Math Questions

Q 1. Find the number of ways of giving at least one coin out of three 1 rupee coins and two 5
rupees coins to a beggar.
A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. 10

Q 2. S1: If a leap year is selected at random, the chance that it will contain 53 Sundays and 53
1
Mondays is 7.
S2: A leap year has 366 days.
A. Both the statements are true.
B. S1 is true but S2 is false.
C. S1 is false but S2 is true
D. Both the statements are false.

𝑑𝑢
Q 3. If 𝑢 = 𝑓(cot⁡𝑥), 𝑣 = 𝑔(cosec⁡𝑥) and 𝑓 ′ (1) = 2𝑔′ (√2) then |
𝑑𝑣 𝑥=𝜋
4

A. 2√2
1
B.
√2
C. √2
D. 3√2

ln⁡(𝑥+√1+𝑥 2 )
Q 4. If ∫ 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑓 ∘ 𝑔(𝑥) + 𝑐, then find 𝑓(𝑥) and 𝑔(𝑥).
√1+𝑥 2
1 2
A. 𝑓(𝑥) = 2
𝑥 , 𝑔(𝑥) = ln⁡(𝑥 + √1 + 𝑥 2 )
2
B. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 , 𝑔(𝑥) = ln(𝑥 + √1 + 𝑥 2 )
C. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥, 𝑔(𝑥) = ln(𝑥 + √1 + 𝑥 2 )
D. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 2 , 𝑔(𝑥) = ln⁡(𝑥)

2
Q 5. Find 𝑓(𝑥), if 𝑓(𝑥) = ∫0 |𝑥 − 𝑡|𝑑𝑡; 𝑥 > 2
A. 2𝑥 − 2
B. 2𝑥 − 3
C. 2𝑥 − 4
D. 2𝑥 + 1
Q 6. Find the area enclosed by the curve 𝑥 = 4 − 3𝑦 − 𝑦 2 , y-axis and the points where the curve
cuts the 𝑦-axis.
125
A. 6
sq. units
125
B. sq. units
3
C. 20 sq. units
D. 30 sq. units

Q 7. If the system of linear equations 𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 + 3𝑧 = 0,3𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 − 2𝑧 = 0 and

𝑥𝑧
2𝑥 + 4𝑦 − 3𝑧 = 0 has a non-zero solution (𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧), then 𝑦2 is equal to
A. −10
B. 10
C. −30
D. 30

1+𝑧 2𝑥
Q 8. If 𝑓(𝑥) = log 𝑒 ⁡( ) , |𝑥| < 1, then 𝑓 ( ) is equal to
1−𝑥 1+𝑥 2
A. 2𝑓(𝑥)
B. 2𝑓(𝑥 2 )
C. (𝑓(𝑥))2
D. −2𝑓(𝑥)

2 1 2 1 2 1 2
Q 9. Find the sum of the series 1 + 3 + 32 + 33 + 34 + 35 + 36 + 37 + ⋯ up to the infinite terms.
15
A.
8
8
C. 15
27
B.
8
21
D. 8

Q 10. If 𝐴 + 𝐶 = 𝐵, then tan⁡(𝐴) ⋅ tan⁡(𝐵) ⋅ tan⁡(𝐶) is equal to

A. tan(𝐴) + tan(𝐵) + tan(𝐶)
B. tan(𝐵) − tan(𝐶) − tan(𝐴)
C. tan(𝐴) − tan(𝐶) − tan(𝐵)
D. −(tan⁡(𝐴)tan⁡(𝐵) + tan⁡(𝐶))

° ° ° °
Q 11. The value of 𝑒 log10 ⁡tan⁡1 +log10 ⁡tan⁡2 +log10 ⁡tan⁡3 +⋯...+log10 ⁡tan⁡89 is equal to
A. 0
B. e
1
C. 𝑒
D. 1
Q 12. Find the vector of magnitude 3 bisecting the angle between the lines in direction of the
vectors 𝑎⃗ = 2𝑖ˆ + 𝑗ˆ − 𝑘ˆ and 𝑏⃗⃗ = 𝑖ˆ − 2𝑗ˆ + 𝑘ˆ and making an obtuse angle with 𝑏⃗⃗.
3𝑖−𝑗
A.
√6
𝑖+3𝑗−2𝑘
B.
√14
3(𝑖+3𝑗−2𝑘)
C.
√14
3𝑖−𝑗
D.
√10

Q 13. If the two chords of the circle 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 − 𝑎𝑥 − 𝑏𝑦 = 0 drawn from the point (𝑎, 𝑏) is
divided by the 𝑥-axis in the ratio 2: 1, then the relationship between 𝑎&𝑏 is
A. 𝑎2 > 3𝑏 2
B. 𝑎2 < 3𝑏 2
C. 𝑎2 > 4𝑏 2
D. 𝑎2 < 4𝑏 2

𝜋
Q 14. Find the equation of the curve which passes through the point (1, 6 ) and the slope of the
𝑦 𝑦
curve at each point (𝑥, 𝑦) is 𝑥 + sec⁡(𝑥 ) , 𝑥 > 0.
𝑦 1
A. sin⁡(𝑥 ) = ln⁡(𝑥) + 2
𝑦
B. cos (𝑥 ) = ln(𝑥) + 2
2𝑦
C. sec ( ) = ln(𝑥) + 2
𝑥
2𝑦 1
D. cos⁡( 𝑥 ) = ln⁡(𝑥) + 2

2
𝑒 𝑥 −cos⁡𝑥
Q 15. Evaluate lim𝑥→0 .
𝑥2
3
A.
2
1
B.
2
2
C. 3
D. none of these

Q 16. Let 𝑓(𝑥) be a quadratic polynomial such that 𝑓(−1) + 𝑓(2) = 0. If one of the roots of
𝑓(𝑥) = 0 is 3 , then its other root lies in:
A. (−3, −1)
B. (1, 3)
C. (−1, 0)
D. None of these
Q 17. Find the equation of the latus rectum of the parabola 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 0.
3
A. 𝑦 = −2
3
C. 𝑦=2
2
B. 𝑦=3
2
D. 𝑦 = −3

Q 18. Let the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 2𝑥 3 + (2𝑝 − 7)𝑥 2 + 3(2𝑝 − 9)𝑥 − 6 have a maxima for some
value of 𝑥 < 0 and a minima for some value of 𝑥 > 0. Then, the set of all values of 𝑝 is
9
A. (2 , ∞)
9
B. (0, 2)
9
C. (−∞, )
2
9 9
D. (− , )
2 2

Q 19. If (𝑎⃗ × 𝑏⃗⃗) × (𝑟⃗ × 𝑐⃗) + (𝑏⃗⃗ × 𝑐⃗) × (𝑟⃗ × 𝑎⃗) + (𝑐⃗ × 𝑎⃗) × (𝑟⃗ × 𝑏⃗⃗) is equal to 𝜆[𝑎⃗⁡𝑏⃗⃗⁡𝑐⃗], where
𝑎⃗, 𝑏⃗⃗, 𝑐⃗ are three non coplanar, non zero vectors and 𝑟 is any vector in space, then the value
of 𝜆 is,
A. 1
B. −1
C. 2
D. −2

Q 20. Let 𝑓(𝑥) = sgn⁡(𝑥) and 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑥(𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 6), then the function 𝑓(𝑔(𝑥)) is
discontinuous at
A. infinitely many points
B. exactly two points
C. exactly three points
D. no point

𝑓(5+ℎ3 )−𝑓(5−ℎ 3 )
Q 21. If 𝑓(𝑥) is derivable at 𝑥 = 5; 𝑓 ′ (5) = 4; then evaluate limℎ→0 2ℎ 3
.
….

Q 22. Let 𝑥 = sin−1 ⁡(sin⁡8) + cos −1 ⁡(cos⁡11) + tan−1 ⁡(tan⁡7), then find the least integer which
is greater than 𝑥.
….

𝑎𝑒 2 −𝑏cos⁡𝑥+𝑐𝑒 −𝑥
Q 23. If lim𝑥→0 𝑥sin⁡𝑥
= 2, then 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 is equal to _______.
….
 𝑚 𝑛
1+𝑖 2 1+𝑖 3
Q 24. If ( ) = ( ) = 1, (𝑚, 𝑛 ∈ 𝑁) then the greatest common divisor of the least values
1−𝑖 𝑖−1
of 𝑚 and 𝑛 is
….

Q 25. The number of solutions of the equation sin⁡𝑥 = cos2 ⁡𝑥 in the interval (0, 10) is
….

Q 26. Let 𝑃 be the perimeter of the rectangle of the maximum area which can be inscribed inside
𝑥2 𝑦2
the ellipse 25 + 16 = 1, then find the value of log 3√2 ⁡(3𝑃).
….

Q 27. Let the equation of the asymptotes of the hyperbola 𝑥𝑦 + 2𝑥 + 4𝑦 + 6 = 0 is

𝑥𝑦 + 2𝑥 + 4𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0, then find the value of c.
….

Q 28. Let the tangent to the parabola 𝑦 2 = 12𝑥 at the point (3, 𝛼) be perpendicular to the line
2𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 3. Then the square of distance of the point (6, −4) from the normal to the
hyperbola 𝛼 2 𝑥 2 − 9𝑦 2 = 9𝛼 2 at its point (𝛼 − 1, 𝛼 + 2) is equal to
….

Q 29. The remainder, when 7103 is divided by 17, is

….

Q 30. If the mean and variance of the frequency distribution

𝒙𝒊 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16

𝒇𝒊 4 4 𝛼 15 8 𝛽 4 5

are 9 and 15.08 respectively, then the value of 𝛼 2 + 𝛽 2 − 𝛼𝛽 is

….
 Physics Questions

Q 31. Determine the dimension of the proportionality constant if the force becomes proportional
to the cube of velocity.
A. [𝑀𝐿𝑇 0 ]
B. [MLT −1 ]
C. [𝑀𝐿−2 𝑇]
D. [𝑀𝐿−1 𝑇 2 ]

Q 32. What happens to the entropy of water when it is turned into ice?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains unchanged
D. First decreases and then increases

Q 33. How distant is supiter from the sunif uppiter has a time period of 11.6 year? Take distance
of the earth from the sun= = 1.5 × 1011 m
A. 7.68 × 1011 m
B. 7.23 × 1010 m
C. 7.68 × 10−11 m
D. 7.86 × 1011 m

Q 34. The distance between an object and its real image produced by a converging lens is 0.72 m
and the image is double in height of the object. What will be the magnification when the
object is moved by 0.04 m towards the lens?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 6

Q 35. Two vessels 𝐴 and 𝐵 of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stopcock. The
vessel 𝐴 contains a gas at standard temperature and pressure. The vessel 𝐵 is completely
evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The
final pressure of the gas in the vessel 𝐵 is
A. 1.0 atm
B. 0.5 atm
C. 0.25 atm
D. 0.75 atm
Q 36. Find intensity of magnetization in units of A ⋅ m−1 if the paramagnetic substance of
susceptibility 3 × 10−4 is placed in a magnetic field of 4 × 10−4 A ⋅ m−1.
A. 1.33 × 108
B. 1.33 × 10−8
C. 12 × 10−8
D. 14 × 10−8

Q 37. Between the positions 𝑃 and 𝑄 in the accompanying diagram, the effective capacity will
be closest to

A. 3𝜇𝐹
B. 5𝜇𝐹
C. 2𝜇𝐹
D. 1𝜇𝐹

Q 38. A radioactive nucleus 𝐴 finally transforms into a stable nucleus 𝐵. Then 𝐴 and 𝐵 can be
A. isobars
B. isotones
C. isotopes
D. None of these

Q 39. Two sheets with thicknesses of 𝑑 and 3𝑑 are touching. 𝐴 is the temperature just outside the
thinner sheet side, and 𝐶 is the temperature just outside the thicker sheet side. The
temperature at the interface is 𝐵. Further, because 𝐴, 𝐵, and 𝐶 are in arithmetic order, the
heat conductivity ratio of thinner and thicker sheets is
A. 1: 3
B. 3: 1
C. 2: 3
D. 1: 9

Q 40. Resistivity in a pure semiconductor

A. decreases with the increase in temperature
B. increases with increase in temperature
C. is independent of temperature
D. first increases with an increase in temperature and then becomes constant with a
further increase in temperature.
Q 41. In a conservative force field, an external agent moves a body with a mass of 2 kg from
point 𝐴 to point 𝐵. If the difference in potential energy between the two points is 16𝐽,
calculate the change in kinetic energy.
A. 16 J
B. 10 J
C. –16 J
D. 0

Q 42. A block of mass 𝑚 slides down a smooth incline of the angle of inclination 𝜃. The forces
acting on it are 𝑁 (normal reaction) and 𝑚𝑔 (weight). The acceleration of the block is 𝛼.
Two students analyze the situation and apply Newton's second law.
First student
𝑚𝑔sin⁡𝜃 = 𝑚𝑎
Second student
𝑚𝑔 − 𝑁cos⁡𝜃 = 𝑚𝑎sin⁡𝜃
A. Only the first student is correct
B. Only the second student is correct
C. Both students are correct
D. Both students are wrong

Q 43. An energy of 9 Rydbergs is required to ionize an ion with only 1 electron in its ground
state. The wavelength of the radiation emitted when the electron in this ion jumps from the
second excited state to the ground state is
A. 8.6 nm
B. 24.2 nm
C. 11.4 nm
D. 35.8 nm

Q 44. In the circuit shown, what is the potential difference 𝑉𝑃𝑄 ?

A. +3.5 V
B. +1.5 V
C. – 3.5 V
D. None of these
 ⃗⃗ = 3𝑖ˆ + 4𝑗ˆ + 5𝑘ˆ. A rod of length 5 m
Q 45. A uniform magnetic field exists in region given by 𝐵
placed along 𝑦 - axis is moved along 𝑥 - axis with constant speed 1 m/s. Then induced
emf in the rod will be
A. Zero
B. 25 V
C. 20 V
D. 15 V

Q 46. In the circuit shown below, find Current 𝑖 from the battery as a function of time 𝑡 if the
switch 𝑆 is closed at time 𝑡 = 0.

A. 3(1 − 𝑒 −2𝑡 )
B. 3 + 𝑒 −2𝑡
1
C. 3 (1 − 𝑒 −9 )
D. 3 − 𝑒 −2𝑡

𝑀
Q 47. Find ratio of if ball 𝐴 of mass 𝑚 strikes to a stationary ball 𝐵 of mass. Mand undergoes
𝑚
an elastic collision. Also given atter collision ball 𝐴 has a speed one third of its initial speed.
1
A.
4
1
B. 2
C. 2
D. 4

Q 48. In the figure below, 𝑃 and 𝑄 are two equally intense coherent sources emitting radiation of
wavelength 20 m. The separation between 𝑃 and 𝑄 is 5 m and the phase of 𝑃 is a head of
that of 𝑄 by 90∘ . 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 are three distinct points of observation, each equidistant from
the midpoint of 𝑃𝑄. The intensities of radiation at 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 will be in the ratio:

A. 4: 1: 0
B. 2: 1: 0
C. 0: 1: 2
D. 0: 1: 4
Q 49. The function 𝑓(𝑥) = 4sin3 ⁡𝑥 − 6sin2 ⁡𝑥 + 12sin⁡𝑥 + 100 is strictly
3𝜋
A. increasing in (𝜋, 2
)
𝜋
B. decreasing in ( 2 , 𝜋)
𝜋 𝜋
C. decreasing in (− 2 , 2 )
𝜋
D. decreasing in (0, 2 )

Q 50. Given below are two statements:

Statements I: Pressure in a reservoir of water is same at all points at the same level of water.
Statements 11: The pressure applied to enclosed water is transmitted in all directions
equally.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
A. Both Statements | and Statements || are false
B. Both Statements | and Statements || are true
C. Statements | is true but Statements ∣ | is false
D. Statements | is false but Statements || is true

Q 51. A man rides a bicycle with a speed of 17.32 ms−1 in east-west direction, If the rain falls
vertically with a speed of 10 ms−1, the direction in which he must hold his umbrella is
𝜃 ∘ with the vertical towards west. What is 𝜃 ?
….

Q 52. A dipole moment of a short electric dipole is 𝑃. It is placed at the centre of a ring of radius
𝑅 having charge 𝑄 uniformly distributed on its circumference. The dipole moment vector
1 𝑃𝑄
is along the axis of the ring. The force on the dipole due to the ring is 4𝜋r𝜃 𝑅4 . Find the
value of 𝑎.
….

Q 53. When radiation of wavelength 𝜆 is used to illuminate a metallic surface, the stopping
potential is 𝑉. When the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 3𝜆, the
𝑉
stopping potential is 4 . If the threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is 𝑛𝜆 then value
of 𝑛 will be
….

315
Q 54. Suppose that the intensity of a laser is 𝜋 W/m2. The rms electric field, in units of V/m
associated with this source is close to the nearest integer, is
(𝜖0 = 8.86 × 10−12 C2 Nm−2 ; 𝑐 = 3 × 108 ms−1 )
….
Q 55 A closed vessel contains 0.1 mole of a monoatomic ideal gas at 200 K. If 0.1 mole of the
same gas at 400 K is added to it, the final equilibrium temperature (in 𝐾) of the gas in the
vessel will be close to
….

Q 56. A metal wire of length 0.5 m and cross-sectional area 10−4 m2 has breaking stress
5 × 108 Nm−2. A block of 10 kg is attached at one end of the string and is rotating in a
horizontal circle. The maximum linear velocity of block will be ms−1.
….

Q 57. A single turn current loop in the shape of a right angle triangle with sides 5 cm, 12 cm,
13 cm is carrying a current of 2 A. The loop is in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude
0.75 T whose direction is parallel to the current in the 13 cm side of the loop. The
𝑥
magnitude of the magnetic force on the 5 cm side will be 130 N. The value of 𝑥 is
….

Q 58. If 𝑃⃗⃗ = 3𝑖ˆ + √3𝑗ˆ + 2𝑘ˆ and 𝑄⃗⃗ = 4𝑖ˆ + √3𝑗ˆ + 2.5𝑘ˆ then, the unit vector in the direction of
1
𝑃⃗⃗ × 𝑄⃗⃗ is (√3𝑖ˆ + 𝑗ˆ − 2√3𝑘ˆ ). The value of 𝑥 is
𝑥
….

Q 59. For a train engine moving with speed of 20 ms−1 the driver must apply brakes at a distance
of 500 m before the station for the train to come to rest at the sation. If the brakes were
applied at half of this distance, the train engine would cross the station with speed
√𝑥 ms−1. The value of 𝑥 is (assuming same retardation is produced by brakes).
….

Q 60. Two identical solid spheres each of mass 2 kg and radil 10 cm are fixed at the ends of a
light rod. The separation between the centres of the spheres is 40 cm. The moment of inetia
of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod passing through its middle point is ×
10−3 kgm2.
….
 Chemistry Questions

Q 61. An electron moving with a speed of 300 ms−1 has an accuracy up to 0.001%. What will
be uncertainty in the position of an electron having mass 9.1 × 10−31 kg? (h = 6.6 ×
10−34 J. s)
A. 19.2 × 10−2 m
B. 5.76 × 10−2 m
C. 1.92 × 10−2 m
D. 3.84 × 10−2 m

Q 62. Predict the colour and magnetic nature of Magnate ion (MnO2−
4 )
A. green, paramagnetic
B. purple, diamagnetic
C. green, diamagnetic
D. purple, paramagnetic

Q 63. The correct definition of change of entropy (dS) is

dq
A. d𝑆 = T
dH
B. dS = T
dqquev
C. dS =
T
dH−dG
D. dS = T

Q 64. A substance 'A' decomposes in solution following the first order kinetics. Flask I contains
1 litre of 1. 𝑀 solution of 𝐴 and flask II contains 100 mL of 0.6M solution of A. After 8
hours the concentration of A in flask I becomes 0.25M. What will be the time taken for
concentration of 𝐴 in flask II to become 0.3M ?
A. 0.4 hours
B. 2.4 hours
C. 0 hours
D. Unpredictable as rate constant is not given.

Q 65. KF and HF combine to produce KHF2 . The species are included in this combination is ?
A. K + and [HF2 ]−
B. [KHF]+ and F2
C. K + , F − and H +
D. K + , F − and HF
Q 66. Calculate the oxidation state of chromium in chromium trioxide (CrO3 );
A. +3
B. +4
C. +5
D. +6

Q 67. Cerium has an electronic configuration

A. [Xe]4f 1 5 d1 6 s2
B. [Xe]4f 3 5 d0 6 s2
C. [Xe]444 5 d0 6 s2
D. [Xe]4f 5 5 d0 6 s2

Q 68. The 'spin only' magnetic moment for one of the following configurations is 2.84 B. M. The
correct one is:
A. d4 (in strong ligand field)
B. d4 (in weak ligand field)
C. d4 (in weak as well as in strong ligand fields)
D. d5 (in strong ligand field)

Q 69. Which of the following compounds shows evidence of the strongest hydrogen bonding?
A. Propan - 1 − ol
B. Propan −2 − ol
C. Propan - 1, 2 – diol
D. Propan - 1, 2, 3 – triol

Q 70. An organic compound with a molecular mass of 60 is discovered to contain 20% carbon,
6.67% hydrogen, and 46.67% nitrogen, with oxygen making up the remainder. It produces
NH3 when heated, accompanied with a solid residue. When combined with an alkaline
copper sulphate solution, the solid residue turns violet. The substance is
A. CH3 NCO
B. CH3 CONH2
C. (NH2 )2 CO
D. CH3 CH2 CONH2

3
Q 71. In the equation C2 H2( g) + 2 O2( g) ⟶ 2CO2( g) + H2 O(𝑔) the relative signs of ΔS, ΔH, and
ΔG will be
A. −, −, +
B. +, −, −
C. +, −, +
D. +, +, −
Q 72. Which of the following depicts a polar set of molecules?
A. SnCl2 , SO2 , NO2
B. XeF4 , IF7 , SO3
C. PCl5 , C6 H6 , SF6
D. CO2 , CS2 , C2 H6

𝐾𝐶𝑁 𝐻3 𝑂 + 𝐻3 𝑂 +
Q 73. The product Z in the following sequence of reactions is CH3 CH2 I → X→ Y→ Z
A. CH3 COCl
B. CH3 CONH2
C. CH3 COOH
D. CH3 CH2 COOH

Q 74. Which of the following molecular species has unpaired electron(s)?

A. 𝑁2
B. 𝐹2
C. O−2
D. O2−
2

Q 75. For a reversible reaction, the rate constants for the forward and backward reactions are 0.16
and 4 × 104 , respectively. What is the value of equilibrium constant of the reaction?
A. 0.25 × 106
B. 2.5 × 105
C. 4 × 10−6
D. 4 × 10−4

Q 76. There are four test tubes containing dilute HCl, BaCl2 , HgCl2 and KNO3 solutions. Which
of the following reagents will help in the identification of BaCl2 ?
A. NaOH
B. K 2 CrO4
C. AgNO3
D. both (2) and (3)

Q 77. What is the geometry of Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(PPh3 )2 ]CI2.

A. both square planar
B. tetrahedral and square planar respectively
C. both tetrahedral
D. square planar and tetrahedral respectively.
Q 78. What is the ratio of hydrated monovalent cation [M(H2 O)6 ]+ , hydrated trivalent cation
[M(H2 O)6 ]+3 and SO2−
4 in Alum ?
A. 1:1:1
B. 1: 1: 2
C. 1: 2: 2
D. 1:2:3

Q 79. The major product '𝑃' formed in the given reaction is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q 80. Match List-| with List-II.

1-Bromopropane is reacted with the reagents in List-I to give products in List-II
List I List-II
Reagent Product
A. KOH(alcC1 ) I. Nitrile
B. KCN(alcC1 ) II. Ester
C. AgNO2 III. Alkene
D. H3 CCOOAg IV. Nitroalkane
 Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
C. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
B. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Q 81. Consider the reaction given below and predict the number of monobromo products
possible.

….

Q 82. Find out the number of oxygen atoms present in (A) ?

….

Q 83. Calculate the percentage of oxygen in (P) is:

….

Q 84. HY experimental bond energy differs from its value by 2.0KCal/mole. The
electronegativity of '𝑌' (which is less electronegative than hydrogen) is 0.6x. What is x ?
….

Q 85. How many C4 H9 ON amide isomers do not create amine when treated with Br2 − NaOH ?
….

Q 86. Consider the cell Pt(𝑠)|𝐻2 (s)(latm)|𝐻+ (aq, [𝐻 + ] = 1)||Fe3+ (aq), Fe2+ (aq) ∣ Pt(𝑠)
0 0
Given: 𝐸Fe 3+ //e2+ = 0.771 V and 𝐸 + 1
𝐻 / 𝐻
= 0 V, T = 298 K
2 2

If the potential of the cell is 0.712 V the ratio of concentration of Fe2+ to Fe2+ is (Nearest
integer)
….
Q 87. In sulphur estimation, 0.471 g of an organic compound gave 1.4439 g of barium sulphate.
The percentage of sulphur in the compound is (Nearest Integer)
(Given: Atomic mass Ba: 137u, S:32u, 0:16u)
….

Q 88. A litre of buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of each of NH3 and NH4 Cl. On the addition of
0.02 mole of HCl by dissolving gaseous HCl, the pH of the solution is found to be × 10−3
(Nearest integer)
[Given : pK 𝑏 (NH3 ) = 4.745, log⁡2 = 0.301, log⁡3 = 0.477, 𝑇 = 298 K]
….

Q 89. At 27∘ C, a solution containing 2.5 g of solute in 250.0 mL of solution exerts an osmotic
pressure of 400 Pa. The molar mass of the solute is 𝑔 mol−1 (Nearest integer)
(Given : 𝑅 = 0.083Lbar −1 mol−1)
….

Q 90. In an oligopeptide named Alanylglycylphenyl alanyl isoleucine, the number of sp2

hybridised carbons is
….