China wood oil

61. Which one is unsaturated oil?

a) Linseed oil

b) Tung oil

c) Olive oil

d) All the above

62. A saturated oil can be used in binder for

a) Fast drying

b) Shelf life

c) Flexibility

d) Anti-skinning

63. Which one is rapid drying oil?

a) Linseed oil

b) Tung oil

c)China wood oil

d) All the above

64. Non- drying oils can be used in paints, for __________

a) Fast drying

b) Slow drying

c) Activate Chemical reaction

d) Flexibility
65. Saturated oil as a

a) Drying oil

b) Semi drying oil

c) Non-drying oil

d) All the above

66. Which one is suitable for steel work?

a) Short oil paint

b) Medium oil paint

c) Long Oil paint

d) Full Oil paint

67. Which one is long oil paint?

a) Less than 45% oil to resin

b) Between 45-60% oil to resin

c) More than 60% oil to resin

d) None of the above

68. Which one is medium oil paint?

a) Less than 45% oil to resin

b) Between 45-60% oil to resin

c) More than 60% oil to resin

d) All of the above

69. Which one is short oil paint?

a) Less than 45% oil to resin

b) Between 45-60% oil to resin

c) More than 60% oil to resin

d) None of the above


70. Which one is suitable for domestic or decorative purpose?

a) Short oil paint

b) Medium oil paint

c) Long Oil paint

d) Full Oil paint

71. What are the properties of pigment?

a) Cohesively strength

b) Abrasive resistance

c) Impermeability

d) All the above

72. Pigment particle size is

a) ¼ th micron

b) ½ th micron

c) 1/10 th micron

d) 1/5 th micron

73. Which one is a non-toxic pigment?

a) Zinc Phosphate

b) Zinc Chromate

c) Read Lead

d) Coal tar

74. What is the color of most common used Rust inhibitive pigment?

a) Grey

b) Black

c) Red

d) White
75. Pigment, which dissolve in a binder called

a) Lacquer

b) Dye

c) Varnish

d) Solute

76. Rust inhibitive pigment are added to primer to protect the steel substrate by

a) Passivation

b) Evaporation

c) Cathodic protection

d) UV protection

77. Which one is give galvanic protection?

a) Aluminum

b) Zinc

c) Glass flake

d) China Clay

78. Which one is give solar protection?

a) Aluminum

b) Zinc

c) Glass flake

d) China Clay

79. An additive that gives a point material its hiding power?

a) A plasticizer

b) A thyrotrophic

c) A drier

d) A pigment
80. Properties of opaque pigment

a) Hiding power

b) Colour

c) Opacity

d) All the above

81. Which one is opaque pigment?

a) Cobalt

b) Chromium

c) Calcium

d) All the above

82. Which of the following is an opaque pigment?

a) Graphite

b) Compound of Chromium

c) Zirconium Octoate

d) Zinc Phosphate

83. Which one is Carbon?

a) Blue

b)Red

c) Black

d) Yellow

84. Which one is Titanium dioxide?

a) Blue

b)Red

c) Black

d) White
85. Which one cannot be used for yellow colour paint?

a)Chromium

b)Cobalt

c)Calcium

d)Iron

86. Which is not a property of extender pigments?

a) Increase Gloss

b) Increase Adhesion

c) Increase Cohesion

d) Increase film strength

87. Which of the following is an extender?

a) Calcium carbonate

b) Magnesium Silicate

c) Aluminium silicate

d) All the above

88. Which of the following is an extender?

a) Graphite

b) Mica

c) Glass Flake

d) China Clay

89. Which one is not a laminar pigment?

e) MIO

f) Aluminium flake

g) Glass flake

h) China Clay
90. Which of the following is a laminar pigment?

a) Graphite

b) Mica

c) Glass Flake

d) All the above

91. PPM

a) Parts per million

b) Per parts million

c) Parts per Micron

d) None of the above

92. Which type of the following pigment is giving leaf effect?

a) Opaque pigment

b) Extender Pigment

c) Laminar pigment

d) All of the above

93. Specular Hematite is commonly called

a) Mill scale

b) Rust

c) MIO

d) Iron Sulphate

94. Theory of overleap when the coating dries

a) Opaque pigment

b) Extender Pigment

c) Laminar pigment

d) All of the above


95. Which of the following considered being a laminar pigment?

a) Micaceous iron oxide

b) Red Lead

c) Coal tar

d) Zinc phosphate

96. Which laminar pigment is best for UV protection?

a)Aluminum Flake

b)MIO

c)Glass Flake

d)Graphite

97. Which of the following is not a laminar pigment?

a) Graphite

b) Glass Flake

c) Magnesium Silicate

d) Mica

98. Expansion of CPVC

a) Central pigment volume concentration

b) Critical pigment volume concentration

c) Control pigment volume concentration

d) Critical paint volume concentration

99. Too much binder to solid ratio gives

a) Good Opacity

b) Good Gloss

c) Cohesive Strength

d) Porous Film
100. Greater cohesive strength

a) Below CPVC

b) Near CPVC

c) Above CPVC

d) All the above

101. Poor covering power

a) Below CPVC

b) Near CPVC

c) Above CPVC

d) All the above

102. What would be the main problem of a low CPVC?

a) High opacity

b) Permeability

c) Low gloss

d) Low opacity

103. Solvent are added to paint to reduce

a) Viscosity

b) Toxic

c) Velocity

d) Good gloss

104. Properties of solvent

e) Strength

f) Flash Point

g) Evaporation rate

h) All the above


105. The minimum temperature of the solvent at which the vapours given off are flammable if a
source of ignition is introduced as

a) Evaporation rate

b) Flash Point

c) Toxicity

d) Solvent strength

106. Which property of a solvent is not best?

a) Low evaporation rate

b) Low toxicity

c) Low flashpoint

d) High evaporation rate

107. Toxicity measured in

a)Mph

b)Psi

c) Ppm

d)Cfm

108. Which of the following is an additive?

a) Opaque pigments

b) Rust inhibitive pigments

c) Thickening agents

d) Thinners

109. Which of the following are commonly used as anti-settling agents?

a) Heavy metal salts

b) Bentones & Waxes

c) Saturated Oils

d) Extender pigments
110. Thixotrops are of _____________ type

a) Liquid

b) Solid

c) Gel

d) Solvent

111. Anti-settling agents are

a) Bentones

b) Zirconium

c) Castor Oil

d) Cobalt

112. Anti-settling agents are allow

a) low film thickness

b) higher film thickness

c) average film thickness

d) All the above

113. Which additive used in paints to stop settlements

a) Drying oils

b) Non Drying oils

c) Wax

d) Anti-skinning agents

114. Basically plasticiser gives

a) flexibility

b) Thickness

c) oxidation

d) stop settlement
115. Which additive in the paint helps to prevent film cracking in use?

a) A thyrotrophic

b) A plasticizer

c) A drier

d) A Stabilizer

116. Example for drier additive?

a) Bentones and waxes

b) Castrol Oil

c) Methyl ethyl Ketoxime

d) Cobalt naphthantes

117. Octoates and Cobalt naphthantes are

a) Plasticisers

b) Anti-selling agents

c) Driers

d) Anti-skinning agents

118. Anti-oxidants are

a) Plasticisers

b) Anti-settling agents

c) Driers

d) Anti-skinningagents

119. Which one is used to retard the formation of skin in paint solution?

a) Palm Oil

b) Octoic Acid

c) Methyl Ethyl Ketoxime

d) Bentones
120. If more pigments added in a paint, then the surface should be ___________

a) Gloss

b) Matt

c) Grinning

d) Fast Drying

121. Which one is not a property of binder?

a) Adhesion

b) Cohesion

c) Evaporation

d) Dielectric strength

122. When use Compound of Calcium pigment which type of colour produced?

a) Red

b) Black

c) White

d) Blue

123. The most widely used materials for pipeline coating are which of the following?

a) Alkyd enamels

b) Fusion-bonded epoxies

c) Thermoset plastics

d) High density latexes

124. Which term cannot be used for solid particles in binder?

a) Aggregates

b) Emulsion

c) Degree of dispersion

d) Fineness of grind
125. Which paint constituent can be found in powder form?

a) The Binders

b) The Solvents

c) The Driers

d) The Anti-skinning agent

126. A paint said to have a good opacity will

a) Have low permeability

b) Have good hiding power

c) Have a low CPVC

d) Have a low minimum gloss value

127. Which is not property of binder?

a) Cohesive Strength

b) Leafing Effect

c) Resist Water

d) Hold Pigments in suspension

128. Which additive in the paint helps to prevent film cracking in use?

a) A thixotropic

b) A plasticizer

c) A drier

d) A Extender

129. Magnesium silicate is

a) Clays

b) Chalk

c) Talcum

d) Slate flour
130. Aluminium silicate is

a) Clays

b) Chalk

c) Talcum

d) Slate flour

131. Calcium carbonate is

a) Clays

b) Chalk

c) Talcum

d) Slate flour

132. Magnesium silicate is

a) Rust Inhibitive pigment

b) Opaque pigment

c) Extender pigment

d) Laminar Pigment
SOLUTIONS AND DISPERSIONS # 5

1. A solution is

a) The resultant liquid of a polymerization event

b) The resultant liquid after dispersing a liquid another liquid

c) The resultant liquid of a solid suspension

d) The resultant liquid after dissolving a material in a solvent

2. Paint is a _________________

a)Solution

b)Solute

c)Solvent

d) Dispersion

3. Example for suspension

a) Water Based Emulsion

b) Oil Mixed With Water

c) Salt Water

d) Pigmented paint

4. Example for Emulsion

a) Water with water

b) Oil Mixed With Water

c) Salt Water

d) Pigmented paint
DRYING AND CURING OF PAINT FILMS #6

1. Solvent Evaporation

-convertible

2.Oxidation

-reversible

3.Chemical Curing

2. Coalescence

Thermosetting(Coatings which do not melt after the application of heat are known as thermo

set coatings)

-reversible

Thermoplastic(Paints which melt when heat is applied are known as thermoplastic coatings)

-convertible

Name the Paints & give their drying and curing methods

Emulsion coalescence
Alkyd Solvent evaporation followed by oxidation

Chlorinated rubber Solvent evaporation

Two pack epoxy Solvent evaporation followed by chemical

curing

Fusion bonded epoxy Heat cured

1 Which is not a drying method?

a) Coalescence

b) Air Drying

c) Stoving

d) Force Drying

2. Ambient temperatures refers to

a) Coalescence

b) Air Drying

c) Stoving

d) Force Drying

3. Which term is used when heat applied over 65 oC for Drying of Paint?

a) Metal Spray

b) Air Drying

c) Stoving

d) Forced Drying

4. Which of the following is not a drying mechanism?

a) Coalescence

b) Oxidation

c) Stove drying

d) Chemical curing
5. Chlorinated Rubber will dry

a) Oxidation

b) Chemical curing

c) Solvent Evaporation

d) None of the above

6. Example for Solvent evaporation drying

a) Epoxy

b) Alkyd

c) Acrylic

7. Solvent evaporation dryingis

a) Branched polymer

b) Linear polymer

c) Crossed link polymer

d) None of the above

8. Paint drying is solvent evaporation in

a) Convertible

b) Reversible

c) Non-reversible

d) Cross linked

9. A single pack epoxy paint dry by

a) Coalescence

b) Chemical curing

c) Oxidation

d) Solvent evaporation
10. A Multi component paint dried by

a) Solvent evaporation

b) Oxidation

c) Chemical reaction

d) Coalescence

11. A typical pot life of paint used in BGas specification would be.

a) 20-30 minutes

b) 12-24 hours

c) 6-8 hours

d) 3-7 days

12. A typical induction period of paint used in BGas specification would be.

a) 20-30 minutes

b) 12-24 hours

c) 6-8 hours

d) 3-7 days

13. Pot life mentioned in

a) Material data sheet

b) Job sheet

c) Paint inspection sheet

d) None of the above

14. Stand time or lead time are called

a) Pot life

b) Induction time

c) Drying time

d) None of the above


15. Two pack material curing agents

a) Alkyds and Acrylics

b) Tulane and Xylene

c) Amides and Amines

d) All of the above

13. Pot life is

a)The period of the length of time after mixing which the paint should be before use

b) The period of time after mixing which the paint must be used

c) Physically join together

d) None of the above

14. Chemically curing materials are

a) Convertible

b) Non-convertible

c) Reversible

d) All of the above

15. Endothermic reactions are

a) Container will warm up and giving heat

b) Container will cooling and taking in heat

c) Container removes

d) All of the above


PAINT SYSTEMS #7

Functions of Primers, Midcoat, & Finish Coats.

Primer- To provide Maximum lasting adhesion to a substrate for the next paint layer and retard

corrosion. Midcoat- Barrier to prevent the passage of Water.

Finish Coat – Gives Final appearance, degree of gloss & colour. Resistance to abrasion, UV rays,

Weather .To aids the flow from the surface of the metal.

Mordent solution, t wash, wash primer = etch primer

Aluminium etch primer – poly vinyl butyl

1. The BGas specification for site application of paint system is

a) BGC/PS/PA10

b) BGC/PS/CW5

c) BGC/PS/PA8

d) BS 7079

2. Which painting system contain with rust inhibitive pigment and anti-corrosive pigment

a) Mid coat

b) Top coat

c) Second coat

d) Primer coat

3. PVB Primers mainly used for

a) All ferrous substrates

b) Aluminium

c) Galvanising

d) Steel Substrates

4. Second Coat also known as

a) Primer

b) Mid coat

c) Top coat

d) Itching primers
5. The function of a finish coat is mainly to provide.

a) Impermeability and adhesion

b) Aesthetic properties and water shedding

c) Cathodic protection and passivation

d) Increased thickness at low cost

6. Which product should be used to damp or moist surfaces?

a) Water borne acrylic

b) Thermally Sprayed Aluminium

c) Moisture Curing Polyurethane

d) Micaceous Iron oxide

7. Which one is thermoplastic?

a) Poly ethylene

b) Poly urethane

c) Epoxy

d) Natural Resin

8. In powder coating, to complete the curegenerally takes

a) Three seconds

b) Less than three minutes

c) More than an hour

d) Eight hours

9. Thick steel sections like powder are sprayed onto a

a) Preheated substrate

b) Post heated substrate

c) Low temperature

d) None of the above


10. Thin steel sections like powder are sprayed onto a

a) Preheated substrate

b) Post heated substrate

c) Low temperature

d) None of the above

11. Powder coating types may include which of the following?

a) Alkyds

b) Epoxies

c) Organic Zinc

d) Latexes

12. Paint system: Properties and performance requirement, a detailed in PA9, paint testing is

mostly carried out according to which BS?

a) BS 729

b) BS 5493

c) BS 3900

d) BS 6072

13. AGI gas pipeline temperature is

a) Much cooler than ambient temperature

b) Hot than ambient temperature

c) Cooler than ambient temperature

d) None of the above

14. A zinc phosphate pigmented primer would be a

a) Passivation system

b) Galvanic protection

c) Bimetallic principle

d) All the above

15. Organic Zinc rich epoxy would be provide a

a) Passivation system

b) Barrier system

c) Galvanic protection

d) All the above


WATER BORNE COATINGS# 8

1. Which paint is not suitable for EPA?

a) Water borne

b) High volume solid

c) Solvent Based

d) Solvent free

2. Which paint is not suitable for EPA?

a) Water borne

b) High volume solid

c) Low volume solid

d) Solvent free

3. 60% of Volume Solids paint using a hydrocarbon solvent will release

a) 400 cc

b) 450 cc

c) 200 cc

d) 350 cc

4. Hydrocarbon known as

a) not harmful to environment, the ozone layer or to mankind

b) to be harmful to the environment, the ozone layer, and human life

c) In periods of high humidity drying will be retarded

d) None of the above


PAINT MANUFACTURE# 9
Direct charge mill: which take and mix all the raw ingredients together.

Example: Ball mill, Attritor mill, High speed dispersers.

2. Pre-mix mills; Take the ingredients which have been pre mixed to a rough consistency

and refine this mixture to high quality paint.

E.g. Bead mill (pear or sand mill), Colloid mill, Tipple roll mill, single roll mill

1. What are stages of paint manufacturing system?

a) Premixing

b) Dispersing mill

c) Letdown process

d) All the above

2. Which one is not a direct charge mill?

a)Ball mill

b)Attritor Mill

c)Bead mill

d) Sand mill

3. Which one is a direct charge mill?

a) Sand Mill

b) Single roll mill

c) Triple roll mill

d) Attritor Mill

4. What type of machinery is used to produce large production runs of popularpaints?

a) Triple Roll mill

b) Colloid Mill

c) Ball Mill

d) Sand Mill

5. Which paint mill produce expensive materials?

a) Triple roll mill

b) Single roll mill

c) Sand mill

d) Ball mill
6. High speed dissolver mill is another name for

a) High speed disperser

b) Pearl mill

c) Colloid mill

d) Attritor Mill

7. High speed stone mill is another name for

e) High speed disperser

f) Pearl mill

g) Colloid mill

h) Attritor Mill

8. Which mill widely used for producing thick paint?

a) Ball Mill

b) Pearl Mill

c) Triple Roll Mill

d) Single Roll Mill

9. What type of equipment is used to produce mastics, putties and fillers?

a) Sand mill

b) Triple roll mill

c) Colloid mill

d) Attritor mill

10. Bead mill or Pearl mill known as

a) Ball Mill

b) Sand mill

c) Triple Roll Mill

d) Single Roll Mill

11. What type of equipment is used to produce silver and glitters?

a) Sand mill

b) Triple roll mill

c) Single roll mill

d) Attritor mill
TESTING OF PAINTS FOR PROPERTIES AND PERFORMANCE # 10

Paint density
weight per unit of volume
formula: -
Density = Weight
volume
units for density are grams per cc
Density cup capacity 100 cc
Other names referring to the same cup are: -
1 Relative density cup
2 Specific gravity cup
3 Weight per litre cup
4 Weight per gallon cup
5 Pyknometer
Density cup are using to 2 pack material has been mixed in the correct proportions.
Hegman grind gauge

Viscosity
Viscosity is defined as being a fluid resistance to flow.
Types of viscosity
1. Rotational Viscometers
2. Flow Viscometers (For measuring viscosity)
1. Rotational viscometers

Dynamic viscosity

Kinematic viscosity is measured using a Krebs Stormer Viscometer

2. Flow viscometers (Flow cups)

Different types of flow cups

Thixotropic paints cannot be measured using a flow cup

Viscosity is low add paint

Viscosity is high add thinner ( solvent )

The thixotropic paints the viscosity can be measured by a rotation viscometer or another type of

viscometer paints.

Factors which cause poor adhesion of Paint system;

a. Surface preparation is poor.

b. Surface containing detrimental contaminants

c. Overpowered Burnished areas,

d. Surface Profile very less

e. Over thinning of Paints

f. Paint applied over rust or unprepared areas

g. Not proportionately mixing of Two Pack Paints.

Preparation of Two pack Paints for Use.

a. Plastic paper to be used underneath of paint tins,

b. All dust to be removed.

c. Lid to be opened without damaging of the rim.

d. All sediments at the bottom of the tin are to be mixed by stirring.

e. Solvents or Catalysts to be added slowly and gradually and mixed thoroughly in paint.
f. Up to 5 Liters Paint may be mixed by Manual, above 5 liters by Mechanical mixing to get

homogeneity.

g. Tin should be covered without Opening.


1. Transco Specification PA9 Specifies

a) New and Maintenance painting at work and site for AGI

b) Paint Properties and Performance

c) Internal coating of steel small bore pipe

d) Preparation of steel substrate before application of paint

2. The temperature at which a vapour from a solvent will ignite in the presence of a source of

ignition is

a) Upper explosive limit

b) Dew point

c) Flash point

d) Relative humidity

3. Closed Abel cup used to:

a) Flash point Determination

b) Viscosity determination

c) Density determination

d) All the above

4. How to heat the Abel cup

a) Direct

b) Indirect

c) Induction

d) None of the above

5. How to identify the flash point temperature?

a) Blue flame flashes

b) Orange flame flashes

c) Red flame flashes

d) Yellow flame flashes


6. Which flame signifies that the flash point temperature has been exceeded?

a) Blue flame flashes

b) Orange flame flashes

c) Red flame flashes

d) Yellow flame flashes

7. Density defined

a) Weight per unit of volume

b) Metric per unit of volume

c) Volume divided by weight

d) All the above

8. Density unit are

a) Weight per unit of volume

b) Metric per unit of volume

c) Gram per cc

d) All the above

9. Capacity of Density cup

a) 200 cc

b) 300 cc

c) 1000 cc

d) 100 cc

10. Density cup made by

a) Aluminium alloy

b) Stainless steel

c) Nickel

d) Iron

11. What is pyknometer?

a) Opacity testing equipment

b) Whirling Hygrometer

c) Density Cup

d) Wind speed measuring equipment


12. Which of the following is not another name for Density Cub?

a) Pyknometer

b) Psychrometer

c) Weight per gallon cup

d) Weight per litre cup

13. Which of the following is another name for Density Cub?

a) Relative density cup

b) Specific gravity cup

c) Pyknometer

d) All the above

14. Mixing of two packs can be calculated by

a) Pyknometer

b)Closed Abel Cup

c)Pyro meter

d)Crypto meter

15. What is the name of the equipment used to determine particle aggregate size?

a) Beck koller

b) Hegman gauge

c) Wolfe – wilborne

d) Kerbe Stormer

16. What is another name of the Hegman grind gauge?

a) Kerbe Stormer

b) Fineness of grind gauge

c) Eccentric wheel

d) PIG

17. How to determine grinding level on paint using Hegman grind gauge?

a) 5-10 aggregative protect from the surface in 3 mm gap

b) 5-10 aggregative protect from the surface in 2 mm gap

c) 50-100 aggregative protect from the surface in 3 mm gap

d) 50-100 aggregative protect from the surface in 2 mm gap


18. Viscosity is defined as

a) A fluid’s resistance to flow

b) A liquid thickness

c) The temperature at which a liquid will flow

d) The point at which a liquid becomes solid

19. In which temperature Density, Viscosity etc. tests of Paints done

a) 20 ºC ± 0.5 ºC

b) 37 ºC ± 0.5 ºC

c) 100 ºC ± 0.5 ºC

d) Temperature not affected

20. When temperature increases,__________

a) Viscosity increases

b) Viscosity decreases

c) Viscosity Stable

d) Drying time increases

21. A Rotational Viscometer measures:

a) Direct Viscosity

b) Centrifugal Viscosity

c) Kinematic Viscosity

d) Dynamic Viscosity

22. The viscosity of water is said to be approximately:

a) 1 g/cc

b) 1 poise

c) 1 stoke

d) 1 centi-poise

23. What will be the unit of viscosity of a thixotropic paint?

a)Second

b)Centipoises

c) Ns/m2

d) Stoke
25. __________ is not a unit of viscosity

a) Stoke

b) Poise

c) Littre

d) Second

26. Stroboscope checks

a) Rotation

b) Polarity

c) Potential

d) Aggregate count

27. Ford flow cup nozzle is made of

a)Aluminum alloy

b) Stainless steel

c)Aircraft alloy

d)Tungsten carbide

28. _____________ flow cup can be used to check viscosity of hot paint

a) Ford

b) Zahn

c) ISO

d) DIN

29. Ford Flow cup made of ___________

a) Stainless Steel

b) Aircraft alloy

c) Aluminium

d) Glass Reinforced Plastic

30. What is the name of vessel used to determine the viscosity of hot fluids, as per BGas

specifications?

a) Ford Flow cup No.4

b) Zahn Cup

c) Abel cup

d) Pyknometer
31. What is size of hole in Ford Flow Cup?

a) 2 mm

b) 3 mm

c) 4 mm

d) 5 mm

32. A Rotothinner measured by:

a) Direct Viscosity

b) Centrifugal Viscosity

c) Kinematic Viscosity

d) Dynamic Viscosity

33. Capacity of Ford Flow cup

a) 100 cc

b) 50 cc

c) 200 cc

d) 500 cc

34. Viscosity for a paint is determine to

a) Flow of paint

b) Thinners added to paint over and above recommended

c) Measure the degree of dispersion of paint

d) Measuring density of paint

35. Density calculated to

a) Flow of paint

b) Thinners added to paint over and above recommended

c) Measure the degree of dispersion of paint

d) Two pack material has been mixed in the correct proportions

36. Which information is not available in MDS?

a) Flash point

b) Dew point

c) VS%

d) Recommended Thinner
37. When two pack material used, calculated density valve 1.29 gm/cc, but achieved test result

in 1.35 gm/cc which is more dense?

a) Base

b) Activator

c) Thinner

d) Ratio to be changed

38. If 7.5 Liters Paint weighs 9.75 Kg, Relative Density is ______

a) 13.0 gm/cc

b) 13.0gm

c) 1.30 gm/cc

d) 1.3

39. If Paint in a density cup weighs 135gm, Relative Density is ______

a) 135

b) 13.5gm/cc

c) 1.35

d) 1.35 gm/cc

40. MDS shows a two pack paint density is 1.35 gm/cc, when the density check completed it

shows the density as 1.25.Which one is true

a) Base Part is High

b) Activator Part is High

c) Mix ratio on MDS is incorrect d) Activator Part is Low

41. If 11 Litres Paint Weighs 18 Kg then density =

a) 1.8 gm/cm

b) 1.6 gm/cm

c) 1.1 gm/cc

d) 1.6 gm/cc

42. Fineness of grind is a term used for

a) Premixing

b) Aggregate size

c) Profile roughness

d) PVC
43. What is the specified temperature at which a Flash Point Determination test must be carried

out?

a) 20ºC

b) Upto 450ºc

c) There is no specific temperature

d) 25ºC seawater

44. Which of the following can be used to measure viscosity?

a) A Pyknometer

b) An aspirated psychrometer

c) An Abel closed cup

d) A Zahn cup

45. Relative density units are

a) gm/cc

b) gm

c) kg/cc

d) None

46. Density of water

a) 1 gm/cc

b) 2 gm/cc

c) gm

d) None of the above

47. Dynamic viscosity

a) Centi

b) Centi-poise

c) Poise

d) Stoke

48. Kinematic viscosity

a) Centi

b) Centi-poise

c) Poise

d) Stoke
49. Looking at the stated angle is the paint where the surface will change from gloss to matt

a) 5-10 aggregates break through the surface of the paint

b) Measure the degree of dispersion of paint

c) Aggregative are present in all pigmented paints

d) None of the above

50. High viscosity is

a) High resistance to flow

b) Not run easily

c) Conversely

d) All the above

51. Viscosity is a very important property for paint: it affects

a) Manufacturing process

b) Application process

c) Levelingproperties

d) All the above

52. A device used to measure the degree of dispersion of paint is called

a) A gloss meter

b) A crypto meter

c) A paint inspector gauge

d) A Hegman grind gauge

53. Approx. viscosity of paint is

a) 1 Centi-poise

b) 1 stoke

c) 2.4 Ns/m2

d) 1.2gm/cc
FILM THICKNESSES # 11
WFTs Measurement Types

Eccentric wheel or comb gauges.

Disposable plastic gauges

Stainless Steel gauges

ts of four in a leather wallet

Destructive test gauges for DFT

1. Paint inspectors gauge (PIG)

2. Ericson Test Drill and Saberg Thickness Drill

Nondestructive test gauges for DFT

Electronic and Magnetic.

1. Magnetic Horseshoe gauge

2. Banana gauge

3. Tinsley pencil or pull of gauge

Abrasion resistance

Equipment for testing paint films → Ericson, Taber and Gardner

Tested for film hardness

Buchholz Indentor & the Sward Hardness Rocker

for hard coatings is the Koenig Albert.

Types of cabinets test

Humidity cabinets

Salt spray cabinets

Water soak tests

Temperature cycling

Prohesion testing

Drying and curing tests

Ballotini test

Beck Koller Stylus test (BK trying time recorder)

Other tests for drying


1. Mechanical thumb test

2. Pencil scratch test (Wolff-Wilborn)

3. Mechanical scratch test

4. Gold leaf test

5. Thumbnail test

6. Opacity

Adhesion

V cut, Cross hatch Test, Dolly Test

Hydraulic adhesion test equipment ( HATE )

Paint FILM TESTING

a. Salt Spray Box- Marine Condition

b. Water Soak Test- Film Permeability

c. Tropical Box - High Humid Environment.

d. Temperature Cycling- Film Flexibility.

e. Cold Check Testing- Low temperature contraction cracking

1. Advantage of eccentric wheel for WFT measurement is

a) Correct DFT can be calculated from result

b) Permanent record

c) No other method for curved surface

d) Can be used for metal spray method

2. How to use Eccentric wheel on a pipe

a)Perpendicularly

b)Circumferentially

c)Longitudinally

d)Not possible

3. Which type of Comb gauge is not available?

a) Square

b) Circle

c) Triangular

d) Rectangular
4. Biscuit Gauge is another name for

a) Hegman’s grind gauge

b) Surface Comparator

c) Banana Gauge

d) Comb Gauge

5. How to use comb gauge on a pipe

a)Perpendicularly

b)Circumferentially

c)Longitudinally

d)Not possible

6. If a comb gauge show 120-140 µm, then the actual Dft is

a) 120 µm

b) 130µm

c) 140 µm

d) 120 / 140 µm

7. Graticule scale is a part of

a) PIG

b) Hegman Grind Gauge

c) Eccentric Wheel

d) Tough type Pfund Crypto meter

8. Why an inspector use PIG Gauge

a) When substrate is non-ferromagnetic and coating is non-Ferro magnetic

b) When substrate is non-ferromagnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic

c) When substrate is Ferro magnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic

d) When substrate is ferromagnetic and coating is non-Ferro magnetic

9. A Non Destructive test can be done

a) When substrate contain MIO

b) When substrate is non-ferromagnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic

c) When substrate is Ferro magnetic and coating is Ferro magnetic

d) When substrate is ferromagnetic and coating is non-Ferro magnetic


10. A Destructive test can be done

a) Ericson test drill

b) PIG

c) Saberg thickness drill

d) All the above

11. A Destructive test can be done

a) Ericson test drill

b) Pencil scratch test

c) Ballotini teat

d) Dolly test

12. Sometime Tinsley pencil gauge is called

a) Paint Inspector Gauge

b) Foreman’s gauge

c) Banana gauge

d) Horseshoe gauge

13. A Banana gauge works on which principle

a) Magnetic resistance

b) Conductive resistance

c) Tension reluctance

d) Viscosity relativity

14. Using the correct calibration shim, a banana gauge can be calibrated one

a) Blasted surface material

b) Painted surfaces

c) Steel with a covering of mill scale

d) All of the above

15. Test for adhesion resistance on paint film

a) Ericson

b) Taber

c) Gardner

d) All of the above


16. Test for hard coatings

a) dolly test

b) Banana gauge

c) Koenig Albert

d) All of the above

17. What diameter is the conical mandrel, which is used in the flexibility test?

a) 8 mm to 25 mm

b) 12 mm to 18 mm

c) 5 mm to 50 mm

d) 3 mm to 37 mm

18. Accelerated test are

a) Water soak test

b) Prohesion test

c) Salt spry cabinets

d) All of the above

19. Humidity cabinets conditions are

a) Humidity is very high at 95% and elevated temperatures up to 55oC

b) Humidity is very high at 90% and elevated temperatures up to 55oC

c) Humidity is very low at 95% and elevated temperatures up to 55oC

d) All of the above

20. In paint testing, why is temperature cycling carried out?

a) To check for water absorption.

b) To check flexibility

c) To check contradiction cracking

d) To prove the service life of the coating system

21. What result will get by Temperature Cycling test?

a) Cracking

b) Blistering

c) Chalking

d) Discoloration
22. Which of the following do not a drying test?

a) Ballotini test

b) Beck – Koller stylus test

c) Wolff wilborn test

d) Cross hatch test

23. Which of the following is not a drying test?

a) Koening Albert

b) Beck Koller

c) Mechanical Thumb

d) Ballotni

24. Which drying test involves the use of smell glass beads?

a) Wolf wilborne

b) Ballotini

c) Koenig Albert

d) Beck Koller

25. What is the name given to the drying test involving the use of glass beads?

a) Wolf Wilbrone

b) Taber

c) Ballotini

d) Erichsson

26. Gold leaf test is used for _________

a) Adhesion

b) Drying

c) Residual tack

d) Dust detection

27. Degree of Hardness of paint

a) Mechanical thump test

b) Wolff Wilborn Test

c) Gold Leaf test

d) Prohesion
28. The Pencil Hardness Tests is used to determine which of the following?

a) Scratch hardness of a coating

b) Adhesion of a coating

c) Abrasion resistance of a coating

d) Indentation hardness of a coating

29. Wet film opacity determined by

a) Cryptometer

b) Wolff Wilborn Test

c) Psychrometer

d) Prohesion

30. Cryptometer known as

a) Hycrometer

b) PfundCryptometer

c) Psychrometer

d) Prohesion

31. What factors can affect Gloss?

a) Resin type, Solvent type, paint application technique

b) Refractive index, pigment colour, DFT

c) Particle size, CPVC, resin type, angle of light incidence

d) Pigment size, resin type, paint colour

32. Which factor does not affect gloss of a paint film?

a) CPVC

b) Flash Point

c) Particle Size

d) Solvent type

33. What is area for adhesion failure within a paint system?

a) Primer to substrate failure

b) Inter coat adhesion

c) Cohesive failure

d) All of the above


34. Which type of test used craft knife?

a) Pencil scratch test

b) V cut Test or cross hatch test

c) Dolly test

d) None of the above

35. Which of the following tests would be performed to determine the adhesion of a coating?

a) Pendulum rocker

b) Pull off Tape

c) Falling sand

d) Taber abraser

36. HATE is an abbreviation of what?

a) Heat Affected Tension Expansivity

b) Hydrogen Arc Treatment Effect

c) Hydraulic Adhesion Test Equipment

d) Humidity Affected Temperature Evaluation

37. Which of the following is not an adhesion test?

a) Cross Hatch

b) Gold Leaf

c) HATE

d) Dolly test

38. Which of the following is not an adhesion test?

a) Dolly test

b) Cross hatch

c) Kerbsstormer

d) HATE

39. Dolly test used to check _____________

a)Hardness

b)Flexibility

c)DFT

d)Adhesion
40. Pull of Adhesion is a term associated with

a) Tinsley pencil

b) Banana Gauge

c) HATE

d) Dolly Test

41. If the required DFT is 50µm, then the particle size in the paint should be _____

a)50µm

b)Above 50µm

c)Below 50µm

d)All the above

42. VS.%relate to

a)Volatile

b)Non volatile

c)Total Paint volume

d)Activator

43. What is the volume of paint required to cover a circular area of 15 meters radius, if the material has WFT of 176µm

a) 76.38 L

b) 124.34 L

c) 214.34 L

d) 31.08 L

44. What WFT should be measured, if a coating of 88 µm DFT is required with a 66% VS paint?

45. What is the actual DFT, if banana gauge shows 335µm when checked on galvanising?

a) 335µm

b) 265µm

c) 235µm

d) 435µm
46. Reflectometer measures _________

a) Aggregate Size

b) Agglomerates Percentage

c) Gloss

d) Colour

47. Which of the following would not affect the degree of Gloss?

a) Surface profile

b) Critical Pigment Volume Concentration

c) Solvent type

d) Degree of dispersion

48 Dry film thickness assessment of a point film containing MIO can be carried out

a) Using a Tinsley film thickness gauge

b) By using Calibrated eccentric wheel

c) By reading taken using the paint inspections gauge

d) By using a banana Gauge

49. Prior to use, the gauge used to determine DFT must be calibrated,

a) Using sample plate, with a paint coating of known thickness

b) On the prepared surface, before paint application

c) Monthly, by authorized validation Centre

d) In the presence of the site engineer

50. What DFT should be achievable if the paint with the volµme solid of 54% is ….to WFT

of 135µm?

a) 65 µm

b) 72.9 µm

c) 75 µm

d) 82.9 µm

51. A paint said to have good opacity will;

a) Have low permeability

b) Have good hiding power

c) Have a low CPVC

d) Have a low minimum gloss value


52. Minimum WFT and DFT recommendations for paint applications, and advice on the addition

Of thinners etc., can be found:

a) On the label of the paint containers

b)In the project specification

c) On the manufacturer product data sheet

d) In BS 7079 part A

53. DFT measured using Banana gauge can be carried out on the following:

a) Zinc galvanised surface which have been painted

b)Painted Aluminium substrate

c) Any paint containing MIO pigments

d) In BS 7079 part A

54. For the WFT measured of a non-ferrous coating on a carbon steel pipe, which of the following methods would be acceptable?

a) Banana gauge

b) Eccentric wheel used longitudinally

c) Comb gauge used circumferentially

d) Eccentric wheel used circumferentially

55. A paint said to have possess low opacity will;

a) Have low permeability

b) Have low hiding power

c) Have a low CPVC

d) Have a low minimum gloss value

56. The equipment used to measure the hiding ability of paint is called:

a) A Reflectometer

b)A grind gauge

c) A psychrometer

d) A crypto meter

57. DFT value can be determined by

a) Calculations

b) Destructive test gauges

c) Nondestructive test gauges

d) All the above


58. Why using plastic shim on DFT measured?

a) Magnetically insulated

b) Correct film thickness

c) Nondestructive test gauges

d) All the above

59. What type of test using for paint elasticity?

a) Impact test

b) Cupper test

c) Accelerated Test

d) Conical mandrel

60. What type of test using for assessed for paint damage?

a) Impact test

b) Cupper test

c) Accelerated Test

d) Conical mandrel

61. Which test will be done only for paint evaporation?

a) Impact test

b) Flashpoint Test

c) Volatile / Non volatile

d) Conical mandrel

62. Which paints cannot be measured by flow cup?

a) Thixotropic paints

b) Two pack material

c)Single pack material

d) All the above

63. WFTs can be measured by using

a) Eccentric wheel

b) Comb gauges

c) PIG

d) A and B
64. The Electro Magnetic Induction is suitable for

a) Ferro-magnetic substrates

b)Non ferro-magnetic substrates

c) A and B

d) None of the above

65. The EddyCurrent is suitable for

a) Ferro-magnetic substrates

b) Non-ferro-magnetic substrates

c) A and B

d) None of the above

66. The Magnetic Coating Thickness gauge

a) Horseshoe gauge

b) Tinsley pencil

c) PIG

d) Banana gauge

67. Solvent Evaporation Time, The SolGelTransition,Surface Drying Time and Final Dry Time are given

a) Ballotini Test

b) Mechanical thumb test

c) BK drying recorders

d) Gold leaf test


SPECIFIED COATING CONDITIONS # 12
Whirling Hygro meter is called

Aspirated Hygrometer or Psychrometer

Steel Temperature – Limpet gauge, pyrometer

Air Temperature – Dry Bulb thermometer

1. Dew point is defined as

a) The temperature at which water vapour in the air condense

b) The temperature at which paint can be applied

c) The temperature of the steel

d) The temperature at which cross linking will commence

2. Relative Humidity is defined as

a) The amount of water which is in the air at 25°C, in seawater,

b) The amount of water present in the air, expressed as a percentage of water that could be in the air that temperature.

c) The temperature at which water vapour will condense

d) Dry bulb temperature measures against Wet Bulb temperature.

3. A Whirling Hydrometer is also known as

a) A PfundCryptometer

b) A psychrometer

c) A spinning thermometer

d) A rotational viscometer

4. What is the recommended speed at which a Whirling Hygrometer must travel through the air?

a) 4 meters per sec

b) 2 mm per second

c) 5 km / hr

d) 100 meters per minute

5. When using a Whirling Hygrometer, the wet bulb temperature

a) Should always be read last

b) Will always be above the steel temperature

c) Should always be read first

d) Should not be connected to the wick


6. The BGas specified conditions for site painting system is

a) Maximum wind sped 4 m/ sec, Relative humidity not less than 95%

b) Maximum 90% relative humidity, dew points less than 3ºC of steel temp.

c) As per BGC/PS/PA8

d) Minimum 27ºC Maximum 95%

7. The BGas specified conditions for site painting system is

a) Maximum wind sped 4 m/ sec, Relative humidity not less than 95%

b) Maximum 90% relative humidity, dew points above 3ºC of steel temp.

c) Not more than 90% relative humidity

d) Minimum 27ºC Maximum 95%

8. Steel and Air temperature is always

a) more than 5oC

b) less than 5oC

c) Within 3oC

d) More than 3oC

9. Air temperature can be calculated by

a) Hygro meter

b) Thermo stat

c) Limpet gauge

d) Strobo scope

10. The following is not information of Daily report sheet

a) Dew point

b) Relative Humidity

c) Relative Density

d) Air Temperature

11. Steel temperature can be measured by

a) Psychro meter

b) Limpet Gauge

c) Thermo meter

d) Horseshoe gauge
12. Pyro meter is an instrument to check

a) Adhesion

b) Hardness

c) Steel Temp

d) Density

13. How many seconds frame should be rotated at site?

a) 12-15 seconds

b) 20-25 seconds

c) 30-40 seconds

d) 10-20 seconds

14. How many times frame should be rotated at site?

a) Only one time

b) 2 times

c) 10 times

d) Many times as is necessary

15. Two consecutive spins the reading should be

a) Above 0.2oC

b) Within 0.2oC

c) below 0.2oC

d) Above 0.3oC

16. During rain, snow, or high winds”. When these conditions do not prevail” or similar, to allow coating to continue using special
products as a

a) Modern sensible paints

b) A Tentative paints

c) A thixotropic paints

d) None of the above

17. Solvent evaporates very slowly at low temperatures, when

a) the air or metal temperature is down to within 3oC above the dew point temperature

b) the air or metal temperature is below 5oC

c) the relative humidity is more than 90%

d) None of the above


18. When the relative humidity is more than 90%, using paints

a) Epoxy high build

b) Thermally spray Aluminium

c) Moisture curing polyurethane

d) None of the above

19. The air temperature and dew point temperature, and wet bulb temperature on the whirling hygrometer, When are all the same
value

a) RH 100 %

b) RH 90%

c) RH 85%

d) RH 35%

CATHODIC PROTECTION 13

1. External surface of tank cannot have

a) Electrolytic

b) Cathodic protection

c) Copper/Copper Sulphatehalf-cell electrode

d) Bimetallic

2. Internal surface of tank canhave

a) Electrolytic

b) Cathodic protection

c) Copper/Copper Sulphatehalf-cell electrode

d) Bimetallic

3. When Cathodic protection is used to protect a pipeline, coatings are applied to

a) Improve the effectiveness of protection.

b) Improve the passage of current flow.

c) Make the pipe easier to inspect.

d) Increase the voltage needed for the CP system.


4. ___________ used to detect the voltage in impressed current system

a) National Grid

b) Transformer Rectifier

c) Copper/Copper Sulphate half-cell electrode

d) Sodium Chloride

5. Impressed current system used to

a) Protect long length of pipelines a distance of 10 miles

b) Protect short length of pipelines a distance of 1 miles

c) Protect long length of pipelines a distance of 100 miles

d) Protect short length of pipelines a distance of 10 miles

6. National Grid connected through

a) pipeline

b) Transformer Rectifier

c) Copper wire

d) Galvanic system

7. Positive side of the Transformer rectifier connectedto

a) pipeline

b) cathode system

c) ground bed

d) copper wire

8. Pipe lines are making

a) anode system

b) cathode system

c) A and B

d) None of the above

9. The voltage required operating the ICCP system?

a) 230V to 240 V

b) 10KV to 50 KV

c) 10V to 50V

d) 10mV 50mV
10. Copper/Copper sulphates half-cell electrode is used to

a) Monitor CP Voltage

b) Supply current for CP

c) Detect Mill scale

d) Rectify AC to DC

11. Electrical circuit of the corrosion reaction is the evolvement of hydrogen gas from

a) The Anode

b) The Cathode

c) Electrolyte

d) All the above

12. Which solution is used for Cathodic disbondment test?

a) Slightly acidic liquid

b) Salt water

c) Alkaline liquid

d) Distilled water

13. Galvanic Anode System are called

a) Sacrificial Anodes Systems

b) Impressed Current Systems

c) Cathodic disbondment

d) None of the above

14. A voltmeter is connected to the stud and to

a) The copper/copper sulphate half-cell

b) Transformer Rectifier

c) Copper wire

d) Galvanic system
HOLIDAY/PINHOLE DETECTION # 14
1. When carrying out holiday detection using the sponge tester, what can we add to the water?

a) Salt

b) Detergent

c) Xylene

d) Inhibitor

2. In FBE coatings greater than 20 thou thickness, holidays are detected using which of the following?

a) Wet sponge holiday detector

b) Low voltage holiday detector

c) High voltage holiday detector

d) Low voltage DC holiday detector

3. In FBE coatings less than 500µm thickness, holidays are detected using which of the following?

a) Wet sponge pinhole detector

b) Low voltage holiday detector

c) High voltage holiday detector

d) Low voltage DC holiday detector

4. What voltage settings are commonly used for sponge test holiday detection?

a) 5 Kv to 15 KV

b) 15 KvMaximum

c) 9v to 90 v

d) 110v to 240v

5. What voltage settings are DFT of less than or equal to 300µm?

a) 5 Kv to 15 KV

b) 671/2to 90 v

c) 9v

d) 9v to 90 v

6. What voltage settings are DFTs of 300-500µm?

a) 5 Kv to 15 KV

b) 671/2 to90 v

c) 9v to 90 v

d) 110v to 240v
PAINT APPLICATION # 15
1. Basic paint application methods are

a) spray

b) Brushing

c) Roller

d) All the above

2. What type of application used to welds, internal corners, bolts, rivets?

a) spray

b) Brushing

c) Roller

d) All the above

3. Which correct equipment used for applying a Stripe Coat?

a) Gravity Cup

b) Roller

c) Paint Brush

d) Spray application

4. Which paint application cannot use in industry as per PA10?

a) Brush

b) Roller

c) Airless spray

d) Electro-static spray

5. What are the spray applications?

a) Conventional Spray

b) Airless Spray

c) Electric-static Spray

d) All the above

6. What are the Conventional spray systems?

a) Suction Spray

b) Gravity Spray

c) Remote pressure spot Spray

d) All the above

7. Most tips are used in airless spray system RAC?

a) Tip life is to be increased


b) Costs can be kept down

c) Blockages can be cleaned

d) All of the above

8. Paint spray tip sizes, pressure recommendation are generally found

a) On the point container

b) In the project specification

c) On the product data sheet

d) In the British Standards

10. Which application greatly reduce pinholes?

a) Brush

b) Spray

c) Aerosol

d) Roller

11. Spray tip with adjustable aperture size known as

a) Carbide

b) Venturi

c) Titan

d) Taber

12. If an airless spray pump ratio 35;1 delivery pressure 2800.howmuch the inlet pressure

a) 100psi

b) 90psi

c) 80psi

d) 70psi

13. The main difference between Airless and conventional spray is

a) Conventional spray gives better deposition rate

b) Conventional spray gives less waste

c) Airless spray gives better quality finish

d) Conventional spray gives better atomisation

14. How atomisation is achieved in conventional spray

a) Two air channels outside the nozzle

b) Air pressure applied before nozzle

c) Paint forced at high pressure


d) Hydraulic pressure

15. If metal spray applied on a thin steel plate,

a) Plate should not be heated

b) Plate should be preheated

c) Plate should be post heated

d) Cannot be applied

16. In the electrostatic spray painting process, the component must be

a) Positively charged

b) Negatively charged

c) 9 Volts DC

d) 15 Kv DC

17. Which application method provides uniform film thickness?

a) Stripe coat

b) Airless Spray

c) Conventional spray

d) Electrostatic spray

18. In Electrostatic spray, the thickness of paint film is controlled by

a) Time used to spray

b) Delivery Pressure

c) Orifice Size

d) Voltage

19. Which of the following is often applied by electrostatic spray?

a) Zinc-rich epoxy

b) Powdered epoxy

c) Coal tar enamel

d) Epoxy grout

20. Which of the following is a disadvantage of electrostatic spray?

a) Poor coverage

b) Excessive overspray

c) Generally only one coat can be applied

d) Non-uniform film thickness

21. Which paint application have “Insulation” effect


a) Airless Spray

b) Remote Pressure pot

c) Dip coating

d) Electrostatic spray

22. Padding refers to what?

a) Protection for pipes during transport & storage

b) Protective clothing for TSA application

c) A paint application method

d) Material used to soak spillages

23. Shearing Action produced by application of

a) Roller

b) Brush

c) Spray

d) Padding

24. The relevant pain application information for any particular paint, product, such as paint spray, tip sizes, pressure recommendation, etc are
generally found

a) On the paint containers

b) In the project specification

c) On the Product data sheet

d) In the British Standards

25. A common system for applying Hot metal spray coating is:

a) Conventional spray gravity cup

b) A gun containing fuel gas, oxygen and compressed air

c) High pressure airless spray system

d) Plural component pumps and gun

26. Round headed brushes called

a) Flat brush

b) Round brush

c) Tar brush

d) All the above

You might also like