Indian Polity and Governance - MCQs

Section: Indian Polity and Governance
Chapter 1. The Constitutional Development of India

Chapter 2. Foreign Impact on the Constitution
Chapter 3. Articles and Schedules in the Constitution of India
Chapter 4. The Preamble
Chapter 5. The Governance System
Chapter 6. The National Emblem
Chapter 7. States and the Union Territories
Chapter 8. The Citizenship
Chapter 9. Fundamental Rights
Chapter 10. Directive Principles of State Policy
Chapter 11. Fundamental Duties
Chapter 12. The President
Chapter 13. The Vice-President
Chapter 14. The Council of Ministers
Chapter 15. The Attorney General and C.A.G.
Chapter 16. Preference Hierarchy
Chapter 17. Lok Sabha
Chapter 18. Rajya Sabha
Chapter 19. The Parliament
Chapter 20. The Supreme Court
Chapter 21. The Governor
Chapter 22. The State Legislature
Chapter 23. The High Court
Chapter 24. The Centre-State Relation
(xiii)
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Chapter 25. Emergency Provisions
Chapter 26. The Finance Commission
Chapter 27. The Planning Commission
Chapter 28. Lokpal and Important Commissions
Chapter 29. Temporary Special Provisions
Chapter 30. Election Commission
Chapter 31. Political Parties
Chapter 32. Constitutional Amendment
Chapter 33. Official Language
Chapter 34. Panchayati Raj and Community Development
Chapter 35. Special Provision for Certain Class
Chapter 36. Miscellaneous
308 Objective General Studies
5
Indian Polity
and Governance
1. The Constitutional Development of India
1. In which of the following Acts, (C) Having two sets of rulers; one (C) The Government of India Act of
the provision was made for the in London and another in Delhi 1919
establishment of Supreme Court at (D) Division of the subjects (D) The Government of India Act of
Calcutta? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010] delegated to the provinces into 1935
(A) Regulating Act, 1773 two categories 12. Which of the following Acts
(B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 7. Under which of the following Acts, introduced a bi-cameral legislature
(C) Charter Act, 1813 Dyarchy was introduced at Central at the Centre? [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(D) Charter Act, 1833 level? [UPPCS (Pre) 2008] (A) 1961 Act
2. By which one of the following Acts (A) Act of 1909 (B) 1917 Act
was the Federal Court in India (B) Government of India Act, 1919 (C) 1919 Act
created? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] (C) Government of India Act, 1935 (D) 1915 Act
(A) Indian Council Act, 1861 (D) Indian Independence Act, 1947 13. The power of the President to issue
(B) Government of India Act, 1909 8. Which of the following Acts set ordinance is a relic of
(C) Government of India Act, 1919 up Dyarchy System at the central [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(D) Government of India Act, 1935 level? [UPPSC (RI) 2014] (A) G.O.I. Act, 1919
3. Which Act of British Parliament (A) Government of India Act, 1935 (B) G.O.I. Act, 1935
abolished the East India Company (B) Government of India Act, 1919 (C) G.O.I. Act, 1909
monopoly over trade in India? (C) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] 14. Which Act for the first time made
(D) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(A) Regulating Act it possible for Indians to take some
9. The Act of 1909 was associated
(B) Pitt’s India Act with [MPPCS (Pre) 2017]
share in the administration of their
(C) Charter Act of 1813 country? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Introduction of separate
(D) None of the above electorate (A) Charter Act, 1833
4. By which of the following Act, (B) Decentralization (B) Charter Act, 1853
Legislative Council of India (C) Dyarchy (C) Government of India Act, 1858
received the power to discuss the (D) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(D) Legislative Councils
budget? [UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
15. The distribution of power between
10. Which of the following Acts intro-
(A) Indian Council Act, 1861 Centre and States as in the
duced the ‘Principle of Constitu-
(B) Indian Council Act, 1892 tional Autocracy’? Constitution of India is based on
(C) Indian Council Act, 1909 [MPPCS (Pre) 2017] which of the following plans?
(D) Indian Council Act, 1919 (A) The Indian Councils Act of [IAS (Pre) 2012]
5. The Federal Court of India was 1909 (A) Morely-Minto Reform, 1909
established in which of the (B) The Government of India Act of (B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reform,
following year?[UPPCS (Mains) 2015] 1919 1919
(A) 1935 (B) 1937 (C) The Government of India Act of (C) Government of India Act, 1935
(C) 1946 (D) 1947 1935 (D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
6. In the context of Indian history, (D) The Indian Independence Act 16. A ‘Federal System’ and ‘diarchy’ at
the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ of 1947 the ‘Centre’ was introduced in India
refers to [IAS (Pre) 2017] 11. The Indian Legislature was made by [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) Division of the central legisla- bi-cameral for the first time by (A) The Act of 1909
ture into two houses [UPPCS (Mains) 2008] (B) The Act of 1919
(B) Indtroduction of double gov- (A) Indian Council Act of 1892 (C) The Act of 1935
ernment i.e., Central and State (B) Indian Council Act of 1909 (D) None of the above
Governments
Indian Polity and Governance 309
17. The provision for the establishment India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011] 30. Who of the following was not the
of All India Federation was included (A) The Indian Councils Act, 1909 member of the Interim National
in the [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] (B) Government of India Act, 1919 Government formed in August
(A) Government of India Act, 1935 (C) Government of India Act, 1935 1946 A.D.? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(B) August Offer, 1940 (D) Indian Independence Act, 1947 (A) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) Government of India Act, 1919 24. The proposal for framing of the (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Cabinet Mission Proposal, 1946 Constitution of India by an elected (C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
18. Which one of the following Acts Constituent Assembly was made by (D) Jagjiwan Ram
provided for a federal polity in [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008] 31. Who gave the idea of a Constituent
India? [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010] (A) Simon Commission Assembly firstly for the formation
(A) Government of India Act, 1909 (B) Government of India Act, 1935 of Constitution for India?
(B) Government of India Act, 1919 (C) Cripps Mission [IAS (Pre) 1996]
(C) Government of India Act, 1935 (D) British Cabinet Delegation (A) Swaraj Party in 1934
(D) India Independence Act, 1947 25. The objective of Ilbert Bill in (B) Congress Party in 1936
19. In the Federation established under reference to colonial rule in India (C) Muslim League in 1942
the Act of 1935, residuary powers was [IAS (Pre) 2003] (D) All Parties conference in 1946
were given to the (A) To bring Indians and Europeans 32. Which one among the following is
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008] at equal status as far as the an incorrect statement about the
(A) Federal Legislature penal jurisdiction of courts was Constituent Assembly?
concerned [MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(B) Provincial Legislature
(B) To put a strict restriction on (A) It worked with the help of a large
(C) Governor-General local press because they were
(D) Provincial Governor number of committees, the
considered anti to colonial most important among them
20. Which one of the following is rulers
not an important and permanent being the Drafting Committee
(C) To conduct Administrative (B) Minority communities like
constituent in the Constitutional Service Exams in India
History of India as adopted in the Christians, Anglo-Indians and
to encourage Indians to Parsis were adequately repre-
Government of India Act, 1935? participate in it
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] sented in the Assembly
(D) To amend the Arms Act for
(A) A written Constitution for the (C) It was elected on the basis of
weapon permit to Indians
country universal adult franchise
26. As per Cabinet Mission plan, in (D) Its electoral process was based
(B) Elected representation respon- the constituent assembly to decide
sible to the Legislature on the sixth schedule of the
alloted members seat in each Act of 1935 which allowed for
(C) Envisaging a scheme of Federa- province, one representative was in a restricted franchise based on
tion ratio to which population? tax, property and educational
(D) Nomination of official members [UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
qualification
to the Legislature (A) 8 lakh (B) 10 lakh
33. Member of constituent assembly,
21. One amongst the following was not (C) 12 lakh (D) 15 lakh who drafted the Constitution of
a salient feature of the Government 27. Who among the following persons India, were [IAS (Pre) 2002]
of India Act, 1935. was not a member of the Cabinet
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Nominated by British
Mission? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015] Parliament
(A) The Act provided for an All (A) William Wood (B) Nominated by Governor-
India Federation (B) Pethick Lawrence General
(B) Residuary subjects were (C) Stafford Cripps (C) Elected by legislative assem-
allocated to provincial (D) A.B. Alexander blies of various provinces
Legislatures
28. Indian Constituent Assembly was (D) Elected by Indian National
(C) It marked the beginning of the established under Congress and Muslim League
Provincial Autonomy [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012
(D) It abolished Diarchy at the 34. With reference to Indian History,
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009] the Members of the Constituent
Provincial level and introduced (A) Government of India Act, 1935
it at the Centre Assembly from the Provinces were
(B) Cripps Mission, 1942 [IAS (Pre) 2013]
22. Why is the Government of India
(C) Cabinet Mission, 1946 (A) Directly elected by the people
Act, 1935 important?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947 of those Provinces
29. In the Interim Government formed (B) Nominated by the Indian
(A) It is the main source of the
in 1946, the Vice-President of the National Congress and the
Constitution of India
Executive Council was Muslim League
(B) It gave Independence to India
[IAS (Pre) 1995] (C) Elected by the Provincial
(C) It envisages partition of India Legislative Assemblies
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) It abolished the Native States (D) Selected by the government for
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
23. Which one of the following Acts led their expertise in constitutional
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
to the separation of Burma from matters
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
https://t.me/upscwebsite Website ➡️ https://ourstudycircle.in https://t.me/upscwebsite

35. How were the members of 43. How many Sessions of the Indian 51. The Constituent Assembly set up
Constituent Assembly elected? Constituent Assembly were condu- a Drafting Committee under the
[UPPCS (Pre) 1993] cted for the formulation of Indian Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(A) Directly by public Constitution? [UPPCS (Mains) 2005] on [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(B) Nominated by Congress (A) 7 (B) 9 (A) 13th December, 1946
(C) Nominated by Indian ruler (C) 12 (D) 15 (B) 22nd January, 1947
(D) By Provincial assemblies 44. How much time the Constituent (C) 3rd June, 1947
36. Who was the first elected Chairman Assembly took to frame the Constit- (D) 29th August, 1947
of Constituent Assembly? ution of India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2007] 52. Who was the Constitutional Advisor
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005 (A) 2 years, 11 months, 18 days at the time of the formation of the
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007] (B) 2 years, 7 months, 23 days Constitution? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (C) 3 years, 4 months, 14 days Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2017
Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003
(B) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha (D) 3 years, 11 months, 5 days Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 45. Who among the following was the (A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan chairman of the Union Constitution
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
37. Who chaired the first meeting of Committee of the Constituent
Assembly? [IAS (Pre) 2005]
(C) B.N. Rao
Constituent Assembly? (D) K.M. Munshi
[UPPCS (Pre) 1990, 2013] (A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) J.B. Kripalani 53. The first draft of the Constitution
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was prepared by [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018]
(B) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha (D) Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer
(B) B.N. Rao
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 46. Who was the Chairman of the
Provincial Constitution Committee (C) K. Santhanam
38. Who was the President of the Con- (D) K.M. Munshi
stituent Assembly of Independent of the Constituent Assembly?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008] 54. When did the Constituent Assembly
India? [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar adopted the National Flag?
(A) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar [UPPCS (Pre) 1990]
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (A) 22 July, 1947
(C) C. Rajagopalachari (B) 23 July, 1947
(D) K. M. Munshi (D) Sardar Patel
47. Who was the Chairman of the (C) 25 July, 1947
39. Constituent Assembly of India was (D) 15 August, 1947
established on Drafting Committee of the Indian
Constitution? [IAS (Pre) 2009 55. Who was the Chairman of the
[UPPCS(Pre) 1990, 1995, 2011]
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003 National Flag Committee?
(A) 10 June, 1946 MPPCS (Pre) 2000 [UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(B) 9 December, 1946 Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2018
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) 26 November, 1949 UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]
(A) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) 26 December, 1949 (C) J.B. Kripalani
40. The resolution for giving a (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Sachchidanand Sinha (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Constitution to India was adopted
(D) C. Rajagopalachari 56. When was the third reading of
by the Constituent Assembly on
48. Who was the Chairman of Advisory the Indian Constituent Assembly
[UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
Committee on Fundamental Rights started? [UPPSC (RI) 2014]
(A) 22 January, 1946
and Minorities constituted by the (A) 17th November, 1949
(B) 22 January, 1947
Constituent Assembly? (B) 14th November, 1948
(C) 20 February, 1947
[MPPCS (Pre) 2014] (C) 25th November, 1948
(D) 26 July, 1946
(A) Pandit Nehru (B) Sardar Patel (D) 25th November, 1949
41. Who proposed the Preamble before (C) B.N. Rao (D) Ambedkar 57. The Constitution of India was
the Drafting Committee of the
49. The Drafting Committee of the completed on [UPPCS (Mains) 2010
Constitution?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006]
Constituent Assembly under Dr. B. UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
R. Ambedkar had how many other (A) January 26, 1950
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru members? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008] (B) November 26, 1949
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) February 11, 1948
(C) B.N. Rao
(C) 5 (D) 4 (D) None of the above is correct
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
50. Who amongst the following was 58. Indian Constitution was adopted by
42. Who of the following presented the not a member of the Drafting the Constituent Assembly on
objectives resolution? Committee of the Constitution? [Orissa PSC (Pre) 2017
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012] MPPCS (Pre) 2010, 1998]
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (A) Mohammad Sadullah (A) 26 November, 1949
(B) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru (B) K.M. Munshi (B) 15 August, 1949
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (C) A.K. Iyer (C) 2 October, 1949
(D) Dr. C.D. Deshmukh (D) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) 15 November, 1949

59. Constitution of India came in force (B) 2nd October, 1947 Government of India Act, 1919?
on [UPPCS (Pre) 1990] (C) 26th January, 1948 1. The introduction of dyarchy in
(A) 26 January, 1950 (D) 26th January, 1950 the executive Government of
(B) 23 January, 1950 68. Deferment of Adult Franchise for the provinces.
(C) 15 August, 1947 fifteen years was advocated in 2. The introduction of separate
(D) 26 December, 1949 Constituent Assembly by communal electorates for
60. January 26 was selected as the [MPPCS (Pre) 2010] Muslims.
date for the inauguration of the (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 3. Devolution of legislative
Constitution, because (B) Jawaharlal Nehru authority by the centre to the
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011] (C) Maulana Azad provinces.
(A) The Congress had observed it (D) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar Select the correct answer using the
as the Independence Day in 69. Who amongst the following advised codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
1930 that the Indian National Congress (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(B) On that day the Quit India should be disbanded as a political (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Movement was started in 1942 party after the independence of 76. Which of the following statements
(C) It was considered to be an India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011] is/are not true in relation to
auspicious day (A) C. Rajagopalachari Constituent Assembly?
(D) None of the above (B) Jai Prakash Narayan 1. Assembly was not based on
61. Indian Constitution was adopted (C) Acharya Kripalani adult suffrage.
by [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994] (D) Mahatma Gandhi 2. The assembly was a result of
(A) Constituent Assembly 70. “In their nationalist reaction, direct election.
(B) British Parliament the Founding Fathers of Indian 3. Assembly was a multiparty
(C) Governor-General Constitution tended to minimize body.
(D) Indian Parliament the importance of minority interests 4. Assembly worked through
62. The Constitution of India was and emotions”. various committees.
enacted on 26 November, 1949 by This view is credited to Choose the correct answer by using
the [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] the code given below.
(A) Constituent Assembly (A) Morris Jones [Telangana PSC (Pre) 2015]
(B) Governor-General of India (B) Hardgrave Junior Code
(C) Parliament of India (C) Alexandrovitz (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(D) British Parliament (D) Ivor Jennings (C) 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
63. Constitution Day of India is 71. “Constituent Assembly was 77. In relation to formation of the
celebrated on Congress and Congress was India”, Constitution of India, which of the
[60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016] who said this? following sentences is/are correct?
(A) 26th October [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2013] [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(B) 26th November (A) Austin 1. Resolution of objectives by
(C) 26th January (B) C.R. Attlee Nehru affected the making of
(D) 15th August (C) Winston Churchill the Constitution.
(D) Lord Mountbatten 2. Preamble fulfills various
64. B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the
72. How many women members were important objectives/aims.
Constituent Assembly from
[Tripura PSC (Pre) 2017] there in the Indian Constituent 3. Peoples of India ordered/
Assembly? [UPPSC (RI) 2014] directed the Constitution.
(A) West Bengal
(A) 15 (B) 13 4. Head of the state is elected by
(B) Bombay Presidency
the people directly.
(C) Middle India (C) 12 (D) 10
Code
(D) Punjab 73. The States and the Central
Government derive power from (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
65. Year of birth and death of Dr. B.R.
[MPPCS (Pre) 2017] (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All of these
Ambedkar. [MPPCS (Pre) 1992]
(A) The Constitution of India 78. Who among the following were the
(A) 1886, 1951
(B) The President of India members of the drafting committee
(B) 1891, 1956 of the Constitution?
(C) 1877, 1961 (C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Parliament of India 1. N. Gopalaswami
(D) 1889, 1961
74. In how many provinces was the 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
66. In which year was ‘Jana Gana Mana’ 3. Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer
adopted as the National Anthem of Congress Ministry formed in the
election of the year 1937? 4. Sardar Patel
India? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1996]
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015] Select the correct answer using the
(A) 1948 (B) 1949
(A) 11 (B) 9 codes given below.
(C) 1950 (D) 1951 [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
67. The state emblem was adopted by (C) 8 (D) 3
75. Which of the following is/are (A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 4
Govt. of India on [MPPCS (Pre) 1999]
the principal feature(s) of the (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
(A) 15th August, 1948

79. Consider the following statements. (d) Appointment of Law Member List-Y
1. The design of the National Flag in Governor-General Council 1. V.T. Krishnamachari
was adopted by the Constituent List-II 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
Assembly of India on 22nd July, 1. Regulating Act, 1773 3. K.M. Munshi
1947. 2. Pitt’s India Act, 1784 4. H.C. Mukherjee
2. The wheel in National Flag has 3. Charter Act, 1813 Code
21 spokes. 4. Charter Act, 1833 (a) (b) (c) (d)
3. The ratio of the width of the Code (A) 1 4 2 3
National Flag to its length is
(a) (b) (c) (d) (B) 4 3 1 2
3 : 4.
(A) 1 2 3 4 (C) 1 2 3 4
Which of the above statements is/
are correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(B) 2 1 3 4 (D) 3 4 1 2
(C) 1 2 4 3 84. Here are two statements.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 1
(D) 2 4 1 3 Assertion (A): The Constitution
(C) 2 and 3 (D) Only 2
82. Assertion (A): According to of India provides for all necessities
80. Consider the following statements.
the Wavell Plan, the number of of the country.
1. The discussions in the Third Hindu and Muslim members in the
Round Table Conference Reason (R): It is known or called
Executive Council was to be equal. as ‘Adopted’ Constitution.
eventually led to the passing of
the Government of India Act, Reason (R): Wavell thought In relation to aforesaid which one is
1935. that this arrangement would have true? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
avoided the partition of India. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
2. The Government of India
[Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2017]
Act, 1935 provided for the (R) is the correct explanation of
establishment of an All India Code (A)
Federation to be based on (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
a Union of the Provinces of (R) is the correct explanation of but (R) is not the correct
British India and the Princely (A) explanation of (A)
States. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Which of the statement(s) given but (R) is not the correct (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
above is/are correct? explanation of (A) 85. Consider the following statements
[IAS (Pre) 2009] (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false and choose the correct answer by
(A) Only 1 (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true using the codes given below.
(B) Only 2 83. Match List-X with List-Y and select Assertion (A): India is a demo-
(C) Both 1 and 2 the correct answer using the code cratic country.
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 given below the lists. Reason (R): India has a constitu-
81. Match List-I with List-II and select tion of its own. [UPPCS(Pre) 2017]
the correct answer using the code List-X Code
given below the lists. (a) First Vice-President of Constit- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
[UPPCS (Pre) 2003] uent Assembly (R) is the correct explanation of
List-I (b) Originally the only Congress (A)
(a) Establishment of Board of Member of Drafting Committee (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
Control (c) Member of Constituent Assem- but (R) is not the correct
(b) Establishment of Supreme bly representing Rajasthan’s explanation of (A)
Court Princely State (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(c) Permission to English Mission- (d) Chairman of Union Constitu- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
aries to work in India tion Committee
Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (D)
51. (D) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (A)
61. (A) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (C) 69. (D) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (B) 80. (C)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (B) 85. (B)
2. Foreign Impact on the Constitution

1. In Indian political system which (C) Dual Judicial System 15. The concept of Fundamental Duties
one is supreme? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013 (D) A Federal Supreme Court has been taken from
45th BPSC (Pre) 2001] for Interpretation of the [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2004]
(A) The Supreme Court Constitution (A) American Constitution
(B) The Constitution 9. Which of the following statements (B) British Constitution
(C) The Parliament is true? [38th BPSC (Pre) 1992] (C) Russian (Former Soviet Union)
(D) Religion (A) The Federal form of Govern- Constitution
2. The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in ment is in United States of (D) French Constitution
India has been adopted from the America 16. The concept of Fundamental
Constitution of [UPPCS(Pre) 1998] (B) The government of India is Rights, as incorporated in the Indi-
(A) U.K. (B) U.S.A. federal and unitary both an Constitution has been adopted
(C) U.S.S.R. (D) Australia (C) The government of France is of from [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014
3. The idea of the Preamble has been federal form UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006
(D) The Prime Minister of Pakistan UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010]
borrowed in Indian Constitution
from the Constitution of is appointed by the people (A) France
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015] 10. Concurrent List included in Indian (B) Britain
(A) Italy (B) Canada Constitution is given by (C) United States of America
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003] (D) Russia
(C) France (D) U.S.A.
4. The concept of ‘A Union of States in (A) The Soviet Union 17. The tradition of written Constitu-
the Indian Constitution’ has been (B) Australia tion began from which of the fol-
derived from [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] (C) Italy lowing countries?
(A) The American Declaration of (D) Canada [MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
Independence 11. The idea of Concurrent List in (A) Japan (B) India
(B) The Australian Constitution the Indian Constitution has been (C) Britain (D) America
(C) The British North-American Act borrowed from 18. Of the following political features,
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014, 12, 11] which is/are common to India and
(D) The Swiss Constitution
5. The feature of Federal system of (A) U.S.A. (B) Switzerland the USA? [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
Indian Constitution is inspired by (C) Australia (D) U.S.S.R. 1. Residuary powers vested in the
the constitution of 12. The framers of the Constitution centre.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006] of India borrowed the concept of 2. Residuary powers vested in the
(A) Canada the Concurrent List described in states.
(B) United Kingdom the Seventh Schedule from the 3. President has the power of
Constitution of pocket veto.
(C) U.S.A.
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
(D) Ireland UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
4. The upper house has some
6. The Indian Parlimentary System nominated members.
(A) Canada (B) Australia
is different from the British (A) Only 3
(C) Italy (D) South Africa
Parliamentary System in that India (B) Only 3 and 4
has [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2018] 13. Indian Constitution has taken a
certain feature of the Constitution (C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(A) Both a real and a nominal (D) Only 1, 3 and 4
of other countries, which country
executive 19. Given below are two statements.
has contributed to the framing of
(B) A system of collective responsi- the ‘Directive Principles of State Assertion (A): The scope of
bility Policy’? Judicial review is limited in India.
(C) Bi-cameral legislature [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004 Reason (R): Indian Constitution
(D) The system of judicial review UPPCS (Pre) 1998] has some borrowed items.
7. The system of judicial review exists (A) France (B) Ireland
in [UPPCS (Mains) 2012
Select the right answer from the
(C) Japan (D) U.S.A. code given below.
UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
14. In giving representation to talent, [UPPCS (Pre) 2017
(A) India only experience and service in the Kerala PSC (Pre) 2019]
(B) U.S.A. only composition of the Council of Code
(C) India and U.S.A. States, the Constitution makers
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(D) U.K. only of India were influenced by the
(R) is the correct explanation of
8. Which of the following example of [UPPCS (Pre) 1998
(A)
characteristics is common between Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2018]
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
the Federal system of India and (A) Irish Republic
but (R) is not the correct
America? [IAS (Pre) 1993] (B) Canada explanation of (A)
(A) A Single Citizenship (C) U.S.A. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) Three lists in the Constitution (D) Australia
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

20. Match List-I with List-II and select 2. Canadian Constitution (b) Fundamental Rights
the correct answer using the code 3. Irish Constitution (c) Concurrent List for Union-State
given below the lists. 4. U.S. Bill of Rights Relations
[Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2018] Code (d) India as a Union of States with
List-I (Feature of Constitution (a) (b) (c) (d) greater powers to the Union
of India) (A) 4 3 2 1 List-II (Country from which it
(a) Fundamental Rights (B) 4 2 3 1 was derived)
(b) Parliamentary System (C) 4 1 3 2 1. Australia
(c) Emergency Provisions (D) 4 3 1 2 2. Canada
(d) Directive Principles of State 22. Match List-I with List-II and select 3. Ireland
Policy the correct answer using the code 4. United Kingdom
List-II (Borrowed from which given below the lists. 5. United States of America
country) [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2016 Code
1. United Kingdom UPPSC (GIC) 2010] (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. United States List-I (A) 5 4 1 2
3. Ireland (Constitutional Provisions) (B) 3 5 2 1
4. Germany (a) Rule of Law (C) 5 4 2 1
5. Canada (b) Procedure established by Law (D) 3 5 1 2
Code (c) Reserving of bill by Governor 24. Assertion (A): The Constitution
(a) (b) (c) (d) for President’s consideration of India has become the longest
(A) 2 4 5 1 (d) Concurrent List one.
(B) 5 1 3 4 List-II (Sources) Reason (R): The chapter on
(C) 2 1 4 3 1. Australia 2. England Fundamental Rights has been
(D) 1 2 4 3 3. Japan 4. Canada borrowed from the model of
21. Match List-I with List-II and select Code American Constitution.
the correct answer using the code (a) (b) (c) (d) Choose the correct answer using
given below the lists. (A) 1 2 3 4 the code given below.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2013] [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(B) 2 1 4 3
List-I (C) 3 2 1 4 Code
(Constitutional Provision) (D) 2 3 4 1 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(a) Fundamental Rights 23. Match List-I with List-II and select (R) is the correct explanation of
(b) Directive Principles of State the correct answer using the code (A)
Policy given below the lists. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(c) Cabinet Government [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018] but (R) is not the correct
(d) Union State Relations explanation of (A)
List-I
List-II (Source) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(a) Directive Principles of State
1. British Constitution (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Policy
Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (B)
3. Articles and Schedules in the Constitution of India

1. There were originally how many (A) 390 Articles, 5 Schedules Schedules was there in the original
Articles in the Constitution of (B) 395 Articles, 12 Schedules Indian Constitution?
India? (C) 395 Articles, 10 Schedules [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016
[West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2016 (D) 444 Articles, 12 Schedules Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018]
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007] (A) 22 Parts, 395 Articles and 8
3. Indian Constitution consists of
(A) 420 [42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997 Schedules
(B) 380 Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018] (B) 24 Parts, 450 Articles and 12
(C) 395 (A) 300 Articles Schedules
(D) 270 (B) 350 Articles (C) 22 Parts, 390 Articles and 8
2. Total numbers of Articles and (C) More than 400 Articles Schedules
Schedules in Constitution, calcula- (D) 500 Articles (D) 24 Parts, 425 Articles and 12
tion or numbering wise is 4. How many parts, Articles and Schedules
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003]

5. The Indian Constitution comprises (B) Political defection (C) Post Office Union
of [53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2003] (C) Panchayat system Saving Bank
(A) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 (D) Languages (D) Public Health State
Schedules 14. If a new state of the Indian Union 22. Which one of the following
(B) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 is to be created, which one of Schedules of the Constitution of
Schedules the following Schedules of the India contains provisions regarding
(C) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Constitution must be amended? Anti-defection Act?
Schedules [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018] [IAS (Pre) 1998, 2014
(D) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 (A) First (B) Second UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
Schedules (C) Third (D) Fourth (A) Second Schedule
6. Total number of Schedules in the 15. To give constitutional protection, (B) Fifth Schedule
Constitution is [MPPCS (Pre) 2010] state land reforms laws have been (C) Eighth Schedule
(A) 12 (B) 16 included in the [UPPCS (Mains) 2003] (D) Tenth Schedule
(C) 8 (D) 10 (A) 7th Schedule 23. Constitution’s Tenth Schedule
7. The Indian Constitution is divided (B) 9th Schedule relates to [41st BPSC (Pre) 1996
into [UPPCS (Mains) 2012 (C) 8th Schedule UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008] (D) 10th Schedule (A) National Language of India
(A) 16 Parts (B) 22 Parts 16. Under the Constitution of India, (B) Administration of SC’s and ST’s
.in
(C) 24 Parts (D) 25 Parts Economic Planning is a subject Area
8. Which part of Constitution contains [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002 (C) Judicial Review
provisions relating to citizenship? UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006] (D) Anti-defection Law
cle
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] (A) In the State List 24. Which one of the following is not
(A) Part I (B) Part III (B) In the Union List included in the Union List in the
(C) Part II (D) Part IV (C) In the Concurrent List Seventh Schedule of the Indian
9. Which one of the following is not
matched correctly?
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(D) Not specified in any list
17. Which of the following is the subject
of Concurrent List?
Constitution?
(A) Banking
(C) Census
[UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(B) Insurance
(D) Gas
dy
(A) Citizenship - Part II of Constitu- [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011 25. Which one of the following is not
tion UPPCS (Mains) 2005] included in the ‘Union List’ of the
(B) Fundamental Rights - Part III of (A) Police Constitution of India?
tu
Constitution (B) Criminal Matters [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]

(C) Fundamental Duties - Part VI-A (C) Radio and Television (A) Defence
rs
of Constitution (D) Foreign Affairs (B) Foreign Affairs

(D) State - Part VI of Constitution 18. Which of the following Entry is (C) Railways
ou
10. Which part of our Constitution subject of Concurrent List? (D) Agriculture
envisages a three tier system of [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2018] 26. Which one of the following is
Panchayats? [UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (A) Population control and family included in the State List under
w.
(A) Part IX (B) Pat X planning Seventh Schedule of Indian

(C) Part XI (D) Part XII (B) Public health and sanitation Constitution? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) Education
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11. Which part and chapter of the (C) Per-person Tax

Indian Constitution deal with the (D) Treasure Travel (B) Electricity
legislative relation between the 19. Which of the following subject lies (C) Railway Police
Union and the States? in the Concurrent List? (D) Forest
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012] [47th BPSC (Pre) 2005] 27. In which list of the Indian
(A) Part XI and Chapter I (A) Agriculture (B) Education Constitution the ‘Panchayati Raj’
(B) Part XI and Chapter II (C) Police (D) Defence subject is included?
(C) Part XII and Chapter I 20. Education which was initially a [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(D) Part XII and Chapter II state subject was transferred to the (A) Union List
12. Which one of the following Sched- Concurrent List by the (B) State List
ules of the Indian Constitution lists [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008] (C) Concurrent List
the names of states and specifies (A) 24th Amendment (D) Residuary List
their territories? [IAS (Pre) 2003 (B) 25th Amendment 28. Which one of the following
UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (C) 42nd Amendment subject is in List-III Concurrent
(A) First (B) Second (D) 44th Amendment List of the Seventh Schedule of the
(C) Third (D) Fourth 21. Which one of the given Subjects is Constitution of India?
13. Fourth Schedule of the Constitution not correctly matched with their [UPPCS (Mains) 2006, 2011]
of India deals with list? [UPPCS (Pre) 2009, 2010] (A) Criminal Procedure
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015] Subject List (B) Police
(A) Allocation of seats for the (A) Forest Concurrent (C) Prisons
Council of States (B) Stock Exchange Concurrent (D) Public Order

29. ‘Marriage’, ‘Divorce’ and ‘Adoption’ (C) Determine the powers, 44. Which one of the following is
are an entry in the Seventh authority and responsible of matched correctly?
Schedule of the Constitution under Panchayats [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002
the following. (D) Protect the interests of all the UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2002]
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2010] border States (A) Article 17 - Equality before Law
(A) List I - Union List 37. The Constitutional status has been (B) Article 78 - Establishment of
(B) List II - State List given to Panchayats under Article Parliament
(C) List III - Concurrent List [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2007] (C) Article 192 - Salaries and
(D) None of the above three lists (A) 226 (B) 243 Allowances of Parliament
30. The right of the government to (C) 239 (D) 219 Members
impose taxes and fees is provided in 38. The Eleventh Schedule of the (D) Article 352 - Proclamation of
which List of Constitution? Constitution is related to which of Emergency
[IAS (Pre) 2009] the following? [UPPSC (RI) 2014 45. Which of the following is correctly
(A) VI Schedule (B) VII Schedule UPPCS (Pre) 2015] matched? [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(C) IX Schedule (D) XI Schedule (A) Municipality (A) Part-II of the Constitution -
31. Which one of the following is in the (B) Panchayati Raj Fundamental Rights
State List? [UPPCS (Pre) 2001] (C) Centre-State relationship (B) Part-III of the Constitution -
(A) Railway Police (D) Removal of corruption Citizenship
.in
(B) Corporation Tax 39. The provision that “no bill (C) Part-IV(A) of the Constitution -
(C) Census imposing tax can be introduced Fundamental Duties
(D) Economic and Social Planning in the Legislature except on the (D) Part-V of the Constitution -
cle
recommendation of the President” Directive Principles of the State
32. Land Reform comes under the
is covered in the Constitution of Policy
subjects of [43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999]
India under 46. Which of the following is not
(A) Union List
(B) Concurrent List
(C) State List
(D) None of the above
cir [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Article 117 (B) Article 266
(C) Article 306 (D) Article 307
correctly matched under the
Constitution of India?
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
dy
40. Special provision regarding (A) The Panchayats - Part IX
33. Which Schedule of the Constitution (B) The Municipalities - Part IX-A
Financial Bills is given under
of India contains special provisions (C) The Co-operative Societies -
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010]
tu
for the administration and control Part IX-B

of Schedule Areas in several states? (A) Article 117 (B) Article 119
(C) Article 121 (D) Article 123 (D) Tribunals - Part X
[IAS (Pre) 2008]
rs
41. Which one of the following articles 47. Consider the following statements.
(A) Third (B) Fifth
of the Indian Constitution provides 1. The Constitution of India has
(C) Seventh (D) Ninth
ou
for All Indian Services? 20 parts.

34. Provisions of Schedule Six of the
[UPPSC (RI) 2014 2. There are 390 Articles in the
Constitution does not apply to
UPPCS (Mains) 2012] Constitution of India in all.
which of these state?
w.
[MPPCS (Pre) 2005]

(A) Article 310 (B) Article 311 3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and
(C) Article 312 (D) Article 313 Twelfth Schedules were added
(A) Assam to the Constitution of India by
42. Which one of the following pairs
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(B) Meghalaya Constitution (Amendment)

(Institutions and Articles of the
(C) Tripura Acts.
Constitution) is properly matched?
(D) Manipur [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2008] Which of the statements given
35. The Sixth Schedule of the (A) Supreme Court of India - Article above is/are correct?
Constitution of India deals with 318 [IAS (Pre) 2005]
the administration of tribal areas of (A) 1 and 2
(B) Election Commission of India -
which of the following States? (B) Only 2
Article 324
(C) Union Public Service Commis- (C) Only 3
(A) Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Goa (D) 1, 2 and 3
sion - Article 332
(B) Meghalaya, Tripura and
(D) Attorney General - Article 351 48. Which of the following are
Mizoram
43. Which one of the following is not enshrined in the third schedule of
(C) Uttarakhand, Manipur, the Indian Constitution?
correctly matched?
Jharkhand
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] 1. Form of oath of office for a
(D) Nagaland, Arunachal, Tripura Minister for the Union.
(A) Article 39A - Equal Justice and
36. The provisions of the Fifth and Free Legal Aid 2. Form of oath to be made by the
Sixth Schedule in the Constitution Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
(B) Article 40 - Organisation of
of India are made to [IAS (Pre) 2015]
Village Panchayats 3. Form of oath of office for the
(A) Protect the interests of President of India.
(C) Article 44 - Uniform Civil Code
Scheduled Tribes 4. Form of oath to be made by a
(D) Article 48 - Separation of
(B) Determine the boundaries Member of Parliament.
Judiciary from Executive
between States

Select the correct answer using the given below the lists. Code
code given below. [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015] (a) (b) (c) (d)
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017] List-I (A) 3 1 2 4
Code (a) Formation of new states (B) 2 3 4 1
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (b) Citizenship (C) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Fundamental Rights (D) 4 2 1 3
49. Match the following. (d) Setting of Administrative 55. Match the following.
[60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016] Tribunals [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
List-I List-II List-I
(a) Union List (b) State List 1. Part-2 of the Constitution of (a) Union List
(c) Concurrent List India (b) State List
List-II 2. Article 3 of the Constitution of (c) Concurrent List
1. 97 entries 2. 47 entries India (d) Residuary Subject
3. 66 entries 3. Article 323-A of the Constitu- List-II
Code tion of India
1. Police and Public Order
4. Part-3 of the Constitution of
(a) (b) (c) 2. Space Research
India
(A) 1 2 3 3. Census
Code
.in
(B) 1 3 2 4. Population Control and Family
(a) (b) (c) (d) Planning
(C) 2 3 1
(A) 2 1 4 3 Code
(D) 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
cle
50. Which of the following provisions (a) (b) (c) (d)
of the Constitution of India have a (C) 3 4 1 2
(A) 3 1 4 2
bearing on Education? (D) 4 2 1 3
(B) 2 3 1 4
1. Directive Principles of State
Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
cir
53. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer using the code
given below the lists.
(C) 1
(D) 4
2
1
3
2
4
3
dy
[UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
3. Fifth Schedule the correct answer using the code
4. Sixth Schedule List-I (Schedules of the
Constitution)
5. Seventh Schedule [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
tu
(a) 4th (b) 6th

Select the correct answer using the List-I
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012] (c) 8th (d) 9th (Article of the Constitution)
List-II (Subject-matter)
rs
(A) Only 1 and 2 (a) 124 (b) 5

(B) Only 3, 4 and 5 1. Land Reforms (c) 352 (d) 245
ou
(C) Only 1, 2 and 5 2. Language List-II (Subject)

(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 3. Council of States
1. Union Judiciary
51. Match List-I with List-II and select 4. Tribal Areas
2. Citizenship
w.
the correct answer using the code Code 3. Emergency Provisions

given below the lists. (a) (b) (c) (d) 4. Distribution of Legislative
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013] (A) 1 2 3 4
ww
Powers
List-I (B) 2 3 4 1 Code
(a) Part XV of the Constitution (C) 3 4 2 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) Part XVI of the Constitution (D) 4 2 1 3 (A) 1 2 3 4
(c) Part XVII of the Constitution 54. Match List-I with List-II and select (B) 2 1 4 3
(d) Part XVIII of the Constitution the correct answer using the code (C) 4 3 2 1
List-II given below the lists.
(D) 3 4 1 2
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
1. Emergency Provisions 57. Match List-I with List-II and select
2. Official Language List-I
3. Special Provisions regarding (a) 7th Schedule given below the lists.
certain classes (b) 8th Schedule [UPPCS (Pre) 2010
4. Elections (c) 9th Schedule Jammu & Kashmir PSC (Pre) 2017]
Code (d) 10th Schedule List-I
(a) (b) (c) (d) List-II (a) Article 14 (b) Article 36
(A) 3 4 1 2 1. Languages (c) Article 74 (d) Article 368
(B) 4 3 2 1 2. Disqualification on ground of List-II
(C) 1 2 3 4 defection 1. Amendment procedure
(D) 2 1 4 3 3. Distribution of legislative 2. Council of Ministers
powers
52. Match List-I with List-II and select 3. Right to Equality
the correct answer using the code 4. Validation of certain Acts
4. Directive Principles

Code List-I 63. Match List-I with List-II and select
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Article 323-A the correct answer using the code
(A) 2 1 4 3 (b) Article 324 given below the lists.
(B) 4 1 3 2 (c) Article 330 [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(C) 1 2 3 4 (d) Article 320 List-I
(D) 3 4 2 1 List-II (Articles of Constitution)
58. Match List-I with List-II and select 1. Election (a) 215 (b) 222
the correct answer using the code 2. Administration Tribunals (c) 226 (d) 227
given below the lists. 3. Functions of Public Service List-II (Provision)
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] Commissions 1. Transfer of Judge from one
List-I 4. Reservation of seats for SC and High Court to another
(a) To admit new state by law ST in Lok Sabha 2. Powers of superintendence
(b) The right to equality Code over all courts by the High
Court
(c) Protection against arrest and (a) (b) (c) (d)
detention 3. Power of High Court to issue
(A) 1 2 3 4
certain writs
(d) The power of the President to (B) 4 3 2 1
4. High court to be court of Record
assent the Bill (C) 2 1 4 3
Code
.in
List-II (D) 3 4 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. Article 14 2. Article 2 61. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer using the code (A) 4 1 3 2
3. Article 111 4. Article 22
(B) 2 1 3 4
cle
Code given below the lists.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (C) 1 4 3 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) (D) 4 2 3 1
(A) 1 2 3 4 List-I
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
1
4
3
4
2
1
3
1
2
cir
(a) Constitutional Amendments
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Financial Emergency
dy
(d) All India Services
59. Match List-I with List-II and select List-I
the correct answer using the code List-II
(a) Article 76 (b) Article 148
given below the lists. 1. Article 360 2. Article 312
tu
(c) Article 75(I) (d) Article 131

[UPPCS (Mains) 2011, 2005 3. Article 280 4. Article 368
List-II
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002 Code
1. Comptroller and Auditor
rs
IAS (Pre) 2001]

(a) (b) (c) (d) General of India
List-I (A) 2 3 4 1 2. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
ou
(Article of the Constitution) (B) 4 3 1 2

(a) Article 54 (b) Article 75 3. Attorney General of India
(C) 3 4 1 2 4. Appointment of Union
(c) Article 155 (d) Article 164 (D) 1 2 3 4 Ministers
w.
List-II (Content) 62. Match List-I with List-II and select Code
1. Election of the President of the correct answer using the code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
India
ww

(A) 1 2 3 4
2. Appointment of the Prime [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
Minister and Cabinet (B) 3 1 4 2
List-I (Institution)
(C) 4 1 2 3
3. Appointment of the Governor (a) Comptroller and Auditor
of State (D) 2 3 4 1
General of India
4. Appointment of the Chief (b) Finance Commission 65. Match List-I with List-II and select
Minister and Council of the correct answer using the code
(c) Administrative Tribunal
Ministers of a State given below the lists.
(d) Union Public Service [UPPCS (Pre) 2015
5. Composition of Legislative Commission Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2019]
Assemblies List-II (Articles)
Code List-I (Provision under the
1. Article 315 Constitution)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2. Article 280 (a) Equality before Law
(A) 1 2 3 4 3. Article 148 (b) Right to Work
(B) 1 2 4 5 4. Article 323(A) (c) Just and Humane conditions of
(C) 2 1 3 5 Code work
(D) 2 1 4 3 (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Free and Compulsory Educa-
60. Match List-I with List-II and select (A) 3 2 4 1 tion for Children
the correct answer using the code (B) 3 4 2 1 List-II (Article number)
given below the lists. (C) 1 2 4 3 1. Article 42 2. Article 45
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015] (D) 4 1 3 2 3. Article 14 4. Article 41

Code (d) Part IXA of the Indian Constitu- List-I
(a) (b) (c) (d) tion (a) Fundamental Rights
(A) 1 2 3 4 List-II (b) Fundamental Duties
(B) 3 4 1 2 1. Union Territories (c) The Union
(C) 2 1 4 3 2. Municipalities (d) Emergency Provisions
(D) 4 3 1 2 3. Panchayats List-II
66. Match List-I with List-II and select 4. Fundamental Duties 1. Part IV A, Constitution of India
the correct answer using the code Code 2. Part III, Constitution of India
given below the lists. (a) (b) (c) (d) 3. Part XVIII, Constitution of India
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] (A) 3 1 4 2 4. Part V, Constitution of India
List-I (B) 1 2 3 4 Code
(a) Part IX of the Indian Constitu- (C) 2 4 1 3 (a) (b) (c) (d)
tion (D) 4 3 2 1 (A) 2 1 4 3
(b) Part VIII of the Indian Constitu- 67. Match List-I with List-II and select (B) 3 4 1 2
tion the correct answer using the code (C) 2 1 3 4
(c) Part IV A of the Indian Constitu- given below the lists. (D) 4 3 2 1
tion [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
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Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (A)
cle
11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (B)
31.
41.
51.
(A)
(C)
(B)
32.
42.
52.
(C)
(B)
(A)
33.
43.
53.
(B)
(D)
(C)
34.
44.
54.
(D)
(D)
(C)
cir 35.
45.
55.
(B)
(C)
(A)
36.
46.
56.
(A)
(D)
(A)
37.
47.
57.
(B)
(C)
(D)
38.
48.
58.
(B)
(C)
(B)
39.
49.
59.
(A)
(B)
(A)
40.
50.
60.
(A)
(D)
(C)
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61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (A)
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4. The Preamble
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1. By which name/names is our coun- LIBERTY of thought, expression, (C) A Sovereign Secular
try mentioned in the Constitution? belief, faith and worship; Democratic Republic
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[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003] EQUALITY of status and (D) A Sovereign Socialist Secular
(A) Bharat and India opportunity and to promote among Democratic Republic
(B) Bharat only them all; 5. Which one of the following
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(C) Hindustan and India FRATERNITY assuring the dignity describes India as a Secular State?
(D) Bharat, Hindustan and India of the Individual and the unity and [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
2. In the context of the Preamble of the integrity of the Nation. (A) Fundamental Rights
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Indian Constitution which of the In our Constituent Assembly, this (B) Preamble to the Constitution
following sequence is correct? ‘X’ do hereby adopt, enact and give (C) 9th Schedule
[40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
to ourselves this Constitution”, ‘X’ (D) Directive Principles
(A) Republic, People’s, Democratic, stands for [IAS (Pre) 1997]
Secular, Socialist, Universal, 6. Which one of the following words
(A) Twenty-sixth day of January, was not included in the Preamble of
Sovereign 1950
(B) Sovereign, Socialist, Democrat- the Indian Constitution in 1975?
(B) Twenty-sixth day of November, [UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
ic, People’s, Secular, Republic
1949 (A) Fraternity (B) Sovereign
(C) Sovereign, Socialist, People’s,
(C) Twenty-sixth day of January, (C) Equality (D) Integrity
Democratic, Secular, Socialist,
1949
Republic 7. In which form is India declared in
(D) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, (D) None of the above
The Preamble of Indian Constitu-
Democratic, Republic 4. What was the exact Constitutional tion? [42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
3. In the following quotation, Status of the Indian Republic on
(A) A Sovereign, Democratic,
26-1-1950 when the Constitution
“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having Republic
came into force?
solemnly resolved to constitute [UPPCS (Mains) 2009 (B) A Socialist, Democratic,
India into a (Sovereign Socialist UP Lower (Spl)(Pre) 2008] Republic
Secular Democratic Republic) and (A) A Democratic Republic (C) A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular,
to secure to all its citizens. Democratic, Republic
(B) A Sovereign Democratic Re-
JUSTICE, social, economic and public (D) None of the above
political;

8. The term ‘Socialist’ was brought (A) India has many religions 21. Who has termed Constitution a
into the Preamble of the (B) Indians have religious freedom sacred document?
Indian Constitution by which (C) Following the religion depends [MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
amendment? [MPPCS (Pre) 2013 upon the will of an individual (A) B.R. Ambedkar
60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(D) There is no religion of the State (B) Mahatma Gandhi
in India (C) Deendayal Upadhyay
(A) 32nd (B) 42nd
16. Which of the following words is not (D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(C) 44th (D) 74th
in the Preamble to the Constitution 22. In which of the following cases
9. The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ of India? [MPPCS (Pre) 2005] Supreme Court held that ‘The
were inserted in The Preamble to
(A) Socialist Preamble forms part of the
the Constitution by the
(B) Secular Constitution’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(C) Sovereign (A) Union of India Vs. Dr. Kohli
(A) 41st Amendment
(D) Public Welfare (B) Banarsidas Vs. State of U.P.
(B) 42nd Amendment
17. Which one of the following liberty (C) Bommai Vs. Union of India
(C) 43rd Amendment
is not embodied in the Preamble of (D) Malak Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(D) 44th Amendment
the Constitution of India? 23. In which of the following cases the
10. The word ‘Secularism’ was inserted [UPPCS (Mains) 2008 Supreme Court regarded Preamble
in the Preamble of the Indian UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013 as a part of the basic structure of
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Constitution by [UPPCS (Mains) 2013 IAS (Pre) 2017] India Constitution?
UPPCS (Pre) 2010, 1991] (A) Liberty of Thought [UPPSC (RI) 2014]
(A) 25th Amendment (B) Liberty of Expression (A) Beru Bari Case
cle
(B) 42nd Amendment (C) Liberty of Belief (B) A.K. Gopalan Case
(C) 44th Amendment (D) Economic Liberty (C) Privy Purse Case
(D) 52nd Amendment 18. Which of the following is true (D) Keshwanand Bharti Case
11. ‘India is a Republic’ means
[UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) It is the people who are the final
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in relation to the Preamble of
[MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
24. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of
the objectives of the Indian
Constitution has been provided in
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authority in all matters (A) The words ‘Socialist’ and [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(B) There is no Parliamentary ‘Secular’ were not the part of the (A) The Preamble and the Funda-
System of Government in India Preamble on the enforcement mental Rights
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(C) There are no hereditary rulers of Constitution in 1950 (B) The Preamble and the Directive
in India (B) The above mentioned words Principles of State Policy
were inserted by amendment in
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(D) India is the Union of States (C) The Fundamental Rights and
12. India has people’s sovereignty 1977
the Directive Principles of State
(C) The above mentioned words
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because the Preamble of the Policy

Constitution begins with the were inserted by amendment in
words. [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994] 1985
(D) These two words are not part of 25. The ideals and objectives outlined
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(A) Democratic India in the Preamble of the Indian

(B) Republic of People the Preamble
Constitution have been further
(C) Democracy of People 19. Which part of the Indian Constitu-
elaborated in
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(D) We the People of India tion has been described as the ‘Soul’
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
of the Constitution?
13. Where have the words ‘We the [UPPCS (Mains) 2015, 13
UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
people of India’ been used in the UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006 (A) The Chapter on Fundamental
Constitution of India? UPPCS (Pre) 2008 Rights
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016] UPPSC (GIC) 2008 (B) The Chapter on Directive
(A) Directive Principles Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] Principles of State Policy
(B) Fundamental Rights (A) Fundamental Rights (C) The Chapter on Directive
(C) Citizenship (B) Directive Principles of State Principles of State Policy,
Policy Fundamental Rights and Fund-
(D) Preamble of the Constitution
(C) The Preamble amental Duties
14. ‘All persons completely and equally
(D) Right to Constitutional (D) Nowhere else in the text of the
are human’ this principle is known
Remedies Constitution
as [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
20. Who among the following called 26. The mind of the makers of the
(A) Universalism
the Preamble of Indian Constitution Constitution of India is reflected in
(B) Holism ‘the horoscope of one sovereign, which of the following?
(C) Socialism democratic republic’? [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(D) Interactionism [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013] (A) The Preamble
15. Which among the following is (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) The Fundamental Rights
the correct expression of the term (B) Vallabhbhai Patel (C) The Directive Principles of
‘Secular’ in India? (C) B.R. Ambedkar State Policy
(D) K.M. Munshi (D) The Fundamental Duties

27. The objective of Indian Constitution (A) 3, 1, 4 and 2 (B) 3, 4, 1 and 2 34. In the Preamble of Constitution
is reflected in which of the (C) 3, 4, 2 and 1 (D) 4, 1, 3 and 2 adopted on 26 November, 1949
following? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013] 32. Which of the following words have which word/words was/were not
(A) Fundamental Rights been added to the Preamble by the present?
(B) Preamble of the Constitution 42nd Amendment? 1. Socialist 2. Secular
(C) Directive Principles of State 1. Socialist 3. Integrity 4. Republic
Policy Choose the correct answer by
2. Gram Swarajya
(D) Parliament following code. [UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
3. Secular
28. How many types of justice has been (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
enshrined in the Preamble of the 4. Sovereign
Select the correct answer by using (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] the code given below. 35. The goal of Constitution is to
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] secure/assure for all its citizens.
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) One (D) Four (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 1. Justice Social and Economic
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 2. Liberty of Thought and
29. One of the implications of equality
33. Consider the following statements Expression
in society is the absence of
[IAS (Pre) 2017] in regards to The Preamble of 3. Equality of Opportunity
(A) Privileges (B) Restraints Constitution and give correct 4. Dignity of the Individual
answer using the code given below. Choose the correct answer by using
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(C) Competition (D) Ideology
30. Which of the following is correct? [UPPCS (Pre) 2009 code. [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008] Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018] (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
1. The objectives Resolution (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All of these
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(A) Social equality is not guaran-
teed in our Constitution by Jawaharlal Nehru finally 36. The Preamble given in the
(B) Social equality already existed became Preamble. Constitution
in our country 2. It is non-Justiciable. [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004]
(C) Social equality is guaranteed in
our Constitution
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3. It can’t be amended.
4. Preamble cannot override
the specific provision of the
1. is not enforceable in courts.
2. is important and have utility.
3. describes the aims of
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31. Consider the following words. Constitution. governance.
1. Socialist 2. Democratic Code 4. helps to give a Judicial meaning
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3. Sovereign 4. Secular (A) Only 1 and 2 to our Constitution.

Choose the correct sequence of (B) Only 1, 2 and 4 Code
words as given in the Preamble. (C) Only 1, 2 and 3 (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
rs
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] (D) Only 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
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11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
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31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (D)
5. The Governance System

1. Constitution of India provides element of a state? (A) Parliamentary Government
which type of governance system? [UPPCS (Pre) 2008] (B) Presidential Government
[UPPCS (Pre) 1990] (A) Flag (B) Capital (C) Independence of Judiciary
(A) Democratic (C) Sovereignty (D) Head of State (D) Federal Government
(B) Presidential 4. “The State is everywhere : it leaves 6. Out of the following statements,
(C) Parliamentary hardly a gap”. This statement choose the one that brings out the
(D) Semi-democratic explains the concept of principle underlying the Cabinet
2. Which of the following is not a [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016] form of Government.
feature of good governance? (A) Welfare State [IAS (Pre) 2017
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016] (B) Communist State Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) Accountability (C) Democratic State (A) An arrangement for minimiz-
(B) Transparency (D) Police State ing the criticism against the
(C) Rule of Law 5. Which one of the following is not Government whose responsi-
(D) Red Tapism the feature of Indian Constitution? bilities are complex and hard to
carry out to the satisfaction of
3. Which one is the most prominent all

(B) A mechanism for speeding up (B) Democratic Government (D) Directive principles of state
the activities of the Govern- (C) Rule of Law policy have been provided here
ment whose responsibilities are (D) Authoritarian Government 20. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in
increasing day by day 13. ‘Welfare State’ aims to the fact that it calls into activity
(C) A mechanism of parliamentary [IAS (Pre) 2009] [IAS (Pre) 2017]
democracy for ensuring collec- (A) Secure maximum welfare of (A) The intelligence and character
tive responsibility of the Gov- maximum numbers of ordinary men and women
ernment to the people (B) Management of welfare of (B) The methods for strengthening
(D) A device for strengthening the weaker sections executive leadership
hands of the head of the Gov- (C) Provide health facilities (C) A superior individual with
ernment whose hold over the (D) None of the above dynamism and vision
people is in a state of decline (D) A band of dedicated party
7. In which report of the Second the Philosophy of the Constitution workers
Administrative Reforms Commis- of India? [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2017 21. Which one of the following
sion barriers of Good Governance UP Lowers Sub. (Mains) 2015] determines that Indian Constitution
in India have been identified? is Federal?
(A) Welfare State [IAS (Pre) 1994]
(B) Socialist State (A) Written and non-flexible
(A) ‘Ethics in Governance’ (C) Political Equality Constitution
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(B) ‘Citizen-Centric Administration (D) Communist State (B) Free Judiciary
: The Heart of Governance’
15. Which one of the following state- (C) Residuary powers are vested in
(C) ‘Prompting E-Governance’ ment is correct? [UPPCS (Pre) 2005] centre/union
cle
(D) ‘Local Governance’ (A) The Constitution of India is (D) Distribution of powers between
8. There is parliamentary system of Presidential union and states
Government in India because the (B) India is a titular monarchy 22. Indian Constitution is
the people
[IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Lok Sabha is elected directly by cir
(C) India is an aristocracy
(D) India is a Parliamentary
Democracy
(A) Rigid
(B) Flexible
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(B) Parliament can amend the Con- 16. What is the main source of Political (C) Neither rigid nor flexible
stitution Power in India? (D) Partly rigid and partly flexible
(C) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
23. Which one of the following
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(D) Council of Ministers is responsi- (A) The People points differentiates the Indian
ble to the Lok Sabha (B) The Constitution Parliamentary System and British
9. The main advantage of the
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(C) The Parliament Parliamentary System?

parliamentary form of government (D) The President [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
is that [IAS (Pre) 2017]
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17. Which one of the following is a (A) Collective Responsibility

(A) the executive and legislature basic feature of the Presidential (B) Judicial Review
work independently Government? [UPPCS (Mains) 2006] (C) Bi-cameral Legislature
(B) it provides continuity of policy
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(A) Rigid Constitution (D) Real and Nominal Executive

and is more efficient
(B) Single Executive 24. Which of the following is not
(C) the executive remains responsi-
(C) Supremacy of the Legislature a federal feature of the Indian
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ble to the legislature

(D) Residual Powers of the States Constitution?
(D) the head of the government
18. Which of the following is correct? [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
cannot be changed without
election The main feature of a Presidential (A) Distribution of power between
form of Government is/are Centre and States
10. In a Parliamentary system of Gov-
ernment. [UPPCS (Mains) 2010] [UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (B) Entirely written Constitution
(A) Judiciary controls Executive (A) The Head of the Executive is (C) Single Citizenship
(B) Executive controls Judiciary the President (D) Independent Judiciary
(C) Executive controls Legislature (B) The President appoints his 25. Which one of the following is not a
Council of Ministers feature of Indian federalism?
(D) Legislature controls Executive
(C) The President cannot dissolve [IAS (Pre) 2017]
11. In a Presidential Government, all
the Legislature (A) There is an independent
the executive powers are vested in
(D) All of the above judiciary in India
[UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
19. The Democracy of India is based on (B) Powers have been clearly
(A) President (B) Cabinet
the fact that [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994] divided between the Centre
(C) Legislature (D) Upper House and the States
(A) The Constitution is written
12. Which one of the following is not a (C) The federating units have been
feature of Indian polity? (B) Fundamental rights have been
provided given unequal representation
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011] in the Rajya Sabha
(A) A Government following the (C) Public enjoys the rights
to choose and change the (D) It is the result of an agreement
Constitution among the federating units
Government

26. The reason for the Indian (A) A state in which people are 4. The legislative, financial and
Constitution being the bulkiest is supreme judicial powers have been
that [UPPCS (Pre) 1997] (B) Supreme power is vested in divided between the Union and
(A) it incorporates the experience elected head its units.
of many Constitutions (C) Supreme power is vested in a Select the correct answer from the
(B) it contains detailed administra- person (solely) likewise a king codes given below.
tive provisions (D) A government formed by repre- [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(C) it deals with the Government of sentative elected by people Code
a large country 34. In the context of India, which of the (A) Only 1
(D) it contains the Constitution following principles is/are implied (B) Only 1 and 2
of both Union and State institutionally in the Parliamentary (C) Only 1, 2 and 3
Governments Government? (D) All the four
27. Who called Indian Federalism as 1. Members of the Cabinet are the 38. Consider the following statements.
the Co-operative Federalism? Members of the Parliament.
A Constitutional Government is one
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2008] 2. Ministers hold the office till which
(A) G. Austin they enjoy confidence in the
Parliament. 1. Places effective restriction on
(B) K.C. Wheare individual liberty in the interest
(C) Sir Ivor Jennings 3. The Cabinet is headed by the
of the state Authority.
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(D) D.D. Basu Head of the State.
2. Places effective restriction on
28. Who said, “India is a quasi-federal Select the correct answer using the the Authority of the State in the
state”? [UPPSC (GIC) 2010] code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2013] interest of individual liberty.
cle
(A) Harold Laski (B) Ivor Jennings (A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 3 Which of the statements given
(C) Lord Bryee (D) K.C. Wheare (C) 2 and 3 (D) All of these above is/are correct?
29. Who rejected the ‘Principles of 35. The cardinal features of political [IAS (Pre) 2014]
Administrative as myths and
proverbs’? [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Herbert Simon
cir
system in India are
1. It is a democratic republic.
2. It has a Parliamentary form of
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
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(B) Dwight Waldo government. (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(C) Frank Marini 3. The supreme power vests in 39. Consider the following statements
(D) F.W. Riggs People of India.
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and select the correct answer from

30. In relation to Indian Constitution 4. It provides for a unified the code given at the end.
who said that “Indian Constitution authority.
Assertion (A): The Constitution
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establishes good balance between Select the correct answer from the of India provides for a federal
Rigidity and Flexibility”? code given below. system.
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[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008

UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
Reason (R): It has created a very
(A) B.R. Ambedkar strong centre. [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(B) M.P. Payli Code
Code
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(C) Alexandrovics (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) K.C. Wheare (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All the four
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31. Who of the following has stated (A)

that “The Constitution has not been 1. India is a democratic polity. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
set in a tight mould of Federalism”? 2. India is a sovereign state. but (R) is not the correct
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008] 3. India has a democratic society. explanation of (A)
(A) D.D. Basu 4. India is welfare state. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) K.M. Munshi Which of the above statements are (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(C) B.R. Ambedkar true? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] 40. Which of the following is a unitary
(D) K.S. Aiyer (A) Only 1 and 2 element in India Federal System?
32. Which one of the following is (B) Only 1, 2 and 3 [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
incorrect about the Indian Political (C) Only 2, 3 and 4 1. Decentralization of Powers
System? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008] (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Appointment of Governors
(A) Secular State 37. Which of the following statements 3. Unequal representation in
(B) Parliamentary System of the about the federal system in India Rajya Sabha
Government are correct? 4. Judicial Review
(C) Federal Policy 1. The Constitution introduces 5. All India Services
(D) Presidential System of Govern- a federal system as the basic 6. Bi-cameral legislature
ment structure of Government. (A) 1, 3 and 6
33. Which one of the following is not 2. There is a strong admixture of a (B) 2, 3 and 5
true in relation to democratic unitary bias. (C) 3, 5 and 6
determination? 3. Both the Union and State (D) 2, 4 and 5
[UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010] Legislatures are sovereign.

41. Assertion (A): President of India 43. Assertion (A): Federalism is not 45. Assertion (A): Women, Dalits,
is elected indirectly. practical in India. Poor and Minority groups are the
Reason (R): Parliamentary Reason (R): India is not a Federal biggest stakeholders of Democracy
system in India has been combined State. in India.
with Republicanism. Select the corret answer from the Reason (R): Democracy in India
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013] code given below. has emerged as the carrier for the
Code [UPPCS (Pre) 1998] desire of Self Respect.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
Code
(R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and Code
(A) (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (A) (R) is the correct explanation of
but (R) is not the correct (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (A)
explanation of (A) but (R) is not the correct (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false explanation of (A) but (R) is not the correct
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false explanation of (A)
42. Here are two statements. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Assertion (A): Political Parties 44. Assertion (A): The primary (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
are life-blood of democracy. objective of India’s federal design 46. Assertion (A): Indian Constitu-
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Reason (R): Normally people was to weave a nation out of its tion is quasi-federal.
blame political parties for bad many diverse parts and protect Reason (R): Indian Constitution
governance. national integration. is neither federal nor unitary.
cle
Which of the following is correct in Reason (R): Accommodation of Select the correct answer using the
above context? [UPPCS (Pre) 2009 diversities has built a stronger, not codes given below.
Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017 weaker, Indian nationhood. [UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
Code
Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018]

cir
Code

Code
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(R) is the correct explanation of (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(A) (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
tu
but (R) is not the correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A) explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
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(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
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Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D)
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11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (D)
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31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (A)
6. The National Emblem

1. Which is the National Bird of 3. India’s National Animal is 5. The total number of spokes in the
India? [Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2017 [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014 National Flag of India is
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003, 07] Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007] [Uttarakhand Lower Sub. (Pre) 2010]
(A) Peacock (B) Duck (A) Deer (B) Elephant (A) 20 (B) 24
(C) Parrot (D) Pigeon (C) Tiger (D) Lion (C) 26 (D) 30
2. What does the wheel in the ‘Indian 4. Which is the National Flower of 6. A complete or formal rendition of
National Flag’ symbolize? India? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005] national anthem takes
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005] (A) Sunflower (B) Lotus [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Freedom (B) Justice (C) Rose (D) Marigold (A) 50 seconds (B) 45 seconds
(C) Equality (D) Brotherhood (C) 52 seconds (D) 55 seconds
Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C)
7. States and the Union Territories

1. Who among the following has the 7. Creation of a new state requires a tion Commission?
executive power to admit a State in .......... majority for Constitutional [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007
the Union or establish new States? Amendment. Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Mains) 2006]
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014] [60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016] (A) 1947 (B) 1951
(A) Parliament (A) Simple (C) 1956 (D) 1966
(B) Lok Sabha (B) Two-third 15. Which of the following is not a
(C) Political Parties (C) Three-fourth Union Territory?
(D) Central Government (D) Two-third plus ratification by [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
2. According to Article 1 of Indian half of all states (A) The Andaman and Nicobar
Constitution, India is 8. Union Territories in India are Islands
[UPPCS (Pre) 2008] administered by [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018] (B) Jammu and Kashmir
(A) Group of States (A) The President (C) Goa
(B) Federation of States (B) The Lt. Governor (D) Puducherry
(C) Confederation of States (C) Home Minister 16. The capital of which state has not
(D) The Union of States (D) Administrator been renamed after the attainment
3. Indian Parliament has the power of freedom? [MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
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9. Which among the following is not
to create a new State under which a ‘constitutional provision for the (A) Tamil Nadu
of the following Constitutional formation of new States’? (B) West Bengal
provisions? [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018]
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (C) Kerala
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(A) Article 1 (B) Article 2 (A) Increase the area of any State (D) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Diminish the area of any State 17. Delhi is a/an [Assam PSC (Pre) 2018]
4. Which one of the following is (C) Alter the name of any State
empowered to alter the boundaries
of States under the Constitution of
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(D)cir
A State may include a Union
territory
(A) State
(B) Union Territory
(C) Autonomous Council
dy
(A) Parliament 10. Power to include or admit any State (D) None of the above
into Union of India is given to 18. By which Constitutional amend-
(B) Lok Sabha
[UPPCS (Pre) 1990] ment Delhi was given the status of
(C) President
tu
(D) Supreme Court (A) President of India National Capital Region?

(B) Prime Minister [UPPCS (RI) 2014]
(C) Parliament (A) 67th (B) 69th
rs
correct in the matter of formation

of new States? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011] (D) Supreme Court (C) 68th (D) 70th
11. If a new state is to be formed, which
ou
(A) Parliament may by law form a 19. Which one of the following
new State schedule of the constitution will statements is incorrect?
(B) Such law shall contain provi- need to be amended? [IAS (Pre) 2000]
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2008]
w.
sions for the amendment of the (A) Goa attained full statehood in
First Schedule and the Fourth (A) Fifth (B) Third 1987
Schedule of the Constitution (C) Second (D) First (B) Diu is an island in the Gulf of
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(C) Such law shall be deemed 12. How many States and UTs did the Khambhat
to be an amendment of the States Reorganisation Commission (C) Daman and Diu were separated
Constitution for the purpose of create in 1956? [MPPCS (Pre) 2004] from Goa by the 56th
Article 368 (A) 14 States and 6 UTs Amendment of the Constitution
(D) No Bill for enacting such law (B) 17 States and 6 UTs of India
shall be introduced in the (C) 14 States and 8 UTs (D) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were
Parliament unless it has been (D) 17 States and 8 UTs under French colonial rule till
referred to the Legislature 13. How many States and Union 1954
of the States, whose areas, Territories are there in India? 20. Sikkim became a state of India
boundaries or name is affected [UPPCS (Pre) 2002] under [38th BPSC (Pre) 1999
6. A Bill for the purpose of creating a (A) 25 States and 7 Union UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
new State in India must be passed Territories (A) 30th Amendment
by [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (B) 32nd Amendment
(B) 28 States and 8 Union
(A) A simple majority in Parliament Territories (including national (C) 35th Amendment
and ratification by not less than capital territory-1) (D) 40th Amendment
two-third of the States (C) 24 States and 6 Union Territory 21. Which of the following Constitu-
(B) A simple majority in Parliament (D) None of the above tional Amendments integrated
(C) A two-third majority in Parlia- Sikkim as a full-fledged State of the
14. In which year were the Indian
ment and ratification by not Indian Union? [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
States reorganized on the recom-
less than two-third of the States (A) 34th (B) 35th
mendation of the State Reorganisa-
(D) None of the above (C) 36th (D) 37th

22. A separate Vananchal State carved 28. Which of the following Province of 36. Which state enjoys the distinction
out of Bihar can be made possible India was formed in 1948? of first being created on linguistic
by [43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999] [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013] basis in India?
(A) Passing the legislation in State (A) West Bengal [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007
Assembly (B) Assam MPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(B) Passing the ordinance by the (C) Punjab (A) West Bengal
Governor (D) Himachal Pradesh (B) Punjab
(C) Completing Constitutional 29. One of the following statements is (C) Tamil Nadu
formalities incorrect. Point out (D) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Parliament under Article 3 of [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016] 37. Andhra Pradesh was created as a
the Constitution (A) The State of Mysore was language based state in
23. Which one of the following is the renamed as Tamil Nadu [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
correct chronological order of the (B) Goa was separated from Daman (A) 1950 (B) 1953
formation of the following states as and Diu (C) 1956 (D) 1961
full States of the Indian Union? (C) The State of Bombay was split
[IAS (Pre) 2007] 38. Consider the following statement
into Gujarat and Maharashtra and answer using codes given
(A) Sikkim - Arunachal Pradesh - (D) Himachal Pradesh was previ- below. [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
Nagaland - Haryana ously in the list of Union 1. The term Union of States, has
.in
(B) Nagaland - Haryana - Sikkim - Territories
Arunachal Pradesh been used in the constitution
30. ‘ULFA’ extremist are related to because Indian States, have no
(C) Sikkim - Haryana - Nagaland - which state [UPPCS (Pre) 1993] right of separation.
cle
Arunachal Pradesh (A) Assam 2. S.K. Dhar Commission had giv-
(D) Nagaland - Arunachal Pradesh - (B) Uttar Pradesh en preference to administrative
Sikkim - Haryana
(C) Punjab convenience rather language
24. Chhattisgarh State came into
existence on
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
cir
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
31. ‘People’s War Group’ a terrorist or-
ganization is based in
for reorganisation of States.
3. Congress Committee including
Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel
dy
(A) 1 November, 2000 [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1997] and Pattabhi Sitaramayya was
(B) 9 November, 2000 not in favour of reorganisation
(A) Tripura
(C) 10 November, 2000 of States on the basis of lan-
(B) Assam
tu
(D) 1 January, 2000 guage.

(C) Nagaland
25. Uttarakhand State was created in (D) Andhra Pradesh Code
rs
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (A) Only 1

32. The Cauvery River Water dispute
(A) the year 1999 is among which of the following (B) Only 1 and 2
ou
(B) the year 2000 states? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2018 (C) Only 1 and 3
(C) the year 2001 Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003] (D) All of the above
(D) the year 2002 (A) Karnataka - Maharashtra - Goa 39. Which one of the following is the
w.
26. The correct sequence of formation - Andhra Pradesh correct chronological order of the
of the following States in ascending (B) Karnataka - Tamil Nadu - formation of the following Indian
order is [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013] Maharashtra - Kerala States?
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(A) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Sikkim, (C) Karnataka - Tamil Nadu - 1. Chhattisgarh

Arunachal Pradesh Kerala - Andhra Pradesh 2. Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Meghalaya, Arunachal Prad- (D) Karnataka - Tamil Nadu - 3. Jharkhand
esh, Nagaland, Sikkim Puducherry - Kerala 4. Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, 33. The Commission for Reorganisation Use the code given below to select
Sikkim, Meghalaya of States on the basis of language the correct answer.
(D) Sikkim, Nagaland, Arunachal was established in [UPPCS (Pre) 2009
Pradesh, Meghalaya [UPPCS (Pre) 1990] Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017]
27. The correct sequence of the (A) 1856 (B) 1956 Code
formation of the following States in (C) 1953 (D) 1960 (A) 4, 1, 3, 2 (B) 4, 2, 1, 3
descending order is 34. The States were reorganised on the (C) 3, 2, 1, 4 (D) 1, 4, 2, 3
basis of language in 40. The following States were created
(A) Maharashtra, Rajasthan, [MPPCS (Pre) 1992] after 1960. Arrange them in
Haryana (A) 1956 (B) 1960 ascending chronological order of
(B) Haryana, Rajasthan, (C) 1962 (D) 1973 their formation.
Maharashtra
35. In which year were the States 1. Haryana
(C) Rajasthan, Maharashtra, reorganized on linguistic basis?
Haryana 2. Sikkim
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Mains) 2007] 3. Nagaland
(D) Haryana, Maharashtra,
(A) 1947 (B) 1951 4. Meghalaya
Rajasthan
(C) 1956 (D) 1966

Choose your answer from the given 3. Haryana Select the correct answer from the
code. [UPPCS (Pre) 2010] 4. Sikkim code given below.
Code Code [Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 3, 4, 1 (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 3, 2, 4 Code
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2 (D) 2, 4, 1, 3 (C) 4, 3, 1, 2 (D) 3, 4, 1, 2 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
41. Identify the correct chronological 42. Assertion (A): India is not a (R) is the correct explanation of
order in which the following States federation. (A)
were created in India from the code Reason (R): Union Parliament (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
given below. [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] has the power to alter the area, but (R) is not the correct
1. Andhra Pradesh boundary and name of any State explanation of (A)
2. Himachal Pradesh even without its consent. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (A)
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31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (C)
41. (B) 42. (D)
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8. The Citizenship
1. Indian citizenship cannot be
obtained by
(A) Birth
[41st BPSC (Pre) 1996] cir
4. Which one of the following features
of citizenship in India is correct?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
8. Who among the following has the
exclusive power of determining the
issue of citizenship in India?
dy
(B) Naturalization (A) Dual Citizenship of the State [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013]
(C) Absorbing any part of land and Nation (A) The Parliament
(D) Depositing money in Indian (B) Single Citizenship of a State (B) The President
tu
Banks (C) Single Citizenship of whole of (C) Central Government

2. Who among the following is not India (D) State Government
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eligible for registering as overseas (D) Dual Citizenship of India and 9. Consider the following statements.
citizen of India cardholder under another Country
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were
ou
the Citizenship Amendment Act, 5. How many years does a person of inserted in the Constitution of
2015? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] Indian origin need to reside in India India to meet regional demands
(A) A minor child whose parents to become a citizen of India under of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur,
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are an Indian citizen the Citizenship Act, 1955? Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim,
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013] Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Spouse of foreign origin of an
Indian citizen (A) 5 years (B) 3 years and Goa.
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(C) Indian who migrated to (C) 7 years (D) 10 years 2. Constitution of India and
Pakistan after partition 6. Which country accepted the policy the United States of America
(D) A great grandchild of a per- of Dual Citizenship? envisage a dual policy (The
son who is a citizen of another [MPPCS (Pre) 2006] Union and the States) but a
country but whose grandpar- (A) India (B) Canada single citizenship.
ents were a citizen of India at (C) Australia (D) U.S.A. 3. A Naturalized citizen of India
the time of commencement of 7. Who/Which of the following is can never be deprived of his
the Constitution competent to prescribe condition citizenship.
3. The citizenship provided by the for acquisition of citizenship? Which of the statement given above
Constitution of India is [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] is/are correct? [IAS (Pre) 2005]
[UPPCS (Pre) 1994] (A) Election Commission (A) 1, 2 and 3
(A) Dual citizenship (B) President (B) 1 and 3
(B) Single citizenship (C) Parliament and State Legislat- (C) Only 3
(C) Both of the above ures jointly (D) Only 1
(D) None of the above (D) Parliament
Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (D)
9. Fundamental Rights
1. Which of the following is given the important for the advancement 14. In the Indian Constitution of the
power to enforce the Fundamental of the personality of the citizen ‘Right to Freedom’ is granted by
Rights by the Constitution? (D) Duties, not Rights, are import- four Articles which are
[47th BPSC (Pre) 2005] ant for the stability of the State [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A)All Courts in India 7. Under which Article of the (A) Article - 19 to Article - 22
(B)The Parliament Constitution of India, Fundamental (B) Article - 16 to Article - 19
(C)The President Rights have been provided to (C) Article - 17 to Article - 20
(D)The Supreme Court and High citizens? [44th BPSC (Pre) 2000] (D) Article - 18 to Article - 21
Courts (A) Articles 112 to 115 15. Which of the following enabled the
2. ‘Fundamental Rights’ are (B) Article 12 to 35 Supreme Court of India to deduce a
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013] (C) Articles 222 to 235 fundamental right to equal pay for
(A) Justifiable (D) None of the above equal work? [UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(B) Non-justifiable 8. Under which of the following (A) The word ‘socialist’ used in the
(C) Flexible articles, the Indian Constitution Preamble to the Constitution
(D) Rigid Guarantees Fundamental Rights to (B) (A) read with Article 14 of the
the citizens? [Goa PSC (Pre) 2019 Constitution
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3. Which of the following is correct?
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015 (C) (A) read with Article 16 of the
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] 39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
(A) The Nehru Report (1928) Constitution
(A) Articles 12 to 35 (D) (A), (B) and (C) all read
had advocated the inclusion
cle
(B) Only Articles 12 to 30 together
of Fundamental Rights in the
(C) Only Articles 15 to 35 16. Prohibition of discrimination on
Constitution of India
(D) Only Articles 14 to 32 the ground of religion etc. (Article
(B) The Government of India Act,
1935 referred to Fundamental
Rights
(C) The August Offer, 1940, includ-
cir
9. Which one of the following Articles
of the Indian Constitution puts an
absolute limitation on the legisla-
15 of the Constitution of India) is
a Fundamental Right classifiable
under [IAS (Pre) 1995]
dy
ed the Fundamental Rights tive power? [UPPCS (Pre) 1999] (A) The Right to Freedom of
(D) The Cripps Mission 1942 (A) Article 14 (B) Article 15 Religion
referred to Fundamental Rights (C) Article 16 (D) Article 17 (B) The Right against Exploitation
tu
4. Which one of the following state- 10. Under which article of the Consti- (C) The Cultural and Educational
ments is correct? [IAS (Pre) 2017] tution reservations in admission to Rights
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(A) Rights are claims of the State educational institutions, including (D) The Right to Equality
against the citizens private and unaided, to OBCs/ST/ 17. In the Indian Constitution, the
ou
SC is made? right to equality is granted by five

(B) Rights are privileges which are
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] Articles. They are
incorporated in the Constitu-
tion of a state (A) Article 15(4) (B) Article 15(5) [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
w.
(C) Rights are claims of the citizens (C) Article 16(4) (D) Article 16(5) IAS (Pre) 2002]
against the State 11. Which Article of the Constitution (A) Article 16 to Article 20
(D) Rights are privileges of a few gives precedence to Constitutional (B) Article 15 to Article 19
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citizens against the many provisions over the laws made (C) Article 14 to Article 18
by the Union Parliament/State (D) Article 13 to Article 17
5. Fundamental Rights
Legislatures? [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002] 18. Which one of the following is not
(A) 13 (B) 32 included in the fundamental right
(A) Cannot be suspended
(C) 245 (D) 326 to equality as enshrined in the
(B) Can be suspended by order of
Prime Minister 12. The main object of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution?
(C) May be suspended on the will Indian Constitution is to secure the [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
of President Paramountcy of the Constitution (A) Equality before law
regarding. [UPPCS (Pre) 1999] (B) Social equality
(D) May be suspended during
Emergency (A) Directive Principles of State (C) Equal opportunity
Policy (D) Economic equality
6. In the context of India, which
one of the following is the correct (B) Fundamental Rights 19. Which one of the following Articles
relationship between Rights and (C) Fundamental Duties of the Constitution deals with the
Duties? [IAS (Pre) 2017] (D) All of the above fundamental rights related to the
(A) Rights are correlative with 13. Which one of the following Articles exploitation of children?
Duties of the Indian Constitution belongs [Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
(B) Rights are personal and hence to a different category? UPPCS (Mains) 2009, 2011
[UPPCS (Pre) 2000] UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
independent of society and
Duties (A) Article 14 (B) Article 15 (A) 17 (B) 19
(C) Rights, not Duties, are (C) Article 16 (D) Article 19 (C) 24 (D) 25

20. Child Rights are protected in Article 28. Indian Constitution does not give 35. Which one of the following rights
...... of ICCPR. [MPPCS (Pre) 2013] right to freedom of the Press, but it is available under Article 19(1)(d)
(A) 35 (B) 24 is included in read with Article 21?
(C) 21 (D) 23 [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001 [UPPCS (Mains) 2004
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001] UPPCS (Pre) 2003
21. Eradication of all types of social UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
discrimination comes under which (A) Article 19(1)(a)
(B) Article 19(1)(b) (A) Right to travel abroad
generation of Human Rights?
(C) Article 19(1)(c) (B) Right to shelter
(D) Article 19(1)(d) (C) Right to privacy
(A) First generation
(D) Right to information
(B) Second generation 29. In which Article the Fundamental
Rights to Freedom of Speech and 36. Which one of the following does
(C) Third generation
Expression is provided in the not fall within the purview of article
(D) Fourth generation 21 of the Constitution?
22. Which Article of the Indian Constit- Constitution of India?
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007] [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
ution eradicates untouchability and (A) Medical aid to injured by a
prohibits its practice in any form? (A) Article 14 (B) Article 19
(C) Article 21 (D) Article 22 doctor
[UPPCS (Mains) 2003, 13, 15
(B) Sexual Harassment of Women
MPPCS (Pre) 1997] 30. Freedom of News Papers in India
at work place
(A) Article 16 (B) Article 17 [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019]
.in
(C) Pollution of the quality of water
(C) Article 18 (D) Article 15 (A) Specially provided by Article
19(1)(a) (D) Capital punishment
23. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution
(B) Is secured under Article 19(1) 37. According to Article 25 of the
deals with [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
cle
(b) Constitution ‘Right to Freedom of
(A) Education Religion’ is not subjected to
(B) Health (C) Secured by Article 361-A
(C) Abolition of untouchability (D) Has origin by the enforcement
(D) Food guarantee
24. A court can presume that any act
constituting offence was committed
cir
of Rule of law
31. As a part of the Right to Freedom,
which one of the following does not
(A) Public Order (B) Health
(C) Morality (D) Humanism
38. Under which Article of Indian
dy
form part of ‘Freedom to Assemble Constitution wearing of ‘Kripans’
on the ground of ‘untouchability’ by Sikh is deemed as a right to
– if such offence is committed in Peaceably and Without Arms’?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013] freedom of religion?
relation to [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
tu

(A) A member of Scheduled Castes (A) Gherao officials not performing
their duties (A) Article 24 (B) Article 25
(B) A member of Scheduled Tribes (C) Article 26 (D) Article 27
rs
(B) Peaceful assembly

(C) A member of any community 39. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution
(C) People who assemble should
(D) None of the above refers to [UPPCS (Pre) 1996]
ou
not bear arms

25. Which one of the following (A) Right to Equality
(D) State can make a law imposing
fundamental rights was amended (B) Right to Property
reasonable restrictions on the
as a result of the decision of
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exercise of this Right (C) Freedom of Religion

the Supreme Court of India in
32. By which of the following grounds, a (D) Protection of Minorities
‘State of Madras Vs. Champakam
Dorairajan’ case [UPPCS (Pre) 1997] citizen’s freedom of expression may 40. Which one of the following is not
ww
not be subjected to restriction? properly matched?

(A) Right to equality before law
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013] [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(B) Right against discrimination
(A) Sovereignty of India (A) Article 23 - Prohibition of traffic
(C) Right against untouchability
(B) Public order in human and forced labour
(D) Right to freedom of speech and
(C) Contempt of Court (B) Article 24 - Prohibition of empl-
expression
(D) Unbecoming criticism oyment of children in factories
26. Which Article of the Constitution of (C) Article 26 - Freedom to manage
India is related with Freedom of the 33. Which Article of the Constitution
of Indian Republic relates to the religious affairs
Press? [47th BPSC (Pre) 2005
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004 Protection of ‘Life and Personal (D) Article 29 - Freedom of establi-
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005] Liberty’? shment and administration
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 20 [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] of educational institutions by
(C) Article 21 (D) Article 22 (A) Article 19 (B) Article 21 minorities
27. Under which Article Scheduled (C) Article 20 (D) Article 22 41. Which one of the following pairs is
Castes and Scheduled Tribes have 34. Which Article of the Indian not correctly matched?
Constitution protects person’s right [UPPCS (Mains) 2015
been granted fundamental, socio-
to travel abroad? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997] Orissa PSC (Pre) 2018]
economic, political and cultural
rights? [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2017 (A) 14 (A) Prohibition of traffic in human
MPPCS (Pre) 2015] (B) 19 beings and forced labour -
(A) Article 20 (B) Article 19 Article 23
(C) 21
(C) Article 18 (D) Article 17 (B) Protection of interests of
minorities - Article 29

(C) Right to constitutional reme- 48. Which one of the following (C) 44th Amendment of
dies - Article 32 rights was described by Dr. B.R. Constitution
(D) Right of minorities to establish Ambedkar as the ‘Heart and Soul of (D) 46th Amendment of
and administer educational the Constitution’? [UPPSC (GIC) 2010 Constitution
institutions - Article 31 UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004
IAS (Pre) 2002]
55. When was the Fundamental Right
42. Which Article of the Constitution to property abolished?
protects the ‘Right of minorities (A) Right to Freedom of Religion [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
to establish and administer (B) Right to Property
(A) In 1978, by 44th Constitutional
educational institutions of their (C) Right to Equality Amendment
choice’? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997] (D) Right to Constitutional (B) In 1982, by 46th Constitutional
(A) 19 (B) 26 Remedies Amendment
(C) 29 (D) 30 49. Which one of the following Arti- (C) In 1973, by 31st Constitutional
43. Which of the following rights can cles was termed as the ‘Heart and Amendment
be enforced under Article 32 of the Soul of the Constitution’ by Dr. B.R. (D) None of the above
Indian Constitution? Ambedkar?
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
56. By which amendment the Right to
[UPPCS (Pre) 1997] Property was abolished?
(A) Constitutional Rights (A) Article 14 (B) Article 25 [UPPCS (Mains) 2013
(B) Fundamental Rights (C) Article 29 (D) Article 32 UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
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(C) Statutory Rights 50. Which one of the following writs Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019]
(D) All of the above can be issued by a High Court to (A) 24th
secure the liberty of the individual? (B) 44th
cle
[UPPCS (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2015] (C) 25th
statements is not correct?
(A) Mandamus (D) 42nd
(B) Quo-warranto 57. The 44th amendment to the
(A) K.M. Munshi was one of the
members of the drafting
committee of the Constitution
(B) The Constitution of India was
cir
(C) Habeas Corpus
(D) Prohibition
51. By which of the following case
Constitution of India removed the
following right from the category of
Fundamental Rights.
dy
adopted by the Constituent Parliament got the right to amend [UPPCS (Mains) 2014
Assembly Fundamental Rights? UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
(C) The Pachayati Raj was recom- [MPPCS (Pre) 1991] (A) Freedom of Speech
tu
mended by Balwant Rai Mehta (A) Keshvanand Bharti Case (B) Constitutional Remedies
Committee Report-1957 (B) Rajnarayan Vs. Indira Gandhi (C) Property
Case
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(D) The President of India is the (D) Freedom of Religion

Guardian of Fundamental (C) Golaknath’s Case 58. Right to property according to the
Rights under the Constitution (D) Sajjan Singh Case
ou
Constitution of India is a
45. Under the Indian Constitution who 52. The Supreme Court of India has [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010
is the guardian of the fundamental propounded the ‘Doctrine of Basic UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
rights? Structure’ of the Constitution in
w.
[Goa PSC (Pre) 2017] (A) Fundamental Right

(A) Parliament which of the following cases? (B) Directive Principle
(B) President [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013 (C) Legal Right
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(C) Supreme Court UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]

(D) Social Right
(D) Cabinet (A) Golaknath Vs. Punjab State 59. The ‘Right to Property’ was deleted
46. Under the Indian Constitution (B) Sajjan Singh Vs. Rajasthan from the list of fundamental rights
who amongst the following is State guaranteed to the citizens of India
considered to be the guardian of (C) Keshvanand Bharti Vs. Kerala by [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011
the fundamental rights? State UP Lower (Spl)(Pre) 2004
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012, 15] (D) Shankari Prasad Vs. Indian UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) Parliament Union (A) Forty-second Amendment
(B) President 53. Right to Property is a (B) Forty-third Amendment
(C) Judiciary [UPPCS (Pre) 1996] (C) Forty-fourth Amendment
(D) Prime Minister (A) Fundamental Right (D) Forty-fifth Amendment
47. Which one of the following is (B) Natural Right 60. Which one of the following is not
regarded as the protector of (C) Statutory Right among the six fundamental rights
fundamental rights of citizens and (D) Legal Right provided by the Constitution of
Guardian of the Constitution of 54. By which of the following Right to India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015
India? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015] Property has been omitted? Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) The Parliament [UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] (A) Right to Equality
(B) The Attorney General (A) 40th Amendment of (B) Right to Protest
(C) The Supreme Court Constitution (C) Right Against Exploitation
(D) The President (B) 42nd Amendment of (D) Right to Freedom of Religion
Constitution

61. Which one of the following is not a 68. Which of the following fundame- (C) Religious and linguistic
fundamental right? ntal rights is not available to foreign minorities
[UPPCS (Pre) 2002 citizens? [UPPCS (Pre) 2007 (D) Religious, linguistic and ethnic
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002 UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015] minorities
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) Equality Before Law 75. Right to education to all children
(A) Right to Freedom between the age group of 6 to 14
(B) Right of Freedom of Expression
(B) Right to Equality years is [UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(C) Right of Freedom of Life and
(C) Right to Property (A) Included in the Directive
Body
(D) Right Against Exploitation Principles of State Policy
(D) Right Against Exploitation
62. Indian Constitution does not grant (B) A Fundamental Right
which of the following rights? (C) A Statutory Right
of the Constitution of India is
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
related to equality before law? (D) None of the above
(A) Right of Equal Shelter [UPPCS (Mains) 2015] 76. When was the Right to Education
(B) Right to Equality (A) Article 16 (B) Article 15 added through the amendment in
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion (C) Article 14 (D) Article 13 the Constitution of India?
(D) Right to Liberty [53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
70. Which of the following rights
63. The ‘Right to Equality’ is granted by conferred by the Constitution (A) 1st April, 2010
5 Articles in the Indian Constitution. of India is also available to non- (B) 1st August, 2010
.in
These are [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014] citizens? [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011 (C) 1st October, 2010
(A) Article 13-17 (B) Article 14-18 BPSC (Pre) 2011] (D) 1st December, 2010
(C) Article 15-19 (D) Article 16-20 (A) Right to Constitutional 77. Which one of the following
cle
64. Which of the following is not a Remedies is a human right as well as a
fundamental right granted by the (B) Freedom of Speech fundamental right under the
Indian Constitution to the citizens? (C) Freedom to Move and Settle in Constitution of India?
Country
(A) Right to Settle in any part of the cir
any Part of the Country
(D) Freedom to Acquire Property
71. Which of the following Article/
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Right to Information
(B) Right to Work
dy
(B) Right to Gender Equality Articles read with the word (C) Right to Education
(C) Right to Information ‘Socialist’ used in the Preamble of (D) Right to Housing
(D) Right Against Exploitation the Indian Constitution enabled 78. Which one of the following rights
tu
65. Which one of the following rights the Supreme Court to deduce a cannot be suspended or restricted
is available to all persons under the fundamental right to Equal Pay for even during National Emergency?
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Indian Constitution? Equal Work? [UPPCS (Pre) 2001, 03 [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010] UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
(A) Right to reside and settle in any
(A) Article 14
ou
(A) Right to Equal Protection of the part of the country

Law (B) Articles 14 and 15 (B) Right to life and personal liberty
(B) Right Against Discrimination (C) Articles 14, 15 and 16 (C) Right to move freely throughout
w.
(C) Right to Liberty (D) Articles 14 and 16 the territory of India

(D) Cultural and Educational 72. Which of the following Articles of (D) Right to carry on any profession
Rights the Indian Constitution guarantees or business
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66. A British citizen staying in India equality of opportunity to all 79. The word ‘Hindu’ in Article 25 of
cannot claim right to citizens of India in matters relating the Constitution of India does not
[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019] to public employment? include [UPPCS (Mains) 2014
(A) Freedom of Trade and [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006]
Profession (A) Article 15 (A) Buddhists (B) Jains
(B) Equality before the Law (B) Article 16(1) and 16(2) (C) Parsis (D) Sikhs
(C) Protection of Life and Personal (C) Article 16(3) 80. An accused of any offence cannot be
Liberty (D) Article 16(3), (4) and (5) compelled to be a witness against
(D) Freedom of Religion 73. The provisions of reservation of himself, which Article of Indian
67. The Supreme Court has held that O.B.C. is made in the Constitution Constitution provides for this?
hoisting the National Flag atop the under which Articles? [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
private buildings is a fundamental [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] (A) Article 20(3) (B) Article 21
right of every citizen under (A) Articles 13(II) & 14 (C) Article 22 (D) Article 74
[West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2017 (B) Articles 14 & 15 81. Which Article of the Constitution
60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016] (C) Articles 15(IV) & 16(IV) provides protection to the accused
(A) Article 14 of the Constitution (D) Articles 17 & 18 regarding conviction from double-
(B) Article 19(1)(a) of the Consti- 74. The Constitution of India recogni- bar and self-incrimination?
tution zes [IAS (Pre) 1999] [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010]
(C) Article 21 of the Constitution (A) Only religious minorities (A) Article 19 (B) Article 22
(D) Article 25 of the Constitution (B) Only linguistic minorities (C) Article 21 (D) Article 20

82. “No person shall be prosecuted 2. They are enumerated in Part III Choose the correct answer from
and punished for the same offence of the Constitution. given code. [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
more than once”. Under which 3. They ensure social, economic Code
Article, the above preservation of and political justice. (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
conviction for crime is given? 4. They are unlike Bill of Rights in (C) 3 and 4 (D) All of these
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010 the U.S.A. 95. Consider the following statements.
Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019] Select the correct answer from the 1. Article 301 is related to Right to
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 20 code given below. Property.
(C) Article 21 (D) Article 22 [UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
2. Right to Property is a statutory
83. In which Article of Indian (A) 1 and 2 are correct right but not a Fundamental
Constitution Doctrine of Due (B) 2 and 3 are correct Right.
Process of Law is included? (C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 3. Article 300-A was inserted in
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct Indian Constitution by 44th
(A) 11 (B) 16 91. The Right to Equality is given by Amendment during the period
(C) 21 (D) 26 1. Article 13 2. Article 14 of Congress Government.
84. Which Article gives safeguard to 3. Article 15 4. Article 16 Which of aforesaid statement is/are
the Fundamental Rights of arrested Use the code given below to choose correct? [IAS (Pre) 2005]
person? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] the correct answer. (A) Only 2 (B) 2 and 3
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(A) Article 15 (B) Article 17 [UPPCS (Pre) 2009] (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Article 21 (D) Article 22 Code 96. Choose the fundamental rights
85. Under the Preventive Detention (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 available to Indian Citizen but not
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Act, a person can be arrested (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All of these to aliens. [Delhi PSC (Pre) 2016]
without trial for 92. Prohibition and abolishment of 1. Freedom of Speech and
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013] untouchability may be achieved by Expression
(A) 1 month
(C) 6 months
(B) 3 months
(D) 9 months
86. Which one of the following writs is
cir [Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2018]
1. Making laws
2. Improving Education
2. Equality Before the Law
3. Right to Minorities
4. Protection of Life and Liberty
dy
regarded as the greatest safeguard 3. Public Awareness (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4
for the liberty of a person? 4. Providing Jobs/Services (C) 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 3
97. Which of the following has been
tu
Code
(A) Mandamus recognized as a fundamental rights
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(B) Habeas Corpus by the Supreme Court of India?
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 4
rs
(C) Certiorari 1. Right to Shelter

93. Which of the following are
(D) Prohibition 2. Right to Travel Abroad
envisaged by the Right against
ou
87. Bonded Labour was abolished Exploitation in the Constitution of 3. Right to Equal Pay for Equal
in India, by an Act of Parliament India? Work
enacted in the year Select the correct answer from the
1. Prohibition of traffic in human
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[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010, 2001] code given below.[UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
beings and forced labour
(A) 1971 (B) 1976 2. Abolition of untouchability Code
(C) 1979 (D) 1981
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3. Protection of the interests of (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

88. The child labour was prohibited in minorities (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
hazardous employment by 4. Prohibition of employment of 98. Consider the following statements.
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2003
children in factories and mines No one can be compelled to sing the
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
Select the correct answer using the National Anthem since
(A) Indian Constitution code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017] 1. It will be violation of the Right
(B) The judgement of Supreme (A) Only 1, 2 and 4 to Freedom of Speech and
Court on December 10, 1996
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4 Expression.
(C) United Nations Charter
(C) Only 1 and 4 2. It will be violation of the Right
(D) All of the above to Freedom of Conscience and
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
89. ........ without duties are like men Practice and Propagation of
94. The provision of ‘Right to Freedom
without shadows. Religion.
of Religion’ includes
[Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017 3. There is no legal provision
MPPCS (Pre) 2013] 1. Freedom of propagation of
religion obliging anyone to sing the
(A) Belief (B) Rights National Anthem.
2. Right to wear and carry
(C) Moral (D) Work In these statements
‘Kripans’ by Sikhs
90. Consider the following statements [Tripura PSC (Pre) 2018]
3. State’s right to make laws for
about the Fundamental Rights in (A) 1 and 2 are correct
social reforms
India. (B) 2 and 3 are correct
4. Right to conversion of religion
1. They are a guarantee against (C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
of people by religious bodies
state action. (D) None is correct

99. Which of the following rights are Reason (R): Article 32 provides (c) Doctrine of Basic Structure
not available to all persons in India? an effective remedy against the (d) Prohibition of Trafficking in
1. Equality Before the Law violation of fundamental rights. Human Beings
2. Right Against Discrimination Select the correct answer using the List-II
3. Freedom to Move Freely throu- codes given below. 1. Minerva Mills Case
ghout the Country [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
2. Article 23 of the Constitution
4. Right to Contest Election Code 3. 42nd Amendment of the Con-
Select your answer by using the (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and stitution
code given below. (R) is the correct explanation of 4. Keshvanand Bharti Case
[West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019] (A)
Code
Code (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1, 3 and 4 but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) (A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1 2 3 4
100. In India, if a religious sect/ 103. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer using the code 105. Match List-I with List-II and select
community is given the status of the correct answer using the code
a national minority, what special given below the lists. [IAS (Pre) 2002]
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advantages is it entitled to List-I (Article of Indian
1. It can establish and administer Constitution)
(a) Article 16(2) List-I
exclusive educational
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institutions. (b) Article 29(2) (a) Abolition of Titles
2. The President of India (c) Article 30(1) (b) Freedom to manage Religious
automatically nominates (d) Article 31(1) Affairs
a representative
community to Lok Sabha.
of
3. It can derive benefits from

the
cir
List-II (Provisions)
1. No person shall be deprived
of his property save by the
(c)
(d)
Protection of Language of
Minorities
Right to Education
dy
the Prime Minister’s 15-Point authority of law. List-II
Programme. 2. No person can be discriminated 1. Article 29 2. Article 21-A
Which of the statements given against in the matter of public 3. Article 18 4. Article 26
tu
above is/are correct? appointment on the ground of Code:

[IAS (Pre) 2011] race, religion or caste. (a) (b) (c) (d)
rs
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3 3. All minorities whether based (A) 3 2 1 4

(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 on religion or language (B) 4 3 2 1
ou
101. Assertion (A): The State can shall have right to establish (C) 2 3 4 1
treat unequal differently with the and administer educational
(D) 3 4 1 2
objective of creating a level playing institutions of their choice.
106. Assertion (A): The state shall
w.
field in the social, economic and 4. No citizen shall be denied

provide free and compulsory
political spheres. admission into any educational
education to all children of the age
Reason (R): Among equals the institution maintained by the
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group of six to fourteen years.

law should be equal and equally State, or receiving State aid, on
the grounds of religion, race, Reason (R): In a democratic
administered. society, right to education is
caste, language or any of them.
In the context of above statements indispensable in the interpretation
select the correct answer. Code
of the right to development as a
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] (a) (b) (c) (d) human right.
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false (A) 2 4 3 1
In the context of above statements
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true (B) 3 1 2 4 select the correct answer.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true (C) 2 1 3 4 [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
and (R) is not the correct (D) 2 4 2 1 Code
explanation of (A) 104. Match List-I with List-II and select
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but the correct answer using the code
(R) is the correct explanation of given below the lists.
(A)
(A) [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2016
UPPCS (Mains) 2007] (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
102. Consider the following statements. but (R) is not the correct
List-I explanation of (A)
Assertion (A): Dr. Ambedkar
had described Article 32 of the (a) Fundamental Duties (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Constitution as the very soul of it. (b) Parliament can amend Funda-
mental Rights

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (D)
41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (C)
51. (A) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (A)
71. (D) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (B) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (C) 84. (D) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (D) 89. (B) 90. (A)
91. (C) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (D) 100. (C)
101. (D) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (A) 105. (D) 106. (A)
10. Directive Principles of State Policy
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1. The concept of Welfare State is (A) United Kingdom (U.K.) Britain 10. Which one of the following is
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included in the Constitution of (B) United States of America included in the Directive Principles
India in the [IAS (Pre) 2015 (U.S.A) of State Policy? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004 (C) Ireland (A) Protection in respect of
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Directive Principles of State
Policy
(B) Fourth Schedule of the Consti-
cir
(D) Japan
6. Directive Principles of State Policy
are [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004
conviction for offences
(B) Protection of life and personal
liberty
dy
MPPCS (Pre) 1992] (C) Protection of interest of
tution minorities
(C) Fundamental Rights (A) Justiciable
(B) Non-justiciable (D) Equal pay for equal work for
(D) Preamble of the Constitution
tu
(C) Fundamental Rights both men and women

2. The idea of India as Welfare State is 11. Panchayati Raj System in India is
found in [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
laid down under
rs
(A) Preamble of the Constitution 7. According to the Constitution of

India, which of the following are
(B) Fundamental Duties (A) Fundamental Rights
ou
fundamental to the governance of

(C) Directive Principles of State the country? [IAS (Pre) 2013] (B) Fundamental Duties
Policy (C) Directive Principles of State
(A) Fundamental Rights
(D) Both (A) and (C) Policy
w.
(B) Fundamental Duties

3. The purpose of the inclusion of (D) Election Commission Act
(C) Directive Principles of State
Directive Principles of State Policy 12. Which one of the following Articles
Policy
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in the Indian Constitution is to directs State Government to

establish [IAS (Pre) 2002]
(D) Fundamental Rights and Fund-
amental Duties organize Village Panchayats?
(A) Political Democracy [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
8. ‘Equal Pay for Equal Work’ has been
(B) Social Democracy (A) Article 32 (B) Article 40
ensured in the Indian Constitution
(C) Gandhian Democracy as one of the [UPPCS (Pre) 1998 (C) Article 48 (D) Article 51
(D) Social and Economic UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004 13. Under the Constitution of India
Democracy UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010] organization of village panchayat is
4. Which one of the following is (A) Fundamental Rights a [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010]
not the objective of the Directive (B) Directive Principles of State (A) Fundamental Right
Principles of State Policy? Policy (B) Fundamental Duty
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013] (C) Fundamental Duties (C) Directive Principle
(A) To establish a welfare State (D) Economic Rights (D) None of the above
(B) To ensure socio-economic 9. Which of the following is not a 14. Which one of the following Articles
Justice Fundamental Right? of the Directive Principles of State
(C) To establish a Religious State [UPPCS (Mains) 2014 Policy deals with the promotion of
(D) To establish a Secular State Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019] international peace and security?
5. The Indian Constitution borrowed (A) Right Against Exploitation [IAS (Pre) 2002
the Directive Principles of the State (B) Equal Pay for Equal Work Telangana PSC (Pre) 2019]
Policy from the Constitution of (C) Equality Before Law (A) 51 (B) 48A
which of the following countries? (D) Right to Freedom of Religion (C) 43A (D) 41

15. In the Constitution of India, (C) Protection and improvement of (B) Right to Work
Promotion of International Peace the environment (C) Equal Wage for Equal Work
and Security is included in the (D) Free education for children up (D) Right to Information
[IAS (Pre) 2014] to the age of 16 years 28. Which one of the following is a
(A) Preamble to the Constitution 22. How are the Directive Principles Directive Principle of the State
(B) Directive Principles of State of State Policy different from Policy? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010
Policy Fundamental Rights? UPPCS (GIC) 2010]
(C) Fundamental Duties [IAS (Pre) 2009] (A) Uniform Civil Code
(D) Ninth Schedule (A) Former is for Union Govern- (B) Freedom of the Press
16. Which Article of the Indian ment and later is for state (C) Freedom of the Religion
Constitution is related to Indian Government (D) Equality Before Law
Foreign Policy? [UPPCS(Pre) 2016] (B) Former is a part of Constitution 29. Which one of the following is not a
(A) Article 380 (B) Article 312 whereas later is not Directive Principle of State Policy?
(C) Article 45 (D) Article 51 (C) Directive Principles are not [UP Lower (Spl)(Pre) 2008]
17. Which Article of the Constitution enforceable whereas Fundam-
(A) Equal pay for equal work for
of India has the provision of ental Right can be enforced
men and women
participation of workers in (D) None of the above
(B) Equal right to an adequate
management of industry? 23. The ‘Directive Principles’ are .... . means of livelihood
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[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009] [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(C) Abolition of Untouchability
(A) Article 43 (B) Article 43A (A) Justifiable (D) Just and humane conditions of
(C) Article 45 (D) Article 47 (B) Non-justifiable work
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18. Which principle among the (C) Rigid 30. “The Directive Principles of State
following was added to the (D) Flexible Policy is a cheque which is paid on
Directive Principles of State Policy 24. Which one of the following is a Bank’s Convenience”. Who said it?
by the 42nd Amendment to the
Constitution? [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Equal pay for equal work for
cir
Directive Principle of State Policy?
(A) The State shall endeavor
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) K.M. Munshi
dy
both men and women to protect and improve the (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Participation of workers in the environment (D) K.T. Shah
management of industries (B) The State shall not deny
tu
31. Consider the following statements

(C) Right to work, education and equality to any person before regarding the Directive Principles
public assistance the law of State Policy.
(D) Securing living wage and
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(C) The State shall not discriminate

human condition of work to 1. These principles spell out the
against any person on the
workers socio-economic democracy in
grounds of religion, race, caste,
ou
the country.
19. Which of the following was not sex or place or birth
added to the Directive Principles 2. The provisions contained
(D) Untouchability enforcement
by the 42nd Amendment of the in these Principles are not
w.
25. The Constitution is silent in the enforceable by any court.

Constitution? [UPPCS (Pre) 1998] Directive Principles of State Policy
(A) Protection of Children and Which of the statements given
about [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008]
above is/are correct?
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youth from exploitation (A) Adult education [IAS (Pre) 2015]

(B) Equal justice and free legal aid (B) Living wages for workers (A) Only 1
(C) Uniform civil code (C) Free legal aid to the poor (B) Only 2
(D) Participation of workers in the (D) Primary education to children
management of industries (C) Both 1 and 2
till they complete the age of 16
20. Which one of the following is not a (D) Neither 1 nor 2
years
Directive Principle of State Policy? 32. Which of the following statements
26. Which of the following Directive
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010] is/are true of the Fundamental
Principles of State Policy was added
(A) Prohibition of the consumption Duties of an Indian citizen?
to the Constitution at a later date?
of Intoxicating Drinks [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014] 1. A legislative process has been
(B) Cow Protection provided to enforce these
(A) Organization of Village
(C) Environment Protection duties.
Panchayats
(D) Free Education to children up 2. They are correlative to legal
(B) Prohibition of Cow Slaughter
to the age of fourteen (14) duties.
(C) Free Legal Aid
21. Which one of the following is not a Select the correct answer using the
(D) Uniform Civil Code code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017
Directive Principle of State Policy? 27. Which of the following is not
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013] Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019]
included in the Directive Principles (A) Only 1
(A) Prohibition of the consumption of State Policy? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006
of intoxicating drinks (B) Only 2
UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(B) Prohibiting the slaughter of (C) Both 1 and 2
(A) Prohibition of Liquor
cows and calves (D) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Consider the following statements. 3. Promoting Cottage Industries (A) Only 1 (B) Only 3
With reference to the Constitution in Rural Areas. (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3
of India, the Directive Principle of 4. Securing for all worker’s 40. Match List-I with List-II and select
State Policy constitute limitations reasonable leisure and culture the correct answer using the code
upon opportunities. given below the lists.
1. legislative function. Which of the above are the [UPPCS (Pre) 2001
2. executive function. Gandhian Principles that are UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
Which of the above statement is/ reflected in the Directive Principles List-I (Articles of the
are correct? [IAS (Pre) 2017] of State Policy? [IAS (Pre) 2012] Constitution)
(A) Only 1 (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (a) Article 40 (b) Article 41
(B) Only 2 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Article 44 (d) Article 48
(C) Both 1 and 2 37. Which of the following is/are listed List-II (Subject Matter)
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 among the Directive Principles 1. Organization of Village
in Part-IV of the Constitution of Panchayat
34. The Constitution grants right
India? [60th to 62nd BPSC(Pre) 2016] 2. Right to Work
against exploitation to
1. Equal Pay for Equal Work 3. Uniform Civil Code
1. Children 2. Women
2. Uniform Civil Code 4. Organization of Agriculture
3. Tribals 4. Dalits
3. Small family norm and Animal Husbandry
.in
Choose your correct answer with
4. Education through mother Code
the help of given code.
tongue at primary level
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(A) Only 1 and 2 (A) 1 2 3 4
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(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4
(B) Only 1 and 3 (B) 2 3 1 4
38. Identify the items included in the (C) 1 3 4 2
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
Directive Principles of State Policy.
(D) 3 2 4 1
(D) Only 2, 3 and 4
35. Which of the following is/are
included in the Directive Principles
cir
1. Prohibition of Consumption of
Liquor
2. Prohibition of employment of
41. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
dy
of State Policy?
children in factories or mines
1. Prohibition of Trafficking Assertion (A): MGNREGA is
3. Prohibition of beggar or forced
in human beings and forced providing employment to atleast
labour
tu
labour. one member of the eligible

4. Prohibition of untouchability household for a minimum period of
2. Prohibition of consumption
except for medicinal purposes Select the correct answer with the 100 days in a year.
rs
of intoxicating drinks and of aid of the code given below.

Reason (R): Right to employment
other drugs which are injurious is enumerated in Part III of the
ou
to health. Code Constitution.

Select the correct answer using the (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer from the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2008] (C) Only 1 (D) 2, 3 and 4 code given below.
w.
(A) Only 1 39. With reference to the Constitution [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013
(B) Only 2 of India, consider the following. Punjab PSC (Pre) 2018]
ww
(C) Both 1 and 2 1. Fundamental Rights Code

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Fundamental Duties (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
36. Consider the following provisions 3. Directive Principles of State (R) is the correct explanation of
under the Directive Principles of Policy (A)
State Policy as enshrined in the Which of the above provisions of (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
Constitution of India. the Constitution of India fulfilled but (R) is not the correct
1. Securing Uniform Civil Code the National Social Assistance explanation of (A)
for citizens of India. Programme launched by the (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
2. Organizing Village Panchayats. Government of India? (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
[IAS (Pre) 2010]
Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A)
41. (C)
11. Fundamental Duties

1. The provisions relating to Funda- (B) Fundamental Duties Indian Constitution?
mental Duties in the Constitution (C) Panchayati Raj Principles [UPPCS (Re. Exam) (Pre) 2015]
of India were added on the recom- (D) Directive Principles of State (A) To defend the country and
mendation of [UPPCS (Pre) 2012 Policy render national service
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002] 9. The 42nd Amendment Act (B) To value and preserve the
(1976) has incorporated into the rich heritage of our composite
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee culture
Constitution of India a new chapter
(B) Iyengar Committee on [44th BPSC (Pre) 2000] (C) To help in organizing Village
(C) Swaran Singh Committee Panchayats
(A) Administration of Union
(D) Thakkar Commission Territories (D) To safeguard public property
2. When were the Fundamental Duties (B) Formation of Inter-State and to abjure violence
incorporated in the Constitution? Councils 15. Protection of which one of the
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016] following is a Fundamental Duty of
(C) Fundamental Duties
(A) 1976 (B) 1979 (D) None of the above an Indian citizen?
(C) 1975 (D) 1978 10. In which year Fundamental Duties [UP Lower (Spl)(Pre) 2008]
3. The Fundamental Duty to uphold of Citizens were introduced by (A) Village Panchayat
.in
and protect the Sovereignty, Unity 42nd Amendment? (B) National Flag
and Integrity of India is mentioned [Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006] (C) Scheduled Castes/Scheduled
at number (A) 1976 (B) 1975 Tribes
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[RAS/RTS (Re. Exam)(Pre) 2013] (D) Wildlife
(C) 1978 (D) 1980
(A) Four (B) One 16. “It shall be the duty of every citizen
11. Which of the following statements
(C) Two (D) Three regarding Fundamental Duties is of India to protect and improve the
4. Under which Articles of Indian
Constitution, provision
Fundamental Duties has been
for cir
not true? [UPPCS (Pre) 2003
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2000]
(A) They can be enforced by writs
natural environment”.
The above statement refers to
which of the following Articles of
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made by the 42nd Constitutional the Constitution of India?
(B) They can be promoted only by
Amendment Act? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] [UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
constitutional methods
(A) Article 50 (B) Article 51A (A) Article 21
(C) They can be used for interpret-
tu
(C) Article 52 (D) Article 53 ing ambiguous statutes (B) Article 48A
5. The Fundamental Duties are (D) The performance of any (C) Article 51A
rs
mentioned in which of the particular duty comes within (D) Article 56

following part of the Constitution the sphere of constitutional law 17. Which one of the following is
ou
of India? [UPPSC (GIC) 2010 which court has to decide incorrect? [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
12. Which one of the following is a (A) Fundamental Duties are the
(A) Part III (B) Part IV Fundamental Duty in India? part of the Fundamental Rights
w.
(C) Part IVA (D) Part VI [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001] (B) Fundamental Duties are not a
6. By which Constitutional Amend- (A) Separation of judiciary from part of Fundamental Rights
ment, ten Fundamental Duties executive
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(C) Fundamental Duties are

were added in the Constitution for (B) To value and preserve the enumerated in Part IVA of the
Indian citizens? [UPPCS (Pre) 1993 rich heritage of our composite Indian Constitution
MPPCS (Pre) 1990] culture (D) Article 51A explains the duties
(A) 24th (B) 38th (C) Free and compulsory education of every citizen of India
(C) 44th (D) 42nd (D) Abolition of Untouchability 18. Which one of the following is not a
7. Which Amendment Act included 13. The Fundamental Duties of a Fundamental Duty?
the Fundamental Duties of citizens citizen do not include duty [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
in the Indian Constitution? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008] (A) To respect the National Anthem
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2008
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002
(A) To protect and improve the (B) To safeguard public property
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007] natural environment (C) To protect monuments and
(A) 42nd Amendment Act (B) To cherish and follow the places of public importance
(B) 56th Amendment Act noble ideals which inspired our (D) To protect and improve the
national struggle for freedom natural environment
(C) 73rd Amendment Act
(C) To strive towards abolition of 19. How many Fundamental Duties are
(D) 98th Amendment Act
untouchability there in the Indian Constitution?
8. The 10 commandments, which (D) To develop scientific temper,
were added by 42nd Amendment [UPPCS (Mains) 2014
humanism and the spirit of UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014
Act in Constitution of India, are enquiry and reform Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018]
called as [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001
West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019]
14. Which one of the following is not a (A) Nine (B) Eleven
part of Fundamental Duties under (C) Twelve (D) Twenty
(A) Fundamental Rights

20. Which one of the following is not India” is a provision made in the 24. Which of the following is/are
provided in Part IV A (Fundamental [IAS (Pre) 2015] among the Fundamental Duties
Duties) of the Indian Constitution? (A) Preamble of the Constitution of citizens laid down in the Indian
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (B) Directive Principles of State Constitution?
(A) To respect the National Flag Policy 1. To preserve the rich heritage of
(B) To promote spirit of brother- (C) Fundamental Rights our composite culture.
hood amongst all people of India (D) Fundamental Duties 2. To protect the weaker sections
(C) To respect our parents and 23. Which one of the following is not from social injustice.
teachers correctly matched? 3. To develop the scientific
(D) To preserve the rich heritage of [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009] temper and spirit of inquiry.
our composite culture Parts of the Subject 4. To strive towards excellence
21. Under the Constitution of India, Constitution in all spheres of individual and
which one of the following is not a collective activity.
(A) Part II - Citizenship
Fundamental Duty? [IAS (Pre) 2011] (B) Part III - Fundamental Select the correct answer using the
(A) To vote in public elections Rights code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012
(B) To develop scientific temper Tripura PSC (Pre) 2019]
(C) Part IV - Directive
(C) To safeguard public property Principles of (A) 1 and 2
(D) To abide by the Constitution State Policy (B) Only 2
.in
and respect its ideals (D) Part V - Fundamental (C) 1, 3 and 4
22. “To uphold and protect the Duties (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of
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Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11.
21.
(A)
(A)
12.
22.
(B)
(D)
13.
23.
(C)
(D)
14.
24.
(C)
(C)
cir 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (C)
dy
12. The President
tu
1. How is the President elected in (C) Only by the Members of State (C) Five electors
India? [MPPCS (Pre) 1998] Legislative Assemblies and Lok (D) Fifteen electors
rs
(A) Directly Sabha 7. The Chief Minister of a State in

(B) By Rajya Sabha Members (D) The Elected Members of Rajya India is not eligible to vote in the
ou
(C) By Lok Sabha Members Sabha, Lok Sabha and State Presidential election if
(D) By Indirect Election Legislative Assemblies [IAS (Pre) 1993]
2. In India, the President is elected by 5. Which one of the following is not (A) He is a candidate
w.
[41st BPSC (Pre) 1996]

correct regarding Presidential (B) He is yet to prove his majority
election? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] on the floor of the Lower House
(A) Direct Election
(A) Election of the successor must
ww
(B) Single Transferable Vote System of the State Legislature

be held before the expiry of (C) He is a member of the Upper
(C) Proportional Vote System the term of the incumbent
(D) Open Ballot System House of the State Legislature
President (D) He is a member of the Lower
3. Who among the following are not (B) The President shall hold office House of the State Legislature
included in the Electoral College for a term of five years from the
for the election of the President of 8. In the Presidential election in
date on which he enters upon
India? [UPPCS (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2015] India, every elected member of
his office
the Legislative Assembly of a State
(A) Elected members of the House (C) On the expiration of his term, shall have as many votes as there
of the People he continues to hold office until are multiples of one thousand in the
(B) Elected members of the Council his successor enters upon his quotient obtained by dividing the
of States office population of the State by the total
(C) Elected member of the Legis- (D) President’s election may be number of the elected members
lative Assemblies of the States postponed on the ground of the Assembly. As at present
(D) Elected members of the Legisla- that the electoral college is (1997), the expression ‘population’
tive Councils of the States incomplete here means the population as
4. The President of India is elected by 6. Minimum number of electors ascertained by the [IAS (Pre) 1997]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011] needed to be proposer of the (A) 1991 Census
(A) Only the members of Rajya presidential candidate is
(B) 1981 Census
Sabha [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(C) 1971 Census
(B) Only the members of Lok Sabha (A) Fifty electors
(D) 1961 Census
(B) Twenty electors

9. Which of the following is not an (A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha 23. Which one of the following is a part
essential qualification for the (B) Vice-President of India of the electoral college but not of
candidature of President? (C) Chief Justice of India the process of impeachment?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1992] (D) Prime Minister of India [IAS (Pre) 1996]
(A) Completion of 35 years 16. The President of India can be (A) Lok Sabha
(B) Educated removed from his post by (B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Qualified for election as a [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994 (C) State Legislative Councils
member of the House of the 47th BPSC (Pre) 2005] (D) State Legislative Assemblies
People (A) The Prime Minister of India 24. The procedure of Impeachment of
(D) Citizen of India (B) Lok Sabha the President of India is
10. A Member of Parliament or a (C) Chief Justice of India [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
State Legislature can be elected as (D) Parliament (A) Quasi-Judicial Procedure
President but 17. Under which one of the following (B) Executive Procedure
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008] (C) Judicial Procedure
Articles, the procedure for removal
(A) He will have to resign from of the President of India through (D) Legislative Procedure
his seat before contesting the the process of impeachment has 25. The vacant post of the President is
election been laid down? to be filled within [UPPCS (Pre) 2005
(B) He will have to relinquish his [Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006] UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
.in
seat within 6 months of his (A) Article 53 (B) Article 61 (A) 90 days
election (C) Article 74 (D) Article 13 (B) Six months
(C) He will have to relinquish his
18. The President of India can be (C) Nine months
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seat as soon as he is elected
removed from office even before (D) One year
(D) An MP can contest but an MLA the expiry of the term.
11. Which Article of the Indian 26. In the case of a vacancy arising from
[UPPCS (Pre) 1994] any cause other than the expiry of
Constitution prescribes eligibility
conditions for re-election to the
post of the President of India?
cir
(A) By the political party in power
(B) By the Prime Minister
(C) Through impeachment
the term of the President in office
an election to fill the vacancy must
be held [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
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(D) Through trial by court (A) Within six months from the
19. By which House of Parliament, date of occurrence of the
impeachment may be imposed on vacancy
tu
12. If there is any dispute regarding President? (B) After one year from the date of
the Presidential election, it can be [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003] vacancy
referred to [38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
rs
(A) House of People (C) After nine months from the

(A) Attorney General of India date of vacancy
(B) Council of States
(B) Parliament
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(C) By any House of Parliament (D) After seven months from the
(C) Supreme Court of India date of vacancy
(D) None of the above 27. For how long can the Vice-
20. Which one of the following has
w.
13. Which of the following President the power to initiate the Motion of President act as President when the
was appeared before Supreme Impeachment of the President of President cannot perform his duties
Court, when Supreme Court was India? for reasons of death resignation,
ww

hearing election dispute of the removal or otherwise?
President? (A) Both the Houses of the
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013
Parliament
UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(B) Lok Sabha
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain (A) 5 years
(C) Rajya Sabha
(B) V.V. Giri (B) 2 years
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Fakharuddin Ali Ahmad (C) 1 year
(D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy 21. The President can be impeached
on the grounds of violating the (D) 6 months
14. The President holds office for a Constitution by 28. In case the post of President of
term of 5 years from date on [UPPCS (Mains) 2008] India falls vacant due to his death,
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 1996] resignation or removal from office,
(A) The Chief Justice of India
(A) Which he/she is elected who will occupy that post?
(B) The Vice-President of India
(B) Which is decided by Parliament [MPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Which he enters upon his (A) Prime Minister
(D) The two Houses of Parliament
office/hold his office (B) Chief Justice of the Supreme
(D) Which is decided by Election 22. Atleast how many days of Court
Commission prior notice is required for the
(C) Vice-President
impeachment of the President of
15. To whom does the President of India? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
India address his resignation? 29. In case the post of President of
[IAS (Pre) 2009
(A) 7 days (B) 14 days
India falls vacant and there is not
Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013] (C) 21 days (D) 30 days
Vice-President also, who among

the following would be the acting 36. Who amongst the following is the 43. Who among the following
President? [Orissa PSC (Pre) 2019 head of Indian Republic? Presidents exercised a power which
UPPCS (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2015 [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013] is ‘Pocket veto’ in Constitutional
UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014 terminology?
RAS/RTS (Pre) 2007 (A) President of India
UPPCS (Mains) 2005] (B) Prime Minister of India [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
(A)Vice-Chairman of Rajya Sabha (C) Cabinet (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B)Attorney-General of India (D) Political head alongwith the (B) V.V. Giri
(C)Lok Sabha Speaker Council of Ministers (C) Gyani Zail Singh
(D)Chief Justice of the Supreme 37. Which one of the following amend- (D) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Court ments to the Indian Constitution 44. Under which Article of the Indian
30. If the position of President and empowers the President to send Constitution, the President of India
Vice-President are vacant, who back any matter for reconsideration enjoys the power to withhold his
officiates as the President of India? by the Council of Ministers? assent to any Bill passed by both the
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] [IAS (Pre) 2002] Houses of the Parliament?
(A) 39th (B) 40th [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004
(A) The Prime Minister
(C) 42nd (D) 44th UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(B) The Chief Justice of India
38. The President can dissolve Lok (A) Article 63
(C) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
Sabha on [MPPCS (Pre) 1999] (B) Article 108
.in
(A) Recommendation of Chief (C) Article 109
31. If in India the office of President
Justice of India (D) Article 111
and Vice-President falls vacant at
one point of time, the office of the (B) Lok Sabha’s recommendation 45. Who amongst the following has the
cle
President will temporarily be held (C) Recommendation of the Union power to withhold assent to a Bill,
by [UPPCS (Mains) 2014] Cabinet after it has been passed by the two
(D) Rajya Sabha’s recommendation Houses of Parliament?
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Chief Justice of Supreme
Court
(C) The Chief of Armed Forces
cir
39. The President of India can dissolve
the Lok Sabha on the recommenda-
tion of [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A)
(B)
The President
The Prime Minister

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(A) Rajya Sabha (C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Election Commission (D) The Chairman of the Rajya
32. Who is the Executive Head of State
(C) Chief Justice of India Sabha
tu
in India? [44th BPSC (Pre) 2000]

(D) Cabinet 46. On which matter, it is not essential
(A) President
40. The Joint sitting of Lok Sabha and to take advice from the Council of
(B) Prime Minister
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Rajya Sabha under Article 108 is Ministers for the President?

(C) Leader of the Opposition [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015
(D) Chief Secretary, Government of summoned by [UPPCS (Mains) 2015
ou
UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015 Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019]

India UPPCS (Pre) 2012] (A) Appointment of Ambassadors
33. Which one of the following Articles (A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (B) To assent to Bills
of the Constitution vests the
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(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha (C) To assent to Bills referred by

executive power of the Union in the Governors
(C) Prime Minister
President? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(D) President (D) To dissolve Lok Sabha
ww

41. Which one of the following 47. Under which Article of the Indian
(C) Article 53 (D) Article 54 Constitution did the President
statements about the President of
34. Who of the following has been India is not correct? give his assent to the Ordinance on
vested with the executive powers of [UPPCS (Mains) 2010] electoral reforms when it was sent
the central government under the back to him by the Union Cabinet
(A) He is a constituent part of
Constitution of India? without making any changes (in
Parliament
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015 the year 2002)? [IAS (Pre) 2003
UPPCS (Mains) 2008 (B) He participates in the discus-
sion in the both Houses UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
(C) He addresses the joint meeting (A) Article 121 (B) Article 142
(A) President of India
of both the Houses every year (C) Article 123 (D) Article 124
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Central Cabinet (D) He can promulgate ordinances 48. Under which of the following
in certain situations Articles of the Constitution,
(D) All of the above the President of India has been
42. The only instance when the Presi-
35. President of India exercises his empowered to promulgate an
dent of India exercised his power of
powers [60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016] ordinance? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016
veto, is related to [IAS (Pre) 1993]
(A) either directly or through UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
(A) The Hindu Code Bill
officers subordinate to him (A) Article 360
(B) The PEPSU Appropriation Bill
(B) through Ministers (B) Article 123
(C) The Indian Post Office
(C) through Prime Minister (C) Article 200
(Amendment) Bill
(D) through Cabinet
(D) The Dowry Prohibition Bill (D) Article 356

49. An ordinance promulgated by the President of India? two successive terms?
President must be placed before the [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013] [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2003]
Parliament within what time frame (A) Promulgation of Ordinances (A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
after the start of its session? (B) To consult the Supreme Court (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013] (C) To send messages to Houses of (C) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(A) 1 month (B) 6 weeks Parliament (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) 8 weeks (D) 6 months (D) To grant Pardon 65. The single instance of the
50. Who among the following is 57. The President of India does not unanimous election of the President
appointed by the President? have the right to of India so far was the election of
[UPPCS (Pre) 2002] [41st BPSC (Pre) 1996] [UPPCS (Mains) 2004
(A) Attorney General of India (A) Give Pardon UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(B) Comptroller and Auditor (B) Remove a judge of Supreme (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
General Court (B) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(C) Governor of State (C) Declare emergency (C) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(D) All of the above (D) Pass ordinances (D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
51. Which one of the following is not 58. Power of the President to grant 66. Who of the following before
appointed by the President of pardons etc., is a becoming the President of India
India? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997] [UPPCS (Mains) 2010] did not hold the office of Vice-
.in
(A) Vice-President (A) Legislative Power President? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
(B) Prime Minister (B) Judicial Power (A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(C) Governor (C) Executive Power (B) Dr. Zakir Hussain
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(D) Chief Election Commissioner (D) None of the above (C) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
52. The Constitution authorizes the 59. Which of the following Article of (D) R. Venkatraman
President to make provisions for Indian Constitution mentions the 67. Among the following Presidents
discharge of duties of Governors in
extraordinary circumstances under
cir
‘Doctrine of Pleasure’?
of India, who is known as the
Philosopher King or the Philosopher
Ruler? [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
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(A) Article 160 (B) Article 162 (C) Article 310 (D) Article 311 (A) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(C) Article 165 (D) Article 310 60. Which one of the following is not (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
53. Indian Constitution doesn’t
tu
Constitutional Prerogative of the (C) Dr. Zakir Hussain

empower the President of India President of India? (D) Dr. Abdul Kalam
with the right of [UPPCS (Mains) 2007] 68. Who of the following President of
rs
[38th BPSC (Pre) 1992] (A) Returning an ordinary Bill for India was associated with Trade
(A) Appointment of Prime Minister reconsideration Union Movement?
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(B) Appointment of Chief Minister (B) Returning a financial bill for [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
in states reconsideration (A) V.V. Giri
(C) Being the Supreme Commander (C) Dissolving the Lok Sabha (B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
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of Defence Forces (D) Appointing the Prime Minister (C) K.R. Narayanan
(D) Executing emergency in any 61. Who prepares the President’s (D) Zakir Hussain
part of the country
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address to Parliament? 69. Which President of India was called

54. Which Article of the Indian Consti- [MPPCS (Pre) 1998] the ‘Missile Man’?
tution empowers the President to (A) President himself [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
consult the Supreme Court? (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha (A) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (B) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Central Cabinet (C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
62. The First President of Independent (D) None of the above
55. Which of the following is incorrect India hailed from
about the powers of the President 70. Who of the following Chief Justices
[41st BPSC (Pre) 2001] of India acted as the President of
of India? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Uttar Pradesh India also? [UPPCS (Mains) 2003, 04]
(A) The President should accept
(B) Andhra Pradesh (A) Justice M.C. Mahajan
the advice of Supreme Court
(C) Bihar (B) Justice M. Hidayatullah
(B) Emergency powers
(D) Tamil Nadu (C) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(C) Power of extension of Presi-
dent’s Rule in States 63. The fourth President of India was (D) Justice B.K. Mukherjee
[UPPCS (Pre) 1994] 71. Choose the odd one.
(D) President can accept or reject
the advice of the Supreme (A) Sir V.V. Giri [MPPCS (Pre) 1991]
Court (B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (A) Rajendra Prasad
56. According to the Constitution, (C) Dr. Zakir Hussain (B) Radhakrishnan
which among the following (D) Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad (C) Zakir Hussain
is literally not a ‘Power’ of the 64. Which President of India completed (D) Jawaharlal Nehru

72. Which of the following statements 1. Elected members of both divided by total number of
is not true? [38th BPSC (Pre) 1992] houses of Parliament. elected MP’s.
(A) To hold the office of President 2. Elected members of both 3. There were more than 5000
Candidate should have the houses of State Legislatures. voters in the latest elections.
minimum age of 35 years 3. Elected members of the Which of these statement(s) is/are
(B) Vice-President is Chairman of Legislative Assemblies of all correct? [IAS (Pre) 2003]
Rajya Sabha states. (A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(C) Vice-President is appointed by 4. Elected members of legislative (C) 1 and 3 (D) Only 3
the President of India assemblies of Delhi and 83. Consider the following statements
(D) First President of India was Pondicherry. about the President of India.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad Code 1. He should be citizen of India by
73. What was the sequence number of (A) 1, 2, and 3 are right birth.
Ms. Pratibha Patil as the President (B) 1 and 3 are right 2. He should have completed the
of the Republic of India? (C) 1, 2 and 4 are right age of 35 years.
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008 (D) 1, 3 and 4 are right 3. He should be qualified for elec-
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015] tion as a member of Parliament.
80. Which of the following are the
(A) 10th (B) 11th members of the electoral college for Which of these statement is/are
(C) 12th (D) 13th electing the President of India? correct? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998]
.in
74. A Bill presented in Parliament 1. All the members of the two (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
becomes an Act after Houses of Parliament. (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1 and 3
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] 2. All the elected members of the 84. Consider the following statements
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(A) It is passed by Both the Houses State Legislative Assemblies. and select the correct answer from
(B) The President has given his 3. All the elected members of the the code given below.
Assent U.T. Assemblies. [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(C) The Prime Minister has signed it
(D) The Supreme Court has
declared it to be within the
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4. All the Governors and Lt.
Governors.
Select the correct answer from the
1. The executive power of the
Union is vested in the Prime
Minister.
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competence of the Union code given below. 2. The Prime Minister is appointed
Parliament [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] by the President.
75. Who has the Constitutional Power Code 3. The Prime Minister is the head
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to declare a geographical area as a of the Council of Ministers.

(A) Only 1 and 2
‘Scheduled Area’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006] 4. The Prime Minister, at the time
(B) Only 2 and 3 of his appointment, needs not
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(A) Governor (C) Only 1, 2 and 3

(B) Chief Minister be a member of either House of
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Parliament.
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(C) Prime Minister

81. The members of board election of Code
(D) President the President of India are (A) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
76. “He represents the nation but does [UPPCS (Pre) 1993] (B) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
w.
not lead the nation” — this dictum 1. Elected members of Lok Sabha
applies to whom of the following? (C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
2. Elected members of Rajya (D) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct
Sabha
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(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha 85. Which of the following are the dis-
3. Elected members of Vidhan cretionary powers of the President?
(B) President Sabha [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014]
(C) Prime Minister 4. Elected members of Vidhan 1. Appointment of Council of
(D) Chief Justice of India Parishad Ministers
77. Which one of the following Code 2. To return a Bill with objections
President of India has been the (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 3. To detain a Bill
Governor of Bihar?
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 3 and 4 4. To pardon
82. Consider the following statements. 5. To summon for joint session
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 6. To send message to Parliament
(B) Dr. S.D. Sharma In the electoral college for
Presidential Election in India. 7. Appointment of Judges
(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain Code
1. The value of the vote of an
(D) V.V. Giri (A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 5 and 7
elected Member of Legislative
78. Rashtrapati Bhavan was designed Assembly equals State Popula- (C) 3, 6 and 7 (D) 2, 3 and 6
by [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
tion divided by Number of 86. Which among the following is/
(A) Edward Stone elected Member of the state are appointed by the President of
(B) Le Corbusier assembly × 100. India?
(C) Edwin Lutyens 2. The value of the vote of an 1. Chairman of the Finance
(D) Tarun Dutt elected Member of Parliament Commission
79. The electoral college of President equals the total value of the 2. Vice-Chairman of the Planning
consists of [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001] votes of all elected MLAs Commission

3. Chief Ministers of the Union Reason (R): There is no limitation (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
Territories on the power of the President. but (R) is not the correct
Select the correct answer by using In the context of the above which of explanation of (A)
the following code. [IAS (Pre) 1994 the following is correct? (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
UPPCS (Mains) 2005] [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) 1 is correct (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and 94. Consider the following statements.
(B) 1 and 2 are correct (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A): The President is
(C) 1 and 3 are correct (A) the part of the Parliament.
(D) 2 and 3 are correct (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
Reason (R): A Bill passed by the
87. Which of the following doesn’t but (R) is not the correct
two Houses of Parliament cannot
consists in the power ‘To Pardon’ of explanation of (A)
become law without the assent of
President? (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false the President.
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016] (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
In the context of the above, which
1. Pardon 91. Assertion (A): The President of one of the following is correct?
2. Commutation India is elected by indirect election. [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
3. Remission Reason (R): There is a provision Code
4. Respite of Electoral College consisting of
the elected members of both Houses (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
5. Reprieve
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of Parliament and elected members (R) is the correct explanation of
6. Detention (A)
of the Legislative Assemblies of the
7. Continuation (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
States.
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
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In the context of above statements but (R) is not the correct
(C) 4 and 5 (D) 6 and 7 explanation of (A)
select the correct answer.
88. Which of the following types of [UPPCS (Mains) 2015] (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
authority are attributed to the
President of the India?
1. Real and Popular
2. Titular (formal) and Dejure
cir
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) are individu-
Assertion (A): The Supreme
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ally true and (R) is the correct Command of the Defence Forces is
3. Political and Nominal explanation of (A) vested in the President.
4. Constitutional and Nominal (D) Both (A) and (R) are individu- Reason (R): The President’s
tu
Select the correct answer from the ally true, but (R) is not the cor- powers as Commander-in-Chief are
code given below. rect explanation of (A) independent of Legislative Control.
[Assam PSC (Pre) 2018
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92. Given below are two statements. In the context of the above, which
UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
Assertion (A): The executive one of the following is correct?
(A) 1 and 3
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power of the Union is vested in the [UPPCS (Mains) 2005, 2010]

(B) 2 and 3 President of India. Code
(C) 1 and 4 Reason (R): The executive power (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(D) 2 and 4
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is concerned with carrying on the (R) is the correct explanation of

89. According to the Constitution of business of the Government. (A)
India, it is the duty of the President In the context of the above, which (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
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of India to cause to be laid before one of the following is correct? but (R) is not the correct
the Parliament which of the [UPPSC (GIC) 2010] explanation of (A)
following?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
1. The Recommendations of the (R) is the correct explanation of
Union Finance Commission (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(A)
2. The Report of the Public 96. Match List-I with List-II and select
Accounts Committee the correct answer using the code
3. The Report of the Comptroller given below the lists.
explanation of (A)
and Auditor General [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. The Report of the National List-I (President)
Commission for Scheduled (a) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
Castes (b) N. Sanjiva Reddy
Select the correct answer using the Assertion (A): President of India
is different from the British King. (c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
Reason (R): Office of Indian (d) V.V. Giri
President is similar to that of List-II (Term)
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
America. [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998] 1. 1969-1974
90. Given below are two statements.
Code 2. 1974-1977
Assertion (A): The Union
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and 3. 1977-1982
Executive is headed by the
(R) is the correct explanation of 4. 1967-1969
President of India.
(A)

Code office no litigation can be instituted (R) is the correct explanation of
(a) (b) (c) (d) in any court of law against the (A)
(A) 3 2 1 4 President of India. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(B) 2 3 1 4 Reason (R): President’s office is but (R) is not the correct
(C) 2 3 4 1 above the Constitution. explanation of (A)
(D) 4 3 2 1 Code [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2008] (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
97. Assertion (A): During the term of (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (B)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (A) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (D)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (D)
51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (B)
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61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (A) 69. (B) 70. (B)
71. (D) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (B) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (B)
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (B) 84. (C) 85. (D) 86. (D) 87. (D) 88. (D) 89. (C) 90. (C)
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91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (C) 97. (C)
1. How is Vice-President of India

cir
13. The Vice-President
(C) The members of both the bination of dignitaries who became
dy
elected? [MPPCS (Pre) 1996] Houses of Parliament Vice-President after having held
(A) By direct national election (D) The State Legislatures diplomatic posts of Ambassador
(B) Nomination by President 5. The proposal relating to dismissal and High Commissioners?
tu
(C) By direct election by the MPs of of the Vice-President can be [IAS (Pre) 1993]
Lok Sabha and MLAs of Vidhan presented in [UPPCS (Mains) 2007] (A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and G.S.
rs
Sabha (A) Any House of the Parliament Pathak

(D) By election by the MPs of Lok (B) Rajya Sabha (B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and V.V.
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Sabha and Rajya Sabha (C) The Lok Sabha Giri

2. The Vice-President may be removed (D) None of the above (C) Dr. Zakir Hussain and K.R.
from his office by a resolution of Narayanan
6. A resolution for the removal of
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[UPPCS (Mains) 2013] the Vice-President of India can be (D) B.D. Jatti and K.R. Narayanan
(A) Council of States proposed in [UPPCS (Mains) 2003, 04] 10. The serial number of Mr.
(B) Lok Sabha (A) Only Lok Sabha Mohammad Ansari as Vice-
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(C) Cabinet President of India is

(B) Any House of Parliament
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
(D) Council of Ministers (C) Joint Session of Parliament Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019]
3. The Vice-President of India is (D) Only Rajya Sabha
elected by the members of an (A) 10th (B) 11th
7. Who is the Chairman of Rajya (C) 12th (D) 13th
electoral college comprising Sabha? [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012] 11. Given below are two statements,
(A) The President Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(A) Only elected members of both (B) The Vice-President
the Houses of Parliament Assertion (A): In order to
(C) The Prime Minister be eligible for election as Vice-
(B) All the members of both the (D) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
Houses of Parliament President, a person must be
8. Which one of the following is qualified for election as a member
(C) Only elected members of Rajya
presided over by one who is not its of the Upper House.
Sabha and State Assemblies
member? [UPPCS (Mains) 2004 Reason (R): Vice-President is
(D) Only elected members of State Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019]
Assemblies chairperson of Rajya Sabha.
(A) Lok Sabha Which of the following is correct in
4. The Vice-President of India is
(B) Vidhan Sabha regard to the above statements?
elected by
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
(C) Rajya Sabha [UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
(D) Council of Ministers (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(A) The People
(B) The Electoral College which 9. Among the four pairs given below (R) is the correct explanation of
elects the President which one consists of a correct-com- (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 3. Discharges the functions of the
but (R) is not the correct (C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 President during his absence.
explanation of (A) 13. Who amongst the following elects 4. Acts as the President if the
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false the Vice-President of India? President resigns, or is removed
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 1. Member of Lok Sabha or dies.
12. Which of the following statements 2. Members of Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer from the
about the Vice-President of India 3. Members of Legislative code given below.
are not correct? Assemblies [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
1. In order to be the Vice- 4. Members of Legislative (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
President, a person must be Councils (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) All the four
qualified for election as a Select the correct answer from the 15. Who among the following has held
member of the House of the code given below. [UPPCS (Pre) 2012 the office of the Vice-President of
People. West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019] India? [IAS (Pre) 2008]
2. A member of the State Code 1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
Legislature can be a candidate 2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
for this office. (A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3 3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
3. The term of the Office of the 4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Vice-President is the same as (C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Code
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that of the President.
4. He can be removed through a 14. The Vice-President of India (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
formal impeachment. 1. Is the second highest dignitary (B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
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Select the correct answer using the of India.
code given below. 2. Has no formal function at- (D) 3 and 4
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] tached to his office.
Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C)
cir 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
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11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (B)
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14. The Council of Ministers

1. Which of the following is not true? (C) He cannot dismiss any of his (A) Parliament
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[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] ministers (B) Prime Minister

(A) The President or Governor is (D) Prime Minister is the real head (C) President
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immune from legal action for of the Council of Ministers (D) Bureaucracy
officials acts 4. Prime Minister of India is 8. If the Prime Minister of India
(B) No Court can compel a [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013]
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belongs to the Upper House of

Governor to perform any duty (A) Elected (B) Selected Parliament [IAS (Pre) 1997
(C) A two month’s notice in writing (C) Nominated (D) Appointed Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018]
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must be delivered to a Governor 5. Article 78 of the Constitution of (A) He will not be able to vote in
for bringing civil proceedings in India lays down the duties of the his favour in the event of a no-
respect of their personal acts [UPPSC (RI) 2014] confidence motion
(D) Courts are empowered to (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) He will not be able to speak on
enquire the advice tendered by (B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha the budget in the Lower House
the Ministers to the President (C) Comptroller and Auditor (C) He can make statements only in
or Governor General of India the Upper House
2. The Prime Minister of India is the (D) Prime Minister (D) He will have to become a
head of the [47th BPSC (Pre) 2005] 6. Cabinet includes [UPPCS (Pre) 1992 member of the Lower House
(A) State Government Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006] within six months after being
(B) Central Government (A) Ministers with Cabinet-rank sworn in as the Prime Minister
(C) Both State and Central (B) Minister of State level 9. Which Article of the Indian
Governments (C) Cabinet Minister and State Constitution describes the
(D) None of the above Minister appointment and disqualification
3. Which of the following statements (D) Cabinet Minister, Minister of of the Council of Ministers?
is correct about Prime Minister of State with independent charge [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] and Minister of State West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) Prime Minister is the nominal 7. Who exercises the actual/executive (A) Article 70
head of the Council of Ministers power under the parliamentary (B) Article 72
(B) He is not responsible to the form of Government? (C) Article 74
Parliament [MPPCS (Pre) 2006] (D) Article 75

10. Prime Minister of India is generally (C) Member of Rajya Sabha from 22. The Council of Ministers is
[47th BPSC (Pre) 2005] Rajasthan collectively responsible to which of
(A) Not a member of Parliament (D) Member of Rajya Sabha from the following? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012
(B) Member of Lok Sabha Assam Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(C) Member of Rajya Sabha 17. The Prime Minister is (A) Prime Minister
(D) Member of both the Houses [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011] (B) President
11. Who is the President of the (A) Elected by the Lok Sabha (C) Rajya Sabha
Council of Scientific and Industrial (B) Elected by the Parliament (D) Lok Sabha
Research? (C) Appointed by the President 23. Which one of the following is not
[Uttarakhand Lower Sub. (Pre) 2010] (D) Nominated by the Party in a correct situation arising after
(A)
President of India Majority of Lok Sabha the resignation of the Council of
(B)
Vice-President of India 18. Which one of the following Ministers? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(C)
Prime Minister of India statements is correct about the (A) President’s Rule will be
(D)
Union Minister of Science and Prime Minister of India? imposed
Technology [IAS (Pre) 1996] (B) The President will ask to
12. Who is the head of the National (A) He is free to choose his minister continue till alternative
Defence Committee? only from among those who are arrangement
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011] members of either House of the (C) The alternative arrangement
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(A) Home Minister Parliament means earliest possible General
(B) Prime Minister (B) He can choose his cabinet col- Election to be held to form a
(C) President leagues after due counselling new Government
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(D) Vice-President by the President of India in this (D) Outgoing Council of Ministers
regard may have had charge till
13. The Prime Minister of India, at the
(C) He has full discretion in the the formation of the new
time of his/her appointment
[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Need not necessarily be a
member of one of the Houses
cir
choice of persons who are to
serve as ministers in his cabinet
(D) He has only limited power in the
Government
24. Union Council of Ministers is
collectively responsible to
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choice of his cabinet colleague [41st BPSC (Pre) 1996]
of the Parliament but must
become a member of one of the because of the discretionary (A) Prime Minister
Houses within six months powers vested in the President (B) President
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(B) Need not necessarily be a of India (C) Parliament

member of one of the Houses 19. In India, a minister who is not (D) Only to Lok Sabha
a member of either House of
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of the Parliament but must 25. Which one of the following is not
become a member of the Lok Parliament will cease to be a explicitly stated in the Constitution
Sabha within six months minister after [UPPCS (Pre) 1993, 95 of India but followed as a
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UPPCS (Mains) 2015]

(C) Must be a member of one of the convention? [IAS (Pre) 1995]
Houses of the Parliament (A) Six months (B) One year
(A) The Finance Minister is to be a
(D) Must be a member of the Lok (C) Two years (D) Three years
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Member of the Lower House

Sabha 20. Which of the following statements (B) The Prime Minister has to
14. What is the minimum age is not true regarding the Parliament resign if he loses the majority in
of India?
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requirement to become the Prime [UPPCS (Pre) 2011] the Lower House
Minister of India? (A) The Constitution provides (C) All the parts of India are to be
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007] for a Parliamentary form of represented in the Councils of
(A) 21 years (B) 25 years Government Ministers
(C) 30 years (D) 35 years (B) The function of the Parliament (D) In the event of both the Presid-
15. The Office of the Deputy Prime is to provide for a Cabinet ent and the Vice-President
Minister [UPPCS (Mains) 2009] (C) The membership of the cabinet demitting office simultaneously
(A) Was created under the original is restricted to the Lower House before the end of the tenure,
Constitution (D) The cabinet enjoys the the Speaker of the Lower House
(B) Is an extra-Constitutional confidence of the majority in of the Parliament will officiate
growth the popular chamber of the as the President
(C) Was created by 44th Amend- house 26. Which one of the following
ment 21. To whom is the Council of Ministers motions, the Council of Ministers in
(D) Was created by the 85th responsible? [MPPCS (Pre) 2010 India can move?
Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018 [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2018
Amendment
40th BPSC (Pre) 1995] UPPCS (Mains) 2010
16. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is
(A) Parliament UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
a [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(B) President (A) No-Confidence Motion
(A) Member of Lok Sabha from
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) Censure Motion
Punjab
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha and (C) Adjournment Motion
(B) Member of Rajya Sabha from
Chairman of Rajya Sabha (D) Confidence Motion
Punjab

27. The Council of Ministers has to (B) S.P. Mukherjee (B) Vishwanath Pratap Singh
resign if a no-confidence motion is (C) Baldev Singh (C) P.V. Narsimha Rao
passed by a majority of members of (D) B.R. Ambedkar (D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012] 35. Which one of the following terms 43. Which of the following statements
(A) Lok Sabha does not appear in the Constitution is not true for Dr. Manmohan
(B) Rajya Sabha of India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011] Singh? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004]
(C) Both the Houses separately (A) Annual Financial Statement (A) Former Finance Minister of
(D) Both the Houses in Joint sitting (B) Appropriation Bill India
28. After resigning, whose permission (C) Budget (B) Former Governor of Reserve
does a minister require to give a (D) Consolidated Fund of India Bank of India
statement in Lok Sabha? 36. Who was the 12th Prime Minister of (C) Former Chairman of Finance
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015] India? [UPPCS (Pre) 2005] Commission
(A) Prime Minister (A) Chandra Shekhar (D) Former Representative of India
(B) Speaker (B) Deve Gowda at the IMF
(C) President (C) I.K. Gujral 44. Which one of the following
(D) Supreme Court (D) A.B. Vajpayee Constitutional Amendments states
(E) None of the above that the total number of Ministers,
37. Which Prime Minister died outside including the Prime Minister in
29. The least number of members India?
.in
[MPPCS (Pre) 1995]
who can table the No-Confidence the Council of Ministers, shall not
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru exceed fifteen percent of the total
Motion against the Council of
(B) Morarji Desai number of members of the House of
Ministers in Lok Sabha is
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[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri the People? [IAS (Pre) 2009]
UPPCS (Mains) 2013, 2009] (D) Charan Singh (A) 90th (B) 91st
(A) 20 (B) 30 38. Which of the following person was (C) 92nd (D) 93rd
(C) 40 (D) 50
30. Who will decide the Office of
Profit? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006, 2000]
cir
not a Chief Minister of any state
before holding the office of Prime
Minister? [IAS (Pre) 1994
45. Which of the following official
documents is related with India?
dy
UPPCS (Mains) 2011] (A) Green paper (B) White paper
(A) President and Governor (A) Morarji Desai
(B) Union Parliament (C) Yellow book (D) Blue book
(B) P.V. Narasimha Rao 46. Which Article of the Indian
(C) Supreme Court
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(C) Charan Singh Constitution describes “The

(D) Union Public Service Commis- (D) Chandra Shekhar
sion Executive power of every State
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39. Who among the following was the shall be so exercised as not impede
31. In Indian Polity, the executive is member of Lok Sabha during his or prejudice the exercise of the
subordinate to the Prime Ministership? Executive power of the Union”?
ou

[UPPCS (Pre) 2015] [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A)Judiciary (A) Deve Gowda (A) Article 257 (B) Article 258
(B)Legislature
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(B) I.K. Gujral (C) Article 355 (D) Article 356

(C)Election Commission (C) Chandra Shekhar 47. The Reorganization of Union
(D)Union Public Service Commis- (D) Dr. Manmohan Singh Cabinet is based on the Report of
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sion [UPPSC (GIC) 2010]

40. Which one of the following Prime
32. Which leader of Madhya Pradesh Ministers of India, never attended (A) Gopalaswami Ayyangar
became the Defence Minister first the Parliament during his tenure? (B) K.M. Munshi
and later Home Minister in Nehru’s [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
Cabinet? [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(C) T.T. Krishnamachari
(A) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (D) B.C. Roy
(A) Prakash Chandra Sethi
(B) V.P. Singh 48. Which one of the following is not
(B) Ravi Shankar Shukla
(C) Chandra Shekhar correctly matched?
(C) Kailash Nath Katju
(D) Chaudhari Charan Singh [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2018
(D) Dwarka Nath Mishra UPPCS (Pre) 1996]
41. The word ‘mantrimandal’ (cabinet)
33. Who was the First Finance Minister is mentioned only once in (A) J.L. Nehru - Shanti Van
of Independent India? Constitution and that is in (B) L.B. Shastri - Vijaya Ghat
[41st BPSC (Pre) 1996] (C) Indira Gandhi - Shakti Sthal
(A) Gulzari Lal Nanda (A) Article 352 (B) Article 74 (D) Rajiv Gandhi - Karam Bhumi
(B) R. K. Shanmukha Chetty (C) Article 356 (D) Article 76 49. Who gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan, Jai
(C) Krishnamachari
42. The Policy of Liberalisation, Kisan’? [Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2018
(D) Sarojini Naidu Privatisation and Globalisation MPPCS (Pre) 1998]
34. Who was the Law Minister in the was announced as New Economic (A) J.L. Nehru
first Cabinet of post-independence Policy by Prime Minister (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
India? [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013] [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013] (C) Chaudhari Charan Singh
(A) K.M. Munshi (A) Rajeev Gandhi (D) Indira Gandhi

50. Consider the following statements. 54. Consider the following statements (C) Only 3, 4 and 5
1. The President shall make regarding a ‘No-Confidence (D) Only 1, 2, 4 and 5
rules for more convenient Motion’ in India. 58. Who among the following have
transaction of the business 1. There is no mention of a ‘No- been the Union Finance Ministers
of the Government of India Confidence Motion’ in the of India?
and for the allocation among Constitution of India. 1. V.P. Singh
Ministers of the said business. 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can 2. R. Venkataraman
2. All executive actions of the be introduced in the Lok Sabha 3. Y.B. Chavan
Government of India shall be only. 4. Pranab Mukherjee
expressed to be taken in the Which of the statement(s) given
name of the Prime Minister. Select the correct answer by using
above is/are correct? the code given below.
Which of the statement(s) given [IAS (Pre) 2014]
[Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2019
above is/are correct? (A) Only 1 IAS (Pre) 2007]
[IAS (Pre) 2014] (B) Only 2 (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(A) Only 1 (C) Both 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) Only 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 59. Assertion (A): Ministers make
(C) Both 1 and 2 55. Match the Prime Ministers with policy and civil servants adhere to
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 their tenure. that policy.
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51. The Council of Ministers is [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014]
Reason (R): Parliamentary form
collectively responsible List-I (Prime Minister) of government works on the
1. To the House of the People (a) Deve Gowda Principle of ‘Cabinet Collective
cle
2. Under a Constitutional (b) Chandra Shekhar Responsibility’. [UPPCS (Pre) 1993]
Obligation (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee Code
3. As per Article 75(3) (d) Inder Kumar Gujral (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
4. As per Article 74(3)
Which of the above statements are
correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
cir
(e) Vishwanath Pratap Singh
List-II (Tenure)
1. 1999-2004 2. 1989-90
(A)
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(A) Only 1 and 2 3. 1990-91 4. 1996-97 but (R) is not the correct
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3 5. 1997-98 explanation of (A)
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
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Code
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
52. Consider the following statements (A) 1 2 3 4 5 60. Assertion (A): The Council of
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in the context of Indian Ministers in the Union of India is

(B) 5 4 3 2 1
Constitution. collectively responsible both to the
(C) 3 1 2 5 4
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1. The Union Council of Ministers Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
shall be collectively responsible (D) 4 3 1 5 2
Reason (R): The members of both
to the Lok Sabha. 56. Who among the following held the the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
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2. Union Ministers shall hold office of the Prime Minister of India are eligible to be the Ministers of
office during the pleasure of the more than once? the Union Government.
Prime Minister. 1. Jawaharlal Nehru [Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2019
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Of these [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016] 2. Indira Gandhi IAS (Pre) 2007]

(A) Only 1 is correct 3. Gulzari Lal Nanda Code
(B) Both 1 and 2 are correct 4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(C) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct Choose the correct order. (R) is the correct explanation of
(D) Only 2 is correct [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003] (A)
53. Consider the following statements. (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
1. The Council of Ministers in (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All of these but (R) is not the correct
the Centre shall be collectively 57. Who among the following occupied explanation of (A)
responsible to the Parliament. the office of the Prime Minister of (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
2. The Union Ministers shall hold India more than once with gaps in (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
the office during the pleasure of between their political career? 61. Consider the following statements
the President of India. [UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010] and choose the correct answer from
3. The Prime Minister shall comm- 1. Jawaharlal Nehru the code given below.
unicate to the President about 2. Lal Bahadur Shastri Assertion (A): Describing a
the proposals for Legislation. 3. Gulzari Lal Nanda person as Deputy Prime Minister is
Which of the statements given 4. Indira Gandhi a political decision.
above is/are correct? 5. Atal Bihari Vajpayee Reason (R): It does not confer
[IAS (Pre) 2013] Code on him any power of the Prime
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3 (A) Only 1, 2 and 3 Minister. [Goa PSC (Pre) 2017
(C) 1 and 3 (D) All of these (B) Only 1, 3 and 4 UPPCS (Mains) 2004]

Code 63. With reference to Union Govern- 2. The number of Ministries at the
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and ment, consider the following state- Centre at present is 36.
(R) is the correct explanation of ments. Which of the statement(s) given
(A) 1. The Constitution of India above is/are correct?
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, provides that all Cabinet [IAS (Pre) 2009]
but (R) is not the correct Ministers shall be compulsorily (A) Only 1
explanation of (A) the sitting members of Lok (B) Only 2
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false Sabha only. (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat (D) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Consider the following statements. operates under the direction of
65. Which of the following is/are the
the Ministry of Parliamentary
1. The Executive Power of the function/functions of the Cabinet
Affairs.
Union of India is vested in the Secretariat?
President. Which of the statement(s) given
1. Preparation of agenda for
2. The Cabinet Secretary is the above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2009]
Cabinet Meetings
ex-officio Chairman of the Civil (A) Only 1 2. Secretariat assistance to
Services Board. (B) Only 2 Cabinet Committees
Which of the statement(s) given (C) Both 1 and 2 3. Allocation of financial resour-
above is/are correct? (D) Neither 1 nor 2 ces to the Ministries
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[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2017 64. With reference to Union Govern- Select the correct answer using the
IAS (Pre) 2015] ment, consider the following state- code given below.
(A) Only 1 ments. [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013]
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(B) Only 2 1. The number of Ministries at the (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2 Centre on 15th August, 1947 (C) Only 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 was 18.
Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (D)
cir 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (B)
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11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (B)
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31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (A)
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51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (D) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D)
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61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (C)
15. The Attorney General and C.A.G.

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1. How is the Attorney General of (A) Attorney General 6. Who among the following shall
ww
India appointed? (B) Chief Justice of the Supreme have the right of audience in all
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013] Court courts in the territory of India in the
(A) By the Parliament (C) Chairman, Law Commission performance of his duties?
(B) By the President (D) None of the above [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(C) By the President on the recom- 4. Who among the following holds (A) Advocate General
mendation of the Parliament his/her office during the pleasure (B) Attorney General
(D) By the Chief Justice of the President? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (C) Additional Advocates General
2. Who amongst the following is (A) Comptroller and Auditor (D) None of the above
considered to be the first law officer General of India 7. Who can attend either House
of the Govt. of India? (B) Chief Election Commissioner of Parliament without being a
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010 (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha member?
UPPCS (Pre) 2006] (D) Attorney General of India [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Chief Justice of India 5. The Chief Legal Advisor to (A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Solicitor General Government of India is (B) Attorney General of India
(C) Attorney General [UPPCS (Mains) 2008 (C) Chief Election Commissioner
(D) Advocate General UPPCS (Pre) 1995] (D) Chairman of National Human
3. Who advises the Government of (A) Solicitor General of India Rights Commission
India on legal matters? (B) Chief Justice of Supreme Court 8. Which officer of the Government
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019 (C) Secretary Ministry of Law of India has the right to take part
49th BPSC (Pre) 2000] (D) Attorney General of India in the proceedings of Parliament

of India even though he is not a (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha trading, manufacturing, profit
member? (C) Chairman of Planning and loss accounts
[60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016] Commission (D) To control the receipt and issue
(A) Vice-President (D) Finance Minister of public money and to ensure
(B) Attorney General of India 15. Under which Article of the Indian that the public revenue is
(C) Comptroller and Auditor Constitution is the Comptroller lodged in the Exchequer
General and Auditor General of India 21. The ultimate responsibility of
(D) Election Commissioner appointed? taking due action on the comments
9. Who among the following has a [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015] of the Comptroller and Auditor
right to speak and otherwise take (A) Article 146 (B) Article 147 General vests with
part in the proceedings of the (C) Article 148 (D) Article 149 [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]
either House of Parliament and to 16. The Reports of the Comptroller and (A) President of India
be a member of any parliamentary Auditor General of India relating (B) Supreme Court
committee but is not entitled to to the accounts of the Union are (C) Parliament
vote? [UPPCS (Mains) 2003] submitted first of all to which of the (D) National Development Council
(A) The Comptroller and Auditor following? 22. Who amongst the following attends
General of India [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] the meetings of the Public Accounts
(B) The Chief Election Commiss- (A) The Chairman of Public Committee of the Parliament?
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ioner of India Accounts Committee [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(C) The Chairman of Finance Com- (B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (A) Attorney General of India
mission of India (C) Law Minister of India (B) Solicitor General of India
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(D) The Attorney General of India (D) President of India (C) Comptroller and Auditor
10. Who among the following can 17. The office of the Comptroller General of India
participate in the proceedings of and Auditor General of India was (D) None of the above
both the Houses of Parliament?
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
cir
created [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Through an Act of the
Parliament
23. The Comptroller and Auditor
General is appointed by the
President. He can be removed
dy
(A) Vice-President (B) By the Constitution [UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(B) Solicitor General (C) Through a Cabinet Resolution (A) By the President
(C) Chief Justice (D) None of the above (B) On an address from both
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(D) Attorney General 18. The tenure of Comptroller and Houses of Parliament
11. Who among the following has right Auditor General of India is (C) By the Supreme Court
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to address the Parliament? [UPPCS (Pre) 1993] (D) On the recommendation of

[UPPCS (Pre) 2011] (A) 4 years (B) 5 years the President by the Supreme
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(A) Attorney General of India (C) 6 years (D) 7 years Court

(B) Chief Election Commissioner of 19. Which of the following is not true 24. The Comptroller and Auditor
India about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a friend and
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(C) Chief Justice of India General of India? [UPPSC (RI) 2014] guide of [UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(D) National Security Advisor (A) He is appointed by the (A) Select Committee
12. The Solicitor General of India is President (B) Estimates Committee
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[UPPCS (Pre) 1991 (B) His salary is equal to that of the (C) Prime Minister
UPPCS (Pre) 1994] Judge of Supreme Court (D) Public Accounts Committee
(A)
An Administrative Officer (C) He is disqualified for any 25. The Amendment to (CAG Duties,
(B)
A Legal Advisor further Government office after Power and Condition of Service
(C)
An advisor to Prime Minister retirement Act) 1971 separates Accounts
(D)
A Law officer for giving advice (D) He can be removed by the from Audit and relieves the CAG
to the President of India President of his responsibility in the matters
13. Who among the following is the le- 20. Which one of the following duties is of preparation of Accounts. The
gal advisor of a State Government? not performed by Comptroller and amendments were made in the
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015 Auditor General of India? year [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
45th BPSC (Pre) 2001] [UPPCS (Mains) 2004 (A) 1972 (B) 1976
(A)
The Advocate General IAS (Pre) 2001]
(C) 1980 (D) 1987
(B)
The Attorney General (A) To audit and report on 26. Who is called the Guardian of
(C)
The Solicitor General all expenditure from the Public Purse? [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(D)
The Comptroller and Auditor Consolidated Fund of India
(A) President
General (B) To audit and report on
all expenditure from the (B) Comptroller and Auditor
14. The Comptroller and Auditor General
General of India is appointed by Contingency Funds and Public
Accounts (C) Parliament
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
(C) To audit and report on all (D) Council of Ministers
(A) President

27. C.A.G. (Comptroller and Auditor Which of these statements are 3. Information from CAG reports
General) of India acts as correct? [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014 can be used by investigat-
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Mains) 2007] IAS (Pre) 2000] ing agencies to press charges
(A) The Guardian of people’s (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 against those who have vio-
liberties (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 lated the law while managing
(B) The Guardian of Public Finance 30. Consider the following statements. public finances.
(C) The Chief Legal Advisor of the 4. While dealing with the audit
Attorney General of India can
Government and accounting of government
1. take part in the proceedings of companies, CAG has certain
(D) The guardian of all these the Lok Sabha.
28. Which of the following options is judicial powers for prosecuting
2. be a member of a committee of those who violate the law.
not correct? the Lok Sabha.
Public Finance Studies financial Which of the statement(s) given
3. speak in the Lok Sabha. above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2012]
activities of the Government. It 4. vote in the Lok Sabha.
consists of .... . [UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) Only 2
Which of the statements given
(A) Analysis of Public Expenditure (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2013]
(B) Public Revenue 32. Consider the following statements.
(C) Financial Administration (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 1. The Advocate General of a
(D) Functioning of Commercial State in India is appointed by
31. In India, other than ensuring that
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Bank the President of India upon
public funds are used efficiently
29. Consider the following statements the recommendation of the
and for the intended purpose, what
about the Attorney General of Governor of the concerned
is the importance of the office of the
State.
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India. Comptroller and Auditor General
1. He is appointed by the (CAG)? 2. As provided in Civil Procedure
President of India. Code, High Courts have
1. CAG exercises exchequer con-
original appellate and advisory
2. He must have the same
qualifications as are required
for a Judge of the Supreme
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trol on behalf of the Parliament
when the President of India
declares national emergency/
jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2009]
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Court. financial emergency.
3. He must be a member of either 2. CAG reports on the execution of (A) Only 1
House of Parliament. projects or programmes by the (B) Only 2
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4. He can be removed by impeach- ministries are discussed by the (C) Both 1 and 2
ment by Parliament. Public Accounts Committee. (D) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer Sheet
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1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (C)
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31. (C) 32. (D)

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16. Preference Hierarchy

1. Who is the Highest Ranking Civilian (C) Chief of Staffs (B) Defence Secretary
Officer in Govt. of India? (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha (C) Cabinet Secretary
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003] 3. As per Indian Protocol, who among (D) Lt. Governor of Delhi
(A)
Lt. Governor of Delhi the following ranks highest in the 5. Consider the following functio-
(B)
Defence Secretary of India order of precedence? [IAS (Pre) 2003] naries.
(C)
Cabinet Secretary of India (A) Deputy Prime Minister 1. Cabinet Secretary
(D)
Principal Secretary to Prime (B) Former President 2. Chief Election Commissioner
Minister of India (C) Governor of a State within his 3. Union Cabinet Minister
2. In the Government of India Table of State 4. Chief Justice of India
Precedence which of the following (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha Their correct sequence in the Order
come/comes above the Chief Jus- 4. Who is the topmost civilian officer of Precedence is [IAS (Pre) 2000]
tice of India? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1997] in Government of India? (A) 3, 4, 2, 1 (B) 4, 3, 1, 2
(A) Attorney General of India [MPPCS (Pre) 1998] (C) 4, 3, 2, 1 (D) 3, 4, 1, 2
(B) Former Presidents (A) Home Secretary
Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C)
17. Lok Sabha

1. Which one of the following is not which Amendment? 15. The provision for the representation
correct with regard to the elections [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] of Anglo-Indian Community in the
to the Lok Sabha? (A) 31st (B) 35th Legislative Assemblies of the States
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011] (C) 42nd (D) 45th has been made in the Constitution
(A) The elections are on the basis of 8. According to the Article 82 of the of India under
adult suffrage [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014]
Constitution of India, the allocation
(B) The Election Commission is re- of seats in Lok Sabha to the states is (A) Article 330
quired to conduct the elections on the basis of the ..... Census. (B) Article 331
(C) The electoral rolls are prepared [MPPCS (Pre) 2008 (C) Article 332
under the direction and control UPPCS (Mains) 2003 (D) Article 333
of the President of India 42nd BPSC (Pre) 1998]
16. How many members may be
(D) On the request of the Election (A) 1961 (B) 1971 nominated by the President from
Commission, the President is (C) 1981 (D) 1991 Anglo-Indian Community, if he is
required to make available to 9. The statewise seat allocation in Lok of the opinion that the community
the Election Commission such Sabha is based on is not adequately represented in the
staff as may be necessary for [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005] House of the People?
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the discharge of its functions (A) Population (B) Area [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
2. A candidate of Lok Sabha Poll loses (C) Pverty (D) Language (A) 3 (B) 5
his security amount if he/she does 10. There is no reservation for SC and (C) 1 (D) 2
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not get [40th BPSC (Pre) 1995] ST for Lok Sabha in 17. The President of India can nominate
(A) 1/3 of valid votes [UPPCS (Pre) 2000] two members in the Lok Sabha to
(B) 1/4 of valid votes (A) Arunachal Pradesh give representation to
(C) 1/5 of valid votes
3. What is the minimum age laid
cir
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Meghalaya
(D) All of the above
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) Indian Christians
(B) Anglo-Indians
dy
down for a person to seek election 11. Reservation of seats for Scheduled (C) Buddhists
to the Lok Sabha? Tribes in the Lok Sabha does not (D) Parsis
[45th BPSC (Pre) 2001] exist in the states of
tu
18. Which of the following Constitu-

(A) 18 years (B) 21 years [UPPCS (Pre) 1998] tional Amendments is related to
(C) 25 years (D) None of these (A) Kerala and Tamil Nadu raising the number of Members of
rs
4. For election to the Lok Sabha, a (B) Karnataka and Kerala Lok Sabha to be elected from the
nomination paper can be filed by (C) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka States? [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005
ou
[IAS (Pre) 2017] (D) All of the above IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Anyone residing in India 12. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes (A) 6th and 22nd
(B) A resident of the constituency under the direct control of the (B) 13th and 38th
w.
from which the election is to be [UPPCS (Pre) 1997] (C) 7th and 31st
contested (A) Union Home Ministry (D) 11th and 42nd
(C) Any citizen of India whose (B) Ministry of Parliamentary
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name appears in the electoral 19. Before completing term, Lok Sabha
Affairs can be dissolved
roll of a constituency (C) Prime Minister [42nd BPCS (Pre) 1997]
(D) Any citizen of India (D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
5. The 84th Amendment Act has (A) By the discretion of President
13. Which one of the following states
frozen the total number of existing elects the largest number of (B) By the discretion of Prime
seats in the Lok Sabha on the basis members representing Scheduled Minister
of 1971 Census. They shall remain Tribes to the House of People? (C) By the discretion of the Speaker
unaltered till the first Census to be [UPPCS (Pre) 1997] of the Lok Sabha
taken after the year (A) Andhra Pradesh (D) By the President on the recom-
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005 (B) Bihar mendation of Prime Minister
47th BPSC (Pre) 2005] 20. Prior to the completion of tenure,
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(A) 2010 (B) 2015 (D) Maharashtra the Lok Sabha can be dissolved
(C) 2021 (D) 2026 [40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
14. Who holds power to appoint the
6. Maximum strength of Lok Sabha nominees from Anglo-Indian (A) By the will of President
as stipulated in the Constitution of Community in the Lok Sabha? (B) By Speaker
India is [MPPCS (Pre) 2008] [44th BPSC (Pre) 2000] (C) By the President on the recom-
(A) 547 (B) 545 (A) Minorities Commission mendation of Council of
(C) 552 (D) None of these (B) President of India Ministers
7. The Strength of the Lok Sabha was (C) Prime Minister (D) By the President on the recom-
increased from 525 to 545 through (D) Vice-President mendation of the Speaker

21. Session of Lok Sabha is called for (C) Can be extended by one year at (C) Madhya Pradesh and Tamil
atleast [42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997] a time during the proclamation Nadu
(A) Once in a year of emergency (D) Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
(B) Two times in a year (D) Can be extended for two 37. Which one of the following pairs is
(C) Three times in a year years at a time during the not correctly matched?
(D) Four times in a year proclamation of emergency [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
22. The quorum of Lok Sabha and 30. The tenure of which Lok Sabha was States Seats in
Rajya Sabha is about 6 years? Lok Sabha
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2008 [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016] (A) Andhra Pradesh - 25
UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 2006 (A) 5th Lok Sabha (B) Assam - 13
MPPCS (Pre) 1995] (B) 7th Lok Sabha (C) Punjab - 13
(A) 1/5 of the total membership (C) 9th Lok Sabha (D) West Bengal - 42
(B) 1/6 of the total membership (D) 11th Lok Sabha 38. From which of the following States
(C) 1/10 of the total membership 31. In India which State has the largest two members of the Lok Sabha are
(D) 1/8 of the total membership representation in Lok Sabha and elected? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
23. The maximum number of members Rajya Sabha? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012 (A) Tripura (B) Mizoram
in Lok Sabha can be 42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997
UPPCS (Pre) 1995] (C) Nagaland (D) Sikkim
39. Which among the following group
.in
(A) 540 (B) 545 (A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh of States/Union Territories has
(C) 550 (D) 555 only one seat in the Lok Sabha?
24. What is the fixed number of (C) Maharashtra
cle
members of Lok Sabha? (D) Andhra Pradesh
(A) Goa, Meghalaya, Nagaland
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010] 32. So long as the representation in Lok
(B) Manipur, Dadra and Nagar
(A) 541 (B) 543 Sabha is concerned, which states
Haveli, Puducherry
(C) 444 (D) 545
25. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes
under the direct supervision of
cir
rank second and third?
(A) Maharashtra and West Bengal
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim,
Lakshadweep
(D) Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram
dy
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (B) Madhya Pradesh and Tamil
Nadu 40. After delimitation the largest Lok
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs Sabha Constituency with a view to
(B) Ministry of Parliamentary (C) Madhya Pradesh and
number of voters in U.P. is
tu
Affairs Maharashtra
(C) President of India (D) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
(A) Amethi (B) Unnao
rs
(D) Lok Sabha Speaker 33. After Uttar Pradesh, the highest
(C) Lucknow (D) Baghpat
26. The Union Territories get represen- number of Lok Sabha seats have
been allotted to [UPPSC (GIC) 2008] 41. What is the maximum expenditure
ou
tation in [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]

limit for the Parliamentary Elec-
(A) Lok Sabha (A) Andhra Pradesh
tions of a Constituency?
(B) Rajya Sabha (B) Bihar [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
w.
(C) Both Houses of Parliament (C) Maharashtra (A) ` 25 lakhs (B) ` 40 lakhs
(D) None of the above (D) West Bengal (C) ` 70 lakhs (D) ` 1 crore
27. The sitting of House of the People 34. How many Lok Sabha seats are
ww
42. First General Election of Lok Sabha

may the terminated by allocated to the State of Rajasthan? was held in [MPPCS (Pre) 2015
[UPPCS (Pre) 2000] [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017 Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005
(A) Adjournment RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003] 42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
(B) Prorogation (A) 27 (B) 26 (A) 1949 (B) 1952
(C) Dissolution (C) 25 (D) 24 (C) 1950 (D) 1954
(D) All of the above 35. In the case of election to the Lok 43. 9th Lok Sabha was dissolved on
28. Which one of the following is Sabha, the amount of Security [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
authorized to prorogue the session deposited by general category 42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
of the House of the People? candidates and SC/ST category (A) 13 March, 1991
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015] candidates respectively is
(B) June, 1996
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) Speaker (C) April, 1997
(B) Attorney General (A) ` 5,000 and ` 2,500
(D) February, 1998
(C) Minister of Parliamentary (B) ` 10,000 and ` 2,500
44. The election for 12th Lok Sabha of
(D) President (C) ` 10,000 and ` 5,000
India was held in
(D) ` 25,000 and ` 12,500
29. The term of the Lok Sabha [Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
[IAS (Pre) 2002] 36. Which one of the following pair 42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
of States has equal seats in Lok (A) April, 1996
(A) Cannot be extended under any
Sabha? [UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
circumstances (B) June, 1996
(B) Can be extended by six months (A) Punjab and Assam (C) April, 1997
at a time (B) Gujarat and Rajasthan (D) February, 1998

45. Who is the leader of the Lok removed from his office before the 58. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Sabha? [42nd BPSC (Pre) 1995] expiry of his term makes use of his casting vote only
(A) President [UPPCS (Pre) 2007] [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(B) Prime Minister (A) By the President on the recom- (A) To save the existing
(C) Speaker mendation of the Prime Minister Government
(D) None of the above (B) If the Lok Sabha passes a (B) In case of Constitutional Amen-
46. Which one of the following is the resolution to his effect dment
largest (areawise) Lok Sabha (C) It the Lok Sabha and the Prime (C) In case of emergency
constituency? [IAS (Pre) 2008] Minister so decide (D) In case of a tie when votes are
(A) Kangra (B) Ladakh (D) If both the Houses of Parliament equally divided
(C) Kachchh (D) Bhilwara pass a resolution to this effect 59. Which one of the following Articles
47. A seat of a M.P. can be declared 54. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can of the Constitution provides that
vacant if he absents himself from be removed by [UPPCS (Mains) 2008] the Speaker shall have and exercise
the house for a continuous period (A) A resolution of the Lok Sabha a casting vote in the case of an
of [60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016] passed by a majority of the equality of votes?
members of the House [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Six months
(B) Two-third majority of the (A) Article 99 (B) Article 103
(B) Two months
members of the House (C) Article 100 (D) Article 102
(C) Three months
.in
(C) Order of the President 60. Who was the First Speaker of Lok
(D) One year Sabha? [MPPCS (Pre) 2012
48. In India Lok Sabha Speaker is (D) A simple majority of the
UPPCS (Mains) 2011
[IAS (Pre) 2009]
Parliament Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007
cle
(A) Nominated (B) Chosen 55. Which one of the following state- IAS (Pre) 2007
ments regarding the office of the Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019]
(C) Elected (D) Appointed
Speaker is correct? [IAS (Pre) 1993] (A) Mavalankar
49. Speaker of the Lok Sabha is chosen
by [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
(A) All members of Parliament
(B) Public directly
cir
(A) He holds office during the
pleasure of the President
(B) He need not be a member of the
(B) Hukum Singh
(C) B.D. Jatti
(D) V.V. Giri
dy
House at the time of his election 61. The first Speaker against whom
(C) All members of Lok Sabha but has to become a member of a Motion of Non-confidence was
(D) The members of parties in the House within six months moved in the Lok Sabha was
tu
majority from the date of his election [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004
50. Who among the following doesn’t (C) He loses his office if the house UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
take oath of the office? is dissolved before the end of its (A) B.R. Jakhad
rs
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016] normal tenure (B) G.V. Mavalankar

(A) President (D) If he intends to resign the (C) Hukum Singh
ou
(B) Vice-President letter of his resignation is to (D) K.S. Hegde

(C) Prime Minister be addressed to the Deputy 62. The first female Speaker of Lok
(D) Speaker Speaker
w.
Sabha is [UPPCS (Mains) 2008, 07]

51. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha 56. Who is generally appointed as a (A) Vijay Laxmi Pandit
addresses his letter of resignation Protem Speaker? [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
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to the [UPPCS (Mains) 2008, 2014 (A) The Speaker of the outgoing
(C) Tarkeshwari Sinha
MPPCS (Pre) 2005] Lok Sabha
(D) Meira Kumar
(A) Prime Minister of India (B) The Dy. Speaker of the outgoing
Lok Sabha 63. At which of the following stages
(B) President of India general discussion on a Bill takes
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha (C) One of the senior most
place in the Lok Sabha?
(D) Vice-President of India members of the newly elected
52. How can the speaker of the Lok Lok Sabha
(A) During introduction of the Bill
Sabha be removed? (D) The leader of the opposition
(B) During second reading
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017 party in the outgoing Lok Sabha
(C) During report stage
MPPCS (Mains) 1994] 57. The function of the pro-Tem (D) During third reading
(A) By a resolution of Lok Sabha Speaker is to [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
64. In case the Deputy Speaker is
passed by a two-third Majority (A) Conduct the proceedings of presiding the Lok Sabha he has
of members present the House in the absence of the right to [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(B) By a resolution of the Lok Sabha Speaker (A) Take part in its deliberations
passed by a majority of all the (B) Administer oath to members (B) Vote on any proposition before
members of the House (C) Officiate as a Speaker when the House as a member
(C) By President on the advice of the Speaker is unlikely to be (C) Vote in the event of equality of
the Prime Minister elected votes
(D) None of the above (D) Only check if the election (D) No right to preside a joint sitting
53. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be certificates of the members are of the House of Parliament in
in order case the Speaker is absent

65. Who among the following was the above is/are correct? (A) Only 1, 2 and 3
first Tribal Speaker of Lok Sabha? [IAS (Pre) 2012] (B) Only 1, 3 and 4
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015] (A) 1 and 2 (C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(A) G.V. Mavalankar (B) Only 3 (D) Only 1, 2 and 4
(B) G.M.C. Joshi (C) 1, 2 and 3 70. Match the representation of States
(C) Manohar Joshi (D) None of the above in Lok Sabha.
(D) P.A. Sangama 68. Which of the following is not [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014]
66. Consider the following statements. correct? List-I (State)
1. In the election for Lok Sabha [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
(a) Andhra Pradesh
or State Assembly, the winning 1. Each money bill is finance bill. (b) Tamil Nadu
candidate must get atleast 50 2. Each finance bill is not a money (c) Maharashtra
percent of the votes polled, to bill.
(d) Chhattisgarh
be declared elected. 3. Finance bill can be introduced
in Lok Sabha only. (e) West Bengal
2. According to the provisions
laid down in the Constitution 4. Finance bill is presigned by the List-II (Representation)
of India, in Lok Sabha, the President. 1. 48 2. 11
Speaker’s post goes to the 5. Rajya Sabha can detain the 3. 25 4. 42
majority party and the Deputy finance bill for 14 days. 5. 39
.in
Speaker’s to the Opposition. 6. President cannot refuse to sign Code
Which of the statements given on finance bill. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
above is/are correct? 7. Rajya Sabha can amend the (A) 1 3 4 5 2
cle
[IAS (Pre) 2017] finance bill. (B) 5 4 2 1 3
(A) Only 1 8. On deadlock on finance bill (C) 2 4 3 1 5
(B) Only 2 joint session can be called.
(D) 3 5 1 2 4
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
67. Regarding the office of the Lok
cir
Code
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 5 and 6
71. Assertion (A): N.D.A. Govern-
ment does not like discussion under
Rule 184 of Rules of Procedure and
dy
Sabha Speaker, consider the (C) 3 and 7 Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
following statements. (D) 1 and 8 Reason (R): This Rule provides for
1. He/She holds the office during 69. Consider the following statements voting also alongwith discussion.
tu
the pleasure of the President. in relation to woman members of Give correct answer by using.
2. He/She need not be a member 15th Lok Sabha. [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
of the House at the time of his/
rs
1. They are less than 10% of total UPPCS (Pre) 2001]

her election but has to become members. Code
a member of the House within 2. Maximum of them belong to
ou
six months from the date of his/ (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Indian National Congress. (R) is the correct explanation of
her election. 3. Three members are elected (A)
3. If he/she intends to resign, the
w.
from Rajasthan. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,

letter of his/her resignation has 4. Maximum women members
to be addressed to the Deputy but (R) is not the correct
are elected from Uttar Pradesh. explanation of (A)
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Speaker. Which is/are true? (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Which of the statement(s) given [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013] (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (D)
51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (A)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (D) 66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (D)
71. (A)
18. Rajya Sabha

1. The Representation of States in (B) is dissolved every five years (B) Election of Vice-President of
Council of States is based on (C) is dissolved every six years India during casual vacancy
[38th BPSC (Pre) 1992] (D) is not subject of dissolution (C) Abolition of Legislative Council
(A) Equal for all States 9. Right to dissolve the Rajya Sabha is of any State
(B) Ratio of their Population vested in [39th BPSC (Pre) 1995] (D) Removal of its chairman
(C) Ratio of their Area (A) President 16. Which one of the following
(D) Ratio of their Revenue (B) Vice-President statements is not correct regarding
2. The members of Council of States (C) Supreme Court the power of the Parliament to
are elected by [UPPCS (Pre) 1990] (D) None of the above legislate on a matter in the State
(A) Members of Legislative List? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
Assembly of States statements about Rajya Sabha is (A) The Rajya Sabha has to declare
(B) Members of Legislative Council correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
that it would be necessary in
of States the national interest
(A) It is not subject to dissolution
(C) Members of both Legislative (B) A resolution has be passed by
(B) Its members are chosen by Rajya Sabha by not less than
Assembly and Council direct election from territorial
(D) Members of Municipalities and two-third of the members
.in
constituencies in the States present and voting
Gram Panchayat (C) It is required to choose, as soon (C) The legislation could be for the
3. In which year was Rajya Sabha as may be a member of the whole or any part of the Country
Constituted for the first time? Rajya Sabha to be the Chairman
cle
(D) Only the Rajya Sabha can make
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017] thereof
laws with respect to a matter
(A) 1950 (B) 1951 (D) The Attorney General of India in the State list in the national
(C) 1952 (D) 1953 does not have the right to speak
4. The Rajya Sabha consists of
(A) 280 members of which 20
cir
in Rajya Sabha
11. How is Rajya Sabha dissolved?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
interest
17. The Parliament of India acquires
the power to legislate on any item
dy
in the State List in the national
members are nominated by the (A) At the end of Chairman’s tenure interest if a resolution to that effect
President of India (B) President dissolves after 5 years is passed by the [IAS (Pre) 2016]
tu
(B) 275 members of which 18 (C) Dissolves with Lok Sabha (A) Lok Sabha by a simple majority
members are nominated by the automatically of its total membership
President of India (D) None of the above (B) Lok Sabha by a majority of not
rs
(C) 250 members of which 12 12. The number of members nominated less than two-third of its total
members are nominated by the by the President in Rajya Sabha is membership
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President of India [39th BPSC (Pre) 1996 (C) Rajya Sabha by a simple
(D) 252 members of which 12 UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006] majority of its total membership
members are nominated by the (A) 10 (B) 15 (D) Rajya Sabha by a majority of
w.
President of India (C) 12 (D) 20 not less than two-third of its

5. What is the tenure of a member of 13. The first actress to be nominated to members present and voting
Council of State? [UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
ww
Rajya Sabha [MPPCS (Pre) 1999] 18. Which of the following special
(A) 3 years (B) 5 years (A) Jayalalitha powers has been conferred on the
(C) 6 years (D) 2 years (B) Nargis Dutt Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of
6. Member of Rajya Sabha is elected (C) Vaijayanthimala India? [IAS (Pre) 2012]
[42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997] (A) To change the existing territory
(D) Devika Rani
(A) For four years 14. Which of the following statements of a State and to change the
(B) For five years is correct regarding the Rajya name of a State
(C) For six years Sabha? [UPPCS (Pre) 1994] (B) To pass a resolution empowe-
(D) For life long (A) One-third of its members retire ring the Parliament to make
7. Rajya Sabha is called Permanent every two years laws in the State List and to
House because [41st BPSC (Pre) 1996] (B) One-half of its members retire create one or more All India
every two years Services
(A) All members are lifelong
(C) One-half of its members retire (C) To amend the election
(B) It cannot be dissolved
every three years procedure of the President
(C) Some members retire after and to determine the pension
every two years (D) One-third of its members retire
every three years of the President after his/her
(D) Both (B) and (C) are true retirement
8. According to our Constitution, the 15. Which one of the following comes
(D) To determine the functions of
Rajya Sabha under the exclusive power of the
the Election Commission and
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] Council of States? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
to determine the number of
(A) is dissolved once in two years (A) Creation of new All India Election Commissioners
Services

19. Which of the following Articles of them is not matched? (A) Nominated member of Rajya
the Indian Constitution empowers [IAS (Pre) 2009] Sabha who is an expert in a
the Parliament to legislate on any (A) Madhya Pradesh - 16 field
matter in the State List? (B) Maharashtra - 19 (B) Deputy Chairperson of Rajya
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012] (C) Tamil Nadu - 18 Sabha
(A) Article 115 (B) Article 116 (D) West Bengal - 16 (C) Minister who is a member of
(C) Article 226 (D) Article 249 26. Which among the following States Rajya Sabha
20. A resolution passed by the Rajya has the lowest number of elected (D) Leader of the House in Rajya
Sabha under Article 249 of the members in the Rajya Sabha? Sabha
constitution empowering Parliam- [UPPCS (Mains) 2010, 2006] 33. The minimum age required to be a
ent to legislate on a state subject in (A) Chhattisgarh candidate for Council of States is
national interest remains in force (B) Himachal Pradesh [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
for a period. [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] (A) 25 years (B) 30 years
(C) Jharkhand
(A) Not exceeding six months (C) 32 years (D) 35 years
(D) Gujarat
(B) Not exceeding two years 34. What is the fixed strength of Rajya
27. The Chairman of Council of States
(C) Not exceeding one year (Rajya Sabha) is Sabha? [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(D) Of unlimited time [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2013] (A) 220 (B) 230
21. What is the consequence of the (A) Appointed by President (C) 210 (D) 250
.in
failure of Government in Rajya (B) Elected by Parliament 35. What will follow if money bill is
Sabha? [MPPCS (Pre) 1990] substantially amended by Rajya
(C) Vice-President is ex-officio
(A) Prime Minister gives his Chairman Sabha? [IAS (Pre) 2013]
cle
resignation (A) Lok Sabha may still proceed
(D) Elected by members of State
(B) Parliament will dissolve Council with the bill accepting or not
(C) The operation of President Rule 28. In which House is the presiding accepting the recommendati-
statements correctly describes the
cir
officer not a member of that
House? [48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
ons of Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha cannot consider the
bill further
dy
Fourth Schedule of the Constitution (A) Rajya Sabha (C) Lok Sabha may send the bill
of India? [IAS (Pre) 2001]
(B) Lok Sabha to Rajya Sabha for reconsider-
(A) It lists the distribution of ation
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(C) Vidhan Sabha

powers between the Union and (D) President may call a joint sitting
(D) Vidhan Parishad
the States for passing the bill
29. The ex-officio Chairman of the
rs
(B) It contains the languages listed 36. Consider the following statements.
Rajya Sabha is [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
in the Constitution 1. Union Territories are not
(A) The Vice-President
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(C) It contains provisions for the represented in the Rajya Sabha.

administration of Tribal areas (B) The President
2. It is within the purview of the
(D) It allocates seats in the Council (C) The Prime Minister Chief Election Commissioner
(D) The Speaker
w.
of States to adjudicate the election

23. Which one of the following pairs of 30. Which one of the following Houses disputes.
states has equal representation in is presided over by a non-Member? 3. According to the Constitution
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the Council of States? [UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010] of India, the Parliament consist
[UPPCS (Pre) 1999] (A) Lok Sabha of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
(A) Andhra Pradesh and (B) State Legislative Assembly Sabha only.
Maharashtra (C) Rajya Sabha Which of the statement(s) given
(B) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu (D) None of the above above is/are correct?
(C) Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh 31. Which one of the following is [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019
(D) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu Chairman of Rajya Sabha? IAS (Pre) 2012]
24. Seats allocated to Uttar Pradesh in [UPPCS (Pre) 1993, 1990 (A) Only 1
the Council of States are the total 42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997] (B) 2 and 3
number of seats allocated to (A) Prime Minister (C) 1 and 3
[UPPCS (Pre) 2000] (B) Vice President of India (D) None of the above
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Madhya (C) The person elected to this post/ 37. Consider the following statements.
Pradesh office 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power
(B) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil (D) President of India either to reject or to amend a
Nadu 32. Who among the following can Money Bill.
(C) Bihar and Gujarat participate in the deliberations of 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote
(D) Maharashtra and Karnataka Lok Sabha while being a member of on the Demands for Grants.
25. Given below is a list of States Rajya Sabha? 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot
alongwith seats allotted to them in [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016 discuss the Annual Financial
the Council of States. Which one of Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013] Statements.

Which of the statements given 39. Which of the following are correct Code
above is/are correct? about the Rajya Sabha? (a) (b) (c) (d)
[Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019 1. It is not a subject to dissolution. (A) 1 4 3 2
IAS (Pre) 2015] 2. It has a term of five years. (B) 3 2 4 1
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 3. One-third of its members retire (C) 2 3 1 4
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 after every two years. (D) 1 2 3 4
38. Consider the following statements 4. Its member shall not be less 41. Match List-I with List-II and select
with respect to qualification to than 25 years of age. the correct answer using the code
become the member of Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer using the given below the lists.
and select the correct answer from code given below. [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2015
the code given below. [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2018 (A) 1, 2 and 3 List-I (States)
MPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(B) 2, 3 and 4 (a) Andhra Pradesh
1. Should be atleast 30 years of (C) 1 and 3
age. (b) Maharashtra
(D) 2 and 4 (c) Karnataka
2. Should be registered as a voter
40. Match List-I with List-II and select (d) West Bengal
on the list of voters in the state
the correct answer using the code List-II (Seats)
from which the candidate is to
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be elected. 1. 11 2. 19
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
3. Should not hold office of profit 3. 12 4. 16
under the state. List-I (States)
Code
(a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka
cle
Code (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) Kerala (d) Odisha
(A) 1 and 2 are correct (A) 1 2 3 4
List-II (No. of members in (B) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
Rajya Sabha)
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct cir
1. 9
3. 12
2. 11
4. 10
(C) 2
(D) 4
1
2
4
3
3
1
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Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (A)
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11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (C)
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21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (C)
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41. (A)
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19. The Parliament

1. Formation of Parliament is com- (A) Once (B) Twice (D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and
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pleted by [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002] (C) Thrice (D) Four times Parliament Secretariat
(A) Only House of the People 4. What should be the interval be- 6. Who/which of the following is not
(B) House of the People and Prime tween the two consecutive sessions an integral part of Parliament?
Minister of Parliament? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
(C) House of the People, Council of [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994] UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
States and Prime Minister (A) Four months (A) President
(D) House of the People, Council of (B) Six months (B) Vice-President
States and President (C) 1 year (C) Lok Sabha
2. Indian Parliament consists of (D) Fixed by the President (D) Rajya Sabha
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 2011 5. Which of the following constitute 7. The membership of a Parliament/
UPPCS (Pre) 2012] the Indian Parliament? Legislative Assembly’s membership
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015 may be terminated if he remains
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] absent without informing to
Prime Minister (A) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya respective House for a term of
(C) Speaker and Lok Sabha Sabha [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018
(D) President and both the House (B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and MPPCS (Pre) 1992]
of Parliament Prime Minister (A) 60 days
3. Maximum how many times the (C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and (B) 90 days
Parliament has to meet in a year? Minister for Parliamentary (C) 120 days
[UPPCS (Pre) 1995] Affairs (D) 150 days

8. For the first time, a MP/MLA was (C) There is no Constitutional bar 18. Which of the following procedures
disqualified from the membership for nominated members to be will enable the adoption of a Money
on the ground of remaining absent appointed as a Union Minister Bill that was once passed by the
from sixty consecutive meetings of (D) A nominated member can vote Lok Sabha but was amended by the
the House without the permission. both in the Presidential and Rajya Sabha? [UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
He was a member of Vice-Presidential elections (A) It will go to the President
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004] 14. Parliament may legislate on any (B) The Lok Sabha will have pass
(A) Council of States subject of State List when it with 2/3rd majority of the
(B) House of People [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] members sitting and voting
(C) Punjab Legislative Assembly (A) There is assent of President (C) A Joint session of the two
(D) Rajasthan Legislative Assembly (B) Resolution thereof has been Houses will be called
9. Which one of the following provi- passed by State (D) It will be deemed to have been
sions deals with the privileges and (C) In any situation passed if the Lok Sabha passes
immunities of the Members of Par- (D) General permission of State it again either by accepting or
liament under the Constitution of Legislative Assembly has ben rejecting the amendments
India? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011] received 19. The Speaker can ask a member of
(A) Article 104 (B) Article 105 15. The Parliament can make law the House to stop speaking and
(C) Article 82 (D) Article 117 for the whole or any part of India let another member speak. This
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10. Which one of the following is not a for implementing International phenomenon is known as
Treaties. [UPPCS (Pre) 2006 [IAS (Pre) 2000]
collective privilege of the members
of Parliament? [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] IAS (Pre) 2000] (A) Decorum
cle
(A) Freedom of debates and (A) With the consent of all the (B) Crossing the floor
proceedings States (C) Interpellation
(B) The Rights to regulate the (B) With the consent of majority of (D) Yielding the floor
internal
Parliament
matters of
(C) Freedom from attendance as

the
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States
(C) With the consent of the States
concerned
20. ‘Zero Hour’ is the contribution of
which country to the Parliamentary
System? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
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Witness (D) Without the consent of any (A) India (B) America
(D) The privilegeds of excluding State (C) Britain (D) Switzerland
strangers from the house 16. Who can legislate on the subjects 21. What could be the maximum time
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11. Privilege motion can be raised which are not included in any of limit of ‘Zero Hour’ in the Lok
against a Minister when he the lists of subjects given in the Sabha? [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
Constitution? (A) 30 minutes
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(A) Loses confidence in the [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015] (B) One hour
Government (A) Supreme Court (C) Indefinite period
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(B) Absents himself for a long time (B) Parliament (D) Two hours
(C) Withholds facts of a case or (C) State Legislature 22. Time of zero hour in Parliament is
(D) Regional Councils
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given distorted versions of facts [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]

(D) Limit value 17. Which one of the following (A) 9 am to 10 am
12. Who among the following has the statement is correct? [IAS (Pre) 1994] (B) 10 am to 11 am
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right to vote in the elections to (A) All the members of Council (C) 11 am to 12 noon
both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya of States are elected by State (D) 12 noon to 1:00 pm
Sabha? [IAS (Pre) 1995] Legislative Assemblies 23. Zero Hour in political jargon refers
(A) Elected members of the Lower (B) As the Vice-President is the ex- to [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
House of the Parliament officio Chairman of the Rajya (A) Day when no business in
(B) Elected members of the Upper Sabha, only a member of the Parliament is done
House of the Parliament Rajya Sabha can contest for the (B) Suspended motion
(C) Elected members of the Upper office of the Vice-President (C) Adjourned time
House of the state Legislature (C) A point difference between the (D) Question-answer session
(D) Elected members of the Lower Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
24. The Parliament can make any
House of the state Legislature is that while a candidate to Lok
law for whole or any part of India
13. Which one of the following state- Sabha can contest from any
for implementing international
ments is correct? State in India, a candidate to the
[IAS (Pre) 2003] treaties [IAS (Pre) 2013]
Rajya Sabha should ordinarily
(A) Only the Rajya Sabha and (A) With the consent of all the
be a resident of the State from
not the Lok Sabha can have States
where he is contesting
nominated members (B) With the consent of the majority
(D) The Constitution of India
(B) There is a Constitutional of States
explicitly prohibits the
provision for nominating two (C) With the consent of the States
appointment of a nominated
members belonging to the concerned
member of the Rajya Sabha to
Anglo-Indian community to the (D) Without the consent of any
the post of minister
Rajya Sabha State

25. Under which Article of the Indian (A) A simple majority of members 38. Which one of the following
Constitution, the Parliament can present and voting expenditure is not charged on the
make laws on State List subject (B) Three-fourth majority of Consolidated Fund of India?
for giving effect to international members present and voting [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
agreements? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016 (C) Two-third majority of the (A) Salary and allowances of the
UPPCS (Mains) 2016] Houses Chief Justice of India
(A) Article 249 (B) Article 250 (D) Absolute majority of the Houses (B) Salary and allowances of
(C) Article 252 (D) Article 253 32. Who presides over the joint the Comptroller and Auditor
26. Which one of the following session of both the Houses of the General of India
statements is correct? Parliament? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014 (C) Salary and allowances of the
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011] UPPCS (Mains) 2010 Prime Minister of India
(A) A Money Bill is introduced in (D) Salary and allowances of the
the Rajya Sabha (A) Speaker Chairman of the Union Public
(B) A Money Bill can be introduced (B) Vice-President Service Commission
in either of the two Houses of (C) President 39. Which one of the following is not a
the Parliament (D) Prime Minister mandatory expenditure charged on
(C) A Money Bill cannot be 33. Who among the following is the Consolidated Fund of India?
introduced in the Lok Sabha authorised to preside over the joint [Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2019
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(D) A Money Bill is introduced in session of the Parliament? UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
the Lok Sabha [UPPCS (Mains) 2013, 2006 (A) Debt Charges for which
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013
27. A Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013
Government of India is liable
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is deemed to have been passed by Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007] (B) Salary and Pension of the
Rajya Sabha also when no action is (A) President of India members of the Election
taken by the Rajya Sabha within Commission of India
(B) Vice-President of India
(A) 10 days
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016
Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019]
(B) 14 days
cir
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
34. The 1st Joint meeting of both
(C) Pension payable to Judges of
High Courts
(D) Allowances of Deputy Chair-
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(C) 15 days (D) 16 days man of Council of States
Houses of the Indian Parliament
28. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance was held in connection with 40. Which one of the following
Bill sent for its consideration by Lok [UP Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2004] expenditures is not charged on the
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Sabha for a maximum period of Consolidates Fund of India?

[UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Dowry Abolition Bill
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) One month (B) Hindu Code Bill
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(C) Bank Nationalisation Bill (A) Salary and allowances of the

(B) One year President of India
(C) Seven days (D) Gold Control Bill
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(B) Salary and allowances of the

(D) Fourteen days 35. The joint sitting of both Houses
Vice-President of India
of Indian Parliament is held in
29. In how many days Rajya Sabha has connection with [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018 (C) Salary and allowances of the
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to return Money Bill to Lok Sabha? UPPCS (Pre) 1997] Justices of the Supreme Court
[UP Lower (Pre) 2009 of India
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013 (A) Constitution Amendment Bill
(B) Money Bill (D) Salary and allowances of the
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UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]

Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(A) Within 12 days (C) Ordinary Bill
41. The authorization for the withdr-
(B) Within 14 days (D) Election of the Vice-President
awal of funds from the Consolidated
(C) Within 16 days of India
Fund of India must come from
(D) Within 18 days 36. A legislative bill may be introduced [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
30. Which one of the following in which House of Parliament? IAS (Pre) 2011]
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
statements is correct? (A) The President of India
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010 (A) Lok Sabha
(B) The Parliament of India
UPPCS (Pre) 2012] (B) Rajya Sabha
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(A) Money Bill is introduced in (C) Either House of Parliament
(D) The Union Finance Minister
Rajya Sabha (D) None of the above
42. How can the President spend from
(B) Money Bill is introduced in Lok 37. Who has the right to issue money Contingency Fund?
Sabha from the Consolidated Fund of [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2019
(C) It can be introduced in either of India? [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2018 UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
the Houses of the Parliament UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) In time of natural calamity
(D) It cannot be introduced in Lok (A) Comptroller and Auditor
Sabha (B) After Authorization of
General
Parliament
31. When a bill is referred to a joint (B) Finance Minister of India
sitting of both the Houses of the (C) Before Authorization of
(C) Authorized Minister Parliament
Parliament, it has to be passed by (D) Parliament
[IAS (Pre) 2015] (D) Cannot spend

43. All revenues received by the Union return the Money Bill with (D) The Prime Minister submits
Government by way of taxes and some recommendations to the the resignation of Council of
other receipts for the conduct of Lok Sabha Ministers
Government business are credited 49. Which one of the following subject 54. If budget is disclosed before
to the [IAS (Pre) 2011] is not included in the provisions of introducing in the Legislative
(A) Contingency Fund of India the Money Bills? Assembly, what will happen?
(B) Public Account [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010] [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
(C) Consolidated Fund of India (A) Provision regarding taxes (A) Council of Ministers will have
(D) Deposits and Advances Fund (B) Provision regarding borrowings to resign
44. Money Bill has been defined by the (C) Provision regarding custody of (B) Chief Minister will have to
Constitution under Article. the Consolidated and Contin- resign
[UPPCS (Pre) 2000] gency Funds (C) Finance Minister will have to
(A) 109 (D) Provision for imposition of resign
(B) 110 fines or penalties (D) All of the above
(C) 111 50. A Bill which merely involves 55. Under which of the following
(D) Both (B) and (C) expenditure and does not include taxes the total amount payable
45. Who among the following decides any of the matters specified in by an individual is limited by the
whether a particular Bill is a Money Article 110 can be Constitution?
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[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] [UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 2002]
Bill? [UPPCS (Mains) 2014
Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019] (A) Initiated only in Lok Sabha (A) Corporation tax
(A) President (B) Initiated in either House of (B) Estate Duty
cle
(B) Prime Minister Parliament (C) Succession Duty
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (C) Initiated only in Rajya Sabha (D) Tax on profession, trade and
(D) The Cabinet (D) Initiated only in joint session of callings
statements about a Money Bill is
not correct? [IAS (Pre) 2000]
cir
both House of Parliament
statements is not correct with
56. Economic Survey is presented in
Parliament every year
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(A) A Money Bill can be tabled in regard to control of Parliament on a (A) Before presentation of the
either House of Parliament budget? [IAS (Pre) 2009] Budget for the coming year
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is (A) Parliament does not have (B) After presentation of the
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the final authority to decide any role in the creation of the Budget for the coming year
whether a Bill is a Money Bill or budget (C) After presentation of Finance
(B) Parliament has the power to
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not Bill
(C) The Rajya Sabha must return move on the affected expendi- (D) And has no relation with
ture on the Consolidated Fund presentation of the Budget
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a Money Bill passed by the

Lok Sabha and sent it for (C) Parliament has no power to 57. ‘Votes on Account’ permits Union
consideration within 14 days impose a tax without the recom- Government to [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
mendation of the President
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(D) The President cannot return a (A) Go for public loan

Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for (D) Parliament has no power (B) Borrow money from the
reconsideration to increase any tax without Reserve Bank of India
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47. A Money Bill under the Constitution the recommendation of the

(C) Give grant-in-aid to States
of India is tabled in the President
(D) Withdraw money from the
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015] 52. Which of the following is Consolidated Fund of India for
(A)
Rajya Sabha responsible for preparation and specific period
presentation of union budget in the
(B)
Public Accounts Committee 58. Vote on Account is meant for
Parliament? [IAS (Pre) 2010]
(C)
Lok Sabha [Tripura PSC (Pre) 2018
(A) Department of Revenue 60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016]
(D)
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Department of Economic
simultaneously (A) Vote on the report of CAG
Affairs
48. Of the following statements, which (B) To meet unforeseen expendi-
(C) Department of Financial
one is not correct? ture
Services
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011] (C) Appropriating funds pending
(D) Department of Expenditure
(A) The Rajya Sabha is powerless in passing of budget
money matters 53. If the annual Union Budget is not (D) Budget
passed by the Lok Sabha ..... .
(B) Money Bill is introduced in the 59. Votes on Account in the Parliament
[IAS (Pre) 2011]
Rajya Sabha is necessary
(A) The Budget is modified and
(C) The Rajya Sabha has to pass the [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
presented again
Money Bill within 14 days after UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2008]
it has been passed by the Lok (B) The Budget is referred to the
(A) When Government expenditure
Sabha Rajya Sabha for suggestions
is more than Government
(D) The Rajya Sabha may pass or (C) The Union Finance Minister is revenue
asked to resign

(B) For financing big projects in (B) President can make ordinance (C) To allow a reduction of specific
which huge amount of money is only when either of the two amount in demand for grant
required Houses of Parliament is not in (D) To postpone the proceedings
(C) When regular budget is not session to check the inappropriate or
expected to be passed in time (C) The minimum age prescribed violent behaviour on the part of
(D) None of the above for appointment as a Judge of some members
60. Estimates of expenditure are the Supreme Court in 40 years 73. The Secretariat of Parliament of
submitted to the Parliament of (D) National development Council India is [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
India in the form of is constituted of Union (A) Under Minister of Parliamenta-
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013] Finance Minister and the Chief ry Affairs
Ministers of all the States
(A) Adhoc Funds (B) Under President
67. Which one of the following is
(B) Excess Grants (C) Independent of the
the largest Committee of the
(C) Supplementary Grants Government
Parliament? [IAS (Pre) 2014]
(D) Demands for Grants (D) Under the Supreme Court
(A) The Committee on Public
61. Which one of the following Accounts 74. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is
statements is correct regarding (B) The Committee on Estimates restricted by [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
submission of Money Bill? (C) The Committee on Public (A) Powers of the President of India
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006] Undertakings (B) Judicial review
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(A) The Finance Bill is presented in (D) The Committee on Petitions (C) Leader of the opposition
Rajya Sabha 68. Tenure of the members of the (D) Powers of the Prime Minister of
(B) It can be presented in either Estimates Committee is of India
cle
House of Parliament [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] 75. The Golden Jubilee of Indian
(C) It cannot be presented in Lok (A) Two years (B) One year Parliament was celebrated on
Sabha (C) Three years (D) Four years [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(D) It is presented in Lok Sabha
62. The Finance Bill of Indian
Government is presented in
cir
69. Which of the following is not a
tool of Parliamentary control over
Public expenditures?
(A) 01-01-1997 (B) 15-08-1997
(C) 26-01-2002 (D) 13-05-2002
76. Who was the Nationalist leader to
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[MPPCS (Pre) 2010] [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005] be elected as Speaker of Central
(A) Upper House (A) Public Accounts Committee Legislative Assembly in 1925?
(B) Legislative Assembly (B) Comptroller and Auditor [UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
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(C) Legislative Council General of India (A) Motilal Nehru

(D) Lower House (C) Estimates Committee (B) Vitthalbhai Patel
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63. Which of the following proposals is (D) Committee on Public Under- (C) Vallabhbhai Patel
related to the Union Budget? takings (D) C.R. Das
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[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002] 70. The members of Standing

77. In which of the following Commit-
(A) Censure motion Committee of Parliament are taken
tees there is no representation of
(B) Calling attention from the Lok Sabha and Rajya
Rajya Sabha? [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
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Sabha in which ratio?

(C) Cut motion (A) Public Accounts Committee
(D) Adjournment motion (B) Committee on Public
(A) Two and one respectively
Undertakings
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64. According to the Law enacted by (B) Three and one respectively
Parliament in December 1989, the (C) Four and one respectively (C) Estimates Committee
legal age for a citizen to become (D) Committee on Government
(D) In equal numbers from both the
major is [UPPCS (Pre) 2000] Assurances
Houses
(A) 23 years (B) 22 years 78. Public Accounts Committee present
71. The Provision for the Calling
(C) 20 years (D) 18 years Attention Notices has restricted the its report to
65. The Consultative Committee of scope of which of the following? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
Members of Parliament for Railway [UPPCS (Pre) 2010] (A) Parliament
Zones is constituted by which of the (A) Short duration discussion (B) The President
following? [MPPCS (Pre) 2012 (B) Question Hour (C) Prime Minister
IAS (Pre) 2005] (D) Finance Minister
(C) Adjournment Motion
(A) President of India (D) Zero Hour 79. The Public Accounts Committee
(B) Ministry of Railways 72. In the Parliament of India, the submits its reports to
(C) Ministry of Parliamentary Af- purpose of an adjournment motion [53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011
fairs is [IAS (Pre) 2012] Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011]
(D) Ministry of Transport (A) To allow a discussion on a (A) The Comptroller and Auditor
66. With reference to Indian Polity, definite matter of urgent public General
which one of the following state- importance (B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
ments is correct? [IAS (Pre) 2002] (B) To let opposition members (C) The Minister of Parliamentary
(A) Planning Commission is collect information from the Affairs
accountable to Parliament ministers (D) The President of India

80. The report of Public Accounts Parliament? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015] get themselves elected to either
Committee is presented in the (A) Committee on Public Accounts House of Parliament within six
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015] (B) Estimates Committee months after assuming office
(A) Lok Sabha (C) Committee on Public (B) Not more than 20 nominated
(B) President’s Office Undertakings members
(C) Finance Ministry (D) All of the above (C) Not more than 26
(D) Prime Minister’s Office 87. On which of the following, a representatives of Union
81. The main function of the Accounts Parliamentary Committee has not Territories
Committee of Parliament is been set up? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] (D) The Attorney General who has
[MPPCS (Pre) 1993] (A) Public Undertakings the right to speak and take part
(A) To examine the financial in the proceedings of either
(B) Government Assurances
account of the government House of Parliament
(C) Estimates
and report of Comptroller and 92. Which of the following is/are stated
(D) Welfare of Minorities in the Constitution of India?
Auditor General 88. The Joint Parliamentary Committee
(B) To appoint on higher posts of 1. The President shall not be a
set up for probing the 2G spectrum member of either House of
public sector units issue, consists of
(C) To examine the policy Parliament.
according to financial provision 2. The Parliament shall consist of
(A) 15 members from each of the
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(D) None of the above the President and two Houses.
two Houses
82. Public Accounts Committee has the Choose the correct answer from the
(B) 20 members from Lok Sabha codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 1997]
following members. and 10 from Rajya Sabha
cle
Give the correct answer from the (A) Neither 1 nor 2
(C) 18 members from Lok Sabha
code given below. and 12 members from Rajya (B) Both 1 and 2
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014] Sabha (C) Only 1
Lok
Sabha
(A) 11
Rajya
Sabha
05
Total
16
cir
(D) 16 members from Lok Sabha
and 14 members from Rajya
Sabha
(D) Only 2
93. The Parliament of India consist of
1. President
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(B) 15 07 22 89. The Joint Parliamentary Committee 2. Rajya Sabha
(C) 10 05 15 examining the 2G Scam is headed 3. Lok Sabha
(D) 17 10 27 by [UPPCS (Mains) 2010 4. Vice-President
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83. Who nominates the Chairman of RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012] Select the correct answer using the
the Public Accounts Committee of (A) Murli Manohar Joshi code given below.
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Indian Parliament? (B) P.C. Chacko [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013
[UPPCS (Pre) 2014 (C) A.B. Vardhan UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
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UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013 (D) Sitaram Yechuri (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004] 90. In what way does the Indian (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha Parliament exercise control over 94. The Officers of the Parliament
w.
the administration? [IAS (Pre) 2001] include

(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The President (A) Through Parliamentary 1. Speaker, Lok Sabha
Committees 2. Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha
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(D) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(B) Through Advisory Committees 3. Secretary-General, Lok Sabha
84. Members of the Rajya Sabha are of various ministries
not associated with 4. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(C) By making the administrators Select the correct answer from the
1. Public Account Committee send periodic reports
2. Estimates Committee codes given below.
(D) By compelling the executive to [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010]
3. Committee on Public issue writs
Undertakings (A) 1 and 2
91. Consider the table given below. (B) 1, 2 and 3
Choose your answer from given
Parliament (C) 1, 3 and 4
code. [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
Council of States House of the People (D) All the four
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 3 Not more than Not more than 552
(C) Only 2 (D) 1 and 3 250 members members and 95. Federal Parliament may legislate
12 nominated not more than 524 on any subject of State List.
85. Estimates Committee is constituted not more than 238 representatives of
from the members of 1. To Implement International
representatives of States plus not more Agreements.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] States and Union than 2 nominated
(A) Both the Houses Territories Anglo-Indians and X. 2. By consent of State.
(B) The Rajya Sabha 3. When Proclamation of Emer-
Which one of the following will fit gency is in operation.
(C) The Lok Sabha in the place marked ‘X’? 4. In national interest and after
(D) None of the above [IAS (Pre) 1995] a resolution passed by state
86. Which one of the following (A) Ministers who are not members legislative assembly with 2/3
is a Standing Committee of of Parliament but who have to majority.

Choose the correct option using 1. Ordinary Legislation 103. With reference to the Union Gov-
codes given below. 2. Money Bill ernment, consider the following
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] 3. Constitution Amendment Bill statements.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 Select the correct answer using the 1. The Department of Revenue is
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All of these codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012] responsible for the preparation
96. The Indian Parliament cannot (A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3 of Union Budget that is
legislate on a subject of state-list (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 presented to the Parliament.
unless 2. No amount can be withdra-wan
100. With reference to the Parliament
1. The President of India directs it from the Consolidated Fund of
of India, consider the following
to do so. India without the authorization
statements.
2. The Rajya Sabha passes a from the Parliament of India.
1. A private member’s bill is a
resolution that it is necessary to 3. All the disbursements made
bill presented by a Member of
do so in national interest. from Public Account also need
Parliament who is not elected
3. The Speaker of the Vidhan the authorization from the
but only nominated by the
Sabha certifies that the Parliament of India.
President of India.
legislation is necessary. Which of the statement(s) given
2. Recently, a private member’s
4. There is a national emergency. above is/are correct?
bill has been passed in the
[IAS (Pre) 2015]
Considering the above statements, Parliament of India for the first
.in
select the correct answer from the time in its history. (A) Only 1 and 2
codes given below. Which of the statements given (B) Only 2 and 3
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] above is/are correct? (C) Only 2
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(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 [IAS (Pre) 2017] (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 (A) Only 1 104. Which of the following are the
97. Joint Session of both the Houses of (B) Only 2 methods of Parliamentary control
Parliament is concerned.
1. For the election of the President
of India
cir
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
101. Which of the following statements
over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Finance State-
ment before the Parliament.
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2. For the election of the Vice- 2. Withdrawal of money from
is/are correct?
President of India Consolidated Fund of India
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha only after passing the Appropri-
3. To pass the Bill relating to the lapses on its prorogation.
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amendment of Constitution ation Bill.

2. A Bill pending in the Rajya 3. Provisions of supplementary
4. To discuss and pass such a Sabha, which has not been grants and vote-on-account.
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Bill where both Houses have passed by the Lok Sabha, shall
different opinion not lapse on the dissolution of 4. A periodic or atleast a mid year
review of the programme of the
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Select your answer from the the Lok Sabha.

following code. Government against macroeco-
Select the correct answer using the nomic forecasts and expendi-
[40th BPSC (Pre) 1995] code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016] ture by a Parliamentary Budget
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(A) 1 and 4 (B) 3 and 4 (A) Only 1 Office.

(C) 1 and 2 (D) Only 4 (B) Only 2 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the
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(C) Both 1 and 2 Parliament.

1. The joint sitting of both Houses (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the
of the Parliament in India is
102. Consider the following statements. codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
sanctioned under Article 108 of
the Constitution. 1. The Chairman and the Deputy (A) 1, 2, 3 and 5
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (B) 1, 2 and 4
Sabha and Rajya Sabha was are not the members of that (C) 3, 4, and 5
held in the year 1961. House. (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. The second joint sitting of both 2. While the nominated members 105. What is the difference between
Houses of Indian Parliament of the Both Houses of the ‘Vote-on-Account’ and ‘interim
was held to pass the Banking Parliament have no voting right budget’?
Service Commission (Repeal), in the Presidential election,
they have Right to Vote in the 1. The provision of a ‘Vote-on-
Bill. Account’ is used by a stable
Which of these statements is/are election of the Vice-President.
Government, while ‘interim
correct? [IAS (Pre) 2003] Which of the statements given budget’ is a provision used by a
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 above is/are correct? caretaker Government.
[IAS (Pre) 2013]
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 2. A ‘Vote-on-Account’ only
(A) Only 1 deals with the expenditure in
99. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha
and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint (B) Only 2 Government’s budget while an
sitting of the Parliament during the (C) Both 1 and 2 ‘interim budget’ includes both
passage of (D) Neither 1 nor 2 expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statement(s) given 4. Supplementary questions can- members of Committee on
above is/are correct? not be asked. Estimates are drawn entirely
[IAS (Pre) 2011] 5. Answers can be discussed. from Lok Sabha.
(A) Only 1 6. Speaker controls answer. 2. The Ministry of Parliamentary
(B) Only 2 Code Affairs works under the overall
(C) Both 1 and 2 (A) 2 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 direction of Cabinet Committee
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 on Parliamentary Affairs.
(C) 5 and 6 (D) 3 and 5
106. The stages in the normal financial 3. The Minister of Parliamentary
110. The Parliament of India exercises
legislation include Affairs nominates members of
control over the functions of the
Parliament on Committees,
1. Presentation of the Budget Council of Ministers through
Councils, Boards and Commiss-
2. Discussion on the Budget 1. Adjournment motion ions etc., set up by the Govern-
3. Passing of Appropriation Bill 2. Question Hour ment of India in various
4. Vote on Account 3. Supplementary questions ministries.
5. Passing of the Finance Bill Select the correct answer using the Which of these statements are
Select the correct answer from the code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017] correct? [IAS (Pre) 2003]
code given below. (A) Only 1 (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010, 2005] (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
.in
(C) Only 1 and 3 114. Consider the following statements.
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (D) 1, 2 and 3 The Parliamentary Committee on
107. Prior sanction of the President of 111. With reference to Union Public Accounts
India is required before introducing
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Government, consider the 1. consists of not more than 25
a Bill in the Parliament on following statements. Members of the Lok Sabha.
1. Formation of a new State 1. The Ministries/Departments 2. scrutinizes appropriation
2. Affecting taxation in which of the Government of India are
States are interested
3. Altering the boundaries of the
States
cir
created by the Prime Minister
on the advice of the Cabinet
Secretary.
and finance accounts of the
Government.
3. examines the report of the
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Comptroller and Auditor
4. Money Bill 2. Each of the Ministries is General of India.
Considering the above statements, assigned to a Minister by the Which of the statements given
President of India on the advice
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select the correct answer from the above is/are correct?

code given below. of the Prime Minister. [IAS (Pre) 2013]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] Which of the statement(s) given (A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
rs
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 above is/are correct?

(C) Only 3 (D) All of these
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All of these [IAS (Pre) 2009]
115. Which of the following is the
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108. Examine the following statements (A) Only 1

Financial Committees of Parliament
and choose the correct answer from (B) Only 2 in India?
the given options. (C) Both 1 and 2
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1. Public Account Committee

[UPPCS (Mains) 2007] (D) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Estimates Committee
1. Right to Property is not a Fun- 112. Consider the following statements. 3. Committee on Public
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damental Right now. 1. The Chairman of the Undertakings

2. Rajya Sabha can stop a Committee on Public Accounts Select the correct answer from the
Financial Bill. is appointed by the Speaker of codes given below.
3. In the Preamble of Indian the Lok Sabha. [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
Constitution Secular and 2. The Committee on Public (A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2
Democratic words were added Accounts comprises Members
by 42nd amendment of the (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
of Lok Sabha, Member of Rajya
Indian Constitution. Sabha and a few eminent 116. The Officers of the Parliament
4. Any dispute of the Parliament persons of industry and trade. include
can be resolved by the system of Which of the statement(s) given 1. Speaker, Lok Sabha
Speaker of the Lok Sabha. above is/are correct? 2. Dy. Speaker, Lok Sabha
Code [IAS (Pre) 2007] 3. Secretary General of Lok Sabha
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (A) Only 1 4. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 3 (B) Only 2 Select the correct answer from the
109. What is correct about the starred (C) Both 1 and 2 codes given below.
question? (D) Neither 1 nor 2 [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014] 113. Consider the following statements. Code
1. Answer is given oral. 1. While members of the Rajya (A) Only 1 and 2
2. Answer is given in written. Sabha are associated with (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
3. Supplementary questions can Committees on Public Accounts (C) Only 1, 3 and 4
be asked. and Public Undertakings, (D) All the four

117. Assertion (A): Under Article 368, 122. All offences punishable under the (A) 1st July, 1989
the Parliament can amend any part Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (B) 30th January, 1990
of the Constitution. are [MPPCS (Pre) 2012] (C) 30th July, 1989
Reason (R): The Parliament is the (A) Cognizable and Non-bailable (D) 1st January, 1990
Supreme Legislative body elected (B) Cognizable and Summarily 130. Under which Act the Scheduled
by the People of India. Triable Caste and Scheduled Tribe Atrocity
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015] (C) Non-cognizable and Bailable Removal law was implemented?
Code (D) Non-cognizable and Compoun- [MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and dable (A) Act 1990
(R) is the correct explanation of 123. The Protection of Civil Rights Act (B) Act 1989
(A) extends to [MPPCS (Pre) 2012] (C) Act 1992
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (A) The whole of India (D) Act 1991
but (R) is not the correct (B) The whole of India except the 131. Who has/had the power to make
explanation of (A) Scheduled areas rules for carrying out the purposes
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (C) The whole of India except the of the Scheduled Castes and the
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true State of Jammu and Kashmir Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
118. Match List-I with List-II and select (D) The whole of India except Atrocities) Act, 1989?
the correct answer using the code the Union Territories of Goa, [MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
.in
given below the lists. Daman and Diu (A) The State Government
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] 124. Who is held responsible for the (B) The Central Government
List-I offences committed by Companies, (C) Both (A) and (B)
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(a) Public Accounts Committee under the Protection of Civil Rights (D) The Supreme Court
(b) Committee on Petitions Act, 1955? [MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
132. Offence committed by any public
(c) Joint Committee on Stock (A) Director servant under Section 3 of the SC
Market Scam
(d) Departmental Committees
List-II
cir
(B) Manager
(C) Secretary
and ST (Prevention of Atrocities)
Act, 1989, provides for minimum
punishment of [Goa PSC (Pre) 2017
dy
1. Adhoc Committee 125. Which one of the following pairs is MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
2. Standing Committee not correctly matched? (A) Three months
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] (B) Six months
tu
3. Financial Committee
4. Functional Committee (A) Hindu Marriage Act - 1955 (C) One year
Code (B) Hindu Succession Act - 1956 (D) None of the above
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(a) (b) (c) (d) (C) 73rd Constitutional Amend- 133. The State Government can specify
ment - Reservation of seats for a Court of Session to be a Special
(A) 1 4 3 2
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women in the election of local Court to try the offences under the
(B) 2 3 4 1 bodies in urban areas Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
(C) 3 4 1 2 (D) Sati (Prevention) Act - 1987 Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities)
(D) 4 2 1 3
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126. The Protection of Women from Act, 1989 with the concurrence of
119. Offences are tried under the Domestic Violence Act came into the [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2017
Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 force on [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015] MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
ww
by the Courts of [MPPCS (Pre) 2014] (A) Governor

(A) 20th September, 2005
(A) Sessions Court (B) 30th September, 2006 (B) Chief Justice of High Court
(B) Judicial Magistrate First Class (C) 10th October, 2006 (C) Session Judge of concerned
(C) Judicial Magistrate Second (D) 26th October, 2006 district
Class (D) Ministry of Law
127. Which of the following is not a
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate 134. The Scheduled Castes and
Social Act? [UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
120. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
(A) MISA Act
Act, 1955. All offences are Atrocities) Act is a special provision
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(B) Anti-Dowry Act
for the advancement of Scheduled
(C) Protection of Civil Rights Act
(A) Cognizable Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(D) Prevention of Immoral Traffic which is based on which one of the
(B) Bailable
Act following doctrines?
(C) Punishment with imprisonment
and fine both 128. When was the Criminal Tribes Act [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2018
enacted for the first time? MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(D) Both (A) and (C)
121. In which year was Prevention (A) Doctrine of Severability
(A) 1952 (B) 1924 (B) Doctrine of Preferred Position
of Food Adulteration Act first
enacted? [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2018
(C) 1871 (D) 1911 (C) Doctrine of Protective discrimi-
UPPCS (Mains) 2006] 129. The Scheduled Castes and nation
(A) 1951 (B) 1954 Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of (D) Doctrine of Harmonious Con-
Atrocities) Act, 1989 came into struction
(C) 1964 (D) 1956
force on [MPPCS (Pre) 2012]

135. Who is empowered for imposition (A) Forfeiture of property of a (C) To create autonomous regions
and realization of a collective fine convict of an offence (D) To free tribal peoples from
under SC and ST (Prevention of (B) To authorize a person for extra exploitation
Atrocities) Act, 1989? investigation other than police 147. The Right to Information Act of
[MPPCS (Pre) 2014] (C) To remove a person from Parliament received the assent of
(A) District Magistrate the area who is suspected of the President of India on
(B) State Government committing a crime [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(C) Special Court (D) Take measurement and photo- (A) 15th May, 2005
(D) High Court graph of a person who is sus- (B) 5th June, 2005
pected of committing a crime (C) 15th June, 2005
136. In a prosecution for an offence
under the Scheduled Castes and 142. Which of the following powers (D) 12th October, 2005
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of a Special Court cannot exercise 148. Which one of the following
Atrocities) Act, 1989, the court can under the Scheduled Castes and statements is true about right to
presume which of the following? Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of information? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013] Atrocities) Act, 1989? UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Abetment (A) It is a political right
(B) Common Intention (A) To remove a person
(B) It is a constitutional right
(C) Common Object (B) To forfeit the property
(C) It is a legal right
.in
(D) All of the above (C) To take measurement of a
(D) It is a social right
person
137. Which of the following Sections 149. Right to Information Act was
(D) To impose collective fine
of the Scheduled Castes and passed in the year.
cle
the Scheduled Tribes Act, 1989 143. In a prosecution for an offence [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
provides for application of certain under the Scheduled Castes and
(A) 2001 (B) 2004
provisions of the Indian Penal Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
(C) 2005 (D) 2002
Code?
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 10
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
cir
Atrocities) Act, 1989, the accused
in his defence cannot take the plea
that [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
about the ‘Right to Information
(RTI) Act, 2005’ and select one
dy
(A) The Act was done in exercise of
(C) Section 6 which has not been provided for or
the right of private defence
(D) Section 8 is specially exempted.
(B) He also belongs to the caste as
138. Under the Scheduled Castes and [UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
tu
that of the victim

Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of (C) The Act causes such a slight (A) It is not applicable in the State
Atrocities) Act, 1989, which of the harm which could not be a of Jammu and Kashmir
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following is barred? subject of the complaint (B) An applicant making request

[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(D) Both (A) and (C) for information will have to
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(A) Anticipatory Bail given reasons for seeking

144. A Court of Session specified as information
(B) Post-arrest Bail Special Court to try the offences
(C) Benefit of probation (C) Removal of Chief Information
under the Scheduled Castes and
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(D) All of the above Commissioner

Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act for the purpose of (D) Every Information Commissi-
139. Under which of the following
providing oner shall hold office for a term
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Sections of the Scheduled Castes [MPPCS (Pre) 2012]

of 5 years or until the age of 65
and Scheduled Tribes Act, 1989 is (A) Speedy trial
years, whichever is earlier
anticipatory bail prohibited? (B) Time bound trial
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016] 151. Which of the following is related to
(C) Special protection to victims Right to Information Act, 2005?
(A) Section 16 (B) Section 17 (D) All of the above [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019
(C) Section 18 (D) Section 19 145. Under which one of the following UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
140. An offence committed under the Sections of the Scheduled Castes (A) Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled and the Scheduled Tribes Rules, (B) Nandini Sundar Vs. State of
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) 1995, Constitution of ‘District Chhattisgarh
Act, 1989 shall be investigated by a Level Vigilance and Monitoring
police officer, not below the rank of (C) Namit Sharma Vs. Union of
Committee’ has been provided?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
India
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Sub Inspector (A) Section 18 (B) Section 19
152. The objective of Right to
(B) Inspector (C) Section 17 (D) Section 16
Information Act is to
(C) Deputy Superintendent 146. The Government enacted the [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2007]
(D) Superintendent Panchayat Extension to Scheduled
(A) Secure access to information
141. Which of the following power is Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which
from Public authorities
not provided to specified Special one of the following is not identified
as its objective? [IAS (Pre) 2013] (B) Provide information to the
Court under Scheduled Castes and public by a person who has the
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of (A) To provide self-governance
information
Atrocities) Act? [MPPCS (Pre) 2012] (B) To recognize traditional rights

(C) Provide information by Govern- (A) 1998 (B) 1999 (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
ment on a public place (C) 2001 (D) 2005 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 2 and 3
(D) Secure information by police 157. With reference to consumers rights/ 159. Consider the following statements.
from culprits privileges under the provisions of Assertion (A): The Right to
153. Which High Court has said in its law in India, which of the following Information Act has in general been
important decision that “the R.T.I. statement(s) is/are correct? responsible for increasing the sense
applicant should tell the reason for 1. Consumers are empowered to of responsibility in bureaucracy.
asking information under Right to take samples for food testing. Reason (R): It still has miles to go
Information”? [UPPSC (RI) 2014] 2. When a consumer files a to create the desired impact.
(A) Calcutta High Court complaint in any Consumer
(B) Bombay High Court Forum, no fee is required to be
code given below.
(C) Allahabad High Court paid.
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019
(D) Madras High Court 3. In the case of death of a UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
154. Under the Scheduled Tribes and consumer, his/her legal heir
Code
Other Traditional Forest Dwellers can file a complaint in the
Consumer Forum on his/her (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
behalf. (R) is the correct explanation of
2006, who shall be the authority to
(A)
initiate the process for determining Select the correct answer using the
.in
the nature and extent of individual code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012] (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
or community forest rights or both? but (R) is not the correct
(A) Only 1
[IAS (Pre) 2013] explanation of (A)
(B) Only 2 and 3
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(A) State Forest Department (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) Only 1 and 3
(B) District Collector/Deputy (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Commissioner 160. The National Green Tribunal Act,
(C) Tahsildar/Block Development 158. With reference to the ‘Prohibition
Officer/Mandal
Officer
Revenue cir
of Benami Property Transactions
Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the
following statements.
2010 was enacted in consonance
with which of the following
provisions of the Constitution of
dy
(D) Gram Sabha India?
155. Which one of the following 1. A property transaction is not 1. The right to a healthy
statements with respect to the Land treated as a benami transaction environment, construed as
if the owner of the property is
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Acquisition Act, 1894 is not true? a part of Right to life under

[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
not aware of the transaction. Article 21.
(A) It was made by the British 2. Properties held benami are 2. Provision of grants for raising
rs
rulers liable for confiscation by the the level of administration in

Government. the scheduled Tribes under
(B) Its purpose was to help the
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process of land reforms in India 3. The Act provides for three Article 275 (1).
(C) It has been replaced by another authorities for investigations 3. Power and functions of Gram
Act of India’s Parliament but does not provide for any Sabha as mentioned under
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appellate mechanism. Article 243(A).

(D) Its implementation had become
disputed Which of the statements given Select the correct answer using the
above is/are correct? code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
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156. The Prevention of Money Launder-

[Goa PSC (Pre) 2017 (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
ing Act came into inforce in India
IAS (Pre) 2017] (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
during [Uttarakhand PCS(Pre) 2016]
Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (B)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (D) 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (D)
61. (D) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (D) 65. (C) 66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (A)
71. (C) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (B) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (B) 80. (A)
81. (A) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (C) 86. (D) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (A)
91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (A) 94. (D) 95. (D) 96. (D) 97. (D) 98. (D) 99. (A) 100. (D)
101. (B) 102. (B) 103. (C) 104. (A) 105. (B) 106. (D) 107. (D) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (D)

111. (B) 112. (A) 113. (D) 114. (B) 115. (D) 116. (D) 117. (A) 118. (C) 119. (B) 120. (D)
121. (B) 122. (B) 123. (A) 124. (D) 125. (C) 126. (D) 127. (A) 128. (C) 129. (B) 130. (B)
131. (B) 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (C) 135. (B) 136. (D) 137. (C) 138. (A) 139. (C) 140. (C)
141. (B) 142. (D) 143. (D) 144. (A) 145. (C) 146. (C) 147. (C) 148. (C) 149. (C) 150. (B)
151. (C) 152. (A) 153. (D) 154. (D) 155. (B) 156. (D) 157. (C) 158. (B) 159. (B) 160. (A)
Answer Sheet
20. The Supreme Court

1. The Supreme Court consists of a (C) Supreme Court can hear from 13. Salaries of the Judges of the
Chief Justice and any High Court/Tribunals Supreme Court are determined by
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007] except Court-martial [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) Seven Judges (D) Supreme Court can hear from (A) Pay Commission appointed by
(B) Nine Judges any High Court/Tribunals as the President
.in
(C) Thirty three Judges well as from Court-martial (B) Law Commission
(D) Twenty five Judges 8. The power to increase the number (C) Parliament
2. The current sanctioned strength of of Judges in the Supreme Court of (D) Council of Ministers
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Judges of Supreme Court of India is India is vested in [IAS (Pre) 2014 14. The Judges of the Supreme Court,
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015] 44th BPSC (Pre) 2000] after retirement, are permitted to
(A) 20 (B) 25 (A) The President of India carry on practice before
(C) 30 (D) 34
3. When was the Supreme Court
inaugurated in India?
cir
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Chief Justice of India
(D) The Law Commission
[UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) Supreme Court only
(B) High Courts only
dy
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013] 9. A Judge of the Supreme Court may (C) Both Supreme Court and High
(A) 27 January, 1950 resign his office by writing a letter Court
(B) 28 January, 1950 to [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] (D) None of the Courts
tu
(C) 29 January, 1950 (A) The Chief Justice 15. Acting Chief Justice of the Supreme
(D) 30 January, 1950 (B) The President Court of India is appointed by
rs
4. The sanctioned strength of (C) The Prime Minister [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001
Supreme Court of India is (D) The Law Minister UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
ou
[38th BPSC (Pre) 1992] 10. How can a Judge of the Supreme (A) Chief Justice of the Supreme
(A) 24 (B) 20 Court be removed? Court
(C) 18 (D) 34 [MPPCS (Pre) 1993] (B) Prime Minister
w.
5. The status of women in Indian (A) By the will of the Chief Justice (C) President
Society was glorified by a Judgment (B) By the President (D) Law Minister
of a Court in September, 2003. The (C) By the President on the recom- 16. The Judges of Supreme Court
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Court is [UPPCS (Mains) 2009] mendation of the Chief Justice of India are appointed by the
(A) Supreme Court of India of the Supreme Court President [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA
(B) Local Courts (D) By the President on the recom- (Mains) 2006, 2007]
mendation of the Parliament (A) After recommendation by
(C) Special Courts
11. A Judge of the Supreme Court can Rajya Sabha
(D) High Court, U.P. be removed by the President of (B) On the advice of Lok Sabha
6. Supreme Court in India was India after (C) On the advice of Prime Minister
established [42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997] [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003] (D) In consultation with the Chief
(A) By an Act of Parliament in 1950 (A) As enquiry by C.B.I. Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) Under Indian Independence (B) An enquiry by Chief Justice of 17. Adhoc Judges are appointed in the
Act, 1947 India Supreme Court when
(C) Under Indian Government Act, (C) A report by the Bar Council of [IAS (Pre) 2000]
1953 India (A) Some Judges go on long leave
(D) By the Indian Constitution
(D) An impeachment by the (B) No one is available for perma-
7. Of the following statements, which Parliament nent appointment
one is not correct?
12. The age of retirement in the (C) There is an abnormal increase
Supreme Court is in cases pending before the
(A) Supreme Court was constituted [UPPCS (Pre) 1990] Court
in 1950
(A) 62 years (B) 63 years (D) There is no quorum of the
(B) Supreme Court is the highest Judges available to hold
(C) 64 years (D) 65 years
Court of appeal in the country

18. The Indian Constitution provides (A) Indira Sahni Case 31. Consider the following statements
for the appointment of ‘Adhoc (B) Shankari Prasad’s Case and state which one of them is
Judges’ in [UPPSC (GIC) 2010 (C) Rudal Shah’s Case correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010, 13]
UPPCS (Mains) 2004] (A) Supreme Court of India has
(D) Keshavananda Bharti’s Case
(A) Supreme Court 26. The minimum number of Supreme only Original Jurisdiction
(B) High Courts Court Judges who can hear a case (B) It has only Original and
(C) District and Session Courts involving a substantial question of Appellate Jurisdiction
(D) All of the above law as to the Interpretation of the (C) It has only Advisory and
19. In which year was the Collegium Constitution is [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] Appellate Jurisdiction
System for the appointment of (A) Five (B) Seven (D) It has Original, Appellate as
Judges adopted by the Supreme well as Advisory Jurisdiction
(C) Eleven (D) Thirteen
Court of India? 32. Curative Petition in India can be
27. In which of the following
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] filed in Supreme Court under
cases, Supreme Court held that
(A) 1993 (B) 1996 Article [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
‘Fundamental Rights enable a man
(C) 2000 (D) 2004 to chalk out his life in the manner (A) 138 (B) 140
20. The Supreme Court’s Collegium he likes best’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] (C) 142 (D) 146
comprises the Chief Justice of (A) Indira Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain 33. Which Article of the Constitution
India and a few Senior Judges for (B) Golaknath Vs. The State of permits the Supreme Court to
.in
recommending appointee to the Punjab review its judgement or order?
Supreme Court. The number of [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
such Senior Judges, who are part of (C) Bank Nationalization Case
(A) Article 137
(D) Azhar Vs. Municipal Corpora-
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this body, is [UPPSC (GIC) 2010] (B) Article 130
(A) 3 (B) 4 tion
(C) Article 139
(C) 5 (D) 6 28. Identify the incorrect pair of Case
and Ruling in that case by Supreme (D) Article 138
21. The minimum number of Judges
of the Supreme Court required
for hearing any case involving
cir
Court. [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Indira Sawhney Case - Creamy
Layer for Other Backward
correct with regard to the power to
review any judgement pronounced
dy
interpretation of the Constitution is or order made by the Supreme
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012] Classes
Court of India?
(A) Ten (B) Nine (B) Vishakaha Case - Protection of [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
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(C) Seven (D) Five working women against sexual UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
harrassment at their place of
22. The power of the Supreme Court of (A) The President of India has the
work
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India to decide disputes between power of review such judgment

the Centre and the State falls under (C) Maneka Gandhi Case - Articles or order
its 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually
(B) The Supreme Court has the
ou
[IAS (Pre) 1996, 2014]

exclusive
(A) Advisory jurisdiction power to review its judgment or
(D) Bella Banerjee Case - Right order
(B) Appellate jurisdiction
to travel abroad in a part of
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(C) Original jurisdiction (C) The Cabinet has the power to

personal liberty review such judgment or order
(D) Constitutional jurisdiction 29. Which Article of the Constitution
23. The second largest bench with the permission of the
of India deals with the Appellate
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Constituted by the Supreme Court President of India

Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (D) The Supreme Court does not
till date was in the in connection with Constitutional
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] have the power to review its
Cases? [UPPCS (Mains) 2004 judgment or order
(A) Golaknath Case UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
UPPCS (Pre) 2001] 35. In India, Judicial Review implies
(B) Minerva Mills Case
[IAS (Pre) 2017]
(C) Bank Nationalisation Case (A) Article 131
(B) Article 132 (A) The power of the Judiciary to
(D) T.M.A. Pai Foundation Case pronounce upon the constitu-
24. In which of the following cases, the (C) Article 132 read with Article
tionality of laws and executive
Supreme Court of India enunciated 134A
orders
the ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’? (D) Article 133 read with Article
(B) The power of the Judiciary to
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012] 134A
question the wisdom of the laws
(A) Golaknath 30. All the cases regarding interpret- enacted by the Legislatures
(B) A.K. Gopalan ation of the Constitution can be (C) The power of the Judiciary
(C) Keshvanand Bharti brought to the Supreme Court under to review all the legislative
its [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016 enactments before they are
(D) Menka Gandhi
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
25. Which one of the following assented to by the President
(A) Original Jurisdiction (D) The power of the Judiciary to
cases propounded the concept
of ‘Basic Structure of the Indian (B) Appellate Jurisdiction review its own judgments given
Constitution’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014 (C) Advisory Jurisdiction earlier in similar or different
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] (D) None of the above cases

36. Judicial Review means that the 42. Who has the last authority to (D) President in consultation with
Supreme Court explain the Constitution? Chief Justice of India
[39th BPSC (Pre) 1994] [MPPCS (Pre) 1994] 49. The advisory powers of the
(A) Has final authority over all (A) President Supreme Court of India imply that
issues (B) Attorney General of India it may [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(B) Can charge allegations against (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (A) Advise to the President on the
President (D) Supreme Court issues of law or fact which are
(C) Can review the issues decided 43. Who is the custodian of Indian of public importance
by High Courts Constitution? (B) Advise to the government
(D) Can declare illegal any law of [MPPCS (Pre) 2010, 2015] of India on all Constitution
the State (A) President matters
37. Judicial Review implies the right of (B) Parliament (C) Advise to the Prime Minister on
the Court to [UPPCS (Pre) 1994] (C) Council of Ministers legal matters
(A) Declare any law or order (D) Supreme Court (D) Advise to all the above persons
invalid if it is in conflict with the 44. Which of the following is the 50. The Supreme Court of India tenders
Constitution custodian of the Constitution of advice to the President on a matter
(B) Review the order of the Lower India? [IAS (Pre) 2015 of law or fact [IAS (Pre) 2001]
Courts MPPCS (Pre) 2015, 2016] (A) On its initiative
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(C) Hear appeals against the (A) The President of India (B) Only if he seeks such advice
decision of the Lower Courts (B) The Prime Minister of India (C) Only if the matter relates to the
(D) Review the laws to see that they (C) The Lok Sabha Secretariat Fundamental Rights of citizens
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have been passed as per the (D) The Supreme Court of India (D) Only if the issue poses a threat
procedure laid down 45. Who has the right to seek advisory to the unity and integrity of the
38. The system of Judicial Review, is opinion of the Supreme Court on country
prevalent in [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) India only
(B) U.K. only
cir
any question of law?
(A) Prime Minister

[UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
51. Who has the right under the
Constitution to seek the opinion of
the Supreme Court on the question
dy
of law? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(C) U.S.A. only (B) President
(C) Any High Court (A) President
(D) Both in India and U.S.A. (B) Any High Court
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39. Under which Article of the (C) Prime Minister

Constitution the Courts have been 46. Under which Article, the President
of India refer to the Supreme (D) All of the above
prohibited from imquiring the
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proceedings of the Parliament? Court regarding the process of 52. Under which Article of the Indian
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] appointment and transfer of Judges Constitution did the President
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in the Supreme Court and High make a reference to the Supreme

(A) Article 127 (B) Article 122 Court to seek the Court’s opinion
Courts? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998]
(C) Article 126 (D) Article 139 on the Constitutional validity of
(A) Article 127 sub clause (1)
40. A Constitution (Amendment) Act
w.
the Election Commission’s decision

may be declared unconstitutional (B) Article 143 sub clause (1)
on defering the Gujarat Assembly
by the Supreme Court of India if it (C) Article 143 sub clause (11) Elections (in the year 2002)?
(D) Article 144 sub clause (a)
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[IAS (Pre) 2009] [Telangana PSC (Pre) 2019

(A) Establishes three-tier federal 47. The power to enlarge the IAS (Pre) 2003]
set up in place of the existing jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (A) Article 142
two tier-set up of India with respect to any matter (B) Article 143
(B) Removes Right of Equality included in the Union List of
(C) Article 144
before the law from Part III Legislative Powers rests with
[IAS (Pre) 2003]
(D) Article 145
and places it elsewhere in the 53. Under which Article of the
Constitution (A) The President of India
Constitution of India Supreme
(C) Replaces Parliamentary System (B) The Chief Justice of India
Court safeguards the Fundamental
of Executive with the Presiden- (C) The Parliament Rights of the Indian citizens?
tial one (D) The Union Ministry of Law, [UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
(D) Establishes a Federal Court of Justice and Company Affairs
(A) 74 (B) 56
Appeal to lighten the burden of 48. By whom the jurisdiction of the (C) 16 (D) 32
the Supreme Court Supreme Court of India can be
enlarged? 54. To become a Judge of Supreme
41. Judicial review in the Indian
Court, a person must be an advocate
Constitution is based on [Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018
in High Court for atleast how many
years? [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2018
(A) Due Process of Law (A) President of India MPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(B) Procedure established by Law (B) Parliament by passing a
(A) 20 (B) 10
(C) Rule of Law resolution
(C) 8 (D) 25
(D) Precedents and conventions (C) Parliament by making a law

55. Under which law is it prescribed (B) All its decisions have eviden- 68. PIL is [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
that all proceedings in the Supreme tiary value and cannot be ques- (A) Public Interest Litigation
Court of India shall be in English tioned in any court (B) Public Inquiry Litigation
Language? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] (C) It has the power to punish for (C) Public Investment Litigation
(A) The Supreme Court rules, 1966 its contempt
(D) Private Investment Litigation
(B) Article 145 of the Constitution (D) No appeal can be made against
of India its decisions 69. Where can the Public Interest
(C) A Legislation made by Litigation (PIL) be filed?
62. Which of the following Courts in [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
Parliament India is/are known as the Court(s)
(D) Article 348 of the Constitution of Record? [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) Only in Supreme Court of India
of India (B) Only in High Courts of States
(A) The High Courts only
56. “I will bear true faith and allegiance (C) In Central Administrative
(B) The Supreme Court only
to the Constitution of India ..... Tribunals
(C) The High Courts and the
uphold the Sovereignty and (D) Both in High Courts and
Supreme Court
Integrity of India ..... Perform the Supreme Court
(D) The District Courts
duties of my office ..... uphold the 70. The concept of Public Interest
63. Which one of the following is Litigation originated in
Constitution and Law.” it is the
correct about the Supreme Court
form of Oath taken by [IAS (Pre) 1997
regarding its Judgment? UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
.in
[Assam PSC (Pre) 2017
(A) The President of India UPPCS (Mains) 2005] (A) Australia
(B) The Chief Justice of India (A) It can change the Judgment (B) India
(C) The Member of Parliament
cle
(B) It can not change the Judgment (C) The United States
(D) The Governor (C) Only the Chief Justice of India (D) The United Kingdom
57. Which of the following cases comes can change the Judgment 71. ‘Judicial Activism’ in India is related
under the Jurisdiction of High
Court and Supreme Court?
(A) Dispute between the Centre
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(D) Only the Ministry of Law can
change the Judgment
64. The Supreme Court holds its
to [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014]
(A) Committed Judiciary
(B) Public Interest Petition
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meetings in New Delhi, but it can (C) Judicial Review
and States meet elsewhere
(B) Dispute between States (D) Judicial Independence
72. What is the provision to safeguard
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(C) Enforcement of Fundamental

(A) With the approval of President the autonomy of the Supreme
Rights
(B) If the majority of Judges of Court of India?
(D) Protection from violation of the
rs
Supreme Court so decide 1. While appointing the Judges

Constitution
(C) With the approval of Parliament of the Supreme Court, the
58. Who has the right to transfer any
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case anywhere in India? (D) On the request of State President of India has to consult
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
Legislature the Chief Justice of India.
(A) President 65. In which of the following cases 2. The Judges of the Supreme
w.
the Supreme Court observed that Court can be removed by the

(B) Supreme Court
Central Bureau of Investigation is a Chief Justice of India only.
(C) High Court ‘Caged Parrot’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] 3. The salaries of the Judges are
ww
(D) None of the above (A) Rail Board Bribery Case charged on the Consolidated
59. Under which article, Supreme (B) Vineet Narayani Vs. Union of Fund of India to which the
Court recently declared Migrants India Legislature does not have to
(Determination by Tribunal) vote.
(C) 2G Spectrum Scam Case
Act, 1983 as unconstitutional for 4. All appointments of officers
violation of the sacred duty of (D) Coal Gate Scam Case
66. TDSAT judgments can be chal- and staffs of the Supreme
centre? [UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
Court of India are made by
(A) Article 355 (B) Article 356 lenged in the [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Mains) 2003] the Government only after
(C) Article 256 (D) Article 257 consulting the Chief Justice of
(A) TRAI, High Court, Supreme
60. The source of the ‘Basic Structure India.
Court
Theory of the Constitution’ in India Which of the statement(s) given
is [UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(B) TRAI and Supreme Court
(C) High Court and Supreme Court
(A) The Constitution [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(D) Supreme Court only
(B) Judicial Interpretation (A) Only 1 and 3 (B) Only 3 and 4
(C) Opinion of the Jurists 67. Public Interest Litigations was
(C) Only 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
introduced by [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2016
(D) Parliamentary Statute 73. Which of the following are included
UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
61. The Supreme Court of India is a in the original jurisdiction of the
(A) A Parliamentary Act
‘Court of Record’. It implies that Supreme Court?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(B) A Constitutional Amendment
1. A dispute between the
(C) Judicial initiative Government of India and one
(A) It has to keep a record of its
decisions (D) None of the above or more States.

2. A dispute regarding elections to (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 the Jurisdiction of the Supreme
either House of the Parliament (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 Court of India as its Jurisdiction
or that of Legislature of a state. 75. Consider the following statements. is limited to that conferred by
3. A dispute between the The Supreme Court of India tenders the Constitution.
Government of India and a advice to the President of India on 2. The officers and servants of
Union Territory. matters of law or fact. the Supreme Court and High
4. A dispute between two or more Courts are appointed by the
1. On its initiative (on any matter
States. concerned Chief Justice and
of larger public interest).
Select the correct answer using the the administrative expenses are
2. If he seeks such advice. charged on the Consolidated
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012] 3. Only if the matters is related to
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 Fund of India.
the Fundamental Rights of the
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 Which of the statements given
citizens.
74. Which of the following statements Which of the statements given [IAS (Pre) 2005]
regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction above is/are correct?
of the Supreme Court is correct? (A) Only 1
[IAS (Pre) 2010]
1. It is binding on the Supreme (B) Only 2
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
Court to give its opinion on (C) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3 (D) 1 and 2
any matter referred to it by the (D) Neither 1 nor 2
76. Which of the following Articles of
.in
President. 78. Consider the following statements.
the Constitution of India have been
2. The full bench of the Supreme declared by the Supreme Court as 1. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was
Court hears any reference the ‘Inviolable basic structure’ of the Chief Justice of India.
cle
made to it under its power of the Constitution? 2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
Advisory Jurisdiction. is considered as one of the
3. The opinion given by the progenitors of Public Interest
Supreme Court on a reference
under Advisory Jurisdiction is
not binding on the Government.
cir
code given below.
[UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
Litigation (PIL) in the Indian
Judicial System.
Which of the statement(s) given
dy
4. Not more than one reference above is/are correct?
at a time can be made to the Code [IAS (Pre) 2008]
Supreme Court under its power (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (A) Only 1
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of Advisory Jurisdiction. (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 2

Select the answer from the codes 77. Consider the following statements. (C) Both 1 and 2
given below. [IAS (Pre) 1994] 1. The Parliament cannot enlarge
rs
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer Sheet
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1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B)
w.
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (B)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (B)
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41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (D) 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (D) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (D) 70. (C)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (B) 76. (A) 77. (D) 78. (B)
21. The Governor

1. Under which of the following (A) Article 166 (B) Article 200 4. Who appoints the Lt. Governor of
Article of Indian Constitution the (C) Article 239 (D) Article 240 Jammu and Kashmir?
Governor may reserve a Bill for the 3. Who is the Constitutional Head of [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
consideration of the President? 47th BPSC (Pre) 2002]
the State Governments?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004] (A) The Chief Minister of Jammu
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011
(A) Article 169 (B) Article 200 45th BPSC (Pre) 2001] and Kashmir
(C) Article 201 (D) Article 202 (A) Chief Minister (B) The Chief Justice of High Court
2. Under which Article of the Consti- (B) Governor of Jammu and Kashmir
tution can the Governor refer any (C) The Prime Minister of India
Bill for the approval of the Presi- (C) Speaker
(D) High Court Judge (D) The President of India
dent? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]

5. Who amongst the following necessary [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008] 17. The first lady to become Governor
administer the oath of office to the (A) By President of a State in India
Governor? [UPPCS (Mains) 2014 (B) By the State Legislature [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013 MPPCS (Pre) 1995]
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (C) By the Ministers of Council of
State (A) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur
(A)President of India (B) Padmaja Naidu
(B)Chief Justice of Supreme Court (C) Sarojini Naidu
(C)Chief Justice of High Court 10. State Governor is appointed by
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012] (D) Serla Grewal
(D)Outgoing Governor of the
(A) Central Cabinet 18. Who amongst the following was the
concerned State
(B) Chief Justice of Supreme Court first woman Governor of a State in
6. Which one of the following free India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
statements about the Governor of (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) President of India (A) Sarojini Naidu
an Indian State is not true?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004 11. The appointment of a Governor in a (B) Sucheta Kripalani
UPPCS (Pre) 1997] Sate is made as per the provision in (C) Indira Gandhi
(A) He is appointed by the the Constitution under Article (D) Vijay Laxmi Pandit
President of India [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] 19. Who was the first lady Governor of
(B) He can be Governor of more (A) 153 (B) 154 West Bengal?
(C) 155 (D) 156 [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005]
.in
than one State
(C) He holds office for a term of five 12. Which one of the following (A) Vijay Laxmi Pandit
years Statements about the State (B) Padmaja Naidu
(D) He can be removed earlier if the Governors is not true?
cle
(C) Rajani Rai
Legislature of the concerned [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(D) Sheila Kaul
State passes a resolution for his (A) He is a part of the State
20. Who among the following is not
removal Legislature
7. Which one of the following state-
ments is correct? [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) In India, the same person
cir
(B) He can pardon a sentence of
death
(C) He does not appoint Judges of
appointed by the State Governor?
[Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2018
dy
(A) Chief Minister
cannot be appointed as the State High Court
(D) He has no Emergency powers (B) Members, State Public Service
Governor for two or more states
Commission
at the same time 13. Governor’s salary and allowances
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are given by (C) Judges of High Court

(B) The Judges of the High Court
of the States in India are [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003] (D) Advocate General
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appointed by the Governor (A) Consolidated Fund of State 21. The original plan in the draft
of the State just as the Judges (B) Consolidated Fund of India Constitution for having elected
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of the Supreme Court are Governors was dropped because

(C) Contingency Fund of the State
appointed by the President (D) Both (A) and (B) 1. It would have meant another
(C) No procedure has been laid election.
14. To whom is the Governor of a State
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down in the Constitution of responsible? [UPPCS (Pre) 1992] 2. The election would have been
India for the removal of a fought on major political issues.
Governor from his/her post (A) Prime Minister
3. The elected Governor might
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(D) In the case of the Union (B) President

have considered himself
Territory having a Legislative (C) Legislative Assembly superior to the Chief Minister.
set up the Chief Minister is (D) Chief Minister
4. The Governor had to function
appointed by the Lt. Governor 15. Who remains in office as long as the under the Parliamentary
on the basis of majority support President of India wishes? System.
8. When the same person is appointed [MPPCS (Pre) 2006
as a Governor of two or more States, UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
code given below.
the emoluments and allowances (A) Governor [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
payable to the Governor shall be (B) Election Commissioner UPPCS (Pre) 2003
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] (C) Judges of Supreme Court UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) As expressed wish of the (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
Governor 16. The Constitution of India does (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
(B) As decided by the President not contain any provision for the 22. The governor of the state, may act
(C) As decided by the Home impeachment of independently from the consulta-
Ministry [Manipur PSC (Pre) 2018 tion of Legislative Assembly when
(D) It shall be allocated among UPPCS (Mains) 2009] 1. The Government has to prove
the States in such proportion (A) The President its majority in the session of
as the President may be order (B) The Governor of a State Legislative Assembly.
determine (C) The Chief Justice of India 2. To terminate the Chief
9. The approval of ordinance (D) The Vice-President of India Minister.
promulgated by Governor is

3. To reserve any bill for the affirmation in the presence of (B) Only 1 and 3
consideration of President of Chief Justice of the High Court (C) Only 2, 3 and 4
India. or in his absence senior most (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. To send back a bill to Legislative Judge of that Court. 27. The Governor of a State
Assembly for reconsideration. 4. The process of oath and 1. Is appointed by the President.
5. To seek the consultation with affirmation is given in Article 2. Holds office during the pleasure
High Court. 159 of Indian Constitution. of the President.
Choose the correct answer from the Code 3. Is the head of the State’s
following code. (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 Executive Power.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006] (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. Normally holds office for five
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 5 25. Consider the following statements years.
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (D) All of these and select your answer from the Select the correct answer from the
23. Consider the following statements codes given below. codes given below.
in relation to Governor of a State in [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] [UPPSC (GIC) 2010
India. 1. The Governor does not have UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
1. He must be a citizen of India by the power to appoint the judge Code
birth. of a state High Court. (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
2. Must have completed the age of 2. He is not a part of the (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All the four
.in
35 years. Legislature.
28. Given below are two statement,
3. He must be eligible to be a 3. He has the power to nominate
one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
member of the Lok Sabha. some members in the
other is labelled as Reason (R).
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Legislative Council.
4. He may be appointed as Choose the correct answer from
Governor for two or more 4. He has no judicial powers. code given below.
states. (A) 1 and 2 are correct
Assertion (A): “The President
Which of these is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
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(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 4 are correct
(D) All are correct
or a Governor cannot be sued in a
Court of law for any act”.
Reason (R): “The President can be
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(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 26. Which of the following are the impeached and the Governors may
discretionary powers given to the be dismissed for unconstitutional
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Governor of a State? acts done”.
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(D) 2 and 4 are correct

1. Sending a report to the Select the correct answer using the
24. Consider the following and select President of India for imposing
the correct answer by using the code given below.
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the President’s Rule. [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019

code given below. 2. Appointing the Ministers. UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
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3. Reserving certain bills passed Code

1. The Governor shall take oath by the State Legislature for
or affirmation before entering (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
consideration of the President (R) is the correct explanation of
upon his office.
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of India. (A)
2. The format of oath or 4. Making rules to conduct
affirmation is given in the (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
the business of the State but (R) is not the correct
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Third Schedule of Indian Government.

Constitution. explanation of (A)
Select the correct answer using the (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
3. The Governor shall make codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2014]
and subscribe the oath or (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(A) Only 1 and 2
Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B)
22. The State Legislature

1. Which is the Upper Chamber of 2. Which one of the following is the statements about the Chief Minister
State Legislature in India? period for the Legislative Council to is not correct?
[44th BPSC (Pre) 2000] detain the ordinary bills? [UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(A) Legislative Council [UPPCS (Mains) 2005] (A) He is normally selected by the
(B) Legislative Assembly (A) 3 months (B) 4 months Governor
(C) Governor’s Office (C) 6 months (D) 14 days (B) He is formally appointed by the
(D) None of the above 3. Which one of the following Governor

(C) He is chosen by the members (C) Lok Sabha 18. Which one of the following States
of the majority party in the (D) Vidhan Parishad does not have a bi-cameral legisla-
Legislative Assembly 11. In any State of India, Legislative ture? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008
(D) His continuance is office UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
Council can be created or can be
depends upon many factors abolished by (A) U.P. (B) M.P.
4. According to which Article of [UP Lower (Spl)(Pre) 2008 (C) Bihar (D) Karnataka
Constitution of India, the Chief 40th BPSC (Pre) 1995] 19. Which of the following Articles
Minister is appointed by the (A) The President on the recom- of Indian Constitution consists
Governor of a State? mendation of the Governor of the provision of the election of
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] the State Legislative Assemblies of States
(A) Article 163 (B) Article 164 (B) The Parliament [40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
(C) Article 165 (D) Article 166 (C) The Parliament as per Resolu- (A) Article 170 (B) Article 176
5. In which assembly of States, money tion passed by the Legislative (C) Article 178 (D) None of these
Bills are proposed? Assembly of the State 20. Which one of the following states
[MPPCS (Pre) 1993] (D) The Governor on the recom- is an exception to the provision of
(A) Any one of the two mendation of the Council of Article 170 which says that State
(B) Together in both Ministers Legislative Assembly of a State
(C) Only in Legislative Assembly 12. Under which one of the following shall consist of not less than sixty
.in
(D) Only in upper chamber Articles of the Indian Constitution, members? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
6. No money Bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly is allowed (A) Sikkim (B) Jharkhand
Assembly of a State, except on the to resolve for the creation of the (C) Haryana (D) Uttarakhand
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recommendations of Legislative Council? 21. What can be the maximum number
[UPPCS (Pre) 2007, 2011, 2013] of members in the Legislative
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A)The Parliament (A) 168 (B) 169 Assembly of a State in India?
(B)
(C)
(D)
The Governor of the State
The President of India
A special Committee of
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(C) 170 (D) 171
13. How many members are nominated
in the Legislative Council of Uttar
(A) 400
(C) 500
(B) 450
(D) 550
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Ministers Pradesh by the State Governor? 22. Who conducts the State Assembly
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011] Elections? [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
7. Which Article of the Indian
Constitution provides the provision (A) 1/10 of the total members (A) Chief Justice of High Court
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of Vidhan Parishad in the State? (B) 1/8 of the total members (B) State Election Commission
[MPPCS (Pre) 2014] (C) 1/7 of the total members (C) Election Commission of India
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(A) Article 170 (B) Article 171 (D) 1/6 of the total members (D) Governor of the State
(C) Article 172 (D) Article 173 14. Which one of the following cannot 23. Which state among the following
be dissolved but can be abolished?
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8. What is the right method to has the maximum number of

[UPPCS (Mains) 2007] members in Legislative Assembly?
establish or cancel the second
chamber in States? (A) Lok Sabha [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
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[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003] (B) Rajya Sabha (A) Andhra Pradesh
(A) Proposal in House of People (C) State Legislative Assemblies (B) West Begal
with simple majority (D) State Legislative Councils (C) Maharashtra
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(B) Proposal in Legislative Assem- 15. Which one of the following (D) Uttar Pradesh
bly with simple majority States of India does not have a 24. Who among the following is the
(C) Proposal in Legislative Assem- Legislative Council so for even final authority to decide any ques-
bly with full majority alongwith though the Constitution (Seventh tion relating to disqualification of a
law passed by Parliament Amendment) Act, 1956 provides Member of a House of Legislature
(D) Proposal in House of People for it? [IAS (Pre) 1995] of a State? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016
with full majority (A) Maharashtra Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
9. The provisions for creation and (B) Bihar (A) Governor
abolition of Legislative Councils (C) Karnataka (B) Speaker of the Legislative
in any State is included in Indian (D) Madhya Pradesh Assembly
Constitution under 16. Which of the following States does (C) Chief Minister
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2017 not have Bi-cameral Legislature? (D) High Court
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015] [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013] 25. What is the minimum age limit
(A) Article 170 (B) Article 169 (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Uttar Pradesh prescribed for the membership of
(C) Article 168 (D) Article 167 (C) Karnataka (D) Bihar Legislative Assembly?
10. Which one of the following 17. In which of the following States [MPPCS (Pre) 1997]
legislative House can be abolished? Legislative Council does not exist? (A) 18 years
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016] [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] (B) 25 years
(A) Rajya Sabha (A) Bihar (B) Maharashtra (C) 21 years
(B) Vidhan Sabha (C) Rajasthan (D) Karnataka (D) No age limit

26. If the Speaker of Legislative 33. Which is the only State in India to 41. The nomenclature of the Executive
Assembly of a State wants to resign, have the Common Civil Code? Head of the Government of Jammu
he will give his resignation to [UPPCS (Mains) 2009] and Kashmir was changed from
[40th BPCS (Pre) 1995] (A) Jammu and Kashmir Sadar-e-Riyasat to Governor in
(A) Chief Minister (B) Mizoram 1965 by [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(B) Governor (C) Nagaland (A) A Lok Sabha Resolution
(C) Deputy Speaker (D) Goa (B) The Executive Order of the
(D) President of India 34. How many re-organised States had President
27. The Speaker continues to be the Bi-cameral Legislatures in 1956? (C) Th 6th Amendment in the State
Speaker even after the dissolution [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] Constitution of J&K
of the Assembly until (A) 5 (B) 10 (D) The State Government under
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] Article 371
(C) 15 (D) 18
(A) Immediately before the first 42. As per Indian Constitution,
35. Accounts of the States are control-
sitting of the new Assembly Legislature of States consists
led by the [UPPCS (Mains) 2003]
constituted after dissolution 1. Legislative Council and
(B) The election of the new Speaker (A) Governor
Governor
(C) He desires (B) Chief Minister
2. Legislative Assembly and
(D) None of the above (C) State Finance Secretary Legislative Council
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28. How long can a Minister continue (D) Comptroller and Auditor 3. Legislative Assembly and
without being elected to the State General Governor
Assembly? 36. The ‘Contingency Fund’ of the State 4. Governor, Legislative Assembly
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[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003 is operated by and Legislative Council where
MPPCS (Pre) 2003] [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004] it exists
(A) One year (A) The Governor of the State Select your answer out of the fol-
(B) Six months
(C) Three years
(D) Three months
cir
(B) The Chief Minister of the State
(C) The State Finance Minister
(D) State Legislature
lowing codes. [41st BPSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) Only 3
(C) 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(D) Only 4
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29. Pay and allowances of the Ministers 37. Which one of the following 43. Consider the following statements.
of a State Government are deter- statements about the Chief Minister 1. The Legislative Council of a
mined by the of a State is not correct?
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State in India can be larger in

[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008] [UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010] size than half of the Legislative
(A) Chief Minister (A) The Chief Minister is appointed Assembly of that particular
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(B) Governor by the Governor State.

(C) Chief Secretary (B) The Chief Minister generally 2. The Governor of a State
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(D) State Legislative Assembly presides over the Cabinet nominates the Chairman of
30. Who prorogues the Vidhan Sabha Meetings Legislative Council of that
of a State? [MPPCS (Pre) 2002] (C) The Governor has to exercise particular State.
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(A) Governor all his functions on the advice Which of the statements given
(B) Vidhan Sabha Speaker of the Chief Minister above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2015]
(D) Ministers are appointed by the (A) Only 1
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(C) Chief Minister

(D) Law Minister Governor on the advice of the (B) Only 2
Chief Minister (C) Both 1 and 2
31. After the Ayodhya incident in 1992,
Vidhan Sabha in some States was 38. Which Article of the Constitution (D) Neither 1 nor 2
dissolved. Out of the following, in defines the duties of the Chief 44. Legislative Council exists in which
which state the Vidhan Sabha was Minister? [Telangana PSC (Pre) 2013] of the following States?
not dissolved? [MPPCS (Pre) 2005] (A) Article 162 (B) Article 164 1. Kerala
(A) Uttar Pradesh (C) Article 165 (D) Article 167 2. Himachal Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh 39. Which Indian State had the first 3. Delhi
(C) Himachal Pradesh woman Chief Minister? 4. Bihar
(D) Bihar Select your answer from the
32. Which one of the following is (A) U.P. (B) Bihar following codes.
responsible for establishing ‘the (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Delhi [40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
Contingency Fund of the State’? 40. The 1st Woman Chief Minister of an (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2017 Indian State was [MPPCS (Pre) 1990 (C) 2 and 3 (D) Only 4
UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014] UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
45. What is correct about State
(A) The Legislature of the State (A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit Legislative Council?
(B) Parliament (B) Sucheta Kripalani [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014, 2015]
(C) President (C) Nandini Satipathi 1. Its tenure is 6 years.
(D) None of the above (D) Sarojini Naidu 2. It is a permanent House.

3. It cannot be dissolved. Which of the statements given Code
4. 1/6 members are elected by above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4
local institutions. [IAS (Pre) 2008] (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4
5. 1/6 members are elected by (A) Only 1 48. State Legislative Assembly can
legislative assembly. (B) Only 2 participate in the election of which
6. Every two years 1/3 members (C) Both 1 and 2 of the following.
are retired. (D) Neither 1 nor 2 1. President of India
7. Deputy Governor is the 47. Select the Constitutional Duties 2. Vice-President of India
Chairman of House. of the Chief Minister from the 3. Members of Rajya Sabha
8. The tenure of its members is 6 following by using the code given 4. Members of Legislative Council
years. below. [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
Select the correct answer.
Code 1. The Chief Minister communi- [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (B) 3, 6, 7 and 8 cates to the Governor all deci- (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3, 6 and 8 (D) 2, 4, 1 and 8 sions of the Council of Ministers
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4
46. Consider the following statements. related to the administration of
the affairs of the state. 49. Consider the following statements.
The Constitution of India provides 1. The Chief Secretary in a State
that 2. The Chief Minister communi-
cates to the Governor the pro- is appointed by the Governor of
1. The Legislative Assembly of that State.
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posals for legislation.
each State shall consist of 2. The Chief Secretary in a State
not more than 450 members 3. The Chief Minister participates
in the meetings of National has a fixed tenure.
chosen by direct election from
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Development Council. Which of the statements given
territorial constituencies in the above is/are correct?
State 4. The Chief Minister submits for
the consideration of the Council [IAS (Pre) 2016]
2. A person shall not be qualified (A) Only 1
to be chosen to fill a seat in the
Legislative Assembly of a State
if he/she is less than 25 years of
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of Ministers any matter on
which decision has been taken
by a Minister but which has not
been considered by the council
(B)
(C)
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
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age. (D) Neither 1 nor 2
if the Governor requires.
Answer Sheet
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1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D)
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11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (A)
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31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (A)
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23. The High Court

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1. The pension of a retired High Court (B) Every judge of a High Court is 6. When the Chief Justice of a High
Judge is charged to the appointed by the President Court acts in an administrative
[UPPCS (Mains) 2013] (C) Governor of the State appoints capacity, he is subject to
(A) Consolidated Fund of India the Judges of a High Court [IAS (Pre) 1996]
(B) Consolidated Fund of the State (D) High Courts may accept a (A) The writ jurisdiction of any of
where he last served petition related to ‘Public the other judges of the High
(C) Consolidated Fund of the interest litigation’ Court
different States where he has 4. The salaries and allowances of (B) Special control exercised by the
served the Judges of the High Court are Chief Justice of India
(D) Contingency Fund of India charged to the [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] (C) Discretionary powers of the
2. The age of retirement of a High (A) Consolidated Fund of India Governor of the state
Court Judge is [MPPCS (Pre) 1999] (B) Consolidated Fund of the State (D) Special powers provided to the
(A) 65 (B) 60 (C) Contingency Fund of India Chief Minister in this regard
(C) 62 (D) 58 (D) Contingency Fund of the State 7. The power of High Court to issue
3. Which among the following is 5. The number of High Court of writ covers [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
not correct about a High Court in Judicature in India is (A) Constitutional Rights
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008] (B) Statutory Rights
(A) The second appeal to the High (A) Twenty five (B) Twenty one (C) Fundamental Rights
Court is within its appellate (C) Twenty two (D) Twenty three (D) All of the above
jurisdiction

8. Which High Court stated that the subjects comes under the common (A) Quo-Warranto
divorce, by saying ‘Talaq’ 3 times, is jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (B) Mandamus
illegal? [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994] and the High Court? (C) Certiorari
(A) Calcutta HC [UPPCS (Mains) 2006 (D) Habeas Corpus
(B) Allahabad HC IAS (Pre) 1993]
22. What is the nature of the dispute of
(C) Bombay HC (A) Mutual disputes among States Babri Mosque/ Ramjanambhoomi
(D) Punjab HC (B) Dispute between Centre and Case before Allahabad High Court?
9. Which one of the following State [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
High Courts has the Territorial (C) Protection of Fundamental (A) Writ petition
Jurisdiction over Andaman and Rights (B) Title suit
Nicobar Islands? [IAS (Pre) 2003] (D) Protection from the Violation of (C) Claim for compensation
(A) Andhra Pradesh the Constitution (D) Judicial review petition
(B) Calcutta 16. In which petition, Judiciary orders 23. According to the Constitution of
(C) Madras Executives to perform their duty? India the term ‘district judge’ shall
(D) Orissa not include [IAS (Pre) 1996]
10. Which of the following High Courts (A) Habeas Corpus (A) Chief presidency magistrate
has its jurisdiction over more than (B) Mandamus (B) Sessions judges
one state or Union Territory? (C) Prohibition (C) Tribunal judge
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[38th BPSC (Pre) 1992] (D) Quo-Warranto (D) Chief judge of a small cause
(A) Allahabad (B) Delhi 17. When the Supreme Court issues a court
(C) Gujarat (D) Maharashtra writ to a person or to an institution 24. The term District Judge is
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11. Which one of the following Indian to perform its duty, it is called mentioned in which of the
States does not have its own High following Article of Constitution?
Court? [UPPCS (Mains) 2005] (A) Certiorari [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Orissa
(B) Sikkim
(C) Himachal Pradesh
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(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo-Warranto
(D) Habeas Corpus
25. A High Court Judge addresses his
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(D) Mizoram 18. Which one of the following is not letter of resignation to
12. With reference to Lok Adalats, the main jurisdiction of the High [48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
Court of a State?
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which of the following statements (A) The President

is correct? [IAS (Pre) 2010] (B) The Chief Justice of India
(A) Lok Adalat have the jurisdiction (A) Advisory jurisdiction
(C) The Chief Justice of his High
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to settle the matters at the pre- (B) Original jurisdiction

Court
litigation stage and not those (C) Supervisory jurisdiction
(D) The Governor of the State
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matters pending before any (D) Appellate jurisdiction

26. Against which Judge the Rajya
court 19. Which among the following is
Sabha passed the motion of
(B) Lok Adalats can deal with issued when the procedure is
impeachment in 2011, but he
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matters which are civil and not pending in court? [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
resigned to save himself before it
criminal in nature (A) Mandamus could be passed by the Lok Sabha?
(C) Every Lok Adalat consists of (B) Certiorari
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either serving or retired judicial (C) Prohibition (A) Justice V. Ramaswami
officers only and not any other (D) Quo-Warranto (B) Justice Bhattacharya
person 20. The Writ of Certiorari is issued by a (C) Justice Soumitra Sen
(D) None of the statements given Superior Court (D) Justice P.D. Dinakaran
above is correct [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
27. The mobile court in India is the
13. How many High Courts in India (A) To an inferior court to transfer brain child of
have jurisdiction over more than the record of proceedings in a [48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
one State (Union Territories case for review
included)? [IAS (Pre) 2008] (A) Justice Bhagwati
(B) To an inferior court to stop
(A) 2 (B) 3 (B) Mr. Rajeev Gandhi
further proceedings in a
particular case (C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) 5 (D) 7
(C) To an officer to show his right (D) Mrs. Pratibha Patil
14. Which of the following High Courts
has the largest number of Benches? to hold a particular office 28. Under Preventive Detention, a
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007] (D) To a public authority to produce person can be detained without
a person detained by it before trial for [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017
(A) Kolkata High Court UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(B) Madhya Pradesh High Court the court within 24 hours
21. Which one of the following writs (A) One month
(C) Bombay High Court (B) Three months
examines the functioning of
(D) Allahabad High Court (C) Six months
subordinate courts?
15. Which one of the following [UPPCS (Mains) 2008] (D) Nine months

29. Name the Chairman of the ‘Law 33. In which of these States, High Courts explanation of (A)
Commission’ who advocated that were established in March 2013? (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
One-third of the Judges in each 1. Manipur 2. Meghalaya (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
High Court should be from another 3. Mizoram 4. Tripura 37. Consider the following statements
State. [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
Choose the right answer from the and choose the correct answer from
(A) Justice P.N. Bhagwati given code. [UPPCS (Pre) 2013] the code given below.
(B) Justice Hidayatullah (A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 Assertion (A): The public interest
(C) Justice H.R. Khanna (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 litigation permits public-minded
(D) Justice Chandrachud 34. Consider the following statements. citizens to reach the Court of Law.
30. Consider the following statements. 1. The mode of removal of a Judge Reason (R): The public-minded
1. There are 25 High Courts in of a High Court in India is same people may seek Justice for the
India. as that of removal of a Judge of person who is unable to reach the
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union the Supreme Court. Court of Law for any reasons.
Territory of Chandigarh have a 2. After retirement from the Select the correct answer using the
common High Court. office, a permanent Judge of code given below.
3. National Capital Territory of a High Court cannot plead or [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
Delhi has a High Court of its act in any Court or before any Code
own. authority in India. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
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Which of the statements given Which of the statements given (R) is the correct explanation of
above is/are correct? above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2007] (A)
[IAS (Pre) 2002] (A) Only 1 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
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(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 but (R) is not the correct
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) Only 3 (C) Both 1 and 2 explanation of (A)
31. Consider the following statements (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
regarding the High Courts in India.
1. There are eighteen High Courts
in the country.
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35. With reference to the ‘Gram
Nyayalaya Act’ which of the follow-
ing statements is/are correct?
38. Assertion (A): The scope of
Judicial review is limited in India.
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2. Three of them have jurisdiction 1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalaya Reason (R): Indian Constitution
over more than one state. can hear only civil cases and no is ‘a bag of borrowing’.
criminal cases.
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3. No Union Territory has High Select the correct answer using the
Court of its own. 2. The Act allows local social ac- codes given below.
4. Judges of the High Court hold tivists as mediators/reconcilia- [UPPCS (Mains) 2002]
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office till the age of 62. tors. Code

Which of these statements is/are Select the correct answer using the (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
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correct? [IAS (Pre) 2001] code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016] (R) is the correct explanation of
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (A) Only 1 (A)
(C) 1 and 4 (D) Only 4 (B) Only 2 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
w.
32. Match the following. (C) Both 1 and 2 but (R) is not the correct
[Haryana PSC (Pre) 2018 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 explanation of (A)
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Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016] 36. Given below are two statements,
List-I one labelled as Assertion (A) and (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(a) Habeas Corpus the other labelled as Reason (R). 39. Consider the following statements
(b) Mandamus Assertion (A): Willful disobedie- and select the correct answer from
(c) Prohibition nce or non-compliance of Court the code given. [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
orders and use of derogatory Assertion (A): High Courts are in
(d) Certiorary
language about Judicial behaviour better position to protect rights of
(e) Quo-Warranto amount to Contempt of Court. Indian citizens than the Supreme
List-II Court.
Reason (R): Judicial activism
1. Be more fully informed cannot be practiced without arming Reason (R): Supreme Court
2. By which authority the Judiciary with punitive powers can issue writs to protect only
3. We command to punish contemptuous behaviour. Fundamental Rights.
4. Let us have the body In the context of the above two Code
5. Writ to Subordinate Courts statements which one of the (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Code following is correct? [IAS (Pre) 1997] (R) is the correct explanation of
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Code (A)
(A) 2 4 5 3 1 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(B) 4 3 5 2 1 (R) is the correct explanation of but (R) is not the correct
(C) 4 3 5 1 2 (A) explanation of (A)
(D) 4 5 3 1 2 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
but (R) is not the correct (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (C)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (A)
24. The Centre-State Relation

1. Indian Constitution presents (C) Concurrent List 13. Which one of the following Articles
three lists for the distribution of (D) Residual List of Indian Constitution provides
power between centre and states. 7. Relation of Centre-State lies in that “it shall be the duty of the
Which two Articles regulate that which of the following Schedules? Union to protect every State against
distribution? [UPPCS (Pre) 1993] external aggression and internal
(A) 7th (B) 8th disturbance”? [IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Article 4 and 5 (C) 6th (D) 9th (A) Article 215 (B) Article 275
(B) Article 56 and 57 (C) Article 325 (D) Article 355
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8. The distribution of legislative
(C) Article 141 and 142 powers between the Centre and the 14. Which of the following institutes
(D) Article 245 and 246 States in the Constitution is given are considered necessary to
2. Article 249 of the Indian Constitu- in [UPPCS (Pre) 1993 promote ‘Unity among diversity’ in
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tion deals with UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008] the Indian Federalism?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Sixth Schedule
(A) Emergency Power of the (B) Seventh Schedule (A) Inter-State Councils & National
President
(B) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha
(C) Administrative Power of the
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(C) Eighth Schedule
(D) Ninth Schedule
Developement Council
(B) Finance Commission
Regional Council
&
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9. In which part of the Indian
Parliament (C) Unitary Judicial System & All
Constitution, legislative relations
(D) Legislative Powers of the India Services
between Centre and States are
Parliament with respect to (D) All of the above
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given? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004

matter in the State List UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014] 15. When was the Jharkhand Area
3. The financial relations between the (A) Part X (B) Part XI Autonomous Council formed?
rs
Union Government and States have [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011]

(C) Part XII (D) Part XIII
been discussed under (A) 8 Aug, 1993 (B) 8 Aug, 1994
10. Who is vested with the residuary
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[UPPCS (Pre) 2014]

powers in Indian Constitutions? (C) 8 Aug, 1995 (D) 8 Aug, 1996
(A) Article 168 to 171 (A) President [UPPCS (Pre) 1991] 16. Which Article among the following
(B) Article 268 to 281 says that Indian Constitution
(B) State
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(C) Article 278 to 291 provisions about inter-state

(C) Central Cabinet relation? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(D) Article 289 to 295 (D) Parliament
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4. Under which Article of the Consti- 11. The Indian Constitution vests the
tution of India, Taxes are levied and (C) Article 264 (D) Article 265
residuary powers with
collected by the centre but distrib- [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
17. What is the source of inter-state
uted between the centre and the councils? [UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) The Union Government
States? [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016] (A) Constitution
(B) The State Governments
(A) Article 268 (B) Article 269 (B) Parliamentary laws
(C) Both the Union as well as State
(C) Article 270 (D) Article 271 Governments (C) Recommendation of Planning
5. A resolution passed under clause (D) Neither the Union nor the State Commission
(1) of Article 249 shall remain in Governments (D) Approved Resolution by C.M.
force for a period not exceeding 12. In which respect have the Centre- 18. Which one of the following is not a
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016] feature of a zonal council?
State relations been specifically
(A) One month termed as municipal relation? [Tripura PSC (Pre) 2017
(B) Three months [IAS (Pre) 1994] UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(C) Six months (A) Centre’s control of the State in (A) It is a constitutional body
(D) One year the legislative sphere (B) Five Zonal Councils have set up
6. Subjects on which centre and state (B) Centre’s control of the state in under the State Reorganisation
both can make law are mentioned financial matters Act, 1956
in which of the following Lists? (C) Centre’s control of the state in (C) Chandigarh although not a
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006] the administrative sector state, is included in Zonal
(A) Union List (D) Centre’s control of the state in Council
(B) State List the planning process (D) It is an Advisory body

19. Which of the following is not (B) Rajmannar Committee 4. Mechanism for solving disputes
matched properly? (C) Indrajit Gupta Committee Select your correct answer from the
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] (D) Punchhi Commission code given below.
(A) Union Parliament’s power of 27. Is a State of the Indian Union [Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2018
adjudication in Inter-State empowered under the Constitution UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
water dispute – Article 262 of to take foreign loans directly? (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
the Constitution [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(B) Inter-State Water dispute Act– (A) Yes (C) Only 1, 2 and 4
1956 (B) No (D) Only 2, 3 and 4
(C) River Boards Act – 1970 (C) Yes, but from international 33. Consider the following statements.
(D) National Water Policy – 1987 organizations only In India, stamp duty on financial
20. The regional councils are constit- (D) Yes, but only with the permis- goods deals are
uted by [UPPCS (Pre) 2000] sion of the Reserve Bank of India 1. Imposed and collected by State
(A) Constitution 28. Agriculture Income Tax is assigned Government.
(B) Parliamentary Laws to the State Government by 2. Regulated by the Union
(C) Resolution of Government [IAS (Pre) 1995] Government.
(D) National Development Council (A) The Finance Commission Which of the following is/are
21. Who among the following is (B) The National Development correct? [IAS (Pre) 2003]
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empowered to establish the inter- Council (A) Only 1
state council? [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] (C) The Inter-State Council (B) Only 2
(A) Parliament (D) The Constitution of India (C) Both 1 and 2
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(B) President 29. Which one of the following taxes is (D) None of the above
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha imposed and charged by the Union,
34. Which of the following is/are extra-
(D) Prime Minister but is divided into Union and the
constitutional and extra-legal
22. Which of the Constitutional
Provision lays down that taxes
can neither be levied nor collected
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States? [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
(A) Corporation Tax
(B) Taxes on items except for
device(s) for securing co-operation
and coordination between the
States in India? [IAS (Pre) 1995]
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without the authority of law? agriculture income 1. The National Development
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007] (C) Taxes on railway fares and Council
(A) Article 265 (B) Article 266 freights
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2. The Governor’s Conference

(C) Article 300 (D) Article 368 (D) Custom 3. Zonal Councils
23. The recommendations of the 30. The Centre-State relations in India 4. Inter-state Council
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Sarkaria Commission are related to are influenced by

Code
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014 1. Provisions of the Constitution
(A) 1 and 2
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UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 2003 2. The Planning process

Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003] (B) 1, 3 and 4
3. Conflict of Political interests
(A) Distribution of revenue (C) 3 and 4
4. The dominance of desire to
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(B) Powers and functions of (D) Only 4

dictate
President 35. Given below are two statements,
(C) Membership of the Parliament one labelled as Assertion (A) and
codes given below.
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(D) Centre-State relations other labelled as Reason (R).

24. Who among the following as a Assertion (A): There has been
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2, 3 and 4
member of Sarkaria Commission? a growing demand for a review of
(C) 2, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Centre-State relationship.
(A) V. Shankar [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] 31. Centre-State relations in India are
(B) K. Hanumanthaiah Reason (R): The States have
dependent upon
(C) Dr. S.R. Sen no adequate resources to take up
1. Constitutional provisions developmental projects.
(D) O.V. Algesan 2. Conventions and practices
25. Which Commission advocated In the light of above two state-
3. Judicial interpretations ments, which one of the following
the establishment of a Permanent 4. Mechanisms for dialogue
Inter-State Council, called ‘Inter- is correct? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
governmental Council’? Select the correct answer from the UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
codes given below. Code
[UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Punchhi Commission (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(B) Sarkaria Commission (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (R) is the correct explanation of
(C) Radhakrishnan Commission (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All the four (A)
(D) Moily Commission 32. A Federal policy involves (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
26. Which one of the following is not 1. Relations between Union and but (R) is not the correct
related to Union-State relations in State explanation of (A)
India? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] 2. Relations among States (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) Sarkaria Commission 3. Mechanism for co-operation (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

36. Given below are two statements that came to form the Government (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
one is labelled as Assertion (A) and at the Centre misused Article 356. but (R) is not the correct
the other is labelled as Reason (R). [RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013] explanation of (A)
Assertion (A): Sarkaria Commis- Code (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
sion recommended that Article 356 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
should be sparingly used. (R) is the correct explanation of
Reason (R): The political parties (A)
Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (A) 36. (A)
25. Emergency Provisions
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1. Which one of the following cannot (A) The failure of the Constitutional Emergency by
be the ground for Proclamation of machinery [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
Emergency under the Constitution (B) Invasion (A) The President
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of India? [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016] (C) Internal disturbance (B) The Parliament
(A) War (D) War, external aggression or (C) The Governor of State
(B) External aggression armed rebellion (D) The State Legislature
(C) Armed rebellion
(D) Internal disturbance
2. The President can declare National
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7. Under which of the following
articles the President of India
can suspend the enforcement
12. Under which Article of the Indian
Constitution President’s Rule can
be imposed in a State?
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Emergency on the basis of of Fundamental Rights (except [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
[46th BPSC (Pre) 2002] Articles 20, 21)? (A) Article 370 (B) Article 368
(A) Armed rebellion (C) Article 356 (D) Article 352
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(A) Article 358 (B) Article 359 13. Which one of the following is
(B) External Aggression
(C) Article 13 (D) Article 356 the time limit for the ratification
(C) War
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8. Under Article 356 of the of an Emergency period by the

(D) All above mentioned reasons Constitution of India, President’s Parliament? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
3. Under which Article of the Rule was imposed for the first time
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Constitution it is the responsibility (A) 14 days (B) 1 month

in [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(C) 3 months (D) 6 months
of the Indian Government to protect (A) Uttar Pradesh
States from external aggression 14. A Proclamation of Emergency must
w.
(B) Travancore-Cochin be placed before the Parliament for

and internal disturbance?
[Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2019
(C) PEPSU its approval
UPPCS (Pre) 2001] (D) Bihar [UPPCS (Mains) 2003, 2004]
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(A) Article 355 (B) Article 356 9. Which one among the following (A) Within one month
pairs of Articles relating to the (B) Within two months
Fundamental Rights cannot be (C) Within six months
4. Which one of the following is not a suspended during the enforcement
basis to declare National Emergen- (D) Within one year
of Emergency under Article 359 of
cy in India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] 15. Who said, “The emergency power
the Indian Constitution?
(A) War of the President is a fraud with the
(B) External attack Constitution”?
(A) Articles 20 and 21 [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018
(C) Threat to internal peace (B) Articles 14 and 15 UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(D) Armed rebellion (C) Articles 16 and 17 (A) K.M. Munshi
5. According to which Article ‘National (D) Articles 24 and 25
Emergency may be declared by the (B) B.N. Rao
10. Mainly on whose advice the (C) K.M. Nambiar
President of India’? President’s Rule is imposed in the
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011] (D) H.N. Kuniaru
State? [45th BPSC (Pre) 1997]
(A) Article 352 (B) Article 370 16. Which one of the following Articles
(A) Chief Minister of the Indian Constitution has never
(C) Article 371 (D) Article 395 (B) Legislative Assembly been implemented into action?
6. According to Article 352 of the Con- (C) Governor [UPPCS (Mains) 2016
stitution, the National Emergency (D) Chief Justice of High Court UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
can be declared in which among the
following circumstances? 11. The term of a State Legislative (A) Article 60 (B) Article 360
Assembly can be extended during (C) Article 352 (D) Article 356

17. How many times has Financial 22. Under which of the following Parliament within two months.
Emergency been declared in India circumstances can the President Which of the statement(s) given
so far? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006] declare National Emergency? above is/are correct?
(A) 5 times (B) 4 times 1. External Aggression [Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
(C) Once (D) Never 2. Internal Disturbances RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
18. How many types of emergencies 3. Failure of the Constitutional (A) Only 1, 2 and 4
have been envisaged under the Machinery in States (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
Indian Constitution? 4. Financial Crisis (C) Only 3 and 4
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009, 2014] Choose the correct answer from the (D) Only 2, 3 and 4
(A) Two (B) Three codes given below. 25. Consider the following statements
(C) Four (D) One [UPPCS (Mains) 2007] in respect of financial emergency
19. During National Emergency the (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 under Article 360 of the Constitu-
term of the House of People (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 tion of India.
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010] 23. Which of the following are not 1. A Proclamation of financial
(A) Cannot be extended necessarily the consequences of the emergency issued shall cease
(B) Can be extended till the proclamation of the President’s rule to operate at the expiration
Emergency lasts in a State? of two months, unless, before
(C) Can be extended for one year 1. Dissolution of the State the expiration of that period,
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only Legislative Assembly it has been approved by the
(D) Can be extended till Emergency 2. Removal of the Council of resolutions of both Houses of
lasts but only by one year at a Ministers in the State Parliament.
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time 3. Dissolution of the local bodies 2. If any Proclamation of financial
20. President’s Rule can be imposed for emergency is in operation, it
Select the correct answer using the
a maximum period of is competent for the President
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) 1 year
(C) 6 months
[UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
(B) 2 years
(D) 3 years
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(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
of India to issue directions for
the reduction of salaries and
allowances of all or any class of
persons, serving in connection
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21. The President of India may declare regarding Article 356 of the with the affairs of the Union
the National Emergency if there is Constitution. but excluding the Judges of the
the threat of 1. Failure of Constitutional Supreme Court and the High
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1. External aggression Machinery in States is an Courts.

2. Internal disturbances objective reality. Which of the statements given
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3. Armed rebellion 2. A Proclamation under this above is/are correct?

4. Communal clashes Article can be reviewed by [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
ou
Select the correct answer from the Supreme Court. IAS (Pre) 2007]
code given below. [UPPSC (GIC) 2010 3. Alongwith this Proclamation, (A) Only 1
UPPCS (Mains) 2010] State Legislative Assembly can (B) Only 2
w.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 be dissolved. (C) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3 and 4 (D) Only 1 and 3 4. This Proclamation has to be (D) Neither 1 nor 2
approved by each House of
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Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (A)
26. The Finance Commission

1. Which one of the following institutions will lay down the basic Commission is appointed for every
authorities recommends the principles for the distribution of the five years [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
principles governing the grants-in- net proceeds of the taxes between (A) To determine the financial
aid of the revenues to the States out the Union and States? position of the States
of the Consolidated Fund of India? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008 (B) To determine the financial
[IAS (Pre) 2002] Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003] position of Central Government
(A) Finance Commission (A) Planning Commission (C) To determine the financial re-
(B) Inter-State Council (B) National Development Council sources of Central Government
(C) Union Ministry of Finance (C) Finance Commission (D) To determine the share of the
(D) Public Accounts Committee (D) Union Ministry of Finance States in the grants and revenu-
2. Which one of the following 3. Generally, in India Finance es of the Central Government

4. Finance are distributed between (B) Finances between States and (A) 4 years (B) 5 years
the Centre and the State on the the Centre (C) 7 years (D) 10 years
recommendations of which of the (C) Finances between the Centre 17. Which one of the following
following? and Local Self Governments statements about a State Finance
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013 (D) None of the above Commission is true?
UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2010
10. Main agency to resolve the fiscal [UPPCS (Pre) 2015, 2016]
disputes between the Centre and (A) It is an informal body
(A) Planning Commission States is [Goa PSC (Pre) 2019 (B) It is a Constitutional body
(B) Public Accounts Committee UPPCS (Pre) 1995] (C) It is an Administrative body
(C) Finance Commission (A) Supreme Court (D) None of the above
(D) National Development Council (B) Law Minister 18. After the commencement of
5. The main functions of Finance (C) Finance Minister the Constitution how many
Commission is [UPPCS (Pre) 1993] (D) Finance Commission Finance Commissions have been
(A) To determine the part of 11. The Provisions regarding division constituted? [MPPCS (Pre) 1999]
States in central taxes and of taxes between the Union and the (A) 10 (B) 8
to determine the principles States [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011] (C) 9 (D) 15
of financial aid given by the
(A) Can be suspended during 19. The Finance Commission consists
Centre to States
Financial Emergency of a Chairman and
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(B) Financial control over States
(B) Can be suspended during [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(C) Financial control over Central National Emergency (A) Seven other members
(D) None of the above (C) Cannot be suspended under (B) Five other members
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6. The Finance Commission is primar- any circumstances (C) Four other members
ily concerned with recommending (D) Can be suspended only with
to the President about (D) Such other members as may be
the consent of a majority of the decided by the President from
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) The principle governing grants-
in-aid to be given to the States
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State Legislatures
12. Who was the Chairman of the
Twelfth Finance Commission?
time-to-time
In India taxes on transactions in
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(B) Distributing the net proceeds [Jammu & Kashmir PSC (Pre) 2018
of the taxes between the Centre Stock-Exchanges and Futures
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005]
and the States Markets are [UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) A.M. Khusro
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(C) Neither (A) nor (B) 1. Levied by Union

(B) K.C. Pant
(D) Both (A) and (B) 2. Collected by the State
(C) Montek Singh Government
7. With reference to the Finance
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(D) C. Rangarajan Code

Commission of India, which of the
13. Who was the Chairman of the 13th (A) Only 1
following statements is correct?
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Finance Commission?
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2019 (B) Only 2
Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017 [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Pre) 2012] (C) Both 1 and 2
IAS (Pre) 2011] (D) Neither 1 nor 2
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(A) It encourages the inflow (A) Indira Rajaraman

(B) C. Rangarajan 21. Consider the following statements.
of foreign capital for
infrastructure development (C) Vijay Kelkar The function(s) of the Finance
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(D) None of the above Commission is/are

(B) It facilitates the proper
distribution of finances among 14. Who among the following was 1. To allow the withdrawal of the
the Public Sector Undertakings the Chairman of 14th Finance money out of the Consolidated
Commission? Fund of India.
(C) It ensures transperancy in [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
financial administration (A) Shanta Kumar 2. To allocate among the States
the shares of proceeds of taxes.
(D) None of the statements (A), (B) (B) C. Rangarajan
and (C) given above is correct 3. To consider applications for
(C) Y.V. Reddy
in this context grants-in-aid from States.
8. Which one of the following is not a 4. To supervise and report on
15. Who of the following shall causes whether the Union and State
function of Finance Commission in every recommendation made
India? [Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2019 Governments are levying
by the Finance Commission to taxes in accordance withe the
UPPCS (Mains) 2004] be laid before each House of the budgetary provisions.
(A) Devolution of Income Tax Parliament? [IAS (Pre) 2010]
Which of these statements is/are
(B) Devolution of Excise Duty (A) The President of India correct? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019
(C) Award of grants-in-aid (B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha IAS (Pre) 2003]
(D) Devolution of Trade Tax (C) The Prime Minister of India (A) Only 1
9. Federal Finance Commission in (D) The Union Finance Minister (B) 2 and 3
India relates to 16. The Finance Commission is (C) 3 and 4
[43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999] constituted for a period of (D) 1, 2 and 4
(A) Finances among the States [UPPCS (Mains) 2011, 2010, 2008]

22. Consider the following statements Reason (R): Union Finance Com- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
and select the correct answer from mission cannot recommend finan- but (R) is not the correct
the code given below. cial assistance to Panchayats. explanation of (A)
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015] Code (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Assertion (A): State Finance (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Commission is a Constitutional (R) is the correct explanation of
body. (A)
Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (C)
27. The Planning Commission

1. Planning Commission was (C) Planning Commission (A) Vice-President
established by [UPPCS (Pre) 1999] (D) Election Commission (B) Minister of the State
.in
(A) Issuing ordinance by the 7. Who was the First Chairman of (C) Cabinet Minister
President Planning Commission of India? (D) Judge of the Supreme Court
(B) Making a law by Parliament
cle
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006] 13. The importance given to the
(C) A special resolution passed by (A) M. Viswesvarya Deputy Chairman of the Planning
the federal cabinet (B) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru Commission in the official
hierarchy of the Government is that
2. Which one of the following is an
extra-Constitutional body?
cir
(C) P.C. Mahalanobis
(D) John Mathai
8. Who works as the Chairman of the
of [UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) A Cabinet Minister in the
Government of India
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[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015] Planning Commission?
(A) Finance Commission [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006 (B) A Supreme Court Judge
(B) NITI Aayog MPPCS (Pre) 2004] (C) Chairman of a Parliamentary
tu
(A) President Committee

(C) Election Commission
(B) Prime Minister (D) A Secretary to the Government
(D) Inter-State Council
(C) Vice-President of India
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3. The Planning Commission has been

(D) Governor of Reserve Bank 14. Who among the following has not
abolished by Prime Minister
9. The Ex-officio Chairman of been the Deputy Chairman of the
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[UPPCS (Pre) 2015]

Planning Commission is Planning Commission in India?
(A) Narendra Modi [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(B) Morarji Desai (A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
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(A) President
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (B) Pranab Mukherjee
(B) Finance Minister
(D) I.K. Gujral (C) P. Chidambaram
(C) Vice-President
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4. When was the Planning Commis- (D) Montek S. Ahluwalia

(D) Prime Minister
sion established? 15. Which one of the following
[47th BPSC (Pre) 2005] 10. Which one of the following is not
correct about NITI Aayog? statements is not true?
(A) 10th March, 1950 [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(B) 15th March, 1950 (A) Prime Minister is the Chairman
(A) It was set up to replace the
(C) 16th March, 1951 of the Planning Commission of
Planning Commission
(D) 20th March, 1950 India
(B) It has a full time Chairman
5. Who had suggested a merger of Fi- (C) It was set up in January 2015 (B) Planning Commission is the
nance and Planning Commission? highest decision-making body
(D) It is based on the principle of
[MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
Cooperative Federalism for planning in India
(A) D.D. Basu (C) Secretary of the Planning Com-
11. Who among the following is
(B) Bhalchandra Goswami mission is also the Secretary
associated with ‘NITI’ Aayog?
(C) M.V. Mathur of the National Development
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(D) Ashutosh Pandey Council
(A) Narendra Modi
6. Which one of the following is not a (D) The National Development
(B) Kaushik Basu
Constitutional body? Council is presided over by the
(C) Amartya Sen
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005 Prime Minister of India
UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 03, 08, 2010] (D) P. Chidambaram
16. National Development Council is
(A) Union Public Service 12. The Deputy Chairman of Planning primarily related to
Commission Commission is equivalent to [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
[UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(B) Finance Commission

(A) Approval of five year plans India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] 23. Who among the following consti-
(B) Execution of village develop- (A) 26th January, 1950 tutes the National Development
ment plans (B) 2nd October, 1950 Council?
(C) Formation of development (C) 6th August, 1951 1. The Prime Minister
plans 2. The Chairman, Finance
(D) 6th August, 1952
(D) The financial relation between Commission
21. Which of the following body/bodies 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
States and Union does not/do not find mention in the
17. Who acts as the Secretary of Nation- 4. Chief Ministers of the States
Constitution?
al Development Council (NDC)? Select the correct answer using the
1. National Development Council
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011] code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2013]
2. Planning Commission
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance (A) Only 1, 2 and 3
3. Zonal Councils
(B) Secretary, Ministry of Planning (B) Only 1, 3 and 4
(C) Secretary, Planning Commis- (C) Only 2 and 4
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2013]
sion (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(A) Only 1 and 2
(D) Secretary, Finance Commission 24. Given below are two statements,
(B) Only 2
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
18. Which among the following (C) Only 1 and 3 the other labelled as Reason (R).
functions as a coordinator between (D) All of the above
Assertion (A): Planning
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the Planning Commission and State 22. The National Development Council
Governments? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] Commission has been defined as
(NDC) the economic cabinet, not merely
(A) National Integration Council 1. Discusses the progress of the for the Union but the States also.
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(B) Finance Commission National Plan. Reason (R): It formulates the
(C) National Development Council 2. Suggests the ways to achieve five year plans for the balanced
(D) None of the above the goals of the National Plan. utilization of natural resources.
19. Who presides over the meetings of
the National Development Council
of India?
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3. Gives guidelines to formulate
the National Plan.
4. Suggests allocation of money in
In context of the above statements,
which one of the following is
correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
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[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006] Planning.
Code
(A) Deputy Chairman of Planning Considering the above statements,
Commission of India select the correct answer from the
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code given below.
(B) Prime Minister of India (A)
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010, 2005]
(C) Finance Minister of India (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
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(A) 1, 2 and 3 but (R) is not the correct

(D) Vice-President of India (B) 2, 3 and 4 explanation of (A)
20. When was the National
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(C) 1, 2 and 4 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Development Council formed in (D) All of the above (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
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Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B)
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11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B)
28. Lokpal and Important Commissions

1. Which of the following (A) 1967 (B) 1971 5. Which of the following has
Commissions/Committees has re- (C) 1968 (D) 1972 recommended that appointment
commended the creation of a Local 3. Establishment of Lokpal and Lokay- of Judges to Higher Courts should
Body Ombudsman? ukta in India was recommended by be through the participation of the
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1997, 2016] Executive, Legislature and Chief
(A) First Administrative Reforms (A) Sarkaria Commission Justice? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
Commission UPPSC (RI) 2014]
(B) Administrative Reforms
(B) Second Administrative Re- Commission (A) National Commission to
forms Commission (C) Law Commission Review the Working of the
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Constitution
(D) Thakkar Commission
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee (B) National Judicial Commission
4. Indian Model of Ombudsman is
2. The first Lokpal Bill was presented [UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (C) Second Administrative
in the Parliament in Reforms Commission
(A) Lekhpal (B) Tehsildar
[UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(C) Governor (D) Lokpal (D) Report of Law Commission

6. In which of the following States, 14. When did the Protection of Human the function of the State Human
the office of Lokayukta was first Rights Act come into force in India? Rights Commission?
established? [MPPCS (Pre) 2015 [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015 Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (A) Enquire suo-moto the violation
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (A) 1990 (B) 1991 of Human Rights
(A) Maharashtra (C) 1992 (D) 1993 (B) Visit any Jail
(B) Uttar Pradesh 15. What was the objective of the (C) Review the protection of
(C) Bihar Protection of Human Rights Act, Human Rights
(D) Odisha 1993? [MPPCS (Pre) 2015] (D) To punish for the violation of
7. The Lokayukta of Uttar Pradesh (A) Better protection of Human Human Rights
submits its report to Rights 22. Which one of the following is not a
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007] (B) To constitute Human Rights Constitutional body?
(A) Chief Minister Protection Commission [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(B) Chief Justice of High Court (C) To constitute Human Rights (A) The Human Rights Commission
(C) Governor Protection Commission in the (B) Finance Commission of a State
(D) Speaker of Legislative Assembly State (C) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(D) All of the above (D) Finance Commission at the
8. The first Indian State to pass the
Lokayukta Bill in 2011 is 16. Who is not a member of the Centre
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[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
committee for the appointment 23. Which one of the following has
of Chairperson and members a status different from the other
(A) Uttar Pradesh
of the National Human Rights three? [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(B) Bihar
cle
Commission? [MPPCS (Pre) 2014] (A) Backward Class Commission
(C) Uttarakhand (A) Speaker of the House of People
(D) Jharkhand (B) Finance Commission
(B) Chairman of the Council of (C) National Human Rights
9. The expenses of the Public Service
Commission of Uttar Pradesh are
charged upon [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
cir
States
(C) Leader of opposition in the
House of People
Commission
(D) Election Commission
24. The Chairman of the Constitutional
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(D) Leader of opposition in the Review Commission set up in
(B) Consolidate Fund of State Council of States February, 2000 is
(C) It’s own Fund generated by fees 17. In which Section of the Human [UPPCS (Mains) 2002
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(D) Contingent Fund Rights Protection Act, 1993 is 45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
10. Vohra Committee was formed to ‘Public Servant’ defined? (A) M.N. Venkatachaliah
study [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003]
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[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]

(B) R.S. Sarkaria
(A) Police Reform (A) Section 2 (B) Section 3 (C) Krishna Iyer
(B) Financial Reform
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(C) Section 2(H) (D) Section 2(M) (D) Fatima Beevi

(C) Nexus of Politicians and 18. According to the National Human 25. The tenure of Central Information
Criminals Rights Commission Act, 1993 who Commissioner is
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(D) Appointment of governors amongst the following can be its [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
11. Name the committee which has Chairman? [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) 6 years or 65 years of age
investigated and submitted the (A) Any Serving Judge of the (B) 6 years or 62 years of age
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report on the nexus of politicians Supreme Court

and criminals? [UPPCS (Pre) 1995] (C) 5 years or 62 years of age
(B) Any Serving Judge of the High
(D) 5 years or 65 years of age
(A) Gyanprakash Committee Court
26. Which Act established Public
(B) Vohra Committee (C) Only a retired Chief Justice of
Service Commission in India for the
(C) Goswami Committee India
first time? [UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(D) Rajamannar Committee (D) Only a retired Chief Justice of a
High Court (A) Indian Council Act, 1892
12. Who recommended to end Indian (B) Council Act, 1909
Administrative Services and Indian 19. The tenure of the Chairman
of the National Human Rights (C) Government of India Act, 1919
Police Services? [IAS (Pre) 1993]
Commission is [MPPCS (Pre) 2017] (D) Government of India Act, 1935
(A) Dhebar Commission 27. The question considered by Swarn
(B) Kelkar Commission (A) 3 years (B) 4 years
(C) 5 years (D) 6 years Singh Committee was related to
(C) Kher Commission [IAS (Pre) 1993]
20. Chairperson and members of State
(D) Rajamannar Commission (A) More autonomy for Punjab
Human Rights Commission are
13. Under which Article of the appointed by [MPPCS (Pre) 2014] than Jammu and Kashmir
Constitution of Protection of (B) Suitability of President oriented
(A) President
Human Rights Ordinance was governance for India
issued by the President in 1993? (B) Governor
(C) Priority to Directive Principles
[MPPCS (Pre) 2015] (C) Chief Justice of High Court
of State Policy in comparison to
(A) Article 123 (B) Article 124 (D) None of the above fundamental rights
(C) Article 125 (D) Article 127 21. Which one of the following is not (D) Administrative reform

28. Mandal Commission, whose functions of a State Public Service 4. Has been termed by Civil
proposals created massive dispute, Commission with the approval of Society members as ‘weak’.
was set up by [UPPCS (Pre) 2008] [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014] Select the correct answer from the
(A) Indira Gandhi (A) Chief Justice of India codes given below.
(B) Morarji Desai (B) Prime Minister [UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(C) Rajeev Gandhi (C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (A) Only 1 and 2
(D) Vishwanath Pratap Singh (D) President of India (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
29. The Report of Mandal Commission 35. Which Article of the Constitution (C) Only 2 and 4
was submitted in [UPPCS (Pre) 1991] has provision for removal of a mem- (D) Only 1, 3 and 4
(A) 1990 (B) 1983 ber of Public Service Commission? 41. Civil Society’s representatives in
(C) 1980 (D) 1977 [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011] the panel for drafting the Lokpal
30. The causes of atrocity on Scheduled (A) 315 (B) 316 Bill include
Caste and Scheduled Tribes (C) 317 (D) 318 1. Anna Hazare
according to the report of National 36. Which of the following is correct 2. Prashant Joshi
Commission for Scheduled Caste about Union Public Service 3. Santosh Hegde
and Scheduled Tribe in the year Commission of India? 4. Kiran Bedi
1990 do not include [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006] 5. Shanti Bhushan
[MPPCS (Pre) 2015] (A) It supervises the State Public Select your correct answer from the
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(A) Land alienation Service Commission code given below.
(B) Bonded labour (B) It has nothing to do with State [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(C) Indebtedness Public Service Commission (A) Only 1, 3, 4 and 5
cle
(D) Religious causes (C) All its Members are taken from (B) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. Who appoints the Members of the State Public Service Commis- (C) Only 1, 2 and 3
State Public Service Commission? sion
(D) Only 1, 3 and 5
(A) President
(B) Governor
[MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
cir
(D) It sends annual guidelines
to State
Commissions
Public Service 42. Consider the following statements
about the minorities in India.
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37. Which one of the following is 1. The Government of India has
(C) Chairman, Union Public Ser- notified five communities,
vice Commission correct? Union Public Service
Commission is a namely, Muslims, Sikhs,
(D) Chairman, State Public Service
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Christians, Buddhists and
Commission Zoroastrians as minorities.
32. The Chairman of a Joint Public (A) Regulatory Organization
2. The National Commission for
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Service Commission for two or (B) Legal Organization Minorities was given statutory
more States is appointed by (C) Established by Parliamentary status in 1993.
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[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016] Ordinance 3. The smallest religious minority

(A) The President of India (D) Constitutional Organization in India are the Zoroastrians.
(B) The President of India on 38. The Union Public Service Commis- 4. The Constitution of India rec-
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the recommendation of the sion submits its annual report to ognizes and protects religious
Governors concerned the [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013 and linguisitic minorities.
(C) The Governor of the largest UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
Which of these statements are
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State (A) Prime Minister correct? [IAS (Pre) 2001]

(D) A Committee of Governors of (B) President (A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 4
all the States concerned (C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
33. In which of the following (D) Home Minister 43. Consider the following statements
matters the State Public Service 39. The first woman Chairman of Union regarding the National Human
Commission is not consulted? Public Service Commission (UPSC) Rights Commission of India.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013] is [MPPCS (Pre) 1993]
1. Its Chairman must be retired
(A) On the method of recruitment (A) Sheela Dixit Chief Justice of India.
of Civil Services (B) Roze Bethew 2. It has formation in each
(B) On the principles to be followed (C) Veena Majumdar State as State Human Rights
in making appointments to (D) Margret Alwa Commission.
Civil Services 40. Which of the following statements 3. Its powers are only recommen-
(C) On the principles to be followed about the Lokpal Bill, 2011 is/are datory in nature.
in making promotions in Civil correct? 4. It is mandatory to appoint a
Services and transfers from one 1. Was introduced in the Lok woman as a member of the
service to another Sabha on August 4, 2011. Commission.
(D) On making transfers of Civil 2. Was introduced by Shri P. Which of the above statements are
Servants Chidambaram, Home Minister. correct? [IAS (Pre) 1999]
34. The Union Public Service Commi- 3. Has been referred to the (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 4
ssion can be entrusted with the Standing Committee (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 3 and 4

44. Which of the following are 1. The report will be of recom- Assertion (A): The National
Constitutional Authorities? mendatory nature. Human Rights Commission
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012 2. The appointment was approved (NHRC) is to be headed by a person
UPPCS (Mains) 2012] by Parliament. who has been a former Chief Justice
1. State Election Commission 3. It is presided over by Chief of India.
2. State Finance Commission Justice M.N. Venkatchaliah. Reason (R): The Chairperson of
3. District Panchayat 4. It will focus on socio-economic NHRC holds office for a term of 5
4. State Electoral Officer needs of the country. years or till he attains the age of 70
Code Which of these statements are years, whichever is earlier.
correct? [UPPCS (Pre) 2003 [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002] Code
45. Consider the following statements (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
regarding appointment of National (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4 (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Commission for revising the 46. Read the following and select the (C) Both (A) and (R) are true
Constitution. correct answer from the code given (D) Both (A) and (R) are false
below.
Answer Sheet
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1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (B)
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21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (B)
cir 45.
29. Temporary Special Provisions

(B) 46. (C)
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1. Article 371-B of the Constitution of 3. Which Article of the Indian 5. Article 370 of the Indian
India makes special provisions for Constitution deals with special Constitution was related to
tu
which of the following State/s? provisions with respect to different [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] States? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997] UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
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(A) Maharashtra and Gujarat (A) Article 369 (A) State of Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Assam (B) Article 370 (B) State of Sikkim
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(C) Nagaland (C) Article 371 (C) State of Nagaland

(D) Manipur (D) Article 372 (D) State of Manipur
2. Article 371 of the Constitution 4. Article 370 of Indian Constitution 6. When was the designation sadr-e-
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makes special provisions for which is [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018 Riyasat changed to Governor for
of the following States? Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015] the state of Jammu and Kashmir?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011] (A) A Regular Provision [Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2019
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(A) Jammu and Kashmir (B) A Permanent Provision UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(B) Maharashtra and Gujarat (C) A Temporary and Transitional (A) 1948 (B) 1950
(C) Nagaland Provision (C) 1952 (D) 1965
(D) Andhra Pradesh (D) An Acting Provision
Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D)
30. Election Commission

1. Chief Election Commissioner can Parliament on the basis of (B) The same procedure which
be removed from his office by proven misconduct applies in case of removal of
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2016 2. The Chief Election Commissioner Supreme Court Judges
UPPCS (Pre) 1991] can be removed from office by (C) The President of India in
(A) Chief Justice of Supreme Court [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2018 consultation with the Chief
(B) The President UPPCS (Mains) 2002] Justice of India
(C) Provision of the Cabinet (A) Both Houses of Parliament by (D) The President on the advice of
(D) 2/3 majority of the members two-thirds majority in each the Council of Ministers
of both the Houses of the House

3. The status of the Chief Election President is conducted by declared elected loses his deposit, it
Commissioner of India is equal to [UPPCS (Mains) 2009] means that [IAS (Pre) 1995]
the [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] (A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (A) The polling was very poor
(A) Chief Justice of India (B) The Prime Minister’s Office (B) The election was for a multi-
(B) Governor of a State (C) The Minister of Parliamentary member constituency
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha Affairs (C) The elected candidate’s victory
(D) Auditor General of India (D) The Election Commission of over his nearest rival was very
4. What is the tenure of the Chief India marginal
Election Commissioner of India? 11. Which of the following is not (D) A very large number of
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] related to Election Commission? candidates contested
(A) Five years [UPPCS (Pre) 1992] 16. The decision to disqualify the
(B) During the pleasure of the (A) To issue notification of election person declared convict by the
President (B) To distribute election symbols Court to contest the elections has
(C) Six years or till the age of 65 (C) To settle the validity of elections been made by [IAS (Pre) 2009]
years whichever is earlier (D) To conduct elections peacefully (A) The Government of India
(D) Five years or till the age of 65 (B) The Supreme Court
12. Which one of the following is correct
years whichever is earlier (C) The Election Commission
in respect of the commencement of
5. The Election Commissioner can be (D) The Parliament
the election process in India?
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removed by the [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
[IAS (Pre) 1995] 17. The Right to Vote in India is a
(A) Chief Election Commissioner [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2010, 2015]
(A) The recommendation for elec-
(B) Prime Minister
tion is made by the Government (A) Fundamental Right
cle
(C) President on the recommen-
and the notification for election (B) Constitutional Right
dation of the Chief Election
is issued by the Election Com- (C) Natural Right
Commissioner
mission (D) Legal Right
(D) Chief Justice of India
6. The Chief Election Commissioner
of India is appointed by
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010
cir
(B) The recommendation for elec-
tion is made by the Election
Commission and the notifica-
18. Voting right by the youths at the age
of 18 years was exercised for the
first time in the General Election of
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tion for election is issued by the [UPPCS (Pre) 2011]
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
Home Ministry at the Centre
(A) Lok Sabha (A) 1987 (B) 1988
and Home Departments in the
(C) 1989 (D) 1990
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(B) Prime Minister States

(C) President (C) The recommendation for elec- 19. The Lower age limit of voters of
(D) Chief Justice tion is made by the Election Union and State Legislature was
rs
7. The Constitution of India provides Commission and the notifica- reduced from 21 years to 18 years
for an Election Commissioner tion for election is issued by the by [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011
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48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008

under Article [MPPCS (Pre) 2014 President and Governors of the UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004
UPPCS (Mains) 2010] States concerned 41st BPSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) 321 (B) 322 (D) Both the exercises of making a (A) 57th Amendment, 1987
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(C) 323 (D) 324 recommendation for election (B) 60th Amendment, 1988
and that of issuing a notification
8. Under which Article of the Indian (C) 61st Amendment, 1989
in respect of it are done by the
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Constitution, there is provision for (D) 65th Amendment, 1990

Election Commission
the Election Commission? 20. Which of the following is concerned
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016] 13. Who decides disputes regarding
disqualification of Members of with the 61st Amendment of the
(A) Article 320 (B) Article 322 Indian Constitution?
Parliament? [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(C) Article 324 (D) Article 326 [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2017
(A) The President
9. Which one of the following UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(B) The Concerned House
functions is not related to the (A) Emergency powers of the
Election Commission? (C) The Election Commission President
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] (D) The President in consultation (B) Powers of the President to
(A) Direction and control of the with the Election Commission extend President’s Rule
preparation of the electoral 14. While deciding any question (C) Lowering the age of voters
rolls relating the disqualification of
(D) Financial Emergency
(B) Conduct of all elections to the a member of Parliament, the
President shall obtain the opinion 21. Which one of the following
Parliament and Legislatures of statements regarding Exit Poll is
every State of [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
correct? [IAS (Pre) 1994]
(C) To conducts the election of the (A) Chief Justice of India
(A) Exit Poll is a term used to
Offices of President and Vice (B) Election Commission of India
denote a post-election survey of
President (C) Attorney General of India voters regarding the candidates
(D) To make provision with respect (D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha in whose favour they had
to elections to Legislatures 15. If in an election to a State Legislative exercised their franchise
10. Election to the Office of the Assembly the candidate who is

(B) Exit Poll and Opinion Polls are 28. Which of the following elections 3. To make a decision on all the
one and the same is not conducted by the Election doubts and disputes arising
(C) Exit Poll is a device through Commission? [Uttarakhand UDA/ from the election.
which results of voting can be LDA (Mains) 2006, 2007] Select the correct answer from the
most exactly predicted (A) Lok Sabha code given below. [IAS (Pre) 1994]
(D) Exit Poll is an administrative (B) Rajya Sabha (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
device made recently by the (C) President’s election (C) 2 and 3 (D) None of these
Chief Election Commissioner to (D) Local bodies 33. The functions of Election Commis-
prevent impersonation 29. Which one of the following is the sion of India are
22. What is the total number of electors ‘National Voters Day’? [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
in Lok Sabha elections of 2009 in [MPPCS (Pre) 2012 1. To conduct all the elections
Million? (1 million = 10 Lakh) UPPCS (Pre) 2015] of the Parliament and State
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004] Legislative Assembly.
(A) 5th June
(A) 815 (B) 613 (B) 1st November 2. To conduct elections for the
(C) 714 (D) 903 (C) 25th January post of President and Vice-
23. The Dinesh Goswami Committee (D) 8th March President.
recommended [IAS (Pre) 1997]
30. The system of proportional 3. To recommend for President’s
(A) The constitution of state-level representation as an electoral Rule in case of any State not in
.in
election commission mechanism ensures condition to hold or conduct
(B) List system of election to the [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013 free and fair elections in any
Lok Sabha UPPCS (Pre) 2013] State.
cle
(C) Government funding of (A) Majority rule 4. To supervise, direct and control
parliamentary elections (B) Stability in Government the work of preparing electoral
(D) A ban on the candidature of lists.
(C) Common political thinking
independent candidates for the
parliamentary elections
24. The Dinesh Goswami Committee
cir
(D) Representation of minorities
with reference to India.
Code
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of them
dy
was concerned with 34. Which of the election system have
[IAS (Pre) 1995]
1. The Chief Election Commis-
sioner and other Election Com- been adopted for different elections
(A) De-nationalisation of banks missioners enjoy equal powers in India?
tu
(B) Electoral reforms but receive unequal salaries. 1. Direct Election System on the
(C) Steps to put down insurgency 2. The Chief Election Commis- basis of Adult Suffrage.
rs
in the North-East sioner is entitled to the same 2. System of Proportional represe-

(D) The problem of the Chakmas salary as is provided to a Judge ntation by a Single Transferable
Vote.
ou
25. Who among the following was of the Supreme Court.

not the member of Election 3. The Chief Election Commis- 3. List System of Proportional
Commission of India? sioner shall not be removed Representation.
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[MPPCS (Pre) 2000] from his office except in like 4. The cumulative Voting system
(A) Dr. M.S. Gill manner and on like grounds as of Indirect Election.
(B) N.B. Lohani a Judge of the Supreme Court. Choose the correct answer from the
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(C) T.S. Krishnamurti 4. The term of office of the Elec- given code. [IAS (Pre) 1994]
(D) B. Lyngdoh tion Commissioner is five years (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
26. Proportional representation is not from the date he assumes his (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
necessary for a country where office or till the day he attains 35. Consider the following statements
[IAS (Pre) 1997] the age of 62 years, whichever about the recent amendments to the
(A) There are no reserved is earlier. elections law by the Representation
constituencies Which of these statements are of the People (Amendment) Act
(B) A two-party system has correct? [IAS (Pre) 2002] 1996.
developed (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 1. Any conviction for the offence
(C) The first-past-post system (C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4 of insulting the Indian National
prevails 32. Which of the following are Flag or the Constitution of India
(D) There is a fusion of Presidential the functions of the Election shall entail disqualification
and Parliamentary forms of Commission of India? for contesting elections
Government 1. To conduct elections for the to Parliament and State
27. The Election Commission was post of Speaker and Deputy Legislatures for six years from
converted into a ‘Three members Speaker of Lok Sabha and the the date of conviction.
Commission’ in the following year. Chairperson of Rajya Sabha. 2. There is an increase in the
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006] 2. To conduct elections for the security deposit which a
(A) 1987 (B) 1988 municipality and municipal candidate has to make to
corporations. contest the election to the Lok
(C) 1989 (D) 1990
Sabha.

3. A candidate cannot now contest (A) Only 1 40. Given below are two statements,
election from more than one (B) Only 2 one labelled as Assertion (A) and
Parliament Constituency. (C) Both 1 and 2 the other as Reason (R).
4. No election will now be (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Assertion (A): The system of
countermanded on the death of 38. Given below are two statements. proportional representation may
a contesting candidate. solve the problem of minority
Assertion (A): Powers for
Which of the above statements are conducting elections to the representation to some extent.
correct? [IAS (Pre) 1999] Parliament and State Legislatures Reason (R): The system of
(A) 2 and 3 in a free and fair manner have been proportional representation
(B) 1, 2 and 4 given to an independent body i.e., enables due representation to all
(C) 1 and 3 the Election Commission. type of groups based on ethnicity,
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Reason (R): Power of removal of gender, interests and ideologies.
36. Consider the following statements. Election Commissioners is with the Choose the correct answer from the
executive. code given below.
1. The Election Commission of
[Tripura PSC (Pre) 2017
India is a five-member body. In the context of above, which one
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs of the following is correct?
decides the election schedule [UPPCS (Pre) 2006] Code
for the conduct of both general Code (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
.in
elections and bye-elections. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
3. Election Commission resolves (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
the disputes relating to splits/ (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
cle
mergers of recognised political (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
parties. but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Which of the statements given explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) Only 1 and 2

[IAS (Pre) 2017] cir
39. Given below are two statements.
41. Study the following statements and
select the correct answer from the
dy
code given below.
(B) Only 2 Assertion (A): Model code
(C) Only 2 and 3 of conduct is to be followed by Assertion (A): The State Election
political parties as soon as an Commission is a Constitutional
tu
(D) Only 3 authority.

37. With reference to the Delimitation election is announced.
Reason (R): Model code of Reason (R): Elections to rural
Commission, consider the follow-
rs
conduct was enacted by Parliament. local bodies are overseen by the

ing statements.
Election Commission of India.
1. The orders of the Delimitation Choose the correct answer from the
ou
[Manipur PSC (Pre) 2018

Commission cannot be challen- code given below. UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
ged in a Court of Law. [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
Code
2. When the orders of the Code
w.
Delimitation Commission are (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
laid before the Lok Sabha or (R) is the correct explanation of
State Legislative Assembly, no (A)
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(A)
modifications can be done in (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
the orders. but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Which of the statement(s) given explanation of (A)
above is/are correct? (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
[IAS (Pre) 2012] (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (D)
31. Political Parties

1. A political party in India can be (A) Congress (B) BJP (B) Economic system
recognised as National Party if it (C) CPI (D) Akali Dal (C) Political system
has state party status in atleast 9. Which one of the following parties (D) International system
[UPPCS (Pre) 2000] is not a National Political Party? 17. Inner-Party Democracy stands for
(A) Three States (B) Four States [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009] [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
(C) Five States (D) Seven States (A) Communist Party of India (A) A Government formed by
2. A political party is recognized as a (B) Bhartiya Janta Party several parties with a common
regional party, if [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] (C) Telugu Desham programme
(A) It gets 4% votes in the State (D) Indian National Congress (B) Party closest to the party
either in Lok Sabha or the 10. Which one of the following has or parties forming the
Assembly election been recognised as National Party Government
(B) It gets 6% votes in the State in 2016? (C) Periodical elections within the
either in Lok Sabha or the [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] party to elect the office bearers
Assembly election (A) I.N.L.D. (B) Akali Dal of the party
(C) It gets 8% votes in the State (C) T.M.C. (D) A.I.A.D.M.K. (D) Secrets of Government are
either in Lok Sabha or the shared by parties in power
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11. Who was the founder of
Assembly election 18. What was the date when the Anti-
‘Independent Labour Party’?
(D) None of the above [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009] defection Bill was passed?
3. Who recognises the political parties [UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
cle
(A) R. Srinivasan
in India? (A) 17 February, 1985
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] (B) 15 February, 1985
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(A) President of India (C) 30 March, 1985
(B) Election Commission of India
(C) Ministry of Law and Justice
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
cir
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
12. In which year was the Communist
Party of India divided into two
(D) 21 April, 1985
covered by the Anti-Defection
dy
parties CPI and CPIM?
4. Which of the following does not [MPPCS (Pre) 2014] Law? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
constitute the social base of the (A) 1962 (B) 1964 (A) An-bloc defections in a Party
communist party in India?
tu
(C) 1966 (D) 1969 (B) Large defections in a Party in

[MPPCS (Pre) 2013] various spell
13. In which of the following state a
(A) Agriculture and Industrial (C) Smaller defection in single spell
regional party is not in power?
rs
working class (D) Party members in Parliament

[MPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(B) Business class casting vote either to topple or
(A) Tamil Nadu
ou
(C) The educated support a Government

(B) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Youth 20. The political parties got the
(C) Jammu and Kashmir
5. The word ‘National’ in Indian Constitutional recognition for the
w.
(D) Kerala
National Congress was influenced first time in the year.
by [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009] 14. Who is empowered to recognize [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
various political parties in India as
(A) 1975 (B) 1977
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(A) Ancient Indian precedents

National or Regional Parties?
(B) Reaction against British rule [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(C) 1985 (D) 1995
(C) European Precedents (A) The Parliament 21. Which of the following is not true
(D) Freedom struggle of America about the Anti-Defection Bill?
(B) The President
6. The Nationalist Congress Party was [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(C) The Election Commission
formed in 1999 following the split (A) An M.P. or an M.L.A. will be
(D) The Supreme Court disqualified if he has voluntarily
in [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
15. Who among the following scholars given up the membership of the
(A) Shiv Sena
described the party system party to which he belonged
(B) Congress Party prevailing in India in the early
(C) BJP (B) In the event of a member’s
years of Independence as one party absence from voting in the
(D) BSP dominant system? House on a particular issue,
7. After the formation of Bhartiya [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] an M.P. or M.L.A. will be
Janta Party, who became its first (A) Myron Weiner disqualified
President? [MPPCS (Pre) 2014] (B) Rajni Kothari (C) A member shall not be
(A) L.K. Advani (C) Austin disqualified if there is a merger
(B) A.B. Vajpayee (D) Bhikhu Parikh of political parties
(C) M.M. Joshi 16. The party system is the part of (D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Sikandar Bakht which larger system among the will not be disqualified if he
8. Which of the following is a Regional following? [MPPCS (Pre) 2012] becomes a member of another
Political Party? [UPPCS (Pre) 2008] (A) Social system political party later on

22. The Anti-Defection Law was Select the correct answer from the the registration of political
enacted as early as 1979 in given code. [UPPCS (Mains) 2011] parties.
[Nagaland PSC (Pre) 2019 (A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 2. Registration of political parties
IAS (Pre) 1993] (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the four is carried out by the Election
(A) Kerala 28. Which of the following political Commission.
(B) Jammu and Kashmir parties is/are national political 3. A National level political party
(C) West Bengal parties? [IAS (Pre) 1995] is one which is recognized in
(D) Tamil Nadu 1. Muslim League four or more states.
23. Which of the following political 4. During 1999 general elections,
2. Revolutionary Socialist Party
parties is not a national party there were six National and 48
3. All India Forward Bloc State level parties recognized
as recognized by the Election 4. Peasants and Workers Party of
Commission of India? by the Election Commission.
India
[Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019 Which of the statement above are
Code correct? [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
MPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1 and 3
(A) Nationalist Congress Party
(C) Only 3 (D) None of these (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) Bahujan Samaj Party
29. Which of the following parties were 33. Consider the table given below
(C) Communist Party of India formed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(D) Samajwadi Party providing some details of the results
1. The Peasants and Workers
.in
of the election to the Karnataka
24. To be officially recognized by Party of India. State Legislative Assembly held in
the Speaker of Lok Sabha as an 2. All India Scheduled Castes December, 1994.
Opposition Group, a party or Federation.
cle
coalition of parties must have at Political Percentage Number
3. The Independent Labour Party. party of Popular of Seats
least [Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Pre) 2006] Select the correct answer from the Votes secured
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012] obtained
(A)
50 members
(B)
60 members
(C)
55 members
cir
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Janta Dal
Congress
BJP
36
31
20.4
116
35
40
dy
(D)
1/3 of total members of the Lok 30. Which of the following Parties were
Sabha not a part of the United Front which In terms of electoral analysis,
was in power during 1996-1997? the voter-seat distortion is to
25. In which State Communist parties
tu
1. Bahujan Samaj Party be explained as the result of the

jointly launched ‘Bhu-Poratam’
2. Haryana Vikas Party adoption of the [IAS (Pre) 1995]
Movement? [Goa PSC (Pre) 2019
3. Samata Party (A) Hare system
rs
RAS/RTS (Pre) 2007]

(A) Andhra Pradesh 4. Asam Gana Parishad (B) Cumulative vote system
(C) First-past-the post system
ou
(B) Tamil Nadu Select the correct answer using the

(C) Karnataka code given below. [IAS (Pre) 1998] (D) Plural vote system
(D) Kerala Code 34. Match List-I with List-II and select
w.
26. The principle of ‘Kamaraj Plan’ was (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2 given below the lists.
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Pre) 1997] 31. Given below is the Vote percentage
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(A) To establish an ideal socialist secured by a political party in three List-I (Political Party)
society successive elections to the Lok (a) CPI
(B) Industrial Development of Sabha. The party which secured (b) CPM
Tamil Nadu these percentages of votes was (c) AIADMK
(C) Making Indian National Year 1984 1989 1991 (d) Telugu Desham
Congress Vibrant Percentage of 7.4 11.4 22.4 List-II (Year of Formation)
(D) Promotion of cooperative Votes 1. 1972
farming The party to receive above men- 2. 1920
27. The Principles for election to the tioned percentage of votes was 3. 1964
State Legislatures include [IAS (Pre) 1994] 4. 1982
1. It will be on the basis of adult (A) Congress (I) Code
suffrage. (B) Bahujan Samaj Party (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. There will be only one electoral (C) Bhartiya Janta Party (A) 2 3 1 4
roll for every territorial (D) Communist Party of India (B) 3 2 4 1
constituency. (Marxist) (C) 1 2 3 4
3. Religion, Race, Sex etc., will 32. Consider the following statements (D) 4 1 3 2
have no place in the formation regarding the political parties in
of the electoral roll. 35. Consider the following statements.
India.
4. The political parties will be free 1. The Representation of the Assertion (A): The coalition
to have their norms. People Act, 1951 provides for government led by Bhartiya

Janta Party contains some policy Code 38. Consider the following statements.
guidance in the National agenda, (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and Assertion (A): There is no fixed
some promises and few guiding (R) is the correct explanation of party system in India.
principles for its governance. (A) Reason (R): There are too many
Reason (R): It discusses a lot of (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, political parties.
things in detail. but (R) is not the correct Select the correct answer from code
Which one of the following is corr- explanation of (A) given below.
ect in context to above statements? (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998] (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true UPPCS (Mains) 2004
Code 37. Given below are two statements, UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and one labelled as Assertion (A) and Code
(R) is the correct explanation of the other labelled as Reason (R). (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(A) Assertion (A): The reservation (R) is the correct explanation of
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, of thirty-three percent of seats for (A)
but (R) is not the correct women in Parliament and State (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
explanation of (A) Legislature does not require a but (R) is not the correct
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false Constitutional amendment. explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Reason (R): Political parties (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
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36. Given below are two statements, contesting elections can allocate (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
one labelled as Assertion (A) and thirty-three percent of seats they 39. Study the following statements and
the other labelled as Reason (R). contest to women candidates select the correct answer from the
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Assertion (A): In India, the without any Constitutional code given below.
political parties which formed amendment. Assertion (A): India has a written
the governments represented the In the context of the above two Constitution.
majority of seats secured in the
elections to the House of the People
at the Centre and the Legislative
cir
statements which one of the
following is correct?
[IAS (Pre) 1997]
Reason (R): Growth of strong
regional parties is an indicator of
regional aspirations.
dy
Assemblies in the States but not the Code [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
majority of votes. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and Code
Reason (R): The result of (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
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elections based on the majority- (A) (R) is the correct explanation of

vote-system is decided on the basis (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (A)
of the relative majority of votes but (R) is not the correct
rs

secured. explanation of (A) but (R) is not the correct
In the context of the above two (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
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explanation of (A)
statements which one of the (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
following is correct? [IAS (Pre) 1994] (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
w.
Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
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11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (B)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (B)
32. Constitutional Amendment

1. Which Article of the Constitution (C) Either in Lok Sabha or Rajya (C) 24th Amendment
of India lays down the procedure Sabha (D) 42nd Amendment
for the amendment of the (D) In the Supreme Court of India 4. Which one of the following Bills
Constitution? [UPPSC (GIC) 2010 3. The President’s power to veto a Bill must be passed by each House of
UPPCS (Mains) 2008] for amendment of the Constitution the Indian Parliament separately by
(A) 348 (B) 358 has been taken away by substituting the special majority?
(C) 368 (D) 378 the world ‘shall give his assent’ by [UPPCS (Mains) 2007
2. A bill for the amendment in Indian which amendment? IAS (Pre) 2003]
Constitution can be presented [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018 (A) Ordinary Bill
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2013 RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013] (B) Money Bill
39th BPSC (Pre) 1992] (A) 44th Amendment (C) Finance Bill
(A) Only in Lok Sabha (B) 23rd Amendment (D) Constitution Amendment Bill
(B) Only in Rajya Sabha

5. When was the first Bill for (A) 2002 (B) 2004 of the following Constitutional
the amendment of the Indian (C) 2008 (D) 2010 Amendments?
Constitution presented? 11. By which Constitutional Amend- [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
[38th BPSC (Pre) 1992] ment OBCs have been given 27% (A) 57th Amendment, 1987
(A) 1950 (B) 1951 reservation in the admission to edu- (B) 58th Amendment, 1987
(C) 1955 (D) 1958 cational institutions? (C) 59th Amendment, 1988
6. In the event of the Upper House [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (D) 60th Amendment, 1988
rejecting a Constitutional Amend- (A) 92nd (B) 93rd 18. Which one of the following
ment Bill passed by the Lower (C) 94th (D) 96th Amendments to the Constitution is
House. [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2015 12. By which of the following amend- related to the Lowering of the age
UPPCS (Mains) 2004] ments of the Indian Constitution, of voters? [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) The Bill will have to be dropped the term ‘Co-operative Societies’ (A) 61st Amendment
(B) A joint sitting of the both was added in Article 19(1)(c)? (B) 44th Amendment
Houses of Parliament may be [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] (C) 42nd Amendment
convened to consider and pass (A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (D) 24th Amendment
the Bill (B) 73rd Amendment Act, 1993 19. The 79th Amendment of the Indian
(C) The Bill shall be deemed to (C) 97th Amendment Act, 2011 Constitution is related to
have been passed by both the (D) 36th Amendment Act, 1975 [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
.in
Houses of the Parliament if the
13. Which one of the following, (A) Centre-State Relation
Lok Sabha passes it again by a
Amendments of the Constitution of (B) Establishment of two political
two-third majority
India converts the Union Territory parties
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(D) The Bill shall be deemed to have of Delhi into the National Capital
been passed by both the Houses (C) Fundamental Rights
Region of Delhi? (D) Reservation of SCs and STs
of the Parliament despite the [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
disapproval of the Bill by the in the Lok Sabha and State
Upper House
7. The First Constitution Amendment
Bill passed in 1951 was related to
cir
(A) 69th Amendment
(B) 70th Amendment
UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
Legislative Assemblies
20. Which Constitutional Amendment
makes provision for the reservation
dy
[Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2018
(C) 73rd Amendment of seats for SC’s and ST’s in Lok
UPPCS (Mains) 2009] (D) 74th Amendment Sabha and State Assemblies?
14. Which of the following has banned [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
tu
(A) Security of the country

(B) Security of the Prime Minister floor crossing by the member (A) 76th (B) 77th
elected on a party ticket to the (C) 78th (D) 79th
(C) Protection of agrarian reforms
rs
legislature? [UPPCS (Pre) 1996, 92] 21. The basis structure theory of the
in certain States
(A) 52nd Constitutional Amend- Constitution of India implies that
(D) Scheduled Castes and
ou
ment Act [IAS (Pre) 1994]

Scheduled Tribes
(B) Representation of Public Law (A) Certain features of the Consti-
8. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian
Constitution was added by (C) 42nd Constitutional Amend- tution are so essential to it that
w.
[IAS (Pre) 2003]

ment they cannot be abrogated
(D) 44th Constitutional Amend- (B) Fundamental rights cannot be
(A) First Amendment
ment abridged or taken away
ww
(B) Eighth Amendment

15. Which one of the following Consti- (C) The Constitution cannot be
(C) Ninth Amendment
tutional Amendments introduced amended except in accordance
(D) Forty Second Amendment the anti-defection provision in the with the procedure laid down
9. The 93rd Constitution Amendment Constitution for the first time? in Article 368
Bill deals with the [IAS (Pre) 2002] [UPPCS (Mains) 2008 (D) The Preamble of the Constitu-
(A) Continuation of reservation for MPPCS (Pre) 2015] tion cannot be amended for it
backward classes in govern- (A) 54th Amendment is not a part of the Constitution
ment jobs (B) 53rd Amendment and at the same time represents
(B) Free and compulsory education (C) 52nd Amendment it real spirit
for all children between the age (D) 51st Amendment 22. The Keshavanand Bharti Case is
of 6 and 14 years important because
16. 52nd Constitution Amendment is
(C) Reservation of 30% posts [UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
related to [Orissa PSC (Pre) 2014
for women in government (A) It sets aside the orders of the
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
recruitments executive
(A) Defection
(D) Allocation of more number (B) The Supreme Court interpreted
of Parliamentary seats for (B) Reservation
(C) Election the basic features of the
recently formed States Constitution
10. ‘Right to Education’ introduced (D) Protection of minorities
(C) It brought the Union
through 86th Amendment came 17. The authoritative text of the
Government in the dock
into force. [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018 Indian Constitution in Hindi was
authorized to be published by which (D) None of the above

23. The Supreme Court of India separate bodies? 35. Sikkim became a new State by
enunciated the doctrine of ‘Basic [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016] [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
Structure of the Constitution’ in (A) 42nd Amendment (A) 30th Amendment of the
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (B) 44th Amendment Constitution
(A) The Golaknath case in 1967 (C) 89th Amendment (B) 34th Amendment of the
(B) The Sajjan Singh case in 1965 (D) 93rd Amendment Constitution
(C) The Shankari Prasad case in 30. When were the Fundamental Duties (C) 35th Amendment of the
1951 mentioned in the Constitution? Constitution
(D) The Keshavanand Bharti case [MPPCS (Pre) 2017] (D) 36th Amendment of the
in 1973 (A) At the time of framing of Constitution
24. In India, who is competent to Constitution 36. Mizoram has been granted the sta-
amend Fundamental Rights of the (B) On 26th January, 1950 tus of a State by which of the follow-
citizens? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (C) In the 42nd Constitutional ing Constitutional Amendment?
(A) Lok Sabha Amendment [RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013]
(B) Rajya Sabha (D) In the 41st Constitutional (A) 53rd (B) 54th
(C) Parliament Amendment (C) 55th (D) 52nd
(D) Supreme Court 31. The Constitution (98th Amend- 37. Which Amendment to the
25. In which of the following cases ment) Bill is related to Constitution inserted a new Article
.in
the Supreme Court limited the [IAS (Pre) 2005] 21A in the Constitution providing
power of Parliament to amend the (A) Empowering the centre to levy Right to Education?
Constitution for the first time? and appropriate service tax [UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
cle
[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019 (B) Constitution of the National (A) 86th Amendment
UPPCS (Mains) 2002] Judicial Commission (B) 87th Amendment
(A) A.K. Gopalan Vs. The State of (C) Readjustment of electoral (C) 88th Amendment
Madras
(B) Golaknath Vs. The State of
Punjab
cir
constituencies on the basis of
the population census 2001
(D) The demarcation of new
(D) 89th Amendment
dy
(C) Keshavanand Bharti Vs. The boundaries between States I. Through 44th Constitutional
State of Kerala 32. 97th Constitutional Amendment Amendment, 1978 all the
(D) Minerva Mills Vs. The Union of Act of 2012 is concerned with Directive Principles of State
tu
India [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012] Policy have been given

26. Which of the following Constitu- (A) Free and compulsory education preference over Fundamental
rs
tional Amedment Acts was termed for children upto the age of 14 Rights mentioned in Articles 14
as Mini Constitution? years and 19.
[47th BPSC (Pre) 2005] II. Supreme Court has laid down
ou
(B) Organization and working of

(A) 42nd (B) 44th co-operative societies in its verdict in Minerva Mills
(C) 46th (D) 50th (C) Stringent measures to deal with Case, 1980 that the preference
given only to Directive
w.
27. Which Amendment of the terrorism

Constitution provides that no law (D) Provision of Lokpal to prevent Principles of State Policy
passed to give effect to Directive corruption mentioned in Article 39(b) and
ww
Principles of State Policy contained (c) over Fundamental Rights

33. By which Constitutional Amend-
in Articles 39(b) and (c) shall be mentioned in Articles 14 and
ment the number of Central
deemed to be void on the ground 19 is constitutional.
Ministers has been limited to 15%
that it abridges the rights conferred of the total number of the members (A) Neither 1 nor II is correct
by Articles 14 and 19? of the Lok Sabha? (B) Only I is correct
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015 (C) Only II is correct
(A) 25th Amendment IAS (Pre) 2007] (D) Both I and II are correct
(B) 28th Amendment (A) 91st Amendment 39. An amendment to the Constitution
(C) 42nd Amendment (B) 92nd Amendment of India can be initiated by the
(D) 44th Amendment (C) 90th Amendment 1. Lok Sabha
28. Which of the following Constitu- (D) None of the above 2. Rajya Sabha
tional Amendment is related to the 34. Which of the following Amend- 3. State Legislatures
Fundamental Duties? ments of the Indian Constitution 4. President
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2003] limits the size of the Union Select the correct answer using the
(A) 42nd (B) 44th Ministry? [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2017 codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 1999]
(C) 46th (D) 50th UPPCS (Mains) 2004] (A) 1 alone (B) 1, 2 and 3
29. Which Constitutional Amendment (A) 78th Amendment (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
bifurcated the Combined National (B) 91st Amendment 40. According to the Indian
Commission for Scheduled Castes (C) 88th Amendment Constitution, the Constitutional
and Scheduled Tribes into two (D) 90th Amendment amendment of the following topics

requires consent of atleast half of two Houses of Parliament on List-II (Number of Constitu-
State legislatures. Constitutional Amendment tional Amendment)
[UPPCS Lower (Pre) 2004] Bill, Joint sitting of both Houses 1. 81st Amendment, 2000
1. Federal provision of the can be summoned. 2. 91st Amendment, 2003
Constitution 4. The President cannot veto a 3. 97th Amendment, 2011
2. Rights of the Supreme Court Constitutional Amendment Bill. 4. 99th Amendment, 2014
3. The process of Constitutional Which of the statements given Code
Amendment above are correct?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4. Formation of new States or [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 3 2 4 1
transformation in the borders (A) Only 1 and 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
and names of the states (B) Only 1 and 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
Code (C) Only 2 and 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (D) Only 2, 3 and 4
46. Match the following Constitutional
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 44. Match List-I with List-II and select
Amendments.
41. Which of the following are the the correct answer using the code
matters on which a constitutional given below the lists.
[IAS (Pre) 2001] List-I
amendment is possible only with
the ratification of the legislatures of List-I (Amendments to the (a) 13th Amendment
.in
not less than one-half of the states? Constitution) (b) 18th Amendment
[IAS (Pre) 1995] (a) The Constitution (Sixty ninth (c) 39th Amendment
1. Election of the President Amendment) Act, 1991 (d) 52nd Amendment
cle
2. Representation of the States in (b) The Constitution (Seventy fifth List-II
Parliament Amendment) Act, 1994 1. Nagaland
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th (c) The Constitution (Eightieth 2. Anti-defection law
Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislature
Council of a State
cir
Amendment) Act, 2000
(d) The Constitution (Eighty third
Amendment) Act, 2000
3. Clarified the ‘state’
4. The election of President,
Speaker and Prime Minister
dy
Code List-II cannot be challenged
(A) 1, 2 and 3 1. Establishment of state level Code
(B) 1, 2 and 4 Rent Tribunals (a) (b) (c) (d)
tu
(C) 1, 3 and 4 2. No reservation for Scheduled (A) 2 4 1 3

(D) 2, 3 and 4 Castes in Panchayats in (B) 4 3 2 1
rs
42. Consider the following statements. Arunachal Pradesh (C) 3 2 1 4

1. An amendment to the 3. Constitution of Panchayats at (D) 1 3 4 2
ou
Constitution of India can be Villages or at another local level 47. Match List-I with List-II and select
initiated by introduction of a 4. Accepting the recommenda- the correct answer using the code
Bill in the Lok Sabha only. tions of the Tenth Finance given below the lists.
w.
2. If such an amendment seeks Commission [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]

to make changes in the federal 5. According the status of Nation- List-I
character of the Constitution, al Capital Territory to Delhi
(a) Curtailment of the power of
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the amendment also requires to Code judicial review

be ratified by the legislatures of (a) (b) (c) (d) (b) Abolition of Right to property
all the States of India. (A) 5 1 4 2 as a fundamental right
Which of the statements given (B) 1 5 3 4 (c) Lowering the voting age from
above is/are correct? (C) 5 1 3 4 21 to 18
[IAS (Pre) 2013] (D) 1 5 4 2 (d) Addition of the word secular in
(A) Only 1 45. Match List-I with List-II and select the preamble
(B) Only 2 the correct answer using the code List-II
(C) Both 1 and 2 given below the lists. 1. 61st Amendment
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 [RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013]
2. 42nd Amendment
43. Consider the following statements List-I (Provision of Constitu- 3. 38th Amendment
regarding Constitutional Amend- tional Amendment) 4. 44th Amendment
ments. (a) Right to form Co-operative Code
1. In Article 368, two methods of societies under Article 19(1)(c)
Constitutional Amendment are (a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) Protection of SC/ST reservation
mentioned. (A) 1 2 4 3
in filling backlog of vacancies
2. Constitutional Amendment (B) 2 4 1 3
(c) Formation of National Judicial
Bill can be initiated only in Lok Appointments Commission (C) 3 4 1 2
Sabha. (d) Limiting the size of the Council (D) 4 1 3 2
3. In case of any dispute between of Ministers

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C)
33. Official Language

1. Under Article 344 of Indian four languages were added to (A) 16 (B) 17
Constitution, the first ‘Official the languages under the Eighth (C) 18 (D) 22
Language Commission’ was Schedule of the Constitution. 11. Which Article of Indian Constitution
established [UPPCS (Pre) 1998] Thereby raising their number to provides the procedure for
(A) In 1950 under the Chairman- 22? [IAS (Pre) 2007] adoption of Official Language or
ship of K.M. Munshi (A) Constitution (90th Amend- Languages of the State?
.in
(B) In 1955 under the Chairman- ment) Act [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
ship of B.G. Kher (B) Constitution (91st Amend- (A) 343 (B) 344
(C) In 1960 under the Chairman- ment) Act (C) 345 (D) 346
ship of M.C. Chagala (C) Constitution (92nd Amend-
cle
12. Which of the following States has
(D) In 1965 under the Chairman- ment) Act given the Sanskrit language the
ship of Humayun Kabir (D) Constitution (93rd Amend- status of second official language?
2. Which of the following languages ment) Act
was added in the eighth schedule of
the Constitution in 2003?
cir
6. Which of the following languages is
not included in the Eighth Schedule
of the Constitution?
(A) Bihar
(B) Chhattisgarh
[UPPCS (Pre) 2011]
dy
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(A) Konkani [MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(D) Uttarakhand
(B) Sindhi (A) Urdu
13. The Provisions related to official
tu
(C) Manipuri (B) Nepali language of India can be amended

(D) Santhali (C) Konkani by [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
3. Which Article of the Constitution (D) Bhojpuri
rs
(A) Simple majority

provides that every state shall 7. Which of the following languages (B) Minimum 2/3 majority
endeavour to provide an adequate is spoken by maximum number of
ou
facility for instruction in mother (C) Minimum 3/4 majority

persons in the world?
tongue at primary stage of (D) Cannot be amended
[IAS (Pre) 2003]
education? [UPPCS (Pre) 2003, 02 14. Which one of the following
(A) Bengali
w.
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002] languages included in the VIII

(B) French Schedule of the Constitution is
(A) Article 349
(C) Japanese spoken by the largest number of
(B) Article 350
ww
(D) Portuguese people? [UPPCS (Pre) 1998]

(C) Article 350A
8. Which of the following is not (A) Bengali
(D) Article 351
included in Eighth Schedule of our (B) Gujarati
4. Which one of the following is Constitution? [UPPCS (Pre) 1993]
correct about the languages (C) Marathi
(A) Gujarati (B) Kashmiri (D) Telugu
mentioned in the Constitution of
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(C) Rajasthani (D) Dogri 15. Which one of the following is a
(A) State can compel the linguistic 9. Which three languages have been language of Baluchistan but from
minorities to choose their added to the Eighth Schedule of the philological aspect it is a language
mother tongue as a medium of Constitution by 71st Amendment? of Dravidian family?
instruction in primary schools [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017 [IAS (Pre) 1994]
MPPCS (Pre) 1993]
(B) ‘Angika’ is now included (A) Brahui
in the 8th Schedule of the (A) Sindhi, Manipuri, Konkani (B) Kui
Constitution (B) Konkani, Kashmiri, Nepali (C) Pargi
(C) Hindi is National language of (C) Nepali, Konkani, Manipuri (D) Pengo
India (D) Nepali, Konkani, Assamese 16. Percentage of Hindi speaking
(D) Bodo is a recognized language 10. The number of official languages Indians is about.
in the 8th Schedule of the recognised by the constitution in [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018
Constitution the eight schedule is ..... . RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003]
5. Under which one of the following [UPPSC (GIC) 2010
(A) 50 (B) 45
Constitutional Amendment Acts, 48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006] (C) 40 (D) 35

17. Which of the following is the correct Select correct answer using the Which of the language(s) given
sequence in descending order of code given below. above has/have been declared
the Indian languages, being used as [UPPCS (Pre) 2001] as ‘Classicial Language’ by the
mother tongue? (A) 1, 4, 3, 2 (B) 1, 2, 4, 3 Government? [IAS (Pre) 2014]
1. Bengali (C) 1, 4, 2, 3 (D) 4, 2, 1, 3 (A) Only 1 and 2
2. Marathi 18. Consider the following languages. (B) Only 3
3. Tamil 1. Gujarati 2. Kannada (C) Only 2 and 3
4. Telugu 3. Telugu (D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C)
34. Panchayati Raj and Community Development

1. The subject of Panchayati Raj is in functions is not the concern of Local Raj System’?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015 Self Government? [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
.in
39th BPSC (Pre) 2005] [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] (A) 71st Amendment
(A) Concurrent List (A) Public Health (B) 72nd Amendment
(B) Union List (B) Sanitation (C) 73rd Amendment
cle
(C) State List (C) Public Utility Services (D) 75th Amendment
(D) Residual List (D) Maintenance of Public Order 12. Under which of the following
2. The elections to Panchayats are to 7. Who among the following Constitutional Amendments, 30%
be held after
(A) Every four years
cir
constitutes ‘Finance Commission’
to review the financial position of
Panchayats? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
seats in the village panchayats have
been reserved for women in India?
dy
(B) Every five years (A) Chief Minister of the concerned (A) 70th Amendment
(C) Every six years State (B) 71st Amendment
tu
(D) At the Government’s descretion (B) Finance Minister of the (C) 73rd Amendment
3. Who among the following is concerned State (D) 74th Amendment
authorized to make provisions (C) The Governor of the concerned 13. Reservation of seats in Panchayat
rs
with respect to the composition of State elections for Scheduled Castes shall
Panchayats? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (D) Panchayati Raj Minister of the not apply to the State of
ou
(A) Governor of State concerned State [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]

(B) Legislature of State 8. Who was the Prime Minister of (A) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Parliament of India India at the time of 73rd and 74th (B) Assam
w.
(D) President of India Amendments to the Constitution of (C) Arunachal Pradesh

India pertaining to Panchayats and (D) Haryana
4. The decision to conduct Panchayat Nagarpalikas? [MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
ww
Elections is taken by which of the 14. Local self-government can be best

following? [47th BPSC (Pre) 2005]
(A) Indira Gandhi explained as an exercise in
(B) Rajeev Gandhi [Manipur PSC (Pre) 2018
(A) The Central Government
(C) P.V. Narsimha Rao IAS (Pre) 2017]
(B) The State Government
(D) V.P. Singh (A) Federalism
(C) The District Judge
(D) The Election Commission 9. The provision regarding Panchayats (B) Democratic decentralisation
and Municipalities was made in the (C) Administrative delegation
5. Which one of the following is not Indian Constitution in
concerned with the Panchayats? (D) Direct democracy
[UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] 15. ‘Gram Sabha’ means
(A) 1991 (B) 1995 [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2018
(A) The State Election Commission
(C) 2000 (D) 1993 UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
will conduct Panchayat
elections 10. In which Article, the provision on (A) Persons of the territorial area of
(B) The Constitution (74th reservation of Scheduled Caste and a Panchayat
Amendment) Act Scheduled Tribes to Panchayat has (B) Persons specified by the
been given? notification of the District
(C) There shall be a fixed five year
term for all the Panchayats Authority
(A) 243A (B) 243B (C) Persons registered in electoral
(D) Fresh elections would have to
be held within six months of the (C) 243C (D) 243D rolls related to a Panchayat
dissolution of a Panchayat 11. Which of the following amendments area at the village level
6. Which one of the following to the Indian Constitution, provides (D) Members of Panchayats
Constitutional status to ‘Panchayati

16. Who presides over the meeting of 23. Which one of the following state- (A) Two-tier (B) Three-tier
Gram Sabha in Scheduled Areas? ments regarding Panchayati Raj is (C) Village level (D) None of these
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015] not correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] 30. Which one of the following States
(A)
Sarpanch (A) Panchayat System has been an was the first to set-up Panchayati
(B)
Deputy Sarpanch integral part of Indian village Raj institutions in accordance
(C)
Sarpanch or Deputy Sarpanch life through the ages with the recommendations of the
(D)
Schedule Tribe member (B) 73rd Amendment came into Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?
present who is elected by Gram effect on 15th August, 1993 [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
Sabha (C) It is a three-tier organically (A) Uttar Pradesh
17. Which Article of the Indian Consti- linked structure (B) Andhra Pradesh
tution directs State Government to (D) Article 243G of the Indian (C) Rajasthan
organize village Panchayats? Constitution adds to its (D) Telangana
[39th BPSC (Pre) 1994] importance
31. The Chairman of the Committee
(A) Article 32 (B) Article 40 24. What is the main purpose of set up for the recommendation of
(C) Article 48 (D) Article 51 Panchayati Raj? Panchayati Raj in India was
18. Article 40 of the Constitution of [38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
(A) To increase agricultural
India advises the State to work for (A) Balwant Rai Mehta
production
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015] (B) B.R. Ambedkar
.in
(B) To increase employment
(A) Uniform Civil Code (C) Justice Krishna Iyer
(C) To increase people’s politically
(B) Organization of Village Pan- awareness (D) Jagjivan Ram
chayats (D) To enable people to participate 32. The Committe on whose recomme-
cle
(C) Constitution of Municipalities in developmental administra- ndation, the ‘Panchayati Raj
(D) Living wages for workers tion System’ was introduced in the
19. Panchayati Raj is organized as a 25. For successful functioning, Pancha- Country, was headed by
unit of Self-Government under
[43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999]
(A) Fundamental Rights of Indian
cir
yati Raj needs full co-operation of
(A) Local Public

[42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
[Uttarakhand UDA/
LDA (Mains) 2007, 06
47th BPSC (Pre) 2005
MPPCS (Pre) 1996]
dy
Constitution (B) Central Government (A) Jivraj Mehta
(B) The Preamble of the Indian (C) Bureaucrats (B) Balwant Rai Mehta
Constitution (D) Politicians
tu
(C) Shrimannarayan
(C) Directive Principles of State 26. Panchayati Raj in India represents (D) Jagjivan Ram
Policy [44th BPSC (Pre) 2000] 33. Who is considered as the ‘Architect
rs
(D) 73rd Amendment of the Indian (A) Decentralisation of powers of Panchayati Raj’ in India?
Constitution (B) Participation of the people [UPPCS (Pre) 2016
ou
20. MANREGA scheme has been (C) Community development UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
launched as a part of implementing
(D) All of the above (A) Acharya Narendra Deo
which one of the following Articles
27. Name the Committee which was (B) G.V.K. Rao
w.
of the Indian Constitution?

set up by the NDC in 1957 for the (C) B.R. Mehta
reorganization of CDP and NES, (D) L.M. Singhvi
ww
which suggested a three-tier system 34. The Panchayati Raj System was
(C) Article 47 (D) Article 50 of rural local government.
21. What is the main characteristic first started in India in the State of
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011] Rajasthan and ....... .
of Panchayati Raj System of (A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee [47th BPSC (Pre) 2005]
Government? [38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee (A) Haryana
(A) It has three tiers of Government (C) Maharashtra Committee on
(B) It aims to give social and (B) Gujarat
Democratic Decentralisation (C) Uttar Pradesh
economic justice to villages (D) Rural-Urban Relationship
(C) Some members of Parliament (D) Andhra Pradesh
Committee
are as respresentatives in Zila 35. Panchayati Raj was first introduced
28. The Committee which recomme- in October, 1959 in [IAS (Pre) 2009
Parishad
nded a three-tier Panchayati Raj RAS/RTS (Pre) 1996
(D) All of them are true System in India was [IAS (Pre) 2005 43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999]
22. Panchayati Raj is mainly aimed at MPPCS (Pre) 2014] (A) Rajasthan (B) Tamil Nadu
[43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999] (A) Ashok Mehta Committee (C) Kerala (D) Karnataka
(A) Increasing rivalry among (B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 36. The first Panchayati Raj System
villagers (C) G.K.V. Rao Committee was inaugurated by Pt. Jawaharlal
(B) Giving training to villagers for (D) L.M. Singhvi Committee Nehru on 2nd October, 1959 in
contesting election [UPPCS (Pre) 1994, 1991]
29. Which kind of Panchayati Raj
(C) Decentralization of power to (A) Sabarmati (B) Wardha
System was recommended by the
villagers
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee? (C) Nagaur (D) Sikar
(D) None of the above [MPPCS (Pre) 2016]

37. Which of the following bears Raj System was recommended by Panchayati Raj Institutions?
the responsibility of planning, [UPPCS (Mains) 2010 [MPPCS (Pre) 1998
execution and implementation of UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006] 44th BPSC (Pre) 2000]
MNREGA schemes? (A) The Government of India Act, (A) 73rd Amendment
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2018 1935 (B) 71st Amendment
RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012] (B) The Cripps Mission 1942 (C) 74th Amendment
(A) Gram Sabha (C) The Indian Independence Act, (D) None of the above
(B) Gram Panchayat 1947 51. The 73rd Amendment of the
(C) State Government (D) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Constitution of India is related to
(D) DRDA Report, 1957 [UPPCS (Mains) 2004
38. The first State to adopt Panchayati 44. Which committee had, first of all, 45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
Raj was [UPPCS (Pre) 2012 recommended three-tier Panchaya- (A) Centre-State Relations
UPPCS (Mains) 2003] ti Raj system in India? (B) Powers of the Supreme Court
(A) Uttar Pradesh [UPPCS (Mains) 2012
(C) Salaries and Privileges of
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011, 2008]
(B) Bihar Members of Parliament
(C) Gujarat (A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(D) Panchayati Raj System
(D) Rajasthan (B) L.M. Singhvi Committee
52. Functions to be assigned to
39. When and where was Panchayati (C) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Panchayats by 73rd Amendment of
.in
Raj System in India introduced? (D) Sarkariya Commission the Constitution are mentioned in
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006] 45. Which one of the following [UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) 5th July, 1957, Faizabad (U.P.) committees is not concerned with (A) Eleventh Schedule
cle
(B) 2nd October, 1959, Nagaur Panchayati Raj Institution? (B) Tenth Schedule
[UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(Rajasthan) (C) Thirteenth Schedule
(C) 14th November, 1959, (A) P.V.N. Rao Committee (D) Twelfth Schedule
Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
(D) 3rd December, 1960, Bhopal
(M.P.)
cir
(B) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(C) Ashok Mehta Committee
(D) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
53. How many subjects are provided
by 11th schedule of Indian
Constitution for Panchayats?
dy
40. According to democratic decentral- 46. Which of the following Committee [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
ization recommended by Balwant is not associated with Panchayati (A) 27 (B) 28
Rai Mehta committee? Raj System? (C) 29 (D) 30
tu
[MPPCS (Pre) 1994] [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]

54. The first State to implemented 73rd
(A) Three-tier democratic Pancha- (A) Ashok Mehta Committee Constitutional Amendment is
rs
yati Raj institutions were to be (B) V.K.R.V. Rao Committee [MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
set up at the village, block and (C) Santhanam Committee (A) Madhya Pradesh
ou
district levels (D) B.R. Mehta Committee (B) Punjab

(B) Only two-tier Panchayati Raj 47. Which model was recommended (C) Andhra Pradesh
institutions at district and by Ashok Mehta Committee for (D) Rajasthan
w.
Mandal levels were to be Panchayati Raj System? 55. The 73rd Amendment of Indian
constituted [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009 Constitution provides
(C) Only Zila Parishad was 53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011] [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006]
ww
proposed to be set up at the (A) One-tier (B) Two-tier (A) First time of Panchayati Raj
district level (C) Three-tier (D) Four-tier (B) Removal of administrative
(D) None of the above 48. Which of the following Committees control over Panchayats
41. Who was the Chairman of the Com- recommended to give Constitution- (C) Changing of laws regarding
mittee which proposed Democratic al status to Panchayati Raj? elections of Panchayats
Decentralisation and Panchayati [UPPCS (Mains) 2008] (D) Making panchayat elections
Raj? [UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (A) L.M. Singhvi Committee mandatory and equivalent
(A) K.M. Pannikar (B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee to the polls of Lok Sabha and
(B) H.N. Kunjru (C) Rao Committee Legislative Assembly
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Ashok Mehta Committee 56. The 73rd Constitutional Amend-
(D) Balwant Rai Mehta 49. Which one of the following ment Act, 1992 refers to the
42. The Decentralization System was [IAS (Pre) 2000]
Committees is not associated with
recommended by Panchayati Raj System in India? (A) Generation of gainful employ-
[Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016 [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] ment for the unemployed and
56th to 59th BPSC (Pre) 2015] (A) Dinesh Goswami Committee the under-employed men and
(A) C. Rajagopalachari women in the rural area
(B) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(B) J.B. Kripalani (B) Generation of employment
(C) Sadiq Ali Committee
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta for the capable adults who are
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee in need and desirous of works
(D) Ashok Mehta 50. Which Constitutional Amendment during the lean agricultural
43. Establishment of the Panchayati granted Constitutional Status to season

(C) Laying the foundation of strong 62. Which State Government have 68. The Three-tier system of Panchayati
and vibrant Panchayati Raj provided 50% reservation for Raj consists of [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
Institutions in the Country women in local bodies up to 2010? (A) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat
(D) Guarantee of the right to life, [53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011] Samiti, Block Samiti
liberty and security of person (A) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan (B) Gram Panchayat, Block Samiti,
equality before the law and (B) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Zila Parishad
equal protection without Himachal Pradesh (C) Block Samiti, Zila Parishad,
discrimination (C) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala Panchayat Samiti
57. Which one of the following was (D) Bihar, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar (D) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat
established as the first programme Pradesh Samiti, Zila Parishad
of Community development? 63. The number of seats reserved 69. Which part of our Constitution en-
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] for women in Panchayati Raj visages a three-tier system of Pan-
(A) National Extension Service Institutions in U.P. is chayats? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
(B) Integrated Rural Development [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013]
Programme (A) One-third of total seats (A) Part IX (B) Part X
(C) Co-operation Movement (B) In proportion to women popu- (C) Part XI (D) Part XII
(D) General help Donation lation 70. Which part of the Constitution has
Programme (C) One-fourth of total seats the provisions for Panchayati Raj
.in
58. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill (D) As per the requirements of System? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
enacted in 1992, there are several circumstances (A) IX (B) VI
new provisions different from 64. 73rd Amendment of the (C) III (D) IV(a)
cle
the previous one. Which one of Constitution was implemented on 71. A Panchayat Samiti at the block
the following is not one such 24 April, 1993. This amendment level in India is only a/an
provision? [IAS (Pre) 1999] will encourage in Rajasthan [60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) Some collective responsibilities
in the area of agriculture,
rural development, primary
cir [Telangana PSC (Pre) 2015
RAS/RTS (Pre) 1993]
(A) New United Political System
(A) Advisory Body
(B) Consultative Committee
(C) Co-ordinating and Supervisory
dy
education and social forestry (B) The base for village self- Authority
among others governance (D) Administrative Authority
(B) Elections being made (C) Self-Governance system 72. Territory of a Kshetra Panchayat
tu
mandatory for all posts on (D) Decentralization of democracy

being vacant (Panchayat at intermediate level) is
65. What is the system of governance in determined by
(C) A statutory representation of
rs
the Panchayati Raj set up? [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003]

women in the panchayats, up to [IAS (Pre) 1996]
one-third of the strength (A) State Election Commission
ou
(A) The single-tier structure of (B) State Government

(D) Regular remuneration to the local self-government at the
panchayat members, so as to (C) Divisional Commissioner
village level
ensure their punctuality and (D) District Magistrate
w.
(B) The two-tier system of local

accountability 73. According to Constitutional Provi-
self-government at the village
59. The reservation of seats for women sions the decision to hold Pancha-
and block levels
yat elections is taken by
ww
in Panchayats has been provided by (C) The three-tier structure of local

an amendment to Constitution of [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
self-government at the village,
India. That amendment is block and district levels (A) Central Government
(D) The four-tier system of local (B) State Government
(A) 70th Amendment of 1992 self-government at the village (C) The Election Commission of
(B) 73rd Amendment of 1992 block, district and state levels India
(C) 74th Amendment of 1992 66. Which of the following is related (D) The State Election Commission
(D) 77th Amendment of 1994 to the theme of ‘Grass Root 74. A person can contest the Panchayat
60. In India, seats are reserved for Democracy’? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] election, if he has attained the age
women in (A) Lokpal of [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013] Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(B) Panchayati Raj System
(A) Panchayati Raj Institutions (C) Inter-State Council (A) 25 years
(B) State Legislative Assemblies (D) Regional Politics (B) 30 years
(C) The Cabinet (C) 21 years
67. The Panchayati Raj System was
(D) The Lok Sabha adopted to [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (D) 18 years
61. Which Article of the Constitution (A) Make people aware of politics 75. A college student desires to get
Guarantees the 1/3 representation elected to the Municipal Council
(B) Decentralize the power of
of women in Panchayats? of his city. The validity of his
democracy
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] nomination would depend on
(C) Educate the peasants the important condition, among
(A) Article 243C (B) Article 243D
(D) None of the above others, that [IAS (Pre) 2000]
(C) Article 243H (D) Article 243I

(A) He obtains permission from the 82. Which one of the following (A) There is no separate category of
principal of his college authorities recommends to the local governance in the federal
(B) He is a member of a political Governor about the principles of system of Indian Constitution
party determination of taxes and fees (B) One-third of seats in local
(C) His name figures in the voter’s which may be appropriated by the bodies are reserved for women
list Panchayats of that state? (C) The arrangement of finance
(D) He files a declaration owing [IAS (Pre) 2010] for local bodies is done by a
allegiance to the Constitution (A) District Programme Commit- Commission
of India tees (D) Election for local bodies is
76. Which is not among the powers (B) State Finance Commission determined by a Commission
of Panchayati Raj Institutions in (C) State Finance Ministry 90. Which of the following parts of
India? [40th BPSC (Pre) 2000] (D) State Panchayat Raj Ministry the Constitution is related to
(A) Implementation of Land 83. Which of the following Constitu- Municipalities?
Reforms tional Amendments Acts accorded [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
(B) Judicial Review Constitutional Status to the Munici- (A) Part VI
(C) Implementation of Poverty palities? (B) Part VII
Alleviation Programmes [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] (C) Part VIII
(D) None of the above (A) The Constitution (73rd Amend- (D) Part IX A
77. Which one of the following Commit- ment) Act, 1992 91. How many elected and Ex-officio
tees/Commissions recommended (B) The Constitution (74th Amend- members are there in District
the creation of Nyaya Panchayats? ment) Act, 1992 Planning Committee?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] (C) The Constitution (75th Amend- [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee ment) Act, 1993 (A) 20 and 3
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee (D) None of the above (B) 20 and 10
(C) G.V.K. Rao Committee 84. Which Constitutional amendment (C) 20 and 5
(D) Sarkaria Commission provided Constitutional status to (D) 20 and 2
78. Nyaya Panchayats in Panchayati the urban local governments? 92. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections
Raj System have no powers of are to be held within [IAS (Pre) 2009]
awarding imprisonment except in (A) 72nd (B) 73rd (A) One month
the State of [UPPCS (Mains) 2005] (C) 74th (D) 71st (B) Three months
(A) Bihar 85. The tenure of a Mayor is of (C) Six months
(B) Jammu and Kashmir [UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
(D) One year
(C) Maharashtra (A) 1 year (B) 2 years
93. If there is dispute between
(D) West Bengal (C) 3 years (D) 5 years Panchayat and Cantonment Board,
79. Which one of the following is not an 86. Under which Article of the Indian who will decide finally?
attribute of a Local Government? Constitution is the District Planning [Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008] Committee constituted? Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Statutory Status (A) Collector, subject to approval
(B) Participation of the local (A) Article 243 ZD of Divisional Commissioner
community (B) Article 244 ZD (B) Divisional Commissioner, sub-
(C) Central control (C) Article 242 ZD ject to approval of Panchayat
(D) Power to raise finances by (D) Article 243 ZE and Rural Development De-
taxation 87. According to Article 243(ZJ) of the partment
80. Under which Article of the Indian Indian Constitution, the maximum (C) Panchayat and Rural Develop-
Constitution the State Finance number of directors of a co- ment Department subject to ap-
Commission is established? operative society can be proval of State Government
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003] [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (D) State Government, subject
(A) Article 243(H) (A) 21 (B) 15 to approval of Central
(B) Article 243(I) (C) 11 (D) 7 Governments
(C) Article 243(J) 88. State Government has no authority 94. Which one of the following is the
(D) Article 243(K) over local bodies in relation correct period for conducting fresh
to which one of the following elections after dissolution of a
81. Who amongst the following is Panchayat?
responsible for revenue distribution matters? [IAS (Pre) 2001]
(A) Citizen’s Complaints [Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2018
between the State Government and UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
the Local Governments? (B) Economic Matters
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (C) Law Making (A) Within a month
(D) Matters related to Serviceman (B) Within two months
(A) The Chief Minister
89. Which of the following is not true (C) Within six months
(B) The Governor
about local governance in India? (D) After six months, but within a
(C) State Finance Commission
[IAS (Pre) 1995] year

95. With reference to the Consumer (B) Governor of the State 105. For election to the Panchayat, the
Disputes Redressal at the district concerned State Election Commissioner will
level in India, which one of the (C) Chief Minister of the State be appointed by
following statements is not concerned [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
correct? [IAS (Pre) 2010] (D) State Legislature (A) The Chief Election Commis-
(A) State Government can establish 100. Who notify the alteration in limits sioner of India
more than one District Forum is of Block and Zila Panchayat? (B) President of India
a district if it deems fit [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016] (C) Governor of the State
(B) One of the members of the (A) Governor (D) None of the above
District Forum shall be a (B) State Election Commission 106. The members of the Panchayat
woman Samiti are
(C) Divisional Commissioner [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(C) The District Forum entertains
(D) Collector and District (A) Nominated by the Block
the complaints where the value
Returning Officer Development Officer
of goods or services does not
exceed rupees fifty lakhs 101. Which one of the following pairs is (B) Nominated by the Chairman of
(D) A complaint in relation to not correctly matched? Zila Panchayat
any goods sold or any service [UPPSC (GIC) 2010] (C) Directly elected by the people
provided may be filed with a City/Town Local Authority (D) Indirectly elected by the mem-
District Forum by the State (A) Lucknow Cantonment bers of the Village Panchayat
Government as a representative Board 107. In Panchayati Raj System, the
of the interest of the consumers (B) Kanpur Nagar Nigam Panchayat Samiti is constituted at
in general (C) Ghaziabad Nagarpalika the [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
96. Which of the following States Parishad UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
does not have any Panchayati Raj (D) Kakori Nagar Panchayat (A) Village level
Institution? [UPPCS (Mains) 2005, 11] 102. The tenure of every Panchayat in (B) Block level
(A) Assam (B) Kerala India is five years from (C) District level
(C) Nagaland (D) Tripura [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] (D) State level
97. In which of the following group (A) The scheduled date of its first 108. A Panchayat Samiti at the block
of the States, PESA (Panchayats meeting level is [48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, (B) The date of notification of Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
1996 is not enforceable? election (A) An advisory body
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016] (C) The date of declaration of (B) An administrative authority
(A) Rajasthan - Telangana - election results (C) An advisory committee
Maharashtra (D) The date of oath of office by (D) A supervisory authority
(B) Andra Pradesh - Jharkhand - members 109. Who among the following are
Odisha 103. Which of the following is not correct eligible to benefit from the
(C) Assam - Meghalaya - Tamil with respect to the composition of ‘Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Nadu Panchayat? Employment Guarantee Act’?
(D) Himachal Pradesh - Gujarat - [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] [IAS (Pre) 2011]
Chhattisgarh (A) The Legislature of a State may (A) Adult members of only the
98. Which one of the following criteria by law make provision with scheduled caste and scheduled
for deciding an urban area, respect to the composition of tribe households
according to Census of India, is not Panchayat (B) Adult members of Below
correct? (B) A Gram Sabha shall exercise it’s Poverty Line (BPL) households
All places with [UPPSC (GIC) 2010] powers at the village level (C) Adult members of households
(A) Either a Municipality or (C) Each State will constitute of all backward communities
Corporation or Cantonment or Panchayat at the village, (D) Adult members of any
Notified Town Area Committee intermediate and district level household
(B) A minimum population of 5000 (D) Panchayat at the intermediate 110. Consider the following statements.
(C) Atleast 60% of the male level shall not be constituted in 1. Part IX of the Constitution of
population engaged in non- a State having a population not India provisions for Panchayats
agricultural pursuits exceeding twenty lakhs and it was inserted by the
(D) A density of population of 104. The members of Panchayat Samiti Constitution (Amendments)
atleast 400 persons per square are [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011] Act, 1992.
km (A) Directly elected by the public 2. Part IXA of the Constitution of
99. Who among the following is the (B) Elected by the members of India contains provisions for
competent authority to notify the Panchayat municipalities and the Article
territorial region of a municipality (C) Nominated by District 243Q envisages two types of
in State? Magistrate municipalities - a Municipal
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015] (D) Recruited on the basis of open Council and a Municipal
(A) President of India competition Corporation for every State.

Which of the statement(s) given 2. L.M. Singhvi Committee 4. Prepares the electoral rolls and
above is/are correct? 3. B.R. Mehta Committee conducts elections as assigned
[IAS (Pre) 2005] 4. Ashok Mehta Committee by Election Commission of
(A) Only 1 Code India.
(B) Only 2 (A) 2, 3, 1 and 4 Code
(C) Both 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3, 4 and 2 (A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 and 4
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 3, 4, 1 and 2 (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) Only 4
111. In the areas covered under the (D) 4, 3, 2 and 1 118. The Constitution (Seventy Third
Panchayati (Extension to the Amendment) Act, 1992, which
115. 73rd Amendment of the Constitu-
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. What aims at promoting the Panchayati
tion has provided for
is the role/power of Gram Sabha? Raj Institutions in the country,
1. Holding of regular elections to provides for which of the following?
1. Gram Sabha has the power Panchayats.
to stop transfer of land in 1. Constitution of District Plan-
2. Reservation of seats for ning Committees.
scheduled areas. womens at all levels.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership 2. Conducting all Panchayat elec-
3. Mandatory transfer of funds to tions by State Election Commis-
of minor forest produce. Panchayats as recommended by sions.
3. Recommendation of Gram the State Finance Commission. 3. Establishment of State Finance
Sabha is required for granting 4. Mandatory transfer of powers Commissions.
prospecting license or mining to Panchayats relating to
lease for any mineral in the Select the correct answer using the
subjects given in the 11th code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2011]
Scheduled Areas. Schedule.
Which of the statement(s) given (A) Only 1
above is/are correct? (B) Only 1 and 2
code given below.
[IAS (Pre) 2012] [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
(C) Only 2 and 3
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (A) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 3 119. Which among the following
112. Panchayati Raj System is a System Panchayats are included in the
(C) 2, 3 and 4
of District Plan in U.P.?
(D) All the four
1. Local level self-governance. 1. Nagar Panchayat
116. 73rd and 74th Amendments of the
2. Three-tier governance with 2. Gram Panchayat
Constitution are responsible for the
Bio-relations. creation of which of the following? 3. Kshetra Panchayat
3. Democratic decentralization. 1. State Election Commission Select the correct answer using
4. Hierarchy Construction. code given below.
2. District Planning Commission
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018
Choose correct answer by using 3. State Finance Commission UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
code given below. 4. State Property Tax Valuation
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998] (A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 3
Board
Code (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 code given below. 120. Which of the following have been
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4 [UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
covered by 73rd Amendment of the
Constitution?
113. The fundamental object of Pancha- (A) Only 1 and 2
1. Zila Panchayat
yati Raj system is to ensure which (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
among the following? 2. Kshetra Panchayat
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 3. Gram Panchayat
1. People’s participation in devel- (D) All the four 4. Nagar Panchayat
opment 117. Consider the following functions
2. Political accountability Select the correct answer using the
of State Election Commission and code given below.
3. Democratic decentralisation select the correct answer using the [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
4. Financial mobilization code given below. UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010]
Select the correct answer using the [Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2017
(A) Only 1 and 2
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2015] RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 1. Prepares the electoral rolls for
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(B) Only 2 and 4 Panchayats and Municipalities
elections in the State. (D) All the four
(C) Only 1 and 3 121. Consider the following statements.
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Conducts elections for Pancha-
yats and Municipalities of the 1. The minimum age prescribed
114. Arrange the following committees State. for any person to be a member
on Panchayati Raj in chronological of Panchayat is 25 years.
3. Conducts elections for other
sequence and select the correct 2. A Panchayat reconstituted
bodies in addition to Pancha-
answer from the code given below. after premature dissolution
yats and Muncipalities in accor-
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015] continues only for the
dance with the directions given
1. G.V.K. Rao Committee by the Governor. remainder period.

Which of the statements given Code 4. Local Self-government System
above is/are correct? (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 Code
[IAS (Pre) 2016] (C) Only 2 and 4 (D) Only 3 and 4 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) Only 1 125. What is not correct about Gram (A) 1 2 3 4
(B) Only 2 Panchayat? (B) 4 3 2 1
(C) Both 1 and 2 [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The maximum strength is 20
(D) 3 4 1 2
122. Consider the following statements. panchs in a Gram Panchayat.
2. If 15 panchs are elected in 128. What is the qualification to contest
In India, a Metropolitan Planning the election of Municipal Council?
Committee Gram Panchayat, then 5 panchs
are nominated. [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
1. Is constituted under the 1. For the office of the President,
provisions of the Constitution 3. The President of Janpad
Panchayat nominates 5 panchs. his age should not be less than
of India. 25 years.
4. The strength may be 10 panchs
2. Prepares the draft development 2. For the office of the councillor,
in a Gram Panchayat.
plans for the Metropolitan area. his age should not be less than
5. In case of equal votes in the
3. Has the sole responsibility for 21 years.
election of panchs it is decided
implementing Government 3. Whose name is in the voter list,
by lott.
sponsored schemes in the he can contest the election.
6. Nominated members partic-
Metropolitan areas.
ipate in the meeting and can 4. A person can contest the
Which of the statements given vote. election of councillor from two
above is/are correct? wards simultaneously.
Code
[IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) 1, 4 and 6 (B) 3, 5 and 6 5. A person can contest the
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 election of president and
(C) 2, 3 and 6 (D) 4, 5 and 6
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 councillor simultaneously.
126. Assertion (A): Reservation in
123. Chairman of Zila Panchayat in Code
the Office of Pradhans, Pramukhs
Uttar Pradesh is elected
and Adhyakshas in Panchayats (A) 1, 2 and 3
1. Directly by persons whose for women including SCs, STs and (B) 1, 2 and 5
names appear in electoral rolls OBCs has brought about a distinct
of the Kshetra Panchayats. (C) 2, 4 and 5
change in their working. (D) 3, 4 and 5
2. By the members of Zila Pancha-
Reason (R): Women of the 129. What is correct about the recall of
yat from among themselves.
rural areas were demanding this President of Municipal Council?
3. By the SC/ST members of the reservation for a long time.
Zila Panchayat from among [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
themselves (if reserved for Select your answer from the code 1. The procedure of recall may be
them). given below. initiated with a proposal signed
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
4. The members of Zila Panchayat by 3/4 members of council.
UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
belonging to Backward Classes 2. The procedure of recall may be
from among themselves (if re- Code initiated with a proposal signed
served for them). (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and by 3/4 elected members of
Select the correct answer using the (R) is the correct explanation council.
code given below. of (A) 3. If the council passed a
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, resolution by majority,
Code but (R) is not the correct collector will take action.
explanation of (A) 4. President may be recalled by
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false general votes with majority.
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 5. President may be recalled
124. The Chairman of a Municipality in
127. Match List-I with List-II and select by general voters with 2/3
U.P. is elected
the correct answer using the code majority.
1. By all the adults living in the given below the lists.
respective municipal area. 6. The process of recall may be
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] initiated once in his whole
2. By all the voters included in the
List-I (Committee) term.
electoral list of the respective
municipal area. (a) Balwant Rai Mehta 7. The process of recall may be
3. By the elected members of the (b) Ashok Mehta initiated twice in his whole
municipality. (c) L.M. Singhvi term.
4. From among the electors (d) G.V.K. Rao Code
of wards of the respective List-II (Suggestion) (A) 1, 3 and 5
municipal area. 1. Two-tier system (B) 2, 4 and 6
Select the correct answer using the 2. Three-tier system (C) 1, 5 and 7
code given below. (D) 2, 4 and 7
3. Improvement in representative
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
character

130. Match List-I with List-II and select 131. Consider the following statements. 132. Consider the following statements
the correct answer using the code Assertion (A): Political interfer- and select the correct answer using
given below the lists. ence in the management of rural the code given below.
[IAS (Pre) 2000] matters is now decreased at the Assertion (A): The Union
List-I (Local Bodies) local level. Finance Commission does not have
(a) Zila Parishad at Sub divisional Reason (R): The Rural local any role in considering measures
level governance institutions have for providing financial assistance to
(b) Mandal Praja Parishad been rejuvenated by the 73rd local bodies.
(c) Janajati Parishad amendment to Constitution. Reason (R): Inspite of 73rd and
(d) The absence of Gram Select the correct answer using 74th Constitutional Amendments,
Panchayats code given below. local government continues to
List-II (State) [Nagaland PSC (Pre) 2017 be a state subject in the Seventh
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998] Schedule of the Constitution.
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Assam Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and Code
3. Mizoram
(R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
4. Meghalaya
(A) (R) is the correct explanation of
Code (A)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(A) 2 1 4 3 explanation of (A) but (R) is not the correct
(B) 1 2 4 3 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false explanation of (A)
(C) 3 2 1 4 (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) 2 1 3 4 (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (A)
51. (D) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (A) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (A)
61. (B) 62. (B) 63. (A) 64. (C) 65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (A)
71. (C) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (C) 75. (C) 76. (B) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (B) 84. (C) 85. (D) 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (D)
91. (C) 92. (C) 93. (D) 94. (C) 95. (C) 96. (C) 97. (C) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (A)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (A) 105. (C) 106. (C) 107. (B) 108. (B) 109. (D) 110. (A)
111. (B) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (C) 115. (D) 116. (B) 117. (A) 118. (C) 119. (D) 120. (B)
121. (B) 122. (A) 123. (B) 124. (C) 125. (C) 126. (C) 127. (C) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (A)
131. (A) 132. (D)
35. Special Provision for Certain Class

1. Scheduled Tribe status is 3. Which statement is not correct? prepared and amended by the
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2010] [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2018 concerned State Governments
(A) Restricted to Hindus MPPCS (Pre) 1994] (D) A tribe can be declared as a
(B) Religiously neutral (A) The lists of Scheduled Castes Scheduled Tribe for only a part
(C) Restricted to Hindus and and Scheduled Tribes have of a State
Christians been made by and order of the 4. In which of following there is no
(D) Restricted to Hindu and President issued in 1950 for reservation for any caste?
Muslims each State after consultation [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998]
2. State having maximum Scheduled with the Governor of that State (A) Rajya Sabha
Tribes is [UPPCS (Pre) 1991] (B) Amendments in these lists can (B) Legislative Assembly of Jammu
(A) Bihar only be made by Parliament by and Kashmir
(B) Madhya Pradesh framing an Act (C) State Legislative Council
(C) Rajasthan (C) The lists of Scheduled Castes (D) All of the above
(D) Andhra Pradesh and Scheduled Tribes are

5. The Provision of National Commis- Lok Sabha has been made under Areas? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
sion for Scheduled Tribes is given in [UPPSC (GIC) 2010] (A) To plan minor water bodies
which Article of the Constitution? (A) Article 330 (B) To control over institutions in
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005] (B) Article 331 all social sectors
(A) Article 338A (C) Article 332 (C) To control on tribal sub plans
(B) Article 341 (D) Article 333 (D) All of the above
(C) Article 16 12. Part XVI (from Article 330 to 342) 18. Match List-I with List-II and select
(D) Article 82 of the Indian Constitution deals the correct answer using the code
6. Provision for constitution of a with [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] given below the lists.
National Commission for SC’s (A) Administrative Tribunals [RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013]
and ST’s has been made in the (B) All India Services List-I
Constitution under Article (C) Finance Commission (Human Rights Documents)
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (a) The National Commission for
(D) Reservation of seats for SC/ST
(A) 338 and 338A and representation of Anglo- Backward Classes Act
(B) 337 Indian Community in the (b) Child Labour (Prohibition and
(C) 334 House of people Regulation) Act
(D) 339 13. Provision for the representation of (c) Person with Disabilities (Equal
7. Under which Article of the Anglo-Indian Community in the opportunities, Protection of
Constitution, there is a provision for Lok Sabha has been made in the Rights and full Participation)
the establishment of a Commission Constitution under Article Act
for Scheduled Tribes? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015 (d) The National Commission for
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015 Minorities Act
UPPCS (Pre) 2013
(A) Article 338-A UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] List-II (Year)
(B) Article 337 (A) 331 (B) 221 1. 1990 2. 1995
(C) Article 338 (C) 121 (D) 139 3. 1986 4. 1992
(D) Article 339 Code
14. The Authority to specify as to
8. Under the Scheduled Castes and which castes shall be deemed to be (a) (b) (c) (d)
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Scheduled Castes rests with the (A) 2 1 3 4
Atrocities) Act, 1989, in which [UPPCS (Mains) 2006] (B) 4 3 2 1
section there is a provision for the (C) 3 1 2 4
(A) Commission of Scheduled
arrangement of a special court?
Castes and Tribes (D) 3 1 4 2
[MPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(B) Prime Minister 19. Given below are two statements,
(A) 14 (B) 17
(C) Governor of the State in which one is Assertion (A) and
(C) 21(1) (D) 21(3) second is Reason (R).
(D) President
15. The constitutional authority, vested Assertion (A): The definition of
provides reservation of seats for the
with the power of declaring castes term ‘Minority’ is not given in the
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
and tribes as the Scheduled Castes Constitution of India.
Tribes in the Panchayats?
and Scheduled Tribes, is the Reason (R): Minority Commis-
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016] sion is not a Constitutional body.
(A) 243(D) (B) 243(C)
(A) President of India Which of the following is correct in
(C) 243(B) (D) 243(A)
(B) Prime Minister of India regards to the statements above?
10. In how many days will the
(C) Minister of Social Welfare [UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
investigation officer submit his
report for the offences committed (D) Chairman, SC/ST Commission Code
under the Scheduled Castes and 16. After the Amendment in Indian (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Constitution by the Parliament on (R) is the correct explanation of
Atrocities) Act, 1989? 14 August, 2007 the number of (A)
[MPPCS (Pre) 2017] castes in the list of Scheduled Caste (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
is [48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] but (R) is not the correct
(A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 25 (D) 30 (A) 607 (B) 1206 explanation of (A)
11. Under Indian Constitution, (C) 1410 (D) 1500 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Provision for Scheduled Tribes in 17. What is correct about the powers (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
of Zila Panchayats of Scheduled
Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B)
36. Miscellaneous
1. The number of permanent mem- (C) Xavier Peres De Cuillar 15. Prior to Shri R.N. Pathak two Indian
bers in the United Nations Security (D) U. Thant Judges elected to the International
Council is [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003] 8. The head of the state of the United Court of Justice were
(A) 6 (B) 5 Kingdom is [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1996]
(C) 4 (D) 3 [60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016] (A) H.J. Kania and B.N. Rau
2. Which of the following is not a (A) Queen Elizabeth I (B) J.C. Saha and A.N. Ray
permanent member of the U.N. (B) Queen Elizabeth II (C) B.N. Rau and Nagendra Singh
Security Council? (C) Queen Elizabeth III (D) Nagendra Singh and A.N. Ray
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] (D) Queen Elizabeth IV 16. Which one is not related to United
(A) Germany (B) France 9. Which are the official languages of Nations? [UPPCS (Pre) 2004]
(C) Great Britain (D) China the U.N.O.? [IAS (Pre) 1998] (A) General Assembly
3. U.N.O. was founded in (A) English, French and Russian (B) Amnesty International
[MPPCS (Pre) 1996] (B) English, French, German and (C) International Court of Justice
(A) 1944 (B) 1945 Russian (D) Trusteeship Council
(C) 1946 (D) 1947 (C) English, French, Russian, 17. UN observed ......... as International
4. When is the ‘United Nation Day’ Chinese and Hindi year for Women. [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
observed? [MPPCS (Spl)(Pre) 2004] (D) English, French, Chinese, (A) 1975 (B) 1976
(A) 27th October Russian, Arabic and Spanish (C) 1977 (D) 1972
(B) 24th October 10. Who among the following has been 18. ‘Doctors Without Borders (Medicins
(C) 26th October the first person to deliver his speech Sans Frontieres)’, is [IAS (Pre) 2016]
(D) 15th October in Hindi at U.N.O.? (A) A division of World Health
5. According to United Nations [MPPCS (Pre) 2012] Organization
Charter which of the following (A) Swami Vivekananda (B) A non-governmental interna-
statements is not true regarding (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri tional organization
exercise of veto power in the (C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (C) An inter-governmental agency
Security Council? [IAS (Pre) 1994] (D) None of the above sponsored by the European
(A) For Security Council decision 11. How many Articles are there in Union
on every procedural matter ‘Universal Declaration of Human (D) A specialized agency of the
there should be 9 affirmative Rights’? [MPPCS (Pre) 2013] United Nations
votes of its members including (A) 29 (B) 28 19. 10th December is celebrated as
the 5 votes of five permanent (C) 30 (D) 32 [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
members (A) Human Rights Day
12. The headquarters of International
(B) Every permanent member Court of Justice is situated at (B) World Health Day
of Security Council may be [UPPCS (Pre) 1994 (C) U.N. Day
use of Veto Power, withhold 53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
acceptance on any decision (D) Labour Day
(A) Hague (B) New York 20. ‘Human Rights Day’ is observed on
(C) The word ‘Veto’ has been used
(C) Geneva (D) Paris [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
under Article 27 of UN Charter
so that any permanent member 13. Amnesty International is (A) 10th December
may stop a resolution going to [IAS (Pre) 2015] (B) 9th December
be passed with a majority (A) An agency of the United (C) 10th November
(D) Any member of Security Nations to help refugees of civil (D) 10th October
Council may use Veto Power wars 21. The concept of Human Rights
to stop resolution going to be (B) A Global Human Rights primarily emphasizes on
passed with a majority Movement [Orissa PSC (Pre) 2018
6. Who among the following has been (C) A non-governmental voluntary UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
the first African U.N. Secretary organization to help extremely (A) Right to Property
General? poor people (B) Right to equality
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (D) An inter-governmental agency (C) Right to Religion
(A) Ban Ki Moon to cater to medical emergencies
(D) Dignity of Man as a Human
(B) Javier Perez De Cuellar in war-ravaged regions
Being
(C) Boutros-Boutros Cuellar 14. Amnesty International is an organi-
22. The concept of ‘Right to Service’
(D) U-Thant zation associated with
originated in
[56th to 59th BPSC (Pre) 2015]
7. Which U.N. Secretary General [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
served for the longest period? (A) Protection of women’s rights
(A) The United States of America
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006] (B) Protection of human rights
(B) Switzerland
(A) Trygve Lie (C) Abolition of untouchability
(C) Great Britain
(B) Kurt Waldheim (D) None of the above
(D) China

23. International Day of Non-violence 31. ‘Pivot to Asia’ is the strategy of the 42. What is ‘Mossad’?
is observed on foreign policy of [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] [MPPCS (Pre) 1994]
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (A) India (B) Japan (A) A Committee of Maulanas
(A) 10th December (C) China (D) U.S.A. (B) Israel’s intelligence agency
(B) 30th January 32. C.I.A. is the intelligence agency of (C) Parliament of Iran
(C) 2nd October [MPPCS (Spl)(Pre) 2004] (D) Key of Morse Code
(D) 23rd March (A) Russia (B) England 43. The Berber-speaking community
24. How many countries of the World (C) India (D) U.S.A. which often happens to be in the
have been adopted Compulsory 33. The Parliamentary form of limelight, lives in [IAS (Pre) 2002]
Voting System? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] Government first developed in (A) Afghanistan (B) Algeria
(A) 32 (B) 25 [MPPCS (Pre) 2006] (C) Argentina (D) Australia
(C) 24 (D) 22 (A) Britain (B) Belgium 44. Which of the following countries
25. The Electoral College for the United (C) France (D) Switzerland have banned LTTE?
States Presidential Election is 34. Which of the following is the centre [UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
comprised of [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2008] of British News papers? (A) India, Sri Lanka, France
(A) Members of United State [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1992]
(B) India, Sri Lanka, U.S.A.
Congress (A) Wall Street (B) Farst Street (C) Sri Lanka, Nepal, India
(B) Members of House of (C) Fleet Street (D) Press Street
(D) Sri Lanka, Nepal, Maldives
Representative 35. Where was the ‘Festival of India’
45. The first Indian Prime Minister who
(C) Members of Senate organized for the first time outside
visited Afghanistan was
(D) None of them India? [UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
[UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
26. Where does the first primary (A) Britain 1982
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
take place in the election of U.S. (B) France 1985
(B) I.K. Gujaral
President? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1992] (C) America 1980
(D) Soviet Union 1983 (C) A.B. Vajpayee
(A) New York
(D) Man Mohan Singh
(B) New Hampshire 36. Tass is the news agency of
(C) Massachusetts [MPPCS (Pre) 1999] 46. The Parliament of Japan is known
(A) Germany (B) France as [MPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(D) California
(C) Russia (D) Iran (A) Riksdag (B) Diet
27. In which country was the
Presidential form of Government 37. Chinese Parliament is known as (C) Cortez (D) Sejim
first formed? [MPPCS (Pre) 2006] [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007] 47. Government Report of which of
(A) Yugoslavia (A) National Assembly the following countries is known as
(B) National People’s Congress ‘Yellow Book’?
(B) Egypt
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
(C) Switzerland (C) The National Parliament of
China (A) France (B) Britain
(D) United States of America
(D) The House of Democracy of (C) Italy (D) Germany
28. Where was the concept of written
China 48. What is that crime, which when
Constitution born?
38. The political leadership of which tried is punishable, but when done
[MPPCS (Pre) 2006]
country is known as ‘Princeling’? the culprit crime doer cannot be
(A) France punished? [MPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(B) United States of America (A) Murder (B) Theft
(C) Britain (A) Japan (B) Thailand
(C) China (D) Belgium (C) Suicide (D) Rape
(D) Switzerland 49. What is Fourth Estate?
29. Which of the following may be 39. What is the name of China’s News
Agency? [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
considered a Pressure Group? (A) The twelfth player in a cricket
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
[MPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) China News team
(A) Members of the Lok Sabha (B) A mode of transport in addition
(B) Members of a Panchayat (B) China Times
to road, rail and air
(C) Members of the Cabinet (C) New China News Agency
(C) A large agricultural co-
(D) Members of a Trade Union (D) New China Report operative organization
30. Larry Pressler is associated with 40. What does ISI stands for? (D) Press
[MPPCS (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 1994] 50. Which one of the following is not a
(A) Ending of U.S. sanctions on (A) Inter-Services Intelligence principle of ‘Panchsheel’?
military assistance to Pakistan (B) Inter-State Intelligence [IAS (Pre) 1997]
(B) To strengthen cordial relations (C) India Security International (A) Non-alignment
between U.S. and Pakistan (D) None of the above (B) Peaceful Co-existence
(C) Criticizing the proposed 41. ‘Dawn’ is a newspaper of which of (C) Mutual respect for each
Military help to Pakistan by the the following countries? other’s territorial integrity and
Clinton Administration [MPPCS (Pre) 1990] sovereignty
(D) Announcement of candidate (A) China (B) U.S.A. (D) Mutual non-interference in
for Presidential elections (C) U.K. (D) Pakistan each other’s internal affairs

51. Meaning of Extra-Constitutional Authority of India created in June, (A) December, 1971
Right [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002 2009? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013] (B) January, 1972
UPPCS (Pre) 2002] (A) Mr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia (C) February, 1972
(A) That power which violates the (B) Mr. Nandan Nilekani (D) November, 1971
limits of Constitution (C) Mr. Ashok Desai 65. Which of the following was not
(B) A person who has got (D) Mr. Ram Sewak Sharma included in India-Sri Lanka Accord.
exceptional powers under the 58. Department of Border Management [UPPCS (Pre) 1990]
Constitution is a Department under which of the (A) Formation of a new State by
(C) That power which is not in following Union Ministries? merging Eastern and Northern
accordance with the provisions [IAS (Pre) 2008] provinces
of the Constitution (A) Ministry of Defence (B) Establishment of North-East
(D) That official who has all the (B) Ministry of Home Affairs Council
powers of the State during the (C) Complete Freedom
(C) Ministry of Shipping, Road
proclamation of emergency (D) Integrity of Sri Lanka
Transport and Highways
52. Freedom of inter-state trade and (D) Ministry of Environment and 66. ‘Bahujan Hitaya, Bahujan Sukhya’
commerce has been regulated Forests is the motto of
by the Indian Constitution under [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2019
Article [UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
not the Department of Human UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
(A) 19(1)(d-e) (B) 301 Resource Development Ministry? (A) All India Radio
(C) 301 to 307 (D) All of these [UPPCS (Pre) 2006] (B) Doordarshan
53. Which one of the pairs given below (A) Basic Education and Literacy (C) Life Insurance Corporation of
is not correctly matched? Department India
(B) Secondary Education and (D) General Insurance Corporation
(A) Equality before Law - Higher Education Department of India
Guaranteed to both citizens (C) Technical Education Depart- 67. In which of the following decades
and non-citizens ment the Parliamentary System in
(B) Altering the name of a State -
(D) Department of Women and India shifted from Centralism to
Power of a State Legislature
Child Development Federalism?
(C) Crewing a new State - Power of [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
Parliament 60. Under which one of the following
Ministries of the Government of (A) 1960’s (B) 1970’s
(D) Equality of opportunity in
India does the Food and Nutrition (C) 1980’s (D) None of these
public employment citizen -
Board work? [IAS (Pre) 2005] 68. Who is the founder of terrorist
Guaranteed only to Indian
(A) Ministry of Agriculture group Lashkar-e-Taiba?
54. The Indian Foreign Policy of Non-
Alignment was initiated by (B) Ministry of Health and Family [Tripura PSC (Pre) 2016
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014] Welfare UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004]
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (C) Ministry of Human Resource (A) Maulana Masoor
Development (B) Hafiz Muhammad Saeed
(B) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(D) Ministry of Rural Development (C) Umar Abdulla
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
61. The Press Council of India is a (D) Osama Bin Laden
(D) Morarji Desai
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004] 69. Which one of the following pairs is
55. Sarosh Zaiwalla is famous as a
(A) Statutory Body not correctly matched?
[IAS (Pre) 2008]
(B) Statutory Quasi-judicial Body [Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
(A) Renowned Dramatist
(C) Judicial Body UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(B) Renowned Wildlife Photogra-
(D) Advisory Body (A) Apico Aandolan - P. Hegde
pher
62. Which of the following is a reason (B) Chipko Aandolan - S.L.
(C) Renowned International Law
of emergence of regionalism in Bahuguna
Expert
India? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008] (C) Narmada Bachao Aandolan -
(D) Renowned Handicap Surgeon
(A) Uneven development Medha Patkar
56. An Indian appointed as the
(B) Fear of losing cultural identity (D) Silent Valley Aandolan - Baba
Chairman of the International anti-
(C) Political prominence Aamte
war Organisation in 1988, was
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2017 (D) All of the above 70. Which of the following is not
UPPCS (Pre) 1994] correctly matched? [IAS (Pre) 2005]
63. The National Water Development
(A) Morarji Desai Agency was established in the year (A) Southern Air-Command -
Thiruvananthpuram
(B) Rajiv Gandhi [UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) 1982 (B) 1986 (B) Eastern Naval Command -
(C) Narain Desai
Visakhapatnam
(D) Bhulabhai Desai (C) 1991 (D) 1997
(C) Armoured Corps Centre and
57. Who among the following was 64. Bangladesh was created as a result School - Jabalpur
appointed as the first Director of Indo-Pak hostilities in
(D) Army Medical Centre and
General of the Unique Identification [MPPCS (Pre) 1996]
School - Lucknow
71. In Indian Navy, the equivalent of an (B) Constitutional cases in (C) Right to Liberty
army lieutenant colonel is Supreme Court is heard by (D) Both (A) and (B)
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003] minimum five Judges 87. The Pravasi Bhartiya Divas (PBD) is
(A) Commodore (C) Freedom of Press is included organized in India to connect with
(B) Captain in the fundamental right a large number of Pravasis. This
(C) Commander - Freedom of Speech and Convention began in the year
(D) Lieutenant Commander expression [UPPSC (RI) 2014]
72. The number of operational (D) Zakir Hussain was the first Vice (A) 1991 (B) 2001
commands of the Indian Army is President of India (C) 2003 (D) 2013
[MPPCS (Pre) 1999] 80. Which among the following 88. Who was the first woman to become
(A) 5 (B) 4 States has record of formation of the Prime Minister of any country?
maximum Coalition Governments [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(C) 6 (D) 7
between 1967 to 1971? (A) Sirimavo Bhandarnaike
73. The First Law University in India [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
was established in August 1887 in (B) Margaret Thatcher
(A) Uttar Pradesh
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] (C) Golda Meir
(B) Haryana
(A) Trivandrum (B) Ahmedabad (D) Indira Gandhi
(C) Bihar
(C) Bangalore (D) New Delhi 89. Which one of the following
(D) Punjab statements is not correct?
74. Which among the following
European Union countries is the 81. Which state gave the status of OBC [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
first to officially recognize the State to Gurkhas in 2003? (A) The total number of Articles in
of Palestine? the Constitution of India is 395
[56th to 59th BPSC (Pre) 2015] (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Finance Commission is
(A) Sweden (B) Denmark (B) Andhra Pradesh constituted under Article 280
(C) Norway (D) Italy (C) Maharashtra of the Constitution of India
75. Border Security Force came into (D) Uttarakhand (C) Madam Cama was the first
existence in 82. Scientific socialism is attributed to woman President of Indian
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] [MPPCS (Pre) 2016] National Congress
(A) 1965 (B) 1970 (A) Karl Marx (D) ‘Politics in India’ is the
(C) 1910 (D) 1950 (B) Adam Smith pioneering research study of
(C) J.M. Keynes Rajni Kothari
76. Internal Security Academy is
located at [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (D) Thomas Mann 90. Which one of the following is the
83. The International Day of Persons World’s newest country?
(A) Mount Abu (B) Nasik
with Disabilities is celebrated on [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
(C) Hyderabad (D) Pune
[56th to 59th BPSC (Pre) 2015] (A) Eritea (B) Ethiopia
77. The Indian Regiment Mission of
(A) 10th December (C) Congo (D) South Sudan
Asian Development Bank is situated
in [UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] (B) 24th October 91. World’s main languages are
(A) Mumbai (B) New Delhi (C) 19th November 1. Chinese 2. English
(C) Kolkata (D) Bangalore (D) 3rd December 3. Hindi 4. Spanish
78. Untouchability will not constitute 84. Who among following has Which one of the given languages
an offence when [MPPCS (Pre) 2012] called the District Collector an is not an official language of United
‘Institutional Charisma’? Nations, choose correct answer
(A) The act of accused with regard
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013] using code below.
to the enjoyment of benefit
(A) Rajni Kothari [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2002, 2003]
under a charitable trust created
for the benefit of any section of (B) P.R. Dubhashi Code
the general public (C) T.N. Chaturvedi (A) Chinese (B) English
(B) The act of accused is with (D) J.D. Shukla (C) Hindi (D) Spanish
regard to the use of finery 85. In the administration of the State 92. Consider the following statements.
(C) As accused is not being Secretariate every file have to be 1. The Parliament of Russia is
competent to commit an sent to the Cabinet through called Federal Assembly.
offence [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015] 2. The Council of the Federation is
(D) The accused and complaint (A) Departmental Secretary the Lower House of the Russian
victim belong to the same social (B) Deputy Secretary Parliament.
group (C) Under Secretary 3. The name of the Upper House
79. Which one of the following (D) Chief Secretary of the Russian Parliament is
statements is not correct? 86. Which one of the following is State Duma.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] considered to be the second Which of the statements given
(A) The Constitutional Amendment generation of Human Rights? above is/are correct?
Bill has to be passed by [UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010] [IAS (Pre) 2005]
both Houses of Parliament (A) Right to Work (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
separately with special majority (B) Right to Education (C) 2 and 3 (D) Only 1
93. Consider the following statements. 2. Indo-Soviet Treaty (A) Only 1
1. The Commonwealth has no 3. Farakka Accord (B) Only 2 and 3
charter, treaty or constitution. 4. Tashkent Agreement (C) Only 1 and 3
2. All the territories/countries Select the correct answer using the (D) 1, 2 and 3
once under the British Empire code given below. 101. Consider the following countries.
(jurisdiction/rule/mandate) [UPPCS (Mains) 2002] 1. Denmark
automatically joined the Com- (A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 3, 2, 1, 4 2. Japan
monwealth as its members. (C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 3. Russian Federation
Which of the statements given 98. With reference to National Legal
above is/are correct? 4. United Kingdom
Services Authority, consider the
[IAS (Pre) 2010] 5. United States of America
following statements.
(A) Only 1 Which of the above are the
1. Its objective is to ensure free
(B) Only 2 members of the ‘Arctic Council’?
and competent legal services
(C) Both 1 and 2 [IAS (Pre) 2014]
to the weaker sections of the
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 society on the basis of equal (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
94. Examine the statements given opportunity. (C) 1, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 3 and 5
below and find the correct answer 2. It issues guidelines to the 102. Match the following.
using the code given below. state legal services authorities [MPPCS (Pre) 1994]
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002] to implement the legal List-I
1. Judges of the High Courts hold programmes and schemes (a) Pressler Amendments
their office till the age of 62 throughout the country. (b) Chakma Refugees
years. Which of the statements given (c) Perestroika
2. A political party, which has above is/are correct? (d) 13th September, 1993
been recognized in four or [IAS (Pre) 2013]
List-II
more states, is national party. (A) Only 1
1. Bangladesh
3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (B) Only 2
decides whether a Bill is a 2. Gorbachev
(C) Both 1 and 2
Money Bill or not. 3. Agreement between Israel and
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Cognizable offence is an P.L.O.
99. Consider the following statements. 4. Linking American assistance
offence, for which one can be [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2017
arrested without any warrant. and with development of
UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 nuclear capacity
1. The fundamental right to Code
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 protection of life and personal
95. The powers of District Collector as a liberty cannot be suspended (a) (b) (c) (d)
District Magistrate are during Emergency. (A) 1 2 4 3
1. To maintain law and order. 2. The Vice-President to India (B) 4 1 2 3
2. Control over police. can be removed from the office (C) 2 3 4 1
3. To check passports of foreigners by a resolution passed by the (D) 3 4 2 1
4. To control land revenue Council of States and approved 103. Match List-I with List-II and select
Select the correct answer using the by the House of the People. the correct answer using the code
code given below. 3. At present the leader of given below the lists.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016] opposition in the Council of [IAS (Pre) 1997]
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 States is Shri Arun Jaitley. List-I (Functionaries)
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4 4. The Chairman of the Planning (a) President of India
Commission of India is Shri (b) Judges of Supreme Court
96. Which of the following statements Montek Singh Ahluwalia.
about the Sikkim are true? (c) Members of Parliament
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
Code (d) Ministers for the Union
1. It became an integral part of (A) Only 1 and 2 are correct List-II (Oaths or affirmations)
India in 1975. (B) Only 2 and 3 are correct 1. Secrecy of Information
2. It is considered as a botanist’s (C) Only 3 and 4 are correct 2. Faithful discharge of Duties
paradise. (D) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct 3. Faith and Allegiance to the
3. Its population is mainly made 100. Consider the following pairs. Constitution of India
up of the Lepchas. Region often Country 4. Upholding the sanctity of the
Select the correct answer from the in news Constitution and Law
codes given below. 1. Chechnya - Russian Code
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 Federation (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 2. Darfur - Mali (A) 3 4 1 2
97. Which is the correct chronological 3. Swat Valley - Iraq (B) 4 3 2 1
order of the following? Which of the above pairs is/are (C) 3 4 2 1
1. Shimla Agreement correctly matched? [IAS (Pre) 2014] (D) 4 3 1 2
104. Match List-I with List-II and select (B) Statement and Reason both are (c) Shankari Prasad Vs. Union of
the correct answer using the code correct, but the statement is India
given below the lists. not the correct explanation of (d) Champakam Dorairajan Vs.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] reason State of Madras
List-I (Officers) (C) The statement is correct, but List-II (Subject)
(a) Vice-President of India reason is false 1. Equality in admission to
(b) Comptroller and Auditor (D) The statement is false, but educational institutions
General of India reason is correct 2. Parliament’s power to amend
(c) Solicitor General of India 106. Match the following. the Constitution
(d) Attorney General of India [MPPCS (Pre) 1992] 3. Procedure for preventive
List-II (Institutions) List-I detention
1. Public Accounts Committee (a) Operation Checkmate 4. Restriction on Free speech
2. Meetings of Lok Sabha (b) Operation Cactus Code
3. Rajya Sabha (c) Operation Blue Star (a) (b) (c) (d)
4. Supreme Court (d) Operation Siddharth (A) 1 2 3 4
5. Committee on Public List-II (B) 3 4 2 1
Undertakings 1. Maldives 2. Punjab (C) 2 4 1 3
Code 3. Bihar 4. Sri Lanka (D) 4 3 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) Code 108. Assertion (A): Castes are being
(A) 3 1 4 2 (a) (b) (c) (d) politicized in India.
(B) 2 3 1 4 (A) 4 1 2 3 Reason (R): Casteism has been
(C) 4 2 3 1 (B) 4 1 3 2 increasing in Indian Politics.
(D) 1 4 2 3 (C) 4 2 3 1 [Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
(D) 1 4 3 2 RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
105. Statement : Constitution of India
is basically Federal in nature. 107. Match List-I with List-II and select Code
Reason : Article 352 has the correct answer using the code (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
provisions to deal with the failure given below the lists. (R) is the correct explanation of
of constitutional machinery in a [RAS/RTS (Pre) (Re.Exam) 2013] (A)
state. [MPPCS (Pre) 2008] List-I (Case) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(A) Statement and Reason both are (a) A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of but (R) is not the correct
correct and the Statement is Madras explanation of (A)
the correct explanation of the (b) Romesh Thapar Vs. State of (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
reason Madras (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (A)
51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (C) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (C)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (A) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (C)
71. (C) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (A) 75. (A) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (C)
81. (D) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (A) 85. (D) 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (A) 89. (C) 90. (D)
91. (C) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (D) 95. (C) 96. (D) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (D) 100. (A)
101. (D) 102. (B) 103. (C) 104. (A) 105. (C) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (B)

Indian Polity and Governance - MCQs

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Section: Indian Polity and Governance

Chapter 1. The Constitutional Development of India

310 Objective General Studies

Indian Polity and Governance 311

312 Objective General Studies

Indian Polity and Governance 313

2. Foreign Impact on the Constitution

314 Objective General Studies

3. Articles and Schedules in the Constitution of India

Indian Polity and Governance 315

Constitution (B) Criminal Matters [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]

of Constitution (D) Foreign Affairs (B) Foreign Affairs

(A) Part IX (B) Pat X planning Seventh Schedule of Indian

11. Which part and chapter of the (C) Per-person Tax

316 Objective General Studies

for the administration and control Part IX-B

for All Indian Services? 20 parts.

[MPPCS (Pre) 2005]

(B) Meghalaya Constitution (Amendment)

Indian Polity and Governance 317

(a) 4th (b) 6th

(A) Only 1 and 2 (a) 124 (b) 5

(C) Only 1, 2 and 5 2. Language List-II (Subject)

the correct answer using the code Code 3. Emergency Provisions

318 Objective General Studies

(c) Article 75(I) (d) Article 131

IAS (Pre) 2001]

(Article of the Constitution) (B) 4 3 1 2

given below the lists.

Indian Polity and Governance 319

320 Objective General Studies

because the Preamble of the Policy

(A) Democratic India in the Preamble of the Indian

Indian Polity and Governance 321

3. Sovereign 4. Secular (A) Only 1 and 2 to our Constitution.

5. The Governance System

322 Objective General Studies

(C) The Parliament Parliamentary System?

17. Which one of the following is a (A) Collective Responsibility

(A) Rigid Constitution (D) Real and Nominal Executive

ble to the legislature

Indian Polity and Governance 323

and select the correct answer from

[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008

(C) Alexandrovics (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3

31. Who of the following has stated (A)

324 Objective General Studies

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and

6. The National Emblem

Indian Polity and Governance 325

7. States and the Union Territories

(D) Supreme Court (A) President of India National Capital Region?

correct in the matter of formation

326 Objective General Studies

(D) 1 January, 2000 guage.

[UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (A) Only 1

(A) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Sikkim, (C) Karnataka - Tamil Nadu - 1. Chhattisgarh

Indian Polity and Governance 327

Banks (C) Single Citizenship of whole of (C) Central Government

328 Objective General Studies

SC is made? right to equality is granted by five

Indian Polity and Governance 329