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Part One: Structure and Language Use

A. Directions: questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will
see four words or phrases, marked (a), (b), (c), and (d). Choose one word or phrase
that best completes the sentence.

1. online communication may replace the cell phone one day.

A. The
B. This
C. An
D. none of the above

2. Many people believe that somewhere in the universe.

A. there is extraterrestrial life
B. there are extraterrestrial life
C. extraterrestrial life
D. it is extraterrestrial life

3. D.H. Lawrence, literary works are highly praised today, was often inspired by his
mother.
A. who
B. whose
C. which
D. that

4. Munich, is the one of the largest cities in Germany, is only 90 minutes away from
Vienna.
A. where it
B. where
C. which
D. that

5. anxiety a lot of people seek traditional Eastern therapies.

A. To overcome
B. Overcoming
C. Overcome
D. To overcoming

6. Crystal needs to be handled with .

A. cautious
B. cautiously
C. caution
D. cautioness

7. The , the better!

A. early

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B. more early
C. earliest
D. earlier

8. the stormy weather outside, they decided to stay home and watch a
movie.
A. Having seen
B. To see
C. Seen
D. Having saw

9. Some children prefer strawberry to vanilla ice cream but all of them agree that chocolate ice
cream is .
A. good
B. better
C. well
D. the best

10. Mary says that day of her life was her wedding day.
A. the happier
B. the happiest
C. more happy
D. the most happy

11. Fossils, traces of dead organisms found in the rocks of Earth’s crust, reveal _____________
at the time the rocks were formed.
A. what life was like
B. was like life
C. what was like
D. life was like

12. The common crow, _________ one of the hardiest birds in existence, can live up to eighty
years.
A. is considered
B. considered
C. has been considered
D. considered it

13. Certain fish eggs contain droplets of oil to float on the surface of the water.
A. this allows them
B. they are allowed
C. allows them
D. which allow them

14. According to some records, Carl Sandburg, ___________________________, was expelled

from West Point Military Academy because of deficiencies in English.

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A. he was a poet and literary genius

B. his poetry and literary genius
C. a poet and literary genius
D. whose poetry and literary genius

15. _____________________ two and one half hours to climb to the top of the Empire State
Building.
A. It typically takes
B. Typically taking it
C. Typically takes it
D. To take it typically

B. Directions: In questions 16-25, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases
marked a, b, c, and d. identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be
changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
16. Platinum which is a rare and valuable metal which is white in color.
A B C D
17. Culture movements should have stronger advocates and more financial support.
A B C D
18. The most smallest particles in the universe are paradoxically explored by the largest
machines.
A B C D
19. I consider to move this summer and renting a house near the beach.
A B C D
20. Beethoven, whom was deaf in one ear, composed some of the most memorable melodies in
music.
A B C D
21. After a muscle fiber has worked intensely for while, it begins to lose potassium, and that
A B C
dampens the fiber's ability to contract.
D
22. Crushed ice is use to cool drinks, and is often applied to injuries where there is swelling, to
A B C
remove excess heat generated in the tissues.
D
23. Japan's latitudinal spread, ranging from subtropical in the south to sub-arctic in the north,
makes
A B
C
that a wide diversity of flora and fauna.
D
24. For decades the food industry has been known serving up sugary or fat-laden products,
promoted
A B C
with ceaseless advertising.

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D
25. Climate, soil type, and availability of water are the most critical factors than selecting the best type of
A B C
grass for a lawn.
D

Part Two – Vocabulary and Reading:

C. Directions: In sentences 26-37, you are to choose the one best answer (a), (b), (c) or (d),
to fill in the blank. Each question has only one correct answer. On your answer sheet,
darken the circle that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
26. I work outside most of the times so my clothes have to be ________________ .
A. formal
B. sloppy
C. functional
D. quirky

27. If you show a attitude during a job interview, you certainly won’t get employed.
A. prudent
B. confidential
C. hazardous
D. frivolous

28. Gemma can talk knowledgeably about any topic. She’s such a(n) __________ person.
A. intellectual
B. trustworthy
C. intense
D. sinister

29. Airlines have had to because of bad weather.

A. put off their flights
B. put their flights off
C. their flights put off
D. A and B are correct

30. people are not afraid to stand up for their rights.

A. Unethical
B. Frivolous
C. Audacious
D. Sympathetic

31. My sister is _________ new technology, that’s why she prefers to keep her old phone.
A. reliant on
B. leery of
C. familiar with

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D. aware of

32. When going to a job interview at a bank, it’s best not to wear clothes.
A. flashy
B. formal
C. conservative
D. classic

33. Pop tunes are generally ___________ and aim to make people dance.
A. exhilarating
B. mellow
C. monotonous
D. catchy

34. I’m new phones that have features I don’t know how to use.
A. crazy about
B. knowledgeable about
C. suspicious of
D. intimidated by

35. People who do yoga exercises need music in the background.

A. frenetic
B. evocative
C. haunting
D. soothing

36. Some people ________________, as they do not hesitate to say hurtful things.
A. have a way with words
B. stick to the point
C. hem and haw
D. have a sharp tongue

37. I never wanted to start smoking, but my friends at school .

A. talked behind my back
B. talked me into it
C. loved to hear themselves talk
D. talked my ears off

D. Read the following text and then choose the correct alternative below for each of the
numbered gaps. Then, on your answer sheet, darken the circle that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

Dolphins are regarded as the (38)……….. creatures in the sea and stories of them helping
drowning sailors have been common (39)…… Roman times. The more we learn about dolphins,
the (40)…….. we realize that their society is more complex than people previously imagined.

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They look (41)…….other dolphins when they are ill, care for pregnant mothers and protect the
weakest in the community, as we (42) ……. Some scientists have suggested that dolphins have a
language (43)……. it is much more probable that they communicate with each other without
needing words. Could any of these mammals be more intelligent (44)……. man? Certainly the
most common argument in favor (45)…….. man's superiority over them that we can kill them
(46)……… than they can kill us is the least satisfactory. On the contrary, the more we discover
about these remarkable creatures, the less we appear superior when we destroy them.

38. A) most friendly B) friendliest C) friendlier D) friends

39. A) over B) on C) since D) after
40. A) most B) more C) less D) least
41. A) after B) over C) at D) out
42. A) did B) have C) are D) do
43. A) that B) but C) and D)which
44. A) then B) than C) of D) over
45. A) for B) in C) of D) over
46. A) more B) more at ease C) easily D) more easily

E. Directions: Read each of the passages below carefully then answer the questions that
follow:
Passage One: Untitled

Many great inventions are initially greeted with ridicule and disbelief. The invention of
the airplane was no exception. Although many people who heard about the first powered flight
on December 17, 1903 were excited and impressed, others reacted with peals of laughter. The
idea of flying an aircraft was repulsive to some people. Such people called Wilbur and Orville
Wright, the inventors of the first flying machine, impulsive fools. Negative reactions, however,
did not stop the Wrights. Impelled by their desire to succeed, they continued their experiments in
aviation.
Orville and Wilbur Wright had always had a compelling interest in aeronautics and
mechanics. As young boys they earned money by making and selling kites and mechanical toys.
Later, they designed a newspaper-folding machine, built a printing press, and operated a bicycle-
repair shop. In 1896, when they read about the death of Otto Lilienthal, the brothers' interest in
flight grew into a compulsion.
Lilienthal, a pioneer in hang-gliding, had controlled his gliders by shifting his body in the
desired direction. This idea was repellent to the Wright brothers, however, and they searched for
more efficient methods to control the balance of airborne vehicles. In 1900 and 1901, the

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Wrights tested numerous gliders and developed control techniques. The brothers' inability to
obtain enough lift power for the gliders almost led them to abandon their efforts.
After further study, the Wright brothers concluded that the published tables of air
pressure on curved surfaces must be wrong. They set up a wind tunnel and began a series of
experiments with model wings. Because of their efforts, the old tables were repealed in time and
replaced by the first reliable figures for air pressure on curved surfaces. This work, in turn, made
it possible for the brothers to design a machine that would fly. In 1903 the Wrights built their
first airplane, which cost less than $1,000. They even designed and built their own source of
propulsion-a lightweight gasoline engine. When they started the engine on December 17, the
airplane pulsated wildly before taking off. The plane managed to stay aloft for 12 seconds,
however, and it flew 120 feet.
By 1905, the Wrights had perfected the first airplane that could turn, circle, and remain
airborne for half an hour at a time. Others had flown in balloons and hang gliders, but the Wright
brothers were the first to build a full-size machine that could fly under its own power. As the
contributors of one of the most outstanding engineering achievements in history, the Wright
brothers are accurately called the fathers of aviation.

47. The idea of flying an aircraft was ______ to some people.

A. boring
B. distasteful
C. exciting
D. needless

48. People thought that the Wright brothers had ______.

A. acted without thinking
B. been negatively influenced
C. been too cautious
D. been mistaken

49. The Wrights' interest in flight grew into a ______.

A. financial empire
B. plan
C. need to act
D. foolish thought

50. Lilienthal's idea about controlling airborne vehicles was _________ the Wrights.
A. proven wrong by
B. opposite to the ideas of
C. disliked by
D. accepted by

51. The old tables were _________ and replaced by the first reliable figures for air pressure on
curved surfaces.
A. destroyed
B. invalidated
C. multiplied

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D. approved

52. The Wrights designed and built their own source of _________.
A. force for moving forward
B. force for turning around
C. turning
D. force for going backward

Passage Two:

The Trojan War is one of the most famous wars in history. It is well known for the 10-
year duration, for the heroism of a number of legendary characters, and for the Trojan horse.
What may not be familiar, however, is the story of how the war began.
According to Greek myth, the strife between the Trojans and the Greeks started at the
wedding of Peleus, King of Thessaly, and Thetis, a sea nymph. All of the gods and goddesses
had been invited to the wedding celebration in Troy except Eris, goddess of discord. She had
been omitted from the guest list because her presence always embroiled mortals and immortals
alike in conflict.
To take revenge on those who had slighted her, Eris decided to cause a skirmish. Into the
middle of the banquet hall, she threw a golden apple marked "for the most beautiful." All of the
goddesses began to haggle over who should possess it. The gods and goddesses reached a
stalemate when the choice was narrowed to Hera, Athena, and Aphrodite. Someone was needed
to settle the controversy by picking a winner. The job eventually fell to Paris, son of King Priam
of Troy, who was said to be a good judge of beauty. Paris did not have an easy job. Each
goddess, eager to win the golden apple, tried aggressively to bribe him.
"I'll grant you vast kingdoms to rule," promised Hera. "Vast kingdoms are nothing in
comparison with my gift," contradicted Athena. "Choose me and I'll see that you win victory and
fame in war." Aphrodite outdid her adversaries, however. She won the golden apple by offering
Helen, daughter of Zeus and the most beautiful mortal in the land, to Paris. Paris, anxious to
claim Helen, set off for Sparta in Greece.
Although Paris learned that Helen was married, he nevertheless accepted the hospitality
of her husband, King Menelaus of Sparta. Therefore, Menelaus was outraged for a number of
reasons when Paris departed, taking Helen and much of the king's wealth back to Troy. Menelaus
collected his loyal forces and set sail for Troy to begin the war to reclaim Helen.

53. Eris was known for _________ both mortals and immortals.
A. scheming against
B. creating conflict amongst
C. feeling hostile toward
D. ignoring

54. Each goddess tried ______ to bribe Paris.

A. boldly
B. effectively
C. secretly

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D. carefully

55. Athena _________ Hera, promising Paris victory and fame in war.
A. disregarded the statement of
B. defeated
C. agreed with
D. restated the statement of

Passage Three:
Fossils are the remains and traces (such as footprints or other marks) of ancient plant and
animal life that are more than 10,000 years old. They range in size from microscopic structures
to dinosaur skeletons and complete bodies of enormous animals. Skeletons of extinct species of
human are also considered fossils.
An environment favorable to the growth and later preservation of organisms is required for
the occurrence of fossils. Two conditions are almost always present:
(1) The possession of hard parts, either internal or external, such as bones, teeth, scales, shells,
and wood; these parts remain after the rest of the organism has decayed. Organisms that lack
hard parts, such as worms and jelly fish, have left a meager geologic record. (2) Quick burial of
the dead organism, so that protection is afforded against weathering, bacterial action, and
scavengers.
Nature provides many situations in which the remains of animals and plants are protected
against destruction. Of these, marine sediment is by far the most important environment for the
preservation of fossils, owing to the incredible richness of marine life. The beds of former lakes
are also prolific sources of fossils. The rapidly accumulating sediments in the channels,
floodplains, and deltas of streams bury fresh-water organisms, along with land plants and
animals that fall into the water. The beautifully preserved fossil fish from the Green River soil
shale of Wyoming in the western United States lived in a vast shallow lake.
The frigid ground in the far north acts as a remarkable preservative for animal fossils. The
woolly mammoth, along-haired rhinoceros, and other mammals have been periodically exposed
in the tundra of Siberia, the hair and red flesh still frozen in cold storage.
Volcanoes often provide environments favorable to fossil preservation. Extensive falls of
volcanic ash and coarser particles overwhelm and bury all forms of life, from flying insects to
great trees.
Caves have preserved the bones of many animals that died in them and were subsequently
buried under a blanket of clay or a cover of dripstone. Predatory animals and early humans alike
sought shelter in caves and brought food to be eaten, leaving bones that paleontologists have
discovered.

56. What does the passage primarily discuss?

(A) Types of fossils found in different climates
(B) What is learned from studying fossils
(C) Conditions favorable to the preservation of fossils
(D) How fossils are discovered

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57. The word microscopic in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) minimal
(B) insignificant
(C) unimportant
(D) small

58. All of the following facts about fossils are referred to by the author (paragraph 1) EXCEPT
the fact that they can be
(A) microscopically small
(B) skeletons of human ancestors
(C) complete animal bodies
(D) fragile

59. The fossil fish from the Green River were probably preserved because they were
(A) in a deep lake
(B) covered by sediment
(C) protected by oil
(D) buried slowly

60. The word exposed in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) preserved
(B) uncovered
(C) located
(D) photographed

61. It can be inferred that a condition that favors fossilization when volcanic ash falls to Earth is
(A) quick burial
(B) cold storage
(C) high temperature
(D) lack of water

62. Which of the following is true of the environments in which fossil are found?
(A) Very different environments can favor fossilization.
(B) There are few environments in which fossils are protected.
(C) Environments that favor fossilization have similar climates.
(D) Environments that favor fossilization support large populations of animals.

Passage Four:
Joyce Carol Oates published her first collection of short stories, By the North Gate, in 1963,
two years after she had received her master's degree from the University of Wisconsin and
become an instructor of English at the University of Detroit. Her productivity since then has been
prodigious, accumulating in less than two decades to nearly thirty titles, including novels,
collections of short stories and verse, play, and literary criticism. In the meantime, she has
continued to teach, moving in 1967 from the University of Detroit to the University of Windsor,

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in Ontario, and, in 1978, to Princeton University. Reviewers have admired her enormous energy,
but find a productivity of such magnitude difficult to assess.
In a period characterized by the abandonment of so much of the realistic tradition by authors
such as John Barth, Donald Barthelme, and Thomas Pynchon, Joyce Carol Oates has seemed at
times determinedly old-fashioned in her insistence on the essentially mimetic quality of her
fiction. Hers is a world of violence, insanity, fractured love, and hopeless loneliness. Although
some of it appears to come from her own direct observations, her dreams, and her fears, much
more is clearly from the experiences of others. Her first novel, With Shuddering Fall (1964),
dealt with stock car racing, though she had never seen a race. In Them (1969) she focused on
Detroit from the Depression through the riots of 1967, drawing much of her material from the
deep impression made on her by the problems of one of her students. Whatever the source and
however shocking the events or the motivations, however, her fictive world remains strikingly
akin to that real one reflected in the daily newspapers, the television news and talk shows, and
popular magazines of our day.

63. What is the main purpose of the passage?

(A) To review Oates' By the North Gate
(B) To compare some modern writers
(C) To describe Oates' childhood
(D) To outline Oates' career

64. Which of the following does the passage indicate about Joyce Carol Oates' first publication?
(A) It was part of her master's thesis.
(B) It was a volume of short fiction.
(C) It was not successful.
(D) It was about an English instructor in Detroit.

65. Which of the following does the passage suggest about Joyce Carol Oates in terms of her
writing career?
(A) She has experienced long nonproductive periods in her writing.
(B) Her style is imitative of other contemporary authors.
(C) She has produced a surprising amount of fictions in a relative short time.
(D) Most of her work is based on personal experience.

66. The word characterized in paragraph 2 can best replaced by which of the following?
(A) shocked
(B) impressed
(C) distinguished
(D) helped

67. What was the subject of Joyce Carol Oates’ first novel?
(A) Loneliness
(B) Insanity
(C) Teaching
(D) Racing

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68. Why does the author mention Oates’ book Them?

(A) It is a typical novel of the 1960's.
(B) It is her best piece of nonfiction.
(C) It is a fictional word based on the experiences of another person.
(D) It is an autobiography.

69. The word fictive in paragraph 2 can best replaced by which of the following?
(A) impressive
(B) deceptive
(C) unreal
(D) ideal

70. Which of the following would Joyce Carol Oates be most likely to write?
(A) A story with an unhappy ending
(B) A romance novel set in the nineteenth century
(C) A science fiction novel
(D) A dialogue for a talk show

Part Three: Writing (30%)

On your answer sheet, write a three to four paragraph essay on one of the following topics.
Topic One: Some people think it’s better to live with a roommate. Other people prefer to live
alone. Which do you prefer? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
Topic Two: Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? One can learn about one
person from books and movies that person likes.
Assessment rubric: Organisation and coherence: 10%
Vocabulary and grammar: 10%
Originality and ideas: 10%

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