308 Objective General Studies
5
1. The Constitutional Development of India
1. In which of the following Acts,
the provision was made for the
establishment of Supreme Court at
Calcutta? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) Regulating Act, 1773
(B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(C) Charter Act, 1813
(D) Charter Act, 1833
2. By which one of the following Acts
was the Federal Court in India
created? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Indian Council Act, 1861
(B) Government of India Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
3. Which Act of British Parliament
abolished the East India Company
monopoly over trade in India?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Regulating Act
(B) Pitt’s India Act
(C) Charter Act of 1813
(D) None of the above
4. By which of the following Act,
Legislative Council of India
received the power to discuss the
budget? [UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Indian Council Act, 1861
(B) Indian Council Act, 1892
(C) Indian Council Act, 1909
(D) Indian Council Act, 1919
5. The Federal Court of India was
established in which of the
following year?[UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) 1935 (B) 1937
(C) 1946 (D) 1947
6. In the context of Indian history,
the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’
refers to [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Division of the central legisla-
ture into two houses
(B) Indtroduction of double gov-
ernment i.e., Central and State
Governments
Indian Polity
and Governance
(C) Having two sets of rulers; one
in London and another in Delhi
(D) Division of the subjects
delegated to the provinces into
two categories
7. Under which of the following Acts,
Dyarchy was introduced at Central
level? [UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Act of 1909
(B) Government of India Act, 1919
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
8. Which of the following Acts set
up Dyarchy System at the central
level? [UPPSC (RI) 2014]
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Government of India Act, 1919
(C) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(D) Indian Councils Act, 1892
9. The Act of 1909 was associated
with [MPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Introduction of separate
electorate
(B) Decentralization
(C) Dyarchy
(D) Legislative Councils
10. Which of the following Acts intro-
duced the ‘Principle of Constitu-
tional Autocracy’?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) The Indian Councils Act of
1909
(B) The Government of India Act of
1919
(C) The Government of India Act of
1935
(D) The Indian Independence Act
of 1947
11. The Indian Legislature was made
bi-cameral for the first time by
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) Indian Council Act of 1892
(B) Indian Council Act of 1909
(C) The Government of India Act of
1919
(D) The Government of India Act of
1935
12. Which of the following Acts
introduced a bi-cameral legislature
at the Centre? [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1961 Act
(B) 1917 Act
(C) 1919 Act
(D) 1915 Act
13. The power of the President to issue
ordinance is a relic of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) G.O.I. Act, 1919
(B) G.O.I. Act, 1935
(C) G.O.I. Act, 1909
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
14. Which Act for the first time made
it possible for Indians to take some
share in the administration of their
country? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Charter Act, 1833
(B) Charter Act, 1853
(C) Government of India Act, 1858
(D) Indian Councils Act, 1861
15. The distribution of power between
Centre and States as in the
Constitution of India is based on
which of the following plans?
[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Morely-Minto Reform, 1909
(B) Montagu-Chelmsford Reform,
1919
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
16. A ‘Federal System’ and ‘diarchy’ at
the ‘Centre’ was introduced in India
by [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) The Act of 1909
(B) The Act of 1919
(C) The Act of 1935
(D) None of the above

17. The provision for the establishment
of All India Federation was included
in the [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) August Offer, 1940
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Cabinet Mission Proposal, 1946
18. Which one of the following Acts
provided for a federal polity in
India? [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010]
(A) Government of India Act, 1909
(B) Government of India Act, 1919
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) India Independence Act, 1947
19. In the Federation established under
the Act of 1935, residuary powers
were given to the
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) Federal Legislature
(B) Provincial Legislature
(C) Governor-General
(D) Provincial Governor
20. Which one of the following is
not an important and permanent
constituent in the Constitutional
History of India as adopted in the
Government of India Act, 1935?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) A written Constitution for the
country
(B) Elected representation respon-
sible to the Legislature
(C) Envisaging a scheme of Federa-
tion
(D) Nomination of official members
to the Legislature
21. One amongst the following was not
a salient feature of the Government
of India Act, 1935.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
(A) The Act provided for an All
India Federation
(B) Residuary subjects were
allocated to provincial
Legislatures
(C) It marked the beginning of the
Provincial Autonomy
(D) It abolished Diarchy at the
Provincial level and introduced
it at the Centre
22. Why is the Government of India
Act, 1935 important?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(A) It is the main source of the
Constitution of India
(B) It gave Independence to India
(C) It envisages partition of India
(D) It abolished the Native States
23. Which one of the following Acts led
to the separation of Burma from
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(B) Government of India Act, 1919
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
24. The proposal for framing of the
Constitution of India by an elected
Constituent Assembly was made by
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Government of India Act, 1935
(C) Cripps Mission
(D) British Cabinet Delegation
25. The objective of Ilbert Bill in
reference to colonial rule in India
was [IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) To bring Indians and Europeans
at equal status as far as the
penal jurisdiction of courts was
concerned
(B) To put a strict restriction on
local press because they were
considered anti to colonial
rulers
(C) To conduct Administrative
Service Exams in India
to encourage Indians to
participate in it
(D) To amend the Arms Act for
weapon permit to Indians
26. As per Cabinet Mission plan, in
the constituent assembly to decide
alloted members seat in each
province, one representative was in
ratio to which population?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) 8 lakh (B) 10 lakh
(C) 12 lakh (D) 15 lakh
27. Who among the following persons
was not a member of the Cabinet
Mission? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(A) William Wood
(B) Pethick Lawrence
(C) Stafford Cripps
(D) A.B. Alexander
28. Indian Constituent Assembly was
established under
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Cripps Mission, 1942
(C) Cabinet Mission, 1946
(D) Indian Independence Act, 1947
29. In the Interim Government formed
in 1946, the Vice-President of the
Executive Council was
[IAS (Pre) 1995]
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Indian Polity and Governance 309
30. Who of the following was not the
member of the Interim National
Government formed in August
1946 A.D.? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Jagjiwan Ram
31. Who gave the idea of a Constituent
Assembly firstly for the formation
of Constitution for India?
[IAS (Pre) 1996]
(A) Swaraj Party in 1934
(B) Congress Party in 1936
(C) Muslim League in 1942
(D) All Parties conference in 1946
32. Which one among the following is
an incorrect statement about the
Constituent Assembly?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) It worked with the help of a large
number of committees, the
most important among them
being the Drafting Committee
(B) Minority communities like
Christians, Anglo-Indians and
Parsis were adequately repre-
sented in the Assembly
(C) It was elected on the basis of
universal adult franchise
(D) Its electoral process was based
on the sixth schedule of the
Act of 1935 which allowed for
a restricted franchise based on
tax, property and educational
qualification
33. Member of constituent assembly,
who drafted the Constitution of
India, were [IAS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Nominated by British
Parliament
(B) Nominated by Governor-
General
(C) Elected by legislative assem-
blies of various provinces
(D) Elected by Indian National
Congress and Muslim League
34. With reference to Indian History,
the Members of the Constituent
Assembly from the Provinces were
[IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Directly elected by the people
of those Provinces
(B) Nominated by the Indian
National Congress and the
Muslim League
(C) Elected by the Provincial
Legislative Assemblies
(D) Selected by the government for
their expertise in constitutional
matters
310 Objective General Studies
35. How were the members of
Constituent Assembly elected?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1993]
(A) Directly by public
(B) Nominated by Congress
(C) Nominated by Indian ruler
(D) By Provincial assemblies
36. Who was the first elected Chairman
of Constituent Assembly?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
37. Who chaired the first meeting of
Constituent Assembly?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1990, 2013]
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
(C) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
38. Who was the President of the Con-
stituent Assembly of Independent
India? [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) K. M. Munshi
39. Constituent Assembly of India was
established on
[UPPCS(Pre) 1990, 1995, 2011]
(A) 10 June, 1946
(B) 9 December, 1946
(C) 26 November, 1949
(D) 26 December, 1949
40. The resolution for giving a
Constitution to India was adopted
by the Constituent Assembly on
[UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(A) 22 January, 1946
(B) 22 January, 1947
(C) 20 February, 1947
(D) 26 July, 1946
41. Who proposed the Preamble before
the Drafting Committee of the
Constitution?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) B.N. Rao
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
42. Who of the following presented the
objectives resolution?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Dr. C.D. Deshmukh
43. How many Sessions of the Indian
Constituent Assembly were condu-
cted for the formulation of Indian
Constitution? [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) 7 (B) 9
(C) 12 (D) 15
44. How much time the Constituent
Assembly took to frame the Constit-
ution of India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) 2 years, 11 months, 18 days
(B) 2 years, 7 months, 23 days
(C) 3 years, 4 months, 14 days
(D) 3 years, 11 months, 5 days
45. Who among the following was the
chairman of the Union Constitution
Committee of the Constituent
Assembly? [IAS (Pre) 2005]
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) J.B. Kripalani
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer
46. Who was the Chairman of the
Provincial Constitution Committee
of the Constituent Assembly?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Patel
47. Who was the Chairman of the
Drafting Committee of the Indian
Constitution? [IAS (Pre) 2009
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003
MPPCS (Pre) 2000
Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2018
UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]
(A) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Sachchidanand Sinha
(D) C. Rajagopalachari
48. Who was the Chairman of Advisory
Committee on Fundamental Rights
and Minorities constituted by the
Constituent Assembly?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Pandit Nehru (B) Sardar Patel
(C) B.N. Rao (D) Ambedkar
49. The Drafting Committee of the
Constituent Assembly under Dr. B.
R. Ambedkar had how many other
members? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008]
(A) 7 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 4
50. Who amongst the following was
not a member of the Drafting
Committee of the Constitution?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Mohammad Sadullah
(B) K.M. Munshi
(C) A.K. Iyer
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
51. The Constituent Assembly set up
a Drafting Committee under the
Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
on [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) 13th December, 1946
(B) 22nd January, 1947
(C) 3rd June, 1947
(D) 29th August, 1947
52. Who was the Constitutional Advisor
at the time of the formation of the
Constitution? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2017
Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) B.N. Rao
(D) K.M. Munshi
53. The first draft of the Constitution
was prepared by [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) B.N. Rao
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) K.M. Munshi
54. When did the Constituent Assembly
adopted the National Flag?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1990]
(A) 22 July, 1947
(B) 23 July, 1947
(C) 25 July, 1947
(D) 15 August, 1947
55. Who was the Chairman of the
National Flag Committee?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) J.B. Kripalani
(D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
56. When was the third reading of
the Indian Constituent Assembly
started? [UPPSC (RI) 2014]
(A) 17th November, 1949
(B) 14th November, 1948
(C) 25th November, 1948
(D) 25th November, 1949
57. The Constitution of India was
completed on [UPPCS (Mains) 2010
UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) January 26, 1950
(B) November 26, 1949
(C) February 11, 1948
(D) None of the above is correct
58. Indian Constitution was adopted by
the Constituent Assembly on
[Orissa PSC (Pre) 2017
MPPCS (Pre) 2010, 1998]
(A) 26 November, 1949
(B) 15 August, 1949
(C) 2 October, 1949
(D) 15 November, 1949

59. Constitution of India came in force
on [UPPCS (Pre) 1990]
(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 23 January, 1950
(C) 15 August, 1947
(D) 26 December, 1949
60. January 26 was selected as the
date for the inauguration of the
Constitution, because
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) The Congress had observed it
as the Independence Day in
1930
(B) On that day the Quit India
Movement was started in 1942
(C) It was considered to be an
auspicious day
(D) None of the above
61. Indian Constitution was adopted
by [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
(A) Constituent Assembly
(B) British Parliament
(C) Governor-General
(D) Indian Parliament
62. The Constitution of India was
enacted on 26 November, 1949 by
the [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Constituent Assembly
(B) Governor-General of India
(C) Parliament of India
(D) British Parliament
63. Constitution Day of India is
celebrated on
[60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) 26th October
(B) 26th November
(C) 26th January
(D) 15th August
64. B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the
Constituent Assembly from
[Tripura PSC (Pre) 2017]
(A) West Bengal
(B) Bombay Presidency
(C) Middle India
(D) Punjab
65. Year of birth and death of Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar. [MPPCS (Pre) 1992]
(A) 1886, 1951
(B) 1891, 1956
(C) 1877, 1961
(D) 1889, 1961
66. In which year was ‘Jana Gana Mana’
adopted as the National Anthem of
India? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1996]
(A) 1948 (B) 1949
(C) 1950 (D) 1951
67. The state emblem was adopted by
Govt. of India on [MPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) 15th August, 1948
(B) 2nd October, 1947
(C) 26th January, 1948
(D) 26th January, 1950
68. Deferment of Adult Franchise for
fifteen years was advocated in
Constituent Assembly by
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Maulana Azad
(D) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar
69. Who amongst the following advised
that the Indian National Congress
should be disbanded as a political
party after the independence of
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Jai Prakash Narayan
(C) Acharya Kripalani
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
70. “In their nationalist reaction,
the Founding Fathers of Indian
Constitution tended to minimize
the importance of minority interests
and emotions”.
This view is credited to
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) Morris Jones
(B) Hardgrave Junior
(C) Alexandrovitz
(D) Ivor Jennings
71. “Constituent Assembly was
Congress and Congress was India”,
who said this?
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2013]
(A) Austin
(B) C.R. Attlee
(C) Winston Churchill
(D) Lord Mountbatten
72. How many women members were
there in the Indian Constituent
Assembly? [UPPSC (RI) 2014]
(A) 15 (B) 13
(C) 12 (D) 10
73. The States and the Central
Government derive power from
[MPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) The Constitution of India
(B) The President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Parliament of India
74. In how many provinces was the
Congress Ministry formed in the
election of the year 1937?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(A) 11 (B) 9
(C) 8 (D) 3
75. Which of the following is/are
the principal feature(s) of the
Indian Polity and Governance 311
Government of India Act, 1919?
1. The introduction of dyarchy in
the executive Government of
the provinces.
2. The introduction of separate
communal electorates for
Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative
authority by the centre to the
provinces.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
76. Which of the following statements
is/are not true in relation to
Constituent Assembly?
1. Assembly was not based on
adult suffrage.
2. The assembly was a result of
direct election.
3. Assembly was a multiparty
body.
4. Assembly worked through
various committees.
Choose the correct answer by using
the code given below.
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2015]
Code
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
77. In relation to formation of the
Constitution of India, which of the
following sentences is/are correct?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
1. Resolution of objectives by
Nehru affected the making of
the Constitution.
2. Preamble fulfills various
important objectives/aims.
3. Peoples of India ordered/
directed the Constitution.
4. Head of the state is elected by
the people directly.
Code
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All of these
78. Who among the following were the
members of the drafting committee
of the Constitution?
1. N. Gopalaswami
2. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer
4. Sardar Patel
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
312 Objective General Studies
79. Consider the following statements. (d) Appointment of Law Member List-Y
1. The design of the National Flag in Governor-General Council 1. V.T. Krishnamachari
was adopted by the Constituent List-II 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
Assembly of India on 22nd July, 1. Regulating Act, 1773 3. K.M. Munshi
1947. 2. Pitt’s India Act, 1784 4. H.C. Mukherjee
2. The wheel in National Flag has 3. Charter Act, 1813 Code
21 spokes. 4. Charter Act, 1833 (a) (b) (c) (d)
3. The ratio of the width of the Code (A) 1 4 2 3
National Flag to its length is
(a) (b) (c) (d) (B) 4 3 1 2
3 : 4.
(A) 1 2 3 4 (C) 1 2 3 4
Which of the above statements is/
are correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(B) 2 1 3 4 (D) 3 4 1 2
(C) 1 2 4 3 84. Here are two statements.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 1
(D) 2 4 1 3 Assertion (A): The Constitution
(C) 2 and 3 (D) Only 2
82. Assertion (A): According to of India provides for all necessities
80. Consider the following statements.
the Wavell Plan, the number of of the country.
1. The discussions in the Third Hindu and Muslim members in the
Round Table Conference Reason (R): It is known or called
Executive Council was to be equal. as ‘Adopted’ Constitution.
eventually led to the passing of
the Government of India Act, Reason (R): Wavell thought In relation to aforesaid which one is
1935. that this arrangement would have true? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
avoided the partition of India. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
2. The Government of India
[Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2017]
Act, 1935 provided for the (R) is the correct explanation of
establishment of an All India Code (A)
Federation to be based on (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
a Union of the Provinces of (R) is the correct explanation of but (R) is not the correct
British India and the Princely (A) explanation of (A)
States. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Which of the statement(s) given but (R) is not the correct (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
above is/are correct? explanation of (A) 85. Consider the following statements
[IAS (Pre) 2009] (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false and choose the correct answer by
(A) Only 1 (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true using the codes given below.
(B) Only 2 83. Match List-X with List-Y and select Assertion (A): India is a demo-
(C) Both 1 and 2 the correct answer using the code cratic country.
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 given below the lists. Reason (R): India has a constitu-
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
81. Match List-I with List-II and select tion of its own. [UPPCS(Pre) 2017]
the correct answer using the code List-X Code
given below the lists. (a) First Vice-President of Constit- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
[UPPCS (Pre) 2003] uent Assembly (R) is the correct explanation of
List-I (b) Originally the only Congress (A)
(a) Establishment of Board of Member of Drafting Committee (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
Control (c) Member of Constituent Assem- but (R) is not the correct
(b) Establishment of Supreme bly representing Rajasthan’s explanation of (A)
Court Princely State (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(c) Permission to English Mission- (d) Chairman of Union Constitu- (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
aries to work in India tion Committee

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (D)
51. (D) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (A)
61. (A) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (C) 69. (D) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (A) 74. (C) 75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (B) 80. (C)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (B) 84. (B) 85. (B)
 Indian Polity and Governance 313

2. Foreign Impact on the Constitution

1. In Indian political system which (C) Dual Judicial System 15. The concept of Fundamental Duties
one is supreme? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013 (D) A Federal Supreme Court has been taken from
45th BPSC (Pre) 2001] for Interpretation of the [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2004]
(A) The Supreme Court Constitution (A) American Constitution
(B) The Constitution 9. Which of the following statements (B) British Constitution
(C) The Parliament is true? [38th BPSC (Pre) 1992] (C) Russian (Former Soviet Union)
(D) Religion (A) The Federal form of Govern- Constitution
2. The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in ment is in United States of (D) French Constitution
India has been adopted from the America 16. The concept of Fundamental
Constitution of [UPPCS(Pre) 1998] (B) The government of India is Rights, as incorporated in the Indi-
(A) U.K. (B) U.S.A. federal and unitary both an Constitution has been adopted
(C) U.S.S.R. (D) Australia (C) The government of France is of from [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014
3. The idea of the Preamble has been federal form UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006
(D) The Prime Minister of Pakistan UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010]
borrowed in Indian Constitution
from the Constitution of is appointed by the people (A) France
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015] 10. Concurrent List included in Indian (B) Britain
(A) Italy (B) Canada Constitution is given by (C) United States of America
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003] (D) Russia
(C) France (D) U.S.A.
4. The concept of ‘A Union of States in (A) The Soviet Union 17. The tradition of written Constitu-
the Indian Constitution’ has been (B) Australia tion began from which of the fol-
derived from [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] (C) Italy lowing countries?
(A) The American Declaration of (D) Canada [MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
Independence 11. The idea of Concurrent List in (A) Japan (B) India
(B) The Australian Constitution the Indian Constitution has been (C) Britain (D) America
(C) The British North-American Act borrowed from 18. Of the following political features,
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014, 12, 11] which is/are common to India and
(D) The Swiss Constitution
5. The feature of Federal system of (A) U.S.A. (B) Switzerland the USA? [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
Indian Constitution is inspired by (C) Australia (D) U.S.S.R. 1. Residuary powers vested in the
the constitution of 12. The framers of the Constitution centre.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006] of India borrowed the concept of 2. Residuary powers vested in the
(A) Canada the Concurrent List described in states.
(B) United Kingdom the Seventh Schedule from the 3. President has the power of
Constitution of pocket veto.
(C) U.S.A.
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
(D) Ireland UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
4. The upper house has some
6. The Indian Parlimentary System nominated members.
(A) Canada (B) Australia
is different from the British (A) Only 3
(C) Italy (D) South Africa
Parliamentary System in that India (B) Only 3 and 4
has [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2018] 13. Indian Constitution has taken a
certain feature of the Constitution (C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(A) Both a real and a nominal (D) Only 1, 3 and 4
of other countries, which country
executive 19. Given below are two statements.
has contributed to the framing of
(B) A system of collective responsi- the ‘Directive Principles of State Assertion (A): The scope of
bility Policy’? Judicial review is limited in India.
(C) Bi-cameral legislature [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004 Reason (R): Indian Constitution
(D) The system of judicial review UPPCS (Pre) 1998] has some borrowed items.
7. The system of judicial review exists (A) France (B) Ireland
in [UPPCS (Mains) 2012
Select the right answer from the
(C) Japan (D) U.S.A. code given below.
UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
14. In giving representation to talent, [UPPCS (Pre) 2017
(A) India only experience and service in the Kerala PSC (Pre) 2019]
(B) U.S.A. only composition of the Council of Code
(C) India and U.S.A. States, the Constitution makers
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(D) U.K. only of India were influenced by the
(R) is the correct explanation of
8. Which of the following example of [UPPCS (Pre) 1998
(A)
characteristics is common between Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2018]
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
the Federal system of India and (A) Irish Republic
but (R) is not the correct
America? [IAS (Pre) 1993] (B) Canada explanation of (A)
(A) A Single Citizenship (C) U.S.A. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) Three lists in the Constitution (D) Australia
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
314 Objective General Studies
20. Match List-I with List-II and select 2. Canadian Constitution (b) Fundamental Rights
the correct answer using the code 3. Irish Constitution (c) Concurrent List for Union-State
given below the lists. 4. U.S. Bill of Rights Relations
[Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2018] Code (d) India as a Union of States with
List-I (Feature of Constitution (a) (b) (c) (d) greater powers to the Union
of India) (A) 4 3 2 1 List-II (Country from which it
(a) Fundamental Rights (B) 4 2 3 1 was derived)
(b) Parliamentary System (C) 4 1 3 2 1. Australia
(c) Emergency Provisions (D) 4 3 1 2 2. Canada
(d) Directive Principles of State 22. Match List-I with List-II and select 3. Ireland
Policy the correct answer using the code 4. United Kingdom
List-II (Borrowed from which given below the lists. 5. United States of America
country) [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2016 Code
1. United Kingdom UPPSC (GIC) 2010] (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. United States List-I (A) 5 4 1 2
3. Ireland (Constitutional Provisions) (B) 3 5 2 1
4. Germany (a) Rule of Law (C) 5 4 2 1
5. Canada (b) Procedure established by Law (D) 3 5 1 2
Code (c) Reserving of bill by Governor 24. Assertion (A): The Constitution
(a) (b) (c) (d) for President’s consideration of India has become the longest
(A) 2 4 5 1 (d) Concurrent List one.
(B) 5 1 3 4 List-II (Sources) Reason (R): The chapter on
(C) 2 1 4 3 1. Australia 2. England Fundamental Rights has been
(D) 1 2 4 3 3. Japan 4. Canada borrowed from the model of
21. Match List-I with List-II and select Code American Constitution.
the correct answer using the code (a) (b) (c) (d) Choose the correct answer using
given below the lists. (A) 1 2 3 4 the code given below.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2013] [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(B) 2 1 4 3
List-I (C) 3 2 1 4 Code
(Constitutional Provision) (D) 2 3 4 1 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(a) Fundamental Rights 23. Match List-I with List-II and select (R) is the correct explanation of
(b) Directive Principles of State the correct answer using the code (A)
Policy given below the lists. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(c) Cabinet Government [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018] but (R) is not the correct
(d) Union State Relations explanation of (A)
List-I
List-II (Source) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(a) Directive Principles of State
1. British Constitution (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Policy

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (B)

3. Articles and Schedules in the Constitution of India

1. There were originally how many
Articles in the Constitution of
India?
[West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2016
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) 420
(B) 380
(C) 395
(D) 270
2. Total numbers of Articles and
Schedules in Constitution, calcula-
tion or numbering wise is
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) 390 Articles, 5 Schedules
(B) 395 Articles, 12 Schedules
(C) 395 Articles, 10 Schedules
(D) 444 Articles, 12 Schedules
3. Indian Constitution consists of
[42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997
Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) 300 Articles
(B) 350 Articles
(C) More than 400 Articles
(D) 500 Articles
4. How many parts, Articles and
Schedules was there in the original
Indian Constitution?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016
Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) 22 Parts, 395 Articles and 8
Schedules
(B) 24 Parts, 450 Articles and 12
Schedules
(C) 22 Parts, 390 Articles and 8
Schedules
(D) 24 Parts, 425 Articles and 12
Schedules
 Indian Polity and Governance 315
5. The Indian Constitution comprises (B) Political defection (C) Post Office Union
of [53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2003] (C) Panchayat system Saving Bank
(A) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 (D) Languages (D) Public Health State
Schedules 14. If a new state of the Indian Union 22. Which one of the following
(B) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 is to be created, which one of Schedules of the Constitution of
Schedules the following Schedules of the India contains provisions regarding
(C) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Constitution must be amended? Anti-defection Act?
Schedules [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018] [IAS (Pre) 1998, 2014
(D) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 (A) First (B) Second UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
Schedules (C) Third (D) Fourth (A) Second Schedule
6. Total number of Schedules in the 15. To give constitutional protection, (B) Fifth Schedule
Constitution is [MPPCS (Pre) 2010] state land reforms laws have been (C) Eighth Schedule
(A) 12 (B) 16 included in the [UPPCS (Mains) 2003] (D) Tenth Schedule
(C) 8 (D) 10 (A) 7th Schedule 23. Constitution’s Tenth Schedule
7. The Indian Constitution is divided (B) 9th Schedule relates to [41st BPSC (Pre) 1996
into [UPPCS (Mains) 2012 (C) 8th Schedule UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008] (D) 10th Schedule (A) National Language of India
(A) 16 Parts (B) 22 Parts 16. Under the Constitution of India, (B) Administration of SC’s and ST’s
(C) 24 Parts (D) 25 Parts Economic Planning is a subject Area
8. Which part of Constitution contains [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002 (C) Judicial Review
provisions relating to citizenship? UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006] (D) Anti-defection Law
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] (A) In the State List 24. Which one of the following is not
(A) Part I (B) Part III (B) In the Union List included in the Union List in the
(C) Part II (D) Part IV (C) In the Concurrent List Seventh Schedule of the Indian
9. Which one of the following is not (D) Not specified in any list Constitution? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
matched correctly? 17. Which of the following is the subject (A) Banking (B) Insurance
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004] of Concurrent List? (C) Census (D) Gas
(A) Citizenship - Part II of Constitu- [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011 25. Which one of the following is not
tion UPPCS (Mains) 2005] included in the ‘Union List’ of the
(B) Fundamental Rights - Part III of (A) Police Constitution of India?
Constitution (B) Criminal Matters [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(C) Fundamental Duties - Part VI-A (C) Radio and Television (A) Defence
of Constitution (D) Foreign Affairs (B) Foreign Affairs
(D) State - Part VI of Constitution 18. Which of the following Entry is (C) Railways
10. Which part of our Constitution subject of Concurrent List? (D) Agriculture
envisages a three tier system of [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2018] 26. Which one of the following is
Panchayats? [UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (A) Population control and family included in the State List under
(A) Part IX (B) Pat X planning Seventh Schedule of Indian
(C) Part XI (D) Part XII (B) Public health and sanitation Constitution? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
11. Which part and chapter of the (C) Per-person Tax (A) Education
Indian Constitution deal with the (D) Treasure Travel (B) Electricity
legislative relation between the 19. Which of the following subject lies (C) Railway Police
Union and the States? in the Concurrent List? (D) Forest
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012] [47th BPSC (Pre) 2005] 27. In which list of the Indian
(A) Part XI and Chapter I (A) Agriculture (B) Education Constitution the ‘Panchayati Raj’
(B) Part XI and Chapter II (C) Police (D) Defence subject is included?
(C) Part XII and Chapter I 20. Education which was initially a [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(D) Part XII and Chapter II state subject was transferred to the (A) Union List
12. Which one of the following Sched- Concurrent List by the (B) State List
ules of the Indian Constitution lists [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008] (C) Concurrent List
the names of states and specifies (A) 24th Amendment (D) Residuary List
their territories? [IAS (Pre) 2003 (B) 25th Amendment 28. Which one of the following
UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (C) 42nd Amendment subject is in List-III Concurrent
(A) First (B) Second (D) 44th Amendment List of the Seventh Schedule of the
(C) Third (D) Fourth 21. Which one of the given Subjects is Constitution of India?
13. Fourth Schedule of the Constitution not correctly matched with their [UPPCS (Mains) 2006, 2011]
of India deals with list? [UPPCS (Pre) 2009, 2010] (A) Criminal Procedure
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015] Subject List (B) Police
(A) Allocation of seats for the (A) Forest Concurrent (C) Prisons
Council of States (B) Stock Exchange Concurrent (D) Public Order
316 Objective General Studies
29. ‘Marriage’, ‘Divorce’ and ‘Adoption’
are an entry in the Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution under
the following.
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2010]
(A) List I - Union List
(B) List II - State List
(C) List III - Concurrent List
(D) None of the above three lists
30. The right of the government to
impose taxes and fees is provided in
which List of Constitution?
[IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) VI Schedule (B) VII Schedule
(C) IX Schedule (D) XI Schedule
31. Which one of the following is in the
State List? [UPPCS (Pre) 2001]
(A) Railway Police
(B) Corporation Tax
(C) Census
(D) Economic and Social Planning
32. Land Reform comes under the
subjects of [43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999]
(A) Union List
(B) Concurrent List
(C) State List
(D) None of the above
33. Which Schedule of the Constitution
of India contains special provisions
for the administration and control
of Schedule Areas in several states?
[IAS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Third (B) Fifth
(C) Seventh (D) Ninth
34. Provisions of Schedule Six of the
Constitution does not apply to
which of these state?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Assam
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Tripura
(D) Manipur
35. The Sixth Schedule of the
Constitution of India deals with
the administration of tribal areas of
which of the following States?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Goa
(B) Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram
(C) Uttarakhand, Manipur,
Jharkhand
(D) Nagaland, Arunachal, Tripura
36. The provisions of the Fifth and
Sixth Schedule in the Constitution
of India are made to [IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Protect the interests of
Scheduled Tribes
(B) Determine the boundaries
between States
(C) Determine the powers,
authority and responsible of
Panchayats
(D) Protect the interests of all the
border States
37. The Constitutional status has been
given to Panchayats under Article
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2007]
(A) 226 (B) 243
(C) 239 (D) 219
38. The Eleventh Schedule of the
Constitution is related to which of
the following? [UPPSC (RI) 2014
UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Municipality
(B) Panchayati Raj
(C) Centre-State relationship
(D) Removal of corruption
39. The provision that “no bill
imposing tax can be introduced
in the Legislature except on the
recommendation of the President”
is covered in the Constitution of
India under
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Article 117 (B) Article 266
(C) Article 306 (D) Article 307
40. Special provision regarding
Financial Bills is given under
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010]
(A) Article 117 (B) Article 119
(C) Article 121 (D) Article 123
41. Which one of the following articles
of the Indian Constitution provides
for All Indian Services?
[UPPSC (RI) 2014
UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Article 310 (B) Article 311
(C) Article 312 (D) Article 313
42. Which one of the following pairs
(Institutions and Articles of the
Constitution) is properly matched?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Supreme Court of India - Article
318
(B) Election Commission of India -
Article 324
(C) Union Public Service Commis-
sion - Article 332
(D) Attorney General - Article 351
43. Which one of the following is not
correctly matched?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Article 39A - Equal Justice and
Free Legal Aid
(B) Article 40 - Organisation of
Village Panchayats
(C) Article 44 - Uniform Civil Code
(D) Article 48 - Separation of
Judiciary from Executive
44. Which one of the following is
matched correctly?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002
UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2002]
(A) Article 17 - Equality before Law
(B) Article 78 - Establishment of
Parliament
(C) Article 192 - Salaries and
Allowances of Parliament
Members
(D) Article 352 - Proclamation of
Emergency
45. Which of the following is correctly
matched? [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Part-II of the Constitution -
Fundamental Rights
(B) Part-III of the Constitution -
Citizenship
(C) Part-IV(A) of the Constitution -
Fundamental Duties
(D) Part-V of the Constitution -
Directive Principles of the State
Policy
46. Which of the following is not
correctly matched under the
Constitution of India?
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
(A) The Panchayats - Part IX
(B) The Municipalities - Part IX-A
(C) The Co-operative Societies -
Part IX-B
(D) Tribunals - Part X
47. Consider the following statements.
1. The Constitution of India has
20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the
Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and
Twelfth Schedules were added
to the Constitution of India by
Constitution (Amendment)
Acts.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2005]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
48. Which of the following are
enshrined in the third schedule of
the Indian Constitution?
1. Form of oath of office for a
Minister for the Union.
2. Form of oath to be made by the
Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
3. Form of oath of office for the
President of India.
4. Form of oath to be made by a
Member of Parliament.
 Indian Polity and Governance 317
Select the correct answer using the given below the lists. Code
code given below. [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015] (a) (b) (c) (d)
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017] List-I (A) 3 1 2 4
Code (a) Formation of new states (B) 2 3 4 1
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (b) Citizenship (C) 3 1 4 2
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Fundamental Rights (D) 4 2 1 3
49. Match the following. (d) Setting of Administrative 55. Match the following.
[60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016] Tribunals [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
List-I List-II List-I
(a) Union List (b) State List 1. Part-2 of the Constitution of (a) Union List
(c) Concurrent List India (b) State List
List-II 2. Article 3 of the Constitution of (c) Concurrent List
1. 97 entries 2. 47 entries India (d) Residuary Subject
3. 66 entries 3. Article 323-A of the Constitu- List-II
Code tion of India
1. Police and Public Order
4. Part-3 of the Constitution of
(a) (b) (c) 2. Space Research
India
(A) 1 2 3 3. Census
Code
(B) 1 3 2 4. Population Control and Family
(a) (b) (c) (d) Planning
(C) 2 3 1
(A) 2 1 4 3 Code
(D) 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
50. Which of the following provisions (a) (b) (c) (d)
of the Constitution of India have a (C) 3 4 1 2
(A) 3 1 4 2
bearing on Education? (D) 4 2 1 3
(B) 2 3 1 4
1. Directive Principles of State 53. Match List-I with List-II and select (C) 1 2 3 4
Policy the correct answer using the code
(D) 4 1 2 3
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies given below the lists.
[UPPCS (Pre) 1999] 56. Match List-I with List-II and select
3. Fifth Schedule the correct answer using the code
4. Sixth Schedule List-I (Schedules of the
given below the lists.
Constitution)
5. Seventh Schedule [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
(a) 4th (b) 6th
Select the correct answer using the List-I
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012] (c) 8th (d) 9th (Article of the Constitution)
(A) Only 1 and 2 List-II (Subject-matter) (a) 124 (b) 5
(B) Only 3, 4 and 5 1. Land Reforms (c) 352 (d) 245
(C) Only 1, 2 and 5 2. Language List-II (Subject)
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 3. Council of States
1. Union Judiciary
51. Match List-I with List-II and select 4. Tribal Areas
2. Citizenship
the correct answer using the code Code 3. Emergency Provisions
given below the lists. (a) (b) (c) (d) 4. Distribution of Legislative
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013] (A) 1 2 3 4 Powers
List-I (B) 2 3 4 1 Code
(a) Part XV of the Constitution (C) 3 4 2 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) Part XVI of the Constitution (D) 4 2 1 3 (A) 1 2 3 4
(c) Part XVII of the Constitution 54. Match List-I with List-II and select (B) 2 1 4 3
(d) Part XVIII of the Constitution the correct answer using the code (C) 4 3 2 1
List-II given below the lists.
(D) 3 4 1 2
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
1. Emergency Provisions 57. Match List-I with List-II and select
2. Official Language List-I
the correct answer using the code
3. Special Provisions regarding (a) 7th Schedule given below the lists.
certain classes (b) 8th Schedule [UPPCS (Pre) 2010
4. Elections (c) 9th Schedule Jammu & Kashmir PSC (Pre) 2017]
Code (d) 10th Schedule List-I
(a) (b) (c) (d) List-II (a) Article 14 (b) Article 36
(A) 3 4 1 2 1. Languages (c) Article 74 (d) Article 368
(B) 4 3 2 1 2. Disqualification on ground of List-II
(C) 1 2 3 4 defection 1. Amendment procedure
(D) 2 1 4 3 3. Distribution of legislative 2. Council of Ministers
powers
52. Match List-I with List-II and select 3. Right to Equality
the correct answer using the code 4. Validation of certain Acts
4. Directive Principles
318 Objective General Studies
Code List-I 63. Match List-I with List-II and select
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Article 323-A the correct answer using the code
(A) 2 1 4 3 (b) Article 324 given below the lists.
(B) 4 1 3 2 (c) Article 330 [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(C) 1 2 3 4 (d) Article 320 List-I
(D) 3 4 2 1 List-II (Articles of Constitution)
58. Match List-I with List-II and select 1. Election (a) 215 (b) 222
the correct answer using the code 2. Administration Tribunals (c) 226 (d) 227
given below the lists. 3. Functions of Public Service List-II (Provision)
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] Commissions 1. Transfer of Judge from one
List-I 4. Reservation of seats for SC and High Court to another
(a) To admit new state by law ST in Lok Sabha 2. Powers of superintendence
(b) The right to equality Code over all courts by the High
Court
(c) Protection against arrest and (a) (b) (c) (d)
detention 3. Power of High Court to issue
(A) 1 2 3 4
certain writs
(d) The power of the President to (B) 4 3 2 1
4. High court to be court of Record
assent the Bill (C) 2 1 4 3
Code
List-II (D) 3 4 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. Article 14 2. Article 2 61. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer using the code (A) 4 1 3 2
3. Article 111 4. Article 22
given below the lists. (B) 2 1 3 4
Code
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (C) 1 4 3 2
(a) (b) (c) (d) (D) 4 2 3 1
(A) 1 2 3 4 List-I
(a) Constitutional Amendments 64. Match List-I with List-II and select
(B) 2 1 4 3 the correct answer using the code
(b) Finance Commission
(C) 3 4 2 1 given below the lists.
(c) Financial Emergency
(D) 4 3 1 2 [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(d) All India Services
59. Match List-I with List-II and select List-I
the correct answer using the code List-II
(a) Article 76 (b) Article 148
given below the lists. 1. Article 360 2. Article 312
(c) Article 75(I) (d) Article 131
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011, 2005 3. Article 280 4. Article 368
List-II
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002 Code
IAS (Pre) 2001] 1. Comptroller and Auditor
(a) (b) (c) (d) General of India
List-I (A) 2 3 4 1
(Article of the Constitution) 2. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court
(B) 4 3 1 2 3. Attorney General of India
(a) Article 54 (b) Article 75 (C) 3 4 1 2
(c) Article 155 (d) Article 164 4. Appointment of Union
(D) 1 2 3 4 Ministers
List-II (Content) 62. Match List-I with List-II and select Code
1. Election of the President of the correct answer using the code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
India given below the lists.
(A) 1 2 3 4
2. Appointment of the Prime [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
Minister and Cabinet (B) 3 1 4 2
List-I (Institution)
(C) 4 1 2 3
3. Appointment of the Governor (a) Comptroller and Auditor
of State (D) 2 3 4 1
General of India
4. Appointment of the Chief (b) Finance Commission 65. Match List-I with List-II and select
Minister and Council of the correct answer using the code
(c) Administrative Tribunal
Ministers of a State given below the lists.
(d) Union Public Service [UPPCS (Pre) 2015
5. Composition of Legislative Commission Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2019]
Assemblies List-II (Articles)
Code List-I (Provision under the
1. Article 315 Constitution)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2. Article 280 (a) Equality before Law
(A) 1 2 3 4 3. Article 148 (b) Right to Work
(B) 1 2 4 5 4. Article 323(A) (c) Just and Humane conditions of
(C) 2 1 3 5 Code work
(D) 2 1 4 3 (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Free and Compulsory Educa-
60. Match List-I with List-II and select (A) 3 2 4 1 tion for Children
the correct answer using the code (B) 3 4 2 1 List-II (Article number)
given below the lists. (C) 1 2 4 3 1. Article 42 2. Article 45
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015] (D) 4 1 3 2 3. Article 14 4. Article 41
 Indian Polity and Governance 319
Code (d) Part IXA of the Indian Constitu- List-I
(a) (b) (c) (d) tion (a) Fundamental Rights
(A) 1 2 3 4 List-II (b) Fundamental Duties
(B) 3 4 1 2 1. Union Territories (c) The Union
(C) 2 1 4 3 2. Municipalities (d) Emergency Provisions
(D) 4 3 1 2 3. Panchayats List-II
66. Match List-I with List-II and select 4. Fundamental Duties 1. Part IV A, Constitution of India
the correct answer using the code Code 2. Part III, Constitution of India
given below the lists. (a) (b) (c) (d) 3. Part XVIII, Constitution of India
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] (A) 3 1 4 2 4. Part V, Constitution of India
List-I (B) 1 2 3 4 Code
(a) Part IX of the Indian Constitu- (C) 2 4 1 3 (a) (b) (c) (d)
tion (D) 4 3 2 1 (A) 2 1 4 3
(b) Part VIII of the Indian Constitu- 67. Match List-I with List-II and select (B) 3 4 1 2
tion the correct answer using the code (C) 2 1 3 4
(c) Part IV A of the Indian Constitu- given below the lists. (D) 4 3 2 1
tion [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (B)
31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (B) 50. (D)
51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (C)
61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (A)

4. The Preamble
1. By which name/names is our coun- LIBERTY of thought, expression, (C) A Sovereign Secular
try mentioned in the Constitution? belief, faith and worship; Democratic Republic
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003] EQUALITY of status and (D) A Sovereign Socialist Secular
(A) Bharat and India opportunity and to promote among Democratic Republic
(B) Bharat only them all; 5. Which one of the following
(C) Hindustan and India FRATERNITY assuring the dignity describes India as a Secular State?
(D) Bharat, Hindustan and India of the Individual and the unity and [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
2. In the context of the Preamble of the integrity of the Nation. (A) Fundamental Rights
Indian Constitution which of the In our Constituent Assembly, this (B) Preamble to the Constitution
following sequence is correct? ‘X’ do hereby adopt, enact and give (C) 9th Schedule
[40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
to ourselves this Constitution”, ‘X’ (D) Directive Principles
(A) Republic, People’s, Democratic, stands for [IAS (Pre) 1997]
Secular, Socialist, Universal, 6. Which one of the following words
(A) Twenty-sixth day of January, was not included in the Preamble of
Sovereign 1950
(B) Sovereign, Socialist, Democrat- the Indian Constitution in 1975?
(B) Twenty-sixth day of November, [UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
ic, People’s, Secular, Republic
1949 (A) Fraternity (B) Sovereign
(C) Sovereign, Socialist, People’s,
(C) Twenty-sixth day of January, (C) Equality (D) Integrity
Democratic, Secular, Socialist,
1949
Republic 7. In which form is India declared in
(D) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, (D) None of the above
The Preamble of Indian Constitu-
Democratic, Republic 4. What was the exact Constitutional tion? [42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
3. In the following quotation, Status of the Indian Republic on
(A) A Sovereign, Democratic,
26-1-1950 when the Constitution
“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having Republic
came into force?
solemnly resolved to constitute [UPPCS (Mains) 2009 (B) A Socialist, Democratic,
India into a (Sovereign Socialist UP Lower (Spl)(Pre) 2008] Republic
Secular Democratic Republic) and (A) A Democratic Republic (C) A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular,
to secure to all its citizens. Democratic, Republic
(B) A Sovereign Democratic Re-
JUSTICE, social, economic and public (D) None of the above
political;
320 Objective General Studies
8. The term ‘Socialist’ was brought
into the Preamble of the
Indian Constitution by which
amendment? [MPPCS (Pre) 2013
60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) 32nd (B) 42nd
(C) 44th (D) 74th
9. The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’
were inserted in The Preamble to
the Constitution by the
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) 41st Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 43rd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
10. The word ‘Secularism’ was inserted
in the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution by [UPPCS (Mains) 2013
UPPCS (Pre) 2010, 1991]
(A) 25th Amendment
(B) 42nd Amendment
(C) 44th Amendment
(D) 52nd Amendment
11. ‘India is a Republic’ means
[UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) It is the people who are the final
authority in all matters
(B) There is no Parliamentary
System of Government in India
(C) There are no hereditary rulers
in India
(D) India is the Union of States
12. India has people’s sovereignty
because the Preamble of the
Constitution begins with the
words. [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
(A) Democratic India
(B) Republic of People
(C) Democracy of People
(D) We the People of India
13. Where have the words ‘We the
people of India’ been used in the
Constitution of India?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Directive Principles
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Citizenship
(D) Preamble of the Constitution
14. ‘All persons completely and equally
are human’ this principle is known
as [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Universalism
(B) Holism
(C) Socialism
(D) Interactionism
15. Which among the following is
the correct expression of the term
‘Secular’ in India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) India has many religions
(B) Indians have religious freedom
(C) Following the religion depends
upon the will of an individual
(D) There is no religion of the State
in India
16. Which of the following words is not
in the Preamble to the Constitution
of India? [MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Socialist
(B) Secular
(C) Sovereign
(D) Public Welfare
17. Which one of the following liberty
is not embodied in the Preamble of
the Constitution of India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013
IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Liberty of Thought
(B) Liberty of Expression
(C) Liberty of Belief
(D) Economic Liberty
18. Which of the following is true
in relation to the Preamble of
Constitution of India?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) The words ‘Socialist’ and
‘Secular’ were not the part of the
Preamble on the enforcement
of Constitution in 1950
(B) The above mentioned words
were inserted by amendment in
1977
(C) The above mentioned words
were inserted by amendment in
1985
(D) These two words are not part of
the Preamble
19. Which part of the Indian Constitu-
tion has been described as the ‘Soul’
of the Constitution?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015, 13
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006
UPPCS (Pre) 2008
UPPSC (GIC) 2008
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles of State
Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional
Remedies
20. Who among the following called
the Preamble of Indian Constitution
‘the horoscope of one sovereign,
democratic republic’?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) B.R. Ambedkar
(D) K.M. Munshi
21. Who has termed Constitution a
sacred document?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Deendayal Upadhyay
(D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
22. In which of the following cases
Supreme Court held that ‘The
Preamble forms part of the
Constitution’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Union of India Vs. Dr. Kohli
(B) Banarsidas Vs. State of U.P.
(C) Bommai Vs. Union of India
(D) Malak Singh Vs. State of Punjab
23. In which of the following cases the
Supreme Court regarded Preamble
as a part of the basic structure of
India Constitution?
[UPPSC (RI) 2014]
(A) Beru Bari Case
(B) A.K. Gopalan Case
(C) Privy Purse Case
(D) Keshwanand Bharti Case
24. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of
the objectives of the Indian
Constitution has been provided in
[IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) The Preamble and the Funda-
mental Rights
(B) The Preamble and the Directive
Principles of State Policy
(C) The Fundamental Rights and
the Directive Principles of State
Policy
(D) None of the above
25. The ideals and objectives outlined
in the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution have been further
elaborated in
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) The Chapter on Fundamental
Rights
(B) The Chapter on Directive
Principles of State Policy
(C) The Chapter on Directive
Principles of State Policy,
Fundamental Rights and Fund-
amental Duties
(D) Nowhere else in the text of the
Constitution
26. The mind of the makers of the
Constitution of India is reflected in
which of the following?
[IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) The Preamble
(B) The Fundamental Rights
(C) The Directive Principles of
State Policy
(D) The Fundamental Duties
 Indian Polity and Governance 321
27. The objective of Indian Constitution (A) 3, 1, 4 and 2 (B) 3, 4, 1 and 2 34. In the Preamble of Constitution
is reflected in which of the (C) 3, 4, 2 and 1 (D) 4, 1, 3 and 2 adopted on 26 November, 1949
following? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013] 32. Which of the following words have which word/words was/were not
(A) Fundamental Rights been added to the Preamble by the present?
(B) Preamble of the Constitution 42nd Amendment? 1. Socialist 2. Secular
(C) Directive Principles of State 1. Socialist 3. Integrity 4. Republic
Policy Choose the correct answer by
2. Gram Swarajya
(D) Parliament following code. [UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
3. Secular
28. How many types of justice has been (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
enshrined in the Preamble of the 4. Sovereign
Select the correct answer by using (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
Constitution of India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] the code given below. 35. The goal of Constitution is to
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] secure/assure for all its citizens.
(A) Two (B) Three
(C) One (D) Four (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 1. Justice Social and Economic
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 2. Liberty of Thought and
29. One of the implications of equality
33. Consider the following statements Expression
in society is the absence of
[IAS (Pre) 2017] in regards to The Preamble of 3. Equality of Opportunity
(A) Privileges (B) Restraints Constitution and give correct 4. Dignity of the Individual
(C) Competition (D) Ideology answer using the code given below. Choose the correct answer by using
30. Which of the following is correct? [UPPCS (Pre) 2009 code. [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008] Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018] (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(A) Social equality is not guaran- 1. The objectives Resolution (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All of these
teed in our Constitution by Jawaharlal Nehru finally 36. The Preamble given in the
(B) Social equality already existed became Preamble. Constitution
in our country 2. It is non-Justiciable. [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004]
(C) Social equality is guaranteed in 3. It can’t be amended. 1. is not enforceable in courts.
our Constitution 4. Preamble cannot override 2. is important and have utility.
(D) None of the above the specific provision of the 3. describes the aims of
31. Consider the following words. Constitution. governance.
1. Socialist 2. Democratic Code 4. helps to give a Judicial meaning
3. Sovereign 4. Secular (A) Only 1 and 2 to our Constitution.
Choose the correct sequence of (B) Only 1, 2 and 4 Code
words as given in the Preamble. (C) Only 1, 2 and 3 (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] (D) Only 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (D)

5. The Governance System

1. Constitution of India provides element of a state? (A) Parliamentary Government
which type of governance system? [UPPCS (Pre) 2008] (B) Presidential Government
[UPPCS (Pre) 1990] (A) Flag (B) Capital (C) Independence of Judiciary
(A) Democratic (C) Sovereignty (D) Head of State (D) Federal Government
(B) Presidential 4. “The State is everywhere : it leaves 6. Out of the following statements,
(C) Parliamentary hardly a gap”. This statement choose the one that brings out the
(D) Semi-democratic explains the concept of principle underlying the Cabinet
2. Which of the following is not a [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016] form of Government.
feature of good governance? (A) Welfare State [IAS (Pre) 2017
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016] (B) Communist State Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) Accountability (C) Democratic State (A) An arrangement for minimiz-
(B) Transparency (D) Police State ing the criticism against the
(C) Rule of Law 5. Which one of the following is not Government whose responsi-
(D) Red Tapism the feature of Indian Constitution? bilities are complex and hard to
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
carry out to the satisfaction of
3. Which one is the most prominent all
322 Objective General Studies
(B) A mechanism for speeding up
the activities of the Govern-
ment whose responsibilities are
increasing day by day
(C) A mechanism of parliamentary
democracy for ensuring collec-
tive responsibility of the Gov-
ernment to the people
(D) A device for strengthening the
hands of the head of the Gov-
ernment whose hold over the
people is in a state of decline
7. In which report of the Second
Administrative Reforms Commis-
sion barriers of Good Governance
in India have been identified?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) ‘Ethics in Governance’
(B) ‘Citizen-Centric Administration
: The Heart of Governance’
(C) ‘Prompting E-Governance’
(D) ‘Local Governance’
8. There is parliamentary system of
Government in India because the
[IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Lok Sabha is elected directly by
the people
(B) Parliament can amend the Con-
stitution
(C) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(D) Council of Ministers is responsi-
ble to the Lok Sabha
9. The main advantage of the
parliamentary form of government
is that [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) the executive and legislature
work independently
(B) it provides continuity of policy
and is more efficient
(C) the executive remains responsi-
ble to the legislature
(D) the head of the government
cannot be changed without
election
10. In a Parliamentary system of Gov-
ernment. [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) Judiciary controls Executive
(B) Executive controls Judiciary
(C) Executive controls Legislature
(D) Legislature controls Executive
11. In a Presidential Government, all
the executive powers are vested in
[UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) President (B) Cabinet
(C) Legislature (D) Upper House
12. Which one of the following is not a
feature of Indian polity?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) A Government following the
Constitution
(B) Democratic Government
(C) Rule of Law
(D) Authoritarian Government
13. ‘Welfare State’ aims to
[IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Secure maximum welfare of
maximum numbers
(B) Management of welfare of
weaker sections
(C) Provide health facilities
(D) None of the above
14. Which one of the following is not
the Philosophy of the Constitution
of India? [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2017
UP Lowers Sub. (Mains) 2015]
(A) Welfare State
(B) Socialist State
(C) Political Equality
(D) Communist State
15. Which one of the following state-
ment is correct? [UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) The Constitution of India is
Presidential
(B) India is a titular monarchy
(C) India is an aristocracy
(D) India is a Parliamentary
Democracy
16. What is the main source of Political
Power in India?
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) The People
(B) The Constitution
(C) The Parliament
(D) The President
17. Which one of the following is a
basic feature of the Presidential
Government? [UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) Rigid Constitution
(B) Single Executive
(C) Supremacy of the Legislature
(D) Residual Powers of the States
18. Which of the following is correct?
The main feature of a Presidential
form of Government is/are
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) The Head of the Executive is
the President
(B) The President appoints his
Council of Ministers
(C) The President cannot dissolve
the Legislature
(D) All of the above
19. The Democracy of India is based on
the fact that [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
(A) The Constitution is written
(B) Fundamental rights have been
provided
(C) Public enjoys the rights
to choose and change the
Government
(D) Directive principles of state
policy have been provided here
20. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in
the fact that it calls into activity
[IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) The intelligence and character
of ordinary men and women
(B) The methods for strengthening
executive leadership
(C) A superior individual with
dynamism and vision
(D) A band of dedicated party
workers
21. Which one of the following
determines that Indian Constitution
is Federal?
[IAS (Pre) 1994]
(A) Written and non-flexible
Constitution
(B) Free Judiciary
(C) Residuary powers are vested in
centre/union
(D) Distribution of powers between
union and states
22. Indian Constitution is
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Rigid
(B) Flexible
(C) Neither rigid nor flexible
(D) Partly rigid and partly flexible
23. Which one of the following
points differentiates the Indian
Parliamentary System and British
Parliamentary System?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) Collective Responsibility
(B) Judicial Review
(C) Bi-cameral Legislature
(D) Real and Nominal Executive
24. Which of the following is not
a federal feature of the Indian
Constitution?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Distribution of power between
Centre and States
(B) Entirely written Constitution
(C) Single Citizenship
(D) Independent Judiciary
25. Which one of the following is not a
feature of Indian federalism?
[IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) There is an independent
judiciary in India
(B) Powers have been clearly
divided between the Centre
and the States
(C) The federating units have been
given unequal representation
in the Rajya Sabha
(D) It is the result of an agreement
among the federating units

26. The reason for the Indian
Constitution being the bulkiest is
that [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) it incorporates the experience
of many Constitutions
(B) it contains detailed administra-
tive provisions
(C) it deals with the Government of
a large country
(D) it contains the Constitution
of both Union and State
Governments
27. Who called Indian Federalism as
the Co-operative Federalism?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) G. Austin
(B) K.C. Wheare
(C) Sir Ivor Jennings
(D) D.D. Basu
28. Who said, “India is a quasi-federal
state”? [UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
(A) Harold Laski (B) Ivor Jennings
(C) Lord Bryee (D) K.C. Wheare
29. Who rejected the ‘Principles of
Administrative as myths and
proverbs’? [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) Frank Marini
(D) F.W. Riggs
30. In relation to Indian Constitution
who said that “Indian Constitution
establishes good balance between
Rigidity and Flexibility”?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) M.P. Payli
(C) Alexandrovics
(D) K.C. Wheare
31. Who of the following has stated
that “The Constitution has not been
set in a tight mould of Federalism”?
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) D.D. Basu
(B) K.M. Munshi
(C) B.R. Ambedkar
(D) K.S. Aiyer
32. Which one of the following is
incorrect about the Indian Political
System? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Secular State
(B) Parliamentary System of the
Government
(C) Federal Policy
(D) Presidential System of Govern-
ment
33. Which one of the following is not
true in relation to democratic
determination?
[UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(A) A state in which people are
supreme
(B) Supreme power is vested in
elected head
(C) Supreme power is vested in a
person (solely) likewise a king
(D) A government formed by repre-
sentative elected by people
34. In the context of India, which of the
following principles is/are implied
institutionally in the Parliamentary
Government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are the
Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till
they enjoy confidence in the
Parliament.
3. The Cabinet is headed by the
Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) All of these
35. The cardinal features of political
system in India are
1. It is a democratic republic.
2. It has a Parliamentary form of
government.
3. The supreme power vests in
People of India.
4. It provides for a unified
authority.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below.
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008
UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
Code
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All the four
36. Consider the following statements.
1. India is a democratic polity.
2. India is a sovereign state.
3. India has a democratic society.
4. India is welfare state.
Which of the above statements are
true? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37. Which of the following statements
about the federal system in India
are correct?
1. The Constitution introduces
a federal system as the basic
structure of Government.
2. There is a strong admixture of a
unitary bias.
3. Both the Union and State
Legislatures are sovereign.
Indian Polity and Governance 323
4. The legislative, financial and
judicial powers have been
divided between the Union and
its units.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
Code
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four
38. Consider the following statements.
A Constitutional Government is one
which
1. Places effective restriction on
individual liberty in the interest
of the state Authority.
2. Places effective restriction on
the Authority of the State in the
interest of individual liberty.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Consider the following statements
and select the correct answer from
the code given at the end.
Assertion (A): The Constitution
of India provides for a federal
system.
Reason (R): It has created a very
strong centre. [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
40. Which of the following is a unitary
element in India Federal System?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
1. Decentralization of Powers
2. Appointment of Governors
3. Unequal representation in
Rajya Sabha
4. Judicial Review
5. All India Services
6. Bi-cameral legislature
(A) 1, 3 and 6
(B) 2, 3 and 5
(C) 3, 5 and 6
(D) 2, 4 and 5
324 Objective General Studies
41. Assertion (A): President of India
is elected indirectly.
Reason (R): Parliamentary
system in India has been combined
with Republicanism.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
42. Here are two statements.
Assertion (A): Political Parties
are life-blood of democracy.
Reason (R): Normally people
blame political parties for bad
governance.
Which of the following is correct in
above context? [UPPCS (Pre) 2009
Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
43. Assertion (A): Federalism is not
practical in India.
Reason (R): India is not a Federal
State.
Select the corret answer from the
code given below.
[UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
44. Assertion (A): The primary
objective of India’s federal design
was to weave a nation out of its
many diverse parts and protect
national integration.
Reason (R): Accommodation of
diversities has built a stronger, not
weaker, Indian nationhood.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
45. Assertion (A): Women, Dalits,
Poor and Minority groups are the
biggest stakeholders of Democracy
in India.
Reason (R): Democracy in India
has emerged as the carrier for the
desire of Self Respect.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
46. Assertion (A): Indian Constitu-
tion is quasi-federal.
Reason (R): Indian Constitution
is neither federal nor unitary.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (D)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (A)

6. The National Emblem

1. Which is the National Bird of 3. India’s National Animal is 5. The total number of spokes in the
India? [Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2017 [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014 National Flag of India is
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003, 07] Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007] [Uttarakhand Lower Sub. (Pre) 2010]
(A) Peacock (B) Duck (A) Deer (B) Elephant (A) 20 (B) 24
(C) Parrot (D) Pigeon (C) Tiger (D) Lion (C) 26 (D) 30
2. What does the wheel in the ‘Indian 4. Which is the National Flower of 6. A complete or formal rendition of
National Flag’ symbolize? India? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005] national anthem takes
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005] (A) Sunflower (B) Lotus [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Freedom (B) Justice (C) Rose (D) Marigold (A) 50 seconds (B) 45 seconds
(C) Equality (D) Brotherhood (C) 52 seconds (D) 55 seconds

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (C)

7. States and the Union Territories
1. Who among the following has the
executive power to admit a State in
the Union or establish new States?
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Political Parties
(D) Central Government
2. According to Article 1 of Indian
Constitution, India is
[UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Group of States
(B) Federation of States
(C) Confederation of States
(D) The Union of States
3. Indian Parliament has the power
to create a new State under which
of the following Constitutional
provisions? [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) Article 1 (B) Article 2
(C) Article 3 (D) Article 4
4. Which one of the following is
empowered to alter the boundaries
of States under the Constitution of
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) President
(D) Supreme Court
5. Which one of the following is not
correct in the matter of formation
of new States? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Parliament may by law form a
new State
(B) Such law shall contain provi-
sions for the amendment of the
First Schedule and the Fourth
Schedule of the Constitution
(C) Such law shall be deemed
to be an amendment of the
Constitution for the purpose of
Article 368
(D) No Bill for enacting such law
shall be introduced in the
Parliament unless it has been
referred to the Legislature
of the States, whose areas,
boundaries or name is affected
6. A Bill for the purpose of creating a
new State in India must be passed
by [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) A simple majority in Parliament
and ratification by not less than
two-third of the States
(B) A simple majority in Parliament
(C) A two-third majority in Parlia-
ment and ratification by not
less than two-third of the States
(D) None of the above
Indian Polity and Governance 325
7. Creation of a new state requires a tion Commission?
.......... majority for Constitutional [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007
Amendment. Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Mains) 2006]
[60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016] (A) 1947 (B) 1951
(A) Simple (C) 1956 (D) 1966
(B) Two-third 15. Which of the following is not a
(C) Three-fourth Union Territory?
(D) Two-third plus ratification by [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
half of all states (A) The Andaman and Nicobar
8. Union Territories in India are Islands
administered by [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018] (B) Jammu and Kashmir
(A) The President (C) Goa
(B) The Lt. Governor (D) Puducherry
(C) Home Minister 16. The capital of which state has not
(D) Administrator been renamed after the attainment
9. Which among the following is not of freedom? [MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
a ‘constitutional provision for the (A) Tamil Nadu
formation of new States’? (B) West Bengal
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (C) Kerala
(A) Increase the area of any State (D) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Diminish the area of any State 17. Delhi is a/an [Assam PSC (Pre) 2018]
(C) Alter the name of any State (A) State
(D) A State may include a Union (B) Union Territory
territory (C) Autonomous Council
10. Power to include or admit any State (D) None of the above
into Union of India is given to 18. By which Constitutional amend-
[UPPCS (Pre) 1990] ment Delhi was given the status of
(A) President of India National Capital Region?
(B) Prime Minister [UPPCS (RI) 2014]
(C) Parliament (A) 67th (B) 69th
(D) Supreme Court (C) 68th (D) 70th
11. If a new state is to be formed, which 19. Which one of the following
schedule of the constitution will statements is incorrect?
need to be amended? [IAS (Pre) 2000]
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2008] (A) Goa attained full statehood in
(A) Fifth (B) Third 1987
(C) Second (D) First (B) Diu is an island in the Gulf of
12. How many States and UTs did the Khambhat
States Reorganisation Commission (C) Daman and Diu were separated
create in 1956? [MPPCS (Pre) 2004] from Goa by the 56th
(A) 14 States and 6 UTs Amendment of the Constitution
(B) 17 States and 6 UTs of India
(C) 14 States and 8 UTs (D) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were
(D) 17 States and 8 UTs under French colonial rule till
13. How many States and Union 1954
Territories are there in India? 20. Sikkim became a state of India
[UPPCS (Pre) 2002] under [38th BPSC (Pre) 1999
(A) 25 States and 7 Union UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
Territories (A) 30th Amendment
(B) 32nd Amendment
(B) 28 States and 8 Union
Territories (including national (C) 35th Amendment
capital territory-1) (D) 40th Amendment
(C) 24 States and 6 Union Territory 21. Which of the following Constitu-
(D) None of the above tional Amendments integrated
Sikkim as a full-fledged State of the
14. In which year were the Indian
Indian Union? [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
States reorganized on the recom-
(A) 34th (B) 35th
mendation of the State Reorganisa-
(C) 36th (D) 37th
326 Objective General Studies
22. A separate Vananchal State carved 28. Which of the following Province of 36. Which state enjoys the distinction
out of Bihar can be made possible India was formed in 1948? of first being created on linguistic
by [43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999] [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013] basis in India?
(A) Passing the legislation in State (A) West Bengal [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007
Assembly (B) Assam MPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(B) Passing the ordinance by the (C) Punjab (A) West Bengal
Governor (D) Himachal Pradesh (B) Punjab
(C) Completing Constitutional 29. One of the following statements is (C) Tamil Nadu
formalities incorrect. Point out (D) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Parliament under Article 3 of [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016] 37. Andhra Pradesh was created as a
the Constitution (A) The State of Mysore was language based state in
23. Which one of the following is the renamed as Tamil Nadu [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
correct chronological order of the (B) Goa was separated from Daman (A) 1950 (B) 1953
formation of the following states as and Diu (C) 1956 (D) 1961
full States of the Indian Union? (C) The State of Bombay was split
[IAS (Pre) 2007] 38. Consider the following statement
into Gujarat and Maharashtra and answer using codes given
(A) Sikkim - Arunachal Pradesh - (D) Himachal Pradesh was previ- below. [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
Nagaland - Haryana ously in the list of Union
(B) Nagaland - Haryana - Sikkim - 1. The term Union of States, has
Territories been used in the constitution
Arunachal Pradesh 30. ‘ULFA’ extremist are related to because Indian States, have no
(C) Sikkim - Haryana - Nagaland - which state [UPPCS (Pre) 1993] right of separation.
Arunachal Pradesh (A) Assam 2. S.K. Dhar Commission had giv-
(D) Nagaland - Arunachal Pradesh - (B) Uttar Pradesh en preference to administrative
Sikkim - Haryana
(C) Punjab convenience rather language
24. Chhattisgarh State came into (D) Jammu and Kashmir for reorganisation of States.
existence on 3. Congress Committee including
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
31. ‘People’s War Group’ a terrorist or-
ganization is based in Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Patel
(A) 1 November, 2000 [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1997] and Pattabhi Sitaramayya was
(B) 9 November, 2000 not in favour of reorganisation
(A) Tripura
(C) 10 November, 2000 of States on the basis of lan-
(B) Assam
(D) 1 January, 2000 guage.
(C) Nagaland
25. Uttarakhand State was created in (D) Andhra Pradesh Code
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (A) Only 1
32. The Cauvery River Water dispute
(A) the year 1999 is among which of the following (B) Only 1 and 2
(B) the year 2000 states? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2018 (C) Only 1 and 3
(C) the year 2001 Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003] (D) All of the above
(D) the year 2002 (A) Karnataka - Maharashtra - Goa 39. Which one of the following is the
26. The correct sequence of formation - Andhra Pradesh correct chronological order of the
of the following States in ascending (B) Karnataka - Tamil Nadu - formation of the following Indian
order is [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013] Maharashtra - Kerala States?
(A) Nagaland, Meghalaya, Sikkim, (C) Karnataka - Tamil Nadu - 1. Chhattisgarh
Arunachal Pradesh Kerala - Andhra Pradesh 2. Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Meghalaya, Arunachal Prad- (D) Karnataka - Tamil Nadu - 3. Jharkhand
esh, Nagaland, Sikkim Puducherry - Kerala 4. Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, 33. The Commission for Reorganisation Use the code given below to select
Sikkim, Meghalaya of States on the basis of language the correct answer.
(D) Sikkim, Nagaland, Arunachal was established in [UPPCS (Pre) 2009
Pradesh, Meghalaya [UPPCS (Pre) 1990] Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017]
27. The correct sequence of the (A) 1856 (B) 1956 Code
formation of the following States in (C) 1953 (D) 1960 (A) 4, 1, 3, 2 (B) 4, 2, 1, 3
descending order is 34. The States were reorganised on the (C) 3, 2, 1, 4 (D) 1, 4, 2, 3
[UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
basis of language in 40. The following States were created
(A) Maharashtra, Rajasthan, [MPPCS (Pre) 1992] after 1960. Arrange them in
Haryana (A) 1956 (B) 1960 ascending chronological order of
(B) Haryana, Rajasthan, (C) 1962 (D) 1973 their formation.
Maharashtra
35. In which year were the States 1. Haryana
(C) Rajasthan, Maharashtra, reorganized on linguistic basis?
Haryana 2. Sikkim
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Mains) 2007] 3. Nagaland
(D) Haryana, Maharashtra,
(A) 1947 (B) 1951 4. Meghalaya
Rajasthan
(C) 1956 (D) 1966
 Indian Polity and Governance 327
Choose your answer from the given 3. Haryana Select the correct answer from the
code. [UPPCS (Pre) 2010] 4. Sikkim code given below.
Code Code [Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 2, 3, 4, 1 (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 3, 2, 4 Code
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2 (D) 2, 4, 1, 3 (C) 4, 3, 1, 2 (D) 3, 4, 1, 2 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
41. Identify the correct chronological 42. Assertion (A): India is not a (R) is the correct explanation of
order in which the following States federation. (A)
were created in India from the code Reason (R): Union Parliament (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
given below. [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] has the power to alter the area, but (R) is not the correct
1. Andhra Pradesh boundary and name of any State explanation of (A)
2. Himachal Pradesh even without its consent. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (C)
41. (B) 42. (D)

8. The Citizenship
1. Indian citizenship cannot be 4. Which one of the following features 8. Who among the following has the
obtained by [41st BPSC (Pre) 1996] of citizenship in India is correct? exclusive power of determining the
(A) Birth [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] issue of citizenship in India?
(B) Naturalization (A) Dual Citizenship of the State [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013]
(C) Absorbing any part of land and Nation (A) The Parliament
(D) Depositing money in Indian (B) Single Citizenship of a State (B) The President
Banks (C) Single Citizenship of whole of (C) Central Government
2. Who among the following is not India (D) State Government
eligible for registering as overseas (D) Dual Citizenship of India and 9. Consider the following statements.
citizen of India cardholder under another Country
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were
the Citizenship Amendment Act, 5. How many years does a person of inserted in the Constitution of
2015? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] Indian origin need to reside in India India to meet regional demands
(A) A minor child whose parents to become a citizen of India under of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur,
are an Indian citizen the Citizenship Act, 1955? Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim,
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013] Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Spouse of foreign origin of an
Indian citizen (A) 5 years (B) 3 years and Goa.
(C) Indian who migrated to (C) 7 years (D) 10 years 2. Constitution of India and
Pakistan after partition 6. Which country accepted the policy the United States of America
(D) A great grandchild of a per- of Dual Citizenship? envisage a dual policy (The
son who is a citizen of another [MPPCS (Pre) 2006] Union and the States) but a
country but whose grandpar- (A) India (B) Canada single citizenship.
ents were a citizen of India at (C) Australia (D) U.S.A. 3. A Naturalized citizen of India
the time of commencement of 7. Who/Which of the following is can never be deprived of his
the Constitution competent to prescribe condition citizenship.
3. The citizenship provided by the for acquisition of citizenship? Which of the statement given above
Constitution of India is [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] is/are correct? [IAS (Pre) 2005]
[UPPCS (Pre) 1994] (A) Election Commission (A) 1, 2 and 3
(A) Dual citizenship (B) President (B) 1 and 3
(B) Single citizenship (C) Parliament and State Legislat- (C) Only 3
(C) Both of the above ures jointly (D) Only 1
(D) None of the above (D) Parliament

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (D)
328 Objective General Studies
1. Which of the following is given the
power to enforce the Fundamental
Rights by the Constitution?
[47th BPSC (Pre) 2005]
(A)All Courts in India
(B)The Parliament
(C)The President
(D)The Supreme Court and High
Courts
2. ‘Fundamental Rights’ are
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Justifiable
(B) Non-justifiable
(C) Flexible
(D) Rigid
3. Which of the following is correct?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) The Nehru Report (1928)
had advocated the inclusion
of Fundamental Rights in the
Constitution of India
(B) The Government of India Act,
1935 referred to Fundamental
Rights
(C) The August Offer, 1940, includ-
ed the Fundamental Rights
(D) The Cripps Mission 1942
referred to Fundamental Rights
4. Which one of the following state-
ments is correct? [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Rights are claims of the State
against the citizens
(B) Rights are privileges which are
incorporated in the Constitu-
tion of a state
(C) Rights are claims of the citizens
against the State
(D) Rights are privileges of a few
citizens against the many
5. Fundamental Rights
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
(A) Cannot be suspended
(B) Can be suspended by order of
Prime Minister
(C) May be suspended on the will
of President
(D) May be suspended during
Emergency
6. In the context of India, which
one of the following is the correct
relationship between Rights and
Duties? [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Rights are correlative with
Duties
(B) Rights are personal and hence
independent of society and
Duties
(C) Rights, not Duties, are
9. Fundamental Rights
important for the advancement
of the personality of the citizen
(D) Duties, not Rights, are import-
ant for the stability of the State
7. Under which Article of the
Constitution of India, Fundamental
Rights have been provided to
citizens? [44th BPSC (Pre) 2000]
(A) Articles 112 to 115
(B) Article 12 to 35
(C) Articles 222 to 235
(D) None of the above
8. Under which of the following
articles, the Indian Constitution
Guarantees Fundamental Rights to
the citizens? [Goa PSC (Pre) 2019
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015
39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
(A) Articles 12 to 35
(B) Only Articles 12 to 30
(C) Only Articles 15 to 35
(D) Only Articles 14 to 32
9. Which one of the following Articles
of the Indian Constitution puts an
absolute limitation on the legisla-
tive power? [UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) Article 14 (B) Article 15
(C) Article 16 (D) Article 17
10. Under which article of the Consti-
tution reservations in admission to
educational institutions, including
private and unaided, to OBCs/ST/
SC is made?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Article 15(4) (B) Article 15(5)
(C) Article 16(4) (D) Article 16(5)
11. Which Article of the Constitution
gives precedence to Constitutional
provisions over the laws made
by the Union Parliament/State
Legislatures? [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) 13 (B) 32
(C) 245 (D) 326
12. The main object of Article 13 of the
Indian Constitution is to secure the
Paramountcy of the Constitution
regarding. [UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) Directive Principles of State
Policy
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) All of the above
13. Which one of the following Articles
of the Indian Constitution belongs
to a different category?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) Article 14 (B) Article 15
(C) Article 16 (D) Article 19
14. In the Indian Constitution of the
‘Right to Freedom’ is granted by
four Articles which are
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Article - 19 to Article - 22
(B) Article - 16 to Article - 19
(C) Article - 17 to Article - 20
(D) Article - 18 to Article - 21
15. Which of the following enabled the
Supreme Court of India to deduce a
fundamental right to equal pay for
equal work? [UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) The word ‘socialist’ used in the
Preamble to the Constitution
(B) (A) read with Article 14 of the
Constitution
(C) (A) read with Article 16 of the
Constitution
(D) (A), (B) and (C) all read
together
16. Prohibition of discrimination on
the ground of religion etc. (Article
15 of the Constitution of India) is
a Fundamental Right classifiable
under [IAS (Pre) 1995]
(A) The Right to Freedom of
Religion
(B) The Right against Exploitation
(C) The Cultural and Educational
Rights
(D) The Right to Equality
17. In the Indian Constitution, the
right to equality is granted by five
Articles. They are
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
IAS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Article 16 to Article 20
(B) Article 15 to Article 19
(C) Article 14 to Article 18
(D) Article 13 to Article 17
18. Which one of the following is not
included in the fundamental right
to equality as enshrined in the
Indian Constitution?
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Equality before law
(B) Social equality
(C) Equal opportunity
(D) Economic equality
19. Which one of the following Articles
of the Constitution deals with the
fundamental rights related to the
exploitation of children?
[Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Mains) 2009, 2011
UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) 17 (B) 19
(C) 24 (D) 25

20. Child Rights are protected in Article
...... of ICCPR. [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 35 (B) 24
(C) 21 (D) 23
21. Eradication of all types of social
discrimination comes under which
generation of Human Rights?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) First generation
(B) Second generation
(C) Third generation
(D) Fourth generation
22. Which Article of the Indian Constit-
ution eradicates untouchability and
prohibits its practice in any form?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2003, 13, 15
MPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) Article 16 (B) Article 17
(C) Article 18 (D) Article 15
23. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution
deals with [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Education
(B) Health
(C) Abolition of untouchability
(D) Food guarantee
24. A court can presume that any act
constituting offence was committed
on the ground of ‘untouchability’
– if such offence is committed in
relation to [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) A member of Scheduled Castes
(B) A member of Scheduled Tribes
(C) A member of any community
(D) None of the above
25. Which one of the following
fundamental rights was amended
as a result of the decision of
the Supreme Court of India in
‘State of Madras Vs. Champakam
Dorairajan’ case [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) Right to equality before law
(B) Right against discrimination
(C) Right against untouchability
(D) Right to freedom of speech and
expression
26. Which Article of the Constitution of
India is related with Freedom of the
Press? [47th BPSC (Pre) 2005
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 20
(C) Article 21 (D) Article 22
27. Under which Article Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes have
been granted fundamental, socio-
economic, political and cultural
rights? [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2017
MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Article 20 (B) Article 19
(C) Article 18 (D) Article 17
28. Indian Constitution does not give
right to freedom of the Press, but it
is included in
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
(A) Article 19(1)(a)
(B) Article 19(1)(b)
(C) Article 19(1)(c)
(D) Article 19(1)(d)
29. In which Article the Fundamental
Rights to Freedom of Speech and
Expression is provided in the
Constitution of India?
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) Article 14 (B) Article 19
(C) Article 21 (D) Article 22
30. Freedom of News Papers in India
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) Specially provided by Article
19(1)(a)
(B) Is secured under Article 19(1)
(b)
(C) Secured by Article 361-A
(D) Has origin by the enforcement
of Rule of law
31. As a part of the Right to Freedom,
which one of the following does not
form part of ‘Freedom to Assemble
Peaceably and Without Arms’?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Gherao officials not performing
their duties
(B) Peaceful assembly
(C) People who assemble should
not bear arms
(D) State can make a law imposing
reasonable restrictions on the
exercise of this Right
32. By which of the following grounds, a
citizen’s freedom of expression may
not be subjected to restriction?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Sovereignty of India
(B) Public order
(C) Contempt of Court
(D) Unbecoming criticism
33. Which Article of the Constitution
of Indian Republic relates to the
Protection of ‘Life and Personal
Liberty’?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 21
(C) Article 20 (D) Article 22
34. Which Article of the Indian
Constitution protects person’s right
to travel abroad? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) 14
(B) 19
(C) 21
(D) None of the above
Indian Polity and Governance 329
35. Which one of the following rights
is available under Article 19(1)(d)
read with Article 21?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004
UPPCS (Pre) 2003
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
(A) Right to travel abroad
(B) Right to shelter
(C) Right to privacy
(D) Right to information
36. Which one of the following does
not fall within the purview of article
21 of the Constitution?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Medical aid to injured by a
doctor
(B) Sexual Harassment of Women
at work place
(C) Pollution of the quality of water
(D) Capital punishment
37. According to Article 25 of the
Constitution ‘Right to Freedom of
Religion’ is not subjected to
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Public Order (B) Health
(C) Morality (D) Humanism
38. Under which Article of Indian
Constitution wearing of ‘Kripans’
by Sikh is deemed as a right to
freedom of religion?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Article 24 (B) Article 25
(C) Article 26 (D) Article 27
39. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution
refers to [UPPCS (Pre) 1996]
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Property
(C) Freedom of Religion
(D) Protection of Minorities
40. Which one of the following is not
properly matched?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(A) Article 23 - Prohibition of traffic
in human and forced labour
(B) Article 24 - Prohibition of empl-
oyment of children in factories
(C) Article 26 - Freedom to manage
religious affairs
(D) Article 29 - Freedom of establi-
shment and administration
of educational institutions by
minorities
41. Which one of the following pairs is
not correctly matched?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015
Orissa PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) Prohibition of traffic in human
beings and forced labour -
Article 23
(B) Protection of interests of
minorities - Article 29
330 Objective General Studies
(C) Right to constitutional reme-
dies - Article 32
(D) Right of minorities to establish
and administer educational
institutions - Article 31
42. Which Article of the Constitution
protects the ‘Right of minorities
to establish and administer
educational institutions of their
choice’? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) 19 (B) 26
(C) 29 (D) 30
43. Which of the following rights can
be enforced under Article 32 of the
Indian Constitution?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) Constitutional Rights
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Statutory Rights
(D) All of the above
44. Which one of the following
statements is not correct?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
(A) K.M. Munshi was one of the
members of the drafting
committee of the Constitution
(B) The Constitution of India was
adopted by the Constituent
Assembly
(C) The Pachayati Raj was recom-
mended by Balwant Rai Mehta
Committee Report-1957
(D) The President of India is the
Guardian of Fundamental
Rights under the Constitution
45. Under the Indian Constitution who
is the guardian of the fundamental
rights? [Goa PSC (Pre) 2017]
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Cabinet
46. Under the Indian Constitution
who amongst the following is
considered to be the guardian of
the fundamental rights?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012, 15]
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Judiciary
(D) Prime Minister
47. Which one of the following is
regarded as the protector of
fundamental rights of citizens and
Guardian of the Constitution of
India? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(A) The Parliament
(B) The Attorney General
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The President
48. Which one of the following
rights was described by Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar as the ‘Heart and Soul of
the Constitution’? [UPPSC (GIC) 2010
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004
IAS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Right to Freedom of Religion
(B) Right to Property
(C) Right to Equality
(D) Right to Constitutional
Remedies
49. Which one of the following Arti-
cles was termed as the ‘Heart and
Soul of the Constitution’ by Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar?
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
(A) Article 14 (B) Article 25
(C) Article 29 (D) Article 32
50. Which one of the following writs
can be issued by a High Court to
secure the liberty of the individual?
[UPPCS (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Mandamus
(B) Quo-warranto
(C) Habeas Corpus
(D) Prohibition
51. By which of the following case
Parliament got the right to amend
Fundamental Rights?
[MPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(A) Keshvanand Bharti Case
(B) Rajnarayan Vs. Indira Gandhi
Case
(C) Golaknath’s Case
(D) Sajjan Singh Case
52. The Supreme Court of India has
propounded the ‘Doctrine of Basic
Structure’ of the Constitution in
which of the following cases?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Golaknath Vs. Punjab State
(B) Sajjan Singh Vs. Rajasthan
State
(C) Keshvanand Bharti Vs. Kerala
State
(D) Shankari Prasad Vs. Indian
Union
53. Right to Property is a
[UPPCS (Pre) 1996]
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Natural Right
(C) Statutory Right
(D) Legal Right
54. By which of the following Right to
Property has been omitted?
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010]
(A) 40th Amendment of
Constitution
(B) 42nd Amendment of
Constitution
(C) 44th Amendment of
Constitution
(D) 46th Amendment of
Constitution
55. When was the Fundamental Right
to property abolished?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) In 1978, by 44th Constitutional
Amendment
(B) In 1982, by 46th Constitutional
Amendment
(C) In 1973, by 31st Constitutional
Amendment
(D) None of the above
56. By which amendment the Right to
Property was abolished?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2013
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) 24th
(B) 44th
(C) 25th
(D) 42nd
57. The 44th amendment to the
Constitution of India removed the
following right from the category of
Fundamental Rights.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014
UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Constitutional Remedies
(C) Property
(D) Freedom of Religion
58. Right to property according to the
Constitution of India is a
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010
UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Directive Principle
(C) Legal Right
(D) Social Right
59. The ‘Right to Property’ was deleted
from the list of fundamental rights
guaranteed to the citizens of India
by [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011
UP Lower (Spl)(Pre) 2004
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) Forty-second Amendment
(B) Forty-third Amendment
(C) Forty-fourth Amendment
(D) Forty-fifth Amendment
60. Which one of the following is not
among the six fundamental rights
provided by the Constitution of
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015
Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Protest
(C) Right Against Exploitation
(D) Right to Freedom of Religion

61. Which one of the following is not a
fundamental right?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2002
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002
Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) Right to Freedom
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Property
(D) Right Against Exploitation
62. Indian Constitution does not grant
which of the following rights?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Right of Equal Shelter
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Liberty
63. The ‘Right to Equality’ is granted by
5 Articles in the Indian Constitution.
These are [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014]
(A) Article 13-17 (B) Article 14-18
(C) Article 15-19 (D) Article 16-20
64. Which of the following is not a
fundamental right granted by the
Indian Constitution to the citizens?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Right to Settle in any part of the
Country
(B) Right to Gender Equality
(C) Right to Information
(D) Right Against Exploitation
65. Which one of the following rights
is available to all persons under the
Indian Constitution?
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
(A) Right to Equal Protection of the
Law
(B) Right Against Discrimination
(C) Right to Liberty
(D) Cultural and Educational
Rights
66. A British citizen staying in India
cannot claim right to
[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) Freedom of Trade and
Profession
(B) Equality before the Law
(C) Protection of Life and Personal
Liberty
(D) Freedom of Religion
67. The Supreme Court has held that
hoisting the National Flag atop the
private buildings is a fundamental
right of every citizen under
[West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2017
60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) Article 14 of the Constitution
(B) Article 19(1)(a) of the Consti-
tution
(C) Article 21 of the Constitution
(D) Article 25 of the Constitution
68. Which of the following fundame-
ntal rights is not available to foreign
citizens? [UPPCS (Pre) 2007
UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Equality Before Law
(B) Right of Freedom of Expression
(C) Right of Freedom of Life and
Body
(D) Right Against Exploitation
69. Which one of the following Articles
of the Constitution of India is
related to equality before law?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) Article 16 (B) Article 15
(C) Article 14 (D) Article 13
70. Which of the following rights
conferred by the Constitution
of India is also available to non-
citizens? [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011
BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Right to Constitutional
Remedies
(B) Freedom of Speech
(C) Freedom to Move and Settle in
any Part of the Country
(D) Freedom to Acquire Property
71. Which of the following Article/
Articles read with the word
‘Socialist’ used in the Preamble of
the Indian Constitution enabled
the Supreme Court to deduce a
fundamental right to Equal Pay for
Equal Work? [UPPCS (Pre) 2001, 03
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
(A) Article 14
(B) Articles 14 and 15
(C) Articles 14, 15 and 16
(D) Articles 14 and 16
72. Which of the following Articles of
the Indian Constitution guarantees
equality of opportunity to all
citizens of India in matters relating
to public employment?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16(1) and 16(2)
(C) Article 16(3)
(D) Article 16(3), (4) and (5)
73. The provisions of reservation of
O.B.C. is made in the Constitution
under which Articles?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Articles 13(II) & 14
(B) Articles 14 & 15
(C) Articles 15(IV) & 16(IV)
(D) Articles 17 & 18
74. The Constitution of India recogni-
zes [IAS (Pre) 1999]
(A) Only religious minorities
(B) Only linguistic minorities
Indian Polity and Governance 331
(C) Religious and linguistic
minorities
(D) Religious, linguistic and ethnic
minorities
75. Right to education to all children
between the age group of 6 to 14
years is [UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Included in the Directive
Principles of State Policy
(B) A Fundamental Right
(C) A Statutory Right
(D) None of the above
76. When was the Right to Education
added through the amendment in
the Constitution of India?
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) 1st April, 2010
(B) 1st August, 2010
(C) 1st October, 2010
(D) 1st December, 2010
77. Which one of the following
is a human right as well as a
fundamental right under the
Constitution of India?
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Right to Information
(B) Right to Work
(C) Right to Education
(D) Right to Housing
78. Which one of the following rights
cannot be suspended or restricted
even during National Emergency?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) Right to reside and settle in any
part of the country
(B) Right to life and personal liberty
(C) Right to move freely throughout
the territory of India
(D) Right to carry on any profession
or business
79. The word ‘Hindu’ in Article 25 of
the Constitution of India does not
include [UPPCS (Mains) 2014
Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) Buddhists (B) Jains
(C) Parsis (D) Sikhs
80. An accused of any offence cannot be
compelled to be a witness against
himself, which Article of Indian
Constitution provides for this?
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
(A) Article 20(3) (B) Article 21
(C) Article 22 (D) Article 74
81. Which Article of the Constitution
provides protection to the accused
regarding conviction from double-
bar and self-incrimination?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 22
(C) Article 21 (D) Article 20
332 Objective General Studies
82. “No person shall be prosecuted 2. They are enumerated in Part III Choose the correct answer from
and punished for the same offence of the Constitution. given code. [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
more than once”. Under which 3. They ensure social, economic Code
Article, the above preservation of and political justice. (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
conviction for crime is given? 4. They are unlike Bill of Rights in (C) 3 and 4 (D) All of these
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010 the U.S.A. 95. Consider the following statements.
Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019] Select the correct answer from the 1. Article 301 is related to Right to
(A) Article 19 (B) Article 20 code given below. Property.
(C) Article 21 (D) Article 22 [UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
2. Right to Property is a statutory
83. In which Article of Indian (A) 1 and 2 are correct right but not a Fundamental
Constitution Doctrine of Due (B) 2 and 3 are correct Right.
Process of Law is included? (C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 3. Article 300-A was inserted in
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct Indian Constitution by 44th
(A) 11 (B) 16 91. The Right to Equality is given by Amendment during the period
(C) 21 (D) 26 1. Article 13 2. Article 14 of Congress Government.
84. Which Article gives safeguard to 3. Article 15 4. Article 16 Which of aforesaid statement is/are
the Fundamental Rights of arrested Use the code given below to choose correct? [IAS (Pre) 2005]
person? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] the correct answer. (A) Only 2 (B) 2 and 3
(A) Article 15 (B) Article 17 [UPPCS (Pre) 2009] (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Article 21 (D) Article 22 Code 96. Choose the fundamental rights
85. Under the Preventive Detention (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 available to Indian Citizen but not
Act, a person can be arrested (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All of these to aliens. [Delhi PSC (Pre) 2016]
without trial for 92. Prohibition and abolishment of 1. Freedom of Speech and
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013] untouchability may be achieved by Expression
(A) 1 month (B) 3 months [Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2018] 2. Equality Before the Law
(C) 6 months (D) 9 months 1. Making laws 3. Right to Minorities
86. Which one of the following writs is 2. Improving Education 4. Protection of Life and Liberty
regarded as the greatest safeguard 3. Public Awareness (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4
for the liberty of a person? 4. Providing Jobs/Services (C) 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 3
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
Code 97. Which of the following has been
(A) Mandamus recognized as a fundamental rights
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(B) Habeas Corpus by the Supreme Court of India?
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 4
(C) Certiorari 1. Right to Shelter
93. Which of the following are
(D) Prohibition 2. Right to Travel Abroad
envisaged by the Right against
87. Bonded Labour was abolished Exploitation in the Constitution of 3. Right to Equal Pay for Equal
in India, by an Act of Parliament India? Work
enacted in the year Select the correct answer from the
1. Prohibition of traffic in human
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010, 2001] code given below.[UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
beings and forced labour
(A) 1971 (B) 1976 2. Abolition of untouchability Code
(C) 1979 (D) 1981 3. Protection of the interests of (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
88. The child labour was prohibited in minorities (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
hazardous employment by 4. Prohibition of employment of 98. Consider the following statements.
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2003
children in factories and mines No one can be compelled to sing the
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
Select the correct answer using the National Anthem since
(A) Indian Constitution code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017] 1. It will be violation of the Right
(B) The judgement of Supreme (A) Only 1, 2 and 4 to Freedom of Speech and
Court on December 10, 1996
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4 Expression.
(C) United Nations Charter
(C) Only 1 and 4 2. It will be violation of the Right
(D) All of the above to Freedom of Conscience and
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
89. ........ without duties are like men Practice and Propagation of
94. The provision of ‘Right to Freedom
without shadows. Religion.
of Religion’ includes
[Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017 3. There is no legal provision
MPPCS (Pre) 2013] 1. Freedom of propagation of
religion obliging anyone to sing the
(A) Belief (B) Rights National Anthem.
2. Right to wear and carry
(C) Moral (D) Work In these statements
‘Kripans’ by Sikhs
90. Consider the following statements [Tripura PSC (Pre) 2018]
3. State’s right to make laws for
about the Fundamental Rights in (A) 1 and 2 are correct
social reforms
India. (B) 2 and 3 are correct
4. Right to conversion of religion
1. They are a guarantee against (C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
of people by religious bodies
state action. (D) None is correct
 Indian Polity and Governance 333
99. Which of the following rights are Reason (R): Article 32 provides (c) Doctrine of Basic Structure
not available to all persons in India? an effective remedy against the (d) Prohibition of Trafficking in
1. Equality Before the Law violation of fundamental rights. Human Beings
2. Right Against Discrimination Select the correct answer using the List-II
3. Freedom to Move Freely throu- codes given below. 1. Minerva Mills Case
ghout the Country [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
2. Article 23 of the Constitution
4. Right to Contest Election Code 3. 42nd Amendment of the Con-
Select your answer by using the (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and stitution
code given below. (R) is the correct explanation of 4. Keshvanand Bharti Case
[West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019] (A)
Code
Code (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1, 3 and 4 but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) (A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1 2 3 4
100. In India, if a religious sect/ 103. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer using the code 105. Match List-I with List-II and select
community is given the status of the correct answer using the code
a national minority, what special given below the lists. [IAS (Pre) 2002]
given below the lists.
advantages is it entitled to List-I (Article of Indian
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
1. It can establish and administer Constitution)
(a) Article 16(2) List-I
exclusive educational
institutions. (b) Article 29(2) (a) Abolition of Titles
2. The President of India (c) Article 30(1) (b) Freedom to manage Religious
automatically nominates (d) Article 31(1) Affairs
a representative of the List-II (Provisions) (c) Protection of Language of
community to Lok Sabha. Minorities
1. No person shall be deprived
3. It can derive benefits from of his property save by the (d) Right to Education
the Prime Minister’s 15-Point authority of law. List-II
Programme. 2. No person can be discriminated 1. Article 29 2. Article 21-A
Which of the statements given against in the matter of public 3. Article 18 4. Article 26
above is/are correct? appointment on the ground of Code:
[IAS (Pre) 2011] race, religion or caste. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3 3. All minorities whether based (A) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 on religion or language (B) 4 3 2 1
101. Assertion (A): The State can shall have right to establish (C) 2 3 4 1
treat unequal differently with the and administer educational
(D) 3 4 1 2
objective of creating a level playing institutions of their choice.
106. Assertion (A): The state shall
field in the social, economic and 4. No citizen shall be denied
provide free and compulsory
political spheres. admission into any educational
education to all children of the age
Reason (R): Among equals the institution maintained by the
group of six to fourteen years.
law should be equal and equally State, or receiving State aid, on
the grounds of religion, race, Reason (R): In a democratic
administered. society, right to education is
caste, language or any of them.
In the context of above statements indispensable in the interpretation
select the correct answer. Code
of the right to development as a
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] (a) (b) (c) (d) human right.
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false (A) 2 4 3 1
In the context of above statements
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true (B) 3 1 2 4 select the correct answer.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true (C) 2 1 3 4 [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
and (R) is not the correct (D) 2 4 2 1 Code
explanation of (A) 104. Match List-I with List-II and select
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but the correct answer using the code
(R) is the correct explanation of
(R) is the correct explanation of given below the lists.
(A)
(A) [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2016
UPPCS (Mains) 2007] (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
102. Consider the following statements. but (R) is not the correct
List-I explanation of (A)
Assertion (A): Dr. Ambedkar
had described Article 32 of the (a) Fundamental Duties (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Constitution as the very soul of it. (b) Parliament can amend Funda-
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
mental Rights
334 Objective General Studies
Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (C) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (D)
41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (C)
51. (A) 52. (C) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (A)
71. (D) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (B) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (C) 84. (D) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (D) 89. (B) 90. (A)
91. (C) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (D) 100. (C)
101. (D) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (A) 105. (D) 106. (A)

10. Directive Principles of State Policy

1. The concept of Welfare State is (A) United Kingdom (U.K.) Britain 10. Which one of the following is
included in the Constitution of (B) United States of America included in the Directive Principles
India in the [IAS (Pre) 2015 (U.S.A) of State Policy? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004 (C) Ireland (A) Protection in respect of
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
(D) Japan conviction for offences
(A) Directive Principles of State (B) Protection of life and personal
Policy 6. Directive Principles of State Policy
are [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004 liberty
(B) Fourth Schedule of the Consti- (C) Protection of interest of
MPPCS (Pre) 1992]
tution minorities
(C) Fundamental Rights (A) Justiciable
(B) Non-justiciable (D) Equal pay for equal work for
(D) Preamble of the Constitution both men and women
(C) Fundamental Rights
2. The idea of India as Welfare State is 11. Panchayati Raj System in India is
found in [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(D) None of the above
7. According to the Constitution of laid down under
(A) Preamble of the Constitution [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
India, which of the following are
(B) Fundamental Duties (A) Fundamental Rights
fundamental to the governance of
(C) Directive Principles of State the country? [IAS (Pre) 2013] (B) Fundamental Duties
Policy (C) Directive Principles of State
(A) Fundamental Rights
(D) Both (A) and (C) Policy
(B) Fundamental Duties
3. The purpose of the inclusion of (D) Election Commission Act
(C) Directive Principles of State
Directive Principles of State Policy 12. Which one of the following Articles
Policy
in the Indian Constitution is to directs State Government to
establish [IAS (Pre) 2002]
(D) Fundamental Rights and Fund-
amental Duties organize Village Panchayats?
(A) Political Democracy [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
8. ‘Equal Pay for Equal Work’ has been
(B) Social Democracy (A) Article 32 (B) Article 40
ensured in the Indian Constitution
(C) Gandhian Democracy as one of the [UPPCS (Pre) 1998 (C) Article 48 (D) Article 51
(D) Social and Economic UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004 13. Under the Constitution of India
Democracy UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010] organization of village panchayat is
4. Which one of the following is (A) Fundamental Rights a [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010]
not the objective of the Directive (B) Directive Principles of State (A) Fundamental Right
Principles of State Policy? Policy (B) Fundamental Duty
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013] (C) Fundamental Duties (C) Directive Principle
(A) To establish a welfare State (D) Economic Rights (D) None of the above
(B) To ensure socio-economic 9. Which of the following is not a 14. Which one of the following Articles
Justice Fundamental Right? of the Directive Principles of State
(C) To establish a Religious State [UPPCS (Mains) 2014 Policy deals with the promotion of
(D) To establish a Secular State Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019] international peace and security?
5. The Indian Constitution borrowed (A) Right Against Exploitation [IAS (Pre) 2002
the Directive Principles of the State (B) Equal Pay for Equal Work Telangana PSC (Pre) 2019]
Policy from the Constitution of (C) Equality Before Law (A) 51 (B) 48A
which of the following countries? (D) Right to Freedom of Religion (C) 43A (D) 41
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]

15. In the Constitution of India,
Promotion of International Peace
and Security is included in the
[IAS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Preamble to the Constitution
(B) Directive Principles of State
Policy
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Ninth Schedule
16. Which Article of the Indian
Constitution is related to Indian
Foreign Policy? [UPPCS(Pre) 2016]
(A) Article 380 (B) Article 312
(C) Article 45 (D) Article 51
17. Which Article of the Constitution
of India has the provision of
participation of workers in
management of industry?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(A) Article 43 (B) Article 43A
(C) Article 45 (D) Article 47
18. Which principle among the
following was added to the
Directive Principles of State Policy
by the 42nd Amendment to the
Constitution? [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Equal pay for equal work for
both men and women
(B) Participation of workers in the
management of industries
(C) Right to work, education and
public assistance
(D) Securing living wage and
human condition of work to
workers
19. Which of the following was not
added to the Directive Principles
by the 42nd Amendment of the
Constitution? [UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(A) Protection of Children and
youth from exploitation
(B) Equal justice and free legal aid
(C) Uniform civil code
(D) Participation of workers in the
management of industries
20. Which one of the following is not a
Directive Principle of State Policy?
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010]
(A) Prohibition of the consumption
of Intoxicating Drinks
(B) Cow Protection
(C) Environment Protection
(D) Free Education to children up
to the age of fourteen (14)
21. Which one of the following is not a
Directive Principle of State Policy?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
(A) Prohibition of the consumption
of intoxicating drinks
(B) Prohibiting the slaughter of
cows and calves
(C) Protection and improvement of
the environment
(D) Free education for children up
to the age of 16 years
22. How are the Directive Principles
of State Policy different from
Fundamental Rights?
[IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Former is for Union Govern-
ment and later is for state
Government
(B) Former is a part of Constitution
whereas later is not
(C) Directive Principles are not
enforceable whereas Fundam-
ental Right can be enforced
(D) None of the above
23. The ‘Directive Principles’ are .... .
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Justifiable
(B) Non-justifiable
(C) Rigid
(D) Flexible
24. Which one of the following is a
Directive Principle of State Policy?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) The State shall endeavor
to protect and improve the
environment
(B) The State shall not deny
equality to any person before
the law
(C) The State shall not discriminate
against any person on the
grounds of religion, race, caste,
sex or place or birth
(D) Untouchability enforcement
25. The Constitution is silent in the
Directive Principles of State Policy
about [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008]
(A) Adult education
(B) Living wages for workers
(C) Free legal aid to the poor
(D) Primary education to children
till they complete the age of 16
years
26. Which of the following Directive
Principles of State Policy was added
to the Constitution at a later date?
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014]
(A) Organization of Village
Panchayats
(B) Prohibition of Cow Slaughter
(C) Free Legal Aid
(D) Uniform Civil Code
27. Which of the following is not
included in the Directive Principles
of State Policy? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006
UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) Prohibition of Liquor
Indian Polity and Governance 335
(B) Right to Work
(C) Equal Wage for Equal Work
(D) Right to Information
28. Which one of the following is a
Directive Principle of the State
Policy? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010
UPPCS (GIC) 2010]
(A) Uniform Civil Code
(B) Freedom of the Press
(C) Freedom of the Religion
(D) Equality Before Law
29. Which one of the following is not a
Directive Principle of State Policy?
[UP Lower (Spl)(Pre) 2008]
(A) Equal pay for equal work for
men and women
(B) Equal right to an adequate
means of livelihood
(C) Abolition of Untouchability
(D) Just and humane conditions of
work
30. “The Directive Principles of State
Policy is a cheque which is paid on
Bank’s Convenience”. Who said it?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) K.M. Munshi
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) K.T. Shah
31. Consider the following statements
regarding the Directive Principles
of State Policy.
1. These principles spell out the
socio-economic democracy in
the country.
2. The provisions contained
in these Principles are not
enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
32. Which of the following statements
is/are true of the Fundamental
Duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A legislative process has been
provided to enforce these
duties.
2. They are correlative to legal
duties.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017
Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
336 Objective General Studies
33. Consider the following statements. 3. Promoting Cottage Industries (A) Only 1 (B) Only 3
With reference to the Constitution in Rural Areas. (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) All 1, 2 and 3
of India, the Directive Principle of 4. Securing for all worker’s 40. Match List-I with List-II and select
State Policy constitute limitations reasonable leisure and culture the correct answer using the code
upon opportunities. given below the lists.
1. legislative function. Which of the above are the [UPPCS (Pre) 2001
2. executive function. Gandhian Principles that are UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
Which of the above statement is/ reflected in the Directive Principles List-I (Articles of the
are correct? [IAS (Pre) 2017] of State Policy? [IAS (Pre) 2012] Constitution)
(A) Only 1 (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (a) Article 40 (b) Article 41
(B) Only 2 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Article 44 (d) Article 48
(C) Both 1 and 2 37. Which of the following is/are listed List-II (Subject Matter)
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 among the Directive Principles 1. Organization of Village
in Part-IV of the Constitution of Panchayat
34. The Constitution grants right
India? [60th to 62nd BPSC(Pre) 2016] 2. Right to Work
against exploitation to
1. Equal Pay for Equal Work 3. Uniform Civil Code
1. Children 2. Women
2. Uniform Civil Code 4. Organization of Agriculture
3. Tribals 4. Dalits
3. Small family norm and Animal Husbandry
Choose your correct answer with
4. Education through mother Code
the help of given code.
tongue at primary level
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(A) Only 1 and 2 (A) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4
(B) Only 1 and 3 (B) 2 3 1 4
38. Identify the items included in the (C) 1 3 4 2
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
Directive Principles of State Policy.
(D) Only 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 2 4 1
1. Prohibition of Consumption of
35. Which of the following is/are 41. Given below are two statements,
Liquor
included in the Directive Principles one labelled as Assertion (A) and
2. Prohibition of employment of the other as Reason (R).
of State Policy?
children in factories or mines
1. Prohibition of Trafficking Assertion (A): MGNREGA is
3. Prohibition of beggar or forced
in human beings and forced providing employment to atleast
labour
labour. one member of the eligible
4. Prohibition of untouchability household for a minimum period of
2. Prohibition of consumption
except for medicinal purposes Select the correct answer with the 100 days in a year.
of intoxicating drinks and of aid of the code given below.
Reason (R): Right to employment
[UPPCS (Mains) 2002]
other drugs which are injurious is enumerated in Part III of the
to health. Code Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer from the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2008] (C) Only 1 (D) 2, 3 and 4 code given below.
(A) Only 1 39. With reference to the Constitution [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013
(B) Only 2 of India, consider the following. Punjab PSC (Pre) 2018]
(C) Both 1 and 2 1. Fundamental Rights Code
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Fundamental Duties (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
36. Consider the following provisions 3. Directive Principles of State (R) is the correct explanation of
under the Directive Principles of Policy (A)
State Policy as enshrined in the Which of the above provisions of (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
Constitution of India. the Constitution of India fulfilled but (R) is not the correct
1. Securing Uniform Civil Code the National Social Assistance explanation of (A)
for citizens of India. Programme launched by the (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
2. Organizing Village Panchayats. Government of India? (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
[IAS (Pre) 2010]

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (A)
41. (C)

1. The provisions relating to Funda-
mental Duties in the Constitution
of India were added on the recom-
mendation of [UPPCS (Pre) 2012
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Iyengar Committee
(C) Swaran Singh Committee
(D) Thakkar Commission
2. When were the Fundamental Duties
incorporated in the Constitution?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
(A) 1976 (B) 1979
(C) 1975 (D) 1978
3. The Fundamental Duty to uphold
and protect the Sovereignty, Unity
and Integrity of India is mentioned
at number
[RAS/RTS (Re. Exam)(Pre) 2013]
(A) Four (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
4. Under which Articles of Indian
Constitution, provision for
Fundamental Duties has been
made by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Article 50 (B) Article 51A
(C) Article 52 (D) Article 53
5. The Fundamental Duties are
mentioned in which of the
following part of the Constitution
of India? [UPPSC (GIC) 2010
UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) Part III (B) Part IV
(C) Part IVA (D) Part VI
6. By which Constitutional Amend-
ment, ten Fundamental Duties
were added in the Constitution for
Indian citizens? [UPPCS (Pre) 1993
MPPCS (Pre) 1990]
(A) 24th (B) 38th
(C) 44th (D) 42nd
7. Which Amendment Act included
the Fundamental Duties of citizens
in the Indian Constitution?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2008
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) 42nd Amendment Act
(B) 56th Amendment Act
(C) 73rd Amendment Act
(D) 98th Amendment Act
8. The 10 commandments, which
were added by 42nd Amendment
Act in Constitution of India, are
called as [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001
West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) Fundamental Rights
11. Fundamental Duties
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Panchayati Raj Principles
(D) Directive Principles of State
Policy
9. The 42nd Amendment Act
(1976) has incorporated into the
Constitution of India a new chapter
on [44th BPSC (Pre) 2000]
(A) Administration of Union
Territories
(B) Formation of Inter-State
Councils
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) None of the above
10. In which year Fundamental Duties
of Citizens were introduced by
42nd Amendment?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) 1976 (B) 1975
(C) 1978 (D) 1980
11. Which of the following statements
regarding Fundamental Duties is
not true? [UPPCS (Pre) 2003
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2000]
(A) They can be enforced by writs
(B) They can be promoted only by
constitutional methods
(C) They can be used for interpret-
ing ambiguous statutes
(D) The performance of any
particular duty comes within
the sphere of constitutional law
which court has to decide
12. Which one of the following is a
Fundamental Duty in India?
[45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) Separation of judiciary from
executive
(B) To value and preserve the
rich heritage of our composite
culture
(C) Free and compulsory education
(D) Abolition of Untouchability
13. The Fundamental Duties of a
citizen do not include duty
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008]
(A) To protect and improve the
natural environment
(B) To cherish and follow the
noble ideals which inspired our
national struggle for freedom
(C) To strive towards abolition of
untouchability
(D) To develop scientific temper,
humanism and the spirit of
enquiry and reform
14. Which one of the following is not a
part of Fundamental Duties under
Indian Polity and Governance 337
Indian Constitution?
[UPPCS (Re. Exam) (Pre) 2015]
(A) To defend the country and
render national service
(B) To value and preserve the
rich heritage of our composite
culture
(C) To help in organizing Village
Panchayats
(D) To safeguard public property
and to abjure violence
15. Protection of which one of the
following is a Fundamental Duty of
an Indian citizen?
[UP Lower (Spl)(Pre) 2008]
(A) Village Panchayat
(B) National Flag
(C) Scheduled Castes/Scheduled
Tribes
(D) Wildlife
16. “It shall be the duty of every citizen
of India to protect and improve the
natural environment”.
The above statement refers to
which of the following Articles of
the Constitution of India?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 48A
(C) Article 51A
(D) Article 56
17. Which one of the following is
incorrect? [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Fundamental Duties are the
part of the Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties are not a
part of Fundamental Rights
(C) Fundamental Duties are
enumerated in Part IVA of the
Indian Constitution
(D) Article 51A explains the duties
of every citizen of India
18. Which one of the following is not a
Fundamental Duty?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) To respect the National Anthem
(B) To safeguard public property
(C) To protect monuments and
places of public importance
(D) To protect and improve the
natural environment
19. How many Fundamental Duties are
there in the Indian Constitution?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014
UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014
Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) Nine (B) Eleven
(C) Twelve (D) Twenty
338 Objective General Studies
20. Which one of the following is not India” is a provision made in the 24. Which of the following is/are
provided in Part IV A (Fundamental [IAS (Pre) 2015] among the Fundamental Duties
Duties) of the Indian Constitution? (A) Preamble of the Constitution of citizens laid down in the Indian
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (B) Directive Principles of State Constitution?
(A) To respect the National Flag Policy 1. To preserve the rich heritage of
(B) To promote spirit of brother- (C) Fundamental Rights our composite culture.
hood amongst all people of India (D) Fundamental Duties 2. To protect the weaker sections
(C) To respect our parents and 23. Which one of the following is not from social injustice.
teachers correctly matched? 3. To develop the scientific
(D) To preserve the rich heritage of [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009] temper and spirit of inquiry.
our composite culture Parts of the Subject 4. To strive towards excellence
21. Under the Constitution of India, Constitution in all spheres of individual and
which one of the following is not a collective activity.
(A) Part II - Citizenship
Fundamental Duty? [IAS (Pre) 2011] (B) Part III - Fundamental Select the correct answer using the
(A) To vote in public elections Rights code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012
(B) To develop scientific temper Tripura PSC (Pre) 2019]
(C) Part IV - Directive
(C) To safeguard public property Principles of (A) 1 and 2
(D) To abide by the Constitution State Policy (B) Only 2
and respect its ideals (D) Part V - Fundamental (C) 1, 3 and 4
22. “To uphold and protect the Duties (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (C)

12. The President

1. How is the President elected in
India? [MPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(A) Directly
(B) By Rajya Sabha Members
(C) By Lok Sabha Members
(D) By Indirect Election
2. In India, the President is elected by
[41st BPSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) Direct Election
(B) Single Transferable Vote System
(C) Proportional Vote System
(D) Open Ballot System
3. Who among the following are not
included in the Electoral College
for the election of the President of
India? [UPPCS (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Elected members of the House
of the People
(B) Elected members of the Council
of States
(C) Elected member of the Legis-
lative Assemblies of the States
(D) Elected members of the Legisla-
tive Councils of the States
4. The President of India is elected by
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Only the members of Rajya
Sabha
(B) Only the members of Lok Sabha
(C) Only by the Members of State
Legislative Assemblies and Lok
Sabha
(D) The Elected Members of Rajya
Sabha, Lok Sabha and State
Legislative Assemblies
5. Which one of the following is not
correct regarding Presidential
election? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Election of the successor must
be held before the expiry of
the term of the incumbent
President
(B) The President shall hold office
for a term of five years from the
date on which he enters upon
his office
(C) On the expiration of his term,
he continues to hold office until
his successor enters upon his
office
(D) President’s election may be
postponed on the ground
that the electoral college is
incomplete
6. Minimum number of electors
needed to be proposer of the
presidential candidate is
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) Fifty electors
(B) Twenty electors
(C) Five electors
(D) Fifteen electors
7. The Chief Minister of a State in
India is not eligible to vote in the
Presidential election if
[IAS (Pre) 1993]
(A) He is a candidate
(B) He is yet to prove his majority
on the floor of the Lower House
of the State Legislature
(C) He is a member of the Upper
House of the State Legislature
(D) He is a member of the Lower
House of the State Legislature
8. In the Presidential election in
India, every elected member of
the Legislative Assembly of a State
shall have as many votes as there
are multiples of one thousand in the
quotient obtained by dividing the
population of the State by the total
number of the elected members
of the Assembly. As at present
(1997), the expression ‘population’
here means the population as
ascertained by the [IAS (Pre) 1997]
(A) 1991 Census
(B) 1981 Census
(C) 1971 Census
(D) 1961 Census

9. Which of the following is not an
essential qualification for the
candidature of President?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
(A) Completion of 35 years
(B) Educated
(C) Qualified for election as a
member of the House of the
People
(D) Citizen of India
10. A Member of Parliament or a
State Legislature can be elected as
President but
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) He will have to resign from
his seat before contesting the
election
(B) He will have to relinquish his
seat within 6 months of his
election
(C) He will have to relinquish his
seat as soon as he is elected
(D) An MP can contest but an MLA
11. Which Article of the Indian
Constitution prescribes eligibility
conditions for re-election to the
post of the President of India?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Article 52 (B) Article 54
(C) Article 55 (D) Article 57
12. If there is any dispute regarding
the Presidential election, it can be
referred to [38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
(A) Attorney General of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) None of the above
13. Which of the following President
was appeared before Supreme
Court, when Supreme Court was
hearing election dispute of the
President?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(B) V.V. Giri
(C) Fakharuddin Ali Ahmad
(D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
14. The President holds office for a
term of 5 years from date on
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 1996]
(A) Which he/she is elected
(B) Which is decided by Parliament
(C) Which he enters upon his
office/hold his office
(D) Which is decided by Election
Commission
15. To whom does the President of
India address his resignation?
[IAS (Pre) 2009
Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Vice-President of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Prime Minister of India
16. The President of India can be
removed from his post by
[39th BPSC (Pre) 1994
47th BPSC (Pre) 2005]
(A) The Prime Minister of India
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Parliament
17. Under which one of the following
Articles, the procedure for removal
of the President of India through
the process of impeachment has
been laid down?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) Article 53 (B) Article 61
(C) Article 74 (D) Article 13
18. The President of India can be
removed from office even before
the expiry of the term.
[UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) By the political party in power
(B) By the Prime Minister
(C) Through impeachment
(D) Through trial by court
19. By which House of Parliament,
impeachment may be imposed on
President?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) House of People
(B) Council of States
(C) By any House of Parliament
(D) None of the above
20. Which one of the following has
the power to initiate the Motion of
Impeachment of the President of
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Both the Houses of the
Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
21. The President can be impeached
on the grounds of violating the
Constitution by
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) The Chief Justice of India
(B) The Vice-President of India
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) The two Houses of Parliament
22. Atleast how many days of
prior notice is required for the
impeachment of the President of
India? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) 7 days (B) 14 days
(C) 21 days (D) 30 days
Indian Polity and Governance 339
23. Which one of the following is a part
of the electoral college but not of
the process of impeachment?
[IAS (Pre) 1996]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) State Legislative Councils
(D) State Legislative Assemblies
24. The procedure of Impeachment of
the President of India is
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Quasi-Judicial Procedure
(B) Executive Procedure
(C) Judicial Procedure
(D) Legislative Procedure
25. The vacant post of the President is
to be filled within [UPPCS (Pre) 2005
UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) 90 days
(B) Six months
(C) Nine months
(D) One year
26. In the case of a vacancy arising from
any cause other than the expiry of
the term of the President in office
an election to fill the vacancy must
be held [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Within six months from the
date of occurrence of the
vacancy
(B) After one year from the date of
vacancy
(C) After nine months from the
date of vacancy
(D) After seven months from the
date of vacancy
27. For how long can the Vice-
President act as President when the
President cannot perform his duties
for reasons of death resignation,
removal or otherwise?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013
UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(A) 5 years
(B) 2 years
(C) 1 year
(D) 6 months
28. In case the post of President of
India falls vacant due to his death,
resignation or removal from office,
who will occupy that post?
[MPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice of the Supreme
Court
(C) Vice-President
(D) None of the above
29. In case the post of President of
India falls vacant and there is not
Vice-President also, who among
340 Objective General Studies
the following would be the acting
President? [Orissa PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2015
UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014
RAS/RTS (Pre) 2007
UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) Vice-Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Attorney-General of India
(C) Lok Sabha Speaker
(D) Chief Justice of the Supreme
Court
30. If the position of President and
Vice-President are vacant, who
officiates as the President of India?
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) None of the above
31. If in India the office of President
and Vice-President falls vacant at
one point of time, the office of the
President will temporarily be held
by [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Chief Justice of Supreme
Court
(C) The Chief of Armed Forces
(D) None of the above
32. Who is the Executive Head of State
in India? [44th BPSC (Pre) 2000]
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Leader of the Opposition
(D) Chief Secretary, Government of
India
33. Which one of the following Articles
of the Constitution vests the
executive power of the Union in the
President? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) Article 51 (B) Article 52
(C) Article 53 (D) Article 54
34. Who of the following has been
vested with the executive powers of
the central government under the
Constitution of India?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015
UPPCS (Mains) 2008
42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Central Cabinet
(D) All of the above
35. President of India exercises his
powers [60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) either directly or through
officers subordinate to him
(B) through Ministers
(C) through Prime Minister
(D) through Cabinet
36. Who amongst the following is the
head of Indian Republic?
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013]
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Cabinet
(D) Political head alongwith the
Council of Ministers
37. Which one of the following amend-
ments to the Indian Constitution
empowers the President to send
back any matter for reconsideration
by the Council of Ministers?
[IAS (Pre) 2002]
(A) 39th (B) 40th
(C) 42nd (D) 44th
38. The President can dissolve Lok
Sabha on [MPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) Recommendation of Chief
Justice of India
(B) Lok Sabha’s recommendation
(C) Recommendation of the Union
Cabinet
(D) Rajya Sabha’s recommendation
39. The President of India can dissolve
the Lok Sabha on the recommenda-
tion of [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Election Commission
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Cabinet
40. The Joint sitting of Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha under Article 108 is
summoned by [UPPCS (Mains) 2015
UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015
UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President
41. Which one of the following
statements about the President of
India is not correct?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) He is a constituent part of
Parliament
(B) He participates in the discus-
sion in the both Houses
(C) He addresses the joint meeting
of both the Houses every year
(D) He can promulgate ordinances
in certain situations
42. The only instance when the Presi-
dent of India exercised his power of
veto, is related to [IAS (Pre) 1993]
(A) The Hindu Code Bill
(B) The PEPSU Appropriation Bill
(C) The Indian Post Office
(Amendment) Bill
(D) The Dowry Prohibition Bill
43. Who among the following
Presidents exercised a power which
is ‘Pocket veto’ in Constitutional
terminology?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) V.V. Giri
(C) Gyani Zail Singh
(D) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
44. Under which Article of the Indian
Constitution, the President of India
enjoys the power to withhold his
assent to any Bill passed by both the
Houses of the Parliament?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004
UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Article 63
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 109
(D) Article 111
45. Who amongst the following has the
power to withhold assent to a Bill,
after it has been passed by the two
Houses of Parliament?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) The Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha
46. On which matter, it is not essential
to take advice from the Council of
Ministers for the President?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015
Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) Appointment of Ambassadors
(B) To assent to Bills
(C) To assent to Bills referred by
Governors
(D) To dissolve Lok Sabha
47. Under which Article of the Indian
Constitution did the President
give his assent to the Ordinance on
electoral reforms when it was sent
back to him by the Union Cabinet
without making any changes (in
the year 2002)? [IAS (Pre) 2003
UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Article 121 (B) Article 142
(C) Article 123 (D) Article 124
48. Under which of the following
Articles of the Constitution,
the President of India has been
empowered to promulgate an
ordinance? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
(A) Article 360
(B) Article 123
(C) Article 200
(D) Article 356

49. An ordinance promulgated by the
President must be placed before the
Parliament within what time frame
after the start of its session?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1 month (B) 6 weeks
(C) 8 weeks (D) 6 months
50. Who among the following is
appointed by the President?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Attorney General of India
(B) Comptroller and Auditor
General
(C) Governor of State
(D) All of the above
51. Which one of the following is not
appointed by the President of
India? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) Vice-President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
52. The Constitution authorizes the
President to make provisions for
discharge of duties of Governors in
extraordinary circumstances under
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Article 160 (B) Article 162
(C) Article 165 (D) Article 310
53. Indian Constitution doesn’t
empower the President of India
with the right of
[38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
(A) Appointment of Prime Minister
(B) Appointment of Chief Minister
in states
(C) Being the Supreme Commander
of Defence Forces
(D) Executing emergency in any
part of the country
54. Which Article of the Indian Consti-
tution empowers the President to
consult the Supreme Court?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Article 129 (B) Article 132
(C) Article 143 (D) Article 32
55. Which of the following is incorrect
about the powers of the President
of India? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) The President should accept
the advice of Supreme Court
(B) Emergency powers
(C) Power of extension of Presi-
dent’s Rule in States
(D) President can accept or reject
the advice of the Supreme
Court
56. According to the Constitution,
which among the following
is literally not a ‘Power’ of the
President of India?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Promulgation of Ordinances
(B) To consult the Supreme Court
(C) To send messages to Houses of
Parliament
(D) To grant Pardon
57. The President of India does not
have the right to
[41st BPSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) Give Pardon
(B) Remove a judge of Supreme
Court
(C) Declare emergency
(D) Pass ordinances
58. Power of the President to grant
pardons etc., is a
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) Legislative Power
(B) Judicial Power
(C) Executive Power
(D) None of the above
59. Which of the following Article of
Indian Constitution mentions the
‘Doctrine of Pleasure’?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Article 200 (B) Article 301
(C) Article 310 (D) Article 311
60. Which one of the following is not
Constitutional Prerogative of the
President of India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Returning an ordinary Bill for
reconsideration
(B) Returning a financial bill for
reconsideration
(C) Dissolving the Lok Sabha
(D) Appointing the Prime Minister
61. Who prepares the President’s
address to Parliament?
[MPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(A) President himself
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Central Cabinet
62. The First President of Independent
India hailed from
[41st BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Tamil Nadu
63. The fourth President of India was
[UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) Sir V.V. Giri
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(D) Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
64. Which President of India completed
Indian Polity and Governance 341
two successive terms?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(D) Both (A) and (B)
65. The single instance of the
unanimous election of the President
of India so far was the election of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004
UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
66. Who of the following before
becoming the President of India
did not hold the office of Vice-
President? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(C) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(D) R. Venkatraman
67. Among the following Presidents
of India, who is known as the
Philosopher King or the Philosopher
Ruler? [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(D) Dr. Abdul Kalam
68. Who of the following President of
India was associated with Trade
Union Movement?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) V.V. Giri
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) K.R. Narayanan
(D) Zakir Hussain
69. Which President of India was called
the ‘Missile Man’?
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) None of the above
70. Who of the following Chief Justices
of India acted as the President of
India also? [UPPCS (Mains) 2003, 04]
(A) Justice M.C. Mahajan
(B) Justice M. Hidayatullah
(C) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(D) Justice B.K. Mukherjee
71. Choose the odd one.
[MPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) Radhakrishnan
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
342 Objective General Studies
72. Which of the following statements
is not true? [38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
(A) To hold the office of President
Candidate should have the
minimum age of 35 years
(B) Vice-President is Chairman of
Rajya Sabha
(C) Vice-President is appointed by
the President of India
(D) First President of India was
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
73. What was the sequence number of
Ms. Pratibha Patil as the President
of the Republic of India?
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
80. Which of the following are the
(A) 10th (B) 11th
(C) 12th (D) 13th
74. A Bill presented in Parliament
becomes an Act after
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
(A) It is passed by Both the Houses
(B) The President has given his
Assent
(C) The Prime Minister has signed it
(D) The Supreme Court has
declared it to be within the
competence of the Union
Parliament
75. Who has the Constitutional Power
to declare a geographical area as a
‘Scheduled Area’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) Prime Minister
81. The members of board election of
(D) President
76. “He represents the nation but does
not lead the nation” — this dictum
applies to whom of the following?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Chief Justice of India
77. Which one of the following
President of India has been the
Governor of Bihar?
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
82. Consider the following statements.
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. S.D. Sharma
(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(D) V.V. Giri
78. Rashtrapati Bhavan was designed
by [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) Edward Stone
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Edwin Lutyens
(D) Tarun Dutt
79. The electoral college of President
consists of [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
1. Elected members of both
houses of Parliament.
2. Elected members of both
houses of State Legislatures.
3. Elected members of the
Legislative Assemblies of all
states.
4. Elected members of legislative
assemblies of Delhi and
Pondicherry.
Code
(A) 1, 2, and 3 are right
(B) 1 and 3 are right
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are right
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are right
members of the electoral college for
electing the President of India?
1. All the members of the two
Houses of Parliament.
2. All the elected members of the
State Legislative Assemblies.
3. All the elected members of the
U.T. Assemblies.
4. All the Governors and Lt.
Governors.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
Code
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
the President of India are
[UPPCS (Pre) 1993]
1. Elected members of Lok Sabha
2. Elected members of Rajya
Sabha
3. Elected members of Vidhan
Sabha
4. Elected members of Vidhan
Parishad
Code
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 3 and 4
In the electoral college for
Presidential Election in India.
1. The value of the vote of an
elected Member of Legislative
Assembly equals State Popula-
tion divided by Number of
elected Member of the state
assembly × 100.
2. The value of the vote of an
elected Member of Parliament
equals the total value of the
votes of all elected MLAs
divided by total number of
elected MP’s.
3. There were more than 5000
voters in the latest elections.
Which of these statement(s) is/are
correct? [IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 3 (D) Only 3
83. Consider the following statements
about the President of India.
1. He should be citizen of India by
birth.
2. He should have completed the
age of 35 years.
3. He should be qualified for elec-
tion as a member of Parliament.
Which of these statement is/are
correct? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1 and 3
84. Consider the following statements
and select the correct answer from
the code given below.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
1. The executive power of the
Union is vested in the Prime
Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is appointed
by the President.
3. The Prime Minister is the head
of the Council of Ministers.
4. The Prime Minister, at the time
of his appointment, needs not
be a member of either House of
Parliament.
Code
(A) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct
85. Which of the following are the dis-
cretionary powers of the President?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014]
1. Appointment of Council of
Ministers
2. To return a Bill with objections
3. To detain a Bill
4. To pardon
5. To summon for joint session
6. To send message to Parliament
7. Appointment of Judges
Code
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 5 and 7
(C) 3, 6 and 7 (D) 2, 3 and 6
86. Which among the following is/
are appointed by the President of
India?
1. Chairman of the Finance
Commission
2. Vice-Chairman of the Planning
Commission

3. Chief Ministers of the Union
Territories
Select the correct answer by using
the following code. [IAS (Pre) 1994
UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) 1 is correct
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct
(D) 2 and 3 are correct
87. Which of the following doesn’t
consists in the power ‘To Pardon’ of
President?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
1. Pardon
2. Commutation
3. Remission
4. Respite
5. Reprieve
6. Detention
7. Continuation
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 4 and 5 (D) 6 and 7
88. Which of the following types of
authority are attributed to the
President of the India?
1. Real and Popular
2. Titular (formal) and Dejure
3. Political and Nominal
4. Constitutional and Nominal
Select the correct answer from the
code given below.
[Assam PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
89. According to the Constitution of
India, it is the duty of the President
of India to cause to be laid before
the Parliament which of the
following?
1. The Recommendations of the
Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public
Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller
and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National
Commission for Scheduled
Castes
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
90. Given below are two statements.
Assertion (A): The Union
Executive is headed by the
President of India.
Reason (R): There is no limitation
on the power of the President.
In the context of the above which of
the following is correct?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
91. Assertion (A): The President of
India is elected by indirect election.
Reason (R): There is a provision
of Electoral College consisting of
the elected members of both Houses
of Parliament and elected members
of the Legislative Assemblies of the
States.
In the context of above statements
select the correct answer.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) are individu-
ally true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are individu-
ally true, but (R) is not the cor-
rect explanation of (A)
92. Given below are two statements.
Assertion (A): The executive
power of the Union is vested in the
President of India.
Reason (R): The executive power
is concerned with carrying on the
business of the Government.
In the context of the above, which
one of the following is correct?
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
93. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): President of India
is different from the British King.
Reason (R): Office of Indian
President is similar to that of
America. [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
Indian Polity and Governance 343
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
94. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): The President is
the part of the Parliament.
Reason (R): A Bill passed by the
two Houses of Parliament cannot
become law without the assent of
the President.
In the context of the above, which
one of the following is correct?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
95. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): The Supreme
Command of the Defence Forces is
vested in the President.
Reason (R): The President’s
powers as Commander-in-Chief are
independent of Legislative Control.
In the context of the above, which
one of the following is correct?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005, 2010]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
96. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer using the code
given below the lists.
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
List-I (President)
(a) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
(b) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(d) V.V. Giri
List-II (Term)
1. 1969-1974
2. 1974-1977
3. 1977-1982
4. 1967-1969
344 Objective General Studies
Code office no litigation can be instituted (R) is the correct explanation of
(a) (b) (c) (d) in any court of law against the (A)
(A) 3 2 1 4 President of India. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(B) 2 3 1 4 Reason (R): President’s office is but (R) is not the correct
(C) 2 3 4 1 above the Constitution. explanation of (A)
(D) 4 3 2 1 Code [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2008] (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
97. Assertion (A): During the term of (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (B)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (A) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (D)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (D)
51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (A) 69. (B) 70. (B)
71. (D) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (B) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (B)
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (B) 84. (C) 85. (D) 86. (D) 87. (D) 88. (D) 89. (C) 90. (C)
91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (C) 97. (C)

13. The Vice-President

1. How is Vice-President of India
elected? [MPPCS (Pre) 1996]
(A) By direct national election
(B) Nomination by President
(C) By direct election by the MPs of
Lok Sabha and MLAs of Vidhan
Sabha
(D) By election by the MPs of Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha
2. The Vice-President may be removed
from his office by a resolution of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) Council of States
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Cabinet
(D) Council of Ministers
3. The Vice-President of India is
elected by the members of an
electoral college comprising
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Only elected members of both
the Houses of Parliament
(B) All the members of both the
Houses of Parliament
(C) Only elected members of Rajya
Sabha and State Assemblies
(D) Only elected members of State
Assemblies
4. The Vice-President of India is
elected by
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) The People
(B) The Electoral College which
elects the President
(C) The members of both the
Houses of Parliament
(D) The State Legislatures
5. The proposal relating to dismissal
of the Vice-President can be
presented in [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Any House of the Parliament
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) None of the above
6. A resolution for the removal of
the Vice-President of India can be
proposed in [UPPCS (Mains) 2003, 04]
(A) Only Lok Sabha
(B) Any House of Parliament
(C) Joint Session of Parliament
(D) Only Rajya Sabha
7. Who is the Chairman of Rajya
Sabha? [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
8. Which one of the following is
presided over by one who is not its
member? [UPPCS (Mains) 2004
Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Vidhan Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Council of Ministers
9. Among the four pairs given below
which one consists of a correct-com-
bination of dignitaries who became
Vice-President after having held
diplomatic posts of Ambassador
and High Commissioners?
[IAS (Pre) 1993]
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and G.S.
Pathak
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and V.V.
Giri
(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain and K.R.
Narayanan
(D) B.D. Jatti and K.R. Narayanan
10. The serial number of Mr.
Mohammad Ansari as Vice-
President of India is
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) 10th (B) 11th
(C) 12th (D) 13th
11. Given below are two statements,
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In order to
be eligible for election as Vice-
President, a person must be
qualified for election as a member
of the Upper House.
Reason (R): Vice-President is
chairperson of Rajya Sabha.
Which of the following is correct in
regard to the above statements?
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
12. Which of the following statements
about the Vice-President of India
are not correct?
1. In order to be the Vice-
President, a person must be
qualified for election as a
member of the House of the
People.
2. A member of the State
Legislature can be a candidate
for this office.
3. The term of the Office of the
Vice-President is the same as
that of the President.
4. He can be removed through a
formal impeachment.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (B)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A)
14. The Council of Ministers
1. Which of the following is not true?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) The President or Governor is
immune from legal action for
officials acts
(B) No Court can compel a
Governor to perform any duty
(C) A two month’s notice in writing
must be delivered to a Governor
for bringing civil proceedings in
respect of their personal acts
(D) Courts are empowered to
enquire the advice tendered by
the Ministers to the President
or Governor
2. The Prime Minister of India is the
head of the [47th BPSC (Pre) 2005]
(A) State Government
(B) Central Government
(C) Both State and Central
Governments
(D) None of the above
3. Which of the following statements
is correct about Prime Minister of
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) Prime Minister is the nominal
head of the Council of Ministers
(B) He is not responsible to the
Parliament
Indian Polity and Governance 345
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 3. Discharges the functions of the
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 President during his absence.
13. Who amongst the following elects 4. Acts as the President if the
the Vice-President of India? President resigns, or is removed
1. Member of Lok Sabha or dies.
2. Members of Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer from the
3. Members of Legislative code given below.
Assemblies [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
4. Members of Legislative (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
Councils (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) All the four
Select the correct answer from the 15. Who among the following has held
code given below. [UPPCS (Pre) 2012 the office of the Vice-President of
West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019] India? [IAS (Pre) 2008]
Code 1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3 3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Code
14. The Vice-President of India (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Is the second highest dignitary (B) 1 and 4
of India. (C) 2 and 3
2. Has no formal function at- (D) 3 and 4
tached to his office.
4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
14. (D) 15. (B)
(C) He cannot dismiss any of his (A) Parliament
ministers (B) Prime Minister
(D) Prime Minister is the real head (C) President
of the Council of Ministers (D) Bureaucracy
4. Prime Minister of India is 8. If the Prime Minister of India
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013] belongs to the Upper House of
(A) Elected (B) Selected Parliament [IAS (Pre) 1997
(C) Nominated (D) Appointed Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018]
5. Article 78 of the Constitution of (A) He will not be able to vote in
India lays down the duties of the his favour in the event of a no-
[UPPSC (RI) 2014] confidence motion
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) He will not be able to speak on
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha the budget in the Lower House
(C) Comptroller and Auditor (C) He can make statements only in
General of India the Upper House
(D) Prime Minister (D) He will have to become a
6. Cabinet includes [UPPCS (Pre) 1992 member of the Lower House
Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006] within six months after being
(A) Ministers with Cabinet-rank sworn in as the Prime Minister
(B) Minister of State level 9. Which Article of the Indian
(C) Cabinet Minister and State Constitution describes the
Minister appointment and disqualification
(D) Cabinet Minister, Minister of of the Council of Ministers?
State with independent charge [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001
and Minister of State West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019]
7. Who exercises the actual/executive (A) Article 70
power under the parliamentary (B) Article 72
form of Government? (C) Article 74
[MPPCS (Pre) 2006] (D) Article 75
346 Objective General Studies
10. Prime Minister of India is generally
[47th BPSC (Pre) 2005]
(A) Not a member of Parliament
(B) Member of Lok Sabha
(C) Member of Rajya Sabha
(D) Member of both the Houses
11. Who is the President of the
Council of Scientific and Industrial
Research?
[Uttarakhand Lower Sub. (Pre) 2010]
(A)
President of India
(B)
Vice-President of India
(C)
Prime Minister of India
(D)
Union Minister of Science and
Technology
12. Who is the head of the National
Defence Committee?
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Home Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Vice-President
13. The Prime Minister of India, at the
time of his/her appointment
[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Need not necessarily be a
member of one of the Houses
of the Parliament but must
become a member of one of the
Houses within six months
(B) Need not necessarily be a
member of one of the Houses
of the Parliament but must
become a member of the Lok
Sabha within six months
(C) Must be a member of one of the
Houses of the Parliament
(D) Must be a member of the Lok
Sabha
14. What is the minimum age
requirement to become the Prime
Minister of India?
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) 21 years (B) 25 years
(C) 30 years (D) 35 years
15. The Office of the Deputy Prime
Minister [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Was created under the original
Constitution
(B) Is an extra-Constitutional
growth
(C) Was created by 44th Amend-
ment
(D) Was created by the 85th
Amendment
16. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is
a [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Member of Lok Sabha from
Punjab
(B) Member of Rajya Sabha from
Punjab
(C) Member of Rajya Sabha from
Rajasthan
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha from
Assam
17. The Prime Minister is
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Elected by the Lok Sabha
(B) Elected by the Parliament
(C) Appointed by the President
(D) Nominated by the Party in
Majority of Lok Sabha
18. Which one of the following
statements is correct about the
Prime Minister of India?
[IAS (Pre) 1996]
(A) He is free to choose his minister
only from among those who are
members of either House of the
Parliament
(B) He can choose his cabinet col-
leagues after due counselling
by the President of India in this
regard
(C) He has full discretion in the
choice of persons who are to
serve as ministers in his cabinet
(D) He has only limited power in the
choice of his cabinet colleague
because of the discretionary
powers vested in the President
of India
19. In India, a minister who is not
a member of either House of
Parliament will cease to be a
minister after [UPPCS (Pre) 1993, 95
UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) Six months (B) One year
(C) Two years (D) Three years
20. Which of the following statements
is not true regarding the Parliament
of India? [UPPCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) The Constitution provides
for a Parliamentary form of
Government
(B) The function of the Parliament
is to provide for a Cabinet
(C) The membership of the cabinet
is restricted to the Lower House
(D) The cabinet enjoys the
confidence of the majority in
the popular chamber of the
house
21. To whom is the Council of Ministers
responsible? [MPPCS (Pre) 2010
Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018
40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha and
Chairman of Rajya Sabha
22. The Council of Ministers is
collectively responsible to which of
the following? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha
23. Which one of the following is not
a correct situation arising after
the resignation of the Council of
Ministers? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) President’s Rule will be
imposed
(B) The President will ask to
continue till alternative
arrangement
(C) The alternative arrangement
means earliest possible General
Election to be held to form a
new Government
(D) Outgoing Council of Ministers
may have had charge till
the formation of the new
Government
24. Union Council of Ministers is
collectively responsible to
[41st BPSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) Only to Lok Sabha
25. Which one of the following is not
explicitly stated in the Constitution
of India but followed as a
convention? [IAS (Pre) 1995]
(A) The Finance Minister is to be a
Member of the Lower House
(B) The Prime Minister has to
resign if he loses the majority in
the Lower House
(C) All the parts of India are to be
represented in the Councils of
Ministers
(D) In the event of both the Presid-
ent and the Vice-President
demitting office simultaneously
before the end of the tenure,
the Speaker of the Lower House
of the Parliament will officiate
as the President
26. Which one of the following
motions, the Council of Ministers in
India can move?
[Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Mains) 2010
UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) No-Confidence Motion
(B) Censure Motion
(C) Adjournment Motion
(D) Confidence Motion

27. The Council of Ministers has to
resign if a no-confidence motion is
passed by a majority of members of
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Both the Houses separately
(D) Both the Houses in Joint sitting
28. After resigning, whose permission
does a minister require to give a
statement in Lok Sabha?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Speaker
(C) President
(D) Supreme Court
(E) None of the above
29. The least number of members
who can table the No-Confidence
Motion against the Council of
Ministers in Lok Sabha is
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
UPPCS (Mains) 2013, 2009]
(A) 20 (B) 30
(C) 40 (D) 50
30. Who will decide the Office of
Profit? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006, 2000]
(A) President and Governor
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Union Public Service Commis-
sion
31. In Indian Polity, the executive is
subordinate to the
[45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) Judiciary
(B) Legislature
(C) Election Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commis-
sion
32. Which leader of Madhya Pradesh
became the Defence Minister first
and later Home Minister in Nehru’s
Cabinet? [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Prakash Chandra Sethi
(B) Ravi Shankar Shukla
(C) Kailash Nath Katju
(D) Dwarka Nath Mishra
33. Who was the First Finance Minister
of Independent India?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(B) R. K. Shanmukha Chetty
(C) Krishnamachari
(D) Sarojini Naidu
34. Who was the Law Minister in the
first Cabinet of post-independence
India? [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) K.M. Munshi
(B) S.P. Mukherjee
(C) Baldev Singh
(D) B.R. Ambedkar
35. Which one of the following terms
does not appear in the Constitution
of India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Annual Financial Statement
(B) Appropriation Bill
(C) Budget
(D) Consolidated Fund of India
36. Who was the 12th Prime Minister of
India? [UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Chandra Shekhar
(B) Deve Gowda
(C) I.K. Gujral
(D) A.B. Vajpayee
37. Which Prime Minister died outside
India? [MPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Charan Singh
38. Which of the following person was
not a Chief Minister of any state
before holding the office of Prime
Minister? [IAS (Pre) 1994
UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(C) Charan Singh
(D) Chandra Shekhar
39. Who among the following was the
member of Lok Sabha during his
Prime Ministership?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Deve Gowda
(B) I.K. Gujral
(C) Chandra Shekhar
(D) Dr. Manmohan Singh
40. Which one of the following Prime
Ministers of India, never attended
the Parliament during his tenure?
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
(A) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(B) V.P. Singh
(C) Chandra Shekhar
(D) Chaudhari Charan Singh
41. The word ‘mantrimandal’ (cabinet)
is mentioned only once in
Constitution and that is in
[41st BPSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) Article 352 (B) Article 74
(C) Article 356 (D) Article 76
42. The Policy of Liberalisation,
Privatisation and Globalisation
was announced as New Economic
Policy by Prime Minister
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
(A) Rajeev Gandhi
Indian Polity and Governance 347
(B) Vishwanath Pratap Singh
(C) P.V. Narsimha Rao
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
43. Which of the following statements
is not true for Dr. Manmohan
Singh? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004]
(A) Former Finance Minister of
India
(B) Former Governor of Reserve
Bank of India
(C) Former Chairman of Finance
Commission
(D) Former Representative of India
at the IMF
44. Which one of the following
Constitutional Amendments states
that the total number of Ministers,
including the Prime Minister in
the Council of Ministers, shall not
exceed fifteen percent of the total
number of members of the House of
the People? [IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) 90th (B) 91st
(C) 92nd (D) 93rd
45. Which of the following official
documents is related with India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) Green paper (B) White paper
(C) Yellow book (D) Blue book
46. Which Article of the Indian
Constitution describes “The
Executive power of every State
shall be so exercised as not impede
or prejudice the exercise of the
Executive power of the Union”?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Article 257 (B) Article 258
(C) Article 355 (D) Article 356
47. The Reorganization of Union
Cabinet is based on the Report of
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
(A) Gopalaswami Ayyangar
(B) K.M. Munshi
(C) T.T. Krishnamachari
(D) B.C. Roy
48. Which one of the following is not
correctly matched?
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Pre) 1996]
(A) J.L. Nehru - Shanti Van
(B) L.B. Shastri - Vijaya Ghat
(C) Indira Gandhi - Shakti Sthal
(D) Rajiv Gandhi - Karam Bhumi
49. Who gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan, Jai
Kisan’? [Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2018
MPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(A) J.L. Nehru
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Chaudhari Charan Singh
(D) Indira Gandhi
348 Objective General Studies
50. Consider the following statements.
1. The President shall make
rules for more convenient
transaction of the business
of the Government of India
and for the allocation among
Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the
Government of India shall be
expressed to be taken in the
name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
51. The Council of Ministers is
collectively responsible
1. To the House of the People
2. Under a Constitutional
Obligation
3. As per Article 75(3)
4. As per Article 74(3)
Which of the above statements are
correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
52. Consider the following statements
in the context of Indian
Constitution.
1. The Union Council of Ministers
shall be collectively responsible
to the Lok Sabha.
2. Union Ministers shall hold
office during the pleasure of the
Prime Minister.
Of these [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(C) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
(D) Only 2 is correct
53. Consider the following statements.
1. The Council of Ministers in
the Centre shall be collectively
responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold
the office during the pleasure of
the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall comm-
unicate to the President about
the proposals for Legislation.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) All of these
54. Consider the following statements (C) Only 3, 4 and 5
regarding a ‘No-Confidence (D) Only 1, 2, 4 and 5
Motion’ in India. 58. Who among the following have
1. There is no mention of a ‘No- been the Union Finance Ministers
Confidence Motion’ in the of India?
Constitution of India. 1. V.P. Singh
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can 2. R. Venkataraman
be introduced in the Lok Sabha 3. Y.B. Chavan
only. 4. Pranab Mukherjee
Which of the statement(s) given
Select the correct answer by using
above is/are correct? the code given below.
[IAS (Pre) 2014]
[Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2019
(A) Only 1 IAS (Pre) 2007]
(B) Only 2 (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) Both 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 59. Assertion (A): Ministers make
55. Match the Prime Ministers with policy and civil servants adhere to
their tenure. that policy.
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014]
Reason (R): Parliamentary form
List-I (Prime Minister) of government works on the
(a) Deve Gowda Principle of ‘Cabinet Collective
(b) Chandra Shekhar Responsibility’. [UPPCS (Pre) 1993]
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee Code
(d) Inder Kumar Gujral (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(e) Vishwanath Pratap Singh (R) is the correct explanation of
List-II (Tenure) (A)
1. 1999-2004 2. 1989-90 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
3. 1990-91 4. 1996-97 but (R) is not the correct
5. 1997-98 explanation of (A)
Code (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(A) 1 2 3 4 5 60. Assertion (A): The Council of
Ministers in the Union of India is
(B) 5 4 3 2 1
collectively responsible both to the
(C) 3 1 2 5 4 Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(D) 4 3 1 5 2
Reason (R): The members of both
56. Who among the following held the the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
office of the Prime Minister of India are eligible to be the Ministers of
more than once? the Union Government.
1. Jawaharlal Nehru [Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2019
2. Indira Gandhi IAS (Pre) 2007]
3. Gulzari Lal Nanda Code
4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Choose the correct order. (R) is the correct explanation of
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003] (A)
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All of these but (R) is not the correct
57. Who among the following occupied explanation of (A)
the office of the Prime Minister of (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
India more than once with gaps in (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
between their political career? 61. Consider the following statements
[UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010] and choose the correct answer from
1. Jawaharlal Nehru the code given below.
2. Lal Bahadur Shastri Assertion (A): Describing a
3. Gulzari Lal Nanda person as Deputy Prime Minister is
4. Indira Gandhi a political decision.
5. Atal Bihari Vajpayee Reason (R): It does not confer
Code on him any power of the Prime
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 Minister. [Goa PSC (Pre) 2017
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4 UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
 Indian Polity and Governance 349
Code 63. With reference to Union Govern- 2. The number of Ministries at the
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and ment, consider the following state- Centre at present is 36.
(R) is the correct explanation of ments. Which of the statement(s) given
(A) 1. The Constitution of India above is/are correct?
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, provides that all Cabinet [IAS (Pre) 2009]
but (R) is not the correct Ministers shall be compulsorily (A) Only 1
explanation of (A) the sitting members of Lok (B) Only 2
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false Sabha only. (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat (D) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Consider the following statements. operates under the direction of
65. Which of the following is/are the
the Ministry of Parliamentary
1. The Executive Power of the function/functions of the Cabinet
Affairs.
Union of India is vested in the Secretariat?
President. Which of the statement(s) given
1. Preparation of agenda for
2. The Cabinet Secretary is the above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2009]
Cabinet Meetings
ex-officio Chairman of the Civil (A) Only 1 2. Secretariat assistance to
Services Board. (B) Only 2 Cabinet Committees
Which of the statement(s) given (C) Both 1 and 2 3. Allocation of financial resour-
above is/are correct? (D) Neither 1 nor 2 ces to the Ministries
[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2017 64. With reference to Union Govern- Select the correct answer using the
IAS (Pre) 2015] ment, consider the following state- code given below.
(A) Only 1 ments. [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013]
(B) Only 2 1. The number of Ministries at the (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2 Centre on 15th August, 1947 (C) Only 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 was 18.

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (B)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (A)
51. (B) 52. (A) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (D) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (C)

15. The Attorney General and C.A.G.

1. How is the Attorney General of (A) Attorney General 6. Who among the following shall
India appointed? (B) Chief Justice of the Supreme have the right of audience in all
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013] Court courts in the territory of India in the
(A) By the Parliament (C) Chairman, Law Commission performance of his duties?
(B) By the President (D) None of the above [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(C) By the President on the recom- 4. Who among the following holds (A) Advocate General
mendation of the Parliament his/her office during the pleasure (B) Attorney General
(D) By the Chief Justice of the President? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (C) Additional Advocates General
2. Who amongst the following is (A) Comptroller and Auditor (D) None of the above
considered to be the first law officer General of India 7. Who can attend either House
of the Govt. of India? (B) Chief Election Commissioner of Parliament without being a
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010 (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha member?
UPPCS (Pre) 2006] (D) Attorney General of India [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Chief Justice of India 5. The Chief Legal Advisor to (A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Solicitor General Government of India is (B) Attorney General of India
(C) Attorney General [UPPCS (Mains) 2008 (C) Chief Election Commissioner
(D) Advocate General UPPCS (Pre) 1995] (D) Chairman of National Human
3. Who advises the Government of (A) Solicitor General of India Rights Commission
India on legal matters? (B) Chief Justice of Supreme Court 8. Which officer of the Government
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019 (C) Secretary Ministry of Law of India has the right to take part
49th BPSC (Pre) 2000] (D) Attorney General of India in the proceedings of Parliament
350 Objective General Studies
of India even though he is not a
member?
[60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) Vice-President
(B) Attorney General of India
(C) Comptroller and Auditor
General
(D) Election Commissioner
9. Who among the following has a
right to speak and otherwise take
part in the proceedings of the
either House of Parliament and to
be a member of any parliamentary
committee but is not entitled to
vote? [UPPCS (Mains) 2003]
(A) The Comptroller and Auditor
General of India
(B) The Chief Election Commiss-
ioner of India
(C) The Chairman of Finance Com-
mission of India
(D) The Attorney General of India
10. Who among the following can
participate in the proceedings of
both the Houses of Parliament?
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) Vice-President
(B) Solicitor General
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Attorney General
11. Who among the following has right
to address the Parliament?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Attorney General of India
(B) Chief Election Commissioner of
India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) National Security Advisor
12. The Solicitor General of India is
[UPPCS (Pre) 1991
UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A)An Administrative Officer
(B)A Legal Advisor
(C)An advisor to Prime Minister
(D)A Law officer for giving advice
to the President of India
13. Who among the following is the le-
gal advisor of a State Government?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A)
The Advocate General
(B)
The Attorney General
(C)
The Solicitor General
(D)
The Comptroller and Auditor
General
14. The Comptroller and Auditor
General of India is appointed by
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Planning
Commission
(D) Finance Minister
15. Under which Article of the Indian
Constitution is the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India
appointed?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(A) Article 146 (B) Article 147
(C) Article 148 (D) Article 149
16. The Reports of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India relating
to the accounts of the Union are
submitted first of all to which of the
following?
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
(A) The Chairman of Public
Accounts Committee
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Law Minister of India
(D) President of India
17. The office of the Comptroller
and Auditor General of India was
created [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Through an Act of the
Parliament
(B) By the Constitution
(C) Through a Cabinet Resolution
(D) None of the above
18. The tenure of Comptroller and
Auditor General of India is
[UPPCS (Pre) 1993]
(A) 4 years (B) 5 years
(C) 6 years (D) 7 years
19. Which of the following is not true
about the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India? [UPPSC (RI) 2014]
(A) He is appointed by the
President
(B) His salary is equal to that of the
Judge of Supreme Court
(C) He is disqualified for any
further Government office after
retirement
(D) He can be removed by the
President
20. Which one of the following duties is
not performed by Comptroller and
Auditor General of India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004
IAS (Pre) 2001]
(A) To audit and report on
all expenditure from the
Consolidated Fund of India
(B) To audit and report on
all expenditure from the
Contingency Funds and Public
Accounts
(C) To audit and report on all
trading, manufacturing, profit
and loss accounts
(D) To control the receipt and issue
of public money and to ensure
that the public revenue is
lodged in the Exchequer
21. The ultimate responsibility of
taking due action on the comments
of the Comptroller and Auditor
General vests with
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]
(A) President of India
(B) Supreme Court
(C) Parliament
(D) National Development Council
22. Who amongst the following attends
the meetings of the Public Accounts
Committee of the Parliament?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Attorney General of India
(B) Solicitor General of India
(C) Comptroller and Auditor
General of India
(D) None of the above
23. The Comptroller and Auditor
General is appointed by the
President. He can be removed
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) By the President
(B) On an address from both
Houses of Parliament
(C) By the Supreme Court
(D) On the recommendation of
the President by the Supreme
Court
24. The Comptroller and Auditor
General of India is a friend and
guide of [UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) Select Committee
(B) Estimates Committee
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Public Accounts Committee
25. The Amendment to (CAG Duties,
Power and Condition of Service
Act) 1971 separates Accounts
from Audit and relieves the CAG
of his responsibility in the matters
of preparation of Accounts. The
amendments were made in the
year [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) 1972 (B) 1976
(C) 1980 (D) 1987
26. Who is called the Guardian of
Public Purse? [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) President
(B) Comptroller and Auditor
General
(C) Parliament
(D) Council of Ministers

27. C.A.G. (Comptroller and Auditor
General) of India acts as
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Mains) 2007]
(A) The Guardian of people’s
liberties
(B) The Guardian of Public Finance
(C) The Chief Legal Advisor of the
Government
(D) The guardian of all these
28. Which of the following options is
not correct?
Public Finance Studies financial
activities of the Government. It
consists of .... . [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) Analysis of Public Expenditure
(B) Public Revenue
(C) Financial Administration
(D) Functioning of Commercial
Bank
29. Consider the following statements
about the Attorney General of
India.
1. He is appointed by the
President of India.
2. He must have the same
qualifications as are required
for a Judge of the Supreme
Court.
3. He must be a member of either
House of Parliament.
4. He can be removed by impeach-
ment by Parliament.
Indian Polity and Governance 351
Which of these statements are
correct? [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014
IAS (Pre) 2000]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
30. Consider the following statements.
Attorney General of India can
1. take part in the proceedings of
the Lok Sabha.
2. be a member of a committee of
the Lok Sabha.
3. speak in the Lok Sabha.
4. vote in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2013]
32. Consider the following statements.
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3
31. In India, other than ensuring that
public funds are used efficiently
and for the intended purpose, what
is the importance of the office of the
Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG)?
1. CAG exercises exchequer con-
trol on behalf of the Parliament
when the President of India
declares national emergency/
financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of
projects or programmes by the
ministries are discussed by the
Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports
can be used by investigat-
ing agencies to press charges
against those who have vio-
lated the law while managing
public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit
and accounting of government
companies, CAG has certain
judicial powers for prosecuting
those who violate the law.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) Only 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. The Advocate General of a
State in India is appointed by
the President of India upon
the recommendation of the
Governor of the concerned
State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure
Code, High Courts have
original appellate and advisory
jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (C) 32. (D)

16. Preference Hierarchy

1. Who is the Highest Ranking Civilian (C) Chief of Staffs (B) Defence Secretary
Officer in Govt. of India? (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha (C) Cabinet Secretary
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003] 3. As per Indian Protocol, who among (D) Lt. Governor of Delhi
(A)
Lt. Governor of Delhi the following ranks highest in the 5. Consider the following functio-
(B)
Defence Secretary of India order of precedence? [IAS (Pre) 2003] naries.
(C)
Cabinet Secretary of India (A) Deputy Prime Minister 1. Cabinet Secretary
(D)
Principal Secretary to Prime (B) Former President 2. Chief Election Commissioner
Minister of India (C) Governor of a State within his 3. Union Cabinet Minister
2. In the Government of India Table of State 4. Chief Justice of India
Precedence which of the following (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha Their correct sequence in the Order
come/comes above the Chief Jus- 4. Who is the topmost civilian officer of Precedence is [IAS (Pre) 2000]
tice of India? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1997] in Government of India? (A) 3, 4, 2, 1 (B) 4, 3, 1, 2
(A) Attorney General of India [MPPCS (Pre) 1998] (C) 4, 3, 2, 1 (D) 3, 4, 1, 2
(B) Former Presidents (A) Home Secretary

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C)
352 Objective General Studies
1. Which one of the following is not
correct with regard to the elections
to the Lok Sabha?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) The elections are on the basis of
adult suffrage
(B) The Election Commission is re-
quired to conduct the elections
(C) The electoral rolls are prepared
under the direction and control
of the President of India
(D) On the request of the Election
Commission, the President is
required to make available to
the Election Commission such
staff as may be necessary for
the discharge of its functions
2. A candidate of Lok Sabha Poll loses
his security amount if he/she does
not get [40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
(A) 1/3 of valid votes
(B) 1/4 of valid votes
(C) 1/5 of valid votes
(D) None of the above
3. What is the minimum age laid
down for a person to seek election
to the Lok Sabha?
[45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) 18 years (B) 21 years
(C) 25 years (D) None of these
4. For election to the Lok Sabha, a
nomination paper can be filed by
[IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Anyone residing in India
(B) A resident of the constituency
from which the election is to be
contested
(C) Any citizen of India whose
name appears in the electoral
roll of a constituency
(D) Any citizen of India
5. The 84th Amendment Act has
frozen the total number of existing
seats in the Lok Sabha on the basis
of 1971 Census. They shall remain
unaltered till the first Census to be
taken after the year
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005
47th BPSC (Pre) 2005]
(A) 2010 (B) 2015
(C) 2021 (D) 2026
6. Maximum strength of Lok Sabha
as stipulated in the Constitution of
India is [MPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) 547 (B) 545
(C) 552 (D) None of these
7. The Strength of the Lok Sabha was
increased from 525 to 545 through
17. Lok Sabha
which Amendment? 15. The provision for the representation
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] of Anglo-Indian Community in the
(A) 31st (B) 35th Legislative Assemblies of the States
(C) 42nd (D) 45th has been made in the Constitution
8. According to the Article 82 of the of India under
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014]
Constitution of India, the allocation
of seats in Lok Sabha to the states is (A) Article 330
on the basis of the ..... Census. (B) Article 331
[MPPCS (Pre) 2008 (C) Article 332
UPPCS (Mains) 2003 (D) Article 333
42nd BPSC (Pre) 1998]
16. How many members may be
(A) 1961 (B) 1971 nominated by the President from
(C) 1981 (D) 1991 Anglo-Indian Community, if he is
9. The statewise seat allocation in Lok of the opinion that the community
Sabha is based on is not adequately represented in the
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005] House of the People?
(A) Population (B) Area [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(C) Pverty (D) Language (A) 3 (B) 5
10. There is no reservation for SC and (C) 1 (D) 2
ST for Lok Sabha in 17. The President of India can nominate
[UPPCS (Pre) 2000] two members in the Lok Sabha to
(A) Arunachal Pradesh give representation to
(B) Jammu and Kashmir [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(C) Meghalaya (A) Indian Christians
(D) All of the above (B) Anglo-Indians
11. Reservation of seats for Scheduled (C) Buddhists
Tribes in the Lok Sabha does not (D) Parsis
exist in the states of 18. Which of the following Constitu-
[UPPCS (Pre) 1998] tional Amendments is related to
(A) Kerala and Tamil Nadu raising the number of Members of
(B) Karnataka and Kerala Lok Sabha to be elected from the
(C) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka States? [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005
(D) All of the above IAS (Pre) 2003]
12. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes (A) 6th and 22nd
under the direct control of the (B) 13th and 38th
[UPPCS (Pre) 1997] (C) 7th and 31st
(A) Union Home Ministry (D) 11th and 42nd
(B) Ministry of Parliamentary
19. Before completing term, Lok Sabha
Affairs can be dissolved
(C) Prime Minister [42nd BPCS (Pre) 1997]
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(A) By the discretion of President
13. Which one of the following states
elects the largest number of (B) By the discretion of Prime
members representing Scheduled Minister
Tribes to the House of People? (C) By the discretion of the Speaker
[UPPCS (Pre) 1997] of the Lok Sabha
(A) Andhra Pradesh (D) By the President on the recom-
(B) Bihar mendation of Prime Minister
20. Prior to the completion of tenure,
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra the Lok Sabha can be dissolved
[40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
14. Who holds power to appoint the
nominees from Anglo-Indian (A) By the will of President
Community in the Lok Sabha? (B) By Speaker
[44th BPSC (Pre) 2000] (C) By the President on the recom-
(A) Minorities Commission mendation of Council of
(B) President of India Ministers
(C) Prime Minister (D) By the President on the recom-
(D) Vice-President mendation of the Speaker
 Indian Polity and Governance 353
21. Session of Lok Sabha is called for (C) Can be extended by one year at (C) Madhya Pradesh and Tamil
atleast [42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997] a time during the proclamation Nadu
(A) Once in a year of emergency (D) Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
(B) Two times in a year (D) Can be extended for two 37. Which one of the following pairs is
(C) Three times in a year years at a time during the not correctly matched?
(D) Four times in a year proclamation of emergency [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
22. The quorum of Lok Sabha and 30. The tenure of which Lok Sabha was States Seats in
Rajya Sabha is about 6 years? Lok Sabha
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2008 [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016] (A) Andhra Pradesh - 25
UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 2006 (A) 5th Lok Sabha (B) Assam - 13
MPPCS (Pre) 1995] (B) 7th Lok Sabha (C) Punjab - 13
(A) 1/5 of the total membership (C) 9th Lok Sabha (D) West Bengal - 42
(B) 1/6 of the total membership (D) 11th Lok Sabha 38. From which of the following States
(C) 1/10 of the total membership 31. In India which State has the largest two members of the Lok Sabha are
(D) 1/8 of the total membership representation in Lok Sabha and elected? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
23. The maximum number of members Rajya Sabha? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012 (A) Tripura (B) Mizoram
in Lok Sabha can be 42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997
UPPCS (Pre) 1995] (C) Nagaland (D) Sikkim
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
(A) Uttar Pradesh 39. Which among the following group
(A) 540 (B) 545 of States/Union Territories has
(C) 550 (D) 555 (B) Madhya Pradesh
only one seat in the Lok Sabha?
24. What is the fixed number of (C) Maharashtra
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
members of Lok Sabha? (D) Andhra Pradesh
(A) Goa, Meghalaya, Nagaland
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010] 32. So long as the representation in Lok
(B) Manipur, Dadra and Nagar
(A) 541 (B) 543 Sabha is concerned, which states
Haveli, Puducherry
(C) 444 (D) 545 rank second and third?
[39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim,
25. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes Lakshadweep
under the direct supervision of (A) Maharashtra and West Bengal
(D) Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (B) Madhya Pradesh and Tamil
Nadu 40. After delimitation the largest Lok
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs Sabha Constituency with a view to
(B) Ministry of Parliamentary (C) Madhya Pradesh and
number of voters in U.P. is
Affairs Maharashtra
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(C) President of India (D) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh
(A) Amethi (B) Unnao
(D) Lok Sabha Speaker 33. After Uttar Pradesh, the highest
(C) Lucknow (D) Baghpat
26. The Union Territories get represen- number of Lok Sabha seats have
been allotted to [UPPSC (GIC) 2008] 41. What is the maximum expenditure
tation in [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
limit for the Parliamentary Elec-
(A) Lok Sabha (A) Andhra Pradesh
tions of a Constituency?
(B) Rajya Sabha (B) Bihar [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(C) Both Houses of Parliament (C) Maharashtra (A) ` 25 lakhs (B) ` 40 lakhs
(D) None of the above (D) West Bengal (C) ` 70 lakhs (D) ` 1 crore
27. The sitting of House of the People 34. How many Lok Sabha seats are 42. First General Election of Lok Sabha
may the terminated by allocated to the State of Rajasthan? was held in [MPPCS (Pre) 2015
[UPPCS (Pre) 2000] [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017 Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005
(A) Adjournment RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003] 42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
(B) Prorogation (A) 27 (B) 26 (A) 1949 (B) 1952
(C) Dissolution (C) 25 (D) 24 (C) 1950 (D) 1954
(D) All of the above 35. In the case of election to the Lok 43. 9th Lok Sabha was dissolved on
28. Which one of the following is Sabha, the amount of Security [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
authorized to prorogue the session deposited by general category 42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
of the House of the People? candidates and SC/ST category (A) 13 March, 1991
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015] candidates respectively is
(B) June, 1996
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) Speaker (C) April, 1997
(B) Attorney General (A) ` 5,000 and ` 2,500
(D) February, 1998
(C) Minister of Parliamentary (B) ` 10,000 and ` 2,500
44. The election for 12th Lok Sabha of
(D) President (C) ` 10,000 and ` 5,000
India was held in
(D) ` 25,000 and ` 12,500
29. The term of the Lok Sabha [Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
[IAS (Pre) 2002] 36. Which one of the following pair 42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
of States has equal seats in Lok (A) April, 1996
(A) Cannot be extended under any
Sabha? [UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
circumstances (B) June, 1996
(B) Can be extended by six months (A) Punjab and Assam (C) April, 1997
at a time (B) Gujarat and Rajasthan (D) February, 1998
354 Objective General Studies
45. Who is the leader of the Lok
Sabha? [42nd BPSC (Pre) 1995]
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker
(D) None of the above
46. Which one of the following is the
largest (areawise) Lok Sabha
constituency? [IAS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Kangra (B) Ladakh
(C) Kachchh (D) Bhilwara
47. A seat of a M.P. can be declared
vacant if he absents himself from
the house for a continuous period
of [60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) Six months
(B) Two months
(C) Three months
(D) One year
48. In India Lok Sabha Speaker is
[IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Nominated (B) Chosen
(C) Elected (D) Appointed
49. Speaker of the Lok Sabha is chosen
by [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
(A) All members of Parliament
(B) Public directly
(C) All members of Lok Sabha
(D) The members of parties in
majority
50. Who among the following doesn’t
take oath of the office?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Speaker
51. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
addresses his letter of resignation
to the [UPPCS (Mains) 2008, 2014
MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President of India
52. How can the speaker of the Lok
Sabha be removed?
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
MPPCS (Mains) 1994]
(A) By a resolution of Lok Sabha
passed by a two-third Majority
of members present
(B) By a resolution of the Lok Sabha
passed by a majority of all the
members of the House
(C) By President on the advice of
the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
53. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be
removed from his office before the
expiry of his term
[UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
(A) By the President on the recom-
mendation of the Prime Minister
(B) If the Lok Sabha passes a
resolution to his effect
(C) It the Lok Sabha and the Prime
Minister so decide
(D) If both the Houses of Parliament
pass a resolution to this effect
54. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can
be removed by [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) A resolution of the Lok Sabha
passed by a majority of the
members of the House
(B) Two-third majority of the
members of the House
(C) Order of the President
(D) A simple majority of the
Parliament
55. Which one of the following state-
ments regarding the office of the
Speaker is correct? [IAS (Pre) 1993]
(A) He holds office during the
pleasure of the President
(B) He need not be a member of the
House at the time of his election
but has to become a member of
the House within six months
from the date of his election
(C) He loses his office if the house
is dissolved before the end of its
normal tenure
(D) If he intends to resign the
letter of his resignation is to
be addressed to the Deputy
Speaker
56. Who is generally appointed as a
Protem Speaker? [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) The Speaker of the outgoing
Lok Sabha
(B) The Dy. Speaker of the outgoing
Lok Sabha
(C) One of the senior most
members of the newly elected
Lok Sabha
(D) The leader of the opposition
party in the outgoing Lok Sabha
57. The function of the pro-Tem
Speaker is to [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Conduct the proceedings of
the House in the absence of the
Speaker
(B) Administer oath to members
(C) Officiate as a Speaker when
the Speaker is unlikely to be
elected
(D) Only check if the election
certificates of the members are
in order
58. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
makes use of his casting vote only
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) To save the existing
Government
(B) In case of Constitutional Amen-
dment
(C) In case of emergency
(D) In case of a tie when votes are
equally divided
59. Which one of the following Articles
of the Constitution provides that
the Speaker shall have and exercise
a casting vote in the case of an
equality of votes?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Article 99 (B) Article 103
(C) Article 100 (D) Article 102
60. Who was the First Speaker of Lok
Sabha? [MPPCS (Pre) 2012
UPPCS (Mains) 2011
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007
IAS (Pre) 2007
Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) Mavalankar
(B) Hukum Singh
(C) B.D. Jatti
(D) V.V. Giri
61. The first Speaker against whom
a Motion of Non-confidence was
moved in the Lok Sabha was
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004
UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) B.R. Jakhad
(B) G.V. Mavalankar
(C) Hukum Singh
(D) K.S. Hegde
62. The first female Speaker of Lok
Sabha is [UPPCS (Mains) 2008, 07]
(A) Vijay Laxmi Pandit
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Tarkeshwari Sinha
(D) Meira Kumar
63. At which of the following stages
general discussion on a Bill takes
place in the Lok Sabha?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) During introduction of the Bill
(B) During second reading
(C) During report stage
(D) During third reading
64. In case the Deputy Speaker is
presiding the Lok Sabha he has
right to [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Take part in its deliberations
(B) Vote on any proposition before
the House as a member
(C) Vote in the event of equality of
votes
(D) No right to preside a joint sitting
of the House of Parliament in
case the Speaker is absent
 Indian Polity and Governance 355
65. Who among the following was the above is/are correct? (A) Only 1, 2 and 3
first Tribal Speaker of Lok Sabha? [IAS (Pre) 2012] (B) Only 1, 3 and 4
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015] (A) 1 and 2 (C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(A) G.V. Mavalankar (B) Only 3 (D) Only 1, 2 and 4
(B) G.M.C. Joshi (C) 1, 2 and 3 70. Match the representation of States
(C) Manohar Joshi (D) None of the above in Lok Sabha.
(D) P.A. Sangama 68. Which of the following is not [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014]
66. Consider the following statements. correct? List-I (State)
1. In the election for Lok Sabha [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
(a) Andhra Pradesh
or State Assembly, the winning 1. Each money bill is finance bill. (b) Tamil Nadu
candidate must get atleast 50 2. Each finance bill is not a money (c) Maharashtra
percent of the votes polled, to bill.
(d) Chhattisgarh
be declared elected. 3. Finance bill can be introduced
in Lok Sabha only. (e) West Bengal
2. According to the provisions
laid down in the Constitution 4. Finance bill is presigned by the List-II (Representation)
of India, in Lok Sabha, the President. 1. 48 2. 11
Speaker’s post goes to the 5. Rajya Sabha can detain the 3. 25 4. 42
majority party and the Deputy finance bill for 14 days. 5. 39
Speaker’s to the Opposition. 6. President cannot refuse to sign Code
Which of the statements given on finance bill. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
above is/are correct? 7. Rajya Sabha can amend the (A) 1 3 4 5 2
[IAS (Pre) 2017] finance bill. (B) 5 4 2 1 3
(A) Only 1 8. On deadlock on finance bill (C) 2 4 3 1 5
(B) Only 2 joint session can be called.
(D) 3 5 1 2 4
(C) Both 1 and 3 Code
71. Assertion (A): N.D.A. Govern-
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) 2 and 4 ment does not like discussion under
67. Regarding the office of the Lok (B) 5 and 6 Rule 184 of Rules of Procedure and
Sabha Speaker, consider the (C) 3 and 7 Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
following statements. (D) 1 and 8 Reason (R): This Rule provides for
1. He/She holds the office during 69. Consider the following statements voting also alongwith discussion.
the pleasure of the President. in relation to woman members of Give correct answer by using.
2. He/She need not be a member 15th Lok Sabha. [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
of the House at the time of his/ 1. They are less than 10% of total UPPCS (Pre) 2001]
her election but has to become members. Code
a member of the House within 2. Maximum of them belong to
six months from the date of his/ (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Indian National Congress. (R) is the correct explanation of
her election. 3. Three members are elected (A)
3. If he/she intends to resign, the from Rajasthan.
letter of his/her resignation has (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
4. Maximum women members but (R) is not the correct
to be addressed to the Deputy are elected from Uttar Pradesh.
Speaker. explanation of (A)
Which is/are true? (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Which of the statement(s) given [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013] (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (D)
51. (C) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (A)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (C) 65. (D) 66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (C) 70. (D)
71. (A)
356 Objective General Studies
1. The Representation of States in
Council of States is based on
[38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
(A) Equal for all States
(B) Ratio of their Population
(C) Ratio of their Area
(D) Ratio of their Revenue
2. The members of Council of States
are elected by [UPPCS (Pre) 1990]
(A) Members of Legislative
Assembly of States
(B) Members of Legislative Council
of States
(C) Members of both Legislative
Assembly and Council
(D) Members of Municipalities and
Gram Panchayat
3. In which year was Rajya Sabha
Constituted for the first time?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) 1950 (B) 1951
(C) 1952 (D) 1953
4. The Rajya Sabha consists of
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) 280 members of which 20
members are nominated by the
President of India
(B) 275 members of which 18
members are nominated by the
President of India
(C) 250 members of which 12
members are nominated by the
President of India
(D) 252 members of which 12
members are nominated by the
President of India
5. What is the tenure of a member of
Council of State? [UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
(A) 3 years (B) 5 years
(C) 6 years (D) 2 years
6. Member of Rajya Sabha is elected
[42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
(A) For four years
(B) For five years
(C) For six years
(D) For life long
7. Rajya Sabha is called Permanent
House because [41st BPSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) All members are lifelong
(B) It cannot be dissolved
(C) Some members retire after
every two years
(D) Both (B) and (C) are true
8. According to our Constitution, the
Rajya Sabha
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
(A) is dissolved once in two years
18. Rajya Sabha
(B) is dissolved every five years
(C) is dissolved every six years
(D) is not subject of dissolution
9. Right to dissolve the Rajya Sabha is
vested in [39th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) None of the above
10. Which one of the following
statements about Rajya Sabha is
correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) It is not subject to dissolution
(B) Its members are chosen by
direct election from territorial
constituencies in the States
(C) It is required to choose, as soon
as may be a member of the
Rajya Sabha to be the Chairman
thereof
(D) The Attorney General of India
does not have the right to speak
in Rajya Sabha
11. How is Rajya Sabha dissolved?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) At the end of Chairman’s tenure
(B) President dissolves after 5 years
(C) Dissolves with Lok Sabha
automatically
(D) None of the above
12. The number of members nominated
by the President in Rajya Sabha is
[39th BPSC (Pre) 1996
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
(A) 10 (B) 15
(C) 12 (D) 20
13. The first actress to be nominated to
Rajya Sabha [MPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) Jayalalitha
(B) Nargis Dutt
(C) Vaijayanthimala
(D) Devika Rani
14. Which of the following statements
is correct regarding the Rajya
Sabha? [UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) One-third of its members retire
every two years
(B) One-half of its members retire
every two years
(C) One-half of its members retire
every three years
(D) One-third of its members retire
every three years
15. Which one of the following comes
under the exclusive power of the
Council of States? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) Creation of new All India
Services
(B) Election of Vice-President of
India during casual vacancy
(C) Abolition of Legislative Council
of any State
(D) Removal of its chairman
16. Which one of the following
statements is not correct regarding
the power of the Parliament to
legislate on a matter in the State
List? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) The Rajya Sabha has to declare
that it would be necessary in
the national interest
(B) A resolution has be passed by
Rajya Sabha by not less than
two-third of the members
present and voting
(C) The legislation could be for the
whole or any part of the Country
(D) Only the Rajya Sabha can make
laws with respect to a matter
in the State list in the national
interest
17. The Parliament of India acquires
the power to legislate on any item
in the State List in the national
interest if a resolution to that effect
is passed by the [IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Lok Sabha by a simple majority
of its total membership
(B) Lok Sabha by a majority of not
less than two-third of its total
membership
(C) Rajya Sabha by a simple
majority of its total membership
(D) Rajya Sabha by a majority of
not less than two-third of its
members present and voting
18. Which of the following special
powers has been conferred on the
Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of
India? [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) To change the existing territory
of a State and to change the
name of a State
(B) To pass a resolution empowe-
ring the Parliament to make
laws in the State List and to
create one or more All India
Services
(C) To amend the election
procedure of the President
and to determine the pension
of the President after his/her
retirement
(D) To determine the functions of
the Election Commission and
to determine the number of
Election Commissioners

19. Which of the following Articles of
the Indian Constitution empowers
the Parliament to legislate on any
matter in the State List?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Article 115 (B) Article 116
(C) Article 226 (D) Article 249
20. A resolution passed by the Rajya
Sabha under Article 249 of the
constitution empowering Parliam-
ent to legislate on a state subject in
national interest remains in force
for a period. [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Not exceeding six months
(B) Not exceeding two years
(C) Not exceeding one year
(D) Of unlimited time
21. What is the consequence of the
failure of Government in Rajya
Sabha? [MPPCS (Pre) 1990]
(A) Prime Minister gives his
resignation
(B) Parliament will dissolve
(C) The operation of President Rule
(D) None of the above
22. Which one of the following
statements correctly describes the
Fourth Schedule of the Constitution
of India? [IAS (Pre) 2001]
(A) It lists the distribution of
powers between the Union and
the States
(B) It contains the languages listed
in the Constitution
(C) It contains provisions for the
administration of Tribal areas
(D) It allocates seats in the Council
of States
23. Which one of the following pairs of
states has equal representation in
the Council of States?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) Andhra Pradesh and
Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
(C) Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
24. Seats allocated to Uttar Pradesh in
the Council of States are the total
number of seats allocated to
[UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Madhya
Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil
Nadu
(C) Bihar and Gujarat
(D) Maharashtra and Karnataka
25. Given below is a list of States
alongwith seats allotted to them in
the Council of States. Which one of
them is not matched?
[IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Madhya Pradesh - 16
(B) Maharashtra - 19
(C) Tamil Nadu - 18
(D) West Bengal - 16
26. Which among the following States
has the lowest number of elected
members in the Rajya Sabha?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010, 2006]
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Gujarat
27. The Chairman of Council of States
(Rajya Sabha) is
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2013]
(A) Appointed by President
(B) Elected by Parliament
(C) Vice-President is ex-officio
Chairman
(D) Elected by members of State
Council
28. In which House is the presiding
officer not a member of that
House? [48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Vidhan Sabha
(D) Vidhan Parishad
29. The ex-officio Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha is [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) The Vice-President
(B) The President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Speaker
30. Which one of the following Houses
is presided over by a non-Member?
[UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) State Legislative Assembly
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) None of the above
31. Which one of the following is
Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1993, 1990
42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Vice President of India
(C) The person elected to this post/
office
(D) President of India
32. Who among the following can
participate in the deliberations of
Lok Sabha while being a member of
Rajya Sabha?
[Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013]
Indian Polity and Governance 357
(A) Nominated member of Rajya
Sabha who is an expert in a
field
(B) Deputy Chairperson of Rajya
Sabha
(C) Minister who is a member of
Rajya Sabha
(D) Leader of the House in Rajya
Sabha
33. The minimum age required to be a
candidate for Council of States is
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
(A) 25 years (B) 30 years
(C) 32 years (D) 35 years
34. What is the fixed strength of Rajya
Sabha? [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) 220 (B) 230
(C) 210 (D) 250
35. What will follow if money bill is
substantially amended by Rajya
Sabha? [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Lok Sabha may still proceed
with the bill accepting or not
accepting the recommendati-
ons of Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha cannot consider the
bill further
(C) Lok Sabha may send the bill
to Rajya Sabha for reconsider-
ation
(D) President may call a joint sitting
for passing the bill
36. Consider the following statements.
1. Union Territories are not
represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the
Chief Election Commissioner
to adjudicate the election
disputes.
3. According to the Constitution
of India, the Parliament consist
of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha only.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019
IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) None of the above
37. Consider the following statements.
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power
either to reject or to amend a
Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote
on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot
discuss the Annual Financial
Statements.
358 Objective General Studies
Which of the statements given 39. Which of the following are correct Code
above is/are correct? about the Rajya Sabha? (a) (b) (c) (d)
[Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019 1. It is not a subject to dissolution. (A) 1 4 3 2
IAS (Pre) 2015] 2. It has a term of five years. (B) 3 2 4 1
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 3. One-third of its members retire (C) 2 3 1 4
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 after every two years. (D) 1 2 3 4
38. Consider the following statements 4. Its member shall not be less 41. Match List-I with List-II and select
with respect to qualification to than 25 years of age. the correct answer using the code
become the member of Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer using the given below the lists.
and select the correct answer from code given below. [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2015
the code given below. [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2018 (A) 1, 2 and 3 List-I (States)
MPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(B) 2, 3 and 4 (a) Andhra Pradesh
1. Should be atleast 30 years of (C) 1 and 3
age. (b) Maharashtra
(D) 2 and 4 (c) Karnataka
2. Should be registered as a voter
40. Match List-I with List-II and select (d) West Bengal
on the list of voters in the state
the correct answer using the code List-II (Seats)
from which the candidate is to
given below the lists. 1. 11 2. 19
be elected.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
3. Should not hold office of profit 3. 12 4. 16
under the state. List-I (States)
Code
Code (a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) Kerala (d) Odisha
(A) 1 and 2 are correct (A) 1 2 3 4
List-II (No. of members in (B) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
Rajya Sabha)
(C) 2 and 3 are correct (C) 2 1 4 3
1. 9 2. 11
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (D) 4 2 3 1
3. 12 4. 10

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (C)
41. (A)

19. The Parliament

1. Formation of Parliament is com- (A) Once (B) Twice (D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and
pleted by [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002] (C) Thrice (D) Four times Parliament Secretariat
(A) Only House of the People 4. What should be the interval be- 6. Who/which of the following is not
(B) House of the People and Prime tween the two consecutive sessions an integral part of Parliament?
Minister of Parliament? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
(C) House of the People, Council of [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994] UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
States and Prime Minister (A) Four months (A) President
(D) House of the People, Council of (B) Six months (B) Vice-President
States and President (C) 1 year (C) Lok Sabha
2. Indian Parliament consists of (D) Fixed by the President (D) Rajya Sabha
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 2011 5. Which of the following constitute 7. The membership of a Parliament/
UPPCS (Pre) 2012] the Indian Parliament? Legislative Assembly’s membership
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015 may be terminated if he remains
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] absent without informing to
Prime Minister (A) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya respective House for a term of
(C) Speaker and Lok Sabha Sabha [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018
(D) President and both the House (B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and MPPCS (Pre) 1992]
of Parliament Prime Minister (A) 60 days
3. Maximum how many times the (C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and (B) 90 days
Parliament has to meet in a year? Minister for Parliamentary (C) 120 days
[UPPCS (Pre) 1995] Affairs (D) 150 days

8. For the first time, a MP/MLA was
disqualified from the membership
on the ground of remaining absent
from sixty consecutive meetings of
the House without the permission.
He was a member of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Council of States
(B) House of People
(C) Punjab Legislative Assembly
(D) Rajasthan Legislative Assembly
9. Which one of the following provi-
sions deals with the privileges and
immunities of the Members of Par-
liament under the Constitution of
India? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Article 104 (B) Article 105
(C) Article 82 (D) Article 117
10. Which one of the following is not a
collective privilege of the members
of Parliament? [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Freedom of debates and
proceedings
(B) The Rights to regulate the
internal matters of the
Parliament
(C) Freedom from attendance as
Witness
(D) The privilegeds of excluding
strangers from the house
11. Privilege motion can be raised
against a Minister when he
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Loses confidence in the
Government
(B) Absents himself for a long time
(C) Withholds facts of a case or
given distorted versions of facts
(D) Limit value
12. Who among the following has the
right to vote in the elections to
both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha? [IAS (Pre) 1995]
(A) Elected members of the Lower
House of the Parliament
(B) Elected members of the Upper
House of the Parliament
(C) Elected members of the Upper
House of the state Legislature
(D) Elected members of the Lower
House of the state Legislature
13. Which one of the following state-
ments is correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Only the Rajya Sabha and
not the Lok Sabha can have
nominated members
(B) There is a Constitutional
provision for nominating two
members belonging to the
Anglo-Indian community to the
Rajya Sabha
(C) There is no Constitutional bar
for nominated members to be
appointed as a Union Minister
(D) A nominated member can vote
both in the Presidential and
Vice-Presidential elections
14. Parliament may legislate on any
subject of State List when
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) There is assent of President
(B) Resolution thereof has been
passed by State
(C) In any situation
(D) General permission of State
Legislative Assembly has ben
received
15. The Parliament can make law
for the whole or any part of India
for implementing International
Treaties. [UPPCS (Pre) 2006
IAS (Pre) 2000]
(A) With the consent of all the
States
(B) With the consent of majority of
States
(C) With the consent of the States
concerned
(D) Without the consent of any
State
16. Who can legislate on the subjects
which are not included in any of
the lists of subjects given in the
Constitution?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Parliament
(C) State Legislature
(D) Regional Councils
17. Which one of the following
statement is correct? [IAS (Pre) 1994]
(A) All the members of Council
of States are elected by State
Legislative Assemblies
(B) As the Vice-President is the ex-
officio Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha, only a member of the
Rajya Sabha can contest for the
office of the Vice-President
(C) A point difference between the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
is that while a candidate to Lok
Sabha can contest from any
State in India, a candidate to the
Rajya Sabha should ordinarily
be a resident of the State from
where he is contesting
(D) The Constitution of India
explicitly prohibits the
appointment of a nominated
member of the Rajya Sabha to
the post of minister
Indian Polity and Governance 359
18. Which of the following procedures
will enable the adoption of a Money
Bill that was once passed by the
Lok Sabha but was amended by the
Rajya Sabha? [UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) It will go to the President
(B) The Lok Sabha will have pass
it with 2/3rd majority of the
members sitting and voting
(C) A Joint session of the two
Houses will be called
(D) It will be deemed to have been
passed if the Lok Sabha passes
it again either by accepting or
rejecting the amendments
19. The Speaker can ask a member of
the House to stop speaking and
let another member speak. This
phenomenon is known as
[IAS (Pre) 2000]
(A) Decorum
(B) Crossing the floor
(C) Interpellation
(D) Yielding the floor
20. ‘Zero Hour’ is the contribution of
which country to the Parliamentary
System? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) India (B) America
(C) Britain (D) Switzerland
21. What could be the maximum time
limit of ‘Zero Hour’ in the Lok
Sabha? [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) 30 minutes
(B) One hour
(C) Indefinite period
(D) Two hours
22. Time of zero hour in Parliament is
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) 9 am to 10 am
(B) 10 am to 11 am
(C) 11 am to 12 noon
(D) 12 noon to 1:00 pm
23. Zero Hour in political jargon refers
to [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) Day when no business in
Parliament is done
(B) Suspended motion
(C) Adjourned time
(D) Question-answer session
24. The Parliament can make any
law for whole or any part of India
for implementing international
treaties [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) With the consent of all the
States
(B) With the consent of the majority
of States
(C) With the consent of the States
concerned
(D) Without the consent of any
State
360 Objective General Studies
25. Under which Article of the Indian
Constitution, the Parliament can
make laws on State List subject
for giving effect to international
agreements? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016
UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Article 249 (B) Article 250
(C) Article 252 (D) Article 253
26. Which one of the following
statements is correct?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) A Money Bill is introduced in
the Rajya Sabha
(B) A Money Bill can be introduced
in either of the two Houses of
the Parliament
(C) A Money Bill cannot be
introduced in the Lok Sabha
(D) A Money Bill is introduced in
the Lok Sabha
27. A Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha
is deemed to have been passed by
Rajya Sabha also when no action is
taken by the Rajya Sabha within
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016
Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) 10 days (B) 14 days
(C) 15 days (D) 16 days
28. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance
Bill sent for its consideration by Lok
Sabha for a maximum period of
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) One month
(B) One year
(C) Seven days
(D) Fourteen days
29. In how many days Rajya Sabha has
to return Money Bill to Lok Sabha?
[UP Lower (Pre) 2009
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013
UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]
(A) Within 12 days
(B) Within 14 days
(C) Within 16 days
(D) Within 18 days
30. Which one of the following
statements is correct?
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010
UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Money Bill is introduced in
Rajya Sabha
(B) Money Bill is introduced in Lok
Sabha
(C) It can be introduced in either of
the Houses of the Parliament
(D) It cannot be introduced in Lok
Sabha
31. When a bill is referred to a joint
sitting of both the Houses of the
Parliament, it has to be passed by
[IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) A simple majority of members
present and voting
(B) Three-fourth majority of
members present and voting
(C) Two-third majority of the
Houses
(D) Absolute majority of the Houses
32. Who presides over the joint
session of both the Houses of the
Parliament? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014
UPPCS (Mains) 2010
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Speaker
(B) Vice-President
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister
33. Who among the following is
authorised to preside over the joint
session of the Parliament?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2013, 2006
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013
UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) President of India
(B) Vice-President of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
34. The 1st Joint meeting of both
Houses of the Indian Parliament
was held in connection with
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2004]
(A) Dowry Abolition Bill
(B) Hindu Code Bill
(C) Bank Nationalisation Bill
(D) Gold Control Bill
35. The joint sitting of both Houses
of Indian Parliament is held in
connection with [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) Constitution Amendment Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Ordinary Bill
(D) Election of the Vice-President
of India
36. A legislative bill may be introduced
in which House of Parliament?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) None of the above
37. Who has the right to issue money
from the Consolidated Fund of
India? [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) Comptroller and Auditor
General
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Authorized Minister
(D) Parliament
38. Which one of the following
expenditure is not charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Salary and allowances of the
Chief Justice of India
(B) Salary and allowances of
the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India
(C) Salary and allowances of the
Prime Minister of India
(D) Salary and allowances of the
Chairman of the Union Public
Service Commission
39. Which one of the following is not a
mandatory expenditure charged on
the Consolidated Fund of India?
[Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) Debt Charges for which
Government of India is liable
(B) Salary and Pension of the
members of the Election
Commission of India
(C) Pension payable to Judges of
High Courts
(D) Allowances of Deputy Chair-
man of Council of States
40. Which one of the following
expenditures is not charged on the
Consolidates Fund of India?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Salary and allowances of the
President of India
(B) Salary and allowances of the
Vice-President of India
(C) Salary and allowances of the
Justices of the Supreme Court
of India
(D) Salary and allowances of the
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
41. The authorization for the withdr-
awal of funds from the Consolidated
Fund of India must come from
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) The President of India
(B) The Parliament of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Union Finance Minister
42. How can the President spend from
Contingency Fund?
[Haryana PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(A) In time of natural calamity
(B) After Authorization of
Parliament
(C) Before Authorization of
Parliament
(D) Cannot spend

43. All revenues received by the Union
Government by way of taxes and
other receipts for the conduct of
Government business are credited
to the [IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Contingency Fund of India
(B) Public Account
(C) Consolidated Fund of India
(D) Deposits and Advances Fund
44. Money Bill has been defined by the
Constitution under Article.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) 109
(B) 110
(C) 111
(D) Both (B) and (C)
45. Who among the following decides
whether a particular Bill is a Money
Bill? [UPPCS (Mains) 2014
Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019]
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) The Cabinet
46. Which one of the following
statements about a Money Bill is
not correct? [IAS (Pre) 2000]
(A) A Money Bill can be tabled in
either House of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is
the final authority to decide
whether a Bill is a Money Bill or
not
(C) The Rajya Sabha must return
a Money Bill passed by the
Lok Sabha and sent it for
consideration within 14 days
(D) The President cannot return a
Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for
reconsideration
47. A Money Bill under the Constitution
of India is tabled in the
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
simultaneously
48. Of the following statements, which
one is not correct?
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) The Rajya Sabha is powerless in
money matters
(B) Money Bill is introduced in the
Rajya Sabha
(C) The Rajya Sabha has to pass the
Money Bill within 14 days after
it has been passed by the Lok
Sabha
(D) The Rajya Sabha may pass or
return the Money Bill with
some recommendations to the
Lok Sabha
49. Which one of the following subject
is not included in the provisions of
the Money Bills?
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010]
(A) Provision regarding taxes
(B) Provision regarding borrowings
(C) Provision regarding custody of
the Consolidated and Contin-
gency Funds
(D) Provision for imposition of
fines or penalties
50. A Bill which merely involves
expenditure and does not include
any of the matters specified in
Article 110 can be
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Initiated only in Lok Sabha
(B) Initiated in either House of
Parliament
(C) Initiated only in Rajya Sabha
(D) Initiated only in joint session of
both House of Parliament
51. Which one of the following
statements is not correct with
regard to control of Parliament on a
budget? [IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Parliament does not have
any role in the creation of the
budget
(B) Parliament has the power to
move on the affected expendi-
ture on the Consolidated Fund
(C) Parliament has no power to
impose a tax without the recom-
mendation of the President
(D) Parliament has no power
to increase any tax without
the recommendation of the
President
52. Which of the following is
responsible for preparation and
presentation of union budget in the
Parliament? [IAS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Department of Revenue
(B) Department of Economic
Affairs
(C) Department of Financial
Services
(D) Department of Expenditure
53. If the annual Union Budget is not
passed by the Lok Sabha ..... .
[IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) The Budget is modified and
presented again
(B) The Budget is referred to the
Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(C) The Union Finance Minister is
asked to resign
Indian Polity and Governance 361
(D) The Prime Minister submits
the resignation of Council of
Ministers
54. If budget is disclosed before
introducing in the Legislative
Assembly, what will happen?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Council of Ministers will have
to resign
(B) Chief Minister will have to
resign
(C) Finance Minister will have to
resign
(D) All of the above
55. Under which of the following
taxes the total amount payable
by an individual is limited by the
Constitution?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 2002]
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Estate Duty
(C) Succession Duty
(D) Tax on profession, trade and
callings
56. Economic Survey is presented in
Parliament every year
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Before presentation of the
Budget for the coming year
(B) After presentation of the
Budget for the coming year
(C) After presentation of Finance
Bill
(D) And has no relation with
presentation of the Budget
57. ‘Votes on Account’ permits Union
Government to [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Go for public loan
(B) Borrow money from the
Reserve Bank of India
(C) Give grant-in-aid to States
(D) Withdraw money from the
Consolidated Fund of India for
specific period
58. Vote on Account is meant for
[Tripura PSC (Pre) 2018
60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) Vote on the report of CAG
(B) To meet unforeseen expendi-
ture
(C) Appropriating funds pending
passing of budget
(D) Budget
59. Votes on Account in the Parliament
is necessary
[Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2008]
(A) When Government expenditure
is more than Government
revenue
362 Objective General Studies
(B) For financing big projects in
which huge amount of money is
required
(C) When regular budget is not
expected to be passed in time
(D) None of the above
60. Estimates of expenditure are
submitted to the Parliament of
India in the form of
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Adhoc Funds
(B) Excess Grants
(C) Supplementary Grants
(D) Demands for Grants
61. Which one of the following
statements is correct regarding
submission of Money Bill?
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
(A) The Finance Bill is presented in
Rajya Sabha
(B) It can be presented in either
House of Parliament
(C) It cannot be presented in Lok
Sabha
(D) It is presented in Lok Sabha
62. The Finance Bill of Indian
Government is presented in
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Upper House
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Legislative Council
(D) Lower House
63. Which of the following proposals is
related to the Union Budget?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
(A) Censure motion
(B) Calling attention
(C) Cut motion
(D) Adjournment motion
64. According to the Law enacted by
Parliament in December 1989, the
legal age for a citizen to become
major is [UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) 23 years (B) 22 years
(C) 20 years (D) 18 years
65. The Consultative Committee of
Members of Parliament for Railway
Zones is constituted by which of the
following? [MPPCS (Pre) 2012
IAS (Pre) 2005]
(A) President of India
(B) Ministry of Railways
(C) Ministry of Parliamentary Af-
fairs
(D) Ministry of Transport
66. With reference to Indian Polity,
which one of the following state-
ments is correct? [IAS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Planning Commission is
accountable to Parliament
(B) President can make ordinance
only when either of the two
Houses of Parliament is not in
session
(C) The minimum age prescribed
for appointment as a Judge of
the Supreme Court in 40 years
(D) National development Council
is constituted of Union
Finance Minister and the Chief
Ministers of all the States
67. Which one of the following is
the largest Committee of the
Parliament? [IAS (Pre) 2014]
(A) The Committee on Public
Accounts
(B) The Committee on Estimates
(C) The Committee on Public
Undertakings
(D) The Committee on Petitions
68. Tenure of the members of the
Estimates Committee is of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Two years (B) One year
(C) Three years (D) Four years
69. Which of the following is not a
tool of Parliamentary control over
Public expenditures?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Comptroller and Auditor
General of India
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Committee on Public Under-
takings
70. The members of Standing
Committee of Parliament are taken
from the Lok Sabha and Rajya
Sabha in which ratio?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) Two and one respectively
(B) Three and one respectively
(C) Four and one respectively
(D) In equal numbers from both the
Houses
71. The Provision for the Calling
Attention Notices has restricted the
scope of which of the following?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Short duration discussion
(B) Question Hour
(C) Adjournment Motion
(D) Zero Hour
72. In the Parliament of India, the
purpose of an adjournment motion
is [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) To allow a discussion on a
definite matter of urgent public
importance
(B) To let opposition members
collect information from the
ministers
(C) To allow a reduction of specific
amount in demand for grant
(D) To postpone the proceedings
to check the inappropriate or
violent behaviour on the part of
some members
73. The Secretariat of Parliament of
India is [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Under Minister of Parliamenta-
ry Affairs
(B) Under President
(C) Independent of the
Government
(D) Under the Supreme Court
74. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is
restricted by [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Powers of the President of India
(B) Judicial review
(C) Leader of the opposition
(D) Powers of the Prime Minister of
India
75. The Golden Jubilee of Indian
Parliament was celebrated on
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) 01-01-1997 (B) 15-08-1997
(C) 26-01-2002 (D) 13-05-2002
76. Who was the Nationalist leader to
be elected as Speaker of Central
Legislative Assembly in 1925?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
(A) Motilal Nehru
(B) Vitthalbhai Patel
(C) Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) C.R. Das
77. In which of the following Commit-
tees there is no representation of
Rajya Sabha? [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Committee on Public
Undertakings
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Committee on Government
Assurances
78. Public Accounts Committee present
its report to
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
(A) Parliament
(B) The President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Finance Minister
79. The Public Accounts Committee
submits its reports to
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011
Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) The Comptroller and Auditor
General
(B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) The Minister of Parliamentary
Affairs
(D) The President of India
 Indian Polity and Governance 363
80. The report of Public Accounts Parliament? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015] get themselves elected to either
Committee is presented in the (A) Committee on Public Accounts House of Parliament within six
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015] (B) Estimates Committee months after assuming office
(A) Lok Sabha (C) Committee on Public (B) Not more than 20 nominated
(B) President’s Office Undertakings members
(C) Finance Ministry (D) All of the above (C) Not more than 26
(D) Prime Minister’s Office 87. On which of the following, a representatives of Union
81. The main function of the Accounts Parliamentary Committee has not Territories
Committee of Parliament is been set up? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] (D) The Attorney General who has
[MPPCS (Pre) 1993] (A) Public Undertakings the right to speak and take part
(A) To examine the financial in the proceedings of either
(B) Government Assurances
account of the government House of Parliament
(C) Estimates
and report of Comptroller and 92. Which of the following is/are stated
(D) Welfare of Minorities in the Constitution of India?
Auditor General 88. The Joint Parliamentary Committee
(B) To appoint on higher posts of 1. The President shall not be a
set up for probing the 2G spectrum member of either House of
public sector units issue, consists of
(C) To examine the policy Parliament.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
according to financial provision 2. The Parliament shall consist of
(A) 15 members from each of the the President and two Houses.
(D) None of the above two Houses
82. Public Accounts Committee has the Choose the correct answer from the
(B) 20 members from Lok Sabha codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 1997]
following members. and 10 from Rajya Sabha
Give the correct answer from the (A) Neither 1 nor 2
(C) 18 members from Lok Sabha
code given below. and 12 members from Rajya (B) Both 1 and 2
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014] Sabha (C) Only 1
Lok Rajya Total (D) 16 members from Lok Sabha (D) Only 2
Sabha Sabha and 14 members from Rajya 93. The Parliament of India consist of
(A) 11 05 16 Sabha 1. President
(B) 15 07 22 89. The Joint Parliamentary Committee 2. Rajya Sabha
(C) 10 05 15 examining the 2G Scam is headed 3. Lok Sabha
(D) 17 10 27 by [UPPCS (Mains) 2010 4. Vice-President
83. Who nominates the Chairman of RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012] Select the correct answer using the
the Public Accounts Committee of (A) Murli Manohar Joshi code given below.
Indian Parliament? (B) P.C. Chacko [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013
[UPPCS (Pre) 2014 (C) A.B. Vardhan UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013 (D) Sitaram Yechuri (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004] 90. In what way does the Indian (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha Parliament exercise control over 94. The Officers of the Parliament
the administration? [IAS (Pre) 2001] include
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The President (A) Through Parliamentary 1. Speaker, Lok Sabha
Committees 2. Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha
(D) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Through Advisory Committees 3. Secretary-General, Lok Sabha
84. Members of the Rajya Sabha are of various ministries
not associated with 4. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(C) By making the administrators Select the correct answer from the
1. Public Account Committee send periodic reports
2. Estimates Committee codes given below.
(D) By compelling the executive to [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010]
3. Committee on Public issue writs
Undertakings (A) 1 and 2
91. Consider the table given below. (B) 1, 2 and 3
Choose your answer from given
Parliament (C) 1, 3 and 4
code. [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
Council of States House of the People (D) All the four
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 3 Not more than Not more than 552
(C) Only 2 (D) 1 and 3 250 members members and 95. Federal Parliament may legislate
12 nominated not more than 524 on any subject of State List.
85. Estimates Committee is constituted not more than 238 representatives of
from the members of 1. To Implement International
representatives of States plus not more Agreements.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] States and Union than 2 nominated
(A) Both the Houses Territories Anglo-Indians and X. 2. By consent of State.
(B) The Rajya Sabha 3. When Proclamation of Emer-
Which one of the following will fit gency is in operation.
(C) The Lok Sabha in the place marked ‘X’? 4. In national interest and after
(D) None of the above [IAS (Pre) 1995] a resolution passed by state
86. Which one of the following (A) Ministers who are not members legislative assembly with 2/3
is a Standing Committee of of Parliament but who have to majority.
364 Objective General Studies
Choose the correct option using
codes given below.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All of these
96. The Indian Parliament cannot
legislate on a subject of state-list
unless
100. With reference to the Parliament
1. The President of India directs it
to do so.
2. The Rajya Sabha passes a
resolution that it is necessary to
do so in national interest.
3. The Speaker of the Vidhan
Sabha certifies that the
legislation is necessary.
4. There is a national emergency.
Considering the above statements,
select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
97. Joint Session of both the Houses of
Parliament is concerned.
1. For the election of the President
of India
101. Which of the following statements
2. For the election of the Vice-
President of India
3. To pass the Bill relating to the
amendment of Constitution
4. To discuss and pass such a
Bill where both Houses have
different opinion
Select your answer from the
following code.
[40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2 (D) Only 4
98. Consider the following statements.
1. The joint sitting of both Houses
of the Parliament in India is
102. Consider the following statements.
sanctioned under Article 108 of
the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok
Sabha and Rajya Sabha was
held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of both
Houses of Indian Parliament
was held to pass the Banking
Service Commission (Repeal),
Bill.
Which of these statements is/are
correct? [IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
99. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha
and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint
sitting of the Parliament during the
passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
of India, consider the following
statements.
1. A private member’s bill is a
bill presented by a Member of
Parliament who is not elected
but only nominated by the
President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s
bill has been passed in the
Parliament of India for the first
time in its history.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are correct?
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha
lapses on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya
Sabha, which has not been
passed by the Lok Sabha, shall
not lapse on the dissolution of
the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Chairman and the Deputy
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
are not the members of that
House.
2. While the nominated members 105. What is the difference between
of the Both Houses of the
Parliament have no voting right
in the Presidential election,
they have Right to Vote in the
election of the Vice-President.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
103. With reference to the Union Gov-
ernment, consider the following
statements.
1. The Department of Revenue is
responsible for the preparation
of Union Budget that is
presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdra-wan
from the Consolidated Fund of
India without the authorization
from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made
from Public Account also need
the authorization from the
Parliament of India.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
104. Which of the following are the
methods of Parliamentary control
over public finance in India?
1. Placing Annual Finance State-
ment before the Parliament.
2. Withdrawal of money from
Consolidated Fund of India
only after passing the Appropri-
ation Bill.
3. Provisions of supplementary
grants and vote-on-account.
4. A periodic or atleast a mid year
review of the programme of the
Government against macroeco-
nomic forecasts and expendi-
ture by a Parliamentary Budget
Office.
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the
Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 3, 4, and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
‘Vote-on-Account’ and ‘interim
budget’?
1. The provision of a ‘Vote-on-
Account’ is used by a stable
Government, while ‘interim
budget’ is a provision used by a
caretaker Government.
2. A ‘Vote-on-Account’ only
deals with the expenditure in
Government’s budget while an
‘interim budget’ includes both
expenditure and receipts.
 Indian Polity and Governance 365
Which of the statement(s) given 4. Supplementary questions can- members of Committee on
above is/are correct? not be asked. Estimates are drawn entirely
[IAS (Pre) 2011] 5. Answers can be discussed. from Lok Sabha.
(A) Only 1 6. Speaker controls answer. 2. The Ministry of Parliamentary
(B) Only 2 Code Affairs works under the overall
(C) Both 1 and 2 (A) 2 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 direction of Cabinet Committee
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 on Parliamentary Affairs.
(C) 5 and 6 (D) 3 and 5
106. The stages in the normal financial 3. The Minister of Parliamentary
110. The Parliament of India exercises
legislation include Affairs nominates members of
control over the functions of the
Parliament on Committees,
1. Presentation of the Budget Council of Ministers through
Councils, Boards and Commiss-
2. Discussion on the Budget 1. Adjournment motion ions etc., set up by the Govern-
3. Passing of Appropriation Bill 2. Question Hour ment of India in various
4. Vote on Account 3. Supplementary questions ministries.
5. Passing of the Finance Bill Select the correct answer using the Which of these statements are
Select the correct answer from the code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017] correct? [IAS (Pre) 2003]
code given below. (A) Only 1 (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010, 2005] (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) Only 1 and 3 114. Consider the following statements.
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (D) 1, 2 and 3 The Parliamentary Committee on
107. Prior sanction of the President of 111. With reference to Union Public Accounts
India is required before introducing Government, consider the 1. consists of not more than 25
a Bill in the Parliament on following statements. Members of the Lok Sabha.
1. Formation of a new State 1. The Ministries/Departments 2. scrutinizes appropriation
2. Affecting taxation in which of the Government of India are and finance accounts of the
States are interested created by the Prime Minister Government.
3. Altering the boundaries of the on the advice of the Cabinet 3. examines the report of the
States Secretary. Comptroller and Auditor
4. Money Bill 2. Each of the Ministries is General of India.
Considering the above statements, assigned to a Minister by the Which of the statements given
select the correct answer from the President of India on the advice above is/are correct?
code given below. of the Prime Minister. [IAS (Pre) 2013]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] Which of the statement(s) given (A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 above is/are correct?
(C) Only 3 (D) All of these
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All of these [IAS (Pre) 2009]
115. Which of the following is the
108. Examine the following statements (A) Only 1
Financial Committees of Parliament
and choose the correct answer from (B) Only 2 in India?
the given options. (C) Both 1 and 2 1. Public Account Committee
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007] (D) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Estimates Committee
1. Right to Property is not a Fun- 112. Consider the following statements. 3. Committee on Public
damental Right now. 1. The Chairman of the Undertakings
2. Rajya Sabha can stop a Committee on Public Accounts Select the correct answer from the
Financial Bill. is appointed by the Speaker of codes given below.
3. In the Preamble of Indian the Lok Sabha. [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
Constitution Secular and 2. The Committee on Public (A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2
Democratic words were added Accounts comprises Members
by 42nd amendment of the (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
of Lok Sabha, Member of Rajya
Indian Constitution. Sabha and a few eminent 116. The Officers of the Parliament
4. Any dispute of the Parliament persons of industry and trade. include
can be resolved by the system of Which of the statement(s) given 1. Speaker, Lok Sabha
Speaker of the Lok Sabha. above is/are correct? 2. Dy. Speaker, Lok Sabha
Code [IAS (Pre) 2007] 3. Secretary General of Lok Sabha
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (A) Only 1 4. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 3 (B) Only 2 Select the correct answer from the
109. What is correct about the starred (C) Both 1 and 2 codes given below.
question? (D) Neither 1 nor 2 [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014] 113. Consider the following statements. Code
1. Answer is given oral. 1. While members of the Rajya (A) Only 1 and 2
2. Answer is given in written. Sabha are associated with (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
3. Supplementary questions can Committees on Public Accounts (C) Only 1, 3 and 4
be asked. and Public Undertakings, (D) All the four
366 Objective General Studies
117. Assertion (A): Under Article 368, 122. All offences punishable under the
the Parliament can amend any part
of the Constitution.
Reason (R): The Parliament is the
Supreme Legislative body elected
by the People of India.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of 123. The Protection of Civil Rights Act
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
118. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer using the code
given below the lists.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] 124. Who is held responsible for the
List-I
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Committee on Petitions
(c) Joint Committee on Stock
Market Scam
(d) Departmental Committees
List-II
1. Adhoc Committee
2. Standing Committee
3. Financial Committee
4. Functional Committee
Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 2 3 4 1 bodies in urban areas
(C) 3 4 1 2 (D) Sati (Prevention) Act - 1987
(D) 4 2 1 3 Act, 1989 with the concurrence of
119. Offences are tried under the
Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
by the Courts of [MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Sessions Court
(B) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(C) Judicial Magistrate Second
Class
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
120. Under the Protection of Civil Rights
Act, 1955. All offences are
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Cognizable
(B) Bailable
(C) Punishment with imprisonment
and fine both
(D) Both (A) and (C)
121. In which year was Prevention
of Food Adulteration Act first
enacted? [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Mains) 2006] 129. The
(A) 1951 (B) 1954
(C) 1964 (D) 1956
(A) 1st July, 1989
Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (B) 30th January, 1990
are [MPPCS (Pre) 2012] (C) 30th July, 1989
(A) Cognizable and Non-bailable (D) 1st January, 1990
(B) Cognizable and Summarily 130. Under which Act the Scheduled
Triable Caste and Scheduled Tribe Atrocity
(C) Non-cognizable and Bailable Removal law was implemented?
(D) Non-cognizable and Compoun- [MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
dable (A) Act 1990
(B) Act 1989
extends to [MPPCS (Pre) 2012] (C) Act 1992
(A) The whole of India (D) Act 1991
(B) The whole of India except the 131. Who has/had the power to make
Scheduled areas rules for carrying out the purposes
(C) The whole of India except the of the Scheduled Castes and the
State of Jammu and Kashmir Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
(D) The whole of India except Atrocities) Act, 1989?
the Union Territories of Goa, [MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
Daman and Diu (A) The State Government
(B) The Central Government
offences committed by Companies, (C) Both (A) and (B)
under the Protection of Civil Rights (D) The Supreme Court
Act, 1955? [MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
132. Offence committed by any public
(A) Director servant under Section 3 of the SC
(B) Manager and ST (Prevention of Atrocities)
(C) Secretary Act, 1989, provides for minimum
(D) All of the above punishment of [Goa PSC (Pre) 2017
125. Which one of the following pairs is MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
not correctly matched? (A) Three months
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] (B) Six months
(A) Hindu Marriage Act - 1955 (C) One year
(B) Hindu Succession Act - 1956 (D) None of the above
(C) 73rd Constitutional Amend- 133. The State Government can specify
ment - Reservation of seats for a Court of Session to be a Special
women in the election of local Court to try the offences under the
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities)
126. The Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act came into the [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2017
force on [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015] MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Governor
(A) 20th September, 2005
(B) 30th September, 2006 (B) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) 10th October, 2006 (C) Session Judge of concerned
(D) 26th October, 2006 district
(D) Ministry of Law
127. Which of the following is not a
134. The Scheduled Castes and
Social Act? [UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
(A) MISA Act
Atrocities) Act is a special provision
(B) Anti-Dowry Act
for the advancement of Scheduled
(C) Protection of Civil Rights Act
Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(D) Prevention of Immoral Traffic which is based on which one of the
Act following doctrines?
128. When was the Criminal Tribes Act [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2018
enacted for the first time? MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Doctrine of Severability
(A) 1952 (B) 1924 (B) Doctrine of Preferred Position
(C) 1871 (D) 1911 (C) Doctrine of Protective discrimi-
Scheduled Castes and nation
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of (D) Doctrine of Harmonious Con-
Atrocities) Act, 1989 came into struction
force on [MPPCS (Pre) 2012]

135. Who is empowered for imposition
and realization of a collective fine
under SC and ST (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) District Magistrate
(B) State Government
(C) Special Court
(D) High Court
136. In a prosecution for an offence
under the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989, the court can
presume which of the following?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Abetment
(B) Common Intention
(C) Common Object
(D) All of the above
137. Which of the following Sections
of the Scheduled Castes and
the Scheduled Tribes Act, 1989 143. In a prosecution for an offence
provides for application of certain
provisions of the Indian Penal
Code? [MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 6
(D) Section 8
138. Under the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989, which of the
following is barred?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Anticipatory Bail
(B) Post-arrest Bail
(C) Benefit of probation
(D) All of the above
139. Under which of the following
Sections of the Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes Act, 1989 is
anticipatory bail prohibited?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Section 16 (B) Section 17
(C) Section 18 (D) Section 19
140. An offence committed under the
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities)
Act, 1989 shall be investigated by a
police officer, not below the rank of
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Sub Inspector
(B) Inspector
(C) Deputy Superintendent
(D) Superintendent
141. Which of the following power is
not provided to specified Special
Court under Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act? [MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Forfeiture of property of a
convict of an offence
(B) To authorize a person for extra
investigation other than police 147. The Right to Information Act of
(C) To remove a person from
the area who is suspected of
committing a crime
(D) Take measurement and photo-
graph of a person who is sus-
pected of committing a crime
142. Which of the following powers
a Special Court cannot exercise 148. Which one of the following
under the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) To remove a person
(B) To forfeit the property
(C) To take measurement of a
person
149. Right to Information Act was
(D) To impose collective fine
under the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989, the accused
in his defence cannot take the plea 150. Consider the following statements
that [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) The Act was done in exercise of
the right of private defence
(B) He also belongs to the caste as
that of the victim
(C) The Act causes such a slight
harm which could not be a
subject of the complaint
(D) Both (A) and (C)
144. A Court of Session specified as
Special Court to try the offences
under the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act for the purpose of
providing
[MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Speedy trial
(B) Time bound trial
151. Which
(C) Special protection to victims
(D) All of the above
145. Under which one of the following
Sections of the Scheduled Castes
and the Scheduled Tribes Rules,
1995, Constitution of ‘District
Level Vigilance and Monitoring
Committee’ has been provided?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Section 18 (B) Section 19
152. The objective of Right to
(C) Section 17 (D) Section 16
146. The Government enacted the
Panchayat Extension to Scheduled
Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which
one of the following is not identified
as its objective? [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) To provide self-governance
(B) To recognize traditional rights
Indian Polity and Governance 367
(C) To create autonomous regions
(D) To free tribal peoples from
exploitation
Parliament received the assent of
the President of India on
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 15th May, 2005
(B) 5th June, 2005
(C) 15th June, 2005
(D) 12th October, 2005
statements is true about right to
information? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015
UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
(A) It is a political right
(B) It is a constitutional right
(C) It is a legal right
(D) It is a social right
passed in the year.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) 2001 (B) 2004
(C) 2005 (D) 2002
about the ‘Right to Information
(RTI) Act, 2005’ and select one
which has not been provided for or
is specially exempted.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) It is not applicable in the State
of Jammu and Kashmir
(B) An applicant making request
for information will have to
given reasons for seeking
information
(C) Removal of Chief Information
Commissioner
(D) Every Information Commissi-
oner shall hold office for a term
of 5 years or until the age of 65
years, whichever is earlier
of the following is related to
Right to Information Act, 2005?
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India
(B) Nandini Sundar Vs. State of
Chhattisgarh
(C) Namit Sharma Vs. Union of
India
(D) None of the above
Information Act is to
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2007]
(A) Secure access to information
from Public authorities
(B) Provide information to the
public by a person who has the
information
368 Objective General Studies
(C) Provide information by Govern-
ment on a public place
(D) Secure information by police 157. With reference to consumers rights/ 159. Consider the following statements.
from culprits
153. Which High Court has said in its
important decision that “the R.T.I.
applicant should tell the reason for
asking information under Right to
Information”? [UPPSC (RI) 2014]
(A) Calcutta High Court
(B) Bombay High Court
(C) Allahabad High Court
(D) Madras High Court
154. Under the Scheduled Tribes and
Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act,
2006, who shall be the authority to
initiate the process for determining
the nature and extent of individual
or community forest rights or both?
[IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) State Forest Department
(B) District Collector/Deputy
Commissioner
(C) Tahsildar/Block Development 158. With reference to the ‘Prohibition
Officer/Mandal Revenue
Officer
(D) Gram Sabha
155. Which one of the following
statements with respect to the Land
Acquisition Act, 1894 is not true?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) It was made by the British
rulers
(B) Its purpose was to help the
process of land reforms in India
(C) It has been replaced by another
Act of India’s Parliament
(D) Its implementation had become
disputed
156. The Prevention of Money Launder-
ing Act came into inforce in India
during [Uttarakhand PCS(Pre) 2016]
(A) 1998 (B) 1999
(C) 2001 (D) 2005
privileges under the provisions of
law in India, which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct?
1. Consumers are empowered to
take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a
complaint in any Consumer
Forum, no fee is required to be
paid.
3. In the case of death of a
consumer, his/her legal heir
can file a complaint in the
Consumer Forum on his/her
behalf.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) 1, 2 and 3
160. The National Green Tribunal Act,
of Benami Property Transactions
Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the
following statements.
1. A property transaction is not
treated as a benami transaction
if the owner of the property is
not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are
liable for confiscation by the
Government.
3. The Act provides for three
authorities for investigations
but does not provide for any
appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[Goa PSC (Pre) 2017
IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 2 and 3
Assertion (A): The Right to
Information Act has in general been
responsible for increasing the sense
of responsibility in bureaucracy.
Reason (R): It still has miles to go
to create the desired impact.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below.
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019
UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
2010 was enacted in consonance
with which of the following
provisions of the Constitution of
India?
1. The right to a healthy
environment, construed as
a part of Right to life under
Article 21.
2. Provision of grants for raising
the level of administration in
the scheduled Tribes under
Article 275 (1).
3. Power and functions of Gram
Sabha as mentioned under
Article 243(A).
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (B)
31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (D) 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (D)
61. (D) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (D) 65. (C) 66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (A)
71. (C) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (B) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (B) 80. (A)
81. (A) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (C) 86. (D) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (A)
91. (C) 92. (B) 93. (A) 94. (D) 95. (D) 96. (D) 97. (D) 98. (D) 99. (A) 100. (D)
101. (B) 102. (B) 103. (C) 104. (A) 105. (B) 106. (D) 107. (D) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (D)
 Indian Polity and Governance 369
111. (B) 112. (A) 113. (D) 114. (B) 115. (D) 116. (D) 117. (A) 118. (C) 119. (B) 120. (D)
121. (B) 122. (B) 123. (A) 124. (D) 125. (C) 126. (D) 127. (A) 128. (C) 129. (B) 130. (B)
131. (B) 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (C) 135. (B) 136. (D) 137. (C) 138. (A) 139. (C) 140. (C)
141. (B) 142. (D) 143. (D) 144. (A) 145. (C) 146. (C) 147. (C) 148. (C) 149. (C) 150. (B)
151. (C) 152. (A) 153. (D) 154. (D) 155. (B) 156. (D) 157. (C) 158. (B) 159. (B) 160. (A)

Answer Sheet

20. The Supreme Court

1. The Supreme Court consists of a
Chief Justice and
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) Seven Judges
(B) Nine Judges
(C) Thirty three Judges
(D) Twenty five Judges
2. The current sanctioned strength of
Judges of Supreme Court of India is
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) 20 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 34
3. When was the Supreme Court
inaugurated in India?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 27 January, 1950
(B) 28 January, 1950
(C) 29 January, 1950
(D) 30 January, 1950
4. The sanctioned strength
Supreme Court of India is
[38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
(A) 24 (B) 20
(C) 18 (D) 34
5. The status of women in Indian
Society was glorified by a Judgment
of a Court in September, 2003. The
Court is [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) Local Courts
(C) Special Courts
(D) High Court, U.P.
6. Supreme Court in India was
established [42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
(A) By an Act of Parliament in 1950
(B) Under Indian Independence
Act, 1947
(C) Under Indian Government Act,
1953
(D) By the Indian Constitution
7. Of the following statements, which
one is not correct?
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Supreme Court was constituted
in 1950
(B) Supreme Court is the highest
Court of appeal in the country
(C) Supreme Court can hear from 13. Salaries of the Judges of the
any High Court/Tribunals Supreme Court are determined by
except Court-martial [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(D) Supreme Court can hear from (A) Pay Commission appointed by
any High Court/Tribunals as the President
well as from Court-martial (B) Law Commission
8. The power to increase the number (C) Parliament
of Judges in the Supreme Court of (D) Council of Ministers
India is vested in [IAS (Pre) 2014 14. The Judges of the Supreme Court,
44th BPSC (Pre) 2000] after retirement, are permitted to
(A) The President of India carry on practice before
(B) The Parliament [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(C) The Chief Justice of India (A) Supreme Court only
(D) The Law Commission (B) High Courts only
9. A Judge of the Supreme Court may (C) Both Supreme Court and High
resign his office by writing a letter Court
to [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] (D) None of the Courts
(A) The Chief Justice 15. Acting Chief Justice of the Supreme
(B) The President Court of India is appointed by
of (C) The Prime Minister [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001
(D) The Law Minister UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
10. How can a Judge of the Supreme (A) Chief Justice of the Supreme
Court be removed? Court
[MPPCS (Pre) 1993] (B) Prime Minister
(A) By the will of the Chief Justice (C) President
(B) By the President (D) Law Minister
(C) By the President on the recom- 16. The Judges of Supreme Court
mendation of the Chief Justice of India are appointed by the
of the Supreme Court President [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA
(D) By the President on the recom- (Mains) 2006, 2007]
mendation of the Parliament (A) After recommendation by
11. A Judge of the Supreme Court can Rajya Sabha
be removed by the President of (B) On the advice of Lok Sabha
India after (C) On the advice of Prime Minister
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003] (D) In consultation with the Chief
(A) As enquiry by C.B.I. Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) An enquiry by Chief Justice of 17. Adhoc Judges are appointed in the
India Supreme Court when
(C) A report by the Bar Council of [IAS (Pre) 2000]
India (A) Some Judges go on long leave
(D) An impeachment by the (B) No one is available for perma-
Parliament nent appointment
12. The age of retirement in the (C) There is an abnormal increase
Supreme Court is in cases pending before the
[UPPCS (Pre) 1990] Court
(A) 62 years (B) 63 years (D) There is no quorum of the
Judges available to hold
(C) 64 years (D) 65 years
370 Objective General Studies
18. The Indian Constitution provides
for the appointment of ‘Adhoc
Judges’ in [UPPSC (GIC) 2010
UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Courts
(C) District and Session Courts
(D) All of the above
19. In which year was the Collegium
System for the appointment of
Judges adopted by the Supreme
Court of India?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) 1993 (B) 1996
(C) 2000 (D) 2004
20. The Supreme Court’s Collegium
comprises the Chief Justice of
India and a few Senior Judges for
recommending appointee to the
Supreme Court. The number of
such Senior Judges, who are part of
this body, is [UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
21. The minimum number of Judges
of the Supreme Court required
for hearing any case involving
interpretation of the Constitution is
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Ten (B) Nine
(C) Seven (D) Five
22. The power of the Supreme Court of
India to decide disputes between
the Centre and the State falls under
its
[IAS (Pre) 1996, 2014]
(A) Advisory jurisdiction
(B) Appellate jurisdiction
(C) Original jurisdiction
(D) Constitutional jurisdiction
23. The second largest bench
Constituted by the Supreme Court
till date was in the
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) Golaknath Case
(B) Minerva Mills Case
(C) Bank Nationalisation Case
(D) T.M.A. Pai Foundation Case
24. In which of the following cases, the
Supreme Court of India enunciated
the ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Golaknath
(B) A.K. Gopalan
(C) Keshvanand Bharti
(D) Menka Gandhi
25. Which one of the following
cases propounded the concept
of ‘Basic Structure of the Indian
Constitution’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
(A) Indira Sahni Case
(B) Shankari Prasad’s Case
(C) Rudal Shah’s Case
(D) Keshavananda Bharti’s Case
26. The minimum number of Supreme
Court Judges who can hear a case
involving a substantial question of
law as to the Interpretation of the
Constitution is [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Five (B) Seven
(C) Eleven (D) Thirteen
27. In which of the following
cases, Supreme Court held that
‘Fundamental Rights enable a man
to chalk out his life in the manner
he likes best’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Indira Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain
(B) Golaknath Vs. The State of
Punjab
(C) Bank Nationalization Case
(D) Azhar Vs. Municipal Corpora-
tion
28. Identify the incorrect pair of Case
and Ruling in that case by Supreme
Court. [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Indira Sawhney Case - Creamy
Layer for Other Backward
Classes
(B) Vishakaha Case - Protection of
working women against sexual
harrassment at their place of
work
(C) Maneka Gandhi Case - Articles
14, 19 and 21 are not mutually
exclusive
(D) Bella Banerjee Case - Right
to travel abroad in a part of
personal liberty
29. Which Article of the Constitution
of India deals with the Appellate
Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
in connection with Constitutional
Cases? [UPPCS (Mains) 2004
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
UPPCS (Pre) 2001]
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 132
(C) Article 132 read with Article
134A
(D) Article 133 read with Article
134A
30. All the cases regarding interpret-
ation of the Constitution can be
brought to the Supreme Court under
its [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
(A) Original Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Advisory Jurisdiction
(D) None of the above
31. Consider the following statements
and state which one of them is
correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010, 13]
(A) Supreme Court of India has
only Original Jurisdiction
(B) It has only Original and
Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) It has only Advisory and
Appellate Jurisdiction
(D) It has Original, Appellate as
well as Advisory Jurisdiction
32. Curative Petition in India can be
filed in Supreme Court under
Article [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) 138 (B) 140
(C) 142 (D) 146
33. Which Article of the Constitution
permits the Supreme Court to
review its judgement or order?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Article 137
(B) Article 130
(C) Article 139
(D) Article 138
34. Which one of the following is
correct with regard to the power to
review any judgement pronounced
or order made by the Supreme
Court of India?
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) The President of India has the
power of review such judgment
or order
(B) The Supreme Court has the
power to review its judgment or
order
(C) The Cabinet has the power to
review such judgment or order
with the permission of the
President of India
(D) The Supreme Court does not
have the power to review its
judgment or order
35. In India, Judicial Review implies
[IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) The power of the Judiciary to
pronounce upon the constitu-
tionality of laws and executive
orders
(B) The power of the Judiciary to
question the wisdom of the laws
enacted by the Legislatures
(C) The power of the Judiciary
to review all the legislative
enactments before they are
assented to by the President
(D) The power of the Judiciary to
review its own judgments given
earlier in similar or different
cases

36. Judicial Review means that the
Supreme Court
[39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
(A) Has final authority over all
issues
(B) Can charge allegations against
President
(C) Can review the issues decided
by High Courts
(D) Can declare illegal any law of
the State
37. Judicial Review implies the right of
the Court to [UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) Declare any law or order
invalid if it is in conflict with the
Constitution
(B) Review the order of the Lower
Courts
(C) Hear appeals against the
decision of the Lower Courts
(D) Review the laws to see that they
have been passed as per the
procedure laid down
38. The system of Judicial Review, is
prevalent in [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) India only
(B) U.K. only
(C) U.S.A. only
(D) Both in India and U.S.A.
39. Under which Article of the
Constitution the Courts have been
prohibited from imquiring the
proceedings of the Parliament?
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010]
(A) Article 127 (B) Article 122
(C) Article 126 (D) Article 139
40. A Constitution (Amendment) Act
may be declared unconstitutional
by the Supreme Court of India if it
[IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Establishes three-tier federal
set up in place of the existing
two tier-set up
(B) Removes Right of Equality
before the law from Part III
and places it elsewhere in the
Constitution
(C) Replaces Parliamentary System
of Executive with the Presiden-
tial one
(D) Establishes a Federal Court of
Appeal to lighten the burden of
the Supreme Court
41. Judicial review in the Indian
Constitution is based on
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Due Process of Law
(B) Procedure established by Law
(C) Rule of Law
(D) Precedents and conventions
42. Who has the last authority to
explain the Constitution?
[MPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) President
(B) Attorney General of India
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Supreme Court
43. Who is the custodian of Indian
Constitution?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010, 2015]
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Supreme Court
44. Which of the following is the
custodian of the Constitution of
India? [IAS (Pre) 2015
MPPCS (Pre) 2015, 2016]
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(D) The Supreme Court of India
45. Who has the right to seek advisory
opinion of the Supreme Court on
any question of law?
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Any High Court
(D) All of the above
46. Under which Article, the President
of India refer to the Supreme
Court regarding the process of
appointment and transfer of Judges
in the Supreme Court and High
Courts? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998]
(A) Article 127 sub clause (1)
(B) Article 143 sub clause (1)
(C) Article 143 sub clause (11)
(D) Article 144 sub clause (a)
47. The power to enlarge the
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
of India with respect to any matter
included in the Union List of
Legislative Powers rests with
[IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) The President of India
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Parliament
(D) The Union Ministry of Law,
Justice and Company Affairs
48. By whom the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court of India can be
enlarged?
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament by passing a
resolution
(C) Parliament by making a law
Indian Polity and Governance 371
(D) President in consultation with
Chief Justice of India
49. The advisory powers of the
Supreme Court of India imply that
it may [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Advise to the President on the
issues of law or fact which are
of public importance
(B) Advise to the government
of India on all Constitution
matters
(C) Advise to the Prime Minister on
legal matters
(D) Advise to all the above persons
50. The Supreme Court of India tenders
advice to the President on a matter
of law or fact [IAS (Pre) 2001]
(A) On its initiative
(B) Only if he seeks such advice
(C) Only if the matter relates to the
Fundamental Rights of citizens
(D) Only if the issue poses a threat
to the unity and integrity of the
country
51. Who has the right under the
Constitution to seek the opinion of
the Supreme Court on the question
of law? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) President
(B) Any High Court
(C) Prime Minister
(D) All of the above
52. Under which Article of the Indian
Constitution did the President
make a reference to the Supreme
Court to seek the Court’s opinion
on the Constitutional validity of
the Election Commission’s decision
on defering the Gujarat Assembly
Elections (in the year 2002)?
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2019
IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Article 142
(B) Article 143
(C) Article 144
(D) Article 145
53. Under which Article of the
Constitution of India Supreme
Court safeguards the Fundamental
Rights of the Indian citizens?
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
(A) 74 (B) 56
(C) 16 (D) 32
54. To become a Judge of Supreme
Court, a person must be an advocate
in High Court for atleast how many
years? [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2018
MPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) 20 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 25
372 Objective General Studies
55. Under which law is it prescribed
that all proceedings in the Supreme
Court of India shall be in English
Language? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) The Supreme Court rules, 1966
(B) Article 145 of the Constitution
of India
(C) A Legislation made by
Parliament
(D) Article 348 of the Constitution
of India
56. “I will bear true faith and allegiance
to the Constitution of India .....
uphold the Sovereignty and
Integrity of India ..... Perform the
duties of my office ..... uphold the
Constitution and Law.” it is the
form of Oath taken by
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) The President of India
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Member of Parliament
(D) The Governor
57. Which of the following cases comes
under the Jurisdiction of High
Court and Supreme Court?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004]
(A) Dispute between the Centre
and States
(B) Dispute between States
(C) Enforcement of Fundamental
Rights
(D) Protection from violation of the
Constitution
58. Who has the right to transfer any
case anywhere in India?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) President
(B) Supreme Court
(C) High Court
(D) None of the above
59. Under which article, Supreme
Court recently declared Migrants
(Determination by Tribunal)
Act, 1983 as unconstitutional for
violation of the sacred duty of
centre? [UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Article 355 (B) Article 356
(C) Article 256 (D) Article 257
60. The source of the ‘Basic Structure
Theory of the Constitution’ in India
is [UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(A) The Constitution
(B) Judicial Interpretation
(C) Opinion of the Jurists
(D) Parliamentary Statute
61. The Supreme Court of India is a
‘Court of Record’. It implies that
[UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) It has to keep a record of its
decisions
(B) All its decisions have eviden-
tiary value and cannot be ques-
tioned in any court
(C) It has the power to punish for
its contempt
(D) No appeal can be made against
its decisions
62. Which of the following Courts in
India is/are known as the Court(s)
of Record? [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) The High Courts only
(B) The Supreme Court only
(C) The High Courts and the
Supreme Court
(D) The District Courts
63. Which one of the following is
correct about the Supreme Court
regarding its Judgment?
[Assam PSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) It can change the Judgment
(B) It can not change the Judgment
(C) Only the Chief Justice of India
can change the Judgment
(D) Only the Ministry of Law can
change the Judgment
64. The Supreme Court holds its
meetings in New Delhi, but it can
meet elsewhere
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) With the approval of President
(B) If the majority of Judges of
Supreme Court so decide
(C) With the approval of Parliament
(D) On the request of State
Legislature
65. In which of the following cases
the Supreme Court observed that
Central Bureau of Investigation is a
‘Caged Parrot’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Rail Board Bribery Case
(B) Vineet Narayani Vs. Union of
India
(C) 2G Spectrum Scam Case
(D) Coal Gate Scam Case
66. TDSAT judgments can be chal-
lenged in the [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Mains) 2003]
(A) TRAI, High Court, Supreme
Court
(B) TRAI and Supreme Court
(C) High Court and Supreme Court
(D) Supreme Court only
67. Public Interest Litigations was
introduced by [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2016
UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) A Parliamentary Act
(B) A Constitutional Amendment
(C) Judicial initiative
(D) None of the above
68. PIL is [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Public Interest Litigation
(B) Public Inquiry Litigation
(C) Public Investment Litigation
(D) Private Investment Litigation
69. Where can the Public Interest
Litigation (PIL) be filed?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only in Supreme Court of India
(B) Only in High Courts of States
(C) In Central Administrative
Tribunals
(D) Both in High Courts and
Supreme Court
70. The concept of Public Interest
Litigation originated in
[IAS (Pre) 1997
UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Australia
(B) India
(C) The United States
(D) The United Kingdom
71. ‘Judicial Activism’ in India is related
to [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014]
(A) Committed Judiciary
(B) Public Interest Petition
(C) Judicial Review
(D) Judicial Independence
72. What is the provision to safeguard
the autonomy of the Supreme
Court of India?
1. While appointing the Judges
of the Supreme Court, the
President of India has to consult
the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Judges of the Supreme
Court can be removed by the
Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are
charged on the Consolidated
Fund of India to which the
Legislature does not have to
vote.
4. All appointments of officers
and staffs of the Supreme
Court of India are made by
the Government only after
consulting the Chief Justice of
India.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1 and 3 (B) Only 3 and 4
(C) Only 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
73. Which of the following are included
in the original jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the
Government of India and one
or more States.

2. A dispute regarding elections to
either House of the Parliament
or that of Legislature of a state.
3. A dispute between
Government of India and a
Union Territory.
4. A dispute between two or more
States.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
74. Which of the following statements
regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction
of the Supreme Court is correct?
1. It is binding on the Supreme
Court to give its opinion on
any matter referred to it by the
President.
2. The full bench of the Supreme
Court hears any reference
made to it under its power of
Advisory Jurisdiction.
3. The opinion given by the
Supreme Court on a reference
under Advisory Jurisdiction is
not binding on the Government.
4. Not more than one reference
at a time can be made to the
Supreme Court under its power
of Advisory Jurisdiction.
Select the answer from the codes
given below. [IAS (Pre) 1994]
Indian Polity and Governance 373
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 the Jurisdiction of the Supreme
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4 Court of India as its Jurisdiction
75. Consider the following statements. is limited to that conferred by
the The Supreme Court of India tenders the Constitution.
advice to the President of India on 2. The officers and servants of
matters of law or fact. the Supreme Court and High
Courts are appointed by the
1. On its initiative (on any matter
concerned Chief Justice and
of larger public interest).
the administrative expenses are
2. If he seeks such advice. charged on the Consolidated
3. Only if the matters is related to
Fund of India.
the Fundamental Rights of the
Which of the statements given
citizens.
above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given [IAS (Pre) 2005]
above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
[IAS (Pre) 2010]
(B) Only 2
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3 (D) 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
76. Which of the following Articles of
78. Consider the following statements.
the Constitution of India have been
declared by the Supreme Court as 1. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was
the ‘Inviolable basic structure’ of the Chief Justice of India.
the Constitution? 2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
is considered as one of the
1. Article 32 2. Article 226
progenitors of Public Interest
3. Article 227 4. Article 245
Litigation (PIL) in the Indian
Select the correct answer from the Judicial System.
code given below.
Which of the statement(s) given
[UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
above is/are correct?
Code [IAS (Pre) 2008]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (A) Only 1
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 2
77. Consider the following statements. (C) Both 1 and 2
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (B)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (D) 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (D) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (D) 70. (C)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (B) 76. (A) 77. (D) 78. (B)

21. The Governor

1. Under which of the following (A) Article 166 (B) Article 200 4. Who appoints the Lt. Governor of
Article of Indian Constitution the (C) Article 239 (D) Article 240 Jammu and Kashmir?
Governor may reserve a Bill for the 3. Who is the Constitutional Head of [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
consideration of the President? 47th BPSC (Pre) 2002]
the State Governments?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004] (A) The Chief Minister of Jammu
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011
(A) Article 169 (B) Article 200 45th BPSC (Pre) 2001] and Kashmir
(C) Article 201 (D) Article 202 (A) Chief Minister (B) The Chief Justice of High Court
2. Under which Article of the Consti- (B) Governor of Jammu and Kashmir
tution can the Governor refer any (C) The Prime Minister of India
Bill for the approval of the Presi- (C) Speaker
(D) High Court Judge (D) The President of India
dent? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
374 Objective General Studies
5. Who amongst the following
administer the oath of office to the
Governor? [UPPCS (Mains) 2014
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A)President of India
(B)Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(C)Chief Justice of High Court
(D)Outgoing Governor of the
concerned State
6. Which one of the following
statements about the Governor of
an Indian State is not true?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004
UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) He is appointed by the
President of India
(B) He can be Governor of more
than one State
(C) He holds office for a term of five
years
(D) He can be removed earlier if the
Legislature of the concerned
State passes a resolution for his
removal
7. Which one of the following state-
ments is correct? [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) In India, the same person
cannot be appointed as
Governor for two or more states
at the same time
(B) The Judges of the High Court
of the States in India are
appointed by the Governor
of the State just as the Judges
of the Supreme Court are
appointed by the President
(C) No procedure has been laid
down in the Constitution of
India for the removal of a
Governor from his/her post
(D) In the case of the Union
Territory having a Legislative
set up the Chief Minister is
appointed by the Lt. Governor
on the basis of majority support
8. When the same person is appointed
as a Governor of two or more States,
the emoluments and allowances
payable to the Governor shall be
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) As expressed wish of the
Governor
(B) As decided by the President
(C) As decided by the Home
Ministry
(D) It shall be allocated among
the States in such proportion
as the President may be order
determine
9. The approval of ordinance
promulgated by Governor is
necessary [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) By President
(B) By the State Legislature
(C) By the Ministers of Council of
State
(D) None of the above
10. State Governor is appointed by
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Central Cabinet
(B) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) President of India
11. The appointment of a Governor in a
Sate is made as per the provision in
the Constitution under Article
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) 153 (B) 154
(C) 155 (D) 156
12. Which one of the following
Statements about the State
Governors is not true?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) He is a part of the State
Legislature
(B) He can pardon a sentence of
death
(C) He does not appoint Judges of
the State High Court
(D) He has no Emergency powers
13. Governor’s salary and allowances
are given by
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Consolidated Fund of State
(B) Consolidated Fund of India
(C) Contingency Fund of the State
(D) Both (A) and (B)
14. To whom is the Governor of a State
responsible? [UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Legislative Assembly
(D) Chief Minister
15. Who remains in office as long as the
President of India wishes?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2006
UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Governor
(B) Election Commissioner
(C) Judges of Supreme Court
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
16. The Constitution of India does
not contain any provision for the
impeachment of
[Manipur PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) The President
(B) The Governor of a State
(C) The Chief Justice of India
(D) The Vice-President of India
17. The first lady to become Governor
of a State in India
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003
MPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(A) Raj Kumari Amrit Kaur
(B) Padmaja Naidu
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Serla Grewal
18. Who amongst the following was the
first woman Governor of a State in
free India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Vijay Laxmi Pandit
19. Who was the first lady Governor of
West Bengal?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Vijay Laxmi Pandit
(B) Padmaja Naidu
(C) Rajani Rai
(D) Sheila Kaul
20. Who among the following is not
appointed by the State Governor?
[Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2018
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Members, State Public Service
Commission
(C) Judges of High Court
(D) Advocate General
21. The original plan in the draft
Constitution for having elected
Governors was dropped because
1. It would have meant another
election.
2. The election would have been
fought on major political issues.
3. The elected Governor might
have considered himself
superior to the Chief Minister.
4. The Governor had to function
under the Parliamentary
System.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below.
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
UPPCS (Pre) 2003
UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
22. The governor of the state, may act
independently from the consulta-
tion of Legislative Assembly when
1. The Government has to prove
its majority in the session of
Legislative Assembly.
2. To terminate the Chief
Minister.

3. To reserve any bill for the
consideration of President of
India.
4. To send back a bill to Legislative
Assembly for reconsideration.
5. To seek the consultation with
High Court.
Choose the correct answer from the
following code.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (D) All of these
23. Consider the following statements
in relation to Governor of a State in
India.
1. He must be a citizen of India by
birth.
2. Must have completed the age of
35 years.
3. He must be eligible to be a
member of the Lok Sabha.
4. He may be appointed as
Governor for two or more
states.
Which of these is/are correct?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1996]
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 2 and 4 are correct
24. Consider the following and select
the correct answer by using the
code given below.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
1. The Governor shall take oath
or affirmation before entering
upon his office.
2. The format of oath or
affirmation is given in the
Third Schedule of Indian
Constitution.
3. The Governor shall make
and subscribe the oath or
affirmation in the presence of
Chief Justice of the High Court
or in his absence senior most
Judge of that Court.
4. The process of oath and
affirmation is given in Article
159 of Indian Constitution.
Code
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
25. Consider the following statements
and select your answer from the
codes given below.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
1. The Governor does not have
the power to appoint the judge
of a state High Court.
2. He is not a part of the
Legislature.
3. He has the power to nominate
some members in the
Legislative Council.
4. He has no judicial powers.
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 4 are correct
(D) All are correct
26. Which of the following are the
discretionary powers given to the
Governor of a State?
1. Sending a report to the
President of India for imposing
the President’s Rule.
2. Appointing the Ministers.
3. Reserving certain bills passed
by the State Legislature for
consideration of the President
of India.
4. Making rules to conduct
the business of the State
Government.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Only 1 and 2
Indian Polity and Governance 375
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
27. The Governor of a State
1. Is appointed by the President.
2. Holds office during the pleasure
of the President.
3. Is the head of the State’s
Executive Power.
4. Normally holds office for five
years.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010
UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
Code
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All the four
28. Given below are two statement,
one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
other is labelled as Reason (R).
Choose the correct answer from
code given below.
Assertion (A): “The President
or a Governor cannot be sued in a
Court of law for any act”.
Reason (R): “The President can be
impeached and the Governors may
be dismissed for unconstitutional
acts done”.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B)

22. The State Legislature

1. Which is the Upper Chamber of 2. Which one of the following is the statements about the Chief Minister
State Legislature in India? period for the Legislative Council to is not correct?
[44th BPSC (Pre) 2000] detain the ordinary bills? [UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(A) Legislative Council [UPPCS (Mains) 2005] (A) He is normally selected by the
(B) Legislative Assembly (A) 3 months (B) 4 months Governor
(C) Governor’s Office (C) 6 months (D) 14 days (B) He is formally appointed by the
(D) None of the above 3. Which one of the following Governor
376 Objective General Studies
(C) He is chosen by the members
of the majority party in the
Legislative Assembly
(D) His continuance is office
depends upon many factors
4. According to which Article of
Constitution of India, the Chief
Minister is appointed by the
Governor of a State?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Article 163 (B) Article 164
(C) Article 165 (D) Article 166
5. In which assembly of States, money
Bills are proposed?
[MPPCS (Pre) 1993]
(A) Any one of the two
(B) Together in both
(C) Only in Legislative Assembly
(D) Only in upper chamber
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Vidhan Parishad
11. In any State of India, Legislative
Council can be created or can be
abolished by
[UP Lower (Spl)(Pre) 2008
40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
(A) The President on the recom-
mendation of the Governor of
the State
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Parliament as per Resolu-
tion passed by the Legislative
Assembly of the State
(D) The Governor on the recom-
mendation of the Council of
Ministers
12. Under which one of the following
Articles of the Indian Constitution,
18. Which one of the following States
does not have a bi-cameral legisla-
ture? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008
UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) U.P. (B) M.P.
(C) Bihar (D) Karnataka
19. Which of the following Articles
of Indian Constitution consists
the provision of the election of
Legislative Assemblies of States
[40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
(A) Article 170 (B) Article 176
(C) Article 178 (D) None of these
20. Which one of the following states
is an exception to the provision of
Article 170 which says that State
Legislative Assembly of a State
shall consist of not less than sixty
members? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]

6. No money Bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly is allowed (A) Sikkim (B) Jharkhand
Assembly of a State, except on the to resolve for the creation of the (C) Haryana (D) Uttarakhand
recommendations of Legislative Council? 21. What can be the maximum number
[UPPCS (Pre) 2007, 2011, 2013] of members in the Legislative
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) The Parliament (A) 168 (B) 169 Assembly of a State in India?
(B) The Governor of the State (C) 170 (D) 171 [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]

(C) The President of India
(D) A special Committee of
Ministers
7. Which Article of the Indian
Constitution provides the provision
of Vidhan Parishad in the State?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Article 170 (B) Article 171
(C) Article 172 (D) Article 173
8. What is the right method to
establish or cancel the second
chamber in States?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Proposal in House of People
with simple majority
(B) Proposal in Legislative Assem-
bly with simple majority
(C) Proposal in Legislative Assem-
bly with full majority alongwith
law passed by Parliament
(D) Proposal in House of People
with full majority
9. The provisions for creation and
abolition of Legislative Councils
in any State is included in Indian
Constitution under
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2017
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
(A) Article 170 (B) Article 169
(C) Article 168 (D) Article 167
10. Which one of the following
legislative House can be abolished?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Vidhan Sabha
13. How many members are nominated (A) 400 (B) 450
in the Legislative Council of Uttar (C) 500 (D) 550
Pradesh by the State Governor? 22. Who conducts the State Assembly
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011] Elections? [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) 1/10 of the total members (A) Chief Justice of High Court
(B) 1/8 of the total members (B) State Election Commission
(C) 1/7 of the total members (C) Election Commission of India
(D) 1/6 of the total members (D) Governor of the State
14. Which one of the following cannot 23. Which state among the following
be dissolved but can be abolished? has the maximum number of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007] members in Legislative Assembly?
(A) Lok Sabha [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
(B) Rajya Sabha (A) Andhra Pradesh
(C) State Legislative Assemblies (B) West Begal
(D) State Legislative Councils (C) Maharashtra
15. Which one of the following (D) Uttar Pradesh
States of India does not have a 24. Who among the following is the
Legislative Council so for even final authority to decide any ques-
though the Constitution (Seventh tion relating to disqualification of a
Amendment) Act, 1956 provides Member of a House of Legislature
for it? [IAS (Pre) 1995] of a State? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016
(A) Maharashtra Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(B) Bihar (A) Governor
(C) Karnataka (B) Speaker of the Legislative
(D) Madhya Pradesh Assembly
16. Which of the following States does (C) Chief Minister
not have Bi-cameral Legislature? (D) High Court
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013] 25. What is the minimum age limit
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Uttar Pradesh prescribed for the membership of
(C) Karnataka (D) Bihar Legislative Assembly?
17. In which of the following States [MPPCS (Pre) 1997]
Legislative Council does not exist? (A) 18 years
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] (B) 25 years
(A) Bihar (B) Maharashtra (C) 21 years
(C) Rajasthan (D) Karnataka (D) No age limit

26. If the Speaker of Legislative
Assembly of a State wants to resign,
he will give his resignation to
[40th BPCS (Pre) 1995]
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Governor
(C) Deputy Speaker
(D) President of India
27. The Speaker continues to be the
Speaker even after the dissolution
of the Assembly until
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) Immediately before the first
sitting of the new Assembly
constituted after dissolution
(B) The election of the new Speaker
(C) He desires
(D) None of the above
28. How long can a Minister continue
without being elected to the State
Assembly?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003
MPPCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) One year
(B) Six months
(C) Three years
(D) Three months
29. Pay and allowances of the Ministers
of a State Government are deter-
mined by the
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Governor
(C) Chief Secretary
(D) State Legislative Assembly
30. Who prorogues the Vidhan Sabha
of a State? [MPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Governor
(B) Vidhan Sabha Speaker
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Law Minister
31. After the Ayodhya incident in 1992,
Vidhan Sabha in some States was
dissolved. Out of the following, in
which state the Vidhan Sabha was
not dissolved? [MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Bihar
32. Which one of the following is
responsible for establishing ‘the
Contingency Fund of the State’?
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2017
UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]
(A) The Legislature of the State
(B) Parliament
(C) President
(D) None of the above
Indian Polity and Governance 377
33. Which is the only State in India to 41. The nomenclature of the Executive
have the Common Civil Code? Head of the Government of Jammu
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] and Kashmir was changed from
(A) Jammu and Kashmir Sadar-e-Riyasat to Governor in
(B) Mizoram 1965 by [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(C) Nagaland (A) A Lok Sabha Resolution
(D) Goa (B) The Executive Order of the
34. How many re-organised States had President
Bi-cameral Legislatures in 1956? (C) Th 6th Amendment in the State
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] Constitution of J&K
(A) 5 (B) 10 (D) The State Government under
Article 371
(C) 15 (D) 18
42. As per Indian Constitution,
35. Accounts of the States are control-
Legislature of States consists
led by the [UPPCS (Mains) 2003]
1. Legislative Council and
(A) Governor
Governor
(B) Chief Minister
2. Legislative Assembly and
(C) State Finance Secretary Legislative Council
(D) Comptroller and Auditor 3. Legislative Assembly and
General Governor
36. The ‘Contingency Fund’ of the State 4. Governor, Legislative Assembly
is operated by and Legislative Council where
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004] it exists
(A) The Governor of the State Select your answer out of the fol-
(B) The Chief Minister of the State lowing codes. [41st BPSC (Pre) 1996]
(C) The State Finance Minister (A) Only 3 (B) 2 and 3
(D) State Legislature (C) 3 and 4 (D) Only 4
37. Which one of the following 43. Consider the following statements.
statements about the Chief Minister 1. The Legislative Council of a
of a State is not correct? State in India can be larger in
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010] size than half of the Legislative
(A) The Chief Minister is appointed Assembly of that particular
by the Governor State.
(B) The Chief Minister generally 2. The Governor of a State
presides over the Cabinet nominates the Chairman of
Meetings Legislative Council of that
(C) The Governor has to exercise particular State.
all his functions on the advice Which of the statements given
of the Chief Minister above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2015]
(D) Ministers are appointed by the (A) Only 1
Governor on the advice of the (B) Only 2
Chief Minister (C) Both 1 and 2
38. Which Article of the Constitution (D) Neither 1 nor 2
defines the duties of the Chief 44. Legislative Council exists in which
Minister? [Telangana PSC (Pre) 2013] of the following States?
(A) Article 162 (B) Article 164 1. Kerala
(C) Article 165 (D) Article 167 2. Himachal Pradesh
39. Which Indian State had the first 3. Delhi
woman Chief Minister? 4. Bihar
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003]
Select your answer from the
(A) U.P. (B) Bihar following codes.
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Delhi [40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
40. The 1st Woman Chief Minister of an (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
Indian State was [MPPCS (Pre) 1990 (C) 2 and 3 (D) Only 4
UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
45. What is correct about State
(A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit Legislative Council?
(B) Sucheta Kripalani [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014, 2015]
(C) Nandini Satipathi 1. Its tenure is 6 years.
(D) Sarojini Naidu 2. It is a permanent House.
378 Objective General Studies
3. It cannot be dissolved. Which of the statements given Code
4. 1/6 members are elected by above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4
local institutions. [IAS (Pre) 2008] (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4
5. 1/6 members are elected by (A) Only 1 48. State Legislative Assembly can
legislative assembly. (B) Only 2 participate in the election of which
6. Every two years 1/3 members (C) Both 1 and 2 of the following.
are retired. (D) Neither 1 nor 2 1. President of India
7. Deputy Governor is the 47. Select the Constitutional Duties 2. Vice-President of India
Chairman of House. of the Chief Minister from the 3. Members of Rajya Sabha
8. The tenure of its members is 6 following by using the code given 4. Members of Legislative Council
years. below. [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
Select the correct answer.
Code 1. The Chief Minister communi- [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (B) 3, 6, 7 and 8 cates to the Governor all deci- (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3, 6 and 8 (D) 2, 4, 1 and 8 sions of the Council of Ministers
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4
46. Consider the following statements. related to the administration of
the affairs of the state. 49. Consider the following statements.
The Constitution of India provides 1. The Chief Secretary in a State
that 2. The Chief Minister communi-
cates to the Governor the pro- is appointed by the Governor of
1. The Legislative Assembly of that State.
posals for legislation.
each State shall consist of 2. The Chief Secretary in a State
not more than 450 members 3. The Chief Minister participates
in the meetings of National has a fixed tenure.
chosen by direct election from Which of the statements given
territorial constituencies in the Development Council.
4. The Chief Minister submits for above is/are correct?
State [IAS (Pre) 2016]
2. A person shall not be qualified the consideration of the Council
of Ministers any matter on (A) Only 1
to be chosen to fill a seat in the
which decision has been taken (B) Only 2
Legislative Assembly of a State
if he/she is less than 25 years of by a Minister but which has not (C) Both 1 and 2
age. been considered by the council (D) Neither 1 nor 2
if the Governor requires.

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (A)

23. The High Court

1. The pension of a retired High Court
Judge is charged to the
[UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Consolidated Fund of the State
where he last served
(C) Consolidated Fund of the
different States where he has
served
(D) Contingency Fund of India
2. The age of retirement of a High
Court Judge is [MPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) 65 (B) 60
(C) 62 (D) 58
3. Which among the following is
not correct about a High Court in
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) The second appeal to the High
Court is within its appellate
jurisdiction
(B) Every judge of a High Court is
appointed by the President
(C) Governor of the State appoints
the Judges of a High Court
(D) High Courts may accept a
petition related to ‘Public
interest litigation’
4. The salaries and allowances of
the Judges of the High Court are
charged to the [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Consolidated Fund of the State
(C) Contingency Fund of India
(D) Contingency Fund of the State
5. The number of High Court of
Judicature in India is
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008]
(A) Twenty five (B) Twenty one
(C) Twenty two (D) Twenty three
6. When the Chief Justice of a High
Court acts in an administrative
capacity, he is subject to
[IAS (Pre) 1996]
(A) The writ jurisdiction of any of
the other judges of the High
Court
(B) Special control exercised by the
Chief Justice of India
(C) Discretionary powers of the
Governor of the state
(D) Special powers provided to the
Chief Minister in this regard
7. The power of High Court to issue
writ covers [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) Constitutional Rights
(B) Statutory Rights
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) All of the above

8. Which High Court stated that the
divorce, by saying ‘Talaq’ 3 times, is
illegal? [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
(A) Calcutta HC
(B) Allahabad HC
(C) Bombay HC
(D) Punjab HC
9. Which one of the following
High Courts has the Territorial
Jurisdiction over Andaman and
Nicobar Islands? [IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Orissa
10. Which of the following High Courts
has its jurisdiction over more than
one state or Union Territory?
[38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
(A) Allahabad (B) Delhi
(C) Gujarat (D) Maharashtra
11. Which one of the following Indian
States does not have its own High
Court? [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) Orissa
(B) Sikkim
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Mizoram
12. With reference to Lok Adalats,
which of the following statements
is correct? [IAS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Lok Adalat have the jurisdiction
to settle the matters at the pre-
litigation stage and not those
matters pending before any
court
(B) Lok Adalats can deal with
matters which are civil and not
criminal in nature
(C) Every Lok Adalat consists of
either serving or retired judicial
officers only and not any other
person
(D) None of the statements given
above is correct
13. How many High Courts in India
have jurisdiction over more than
one State (Union Territories
included)? [IAS (Pre) 2008]
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
14. Which of the following High Courts
has the largest number of Benches?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Kolkata High Court
(B) Madhya Pradesh High Court
(C) Bombay High Court
(D) Allahabad High Court
15. Which one of the following
subjects comes under the common
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
and the High Court?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006
IAS (Pre) 1993]
(A) Mutual disputes among States
(B) Dispute between Centre and
State
(C) Protection of Fundamental
Rights
(D) Protection from the Violation of
the Constitution
16. In which petition, Judiciary orders
Executives to perform their duty?
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Mandamus
(C) Prohibition
(D) Quo-Warranto
17. When the Supreme Court issues a
writ to a person or to an institution
to perform its duty, it is called
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Certiorari
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo-Warranto
(D) Habeas Corpus
18. Which one of the following is not
the main jurisdiction of the High
Court of a State?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Advisory jurisdiction
(B) Original jurisdiction
(C) Supervisory jurisdiction
(D) Appellate jurisdiction
19. Which among the following is
issued when the procedure is
pending in court? [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Mandamus
(B) Certiorari
(C) Prohibition
(D) Quo-Warranto
20. The Writ of Certiorari is issued by a
Superior Court
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) To an inferior court to transfer
the record of proceedings in a
case for review
(B) To an inferior court to stop
further proceedings in a
particular case
(C) To an officer to show his right
to hold a particular office
(D) To a public authority to produce
a person detained by it before
the court within 24 hours
21. Which one of the following writs
examines the functioning of
subordinate courts?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
Indian Polity and Governance 379
(A) Quo-Warranto
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Habeas Corpus
22. What is the nature of the dispute of
Babri Mosque/ Ramjanambhoomi
Case before Allahabad High Court?
[45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) Writ petition
(B) Title suit
(C) Claim for compensation
(D) Judicial review petition
23. According to the Constitution of
India the term ‘district judge’ shall
not include [IAS (Pre) 1996]
(A) Chief presidency magistrate
(B) Sessions judges
(C) Tribunal judge
(D) Chief judge of a small cause
court
24. The term District Judge is
mentioned in which of the
following Article of Constitution?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Article 230 (B) Article 231
(C) Article 232 (D) Article 233
25. A High Court Judge addresses his
letter of resignation to
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
(A) The President
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Chief Justice of his High
Court
(D) The Governor of the State
26. Against which Judge the Rajya
Sabha passed the motion of
impeachment in 2011, but he
resigned to save himself before it
could be passed by the Lok Sabha?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Justice V. Ramaswami
(B) Justice Bhattacharya
(C) Justice Soumitra Sen
(D) Justice P.D. Dinakaran
27. The mobile court in India is the
brain child of
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
(A) Justice Bhagwati
(B) Mr. Rajeev Gandhi
(C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Mrs. Pratibha Patil
28. Under Preventive Detention, a
person can be detained without
trial for [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) One month
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) Nine months
380 Objective General Studies
29. Name the Chairman of the ‘Law 33. In which of these States, High Courts explanation of (A)
Commission’ who advocated that were established in March 2013? (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
One-third of the Judges in each 1. Manipur 2. Meghalaya (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
High Court should be from another 3. Mizoram 4. Tripura 37. Consider the following statements
State. [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
Choose the right answer from the and choose the correct answer from
(A) Justice P.N. Bhagwati given code. [UPPCS (Pre) 2013] the code given below.
(B) Justice Hidayatullah (A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 Assertion (A): The public interest
(C) Justice H.R. Khanna (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 litigation permits public-minded
(D) Justice Chandrachud 34. Consider the following statements. citizens to reach the Court of Law.
30. Consider the following statements. 1. The mode of removal of a Judge Reason (R): The public-minded
1. There are 25 High Courts in of a High Court in India is same people may seek Justice for the
India. as that of removal of a Judge of person who is unable to reach the
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union the Supreme Court. Court of Law for any reasons.
Territory of Chandigarh have a 2. After retirement from the Select the correct answer using the
common High Court. office, a permanent Judge of code given below.
3. National Capital Territory of a High Court cannot plead or [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
Delhi has a High Court of its act in any Court or before any Code
own. authority in India. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Which of the statements given Which of the statements given (R) is the correct explanation of
above is/are correct? above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2007] (A)
[IAS (Pre) 2002] (A) Only 1 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 but (R) is not the correct
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) Only 3 (C) Both 1 and 2 explanation of (A)
31. Consider the following statements (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
regarding the High Courts in India. 35. With reference to the ‘Gram (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
1. There are eighteen High Courts Nyayalaya Act’ which of the follow- 38. Assertion (A): The scope of
in the country. ing statements is/are correct? Judicial review is limited in India.
2. Three of them have jurisdiction 1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalaya Reason (R): Indian Constitution
over more than one state. can hear only civil cases and no is ‘a bag of borrowing’.
3. No Union Territory has High criminal cases. Select the correct answer using the
Court of its own. 2. The Act allows local social ac- codes given below.
4. Judges of the High Court hold tivists as mediators/reconcilia- [UPPCS (Mains) 2002]
office till the age of 62. tors. Code
Which of these statements is/are Select the correct answer using the (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
correct? [IAS (Pre) 2001] code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016] (R) is the correct explanation of
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (A) Only 1 (A)
(C) 1 and 4 (D) Only 4 (B) Only 2 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
32. Match the following. (C) Both 1 and 2 but (R) is not the correct
[Haryana PSC (Pre) 2018 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 explanation of (A)
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016] 36. Given below are two statements, (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
List-I one labelled as Assertion (A) and (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(a) Habeas Corpus the other labelled as Reason (R). 39. Consider the following statements
(b) Mandamus Assertion (A): Willful disobedie- and select the correct answer from
(c) Prohibition nce or non-compliance of Court the code given. [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
orders and use of derogatory Assertion (A): High Courts are in
(d) Certiorary
language about Judicial behaviour better position to protect rights of
(e) Quo-Warranto amount to Contempt of Court. Indian citizens than the Supreme
List-II Court.
Reason (R): Judicial activism
1. Be more fully informed cannot be practiced without arming Reason (R): Supreme Court
2. By which authority the Judiciary with punitive powers can issue writs to protect only
3. We command to punish contemptuous behaviour. Fundamental Rights.
4. Let us have the body In the context of the above two Code
5. Writ to Subordinate Courts statements which one of the (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Code following is correct? [IAS (Pre) 1997] (R) is the correct explanation of
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Code (A)
(A) 2 4 5 3 1 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(B) 4 3 5 2 1 (R) is the correct explanation of but (R) is not the correct
(C) 4 3 5 1 2 (A) explanation of (A)
(D) 4 5 3 1 2 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
but (R) is not the correct (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
 Indian Polity and Governance 381
Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (C)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (A)

24. The Centre-State Relation

1. Indian Constitution presents (C) Concurrent List
three lists for the distribution of (D) Residual List
power between centre and states. 7. Relation of Centre-State lies in
Which two Articles regulate that which of the following Schedules?
distribution? [UPPCS (Pre) 1993]
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
(A) 7th (B) 8th
(A) Article 4 and 5 (C) 6th (D) 9th
(B) Article 56 and 57 8. The distribution of legislative
(C) Article 141 and 142 powers between the Centre and the
(D) Article 245 and 246 States in the Constitution is given
2. Article 249 of the Indian Constitu- in [UPPCS (Pre) 1993
tion deals with UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Sixth Schedule
(A) Emergency Power of the (B) Seventh Schedule
President (C) Eighth Schedule
(B) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha (D) Ninth Schedule
(C) Administrative Power of the
9. In which part of the Indian
Parliament
Constitution, legislative relations
(D) Legislative Powers of the
between Centre and States are
Parliament with respect to given? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004
matter in the State List UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014]
3. The financial relations between the (A) Part X (B) Part XI
Union Government and States have
(C) Part XII (D) Part XIII
been discussed under
10. Who is vested with the residuary
[UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
powers in Indian Constitutions?
(A) Article 168 to 171 (A) President [UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(B) Article 268 to 281
(B) State
(C) Article 278 to 291
(C) Central Cabinet
(D) Article 289 to 295 (D) Parliament
4. Under which Article of the Consti-
11. The Indian Constitution vests the
tution of India, Taxes are levied and residuary powers with
collected by the centre but distrib- [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
uted between the centre and the
(A) The Union Government
States? [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(B) The State Governments
(A) Article 268 (B) Article 269
(C) Both the Union as well as State
(C) Article 270 (D) Article 271 Governments
5. A resolution passed under clause (D) Neither the Union nor the State
(1) of Article 249 shall remain in Governments
force for a period not exceeding 12. In which respect have the Centre-
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
State relations been specifically
(A) One month termed as municipal relation?
(B) Three months [IAS (Pre) 1994]
(C) Six months (A) Centre’s control of the State
(D) One year the legislative sphere
6. Subjects on which centre and state (B) Centre’s control of the state
both can make law are mentioned financial matters
in which of the following Lists? (C) Centre’s control of the state
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006] the administrative sector
(A) Union List (D) Centre’s control of the state
(B) State List the planning process
13. Which one of the following Articles
of Indian Constitution provides
that “it shall be the duty of the
Union to protect every State against
external aggression and internal
disturbance”? [IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Article 215 (B) Article 275
(C) Article 325 (D) Article 355
14. Which of the following institutes
are considered necessary to
promote ‘Unity among diversity’ in
the Indian Federalism?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Inter-State Councils & National
Developement Council
(B) Finance Commission &
Regional Council
(C) Unitary Judicial System & All
India Services
(D) All of the above
15. When was the Jharkhand Area
Autonomous Council formed?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) 8 Aug, 1993 (B) 8 Aug, 1994
(C) 8 Aug, 1995 (D) 8 Aug, 1996
16. Which Article among the following
says that Indian Constitution
provisions about inter-state
relation? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(A) Article 262 (B) Article 263
(C) Article 264 (D) Article 265
17. What is the source of inter-state
councils? [UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) Constitution
(B) Parliamentary laws
(C) Recommendation of Planning
Commission
(D) Approved Resolution by C.M.
18. Which one of the following is not a
feature of a zonal council?
[Tripura PSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
in (A) It is a constitutional body
(B) Five Zonal Councils have set up
in under the State Reorganisation
Act, 1956
in (C) Chandigarh although not a
state, is included in Zonal
in Council
(D) It is an Advisory body
382 Objective General Studies
19. Which of the following is not
matched properly?
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) Union Parliament’s power of
adjudication in Inter-State
water dispute – Article 262 of
the Constitution
(B) Inter-State Water dispute Act–
1956
(C) River Boards Act – 1970
(D) National Water Policy – 1987
20. The regional councils are constit-
uted by [UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) Constitution
(B) Parliamentary Laws
(C) Resolution of Government
(D) National Development Council
21. Who among the following is
empowered to establish the inter-
state council? [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Parliament
(B) President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
22. Which of the Constitutional
Provision lays down that taxes
can neither be levied nor collected
without the authority of law?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Article 265 (B) Article 266
(C) Article 300 (D) Article 368
23. The recommendations of the
Sarkaria Commission are related to
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014
UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 2003
Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Distribution of revenue
(B) Powers and functions of
President
(C) Membership of the Parliament
(D) Centre-State relations
24. Who among the following as a
member of Sarkaria Commission?
(A) V. Shankar [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(B) K. Hanumanthaiah
(C) Dr. S.R. Sen
(D) O.V. Algesan
25. Which Commission advocated
the establishment of a Permanent
Inter-State Council, called ‘Inter-
governmental Council’?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Punchhi Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Radhakrishnan Commission
(D) Moily Commission
26. Which one of the following is not
related to Union-State relations in
India? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Sarkaria Commission
(B) Rajmannar Committee
(C) Indrajit Gupta Committee
(D) Punchhi Commission
27. Is a State of the Indian Union
empowered under the Constitution
to take foreign loans directly?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Yes, but from international
organizations only
(D) Yes, but only with the permis-
sion of the Reserve Bank of India
28. Agriculture Income Tax is assigned
to the State Government by
[IAS (Pre) 1995]
(A) The Finance Commission
(B) The National Development
Council
(C) The Inter-State Council
(D) The Constitution of India
29. Which one of the following taxes is
imposed and charged by the Union,
but is divided into Union and the
States? [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
(A) Corporation Tax
(B) Taxes on items except for
agriculture income
(C) Taxes on railway fares and
freights
(D) Custom
30. The Centre-State relations in India
are influenced by
1. Provisions of the Constitution
2. The Planning process
3. Conflict of Political interests
4. The dominance of desire to
dictate
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. Centre-State relations in India are
dependent upon
1. Constitutional provisions
2. Conventions and practices
3. Judicial interpretations
4. Mechanisms for dialogue
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All the four
32. A Federal policy involves
1. Relations between Union and
State
2. Relations among States
3. Mechanism for co-operation
4. Mechanism for solving disputes
Select your correct answer from the
code given below.
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4
(D) Only 2, 3 and 4
33. Consider the following statements.
In India, stamp duty on financial
goods deals are
1. Imposed and collected by State
Government.
2. Regulated by the Union
Government.
Which of the following is/are
correct? [IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None of the above
34. Which of the following is/are extra-
constitutional and extra-legal
device(s) for securing co-operation
and coordination between the
States in India? [IAS (Pre) 1995]
1. The National Development
Council
2. The Governor’s Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. Inter-state Council
Code
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) Only 4
35. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): There has been
a growing demand for a review of
Centre-State relationship.
Reason (R): The States have
no adequate resources to take up
developmental projects.
In the light of above two state-
ments, which one of the following
is correct? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

36. Given below are two statements
one is labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Sarkaria Commis-
sion recommended that Article 356
should be sparingly used.
Reason (R): The political parties
Indian Polity and Governance 383
that came to form the Government (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
at the Centre misused Article 356. but (R) is not the correct
[RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013] explanation of (A)
Code (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (A) 36. (A)

25. Emergency Provisions

1. Which one of the following cannot
be the ground for Proclamation of
Emergency under the Constitution
of India? [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
(A) War
(B) External aggression
(C) Armed rebellion
(D) Internal disturbance
2. The President can declare National
Emergency on the basis of
[46th BPSC (Pre) 2002]
(A) Armed rebellion
(B) External Aggression
(C) War
(D) All above mentioned reasons
3. Under which Article of the
Constitution it is the responsibility
of the Indian Government to protect
States from external aggression
and internal disturbance?
[Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Pre) 2001]
(A) Article 355 (B) Article 356
(C) Article 352 (D) Article 360
4. Which one of the following is not a
basis to declare National Emergen-
cy in India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) War
(B) External attack
(C) Threat to internal peace
(D) Armed rebellion
5. According to which Article ‘National
Emergency may be declared by the
President of India’?
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Article 352 (B) Article 370
(C) Article 371 (D) Article 395
6. According to Article 352 of the Con-
stitution, the National Emergency
can be declared in which among the
following circumstances?
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
(A) The failure of the Constitutional
machinery
(B) Invasion
(C) Internal disturbance
(D) War, external aggression or
armed rebellion
7. Under which of the following
articles the President of India
can suspend the enforcement
of Fundamental Rights (except
Articles 20, 21)?
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Article 358 (B) Article 359
(C) Article 13 (D) Article 356
8. Under Article 356 of the
Constitution of India, President’s
Rule was imposed for the first time
in [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Travancore-Cochin
(C) PEPSU
(D) Bihar
9. Which one among the following
pairs of Articles relating to the
Fundamental Rights cannot be
suspended during the enforcement
of Emergency under Article 359 of
the Indian Constitution?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Articles 20 and 21
(B) Articles 14 and 15
(C) Articles 16 and 17
(D) Articles 24 and 25
10. Mainly on whose advice the
President’s Rule is imposed in the
State? [45th BPSC (Pre) 1997]
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Justice of High Court
11. The term of a State Legislative
Assembly can be extended during
Emergency by
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) The President
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Governor of State
(D) The State Legislature
12. Under which Article of the Indian
Constitution President’s Rule can
be imposed in a State?
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) Article 370 (B) Article 368
(C) Article 356 (D) Article 352
13. Which one of the following is
the time limit for the ratification
of an Emergency period by the
Parliament? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) 14 days (B) 1 month
(C) 3 months (D) 6 months
14. A Proclamation of Emergency must
be placed before the Parliament for
its approval
[UPPCS (Mains) 2003, 2004]
(A) Within one month
(B) Within two months
(C) Within six months
(D) Within one year
15. Who said, “The emergency power
of the President is a fraud with the
Constitution”?
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) K.M. Munshi
(B) B.N. Rao
(C) K.M. Nambiar
(D) H.N. Kuniaru
16. Which one of the following Articles
of the Indian Constitution has never
been implemented into action?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
(A) Article 60 (B) Article 360
(C) Article 352 (D) Article 356
384 Objective General Studies
17. How many times has Financial 22. Under which of the following Parliament within two months.
Emergency been declared in India circumstances can the President Which of the statement(s) given
so far? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006] declare National Emergency? above is/are correct?
(A) 5 times (B) 4 times 1. External Aggression [Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
(C) Once (D) Never 2. Internal Disturbances RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
18. How many types of emergencies 3. Failure of the Constitutional (A) Only 1, 2 and 4
have been envisaged under the Machinery in States (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
Indian Constitution? 4. Financial Crisis (C) Only 3 and 4
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009, 2014] Choose the correct answer from the (D) Only 2, 3 and 4
(A) Two (B) Three codes given below. 25. Consider the following statements
(C) Four (D) One [UPPCS (Mains) 2007] in respect of financial emergency
19. During National Emergency the (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 under Article 360 of the Constitu-
term of the House of People (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 tion of India.
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010] 23. Which of the following are not 1. A Proclamation of financial
(A) Cannot be extended necessarily the consequences of the emergency issued shall cease
(B) Can be extended till the proclamation of the President’s rule to operate at the expiration
Emergency lasts in a State? of two months, unless, before
(C) Can be extended for one year 1. Dissolution of the State the expiration of that period,
only Legislative Assembly it has been approved by the
(D) Can be extended till Emergency 2. Removal of the Council of resolutions of both Houses of
lasts but only by one year at a Ministers in the State Parliament.
time 3. Dissolution of the local bodies 2. If any Proclamation of financial
20. President’s Rule can be imposed for emergency is in operation, it
Select the correct answer using the
a maximum period of is competent for the President
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017]
[UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
of India to issue directions for
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3 the reduction of salaries and
(A) 1 year (B) 2 years (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 allowances of all or any class of
(C) 6 months (D) 3 years 24. Consider the following statements persons, serving in connection
21. The President of India may declare regarding Article 356 of the with the affairs of the Union
the National Emergency if there is Constitution. but excluding the Judges of the
the threat of 1. Failure of Constitutional Supreme Court and the High
1. External aggression Machinery in States is an Courts.
2. Internal disturbances objective reality. Which of the statements given
3. Armed rebellion 2. A Proclamation under this above is/are correct?
4. Communal clashes Article can be reviewed by [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
Select the correct answer from the Supreme Court. IAS (Pre) 2007]
code given below. [UPPSC (GIC) 2010 3. Alongwith this Proclamation, (A) Only 1
UPPCS (Mains) 2010] State Legislative Assembly can (B) Only 2
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 be dissolved. (C) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3 and 4 (D) Only 1 and 3 4. This Proclamation has to be (D) Neither 1 nor 2
approved by each House of

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (A)

26. The Finance Commission

1. Which one of the following
authorities recommends the
principles governing the grants-in-
aid of the revenues to the States out
of the Consolidated Fund of India?
[IAS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Inter-State Council
(C) Union Ministry of Finance
(D) Public Accounts Committee
2. Which one of the following
institutions will lay down the basic
principles for the distribution of the
net proceeds of the taxes between
the Union and States?
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Ministry of Finance
3. Generally, in India Finance
Commission is appointed for every
five years [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
(A) To determine the financial
position of the States
(B) To determine the financial
position of Central Government
(C) To determine the financial re-
sources of Central Government
(D) To determine the share of the
States in the grants and revenu-
es of the Central Government

4. Finance are distributed between
the Centre and the State on the
recommendations of which of the
following?
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013
UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2010
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Finance Commission
(D) National Development Council
5. The main functions of Finance
Commission is [UPPCS (Pre) 1993]
(A) To determine the part of
States in central taxes and
to determine the principles
of financial aid given by the
Centre to States
(B) Financial control over States
(C) Financial control over Central
(D) None of the above
6. The Finance Commission is primar-
ily concerned with recommending
to the President about
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) The principle governing grants-
in-aid to be given to the States
(B) Distributing the net proceeds
of the taxes between the Centre
and the States
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
7. With reference to the Finance
Commission of India, which of the
following statements is correct?
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2019
Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017
IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) It encourages the inflow
of foreign capital for
infrastructure development
(B) It facilitates the proper
distribution of finances among
the Public Sector Undertakings
(C) It ensures transperancy in
financial administration
(D) None of the statements (A), (B)
and (C) given above is correct
in this context
8. Which one of the following is not a
function of Finance Commission in
India? [Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Devolution of Income Tax
(B) Devolution of Excise Duty
(C) Award of grants-in-aid
(D) Devolution of Trade Tax
9. Federal Finance Commission in
India relates to
[43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999]
(A) Finances among the States
Indian Polity and Governance 385
(B) Finances between States and (A) 4 years (B) 5 years
the Centre (C) 7 years (D) 10 years
(C) Finances between the Centre 17. Which one of the following
and Local Self Governments statements about a State Finance
(D) None of the above Commission is true?
10. Main agency to resolve the fiscal [UPPCS (Pre) 2015, 2016]
disputes between the Centre and (A) It is an informal body
States is [Goa PSC (Pre) 2019 (B) It is a Constitutional body
UPPCS (Pre) 1995] (C) It is an Administrative body
(A) Supreme Court (D) None of the above
(B) Law Minister 18. After the commencement of
(C) Finance Minister the Constitution how many
(D) Finance Commission Finance Commissions have been
11. The Provisions regarding division constituted? [MPPCS (Pre) 1999]
of taxes between the Union and the (A) 10 (B) 8
States [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011] (C) 9 (D) 15
(A) Can be suspended during 19. The Finance Commission consists
Financial Emergency of a Chairman and
(B) Can be suspended during [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
National Emergency (A) Seven other members
(C) Cannot be suspended under (B) Five other members
any circumstances (C) Four other members
(D) Can be suspended only with
(D) Such other members as may be
the consent of a majority of the decided by the President from
State Legislatures time-to-time
12. Who was the Chairman of the
20. Consider the following statements.
Twelfth Finance Commission?
In India taxes on transactions in
[Jammu & Kashmir PSC (Pre) 2018
Stock-Exchanges and Futures
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005]
Markets are [UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) A.M. Khusro
1. Levied by Union
(B) K.C. Pant
2. Collected by the State
(C) Montek Singh Government
(D) C. Rangarajan
Code
13. Who was the Chairman of the 13th (A) Only 1
Finance Commission?
(B) Only 2
[Kerala PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Pre) 2012] (C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) Indira Rajaraman
(B) C. Rangarajan 21. Consider the following statements.
(C) Vijay Kelkar The function(s) of the Finance
(D) None of the above Commission is/are
14. Who among the following was 1. To allow the withdrawal of the
the Chairman of 14th Finance money out of the Consolidated
Commission? Fund of India.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Shanta Kumar 2. To allocate among the States
the shares of proceeds of taxes.
(B) C. Rangarajan
3. To consider applications for
(C) Y.V. Reddy
grants-in-aid from States.
(D) None of the above
4. To supervise and report on
15. Who of the following shall causes whether the Union and State
every recommendation made
Governments are levying
by the Finance Commission to taxes in accordance withe the
be laid before each House of the budgetary provisions.
Parliament? [IAS (Pre) 2010]
Which of these statements is/are
(A) The President of India correct? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha IAS (Pre) 2003]
(C) The Prime Minister of India (A) Only 1
(D) The Union Finance Minister (B) 2 and 3
16. The Finance Commission is (C) 3 and 4
constituted for a period of (D) 1, 2 and 4
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011, 2010, 2008]
386 Objective General Studies
22. Consider the following statements
and select the correct answer from
the code given below.
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
Assertion (A): State Finance
Commission is a Constitutional
body.
Reason (R): Union Finance Com-
mission cannot recommend finan-
cial assistance to Panchayats.
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (C)

27. The Planning Commission

1. Planning Commission was
established by [UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) Issuing ordinance by the
President
(B) Making a law by Parliament
(C) A special resolution passed by
the federal cabinet
(D) None of the above
2. Which one of the following is an
extra-Constitutional body?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(A) Finance Commission
(B) NITI Aayog
(C) Election Commission
(D) Inter-State Council
3. The Planning Commission has been
abolished by Prime Minister
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Narendra Modi
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(D) I.K. Gujral
4. When was the Planning Commis-
sion established?
[47th BPSC (Pre) 2005]
(A) 10th March, 1950
(B) 15th March, 1950
(C) 16th March, 1951
(D) 20th March, 1950
5. Who had suggested a merger of Fi-
nance and Planning Commission?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) D.D. Basu
(B) Bhalchandra Goswami
(C) M.V. Mathur
(D) Ashutosh Pandey
6. Which one of the following is not a
Constitutional body?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005
UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 03, 08, 2010]
(A) Union Public
Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Election Commission
7. Who was the First Chairman of
Planning Commission of India?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) M. Viswesvarya
(B) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) P.C. Mahalanobis
(D) John Mathai
8. Who works as the Chairman of the
Planning Commission?
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006
MPPCS (Pre) 2004]
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Vice-President
(D) Governor of Reserve Bank
9. The Ex-officio Chairman
Planning Commission is
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) President
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
10. Which one of the following is not
correct about NITI Aayog?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(A) It was set up to replace the
Planning Commission
(B) It has a full time Chairman
(C) It was set up in January 2015
(D) It is based on the principle of
Cooperative Federalism
11. Who among the following is
associated with ‘NITI’ Aayog?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Narendra Modi
(B) Kaushik Basu
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) P. Chidambaram
Service 12. The Deputy Chairman of Planning
Commission is equivalent to
[UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(A) Vice-President
(B) Minister of the State
(C) Cabinet Minister
(D) Judge of the Supreme Court
13. The importance given to the
Deputy Chairman of the Planning
Commission in the official
hierarchy of the Government is that
of [UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) A Cabinet Minister in the
Government of India
(B) A Supreme Court Judge
(C) Chairman of a Parliamentary
Committee
(D) A Secretary to the Government
of India
14. Who among the following has not
of been the Deputy Chairman of the
Planning Commission in India?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Pranab Mukherjee
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Montek S. Ahluwalia
15. Which one of the following
statements is not true?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Prime Minister is the Chairman
of the Planning Commission of
India
(B) Planning Commission is the
highest decision-making body
for planning in India
(C) Secretary of the Planning Com-
mission is also the Secretary
of the National Development
Council
(D) The National Development
Council is presided over by the
Prime Minister of India
16. National Development Council is
primarily related to
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]

(A) Approval of five year plans India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(B) Execution of village develop- (A) 26th January, 1950
ment plans (B) 2nd October, 1950
(C) Formation of development (C) 6th August, 1951
plans
(D) 6th August, 1952
(D) The financial relation between
21. Which of the following body/bodies
States and Union does not/do not find mention in the
17. Who acts as the Secretary of Nation-
Constitution?
al Development Council (NDC)?
1. National Development Council
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
2. Planning Commission
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
3. Zonal Councils
(B) Secretary, Ministry of Planning
Select the correct answer using the
(C) Secretary, Planning Commis-
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2013]
sion
(A) Only 1 and 2
(D) Secretary, Finance Commission
(B) Only 2
18. Which among the following (C) Only 1 and 3
functions as a coordinator between (D) All of the above
the Planning Commission and State
22. The National Development Council
Governments? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] (NDC)
(A) National Integration Council 1. Discusses the progress of the
(B) Finance Commission National Plan.
(C) National Development Council 2. Suggests the ways to achieve
(D) None of the above the goals of the National Plan.
19. Who presides over the meetings of 3. Gives guidelines to formulate
the National Development Council the National Plan.
of India? 4. Suggests allocation of money in
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006] Planning.
(A) Deputy Chairman of Planning Considering the above statements,
Commission of India select the correct answer from the
code given below.
(B) Prime Minister of India
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010, 2005]
(C) Finance Minister of India
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Vice-President of India (B) 2, 3 and 4
20. When was the National (C) 1, 2 and 4
Development Council formed in
(D) All of the above
Indian Polity and Governance 387
23. Who among the following consti-
tutes the National Development
Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance
Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
24. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Planning
Commission has been defined as
the economic cabinet, not merely
for the Union but the States also.
Reason (R): It formulates the
five year plans for the balanced
utilization of natural resources.
In context of the above statements,
which one of the following is
correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B)

28. Lokpal and Important Commissions

1. Which of the following (A) 1967 (B) 1971 5. Which of the following has
Commissions/Committees has re- (C) 1968 (D) 1972 recommended that appointment
commended the creation of a Local 3. Establishment of Lokpal and Lokay- of Judges to Higher Courts should
Body Ombudsman? ukta in India was recommended by be through the participation of the
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1997, 2016] Executive, Legislature and Chief
(A) First Administrative Reforms (A) Sarkaria Commission Justice? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
Commission UPPSC (RI) 2014]
(B) Administrative Reforms
(B) Second Administrative Re- Commission (A) National Commission to
forms Commission (C) Law Commission Review the Working of the
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Constitution
(D) Thakkar Commission
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee (B) National Judicial Commission
4. Indian Model of Ombudsman is
2. The first Lokpal Bill was presented [UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (C) Second Administrative
in the Parliament in Reforms Commission
(A) Lekhpal (B) Tehsildar
[UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(C) Governor (D) Lokpal (D) Report of Law Commission
388 Objective General Studies
6. In which of the following States,
the office of Lokayukta was first
established?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Odisha
7. The Lokayukta of Uttar Pradesh
submits its report to
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
8. The first Indian State to pass the
Lokayukta Bill in 2011 is
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Jharkhand
9. The expenses of the Public Service
Commission of Uttar Pradesh are
charged upon [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Consolidate Fund of State
(C) It’s own Fund generated by fees
(D) Contingent Fund
10. Vohra Committee was formed to
study [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Police Reform
(B) Financial Reform
(C) Nexus of Politicians and
Criminals
(D) Appointment of governors
11. Name the committee which has
investigated and submitted the
report on the nexus of politicians
and criminals? [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(A) Gyanprakash Committee
(B) Vohra Committee
(C) Goswami Committee
(D) Rajamannar Committee
12. Who recommended to end Indian
Administrative Services and Indian
Police Services? [IAS (Pre) 1993]
(A) Dhebar Commission
(B) Kelkar Commission
(C) Kher Commission
(D) Rajamannar Commission
13. Under which Article of the
Constitution of Protection of
Human Rights Ordinance was
issued by the President in 1993?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Article 123 (B) Article 124
(C) Article 125 (D) Article 127
14. When did the Protection of Human
Rights Act come into force in India?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2015
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 1990 (B) 1991
(C) 1992 (D) 1993
15. What was the objective of the
Protection of Human Rights Act,
1993? [MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Better protection of Human
Rights
(B) To constitute Human Rights
Protection Commission
(C) To constitute Human Rights
Protection Commission in the
State
(D) All of the above
16. Who is not a member of the
committee for the appointment
of Chairperson and members
of the National Human Rights
Commission? [MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Speaker of the House of People
(B) Chairman of the Council of
States
(C) Leader of opposition in the
House of People
(D) Leader of opposition in the
Council of States
17. In which Section of the Human
Rights Protection Act, 1993 is
‘Public Servant’ defined?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Section 2 (B) Section 3
(C) Section 2(H) (D) Section 2(M)
18. According to the National Human
Rights Commission Act, 1993 who
amongst the following can be its
Chairman? [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Any Serving Judge of the
Supreme Court
(B) Any Serving Judge of the High
Court
(C) Only a retired Chief Justice of
India
(D) Only a retired Chief Justice of a
High Court
19. The tenure of the Chairman
of the National Human Rights
Commission is [MPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) 3 years (B) 4 years
(C) 5 years (D) 6 years
20. Chairperson and members of State
Human Rights Commission are
appointed by [MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) Chief Justice of High Court
(D) None of the above
21. Which one of the following is not
the function of the State Human
Rights Commission?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Enquire suo-moto the violation
of Human Rights
(B) Visit any Jail
(C) Review the protection of
Human Rights
(D) To punish for the violation of
Human Rights
22. Which one of the following is not a
Constitutional body?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) The Human Rights Commission
(B) Finance Commission of a State
(C) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(D) Finance Commission at the
Centre
23. Which one of the following has
a status different from the other
three? [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Backward Class Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Human Rights
Commission
(D) Election Commission
24. The Chairman of the Constitutional
Review Commission set up in
February, 2000 is
[UPPCS (Mains) 2002
45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) M.N. Venkatachaliah
(B) R.S. Sarkaria
(C) Krishna Iyer
(D) Fatima Beevi
25. The tenure of Central Information
Commissioner is
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
(A) 6 years or 65 years of age
(B) 6 years or 62 years of age
(C) 5 years or 62 years of age
(D) 5 years or 65 years of age
26. Which Act established Public
Service Commission in India for the
first time? [UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Indian Council Act, 1892
(B) Council Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
27. The question considered by Swarn
Singh Committee was related to
[IAS (Pre) 1993]
(A) More autonomy for Punjab
than Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Suitability of President oriented
governance for India
(C) Priority to Directive Principles
of State Policy in comparison to
fundamental rights
(D) Administrative reform

28. Mandal Commission, whose
proposals created massive dispute,
was set up by [UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Rajeev Gandhi
(D) Vishwanath Pratap Singh
29. The Report of Mandal Commission
was submitted in [UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(A) 1990 (B) 1983
(C) 1980 (D) 1977
30. The causes of atrocity on Scheduled
Caste and Scheduled Tribes
according to the report of National
Commission for Scheduled Caste
and Scheduled Tribe in the year
1990 do not include
[MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Land alienation
(B) Bonded labour
(C) Indebtedness
(D) Religious causes
31. Who appoints the Members of the
State Public Service Commission?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) Chairman, Union Public Ser-
vice Commission
(D) Chairman, State Public Service
Commission
32. The Chairman of a Joint Public
Service Commission for two or
more States is appointed by
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
(A) The President of India
(B) The President of India on
the recommendation of the
Governors concerned
(C) The Governor of the largest
State
(D) A Committee of Governors of
all the States concerned
33. In which of the following
matters the State Public Service
Commission is not consulted?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) On the method of recruitment
of Civil Services
(B) On the principles to be followed
in making appointments to
Civil Services
(C) On the principles to be followed
in making promotions in Civil
Services and transfers from one
service to another
(D) On making transfers of Civil
Servants
34. The Union Public Service Commi-
ssion can be entrusted with the
functions of a State Public Service
Commission with the approval of
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) President of India
35. Which Article of the Constitution
has provision for removal of a mem-
ber of Public Service Commission?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) 315 (B) 316
(C) 317 (D) 318
36. Which of the following is correct
about Union Public Service
Commission of India?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) It supervises the State Public
Service Commission
(B) It has nothing to do with State
Public Service Commission
(C) All its Members are taken from
State Public Service Commis-
sion
(D) It sends annual guidelines
to State Public Service
Commissions
37. Which one of the following is
correct? Union Public Service
Commission is a
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) Regulatory Organization
(B) Legal Organization
(C) Established by Parliamentary
Ordinance
(D) Constitutional Organization
38. The Union Public Service Commis-
sion submits its annual report to
the [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Home Minister
39. The first woman Chairman of Union
Public Service Commission (UPSC)
is [MPPCS (Pre) 1993]
(A) Sheela Dixit
(B) Roze Bethew
(C) Veena Majumdar
(D) Margret Alwa
40. Which of the following statements
about the Lokpal Bill, 2011 is/are
correct?
1. Was introduced in the Lok
Sabha on August 4, 2011.
2. Was introduced by Shri P.
Chidambaram, Home Minister.
3. Has been referred to the
Standing Committee
Indian Polity and Governance 389
4. Has been termed by Civil
Society members as ‘weak’.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
[UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) Only 1, 3 and 4
41. Civil Society’s representatives in
the panel for drafting the Lokpal
Bill include
1. Anna Hazare
2. Prashant Joshi
3. Santosh Hegde
4. Kiran Bedi
5. Shanti Bhushan
Select your correct answer from the
code given below.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) Only 1, 3, 4 and 5
(B) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 1, 3 and 5
42. Consider the following statements
about the minorities in India.
1. The Government of India has
notified five communities,
namely, Muslims, Sikhs,
Christians, Buddhists and
Zoroastrians as minorities.
2. The National Commission for
Minorities was given statutory
status in 1993.
3. The smallest religious minority
in India are the Zoroastrians.
4. The Constitution of India rec-
ognizes and protects religious
and linguisitic minorities.
Which of these statements are
correct? [IAS (Pre) 2001]
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
43. Consider the following statements
regarding the National Human
Rights Commission of India.
1. Its Chairman must be retired
Chief Justice of India.
2. It has formation in each
State as State Human Rights
Commission.
3. Its powers are only recommen-
datory in nature.
4. It is mandatory to appoint a
woman as a member of the
Commission.
Which of the above statements are
correct? [IAS (Pre) 1999]
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 3 and 4
390 Objective General Studies
44. Which of the following are 1. The report will be of recom- Assertion (A): The National
Constitutional Authorities? mendatory nature. Human Rights Commission
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012 2. The appointment was approved (NHRC) is to be headed by a person
UPPCS (Mains) 2012] by Parliament. who has been a former Chief Justice
1. State Election Commission 3. It is presided over by Chief of India.
2. State Finance Commission Justice M.N. Venkatchaliah. Reason (R): The Chairperson of
3. District Panchayat 4. It will focus on socio-economic NHRC holds office for a term of 5
4. State Electoral Officer needs of the country. years or till he attains the age of 70
Code Which of these statements are years, whichever is earlier.
correct? [UPPCS (Pre) 2003 [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002] Code
45. Consider the following statements (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
regarding appointment of National (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4 (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Commission for revising the 46. Read the following and select the (C) Both (A) and (R) are true
Constitution. correct answer from the code given (D) Both (A) and (R) are false
below.

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (C)

29. Temporary Special Provisions

1. Article 371-B of the Constitution of 3. Which Article of the Indian 5. Article 370 of the Indian
India makes special provisions for Constitution deals with special Constitution was related to
which of the following State/s? provisions with respect to different [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] States? [UPPCS (Pre) 1997] UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
(A) Maharashtra and Gujarat (A) Article 369 (A) State of Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Assam (B) Article 370 (B) State of Sikkim
(C) Nagaland (C) Article 371 (C) State of Nagaland
(D) Manipur (D) Article 372 (D) State of Manipur
2. Article 371 of the Constitution 4. Article 370 of Indian Constitution 6. When was the designation sadr-e-
makes special provisions for which is [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018 Riyasat changed to Governor for
of the following States? Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015] the state of Jammu and Kashmir?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011] (A) A Regular Provision [Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2019
(A) Jammu and Kashmir (B) A Permanent Provision UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(B) Maharashtra and Gujarat (C) A Temporary and Transitional (A) 1948 (B) 1950
(C) Nagaland Provision (C) 1952 (D) 1965
(D) Andhra Pradesh (D) An Acting Provision

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D)

30. Election Commission

1. Chief Election Commissioner can
be removed from his office by
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2016
UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
(A) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(B) The President
(C) Provision of the Cabinet
(D) 2/3 majority of the members
of both the Houses of the
Parliament on the basis of
proven misconduct
2. The Chief Election Commissioner
can be removed from office by
[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Mains) 2002]
(A) Both Houses of Parliament by
two-thirds majority in each
House
(B) The same procedure which
applies in case of removal of
Supreme Court Judges
(C) The President of India in
consultation with the Chief
Justice of India
(D) The President on the advice of
the Council of Ministers

3. The status of the Chief Election
Commissioner of India is equal to
the [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Governor of a State
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Auditor General of India
4. What is the tenure of the Chief
Election Commissioner of India?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Five years
(B) During the pleasure of the
President
(C) Six years or till the age of 65
years whichever is earlier
(D) Five years or till the age of 65
years whichever is earlier
5. The Election Commissioner can be
removed by the [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President on the recommen-
dation of the Chief Election
Commissioner
(D) Chief Justice of India
6. The Chief Election Commissioner
of India is appointed by
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Chief Justice
7. The Constitution of India provides
for an Election Commissioner
under Article [MPPCS (Pre) 2014
UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) 321 (B) 322
(C) 323 (D) 324
8. Under which Article of the Indian
Constitution, there is provision for
the Election Commission?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Article 320 (B) Article 322
(C) Article 324 (D) Article 326
9. Which one of the following
functions is not related to the
Election Commission?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Direction and control of the
preparation of the electoral
rolls
(B) Conduct of all elections to the
Parliament and Legislatures of
every State
(C) To conducts the election of the
Offices of President and Vice
President
(D) To make provision with respect
to elections to Legislatures
10. Election to the Office of the
President is conducted by
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Prime Minister’s Office
(C) The Minister of Parliamentary
Affairs
(D) The Election Commission of
India
11. Which of the following is not
related to Election Commission?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
(A) To issue notification of election
(B) To distribute election symbols
(C) To settle the validity of elections
(D) To conduct elections peacefully
12. Which one of the following is correct
in respect of the commencement of
the election process in India?
[IAS (Pre) 1995]
(A) The recommendation for elec-
tion is made by the Government
and the notification for election
is issued by the Election Com-
mission
(B) The recommendation for elec-
tion is made by the Election
Commission and the notifica-
tion for election is issued by the
Home Ministry at the Centre
and Home Departments in the
States
(C) The recommendation for elec-
tion is made by the Election
Commission and the notifica-
tion for election is issued by the
President and Governors of the
States concerned
(D) Both the exercises of making a
recommendation for election
and that of issuing a notification
in respect of it are done by the
Election Commission
13. Who decides disputes regarding
disqualification of Members of
Parliament? [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) The President
(B) The Concerned House
(C) The Election Commission
(D) The President in consultation
with the Election Commission
14. While deciding any question
relating the disqualification of
a member of Parliament, the
President shall obtain the opinion
of [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Election Commission of India
(C) Attorney General of India
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
15. If in an election to a State Legislative
Assembly the candidate who is
Indian Polity and Governance 391
declared elected loses his deposit, it
means that [IAS (Pre) 1995]
(A) The polling was very poor
(B) The election was for a multi-
member constituency
(C) The elected candidate’s victory
over his nearest rival was very
marginal
(D) A very large number of
candidates contested
16. The decision to disqualify the
person declared convict by the
Court to contest the elections has
been made by [IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) The Government of India
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Election Commission
(D) The Parliament
17. The Right to Vote in India is a
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2010, 2015]
(A) Fundamental Right
(B) Constitutional Right
(C) Natural Right
(D) Legal Right
18. Voting right by the youths at the age
of 18 years was exercised for the
first time in the General Election of
[UPPCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) 1987 (B) 1988
(C) 1989 (D) 1990
19. The Lower age limit of voters of
Union and State Legislature was
reduced from 21 years to 18 years
by [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011
48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004
41st BPSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) 57th Amendment, 1987
(B) 60th Amendment, 1988
(C) 61st Amendment, 1989
(D) 65th Amendment, 1990
20. Which of the following is concerned
with the 61st Amendment of the
Indian Constitution?
[Haryana PSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Emergency powers of the
President
(B) Powers of the President to
extend President’s Rule
(C) Lowering the age of voters
(D) Financial Emergency
21. Which one of the following
statements regarding Exit Poll is
correct? [IAS (Pre) 1994]
(A) Exit Poll is a term used to
denote a post-election survey of
voters regarding the candidates
in whose favour they had
exercised their franchise
392 Objective General Studies
(B) Exit Poll and Opinion Polls are
one and the same
(C) Exit Poll is a device through
which results of voting can be
most exactly predicted
(D) Exit Poll is an administrative
device made recently by the
Chief Election Commissioner to
prevent impersonation
22. What is the total number of electors
in Lok Sabha elections of 2009 in
Million? (1 million = 10 Lakh)
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
(A) 815 (B) 613
(C) 714 (D) 903
23. The Dinesh Goswami Committee
recommended [IAS (Pre) 1997]
(A) The constitution of state-level
election commission
(B) List system of election to the
Lok Sabha
(C) Government funding of
parliamentary elections
(D) A ban on the candidature of
independent candidates for the
parliamentary elections
24. The Dinesh Goswami Committee
was concerned with
[IAS (Pre) 1995]
(A) De-nationalisation of banks
(B) Electoral reforms
(C) Steps to put down insurgency
in the North-East
(D) The problem of the Chakmas
25. Who among the following was
not the member of Election
Commission of India?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) Dr. M.S. Gill
(B) N.B. Lohani
(C) T.S. Krishnamurti
(D) B. Lyngdoh
26. Proportional representation is not
necessary for a country where
[IAS (Pre) 1997]
(A) There are no reserved
constituencies
(B) A two-party system has
developed
(C) The first-past-post system
prevails
(D) There is a fusion of Presidential
and Parliamentary forms of
Government
27. The Election Commission was
converted into a ‘Three members
Commission’ in the following year.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) 1987 (B) 1988
(C) 1989 (D) 1990
28. Which of the following elections
is not conducted by the Election
Commission? [Uttarakhand UDA/
LDA (Mains) 2006, 2007]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) President’s election
(D) Local bodies
29. Which one of the following is the
‘National Voters Day’?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2012
UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) 5th June
(B) 1st November
(C) 25th January
(D) 8th March
30. The system of proportional
representation as an electoral
mechanism ensures
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Majority rule
(B) Stability in Government
(C) Common political thinking
(D) Representation of minorities
31. Consider the following statements
with reference to India.
1. The Chief Election Commis-
sioner and other Election Com-
missioners enjoy equal powers
but receive unequal salaries.
2. The Chief Election Commis-
sioner is entitled to the same
salary as is provided to a Judge
of the Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Election Commis-
sioner shall not be removed
from his office except in like
manner and on like grounds as
a Judge of the Supreme Court.
4. The term of office of the Elec-
tion Commissioner is five years
from the date he assumes his
office or till the day he attains
the age of 62 years, whichever
is earlier.
Which of these statements are
correct? [IAS (Pre) 2002]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 4
32. Which of the following are
the functions of the Election
Commission of India?
1. To conduct elections for the
post of Speaker and Deputy
Speaker of Lok Sabha and the
Chairperson of Rajya Sabha.
2. To conduct elections for the
municipality and municipal
corporations.
3. To make a decision on all the
doubts and disputes arising
from the election.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 1994]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) None of these
33. The functions of Election Commis-
sion of India are
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
1. To conduct all the elections
of the Parliament and State
Legislative Assembly.
2. To conduct elections for the
post of President and Vice-
President.
3. To recommend for President’s
Rule in case of any State not in
condition to hold or conduct
free and fair elections in any
State.
4. To supervise, direct and control
the work of preparing electoral
lists.
Code
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) All of them
34. Which of the election system have
been adopted for different elections
in India?
1. Direct Election System on the
basis of Adult Suffrage.
2. System of Proportional represe-
ntation by a Single Transferable
Vote.
3. List System of Proportional
Representation.
4. The cumulative Voting system
of Indirect Election.
Choose the correct answer from the
given code. [IAS (Pre) 1994]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
35. Consider the following statements
about the recent amendments to the
elections law by the Representation
of the People (Amendment) Act
1996.
1. Any conviction for the offence
of insulting the Indian National
Flag or the Constitution of India
shall entail disqualification
for contesting elections
to Parliament and State
Legislatures for six years from
the date of conviction.
2. There is an increase in the
security deposit which a
candidate has to make to
contest the election to the Lok
Sabha.

3. A candidate cannot now contest
election from more than one
Parliament Constituency.
4. No election will now be
countermanded on the death of
a contesting candidate.
Which of the above statements are
correct? [IAS (Pre) 1999]
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
36. Consider the following statements.
1. The Election Commission of
India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs
decides the election schedule
for the conduct of both general
elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves
the disputes relating to splits/
mergers of recognised political
parties.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 3
37. With reference to the Delimitation
Commission, consider the follow-
ing statements.
1. The orders of the Delimitation
Commission cannot be challen-
ged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the
Delimitation Commission are
laid before the Lok Sabha or
State Legislative Assembly, no
modifications can be done in
the orders.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
38. Given below are two statements.
Assertion (A): Powers for
conducting elections to the
Parliament and State Legislatures
in a free and fair manner have been
given to an independent body i.e.,
the Election Commission.
Reason (R): Power of removal of
Election Commissioners is with the
executive.
In the context of above, which one
of the following is correct?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
39. Given below are two statements.
Assertion (A): Model code
of conduct is to be followed by
political parties as soon as an
election is announced.
Reason (R): Model code of
conduct was enacted by Parliament.
Choose the correct answer from the
code given below.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Indian Polity and Governance 393
40. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The system of
proportional representation may
solve the problem of minority
representation to some extent.
Reason (R): The system of
proportional representation
enables due representation to all
type of groups based on ethnicity,
gender, interests and ideologies.
Choose the correct answer from the
code given below.
[Tripura PSC (Pre) 2017
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
41. Study the following statements and
select the correct answer from the
code given below.
Assertion (A): The State Election
Commission is a Constitutional
authority.
Reason (R): Elections to rural
local bodies are overseen by the
Election Commission of India.
[Manipur PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (D)
394 Objective General Studies
1. A political party in India can be
recognised as National Party if it
has state party status in atleast
[UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(A) Three States (B) Four States
(C) Five States (D) Seven States
2. A political party is recognized as a
regional party, if [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) It gets 4% votes in the State
either in Lok Sabha or the
Assembly election
(B) It gets 6% votes in the State
either in Lok Sabha or the
Assembly election
(C) It gets 8% votes in the State
either in Lok Sabha or the
Assembly election
(D) None of the above
3. Who recognises the political parties
in India?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) President of India
(B) Election Commission of India
(C) Ministry of Law and Justice
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
4. Which of the following does not
constitute the social base of the
communist party in India?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Agriculture and Industrial
working class
(B) Business class
(C) The educated
(D) Youth
5. The word ‘National’ in Indian
National Congress was influenced
by [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(A) Ancient Indian precedents
(B) Reaction against British rule
(C) European Precedents
(D) Freedom struggle of America
6. The Nationalist Congress Party was
formed in 1999 following the split
in [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Shiv Sena
(B) Congress Party
(C) BJP
(D) BSP
7. After the formation of Bhartiya
Janta Party, who became its first
President? [MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) L.K. Advani
(B) A.B. Vajpayee
(C) M.M. Joshi
(D) Sikandar Bakht
8. Which of the following is a Regional
Political Party? [UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
31. Political Parties
(A) Congress (B) BJP
(C) CPI (D) Akali Dal
9. Which one of the following parties
is not a National Political Party?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(A) Communist Party of India
(B) Bhartiya Janta Party
(C) Telugu Desham
(D) Indian National Congress
10. Which one of the following has
been recognised as National Party
in 2016?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) I.N.L.D. (B) Akali Dal
(C) T.M.C. (D) A.I.A.D.M.K.
11. Who was the founder of
‘Independent Labour Party’?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(A) R. Srinivasan
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) C. Rajagopalachari
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
12. In which year was the Communist
Party of India divided into two
parties CPI and CPIM?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) 1962 (B) 1964
(C) 1966 (D) 1969
13. In which of the following state a
regional party is not in power?
[MPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Kerala
14. Who is empowered to recognize
various political parties in India as
National or Regional Parties?
[45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) The Parliament
(B) The President
(C) The Election Commission
(D) The Supreme Court
15. Who among the following scholars
described the party system
prevailing in India in the early
years of Independence as one party
dominant system?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Myron Weiner
(B) Rajni Kothari
(C) Austin
(D) Bhikhu Parikh
16. The party system is the part of
which larger system among the
following? [MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Social system
(B) Economic system
(C) Political system
(D) International system
17. Inner-Party Democracy stands for
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
(A) A Government formed by
several parties with a common
programme
(B) Party closest to the party
or parties forming the
Government
(C) Periodical elections within the
party to elect the office bearers
of the party
(D) Secrets of Government are
shared by parties in power
18. What was the date when the Anti-
defection Bill was passed?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) 17 February, 1985
(B) 15 February, 1985
(C) 30 March, 1985
(D) 21 April, 1985
19. Which one of the following is not
covered by the Anti-Defection
Law? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) An-bloc defections in a Party
(B) Large defections in a Party in
various spell
(C) Smaller defection in single spell
(D) Party members in Parliament
casting vote either to topple or
support a Government
20. The political parties got the
Constitutional recognition for the
first time in the year.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) 1975 (B) 1977
(C) 1985 (D) 1995
21. Which of the following is not true
about the Anti-Defection Bill?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) An M.P. or an M.L.A. will be
disqualified if he has voluntarily
given up the membership of the
party to which he belonged
(B) In the event of a member’s
absence from voting in the
House on a particular issue,
an M.P. or M.L.A. will be
disqualified
(C) A member shall not be
disqualified if there is a merger
of political parties
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
will not be disqualified if he
becomes a member of another
political party later on
 Indian Polity and Governance 395
22. The Anti-Defection Law was Select the correct answer from the the registration of political
enacted as early as 1979 in given code. [UPPCS (Mains) 2011] parties.
[Nagaland PSC (Pre) 2019 (A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 2. Registration of political parties
IAS (Pre) 1993] (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the four is carried out by the Election
(A) Kerala 28. Which of the following political Commission.
(B) Jammu and Kashmir parties is/are national political 3. A National level political party
(C) West Bengal parties? [IAS (Pre) 1995] is one which is recognized in
(D) Tamil Nadu 1. Muslim League four or more states.
23. Which of the following political 4. During 1999 general elections,
2. Revolutionary Socialist Party
parties is not a national party there were six National and 48
3. All India Forward Bloc State level parties recognized
as recognized by the Election 4. Peasants and Workers Party of
Commission of India? by the Election Commission.
India
[Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019 Which of the statement above are
Code correct? [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
MPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1 and 3
(A) Nationalist Congress Party
(C) Only 3 (D) None of these (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) Bahujan Samaj Party
29. Which of the following parties were 33. Consider the table given below
(C) Communist Party of India formed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(D) Samajwadi Party providing some details of the results
1. The Peasants and Workers of the election to the Karnataka
24. To be officially recognized by Party of India. State Legislative Assembly held in
the Speaker of Lok Sabha as an 2. All India Scheduled Castes December, 1994.
Opposition Group, a party or Federation.
coalition of parties must have at Political Percentage Number
3. The Independent Labour Party. party of Popular of Seats
least [Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Pre) 2006] Select the correct answer from the Votes secured
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012] obtained
(A) 50 members
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 Janta Dal 36 116
(B) 60 members
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Congress 31 35
(C) 55 members
30. Which of the following Parties were BJP 20.4 40
(D) 1/3 of total members of the Lok
Sabha not a part of the United Front which In terms of electoral analysis,
was in power during 1996-1997? the voter-seat distortion is to
25. In which State Communist parties
1. Bahujan Samaj Party be explained as the result of the
jointly launched ‘Bhu-Poratam’
2. Haryana Vikas Party adoption of the [IAS (Pre) 1995]
Movement? [Goa PSC (Pre) 2019
RAS/RTS (Pre) 2007] 3. Samata Party (A) Hare system
(A) Andhra Pradesh 4. Asam Gana Parishad (B) Cumulative vote system
(B) Tamil Nadu Select the correct answer using the (C) First-past-the post system
(C) Karnataka code given below. [IAS (Pre) 1998] (D) Plural vote system
(D) Kerala Code 34. Match List-I with List-II and select
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 the correct answer using the code
26. The principle of ‘Kamaraj Plan’ was
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2 given below the lists.
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
UPPCS (Pre) 1997] 31. Given below is the Vote percentage
(A) To establish an ideal socialist secured by a political party in three List-I (Political Party)
society successive elections to the Lok (a) CPI
(B) Industrial Development of Sabha. The party which secured (b) CPM
Tamil Nadu these percentages of votes was (c) AIADMK
(C) Making Indian National Year 1984 1989 1991 (d) Telugu Desham
Congress Vibrant Percentage of 7.4 11.4 22.4 List-II (Year of Formation)
(D) Promotion of cooperative Votes 1. 1972
farming The party to receive above men- 2. 1920
27. The Principles for election to the tioned percentage of votes was 3. 1964
State Legislatures include [IAS (Pre) 1994] 4. 1982
1. It will be on the basis of adult (A) Congress (I) Code
suffrage. (B) Bahujan Samaj Party (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. There will be only one electoral (C) Bhartiya Janta Party (A) 2 3 1 4
roll for every territorial (D) Communist Party of India (B) 3 2 4 1
constituency. (Marxist) (C) 1 2 3 4
3. Religion, Race, Sex etc., will 32. Consider the following statements (D) 4 1 3 2
have no place in the formation regarding the political parties in
of the electoral roll. 35. Consider the following statements.
India.
4. The political parties will be free 1. The Representation of the Assertion (A): The coalition
to have their norms. People Act, 1951 provides for government led by Bhartiya
396 Objective General Studies
Janta Party contains some policy
guidance in the National agenda,
some promises and few guiding
principles for its governance.
Reason (R): It discusses a lot of
things in detail.
Which one of the following is corr-
ect in context to above statements?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
36. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In India, the
political parties which formed
the governments represented the
majority of seats secured in the
elections to the House of the People
at the Centre and the Legislative
Assemblies in the States but not the
majority of votes.
Reason (R): The result of
elections based on the majority-
vote-system is decided on the basis
of the relative majority of votes
secured.
In the context of the above two
statements which one of the
following is correct? [IAS (Pre) 1994]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
37. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The reservation
of thirty-three percent of seats for
women in Parliament and State
Legislature does not require a
Constitutional amendment.
Reason (R): Political parties
contesting elections can allocate
thirty-three percent of seats they
contest to women candidates
without any Constitutional
amendment.
In the context of the above two
statements which one of the
following is correct?
[IAS (Pre) 1997]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
38. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): There is no fixed
party system in India.
Reason (R): There are too many
political parties.
Select the correct answer from code
given below.
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004
UPPCS (Mains) 2004
UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
39. Study the following statements and
select the correct answer from the
code given below.
Assertion (A): India has a written
Constitution.
Reason (R): Growth of strong
regional parties is an indicator of
regional aspirations.
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (B)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (B)

32. Constitutional Amendment

1. Which Article of the Constitution (C) Either in Lok Sabha or Rajya (C) 24th Amendment
of India lays down the procedure Sabha (D) 42nd Amendment
for the amendment of the (D) In the Supreme Court of India 4. Which one of the following Bills
Constitution? [UPPSC (GIC) 2010 3. The President’s power to veto a Bill must be passed by each House of
UPPCS (Mains) 2008] for amendment of the Constitution the Indian Parliament separately by
(A) 348 (B) 358 has been taken away by substituting the special majority?
(C) 368 (D) 378 the world ‘shall give his assent’ by [UPPCS (Mains) 2007
2. A bill for the amendment in Indian which amendment? IAS (Pre) 2003]
Constitution can be presented [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018 (A) Ordinary Bill
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2013 RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013] (B) Money Bill
39th BPSC (Pre) 1992] (A) 44th Amendment (C) Finance Bill
(A) Only in Lok Sabha (B) 23rd Amendment (D) Constitution Amendment Bill
(B) Only in Rajya Sabha

5. When was the first Bill for
the amendment of the Indian
Constitution presented?
[38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
(A) 1950 (B) 1951
(C) 1955 (D) 1958
6. In the event of the Upper House
rejecting a Constitutional Amend-
ment Bill passed by the Lower
House. [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2015
UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) The Bill will have to be dropped
(B) A joint sitting of the both
Houses of Parliament may be
convened to consider and pass
the Bill
(C) The Bill shall be deemed to
have been passed by both the
Houses of the Parliament if the
Lok Sabha passes it again by a
two-third majority
(D) The Bill shall be deemed to have
been passed by both the Houses
of the Parliament despite the
disapproval of the Bill by the
Upper House
7. The First Constitution Amendment
Bill passed in 1951 was related to
[Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Security of the country
(B) Security of the Prime Minister
(C) Protection of agrarian reforms
in certain States
(D) Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes
8. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian
Constitution was added by
[IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) First Amendment
(B) Eighth Amendment
(C) Ninth Amendment
(D) Forty Second Amendment
9. The 93rd Constitution Amendment
Bill deals with the [IAS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Continuation of reservation for
backward classes in govern-
ment jobs
(B) Free and compulsory education
for all children between the age
of 6 and 14 years
(C) Reservation of 30% posts
for women in government
recruitments
(D) Allocation of more number
of Parliamentary seats for
recently formed States
10. ‘Right to Education’ introduced
through 86th Amendment came
into force. [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 2002 (B) 2004
(C) 2008 (D) 2010
11. By which Constitutional Amend-
ment OBCs have been given 27%
reservation in the admission to edu-
cational institutions?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 92nd (B) 93rd
(C) 94th (D) 96th
12. By which of the following amend-
ments of the Indian Constitution,
the term ‘Co-operative Societies’
was added in Article 19(1)(c)?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(B) 73rd Amendment Act, 1993
(C) 97th Amendment Act, 2011
(D) 36th Amendment Act, 1975
13. Which one of the following,
Amendments of the Constitution of
India converts the Union Territory
of Delhi into the National Capital
Region of Delhi?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) 69th Amendment
(B) 70th Amendment
(C) 73rd Amendment
(D) 74th Amendment
14. Which of the following has banned
floor crossing by the member
elected on a party ticket to the
legislature? [UPPCS (Pre) 1996, 92]
(A) 52nd Constitutional Amend-
ment Act
(B) Representation of Public Law
(C) 42nd Constitutional Amend-
ment
(D) 44th Constitutional Amend-
ment
15. Which one of the following Consti-
tutional Amendments introduced
the anti-defection provision in the
Constitution for the first time?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008
MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) 54th Amendment
(B) 53rd Amendment
(C) 52nd Amendment
(D) 51st Amendment
16. 52nd Constitution Amendment is
related to [Orissa PSC (Pre) 2014
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
(A) Defection
(B) Reservation
(C) Election
(D) Protection of minorities
17. The authoritative text of the
Indian Constitution in Hindi was
authorized to be published by which
Indian Polity and Governance 397
of the following Constitutional
Amendments?
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
(A) 57th Amendment, 1987
(B) 58th Amendment, 1987
(C) 59th Amendment, 1988
(D) 60th Amendment, 1988
18. Which one of the following
Amendments to the Constitution is
related to the Lowering of the age
of voters? [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) 61st Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment
(D) 24th Amendment
19. The 79th Amendment of the Indian
Constitution is related to
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) Centre-State Relation
(B) Establishment of two political
parties
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Reservation of SCs and STs
in the Lok Sabha and State
Legislative Assemblies
20. Which Constitutional Amendment
makes provision for the reservation
of seats for SC’s and ST’s in Lok
Sabha and State Assemblies?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
(A) 76th (B) 77th
(C) 78th (D) 79th
21. The basis structure theory of the
Constitution of India implies that
[IAS (Pre) 1994]
(A) Certain features of the Consti-
tution are so essential to it that
they cannot be abrogated
(B) Fundamental rights cannot be
abridged or taken away
(C) The Constitution cannot be
amended except in accordance
with the procedure laid down
in Article 368
(D) The Preamble of the Constitu-
tion cannot be amended for it
is not a part of the Constitution
and at the same time represents
it real spirit
22. The Keshavanand Bharti Case is
important because
[UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) It sets aside the orders of the
executive
(B) The Supreme Court interpreted
the basic features of the
Constitution
(C) It brought the Union
Government in the dock
(D) None of the above
398 Objective General Studies
23. The Supreme Court of India
enunciated the doctrine of ‘Basic
Structure of the Constitution’ in
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) The Golaknath case in 1967
(B) The Sajjan Singh case in 1965
(C) The Shankari Prasad case in
1951
(D) The Keshavanand Bharti case
in 1973
24. In India, who is competent to
amend Fundamental Rights of the
citizens? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Parliament
(D) Supreme Court
25. In which of the following cases
the Supreme Court limited the
power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution for the first time?
[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Mains) 2002]
(A) A.K. Gopalan Vs. The State of
Madras
(B) Golaknath Vs. The State of
Punjab
(C) Keshavanand Bharti Vs. The
State of Kerala
(D) Minerva Mills Vs. The Union of
India
26. Which of the following Constitu-
tional Amedment Acts was termed
as Mini Constitution?
[47th BPSC (Pre) 2005]
(A) 42nd (B) 44th
(C) 46th (D) 50th
27. Which Amendment of the
Constitution provides that no law
passed to give effect to Directive
Principles of State Policy contained
in Articles 39(b) and (c) shall be
deemed to be void on the ground
that it abridges the rights conferred
by Articles 14 and 19?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) 25th Amendment
(B) 28th Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
28. Which of the following Constitu-
tional Amendment is related to the
Fundamental Duties?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2003]
(A) 42nd (B) 44th
(C) 46th (D) 50th
29. Which Constitutional Amendment
bifurcated the Combined National
Commission for Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes into two
separate bodies?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 89th Amendment
(D) 93rd Amendment
30. When were the Fundamental Duties
mentioned in the Constitution?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) At the time of framing of
Constitution
(B) On 26th January, 1950
(C) In the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment
(D) In the 41st Constitutional
Amendment
31. The Constitution (98th Amend-
ment) Bill is related to
[IAS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Empowering the centre to levy
and appropriate service tax
(B) Constitution of the National
Judicial Commission
(C) Readjustment of electoral
constituencies on the basis of
the population census 2001
(D) The demarcation of new
boundaries between States
32. 97th Constitutional Amendment
Act of 2012 is concerned with
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Free and compulsory education
for children upto the age of 14
years
(B) Organization and working of
co-operative societies
(C) Stringent measures to deal with
terrorism
(D) Provision of Lokpal to prevent
corruption
33. By which Constitutional Amend-
ment the number of Central
Ministers has been limited to 15%
of the total number of the members
of the Lok Sabha?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015
IAS (Pre) 2007]
(A) 91st Amendment
(B) 92nd Amendment
(C) 90th Amendment
(D) None of the above
34. Which of the following Amend-
ments of the Indian Constitution
limits the size of the Union
Ministry? [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) 78th Amendment
(B) 91st Amendment
(C) 88th Amendment
(D) 90th Amendment
35. Sikkim became a new State by
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
(A) 30th Amendment of the
Constitution
(B) 34th Amendment of the
Constitution
(C) 35th Amendment of the
Constitution
(D) 36th Amendment of the
Constitution
36. Mizoram has been granted the sta-
tus of a State by which of the follow-
ing Constitutional Amendment?
[RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013]
(A) 53rd (B) 54th
(C) 55th (D) 52nd
37. Which Amendment to the
Constitution inserted a new Article
21A in the Constitution providing
Right to Education?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) 86th Amendment
(B) 87th Amendment
(C) 88th Amendment
(D) 89th Amendment
38. Consider the following statements.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
I. Through 44th Constitutional
Amendment, 1978 all the
Directive Principles of State
Policy have been given
preference over Fundamental
Rights mentioned in Articles 14
and 19.
II. Supreme Court has laid down
in its verdict in Minerva Mills
Case, 1980 that the preference
given only to Directive
Principles of State Policy
mentioned in Article 39(b) and
(c) over Fundamental Rights
mentioned in Articles 14 and
19 is constitutional.
(A) Neither 1 nor II is correct
(B) Only I is correct
(C) Only II is correct
(D) Both I and II are correct
39. An amendment to the Constitution
of India can be initiated by the
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislatures
4. President
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 1999]
(A) 1 alone (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
40. According to the Indian
Constitution, the Constitutional
amendment of the following topics
 Indian Polity and Governance 399
requires consent of atleast half of two Houses of Parliament on List-II (Number of Constitu-
State legislatures. Constitutional Amendment tional Amendment)
[UPPCS Lower (Pre) 2004] Bill, Joint sitting of both Houses 1. 81st Amendment, 2000
1. Federal provision of the can be summoned. 2. 91st Amendment, 2003
Constitution 4. The President cannot veto a 3. 97th Amendment, 2011
2. Rights of the Supreme Court Constitutional Amendment Bill. 4. 99th Amendment, 2014
3. The process of Constitutional Which of the statements given Code
Amendment above are correct?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4. Formation of new States or [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 3 2 4 1
transformation in the borders (A) Only 1 and 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
and names of the states (B) Only 1 and 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
Code (C) Only 2 and 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (D) Only 2, 3 and 4
46. Match the following Constitutional
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 44. Match List-I with List-II and select
Amendments.
41. Which of the following are the the correct answer using the code
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014]
matters on which a constitutional given below the lists.
[IAS (Pre) 2001] List-I
amendment is possible only with
the ratification of the legislatures of List-I (Amendments to the (a) 13th Amendment
not less than one-half of the states? Constitution) (b) 18th Amendment
[IAS (Pre) 1995] (a) The Constitution (Sixty ninth (c) 39th Amendment
1. Election of the President Amendment) Act, 1991 (d) 52nd Amendment
2. Representation of the States in (b) The Constitution (Seventy fifth List-II
Parliament Amendment) Act, 1994 1. Nagaland
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th (c) The Constitution (Eightieth 2. Anti-defection law
Schedule Amendment) Act, 2000 3. Clarified the ‘state’
4. Abolition of the Legislature (d) The Constitution (Eighty third 4. The election of President,
Council of a State Amendment) Act, 2000 Speaker and Prime Minister
Code List-II cannot be challenged
(A) 1, 2 and 3 1. Establishment of state level Code
(B) 1, 2 and 4 Rent Tribunals (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) 1, 3 and 4 2. No reservation for Scheduled (A) 2 4 1 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4 Castes in Panchayats in (B) 4 3 2 1
42. Consider the following statements. Arunachal Pradesh (C) 3 2 1 4
1. An amendment to the 3. Constitution of Panchayats at (D) 1 3 4 2
Constitution of India can be Villages or at another local level 47. Match List-I with List-II and select
initiated by introduction of a 4. Accepting the recommenda- the correct answer using the code
Bill in the Lok Sabha only. tions of the Tenth Finance given below the lists.
2. If such an amendment seeks Commission [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
to make changes in the federal 5. According the status of Nation- List-I
character of the Constitution, al Capital Territory to Delhi
(a) Curtailment of the power of
the amendment also requires to Code judicial review
be ratified by the legislatures of (a) (b) (c) (d) (b) Abolition of Right to property
all the States of India. (A) 5 1 4 2 as a fundamental right
Which of the statements given (B) 1 5 3 4 (c) Lowering the voting age from
above is/are correct? (C) 5 1 3 4 21 to 18
[IAS (Pre) 2013] (D) 1 5 4 2 (d) Addition of the word secular in
(A) Only 1 45. Match List-I with List-II and select the preamble
(B) Only 2 the correct answer using the code List-II
(C) Both 1 and 2 given below the lists. 1. 61st Amendment
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 [RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013]
2. 42nd Amendment
43. Consider the following statements List-I (Provision of Constitu- 3. 38th Amendment
regarding Constitutional Amend- tional Amendment) 4. 44th Amendment
ments. (a) Right to form Co-operative Code
1. In Article 368, two methods of societies under Article 19(1)(c)
Constitutional Amendment are (a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) Protection of SC/ST reservation
mentioned. (A) 1 2 4 3
in filling backlog of vacancies
2. Constitutional Amendment (B) 2 4 1 3
(c) Formation of National Judicial
Bill can be initiated only in Lok Appointments Commission (C) 3 4 1 2
Sabha. (d) Limiting the size of the Council (D) 4 1 3 2
3. In case of any dispute between of Ministers
400 Objective General Studies
Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C)

33. Official Language

1. Under Article 344 of Indian four languages were added to (A) 16 (B) 17
Constitution, the first ‘Official the languages under the Eighth (C) 18 (D) 22
Language Commission’ was Schedule of the Constitution. 11. Which Article of Indian Constitution
established [UPPCS (Pre) 1998] Thereby raising their number to provides the procedure for
(A) In 1950 under the Chairman- 22? [IAS (Pre) 2007] adoption of Official Language or
ship of K.M. Munshi (A) Constitution (90th Amend- Languages of the State?
(B) In 1955 under the Chairman- ment) Act [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
ship of B.G. Kher (B) Constitution (91st Amend- (A) 343 (B) 344
(C) In 1960 under the Chairman- ment) Act (C) 345 (D) 346
ship of M.C. Chagala (C) Constitution (92nd Amend- 12. Which of the following States has
(D) In 1965 under the Chairman- ment) Act given the Sanskrit language the
ship of Humayun Kabir (D) Constitution (93rd Amend- status of second official language?
2. Which of the following languages ment) Act [UPPCS (Pre) 2011]
was added in the eighth schedule of 6. Which of the following languages is (A) Bihar
the Constitution in 2003? not included in the Eighth Schedule (B) Chhattisgarh
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005] of the Constitution? (C) Uttar Pradesh
(A) Konkani [MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(D) Uttarakhand
(B) Sindhi (A) Urdu
13. The Provisions related to official
(C) Manipuri (B) Nepali language of India can be amended
(D) Santhali (C) Konkani by [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
3. Which Article of the Constitution (D) Bhojpuri (A) Simple majority
provides that every state shall 7. Which of the following languages (B) Minimum 2/3 majority
endeavour to provide an adequate is spoken by maximum number of
facility for instruction in mother (C) Minimum 3/4 majority
persons in the world?
tongue at primary stage of (D) Cannot be amended
[IAS (Pre) 2003]
education? [UPPCS (Pre) 2003, 02 14. Which one of the following
(A) Bengali
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002] languages included in the VIII
(B) French Schedule of the Constitution is
(A) Article 349
(C) Japanese spoken by the largest number of
(B) Article 350
(D) Portuguese people? [UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(C) Article 350A
8. Which of the following is not (A) Bengali
(D) Article 351
included in Eighth Schedule of our (B) Gujarati
4. Which one of the following is Constitution? [UPPCS (Pre) 1993]
correct about the languages (C) Marathi
(A) Gujarati (B) Kashmiri (D) Telugu
mentioned in the Constitution of
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(C) Rajasthani (D) Dogri 15. Which one of the following is a
(A) State can compel the linguistic 9. Which three languages have been language of Baluchistan but from
minorities to choose their added to the Eighth Schedule of the philological aspect it is a language
mother tongue as a medium of Constitution by 71st Amendment? of Dravidian family?
instruction in primary schools [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017 [IAS (Pre) 1994]
MPPCS (Pre) 1993]
(B) ‘Angika’ is now included (A) Brahui
in the 8th Schedule of the (A) Sindhi, Manipuri, Konkani (B) Kui
Constitution (B) Konkani, Kashmiri, Nepali (C) Pargi
(C) Hindi is National language of (C) Nepali, Konkani, Manipuri (D) Pengo
India (D) Nepali, Konkani, Assamese 16. Percentage of Hindi speaking
(D) Bodo is a recognized language 10. The number of official languages Indians is about.
in the 8th Schedule of the recognised by the constitution in [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018
Constitution the eight schedule is ..... . RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003]
5. Under which one of the following [UPPSC (GIC) 2010
(A) 50 (B) 45
Constitutional Amendment Acts, 48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2006] (C) 40 (D) 35
 Indian Polity and Governance 401
17. Which of the following is the correct Select correct answer using the Which of the language(s) given
sequence in descending order of code given below. above has/have been declared
the Indian languages, being used as [UPPCS (Pre) 2001] as ‘Classicial Language’ by the
mother tongue? (A) 1, 4, 3, 2 (B) 1, 2, 4, 3 Government? [IAS (Pre) 2014]
1. Bengali (C) 1, 4, 2, 3 (D) 4, 2, 1, 3 (A) Only 1 and 2
2. Marathi 18. Consider the following languages. (B) Only 3
3. Tamil 1. Gujarati 2. Kannada (C) Only 2 and 3
4. Telugu 3. Telugu (D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C)

34. Panchayati Raj and Community Development

1. The subject of Panchayati Raj is in functions is not the concern of Local Raj System’?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015 Self Government? [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
39th BPSC (Pre) 2005] [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] (A) 71st Amendment
(A) Concurrent List (A) Public Health (B) 72nd Amendment
(B) Union List (B) Sanitation (C) 73rd Amendment
(C) State List (C) Public Utility Services (D) 75th Amendment
(D) Residual List (D) Maintenance of Public Order 12. Under which of the following
2. The elections to Panchayats are to 7. Who among the following Constitutional Amendments, 30%
be held after constitutes ‘Finance Commission’ seats in the village panchayats have
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001] to review the financial position of been reserved for women in India?
(A) Every four years Panchayats? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(B) Every five years (A) Chief Minister of the concerned (A) 70th Amendment
(C) Every six years State (B) 71st Amendment
(D) At the Government’s descretion (B) Finance Minister of the (C) 73rd Amendment
3. Who among the following is concerned State (D) 74th Amendment
authorized to make provisions (C) The Governor of the concerned 13. Reservation of seats in Panchayat
with respect to the composition of State elections for Scheduled Castes shall
Panchayats? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (D) Panchayati Raj Minister of the not apply to the State of
(A) Governor of State concerned State [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(B) Legislature of State 8. Who was the Prime Minister of (A) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Parliament of India India at the time of 73rd and 74th (B) Assam
(D) President of India Amendments to the Constitution of (C) Arunachal Pradesh
India pertaining to Panchayats and (D) Haryana
4. The decision to conduct Panchayat Nagarpalikas? [MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
Elections is taken by which of the 14. Local self-government can be best
following? [47th BPSC (Pre) 2005]
(A) Indira Gandhi explained as an exercise in
(B) Rajeev Gandhi [Manipur PSC (Pre) 2018
(A) The Central Government
(C) P.V. Narsimha Rao IAS (Pre) 2017]
(B) The State Government
(D) V.P. Singh (A) Federalism
(C) The District Judge
(D) The Election Commission 9. The provision regarding Panchayats (B) Democratic decentralisation
and Municipalities was made in the (C) Administrative delegation
5. Which one of the following is not Indian Constitution in
concerned with the Panchayats? (D) Direct democracy
[UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] 15. ‘Gram Sabha’ means
(A) 1991 (B) 1995 [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2018
(A) The State Election Commission
(C) 2000 (D) 1993 UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
will conduct Panchayat
elections 10. In which Article, the provision on (A) Persons of the territorial area of
(B) The Constitution (74th reservation of Scheduled Caste and a Panchayat
Amendment) Act Scheduled Tribes to Panchayat has (B) Persons specified by the
been given? notification of the District
(C) There shall be a fixed five year
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
term for all the Panchayats Authority
(A) 243A (B) 243B (C) Persons registered in electoral
(D) Fresh elections would have to
be held within six months of the (C) 243C (D) 243D rolls related to a Panchayat
dissolution of a Panchayat 11. Which of the following amendments area at the village level
6. Which one of the following to the Indian Constitution, provides (D) Members of Panchayats
Constitutional status to ‘Panchayati
402 Objective General Studies
16. Who presides over the meeting of
Gram Sabha in Scheduled Areas?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
(A)Sarpanch
(B)Deputy Sarpanch
(C)Sarpanch or Deputy Sarpanch
(D)Schedule Tribe member
present who is elected by Gram
Sabha
17. Which Article of the Indian Consti-
tution directs State Government to
organize village Panchayats?
[39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
(A) Article 32 (B) Article 40
(C) Article 48 (D) Article 51
18. Article 40 of the Constitution of
India advises the State to work for
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Uniform Civil Code
(B) Organization of Village Pan-
chayats
(C) Constitution of Municipalities
(D) Living wages for workers
19. Panchayati Raj is organized as a
unit of Self-Government under
[43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999]
(A) Fundamental Rights of Indian
Constitution
(B) The Preamble of the Indian
Constitution
(C) Directive Principles of State
Policy
(D) 73rd Amendment of the Indian
Constitution
20. MANREGA scheme has been
launched as a part of implementing
which one of the following Articles
of the Indian Constitution?
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010]
(A) Article 43 (B) Article 45
(C) Article 47 (D) Article 50
21. What is the main characteristic
of Panchayati Raj System of
Government? [38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
(A) It has three tiers of Government
(B) It aims to give social and
economic justice to villages
(C) Some members of Parliament
are as respresentatives in Zila
Parishad
(D) All of them are true
22. Panchayati Raj is mainly aimed at
[43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999]
(A) Increasing rivalry among
villagers
(B) Giving training to villagers for
contesting election
(C) Decentralization of power to
villagers
(D) None of the above
23. Which one of the following state-
ments regarding Panchayati Raj is
not correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Panchayat System has been an
integral part of Indian village
life through the ages
(B) 73rd Amendment came into
effect on 15th August, 1993
(C) It is a three-tier organically
linked structure
(D) Article 243G of the Indian
Constitution adds to its
importance
24. What is the main purpose of
Panchayati Raj?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) To increase agricultural
production
(B) To increase employment
(C) To increase people’s politically
awareness
(D) To enable people to participate
in developmental administra-
tion
25. For successful functioning, Pancha-
yati Raj needs full co-operation of
[42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997]
(A) Local Public
(B) Central Government
(C) Bureaucrats
(D) Politicians
26. Panchayati Raj in India represents
[44th BPSC (Pre) 2000]
(A) Decentralisation of powers
(B) Participation of the people
(C) Community development
(D) All of the above
27. Name the Committee which was
set up by the NDC in 1957 for the
reorganization of CDP and NES,
which suggested a three-tier system
of rural local government.
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) Maharashtra Committee on
Democratic Decentralisation
(D) Rural-Urban Relationship
Committee
28. The Committee which recomme-
nded a three-tier Panchayati Raj
System in India was [IAS (Pre) 2005
MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(C) G.K.V. Rao Committee
(D) L.M. Singhvi Committee
29. Which kind of Panchayati Raj
System was recommended by the
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Two-tier (B) Three-tier
(C) Village level (D) None of these
30. Which one of the following States
was the first to set-up Panchayati
Raj institutions in accordance
with the recommendations of the
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Telangana
31. The Chairman of the Committee
set up for the recommendation of
Panchayati Raj in India was
[38th BPSC (Pre) 1992]
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta
(B) B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Justice Krishna Iyer
(D) Jagjivan Ram
32. The Committe on whose recomme-
ndation, the ‘Panchayati Raj
System’ was introduced in the
Country, was headed by
[Uttarakhand UDA/
LDA (Mains) 2007, 06
47th BPSC (Pre) 2005
MPPCS (Pre) 1996]
(A) Jivraj Mehta
(B) Balwant Rai Mehta
(C) Shrimannarayan
(D) Jagjivan Ram
33. Who is considered as the ‘Architect
of Panchayati Raj’ in India?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(A) Acharya Narendra Deo
(B) G.V.K. Rao
(C) B.R. Mehta
(D) L.M. Singhvi
34. The Panchayati Raj System was
first started in India in the State of
Rajasthan and ....... .
[47th BPSC (Pre) 2005]
(A) Haryana
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
35. Panchayati Raj was first introduced
in October, 1959 in [IAS (Pre) 2009
RAS/RTS (Pre) 1996
43rd BPSC (Pre) 1999]
(A) Rajasthan (B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala (D) Karnataka
36. The first Panchayati Raj System
was inaugurated by Pt. Jawaharlal
Nehru on 2nd October, 1959 in
[UPPCS (Pre) 1994, 1991]
(A) Sabarmati (B) Wardha
(C) Nagaur (D) Sikar

37. Which of the following bears
the responsibility of planning,
execution and implementation of
MNREGA schemes?
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2018
RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) State Government
(D) DRDA
38. The first State to adopt Panchayati
Raj was [UPPCS (Pre) 2012
UPPCS (Mains) 2003]
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan
39. When and where was Panchayati
Raj System in India introduced?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) 5th July, 1957, Faizabad (U.P.)
(B) 2nd October, 1959, Nagaur
(Rajasthan)
(C) 14th November, 1959,
Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
(D) 3rd December, 1960, Bhopal
(M.P.)
40. According to democratic decentral-
ization recommended by Balwant
Rai Mehta committee?
[MPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) Three-tier democratic Pancha-
yati Raj institutions were to be
set up at the village, block and
district levels
(B) Only two-tier Panchayati Raj
institutions at district and
Mandal levels were to be
constituted
(C) Only Zila Parishad was
proposed to be set up at the
district level
(D) None of the above
41. Who was the Chairman of the Com-
mittee which proposed Democratic
Decentralisation and Panchayati
Raj? [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) K.M. Pannikar
(B) H.N. Kunjru
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Balwant Rai Mehta
42. The Decentralization System was
recommended by
[Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016
56th to 59th BPSC (Pre) 2015]
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) J.B. Kripalani
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta
(D) Ashok Mehta
43. Establishment of the Panchayati
Raj System was recommended by
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
(A) The Government of India Act,
1935
(B) The Cripps Mission 1942
(C) The Indian Independence Act,
1947
(D) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Report, 1957
44. Which committee had, first of all,
recommended three-tier Panchaya-
ti Raj system in India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011, 2008]
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(D) Sarkariya Commission
45. Which one of the following
committees is not concerned with
Panchayati Raj Institution?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) P.V.N. Rao Committee
(B) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(C) Ashok Mehta Committee
(D) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
46. Which of the following Committee
is not associated with Panchayati
Raj System?
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) V.K.R.V. Rao Committee
(C) Santhanam Committee
(D) B.R. Mehta Committee
47. Which model was recommended
by Ashok Mehta Committee for
Panchayati Raj System?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009
53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) One-tier (B) Two-tier
(C) Three-tier (D) Four-tier
48. Which of the following Committees
recommended to give Constitution-
al status to Panchayati Raj?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(C) Rao Committee
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee
49. Which one of the following
Committees is not associated with
Panchayati Raj System in India?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Dinesh Goswami Committee
(B) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(C) Sadiq Ali Committee
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee
50. Which Constitutional Amendment
granted Constitutional Status to
Indian Polity and Governance 403
Panchayati Raj Institutions?
[MPPCS (Pre) 1998
44th BPSC (Pre) 2000]
(A) 73rd Amendment
(B) 71st Amendment
(C) 74th Amendment
(D) None of the above
51. The 73rd Amendment of the
Constitution of India is related to
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004
45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) Centre-State Relations
(B) Powers of the Supreme Court
(C) Salaries and Privileges of
Members of Parliament
(D) Panchayati Raj System
52. Functions to be assigned to
Panchayats by 73rd Amendment of
the Constitution are mentioned in
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) Eleventh Schedule
(B) Tenth Schedule
(C) Thirteenth Schedule
(D) Twelfth Schedule
53. How many subjects are provided
by 11th schedule of Indian
Constitution for Panchayats?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(A) 27 (B) 28
(C) 29 (D) 30
54. The first State to implemented 73rd
Constitutional Amendment is
[MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
55. The 73rd Amendment of Indian
Constitution provides
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) First time of Panchayati Raj
(B) Removal of administrative
control over Panchayats
(C) Changing of laws regarding
elections of Panchayats
(D) Making panchayat elections
mandatory and equivalent
to the polls of Lok Sabha and
Legislative Assembly
56. The 73rd Constitutional Amend-
ment Act, 1992 refers to the
[IAS (Pre) 2000]
(A) Generation of gainful employ-
ment for the unemployed and
the under-employed men and
women in the rural area
(B) Generation of employment
for the capable adults who are
in need and desirous of works
during the lean agricultural
season
404 Objective General Studies
(C) Laying the foundation of strong
and vibrant Panchayati Raj
Institutions in the Country
(D) Guarantee of the right to life,
liberty and security of person
equality before the law and
equal protection without
discrimination
57. Which one of the following was
established as the first programme
of Community development?
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
(A) National Extension Service
(B) Integrated Rural Development
Programme
(C) Co-operation Movement
(D) General help Donation
Programme
58. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill
enacted in 1992, there are several
new provisions different from
the previous one. Which one of
the following is not one such
provision? [IAS (Pre) 1999]
(A) Some collective responsibilities
in the area of agriculture,
rural development, primary
education and social forestry
among others
(B) Elections being made
mandatory for all posts on
being vacant
(C) A statutory representation of
women in the panchayats, up to
one-third of the strength
(D) Regular remuneration to the
panchayat members, so as to
ensure their punctuality and
accountability
59. The reservation of seats for women
in Panchayats has been provided by
an amendment to Constitution of
India. That amendment is
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 1999]
(A) 70th Amendment of 1992
(B) 73rd Amendment of 1992
(C) 74th Amendment of 1992
(D) 77th Amendment of 1994
60. In India, seats are reserved for
women in
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Panchayati Raj Institutions
(B) State Legislative Assemblies
(C) The Cabinet
(D) The Lok Sabha
61. Which Article of the Constitution
Guarantees the 1/3 representation
of women in Panchayats?
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010]
(A) Article 243C (B) Article 243D
(C) Article 243H (D) Article 243I
62. Which State Government have
provided 50% reservation for
women in local bodies up to 2010?
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan
(B) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh,
Himachal Pradesh
(C) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala
(D) Bihar, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar
Pradesh
63. The number of seats reserved
for women in Panchayati Raj
Institutions in U.P. is
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) One-third of total seats
(B) In proportion to women popu-
lation
(C) One-fourth of total seats
(D) As per the requirements of
circumstances
64. 73rd Amendment of the
Constitution was implemented on
24 April, 1993. This amendment
will encourage in Rajasthan
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2015
RAS/RTS (Pre) 1993]
(A) New United Political System
(B) The base for village self-
governance
(C) Self-Governance system
(D) Decentralization of democracy
65. What is the system of governance in
the Panchayati Raj set up?
[IAS (Pre) 1996]
(A) The single-tier structure of
local self-government at the
village level
(B) The two-tier system of local
self-government at the village
and block levels
(C) The three-tier structure of local
self-government at the village,
block and district levels
(D) The four-tier system of local
self-government at the village
block, district and state levels
66. Which of the following is related
to the theme of ‘Grass Root
Democracy’? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) Lokpal
(B) Panchayati Raj System
(C) Inter-State Council
(D) Regional Politics
67. The Panchayati Raj System was
adopted to [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Make people aware of politics
(B) Decentralize the power of
democracy
(C) Educate the peasants
(D) None of the above
68. The Three-tier system of Panchayati
Raj consists of [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat
Samiti, Block Samiti
(B) Gram Panchayat, Block Samiti,
Zila Parishad
(C) Block Samiti, Zila Parishad,
Panchayat Samiti
(D) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat
Samiti, Zila Parishad
69. Which part of our Constitution en-
visages a three-tier system of Pan-
chayats? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013]
(A) Part IX (B) Part X
(C) Part XI (D) Part XII
70. Which part of the Constitution has
the provisions for Panchayati Raj
System? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) IX (B) VI
(C) III (D) IV(a)
71. A Panchayat Samiti at the block
level in India is only a/an
[60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) Advisory Body
(B) Consultative Committee
(C) Co-ordinating and Supervisory
Authority
(D) Administrative Authority
72. Territory of a Kshetra Panchayat
(Panchayat at intermediate level) is
determined by
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003]
(A) State Election Commission
(B) State Government
(C) Divisional Commissioner
(D) District Magistrate
73. According to Constitutional Provi-
sions the decision to hold Pancha-
yat elections is taken by
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) The Election Commission of
India
(D) The State Election Commission
74. A person can contest the Panchayat
election, if he has attained the age
of [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 21 years
(D) 18 years
75. A college student desires to get
elected to the Municipal Council
of his city. The validity of his
nomination would depend on
the important condition, among
others, that [IAS (Pre) 2000]

(A) He obtains permission from the
principal of his college
(B) He is a member of a political
party
(C) His name figures in the voter’s
list
(D) He files a declaration owing
allegiance to the Constitution
of India
76. Which is not among the powers
of Panchayati Raj Institutions in
India? [40th BPSC (Pre) 2000]
(A) Implementation of Land
Reforms
(B) Judicial Review
(C) Implementation of Poverty
Alleviation Programmes
(D) None of the above
77. Which one of the following Commit-
tees/Commissions recommended
the creation of Nyaya Panchayats?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(D) Sarkaria Commission
78. Nyaya Panchayats in Panchayati
Raj System have no powers of
awarding imprisonment except in
the State of [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) Bihar
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Maharashtra
(D) West Bengal
79. Which one of the following is not an
attribute of a Local Government?
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Statutory Status
(B) Participation of the local
community
(C) Central control
(D) Power to raise finances by
taxation
80. Under which Article of the Indian
Constitution the State Finance
Commission is established?
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003]
(A) Article 243(H)
(B) Article 243(I)
(C) Article 243(J)
(D) Article 243(K)
81. Who amongst the following is
responsible for revenue distribution
between the State Government and
the Local Governments?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) The Chief Minister
(B) The Governor
(C) State Finance Commission
(D) None of the above
82. Which one of the following
authorities recommends to the
Governor about the principles of
determination of taxes and fees
which may be appropriated by the
Panchayats of that state?
[IAS (Pre) 2010]
(A) District Programme Commit-
tees
(B) State Finance Commission
(C) State Finance Ministry
(D) State Panchayat Raj Ministry
83. Which of the following Constitu-
tional Amendments Acts accorded
Constitutional Status to the Munici-
palities?
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
(A) The Constitution (73rd Amend-
ment) Act, 1992
(B) The Constitution (74th Amend-
ment) Act, 1992
(C) The Constitution (75th Amend-
ment) Act, 1993
(D) None of the above
84. Which Constitutional amendment
provided Constitutional status to
the urban local governments?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 72nd (B) 73rd
(C) 74th (D) 71st
85. The tenure of a Mayor is of
[UPPCS (Pre) 1992]
(A) 1 year (B) 2 years
(C) 3 years (D) 5 years
86. Under which Article of the Indian
Constitution is the District Planning
Committee constituted?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Article 243 ZD
(B) Article 244 ZD
(C) Article 242 ZD
(D) Article 243 ZE
87. According to Article 243(ZJ) of the
Indian Constitution, the maximum
number of directors of a co-
operative society can be
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) 21 (B) 15
(C) 11 (D) 7
88. State Government has no authority
over local bodies in relation
to which one of the following
matters? [IAS (Pre) 2001]
(A) Citizen’s Complaints
(B) Economic Matters
(C) Law Making
(D) Matters related to Serviceman
89. Which of the following is not true
about local governance in India?
[IAS (Pre) 1995]
Indian Polity and Governance 405
(A) There is no separate category of
local governance in the federal
system of Indian Constitution
(B) One-third of seats in local
bodies are reserved for women
(C) The arrangement of finance
for local bodies is done by a
Commission
(D) Election for local bodies is
determined by a Commission
90. Which of the following parts of
the Constitution is related to
Municipalities?
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
(A) Part VI
(B) Part VII
(C) Part VIII
(D) Part IX A
91. How many elected and Ex-officio
members are there in District
Planning Committee?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
(A) 20 and 3
(B) 20 and 10
(C) 20 and 5
(D) 20 and 2
92. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections
are to be held within [IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) One month
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) One year
93. If there is dispute between
Panchayat and Cantonment Board,
who will decide finally?
[Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Collector, subject to approval
of Divisional Commissioner
(B) Divisional Commissioner, sub-
ject to approval of Panchayat
and Rural Development De-
partment
(C) Panchayat and Rural Develop-
ment Department subject to ap-
proval of State Government
(D) State Government, subject
to approval of Central
Governments
94. Which one of the following is the
correct period for conducting fresh
elections after dissolution of a
Panchayat?
[Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2018
UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
(A) Within a month
(B) Within two months
(C) Within six months
(D) After six months, but within a
year
406 Objective General Studies
95. With reference to the Consumer
Disputes Redressal at the district
level in India, which one of the
following statements is not
correct? [IAS (Pre) 2010]
(A) State Government can establish 100. Who notify the alteration in limits
more than one District Forum is
a district if it deems fit
(B) One of the members of the
District Forum shall be a
woman
(C) The District Forum entertains
the complaints where the value
of goods or services does not
exceed rupees fifty lakhs
(D) A complaint in relation to
any goods sold or any service
provided may be filed with a
District Forum by the State
Government as a representative
of the interest of the consumers
in general
96. Which of the following States
does not have any Panchayati Raj
Institution? [UPPCS (Mains) 2005, 11] 102. The tenure of every Panchayat in
(A) Assam (B) Kerala
(C) Nagaland (D) Tripura
97. In which of the following group
of the States, PESA (Panchayats
Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act,
1996 is not enforceable?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Rajasthan - Telangana -
Maharashtra
(B) Andra Pradesh - Jharkhand -
Odisha
(C) Assam - Meghalaya - Tamil
Nadu
(D) Himachal Pradesh - Gujarat -
Chhattisgarh
98. Which one of the following criteria
for deciding an urban area,
according to Census of India, is not
correct?
All places with [UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
(A) Either a Municipality or
Corporation or Cantonment or
Notified Town Area Committee
(B) A minimum population of 5000
(C) Atleast 60% of the male
population engaged in non-
agricultural pursuits
(D) A density of population of 104. The members of Panchayat Samiti
atleast 400 persons per square
km
99. Who among the following is the
competent authority to notify the
territorial region of a municipality
in State?
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
(A) President of India
(B) Governor of the State 105. For election to the Panchayat, the
concerned State Election Commissioner will
(C) Chief Minister of the State be appointed by
concerned [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
(D) State Legislature (A) The Chief Election Commis-
sioner of India
of Block and Zila Panchayat? (B) President of India
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016] (C) Governor of the State
(A) Governor (D) None of the above
(B) State Election Commission 106. The members of the Panchayat
Samiti are
(C) Divisional Commissioner [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(D) Collector and District (A) Nominated by the Block
Returning Officer Development Officer
101. Which one of the following pairs is (B) Nominated by the Chairman of
not correctly matched? Zila Panchayat
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010] (C) Directly elected by the people
City/Town Local Authority (D) Indirectly elected by the mem-
(A) Lucknow Cantonment bers of the Village Panchayat
Board 107. In Panchayati Raj System, the
(B) Kanpur Nagar Nigam Panchayat Samiti is constituted at
(C) Ghaziabad Nagarpalika the [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
Parishad UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(D) Kakori Nagar Panchayat (A) Village level
(B) Block level
India is five years from (C) District level
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] (D) State level
(A) The scheduled date of its first 108. A Panchayat Samiti at the block
meeting level is [48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008
(B) The date of notification of Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
election (A) An advisory body
(C) The date of declaration of (B) An administrative authority
election results (C) An advisory committee
(D) The date of oath of office by (D) A supervisory authority
members 109. Who among the following are
103. Which of the following is not correct eligible to benefit from the
with respect to the composition of ‘Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Panchayat? Employment Guarantee Act’?
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] [IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) The Legislature of a State may (A) Adult members of only the
by law make provision with scheduled caste and scheduled
respect to the composition of tribe households
Panchayat (B) Adult members of Below
(B) A Gram Sabha shall exercise it’s Poverty Line (BPL) households
powers at the village level (C) Adult members of households
(C) Each State will constitute of all backward communities
Panchayat at the village, (D) Adult members of any
intermediate and district level household
(D) Panchayat at the intermediate 110. Consider the following statements.
level shall not be constituted in 1. Part IX of the Constitution of
a State having a population not India provisions for Panchayats
exceeding twenty lakhs and it was inserted by the
Constitution (Amendments)
are [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011] Act, 1992.
(A) Directly elected by the public 2. Part IXA of the Constitution of
(B) Elected by the members of India contains provisions for
Panchayat municipalities and the Article
(C) Nominated by District 243Q envisages two types of
Magistrate municipalities - a Municipal
(D) Recruited on the basis of open Council and a Municipal
competition Corporation for every State.

Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
111. In the areas covered under the
Panchayati (Extension to the
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. What
is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
1. Gram Sabha has the power
to stop transfer of land in
scheduled areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership
of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram
Sabha is required for granting
prospecting license or mining
lease for any mineral in the
Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
112. Panchayati Raj System is a System
of
1. Local level self-governance.
2. Three-tier governance with
Bio-relations.
3. Democratic decentralization.
4. Hierarchy Construction.
Choose correct answer by using
code given below.
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998]
Code
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
113. The fundamental object of Pancha-
yati Raj system is to ensure which
among the following?
1. People’s participation in devel-
opment
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralisation
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3
(B) Only 2 and 4
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
114. Arrange the following committees
on Panchayati Raj in chronological
sequence and select the correct
answer from the code given below.
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
1. G.V.K. Rao Committee
2. L.M. Singhvi Committee
3. B.R. Mehta Committee
4. Ashok Mehta Committee
Code
(A) 2, 3, 1 and 4
(B) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(C) 3, 4, 1 and 2
(D) 4, 3, 2 and 1
115. 73rd Amendment of the Constitu-
tion has provided for
1. Holding of regular elections to
Panchayats.
2. Reservation of seats for
womens at all levels.
3. Mandatory transfer of funds to
Panchayats as recommended by
the State Finance Commission.
4. Mandatory transfer of powers
to Panchayats relating to
subjects given in the 11th
Schedule.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below.
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
116. 73rd and 74th Amendments of the
Constitution are responsible for the
creation of which of the following?
1. State Election Commission
2. District Planning Commission
3. State Finance Commission
4. State Property Tax Valuation
Board
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
[UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
117. Consider the following functions
of State Election Commission and
select the correct answer using the
code given below.
[Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2017
RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
1. Prepares the electoral rolls for
Panchayats and Municipalities
elections in the State.
2. Conducts elections for Pancha-
yats and Municipalities of the
State.
3. Conducts elections for other
bodies in addition to Pancha-
yats and Muncipalities in accor-
dance with the directions given
by the Governor.
Indian Polity and Governance 407
4. Prepares the electoral rolls and
conducts elections as assigned
by Election Commission of
India.
Code
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) Only 4
118. The Constitution (Seventy Third
Amendment) Act, 1992, which
aims at promoting the Panchayati
Raj Institutions in the country,
provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Plan-
ning Committees.
2. Conducting all Panchayat elec-
tions by State Election Commis-
sions.
3. Establishment of State Finance
Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
119. Which among the following
Panchayats are included in the
District Plan in U.P.?
1. Nagar Panchayat
2. Gram Panchayat
3. Kshetra Panchayat
Select the correct answer using
code given below.
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
120. Which of the following have been
covered by 73rd Amendment of the
Constitution?
1. Zila Panchayat
2. Kshetra Panchayat
3. Gram Panchayat
4. Nagar Panchayat
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four
121. Consider the following statements.
1. The minimum age prescribed
for any person to be a member
of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted
after premature dissolution
continues only for the
remainder period.
408 Objective General Studies
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
122. Consider the following statements.
In India, a Metropolitan Planning
Committee
1. Is constituted under the
provisions of the Constitution
of India.
2. Prepares the draft development
plans for the Metropolitan area.
3. Has the sole responsibility for
implementing Government
sponsored schemes in the
Metropolitan areas.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
123. Chairman of Zila Panchayat in
Uttar Pradesh is elected
1. Directly by persons whose
names appear in electoral rolls
of the Kshetra Panchayats.
2. By the members of Zila Pancha-
yat from among themselves.
3. By the SC/ST members of the
Zila Panchayat from among
themselves (if reserved for
them).
4. The members of Zila Panchayat
belonging to Backward Classes
from among themselves (if re-
served for them).
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
Code
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
124. The Chairman of a Municipality in
U.P. is elected
1. By all the adults living in the
respective municipal area.
2. By all the voters included in the
electoral list of the respective
municipal area.
3. By the elected members of the
municipality.
4. From among the electors
of wards of the respective
municipal area.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
Code 4. Local Self-government System
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 Code
(C) Only 2 and 4 (D) Only 3 and 4 (a) (b) (c) (d)
125. What is not correct about Gram (A) 1 2 3 4
Panchayat? (B) 4 3 2 1
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
(C) 2 1 4 3
1. The maximum strength is 20
(D) 3 4 1 2
panchs in a Gram Panchayat.
2. If 15 panchs are elected in 128. What is the qualification to contest
the election of Municipal Council?
Gram Panchayat, then 5 panchs
are nominated. [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
1. For the office of the President,
3. The President of Janpad
Panchayat nominates 5 panchs. his age should not be less than
25 years.
4. The strength may be 10 panchs
2. For the office of the councillor,
in a Gram Panchayat.
his age should not be less than
5. In case of equal votes in the
21 years.
election of panchs it is decided
3. Whose name is in the voter list,
by lott.
he can contest the election.
6. Nominated members partic-
ipate in the meeting and can 4. A person can contest the
vote. election of councillor from two
wards simultaneously.
Code
(A) 1, 4 and 6 (B) 3, 5 and 6 5. A person can contest the
election of president and
(C) 2, 3 and 6 (D) 4, 5 and 6
councillor simultaneously.
126. Assertion (A): Reservation in
Code
the Office of Pradhans, Pramukhs
and Adhyakshas in Panchayats (A) 1, 2 and 3
for women including SCs, STs and (B) 1, 2 and 5
OBCs has brought about a distinct
(C) 2, 4 and 5
change in their working. (D) 3, 4 and 5
Reason (R): Women of the 129. What is correct about the recall of
rural areas were demanding this President of Municipal Council?
reservation for a long time.
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
Select your answer from the code 1. The procedure of recall may be
given below. initiated with a proposal signed
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
by 3/4 members of council.
UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
2. The procedure of recall may be
Code initiated with a proposal signed
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and by 3/4 elected members of
(R) is the correct explanation council.
of (A) 3. If the council passed a
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, resolution by majority,
but (R) is not the correct collector will take action.
explanation of (A) 4. President may be recalled by
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false general votes with majority.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 5. President may be recalled
127. Match List-I with List-II and select by general voters with 2/3
the correct answer using the code majority.
given below the lists.
6. The process of recall may be
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013] initiated once in his whole
List-I (Committee) term.
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta 7. The process of recall may be
(b) Ashok Mehta initiated twice in his whole
(c) L.M. Singhvi term.
(d) G.V.K. Rao Code
List-II (Suggestion) (A) 1, 3 and 5
1. Two-tier system (B) 2, 4 and 6
2. Three-tier system (C) 1, 5 and 7
(D) 2, 4 and 7
3. Improvement in representative
character
 Indian Polity and Governance 409
130. Match List-I with List-II and select 131. Consider the following statements. 132. Consider the following statements
the correct answer using the code Assertion (A): Political interfer- and select the correct answer using
given below the lists. ence in the management of rural the code given below.
[IAS (Pre) 2000] matters is now decreased at the Assertion (A): The Union
List-I (Local Bodies) local level. Finance Commission does not have
(a) Zila Parishad at Sub divisional Reason (R): The Rural local any role in considering measures
level governance institutions have for providing financial assistance to
(b) Mandal Praja Parishad been rejuvenated by the 73rd local bodies.
(c) Janajati Parishad amendment to Constitution. Reason (R): Inspite of 73rd and
(d) The absence of Gram Select the correct answer using 74th Constitutional Amendments,
Panchayats code given below. local government continues to
List-II (State) [Nagaland PSC (Pre) 2017 be a state subject in the Seventh
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998] Schedule of the Constitution.
1. Andhra Pradesh
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
2. Assam Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and Code
3. Mizoram
(R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
4. Meghalaya
(A) (R) is the correct explanation of
Code (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(a) (b) (c) (d) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
(A) 2 1 4 3 explanation of (A) but (R) is not the correct
(B) 1 2 4 3 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false explanation of (A)
(C) 3 2 1 4 (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) 2 1 3 4 (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (A)
51. (D) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (A) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (A) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (A)
61. (B) 62. (B) 63. (A) 64. (C) 65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (A)
71. (C) 72. (B) 73. (B) 74. (C) 75. (C) 76. (B) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (B) 84. (C) 85. (D) 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (D)
91. (C) 92. (C) 93. (D) 94. (C) 95. (C) 96. (C) 97. (C) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (A)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (A) 105. (C) 106. (C) 107. (B) 108. (B) 109. (D) 110. (A)
111. (B) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (C) 115. (D) 116. (B) 117. (A) 118. (C) 119. (D) 120. (B)
121. (B) 122. (A) 123. (B) 124. (C) 125. (C) 126. (C) 127. (C) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (A)
131. (A) 132. (D)

35. Special Provision for Certain Class

1. Scheduled Tribe status is 3. Which statement is not correct? prepared and amended by the
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2010] [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2018 concerned State Governments
(A) Restricted to Hindus MPPCS (Pre) 1994] (D) A tribe can be declared as a
(B) Religiously neutral (A) The lists of Scheduled Castes Scheduled Tribe for only a part
(C) Restricted to Hindus and and Scheduled Tribes have of a State
Christians been made by and order of the 4. In which of following there is no
(D) Restricted to Hindu and President issued in 1950 for reservation for any caste?
Muslims each State after consultation [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 1998]
2. State having maximum Scheduled with the Governor of that State (A) Rajya Sabha
Tribes is [UPPCS (Pre) 1991] (B) Amendments in these lists can (B) Legislative Assembly of Jammu
(A) Bihar only be made by Parliament by and Kashmir
(B) Madhya Pradesh framing an Act (C) State Legislative Council
(C) Rajasthan (C) The lists of Scheduled Castes (D) All of the above
(D) Andhra Pradesh and Scheduled Tribes are
410 Objective General Studies
5. The Provision of National Commis- Lok Sabha has been made under Areas? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
sion for Scheduled Tribes is given in [UPPSC (GIC) 2010] (A) To plan minor water bodies
which Article of the Constitution? (A) Article 330 (B) To control over institutions in
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2005] (B) Article 331 all social sectors
(A) Article 338A (C) Article 332 (C) To control on tribal sub plans
(B) Article 341 (D) Article 333 (D) All of the above
(C) Article 16 12. Part XVI (from Article 330 to 342) 18. Match List-I with List-II and select
(D) Article 82 of the Indian Constitution deals the correct answer using the code
6. Provision for constitution of a with [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] given below the lists.
National Commission for SC’s (A) Administrative Tribunals [RAS/RTS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2013]
and ST’s has been made in the (B) All India Services List-I
Constitution under Article (C) Finance Commission (Human Rights Documents)
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (a) The National Commission for
(D) Reservation of seats for SC/ST
(A) 338 and 338A and representation of Anglo- Backward Classes Act
(B) 337 Indian Community in the (b) Child Labour (Prohibition and
(C) 334 House of people Regulation) Act
(D) 339 13. Provision for the representation of (c) Person with Disabilities (Equal
7. Under which Article of the Anglo-Indian Community in the opportunities, Protection of
Constitution, there is a provision for Lok Sabha has been made in the Rights and full Participation)
the establishment of a Commission Constitution under Article Act
for Scheduled Tribes? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015 (d) The National Commission for
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015 Minorities Act
UPPCS (Pre) 2013
(A) Article 338-A UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] List-II (Year)
(B) Article 337 (A) 331 (B) 221 1. 1990 2. 1995
(C) Article 338 (C) 121 (D) 139 3. 1986 4. 1992
(D) Article 339 Code
14. The Authority to specify as to
8. Under the Scheduled Castes and which castes shall be deemed to be (a) (b) (c) (d)
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Scheduled Castes rests with the (A) 2 1 3 4
Atrocities) Act, 1989, in which [UPPCS (Mains) 2006] (B) 4 3 2 1
section there is a provision for the (C) 3 1 2 4
(A) Commission of Scheduled
arrangement of a special court?
Castes and Tribes (D) 3 1 4 2
[MPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(B) Prime Minister 19. Given below are two statements,
(A) 14 (B) 17
(C) Governor of the State in which one is Assertion (A) and
(C) 21(1) (D) 21(3) second is Reason (R).
(D) President
9. Which one of the following Articles
15. The constitutional authority, vested Assertion (A): The definition of
provides reservation of seats for the
with the power of declaring castes term ‘Minority’ is not given in the
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
and tribes as the Scheduled Castes Constitution of India.
Tribes in the Panchayats?
and Scheduled Tribes, is the Reason (R): Minority Commis-
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016] sion is not a Constitutional body.
(A) 243(D) (B) 243(C)
(A) President of India Which of the following is correct in
(C) 243(B) (D) 243(A)
(B) Prime Minister of India regards to the statements above?
10. In how many days will the
(C) Minister of Social Welfare [UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
investigation officer submit his
report for the offences committed (D) Chairman, SC/ST Commission Code
under the Scheduled Castes and 16. After the Amendment in Indian (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Constitution by the Parliament on (R) is the correct explanation of
Atrocities) Act, 1989? 14 August, 2007 the number of (A)
[MPPCS (Pre) 2017] castes in the list of Scheduled Caste (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
is [48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] but (R) is not the correct
(A) 15 (B) 20
(C) 25 (D) 30 (A) 607 (B) 1206 explanation of (A)
11. Under Indian Constitution, (C) 1410 (D) 1500 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Provision for Scheduled Tribes in 17. What is correct about the powers (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
of Zila Panchayats of Scheduled

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B)

1. The number of permanent mem-
bers in the United Nations Security
Council is [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003]
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 4 (D) 3
2. Which of the following is not a
permanent member of the U.N.
Security Council?
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
(A) Germany (B) France
(C) Great Britain (D) China
3. U.N.O. was founded in
[MPPCS (Pre) 1996]
(A) 1944 (B) 1945
(C) 1946 (D) 1947
4. When is the ‘United Nation Day’
observed? [MPPCS (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
(A) 27th October
(B) 24th October
(C) 26th October
(D) 15th October
5. According to United Nations
Charter which of the following
statements is not true regarding
exercise of veto power in the
Security Council? [IAS (Pre) 1994]
(A) For Security Council decision
on every procedural matter
there should be 9 affirmative
votes of its members including
the 5 votes of five permanent
members
(B) Every permanent member
of Security Council may be
use of Veto Power, withhold
acceptance on any decision
(C) The word ‘Veto’ has been used
under Article 27 of UN Charter
so that any permanent member
may stop a resolution going to
be passed with a majority
(D) Any member of Security
Council may use Veto Power
to stop resolution going to be
passed with a majority
6. Who among the following has been
the first African U.N. Secretary
General?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Ban Ki Moon
(B) Javier Perez De Cuellar
(C) Boutros-Boutros Cuellar
(D) U-Thant
7. Which U.N. Secretary General
served for the longest period?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Trygve Lie
(B) Kurt Waldheim
Indian Polity and Governance 411
36. Miscellaneous
(C) Xavier Peres De Cuillar 15. Prior to Shri R.N. Pathak two Indian
(D) U. Thant Judges elected to the International
8. The head of the state of the United Court of Justice were
Kingdom is [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1996]
[60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016] (A) H.J. Kania and B.N. Rau
(A) Queen Elizabeth I (B) J.C. Saha and A.N. Ray
(B) Queen Elizabeth II (C) B.N. Rau and Nagendra Singh
(C) Queen Elizabeth III (D) Nagendra Singh and A.N. Ray
(D) Queen Elizabeth IV 16. Which one is not related to United
9. Which are the official languages of Nations? [UPPCS (Pre) 2004]
the U.N.O.? [IAS (Pre) 1998] (A) General Assembly
(A) English, French and Russian (B) Amnesty International
(B) English, French, German and (C) International Court of Justice
Russian (D) Trusteeship Council
(C) English, French, Russian, 17. UN observed ......... as International
Chinese and Hindi year for Women. [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(D) English, French, Chinese, (A) 1975 (B) 1976
Russian, Arabic and Spanish (C) 1977 (D) 1972
10. Who among the following has been 18. ‘Doctors Without Borders (Medicins
the first person to deliver his speech Sans Frontieres)’, is [IAS (Pre) 2016]
in Hindi at U.N.O.? (A) A division of World Health
[MPPCS (Pre) 2012] Organization
(A) Swami Vivekananda (B) A non-governmental interna-
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri tional organization
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (C) An inter-governmental agency
(D) None of the above sponsored by the European
11. How many Articles are there in Union
‘Universal Declaration of Human (D) A specialized agency of the
Rights’? [MPPCS (Pre) 2013] United Nations
(A) 29 (B) 28 19. 10th December is celebrated as
(C) 30 (D) 32 [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(A) Human Rights Day
12. The headquarters of International
Court of Justice is situated at (B) World Health Day
[UPPCS (Pre) 1994 (C) U.N. Day
53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(D) Labour Day
(A) Hague (B) New York 20. ‘Human Rights Day’ is observed on
(C) Geneva (D) Paris [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
13. Amnesty International is (A) 10th December
[IAS (Pre) 2015] (B) 9th December
(A) An agency of the United (C) 10th November
Nations to help refugees of civil (D) 10th October
wars 21. The concept of Human Rights
(B) A Global Human Rights primarily emphasizes on
Movement [Orissa PSC (Pre) 2018
(C) A non-governmental voluntary UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
organization to help extremely (A) Right to Property
poor people (B) Right to equality
(D) An inter-governmental agency (C) Right to Religion
to cater to medical emergencies
(D) Dignity of Man as a Human
in war-ravaged regions
Being
14. Amnesty International is an organi-
22. The concept of ‘Right to Service’
zation associated with
originated in
[56th to 59th BPSC (Pre) 2015]
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Protection of women’s rights
(A) The United States of America
(B) Protection of human rights
(B) Switzerland
(C) Abolition of untouchability
(C) Great Britain
(D) None of the above
(D) China
412 Objective General Studies
23. International Day of Non-violence 31. ‘Pivot to Asia’ is the strategy of the 42. What is ‘Mossad’?
is observed on foreign policy of [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] [MPPCS (Pre) 1994]
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (A) India (B) Japan (A) A Committee of Maulanas
(A) 10th December (C) China (D) U.S.A. (B) Israel’s intelligence agency
(B) 30th January 32. C.I.A. is the intelligence agency of (C) Parliament of Iran
(C) 2nd October [MPPCS (Spl)(Pre) 2004] (D) Key of Morse Code
(D) 23rd March (A) Russia (B) England 43. The Berber-speaking community
24. How many countries of the World (C) India (D) U.S.A. which often happens to be in the
have been adopted Compulsory 33. The Parliamentary form of limelight, lives in [IAS (Pre) 2002]
Voting System? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] Government first developed in (A) Afghanistan (B) Algeria
(A) 32 (B) 25 [MPPCS (Pre) 2006] (C) Argentina (D) Australia
(C) 24 (D) 22 (A) Britain (B) Belgium 44. Which of the following countries
25. The Electoral College for the United (C) France (D) Switzerland have banned LTTE?
States Presidential Election is 34. Which of the following is the centre [UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
comprised of [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2008] of British News papers? (A) India, Sri Lanka, France
(A) Members of United State [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1992]
(B) India, Sri Lanka, U.S.A.
Congress (A) Wall Street (B) Farst Street (C) Sri Lanka, Nepal, India
(B) Members of House of (C) Fleet Street (D) Press Street
(D) Sri Lanka, Nepal, Maldives
Representative 35. Where was the ‘Festival of India’
45. The first Indian Prime Minister who
(C) Members of Senate organized for the first time outside
visited Afghanistan was
(D) None of them India? [UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
[UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
26. Where does the first primary (A) Britain 1982
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
take place in the election of U.S. (B) France 1985
(B) I.K. Gujaral
President? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1992] (C) America 1980
(D) Soviet Union 1983 (C) A.B. Vajpayee
(A) New York
(D) Man Mohan Singh
(B) New Hampshire 36. Tass is the news agency of
(C) Massachusetts [MPPCS (Pre) 1999] 46. The Parliament of Japan is known
(A) Germany (B) France as [MPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(D) California
(C) Russia (D) Iran (A) Riksdag (B) Diet
27. In which country was the
Presidential form of Government 37. Chinese Parliament is known as (C) Cortez (D) Sejim
first formed? [MPPCS (Pre) 2006] [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007] 47. Government Report of which of
(A) Yugoslavia (A) National Assembly the following countries is known as
(B) National People’s Congress ‘Yellow Book’?
(B) Egypt
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
(C) Switzerland (C) The National Parliament of
China (A) France (B) Britain
(D) United States of America
(D) The House of Democracy of (C) Italy (D) Germany
28. Where was the concept of written
China 48. What is that crime, which when
Constitution born?
38. The political leadership of which tried is punishable, but when done
[MPPCS (Pre) 2006]
country is known as ‘Princeling’? the culprit crime doer cannot be
(A) France punished? [MPPCS (Pre) 1991]
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(B) United States of America (A) Murder (B) Theft
(C) Britain (A) Japan (B) Thailand
(C) China (D) Belgium (C) Suicide (D) Rape
(D) Switzerland 49. What is Fourth Estate?
29. Which of the following may be 39. What is the name of China’s News
Agency? [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
considered a Pressure Group? (A) The twelfth player in a cricket
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008]
[MPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) China News team
(A) Members of the Lok Sabha (B) A mode of transport in addition
(B) Members of a Panchayat (B) China Times
to road, rail and air
(C) Members of the Cabinet (C) New China News Agency
(C) A large agricultural co-
(D) Members of a Trade Union (D) New China Report operative organization
30. Larry Pressler is associated with 40. What does ISI stands for? (D) Press
[MPPCS (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 1994] 50. Which one of the following is not a
(A) Ending of U.S. sanctions on (A) Inter-Services Intelligence principle of ‘Panchsheel’?
military assistance to Pakistan (B) Inter-State Intelligence [IAS (Pre) 1997]
(B) To strengthen cordial relations (C) India Security International (A) Non-alignment
between U.S. and Pakistan (D) None of the above (B) Peaceful Co-existence
(C) Criticizing the proposed 41. ‘Dawn’ is a newspaper of which of (C) Mutual respect for each
Military help to Pakistan by the the following countries? other’s territorial integrity and
Clinton Administration [MPPCS (Pre) 1990] sovereignty
(D) Announcement of candidate (A) China (B) U.S.A. (D) Mutual non-interference in
for Presidential elections (C) U.K. (D) Pakistan each other’s internal affairs

51. Meaning of Extra-Constitutional
Right [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) That power which violates the
limits of Constitution
(B) A person who has got
exceptional powers under the
Constitution
(C) That power which is not in
accordance with the provisions
of the Constitution
(D) That official who has all the
powers of the State during the
proclamation of emergency
52. Freedom of inter-state trade and
commerce has been regulated
by the Indian Constitution under
Article [UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) 19(1)(d-e) (B) 301
(C) 301 to 307 (D) All of these
53. Which one of the pairs given below
is not correctly matched?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) Equality before Law - Higher Education Department
Guaranteed to both citizens
and non-citizens
(B) Altering the name of a State -
Power of a State Legislature
(C) Crewing a new State - Power of
Parliament
(D) Equality of opportunity in
public employment citizen -
Guaranteed only to Indian
54. The Indian Foreign Policy of Non-
Alignment was initiated by
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Morarji Desai
55. Sarosh Zaiwalla is famous as a
[IAS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Renowned Dramatist
(B) Renowned Wildlife Photogra-
pher
(C) Renowned International Law
Expert
(D) Renowned Handicap Surgeon
56. An Indian appointed as the
Chairman of the International anti-
war Organisation in 1988, was
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Narain Desai
(D) Bhulabhai Desai
57. Who among the following was
appointed as the first Director
General of the Unique Identification
Authority of India created in June,
2009? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Mr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(B) Mr. Nandan Nilekani
(C) Mr. Ashok Desai
(D) Mr. Ram Sewak Sharma
58. Department of Border Management
is a Department under which of the
following Union Ministries?
[IAS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Ministry of Defence
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Ministry of Shipping, Road
Transport and Highways
(D) Ministry of Environment and
Forests
59. Which one of the following is
not the Department of Human
Resource Development Ministry?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Basic Education and Literacy
Department
(B) Secondary Education and
(C) Technical Education Depart-
ment
(D) Department of Women and
Child Development
60. Under which one of the following
Ministries of the Government of
India does the Food and Nutrition
Board work? [IAS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Ministry of Agriculture
(B) Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare
(C) Ministry of Human Resource
Development
(D) Ministry of Rural Development
61. The Press Council of India is a
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
(A) Statutory Body
(B) Statutory Quasi-judicial Body
(C) Judicial Body
(D) Advisory Body
62. Which of the following is a reason
of emergence of regionalism in
India? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Uneven development
(B) Fear of losing cultural identity
(C) Political prominence
(D) All of the above
63. The National Water Development
Agency was established in the year
[UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) 1982 (B) 1986
(C) 1991 (D) 1997
64. Bangladesh was created as a result
of Indo-Pak hostilities in
[MPPCS (Pre) 1996]
Indian Polity and Governance 413
(A) December, 1971
(B) January, 1972
(C) February, 1972
(D) November, 1971
65. Which of the following was not
included in India-Sri Lanka Accord.
[UPPCS (Pre) 1990]
(A) Formation of a new State by
merging Eastern and Northern
provinces
(B) Establishment of North-East
Council
(C) Complete Freedom
(D) Integrity of Sri Lanka
66. ‘Bahujan Hitaya, Bahujan Sukhya’
is the motto of
[Haryana PSC (Pre) 2019
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
(A) All India Radio
(B) Doordarshan
(C) Life Insurance Corporation of
India
(D) General Insurance Corporation
of India
67. In which of the following decades
the Parliamentary System in
India shifted from Centralism to
Federalism?
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) 1960’s (B) 1970’s
(C) 1980’s (D) None of these
68. Who is the founder of terrorist
group Lashkar-e-Taiba?
[Tripura PSC (Pre) 2016
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004]
(A) Maulana Masoor
(B) Hafiz Muhammad Saeed
(C) Umar Abdulla
(D) Osama Bin Laden
69. Which one of the following pairs is
not correctly matched?
[Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(A) Apico Aandolan - P. Hegde
(B) Chipko Aandolan - S.L.
Bahuguna
(C) Narmada Bachao Aandolan -
Medha Patkar
(D) Silent Valley Aandolan - Baba
Aamte
70. Which of the following is not
correctly matched? [IAS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Southern Air-Command -
Thiruvananthpuram
(B) Eastern Naval Command -
Visakhapatnam
(C) Armoured Corps Centre and
School - Jabalpur
(D) Army Medical Centre and
School - Lucknow
414 Objective General Studies
71. In Indian Navy, the equivalent of an (B) Constitutional cases in (C) Right to Liberty
army lieutenant colonel is Supreme Court is heard by (D) Both (A) and (B)
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003] minimum five Judges 87. The Pravasi Bhartiya Divas (PBD) is
(A) Commodore (C) Freedom of Press is included organized in India to connect with
(B) Captain in the fundamental right a large number of Pravasis. This
(C) Commander - Freedom of Speech and Convention began in the year
(D) Lieutenant Commander expression [UPPSC (RI) 2014]
72. The number of operational (D) Zakir Hussain was the first Vice (A) 1991 (B) 2001
commands of the Indian Army is President of India (C) 2003 (D) 2013
[MPPCS (Pre) 1999] 80. Which among the following 88. Who was the first woman to become
(A) 5 (B) 4 States has record of formation of the Prime Minister of any country?
maximum Coalition Governments [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(C) 6 (D) 7
between 1967 to 1971? (A) Sirimavo Bhandarnaike
73. The First Law University in India [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
was established in August 1887 in (B) Margaret Thatcher
(A) Uttar Pradesh
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] (C) Golda Meir
(B) Haryana
(A) Trivandrum (B) Ahmedabad (D) Indira Gandhi
(C) Bihar
(C) Bangalore (D) New Delhi 89. Which one of the following
(D) Punjab statements is not correct?
74. Which among the following
European Union countries is the 81. Which state gave the status of OBC [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
first to officially recognize the State to Gurkhas in 2003? (A) The total number of Articles in
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
of Palestine? the Constitution of India is 395
[56th to 59th BPSC (Pre) 2015] (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Finance Commission is
(A) Sweden (B) Denmark (B) Andhra Pradesh constituted under Article 280
(C) Norway (D) Italy (C) Maharashtra of the Constitution of India
75. Border Security Force came into (D) Uttarakhand (C) Madam Cama was the first
existence in 82. Scientific socialism is attributed to woman President of Indian
[48th to 52nd BPSC (Pre) 2008] [MPPCS (Pre) 2016] National Congress
(A) 1965 (B) 1970 (A) Karl Marx (D) ‘Politics in India’ is the
(C) 1910 (D) 1950 (B) Adam Smith pioneering research study of
(C) J.M. Keynes Rajni Kothari
76. Internal Security Academy is
located at [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (D) Thomas Mann 90. Which one of the following is the
83. The International Day of Persons World’s newest country?
(A) Mount Abu (B) Nasik
with Disabilities is celebrated on [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
(C) Hyderabad (D) Pune
[56th to 59th BPSC (Pre) 2015] (A) Eritea (B) Ethiopia
77. The Indian Regiment Mission of
(A) 10th December (C) Congo (D) South Sudan
Asian Development Bank is situated
in [UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] (B) 24th October 91. World’s main languages are
(A) Mumbai (B) New Delhi (C) 19th November 1. Chinese 2. English
(C) Kolkata (D) Bangalore (D) 3rd December 3. Hindi 4. Spanish
78. Untouchability will not constitute 84. Who among following has Which one of the given languages
an offence when [MPPCS (Pre) 2012] called the District Collector an is not an official language of United
‘Institutional Charisma’? Nations, choose correct answer
(A) The act of accused with regard
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013] using code below.
to the enjoyment of benefit
(A) Rajni Kothari [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2002, 2003]
under a charitable trust created
for the benefit of any section of (B) P.R. Dubhashi Code
the general public (C) T.N. Chaturvedi (A) Chinese (B) English
(B) The act of accused is with (D) J.D. Shukla (C) Hindi (D) Spanish
regard to the use of finery 85. In the administration of the State 92. Consider the following statements.
(C) As accused is not being Secretariate every file have to be 1. The Parliament of Russia is
competent to commit an sent to the Cabinet through called Federal Assembly.
offence [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015] 2. The Council of the Federation is
(D) The accused and complaint (A) Departmental Secretary the Lower House of the Russian
victim belong to the same social (B) Deputy Secretary Parliament.
group (C) Under Secretary 3. The name of the Upper House
79. Which one of the following (D) Chief Secretary of the Russian Parliament is
statements is not correct? 86. Which one of the following is State Duma.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] considered to be the second Which of the statements given
(A) The Constitutional Amendment generation of Human Rights? above is/are correct?
Bill has to be passed by [UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010] [IAS (Pre) 2005]
both Houses of Parliament (A) Right to Work (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
separately with special majority (B) Right to Education (C) 2 and 3 (D) Only 1
 Indian Polity and Governance 415
93. Consider the following statements. 2. Indo-Soviet Treaty (A) Only 1
1. The Commonwealth has no 3. Farakka Accord (B) Only 2 and 3
charter, treaty or constitution. 4. Tashkent Agreement (C) Only 1 and 3
2. All the territories/countries Select the correct answer using the (D) 1, 2 and 3
once under the British Empire code given below. 101. Consider the following countries.
(jurisdiction/rule/mandate) [UPPCS (Mains) 2002] 1. Denmark
automatically joined the Com- (A) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 3, 2, 1, 4 2. Japan
monwealth as its members. (C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 3. Russian Federation
Which of the statements given 98. With reference to National Legal
above is/are correct? 4. United Kingdom
Services Authority, consider the
[IAS (Pre) 2010] 5. United States of America
following statements.
(A) Only 1 Which of the above are the
1. Its objective is to ensure free
(B) Only 2 members of the ‘Arctic Council’?
and competent legal services
(C) Both 1 and 2 [IAS (Pre) 2014]
to the weaker sections of the
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 society on the basis of equal (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
94. Examine the statements given opportunity. (C) 1, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 3 and 5
below and find the correct answer 2. It issues guidelines to the 102. Match the following.
using the code given below. state legal services authorities [MPPCS (Pre) 1994]
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002] to implement the legal List-I
1. Judges of the High Courts hold programmes and schemes (a) Pressler Amendments
their office till the age of 62 throughout the country. (b) Chakma Refugees
years. Which of the statements given (c) Perestroika
2. A political party, which has above is/are correct? (d) 13th September, 1993
been recognized in four or [IAS (Pre) 2013]
List-II
more states, is national party. (A) Only 1
1. Bangladesh
3. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (B) Only 2
decides whether a Bill is a 2. Gorbachev
(C) Both 1 and 2
Money Bill or not. 3. Agreement between Israel and
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Cognizable offence is an P.L.O.
99. Consider the following statements. 4. Linking American assistance
offence, for which one can be [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2017
arrested without any warrant. and with development of
UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 nuclear capacity
1. The fundamental right to Code
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 protection of life and personal
95. The powers of District Collector as a liberty cannot be suspended (a) (b) (c) (d)
District Magistrate are during Emergency. (A) 1 2 4 3
1. To maintain law and order. 2. The Vice-President to India (B) 4 1 2 3
2. Control over police. can be removed from the office (C) 2 3 4 1
3. To check passports of foreigners by a resolution passed by the (D) 3 4 2 1
4. To control land revenue Council of States and approved 103. Match List-I with List-II and select
Select the correct answer using the by the House of the People. the correct answer using the code
code given below. 3. At present the leader of given below the lists.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016] opposition in the Council of [IAS (Pre) 1997]
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 States is Shri Arun Jaitley. List-I (Functionaries)
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4 4. The Chairman of the Planning (a) President of India
Commission of India is Shri (b) Judges of Supreme Court
96. Which of the following statements Montek Singh Ahluwalia.
about the Sikkim are true? (c) Members of Parliament
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
Code (d) Ministers for the Union
1. It became an integral part of (A) Only 1 and 2 are correct List-II (Oaths or affirmations)
India in 1975. (B) Only 2 and 3 are correct 1. Secrecy of Information
2. It is considered as a botanist’s (C) Only 3 and 4 are correct 2. Faithful discharge of Duties
paradise. (D) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct 3. Faith and Allegiance to the
3. Its population is mainly made 100. Consider the following pairs. Constitution of India
up of the Lepchas. Region often Country 4. Upholding the sanctity of the
Select the correct answer from the in news Constitution and Law
codes given below. 1. Chechnya - Russian Code
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 Federation (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 2. Darfur - Mali (A) 3 4 1 2
97. Which is the correct chronological 3. Swat Valley - Iraq (B) 4 3 2 1
order of the following? Which of the above pairs is/are (C) 3 4 2 1
1. Shimla Agreement correctly matched? [IAS (Pre) 2014] (D) 4 3 1 2
416 Objective General Studies
104. Match List-I with List-II and select (B) Statement and Reason both are (c) Shankari Prasad Vs. Union of
the correct answer using the code correct, but the statement is India
given below the lists. not the correct explanation of (d) Champakam Dorairajan Vs.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] reason State of Madras
List-I (Officers) (C) The statement is correct, but List-II (Subject)
(a) Vice-President of India reason is false 1. Equality in admission to
(b) Comptroller and Auditor (D) The statement is false, but educational institutions
General of India reason is correct 2. Parliament’s power to amend
(c) Solicitor General of India 106. Match the following. the Constitution
(d) Attorney General of India [MPPCS (Pre) 1992] 3. Procedure for preventive
List-II (Institutions) List-I detention
1. Public Accounts Committee (a) Operation Checkmate 4. Restriction on Free speech
2. Meetings of Lok Sabha (b) Operation Cactus Code
3. Rajya Sabha (c) Operation Blue Star (a) (b) (c) (d)
4. Supreme Court (d) Operation Siddharth (A) 1 2 3 4
5. Committee on Public List-II (B) 3 4 2 1
Undertakings 1. Maldives 2. Punjab (C) 2 4 1 3
Code 3. Bihar 4. Sri Lanka (D) 4 3 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) Code 108. Assertion (A): Castes are being
(A) 3 1 4 2 (a) (b) (c) (d) politicized in India.
(B) 2 3 1 4 (A) 4 1 2 3 Reason (R): Casteism has been
(C) 4 2 3 1 (B) 4 1 3 2 increasing in Indian Politics.
(D) 1 4 2 3 (C) 4 2 3 1 [Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
(D) 1 4 3 2 RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
105. Statement : Constitution of India
is basically Federal in nature. 107. Match List-I with List-II and select Code
Reason : Article 352 has the correct answer using the code (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
provisions to deal with the failure given below the lists. (R) is the correct explanation of
of constitutional machinery in a [RAS/RTS (Pre) (Re.Exam) 2013] (A)
state. [MPPCS (Pre) 2008] List-I (Case) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(A) Statement and Reason both are (a) A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of but (R) is not the correct
correct and the Statement is Madras explanation of (A)
the correct explanation of the (b) Romesh Thapar Vs. State of (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
reason Madras (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (A)
51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (C) 56. (C) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (C)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (A) 64. (A) 65. (C) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (C)
71. (C) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (A) 75. (A) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (C)
81. (D) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (A) 85. (D) 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (A) 89. (C) 90. (D)
91. (C) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (D) 95. (C) 96. (D) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (D) 100. (A)
101. (D) 102. (B) 103. (C) 104. (A) 105. (C) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (B)
 Economic and Social Development 417

6
Economic and
Social Development
1. Economics : An Introduction
1. Who is called father of Modern 7. Which one of the following is 12. Which among the following is a
Economics? [MPPCS (Mains) 2010] the major feature of the Indian characteristic of underdevelop-
(A) Adam Smith (B) Marshal Economy? [UPSC (Pre) 2015] ment? [HCS (Pre) 2014]
(C) Keynes (D) Robins (A) A capitalist economy (A) Vicious circle of poverty
2. Paul Krugaman is a/an (B) A socialist economy (B) Raising mass consumption
[MPPCS (Mains) 2009] (C) A mixed economy (C) Growth of industries
(A) Scientist (D) None of the above (D) High rate of urbanisation
(B) Sportsman 8. The Indian Economy is a 13. Economically, one of the results of
(C) Banker [UPPCS (Mains) 2017] the British rule in India in the 19th
(A) Liberal economy century was the [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
(D) Economist
(B) Socialist economy (A) increase in the export of Indian
3. For the existence of a market which
(C) Mixed economy handicrafts
is indispensable? [MPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(D) None of the above (B) growth in the number of Indian
(A) Banks owned factories
(B) Economic laws 9. Mixed economy in India means
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007, 2014] (C) commercialisation of Indian
(C) Prices agriculture
(A) Co-existence of large and small
(D) Trade unions scale industries (D) rapid increase in the urban
4. Indian Economy is characterised as (B) Foreign collaboration in population
[UPPCS (Pre) 1995] economic development 14. Assertion (A): The emergence of
(A) backward economy (C) Co-existence of public and economic globalism does not imply
(B) developed economy private sector the decline of socialist ideology.
(C) developing economy (D) None of the above Reason (R): The ideology of
(D) underdeveloped economy 10. The credit of developing the socialism believes in universalism
5. The Gandhian economy is based on concept of modern economic and globalism. [Goa PSC (Pre) 1997]
the principle of [UPPCS (Pre) 2013] growth goes to [HCS (Pre) 2011] In the context of the given two
(A) Competition (A) Arthur Lewis statements, which of the following
(B) Michael P. Todaro is correct?
(B) Trusteeship
(C) Gunnar Myrdal Code
(C) State control
(D) Simon Kuznet (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(D) None of the above
11. ‘Underdeveloped countries are (R) is the correct explanation of
6. Who among the following had (A)
propounded the concept of the slums of world economy’ the
statement is given by (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
‘Trusteeship’? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] but (R) is not the correct
[Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2014]
(A) M.N. Roy explanation of (A)
(B) Aurobindo Ghosh (A) Ragnar Nurkse
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) A.N. Cairncross
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(C) Colin Clark
(D) G.K. Gokhale
(D) Jagdish Bhagwati

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A)
418 Objective General Studies
1. In India, National Income is
computed by which of the
following? [UPPCS (Pre) 1995, 2006]
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Central Statistical Organisation
(D) Reserve Bank of India
2. Who among the following was the
Chairman of National Committee
appointed by Government of India
in 1949? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) C.R. Rao
(B) P.C. Mahalanobis
(C) V.K.R.V. Rao
(D) K.N. Raj
3. The national income of a country
for a given period is equal to the
[UPSC (Pre) 2013]
(A) Total value of goods and
services produced by the
nationals
(B) Sum of total consumption and
investment expenditure
(C) Sum of personal income of all
individual
10. The Hindu rate of growth refers to
(D) Money value of final goods and
services produced
4. Which among the following sectors
contribute most to GDP of India?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Primary sector
(B) Secondary sector
(C) Tertiary sector
11. Which of the following causes
(D) All three contribute equally
5. Which one of the following is the
correct sequence in the decreasing
order of contribution of different
sectors to the Gross Domestic
Product of India? [UPSC (Pre) 2008]
(A) Service, Industry, Agriculture
(B) Service, Agriculture, Industry
(C) Industry, Service, Agriculture
(D) Industry, Agriculture, Service
6. Indicate the vital change in the
measurement of National Income
of India. [RAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Base year has been changed
from 2004-05 to 2011-12
12. The first measure of India’s
(B) Calculation has been changed
from factor cost to market prices
(C) Calculation has been changed
from current prices to constant
prices
(D) Both the base year and
calculation method have been
changed
13. The Per Capita Income in India was
7. The Government of India has
decided to revise the base for
2. National Income
estimating the GDP from
[HPPSC (Mains) 2014]
(A) 2001-02 to 2010-11
(B) 2004-05 to 2013-14
(C) 2004-05 to 2011-12
(D) 2001-02 to 2011-12
8. Which of the following is a sign of
economic growth? [RAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) An increase in national income
at constant prices during a year
(B) A sustained increase in real per
capita income
(C) An increase in national income
at current prices overtime
(D) An increase in national
income along with increase in
population
9. The most appropriate measure of a
country’s economic growth is its
[UPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) Gross Domestic Product
(B) Net Domestic Product
(C) Net National Product
(D) Per Capita Real Income
the growth rate of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004
UPPCS (Pre) 1996, 2006]
(A) Per Capita Income
(B) National Income
(C) Population
(D) Literacy
have been mainly responsible for
the slow growth of real per capita
income in India?
1. Rapid rise in population
2. Rapid rise in prices
3. Slow pace of progress in
agriculture and industrial fields
4. Non-availability of foreign
exchange
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below.
[UPPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 4 (D) All of these
National Income was made by
[UPPCS (Pre) 2007
UPSC (Mains) 2014]
(A) William Digby
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) M.G. Ranade
(D) V.K.R.V. Rao
` 20 in 1867-68 was ascertained for
the first time by [UPSC (Pre) 2000]
(A) M.G. Ranade
(B) Sir W. Hunter
(C) R.C. Dutta
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji
14. Which of the following statements
is not true of the Indian Economy?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2010, 2012]
(A) Its share of world population is
only 16%, but its share of world
GDP is 1.6%
(B) The share of service sector in
India’s GDP is only 25%
(C) 58% of its working population
is engaged in agriculture, but
the contribution of agriculture
to the national income is 22%
(D) India occupies only 2.4% of the
world’s geographical area
15. The growth rate of per capita
income at current prices is higher
than that of per capita income at
constant prices, because the later
takes into account the rate of
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2000]
(A) growth of population
(B) increase in price level
(C) growth of money supply
(D) increase in the wage rate
16. Human Development Index (HDI)
comprises literacy rates, life
expectancy at birth and
[MPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Gross Domestic Product per
head in US Dollars
(B) Gross Domestic Product per
head at real purchasing power
(C) Gross National Product in US
Dollars
(D) National Income per head in US
Dollars
17. National Income is the
[UPSC (Pre) 1997]
(A) Net National Product at market
price
(B) Net National Product at factor
cost
(C) Net Domestic Product at
market price
(D) Net Domestic Product at factor
cost
18. The term National Income
represents [UPCS (Pre) 2001]
(A) Gross National Product
at market price minus
depreciation
(B) Gross National Product
at market price minus
 Economic and Social Development 419
depreciation plus net factor 21. The most simple and popular 25. Which of the following methods
Income from abroad method of measuring economic is not being used in the
(C) Gross National Product at mar- development is to calculate the unemployment estimation by the
ket price minus depreciation trend of Gross National Product NSSO in India?
and indirect tax plus subsidies (GNP) at [HPPSC (Pre) 2014] [UPPCS (Mains) 2005, 2016]
(D) Gross National Product at (A) Current prices (A) Current monthly status
market price minus net factor (B) Constant prices (B) Current daily status
income from abroad (C) Both of the above (C) Current weekly status
19. In an open economy, the National (D) None of the above (D) Usual principal status
Income (y) of the economy is (C, I, 22. When National Income is 26. Economic Survey in India is
G, X, M, Y stand for Consumption, calculated with reference to a base published by [UPSC (Mains) 2016]
Investment, Government year, it is called [HPPSC (Pre) 2014] (A) Ministry of Finance
Expenditure, Total Exports, Total (A) Nominal national income (B) Planning Commission
Imports and National Income,
(B) Real national income (C) Ministry of Commerce
respectively).
(C) Net national income (D) Indian Statistical Institute
Select the correct answer from the
(D) Gross national income 27. One of the problems in calculating
following. [UPSC (Pre) 2000]
23. Which among the following are the National Income in India is
(A) Y = C + I + G + X
factors that determine the national [UKPSC (Pre) 2016
(B) Y = I + G – X + M income of a country? BPSC (Pre) 2018]
(C) Y = C + I + G + (X – M) [HPPSC (Pre) 2014] (A) Under-employment
(D) Y = C + I – G + (X – M) (A) Quantity and Quality of factors (B) Inflation
20. Which of the following is/are the of produced (C) Low level of savings
component(s) of Gross Domestic (B) The state of technical (D) Non-monetised consumption
Capital Formation (GDCF)? knowledge 28. What was India’s estimated GDP
1. Gross Domestic Saving (C) Economic and Political stability growth rate for 2018-19 in the
2. Net Capital Inflow (D) All of the above Economic survey?
3. Direct Foreign Investment 24. National Sample Survey Office [HPPSC (Pre) 2018]
Choose the correct answer from the (NSSO) was established in the year (A) 6.3% - 7.1%
codes given below. [HPPSC (Mains) 2014] (B) 7.2% - 7.5%
[HPPSC (Pre) 2011] (A) 1950 (B) 1951 (C) 7% - 7.5%
Code (C) 1947 (D) 1948 (D) 7% - 7.2%
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Only 3 (D) Both 1 and 2

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (C)

3. Economic Planning of India

1. In India, planned economy is based 2. For extending the benefits 5. Which was the final authority in
on [UPPCS (Pre) 2007] of development in an even India to approve Five Year Plans?
(A) Gandhian System manner. [MPPCS 2008]
(B) Socialist System 3. For focusing on removal of (A) Union Council of Ministers
(C) Capitalist System regional disparities. (B) Planning Commission
(D) Mixed Economy System 4. For maximising the utilisation (C) Prime Minister
2. The Gandhian Plan was expounded of available resources of these.
(D) National Development Council
in 1944 by [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] (A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(NDC)
(A) N.R. Sarkar (B) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
6. ..... got the highest priority during
(B) Kasturi Bhai Lal Bhai (C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
the first plan period in India.
(C) Jai Prakash Narayan (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct [Tripura PSC (Pre) 2018
(D) Shriman Narayan Agarwal 4. National Planning Committee was HCS (Pre) 2014]
3. Consider the following pre- set up by [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Self reliance
requisites for planning. It is (A) Jawahar Lal Nehru (B) Growth with social justice
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] (B) A. Dalal
(C) Development of agriculture
1. For balanced socio-economic (C) S. Bose including irrigation
development. (D) L.B. Shastri (D) Removed of unemployment
420 Objective General Studies
7. Khadi and village industry
commission was established in
[HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Third Plan (B) Fourth Plan
(C) Second Plan (D) First Plan
8. Which plan among the following
declared its objective of self-
reliance and zero net foreign aid?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) Second Five Year Plan
(B) Third Five Year Plan
(C) Fourth Five Year Plan
(D) Fifth Five Year Plan
9. Consider the following statements
regarding Indian Planning.
1. The Second Five Year
Plan emphasised on the
establishment of heavy
industries.
2. The Third Five Year Plan
introduced the concept of
import substitution as a
strategy for industrialisation.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[UPSC (Pre) 2009]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
10. First Five Year Plan was started in
[MPPCS 2013]
(A) 1951-52 (B) 1956-57
(C) 1961-62 (D) 1966-67
11. The Planned Development Model
was adopted in India from
[RAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1st April, 1951
(B) 15th August, 1947
(C) 26th January, 1950
(D) 1st May, 1965
12. Which of the following Five Year
Plans witnessed the highest growth
rate in India? [RAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Eighth Plan (B) Ninth Plan
(C) Tenth Plan (D) Eleventh Plan
13. What is the growth rate aimed at in
the Eighth Five Year Plan?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(A) 5.6% (B) 6%
(C) 6.5% (D) 7%
14. The period of Eleventh Five Year
Plan in India, was
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) 2005-2010 (B) 2006-2011
(C) 2007-2012 (D) 2008-2013
15. The Second Five Year Plan was
base on which model?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2007, 2015]
(A) Solow model
(B) Domar model
(C) Robinson’s model
(D) Mahalanobis model
16. Under which ‘Five Year Plan’
was the decision to establish a
socialistic pattern of society taken?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) First Five Year Plan
(B) Second Five Year Plan
(C) Third Five Year Plan
(D) Fourth Five Year Plan
17. Planning in India, in real sense,
began with the Second Five Year
Plan. Who was the architect of
Indian Planning? [MPPSC 2007]
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) C.D. Deshmukh
(D) P.C. Mahalanobis
18. Core Sector in the planning means
[RAS (Pre) 1996]
(A) Agriculture
(B) Defense
(C) Iron and Steel Industry
(D) Selected Basic Industry
19. Goal of Third Five Year Plan in
India is [RAS (Pre) 1992]
(A) equal distribution of Income
(B) self sufficiency and to decrease
dependency on foreign aids
(C) development of Backward
castes
(D) increase in share of private
sector
20. The basic objective of Fifth Five
Years Plan was [MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Poverty Removal
(B) Reforms in public distribution
system
(C) Inclusive growth
(D) Exclusive growth
21. During which Five Year Plan was
the Emergency claimed, new
elections took place and the Janta
Party was elected? [UPSC (Pre) 2009]
(A) Third (B) Fourth
(C) Fifth (D) Sixth
22. The slogan of ‘poverty abolition’
was given in which Five Year Plan?
[HCS (Pre) 2014
UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
(A) Second Plan (B) Fourth Plan
(C) Fifth Plan (D) Sixth Plan
23. The Five Year Plan that terminated
one year before the scheduled
period is [RAS (Pre) 1995]
(A) Second Five Year Plan
(B) Third Five Year Plan
(C) Fourth Five Year Plan
(D) Fifth Five Year Plan
24. In which one of the year ‘Rolling
Plan’ was in operation in India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) 1968-69 (B) 1978-79
(C) 1988-89 (D) 1990-91
25. The Plan Holiday refers to the
period [RAS (Pre) 1995]
(A) 1955-68 (B) 1965-68
(C) 1966-69 (D) 1978-80
26. ‘The Rolling Plan’ for backward
countries was suggested by
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) G. Myrdal (B) W.A. Lewis
(C) R. Nurkse (D) A. Samuelson
27. Consider the following statements
about ‘Rolling plan’ it is
1. A plan for single year.
2. A plan that is determined for 3,
4 or 5 years.
3. Reviewed every year according
to the necessities of the
economy.
4. A pre-requisite plan for 10, 15
or 20 years of these.
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
Code
(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
28. The core slogan of Seventh Plan
was [RAS (Pre) 1995]
(A) Food, work and productivity
(B) Free education for all children
(C) Five percent growth rate of
national income
(D) Community development
programme
29. Which one of the following Five
Year Plans recognised human
development as the core of all
development efforts?
[UPSC (Pre) 1995]
(A) The Third Five Year Plan
(B) The Fifth Five Year Plan
(C) The Sixth Five Year Plan
(D) The Eighth Five Year Plan
30. Which Five Year Plan operated in
India during April 1992 - March
1997? [UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(A) Sixth Plan
(B) Seventh Plan
(C) Eighth Plan
(D) Rolling Plan
 Economic and Social Development 421
31. Which Five Year Plan in India 37. Inclusive growth as enunciated in infrastructure begins in
gave emphasis on co-operative the Eleventh Five Year Plan does [UPSC (Pre) 2010]
Federalism? [HCS (Pre) 2014] not include one of the following (A) Fourth Plan (B) Sixth Plan
(A) Ninth Five Year Plan [UPSC (Pre) 2010] (C) Eighth Plan (D) Tenth Plan
(B) Tenth Five Year Plan (A) Reduction of poverty 42. Who authored the book, ‘Planned
(C) Eleventh Five Year Plan (B) Extension of employment Economy for India’?
(D) Twelfth Five Year Plan opportunities [MPPSC (Pre) 2018]
32. In which of the following Five Year (C) Strengthening of capital (A) M. Visvesvaraya
Plans the Women’s component market (B) J.R.D. Tata
plan was introduced as a major (D) Reduction of gender inequality (C) G.D. Birla
strategy? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] 38. Since the start of planning in India, (D) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(A) Tenth Five Year Plan the total number of years not 43. Eleventh Five Year Plan
(B) Eleventh Five Year Plan covered by any five year plans is emphasised on [RAS (Pre) 2018]
(C) Ninth Five Year Plan [UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) Economic Growth Social
(D) Twelfth Five Year Plan (A) 6 (B) 7 Justice
33. Which one of the following Five (C) 5 (D) 3 (B) Economic Growth and Human
Years Plan of India focused on 39. The planning process in the Development
‘Growth with Social Justice and industrial sector in India has (C) Faster and more inclusive
Equity’? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015] assumed a relatively less important growth
(A) Ninth Five Year Plan position in the nineties as compared (D) Faster, Sustainable and more
(B) Third Five Year Plan to that in the earlier period. Which inclusive growth
one of the following is not true in
(C) Fourth Five Year Plan 44. In India which of the following Five
this regard? [UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(D) Fifth Five Year Plan Year Plans was launched with a
(A) With the advent of focus on sustainable growth?
34. National Horticulture Mission was liberalisation, industrial
launched in which of the following [UPPCS (Pre) 2018]
investments / developments
Five Year Plans? have largely been placed within (A) 9th (B) 10th
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] the domain of private and (C) 11th (D) 12th
(A) Eleventh Five Year Plan multinational sector 45. Match the following plans and
(B) Tenth Five Year Plan (B) With markets assuming a programmes
(C) Ninth Five Year Plan central place, the role of central List-I (Plan)
(D) None of the above planning in many sector has (a) 1st plan (b) 2nd plan
35. In the Eleventh Five Year been rendered redundant (c) 3rd plan (d) 4th plan
Plan, which of the following (C) The focus of planning has (e) 5th plan
sectors accounts for maximum shifted to sectors like human, List-II (Programmes)
combined Central, State and U.T. resource development, 1. Rapid Industrialisation
expenditure? [UPPCS (Pre) 2010] infrastructure, population
2. Community Development
(A) Transport control and welfare
3. Expansion of basic industries
(B) Energy (D) The nation’s priorities have
shifted away from industrial 4. Minimum Needs programme
(C) Agriculture and Rural
development to rural 5. Achievement of self reliance
(D) Social Sector and growth with stability
development
36. The core concept of the Eleventh Select the correct answer from the
Five Year Plan was 40. ‘Planning from below’ is known as
[HCS (Pre) 2014] codes below.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008
[UPPCS (Mains) 1994]
UKPCS (Pre) 2011] (A) Centralised planning
(B) Decentralised planning Code
(A) Human Resource Development
(C) Functional planning (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(B) Growth with social justice and
equality (D) Structural planning (A) 1 2 3 4 5
(C) Human well being 41. In the context of India’s Five (B) 2 1 4 5 3
(D) Faster and more inclusive Year Plans, a shift in the pattern (C) 2 1 3 4 5
growth of Industrialisation, with lower (D) 2 1 3 5 4

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (D)
422 Objective General Studies

4. Main Sectors of Indian Economy

1. The farmers are provided credit Statement B: RAJFED is working (A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
from a number of sources for in the state to ensure fair prices to (C) 1 and 3 (D) Only 3
their short and long-term needs. farmers for their crops. 10. Who was the person not associated
The main sources of credit to the Statement C: RAJFED is working with the Green Revolution when it
farmers include [UPSC (Pre) 1999] in the state as apex development started in India? [MPPSC (Pre) 2005]
(A) The primary Agriculture coop- bank for agriculture. (A) M.S. Swaminathan
erative societies, commercial (A) All statements are correct (B) C. Subramaniam
banks, RRBs commercial banks (B) A and B are correct (C) Indira Gandhi
and private money lenders
(C) A and C are correct (D) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
(B) The NABARD, RBI, commercial
banks and private money (D) Only A is correct 11. Green revolution was the result
lenders 5. Who among the following is of adaption of New Agricultural
associated with ‘White revolution’? strategy which was introduced in
(C) The District Central Cooper-
[MPPCS (Pre) 2012] 20th Century during decades of
ative Banks (DCCB), the lead
(A) P.J. Kurien [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
banks, IRDP and JRY
(B) Verghese Kurien (A) Fifties (B) Sixties
(D) The large scale multi-purpose
Adivasis Programme, DCCB, (C) M.S. Swaminathan (C) Seventies (D) Eighties
IFFCO and commercial banks (D) M.S. Raghanathan 12. Green Revolution is related to
2. Which of the following are the [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
6. White revolution is related to
objectives of the commission [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Millet production
for Agricultural costs and prices (B) Pulse production
(A) Egg production
(CACP)? (C) Wheat production
(B) Milk production
1. To stabilise agricultural prices. (D) Oil seed production
(C) Wheat production
2. To ensure meaningful real 13. Indian Green Revolution started
(D) Fish production from
income levels to the farmers. [MPPSC (Pre) 2005]
3. To protect the interest of 7. Who is known as ‘Father of White (A) Pantnagar (B) Bangalore
the consumers by providing Revolution’ in India?
(C) Kanpur (D) Delhi
[HPPSC (Pre) 2015
essential agricultural 14. Actively associated with Green
UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
commodities at reasonable Revolution [MPPSC (Pre) 1999]
rates though public distribution (A) M.S. Swaminathan
(B) V. Kurien (A) Dr. Swaminathan
system.
(C) K.N. Bhat (B) Dr. Kurien
4. To ensure maximum price for
the farmer. (D) B.P. Pal (C) C. Subramaniam
Choose the corret answer from the 8. ‘Operation Flood’ is associated (D) Dr. Abdul Kalam
codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 1995] with [MPPSC (Pre) 1995] 15. Green revolution had the greatest
Code (A) Flood control impact on [UPPCS (Pre) 1994]

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (B) Irrigation Project (A) Rice

(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
3. Public procurement of food grains
at support prices insures the
following.
1. Stability in farm prices
2. Remunerative prices to the
farmers
3. Building food stocks for public
distribution
Which of the above statements are
correct? [RAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) Only 3
4. Following are the statements
associated with RAJFED. Choose
the correct answer from the codes
given below. [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
Statement A: RAJFED is working
in the state to make available HYV
seeds, fertilizers and pesticides to
farmers at fair prices.
(C) Storage of food grains
(D) Milk production and
distribution
9. Consider the following statements.
1. Regarding the procurement
of food grains, Government of
India following a procurement
target rather than open-ended
procurement policy.
2. Government of India
announces minimum support
prices only for cereals.
3. For distribution under
Targeted Public Distribution
System (TPDS), Wheat and rice
are issued by the government
of India at uniform central
issue prices to the State/Union
Territories.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[UPSC (Pre) 2004]
(B) Maize
(C) Barley
(D) Wheat
16. The ‘Green Revolution’ involved
the use of high yielding varieties of
seeds which required
[UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) less fertilizer and less water
(B) more fertilizer and less water
(C) less fertilizer and more water
(D) more fertilizer and more water
17. The importance of agriculture in
Indian economy is indicated by
its contribution to which of the
following? [UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
(A) National income and
employment
(B) Industrial development and
international trade
(C) Supply of food grains
(D) All of the above
 Economic and Social Development 423
18. Reason for low-productivity in (A) Agricultural Sector 3. Establishing the technology
Indian agriculture is (B) Industrial Sector acquisition and development
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016; HCS (Pre) 2014 (C) Service Sector fund.
UPPCS (Pre) 2007] (D) Trade Sector Select the correct answer using the
(A) engagement of more persons 26. In India, which of the following codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 2012]
in agricultural operations than have the highest share in the (A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
needed disbursement of credit to (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(B) small land holdings agriculture and allied activities? 31. Which of the following is included
(C) backward technique of [UPSC (Pre) 2011 in National Food Security Mission
production HPPSC (Pre) 2014] (NFSM)? [UPPSC (Mains) 2014]
(D) All of the above (A) Commercial Banks (A) Wheat
19. Yellow Revolution is concerned (B) Micro Finance Institution (B) Pulses
with the production of (C) Regional Rural Banks (C) Rice
[UPPCS (Pre) 2007] (D) Co-operative Banks (D) All of the above
(A) Food grains (B) Fish 27. Which among the following is 32. Since 1997-98 which statement
(C) Oil seeds (D) Milk providing least institutional credit is correct regarding Minimum
20. The term ‘Evergreen Revolution’ to agriculture and allied activities Support Price (MSP)?
has been used for increasing in recent years? [RAS (Pre) 2016]
agricultural production in India by [UPPCS (Mains) 2010] (A) MSP = C2 costs
[UPPSC (Mains) 2015] (A) Commercial Banks (B) MSP > C2 costs
(A) Norman Borlaug (B) Foreign Private Banks (C) MSP < C2 costs
(B) M.S. Swaminathan (C) Co-operative Banks (D) MSP is independent to C2 cost
(C) Raj Krishna (D) Regional Rural Banks 33. Among the following, which one
(D) R.K.V. Rao 28. Following are the source of is related to Blue Revolution in
21. ‘Super Rice’ was developed by institutional credit to agriculture in India? [MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
[UPPCS (Pre) 2007] India. (A) Floriculture (B) Sericulture
(A) M.S. Swaminathan 1. Co-operative Banks (C) Pisciculture (D) Horticulture
(B) G.S. Khush 2. Regional Rural Banks 34. NAFED is connected with
(C) N.E. Borlaug 3. Commercial Banks [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(D) P.K. Gupta Which one is the correct sequence (A) Animal husbandary
22. Which one of the following is the in descending order of their (B) Conservation of fuel
primary sector of India’s economy? importance? [UPSC (Mains) 2016] (C) Agricultural marketing
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015] (A) 1, 3, 2 (B) 2, 1, 3 (D) Agricultural implements
(A) Agriculture (B) Industry (C) 3, 2, 1 (D) 3, 1, 2 35. Public Distribution System is aimed
(C) Cooperative (D) None of these 29. Green Revolution made the country at [MPPCS (Pre) 2008]
23. The prices at which the government self-sufficient in food production, (A) providing food security to the
purchases grains for maintaining but had some fallouts. Consider the poor
public distribution system and for following statements. (B) to prevent hoarding and black
building up buffer-stock is known 1. It is successful in case of wheat, marketing
as [MPPSC (Pre) 2005] but not in the case pulses. (C) to prevent overcharging by
(A) Minimum Support Prices 2. Brought inter-state disparities. traders
(B) Procurement Prices 3. Help in restoring soil fertility. (D) All of the above
(C) Issue Prices 4. Reduced water table in some 36. Some time back, the Government
(D) Ceiling Price states. of India, decided to delicense
24. Indian agriculture has the Select the correct statements from ‘White goods industry’. White
following features. the codes given below. goods includes [UPSC (Pre) 1998]
1. Dependence of agriculture on [HPPSC (Pre) 2016] (A) stainless steel and aluminium
the monsoons (A) 1, 2 and 4 utensils
2. Abolition of zamindari (B) Only 2 and 4 (B) milk and milk products
3. Absence of trade unions in the (C) 1, 3 and 4 (C) items purchased for
agricultural sector (D) All are correct conspicuous consumption
4. Heavy pressure of population 30. What is/are the recent policy (D) soaps, detergents and other
on land initiative(s) of government of mass consumption goods
Which of the above is responsible India to promote the growth of 37. Consider the following statements.
for disguised unemployment in manufacturing sector? Small-Scale industries are in
agriculture? [HPPSC (Pre) 2010] 1. Setting up of National most cases not as efficient and
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 Investment and manufacturing competitive as the large-scale
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) Only 4 Zones. ones. Yet the Government provides
25. India disguised unemployment is 2. Providing the benefits of ‘single preferential treatment and
found in [UPPCS (Mains) 2006] window clearance’. reservation in a range of products
424 Objective General Studies
to the small firms because small
scale-industries.
1. Provide higher employment on
per unit capital development
basis.
2. Promote a regional dispersion
of industries and economic
activities.
3. Have performed better in ex-
port of manufactured products
than the large scale ones.
4. Provide jobs to low skill
workers who otherwise may
not find employment avenues
else where.
Which of the above statements are
correct? [UPSC (Pre) 1999]
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4
38. Small Scale and Cottage Industries
are important because
[RAS (Pre) 2000]
(A) they provide more employment
(B) Government helps them
(C) they are traditional
(D) management is easy
39. Which one of the following is the
objective of National Renewal
Fund? [UPSC (Pre) 1999]
(A) To safeguard the interests
of who may be affected by
technological upgradation of
industry or closure of sick units
(B) To develop core sectors of the
economy
(C) For the development of
infrastructure such as energy,
transport, communications and
irrigation
(D) For human resource
development such as full
literacy, employment,
population control, housing
and drinking water
40. Consider the following factors
regarding industry.
1. Capital investment
2. Business turnover
3. Labour force
4. Power consumption
Which of these determine the
nature and size of the industry?
[UPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 2 and 3
41. Which one of the following
committees recommended the
abolition of reservation of items
for the Small Scale Sectors in
industry? [UPSC (Pre) 2002]
(A) Abid Hussain Committee
(B) Narsimhan Committee
(C) Nayak Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
42. The Meera Seth Committee was
concerned with [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) development of handlooms
(B) gender bias in employment
(C) the abolition of the child labour
(D) the welfare of the working
women
43. Which one of the following is
not the problem of Small Scale
Industries (SSIS)?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Finances
(B) Marketing
(C) Raw material
(D) Strikes and lockouts
44. The Concept of ‘Navratna’ is
associated with [UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) selected categories of technical
manpower
(B) selected export - oriented units
(C) selected food - processing
industries
(D) selected Public Sector
Enterprises
45. The share of the tertiary sector in
total GDP of India has
[Tamil Nadu PCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) shown an increasing trend
(B) shown a decreasing trend
(C) remained constant
(D) been flactuating
46. In the last one decade, which one
among the following sectors has
attracted the highest foreign direct
investment inflows into India?
[UPSC (Pre) 2004]
(A) Chemicals other than fertilizers
(B) Services Sector
(C) Food processing
(D) Telecommunication
47. Shanta Kumar Committee
has submitted its report on
restructuring of Food Corporation
of India (FCI) to Mr. Modi.
Read the following recommenda-
tions and find the incorrect ones.
[HPPSC (Pre) 2014]
1. FCI procurement should focus
on the western belt, where
farmers get the minimum
support price.
2. FCI should hand over the
procurement of wheat and rice
to four states which include
Punjab, Haryana, Andhra
Pradesh and Chattisgarh.
3. Proposed uniform tax of
minimum 3% and maximum
4% on wheat and rice and the
same to be included in the
minimum support price.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) None of the above
48. Which one of the following
led the Malegam committee to
recommend for interest rate cap for
micro-finance institutions?
[HPPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Promoters of micro-finance
institution growing rich
(B) High interest rate
(C) Small loans offered to micro-
enterprises
(D) Borrowers stopped repaying
loans
49. RBI has set up a committee to study
and give suggestion on the micro-
finance sector. It’s chairman was
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) Y.H. Malegam
(B) Abid Hussain
(C) Bimal Jalan
(D) Rakesh Mohan
50. Micro-finance is the provision
services to people of low-income
groups. This includes both the
consumers and the self-employed.
The service/services rendered
under micro-finance is/are
1. Credit-facilities
2. Saving facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund transfer facilities
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 4
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
51. Why is the Government of India
disinvesting its equity in the
Central Public Sector Enterprises
(CPSEs)?
1. Government intends to use
the revenue earned from the
disinvestment mainly to pay
back the external debt.
2. The government no longer
intends to retain the manage-
ments control of the CPSEs.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

52. As per Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises Development Act 2006,
medium enterprises are defined as
those with the investment of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) ` 25 lakhs to ` 5 crores
(B) ` 5 crores to ` 10 crores
(C) less than ` 10 crores
(D) more than ` 10 crores
53. In relation to Agricultural Finance
and Refinance which institution is
the biggest? [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) Regional Rural Bank
(B) NABARD Institution
(C) Central Cooperative Bank
(D) Land Development Bank
54. The registered exporters, whose
export performance in several
years is of high quality, are known
as [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Export Houses
(B) Trading Houses
(C) Star Trading Houses
(D) None of the above
55. Import procedure begins with
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Mate’s receipt
(B) Marine insurance
(C) Indent
(D) Shipping bill
56. Concept of ‘Joint Sector’ for
industrial development of India
was envisaged in Industrial Policy
Resolution of [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) 1948 (B) 1956
(C) 1980 (D) 1991
57. The licensing policy for the
industries drew strength from
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) Industrial Policy Resolution,
1948
(B) Industrial Policy Resolution,
1956
(C) Congress Party Resolution of
establishing Socialistic pattern
of society
(D) Industries Act 1951
58. The second Green Revolution
proposed by the Prime Minister
does not include
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) help to Indian farmers
to participate in global
agricultural trade
(B) minimisation of the post
harvest wastage
(C) improvement in storage of
crops
(D) encouragement to foreign
direct investment in agriculture
Economic and Social Development 425
59. Long-term agricultural credit is the Minimum Support Price for
provided by which of the above?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008, 2014] [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) Primary Cooperative Society (A) Only 1, 2, 3 and 7
(B) District Cooperative Bank (B) Only 2, 4, 5 and 6
(C) Land Development Bank (C) Only 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(D) State Cooperative Bank (D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
60. National Agricultural Insurance 65. Consider the following statements.
Scheme was launched in the year 1. The Food Safety and
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006] Standards Act, 2006 replaced
(A) 1995-96 the Prevention of Food
(B) 1998-99 Adulteration Act, 1954.
(C) 1999-2000 2. The Food Safety and Standards
(D) 2001-02 Authority of India (FSSAI) is
61. Match List-I with List-II and select under the charge of Director
the correct answer from the codes General of Health Services in
given below the lists. the Union Ministry of Health
[UP RO (Pre) 2018] and Family Welfare.
List-I (Crop/Plantation) Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(a) Jute (b) Tea
[UPSC (Pre) 2018]
(c) Sugarcane (d) Rubber
(A) Only 1
List-II (Largest producer
(B) Only 2
state)
(C) Both 1 and 2
1. Kerala
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Uttar Pradesh
66. With reference to the provisions
3. Assam
made under the National Food
4. West Bengal Security Act, 2013, consider the
Code following statements.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1. The families coming under
(A) 4 3 2 1 the category of ‘below poverty
(B) 3 1 2 4 line (BPL)’ only are eligible to
(C) 2 4 3 1 receive subsidised food grains.
(D) 1 2 3 4 2. The eldest women in a
62. Which of the following agencies household of age 18 years or
above, shall be the head of the
is not engaged in exporting
agricultural goods from India? household for the purpose of
[UP RO (Pre) 2018] issuance of a ration card.
(A) NAFED 3. Pregnant women and lactating
mothers are entitled to a ‘take-
(B) State Trading Corporation
home ration’ of 1600 calories
(C) IFFCO
per day during pregnancy and
(D) MMTC
for six months thereafter.
63. Among the Indian States, Uttar
Which of the statement(s) given
Pradesh is the largest producer of
above is/are correct?
which of the following crops?
[UPSC (Pre) 2018]
[UP RO (Pre) 2018]
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(A) Wheat, Potato, Groundnut
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 3
(B) Wheat, Potato, Sugarcane
67. Consider the following statements.
(C) Potato, Sugarcane, Cotton
(D) Potato, Sugarcane, Paddy 1. In India, State Governments do
not have the power to auction
64. Consider the following. non-coal mines.
1. Area nut 2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand
2. Barley do not have gold mines.
3. Coffee 3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
4. Finger millet Which of the statement(s) given
5. Groundnut above is/are correct?
6. Sesamum [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
7. Turmeric (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
The Cabinet Committee on (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 3
Economic Affairs has announced
426 Objective General Studies
Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (D)
51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (C)
61. (A) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (A) 66. (B) 67. (D)

5. Inflation and Price Index

1. In India, inflation is measured by
the [UPSC (Pre) 1997
RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Wholesale Price Index number
(B) Consumers Price Index
(C) Producer Price Index
(D) National Income deflation
2. For measuring the changes in the
price level of the country, which
among the following index number
is used? [HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Consumer price index number
(B) Production index number
(C) Security price index number
(D) Wholesale price index number
3. Economic growth is usually
coupled with [UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Deflation
(B) Inflation
(C) Stagflation
(D) Hyper-inflation
4. Inflation rate based on consumer
price index increases if
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Bank rate is decreased
(B) Reverse repo rate is decreased
(C) Statutory Liquidity ration is
increased
(D) Repo rate is increased
5. Which is incorrect about inflation?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Inflation indicated the rise
in the price of basket of
commodities on a point-to-
point basis
(B) The inflation rate in India is
calculated on the basis of the
wholesale price index
(C) For some commodities retail
prices are also considered for
measurement of inflation
(D) Inflation rate going down does
not mean prices are declining
6. Inflation is best described as
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 1996]
(A) high prices
(B) increase in price index
(C) increase in purchasing power
(D) increase in price of particular
goods
7. Who amongst the following
benefits most from inflation?
(A) Creditors [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(B) Debtors
(C) Saving Bank Account Holders
(D) Government Pensioners
8. Consider the following statements.
1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
2. Inflation benefits the bond
holders.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1 [UPSC (Pre) 2013]
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which one of the following is NOT
a method to control inflation?
[Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) Controlling the demand
(B) Controlling the supply of
money
(C) Reducing the rate of interest
(D) Rationing of commodities
10. Which of the following price index
number are used for calculation
of Central Government employee
wage compensation?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Wholesale price index
(B) Consumer price index for
industrial workers
(C) Consumer price index for
agricultural labourers
(D) None of the above
11. With reference to India, consider
the following statements.
1. The Wholesale Price Index
(WPI) in India is available on a
monthly basis only.
2. As compared on Consumers
Price Index for Industrial
Workers [CPI(IW)] the WPI
gives less weight to food
articles.
Which of the following
statement(s) given above is/are
correct? [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
12. Consider the following statements
and state which is/are correct?
1. The sub-prime crisis which hit
the U.S. economy was caused
by sudden increase in oil prices.
2. The crisis led to default in home
loan repayment.
3. It led to failure of some U.S.
Banks.
4. Sub-prime crisis caused crash
in Indian stock market.
Choose your answer from the given
codes. [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 4
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. The most common measure of
estimating inflation in India is
(A) Price Index [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(B) Wholesale Price Index
(C) Consumer Price Index
(D) Price Index of Index Goods
14. Which one of the following state-
ments is an appropriate description
of deflation? [UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) It is a sudden fall in the value
of a currency against other
currencies
(B) It is persistent recession in both
the financial and real sectors of
economy
(C) It is a persistent fall in the
general price level of goods and
services
(D) It is a fall in the rate of inflation
over a period of time

15. Assertion (A): The rate of
inflation in India has come down in
the last three years.
Reason (R): The country has
received a large amount of foreign
capital during these years.
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
[UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
16. An expression coined
economists to describe an economy
that is growing at such a slow pace
that more jobs are being lost than
are being added [HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Stagflation
(B) Recession
(C) Growth Recession
(D) Ratchet Inflation
17. A rapid increase in the rate of
inflation is sometimes attributed to
the ‘base effect’. What ‘base effect’?
[UPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) It is the impact of drastic
deficiency in supply due to
failure of crops
(B) It is the impact of the surge in
demand due to rapid economic
growth
(C) It is the impact of the price
levels of previous year on the
calculation of inflation rate
(D) None of the statements (A), (B)
and (C) given above is correct
in this content
18. In India, in the overall Index of
Industrial Production, the indices
of eight core industries have a
combined weight of 37-90%.
Which of the following are among
those eight core industries?
1. Cement
2. Fertilisers
3. Natural gas
Economic and Social Development 427
4. Refinery products 25. Producer Price Index measures
5. Textiles [UP RO (Pre) 2018]
Select the correct answer using the (A) the average change in the prices
codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 2012] of produced goods and services
(A) Only 1 and 5 (B) the marginal change in the
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4 prices of produced goods and
(C) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 services
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (C) the total change in the prices of
produced goods and services
19. Index ‘Residex’ is associated with
[UPSC (Mains) 2015]
(D) None of the above
(A) Share Prices 26. Increase in absolute and per capita
real GNP do not connote a higher
(B) Mutual Fund Prices
level of economic development, if
(C) Price Index [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
(D) Land Prices
(A) industrial output fails to keep
20. RESIDEX, an index of residential pace with agricultural output
prices in India, was launched in the (B) agricultural output fails to keep
year [UPSC (Mains) 2012]
pace with industrial output
(A) 2001 (B) 2004 (C) poverty and unemployment
by (C) 2007 (D) 2008
increase
21. In calculation of index of wholesale (D) imports grow faster than
prices, which one of the following
exports
sector is assigned maximum 27. Match List-I with List-II and select
weightage? [UPSC (Mains) 2008]
answer using the codes given below
(A) Food articles in the lists. [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2017
(B) Non-food articles UPSC (Pre) 2000]
(C) Fuel, power, light and lubricant
List-I
(D) Manufactured products (a) Boom (b) Recession
22. Who has been recently made the
(c) Depression (d) Recovery
chairman of the work group on List-II
revision of Wholesale Price Index
Services? [UPSC (Mains) 2004]
1. Business activities are at high
level with increasing income,
(A) C. Rangrajan output and employment at
(B) P.R. Panchamukhi macro level.
(C) K.C. Pant 2. Gradual fall of income, output
(D) Abhijit Sen and employment with business
23. The base year for All-India activity in a low gear.
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) has 3. Unprecedented level of
been changed by the Government under employment and
of India from 2004-05 to unemployment, drastic fall in
[BPSC (Pre) 2018] income, output.
(A) 2010-11 (B) 2011-12 4. Steady rise in the general level
(C) 2012-13 (D) 2013-14 of prices, income, output and
24. Which of the following fixed the employment.
four percent inflation target in Code
India with tolerance level of +/–2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
percent for the period 2016 to
(A) 1 2 3 4
2021? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2018]
(B) 1 2 4 3
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Government of India (C) 2 1 4 3
(C) NITI Aayog (D) 2 1 3 4
(D) Fourteenth Finance
Commission

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (A)
428 Objective General Studies

6. Budget
1. Which of the following comes (A) Total expenditure – (Revenue 14. Consider the following.
under non-plan expenditure? receipts + Recovery of Loans + 1. Market borrowing
1. Subsidies Receipts from disinvestment) 2. Treasury bills
2. Interest Payments (B) Total expenditure – Total 3. Special securities issued to RBI
3. Defence expenditure receipts Which of these is/are component(s)
4. Maintenance expenditure for (C) Total expenditure – (Revenue of internal debt? [UPPSC (Pre) 2001]
the infrastructure created in receipts + Receipts from (A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2
the previous plans disinvestment) (C) Only 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Choose the correct answer using (D) Total expenditure –
15. With reference to the Indian Public
the codes given below. Disinvestment receipts
Finance, consider the following
[UPSC (Pre) 1995, 1997] 8. The largest item of expenditure statements.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 in the current account of Central 1. External liabilities reported in
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Government budget is the Union Budget are based on
[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2017
2. Which of the following are among historical exchange rates.
UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
the non-plan expenditures of the 2. The continued high borrowing
Government of India? (A) Defence expenditure has kept the real interest rates
[UPSC (Pre) 1995] (B) Subsidies high in the economy.
1. Defence expenditure (C) Interest payment 3. The upward trend in the ratio
2. Subsidies (D) Expenditure on social services of Fiscal deficit of GDP a recent
3. All expenditure linked with the 9. The largest item of public years has an adverse effect on
previous plan periods expenditure in the Union Budget in private investment.
4. Interest payment recent years has been 4. Interest payment is the single
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] largest component of the non-
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(A) Defence expenditure plan revenue expenditure of
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 the Union Government.
(B) Interest payments
3. Economic Survey in India is Which of these statements are
published officially, every year by (C) Major subsidies
(D) Capital expenditure correct? [UPSC (Pre) 2001]
the [UPSC (Pre) 1998]
10. Which one of the following forms (A) 1, 2 and 3
(A) Reserve Bank of India (B) 1 and 4
(B) Planning Commission of India the largest share of deficit in Govt.
of India budget? (C) 2, 3 and 4
(C) Ministry of Finance, (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
[UPPCS (Mains) 2002]
Government of India
(A) Primary deficit 16. A country is said to be a debt trap if
(D) Ministry of Industries, [UPPSC (Pre) 2002]
Government of India (B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Revenue deficit (A) it has to borrow to make interest
4. If interest payment is added to payments on outstanding loans
primary deficit, it is equivalent to (D) Budgetary deficit
(B) it has to borrow to make interest
[UPPCS (Pre) 2010] 11. Which of the following deficit gives
payments on to standing loans
(A) Budget deficit major contribution to total deficit
of Government of India? (C) it has been refused loans or aid
(B) Fiscal deficit by creditors abroad
[MPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(C) Deficit financing (D) the World Bank charges a
(D) Revenue deficit (A) Revenue deficit
very high rate of interest on
(B) Budgetary deficit outstanding as well as new
5. ..... is the difference between total
receipts and total expenditure. (C) Fiscal deficit loans
[HCS (Pre) 2014] (D) Primary deficit 17. A larger part of the fiscal deficit in
(A) Capital deficit 12. In the Union Budget in India, which the Union Budgets is filled by
(B) Budget deficit one of the following is the largest in [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
amount? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006] (A) Tax revenue
(C) Fiscal deficit
(A) Plan Expenditure (B) Domestic borrowings
(D) Revenue deficit
(B) Non-Plan Expenditure
6. In the Budget of Government of (C) Foreign borrowing
(C) Revenue Expenditure
India, Fiscal deficit less interest (D) Printing paper currency
(D) Capital Expenditure
payment means 18. As compared to revenue deficit,
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004] 13. What is the effect of deficit
financing on economy? fiscal deficit will always remain
(A) Deficit financing [Nagaland PSC (Pre) 2017
[Haryana PSC (Pre) 2017
(B) Budget deficit UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(C) Fiscal deficit (A) Reduction in taxes (A) higher
(D) Primary deficit (B) Increase in wages (B) lower
7. Fiscal deficit implies (C) Increase in money supply (C) some
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013] (D) Decrease in money supply (D) All of the above
 Economic and Social Development 429
19. What was the estimated social List-II (R) is the correct explanation of
sector expenditure in budget 2018- 1. Excess of total expenditure (A)
19? [HPPSC (Pre) 2018 over total receipts (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018] 2. Excess of revenue expenditure but (R) is not the correct
(A) 1.36 lakh crore over revenue receipts explanation of (A)
(B) 1.37 lakh crore 3. Excess of total expenditure over (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) 1.38 lakh crore total receipts less borrowing (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) 1.39 lakh crore 4. Excess of total expenditure over 26. Consider the following statements
20. Which one of the following is not total receipts less borrowings and select the correct answer using
included in the revenue account of and interest payment the codes given below.
Union Budget? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2018] Code Assertion (A): There is a
(A) Interest Receipts (a) (b) (c) (d) history of fiscal deficit in Central
(B) Tax Receipts (A) 3 1 2 4 Government budgets in India.
(C) Profits and Dividends of (B) 4 3 2 1 Reason (R): Indian agriculture
Government Department and (C) 1 3 2 4 has enjoyed large amount of
Public Undertakings (D) 3 1 4 2 subsidies compared to developed
(D) Small saving 24. Assertion (A): Fiscal deficit is countries. [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2016
greater than budgetary deficit. UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
21. What was the size of the Budget of
Uttar Pradesh for 2018-19? Reason (R): Fiscal deficit is Code
[UP RO (Pre) 2018] borrowing from the Reserve (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(A) ` 824384.53 crores Bank of India plus other liabilities (R) is the correct explanation of
of Government to meet its (A)
(B) ` 428354.53 crores
expenditure. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(C) ` 428384.52 crores
In the context of the given two but (R) is not the correct
(D) ` 824254.52 crores explanation of (A)
statements, which of the following
22. Which one of the following did not is correct? [UPSC (Pre) 1999] (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
take place in the Union Budget for
Code (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
2017-18? [UP RO (Pre) 2018]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and 27. As per Union Budget 2018-19,
(A) Elimination of the classification match List-I with List-II and select
(R) is the correct explanation of
of expenditure into ‘Plan’ and the correct answer from the codes
(A)
‘Non-Plan’ given below. [UP RO (Pre) 2018]
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
(B) Increase in the number of but (R) is not the correct List-I (Sector)
centrally sponsored schemes explanation of (A) (a) Defence
(C) Bringing Railway finances into (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
the mainstream budgeting (b) Agriculture and allied activity
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (c) Subsidy for food
(D) Advancing the date of Union
25. Consider the following statements (d) Rural development
Budget almost by a month
and select the correct answer from
23. Match List-I with List-II and select List-II (Budget allocation : in
the codes given below.
the correct answer using the codes lakh crores)
Assertion (A): Zero-Base Budget
given below the lists. 1. ` 1.38 2. ` 1.69
has been introduced in India.
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2016 3. ` 0.63 4. ` 2.82
UPSC (Pre) 2001] Reason (R): Zero-Base Budget
technique involves critical review Code
List-I (a) (b) (c) (d)
of every scheme for which a
(a) Fiscal deficit budgetary provision is made. (A) 4 3 2 1
(b) Budget deficit [UPPCS (Pre) 2002] (B) 1 2 3 4
(c) Revenue deficit Code (C) 4 2 1 3
(d) Primary deficit (D) 3 1 4 2
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (A)
430 Objective General Studies

7. Fiscal Policy
1. Fiscal Policy is concerned with 7. A change in fiscal policy affects the boost economic activity in the
[MPPSC (Pre) 1996] balance of payments through country
(A) the volume of currency that [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2018 (C) It is government’s intensive
banks should put in the HCS (Pre) 2014] action of financial institutions
economy (A) Only the current account to ensure disbursement of
(B) the policy regarding taxation (B) Only the capital account loans to agriculture and allied
and expenditure (C) Both the current account and sectors to promote greater food
(C) policy for regulating stock capital account production and contain food
(D) the policy for dealing with IMF (D) Neither current account nor inflation
2. Which one of the following is part capital account (D) It is an extreme affirmative
of fiscal policy? [UKPCS (Pre) 2014] 8. Which one of the following action by the government to
was not stipulated in the Fisca pursue its policy of financial
(A) Production policy
Responsibility and Budget inclusion
(B) Tax policy
Management Act 2003? 11. Globalisation does not include
(C) Foreign policy [BPSC (Pre) 2018]
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006
(D) Interest rate policy
Tripura PSC (Pre) 2010] (A) reduction in import duties
3. Fiscal policy means [HCS (Pre) 2004] (B) abolition of import licensing
(A) Elimination of revenue deficit
(A) policy relating to money and by the end of the fiscal year (C) free flow of FDI
banking in a country 2007-08 (D) disinvestment of Public Sector
(B) policy relating to non-banking (B) Non-borrowing by the Central Equity
financial institutions Government from Reserve 12. Consider the following statements.
(C) policy relating to government Bank of India except - under
spending, taxation and 1. The Fiscal Responsibility and
certain circumstances Budget Management (FRBM)
borrowing (C) Elimination of primary deficit Review Committee Report has
(D) policy relating to financial by the end of the fiscal year recommended a debt to GDP
matters of international trade 2008-09 ratio of 60% for the general
4. Which one of the following is NOT (D) Fixing government guarantees (combined) government by
the objective of fiscal policy of in any financial year as a 2023, comprising 40% for the
government of India? percentage of GDP Central Government and 20%
[HCS (Pre) 2014] for the State Government.
9. Fiscal responsibility and Budget
(A) Full employment Management Act was enacted in 2. The Central Government has
(B) Price stability India in the year [UPPCS (Pre) 2009] domestic liabilities of 21%
(C) Regulation of inter-state trade (A) 2007 of GDP as compared to that
(D) Economic growth (B) 2005 of 49% of GDP of the State
5. In India, which one among the (C) 2002 Government.
following formulates the fiscal (D) 2003 3. As per the Constitution of India,
policy? [UPPCS (Mains) 2014] it is mandatory for a State to
10. Which one of the following
(A) Planning Commission take the Central Government’s
statements appropriately describes
(B) Finance Commission consent for raising any
the ‘fiscal stimulus’?
(C) Finance Ministry loan if the former owes any
[Haryana PSC (Pre) 2015
outstanding liabilities to the
(D) Reserve Bank of India UPSC (Pre) 2011]
latter.
6. Which of the following economists, (A) It is a massive investment by the
Which of the statement(s) given
introduced fiscal policy as a tool government in manufacturing
above is/are correct?
to rectify the Great Depression of sector to ensure the supply
[UPSC (Pre) 2018]
1929-30? [UKPCS (Pre) 2014] of goods to meet the demand
surge caused by rapid economic (A) Only 1
(A) Prof. Keynes
growth (B) Only 2 and 3
(B) Prof. Pigou
(B) It is an intense affirmative (C) Only 1 and 3
(C) Prof. Marshall
action of the government to (D) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Prof. Crowther

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (C)
 Economic and Social Development 431

8. Public Finance (Tax)

1. Consider the following important 8. Chelliah committee is related to Select the correct answer from the
sources of tax revenue for the [MPPSC (Pre) 1994 codes given below.
Central Government in India. UPSC (Pre) 1995] [UPPCS (Pre) 1998]
1. Union Excise Duty (A) Reforms in direct and indirect (A) 1, 2 and 3
2. Corporation Tax tax systems (B) 2, 3 and 4
3. Income Tax (B) Reforms in Banking system (C) 3, 4 and 5
4. Service Tax (C) Import-Export policy (D) All of the above
Which of the following is the correct (D) None of the above 15. The recommendation of the Kelkar
descending order in terms of Gross 9. Service tax was introduced in India Task Force related to
Tax Revenue? [RAS (Pre) 2016 on the recommendation of [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
UPSC (Pre) 1995 [BPSC (Pre) 2017] (A) Trade
Orissa PSC (Mains) 2009]
(A) Kelkar Committee (B) Banking
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3 (B) Raja J. Chelliah Committee (C) Taxes
(B) 2, 4, 1, 3 (C) Manmohan Singh Committee (D) Foreign Investment
(C) 2, 3, 1, 4 (D) Yashwant Sinha Committee 16. Kelkar Committee, in its second
(D) 4, 1, 2, 3 (E) None of the above/More than report, has recommended to
2. The largest sources of tax revenue one of the above reduce corporate tax to
to Central Government of India are 10. Corporation tax [UPSC (Pre) 1995] [UPPCS (Pre) 2004]
[UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(A) is levied and appropriated by (A) 15% (B) 20%
(A) Union excise duties and the states (C) 25% (D) 30%
corporate tax
(B) is levied by the Union and 17. The Kelkar proposals which were
(B) Custom duty and corporate tax collected and appropriated by [UPSC (Pre) 2003]
(C) Union excise duty and custom the states
duty (A) recommendations for reforms
(C) is levied by the Union and in the power sector
(D) Custom duty and income tax shared by Union and the states (B) recommendations for tax
3. From which of the tax following (D) is levied by the Union and reforms
direct taxes gives maximum net belongs to it exclusively
revenue to the Government? (C) guidelines for the privatisation
11. Agricultural Income Tax is assigned of public sector undertakings
[BPSC (Pre) 2005, 1998]
to the State Government by (D) guidelines for reducing
(A) Corporation Tax [UPSC (Pre) 1995] vehicular pollution and the
(B) Income Tax (A) The Finance Commission promotion of CNG use
(C) Wealth Tax (B) The National Development 18. Which of the following statements
(D) Gift Tax Council are true for the Income Tax in
4. Corporation Tax is on (C) The Inter-State Council India?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 1996] (D) The Constitution of India 1. It is a progressive tax
(A) production of a company 12. Of the following taxes which one is 2. It is a direct tax
(B) sale of goods not levied by State Governments? 3. It is collected by the state
(C) income of a company [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
Governments
(D) stock of goods (A) Entertainment Tax 4. It is a proportional tax
5. Which of the following is not a (B) State Excise Duty Choose the correct answer from the
direct tax in India? (C) Agricultural Income Tax codes given below.
[UKPCS (Pre) 2011] (D) Corporation Tax [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Income Tax 13. Which of the following taxes does Code
(B) Wealth Tax not directly increase the price of a
(C) Estate duty (A) Only 1 is correct
commodity to buyers?
(D) Sales Tax [UPPCS (Pre) 1995] (B) Only 1 and 2 are correct
6. Which of the following are the (A) Income Tax (B) Trade Tax (C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
indirect tax? [BPSC (Pre) 2002] (C) Import Duty (D) Excise Duty (D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(A) Sales tax and Income tax 14. Which among the following are the 19. Which one of the following is
(B) Income tax and Wealth tax sources of revenue for the central correctly matched?
Government? [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(C) Sales tax and Excise tax
(D) Income tax and Excise tax 1. Corporate Tax (A) Income Tax - Indirect Tax
7. When was the Wealth tax first 2. Profit from Public Enterprises (B) Custom Duty - Indirect Tax
introduced in India? 3. Sale of National Savings (C) Excise Duty - Highest source of
[MPPSC (Pre) 2005] Certificates tax revenue to the centre
(A) 1991 (B) 1976 4. Loans received from the World (D) Entertainment Tax - Highest
Bank source of tax to revenue states
(C) 1957 (D) 1948
5. Excise duties
432 Objective General Studies
20. Which one of the following sets of Income Tax is correct? 34. A redistribution of income in
sources of revenue belongs to the [UPSC (Pre) 1999] a country can be best brought
Union Government alone? (A) The Union levies, collects and through [UPSC (Pre) 1997]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] distributes the proceeds of (A) Progressive taxation combined
(A) Gift tax, Holding tax income tax between itself and with progressive expenditure
(B) Sales tax, Income tax the states (B) Progressive taxation combined
(C) Custom duties, Corporation tax (B) The Union levies, collects with regressive expenditure
(D) Wealth tax, Land revenue and keeps all the proceeds of (C) Regressive taxation combined
21. Which one of the following is not income tax to itself with regressive expenditure
related with income from corporate (C) The Union levies and collects (D) Regressive taxation combined
sector in India?[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] the tax, but all the proceeds are with progressive expenditure
(A) Fringe Benefit tax distributed among the states 35. The Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT)
(B) Minimum alternate tax (D) Only the surcharge levied on was introduced in the Budget of the
income tax is shared between Government of India for the year
(C) Capital Gain tax
the Union and the States [UPSC (Pre) 1997]
(D) Tax on company profit
28. The tax on Import and Export is (A) 1991-92 (B) 1995-96
22. Value Added Tax was first known as [UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
introduced in India in (C) 1993-94 (D) 1996-97
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) Income Tax 36. Consider the following statements.
(B) Trade Tax In India, Stamp duties on financial
(A) 2007 (B) 2006
(C) Custom Duty transactions are
(C) 2005 (D) 2008
(D) None of the above 1. Levied and collected by the
23. Which among the following are
true for Central Sales Tax? 29. Who had suggested an imposition state
of ‘expenditure tax’ in India for the 2. Appropriated by the Union
1. It is levied on interstate trade.
first time? [UPPCS (Pre) 2010] Government
2. It is levied in the Union
Territories. (A) Kalecki Which of these statement(s) is/are
3. It is levied in the SEZ. (B) Kaldor correct? [UPSC (Pre) 2003]
Select the correct answer from the (C) R.J. Chelliah (A) Only 1
codes given below. (D) Gautam Mathur (B) Only 2
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] 30. The main source of revenue for (C) Both 1 and 2
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 the National Highway Authority of (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) All of these India is [UPPCS (Pre) 2011] 37. Which of the following tax is
24. The objective of SEZ is (A) Cess levied by Union but collected and
[UPPCS (Pre) 2014] (B) Foreign assistance appropriated by States?
(C) Market borrowings [BPSC (Pre) 2017]
(A) Promotion of Goods and
Services (D) Budgetary support of Union (A) Stamp Duties
(B) Promotion of Regional Trade Government (B) Passenger & Goods Tax
(C) Promotion of MSME’s 31. MODVAT is related to (C) Taxes on Newspapers
(D) Promotion of Government [UPPCS (Pre) 2011] (D) None of the above/More than
Schemes (A) Excise Duty one of the above
25. Which of the following taxes is (B) Value Added Tax (VAT) 38. Service Tax in India was introduced
levied and collected by the Union (C) Wealth Tax in the year [BPSC (Pre) 2015]
but distributed between Union and (D) Income Tax (A) 1994-95 (B) 1996-97
States? [UPPCS (Pre) 2004] 32. Which one of the following is not a (C) 1998-99 (D) 1991-92
(A) Corporation Tax tax/duty levied by the Government 39. Consider the following taxes.
(B) Tax on income other than on of India? [UPPCS (Pre) 2013] 1. Sales Tax
agricultural income (A) Service Tax 2. Income Tax
(C) Tax on railway fares and freight (B) Education Cess 3. Corporate Tax
(D) Customs (C) Custom Duty 4. Entertainment Tax
26. Which tax is levied and collected (D) Toll Tax Which of the above taxes are levied
by the Union Government but by the state government and not
33. Consider the following taxes.
distributed between the Union and shared by central government?
the States? [BPSC (Pre) 2001] 1. Corporation Tax [HPPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Import duty 2. Customs Duty (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3
(B) Central Excise duty 3. Wealth Tax (C) Only 3 and 4 (D) Only 1 and 4
(C) Export duty 4. Excise Duty 40. Consider the following in relation
(D) None of the above Which of these is/are indirect with Corporate tax.
27. Which one of the following taxes? [UPSC (Pre) 2001] 1. Total turnover of the company
statements regarding the levying, (A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 4 2. Profit after distribution of
collecting and distribution of (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3 dividend
 Economic and Social Development 433
3. Profit before distribution of 2. Collected by the States (C) Petroleum products
dividend Which of the statement(s) given (D) Ghee
4. Capital employed in the above is/are correct? 46. Direct Tax Code in India is related
company [UPSC (Pre) 2010] to which of the following?
Which one of the above is basis of (A) Only 1 [UPPCS (Pre) 2018]
corporate tax? [HPPSC (Pre) 2010] (B) Both 1 and 2 (A) Sales Tax (B) Income Tax
(A) 1 alone (B) 2 alone (C) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) Excise Tax (D) Service Tax
(C) 3 alone (D) 4 alone (D) Only 2 47. Which of the following taxes is
41. Find the tax which is direct tax 44. Consider the following actions by levied by the Gram Panchayats?
among the following. the government. [UPPCS (Pre) 2018]
[HCS (Pre) 2014] 1. Cutting the tax rates (A) Sales Tax
(A) House Tax 2. Increasing the government (B) Land Revenue Tax
(B) Service Tax spending (C) Tax on local fairs
(C) Entertainment Tax 3. Abolishing the subsidies (D) None of the above
(D) Value Added Tax In the context of economic 48. Consider the following items.
42. The most important source of recession, which of the above 1. Cereal grains hulled
revenue for Indian Government is actions can be considered a part of 2. Chicken eggs cooked
[BPSC (Pre) 1992, 1995, 1996] the ‘fiscal stimulus’ package? 3. Fish processed and canned
(A) Direct Tax [UPSC (Pre) 2010]
4. Newspapers containing
(B) Indirect Tax (A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 advertising material
(C) Deficit financing (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the above item is/are
(D) Loans from RBI 45. What has been kept under the exempted under GST (Goods and
43. Consider the following statements. purview of Goods and Services Tax Service Tax)? [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
In India, taxes on transactions (GST)? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2018] (A) Only 1
in Stock exchanges and Futures (A) Alcohol for human (B) Only 2 and 3
Markets are consumption (C) Only 1, 2 and 4
1. Levied by the union (B) Electricity (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (C)
41. (A) 42. (A) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (D) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (A)

9. Finance Commission
1. According to the Tenth Finance 3. The distribution of finance between (A) ` 44,000 crore
Commission the share of resources centre and states is done on the (B) ` 1,64,892 crore
to be transferred to states from the recommendation of (C) ` 3,18,581 crore
divisible pool will be [UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
[UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(D) ` 1,07,552 crore
(A) Finance Ministry
(A) 29% 6. With reference to the Finance
(B) Finance Commission
(B) 42% Commission of India, which of the
(C) Reserve Bank of India following statement is correct?
(C) 47.5% (D) NABARD [UPSC (Pre) 2011]
(D) 25% 4. According to the 14th Finance
2. The Finance Commission is (A) It encourage the inflow
Commission, the percentage share of foreign capital for
primarily concerned with of States in the net proceeds of
recommending to the President infrastructure development
the shareable Central tax revenue
about [UPPCS (Pre) 2006] should be [UKPCS (Pre) 2016]
(B) It facilitates the proper
(A) the principle government distribution of finances among
(A) 32% (B) 35% the public sector undertakings
grants-in-aid to be given to the (C) 40% (D) 42%
states (C) It ensures transparency in
5. As per 13th Finance Commission financial administration
(B) distributing the net proceeds Recommendations during 2010-15
of the taxes between the centre (D) None of the statements (A), (B)
transfer to the states in the form of
and the states and (C) given is correct in this
‘grant-in-aid’ are expected to be
(C) Neither (A) nor (B) context
[HPPSC (Pre) 2011]
(D) Both (A) and (B)
434 Objective General Studies
7. Which of the following is/are 2. A design for the creation of codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 2012]
among the noticeable features lakhs of jobs in the next ten (A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
of the recommendations of the years in consonance with (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
Thirteenth Finance Commission? India’s demographic dividend. 8. The Finance Commission is
1. A design for the goods and 3. Development of a specified constituted for a period of
services tax and a compensation share of central taxes to local [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
package linked to adherence to bodies as grants. (A) 4 years (B) 5 years
the proposed design. Select the correct answer using the (C) 7 years (D) 10 years

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B)

10. Stock Exchange

1. Which one of the following is (A) State Bank of India (B) an investor who expects the
irrelevant in context of share (B) LIC and GIC prices of particular shares to
market? [MPPCS (Pre) 2012] (C) IDBI rise
(A) Sensex (B) BSE (D) All of the above (C) a share holder on bondholder
(C) Nifty (D) SAP 7. Which of the following is correctly who has an investor in a
2. Consider the following statements. matched? [UPPCS (Pre) 2004] company financial or otherwise
1. Sensex is based on 50 of the (A) Bombay Stock Exchange - (D) any lender whether by making
most important stocks available SENSEX a loan or buying a bond
on the Bombay Stock Exchange (B) National Stock Exchange - 12. Which one of the following
(BSE). NYSE organisation is the main regulator
2. For calculating the Sensex, (C) New York Stock Exchange - of stock markets in India?
all the stock are assigned [UPPCS (Mains) 2012
NIFTY
proportional weightage. UPPCS (Pre) 1996]
(D) London Stock Exchange -
3. New York Stock Exchange is NIKKEI (A) Controller of Capital of Stocks
the oldest Stock Exchange in 8. Which of the following pairs are (B) Ministry of Finance
the World. correctly matched? (C) Indian Company Law Board
Which of the statement(s) given 1. Dow Jones - New York (D) Security and Exchange Board
above is/are correct? of India
2. Hang-Seng - Seoul
[UPSC (Pre) 2005]
3. FTSE-100 - London 13. How many companies are included
(A) Only 2 (B) 1 and 3 in BSE-GREENEX?
Select the correct answer using the [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(C) 2 and 3 (D) None of these codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 1998]
3. The head office of National Stock (A) 20 (B) 40
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3
Exchange of India is located at (C) 50 (D) 100
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1 and 3
[MPPSC (Pre) 1996] 14. The Volatility in the Indian Share
9. The expressions ‘Bulls’ and Market is due to
(A) Mumbai (B) Calcutta
‘Bears’ are related to which of the
(C) Delhi (D) Ahmedabad following? [MPPSC (Pre) 1998]
1. Inflow and outflow of foreign
4. Which of the following statements funds
(A) Income Tax Department
in relation to Bombay Stock 2. Fluctuations in foreign capital
(B) Currency Market market
Exchange is correct?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2004]
(C) Stock Exchange 3. Changes in the monetary policy
(D) Cattle Fair
(A) It is the oldest stock exchange Which of the above mentioned
of India 10. Words ‘Bull’ and ‘Bear’ are causes are correct?
(B) It is known by the name of Dalal associated with which branch of [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
street commercial activity?
(A) 1 and 2
[UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(C) It’s share index is known by the (B) 1 and 3
name of Sensex (A) Foreign trade
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All of the above (B) Share Market
(D) 2 and 3
5. Sensex includes the following (C) Banking
15. A rise in ‘Sensex’ means
securities. [UPPCS (Mains) 2005 (D) Manufacturing
[UPSC (Pre) 2000]
MPPCS (Pre) 2009] 11. In the parlance of financial
(A) a rise prices of shares of all
(A) 25 (B) 40 investment, the term ‘bear’ denotes
companies registered with
[UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(C) 30 (D) 35 Bombay Stock Exchange
6. The promoter of National Stock (A) an investor who feels that the (B) a rise in prices of shares of all
Exchange of India is price of a particular security is companies registered with
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
going to fall National Stock Exchange
 Economic and Social Development 435
(C) an overall rise in price of (A) Only 1 (B) Japanese name of country’s
shares of group of companies (B) 2 and 3 Planning Commission
registered with Bombay Stock (C) Only 2 (C) Name of Japanese Central Bank
Exchange (D) 1, 2 and 3 (D) Share Price Index of Tokyo
(D) a rise in prices of shares of all 18. Which of the following is not a Stock Exchange
companies belonging to a speculator in Stock Exchange? 22. Blue Chip means
group of companies registered [UPPCS (Pre) 2004] [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
with Bombay Stock Exchange (A) Share guaranteed by the
(A) Bull (B) Bear
16. What is MCX-SX? [UPSC (Pre) 2009] (C) Broker (D) Stag government
(A) A kind of Super Computer 19. Red Herring Prospectus is a (B) Share listed in Stock Exchange
(B) Title of Moon Impact Probe [UPPCS (Mains) 2004] (C) Share giving consistent high
(C) Stock Exchange (A) Course Syllabi of an rate of return
(D) Nuclear powered submarine international university (D) None of the above
17. Under which of the following (B) Place where herring fish is 23. ‘Dalal Street’ is situated at
circumstances may ‘Capital gains’ found [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2012]
arise? (C) Plan of action of leftist militants (A) New Delhi
1. When there is an increase in the (D) Document to raise capital by a (B) London
sales of a product. company (C) Mumbai
2. When there is a natural increase 20. Insider trading is related to (D) Paris
in the value of the property [UPPCS (Pre) 2007] 24. With what subject is Raghuram
owned. Rajan Committee connected?
(A) Share market
3. When you purchase a painting [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(B) Horse racing
and there is a growth in its
(C) Taxation (A) Austerity in Government
value due to increase in its
(D) International trade Expenditure
popularity.
21. What is ‘NIKKEI’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2008] (B) Financial sector reforms
Select the correct answer using the
(A) Foreign Exchange Market of (C) Export-Import balance
codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 2012]
Japan (D) Rising prices

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B)

11. Security Market and Insurance

1. Capital Market means 4. SEBI is a [HCS (Pre) 2014] (C) Insurance Regulatory and
[UPPCS (Pre) 2008] (A) Statutory Body Development Authority
(A) Share Market (B) Advisory Body (D) General Insurance Corporation
(B) Commodity Market (C) Constitutional Body 8. IRDA regulates [UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
(C) Money Market (D) Non-statutory Body (A) Banking Companies
(D) All of the above 5. To prevent recurrence of scams (B) Insurance Companies
2. SEBI was established in the year in Indian capital market the (C) Retail Trade
[HPPSC (Pre) 2014]
Government of India has assigned
regulatory power to (D) None of the above
(A) 1988 [UPPCS (Pre) 2008] 9. The ‘Gilt edge’ market deals in
(B) 1990 (A) SEBI (B) RBI [UPSC (Pre) 2000
(C) 1991 UPPCS (Pre) 2002, 2008]
(C) SBI (D) ICICI
(D) 1985 6. The Insurance Regulatory and (A) Worn and torn currency notes
3. Which one of the following is Development Authority was set up (B) Bullion
related to the regulation of stock in India on [UPPCS (Pre) 2008] (C) Govt. Securities
exchange operations? (A) April 2000 (B) April 2001 (D) Corporate Bonds
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004] (C) April 2002 (D) April 2003 10. The Word ‘Actuaries’ is related to
(A) SAIL 7. For regulation of the Insurance [UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(B) SEBI Trade in the country the (A) Banking
(C) SIDBI Government has formed (B) Insurance
(D) Stock holding corporation of [UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(C) Share Market
India (A) SEBI
(D) None of the above
(B) Reserve Bank of India
436 Objective General Studies
11. Which one of the following is 15. The financial instrument, through Choose the correct answer from the
different from the others from the which Indian companies can raise codes given below.
point of view of ownership? money from overseas market in [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
[UPPCS (Pre) 2011] Rupees, is known as (A) 1, 2, 4, 3 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(A) LIC Policy [UKPCS (Pre) 2016] (C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 1, 3, 4, 2
(B) Bank Fixed Deposit (A) RBI Bonds 18. Which among the following agency
(C) Kisan Vikas Patra (B) Gold Bonds regulates the Mutual Funds in
(D) Debenture of a company (C) Masala Bonds India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
12. Debenture holders of a company (D) Overseas Bonds (A) SEBI
are the [UPSC (Pre) 2003] 16. Participatory Notes (PNs) are (B) National Stock Exchange
(A) Shareholders associated with which one of the (C) RBI
(B) Creditors following? [UPPCS (Pre) 2007 (D) Indian Bank Association
(C) Debtors HPPSC (Pre) 2011]
19. Which is credit rating agency in
(D) Directors (A) Consolidated Fund of India India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
13. Private Sector Mutual Funds in (B) Foreign Institutional Investors (A) CRISIL (B) CARE
India were permitted in (C) United Nations Development (C) ICRA (D) All of these
[UPPCS (Pre) 2011] Programme 20. The most volatile part of the
(A) 1964 (B) 1993 (D) Kyoto Protocol Organised Money Market in India
(C) 1994 (D) 2001 17. Arrange the following in ascending is [RAS (Pre) 2018]
14. India Brand Equity Fund was order, in relation to their (A) Government Security Market
established in [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
establishment. (B) Commercial Bill Market
(A) 1992 (B) 1995 1. LIC 2. IDBI (C) Call Money Market
(C) 1996 (D) 1997 3. SEBI 4. UTI (D) Certificate of Deposit Market

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C)

12. Money and Banking

1. The Apex bank for providing 5. Which is the first Private Sector 9. Since the economic reforms were
Agricultural Refinance in India is Bank in India to use Software launched in India, which one of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004 Robotics? [HCS (Pre) 2014] the following statements is true
UKPCS (Pre) 2016] (A) ICICI Bank for Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
(A) RBI (B) NABARD (B) HDFC Bank and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) of
(C) LDB (D) SBI (C) SBI the commercial banks?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
2. NABARD is related with (D) UTI Bank
[MPPCS 2015] 6. The slogan ‘Pure Banking, Nothing (A) Both SLR and CRR have been
(A) National Agriculture else’ is raised by [HCS (Pre) 2014]
raised
Development Institution (A) ICICI Bank (B) SLR has been reduced but CRR
(B) National Rural Development has been raised
(B) HDFC Bank
Institution (C) SBI (C) SLR has been increased but
(C) National Bank for Agriculture CRR has been reduced
(D) UTI Bank
and Rural Development (D) Both SLR and CRR have been
7. Narsimhan Committee was related
(D) National Financial Institution reduced
to which of following reforms?
3. When was the NABARD formed? [HCS (Pre) 2014]
10. The Narsimhan Committee for
[MPPCS 2005] financial sector reforms has
(A) High education reforms
(A) 1992 (B) 1982 suggested reduction in
(B) Tax structure reforms [UPSC (Pre) 1995]
(C) 1962 (D) 1952 (C) Banking structure reforms
4. Which one of the following links all (A) SLR and CRR
(D) Planning implementation
the ATMs in India? (B) SLR, CRR and Priority Sector
reforms
[UPSC (Pre) 2018] Financing
8. Which of the following committee
(A) Indian Bank’s Association (C) SLR and Financing to Capital
examined and suggested financial
(B) National Securities Depository goods sector
sector reforms? [UPSC (Pre) 2001]
Limited (D) CRR, Priority Sector Financing
(A) Abid Hussain Committee
(C) National Payments Corporation and Financing to capital goods
(B) Bhagwati Committee sector
of India (C) Chelliah Committee
(D) Reserve Bank of India 11. Opening the saving bank account
(D) Narsimhan Committee for a minor girl will be called as

which of the following in Banking
terminology? [HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Retail Banking
(B) Merchant Banking
(C) Social Banking
(D) Corporate Banking
12. Consider the following statements.
1. The repo rate is the rate at
which other banks borrow from
the Reserve Bank of India.
2. A value of ‘0’ for Gini Co-
efficient in country implies that
there is perfectly equal income
for everyone in its population.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[HPPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
13. Tarapore Committee was
associated with which one of the
following? [HPPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) Special Economic Zones
(B) Full capital account
convertibility
(C) Foreign exchange reserves
(D) Effect of oil prices on the Indian
economy
14. The question of full capital account
convertibility of Indian was
explained by the committee known
as [UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
(A) Vaghul Committee
(B) Rangarajan Committee
(C) Tarapore Committee II
(D) Hashim Committee
15. Study the following statements
with regard to Reserve Bank of
India and select your answer from
the codes given below.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
1. It is the Apex Bank.
2. It regulates the money supply.
3. It gives loan to the business
houses.
4. It supervises the operations of
NABARD.
Code
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4
16. Which among the following is a
function of the Reserve Bank of
India? [HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Bank issues the letter of credit
to their customers certifying
their creditability
(B) Collecting and compilation of
statistical information relating
Economic and Social Development 437
to banking and other financial
sector
(C) Banks underwrite the securities
issued by public or private
organisations
(D) Accepting deposits from the
public
17. When the Reserve Bank of India
was established? [UKPCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) 1920 (B) 1930
(C) 1935 (D) 1940
18. Which of the following Banks is the
Central Bank of India?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Bank of India
(C) Union Bank of India
(D) Reserve Bank of India
19. The headquarters of RBI is situated
at [UPPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Delhi (B) Kolkata
(C) Mumbai (D) Chennai
20. Consider the following statements
regarding Reserve Bank of India.
1. It is a banks to the Central
Government.
2. It formulates and administer
monetary policy.
3. It acts as an agent of
government in respect of India.
4. It handles the borrowing
programme of Government of
India.
Which of these statements are
correct? [UPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
21. Which one of the following
statements is not correct?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) RBI is the Central Bank of the
country
(B) RBI is the banker of the Central
and State Government
(C) RBI is the custodian of the
country’s Foreign Exchange
Reserve
(D) RBI was established in 1949
22. Which of the following is not a
function of Reserve Bank of India?
[UKPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Regulation of currency
(B) Regulation of foreign trade
(C) Regulation of credit
(D) Custody and management of
country’s foreign exchange
reserved
23. Who is the ‘lender of the last resort’
in the banking structure of India?
[HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Exim Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
24. ..... is the official minimum rate at
which the Central Bank of a country
is prepared to rediscount approved
bills held by the commercial banks.
[HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Repo rate
(B) Bank rate
(C) Prime lending rate
(D) Reverse repo rate
25. The Bank rate is the rate at which
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008, 2011
BPSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
(A) a bank lends to the public
(B) the RBI lends to the public
(C) the RBI gives credit to the
commercial banks
(D) the Government of India lends
to other countries
26. Consider the following statements.
1. Bank rate is the rate of interest
which RBI charges its clients on
their short-term borrowing.
2. Repo rate is the rate of interest
which RBI charges its clients on
their long-term borrowing.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017
BPSC (Pre) 2015]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
27. The interest rate at which the
Reserve Bank of India lends to
Commercial Banks in the short-
term to maintain liquidity is known
as [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Interest rate
(B) Repo rate
(C) Bank rate
(D) Reverse repo rate
28. In order to control credit, Reserve
Bank of India should
[HCS (Pre) 2014
West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) increase CRR and decrease
Bank rate
(B) decrease CRR and reduce Bank
rate
(C) increase CRR and increase
Bank rate
(D) reduce CRR and increase Bank
rate
438 Objective General Studies
29. In India ‘Money and Credit’ is
controlled by the
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) Industrial Development Bank
of India
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) State Bank of India
30. When the Reserve Bank of India
announces an increase of the Cash
Reserve Ratio (CRR), what does it
mean? [UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) The commercial banks will
have less money to lend
(B) The Reserve Bank of India will
have less money to lend
(C) The Union Government will
have less money to lend
(D) The commercial banks will
have more money to lend
31. The lowering of Bank Rate by the
Reserve Bank of India leads to
[UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) more liquidity in the market
(B) less liquidity in the market
(C) no change in the liquidity in the
market
(D) mobilisation of more deposits
by commercial banks
32. A proportion of total deposits and
reserves of the commercial banks
deposited with the Reserve Bank of
India is called [MPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Balance of payment
(B) Bank Guarantee
(C) Caution Money
(D) Cash Reserve Ratio
33. An increase in CRR by the Reserve
Bank of India results in
[UPPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) decrease in debt of the
government
(B) reduction in liquidity in the
economy
(C) attracting more FDI in the
country
(D) more flow of credit to desired
sector
34. Which one of the following
statement is correct regarding
increase in the cash reserve ratio in
India? [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A)It increases credit creation
(B)It reduces credit creation
(C)It does not affect credit
(D)It denotes liberal monetary
policy
35. Credit creation power of the
commercial banks gets limited by
which of the following?
[HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Banking habits of the people
(B) Cash reserve ratio
(C) Credit policy of the central
bank
(D) All of the above
36. Number of times a unit of money
changes hands in the course of a
year is called [HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Supply of money
(B) Purchasing power of money
(C) Velocity of money
(D) Value of money
37. Which among the following is not
correct? [HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Floating exchange rate system
works on market mechanism
(B) Floating exchange rate breeds
uncertainties and speculation
(C) Economic and political factors
and value judgments influence
the choice of the exchange rate
system
(D) The system of floating exchange
rate requires comprehensive
government intervention
38. Monetary policy is implemented by
..... in India.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006
HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) The Ministry of Finance
(B) The Parliament
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Reserve Bank of India
39. One amongst the following take
the decision about the monetary
policy of India. [RAS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Finance Minister of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) International Monetary Fund
40. Which one of the following is not
an instrument of selective credit
control in India? [UPSC (Pre) 1995]
(A) Regulation of consumer credit
(B) Rationing of credit
(C) Margin requirements
(D) Variable cost reserve ratios
41. Which one of the following is not
an objective of Monetary policy?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Price Stability
(B) Economic Stability
(C) Equitable distribution of Indian
Assets
(D) Foreign Exchange Rate
Stability
42. ‘Money is a matter of functions
four, a medium, a measure a
standard and .....’. What is the
fourth function of money indicated
in this popular phrase?
[HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) A stock
(B) A flow
(C) A store
(D) A payment
43. Which of the following measure of
the high power money Supply (H)
has been used by RBI in India?
[HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Currency held by public +
other deposits with the RBI
(B) Cash reserve of the commercial
banks + other deposits with the
RBI
(C) Currency held by the public +
Cash reserves of the commercial
banks + Other deposit with the
RBI
(D) Currency held by the public
+ Cash reserves of the
commercial banks + Time
deposits of commercial banks
+ Other deposits with the RBI
44. In India, M3 includes
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(A) time deposits with banks
(B) demand deposits with banks
(C) currency with the public
(D) All of the above
45. The sum of which of the following
constitutes Broad Money in India?
1. Currency with public
2. Demand deposits with banks
3. Time deposits with banks
4. Other deposits with RBI
Choose the correct answer using
the codes given below.
[UPSC (Pre) 1997]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
46. When the exchange rate changes
from 1 $ = 60 to 1 $ = 58, it means
1. Rupee value has appreciated
2. Dollar value has depreciated
3. Rupee value has depreciated
4. Dollar value has appreciated
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
UKPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 4 are correct
(D) 2 and 4 are correct

47. The Indian rupee was made
convertible into which of the
following accounts since March
1993? [UKPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Capital Account
(B) Current Account
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Revenue Account
48. Indian rupee had been made fully
convertible on [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
(A) current account on March 1,
1993
(B) current account in August, 1994
(C) capital account in August, 1994
(D) current account in April, 1995
49. Convertibility of the rupee implies
[BPSC (Pre) 2015]
(A) being able to convert rupee
notes into gold
(B) freely permitting the
conversion of rupee to other
major currencies and vice-versa
(C) allowing the value of the rupee
to be fixed by market forces
(D) developing an international
market of currencies in India
50. Which of the following is/are
treated as artificial currency?
[HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) ADR
(B) SDR
(C) GDR
(D) Both ADR and GDR
51. The one rupee Indian note bears
the signature of [BPSC (Pre) 2008
UKPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Governor, Reserve Bank of
India
(B) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above
52. In which year the export-import
(EXIM) Bank in India was set up?
[UKPCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989
53. In India, the interest rate on savings
accounts in all the nationalised
commercial banks is fixed by
[UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Union Ministry of Finance
(B) Union Finance Commission
(C) Indian Bank’s Association
(D) Banks itself
54. With reference to the institution
of Banking Ombudsman in India,
which one of the statements is not
correct? [UPSC (Pre) 2010]
Economic and Social Development 439
(A) The Banking Ombudsman is
appointed by the Reserve Bank
of India
(B) The Banking Ombudsman
can consider complaints from
non-resident Indians having
accounts in India
(C) The order passed by the
Banking Ombudsman are final
and binding on the parties
concerned
(D) The service provided by the
Banking Ombudsman is free
55. Consider the following statements.
The function of commercial banks
in India includes
1. Purchase and sale of shares
and securities on behalf of
customers.
2. Acting as executors and
trustees of wills.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
56. Which of the following terms
indicates a mechanism used by
commercial banks for providing
credit to the government?
[UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Cash Credit Ratio
(B) Debt Service Obligation
(C) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(D) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
57. Consider the following actions
which the government can take
1. Devaluing the domestic
currency.
2. Reduction in the export
subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies
which attract greater FDI and
more funds from FIIS.
Which of the above action/actions
can help in reducing the current
accounts deficit? [UPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) 1 and 3
58. Which of the following measures
would result in an increase in the
money supply in the economy?
1. Purchase of government
securities from the public by
the Central Banks.
2. Deposit of currency in
commercial banks by the
public.
3. Borrowing by the government
from the Central Bank.
4. Sale of government Securities
to the public by the Central
Bank.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 2012]
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
59. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme
is that
[UPSC (Pre) 2012]
(A) big banks should try to open
offices in each district
(B) there should be stiff
competition among the various
nationalised banks
(C) individual banks should adopt
particular districts for intensive
development
(D) all the banks should make
intensive efforts to mobile
deposits
60. Consider the following liquid
assets.
1. Demand deposits with the
banks
2. Time deposits with banks
3. Savings deposits with banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these
assets in the decreasing order of
liquidity is [UPSC (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2 (B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 2, 3, 1, 4 (D) 4, 1, 3, 2
61. In the context of Indian economy,
‘Open Market Operations’ refers to
[UPPCS (Pre) 2010
UPSC (Pre) 2013]
(A) borrowing by scheduled banks
from the RBI
(B) lending by commercial banks to
industry and trade
(C) purchases and sale of
government securities by the
RBI
(D) None of the above
62. Priority Sector lending by banks in
India constitutes the lending to
[UPSC (Pre) 2013]
(A) Agriculture
(B) Micro and small enterprises
(C) Weaker sections
(D) All of the above
63. Which of the following grants/
grant direct credit assistance to
rural households?
1. Regional Rural Banks
2. National Bank for Agriculture
and Rural Development
3. Land Development Banks
440 Objective General Studies
Select the correct answer using the (B) Only 2 (B) Residual Savings
codes given below. (C) Both 1 and 2 (C) Voluntary Savings
[UPSC (Pre) 2013] (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (D) Employer’s Savings
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 69. The largest commercial bank of 76. Which one of the following
(C) 1 and 3 (D) All of these India is [UPPCS (Mains) 2004 statements about foreign exchange
64. When was the first Regional Rural UPPCS (Pre) 2005 reserves of India is not true?
Bank formed? [MPPCS (Pre) 2005] MPPCS (Pre) 2016] [UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) 1977 (B) 1976 (A) NABARD (A) It includes foreign currency
(C) 1974 (D) 1975 (B) State Bank of India assets and gold holdings of
65. Land Development Bank provides (C) ICICI Reserve Bank of India
loan to farmers for [RAS (Pre) 2000] (D) Union Bank of India (B) It is maintained with the
(A) short term 70. In which year did the Government Reserve Bank of India
(B) medium term of India Nationalised 14 major (C) Special drawing rights are not
private banks? [UPPCS (Pre) 2007 included in it
(C) long term
MPPCS (Pre) 2014] (D) Presently foreign exchange
(D) only for land improvement
(A) 1968 (B) 1970 situation is satisfactory in India
66. With reference to the Non-banking
(C) 1969 (D) 1965 77. Rural Infrastructure Development
Financial Companies (NBFCs)
71. Reserve Bank of India issues Fund is being financed by
in India. Consider the following
statements. currency notes against which of the [UPPCS (Pre) 2004, 2014
following? [MPPCS (Pre) 2012] UPPCS (Mains) 2009, 2013]
1. They cannot engage in the
acquisition of securities issued (A) Gold (A)NABARD
by the government. (B) Foreign security (B)Reserve Bank of India
2. They cannot accept demand (C) Govt. of India Security (C)Ministry of Rural Development
deposits like Saving Accounts. (D) All of the above (D)Selected group of Public Sector
Which of the statement(s) given 72. The decimal system was made Banks
above is/are correct? applicable to Indian currency 78. Who maintains the foreign
[UPSC (Pre) 2010] system in which year? exchange reserve in India?
(A) Only 1 [UPPCS (Mains) 2010 [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
MPPCS (Mains) 1995] (A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (A) 1947 (B) 1957 (B) State Bank of India
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1935 (D) 1949 (C) Ministry of Finance,
67. With reference to India, consider 73. Consider the following. Government of India
the following. 1. Industrial Finance Corporation (D) Export-Import Bank of India
1. Nationalisation of Banks. of India (IFCI) 79. FEMA (Foreign Exchange Manage-
2. Formation of Regional Rural 2. Industrial Credit and ment Act) was finally implemented
Banks. Investment Corporation of in the year [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
India (ICICI) (A) 1991 (B) 1997
3. Adoption of villages by Banks
Branches. 3. Industrial Development Bank
(C) 2000 (D) 2007
of India (IDBI)
Which of the above can be 80. Which one of the following pairs is
considered as steps taken to 4. Unit Trust of India (UTI)
not correctly matched?
achieve the ‘financial inclusion’ in The correct sequence in which the [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
India? [UPSC (Pre) 2010] above were established is
[UPSC (Pre) 1995]
(A) Industrial Finance - SIDBI
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (B) Social Security Measures -
(C) Only 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 3, 2, 4
Bharat Nirman
68. Why is the offering of ‘teaser loans’ (C) 4, 3, 2, 1 (D) 1, 4, 3, 2
(C) Rural Credit - NABARD
by commercial banks is a cause of 74. Devaluation of currency means
[UPPCS (Pre) 1998] (D) Rural Employment - SJSRY
economic concern?
(A) reduction in the value of 81. Which one of the following does
1. The ‘teaser loans’ are not implement the Self-Help
considered to be an aspect of the currency vis-a-vis major
internationally traded Groups (SHGs) - Bank Linkage
sub-prime lending and banks Programme? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
may be exposed to the risk of currencies
(B) permitting a currency to seek (A) NABARD
defaulters in future.
2. In India, the ‘teaser loans’ are its worth in the international (B) Commercial Banks
mostly given to entrepreneurs market (C) RRBs
to set-up manufacturing or (C) fixing the value of currency (D) Co-operative Banks
export units. with the help of IMF and WB 82. ‘Simply Click’ credit card scheme is
Which of the statement(s) given (D) None of the above launched by which of the following
above is/are correct? 75. Provident Fund in India is Banks? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
[UPSC (Pre) 2010] [UPPCS (Pre) 1998] (A) IDBI (B) ICICI
(A) Only 1 (A) Contractual Savings (C) BOB (D) SBI

83. In India, the first bank of limited
liability managed by Indians and
founded in 1881 was
[UPSC (Pre) 2003]
(A) Hindustan Commercial Bank
(B) Oudh Commercial Bank
(C) Punjab National Bank
(D) Punjab and Sind Bank
84. Which one of the following
statements is correct with reference
of FEMA in India? [UPSC (Pre) 2003]
(A) The Foreign Exchange
Management Act (FEMA) in
the year 2001
(B) FERA was given a sunset
clause of one year till 31st May,
2002 to enable enforcement
directorate to complete the
investigation of pending issues
(C) Under FEMA, violation of
foreign exchange rules has
ceased to be a criminal offence
(D) As per the new dispensation,
enforcement directorate can
arrest and prosecute the people
for the violation of foreign
exchange rule
85. Consider the following statements.
1. The National Housing Bank
(NHB), the apex institution
of housing finance in India
was set-up as a wholly-owned
subsidiary of the Reserve Bank
of India.
2. The Small Industries
Development Bank of India was
established as a wholly owned
subsidiary of the Industrial
Development Bank of India.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[UPSC (Pre) 2004]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
86. Consider the following statements.
1. Reserve Bank of India was
nationalised in the year 1949.
2. The borrowing programme
of the Government of India is
handled by the Department
of Expenditure, Ministry of
Finance.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[UPSC (Pre) 2004]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Economic and Social Development 441
87. One of the important goals of the
economic liberalisation policy is
to achieve full convertibility of
the Indian rupee. This is being
advocated because
[UPSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) convertibility of the rupee will
stabilise its exchange value
against major currencies of the
world
(B) it will attract more foreign
capital inflow in India
(C) it will help promote exports
(D) it will help India secure loans
from the world financial
markets on attractive terms
88. In India, rural incomes are
generally lower than the urban
incomes. Which of the following
reasons account for this?
[UPSC (Pre) 1996]
1. A large number of farmers are
illiterate and know little about
scientific agriculture.
2. Prices of primary products
are lower than those of
manufactured products.
3. Investments in agriculture has
been low when compared to
investment in industry.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3
89. The accounting year of the Reserve
Bank of India is [UPSC (Pre) 1998]
(A) April - March
(B) July - June
(C) October - September
(D) January - December
90. Consider the following statements.
The price of any currency in inter-
national market is decided by the
1. World Bank
2. Demand for goods/services
provided by the country
concerned.
3. Stability of the government of
the concerned country.
4. Economic potential of the
country in question of these
statements.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 1998]
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4
91. The banks are required to maintain
a certain ratio between their cash
in hand and total assets. This is
called [UPSC (Pre) 1998]
(A) SBR (Statutory Bank Ratio)
(B) SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio)
(C) CBR (Central Bank Reserve)
(D) CLR (Central Liquidity Reserve)
92. Capital Account convertibility of
Indian Rupee implies
[UPSC (Pre) 1998]
(A) that the Indian Rupee can be
exchanged by the authorised
dealer to travel
(B) that the Indian Rupee can
be exchanged for any major
currency for the purpose of
trade in goods and services
(C) that the Indian Rupees can be
exchanged for any the purpose
of trading financial assets
(D) None of the above
93. Consider the following statements.
Full convertibility of the rupee may
mean
1. Its free float with any of the
international currencies.
2. Its direct exchange with any
other international currency at
any prescribed place inside and
outside the country.
3. It acts just like any other
international currency.
Which of these statements are
correct? [UPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
94. Convertibility of the Rupee as it
exists at present means
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Rupee is convertible into
foreign currencies for all types
of transactions
(B) Rupee is convertible into
foreign currencies for trade
transactions only
(C) Rupee is convertible into
foreign currencies for all
current transactions only
(D) Rupee is convertible into
foreign currencies for capital
transactions only
95. Which one of the following is not a
nationalised bank?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004
Assam PSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Bank of Baroda
(B) Canara Bank
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Punjab National Bank
96. Which one of the following is a
private bank? [UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Allahabad Bank
(B) Punjab and Sind Bank
(C) Punjab Bank
(D) Punjab National Bank
442 Objective General Studies
97. Which one of the following is not India in [UPPCS (Mains) 2011] of cheques, drafts, bills of
the function of Regional Rural (A) 1861 (B) 1542 exchange etc.
Banks? [UPPCS (Mains) 2005] (C) 1601 (D) 1880 (D) The metallic money in
(A) To provide credit to small and 105. Consider the following statements. circulation in a country
marginal farmers 1. Gorewal Committee 110. Consider the following statements.
(B) To provide credit to common recommendation led to the 1. The Reserve Bank of India
people in rural area establishment of State Bank of manages and services
(C) To supplement Scheduled India. Government of India Securities
Commercial Banks 2. 14 banks were nationalised on but not any State Government
(D) To take over the functions July 19, 1969. Securities.
of Agricultural Refinance 2. Treasury bills are issued by the
Which of the statement(s) given
Corporation of India Government of India and there
above is/are correct?
98. In India, regional rural banks were [UPPCS (Mains) 2004] are no treasury bills issued by
established in the year the State Governments.
(A) Only 1
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] 3. Treasury bills offer are issued at
(B) Only 2
(A) 1976 (B) 1975 a discount from the par value.
(C) Both 1 and 2
(C) 1980 (D) 1982 Which of the statement(s) given
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
99. Consider the following. above is/are correct?
106. The Prevention of Money [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
1. Regional Rural Banks Laundering Act came into force in
2. Lead Bank Plan (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 3
India during [BPSC (Pre) 2018]
3. NABARD (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(A) 1998 (B) 1999
4. State Bank of India 111. Consider the following statements.
(C) 2001 (D) 2005
The correct chronological sequence 107. As in December 2017, Indian 1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR)
of establishing of these banks is is the amount that banks have
government’s holding in which
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] to maintain in the form of their
of the following banks was
(A) 4, 3, 1, 2 (B) 4, 2, 1, 3 own funds to offset any loss
maximum? [UP RO (Pre) 2018]
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 2, 1, 4, 3 that banks incur, if the account-
(A) Central Bank of India holders fail to repay dues.
100. Which of the following systems of (B) United Bank of India
Note-issue is followed by RBI? 2. CAR is decided by each
(C) Bank of India individual bank.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(D) State Bank of India Which of the statements given
(A) Proportional Reserve System 108. With reference to the governance above is/are correct?
(B) Minimum Reserve System of public sector banking in India, [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
(C) Fixed Fiduciary System consider the following statements. (A) Only 1
(D) None of the above 1. Capital infusion into public (B) Only 2
101. Scheduled bank is a bank which is sector banks by the Government (C) Both 1 and 2
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007] of India has steadily increased
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) Nationalised in the last decade.
(B) Not Nationalised 112. Which one of the following best
2. To put the public sector
(C) Based in foreign country describes the term ‘Merchant
banks in order, the merger of
Discount Rate’ sometimes seen in
(D) Included in the second schedule associate banks with the parent
news? [UPSC (Pre) 2018
of RBI State Bank of India has been
Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018]
102. Coins are minted in India at affected.
(A) The incentive given by a bank
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008] Which of the statement(s) given
to a merchant for accepting
(A) Delhi, Mumbai and Kolkata above is/are correct?
payments through debit cards
(B) Delhi, Kolkata and Hyderabad [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
pertaining to that bank
(C) Mumbai, Delhi and Bengaluru (A) Only 1
(B) The amount paid back by banks
(D) Mumbai, Kolkata and (B) Only 2 to their customers when they
Hyderabad (C) Both 1 and 2 use debit cards for financial
103. Money Multiplier in India is (D) Neither 1 nor 2 transactions for purchasing
defined as [UPPCS (Mains) 2009] 109. Which one of the following goods or services
Broad Money statements correctly describes the (C) The charge to a merchant by a
(A) meaning of legal tender money?
Base Money bank for accepting payments
[UPSC (Pre) 2018] from his customers through the
Broad Money
(B) (A) The money which is tendered bank’s debit cards
Reserve Money
in courts of law to defray the fee (D) The incentive given by the
Reserve Money of legal cases Government to merchants for
(C)
Base Money (B) The money which a creditor is promoting digital payments by
Base Money under compulsion to accept in their customers through Point
(D)
Reserve Money settlement of his claims of Sale (PoS) machines and
104. Paper currency was first started in (C) The bank money in the form debit cards
 Economic and Social Development 443
113. Assertion (A): Devaluation of a (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, 2. Industrial Development Bank
currency may promote export. but (R) is not the correct of India
Reason (R): Price of the country’s explanation of (A) 3. Industrial Credit and
products in the international (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false Investment Corporation of
market may fall due to devaluation. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true India
In the context of the above two 114. Match List-I with List-II and select 4. Board of Industrial and
statements, select the correct the correct answer using the codes Financial Reconstruction
answer from the codes given given below the lists. Code
below. [UPSC (Pre) 1999 [BPSC (Pre) 2015] (a) (b) (c) (d)
UPPCS (Pre) 2003] List-I (A) 1 2 3 4
Code (a) 1994 (b) 1964 (B) 2 3 1 4
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (c) 1982 (d) 1987 (C) 3 2 1 4
(R) is the correct explanation of List-II (D) 4 1 2 3
(A) 1. Export-Import Bank of India

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (B) 56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (D)
61. (C) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (D) 65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (A) 69. (B) 70. (C)
71. (D) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (A) 75. (A) 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (A) 79. (C) 80. (D)
81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (C) 85. (C) 86. (A) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (B) 90. (B)
91. (B) 92. (C) 93. (A) 94. (C) 95. (C) 96. (C) 97. (D) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)
101. (D) 102. (D) 103. (B) 104. (A) 105. (C) 106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (B) 110. (C)
111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (A) 114. (C)

13. Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation

1. Who is called the pioneer of 3. Promotion given to Multinational (A) Reduction in import duties
liberalisation of Indian Economy? companies in India means (B) Abolition of import licensing
[MPPCS (Pre) 2008] encouragement of (C) Free flow of foreign Direct
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh [MPPSC (Pre) 2005] Investment
(B) P.V. Narsimha Rao (A) Privatisation policy (D) Disinvestment of Public Sector
(C) Dr. Bimal Jalan (B) Globalisation policy equity
(D) P. Chidambaram (C) Liberalisation policy 7. Free Trade Policy refers to a policy
2. Read the following statements (D) All of the above where there is [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
carefully 4. Rangrajan committee was (A) absence of tariff
1. In 1991, policy of Economic constituted for [MPPCS (Pre) 2014] (B) restriction on the movement of
liberalisation was adopted in (A) Disinvestment goods
India. (B) Banking reforms (C) existence of anti-dumping
2. Foreign currency market and (C) Tax reforms policy
foreign investment sectors (D) Foreign Trade (D) encouragement for balanced
were promoted. 5. The first phase of liberalisation was growth
3. Import of foreign goods was initiated in India under the regime 8. The first Export Processing Zone of
freed from prohibition. of [UKPCS (Pre) 2016] the Private Sector was established
Select the answer on the basis of (A) Rajiv Gandhi at [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2017
following codes. (B) P.V. Narsimha Rao UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
[MPPCS (Pre) 2007]
(C) Atal Behari Vajpayee (A) Surat
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (D) H.D. Dev Gowda (B) Noida
(B) 1 and 2 are correct 6. Globalisation does not include (C) Chennai
(C) 1 and 3 are correct [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017 (D) Mangalore
(D) 2 and 3 are correct UKPCS (Pre) 2016]
444 Objective General Studies
9. Free trade zone is one
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) where trade’s done without
restrictions
(B) where any entrepreneur is free
to start industries
(C) where infrastructure
facilities are provided free
to entrepreneurs by the
government
(D) where industries are free from
excise duties and produce for
exports
10. Which of the following is not part of
the ‘Second-generation of Reforms’
identified by the government?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Oil Sector Reforms
(B) Public Sector Reforms
(C) Legal System Reforms and ISO 9002 certification in the
(D) Reform of Government & recent past.
Public Institutions Reason (R): There has been
11. Why companies go for business considerable liberalisation in the
process re-engineering with the licensing policy of the Government
help of technology? of India.
[RAS (Pre) 2018] In the context of the above given
(A) Customers demand and statements, select the correct
expectations answer from the codes given
(B) IT being leveraged to provide below. [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
competitive edge in products Code
and services at lower costs (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(C) The pace of change has (R) is the correct explanation of
accelerated with the (A)
liberalisation of economies (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
world over but (R) is not the correct
(D) All of the above explanation of (A)
12. Assertion (A): Many industries (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
in India have obtained ISO 9001 (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (B)

14. Foreign Exchange Market

1. From which year was the FEMA (C) Reserve Bank of India 5. Remittances from Indians
Promulgated? (D) Ministry of Finance working abroad
[MPPSC (Pre) 2005] 5. The term ‘Paper Gold’ means Select the correct answer from the
(A) 2003 (B) 2002 [UPPCS (Mains) 2004] given codes. [UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
(C) 2000 (D) 1999 (A) special drawing rights of the (A) 1, 3, 4, 5 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4
2. Under free exchange market I.M.F. (C) 1, 2, 4, 5 (D) 2, 3, 4, 5
the rate of foreign exchange is (B) special accommodation facility 8. Consider the following statements
determined by [HCS (Pre) 2014] of the World Bank and choose the correct answer with
(A) Balance of Payments Theory (C) currencies still on Gold the help of codes given.
(B) Purchasing Power Parity standard Assertion (A): In the recent
Theory (D) deficit financing past, there has been a significant
(C) Mint par Theory 6. India, Foreign Investment increase in foreign exchange
(D) None of the above Promotion Board now works under reserve of India.
3. The development is [UPPCS (Pre) 2007] Reason (R): Invisible exports
[UPPCS (Pre) 1994] (A) Reserve Bank of India have been much higher than
(A) reduction of prices (B) Ministry of External Affairs invisible imports in terms of
(B) deficit financing (C) Ministry of Commerce dollars. [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(C) loans from World Bank and (D) Ministry of Finance Code
I.M.F. 7. The Forex Reserve in India have (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(D) reduction in the value of been witnessing continuous (R) is the correct explanation of
currency in terms of gold growth due to following reasons. (A)
4. Which of the following authority 1. Rise in FDI inflows (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
sanctions foreign exchange for 2. Gifts from Foreign Countries but (R) is not the correct
import of goods? [UPPCS (Pre) 2011] 3. High interest regime in the explanation of (A)
(A) Any nationalised Bank country (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) Exchange Bank 4. Huge inflows of FIIs funds (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (A)

1. Which of the following statements
is correct about the Balance of
Trade of India? [RAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) India’s trade balance remained
negative for the entire period
from 1949-50 to 2015-16
(B) India’s trade balance remained
positive for the entire period
from 1949-50 to 2015-16
(C) India’s trade balance remained
negative for the entire period
from 1949-50 to 2015-16
except two year 1972-73 and
1976-77, when it was positive
(D) India’s trade balance remained
positive for the entire period
from 1949-50 to 2015-16
except two year 1972-73 and
1976-77, when it was negative
2. India’s Trade Policy (2009-14)
seeks to
1. Double the country’s share of
global trade by 2020.
2. Achieve a growth of 25 percent
per annum in exports
3. Double Indian exports of goods
and services by 2015
Choose the correct statements.
[RAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
3. Balance of Payment on capital
account includes [HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Balances of private direct
investments
(B) Private portfolio investments
(C) Government loans to foreign
governments
(D) All of the above
4. The term ‘Balance of Payment’ is
used in relation to which of the
following? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Annual sale of a factory
(B) Tax collection
(C) Export and Imports
(D) None of the above
5. Which one of the following
statements is not correct?
[MPPSC (Pre) 1994]
(A) The proposals made by the
Director General of GATT to
resolve the stalled Uruguay
talks are referred to as the
Dunkel Draft
(B) The Dunkel Draft also included
proposals pertaining to
intellectual property rights
(C) The Dunkel proposals
15. Balance of Payment
also include trade related
investment measures
(D) The Dunkel proposals also
include the proposal that
Indo-Pak relation may be
strengthened on the basis of
Shimla Agreement
6. What have been the reasons of
deficit in India’s Balance of Trade
in the Past? [HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Very large rise in imports
(B) Modest growth of exports
(C) High cost and low quantity
production
(D) All of the above
7. Balance of payment is defined as
[UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) the value of exports minus the
value of imports
(B) the difference between the
liabilities and assets of a firm
(C) the difference between current
expenditure and current
revenue in the government
(D) complete record of
economic transaction between
the residents of the country and
rest of the world
8. India export maximum leather to
[UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) U.S.A. (B) U.S.S.R.
(C) England (D) W. Germany
9. Which one of the following groups
constitutes the largest item of
Export from India?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1996]
(A) Engineering Goods and Tea
(B) Tea, Gems and Jewellery
(C) Readymade Garments and
Sugar
(D) Readymade Garments, Gems
and Jewellery
10. Which among the following does
not have ‘free trade zone’?
[UPPCS (Pre) 1999]
(A) Kandla
(B) Mumbai
(C) Vishakhapatnam
(D) Thiruvananthapuram
11. ‘ECGC’ is related to
[UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Export promotion
(B) Export financing and insurance
(C) Export quality certification
(D) Export statistics publication
12. Which organisation promotes the
foreign trade? [UPPCS (Pre) 2011]
Economic and Social Development 445
(A) ECGC
(B) MMTC
(C) STC
(D) All of the above
13. Which one of the following
institutions related to export
financing and insurance?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) ECGC (B) GAIL
(C) CBDT (D) IDBI
14. Invisible export means export of
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Services
(B) Prohibited goods
(C) Unrecorded goods
(D) Goods through smuggling
15. Balance of payment includes
[UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Visible Trade
(B) Invisible Trade
(C) Debts
(D) All of the above
16. A letter of credit has to be produced
all by [UPPCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) An exporter
(B) An importer
(C) Custom authorities
(D) Shipping company
17. Which one of the following set of
commodities are exported to India
by arid and semi-arid countries in
the Middle East? [UPPSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) Raw Wool and Carpets
(B) Fruits and Palm oil
(C) Precious stones and Pearls
(D) Perfume and Coffee
18. Consider the following statements.
The Indian rupee is fully
convertible
1. In respect of Current Account of
Balance of Payment
2. In respect of Capital Account of
Balance of Payment
3. Into gold
Which of these statement(s) is/are
correct? [UPSC (Pre) 2000]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
19. Which one of the following
countries is the largest trading
partner of India? [UKPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) U.S.A. (B) U.K.
(C) France (D) China
446 Objective General Studies
20. Among the following countries, ties has highest export from India to be the major component of
which was the highest crude oil in 2017? [UP RO (Pre) 2018] India’s external credit till 2017?
supplier to India during 2017-18? (A) Agriculture and allied products [UP RO (Pre) 2018]
[UP RO (Pre) 2018] (B) Engineering goods (A) NRI deposits
(A) Saudi Arabia (B) Iran (C) Textiles (B) Short term debt
(C) Iraq (D) Kuwait (D) Chemicals (C) Trade Credit
21. Which of the following commodi- 22. Which of the following continued (D) Commercial borrowing

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (D)

16. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)

1. Which sector in India attracts the 2. Majority foreign equity holding
highest FDI equity flow? in Indian companies.
[UKPCS (Pre) 2016] 3. Companies exclusively
(A) Construction sector financed by foreign companies.
(B) Energy sector 4. Portfolio investment.
(C) Service sector Select the correct answer using the
(D) Automobile sector codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 2012]
2. The maximum limit of Foreign (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Direct Investment (FDI) in public (B) 2 and 4
sector banking is [HPPSC (Pre) 2011] (C) 1 and 3
(A) 20% (D) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 50% 5. A great deal of Foreign Direct
(C) 33% Investment (FDI) to India comes
(D) 49% from Mauritius than from many
3. Which of the following pairs are major and mature economics like
correctly matched? UK and France why?
[UPSC (Pre) 2010]
1. Increase in foreign exchange
reserves - Monetary expansion (A) India has preference for certain
2. Low import growth - Recession countries as regards receiving
in Indian industry FDI
(B) India has double taxation
3. Euro issues - Shares held by
Indian companies in European avoidance agreement with
countries Mauritius
(C) Most citizens of Mauritius have
4. Portfolio investment - Foreign
institutional investors ethnic identity with India and
so they feel secure to invest in
Select the correct answer from the
India
codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 1995]
(D) Impending dangers of global
(A) 1, 2 and 4
climatic change prompt
(B) 3 and 4 Mauritius to make huge
(C) 1, 2 and 3 investment in India
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 6. In the context of governance,
4. Which of the following would consider the following.
include Foreign Direct Investment 1. Encouraging Foreign Direct
in India? Investment inflows.
1. Subsidiaries of companies in 2. Privatisation of higher
India. education institutions.
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling/Offloading the shares
of Public Sector undertaking
Which of the above can be used
as measures to control the fiscal
deficit in India? [UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
7. Both Foreign Direct Investment
(FDI) and Foreign Institutional
Investor (FII) are related to
investment in a country. Which one
of the following statements best
represents an important difference
between the two? [UPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) FII helps brings better
management skills and
technology, while FDI only
brings in capital
(B) FII helps in increasing capital
availability in general, while
FDI only targets specific sector
(C) FDI flows only into the
secondary market, while FII
targets primary markets
(D) FII is considered to be more
stable than FDI
8. In terms of the share in Foreign
Direct Investment Equity inflows,
in India during 2016-17, which of
the following countries is on the
top? [RAS (Pre) 2018]
(A) Mauritius (B) Singapore
(C) Japan (D) U.S.A.

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A)
 Economic and Social Development 447

17. World Bank, WTO, BRICS

1. Who coined the term ‘BRIC’ in (B) 1st January, 1995 2. International Finance
2001? [UKPCS (Pre) 2016] (C) 1st April, 1994 Corporation
(A) Jim O’ Neil (D) 1st May, 1995 3. International Fund for
(B) Barack Obama 11. The earlier name of WTO was Agricultural Development
(C) John Kennedy [UPSC (Pre) 2001] 4. International Monetary Fund
(D) Vladimir Putin (A) UNCTAD (B) GATT Which of these are agencies of the
2. The British scholar Jim O’ Neil who (C) UNIDO (D) OECD United Nation? [UPSC (Pre) 2001]
coined the term ‘BRICS’ is related 12. The headquarters of World Trade (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
to which of the following subjects? Organisation is at (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
[UKPCS (Pre) 2016] [UPPCS (Mains) 2007] 18. Which of the following were the
(A) Psychology (A) Doha (B) Geneva aims behind the setting up of the
(B) Sociology (C) Rome (D) New York World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
(C) Political Science 13. Which among below is not a correct 1. Promotion of free trade and
(D) Economics statement? [HCS (Pre) 2014] resources flow across countries.
3. In which year ‘BRIC’ grouping was (A) Bretton Woods Conference 2. Protection of intellectual
formed as ‘BRICS’? gave birth to two international property rights.
[UKPCS (Pre) 2016] organisations 3. Managing balanced trade
(A) 2010 (B) 2015 (B) Theory of Absolute Advantage between different countries.
(C) 2009 (D) 2012 in international trade is given 4. Promotion of trade between
4. The first ever summit meeting of by Adam Smith the former East Bloc countries
‘BRICS countries’ took place at (C) Pure and perfect competition and the Western World.
[UKPCS (Pre) 2011] are the same market structures Select the correct answer using the
(A) Brazil (B) India (D) Mint parity theory of exchange codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 1996]
(C) Russia (D) China rate determination is (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 2
5. Which one of the following is not a applicable in countries under (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
member of ‘BRICS’? gold standard 19. One of the important agreements
[UKPCS (Pre) 2014] 14. The central issue in Doha Round of reached in the 1996 Ministerial
(A) India talks of World Trade Organisation conference of WTO refers to
was [UKPCS (Pre) 2016] [UPSC (Pre) 1997]
(B) China
(C) Saudi Arabia (A) Issue related to agriculture (A) Commerce in Information
(B) Export from developing Technology
(D) Brazil
countries (B) Multilateral Agreement on
6. Which one of the following Investment
(C) Trade in service
countries was introduced in ‘BRICS’
(D) Intellectual property right (C) Multi Fibre Agreement
in the last? [UKPCS (Mains) 2014]
related to trade (D) Exchange of Technical
(A) India (B) China
15. International Development Personnel
(C) South Africa (D) Brazil
Association (IDA) is managed by 20. How is the United Nations
7. How many countries are members [UPSC (Pre) 1999] Monetary and Financial Conference
of World Bank? [UKPCS (Pre) 2016] wherein the agreements were
(A) World Bank
(A) 189 (B) 181 signed to set-up IBRD, GATT and
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) 164 (D) 193 IMF, commonly known?
(C) UNO
8. In which year was the World Bank (D) U.S. Federal Bank [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017
formed? [MPPSC (Pre) 2005] UPSC (Pre) 2008]
16. The International Development
(A) 1945 (B) 1956 Association, a lending agency, is (A) Bandung Conference
(C) 1960 (D) 1998 administered by the (B) Bretton Woods Conference
9. Which of the following is also [UPSC (Pre) 2010 (C) Versailles Conference
known as International Bank for UKPCS (Pre) 2016] (D) Valta Conference
Reconstruction and Development? (A) International Bank of Recon- 21. The Bretton Woods Conference led
[HCS (Pre) 2014] struction and Development to the establishment of
(A) Asian Development Bank (B) International Fund for [UKPCS (Pre) 2014]
(B) World Bank Agricultural Development 1. I.M.F.
(C) International Monetary Fund (C) United Nations Development 2. I.B.R.D.
(D) Reserve Bank of India Programme 3. United Nations
10. The new World Trade Organisation (D) United Nations Industrial 4. W.T.O.
(WTO), which replaced the GATT Development Organisation Code
came into effect from 17. Consider the following operations. (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3
[HCS (Pre) 2014] 1. International Bank for Recon- (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(A) 1st January, 1991 struction and Development
448 Objective General Studies
22. On the basis of size and composition 27. India enacted the Geographical statements, select the correct
of external debt, World Bank has Indications of Goods (Registration answer from the codes given
classified India as and Protection) Act, 1999 in order below. [UPSC (Pre) 2003]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009] to comply with the obligations to Code
(A) A moderately indebted country [UPSC (Pre) 2018] (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(B) A less indebted country (A) ILO (B) IMF (R) is the correct explanation of
(C) A heavily indebted country (C) UNCTAD (D) WTO (A)
(D) A critically indebted country 28. Match List-I with List-II and select (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
23. Which of the following ‘BRICS’ the correct answer using the codes but (R) is not the correct
nation has highest per capita given below the lists. explanation of (A)
[UPSC (Pre) 1999] (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
income? [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) China List-I (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(B) India (a) WTO (b) IDA 30. Assertion (A): The United States
(c) IMF (d) IBRD of America has threatened to ask
(C) South Africa
List-II the World Trade Organisation
(D) Russian Federation (WTO) to apply sanctions
24. Which one of the following 1. Provides loans to address short
term balance of payment against the developing countries
countries is not a member of for the non-observance of ILO
WTO? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] 2. Multilateral trade negotiation
body conventions.
(A) Slovenia (B) Serbia Reason (R): The United States
3. Sanction of soft loans
(C) Slovakia (D) Columbia of America itself has adopted
4. Facilitating lending and
25. A group formed by India, Brazil, borrowing for reconstruction and implemented those ILO
China and other developing and development conventions.
countries for future negotiations at In context of the above two
Code
WTO is known as [UPPCS (Pre) 2004] statements which one of the
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) G-77 (B) G-55 following is correct?
(A) 2 3 4 1 [UPSC (Pre) 1998]
(C) G-33 (D) G-11
(B) 3 2 4 1
26. TRIMS stands for [BPSC (Pre) 2018] Code
(C) 2 3 1 4
(A) Trade-Related Income (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(D) 3 2 1 4 (R) is the correct explanation of
Measures
29. Assertion (A): The new EXIM (A)
(B) Trade-Related Incentives policy is liberal, market oriented
Measures (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
and favours global trade. but (R) is not the correct
(C) Trade-Related Investment Reason (R): GATT has played a
Measures explanation of (A)
significant role in the liberalisation (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) Trade-Related Innovative of the economy.
Measures (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
In the context of the above two

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (B)

18. Other Institutions

1. The emerging trading blocs in the
world, such as NAFTA, ASEAN and
the others are expected to
[UPSC (Pre) 1996]
(A) act as constriction in free trade
across the world
(B) promote free trade on the line
laid down by the WTO
(C) permit transfer of technology
between member countries
(D) promote trade in agricultural
commodities between
countries of the North and
South
2. Which one of the following (B) International Bank of Recon-
countries occupies the first place in struction and Development
the ‘Global Competitive Report’ of (C) World Trade Organisation
World Economic Forum? (D) International Monetary Fund
[UPSC (Pre) 2000] 4. Under which agreement Monetary
(A) USA Fund was established?
(B) Singapore [UKPCS (Pre) 2014]
(C) Hong Kong (A) Bretton Woods Agreement
(D) Switzerland (B) Bretton Stone Agreement
3. ‘World Development Report’ is an (C) S. Wood Agreement
annual publication of (D) U. Thant Agreement
[UPSC (Pre) 2002] 5. Which among the following is not a
(A) United Nations Development function of International Monetary
Programme Fund? [HCS (Pre) 2014]
 Economic and Social Development 449
(A) It serves a medium term and (D) Only 18 countries of Europe for 2011-2020?
long term credit institution 13. ‘G-8 Muskoka Initiative’ is [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(B) It provides a mechanism for concerned with [UKPCS (Pre) 2011] (A) Natural disaster decade
improving short term balance (A) End of International Terrorism (B) Biodiversity decade
of payments position (B) Maternity and Child Health (C) Climate change
(C) It provides Machinery for (C) Settlement of International (D) Environment decade
international consultations Disputes 18. In which year was the SAPTA
(D) It provides a reservoir of the (D) Reduction of Greenhouse gas (South Asian Preferential Trade
currencies to the member emission Agreement) constituted?
countries and enables members 14. Consider the following statements. [UKPSC (Pre) 2016]
to borrow one another’s (A) 1977 (B) 1993
currency 1. Poverty Reduction and Growth
Facility (PRGF) has been (C) 1985 (D) 1996
6. Regarding the International established by the International 19. The first summit of ‘International
Monetary Fund (IMF) which one Development Association (IDA) Solar Alliance’ was held in which of
of the following statements is to provide further assistance to the following cities?
correct? [UPSC (Pre) 2011]
income countries facing high [UP RO (Pre) 2018]
(A) It can grant loans to any country level of indebtedness. (A) New Delhi (B) New York
(B) It can grant loans to only 2. Singapore Regional Training (C) Paris (D) None of these
developed countries Institution (STI) is one of the
(C) It grants loans to only members 20. The Headquarters of the ‘Green
institutes that provides training Peace International’ is located at
countries in Macro-economic analysis [UPPCS (Pre) 2018]
(D) It can grant loans to the Central and policy and related subject
Bank of countries (A) Amsterdam (B) Canberra
as a part of programme of the
7. When was South Asian Association IMF institute. (C) Ottawa (D) Nagasaki
for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) Which of the statement(s) given 21. Consider the following countries.
established? [UKPCS (Pre) 2014] above is/are correct? 1. Australia 2. Canada
(A) 1984 (B) 1987 [UPSC (Pre) 2005] 3. China 4. India
(C) 1985 (D) 1989 (A) Only 1 5. Japan 6. USA
8. Which one among the following (B) Only 2 Which of the above are among the
countries is not a member of (C) Both 1 and 2 ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
SAARC? [HPPSC (Pre) 2010] (D) Neither 1 nor 2 [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) Afghanistan (B) Bhutan 15. India is a member of which of the (A) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (B) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(C) Maldives (D) Myanmar following? (C) 1, 3, 4 and 6 (D) 2, 3, 4 and 6
9. Asia-Pacific Economic Co- 1. Asian Development Bank 22. Match List-I with List-II and select
operation (APEC) Summit-2014 2. Asia-Pacific Economic the correct answer using the codes
was held at [MPPCS (Pre) 2014] Cooperation given below the lists.
(A) Beijing (B) Philippines List-I [UPSC (Pre) 2000]
3. Colombo Plan
(C) Yokohama (D) Bali 4. Organisation for Economic (a) UN Development Programme
10. Asian Development Bank is located Cooperation and Development (b) NCAER
in [MPPSC (Pre) 1996] (OECD) (c) Indira Gandhi Institute of
(A) Tokyo (B) Beijing Choose the correct answer from the Development Research
(C) Bangkok (D) Manila codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 2008] (d) World Bank
11. Which one of the following Code List-II
countries is not a member of (A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 1. Indian Human Development
OPEC? [UPPCS (Pre) 1999] (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Survey
(A) Algeria (B) China 16. Who among the following is 2. India Development Report
(C) Indonesia (D) U.A.E. the founder of World Economic 3. World Development Report
12. ‘Euro’ is the official currency of Forum? [UPSC (Pre) 2009] 4. Human Development Report
[UPPCS (Pre) 1999] (A) Klaus Schwab Code
(A) All the States of Europe (B) John Kenneth Galbraith (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) All the States of the European (C) Robert - Zoellick (A) 4 1 2 3
Union (D) Paul Krugman (B) 4 2 1 3
(C) Only 12 of the States of the 17. Which of the following has been (C) 2 3 4 1
European Union designated by the UNO as decade (D) 2 1 4 3

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (A)
450 Objective General Studies
19. Human Development
1. Human Development Index is a
composite index of which of the
following? [UKPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Nutritional status, quality of
life and per capita GDP
(B) Poverty, life expectancy and
educational attainment
(C) Life expectancy, educational
attainment and per capita
income
(D) Inflation, unemployment and
per capita GDP
2. Which of the following is not a
measure of Human Development
Index? [HPPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Life Expectancy
(B) Sex Ratio
(C) Literacy Rate
(D) Gross Enrolment
3. HDI is measured with reference to
1. Infant Mortality
2. Real GDP per capita
3. Life Expectancy at birth
4. Morbidity
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[HPPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All are correct
4. Which of the following is not
included in Human Development
Index? [MPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Life Expectancy
(B) Real per capita income
(C) Social Inequality
(D) Adult Literacy
5. Which one of the following
organisations publishes the Human
Development Report?
[UKPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) UNESCO (B) World Bank
(C) UNDP (D) IMF
6. As per the Human Development
Report 2015, consider the
following statements.
1. India ranks 130 out of 188
countries.
2. HDI is based on the indices for
life expectancy education and
PPP.
3. In comparison to other nations
in the BRICS, India has the
lowest rank.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[RAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) Only 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
7. Which one of the following pub-
lishes the ‘Global Competitiveness
Index’ report? [UKPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) UNDP
(B) World Economic Forum
(C) IMF
(D) WTO
8. ‘Rule of Law Index’ is released by
which of the following?
[UPSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) Amnesty International
(B) International Court of Justice
(C) The office of UN Commissioner
for Human Rights
(D) World Justice Project
9. The Multi-Dimensional Poverty
India developed by Oxford Poverty
and Human Development Initiative
with UNDP support covers which of
following?
1. Deprivation of Education,
health, assets and services at
household level.
2. Purchasing power parity at
national level.
3. Extent of budget deficit and
GDP growth rate at national
level.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [UPSC (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
10. The multi-dimensional poverty
index of UNDP includes
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) 8 indicators
(B) 10 indicators
(C) 12 indicators
(D) 14 indicators
11. The ‘World Economic Outlook
Report’ is released by
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A)World Bank
(B)International Monetary Fund
(C)Asian Development Bank
(D)International Labour
Organisation
12. The World Investment Report
(WIR) is published by
[HPPSC (Pre) 2014]
(A) International Monetary Fund
(IMF)
(B) United Nations Conference
on Trade and Development
(UNCTAD)
(C) General Agreement on Tariffs
on Trade (GATT)
(D) Organisation of Economic
Cooperation and Development
(OECD)
13. ‘World Development Report’ is an
annual publication of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) International Bank of Recon-
struction and Development
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) United Nations Development
Programme
(D) World Trade Organisation
14. Human Poverty Index was
developed in the year
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) 1991 (B) 1995
(C) 1997 (D) 2001
15. Which of the following dimensions
is exclusively considered in HPI-2
(Human Poverty Index-2)?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) Social Exclusion
(B) Knowledge Exclusion
(C) Economic Exclusion
(D) Gender Inequalities
16. While calculating HDI, the
maximum value and minimum
value for life expectancy at birth
(years) are taken as
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(A) 100 and 25 (B) 90 and 30
(C) 85 and 25 (D) 80 and 20
17. Which one of the following is
not a constituent of Human
Development Index?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Health and Nutrition
(B) Per Capita Income
(C) Life Expectancy at Birth
(D) Gross Enrolment Rate
18. Consider the following statements
about ‘World Happiness Report
2018’ released by United Nations
in March 2018.
1. India dropped 11 spots from
its ranking in the previous year
2017.
2. Finland with 1st rank is the
happiest country.
3. This report includes only 155
countries.
Of the above, the correct
statement(s) is/are
[UP RO (Pre) 2018]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 2 and 3
 Economic and Social Development 451
19. ‘Saving energy and other resources 21. According to the UN Department of 24. Consider the following statements.
for the future without sacrificing Economic and Social Affairs (UN- Human capital formation as a
people’s comfort in the present’ DESA), what percentage of world’s concept is better explained in terms
is the definition of which of the total population is currently living of a process which enables
following concepts? in urban areas? [UPPCS (Pre) 2018] 1. individuals of a country to
[UPPCS (Pre) 2018] (A) 25 (B) 35 accumulate more capital.
(A) Economic growth (C) 45 (D) 55 2. increasing the knowledge, skill
(B) Economic development 22. When did the Government of levels and capacities of the
(C) Sustainable development India established the independent people of the country.
(D) Human development Ministry for ‘Women and Child 3. accumulation of tangible
20. ABC Index announced by the Development’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2018] wealth.
Government of India is associated (A) 1985 (B) 1986 4. accumulation of intangible
with which of the following? (C) 1987 (D) 1988 wealth.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2018] 23. The Human Development Index Which of the statement(s) given
(A) Agriculture (HDI) was first developed by which above is/are correct?
(B) Communication of the following? [UPPCS (Pre) 2018] [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
(C) Health (A) UNDP (B) IMF (A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(D) Education (C) UNICEF (D) UNCTAD (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (C)

20. Poverty and Population

1. Critical minimum effort theory was while birth rate continues to be (B) Population Trap
designed by which of the following high (C) Population Crisis
given economist? [HCS (Pre) 2014] 5. At present the National Commis- (D) None of the above
(A) H. Leibenstein sion on Population is under 9. Which Indian state has the highest
(B) Rosentein Rodan [HPPSC (Pre) 2011] percentage of children suffering
(C) W.W. Rostow (A) Planning Commission from malnutrition? [RAS (Pre) 2015]
(D) None of the above (B) Ministry of Human Resource (A) Madhya Pradesh
2. What is the density of population of Development (B) Rajasthan
National level in India according to (C) Cabinet Secretariat (C) Jharkhand
2011 Census? [HPPSC (Pre) 2010] (D) Ministry of Health (D) Bihar
(A) 326 persons per sq. kilometer 6. To eradicate the problem of pov- 10. Which of the following committees
(B) 367 persons per sq. kilometer erty, Twenty Point Economic Pro- is related to the estimation of
(C) 382 persons per sq. kilometer gramme was launched for the first poverty in India? [RAS (Pre) 2013]
(D) 398 persons per sq. kilometer time in India on [HCS (Pre) 2014] (A) Vijay Kelkar Committee
3. According to the Census 2011, the (A) 7th July, 1971 (B) Suresh Tendulkar Committee
percentage of India’s population to (B) 7th July, 1975 (C) S.P. Gupta Committee
the world population is (C) 26th January, 1951 (D) Lakdawala Committee
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012] (D) 15 August, 1983 11. Poverty level in India is established
(A) 16 (B) 16.5 7. Which among below is the on the basis of
(C) 17.5 (D) 18 economic effect of population [UPPCS (Mains) 2008, (Pre) 2009]
4. India is at which of following stages pressure in India? [HCS (Pre) 2014] (A) per capita income in different
of Demographic Transition? (A) Higher burden of unproductive states
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012] consumers on total population (B) household average income
(A) Population level stabilises with (B) Disintegration of family (C) household consumer
number of births and deaths (C) Overcrowding of cities expenditure
being low and equal (D) Ecological degradation (D) slum population in the country
(B) Birth rates and death rates are 8. When the population growth rate 12. Tendulkar Committee has
both low of an economy becomes greater estimated that in India the
(C) Reduction in birth rate but than the achievable economic percentage of the population below
the reduction in death rate is growth, it is known as poverty line is [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
higher than reduction in birth [HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) 27.2 (B) 37.2
rate (A) Population Explosion (C) 22 (D) 32.7
(D) Reduction in mortality rate
452 Objective General Studies
13. Who conducts the periodical (B) National Maternity Benefit (C) Reducing infant mortality rate
sample survey for estimating the Scheme (D) Privatisation of higher
poverty line in India? (C) Mahila Samakhya education
[HPPSC (Pre) 2016] (D) Reproductive and Child Health 28. When population experts refers to
(A) Niti Aayog Scheme the possible ‘Demographic Bonus’
(B) CSO 22. The concept of ‘Vicious Circle of that may accrue to India around
(C) NSSO Poverty’ is related to 2016, they are referring to phe-
(D) Ministry of Social Justice [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] nomenon of [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
14. How many people in India live (A) Karl Marx (A) a surge in population in
below poverty line? (B) Nurkse productive age group
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010] (C) Adam Smith (B) a sharp drop in total population
(A) 29.5% (B) 23.5% (D) None of these (C) a decline in birth and death
(C) 40.5% (D) 27.5% 23. Which among the following in India rates
15. According to Malthusian Theory of is the Nodal agency for estimation (D) a well balanced sex ratio
Population, population increases of poverty at the National and State 29. According to Census 2011, the
in [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] level? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] state having the highest density of
(A) Geometrical Progression (A) Finance Committee population is [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(B) Arithmetic Progression (B) Rural Ministry (A) Bihar
(C) Harmonic Progression (C) Home Ministry (B) Kerala
(D) None of the above (D) Planning Commission (C) Uttar Pradesh
16. In India, life expectancy is 24. The census projection report shows (D) West Bengal
[HPPSC (Pre) 2016] that India is one of the youngest 30. According to Census 2011, which
(A) 68.8 years (B) 71.2 years nation in the world. In year 2020, of the following states of India
(C) 75.5 years (D) 65.3 years average age of Indians will be of has lowest percentage of Urban
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016] population to its total population?
17. Which one of the following year
(A) 27 years [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
is known as the ‘year of the Great
Divide’ with regard to population (B) 28 years (A) Himachal Pradesh
after which there has been a (C) 29 years (B) Odisha
continuous and rapid growth in (D) 30 years (C) Jharkhand
India’s population? 25. Consider the following statements. (D) Rajasthan
[UPPCS (Pre) 2009] 1. Infant Mortality Rate takes into 31. According to Census 2011, the
(A) 1911 (B) 1921 accounts the death of infants most urbanised state of India is
(C) 1941 (D) 1951 within a month after birth. [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
18. Which one of the following pairs is 2. Infant Mortality Rate is the (A) Kerala
not correctly matched? number of infants deaths in a (B) Maharashtra
[UPPCS (Pre) 1997] particular year 100 live births (C) Goa
Decade Decadal growth during that year. (D) Nagaland
rate of population Which of the statement(s) given 32. Under the National Population
(in percent) above is/are correct? Policy 2000, the goal to attain
(A) 1971-1981 24.66 [UPSC (Pre) 2009] population stagnation has been
(B) 1981-1991 23.87 (A) Only 1 raised from 2045 to
(C) 1991-2001 21.54 (B) Only 2 [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(D) 2001-2011 19.05 (C) Both 1 and 2 (A) 2055
19. Population growth in India during (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (B) 2060
the decade 2001-2012 was 26. India is regarded as a country with (C) 2065
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014] ‘Demographic Dividend’. This is (D) 2070
(A) 17.6% (B) 19.5% due to [UPPSC (Pre) 2011] 33. As per Census 2011, the Total
(C) 21% (D) 22% (A) its high population in the age Fertility Rate of India is
20. The National Rural Health Mission group below 15 years [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
was launched on [UPPCS (Pre) 2005] (B) its high population in the age (A) 3.2
(A) August 15, 2002 group of 15-64 years (B) 2.9
(B) March 31, 2003 (C) its high population in the age (C) 2.6
group above 65 years (D) 2.4
(C) June 18, 2004
(D) April 12, 2005 (D) its high to total population 34. The size of marginal land-holding
21. The proposed ‘Janani Suraksha 27. To obtain full benefits of in India is [BPSC (Pre) 2018]
Scheme’ will replace demographic dividend what should (A) more than 5 hectares
[UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
India do? [UPSC (Pre) 2013] (B) 2 hectares to 4 hectares
(A) Maternity and Child Health (A) Promoting skill development (C) 1 hectare to 2 hectares
Scheme (B) Introducing more social (D) less than 1 hectare
security schemes
 Economic and Social Development 453
35. Find the correct poverty estimates (A) Central Council of Ministers Reason (R): 1951 is called the
for the given states in 2011-12, as (B) Lok Sabha demographic divide in India’s
per the Planning Commission. (C) Rajya Sabha demographic history.
[HPPSC (Pre) 2018] (D) Planning Commission (Niti Choose the correct answer from the
(A) Arunachal Pradesh Aayog) codes given below.
34.7%, 33.7%, 36.9%, 34.7% 37. Which of the following Committees [UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
(B) Bihar was set up in India for identification Code
39.9%, 36.9%, 39.9%, 33.7% of BPL families in Urban Areas? (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(C) Chhattisgarh [UPPCS (Pre) 2018] (R) is the correct explanation of
36.9%, 34.7%, 33.7%, 33.9% (A) Tendulkar Committee (A)
(D) Manipur (B) Saxena Committee (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
33.7%, 39.9%, 34.4%, 36.9% (C) Lakdawala Committee but (R) is not the correct
36. Which of the following fixes the (D) Hashim Committee explanation of (A)
poverty line in India? 38. Assertion (A): India has (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
[UPPCS (Pre) 2018] experienced a Phenomenal growth (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
of population since 1951.
Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (C)

21. Employment and Public Welfare Schemes

1. Which of the following plans is (A) 1st April, 2014 of ` 1,000, ` 5,000, ` 10,000
meant for constructing houses for (B) 28th August, 2014 and ` 50,000.
rural people? [UPPCS (Pre) 2011] (C) 26th January, 2015 2. There will be no upper ceiling
(A) Indra Avas Yojana (D) None of the above on investment.
(B) Ambedkar Avas Yojana 6. Disguised unemployment generally 3. No tax benefits would be
(C) PURA means [HPPSC (Pre) 2014] available on these investments.
(D) None of the above (A) large number of people remain Answer(s) is/are
2. Unemployment may result when unemployed [HPPSC (Pre) 2014]
some workers are temporarily out (B) alternative employment is not (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
of work while changing job available (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) All of these
[HCS (Pre) 2014] (C) marginal productivity of labour 9. Unemployment problem leads to
(A) Seasonal (B) Disguised is zero poverty because [UKPCS (Pre) 2011]
(C) Frictional (D) Technical (D) productivity of worker is low (A) people living below poverty
3. Trace the mismatch between 7. The Mudra Yojana of Government line increase
the policy and its year of of India is designed to (B) there is rapid increase in
announcement in the pairs given [RAS (Pre) 2015] population
below. [HCS (Pre) 2014] (A) initiate reforms in the currency (C) it increases inflation
(A) National Water Policy - 2002 management (D) it leads to rise in interest rate
(B) New National Forest Policy - (B) provide loans to poor farmers 10. Government of India has launched
1988 (C) supplement the Jan Dhan a scheme of ‘Housing for All’ by the
(C) New National Mineral Policy - Yojana year [RAS (Pre) 2015]
2008 (D) provide easy financial (A) 2020 (B) 2021
(D) National Population Policy - assistance to set up small (C) 2022 (D) 2023
2012 business 11. The thrust areas of Atal Mission
4. NREGA was renamed ‘MNREGA’ 8. Modi Government relaunched the for Rejuvenation and Urban
on [UKPCS (Pre) 2014] Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) investment Transformation (AMRUT) include
(A) 2nd October, 2007 scheme to tap household savings 1. Water supply
(B) 2nd February, 2008 for funding infrastructure 2. Sewerage facilities
(C) 2nd October, 2009 development in the country. 3. Public transport facilities
(D) 2nd October, 2010 Consider the following statements 4. Creation of parks and
5. Pradhan Mantri JAN DHAN about this and pick the correct recreation centres especially
YOJANA was launched on statement. for children
[HPPSC (Pre) 2015] 1. The saving instrument will be 5. Store water drain to reduce
available in the denomination flooding
454 Objective General Studies
Select the correct answer from the
codes given below. [RAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) 1, 2 and 5
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
12. AMRUT was launched on
[HPPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) 25 June, 2015 to improve basic
urban infrastructure in 500
cities
(B) 25 June, 2015 to improve basic
amenities in 500 cities
(C) 25 June, 2015 to improve basic
urban infrastructure in cities
(D) 25 June, 2016 to improve
availability of safe drinking
water in urban areas
13. Consider the following statements
about the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala
Yojana.
1. The scheme provides free
LPG connection to the women
belonging to Below Poverty
Line (BPL) households.
2. ` 8000 crore has been ear-
marked under the scheme.
3. The scheme provides a
financial support of ` 2800 for
each LPG connection to the BPL
households.
4. The scheme will benefit 5 crore
BPL families across the nation.
Which of the above statements are
correct? [RAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
14. Choose the correct answer in the
context of PAHAL scheme
[RAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) It is first variety of JAM
(B) It transfers LPG subsidy via
DBT
(C) It directly transfer LPG subsidy
into customer’s bank accounts
(D) All of the above are true
15. Scheme of Mid-day meals is not
concerned with [MPPCS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Educational Advancement
(B) Social Equity
(C) Right to Food
(D) Child Nutrition
16. Mid-day meal scheme is financed
and managed by
[UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Food and civil supply
department of State
Governments
(B) Department of Consumer
Affairs and Welfare
(C) Ministry of Programme
implementation
(D) Ministry of Human Resource
Development
17. What was unemployment rate
during 2015-16 based on Usual
Principal Status in India?
[HPPSC (Pre) 2016]
(A) 8.7% (B) 7.8%
(C) 5.0% (D) 4.2%
18. ‘Swadhar Yojana’ is related with
[UPPCS (Pre) 2004, 2013]
(A) strengthening architectural
monuments
(B) helping women in difficult
circumstances in life
(C) creating self employment
opportunities for technically
skilled persons
(D) providing training to workers
who have been prematurely
separated from the job
19. Which one of the following is true
for ‘Swajal dhara’ scheme?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2004]
(A) It is owned by the state
government
(B) It is owned by the central
government
(C) It is owned by state government
and local bodies
(D) It is owned by the central
government and the local
community
20. Which of the following items of
works are included in Bharat
Nirman? Find your answer with the
help of given codes.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
1. Accelerated irrigation benefits
programme
2. Inter-linking of River projects
3. Scheme for repair, renovation
and restoration of water bodies
4. Rehabilitation of displaced
persons due to irrigation
projects
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3
(D) All of four
21. National rural drinking water
programme is one of the
components of [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Social protection program
(B) Bharat Nirman
(C) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarojgar
Yojana
(D) Poverty Alleviation
programmes
22. Which one of the following is not
a component of ‘Bharat Nirman’
launched in 2005-2006?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015, 2016]
(A) Rural housing
(B) Drinking water
(C) Rural sanitation
(D) Rural roads
23. Which one of the following is not a
measure of reducing inequalities?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Minimum needs programme
(B) Liberalisation of economy
(C) Taxation
(D) Land Reforms
24. Consider following statements
about Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
and state which one of them is
incorrect? [UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
(A) It was launched during 2007-
2008
(B) It envisages an outlay of
` 25,000 crore for the Eleventh
Five Year Plan
(C) Additional central assistance
under the scheme would be
available as 80% grant to the
states
(D) Activities under yojana include
integrated development
of food crops, agriculture
mechanisation, development of
rainfed farming etc.
25. National Renewal Fund was
constituted for the purpose of
[UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Providing pension for retiring
employees
(B) Social security
(C) Rural reconstruction
(D) Restructuring and Modernisa-
tion of Industries
26. ‘Swabhiman Scheme’ launched in
India is associated with
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Rural women rights
(B) Rural old people care
(C) Rural banking
(D) Rural food security
27. ‘Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya
Yojana’ aims at [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Meeting rural needs like
primary education, healthcare,
drinking water, housing rural
roads
(B) Alleviating poverty through
micro-enterprises
(C) Generating employment in
rural area
(D) Strengthening Panchayati Raj
System in rural areas

28. Which one of the following age
groups is eligible for enrolment
under ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015, 2016]
(A) 6-14 years (B) 6-15 years
(C) 5-14 years (D) 5-15 years
29. The Employment Assurance
Scheme envisages financial
assistance to rural areas for
guaranteeing employment to at
least [UPPSC (Pre) 1999]
(A) 50% of the men and women
seeking jobs in rural areas
(B) 50% of the men seeking jobs in
rural areas
(C) one man and one woman in a
rural family living below the
poverty line
(D) one person in a rural landless
household living below the
poverty line
30. ‘..... Instill into the vast millions
of workers men and women
who actually do the job a sense
partnership and of cooperative
performance ...’
The above passage relates to
[UPSC (Pre) 2000]
(A) Planned Development
(B) Community Development
Programme
(C) Panchayati Raj System
(D) Integrated Development
Programme
31. When was the Community
Development Programme started
in India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) 2nd October, 1950 A.D.
(B) 2nd October, 1951 A.D.
(C) 2nd October, 1952 A.D.
(D) 2nd October, 1953 A.D.
32. When did the Community
Development Programme start in
India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) 1958 (B) 1955
(C) 1952 (D) 1951
33. With reference to power sector
in India, consider the following
statements.
1. Rural electrification has been
treated as a basic minimum
service under the Prime
Minister’s Gramodaya Yojana.
2. 100% Foreign Direct
Investment in power is allowed
without upper limit.
3. The Union Ministry of Power
has signed a memorandum of
understanding with 14 states.
Which of these statement(s) is/are
Economic and Social Development 455
correct? [UPSC (Pre) 2001]
(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) Only 3
34. Which of the following is not
the recommendation of the task
force on direct taxes under the
chairmanship of Dr. Vijay Kelkar in
the year 2002? [UPPSC (Pre) 2004]
(A) Abolition of wealth tax
(B) Increase in the exemption limit
of personal income to ` 1.20
lakh for widows
(C) Elimination of standard
deduction
(D) Exemption from tax on
dividends and capital gains
from the listed equity
35. What is the name of the scheme
which provides training and skills
to women in traditional and non-
traditional trades?
[UPPSC (Pre) 2008]
(A) Kishori Shakti Yojana
(B) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
(C) Swayamsiddha
(D) Swawlamban
36. Consider the following statements
with reference to Indira Gandhi
National Old Age Pension Scheme
(IGNOAPS).
1. All persons of 60 years or above
belonging to the households
below poverty line in rural
areas are eligible.
2. The central assistance
under this scheme is at the
rate of ` 300 per month per
beneficiary. Under the scheme,
states have been urged to give
matching amounts.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[UPSC (Pre) 2008]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
37. With reference to the schemes
launched by the Union
Government, consider the
following statements.
1. Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare launched the Rashtriya
Swasthya Bima Yojana.
2. Ministry of Textiles launched
the Rajiv Gandhi Shilpi
Swasthya Bima Yojana.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[UPSC (Pre) 2009]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
38. In the context of Indian economy,
consider the following pairs.
Term Most
Appropriate
Description
1. Melt down - Fall in stock
prices
2. Recession - Fall in growth
rate
3. Slow down - Fall in GDP
Which of the pair(s) given above
is/are correctly matched?
[UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
39. In order to comply with TRIPS
agreement, India enacted the
geographical Indications of goods.
(Registration and protection) Act,
1999. The difference between a
‘Trade Mark’ and a geographical
Indication is/are
1. A trademark is an individual
or a company’s right whereas a
geographical indication cannot
be licensed.
2. A trademark can be licensed
whereas a geographical
indication is assigned to the
agricultural goods/products
and handicraft only.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[Punjab PSC (Pre) 2017
UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Only 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
40. With reference to the National
Investment Fund which of the
disinvestment proceeds are routed,
consider the following statements.
1. The assets in the National
Investment Fund are managed
by the Union Ministry of
Finance.
2. The National Investment Fund
is to be maintained within the
consolidation fund of India.
3. Certain Asset Management
companies are appointed as the
fund manager.
4. A certain proportion of annual
income is used for financing
select social sectors.
456 Objective General Studies
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(C) 3 and 4 (D) Only 3
41. Two of the schemes launched by the
Government of India for women’s
development are Swadhar and
Swayam Siddha. As regards the
difference between them, consider
the following statements.
1. Swayam Siddha’s is meant for
those in difficult circumstances
such as women survivors
of natural disasters or
terrorism, women prisoners
released from jails, mentally
challenged women etc.,
whereas, Swadhar is meant
for holistic empowerment of
women through self help group
(SHGs).
2. Swayam Siddha is implemented
through local seld government
bodies or reputed voluntary
organisations whereas
Swadhar is implemented
through the ICDS units set up in
the states.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?
[UPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Mid-day Meal Scheme was
launched in 1995 to promote
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Adult literacy
(B) Universalisation of primary
education
(C) Secondary education
(D) None of the above
43. ‘Skill Development Initiative’ has
been operationalised in
[UPSC (Mains) 2010]
(A) February, 2005
(B) March, 2005
(C) May, 2007
(D) April, 2010
44. In which year Family Planning
Programme was started in India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) 1950 (B) 1951
(C) 1952 (D) 1955
45. Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan started
recently by Government of India
related to [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) making Ganga, pollution free
(B) making the environment
country pollution free
(C) making the urban areas of the
country pollution free
(D) ending the Open Latrine
System in Rural areas
46. ‘Small Farmers Development’
Programme was started in the year
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) 1974 (B) 1967
(C) 1980 (D) 1961
47. PURA (Providing Urban Amenities
in Rural Areas) an ambitious
programme on Rural Development
was introduced by
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) M.S. Swaminathan
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
48. Which one of the following
statements is not true about
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima
Yojana? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) It is a personal accident cover
(B) It is open to anyone between
the age of 18 and 50 years
(C) It is open to anyone between
the age of 18 and 70 years
(D) Premium payable is ` 12 per
annum
49. Which one of the following is not
included in Eight Missions under
India’s National Action Plan on
Climate Change?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Solar Power
(B) Afforestation
(C) Nuclear Power
(D) Waste to energy conversion
50. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and
Urban Transformation (AMRUT) is
associated with revamping of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Urban infrastructure
(B) Urban sanitation
(C) Urban health
(D) Urban education
51. How many minimum hours of
power supply is assured for rural
agriculture purpose in ‘Atal Jyoti
Yojana-2013’? [MPPSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 14 (D) 16
52. Which organisation is giving
financial support for ‘Tejaswini
Rural Women’s Empowerment
Programme’? [MPPSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) IMF (B) IFC
(C) IFAD (D) IIMA
53. What is the bank amount available
to Dalits and Women under
‘Standup India’? [HPPSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) 1-10 lakh
(B) 10-50 lakh
(C) 10 lakh-1 crore
(D) 50 lakh-1 crore
54. How many poor families will be
provided with how much medical
insurance per family in 2018-19?
[HPPSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) 10 crore and 3 lakh
(B) 5 crore and 5 lakh
(C) 10 crore and 5 lakh
(D) 3 crore and 10 lakh
55. Which of the following is the largest
rural employment programme in
India? [UPPCS (Pre) 2018]
(A) MNREGA
(B) TRYSEM
(C) Work for food
(D) Skill Development Programme
56. Which of the following is measured
by the Lorenz Curve?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2018]
(A) Illiteracy
(B) Unemployment
(C) Population growth rate
(D) Inequality of Income
57. Which of the following is/are aim/
aims of ‘Digital India’ Plan of the
Government of India?
1. Formation of India’s own
Internet companies like China
did.
2. Established a policy framework
to encourage overseas
multinational corporations
that collect Big Data to build
their large data centers within
our national geographical
boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages
to the internet and bring Wi-Fi
to many of our schools, public
places major tourist centres.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
[UPSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
58. With reference to Pradhan Mantri
Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the
following statements.
1. It is the flagship scheme of
the Ministry of Labour and
Employment.
 Economic and Social Development 457
2. It among other things, will also (c) Pradhanmantri Jan Dhan given below the lists.
impart training in soft skills, Yojana [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
entrepreneurship, financial (d) Swavlamban Scheme List-I
and digital literacy. List-II (Its contact) (a) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
3. It aims to align the competencies 1. Women Empowerment (b) Sakshar Bharat
of the unregulated workforce (c) Operation Blackboard
2. Financial Inclusion
of the country to the National
3. New pension system (d) National Literacy Mission
Skill Qualification Framework.
4. IT Training List-II
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? Code 1. 1987 2. 1988
[UPSC (Pre) 2018 (a) (b) (c) (d) 3. 2001 4. 2009
Assam PSC (Pre) 2018] (A) 4 2 3 1 Code
(A) Only 1 and 3 (B) 1 4 2 3 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) Only 2 (C) 2 3 4 1 (A) 1 2 3 4
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 3 1 2 4 (B) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 1 3 4
61. Match List-I with List-II and select
59. With reference to digital payments, the correct answer using the codes (D) 3 4 1 2
consider the following statements. given below the lists. 63. Match List-I with List-II and select
1. BHIM app allows the user to [UPPCS (Pre) 2004] the correct answer using the codes
transfer money to anyone with given below the lists.
List-I
a UPI-enabled bank account. [UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(a) Swajaldhara Yojana
2. While a chip-pin debit card has List-I
(b) Hariyali Yojana
four factors of authentication, (a) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
BHIM app has only two factors (c) Swarn Jayanti Gram Swarojgar
Yojana (b) Mahila Samriddhi Yojana
of authentication. (c) Indira Mahila Yojana
(d) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
Which of the statement(s) given (d) Mahila Samakhya Programme
Yojana
above is/are correct? List-II
[UPSC (Pre) 2018] List-II
1. Rural connectivity 1. Empowerment of women
(A) Only 1 2. Education for women’s equality
2. Rural water supply
(B) Only 2 3. Promotion of savings among
3. Watershed Management
(C) Both 1 and 2 rural women
4. Rural self employment
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Meeting credit needs of the
Code
60. Match List-I with List-II and select poor women
(a) (b) (c) (d)
the correct answer by using the Code
(A) 3 2 4 1
codes given below the lists. (a) (b) (c) (d)
[RAS (Pre) 2015] (B) 2 4 1 3
(A) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
List-I (B) 1 3 4 2
(D) 2 3 4 1
(a) Nai Roshni Programme (C) 4 3 2 1
62. Match List-I with List-II and select
(b) DISHA the correct answer using the codes (D) 4 1 2 3

Answer Sheet
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (B)
31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (C)
41. (D) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (A)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (C) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (D) 62. (D) 63. (C)
458 Objective General Studies
1. Which one of the following pairs is
correctly matched?
[HPPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Central Statistical Organisation
(CSO) - Fiscal Policy
(B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) -
Credit Policy
(C) National Council for Applied
Economics Research (NCAER)
- India Economic Survey
(D) Planning Commission - Compu-
tation of National Income
2. Which one of the following
represents atleast in part
investment in Human Capital?
[HPPSC (Pre) 2010]
(A) Formal education
(B) On the job training
(C) Better health care and nutrition
(D) All of the above
3. What is meant by Autarky in
International trade?[HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Monopoly in international
trade
(B) Imposition of restriction in
international trade
(C) Removal of all restrictions from
international trade
(D) The idea of self-sufficiency
and no international trade by a
country
4. Which country was the first to
adopt a gold standard in the
modern sense? [HCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Italy (B) France
(C) Great Britain (D) Portugal
5. Among the following sectors,
which contributes most to the
savings, in India [UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Banking and Financial sector
(B) Export sector
(C) Household sector
(D) Private corporate sector
6. Krishi Shramik Samajik Suraksha
Yojana is a scheme for providing
[UPPCS (Pre) 2003]
(A) improved quality of life at
village level
(B) additional wage employment
(C) pension and insurance benefits
(D) subsidised housing facilities
7. Which of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2004]
(A) SEBI - Security Market
Regulatory Body
(B) RBI - Banking Regulatory
Authority
22. Miscellaneous
(C) IDBI - World Bank (A) high birth rate
(D) SBI - Commercial Bank (B) low level of foreign aid
8. ‘Green Index’ has been developed (C) low capital/output ratio
by [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] (D) high capital/output ratio
(A) United Nations Environment 14. Which one of the following is
Programme correct regarding stabilisation
(B) International Monetary Fund and structural adjustment as two
(IMF) components of the new economic
(C) World Bank policy adopted in India?
(D) None of the above [UPSC (Pre) 1996]
9. Consider the following events and (A) Stabilisation is a gradual,
arrange these in Chronological Multi-step process while
Order. structural adjustment is a quick
1. Garibi Hatao adaptation process
2. Bank Nationalisation (B) Structural adjustment is a
3. Beginning of Green Revolution gradual multi-step process,
while stabilisation is a quick
Select correct answer from the
adaption process
codes given below.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (C) Stabilisation and structural
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 3, 2 and 1 adjustment are very similar and
(C) 2, 1 and 3 (D) 3, 1 and 2 complementary policies. It is
difficult to separate one from
10. Which of the following Economists
propagated the pure Monetary the other
Theory of Trade Cycle? (D) Stabilisation mainly deals with
[UKPCS (Pre) 2014] a set of policies which are to be
(A) Hawtrey implemented by the Central
(B) Hayek Government while structural
adjustment is to be set in motion
(C) Keynes
by the State Governments
(D) Hicks
15. Hawala transactions relate to
11. Consider the following statements.
payments [UPSC (Pre) 1996]
The objectives of the National
(A) received in rupees against
Renewal Fund setup in February,
overseas currencies and vice-
1992 were
versa without going through
1. To give training and counseling the official channels
for workers affected by
(B) received for sale/transfer of
retrenchment.
shares without going through
2. Redevelopment of workers. the established stock exchanges
Which of these statement(s) is/are
(C) received as commission for
correct? [UPSC (Pre) 2001]
services rendered to overseas
(A) Neither 1 nor 2 investors/buyers/seller in
(B) Both 1 and 2 assisting them to get ever the
(C) Only 1 red tape and / as in getting
(D) Only 2 preferential treatment
12. Unemployment and poverty (D) made to political parties or to
estimates in India are based on individuals for meeting election
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2016] expense
(A) NSSO household consumption 16. A consumer is said to be in
expenditure survey equilibrium, if [UPSC (Pre) 1998]
(B) CSO household consumption
(A) he is able to fulfil his need with
expenditure survey
a given level of income
(C) Planning Commission’s
household Consumption (B) he is able to live in full comforts
expenditure survey with a given level of income
(D) NSSO family income survey (C) he can fulfil his needs without
13. The main reason for low growth consumption of certain items
rate in India inspite of high rate of (D) he is able to locate new sources
savings and capital formation is of income
[UPSC (Pre) 1995]
 Economic and Social Development 459
17. The supply-side economics lays (C) Tax reforms and measures to 27. In terms of PPP the Indian
greater emphasis on the point of increase revenues economy’s rank in the world is
view of [UPSC (Pre) 1998] (D) Price reforms in the oil sector [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) Producer 22. Which one of the following brings (A) 3rd (B) 4th
(B) Global economy out the publication called Energy (C) 6th (D) 10th
(C) Consumer Statistics from time-to-time? 28. Which one of the following pairs is
(D) Middle-man [UPSC (Pre) 2009] not correctly matched?
18. Consider the following statements. (A) Central Power Research [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
Industrial development in India, to Institute (A) Goiporia Committee - Banking
an extent, is constrained by (B) Planning Commission Service Improvement
1. Lack of adequate entrepreneur- (C) Power Finance Corporation (B) Nanjundappa Committee -
ship and leadership in business. Limited Railway fares
2. Lack of savings to invest. (D) Central Statistical Organisation (C) Rangrajan Committee - Balance
3. Lack of technology, skills and 23. Among the following, which one of Payments
infrastructure. of the following was the purpose (D) Rekhi Committee -
4. Limited purchasing power for which the Deepak Parekh Simplification Export & Import
among the larger masses. Committee was constituted? 29. Despite being a high saving
[UPSC (Pre) 2009]
Which of the above statements are economy, capital formation may
correct? [UPSC (Pre) 1999]
(A) The study the current Socio- not result in significant increase in
economic conditions of certain output due to [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
minority communities
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 (A) weak administrative machinery
(B) To suggest measures for
19. Tourism industry in India is quite (B) illiteracy
financing the development of
small compared to many other infrastructure (C) high population density
countries in terms of India’s (C) To fame a policy on the (D) high capital-output ratio
potential and size. Which one of production of genetically 30. The first Union Territory of India to
the following statements is correct modified organisms run 100% on solar energy is
in this regard? [UPSC (Pre) 1999] [UP RO (Pre) 2018]
(D) To suggest measures to reduce
(A) Distances in India are too far the fiscal deficit in the Union (A) Chandigarh
apart and its luxury hotels Budget (B) Diu
are too expensive for western
24. Sustainable development is (C) Andaman-Nicobar
tourists
described as the development (D) Puducherry
(B) For most of the months India is that meet the needs of the present
too hot for western tourists to 31. According to India, State of Forest
without compromising the ability Report 2017, what percentage
feel comfortable of future generations to meet the
(C) Most of the picturesque resorts of total geographical area of the
needs perspective, inherently country is under forest cover?
in India such as in the North- the concept of sustainable
East and Kashmir are, for all [UP RO (Pre) 2018]
development is interwined with
practical purposes, out of which of the following concepts? (A) 21.04 (B) 21.54
bounds [UPSC (Pre) 2009] (C) 20.54 (D) 20.04
(D) In India, the infrastructure (A) Social Justice and 32. If a commodity is provided free
required for attractive tourists empowerment to the public by the Government,
is inadequate then [UPSC (Pre) 2018]
(B) Inclusive growth
20. In the context of independent (C) Globalisation (A) the opportunity cost is zero
India’s economy, which one of the (B) the opportunity cost is ignored
(D) Carrying capacity
following was the earliest event to (C) the opportunity cost is
take place? [UPSC (Pre) 2009] 25. In which of the following financial
years and the devaluation of rupee transferred from the consumers
(A) Nationalisation of Insurance of the product to the tax-paying
in India took place twice?
Company public
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(B) Nationalisation of State Bank of (D) the opportunity cost is
India (A) 1966-67 (B) 1991-92
transferred from the
(C) Entactment of Banking (C) 1990-91 (D) 1989-90
consumers of the product to the
Regulation Act 26. RBI has cleared the resolution to Government
(D) Introduction of first Five Year start Payment Banks in India for
33. As per the NSSO 70th Round
Plan improving Financial inclusion.
‘Situation Assessment Survey of
Following committee had recom-
21. With which one of the following Agricultural Households’, consider
mended the creation of Payment
has the B.K. Chaturvedi Committee the following statements.
Banks. [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
dealt? [UPSC (Pre) 2009] 1. Rajasthan has the highest
(A) Arvind Mayaram
(A) Review of Centre - State percentage share of agricultural
relations (B) Y.V. Reddy households among its rural
(B) Review of Delimitation Act (C) Bimal Jalan households.
(D) Nachiket Mor
460 Objective General Studies
2. Out of the total agricultural (c) Monetary Policy given below the lists.
households in the country, a (d) Indian Economy Planning and [UPSC (Pre) 1997]
little over 60 percent belong to State Land Reforms List-I (Committees)
OBCs. (e) Fiscal Policy (a) Disinvestment of Shares in
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 List-II (Name) Public Sector Enterprises
percent of agricultural 1. M. Govinda Rao (b) Industrial sickness
households reported to have (c) Tax Reforms
2. C. Rangrajan
received maximum income
3. Arvind Panagariya (d) Reforms in Insurance sector
from sources other than
agricultural activities. 4. Ashok Gulati List-II (Chaired by)
Which of the statement(s) given 5. Parthasarthy Shome 1. Rajah Chelliah
above is/are correct? Code 2. Omkar Goswami
[UPSC (Pre) 2018] (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 3. R.N. Malhotra
(A) Only 2 and 3 (A) 2 4 1 3 5 4. C. Rangarajan
(B) Only 2 (B) 1 4 3 2 5 Code
(C) Only 1 and 3 (C) 5 4 2 3 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(D) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 5 4 3 2 1 (A) 1 4 2 3
34. Consider the following statements. 36. Assertion (A): An important (B) 4 2 1 3
1. The quantity of imported edible policy instrument of economic (C) 4 1 2 3
oils is more than the domestic liberalisation is reduction in import (D) 1 3 4 2
production of edible oils in the duties on capital good. 38. Match List-I with List-II and select
last five years. Reason (R): Reduction in the correct answer using the codes
2. The Government does not import duties would help the given below the lists.
impose any custom duty on all local entrepreneurs to improve [UPPCS (Mains) 2015
the imported edible oils as a technology to face the global Manipur PSC (Pre) 2016]
special case. markets. List-I
Which of the statement(s) given In the context of above two (a) Dutt Committee (1969)
above is/are correct? statements, which one of the (b) Wanchoo Committee (1971)
[UPSC (Pre) 2018 following is correct?
(c) Rajmannar Committee (1971)
Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2016] [UPSC (Pre) 1996
Kerala PSC (Pre) 2017]
(d) Chakarvarty Committee (1985)
(A) Only 1 List-II
(B) Only 2 Code
1. Industrial Licensing
(C) Both 1 and 2 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of 2. Direct taxes
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) 3. Centre-State
35. Match List-I with List-II and select 4. Monetary system
the correct answer using the codes (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
given below the lists. but (R) is not the correct Code
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2015] explanation of (A) (a) (b) (c) (d)
List-I (Specialisation) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (A) 1 2 3 4
(a) Taxation (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true (B) 1 2 4 3
(b) Agriculture 37. Match List-I with List-II and select (C) 4 3 2 1
the correct answer using the codes (D) 4 1 3 2

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (D) 30. (B)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (A)
 Environment and Ecology 461

7
Environment
and Ecology
1. Environment and Sustainable Development
1. The Environment (Protection) Act 7. The Decade of Sustainable Energy 13. What was the title of the Rio-20
of India was enacted in for all is the initiative of declaration?
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2013] [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) 1981 (B) 1986 (A) United Nations (A) The future we want
(C) 1995 (D) 2000 (B) India (B) The future we seek
2. In which of the following years was (C) Germany (C) The future we have
passed the Environment Protection (D) World Bank (D) The future we see
Act? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] 8. A country’s natural capital included 14. The first ‘Earth Summit’ was held at
(A) 1982 (B) 1986 all of the following except [MPPCS (Pre) 1998]
(C) 1990 (D) 1994 [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] (A) Washington
3. Environment refers to (A) Forest (B) Water (B) Geneva
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006] (C) Roads (D) Minerals (C) Rio-de-Janeiro
(A) The natural world of land, 9. The World Environment Day is (D) Buenos Aires
water, air, plants and animals celebrated on 15. International Conference held in
that exists around it [UPPCS (Mains) 2014, 11, 04 Rio-de-Janeiro was
(B) The sum total of conditions UPPCS (Pre) 2012 [MPPCS (Pre) 1992]
which surround human beings Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006] (A) United Nations Conference on
at a given point of time Sustainable Development
(A) 1 December
(C) The interacting system of (B) Environment and Pollution
physical, biological and cultural (B) 5 June
(C) 14 November Summit
elements which are interlinked (C) International new Economics
(D) All of the above (D) 15 August
(D) None of the above
4. Which of the following is not 10. The main role of solar radiation is
in [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004 16. What is the thin layer of gases
related to environment protection? around the earth called?
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2013] UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
[44th BPSC (Pre) 2000]
(A) Sustainable Development (A) Carbon cycle
(B) Hydrogen cycle (A) Biosphere
(B) Poverty Alleviation (B) Water particle
(C) Air Conditioning (C) Water cycle
(D) Nitrogen cycle (C) Atmosphere
(D) Use of Paper Bags (D) Hydrosphere
5. Environment is composite state of 11. National Environmental Engineer-
ing Research Institute is situated 17. Air is a/an [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
at [UPPCS (Pre) 2014, 12 (A) Compound (B) Element
(A) Biotic factors UPPCS (Mains) 2011, 05 (C) Mixture (D) Electrolyte
(B) Physiographic factors Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010] 18. Percentage of nitrogen in dry air
(C) Abiotic factors (A) Bangalore (B) Hyderabad [MPPCS (Pre) 1990]
(D) All of the above (C) Nagpur (D) New Delhi (A) 21% (B) 27%
6. Sustainable development is a 12. What is important for Sustainable (C) 50% (D) 78%
matter of inter-generational sensi- Development?
bility in respect of use of 19. Which of the following is considered
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004] to be the optimum concentration of
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017 (A) Conservation of biological
UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
carbon dioxide for natural balance
diversity in atmosphere?
(A) Natural resources (B) Prevention and Control of [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(B) Material resources Pollution (A) 0.02% (B) 0.03%
(C) Industrial resources (C) Decreasing poverty (C) 0.04% (D) 0.05%
(D) Social resources (D) All of the above
462 Objective General Studies
20. Which one of the following Noble (B) Nairobi 37. What is Rio+20 Conference, often
Gases is not present in air? (C) New York mentioned in the news?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2005] (D) Washington D.C. [Telangana PSC (Pre) 2019
(A) Helium (B) Argon 29. What does EPA stand for? IAS (Pre) 2015]
(C) Radon (D) Neon [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003] (A) It is the United Nations
21. In atmosphere, the highest (A) Environment Pollution Agency Conference on Sustainable
percentage is of (B) Environmental Prohibition Development
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Mains) 2007] Agency (B) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the
(A) Oxygen (C) Environmental Protection World Trade Organization
(B) Carbon dioxide Agency (C) It is a Conference of the Inter-
(C) Nitrogen (D) None of the above governmental Panel on Climate
Change
(D) Hydrogen 30. N.E.A. stands for
(D) It is a Conference of the Member
22. The highest percentage of gas in the [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2003]
Countries of the Convention on
air is [41st BPSC (Pre) 1996] (A) National Enquiry Act Biological Diversity.
(A) Hydrogen (B) National Environment Autho- 38. In the year 1997, the World Envi-
(B) Carbon dioxide rity ronment conference was organised
(C) Oxygen (C) National Examination Agency in [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(D) Nitrogen (D) National Event Association (A) Rio-de-Janeiro
23. If all the plants and trees vanish 31. The headquarters of the Green (B) Nairobi
from the earth, the gas which will Peace International is located at (C) Kyoto
decrease is [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012] [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(D) New York
(A) Carbon dioxide (A) Amsterdam (B) Canberra
39. National Green Tribunal (NGT)
(B) Nitrogen (C) Ottawa (D) Nagasaki was established by the Government
(C) Water vapour 32. Eco-Mark is given to an Indian of India in [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(D) Oxygen product which is [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] (A) 2008 (B) 2009
24. Which of the following is not a (A) Pure and unadulterated (C) 2010 (D) 2011
function of the tree? (B) Rich in protein 40. The author of ‘Green Development’
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 1993] (C) Environment-friendly is [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019
(A) Absorption of carbon dioxide (D) Economically viable UPPCS (Pre) 2011]
(B) Absorption of noise 33. To label environment-friendly (A) M.J. Bradshaw
(C) Air pollution consumer products, Government (B) M. Nicolson
(D) Releasing oxygen has introduced (C) R.H. Whittaker
25. Which of the following does not [Tripura PSC (Pre) 2018
(D) W.M. Adams
add the carbon dioxide to carbon UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
41. The Earth Summit + 5 was held in
cycle on the planet Earth? (A) Agmark (B) Eco mark
[West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012] (C) ISI mark (D) Water mark UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Respiration 34. Sustainable agriculture means (A) 2005 (B) 2000
(B) Photosynthesis [UPPCS (Pre) 2001]
(C) 1999 (D) 1997
(C) Decay of organic matter (A) Self-sufficiency
42. Many transplanted seedlings do not
(D) Volcanic action (B) To be able to export and import grow because [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018
26. The concept of weathering relates under WTO norms IAS (Pre) 2013]
to [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006] (C) To utilise land so that its quality
(A) The new soil does not contain
(A) Deposition of decomposed remains intact
favourable minerals
material (D) To utilise Wasteland for
(B) Most of the root hairs grip the
(B) Change in weather conditions agricultural purposes
new soil too hard
day to day 35. Which one of the following States (C) Most of the root hairs are lost
(C) Natural process leading to the in India has recently introduced the during transplantation
decomposition of rocks ‘Greenhouse Farming’?
(D) Leaves get damaged during
(D) None of the above [UPPCS (Pre) 2003, 01]
transplantation
27. The headquarter of World Meteo- (A) Haryana
43. Environmental degradation means
rological Organization is located at (B) Punjab [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2017
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] (C) Maharashtra UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Geneva (B) Rome (D) Uttar Pradesh (A) overall degradation of
(C) Sidney (D) Tokyo 36. Urbanization and industrialization environmental attributes
28. Where is the headquarter of the is harmful [UPPCS (Mains) 2002] (B) adverse changes brought in by
United Nations Environment (A) For balanced development human activities
Programme (UNEP)? (B) Environment and ecology (C) ecological imbalance because
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016] (C) For biodiversity conservation of ecological diversity
(A) The Hague (D) All of the above (D) All of the above

44. Concerning ‘Global Environment
Facility’, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
[Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016
IAS (Pre) 2014]
(A) It serves as financial mechanism
for ‘Convention on Biological
Diversity’ and ‘United Nations
Framework Convention on
Climate Change’
(B) It undertakes scientific research
on environmental issues at
global level
(C) It is an agency under OECD
to facilitate the transfer of
technology and funds to under-
developed countries with
specific aim to protect their
environment
(D) Both (A) and (B)
45. Plachimada which has been in the
news for immense damage to its
environment lies in
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2009]
(A) Karnataka (B) Konkan
(C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu
46. Environment Protection Act (EPA)
is also known as [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Umbrella Legislation
(B) Chhadi Mubarak
(C) Environment Legislation
(D) Eco Safety Law
47. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee is constituted under the
[IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Food Safety and Standards Act,
2006
(B) Geographical Indications of
Goods (Registration and Pro-
tection) Act, 1999
(C) Environment (Protection) Act,
1986
(D) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
48. As a result of their annual survey,
the National Geographic Society
and an international polling firm
Globe Scan gave India top rank in
Greendex 2009 score. What is this
score? [IAS (Pre) 2010]
(A) It is a measure of efforts
made by different countries
in adopting technologies for
reducing carbon footprint
(B) It is a measure of environmen-
tally sustainable consumer be-
haviour in different countries
(C) It is an assessment of pro-
grams/schemes undertaken by
different countries for improv-
ing the conservation of natural
resources
(D) It is an index showing the
volume of carbon credits sold
by different countries
49. Which one of the following is the
best strategy for environment-
friendly sustainable development
in Indian agriculture?
[IAS (Pre) 1993]
(A) Expansion of cultivable land,
increased use of superphos-
phate, urea and effective bio-
cides
(B) Wider popularization of
high-yielding crop varieties,
better aid more frequent irriga-
tion and increased frequency of
aerial span of inorganic fertiliz-
ers and pesticides
(C) Mixed cropping, organic ma-
nures, nitrogen-fixing plants
and pest resistant crop varieties
(D) Improved farm implements and
machinery, use of potent insec-
ticides to minimize post-har-
vest grain losses and monocul-
ture cropping practices
50. The investigator of Natural Farming
was [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2018
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Masanobu Fukuoka
(B) M.S. Randhawa
(C) M.S. Swaminathan
(D) Normal Borlaug
51. Which country introduced Green
Army environment conservation?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Japan (B) China
(C) Australia (D) Egypt
52. The National Green Tribunal Act,
2010 was enacted in consonance
with which of the following
provisions of the Constitution of
India?
1. Right to a healthy environment,
construed as a part of Right to
Life under Article 21.
2. Provision of grants for raising
the level of administration in
the Scheduled Areas for the
welfare of Scheduled Tribes
under Article 275(1).
3. Powers and functions of Gram
Sabha as mentioned under
Article 243(A).
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
53. Consider the following statements.
1. The Sustainable Development
Goals were first proposed in
Environment and Ecology 463
1972 by a global think tank
called the ‘Club of Rome’.
2. The Sustainable Development
Goals have to be achieved by
2030.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
54. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’,
sometimes seen in the news,
consider the following statements.
1. It is a global action plan for
sustainable development.
2. It originated in the World Sum-
mit on Sustainable Develop-
ment held in Johannesburg in
2002.
Which of the following statements
given above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
55. Which of the following is related
with Protection of Ecological
Balance?
1. Forest Policy
2. Environment Protection Act
3. Industrial Policy
4. Educational Policy
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
[Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All of these
56. Given below are two statements.
Assertion (A): Natural vegetation
is the true index of climate.
Reason (R): Water-loving plants
are found in a moist climate.
In the context of the above, which
one of the following is correct?
[Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
464 Objective General Studies
57. Consider the following. 4. Volcanic action (A) 1 and 4
1. Photosynthesis Which of the above add carbon (B) 2 and 3
2. Respiration dioxide to the carbon cycle on (C) 2, 3 and 4
3. Decay of organic matter Earth? [IAS (Pre) 2014, 11] (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (B)
31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (D)
41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (A)
51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (B) 54. (A) 55. (D) 56. (A) 57. (C)

2. Ecology
1. Which of the following is not true (A) Rice field (B) Forest 12. Which one of the following is one
about the ecosystem? (C) Grassland (D) Lake of the main causes of ecological
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014] 7. The number of organisms that can imbalance in India?
(A) It represents all living organ- be supported by the environment in [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012]
isms and physical environment a given area is known as (A) Deforestation
in any given space-time unit [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (B) Desertification
(B) It is a functional unit (A) Population (C) Floods and Famines
(C) It has own productivity (B) Carrying Capacity (D) Rainfall variations
(D) It is a closed system (C) Pyramid of number or biomass 13. Which of the following is an act that
2. Which one of the following is (D) None of the above disturbs the ecological balance?
the best description of the term 8. Which one of the following terms [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014]
‘ecosystem’? [IAS (Pre) 2015] describes not only the physical (A) Lumbering
(A) A community of organisms space occupied by an organism, (B) Social forestry
interacting with one another but also its functional role in the (C) Vanamahotsav
(B) That part of the Earth which is community of organisms? (D) Afforestation
inhabited by living organisms [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017 14. The highest trophic level in an
(C) A community of organisms IAS (Pre) 2013] ecosystem is obtained by
together with the environment (A) Ecotone [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
in which they live (B) Ecological niche (A) Herbivores
(D) Flora and fauna of a geographi- (C) Habitat (B) Carnivores
cal area (D) Home range (C) Omnivores
3. ‘Ecology’ is the study of relationship 9. Which one of the following (D) Decomposers
between [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014] ecosystems covers the largest area 15. Which of the following is not a
(A) Organism and environment of the earth’s surface? biotic component of an ecosystem?
(B) Man and forest [Telangana PSC (Pre) 2019 [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(C) Soil and water UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2003]
(A) Air (B) Plant
(D) Husband and wife (A) Desert Ecosystem (C) Bacteria (D) Animals
4. The term Ecosystem was proposed (B) Grassland Ecosystem
16. The primary source of energy in
by [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019 (C) Mountain Ecosystem Eco-body is [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2017
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005] (D) Marine Ecosystem UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) G. Tailor 10. Which one of the following is the (A) Energy emitted by fermentation
(B) E. Hartigan largest ecosystem of the world? (B) Preserved vegetable sugar
(C) D.R. Stoddart [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(C) Solar energy
(D) Tansley (A) Ocean (B) Grassland (D) None of the above
5. Which of the following is an (C) Forest (D) Mountains
17. In a food chain, man is
artificial ecosystem? 11. Which of the following does not [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013] help to maintain ecological bal- UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Ponds (B) Field ance? [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2013]
(A) producer
(C) Forest (D) None of these (A) Cutting forest (B) only primary consumer
6. Which of the following is an (B) Afforestation (C) only secondary consumer
artificial ecosystem? (C) Rainwater Management (D) primary as well as secondary
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (D) Biosphere Reserves consumer
 Environment and Ecology 465
18. 10% law is related with it has been introduced into the 36. Which one of the following is the
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016] ecosystem? [IAS (Pre) 1997] correct sequence of ecosystems
(A) transfer of energy as food from (A) Grasshopper (B) Toad in the order of decreasing
one tropic level to other (C) Snake (D) Cattle productivity? [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(B) transfer of heat from one 27. Which one of the following trees is (A) Oceans, lakes, grasslands,
matter to another not Eco-friendly? mangroves
(C) transfer of birds from one zone [UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010 (B) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands,
to another UPPCS (Mains) 2011] lakes
(D) transfer of water from one zone (A) Babul (B) Eucalyptus (C) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes,
to another (C) Neem (D) Pipal oceans
19. In the marine environment, the 28. Which one of the following trees is (D) Oceans, mangroves, lakes,
main primary producers are considered to be an environmental grasslands
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005] hazard? [UPPCS (Pre) 2005] 37. Which of the following statement is
(A) Phytoplanktons (A) Babul (B) Amaltas correct?
(B) Seaweeds [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(C) Neem (D) Eucalyptus
(C) Marine angiosperms 29. The example of ‘Lentic Habitat’ in (A) The energy flow in the
(D) Aquatic bryophytes the freshwater community is biospheric ecosystem is
20. Among the biotic components of [MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
unidirectional
the ecosystem, the producer system (B) The energy flows in the
(A) Ponds and swamps
is [UPPCS (Pre) 2013] biospheric is cyclical
(B) Waterfalls and rivers
(A) cow (B) peacock (C) Relative loss of energy in
(C) Ponds and rivers natural ecosystem decrease
(C) tiger (D) green plants (D) All of the above with increasing trophic levels
21. Trophic level I includes 30. The transitional zone between two (D) Species at progressively higher
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016] distinct communities is known as trophic levels appear to be less
(A) Herbivorous animals [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] efficient in using available
(B) Carnivorous animals (A) Ecotype (B) Arcade energy
(C) Omnivorous animals (C) Ecosphere (D) Ecotone 38. The measurement unit of the
(D) Green plants 31. Which of the following is the most ecological footprint is
22. Which one of the following pairs is stable ecosystem? [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
correctly matched? [UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (A) Global hectares
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015] (A) Desert (B) Mountain (B) Nanometer
(A) Mountain - Most stable (C) Ocean (D) Forest (C) Hoppus cubic foot
ecosystem 32. The cycling of elements in an (D) Cubic ton
(B) Abiotic component - Bacteria ecosystem is called 39. The minimum area of the land
(C) Green plants - Ecosystem [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] required to completely sustain the
(D) Rainfall - Global warming (A) Chemical cycles life of the person is called his
23. The correct order in the food chain (B) Biogeochemical cycles [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
of the various components of a (C) Geological cycles (A) Biota
terrestrial grass ecosystem is (D) Geochemical cycles (B) Ecological footprint
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010] (C) Biome
33. Which one of the following is not
(A) Grass, grasshopper, frog, snake related with ecological balance? (D) Niche
(B) Grass, grasshopper, snake, frog [UPPCS (Pre) 2005] 40. Who of the following used the term
(C) Grasshopper, frog, grass, snake (A) Water management ‘deep ecology’ for the first time?
(D) Grasshopper, snake, frog, grass (B) Afforestation [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
24. Which of the following constitute a (C) Industrial management UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
food chain? (D) Wildlife protection (A) E.P. Odum
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016, 2015] (B) C. Raunkiaer
34. ‘Ecology is permanent economy’ is
(A) Grass, wheat and mango the slogan of which movement? (C) F.E. Clements
(B) Grass, goat and human [UPPCS (Mains) 2007] (D) Arne Naess
(C) Goat, cow and elephant (A) Appiko Movement 41. The concept of ecological niche was
(D) Grass, fish and goat (B) Narmada Bachao Andolan enunciated by [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018
25. Biomass Pyramid is reversed in (C) Chipko Movement UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
which type of ecosystem? (D) None of the above (A) Grinnell (B) Darwin
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010] (C) E.P. Odum (D) C.C. Park
35. Chipko movement is related to
(A) Forest (B) Pond [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] 42. The Millennium Ecosystem
(C) Grassland (D) Drylands (A) Plant conservation Assessment describes the following
26. Which one of the following (B) Tiger project major categories of ecosystem
organisms is likely to show the (C) Crocodile conservation services-provisioning, supporting,
highest concentration of DDT, once (D) Plant reproduction regulating, preserving and cultural.
466 Objective General Studies
Which one of the following is 1. The term ecosystem was first of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to
supporting service? [IAS (Pre) 2012] used by A.G. Tansley. prohibit all kinds of human
(A) Production of food and water 2. Those organisms which activities in those zones except
(B) Control of climate and disease produce their food themselves agriculture.
(C) Nutrient cycling and crop are termed as autotrophs. Select the correct answer using the
pollination 3. Consumers consume their code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2014]
(D) Maintenance of diversity food through the process of (A) Only 1
43. Which one of the following is the photosynthesis. (B) Only 2
correct sequence of a food chain? 4. Decomposers convert inorganic (C) Both 1 and 2
[IAS (Pre) 2014] matter into organic matter. (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings Which of the above statements are 52. Concerning the food chains in
(B) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings correct? [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002] ecosystem, which of the following
(C) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans Code kinds of an organism is/are
(D) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms (A) 1 and 2 known as decomposer organism/
44. Which of the following shows (B) 1 and 3 organisms?
density gradient of water system? (C) 2 and 4 1. Virus
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] (D) 3 and 4 2. Fungi
(A) Ecocline 49. Which of the following statements 3. Bacteria
(B) Halocline is true about Bionomics? Select the correct answer using the
(C) Pycnocline [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2019 code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2013]
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001] (A) Only 1
(D) Thermocline
45. In the grassland, trees do not 1. It means ‘management of life’. (B) 2 and 3
replace the grasses as a part of an 2. It is a synonymous with ecology. (C) 1 and 3
ecological succession because of 3. It stresses on the value (D) All of the above
[Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016 of natural systems which 53. Which of the following are
IAS (Pre) 2013] influence human systems. the primary consumers in an
(A) Insects and fungi Code ecosystem?
(B) Limited sunlight and paucity of (A) Only 1 1. Ants 2. Deer
nutrients (B) 1 and 2 3. Fox 4. Tiger
(C) Water limits and fire (C) 2 and 3 Select the correct answer from the
(D) None of the above (D) 1, 2 and 3 code given below.
46. Which one of the following is the 50. In the context of ecosystem [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2015
correct sequence of the phases of productivity, marine upwelling UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
biotic succession? zones are important as they Code
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] increase the marine productivity by (A) 1 and 2
(A) Nudation, Migration, Ecesis, bringing the (B) 2 and 3
Reaction, Stabilization 1. Decomposer micro-organisms (C) 1, 2 and 3
(B) Migration, Nudation, Ecesis, to the surface. (D) 2, 3 and 4
Reaction, Stabilization 2. Nutrients to the surface. 54. Concerning food chains in
(C) Ecesis, Migration, Nudation, 3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to ecosystems, consider the following
Reaction, Stabilization the surface. statements.
(D) Stabilization, Reaction, Nuda- Which of the statements given 1. A food chain illustrates the
tion, Migration, Ecesis above is/are correct? order in which a chain of
47. Which one of the following is the [West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019 organisms feeds upon each
correct order of biological organisa- IAS (Pre) 2011] other.
tion ranging from organism to (A) 1 and 2 2. Food chains are found within
biosphere? [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] (B) Only 2 the population of a species.
(A) Population-Ecosystem-Com- (C) 2 and 3 3. A food chain illustrates the
munity-Landscape (D) Only 3 number of organism, which are
(B) Landscape-Community-Eco- 51. Concerning ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, eaten by others.
system-Population which of the following statements Which of the statements given
(C) Population-Community-Eco- is/are correct? above is/are correct?
system-Landscape 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(D) Population-Landscape-Com- areas that are declared under (A) Only 1
munity-Ecosystem the Wildlife (Protection) Act, (B) 1 and 2
48. Consider the following statements 1972. (C) 1, 2 and 3
relating to the ecosystem. 2. The purpose of the declaration (D) None of the above
 Environment and Ecology 467
Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (D)
31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (B)
51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (A)

3. Biodiversity
1. The most significant aspect of 7. Biodiversity has maximum danger (A) Andaman and Nicobar Island
biodiversity is [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] from [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] (B) Gangetic Plain
(A) Food (A) Destruction of natural habitats (C) Central India
(B) Drug and vegetation (D) None of the above
(C) Industrial Use (B) Improper agricultural 13. Which of the following is considered
(D) Maintenance of ecosystem operations ‘Hot Spot’ of biodiversity?
2. The destruction of biodiversity is (C) Climate change [Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018
due to [UPPCS (Mains) 2002] (D) Water pollution UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010]
(A) The lack of natural habitats of 8. Biodiversity day is celebrated on (A) Gangetic Plain
organism [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012] (B) Eastern Himalayas
(B) Environmental pollution (A) 29 December (C) Gujarat
(C) Destruction of forests (B) 22 May (D) Central India
(D) All of the above (C) 28 February 14. The ‘Hot Spots’ (in context of
3. Biodiversity is described as (D) 30 January environment) found in India are
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014] 9. Which one of the following strongly [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2017
(A) The range of different species threatens biodiversity? UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
in an environment [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2010] (A) Eastern Ghat, Western Ghat
(B) The seasonal and daily changes (A) Fragile ecosystem such as (B) Vindhya Range, Eastern Ghat
in an environment mangroves and wetlands (C) Eastern Himalayan Range,
(C) The way species differ from one (B) Inaccessible habitats in the Western Ghat
another Himalayas (D) Shivalik Range, Eastern Ghat
(D) The influence of physical (C) Destruction of natural habitats 15. Which one of the following is not a
factors on an environment and vegetation and Jhum ‘biodiversity hot spot’ of India?
4. Biodiversity means cultivation [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
[UPPCS (Pre) 2014] (D) Creation of biosphere reserves (A) Himalayas
(A) Diverse kinds of plants and 10. The ‘Hot Spot’ of Biodiversity in (B) Vindhyas
vegetation India are [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2008] (C) North-East India
(B) Diverse kinds of animals (A) Western Himalayas and (D) Western Ghats
(C) Diverse kinds of plants and Eastern Ghat 16. Which one of the following regions
animals in a particular area (B) Western Himalayas and of India is regarded as an ‘ecological
(D) Diverse kinds of exotic plants Sunderban hot spot’? [IAS (Pre) 1996]
and animals (C) Eastern Himalayas and the (A) Western Himalayas
5. The main reason for the decrease in Western Ghats (B) Eastern Himalayas
biodiversity is [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (D) Eastern Himalayas and Silent (C) Western Ghats
(A) Habitat pollution Valley (D) Both (B) and (C)
(B) Introduction of exotic species 11. Which of the following is considered 17. The tallest known living tree
(C) Over exloitation a ‘hot-spot’ of biodiversity in India? [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016, 2015]
(D) Natural habitat destruction 40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
6. Which one of the following is the (A) Aravalli hills (A) Eucalyptus (B) Sequoia
most important factor responsible (B) Indo-Gangetic plain (C) Deodar (D) Parnang
for the decline of biodiversity? (C) Eastern Ghats
18. A species is considered to be extinct
[UPPCS (Pre) 2010] (D) Western Ghats if it has not been seen in its natural
(A) Genetic assimilation 12. With reference to biodiversity, habitat for [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2019
(B) Controlling assimilation which of the following regions in UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(C) Destruction of habitat India is regarded as ‘HOT SPOT’? (A) 15 years (B) 25 years
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019
(D) Controlling pests (C) 40 years (D) 50 years
UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
468 Objective General Studies
19. Which one of the following is not
responsible for the extinction of a
species? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Broad niche
(B) Large body size
(C) Narrow niche
(D) Lack of genetic variability
20. Organization related to ‘Red Data
Book’ or ‘Red List’ is
[MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) UTES (B) IUCN
(C) IBWC (D) WWF
21. Endangered species are listed in
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Dead Stock Book
(B) Red Data Book
(C) Live Stock Book
(D) None of the above
22. ‘Red Data Book’ is concerned with
[UPPCS (Mains) 2002]
(A) Facts about biodiversity
(B) Organisms and animals facing
the danger of extinction
(C) Plantation
(D) Illegal hunting of forest animals
by smugglers
23. Which one of the following groups
of animals belongs to the category
of endangered species?
[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Great Indian Bustard, Musk
Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic
Wild Ass
(B) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue
Bull and Great Indian Bustard
(C) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer,
Rhesus Monkey and Saras
(Crane)
(D) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull,
Hanuman Langur and Cheetal
24. Which one of the following Indian
birds are a highly endangered
species? [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) Golden Oriole
(B) Great Indian Bustard
(C) Indian Fantail Pigeon
(D) Indian Sunbird
25. The author of ‘Tomorrow’s
Biodiversity’ is
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 05]
(A) Vandana Shiva
(B) V.K. Sharma
(C) M.S. Swaminathan
(D) Medha Patekar
26. Which of the following is not a
reason for the loss of biodiversity in
Uttarakhand?
[Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Expansion of roads
(B) Urbanization (A) Uttarakhand
(C) Afforestation of barren land (B) Kerala
(D) Extension of agriculture (C) Arunachal Pradesh
27. The most important strategy for (D) Jammu and Kashmir
the conservation of biodiversity 35. Which one of the following States is
together with traditional human related to ‘Silent Valley Project’?
life is the establishment of [MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
[IAS (Pre) 2014] (A) Uttarakhand
(A) Biosphere reserves (B) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Botanical Gardens (C) Kerala
(C) National parks (D) Tamil Nadu
(D) Wildlife Sanctuaries 36. ‘Valley of Flowers’ is situated in
28. Which one of the following is [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
not a site for an in-situ method of UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
conservation of flora? (A) Kerala
[IAS (Pre) 2011] (B) Jammu and Kashmir
(A) Biosphere Reserve (C) Uttarakhand
(B) Botanical Garden (D) Himachal Pradesh
(C) National Park 37. Which of the following is a Ramsar
(D) Wildlife Sanctuary site under Ramsar Convention?
29. Which of the following gas is [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
commonly used in Cryo-Bank for (A) Godavari delta
ex-situ conservation? (B) Krishna delta
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(C) Sunderban
(A) Nitrogen (D) Bhoj wetland
(B) Oxygen 38. The Ramsar Convention was
(C) Carbon dioxide associated with the conservation of
(D) Methane [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
30. The maximum biodiversity is found (A) Bio-fuels (B) Forests
in [UPPCS (Pre) 2016, 2012] (C) Wetlands (D) Drylands
(A) Tropical rainforest 39. Wetland day is observed on
(B) Temperate forest [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
(C) Coniferous forest (A) 2nd February
(D) Arctic forest (B) 2nd April
31. Which one of the following (C) 2nd May
ecosystems has maximum plant (D) 2nd March
biomass? [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
40. In India, which one of the following
(A) Tropical deciduous forest States has the largest inland saline
(B) Tropical rainforest
wetland? [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2017
(C) Temperate deciduous forest IAS (Pre) 2009]
(D) Desert shrubs
(A) Gujarat
32. Biodiversity changes occur (B) Haryana
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (C) Madhya Pradesh
(A) Increases towards the equator (D) Rajasthan
(B) Decreases towards the equator 41. Biosphere reserves are areas for
(C) Remains unchanged through- conservation of
out the Earth [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
(D) Increases towards the poles UP Lower (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
33. The richest biodiversity is found in (A) Grasslands
the [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011 (B) Agriculture production
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005
(C) Atmospheric balance
UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2003]
(D) Genetic variation
(A) Silent Valley
(B) Kashmir Valley 42. Cartagena protocol is related to
[Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2019
(C) Valley of Flowers
Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(D) Surma Valley
(A) Bio-safety agreement
34. ‘Silent Valley’ is located in
(B) Pollution
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2015
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2008]
(C) Ozone depletion
(D) Climate change

43. Which one of the following is
the most effective factor of coral
bleaching? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Marine pollution
(B) Increase of salinity of seas
(C) Rise in normal temperature of
sea-water
(D) The outbreak of diseases and
epidemics
44. Which of the following is the
most significant factor in coral
bleaching?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Mining of coral rocks
(B) Outbreak of coral diseases
(C) Siltation of seawater
(D) Global warming
45. The Himalayan Range is very
rich in species diversity. Which
one among the following is the
most appropriate reason for this
phenomenon? [IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) It has a high rainfall that
supports luxuriant vegetative
growth
(B) It is a confluence of different
biogeographical zones
(C) Exotic and invasive species
have not been introduced in
this region
(D) It has less human interference
46. Which of the following is not
responsible for the increase in the
biodiversity of an ecosystem?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Productivity of the ecosystem
(B) Intermediate-disturbance
(C) Age of the ecosystem
(D) Less number of trophic levels
47. Who among the following had used
the term ‘Biodiversity’ for the first
time? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) C.J. Barrow
(B) De Carter
(C) Walter G. Rosen
(D) D.R. Batish
48. The decade 2011-20 has been
designated by the UNO as the
decade of [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Natural disaster decade
(B) Biodiversity decade
(C) Climate-change decade
(D) Environment decade
49. The Biodiversity Act was passed by
the Indian Parliament in
[UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(A) May, 2000
(B) December, 2002
(C) January, 2004
(D) October, 2008
50. National Biodiversity Authority of
India was established in
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]
(A) 2003, in Chennai
(B) 2003, in Bengaluru
(C) 2003, in Hyderabad
(D) 2003, in Kerala
51. Sea buckthorn has a huge global
market potential. The berries of
this plant are rich in vitamins and
nutrients. Genghis Khan used them
to improve stamina of his troops.
Russian cosmonauts used its oil
to combat radiation. Where is this
plant found in India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Nagaland (B) Ladakh
(C) Kodaikanal (D) Pondicherry
52. Which of the following drug has
been reported as responsible for
vulture death?
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Aspirin
(B) Chloroquine
(C) Diclofenac Sodium
(D) Penicillin
53. The most important factor
contributing to the loss of vulture
population in India is
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Viral infection
(B) Bacterial infection
(C) Administrating of painkillers to
cattle
(D) Administrating of estrogen
injection to cattle
54. Vultures which used to be very
common in Indian countryside
some years ago are rarely seen now
a days. This is attributed to
[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) the destruction of their nesting
sites by new invasive species
(B) a drug used by cattle owners for
treating their diseased cattle
(C) scarcity of food available to
them
(D) a widespread, persistent and
fatal disease among them
55. A tree species in Mauritius failed to
reproduce because of the extinction
of a fruit-eating bird.
Which one of the following was that
bird? [IAS (Pre) 1998]
(A) Dove (B) Dodo
(C) Condor (D) Skua
56. In the context of Indian wildlife, the
flying fox is a [IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Bat (B) Kite
(C) Stork (D) Vulture
Environment and Ecology 469
57. The marine animal called dugong
which is vulnerable to extinction is
a/an [IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Amphibian (B) Bony fish
(C) Shark (D) Mammal
58. Which one of the following state-
ments is correct? [IAS (Pre) 2005]
(A) The First Meeting of the Parties
(MOP 1) to the Cartagena
Protocol on Biosafety was held
in the Philippines in the year
2004
(B) India is not a signatory to the
Biosafety Protocol/Convention
on Biological Diversity
(C) The Biosafety Protocol deals
with genetically modified
organisms
(D) The United States of America is
member of the Biosafety Proto-
col/Convention on Biological
Diversity
59. Which one of the following
Union Ministries implements the
Cartagena Protocol on Bio-safety?
[IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Ministry of Science and
Technology
(B) Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare
(C) Ministry of Environment and
Forests
(D) Ministry of Chemical and
Fertilizers
60. A sandy and saline area in the
natural habitat of an Indian
animal species. The animal has
no predators in that area but its
existence is threatened due to the
destruction of its habitat. Which
one of the following could be that
animal? [IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Indian wild buffalo
(B) Indian wild ass
(C) Indian wild boar
(D) Indian gazelle
61. The 10th Conference of the Parties
to the United Nations Conference
on ‘Biological Diversity’ was held at
[UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(A) Beijing (B) Copenhagen
(C) Nagoya (D) New York
62. Two important rivers-one with its
source in Jharkhand (and known
by a different name in Odisha) and
another with its source in Odisha-
merge at a place only a short
distance from the coast of Bay of
Bengal before flowing into the sea.
This is an important site of wildlife
and biodiversity and a protected
470 Objective General Studies
area. Which one of the following
could be this? [IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Bhitarkanika
(B) Chandipur-on-sea
(C) Gopalpur-on-sea
(D) Simlipal
63. India is a party to the Ramsar
Convention and has declared many
areas as Ramsar Sites. Which of the
following statements best describes
as to how we should maintain
these sites in the context of this
Convention? [IAS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Keep all the sites completely
inaccessible to man so that they
cannot be exploited
(B) Conserve all the sites through
ecosystem approach and per-
mit tourism and recreation only
(C) Conserve all the sites through
ecosystem approach for a spe-
cific period without any ex-
ploitation, with specific criteria
and specific period for each site
and then allow sustainable use
of them by future generations
(D) Conserve all the sites through
ecosystem approach and allow
their simultaneous sustainable
use
64. If a wetland of international
importance is brought under the
‘Montreux Record’, what does it
imply? [IAS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Changes in ecological character
have occurred, are occurring
or are likely to occur in the
wetland as a result of human
interference
(B) The country in which the
wetland is located should enact
a law to prohibit any human
activity within five kilometres
from the edge of the wetland
(C) The survival of the wetland
depends on the cultural
practices and traditions of
certain communities living
in its vicinity and therefore
the cultural diversity therein
should not be destroyed
(D) It is given the status of ‘World
Heritage Site’
65. As an ecosystem, wetlands are
useful for which of the following?
[Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) For nutrient-recovery and
cycling
(B) For releasing heavy metals
through absorption by plants
(C) In reducing siltation of rivers by
retaining sediments
(D) All of the above
66. The annual production of biomass
is minimal in which of the environ-
ment. [UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(A) Deep sea
(B) Prairie
(C) Deciduous forest
(D) Taiga
67. Biodiversity forms the basis for
human existence in the following
ways.
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
68. How does National Biodiversity
Authority (NBA) help in protecting
the Indian agriculture?
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and
protects the indigenous and
traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and su-
pervises the scientific research
on genetic modification of crop
plants.
3. Application for Intellectual
Property Rights related to
genetic/biological resources
cannot be made without the
approval of NBA.
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
69. The Government of India encour-
ages the cultivation of ‘sea buck-
thorn’. What is the importance of
this plant?
1. It helps in controlling soil
erosion and in preventing
desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is
well-adapted to grow in cold
areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial
value.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
70. Due to some reasons, if there
is a huge fall in the population
of species of butterflies, what
could be its likely consequence/
consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants
could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic
increase in the fungal infections
of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the
population of some species of
wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
71. Concerning ‘dugong’, a mammal
found in India, which of the follow-
ing statements is/are correct?
1. It is a herbivorous marine
animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast
of India.
3. It is given legal protection
under Schedule I of the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 3 (D) Only 3
72. Three of the following criteria have
contributed to the recognition
of Western Ghats, Sri Lanka and
Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of
biodiversity.
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna
to warm and humid conditions
Which three of the above are
correct criteria in this context?
[Assam PSC (Pre) 2019
IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) 1, 2 and 6 (B) 2, 4 and 6
(C) 1, 3 and 5 (D) 3, 4 and 6
73. Concerning an organization known
as ‘Bird Life International’, which
of the following statement is/are
correct?
1. It is a Global Partnership of
Conservation Organizations.
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity
hotspots’ originated from this
organization.
3. It identifies the site referred
to as ‘Important Bird and
Biodiversity Areas’.

Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
74. Which of the following statements
is/are correct?
Proper design and effective
implementation of UN-REDD +
Programme can significantly
contribute to
1. Protection of biodiversity
2. Resilience of forest ecosystems
3. Poverty reduction
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 3
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
75. Concerning the International
Union for Conservation of Nature
and Natural Resources (IUCN) and
the Convention on International
Trade in Endangered Species of
Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES),
which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. IUCN is an organ of the
United Nations and CITES is
an international agreement
between Governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field
projects around the world
to better manage natural
environment.
3. CITES is legally binding on the
States that have joined it, but
this Convention does not take
the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
76. With reference to an initiative called
‘The Economics of Ecosystems
and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which
of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. It is an initiative hosted
by UNEP, IMF and World
Economic Forum.
2. It is a global initiative that
focuses on drawing attention
to the economic benefits of
biodiversity.
3. It presents an approach that
can help decision-makers
recognize, demonstrate and
capture the value of ecosystem
and biodiversity.
Environment and Ecology 471
Select the correct answer using the Code
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016] (A) Only 1
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 3 (B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) Both 1 and 2
77. In which of the following states is (D) Neither 1 nor 2
lion-tailed macaque found in its 82. Consider the following statements.
natural habitat? 1. In India, Red Panda is
1. Tamil Nadu naturally found in the Western
2. Kerala Himalayas only.
3. Karnataka 2. In India, slow loris lives in the
4. Andhra Pradesh dense forests of the North-East.
Select the correct answer using the Which of the statements given
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2013] above is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2 [IAS (Pre) 2007]
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) All of these (A) Only 1
78. Consider the following. (B) Only 2
1. Black-necked crane (C) Both 1 and 2
2. Cheetah (D) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Flying squirrel 83. Concerning a conservation orga-
4. Snow Leopard nization called ‘Wetlands Inter-
Which of the above are naturally national’, which of the following
found in India? [IAS (Pre) 2012]
statements is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 1. It is an intergovernmental
organization formed by the
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
countries which are signatories
79. Consider the following. to Ramsar Convention.
1. Bats 2. Bears 2. It works at the ground level to
3. Rodents develop and mobilize knowl-
The phenomenon of hibernation edge and use the practical ex-
can be observed in which of the perience to advocate for better
above kinds of animals? policies.
[IAS (Pre) 2014] Select the correct answer using the
(A) Only 1 and 2 code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2014]
(B) Only 2 (A) Only 1
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2
(D) Hibernation cannot be obser- (C) Both 1 and 2
ved in any of the above (D) Neither 1 nor 2
80. Consider the following statements. 84. Concerning the wetlands of India,
1. Biodiversity is normally greater consider the following statements.
in the lower latitudes as com- 1. The country’s total geographi-
pared to the higher latitudes. cal area under the category of
2. Along the mountain gradients, wetlands is recorded more in
biodiversity is normally greater Gujarat as compared to other
in the lower latitudes as com- States.
pared to the higher latitudes. 2. In India, the total geographical
Which of the statements given area of coastal wetlands larger
above is/are correct? than that of the total is inland
[IAS (Pre) 2011] area of wetlands.
(A) Only 1 Which of the statement(s) given
(B) Only 2 above is/are correct?
(C) Both 1 and 2 [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 (A) Only 1
81. Consider the following statements. (B) Only 2
[IAS (Pre) 2008] (C) 1 and 2
1. Salt-water crocodile is found (D) Neither 1 nor 2
in the Andaman and Nicobar 85. Consider the following inter-
Islands. national agreements.
2. Shrew and tapir are found 1. The International Treaty on
in the Western Ghats of the Plant Genetic Resources for
Malabar region. Food and Agriculture
472 Objective General Studies
2. The United Nations Convention biodiversity hot spots? Select your answer correctly using
to Combat Desertification 1. Eastern Himalaya the code given below.
3. The World Heritage Convention 2. Eastern Ghat [UPPCS (Pre) 2001]
Which of the above has/had a 3. Western Ghat Code
beating on the biodiversity? 4. Western Himalaya (A) 1 and 2 are correct
[IAS (Pre) 2014] Select the correct answer from the (B) 2 and 3 are correct
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 3 code given below. (C) 3 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 [UPPCS (Pre) 2013, 2012] (D) 1 and 4 are correct
86. Which of the following can be Code 92. Which of the following statements
threats to the biodiversity of a (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3 about Sikkim are true?
geographical area? (C) Only 2 and 4 (D) Only 3 and 4 1. It became an integral part of
1. Global warming 90. The ‘Red Data Books’ published India in 1975.
2. Fragmentation of habitat by the International Union for 2. It is considered as a botanist
3. Invasion of alien species Conservation of Nature and Natural paradise.
4. Promotion of vegetarianism Resources (IUCN) contain lists of 3. Its population is mainly made
Select the correct answer using the 1. Endemic plant and animal up of the Lepchas.
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012] species present in the Select the correct answer from the
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 biodiversity hotspots. code given below.
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Threatened plant and animal [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004]
87. Consider the following regions. species. Code
1. Eastern Himalayas 3. Protected sites for conservation (A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2
2. Eastern Mediterranean region of nature and natural resources (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
3. North-Western Australia in various countries. 93. Which of the following wetlands
Which of the above is/are Biodiver- Select the correct answer using the are designated as Ramsar sites?
sity Hotspot(s)? [IAS (Pre) 2009]
code given below. 1. Chilka Lake 2. Wuller Lake
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2 3. Keoladeo 4. Loktak
(A) 1 and 3 (B) Only 2 Select the correct answer from the
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) Only 3 code given below.
88. Consider the following statements.
91. While India’s Human population is [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
1. Biodiversity hotspots are locat- growing at an astounding pace, the
ed only in tropical regions. (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3
bird population is shrinking fastly (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All of these
2. India has four biodiversity mainly because
hotspots i.e., Eastern Himala- 94. Which of the following have coral
1. There has been an abnormal in- reefs?
yas, Western Himalayas, West-
crease in the number of hunters.
ern Ghats and Andaman and 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Nicobar Islands. 2. Bio-pesticides and organic
manure are being used on a 2. Gulf of Kachchh
Which of the statements given large scale. 3. Gulf of Mannar
above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2010] 4. Sunderban
3. There has been large-scale
(A) Only 1 reduction in the habitats of the Select the correct answer using the
(B) Only 2 birds. code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2014]
(C) Both 1 and 2 4. There has been a large-scale (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 4
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 use of pesticides, chemical (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
89. Which of the following regions fertilizers and mosquito
of India has been designated as repellents.

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (C) 36. (C) 37. (D) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (A)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (D) 66. (A) 67. (D) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (C)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (D) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (C)
81. (A) 82. (B) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (D) 86. (A) 87. (A) 88. (D) 89. (B) 90. (B)
91. (C) 92. (D) 93. (D) 94. (A)
 Environment and Ecology 473

4. Greenhouse Effect and Climate Change

1. Greenhouse effect is the process (A) Air pollution (A) The agreement has been signed
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 1992] (B) Greenhouse gas between the World Bank and
(A) to obtain suitable temperature (C) Climate change the Government of India
for plantation (D) Water pollution (B) The agreement shall be valid
(B) of heating the atmosphere 9. Greenhouse effect is enhanced in for ten years
by absorption of infrared the environment due to (C) The agreement is for securing
radiations by atmospheric [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] carbon credits for a project of
carbon dioxide (A) Carbon monoxide Himachal Pradesh
(C) by which barren mountains (B) Carbon dioxide (D) As per the agreement, one
changes into green (C) Oxygen ton of carbon dioxide will be
(D) in which deep water seems (D) None of the above equivalent to one credit unit
green 10. Which one of the following gases is 16. Which one of the following gases is
2. Where was the climate change not a greenhouse gas? both harmful and beneficial to life
conference held in the year 2015? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] on Earth?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015] [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
(A) CO2 (B) CH4
(A) Paris (B) Quata (C) NO2 (D) O2 (A) Oxygen
(C) Bon (D) Colombo 11. Which of the following group of (B) Ozone
3. Which of the following United gases contribute to the ‘Greenhouse (C) Nitrogen
Nation’s climate change conference Effect’? [UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (D) Carbon dioxide
was held in Paris? (A) Ammonia and Ozone 17. Today the largest contributor to
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015] (B) Carbon monoxide and Sulphur carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions is
(A) 25th (B) 23rd dioxide [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
(C) 22nd (D) 21st (C) Carbon tetrafluoride and (A) China (B) Japan
4. Climate change is caused by Nitrous oxide (C) Russia (D) USA
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (D) Carbon dioxide and Methane 18. Which of the following countries is
(A) Greenhouse gases 12. Which set of the following gases the largest emitter of carbon?
(B) Depletion of ozone layer is most important for greenhouse [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(C) Pollution effect? [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] (A) USA
(D) All of the above (A) Carbon dioxide, Methane, (B) China
5. What is ‘Greenhouse effect’? Chlorine, Nitric oxide (C) India
[MPPCS (Pre) 1991, 2006] (B) Nitric oxide, Methane, Ethane, (D) European Union
(A) Increase in temperature of Chlorfluoro carbons
19. Which of the following is known
Earth due to concentration of (C) Carbon dioxide, Methane, as ‘carbon negative country’ in the
gases in atmosphere Nitrous oxide, Water vapour world? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
(B) Acid rain (D) Carbon Monoxide, Sulphur
(A) Afghanistan (B) Bahrain
dioxide, Methane, Water
(C) Black rain (C) Bhutan (D) Nepal
vapour
(D) None of the above 20. Which one among the following
13. Which one of the following
6. The concept of Greenhouse Gases naturally occurring greenhouse substances does not contribute to
was postulated by gases causes the highest percentage global warming? [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011] (A) Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen
of Greenhouse effect?
(A) C.C. Park [UPPCS (Mains) 2011] (B) Methane
(B) J.N.N. Jeffers (A) Carbon dioxide (C) Carbon dioxide
(C) Joseph Fourier (B) Methane (D) Water vapour
(D) L. Zobler (C) Ozone 21. Which of the following is not
7. ‘Intended Nationally Determind (D) Water vapour Greenhouse Gas?
Contribution’ sometime seen in 14. Which one of the following is not [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
news refers to [IAS (Pre) 2016] responsible for global warming? (A) Carbon dioxide
(A) Promise made by European [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] (B) Sulphur dioxide
countries for rehabilitation of (A) Methane (C) Methane
refugees from middle East (B) Water vapour (D) All of the above
(B) World action plan to deal with (C) Argon 22. Which one of the following gas is
climate change (D) Carbon dioxide responsible for global warming?
(C) Equity share holding of 15. Which one of the following [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006, 2004]
member countries in AIIB statements regarding the Emission (A) Only Oxygen
(D) World action plan for sustain- Reduction Purchase Agreement (B) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide
able development goals signed with the World Bank in May, (C) Carbon dioxide and Methane
8. ‘Kyoto Protocol’ is related to 2011 is not correct? (D) Only methane
[MPPCS (Pre) 2014] [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
474 Objective General Studies
23. Which of the following is respon-
sible for global warming?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Methane
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Water vapour
(D) All of the above
24. Which of the following is not
Greenhouse Gas?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(A) Methane
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Chlorofluoro carbons
(D) Hydrogen
25. Which of the following is not
Greenhouse Gas? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012
RAS/RTS (Pre) 1993]
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Methane
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Nitrogen
26. Global warming is caused due to
the emmission of
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Carbon mono-oxide
(D) Hydro carbon
27. Apprehension of Global Warming
are aggravated by increased con-
centration, in the atmosphere of
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008
UPPCS (Pre) 2006
UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Ozone
(D) Sulphur dioxide
28. The ‘Global Warming’ is due to
[UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013]
(A) Heavy rainfall
(B) Increase in carbon dioxide
(C) Decrease in carbon dioxide
(D) Increase in forestation
29. Which one of the following is the
most fragile ecosystem that will be
first affected by global warming?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Arctic and Greenland Ice sheet
(B) Amazon rain forest
(C) Taiga
(D) Indian Monsoon
30. The increasing amount of carbon
dioxide in the air is slowly raising
the temperature of the atmosphere
because it absorbs [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) the water vapour of the air and
retains its heat
(B) the ultraviolet part of the solar
radiation
(C) all the solar radiations
(D) the infrared part of the solar
radiation
31. Which human activity is most
affected by climate?
[West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019
Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Fishing
(B) Mining
(C) Manufacturing
(D) Farming
32. The greenhouse gas liberated by
cud-chewing animals is
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2018
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005]
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Methane
(C) CFC
(D) Nitrous oxide
33. The United Nations Convention
on climate change ratified by more
than 50 countries became effective
on [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 21st March, 1994
(B) 21st May, 1995
(C) 21st June, 1996
(D) 21st June, 1999
34. Which of the following countries
does not have global atmosphere
watch station to collect data on
world temperature?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Algeria (B) Brazil
(C) Kenya (D) India
35. Which of the following statement is
not true about CDM?
[Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
(A) It controls Greenhouse emission
(B) It reduces global warming
(C) Kyoto Protocol suggests for
assessment of the sustainable
development of it
(D) It prohibits developed countries
from investing in projects in
developing countries
36. In the context of CO2 Emission and
Global Warming. What is the name
of a market driven device under
the UNFCC that allows developing
countries to get funds/incentives
from the developed countries to
adopt better technologies that
reduce greenhouse gas emissions?
[Jammu & Kashmir PSC (Pre) 2017
IAS (Pre) 2009]
(A) Carbon Footprint
(B) Carbon Credit Rating
(C) Clean Development Mechanism
(D) Emission Reduction Norm
37. What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’?
[IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) It is an international account-
ing tool for government and
business leaders to understand
quantify and manage green-
house gas emissions
(B) It is an initiative of the United
Nations to offer financial incen-
tives to developing countries to
reduce greenhouse gas emis-
sions and to adopt eco-friendly
technologies
(C) It is an inter-governmental
agreement ratified by all the
member countries of the United
Nations to reduce greenhouse
gas emissions to specified levels
by the year 2022
(D) It is one of the multilateral
REDD + initiatives hosted by
the World Bank
38. Which of the following is not true
for India to combat the adverse
impact of Climate Change?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Establishment of Clean Devel-
opment Mechanism (CDM)
(B) Investment of `100 crores as an
initial corpus under National
Adaptation Fund
(C) Not attended the 19th Meeting
of BASIC at Sun City, South
Africa held recently.
(D) All of the above are true
39. Which of the following is not
correctly matched?
[MPPCS (Pre) 2017
UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) First World Climate Conference
-1979
(B) First Earth Summit-Agenda-21
(C) Earth Summit Plus 5-1997
(D) Carbon Trading - Montreal
Protocol
40. Regarding ‘carbon credits’ which
one of the following statements is
not correct? [IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) The carbon credit system was
ratified in conjunction with the
Kyoto Protocol
(B) Carbon credits are awarded to
countries or groups that have
reduced greenhouse gases
below their emission quota
(C) The goal of the carbon credit
system is to limit the increase of
carbon dioxide emission
(D) Carbon credits are traded at
a price fixed from time-to-
time by the United Nations
Environment Programme

41. The concept of ‘carbon credit’
originated from which one of the
following?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Kyoto Protocol
(B) Earth Summit
(C) Montreal Protocol
(D) G-8 Summit
42. Bio-Carbon Fund Initiative for
Sustainable Forest Landscapes is
managed by the [IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) United Nations Environment
Programme
(D) World Bank
43. Which of the following is not
related to the astronomical theories
of climate change?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Eccentricity of earth’s orbit
(B) Obliquity of earth’s rotational
axis
(C) Precession of Equinoxes
(D) Solar irradiance
44. Who had suggested that shifting
Earth on its axis is one of the
factors, responsible for the climatic
change?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) Robert Hooke
(B) Milutin Milan Kolich
(C) George Simpson
(D) T.C. Chamberlain
45. Which one of the following provides
the cryogenic indicator of climate
change?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Ice core
(B) Fossilized pollen
(C) Tree ring growth
(D) Evaporite Deposit
46. India’s first National Action Plan on
climate change was released in
[UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) 2008 AD (B) 2012 AD
(C) 2014 AD (D) 2015 AD
47. Which of the following is not listed
under eight action of climate action
plan of Government of India?
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010]
(A) Solar Energy
(B) Atomic Energy
(C) Waste Energy Conversion
(D) Afforestation
48. Which one of the following is not
included in Eight Missions under
India’s National Action Plan on
Climate Change?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
(A) Solar Power
(B) Afforestation
(C) Nuclear power
(D) Waste to energy conversion
49. When was Jharkhand Action Plan
on Climate Change published?
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) 2013 (B) 2014
(C) 2015 (D) 2011
50. According to Jharkhand Action
Plan on Climate Change Report
(2014) which is the most sensitive
District? [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(A) E. Singhbhum
(B) Saraikela Kharaswan
(C) Ranchi
(D) Bokaro
51. Scientists of Manchester University
recently suggested controlling
global warming by cloud
brightening over Pacific ocean
through geo-engineering. Which of
the following substances is used for
this? [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Silver salt (B) Iron powder
(C) Sea water (D) Gypsum
52. Which of the following statements
is incorrect for ‘Green Climate
Fund’ (GCF)? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(A) It was established in the Durban
Conference on Climate change
(B) It would support programs and
policies in developing nations
(C) The developed nations would
provide the fund
(D) The fund will start operating
from 2014
53. Which one of the following
countries is the first country in the
world to propose a carbon tax for its
people to address global warming?
[IAS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Australia (B) Germany
(C) Japan (D) New Zealand
54. Which of the following represents
the average increase in earth’s
temperature during the last
century? [Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2019
UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 0.6ºC (B) 0.7ºC
(C) 0.8ºC (D) 0.9ºC
55. The United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) is an international
treaty drawn at [IAS (Pre) 2010]
(A) United Nations Conference
on the Human Environment,
Stockholm, 1972
(B) UN Conference on Environment
and Development, Rio-de-
Janeiro, 1992
Environment and Ecology 475
(C) World Summit on Sustainable
Development, Johannesburg,
2002
(D) UN Climate Change Confer-
ence, Copenhagen, 2009
56. Consider the following statements.
1. Kyoto Protocol came into force
in the year 2005.
2. Kyoto Protocol primarily
deals with reducing overall
greenhouse emissions.
3. Carbon dioxide is five times
more effective as a greenhouse
gas than methane.
Which of the above statements is/
are correct? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 (D) Only 3
57. With reference to the Agreement
at the UNFCCC meeting in Paris
in 2015, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. The Agreement was signed by
all the member countries of the
UN and it will go into effect in
2017.
2. The Agreement aims to limit
the greenhouse gas emissions
so that the rise in average glob-
al temperature by the end of
this century does not exceed
2ºC or 1.5ºC above pre-indus-
trial levels.
3. Developed countries acknowl-
edged their historical respon-
sibility in global warming and
committed to donate $ 1000
billion a year from 2020 to help
developing countries to cope
with climate change.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1 and 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
58. Consider the following statements.
1. Clean Development Mechan-
ism (CDM) is respect of carbon
credits in one of the Kyoto
Protocol Mechanisms.
2. Under the CDM, the projects
handled pertain only to the
Annex-I countries.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
476 Objective General Studies
59. Consider the following pairs.
Term sometimes Their
seen in the news origin
1. Annex-I - Cartagena
Countries Protocol
2. Certified - Nagoya
Emission Protocol
Reductions
3. Clean - Kyoto
Development Protocol
Mechanism
Which of the pairs given above is/
are correctly matched?
[IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
60. In the context of mitigating the
impending global warming due to
anthropogenic emissions of carbon
dioxide, which of the following can
be the potential sites for carbon
sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic
coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline
formations
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
61. Consider the following statements.
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition
(CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived
Climate Pollutants is a unique
initiative of G20 group of
countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane
black carbon and hydrofluoro
carbons.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
62. Concerning ‘Forest Carbon Partner-
ship Facility’, which of the follow-
ing statements is/are correct?
1. It is global partnership of
Governments, businesses, civil
society and indigenous people.
2. It provides financial aid
to universities, individual
scientists and institutions
involved in scientific forestry
research to develop eco-
friendly and climate adaptation
technologies for sustainable
forest management.
3. It assists the countries in their
‘REDD + (Reducing Emission
from Deforestation and Forest
Degradation+)’ efforts by
providing them with financial
and technical assistance.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
63. The scientific view is that the
increase in global temperature
should not exceed 2ºC above the
pre-industrial level. If the global
temperature increases beyond 3ºC
above the pre-industrial level, what
can be its possible impact/impacts
on the world?
1. Terrestrial biosphere tends
towards a net carbon source.
2. Widespread coral mortality will
occur.
3. All the global wetlands will
permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not
be possible anywhere in the
world.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
64. Human activities in the recent
past have caused the increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in
the atmosphere, but a lot of it does
not remain in the lower atmosphere
because of
1. Its escape into the outer
stratosphere.
2. The photosynthesis by phyto-
plankton in the oceans.
3. The trapping of air in the polar
ice caps.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2016
IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) Only 3
65. What would happen if phytoplanton
of an ocean is completely destroyed
for some reason?
1. The ocean as a carbon sink
would be adversely affected.
2. The fond chains in the ocean
would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water
would drastically decrease.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(C) Only 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
66. Which of the following are the
primary causes of climate change?
1. Excessive burning of fossil fuels
2. Exploding numbers of automo-
biles driven by oil
3. Increasing solar flares
4. Heavy deforestation
Select the correct answer using the
code given below.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Only 2 and 3
(B) Only 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) Only 1 and 4
67. With reference to ‘Global Climate
Change Alliance’, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the
European Union.
2. It provides technical and
financial support to targeted
developing countries to
integrate climate change into
their development policies and
budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World
Resources Institute (WRI)
and World Business Council
for Sustainable Development
(WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
68. Which of the following statements
regarding global warming are
correct? [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002]
1. Melting of polar ice caps and
subsequent rise in the sea level
is the most important effect of
global warming.
2. The sea level is likely to rise by
one metre by 2070 AD if the
present level of global warming
is not controlled.
3. All the coral islands in the
world will be submerged.
4. By 2044 AD, Fiji is likely to
submerged and the rise in the
sea level by the same year will
pose a grave danger to the
Netherlands.

Code
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) Only 4
69. Consider the following agricultural
practices.
1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage
In the context of global climate
change, which of the above help/
helps in carbon sequestration/
storage in the soil?
[IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 1 and 2
(B) Only 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) None of the above
70. Which of the following statements
regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/
are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the de-
veloping countries in adapta-
tion and mitigation practices to
counter climate change.
2. It is founded under the
aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian
Development Bank and World
Bank.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
71. Due to their extensive rice
cultivation, some regions may be
contributing to global warming.
To what possible reason/reasons is
this attributable?
1. The anaerobic conditions
associated with rice cultivation
cause the emission of methane.
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers
are used, nitrous oxide is emit-
ted from the cultivated soil.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018
IAS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
72. Which of the following statements
are true regarding the members of
the Asia Pacific Partnership?
1. Their population account to
45% of the world’s population.
2. They consume the world’s 48%
of energy.
3. They contribute nearly 48% of
the world’s greenhouse gases.
4. They intend to support the
Kyoto Protocol.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above
73. Consider the following statements.
1. Kyoto Protocol came into force
in the year 2005.
2. Kyoto Protocol deals primarily
with the depletion of the ozone
layer.
3. Methane as a greenhouse gas
is more harmful than carbon
dioxide.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2005]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) Only 1 (D) Only 3
74. Which one of the following is not
correctly matched?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
Greenhouse Gas Source
(A) Carbon dioxide - Thermal
Power
Stations
(B) Chlorofluoro - Automobile
carbon
(C) Nitrous Oxide - Waterlogged
Paddy fields
(D) Sulphur - Brick Kilns
dioxide
75. As a result of global warming, there
has been
1. Better global communication
2. Melting of glaciers
3. Flowering of mango trees
before times
4. Adverse impact on health
Select your answer from the code
given below. [UPPCS (Pre) 2003
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002
UPPCS (Pre) 2001]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
76. Which of the following conditions
indicate the impact of global
warming?
1. Melting of glaciers
2. Rise in sea level
Environment and Ecology 477
3. Changes in weather conditions
4. Rise in global temperature
Select the correct answer from the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2009]
Code
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above
77. Consider the following.
1. Rice fields
2. Coal mining
3. Domestic animals
4. Wetlands
Which of the above is a source of
methane, a major greenhouse gas?
[IAS (Pre) 2008]
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
78. Consider the following statements
regarding ‘Earth Hour’.
1. It is an intiative of UNEP and
UNESCO.
2. It is a movement in which the
participants switch off the
lights for one hour on a certain
day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise the
awareness about the climate
change and the need to save the
planet.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Only 1 and 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
79. Given below are two statements.
Assertion (A): Climate change is
leading to increase in social tension
in India.
Reason (R): The frequency
and intensity of the extreme
weather events will have serious
repercussions on food security.
Choose the correct answer from the
code given below.
[Tripura PSC (Pre) 2018
UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct reason of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but
(R) is not the correct reason of
(A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
478 Objective General Studies
Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (D) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (C) 60. (D)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (A) 66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (A)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (D) 77. (D) 78. (C) 79. (A)

5. Ozone Layer
1. Ozone layer is above the earth crust (A) Produces rain 14. Which one of the following is not
around [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012] (B) Produces pollution responsible for the depletion of
(A) 50 km (B) 300 km (C) Provides safety to life on earth ozone layer? [UPPCS (Pre) 2002
(C) 2000 km (D) 20 km from ultraviolet radiation UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
2. Which is the lowest layer of the (D) Produces oxygen in the (A) CFC-12 used in refrigerators
atmosphere? atmosphere (B) Methyl chloroform used as
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] 9. Why is ozone layer useful to hu- solvent
(A) Stratosphere (B) Ozonosphere manity? [MPPCS (Pre) 1994] (C) HALON-1211 used in fire
(C) Ionosphere (D) Troposphere (A) It supplies oxygen to the atmos- fighting
3. Place where ozone layer is primly phere (D) Nitrous oxide
found is [UPPCS (Pre)(Spl) 2008 (B) It prevents the Sun’s ultraviolet 15. Among the following greenhouse
UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] rays from reaching the Earth gases, which does not cause ozone
(A) Troposphere (B) Stratosphere (C) It controls the temperature of pollution in the troposphere?
the Earth [Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
(C) Mesosphere (D) Ionosphere
(D) None of the above UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
4. Which of the following is not true
about chlorofluoro carbon? 10. Harmful ultraviolet radiation (A) Methane
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004] coming from the sun can cause (B) Carbon mono-oxide
(A) It is used as a refrigerant [UPPCS (Pre) 2014] (C) Nitrogen oxides (NO)
(B) It is not responsible for green- (A) Liver cancer (D) Water vapours
house effect (B) Brain cancer 16. Formation of ozone hole is maxi-
(C) It is responsible for reducing (C) Oral cancer mum over [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2019
ozone in the stratosphere (D) Dermal cancer MPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(D) It is inactive in lower atmosp- 11. World Ozone day is celebrated on (A) India (B) Africa
here [UPPCS (Pre) 2014, 2015] (C) Antarctica (D) Europe
5. Which is responsible for Ozone (A) 16 September 17. Montreal Protocol is related to the
Hole? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014] (B) 21 April protection of
(A) CO2 (B) SO2 [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015
(C) 25 December
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010]
(C) O2 (D) CFC (D) 30 January
6. The radiation that is absorbed by (A) Greenhouse gases
12. Ozone hole is caused by
ozone present in the atmosphere is [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
(B) Acid rain
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (A) Acetylene (C) Ozone layer
(A) Infrared (B) Visible (B) Ethylene (D) Endangered species
(C) Ultraviolet (D) Microwave (C) Chlorofluoro carbons 18. Montreal Protocol is related to
[Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018
7. Ozone protects biosphere from (D) Methane
MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
[Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016 13. Which one of the following gases
UPPCS (Pre) 2014] (A) White Lion
is responsible for the decrement in
(A) Infrared rays the ozone layer? (B) Chlorofluoro carbon
(B) Ultraviolet rays [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014 (C) Water pollution
(C) X-rays 42nd BPSC (Pre) 1997 (D) Agriculture
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005] 19. Which gas is filled in refrigerators?
(D) Gama rays
(A) Nitrous oxide [Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2019
8. Ozone layer in atmosphere
[UPPCS (Pre) 2006
(B) Chlorofluoro carbon Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010]
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006 (C) Carbon dioxide (A) Ammonia (B) Mafron
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004] (D) Carbon mono-oxide (C) Methane (D) Acetylene
 Environment and Ecology 479
20. Which one of the following teams Tibetan Plateau in 2005? Which of the statements(s) given
of scientists first discovered ‘ozone [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] above is/are correct?
hole’ over Antarctica? (A) M. Molina [West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019
[UPPCS (Mains) 2013] (B) Joseph Farman IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Russian team (C) G.W. Kent Moore (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 4
(B) German team (D) Marcus Rex (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) American team 24. Which of the following is not 27. Which of the following substances
(D) British team correctly matched? is/are ozone depleting?
21. In stratosphere, the level of ozone is [Uttarakhand PCS (Mains) 2002] 1. Chlorofluoro carbons
naturally regulated by (A) Ozone - Chlorofluoro- 2. Halans
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] carbon (CFC) 3. Carbon tetrachloride
(A) Nitrous oxide (B) Acid rain - Nitric acid Select the correct answer from the
(B) Nitrogen dioxide (C) Rocket fuel - Kerosene oil codes given below.
(C) CFC (D) Green House - Carbon dioxide [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2019
(D) Water vapours Effect UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
22. The formation of the ozone hole 25. Which one of the following is Code
in the Antarctic region has been a associated with the issue of control (A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2
cause of concern. What could be and phasing out of the use of ozone- (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
the reason for the formation of this depleting substances? 28. Consider the following statements.
hole? [Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2017 [IAS (Pre) 2015]
Assertion (A): Ozone is essential
IAS (Pre) 2011] (A) Bretton Woods Conference for biotic life.
(A) Presence of prominent (B) Montreal Protocol Reason (R): The ozone layer
tropospheric turbulence and (C) Kyoto Protocol protects the earth’s surface from
inflow of chlorofluoro carbons (D) Nagoya Protocol high energy radiation.
(B) Presence of prominent polar 26. Consider the following statements.
front and stratospheric clouds Select the correct answer from the
Chlorofluoro carbons, known as code given below.
and inflow of chlorofluoro
ozone-depleting substances, are [UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010
carbons
used UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(C) Absence of polar front and
stratospheric clouds and inflow 1. In the production of plastic (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
of methane and chlorofluoro foams. (R) is the correct explanation of
carbons 2. In the production of tubeless (A)
(D) Increased temperature at polar tyres. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
region due to global warming 3. In cleaning certain electronic but (R) is not the correct
components. explanation of (A)
23. Who among the following had
discovered ‘ozone halo’ over 4. As pressurizing agents in (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
aerosol cans. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (A)

6. Forest and Forest Wildlife

1. The minimum land area recom- (A) Malwa Plateau National Forest Policy (1952)?
mended for forest cover to main- (B) Eastern Ghat [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
tain proper ecological balance in (C) Western Ghat (A) National Forests
India in [IAS (Pre) 1999] (D) Chhotanagpur Plateau (B) National Park
(A) 25% (B) 33% 4. The national forest policy aims at (C) Protected Forests
(C) 43% (D) 53% maintaining how much of the total (D) Village Forests
2. To maintain ecological balance, the geographical area under forests? 6. In Uttarakhand, Oak-Rhododen-
area under forest should be [UPPCS (Pre) 2002] dron are characteristic plants of
[UPPCS (Pre) 2014] (A) One-fourth [Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2017
(A) 10% (B) 23% (B) Half Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(C) 33% (D) 53% (C) One-fifth (A) Subtropical forest
3. Which one of the following has an (D) One-third (B) Subalpine forest
evergreen forest? 5. Which of the following has not been (C) Temperate forest
[UPPCS (Pre) 2015] categorized as forest under the (D) All of the above
480 Objective General Studies
7. According to the latest Indian (C) Nagaland is the most forest grove forest, evergreen forest and
State of Forest Report, released covered State of India deciduous forest? [IAS (Pre) 2015]
by the Ministry of Environment, (D) Haryana is the least forest cov- (A) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
what is the percentage of the total ered State of India (B) South-West Bengal
geographical area of India under 15. Tree cover is maximum in (C) Southern Saurashtra
forest and tree cover? [UPPCS (Pre) 2009] (D) Andaman and Nicobar Island
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016] (A) East Deccan 23. The recorded forest area of UP in
(A) 22.48% (B) 23.00% (B) Northern Plains 2011 was around ..... of its area.
(C) 24.16% (D) 24.48% (C) West Coast [Telangana PSC (Pre) 2017
8. How much of Indian land is forest (D) East Coast UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
area? [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
16. In India, percentage coverage of (A) 3% (B) 5%
(A) 33.5% (B) 22.7% dense forests to total geographical (C) 7% (D) 9%
(C) 44.7% (D) 17.7% area is about [UPPCS (Mains) 2008] 24. Nagaland mountains are becoming
9. According to data obtained from (A) 8% (B) 10% increasingly barren mountains
satellite survey, what percentage of (C) 12% (D) 14% mainly due to [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018
India’s area is a forest? 17. According to National Remote MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003]
Sensing Center (NRSA) which (A) Insurgency
(A) 32% (B) 28% of the following state has the it’s (B) Urbanization
(C) 19% (D) 15% maximum area covered by forest? (C) Shifting cultivation
10. Which of the following state has the [UPPCS (Pre) 2011
(D) Rapid population growth
largest area under forests? UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004]
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010
25. Which among the following States
(A) Himachal Pradesh has launched ‘Apna Van Apna
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2003] (B) Arunachal Pradesh Dhan’ scheme? [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2017
(A) Kerala (C) Meghalaya UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(B) Uttar Pradesh (D) Sikkim (A) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Madhya Pradesh 18. Which one of the following groups (B) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan of States has forest coverage of (C) Himachal Pradesh
11. Which of the following State of more than 75% of the total geo- (D) Arunachal Pradesh
India has the largest percentage or graphical area? [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
geographical area under forest as 26. In which year the Wildlife
(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Protection Act was introduced in
per the report of Forest Survey of Nagaland
India? [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016
India? [MPPCS (Pre) 2016
(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, UPPCS (Pre) 2015
UPPCS (Mains) 2012] Nagaland RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Manipur (B) Meghalaya (C) Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland (A) 1962 (B) 1970
(C) Mizoram (D) Nagaland (D) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland (C) 1972 (D) 1982
12. National Mission for Green India 19. Second largest mangrove area in 27. Which of the following Acts
has been initiated in the following India is found along the coast of provides for protection to wild
States by Government of India with [UPPCS (Mains) 2008] animals in India? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
the aim to improve the density of (A) Andaman and Nicobar (A) Wildlife Protection Act - 1972
existing forests (B) Andhra Pradesh
[Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(B) Forests Protection Act - 1982
(C) Gujarat (C) Environment Protection Act -
(A) Jharkhand
(D) Odisha 1996
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Both States 20. Which one of the following areas (D) West Bengal Wild Animal
of India is famous for its mangrove Protection Act - 1959
(D) None of the above
vegetation? 28. In India, if a species of tortoise is
13. Which of the following is not the [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011
impact of deforestation in India? declared protected under Schedule
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006
MPPCS (Pre) 2013] (A) Kaziranga 1972, what does it imply?
(A) Drying of water sources in (B) Silent Valley [IAS (Pre) 2017]
Himalaya (C) Sunderbans (A) It enjoys the same level of
(B) Loss of biodiversity (D) Himalayan Terai protection as the tiger
(C) Urbanization 21. Which one of the following has a (B) It no longer exists in the wild,
(D) Soil erosion protected mangrove region? a few individuals are under
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016] captive protection; and now
14. Among the following which state-
ment is not correct? (A) Eastern Ghats it is impossible to prevent it’s
[UPPSC (GIC) 2010] (B) Western Ghats extinction
(A) Madhya Pradesh has maximum (C) Goa (C) It is endemic to a particular
forest area (D) Chandra Tal region of India
(B) Arunachal Pradesh has maxi- 22. Which one of the following regions (D) Both (B) and (C) stated above
mum dense forest area of India has a combination of man- are correct in this context
 Environment and Ecology 481
29. The Government of India enacted (A) Medha Patkar 46. In India, in which one of the
the Forest Conservation Act in the (B) M.S. Swaminathan following types of forests is teak a
year [UPPCS (Pre) 2017 (C) Sunderlal Bahuguna dominant tree species?
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013] (D) Chandi Prasad Bhatt [IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) 1976 (B) 1980 39. Under whose leadership the (A) Tropical moist deciduous forest
(C) 1983 (D) 1988 movement against deforestation (B) Tropical rain forest
30. Forest Research Institute is located was launched in the Raini village of (C) Tropical thorn scrub forest
at [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008] Chamoli? (D) Temperate forest with
(A) Hyderabad (B) Nainital [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016] grasslands
(C) Solan (D) Dehradun (A) Sunderlal Bahuguna 47. Which of the following city of India
31. Which of the following institutions (B) Chandi Prasad Bhatt is specialised in the plantation?
is not related to the environment? (C) Gaura Devi [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013]
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016] (D) Kalyan Rawat (A) Vijayawada (B) Chandigarh
(A) Centre for Science and 40. In a particular region in India, the (C) Shillong (D) Valparai
Environment local people train the roots of living 48. Which country has the highest
(B) Botanical Survey of India trees into robust bridges across the percentage of its geographical area
(C) Indian Wildlife Institute streams. As the time passes, these under forest? [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(D) Survey of India bridges become stronger. These (A) China (B) India
32. Every year, a month long unique living root bridges are found (C) Indonesia (D) Japan
ecologically important campaign / in [IAS (Pre) 2015]
49. Which of the following forests is
festival is held during which certain (A) Meghalaya known as the ‘lungs of the planet
communities/tribes plant saplings (B) Himachal Pradesh earth’? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the (C) Jharkhand (A) Rainforests of North-East India
following are such communities/ (D) Tamil Nadu (B) Taiga forest
tribes? [IAS (Pre) 2014] 41. The pugmark technique is used (C) Tundra forest
(A) Bhutia and Lepcha [UPPCS (Mains) 2008] (D) Amazon rain forest
(B) Gond and Korku (A) for bird watching in forests 50. In which of the following
(C) Irula and Toda (B) for breeding rare wildlife in continents, the tropical deciduous
(D) Sahariya and Agariya captivity forests are most extensive?
33. India’s largest fish is (C) for estimation of population of [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014]
[UPPCS (Spl)(Pre) 2008] various wild animals (A) Africa
(A) Stone fish (B) Whale shark (D) for tattooing wildlife to (B) Asia
(C) Marlin (D) Hilsa distinguish one species from (C) Australia
34. Which animal is the symbol of the the other
(D) South America
World Wildlife Fund? 42. The main causes for the forest loss
51. Which of the following countries
[UPPCS (Pre) 2001 is [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
has passed a resolution to
UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2002, 03] (A) Road Development maintain forest on 70% land of its
(A) Tiger (B) Giant Panda (B) River Valley Projects geographical area?
(C) Hornbill (D) White Bear (C) Industrial Development [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
35. Gavialis crocodilia are found plenty (D) Agricultural Development (A) Maldives (B) Nepal
in [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1993] 43. Rajiv Gandhi Wildlife Conservation (C) Bhutan (D) Afghanistan
(A) Ganga (B) Godawari Award is given to [UPPCS (Pre) 1998] 52. Which one of the following
(C) Krishna (D) Cauvery (A) Educational and Research ecoregions of India is not correctly
36. ‘Chipko movement’ was basically Institutions matched? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
against [UPPCS (Pre) 2012 (B) Forest and wildlife officers (A) South-Western Ghats - Moist
UPPCS (Mains) 2003] (C) Wildlife conservationists forests
(A) Water pollution (D) All of the above (B) Tarai Duar - Broadleaf forests
(B) Noise pollution 44. National Bureau of Plant Genetic (C) Rann of Kutch - Grasslands
(C) Deforestation Resources is situated at (D) Eastern Deccan Plateau - Moist
(D) Cultural pollution [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] forests
37. Who among the following is con- (A) New Delhi (B) Kolkata 53. “Monoculture of commercially
sidered as the leader of the Chipko (C) Mumbai (D) Chennai viable trees in destroying the unique
Movement? [MPPCS (Pre) 2014] 45. The greatest diversity of plants and natural profile of — Thoughtless
(A) Medha Patkar animals is characteristic of exploitation of timber, deforesting
(B) Baba Amte [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] vast tracts for palm, cultivation,
(C) Sunderlal Bahuguna (A) Temperate deciduous forests destruction of mangroves, illegal
(D) Kiran Bedi (B) Tropical moist forests logging by tribals and poaching
(C) Savana only compound the problem. Fresh
38. Who is protagonist of Chipko
water pockets are fast drying up due
Movement? [MPPCS (Pre) 2016] (D) Temperate grasslands
to deforestation and destruction of
482 Objective General Studies
mangroves”. The place referred to 4. Promotion of the wide use of Code
this quotation is [IAS (Pre) 1995] insecticides and pesticides to (A) 1, 3, 4, 2 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(A) Sunderbans restrict the loss of forest area (C) 4, 3, 1, 2 (D) 2, 3, 4, 1
(B) Kerala coast from degradation caused by 64. Assertion (A): Aluminium is a
(C) Odisha coast pests and insects. green metal.
(D) Andaman and Nicobar Island The National Forest Policy of 1988 Reason (R): It substitute wood
54. The 2004 Tsunami made people includes. [IAS (Pre) 1996]
for saving the forest.
realize that mangroves can (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 4 Select the correct answer from the
serve as a reliable safety hedge (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3 code given below.
against coastal calamities. How 60. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’ [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
do mangroves function as a safety sometimes seen in the news, (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
hedge? [IAS (Pre) 2011] consider the following statements. (R) is the correct explanation of
(A) The mangrove swamps 1. It is a tree species found in a (A)
separate the human settlements part of South India. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
from the sea by a wide zone in 2. It is one of the most important but (R) is not the correct
which people neither live nor trees in the tropical rainforest explanation of (A)
venture out areas of South India. (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) The mangroves provide both Which of the statements given (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
food and medicines which above is/are correct? 65. Assertiom (A): Coastal Odisha is
people are in need of after any [IAS (Pre) 2016] most cyclone prone area of India.
natural disaster
(A) Only 1 Reason (R): There is a large
(C) The mangrove trees are tall
with dense canopies and serve (B) Only 2 amount of deforestation of
as an excellent shelter during a (C) Both 1and 2 Mangroves in Mahanadi delta area.
cyclone or Tsunami (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Choose the correct answer in the
(D) The mangrove trees do not get 61. What were the main objectives of given code. [UPPSC (GIC) 2010
uprooted by storms and tides National Forest Policy? UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2006]
because of their extensive roots 1. To ensure ecological balance. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
55. Which country has the largest (R) is the correct explanation of
2. To promote social forestry.
percentage of its total under (A)
3. One-third of the country’s total (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
forests? [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
land to be forested.
(A) Japan (B) Indonesia but (R) is not the correct
4. Encouraging public community explanation of (A)
(C) Surinam (D) Guyana participation in forest manage- (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
56. Amrita Devi Smriti Award is given ment.
for [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2003] (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Choose the correct answer by using
(A) Best afforestation efforts 66. Consider the following statements
code given below.
(B) Protection of forests and wildlife about Bhitarkanika Mangroves.
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001]
(C) Best literature on forest protec- 1. It is located in the deltaic
Code region of Vansadhara and
tion (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(D) Beautification of Parks Subarnarekha rivers.
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 3 2. It lies in the state of West
57. The World Tiger Summit, 2010 was
62. Arrange the following States of Bengal.
held at [UPPCS (Pre) 2011]
India in descending order of their Of these [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
(A) Bangkok (B) Nairobi cover (percent of forest area to total
(C) New Delhi (D) Petersburg (A) Only 1 is correct
area) and select the correct answer
58. As a part of wildlife conservation (B) Only 2 is correct
from the code. [UPPCS (Mains) 2002]
efforts in Nepal and India, a new (C) 1 and 2 both are correct
1. Haryana 2. Maharashtra
association by name ‘SAVE’ was (D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
3. Manipur 4. Odisha
launched recently. The objective of 67. Consider the following statements.
Code
SAVE is to conserve. 1. The Taxus tree naturally found
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011] (A) 3, 4, 2, 1 (B) 3, 2, 4, 1 in the Himalayas.
(A) Vultures (B) Tigers (C) 1, 4, 3, 2 (D) 4, 3, 2, 1 2. The Taxus tree is listed in the
(C) Parrots (D) Elephants 63. Arrange the following State of India Red Data Book.
59. Consider the following in descending order of their Forest- 3. A drug called ‘taxol’ is obtained
programmes. area and select the correct answer from Taxus tree which is
from the code given below. effective against Parkinson’s
1. Afforestation and development [UPPCS (Pre) 2011]
of wastelands disease.
1. Andhra Pradesh Which of the statements given
2. Reforestation and replantation
in existing forests 2. Arunachal Pradesh above is/are correct?
3. Encouraging the wood substi- 3. Chhattisgarh [IAS (Pre) 2010]
tutes and supplying other types 4. Odisha (A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2
of fuel (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

68. Consider the following statements.
1. The Worldwide Fund for
Nature was established in 1961.
2. The death of 13 lions in
Nandan Forest Sanctuary of
Orissa in July, 2000 was due to
trypanosomiasis disease.
3. The tree eucalyptus is named as
eco-friendly.
4. The biggest aquarium of India
is situated in Kolkata.
Of these statements.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2002]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1 and 2 are correct
69. Consider the following statements
in respect of Trade Related Analysis
of Fauna and Flora in Commerce
(TRAFFIC).
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under
United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to
ensure that trade in wild plants
and animals is not a threat to
the conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/
are correct? [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
70. Consider the following.
1. Star Tortoise
2. Monitor lizard
3. Pygmy hog
4. Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally
found in India? [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4 (D) All of these
71. Match List-I (Indian Wild Life
Species) with List-II (Scientific
Names) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below
the lists. [IAS (Pre) 2002]
List-I (Indian Wild Life
Species)
(a) Asiatic Wild Ass
(b) Barasingha
(c) Chinkara
(d) Nilgai
List-II (Scientific Names)
1. Boselaphus tragocamelus
2. Cervus duvauceli
3. Equus hemionus
4. Gazella Benetty
Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4 IAS (Pre) 2014]
(B) 3 2 4 1 (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 3
(C) 2 3 4 1 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 2 1 4 76. Consider the following statements.
72. Consider the following fauna of
India.
1. Gharial
2. Leatherback turtle
3. Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are
endangered? [Goa PSC (Pre) 2019
IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 3
(C) All of these (D) None of these
73. Who is/are unique about ‘Kharai
camel’, a breed found in India?
1. It is capable of swimming up to
three kilometres in seawater.
2. It survives by grazing on
mangroves.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot
be domesticated.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
74. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Mangroves are
very specialised forest ecosystem
of tropical and subtropical regions
bordering certain sea coasts.
Reason (R): They stabilise the
shoreline and act as a bulwark
against encroachments by sea.
In the context of the above two
statements which one of the
following is correct?
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019
IAS (Pre) 1996]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
75. If you travel through the Himalayas,
you are likely to see which of the
following plants naturally growing
there?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood
Select the correct answer using the
Environment and Ecology 483
code given below.
[Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018
1. Animal Welfare Board of
India is established under the
Environment (Protection) Act,
1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation
Authority is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin
Authority is chaired by the
Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[Tripura PSC (Pre) 2019
IAS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
77. Which of the following is/are
unique characteristic/characteris-
tics of equatorial forests?
1. The presence of tall, closely set
trees with crowns forming a
continuous canopy.
2. Co-existence of a large number
of species.
3. The presence of numerous
varieties of epiphytes.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) All of these
78. Consider the following States.
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
In which of the above States do
‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’
occur? [West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019
IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
79. Assertion (A): Forests are a
renewable resource.
Reason (R): They enhance the
quality of environment.
Select the correct answer from the
given below. [UPPCS (Pre) 2004
UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2002]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
484 Objective General Studies
80. Consider the following statements. 2. The National Forestry Action 1. Crocodile 2. Elephant
Assertion (A): Natural resources Programme aims at bringing Which of these is/are endangered
are those that exist in a region and one-third of the area of India species? [Orissa PSC (Pre) 2019
can also be used in future. under tree/forest cover. IAS (Pre) 2003]
Reason (R): The development of Which of these statements given (A) Only 1
an actual natural resource depends above is/are correct? (B) Only 2
upon the technology and cost of [IAS (Pre) 2005] (C) Both 1 and 2
production. (A) Only 1 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer from the (B) Only 2 84. Consider the following statements.
code given below. (C) Both 1 and 2 Assertion (A): The loss of forest
[West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 cover in India has been directly
Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016 82. According to the Wildlife associated with Demographic
UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016] (Protection) Act, 1972, which of Transition in India.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and the following animals cannot be Reason (R): The forest cover is
(R) is the correct explanation of hunted by any person except under negatively related to population
(A) some provisions provided by law? growth.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, 1. Gharial
but (R) is not the correct Select correct answer from the code
2. Indian wild ass given below. [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
explanation of (A) 3. Wild buffalo
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Select the correct answer using the (R) is the correct explanation of
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017] (A)
81. Consider the following statements. (A) Only 1 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
1. The forest cover in India (B) Only 2 and 3 but (R) is not the correct
constitutes around 20% of its (C) Only 1 and 3 explanation of (A)
geographical area. Out of the
(D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
total forest cover, dense forest
constitutes around 40%. 83. Consider the following animals of (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
India.

Answer Sheet
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (A) 54. (D) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (D) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (A)
61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (D) 65. (A) 66. (D) 67. (D) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (A)
71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (A) 74. (A) 75. (A) 76. (B) 77. (D) 78. (C) 79. (B) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (A) 84. (A)

7. Sanctuaries and Biosphere Reserves

1. Today how many national parks 3. International ‘Tiger Day’ is 6. The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes
are there in India, which has observed on [UPPCS (Mains) 2014] seen in the news in the context of
been established to protect wild (A) 24th July (B) 29th July [IAS (Pre) 2017]
animals? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1993] (C) 20th July (D) 25th July (A) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(A) 39 (B) 49 4. Most of the wildlife protected areas (B) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(C) 59 (D) 96 in India are surrounded by (C) Indigenous Satellite Navigation
2. ‘Project Tiger’ of the Government [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006] System
envisages [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2019 (A) Dense forests (D) Security of National Highways
UPPCS (Pre) 1994] (B) Rivers and lakes
(C) Human settlements 7. National Biological Garden of India
(A) To observe the habits of the
(D) Mountains and hills is situated in [UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
tiger
(B) Collect vital information about 5. ‘Project Tiger’ in India was started (A) Mumbai
different species in [MPPCS (Pre) 2008, 2012 (B) Lucknow
(C) To save the Indian tiger from UPPCS (Pre) 2002] (C) New Delhi
extinction (A) 1970 (B) 1973 (D) Bengaluru
(D) None of the above (C) 1981 (D) 1984
 Environment and Ecology 485
8. Which one of the following is the 17. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere State
first National Park of India? Biosphere Reserve? [IAS (Pre) 2005] Reserves
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017 (A) Agasthyamalai (A) Similipal - Odisha
MPPCS (Pre) 2012
(B) Nallamalai (B) Nokrek - Meghalaya
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
(C) Nilgiri (C) Agasthyamalai - Kerala
(A) Kanha National Park (D) Panchmarhi (D) Kanchenjunga - Himachal
(B) Dudhwa National Park Pradesh
18. Which of the following sanctuaries
(C) Rajaji National Park is not correctly matched with the 25. Which of the following biosphere
(D) Jim Corbett National Park specified protected species? reserves of India is spread over
9. The Rajiv Gandhi National Park is [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009] Garo Hills? [UPPSC (RI) 2014]
located in [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002 (A) Jim Corbett - Tiger (A) Nokrek
UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(B) Ghana - Lion (B) Agasthyamalai
(A) Andhra Pradesh (C) Kaziranga - Rhinoceros (C) Dehang Debang
(B) Rajasthan (D) Periyar - Elephants (D) Nanda Devi
(C) Madhya Pradesh 19. Biosphere reserves are areas to 26. In which State Nanda Devi
(D) Karnataka preserve Biosphere Reserve is located?
10. Maintenance of genetic diversity in [UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004] [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
National Parks is done by (A) Grasslands (A) Chhattisgarh
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(B) Agricultural produce (B) Assam
(A) In-situ conservation (C) Atmospheric balance (C) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Ex-situ conservation (D) Genetic diversity (D) Uttarakhand
(C) Gene pool 20. Which one of the following pairs is 27. Which one of the following is a
(D) None of the above not correctly matched? ‘Word Heritage’ site?
11. The Periyar Game Sanctuary is [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] [UPPCS (Pre) 2008
famous for [UPPCS (Pre) 2011] Biosphere Location UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
(A) Lions Reserve (A) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(B) Spotted deer (A) Manas - Meghalaya (B) Corbett National Park
(C) Tigers (B) Nanda Devi - Uttarakhand (C) Rajaji National Park
(D) Wild Elephants (C) Kanchenjunga - Sikkim (D) Gir Forest
12. Betla National Park is situated at (D) Agasthyamalai - Kerala 28. India has recently added one more
[MPPCS (Pre) 1990] 21. Out of all the Biosphere Reserve in Biosphere Reserve. Which of these
(A) UP (B) Bihar India, four have been recognized is the latest one in the list?
(C) MP (D) Odisha on the world Network by UNESCO. [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2010]
13. Rani Jhansi Maritime National Park Which one of the following is not (A) Nokrek
was founded in [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] one of them? [IAS (Pre) 2008] (B) Dehang Debang
(A) 1994 (B) 1995 (A) Gulf on Mannar (C) Similipal
(C) 1996 (D) 1997 (B) Kanchenjunga (D) Cold desert
14. The largest Tiger Habitat in India is (C) Nanda Devi 29. In which one among the following
in [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017 (D) Sunderbans categories of protected areas in
UPPCS (Mains) 2011] 22. Which one of the following does not India are local people not allowed
(A) Andhra Pradesh find a place in UNESCO network of to collect and use the biomass?
(B) Karnataka biosphere reserve? [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019
(C) Madhya Pradesh [Manipur PSC (Pre) 2019 IAS (Pre) 2012]
(D) Uttar Pradesh UPPCS (Mains) 2009] (A) Biosphere Reserve
15. Where is the home of the Asiatic (A) Sunderban (B) National Parks
Lion? [Manipur PSC (Pre) 2017 (B) Gulf of Mannar (C) Wetlands declared under
MPPCS (Pre) 1998] (C) Rann of Kutch Ramsar Convention
(A) Gir Forest (D) Nilgiri (D) Wildlife Sanctuaries
(B) Kanha 23. Which one of the following pairs is 30. Which of the following National
(C) Corbett Park correctly matched? Parks/Sanctuary is known as
[West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019 ‘World Natural Heritage’?
(D) Dudhwa
UPPCS (Mains) 2007] [Nagaland PSC (Pre) 2019
16. Which one of the following does not RAS/RTS (Pre) 1992]
belong to biosphere reserves set-up (A) Simlipal - Assam
(B) Nokrek - Meghalaya (A) Ranthambore National Park,
so far? [Tripura PSC (Pre) 2017
(C) Dehang Debang - Sikkim Sawai Madhopur
IAS (Pre) 1995]
(D) Agasthyamalai - Karnataka (B) Keoladeo National Park,
(A) Great Nicobar
Bharatpur
(B) Sunderbans 24. Which of the following is not
properly matched? (C) Desert National Park, Jaisalmer
(C) Nanda Devi
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (D) Tal Chhapar Sanctuary, Churu
(D) Gulf of Kutch
486 Objective General Studies
31. In India ‘Project Elephant’ was 39. Which one among the following has 47. Which one of the following is not a
launched in the year the maximum number of National Project Tiger Reserve in India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2007] Parks? [IAS (Pre) 2008] [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012]
(A) 1968 (B) 1970 (A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (A) Dudhwa (B) Chilka
(C) 1972 (D) 1992 (B) Arunachal Pradesh (C) Kanha (D) Manas
32. Where is the wild ass sanctuary? (C) Assam 48. Which one of the following Tiger
[UPPCS (Pre) 2010] (D) Meghalaya reserves of India is located in
(A) UP (B) Assam 40. Which one of the following States Mizoram? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
(C) Gujarat (D) Rajasthan has the ideal habitat for the Siberian (A) Melghat (B) Buxa
33. One horned rhinoceros is found in crane? [UPPCS (Pre) 1996 (C) Dampha (D) Bhadra
the following States. UPPSC (GIC) 2010] 49. Which one of the following pairs is
[MPPCS (Pre) 2008] (A) Rajasthan not correctly matched?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura (B) Arunachal Pradesh [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(B) West Bengal and Assam (C) Andhra Pradesh Tiger Reserve State
(C) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam (D) Odisha (A) Buxa - Bihar
(D) West Bengal and Tripura 41. Which of the following is not (B) Dampha - Mizoram
34. Sanctuary famous for Rhinoceros correctly matched? (C) Nameri - Assam
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2010] [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] (D) Namdapha - Arunachal
(A) Kaziranga National Park State Pradesh
(B) Gir (A) Bandipur - Karnataka 50. Which of the following tiger reserve
(C) Ranthambore (B) Rajaji - Uttarakhand lies in two states?
(D) Corbett (C) Similipal - Odisha [UPPCS (Mains) (Spl) 2008]
35. In which of the following National (D) Pin Valley - Jammu and (A) Kanha (B) Manas
Parks of India Rhinoceros rehabli- Kashmir (C) Pench (D) Sariska
tation is being done? 42. Sariska and Ranthambore are the 51. Which of the following is not a tiger
[UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004] reserves for which of the following sanctuary? [MPPCS (Pre) 1997]
(A) Corbett National Park animals? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2010] (A) Kanha
(B) Dudhwa National Park (A) Lion (B) Deer (B) Ranthambore
(C) Kanha National Park (C) Tiger (D) Bear (C) Kaziranga
(D) Kaziranga National Park 43. Tiger reserve of Sariska is located in (D) Bandhavgarh
36. Recently there was a proposal to which state? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012] 52. Kaziranga is known for
translocate some of the lions from (A) Uttar Pradesh [UPPCS (Pre) 2012
their natural habitat in Gujarat to (B) Rajasthan Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
which one of the following sites? (C) Uttarakhand (A) Rhinoceros (B) Tiger
[IAS (Pre) 2017] (D) Madhya Pradesh (C) Birds (D) Lion
(A) Corbett National Park 44. Which of the following is not 53. For what is the Manas sanctuary in
(B) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary correctly matched? Assam known?
(C) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009] [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2010]
(D) Sariska National Park (A) Bandipur National Park - (A) Bears (B) Tigers
37. Which of the following is not Karnataka (C) Elephants (D) Birds
correctly matched? (B) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary - 54. Which of the following is not
[Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2019 Assam correctly matched?
Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2003] (C) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary - [UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
(A) Mahuatai Sanctuary - Palamu Kerala (A) Kaziranga National Park - Assam
(B) Topchanchi Sanctuary - (D) Similipal National Park - (B) Corbett National Park -
Dhanbad Madhya Pradesh Uttarakhand
(C) Udhwa Bird Sanctuary - 45. ‘Salim Ali National Park’ is located (C) Bandipur National Park - Tamil
Kodarma in [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005] Nadu
(D) Lavalong Sanctuary - Chatra (A) Maharashtra (D) Sanjay National Park - Madhya
38. Select the State from amongst (B) Jammu and Kashmir Pradesh
the following, with the maximum (C) Madhya Pradesh 55. From the ecological point of view,
number of wildlife sanctuaries. (D) Andhra Pradesh which one of the following assumes
(National Park and Sanctuaries) 46. Which one of the following national importance in being a good link
[UPPCS (Pre) 2008 between the Eastern Ghats and
parks is not listed in ‘Project Tiger’?
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004] Western Ghats? [IAS (Pre) 2017]
[MPPCS (Pre) 1994]
(A) Uttar Pradesh (A) Kanha (A) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(B) Rajasthan (B) Ranthambore (B) Nallamala Forest
(C) Madhya Pradesh (C) Corbett (C) Nagarhole National Park
(D) West Bengal (D) Karera (D) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

56. Which one of the following is
located in the Bastar region?
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015
IAS (Pre) 2007]
(A) Bandhavgarh National Park
(B) Dandeli Sanctuary
(C) Rajaji National Park
(D) Indravati National Park
57. Which one of the following is
located in Chhattisgarh?
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
(A) Anshi National Park
(B) Betla National Park
(C) Indravati National Park
(D) Gugamal National Park
58. Which of the following has
been recently declared as ‘Tiger
Reserve’? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
(A) Balpakram National Park
(B) Rajaji National Park
(C) Betala National Park
(D) Kaziranga National Park
59. Which one of the following is not
correctly matched?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Rajaji National Park - Elephant
(B) Periyar National Park - Hangul
(C) Manas National Park - Elephant
(D) Dudhwa National Park - Tiger
60. Which one of the following pairs is
correctly matched?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Great Himalayan National Park
- Manali
(B) Rajaji National Park - Dehradun
(C) Keoladeo National Park -
Bharatpur
(D) Van Vihar National Park -
Jabalpur
61. The Yellowstone National Park is
located in [UPPCS (Mains) 2011
UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005, 06
UPPSC (GIC) 2010]
(A) Canada (B) New Zealand
(C) South Africa (D) USA
62. Which of the following is a Marine
National Park?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) Bhitarkanika
(B) Sundarban
(C) Gahirmatha
(D) Gulf of Mannar
63. The UNESCO declared which one
of the following National Park of
India as the World Heritage Site in
July, 2016? [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
(A) Kaziranga National Park
(B) Kanchenjunga (Khangchengt-
zonga National Park)
(C) Corbett National Park
(D) Valley of Flowers National Park
64. “India has the largest population of
the Asian X. Today, there are just
about 20000 to 25000 X in their
natural habitat spreading across
the evergreen forests, dry thorn
forest, swamps and grasslands.
Their prime habitats, are however
the moist deciduous forests. The
X population in India ranges from
North-West India where they are
found in Dehradun and Nainital
of Uttarakhand to forest areas
of Bijnor in Uttar Pradesh to the
Western Ghats in the States of
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
In Central India, their population is
distributed in Southern Bihar and
Odisha. In the East, they are seen
in North Bengal, Assam and a few
other states”.
The animal ‘X’ referred to in this
question is [IAS (Pre) 1999]
(A) Lion
(B) Elephant
(C) Tiger
(D) One horned rhinoceros
65. Which of the following National
Parks is unique in being swamp
with floating vegetation that
supports a rich biodiversity?
[IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Bhitarkanika National Park
(B) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(C) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
(D) Sultanpur National Park
66. Which of the following State has
declared a particular butterfly as
‘State Butterfly’ for the first time in
our country? [IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Maharashtra
67. Which one of the following pairs is
correctly matched?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Biosphere reserves - Edward
Suess
(B) Ecosystem - A.P. de Candolle
(C) Ecology - A.G. Tansley
(D) Biodiversity - Reiter
68. Which of the following aerial
photographs are suitable for
wildlife management in Corbett
and Rajaji National Park?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Small scale photographs
(B) Medium scale photographs
Environment and Ecology 487
(C) Large scale photographs
(D) Extra large scale photographs
69. Bundala Biosphere Reserve which
has been recently added to the
UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere
(MAB) network is located in
[IAS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Russia (B) India
(C) Sri Lanka (D) Bangladesh
70. ‘Man and Biosphere Programme’
(MAB) by UNESCO was started in
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1991 (B) 1970
(C) 1971 (D) 1986
71. Great Himalayan National Park,
which has been accorded the
UNESCO World Heritage Site
status, is located in
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Nagaland
72. Which one of the following is
(regarding area) the largest
UNESCO approved biosphere
reserve of India?
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013]
(A) Nilgiri
(B) Nanda Devi
(C) Sunderban
(D) Gulf of Mannar
73. The 16th Biosphere Reserve of
India Cold Desert lies in
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Uttarakhand
74. The garden of five seasons is
located near [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
(A) Dal Lake
(B) Mehrauli
(C) Silent Valley
(D) Ooty
75. The world’s largest population of
tigers is in India. It is estimated
[40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
(A) 6000 (B) 16000
(C) 2226 (D) 10600
76. Which of the following National
Parks has started to use a drone
or unmanned aerial vehicle for
wildlife management?
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014]
(A) Bandipur Tiger Reserve
(B) Corbett Tiger Reserve
(C) Ranthambore Tiger Reserve
(D) Periyar Tiger Reserve
488 Objective General Studies
77. Which National Park/Sanctuary (A) Madhya Pradesh (b) Kangerghat National Park
has been selected to house Gir (B) Rajasthan (c) Orang Sanctuary
Lions? [MPPCS (Pre) 2008] (C) Gujarat (d) Ushkothi Wildlife Sanctuary
(A) Pench (D) West Bengal List-II (State)
(B) Kanha 85. Suklaphanta Wildlife Reserve is 1. Odisha 2. Assam
(C) Bandhavgarh located in [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] 3. Chhattisgarh 4. Goa
(D) Palpur Kuno (A) Nepal (B) Myanmar 5. Tripura
78. In which of the following regions of (C) Bhutan (D) Sri Lanka Code
India are you most likely to come 86. The first marine sanctuary in India (a) (b) (c) (d)
across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in with coral reefs, mollusks, dolphins, (A) 2 1 5 3
its natural habitat? [IAS (Pre) 2016] tortoises and various kinds of sea (B) 4 3 2 1
(A) Sand deserts of North-West birds, within it’s bounds, has been (C) 2 3 5 1
India established in [IAS (Pre) 1999]
(D) 4 1 2 3
(B) Higher Himalayas of Jammu (A) Sundarbans
and Kashmir 94. Consider the following pairs.
(B) Chilka Lake
(C) Salt marshes of Western 1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve -
(C) Gulf of Kutch
Gujarat Garo Hills
(D) Lakshadweep
(D) Western Ghats 2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake - Barail
87. The ‘Cloud Goats’ of the Nilgiri are Range
79. If you want to see gharials in their found in [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
natural habitat, which one of the 3. Namdapha National Park -
(A) Eravikulam National Park Dafla Hills
following is the best place to visit?
(B) Mann Forest Which of the above pairs is/are
[IAS (Pre) 2017]
(C) Periyar Reserve correctly matched?
(A) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(D) Silent Valley [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(B) Chambal River
88. The Chinar Wildlife Sanctuary is (A) Only 1
(C) Pulicat Lake
located in [UPPCS (Mains) 2005] (B) 2 and 3
(D) Deepor Beel
(A) Jammu and Kashmir (C) All of the above
80. At which place India’s first Butterfly
(B) Kerala (D) None of the above
Park has been established?
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2008]
(C) Sikkim 95. Consider the following pairs.
(D) Tamil Nadu Protected area Well-known
(A) Bannerghatta Biological Park,
Bangalore 89. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is for
(B) National Zoological Park, situated in 1. Bhitarkanika, - Salt Water
[56th to 59th BPSC (Pre) 2015] Odisha Crocodile
Kolkata
(C) Kaziranga National Park (A) Chandigarh (B) Bharatpur 2. Desert National - Great Indian
(D) None of the above (C) Gurgaon (D) Gandhi Nagar Park, Rajasthan Bustard
81. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary is situated 90. The bird sanctuary of Tamil Nadu is 3. Eravikulam, - Hoolak,
in the district of located in [UPPCS (Mains) 2008] Kerala Gibbon
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003] (A) Karikili Which of the pairs given above is/
(A) Almora (B) Chamoli (B) Kalakadu are correctly matched?
(C) Uttarkashi (D) Pithoragarh (C) Kunthakulum [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2018
(D) Mudumalia IAS (Pre) 2010]
82. The Corbett National Park gets its
water from [UPPCS (Mains) 2006] 91. Which of the following countries (A) Only 1
(A) Alaknanda river has more than 30% of its total area (B) Only 1 and 2
(B) Ramganga river under National Parks? (C) Only 2
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015] (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Dhauliganga river
(A) Israel (B) Bhutan 96. Match List-I with List-II and select
(D) Sarda river
(C) Iceland (D) Gabon the correct answer using the code
83. Which one of the following
92. The largest Botanical garden of the given below the lists.
National Park has a climate that
varies from tropical to subtropical, world is at [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
(A) Kew (England) UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
temperature and arctic?
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2017 (B) Paris (France) List-I (National Park)
IAS (Pre) 2015] (C) Howrah (India) (a) Kaziranga
(A) Khangchendzonga National (D) Tokyo (Japan) (b) Kudremukh
Park 93. Match List-I with List-II and select (c) Silent Valley
(B) Nanda Devi National Park the correct answer using the code (d) Pench Valley
(C) Neora Valley National Park given below the lists. List-II (Location)
(D) Namdapha National Park [IAS (Pre) 2005] 1. Chikmagalur
84. Buxa Tiger Reserve is located in List-I (National Park/Wildlife 2. Palghat
which State of India? Sanctuary) 3. Nagpur
[UPPCS (Pre) 2003] (a) Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary 4. Golaghat-Nawgaon
 Environment and Ecology 489
Code Which of the above pairs is/are Code
(a) (b) (c) (d) correctly matched? [IAS (Pre) 2014] (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1 (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3 (A) 1 3 5 4
(B) 4 1 2 3 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 5 2 4
(C) 2 4 1 3 101. Match List-I with List-II and select (C) 4 5 2 1
(D) 1 3 4 2 the correct answer using the code (D) 4 3 5 1
97. Match List-I with List-II and select given below the lists. 104. Consider the following statements.
the correct answer using the code [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019
1. The boundaries of a National
given below the lists. UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
Park are defined by legislation.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008] List-I (Biosphere sites) 2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared
List-I (Tiger Reserve) (a) Nilgiri to conserve a few specific
(a) Bandipur (b) Melghat (b) Nanda Devi species of flora and fauna.
(c) Buxa (d) Pakke (c) Sunderban 3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary limited
List-II (State) (d) Kanchenjunga biotic interference is permitted.
1. West Bengal List-II (Year of setting up) Which of the statements given
2. Karnataka 1. 2000 2. 1989 above is/are correct?
3. 1988 4. 1986 [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
3. Arunachal Pradesh
IAS (Pre) 2010]
4. Maharashtra Code
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
Code
(A) 1 2 3 4 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) 4 3 2 1 105. Consider the following statements
(A) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2 and select the correct answer from
(B) 2 4 1 3 the code given below.
(C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 2 3 1 4
[Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019
(D) 1 2 4 3 102. Match List-I with List-II and select UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
98. Consider the following pairs. the correct answer using the code
1. Similipal National Park is
1. Dampa Tiger Reserve - Mizoram given below the lists.
situated in Odisha.
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary - 2. Thailand was known as Siam
Sikkim List-I (Biosphere Reserve)
during ancient time.
3. Saramati Park - Nagaland (a) Nokrek
3. Astadiggajas were the gem of
Which of the above pairs is/are (b) Manas the court of Shivaji.
correctly matched? [IAS (Pre) 2014] (c) Dehang Debang 4. Astachap was a group of
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3 (d) Agasthyamalai devotees who were a disciple of
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 List-II (Location) Adi Shankara.
99. Consider the following pairs. 1. Kerala Code
National Park River flow- 2. Assam (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
ing through 3. Meghalaya (C) 3 and 4 (D) All four
the park 4. Arunachal Pradesh 106. Match List-I with List-II and select
1. Corbett - Ramganga Code the correct answer using the code
National Park (a) (b) (c) (d) given below the lists.
2. Kaziranga - Diphlu (A) 2 3 1 4 [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2019
National Park (B) 3 2 4 1 UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
3. Silent Valley - Kunthipuzha (C) 4 1 3 2 List-I (National Park)
National Park (D) 1 4 2 3 (a) Bandhavgarh National Park
Which of the above pairs is/are 103. Match List-I with List-II and select (b) Bandipur National Park
correctly matched? [IAS (Pre) 2013] the correct answer using the code (c) Rohla National Park
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 3 given below the lists. (d) Gir National Park
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016]
List-II (State)
100. Consider the following pairs. List-I (Biosphere Reserve)
1. Himachal Pradesh
Wetlands Confluence (a) Similipal
2. Gujarat
of rivers (b) Dihang Dibang
3. Madhya Pradesh
1. Harike - Confluence (c) Nokrek
Wetlands of Vyas and 4. Karnataka
(d) Cold desert
Satluj/Sutlej Code
List-II (States)
2. Keoladeo - Confluence (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. Himachal Pradesh
Ghana of Banas and (A) 3 4 1 2
2. Uttarakhand
National Park Chambal (B) 4 3 2 1
3. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Kolleru Lake - Confluence (C) 1 2 3 4
4. Odisha
of Musi and (D) 3 2 1 4
Krishna 5. Meghalaya
490 Objective General Studies
107. Match List-I with List-II and select 110. Match List-I (National Park/Wild- 2. Arunachal Pradesh
the correct answer using the code life Sanctuary) with List-II (Nearby 3. Assam
given below the lists. Town) and select the correct 4. Rajasthan
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001] answer using the code given below Code
List-I the lists. [IAS (Pre) 2006]
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary List-I (A) 2 3 1 4
(b) Okhla Bird Sanctuary (National Park/Wildlife
(B) 4 3 1 2
(c) Samaspur Bird Sanctuary Sanctuary)
(C) 1 2 4 3
(d) Parvati Aranga Bird Sanctuary (a) Chandra Prabha
(D) 3 2 1 4
List-II (b) Karera
114. Match the following.
1. Gonda 2. Unnao (c) Jaisamand
[MPPCS (Pre) 1999]
3. Ghaziabad 4. Raibareli (d) Nahargarh
List-I
Code List-II (Nearby Town)
(a) Kanha National Park
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1. Jaipur 2. Jhansi
(b) Bandhavgarh National Park
(A) 2 4 3 1 3. Agra 4. Varanasi
(c) Madhav National Park
(B) 2 3 4 1 5. Udaipur
(d) Indravati National Park
(C) 4 3 1 2 Code
List-II
(D) 3 4 2 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. Shivpuri 2. Mandla
108. Match the following List-I with (A) 4 1 5 2
3. Bastar 4. Shahdol
List-II and select the correct answer (B) 5 2 3 1
Code
using the code given below the (C) 4 2 5 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
lists. [UPPCS (Pre) 1998] (D) 5 1 3 2
(A) 2 4 1 3
List-I (States) 111. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer using the code (B) 1 2 4 3
(a) Uttarakhand (C) 3 2 1 4
(b) Assam given below the lists.
[UPPCS (Mains) 2006] (D) 4 3 2 1
(c) Odisha
List-I (Tiger Reserve) 115. Match the following.
(d) Karnataka [MPPCS (Pre) 1993]
List-II (National Park) (a) Bandipur (b) Manas
(c) Namdapha (d) Similipal List-I
1. Bandipur (a) Gir Forest
2. Rajaji National Park List-II (State)
1. Assam (b) Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary
3. Similipal (c) Bandhavgarh Sanctuary
4. Manas 2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Karnataka (d) Kaziranga National Park
Code List-II
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4. Odisha
Code 1. Rajasthan
(A) 1 2 3 4 2. Madhya Pradesh
(B) 2 4 3 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4 3. Assam
(C) 4 3 2 1 4. Gujarat
(B) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4 Code
(C) 3 1 4 2
109. Read the list of National Parks and (a) (b) (c) (d)
(D) 4 3 2 1
Animals housed for conservation. (A) 1 2 4 3
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2013] 112. Consider the following areas.
1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika (B) 4 1 2 3
List-I (National Parks) (C) 2 4 3 1
3. Manas 4. Sunderbans
(a) Bandipur (b) Kaziranga (D) 2 3 1 4
Which of the above are Tiger
(c) Sunderbans (d) Similipal
Reserves? [IAS (Pre) 2012] 116. Match List-I with List-II and select
List-II (Animals) the correct answer using the code
(A) 1 and 2
1. Tiger reserve given below the lists.
(B) 1, 3 and 4
2. Elephant reserve [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(C) 2, 3 and 4
3. One horn Rhinoceros reserve List-I (Park/Sanctuary)
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. Biosphere and Tiger reserve (a) Dochigam Wildlife Sanctuary
113. Match List-I with List-II and select
Which one of the following is the correct answer using the code (b) Keoladeo Ghana Bird Sanctuary
correctly matched? given below the lists. (c) Kanha National Park
Code [UPPCS (Mains) 2003] (d) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
(a) (b) (c) (d) List-I (Sanctuary) List-II (State)
(A) 2 4 1 3 (a) Garmapani (b) Nam Dapha 1. Madhya Pradesh
(B) 1 3 4 2 (c) Pakhal (d) Sariska 2. Rajasthan
(C) 4 1 3 2 List-II (State) 3. Kerala
(D) 3 1 2 4 1. Andhra Pradesh 4. Jammu and Kashmir
 Environment and Ecology 491
Code Code 119. Match List-I with List-II and select
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) the correct answer using the code
(A) 4 2 1 3 (A) 3 1 2 4 given below the lists.
(B) 1 3 2 4 (B) 2 1 3 4 [UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(C) 2 1 4 3 (C) 1 2 4 3 List-I
(D) 3 4 2 1 (D) 3 4 2 1 (Sanctuary/National Park)
117. Match List-I with List-II and select 118. Arrange the following National (a) Kaziranga
the correct answer using the code Parks in their chronological order (b) Gir
given below the lists. from the earliest to the latest and (c) Sundarban
[Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019 select the correct answer from the (d) Periyar
UPPCS (Pre) 2015] code given below the parks. List-II
List-I [Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2019 (Main Protected Animal)
(a) Dochigam UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016] 1. Tiger
(b) Papikonda 1. Silent Valley 2. Elephant
(c) Sariska 2. Jim Corbett 3. Lion
(d) Bandipur 3. Kaziranga 4. Rhinoceros
List-II 4. Kanha Code
1. Andhra Pradesh Code (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. Jammu and Kashmir (A) 1, 3, 2, 4 (A) 1 4 3 2
3. Rajasthan (B) 4, 2, 1, 3 (B) 2 4 1 3
4. Karnataka (C) 3, 1, 4, 2 (C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 2, 4, 3, 1 (D) 4 3 2 1

Answer Sheet
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (B)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)
51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (B) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (C)
61. (D) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (D) 67. (A) 68. (A) 69. (C) 70. (C)
71. (B) 72. (D) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (D) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (A)
81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (D) 85. (A) 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (A)
91. (B) 92. (A) 93. (B) 94. (A) 95. (B) 96. (B) 97. (B) 98. (C) 99. (D) 100. (A)
101. (B) 102. (B) 103. (D) 104. (C) 105. (A) 106. (A) 107. (B) 108. (B) 109. (B) 110. (C)
111. (A) 112. (B) 113. (D) 114. (A) 115. (B) 116. (A) 117. (B) 118. (D) 119. (C)

8. Non-Conventional Energy
1. Solar energy is drawn from which (A) Coal (A) Petroleum product
of the following? (B) Nuclear energy (B) Forest product
[44th BPSC (Pre) 2000] (C) Petrol (C) Nuclear fission
(A) Moon (B) Ocean (D) Solar energy (D) Solar cell
(C) Sun (D) The Wind 4. Which of the following is the largest 6. Which one of the following is not a
2. Among following energy sources storehouse of alternative energy? fossil fuel? [Goa PSC (Pre) 2019
which one is used maximum in [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017 MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
organic form? 40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
[UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
(A) Coal (B) Petroleum
(A) Solar energy
(A) Nuclear energy (C) Natural gas (D) Uranium
(B) Tidal energy
(B) Solar energy 7. Which form of energy does not
(C) Nuclear energy
create environment issue?
(C) Geo-thermal energy (D) Geo-thermal energy [West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019
(D) Tidal energy 5. Which of the following energy UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004]
3. Which one of the following is a source is most eco-friendly? (A) Coal (B) Nuclear
renewable source of energy? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015
[MPPCS (Pre) 2016] UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
(C) Petrol (D) Solar
492 Objective General Studies
8. Which one of the following fuels
creates the least pollution?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2017
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015, 13
UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
(A) Diesel (B) Coal
(C) Hydrogen (D) Kerosene
9. What is meant by energy crisis?
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006]
(A) Shortage of hydro-electricity
(B) Malnutrition leading to a short
supply of energy in the body
(C) Shortage of thermal power
(D) The danger of extinction of
fosssil fuel like coal and petrol
10. Which one of the following is the
best source of generating electricity
in India from the view point of
sustainable development?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Coal
(B) Mineral oil and gas
(C) Hydro-electricity
(D) Atomic energy
11. Which one of the following sources
of renewable energy has the
greatest potential in India?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Solar power
(B) Biomass power
(C) Small hydel power
(D) Energy recovery from waste
12. Which of the following statements
about bio-fuel is not correct?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2014]
(A) Bio-fuel is eco-friendly
(B) Bio-fuel is cost effective
(C) Bio-fuel can contribute to
remedy energy crisis
(D) Bio-fuel is also made from corn
13. Which one of the following is a bio-
diesel crop? [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Cotton (B) Sugarcane
(C) Jatropha (D) Potato
14. Which of the following is the source
of ‘Green Fuel’?
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
(A) Pyne (B) Carnage
(C) Furn (D) All of these
15. Given below are the names of four
energy crops. Which one of them
can be cultivated for ethanol?
[IAS (Pre) 2010]
(A) Jatropha (B) Maize
(C) Pongamia (D) Sunflower
16. Under the Nuclear Power Projects,
Environmental Effects that have to
be studied and resolved are
[Kerala PSC (Pre) 2016
UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
(A) Radioactive contamination of
air, soil and water
(B) Deforestation and loss of flora
and fauna
(C) Radioactive waster disposal
(D) All of the above
17. Which of the following renewable
power resources had highest
installed capacity in the country?
[Haryana PSC (Pre) 2018
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Biomass power
(B) Solar power
(C) Waste to energy
(D) Wind power
18. Biomass gasification is considered
to be one of the sustainable
solutions to the power crisis in
India. In this context, which of
the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
1. Coconut shells, groundnut
shells and rice husk can be used
in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases gener-
ated from biomass gasification
consist of hydrogen and carbon
dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases gener-
ated from biomass gasification
can be used for direct heat gen-
eration but not in internal com-
bustion engines.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
19. Consider the following statements.
1. The International Solar
Alliance was launched at the
United Nations Climate Change
Conference in 2015.
2. The Alliance includes all the
member countries of the United
Nations.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Concerning ‘fuel cells’ in which
hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen
are used to generate electricity.
Consider the following statements.
1. If pure hydrogen is used as a
fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and
water as a by-product.
2. Fuel cells can be used for
powering buildings and not
for small devices like laptop
computers.
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in
the form of Alternating Current
(AC).
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
21. Assertion (A): Coal-based ther-
mal power stations contribute to
acid rain.
Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are
emitted when coal burns.
[IAS (Pre) 2003]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of
(A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
22. Microbial fuel cells are considered a
source of sustainable energy. Why?
1. They use living organisms as
catalysts to generate electricity
from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic
materials as substrates.
3. They can be installed in waste
water treatment plants to
cleanse water and produce
electricity.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2011]
(A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
23. It is possible to produce algae based
bio-fuels, but what is/are the likely
limitations of developing countries
in promoting this industry?
1. Production of algae based bio-
fuels is possible in seas only and
not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering
the algae based bio-fuel
production requires high level
of expertise/technology until
the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production
necessitates the setting up
of large scale facilities which
may raise ecological and social
concerns.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
 Environment and Ecology 493
24. Consider the following statements. Which of the statements given Code
At the present level of technology above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2010] (a) (b) (c) (d)
available in India, solar energy can (A) Only 1 (A) 3 4 2 1
be conveniently used to (B) Only 2 (B) 3 4 1 2
1. Supply hot water to residential (C) Both 1 and 2 (C) 2 1 3 4
buildings. (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (D) 1 2 3 4
2. Supply water for minor irriga- 26. In which of the following areas of 28. What is the importance of bio-
tion projects. India geo-thermal energy sources asphalt?
3. Provide street lighting. have not been found? 1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-
4. Electrify a cluster of villages [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] asphalt is not based on fossil
and small towns. (A) Godawari Delta fuels.
Of these statements. (B) Ganga Delta 2. Bio-asphalt can be made from
[IAS (Pre) 1996] (C) Himalayas non-renewable resources.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct (D) West Coast 3. Bio-asphalt can be made from
(B) 2 and 4 are correct 27. Match List-I with List-II and select non-organic waste materials.
(C) 1 and 3 are correct the correct answer using the code 4. It is eco-friendly to use bio-
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct given below the lists. asphalt for surfacing of the
25. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is [UPPCS (Pre) 2015] roads.
Pongamia pinata also considered List-I Which of the statements given
a good option for the procedure of (a) Minerals (b) Solar energy above is/are correct?
bio-diesel in India? (c) Biogas (d) Deforestation [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2018
1. Pongamia pinata grows IAS (Pre) 2011]
List-II
naturally in most of the arid (A) 1, 2 and 3
1. Rainfall
regions of India. (B) 1, 3 and 4
2. Methane and carbon dioxide
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinata (C) 2 and 4
3. Exhaustible
are rich in lipid content of (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
which nearly half is oleic acid. 4. Inexhaustible

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (B)

9. Pollutions
1. The combustion of coal, petrol and (A) Mercury (B) Sewage 7. During normal conditions, the gas
diesel etc., is the basic source of (C) Plastic (D) Asbestos which pollutes the atmosphere is
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011] 5. Photochemical smog is a resultant [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
(A) Water pollution of the reaction among (A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(B) Land pollution [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2019 (B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(C) Air pollution IAS (Pre) 2013] (C) Nitrogen (N2)
(D) Noise pollution (A) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl (D) Oxygen (O2)
2. Which of the following is nitrate in the presence of 8. Which one of the following is not a
produced during the formation of sunlight secondary pollutant?
photochemical smog? (B) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
[IAS (Pre) 2003] nitrate in the presence of (A) PAN
(A) Hydrocarbons sunlight (B) Smog
(B) Nitrogen oxides (C) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low (C) Sulphur dioxide
(C) Ozone temperature (D) Ozone
(D) Methane (D) High concentration of NO2, O3
9. Colourless gas coming out from
3. Human-made pollutants are called and CO in the evening
motor vehicle and cigarette due to
[UPPCS (Pre) 2005] 6. Which of the following is the incomplete combustion is
(A) Xenobiotics reason behind the maximum noise [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2019
(B) Antibiotics pollution? [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2019 Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003]
(C) Humalins UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2003]
(A) Carbon dioxide
(D) Anthropogenic (A) Heavy Traffic (B) Nitrous oxide
4. Bio-degradable pollutant is (B) Election Meetings (C) Carbon monoxide
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016 (C) Rock Music (D) Methane
UPPCS (Pre) 2014] (D) Jet Flight
494 Objective General Studies
10. Pollutant emission gas in vehicle 18. Acid rain is caused by pollution of (A) Coal
exhaust is mainly environment by [UPPSC (GIC) 2010 (B) Charcoal
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2002 UPPCS (Mains) 2007 (C) Diesel/kerosene oil
44th BPSC (Pre) 2000] Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001] (D) CNG
(A) Carbon dioxide 26. ‘Green Muffler’ is related to
(A) Carbon monoxide and carbon
(B) Carbon monoxide dioxide [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(C) Marsh gas (B) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen (A) Soil pollution
(D) Nitrogen oxide (C) Nitrous oxide and sulphur (B) Air pollution
11. Combustion of petrol in automo- dioxide (C) Noise pollution
biles pollutes the air by producing (D) Carbon dioxide (D) Water pollution
following metal. 27. Bhopal Gas Tragedy (leakage of
19. Acid rain occurs due to
[Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
[UPPCS (Pre) 2001] methyl isocyanate ‘MIC’) accident
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015]
(A) acid vapour reaching the clouds happened on
(A) Mercury [Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
(B) reaction between rain water
(B) Cadmium (A) 2 December, 1982
and carbon dioxide polutants
(C) Lead (B) 3 December, 1985
(C) reaction between clouds and
(D) Carbon dioxide sulphur dioxide pollutants (C) 3 December, 1984
12. Which one of the following air (D) reaction between water (D) 4 December, 1986
pollutants can affect blood stream vapour and electric ions during 28. The gas which leaked from Union
leading to death? [UPPCS (Pre) 2013 lightening and cloud burst Carbide factory, Bhopal was
Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2012]
20. Which of the following, when [UPPCS (Pre) 2008
(A) Asbestos dust dissolved in rain water turns rain UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
(B) Cadmium water acidic (acid rain)? (A) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrogen oxides [RAS/RTS (Pre) 2005] (B) Methane
(D) Carbon monoxide (A) Oxide of sulphur (C) Methyl isocyanate (MIC)
13. Which of the following air polluta- (B) Oxide of boron (D) Sulphur dioxide
nts get dissolved in haemoglobin (C) Hydrochloric acid 29. Polythene bags cannot be destro-
of the blood more rapidly than (D) Nitric acid yed because they are made of
oxygen? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016]
21. Acid rain is caused by [UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
(A) PAN [West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2019 (A) Unbreakable molecules
(B) Carbon dioxide 47th BPSC (Pre) 2005] (B) Inorganic compounds
(C) Carbon monoxide (A) Industries (B) Petrol (C) Polymers
(D) Ozone (C) Burning coal (D) Wood (D) Proteins
14. Which of the following air 22. Which one of the following gases is 30. Which of the following is not
pollutants is most dangerous? responsible for causing acid rain in destroyed by bacteria?
[UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014] the atmosphere? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1992]
(A) Ozone [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002 (A) Cow dung
(B) Hydrogen sulphide UPPCS (Pre) 2003] (B) Leafs
(C) Carbon dioxide (A) CFC (B) CH4 (C) Food ingredients
(D) Carbon monoxide (C) O3 (D) SO2 (D) Plastic
15. The non-biotic pollutant under- 23. Which one of the following is an 31. Which one of the following is
ground water is [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] air pollutant gas and is released by biodegradable?
(A) Bacteria (B) Algae burning fossil fuel? [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014]
(C) Arsenic (D) Viruses [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
(A) Plastic (B) Polythene
16. Indiscriminate use of fertilizers (A) Hydrogen (C) Mercury (D) Rubber
have led to [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2019 (B) Nitrogen 32. Which of the following takes
UPPCS (Pre) 2016] (C) Oxygen maximum time to decay?
(A) Soil pollution (D) Sulphur dioxide [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016
(B) Water pollution 24. Which one of the following is not UPPCS (Spl)(Pre) 2008]
(C) Air pollution related to air pollution? (A) Cigarette bud
(D) All of the above [Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019 (B) Leather shoe
17. The highest chemical pollution is UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
(C) Photo film
caused by the industrial effluents (A) Smog (D) Plastic bag
of [Maharashtra PSC (Pre) 2019 (B) Acid rain 33. Which one of the following is a bio-
UPPCS (Pre) 2005] (C) Eutrophication indicator of air pollution?
(A) Leather industry (D) Asbestosis [UPPCS (Pre) 2013
(B) Paper industry 25. Fly ash is a pollutive combustion UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010]
(C) Rayon industry product of burning (A) Lichen (B) Fern
(D) Textile industry [UPPCS (Mains) 2004] (C) Money plant (D) Dodder
 Environment and Ecology 495
34. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) 42. The most toxic metal pollutant of (C) Nitrogen dioxide
is an indication of pollution in automobile exhaust is (D) Radon gas
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Mains) 2007] [UPPCS (Mains) 2009, 06 52. The International Acid Rain
(A) Aquatic environment UPPCS (Pre) 2006
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
Information Centre has been set up
(B) Soil at [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017
(A) Copper (B) Lead
(C) Air UPPCS (Pre) 2005]
(C) Cadmium (D) None of these
(D) All of the above (A) Berlin (B) Oslo
43. The most polluted city of India is (C) Osaka (D) Manchester
35. A water body having high BOD
[UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
indicates that its water is 53. Improper handling and storage of
[UPPCS (Pre) 2007] (A) Ankleshwar (B) Lucknow cereal grains and oilseeds result in
(A) Receiving minerals (C) Ludhiana (D) Raipur the production of toxins known as
(B) Being aerated 44. Which was the seasonal factor Aflatoxins which are not destroyed
responsible for intense cold in by the normal cooking process?
(C) Being contaminated by sewage
Northern India in January, 2012? Aflatoxins are produced by
(D) Atrophic [UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2010] [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2019
36. The water pollution in a river is (A) Deforestation IAS (Pre) 2013]
determined by measuring the
(B) Atmospheric pollution (A) Bacteria (B) Protozoa
dissolved amount of
[UPPCS (Pre) 2011] (C) La Nina (C) Molds (D) Viruses
(A) Chlorine (B) Nitrogen (D) Al Nino 54. Which one of the following is not
(C) Ozone (D) Oxygen 45. Which of the following rivers is an instrumental device to check air
called ‘biological desert’ on account pollution? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
37. BOD is maximum in the Ganga river
of its pollutants? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] (A) Bag Filter
between [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
(A) Yamuna (B) Periyar (B) Cyclone Collector
(A) Haridwar and Kanpur
(C) Damodar (D) Mahanadi (C) Cyclone Separator
(B) Kanpur and Allahabad
46. Which of the following is used as an (D) Cyclone Divider
(C) Allahabad and Patna
adulterant of a mustard seed? 55. Recently, ‘oil zapper’ was in the
(D) Patna and Uluberia [UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Pre) 2010] news. What is it? [IAS (Pre) 2011]
38. Bioremediation means (A) Argimon seed
[Telangana PSC (Pre) 2019
(A) It is an eco-friendly technology
(B) Papaya seed for the remediation of oily
RAS/RTS (Pre) 2007]
(C) Cumin seed sludge and oil spills
(A) Elimination of toxic pollutant
from environment by organisms (D) Coriander seed (B) It is the latest technology
47. Which one of the following is used developed for undersea oil
(B) Biocontrol of pathogens and
to clean polluted environment? exploration
pests
[UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2013] (C) It is genetically engineered high
(C) Transplantation of organs in
(A) Oxygen (B) Rain bio-fuel-yielding Maize variety
the body
(C) Nitrogen (D) Air (D) It is the latest technology to
(D) Diagonosis of diseases by the
48. Cigarette smoke contains control the accidentally caused
help of micro-organisms
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015] flames from oil wells
39. Which of the following is not a
(A) Carbon monoxide dioxycine 56. The headquarter of International
water pollutant?
Maritime Organization is located in
[Mizoram PSC (Pre) 2017 (B) Carbon monoxide and nicotine
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
UPPCS (Mains) 2011] (C) Carbon monoxide and benzene
(A) London (B) Geneva
(A) Zinc (D) Dioxycine and benzene
(C) Paris (D) Rome
(B) Copper 49. Which one of the following
countries receive the most acid 57. ‘Knock-Knee syndrome’ is caused
(C) Nickel
rain? [UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
by the pollution of
(D) Sulphur dioxide [West Bengal PSC (Pre) 2017
40. The problem of water pollution (A) China (B) Japan UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
with Arsenic is maximum in (C) Norway (D) USA
(A) Mercury (B) Lead
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015] 50. Asian Brown Cloud, 2002 was (C) Arsenic (D) Fluoride
(A) Haryana mainly spread over
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2003]
58. Euro emission norms are emission
(B) Rajasthan standards and these represent a
(C) Madhya Pradesh (A) East Asia package setting limits for emission
(D) West Bengal (B) South-East Asia from a vehicle. Which of the
41. Chernobyl accident is related with (C) South Asia following gases is covered under
[Meghalaya PSC (Pre) 2019 (D) West Asia this? [Tripura PSC (Pre) 2018
Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015] 51. The most important indoor air UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Nuclear accident pollutant is (A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Earthquake [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2015] (B) Hydrocarbons
(C) Flood (A) Sulphur dioxide (C) Lead
(D) Acid rain (B) Carbon dioxide (D) All of the above
496 Objective General Studies
59. To meet Euro-II emission standards, List-I (Air Pollutant) 69. Consider the following.
what should be the sulphur content (a) Asbestos dust 1. Carbon dioxide
in the ultra low sulphur diesel? (b) Lead 2. Oxides of nitrogen
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (c) Mercury 3. Oxides of sulphur
(A) 0.05 % or less than this (d) Carbon monoxide Which of the given above is/are
(B) 0.10 % List-II (Part affected) the emission/emissions from coal
(C) 0.15 % 1. Brain 2. Stomach combustion at thermal power
(D) 0.20 % 3. Lung 4. Blood stream plants? [IAS (Pre) 2011]
60. Euro Norms place limits on the Code (A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
amount of an emission of gas in (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
automobiles. The gas is 70. Concerning ‘fly ash’ produced by
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 1999] (A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 2 4 the power plants using coal as fuel,
(A) Carbon dioxide which of the following statements
(B) Carbon monoxide (C) 3 2 4 1
is/are correct?
(C) Nitrogen (D) 2 3 1 4
1. Fly ash can be used in the
(D) Methane 66. Match List-I with List-II and select production of bricks for
the correct answer using the code building construction.
61. Carbon monoxide, emitted by
given below the lists.
vehicles which turn to carbon 2. Fly ash can be used as a
[UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
dioxide by the catalyst converter, replacement for some of the
whose ceramic disc is controlled by List-I (Pollutants) Portland cement concrete.
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 1994] (a) Carbon monoxide 3. Fly ash is made up of silicon
(A) Silver (B) Gold (b) Oxides of nitrogen dioxide and calcium oxide only,
(C) Copper (D) Palladium (c) Soil particles and does not contain any toxic
62. Which megacity of India generates (d) Lead elements.
the largest soild waste per capita List-II (Effects) Select the correct answer using the
annually? [UPPCS (Pre) 2010] 1. Damage to liver and kidney code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2015]
(A) Bangalore (B) Chennai 2. Cancer (A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(C) Delhi (D) Mumbai 3. Ailment related to breathing (C) 1 and 3 (D) Only 3
63. There is a concern over the increase 4. Central nervous system 71. Which of the following statements
in harmful algal blooms in the Code about Radioactive pollution are
sea-waters of India. What could (a) (b) (c) (d) correct?
be the causative factors for this (A) 2 3 4 1 1. It causes a hereditary change in
phenomenon? (B) 4 3 2 1 the animals.
1. Discharge of nutrients from the (C) 1 2 3 4 2. It causes disbalance among
estuaries. different minerals in the soil.
(D) 4 3 1 2
2. Run-off from the land during 3. It hinders blood circulation.
67. Which of the following are some
the monsoon. 4. It causes carcinogenesis.
important pollutants released by
3. Upwelling in the seas. the steel industry in India? Select the correct answer from the
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. Oxides of sulphur
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2011] [UPPCS (Pre) 2009]
2. Oxides of nitrogen
(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2 (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4
3. Carbon monoxide
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
4. Carbon dioxide
64. Assertion (A): During winter, air 72. Concerning bio-toilets used by
Select the correct answer using the
pollution in Delhi reaches to the the Indian Railways, consider the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2014]
maximum level. following statements.
(A) Only 1, 3 and 4
Reason (R): Combustion process 1. The decomposition of human
(B) Only 2 and 3 waste in their toilets is initiated
in motor vehicles increases during
winter. [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2004]
(C) Only 1 and 4 of by fungal inoculum.
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Ammonia and water vapour
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of 68. Which of the following countries are the only end products in
(A) suffer from the acid rains? this decomposition which are
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, 1. Canada 2. France released into the atmosphere.
but (R) is not the correct 3. Norway 4. Germany Which of the statements given
explanation of (A) Select the correct answer from the above is/are correct?
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false code given below. [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2017
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true [UPPCS (Pre) 2011] IAS (Pre) 2015]
65. Match List-I with List-II and select (A) 1 and 2 (A) Only 1
the correct answer using the code (B) 1 and 3 (B) Only 2
given below the lists. (C) 2 and 3 (C) Both 1 and 2
[UPPCS (Pre) 2012] (D) 3 and 4 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
 Environment and Ecology 497
73. Which of the following can be health hazard. After the addition the nanoparticles of some chemical
found as pollutants in the drinking of lead to petrol has been banned, elements that are used by the
water in some parts of India? what still are the sources of lead industry in the manufacture of
1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol poisoning? various products. Why?
3. Fluoride 4. Formaldehyde 1. Smelting units 1. They can accumulate in the
5. Uranium 2. Pens and pencils environment and contaminate
Select the correct answer using the 3. Paints water and soil.
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2013] 4. Hair oils and cosmetics 2. They can enter the food chains.
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2, 4 and 5 Select the correct answer using the 3. They can trigger the production
(C) 1, 3 and 5 (D) All of these code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012] of free radicals.
74. The acidification of oceans is (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 Select the correct answer using the
increasing. Why is this phenomenon (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2014]
a cause of concern? 77. Consider the following statements. (A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 3
1. The growth and survival of Assertion (A): Soil pollution is (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
calcareous phytoplankton will more dangerous as compared to 80. In the acid rain, the rain water and
be adversely affected. industrial pollution. snow is contaminated by which of
2. The growth and survival of Reason (R): Fertilizer and pesti- the following pollutants?
coral reefs will be adversely cide enter into food cycle. [Assam PSC (Pre) 2019]
affected. 1. Sulphur dioxide
Choose the correct answer from the
3. The survival of some animals code given below. 2. Nitrogen oxide
that have phytoplankton larvae [UPPSC (GIC) 2010] 3. Carbon dioxide
will be adversely affected. 4. Methane
4. The cloud seeding and Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and Code
formation of clouds will be
adversely affected. (R) is the correct explanation of (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) Only 1 and 2
(A) (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) Only 2 and 3
Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2012] (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, 81. In the context of solving
but (R) is not the correct pollution problems, what is/are
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2 explanation of (A) the advantage/advantages of
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false bioremediation technique?
75. In the cities of our country, which (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 1. It is a technique for cleaning
among the following atmospheric 78. Brominated flame retardants are up pollution by enhancing the
gases are normally considered in used in many household products same biodegradation process
calculating the value of Air Quality like mattresses and upholstery. that occurs in nature.
Index? Why is there some concern about 2. Any contaminant with heavy
1. Carbon dioxide their use? metals such as cadmium and
2. Carbon monoxide 1. They are highly resistant to deg- lead can be readily and com-
3. Nitrogen dioxide radation in the environment. pletely treated by bioremedia-
4. Sulphur dioxide 2. They can accumulate in tion using micro-organisms.
5. Methane humans and animals. 3. Genetic engineering can be
Select the correct answer using the Select the correct answer using the used to create micro-organisms
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016] code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2014] specifically designed for biore-
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 (A) Only 1 mediation.
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 2 Select the correct answer using the
(C) Only 1, 4 and 5 (C) Both 1 and 2 code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017]
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
76. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
79. There is some concern regarding

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (B) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (C)
51. (D) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A) 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (C) 65. (B) 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A)
71. (C) 72. (D) 73. (C) 74. (A) 75. (B) 76. (B) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (B)
81. (C)
498 Objective General Studies

10. Water Conservation

1. In which of the following years Commission established ‘Irrigation reimbursed by the Government.
was constituted the ‘Central Ganga Research and Management Organi- Select the correct answer using the
Authority’ by Government of India? sation’? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016] code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
[Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2017 (A) 1984 (B) 1948 (A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2
UPPCS (Mains) 2014] (C) 1964 (D) 2004 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(A) 1975 (B) 1982 10. The arsenic contamination of 17. What is the role of Ultra-violet (UV)
(C) 1985 (D) 1995 drinking water is highest in radiation in the water purification
2. The Integrated Ganga Conservation [UPPCS (Pre) 2005] system?
Mission has been called as (A) Chennai (B) Kanpur 1. It inactivates, kills the harmful
[Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012] (C) Kolkata (D) Mumbai micro-organisms in water.
(A) Clean Ganga 11. Water (Prevention and Control of 2. It removes all the undesirable
(B) Sacred Ganga Pollution) Cess was enforced in odours from the water.
(C) The Great Ganga [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013] 3. It quickens the sedimentation
(D) Namami Gange (A) 1973 (B) 1975 of solid particles, removes
3. The World Water Conservation Day (C) 1977 (D) 1979 turbidity and improves the
is celebrated on [UPPCS (Pre) 2011] 12. In which year was the Water clarity of water.
(A) 28 February (B) 22 March Pollution Prevention and Control Which of the statement(s) given
(C) 5 June (D) 11 July Act enforced? [MPPCS (Pre) 2017] above is/are correct?
4. Which one of the following is not a (A) 1980 (B) 1974 [Telangana PSC (Pre) 2016
biotic resource? IAS (Pre) 2012]
(C) 1981 (D) None of these
[UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2016] 13. Which of the following is/are used (A) Only 1 (B) 2 and 3
(A) Fresh water (B) Coal as a disinfectant of water? (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Petroleum (D) Fish [UPPCS (Pre) 2016] 18. Which of the following are the key
5. National Ganga River Basin (A) Ozone features of ‘National Ganga River
Authority has been constituted in (B) Chlorine dioxide Basin Authority (NGRBA)’?
[UPPCS (Mains) 2010] (C) Chloramine 1. River basin is the unit of
(A) October, 2008 (D) All of the above planning and management.
(B) February, 2009 2. It spearheads the river
14. The Yamuna Action Plan was
(C) October, 2009 conservation efforts at the
formally launched in
national level.
(D) March, 2010 [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
3. One of the Chief Ministers
6. In the year 2009, India set-up the (A) 1991 (B) 1992
of the States through which
following to clean the Gangas (C) 1993 (D) 1994 the Ganga flows becomes
[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2013] 15. Which one of the following lakes the Chairman of NGRBA on a
(A) National Ganga Commission has been recently included under rotational basis.
(B) Clean Ganga Authority National Lake Conservation Select the correct answer using the
(C) National Ganga River Basin Project? [UPPCS (Pre) 2010] code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016]
Authority (A) Bhimtal (B) Pulicat (A) Only 1 and 2
(D) National Mission for Clean (C) Ooty (D) Sambhar (B) Only 2 and 3
Ganga River 16. If National Water Mission is prop- (C) Only 1 and 3
7. Who among the following erly and completely implemented, (D) 1, 2 and 3
environmentalists is known by the how will it impact the country?
name of ‘Jal Purush’? 19. The wetlands falling within
1. Part of the water needs of urban urban areas which are being dealt
[Tripura PSC (Pre) 2016 areas will be met through
MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
with under the National Lake
recycling of waste water. Conservation Plan with the aim of
(A) Sundarlal Bahuguna 2. The water requirements of Pollution control are
(B) Rajendra Singh coastal cities with inadequate
1. Bhoj - Madhya Pradesh
(C) B. Venkateshwarlu alternative sources of water will
be met by adopting appropriate 2. Sukhana - Chandigarh
(D) Salim Ali
technologies that allow the use 3. Chilka - Odisha
8. Which one of the following gases is 4. Pichola - Rajasthan
used for the purification of drinking of ocean water.
water? [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2019 3. All the rivers of Himalayan Select the correct answer using the
UPPCS (Pre) 2013] origin will be linked to the code given below.
rivers of peninsular India. [Andhra Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2016
(A) Sulphur dioxide UPPCS (Pre) 2002]
(B) Chlorine 4. The expenses incurred by
farmers for digging borewells (A) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Fluorine
and for installing motors and (B) 2, 3 and 4
(D) Carbon dioxide pump-sets to draw ground- (C) 1, 3 and 4
9. In which year Central Water water will be completely (D) 1, 2 and 4

20. Which of the following leaf
modifications occur/occurs in
desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2013]
(A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 3 (D) All of these
21. Other than poaching, what are the
possible reasons for the decline in
the population of Ganges River
Dolphins?
1. Construction of dams and
barrages on rivers
2. Increase in the population of
crocodiles in rivers
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets
accidentally
Environment and Ecology 499
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and
other agricultural chemicals
in crop-fields in the vicinity of
rivers
Select the correct answer using the
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2014]
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (D)
21. (C)

11. Miscellaneous
1. Which one of the following is the 6. The Marine National Park is located 11. The Indira Gandhi Paryavaran
correct definition of ‘Agenda 21’? in [UPPCS (Mains) 2016] Puraskar is awarded every year for
[UPPCS (Pre) 2013] (A) Gulf of Kutch [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
(A) It is an action plan of UNO for (B) Sunderban (A) Significant contribution in the
protecting human rights (C) Chilka Lake field of environment
(B) It is book of 21st chapters on (D) None of the above (B) Outstanding contribution in
nuclear disarmament 7. ‘Bhitarkanika’ which has recently the field of afforestation
(C) It is action plan for the conser- been included in the list of ‘World (C) Outstanding contribution
vation of global environment in Heritage Sites’ is situated in in the field of waste land
21st century [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
developement
(D) It is an agenda for the election (D) Exemplary work in the field
(A) Andhra Pradesh
of the President in the next of wildlife conservation and
(B) Chhattisgarh research
meeting of SAARC
(C) Odisha
2. ‘Agenda-21’ is related to which 12. Which one of the following pairs is
(D) West Bengal not matched correctly?
field? [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2014]
8. The ‘Kailash Sacred Landscape [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2009]
(A) Sustainable development Conservation and Development Ini-
(B) Nuclear disarmament (A) Appico Movement - P. Hedge
tiative’ (KSLCDI) is a collaboration (B) Chipko Movement - S.L.
(C) Patent protection among which three nations? Bahuguna
(D) Agricultural subsidies [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(C) Sava Narmada Movement -
3. Which of the following is known as (A) India, Afghanistan, China Medha Patkar
‘Dakshin-Gangotri’? (B) India, Nepal, Afghanistan (D) Silent Valley Movement - Baba
[Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Mains) 2007] (C) India, Nepal, Pakistan Amte
(A) The place of origin of the river (D) India, China, Nepal
13. Medha Patkar is related to which
Kaveri 9. Tsunami is the result of movement? [MPPCS (Pre) 1993]
(B) The place where Periyar flows [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Chipko Movement
Northwards (A) Shrinking of the Earth’s crust
(B) Cyclones (B) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(C) India’s first Antarctic Research
Station (C) Submarine earthquakes (C) Naxalite Movement
(D) The rocket launching centre in (D) Tides (D) Harm to agricultural land
Kerala 10. Which one of the following is not 14. ‘Rally for Valley’ programme in
4. The name of the India’s third correctly matched? India was organised to highlight
research station in Antarctica? [UPPCS (Pre) 2012] the problems of
(A) Centre for Ecological Science [UPPCS (Mains) 2003]
[53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
(A) Bharti (B) Swagtam (CES) - Bengaluru (A) Environment Degradation
(C) Hindustan (D) Maitri (B) Wildlife Institute of India (B) Biodiversity
5. In Uttar Pradesh the first bio-tech - Dehradun (C) Resettlement
park was established at (C) Indian Institute of Forest (D) Harm to agricultural land
[UPPCS (Mains) 2011, 10, 08, 05
Management - Kolkata 15. The World Habitat Day is observed
UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010]
(D) G.B. Pant Institute of on [UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
Himalayan Environment and (A) 21 March (B) 23 March
(A) Agra (B) Allahabad
Development - Almora
(C) Lucknow (D) Varanasi (C) 5 June (D) 5 October
500 Objective General Studies
16. The World Anti-Tobacco Day is (C) Agriculture 33. ‘Global 500’ awards are given for
celebrated every year on (D) Atomic Physics achievements in [UPPCS (Pre) 2005
[UPPCS (Mains) 2008] UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
25. Which one of the following is the
(A) 12th May (B) 13th May national aquatic animal of India? (A) Population control
(C) 21st May (D) 31st May [IAS (Pre) 2015] (B) Campaign against terrorism
17. 19th November is observed as the (A) Salt-water crocodile (C) Protection of environment
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015] (B) Olive ridley turtle (D) Campaign against drugs
(A) World Green Day (C) Gangetic dolphin 34. How many agreements are there in
(B) World Anti-Poverty Day (D) Gharial Agenda-21? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
(C) World Toilet Day 26. For weather science dispatch, (A) 4 (B) 5
(D) World Clean Water Day which of the following is used to fill (C) 6 (D) 7
18. Prime Minister of India launched ballons? [RAS/RTS (Pre) 1997] 35. Prestigious ‘Tyler Prize’ is given in
‘Swachha Bharat Mission’ officially (A) Oxygen the field of [UPRO/ARO (Pre) 2004]
on [MPPCS (Pre) 2014] (B) Carbon dioxide (A) Drama
(A) Independence Day (C) Methane (B) Woman Rights
(B) Republic Day (D) Helium (C) Child Rights
(C) Gandhi Jayanti 27. For the betterment of human life, (D) Environment Protection
(D) Environment Day which of the following steps is 36. International Decade for Natural
19. In which district will the National important? [IAS (Pre) 2009] Disaster Reduction (IDNDR) is
Dinosaur Fossil Park be set up? (A) Afforestation [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
[MPPCS (Pre) 2010] (B) Ban on mining (A) 1990-1999 (B) 1981-1990
(A) Balaghat (B) Mandsaur (C) Protection of Wildlife (C) 2001-2010 (D) 2011-2020
(C) Dhar (D) Mandla (D) Reduce the use of natural 37. District Disaster Management
20. Central Arid Zone Research resources Authority (DDMA) is headed by
Institute (CAZRI) is situated at [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
28. If LANDSAT data for an area is
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2008] received today, then the data for (A) District Magistrate
(A) Ahmedabad (B) Bangalore an adjacent area to its West will be (B) District Collector
(C) Hyderabad (D) Jodhpur available [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013] (C) Any of them as the case may be
21. Indian Institute of Ecology and (A) In the next orbit of the satellite (D) None of the above
Environment is situated in which of on the same day 38. Where is the National Centre for
the following cities? (B) Next day at the same local time Disaster Management (NCDM)
[UPPCS (Mains) 2016 (C) After the certain number of located? [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
UP UDA/LDA (Spl)(Mains) 2008] days at the same local time (A) Nagpur (B) New Delhi
(A) New Delhi (D) After the variable controllable (C) Hyderabad (D) Pune
(B) Thiruvananthapuram time 39. Functions of Development of Disas-
(C) Kolkata 29. Which of the following hurricane ter Management Knowledge-cum-
(D) Jodhpur affected North-Eastern and eastern Demonstration Centre (SRIJAN)
22. AGMARK Act came into force in coastal area of USA in 2012? are [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
India in [UPPCS (Mains) 2009] [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014] (A) Creating knowledge-cum-
(A) 1937 (B) 1952 (A) Katrina (B) Vilma demonstration centres
(C) 1957 (D) 1965 (C) Rita (D) Sandy (B) Creating awareness
23. The term ‘Domestic Content 30. Tree useful for prevention of dust (C) Providing local need based
Requirement’ is sometimes seen in pollution [UPPCS (Pre) 2007] information
the news with reference to (A) Sita Ashok (B) Mahua (D) All of the above
[IAS (Pre) 2017] (C) Poplar (D) Neem 40. Section .... of the Disaster Manage-
(A) Developing solar power 31. In which of the following states ment Act, 2005 empowers Gov-
production in our country is Periyar Wild Life Sanctuary ernor of a State to establish State
(B) Granting licenses to foreign TV situated? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015] Disaster Management Authority
channels in our country (A) Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu (SDMA). [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2016]
(C) Exporting our food products to (C) Karnataka (D) Telangana (A) Section 14(1)
other countries 32. Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is (B) Section 15
(D) Permitting foreign educational given for outstanding contribution (C) Section 16
institutions to set up their to [UPPCS (Mains) 2006] (D) None of the above
campuses in our country (A) Afforestation and conservation 41. Which one of the following
24. In which of the scientific fields, of wastelands countries celebrates the National
Borlaug award is given? (B) Neat technology and develop- Cleanliness Day on last Saturday of
[UPPCS (Pre) 2001] ment the every month? [UPPCS (Pre) 2003
(A) Medicine (C) Wild Life conservation UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2002]
(B) Space Research (D) Hindi books on environment (A) France (B) Italy
(C) Sierra Leone (D) Singapore

42. Which one of the following has
been recognized as a Mega diverse
country?
[UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
(A) New Zealand
(B) Australia
(C) Nepal
(D) Austria
43. Which of the following is called
‘grave year of Dinosaurs’?
[RAS/RTS (Pre) 2010]
(A) China (B) Montana
(C) Argentina (D) Brazil
44. The ‘Eco Mark’ Scheme was
launched in 1991 to encourage
consumers to buy products of less
harmful environmental impact.
Which one of the following con-
sumer products is not notified un-
der this Scheme? [UPPCS (Pre) 2013]
(A) Soaps and Detergents
(B) Paper and Plastics
(C) Cosmetics and Aerosols
(D) Drugs and Antibiotics
45. Which Indian scientist is recognised
by ‘UNEP’ as Father of Economic
Ecology? [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
(A) B.P. Pal
(B) Yash Pal
(C) M.S. Swaminathan
(D) R. Mishra
46. Which one of the following is
evergreen fruit plant?
[UPPCS (Pre) 2008]
(A) Apple (B) Almond
(C) Peach (D) Loquat
47. Weather monitering device SODAR
is established at [UPPCS (Pre) 2004]
(A) Jaipur
(B) Cuttak
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Kaiga and Kalpakkam
48. Winterline, the natural phenomena
is observed in which part of the
country?
[Uttarakhand Lower Sub. (Pre) 2010]
(A) Shimla (B) Darjeeling
(C) Mussoorie (D) Nainital
49. Glaciation of peninsular India
occured during which of the
following ice age?
[UP UDA/LDA (Spl) (Mains) 2010]
(A) Huronian ice age
(B) Carboniferus ice age
(C) Plestocin ice age
(D) Little ice age
50. Which of the following has the low-
est mean net primary productivity?
[UPPCS (Pre) (Re. Exam) 2015]
Environment and Ecology 501
(A) Temperate forests 3. Recommendations, if any,
(B) Tropical forests made by the medical profession
(C) Temperate grasslands about the possibility of any
(D) Tropical savanna allergic reactions
51. The Oceanic National Park of India 4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian
is located in [UPPCS (Mains) 2013] Select the correct answer using the
(A) Kutch code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016]
(B) Sundarban (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) Chilka Lake (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 4
(D) Nicobar Islands 55. With reference to Bombay Natural
52. With reference to ‘Organization History Society (BNHS), consider
for the Prohibition of Chemical the following statements.
Weapons (OPCW)’, consider the 1. It is an autonomous
following statements. organization under the
1. It is an organization of Ministry of Environment and
European Union in working Forests.
relation with NATO and WHO. 2. It strives to conserve nature
2. It monitors the chemical through action-based
industry to prevent new research, education and public
weapons from emerging. awareness.
3. It provides assistance and 3. It organizes and conducts
protection to States (Parties) nature trails and camps for the
against chemical weapons general public.
threats. Which of the statements given
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[IAS (Pre) 2014]
above is/are correct?[IAS (Pre) 2016]
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3 (A) Only 1 and 3 (B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
53. Which of the following best 56. If you walk through countryside,
describe/describes the aim of you are likely to see some birds
‘Green India Mission’ of the stalking alongside the cattle to seize
Government of India? the insects disturbed by their move-
ment through grasses. Which of the
1. Incorporating environmental
following is/are such bird/birds?
benefits and costs into the
Union and State Budgets 1. Painted Stork
thereby implementing the 2. Common Myna
‘green accounting’. 3. Black-necked Crane
2. Launching the second green Select the correct answer using the
revolution to enhance code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2014]
agricultural output so as to (A) 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
ensure food security to one and (C) 2 and 3 (D) Only 3
all in the future. 57. Match List-I with List-II and select
3. Restoring and enhancing forest the correct answer using the code
cover and responding to climate given below the lists.
change by a combination of [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015]
adaptation and mitigation List-I (Wild Life Sanctuary)
measures.
(a) Namdapha (b) Bandipur
Select the correct answer using the (c) Periyar (d) Lanjao
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2016]
List-II (State)
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3
1. Karnataka
(C) Only 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
2. Arunachal Pradesh
54. With reference to pre-packaged
3. Manipur
items in India, it is mandatory for
the manufacturer to put which of 4. Kerala
the following information on the Code
main label, as per the Food Safety (a) (b) (c) (d)
and Standards (Packaging and (A) 2 1 4 3
Labelling) Regulations, 2011? (B) 4 3 2 1
1. List of ingredients including (C) 4 2 1 3
additives (D) 2 4 3 1
2. Nutrition information
502 Objective General Studies
58. Match List-I with List-II and select given below the lists. (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 1 and 3
the correct answer using the code [UPPCS (Pre) 2017] (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 1
given below the lists. List-I (Institute) 62. Match List-I with List-II and select
[UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2015] (a) Forest Research Institute the correct answer using the code
List-I (b) Indian Grassland and Fodder given below the lists.
(a) Skin cancer Research Institute [IAS (Pre) 2001]
(b) Noise pollution (c) Central Arid Zone Research List-I (Important Day)
(c) Global warming Institute (a) World Environment Day
(d) Ozone hole (d) Indian Agricultural Research (b) World Forestry Day
List-II Institute (c) World Habitat Day
1. Chlorofluoro carbon List-II (City) (d) World Ozone Day
2. Ultraviolet light 1. Jodhpur 2. New Delhi List-II (Date)
3. Decible 3. Dehradun 4. Jhansi 1. 21 March
4. Carbon dioxide Code 2. 5 June
Code (a) (b) (c) (d) 3. 16 September
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 4 1 3 4. 4 October
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 3 4 1 2 5. 10 October
(B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 1 3 2 4 Code
(C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 4 2 3 1 (a) (b) (c) (d)
(D) 4 3 2 1 61. With reference to the role of UN- (A) 2 1 4 5
59. Match List-I with List-II and select Habitat in the United Nations (B) 1 2 4 3
the correct answer using the code programme working towards a (C) 1 2 3 4
given below the lists. better urban future, which of the (D) 2 1 4 3
[UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2004] statements is/are correct?
63. Match List-I with List-II and select
List-I (Institute) 1. UN-Habitat has been mandated the correct answer using the code
(a) National Institute of Nutrition by the United Nations given below the lists.
General Assembly to promote
(b) Wild Life Institute of India [UPPCS (Mains) 2002]
socially and environmentally
(c) National Institute of Ayurveda sustainable towns and cities to List-I (State)
(d) National Institute of provide adequate shelter for (a) Assam
Naturopathy all. (b) Gujarat
List-II (Place) 2. Its partners are either (c) Madhya Pradesh
1. Pune 2. Jaipur governments or local urban (d) Uttarakhand
3. Dehradun 4. Hyderabad authorities only. List-II (National Park)
Code 3. UN-Habitat contributes to the 1. Kaziranga 2. Kanha
(a) (b) (c) (d) overall objective of the United 3. Corbett 4. Gir
(A) 1 2 3 4 Nations system to reduce Code
(B) 2 3 4 1 poverty and to promote access
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) 3 4 1 2 to safe drinking water and basic
sanitation. (A) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 2 1 (B) 2 4 1 3
Select the correct answer using the
60. Match List-I with List-II and select (C) 1 3 2 4
code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2017]
the correct answer using the code (D) 1 4 2 3

Answer Sheet
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (A)
31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (A)
41. (C) 42. (B) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (C)
51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (A) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (D)