5070 Manthan2.0JANUARY-2024 WEEK-2 (Topic1-10) V12012024

MANTHAN 2.
O
JANUARY 2024 : WEEK-2
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Manthan 2.O | January 2024 : Week-2
Contents
1. First US lunar Lander since 1972 launched ............................................................................................................ 3
2. Global warming, sea level rise, ageing flood defence systems:

Why European countries have been flooded .............................................................................................. 5
3. The question of MSP: Is income support for farmers better than

pricing that is delinked from market demand? .......................................................................................... 8
4. How Lakshadweep’s unique cultural landscape developed ........................................................................ 12
5. From red ant chutney to black rice, the 7 Odisha products that have bagged GI tags .................... 15
6. Why ISRO’s Aditya spacecraft is at ‘L1’? ................................................................................................................ 19
7. Gabriel Attal: Who is the new PM of France, what changes with his appointment .......................... 22
8. Politics and piracy: How Houthi attacks in Red Sea are different from
the earlier Somali hijackings ............................................................................................................................ 25
9. Why has South Africa taken Israel to the International Court of Justice? ............................................. 29
10. Maharashtra Speaker gives verdict on Shiv Sena split: what was the case before him .................. 34
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1. First US lunar Lander since 1972 launched
 A spacecraft developed by a private US company and carrying a bunch of scientific instruments from
NASA, took off from Florida hoping to become the first US spacecraft to land on the Moon in more than
50 years.
 The Peregrine lander module of the mission, as well as the Vulcan rocket that launched it, have both
been built by private space companies in the US.
 The Mission is part of NASA’s Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) initiative that seeks to
involve private space sector in its ambitious Artemis programme that is planning a return to the Moon in
a big way.
 If successful, this mission would also involve the first landing of a private spacecraft on the Moon.
 Last year, a Japanese company had attempted a moon landing with its Hakuto-R mission but was
unsuccessful.
 In 2019, the first Israeli attempt to land on the Moon was also engineered by a private company, but the
spacecraft, Beresheet, had crash-landed.
 However, hours after the launch, the spacecraft developed technical problems that could be potentially
fatal.
 Astrobotic Technology, the Pittsburgh-based aerospace company that built the spacecraft, said the
problem was preventing it from attaining a “stable Sun-pointing orientation”.
 That could hamper the spacecraft’s solar power batteries from charging efficiently and could derail the
entire mission.
 The company said it was trying to rectify the problem.
The mission
 Five payloads from NASA sat inside the Peregrine lander that was launched by the Vulcan heavy rocket.
 The lander has been built by Astrobotic while the rocket came from United Launch Alliance, another
private enterprise.
 The spacecraft will take more than 40 days to reach the Moon, and is planned to make a landing on
February 23.
 The payloads are meant to carry out various exploratory activities, including detection of water.
 One of the payloads, called Laser Retroreflector Array, is a collection of several mirrors that would
allow precision measurements of the distance of other orbiting or landing spacecraft by reflecting light
from them.
 This particular instrument would remain permanently deployed on the Moon’s surface, and would act as
a marker for distances on the Moon.
 The other payloads would remain active for ten days after landing.
Return to Moon
 US spacecraft has landed on the Moon since Apollo 17 in December 1972.
 That was the last of the six Apollo missions to have made the moon-landing, each allowing two
astronauts to walk on the Moon’s surface.
 The United States reignited its interest in the Moon in the 1990s but started almost afresh, sending a few
Orbiters to study the lunar surface and environment from a distance.
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 It was only in 2018 that the US decided to make a return to the Moon, this time for longer stays.
 Over the next few years, the Artemis programme plans to send a series of Moon missions, including
those carrying astronauts.
 The first Artemis mission was sent off in November 22.
 It orbited the Moon and returned to the Earth.
 NASA is planning to send the first crewed mission into space next year, and would attempt a human
landing on Moon in 2025.
 The Artemis programme seeks to establish a permanent base camp on the Moon, and send astronauts
and robots for longer stays for more comprehensive exploration, and scientific studies, of the lunar
surface and atmosphere.
 It would also explore opportunities for the utilisation of resources available on the Moon with the
ultimate objective of launching deep space missions from the lunar surface.
Collaboration with private sector
 For the Artemis programme, NASA has sought cooperation from the private space industry as well
through this Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) initiative.
 As of now, at least 14 private companies have been contracted to carry NASA payloads to the Moon,
according to information on the NASA website.
 This collaboration is aimed at creating the market and technology ecosystem in the private space
industry with respect to science and technology needs of lunar exploration.
 NASA administrator Bill Nelson called it a giant leap for humanity.
 “The first CLPS launch has sent payloads on their way to the Moon – a giant leap for humanity as we
prepare to return to the lunar surface for the first time in over half a century.
 These high-risk missions will not only conduct new science on the Moon, but they are supporting a growing
commercial space economy while showing the strength of American technology and innovation.
 We have so much science to learn through the CLPS missions that will help us better understand the
evolution of our solar system and shape the future of human exploration for the Artemis generation,”
Nelson was quoted as saying.
List of Missions to moon
 As part of human exploration of the Moon, numerous space missions have been undertaken to study
Earth’s natural satellite.
 Of the Moon landings, Luna 2 of the Soviet Union was the first spacecraft to reach its surface
successfully, intentionally impacting the Moon on 13 September 1959.
 In 1966, Luna 9 became the first spacecraft to achieve a controlled soft landing, while Luna 10 became
the first mission to enter orbit, and in 1968 Zond 5 became the first mission to carry lifeforms (tortoises)
to close proximity of the Moon.
 Between 1968 and 1972, crewed missions to the Moon were conducted by the United States as part of
the Apollo program.
 Apollo 8 was the first crewed mission to enter orbit in December 1968, and it was followed by Apollo
10 in May 1969. Six missions landed humans on the Moon, beginning with Apollo 11 in July 1969,
during which Neil Armstrong became the first person to walk on the Moon.
 Apollo 13 was intended to land; however, it was restricted to a flyby due to a malfunction aboard the
spacecraft. All nine crewed missions returned safely to the Earth.
 While the United States focused on the crewed Apollo program, the Soviet Union conducted uncrewed
missions that deployed rovers and returned samples to the Earth.
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 Three rover missions were launched, of which two were successful, and eleven sample return flights
were attempted with three successes.
 Missions to the Moon have been conducted by the following nations and organisations (in chronological
order): the Soviet Union, the United States, Japan, the European Space Agency, China, India,
Luxembourg, Israel, Italy, South Korea, the United Arab Emirates, Russia, and Mexico.
 The Moon has also been visited by five spacecraft not dedicated to studying it; four spacecraft have
flown past it to gain gravity assistance, and a radio telescope, Explorer 49, was placed into selenocentric
orbit in order to use the Moon to block interference from terrestrial radio sources.
QUESTIONS
Fill in the Blank:
1. One of the payloads, called _________, is a collection of several mirrors that would allow precision
measurements of the distance of other orbiting or landing spacecraft by reflecting light from them.
2. The _________ lander module of the mission, as well as the Vulcan rocket that launched it, have
both been built by private space companies in the US.
3. In 1968 Zond 5 became the first mission to carry lifeforms _________ to close proximity of the
Moon.
4. _________ is planning to send the first crewed mission into space next year, and would attempt a
human landing on Moon in _________.
5. _________ of the _________ was the first spacecraft to reach its surface successfully, intentionally
impacting the Moon on 13 September 1959.
6. In 1966, _________ became the first spacecraft to achieve a controlled soft landing.
7. For the _________ programme, NASA has sought cooperation from the private space industry as
well through this Commercial Lunar Payload Services (CLPS) initiative.
8. United States focused on the crewed _________ program.
9. _________ was placed into selenocentric orbit in order to use the Moon to block interference from
terrestrial radio sources.
10. As of now, at least _________ private companies have been contracted to carry NASA payloads to
the Moon.
2. Global warming, sea level rise, ageing

flood defence systems: Why European
countries have been flooded
 Heavy rains have hit France, England, Netherlands and Germany for more than two weeks, causing
rivers to burst their banks in many areas, flooding homes and prompting evacuations.
 While rain this time of year in these regions isn’t unusual, it’s the intensity of the downpour that has set
off alarm bells among experts.
 They suggest a combination of factors, including global warming, rising sea levels, and ageing flood
defence systems have led to the deluge in the countries.
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What is happening?
 In France, the northern region has been the worst affected as 189 municipalities of the Pas de Calais
department witnessed flooding.
 Till January 4, at least 1,299 homes had been damaged and a total of 371 people had been evacuated by
the local authorities.
 Widespread deluge has impacted central England — in Nottinghamshire County, officials declared a
“major incident” due to flooding along the Trent River last week.
 In London, a landslide and flood waters disrupted train travel and around 50 people had to be evacuated
because of rising water in the eastern part of the city.
 The flooding has come just days after the country’s large areas were battered by Storm Henk.
 Meanwhile, in Germany, officials declared emergencies in several regions as high-running rivers
flooded villages and farmland.
 In the Netherlands, flood plains were inundated and residents in some towns around the Ijsselmeer
inland sea near Amsterdam used sandbags to protect their homes.
Why is it happening?
 There are three factors at play here: rising global temperature, sea level rise, and outdated flood defence
systems.
 First, global warming. Scientists have known that as the planet gets warmer, there will be more frequent
extreme rainfall.
 With higher temperatures, there is more evaporation from land, oceans and water bodies, which mean a
warmer atmosphere, can hold more moisture — experts suggest for every 1 degree Celsius rise in
average temperature, the atmosphere can hold about 7% more moisture.
 This makes storms more dangerous as it leads to an increase in precipitation intensity, duration and/or
frequency, which ultimately can cause severe flooding.
El Nino — a weather pattern that refers to an abnormal warming of surface waters in the equatorial Pacific
Ocean — also partly contributed to increasing the temperatures of oceans, causing more evaporation and
ultimately, more rain.
 The second factor is sea level rise due to which rivers frequently breach their banks to flood the adjacent
areas.
 Take the example of northern France, where rising sea levels likely led to the recent deluge — between
1966 and 2018, sea levels at Pas de Calais rose by 4.4 cm.
 Lastly, ageing flood defence systems have exacerbated the situation.
 The outdated water management systems of France failed to tackle the large volumes of water that had
entered the affected regions.
 Authorities had to get water pumps from the Netherlands to combat flooding.
 Moreover, people, both in France and England, have built infrastructure like roads and buildings on
floodplains, restricting the natural routes the water would have taken to get drained into the floodplain
soils. As a result, the water ends up flooding certain areas.
What happens next?
 The situation is bound to get worse.
 Studies have shown that as the planet gets warmer, storms would get more intense, causing heavier
rainfall.
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 The frequency of extreme weather events like floods is also expected to go up.
 Steve Turner, a hydrologist at the UK Centre for Ecology & Hydrology “Future projections suggest the
UK overall may experience wetter winters as well as summers that are hotter and drier than at present
but with periods of more intense rainfall.
 Continued human-induced climate warming in future is likely to result in further increases in peak river
flows, which will cause more severe flooding and impacts on people, property and public services.”
 Therefore, there is an urgent need to improve flood defences, early warning systems and resilience
measures to tackle the fallout of heavy rain.
Global Warming
 In common usage, climate change describes global warming—the ongoing increase in global average
temperature—and its effects on Earth’s climate system.
 Climate change in a broader sense also includes previous long-term changes to Earth’s climate.
 The current rise in global average temperature is more rapid than previous changes, and is primarily
caused by humans burning fossil fuels.
 Fossil fuel use, deforestation, and some agricultural and industrial practices add to greenhouse gases,
notably carbon dioxide and methane.
 Greenhouse gases absorb some of the heat that the Earth radiates after it warms from sunlight.
 Larger amounts of these gases trap more heat in Earth’s lower atmosphere, causing global warming.
 Climate change is causing a range of increasing impacts on the environment.
 Desserts are expanding, while heat waves and wildfires are becoming more common.
 Amplified warming in the Arctic has contributed to melting permafrost, glacial retreat and sea ice loss.
 Higher temperatures are also causing more intense storms, droughts, and other weather extremes.
 Rapid environmental change in mountains, coral reefs, and the Arctic is forcing many species to relocate
or become extinct.
 Even if efforts to minimise future warming are successful, some effects will continue for centuries.
 These include ocean heating, ocean acidification and sea level rise.
 Climate change threatens people with increased flooding, extreme heat, increased food and water
scarcity, more disease, and economic loss. Human migration and conflict can also be a result.
 The World Health Organization (WHO) calls climate change the greatest threat to global health in the
21st century.
 Societies and ecosystems will experience more severe risks without action to limit warming.
 Adapting to climate change through efforts like flood control measures or drought-resistant crops
partially reduce climate change risks, although some limits to adaptation have already been reached.
 Poorer communities are responsible for a small share of global emissions, yet have the least ability to
adapt and are most vulnerable to climate change.
 Bobcat Fire in Monrovia, CA, September 10, 2020
 Bleached colony of Acropora coral
 A dry lakebed in California, which is experiencing its worst megadrought in 1,200 years.
 Some effects of climate change: Wildfire intensified by heat and drought, bleaching of coral caused by
marine heatwaves, and worsening droughts compromising water supplies.
 Many climate change impacts are already felt at the current 1.2 °C (2.2 °F) level of warming. Additional
warming will increase these impacts and can trigger tipping points, such as the melting of the Greenland
ice sheet.
 Under the 2015 Paris Agreement, nations collectively agreed to keep warming “well under 2 °C”.
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 However, with pledges made under the Agreement, global warming would still reach about 2.7 °C
(4.9 °F) by the end of the century.
 Limiting warming to 1.5 °C will require halving emissions by 2030 and achieving net-zero emissions by
2050.
 Strategies to phase out fossil fuels involve conserving energy, generating electricity cleanly, and using
electricity to power transportation, heat buildings, and operate industrial facilities.
 The electricity supply can be made cleaner and more plentiful by vastly increasing deployment of wind,
and solar power, alongside other forms of renewable energy and nuclear power.
 Carbon can also be removed from the atmosphere, for instance by increasing forest cover and farming
with methods that capture carbon in soil.
QUESTIONS
Fill in the Blank:
1. _________ is a weather pattern that refers to an abnormal warming of surface waters in the
equatorial _________ — also partly contributed to increasing the temperatures of oceans, causing
more evaporation and ultimately, more rain.
2. Greenhouse gases absorb some of the heat that the _________ radiates after it warms from _________.
3. Amplified warming in the Arctic has contributed to _________ permafrost, glacial retreat and sea
ice loss.
4. Rapid environmental change in mountains, coral reefs, and the _________ is forcing many species to
relocate or become extinct.
5. Scientists have known that as the planet gets _________, there will be more frequent extreme rainfall.
6. Additional warming will increase these impacts and can trigger tipping points, such as the melting of
the _________ ice sheet.
7. Under the 2015 ________ Agreement, nations collectively agreed to keep warming “well under ________.
8. Limiting warming to _________ will require halving emissions by _________ and achieving net-
zero emissions by 2050.
9. _________ can also be removed from the atmosphere, for instance by increasing _________ cover
and farming with methods that capture carbon in soil.
10. In common usage, climate change describes _________ —the ongoing increase in global average
temperature—and its effects on Earth’s climate system.
3. The question of MSP: Is income support

for farmers better than pricing that is
delinked from market demand?
 Farmers, for the most part, operate in a buyer’s market.
 Since their crops — barring maybe milk — are harvested and marketed in bulk, it leads to sudden
supply increases relative to demand, putting downward pressure on prices.
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 Such market conditions, favouring buyers over sellers, also mean farmers are price takers, not price
makers.
 Lacking the market power to influence the prices of their produce — or to even set the MRP (maximum
retail price), as firms in most industries do — they sell at prevailing supply-and-demand-determined
rates.
 Worse, while their crops are sold wholesale, they pay retail prices for everything from seeds, pesticides,
diesel, and tractors to cement, medicines, toothpaste, and soap.
Price versus income support
 Most economists, though, are opposed to government-fixed MSPs based on cost-plus pricing, sans any
consideration to market demand.
 Farmers, they say, should plant what the market wants, as reflected in the prices for various crops at a
given point in time.
 Cost-plus MSPs that are oblivious to demand conditions will distort farmers’ production decisions,
resulting in the oversupply of some crops and an undersupply of others.
 Economists largely believe that it is better to give farmers “income”, instead of “price”, support.
 That would mean transferring a fixed sum of money annually into their bank accounts, whether on a per-
farmer (as in the Centre’s PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi) or per-acre (the Telangana government’s Rythu
Bandhu) basis. Direct income support schemes aren’t market-distorting and benefit all farmers,
irrespective of which crop they grow in whatever quantity, and sell to whomsoever at any price.
 However, the flip side to everyone being paid the same money is: where does this leave the real
producing farmer, who invests more resources, time, and effort in the field?
 These farmers, unlike those for whom agriculture is a secondary or incidental livelihood source, may be
justified in seeking some kind of price assurance for the crop they are sowing now and harvesting a few
months down the line.
 And given that they, more than other businessmen, are exposed to both price and production risks (from
weather, pests, and diseases), MSP guarantee is probably not an unreasonable demand.
 Moreover, price support can be a useful tool for promoting crop diversification. Farmers are more likely
to grow pulses, millets, and other nutrient-dense, less water-intensive crops than rice, wheat, or
sugarcane if they are assured of MSP on the former. So long as MSPs do not deviate excessively from
market rates and inter-crop price parity, it’s the next question that deserves answering.
How can MSP be guaranteed?
There are two conventional ways.
 The first is to force buyers to pay MSP. Sugar mills are required, by law, to pay cane growers a “fair and
remunerative” or “state advised” price within 14 days of purchase. But this approach risks
implementation hurdles (recurrent cane payment arrears are proof), or worse, the private trade choosing
to not buy at all. The second is for government agencies to buy the entire marketable produce of farmers
offered at MSP. That is unsustainable, both physically and fiscally.
 But there’s a third option: price deficiency payments (PDP). It entails the government not physically
purchasing or stocking any crop, and simply paying farmers the difference between the market price and
MSP, if the former is lower. Such payment would be on the quantity of crop they sell to the private
trade.
 PDP was tried out first in Madhya Pradesh through a Bhavantar Bhugtan Yojana.
 Under this scheme, the market price for a crop was its average modal (most-quoted) rate in the
Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) mandis of Madhya Pradesh as well as two other
growing states during the particular month of sale.
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 The price difference vis-à-vis the MSP was payable on the actual quantity sold by the farmer, backed by
an “anubandh patra” (sale agreement with trader), “tol parchi” (weighment slip), and “bhugtan patra”
(payment letter signed by both parties).
 The Madhya Pradesh scheme was implemented during the 2017-18 kharif (post-monsoon) season for
eight crops: urad (black gram), soyabean, maize, arhar (pigeon pea), moong (green gram), groundnut,
sesame, and nigerseed. But despite 21 lakh-odd farmers registering and payments of about Rs 1,952
crore being made, the scheme couldn’t be continued for lack of Central support.
A model in Haryana
 Haryana’s PDP scheme, called Bhavantar Bharpai Yojana (BBY), is being implemented mainly in bajra
(pearl millet), mustard, and sunflower seed, although technically is also covers groundnut, chana
(chickpea), moong, and 16 vegetable and 3 fruit crops.
 BBY operates on the Haryana government’s ‘Meri Fasal, Mera Byaura’ portal, in which farmers have to
register themselves along with details of their land (village name, khasra plot number, holding size, etc)
and area sown under different crops.
 Haryana has opted for a mix of both physical procurement and PDP under BBY.
 In 2020-21, the state government directly procured 776,909 tonnes of bajra and 16,952 tonnes of
sunflower at MSPs of Rs 2,150 and Rs 5,885 per quintal respectively.
 In subsequent years, Haryana has undertaken both (see table), depending on the gap between the MSP
and market price. “If the difference isn’t too large, we do procurement to push up the market price closer
to MSP and cover the rest through PDP. If it is too high, then we only do PDP,” an official said.
 The PDP itself has tended to be on a fixed rate — Rs 450/ quintal for bajra and Rs 1,000/ quintal for
sunflower in the 2022-23 marketing year — derived from average quotes at the National Commodity
and Derivatives Exchange. Also, farmers are being paid not on actual production, but the three-year
average yield for their block/ sub-district with lower and upper caps.
So what is the road ahead?
 Both Madhya Pradesh and Haryana have demonstrated the feasibility of delivering MSP to farmers at
least in some crops other than rice, wheat, and sugarcane.
 One reason they have been able to do this is because of the already-created APMC mandi infrastructure
and systems for farmer registration in these states. This makes it possible to record each transaction —
what quantity of any crop a farmer has sold at a certain price — and to pay the difference vis-à-vis the
MSP based on that.
 If a nationwide PDP scheme with 50% Central funding were to be implemented, it can perhaps
incentivise other states to follow the examples of Madhya Pradesh and Haryana.
 They could, for a start, build the market infrastructure and systems that would ultimately enable even
their farmers to get MSP, whether by law or otherwise.
Minimum support price (India)

 The minimum support price (MSP) is an advisory price signal that is part of a larger set of agricultural
policies in parts of India.
 This informal “support” price (as opposed to procurement or issue price) is recommended by the
government and aims to safeguard the farmer to a minimum profit for the harvest while at the same time
increasing food security in the country.
 MSP was initially an incentive for farmers to adopt technology with an aim of increasing the
productivity of agricultural land in the 1960s, however in the 2000s it is seen as a market intervention
and farmer income scheme.
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 The effectiveness of such a price policy has varied widely between states and commodities.
 Awareness among farmers of the existence of an MSP is poor at 23%, while awareness of MSP
procurement agencies is also poor with only about 20–25% of wheat and paddy produce being sold at
MSP.
 The Indian government sets the price for about two dozen commodities twice a year.
 MSP is fixed on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), an
apex advisory body for pricing policy under the Ministry of Agriculture.
 CACP in turn recommends the pricing according to a diverse range of factors including national
requirements, available resources, farmer wages, cost of living and product competitiveness.
 However sometimes there are large differences between what the CACP recommends and the prices that
the government recommends resulting in the price policy being used as a political tool.
 Food Corporation of India (FCI) and the National Agricultural Co-operative Marketing Federation
(NAFED) are involved in implementing the MSP at the state level.
 While providing a support price to farmers, MSP also supports the public distribution system which
provides subsided food.
Determinants of MSP
 While recommending price policy of various commodities under its mandate, the Commission for
Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) keeps in mind the various Terms of Reference (ToR) given to it
in 2009.
 To advise on the price policy of paddy/rice, wheat, jowar, and such other commodities as the
Government may decide from time to time, with a view to evolving a balanced and integrated price
structure in the perspective of the overall needs of the economy and with due regard to the interests of
the producer and the consumer.
 According to the terms of reference, the Commission has been advised to keep a few points in mind
when recommending the price policy.
 This includes incentivising the farmer for production as per national requirements, allowing for the
rational use of resources, the impact on wages, cost of living and product competitiveness.
 The Commission can also recommend non-price measures and ways to make the price policy
implementation effective.
 However, sometimes there are large variations between what is recommended by the CACP, and what is
declared by the government due to selective politics.
Commodities under MSP
A total of 23 commodities are covered by MSP mechanism:
Cereals: Pulses: Oilseeds: Commercial crops:
 Paddy  Chickpea / Gram /  Peanut  Copra
 Wheat Gramme  Rapeseed  Sugarcane
 Maize  Tur  Soyabean  Cotton
 Sorghum  Moong  Sesame  Raw jute
 Pearl millet  Urad  Sunflower
 Barley  Lentil  Safflower
 Ragi  Niger seed
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QUESTIONS
Fill in the Blank:
1. Haryana’s PDP scheme, called _________ is being implemented mainly in bajra (pearl millet),
mustard, and sunflower seed.
2. The present Union minister of of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare is _________.
3. MSP is fixed on the recommendations of the Commission for _________ Costs and Prices (CACP),
an apex advisory body for pricing policy under the _________.
4. The full form of FCI is _________.
5. _________ and the National Agricultural Co-operative Marketing Federation (NAFED) are involved
in implementing the MSP at the state level.
6. Commission for _________ Costs and Prices (CACP).
7. A total of _________ commodities are covered by MSP mechanism.
8. Rythu Bandhu is related with state _________.
9. The full form of MSP in agriculture is _________.
10. The full form of MRP in economy is _________.
4. How Lakshadweep’s unique cultural

landscape developed
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s recent trip to Lakshadweep has catapulted the islands into national
conversation.
 Lying about 400 km off the coast of Kerala in the Arabian Sea, the picturesque islands have long been
touted as a “hidden gem” for Indian tourists.
 Culturally, the islands are unique.
 Though majority of its inhabitants are Muslim, the Islam practised in Lakshadweep is unlike that
followed anywhere else in India, with islanders sharing ethnic, linguistic and cultural links to Malyalis,
Arabs, Tamils and Kannadigas alike.
A pre-Islamic Hindu society
 Andrew W Forbes, a scholar of Islamic studies, noted that “there can be little doubt that the first settlers
on the Lakshadweep islands were Malabari sailors, quite possibly castaways” (‘Sources towards the
history of the Laccadive islands’, 2007).
 This is also echoed in oral traditions among islanders, though the specifics of the legends are difficult to
validate.
 Forbes wrote there is strong evidence to suggest that a wave of immigration took place during the
seventh century CE, but it is impossible to pinpoint when exactly it began.
 However, these immigrants were largely Malabari Hindus.
 “The existing caste structure of the Lakshadweep islands probably dates to this period, as does the
prevailing marumakkathayam matrilineal system of inheritance,”.
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 Apart from caste, the existence of a pre-Islamic Hindu society in the islands can be deduced from the
discovery of a number of buried idols, and the existence of several traditional island songs in praise of
Ram and alluding to snake worship.
Why the islanders converted to Islam
 Forbes believes that islanders converted to Islam over an extended period of time, through regular
contact with Arab merchants and sailors travelling between Arabia and the Malabar coast.
 Notably, Islamic influence in the Lakshadweep came through the Arabs rather than through the Mappila
community of Malabar. “Lakshadweep islanders speak Malayalam with a greater admixture of Arabic
than the mainland Mappilas, and write Malayalam in the Arabic rather than Malayali script,” Forbes
noted.
 “Unlike north India, introduction of Islam in the Indian Ocean including the Lakshadweep islands,
Kerala, Tamil Nadu was accompanied by significantly less political contest,” historian Mahmood Kooria
told.
 “Islam was introduced in these areas mainly through commercial interactions,” he added.
Insulated from mainland, culture develops differently
 In the 16th century, the islands came under the control of the Arakkal kingdom of Kannur, the only
Muslim dynasty to have ruled in Kerala.
 The kingdom was frequently at loggerheads with European powers, and controlling Lakshadweep was a
matter of prestige.
 “The Portuguese made strong efforts to take over the island, and in the mid-sixteenth century there was a
massacre of hundreds of locals by them,” historian Manu Pillai told in 2021. “However, because the
Portuguese came to terms with mainland rulers like the Kolathiri and Arakkal, the islands would
eventually enjoy a degree of protection.”
 This protection translated to a degree of insulation, which continued during British rule. While the
Arakkal kingdom was forced to surrender most of its land in Malabar, they retained a part of
Lakshadweep till 1908, in return for tribute to the East India Company, and later the Crown.
 Lakshadweep’s geographic isolation along with relatively less influence of colonialism meant that its
culture and society evolved very differently than the rest of India. In fact, as Kooria explained, no one
cultural influence dominated the islands — that is why it has as many as three main languages:
Malayalam, Jazari and Mahl.
A matrilineal society
 “Perhaps nowhere would a social system appear so incompatible with the ideology of Islam and demand
so much adjustment and accommodation as in a matrilineal society,” anthropologist Leela Dube wrote in
‘Matriliny and Islam: Religion and society in the Laccadives’ (1969).
 Pillai pointed to Lakshadweep’s connections to Kerala to explain its matrilineal tradition. “Amini,
Kalpeni, Andrott, Kavaratti, and Agatti are the oldest islands that were inhabited, and certain families
here claim to be descendants of converts to Islam from Nair and Namboodiri Brahmin families on the
mainland. Matriliny was practised by Nairs and several other castes, and was part of Kerala’s cultural
pattern,” he said.
 Kooria, however, said that the practice of matriliny cannot be seen in connection with Kerala alone,
since it is commonly found among Muslims of the Indian Ocean region like in Mozambique, Indonesia,
Malaysia, Tanzania etc. In fact, he said that “the islanders believe their practice of matriliny is not
despite of Islam but because of it.”
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 A reason for the continued existence of matriliny in Lakshadweep is its relative isolation. Not only did it
avoid serious colonial influence, it also did not come under the influence of conventional Islamic ideas
from other parts of the Muslim world, like the reformist Mujahid movement in south-west India in the
1930s.
Lakshadweep
 Lakshadweep is a union territory of India.
 It is an archipelago of 36 islands serving as the maritime boundary between the Arabian Sea to the west
and the Laccadive Sea to the east.
 It is located 200 to 440 km (120 to 270 mi) off the Malabar Coast of India.
 The name Lakshadweep means “one lakh islands” (Lakṣadvīpa; one hundred thousand islands) in
Malayalam and Sanskrit, though the Laccadive Islands are just one part of the archipelago of no more
than a hundred islands.
 Jeseri is the primary as well as the widely spoken native language in the territory.
 The islands form the smallest union territory of India and their total surface area is approximately 32
km2 (12 sq mi).
 The lagoon area covers about 4,200 km2 (1,600 sq mi), the territorial waters area 20,000 km2 (7,700 sq
mi) and the exclusive economic zone area 400,000 km2 (150,000 sq mi).
 The region forms a single Indian district with 10 subdivisions. Kavaratti serves as the capital of the
Union Territory and the region comes under the jurisdiction of Kerala High Court.
 The islands are the northernmost of the Lakshadweep–Maldives–Chagos group of islands, which are the
tops of a vast undersea mountain range, the Chagos-Lakshadweep Ridge.
 The Lakshadweep originally consisted of 36 islands; however, due to the Parali 1 island being
submerged in water due to sea erosion, 35 islands remain.
 The islands were also mentioned in the Buddhist Jataka stories of the sixth century BCE. Islam was
established in the region when Muslims arrived around the seventh century.
 During the medieval period, the region was ruled by the Chera dynasty, the Chola dynasty, and finally
the Kingdom of Kannur.
 The Catholic Portuguese arrived around 1498 but were expelled by 1545.
 The region was then ruled by the Muslim house of Arakkal, who were vassals to the Kolathiri Rajas of
Kannur, followed by Tipu Sultan.
 On his death in 1799, most of the region passed on to the British and with their departure, the Union
Territory was formed in 1956.
 Of the total 36 islands, 10 are inhabited. At the 2011 Indian census, the population of the Union
Territory was 64,473.
 The majority of the indigenous population is Muslim and most of them belong to the Shafi school of the
Sunni sect.
 The islanders are ethnically similar to the Malayali people of the nearest Indian state of Kerala. Most of
the population speaks Jeseri with Dhivehi being the most spoken language in Minicoy island.
 Jeseri dialect is spoken in the inhabited islands of archipelago, namely Amindivi and Laccadive Islands,
with an exception of the southernmost island of Minicoy, where the Mahl dialect is used.
 The Ponnani script of Malayalam was used to write Jeseri until the British Raj.
 The culture is almost similar to that of Mappilas in the nearest mainland state of Kerala.
Page 14
 The islands are served by an airport on Agatti Island. The main occupation of the people is fishing and
coconut cultivation, with tuna being the main item of export.
QUESTIONS
Fill in the Blank:
1. The Catholic _________ arrived around 1498 but were expelled by 1545.
2. In the 16th century, the islands came under the control of the _________ kingdom of Kannur, the
only Muslim dynasty to have ruled in _________.
3. The _________ is the capital of the Union Territory Lakshadweep.
4. Lakshadweep is a _________ of India.
5. The _________ script of _________ was used to write Jeseri until the British Raj.
6. During the medieval period, the region was ruled by the _________ dynasty.
7. Lakshadweep is an archipelago of _________ islands serving as the maritime boundary between the
Arabian Sea to the west and the Laccadive Sea to the east.
8. The name Lakshadweep means _________ in Malayalam and Sanskrit.
9. _________ is the primary as well as the widely spoken native language in the territory.
10. The islands form the smallest union territory of India and their total surface area is approximately
_________.
5. From red ant chutney to black rice, the 7

Odisha products that have bagged GI tags
 Seven products from Odisha, ranging from the Similipal Kai chutney made with red weaver ants to the
embroidered Kapdaganda shawl, have bagged the coveted Geographical Indication (GI) tag in
recognition of their exclusivity to the state.
 Geographical Indications of goods refer to the place of origin of a product. Such tags are accorded as
they convey an assurance of quality and distinctiveness, attributable to the fact of its origin in a specific
geographical locality, region or country.
 In India, the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and
Industry, awards GIs.
 A GI registration is given to an area, not a trader, but once a product gets the registration, traders dealing
in the product can apply to sell it with the GI logo.
 Authorised traders are each assigned a unique GI number.
 If any unauthorised trader tries selling the product under that name, they can be prosecuted under The
Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
 A marker of authentic products, the GI tags also help protect the interests of the local growers and
artisans by preventing duplicity of the products and sale from unauthorised traders.
 Consumers, through the tags, can know which goods are certified.
Page 15
Kapdaganda shawl
 Woven and embroidered by the women of the Dongria Kondh tribe, a particularly vulnerable tribal
group (PVTG) in the Niyamgiri hills in Odisha’s Rayagada and Kalahandi districts, the shawl reflects
the rich tribal heritage of the Dongria Kondhs.
 It is embroidered on an off-white coarse cloth with red, yellow and green coloured threads, with each
colour holding significance.
 Green symbolises the mountains and hills, and yellow stands for peace and happiness. Red stands as the
symbol of blood.
 The motifs in the shawls are mostly lines and triangles, believed to be a reflection of the importance of
mountains for the community.
 The shawl is worn by both men and women and the Dongrias gift it to their family members as a token
of love and affection.
Lanjia Saura Painting
 The painting, one of the oldest tribal art forms, is also known as Idital.
 The artworks are famous for their beauty, aesthetics, ritualistic association and iconography.
 The art form belongs to the Lanjia Saura community, a PVTG largely residing in the Rayagada district.
 These paintings are in the form of exterior murals painted on the mud walls of homes.
 White paintings figure over a crimson-maroon background.
 It is believed that the Lanjia Sauras paint their walls with Idital artworks to show gratitude to their
deities and forefathers, and also for the well-being of their community.
 Reflecting the love and affection of the primitive tribes for nature, they feature subjects like tribal
humans, trees, animals, birds, the Sun and the Moon.
Koraput Kala Jeera Rice
 The black-coloured rice variety, also known as the ‘Prince of Rice’, is famous for its aroma, taste,
texture and nutritional value.
 Tribal farmers of the Koraput region have preserved the rice variety for around 1,000 years.
 As the rice grains resemble cumin seeds, it is also called Kala Jeera.
 Consumption of the rice variety helps in increasing haemoglobin levels and improves metabolism in the
body.
 The farmers and producers of Koraput Kala Jeera rice have followed the traditional knowledge and
practices in cultivation.
 Ancient tales also speak about the physical, mental and spiritual delights resulting from the consumption
of the rice variety.
Similipal Kai chutney
 The chutney made with red weaver ants is a traditional delicacy of the tribals in Odisha’s Mayurbhanj
district.
 The ants are found in the forests of Mayurbhanj, including in the Similipal forests – Asia’s second-
largest biosphere.
 Rich in medicinal and nutritional value, the chutney is believed to be a good source of nutrients like
protein, calcium, zinc, vitamin B-12, iron, magnesium, potassium, etc.
Page 16
 The tribals prepare the Kai chutney by grinding the ants manually on a Sil Batta or the grinding stone.
 Mayurbhanj’s tribals also earn their livelihood by selling the red ants and the chutney made from the
ants.
 They believe that its consumption helps boost immunity and prevents diseases.
Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal
 Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal is known for its prickly thorns on the stems and the whole plant.
 The green and round fruits contain more seeds as compared to other genotypes.
 It is famous for its unique taste and relatively short quick cooking time.
 The plants are resistant to major insects and can be grown with minimal pesticide.
 It is being widely cultivated in Nayagarh district of the state.
 The growers are getting a yield of up to 200 quintals per hectare and selling at around Rs 60 per kg.
 Historical records also suggest that the locals got the brinjal from the hilly areas.
 They collected seeds from it and started raising seedlings nearly 100 years ago.
Odisha Khajuri Guda
 Odisha’s “Khajuri Guda” or jaggery is a natural sweetener extracted from date palm trees and has its
origin in the Gajapati district.
 Traditionally, the jaggery is prepared in a trapezoidal form called ‘Patali Gur’ and is organic by nature.
 It is dark brown and has a unique taste.
Dhenkanal Magji
 Dhenkanal Magji is a type of sweet made from cheese from buffalo milk, with distinct characteristics in
terms of appearance, taste, flavour, shape, and size.
 It also has unique nutritional values that distinguish it from other cheese-based sweets.
 Thousands of people were said to be earning their livelihood through animal husbandry, especially
buffalo rearing, during the British era.
 The region was the hinterland of buffalo milk production and cheese was the third largest produce, after
milk and curd.
 Mandar-Sadangi area of Gondia block is believed to be the centre of origin of the sweet stuff, which has
now been spread to the entire district.
 The sweet is prepared by draining moisture from the cheese and then frying it, finally forming balls from
the mixture.
Geographical Indication (GI) tag

 A geographical indication (GI) is a name or sign used on products which corresponds to a specific
geographical location or origin (e.g., a town or region).: 39 The use of a geographical indication, as an
indication of the product’s source, is intended as a certification that the product possesses certain
qualities, is made according to traditional methods, or enjoys a good reputation due to its geographical
origin.
 Article 22.1 of the TRIPS Agreement defines geographical indications as “...indications which identify a
good as originating in the territory of a Member [of the World Trade Organization], or a region or
locality in that territory, where a given quality, reputation or other characteristic of the good is
essentially attributable to its geographical origin.”
Page 17
 Appellation d’origine contrôlée (‘Appellation of origin’) is a sub-type of geographical indication where
quality, method, and reputation of a product originate from a strictly defined area specified in its
intellectual property right registration.
 Geographical indications and trademarks are distinctive signs used to distinguish goods or services in
the marketplace.
 Both convey information about the origin of a good or service, and enable consumers to associate a
particular quality with a good or service.
 Trademarks inform consumers about the source of a good or service.
 They identify a good or service as originating from a particular company. Trademarks help consumers
associate a good or service with a specific quality or reputation, based on information about the
company responsible for producing or offering it.
 Geographical indications identify a good as originating from a particular place.
 Based on its place of origin, consumers may associate a good with a particular quality, characteristic or
reputation.
 A trademark often consists of an arbitrary sign that may be used by its owner or another person
authorized to do so.
 A trademark can be assigned or licensed to anyone, anywhere in the world, because it is linked to a
specific company and not to a particular place.
 In contrast, the sign used to denote a geographical indication usually corresponds to the name of the
place of origin of the good, or to the name by which the good is known in that place.
 A geographical indication may be used by all persons who, in the area of origin, produce the good
according to specified standards.
 However, because of its link with the place of origin, a geographical indication cannot be assigned or
licensed to someone outside that place or not belonging to the group of authorized producers.
QUESTIONS
Fill in the Blank:
1. The _________ coloured rice variety, also known as the ‘Prince of Rice’, is famous for its aroma,
taste, texture and nutritional value.
2. The red ants found in the forests of Mayurbhanj, including in the Similipal forests – Asia’s
_________ largest biosphere.
3. The painting, one of the oldest tribal art forms, is also known as _________.
4. _________ Brinjal is known for its prickly thorns on the stems and the whole plant.
5. Seven products from _________, ranging from the Similipal Kai chutney made with red weaver ants
to the embroidered Kapdaganda shawl, have bagged the coveted Geographical Indication (GI) tag in
recognition of their exclusivity to the state.
6. Dhenkanal Magji is a type of sweet made from cheese from _________.
7. Geographical indications identify a good as originating from a particular _________.
8. A trademark often consists of an _________ sign that may be used by its owner or another person
authorized to do so.
9. _________ is believed to be the centre of origin of the sweet stuff, which has now been spread to the
entire district.
10. Odisha’s “Khajuri Guda” or jaggery is a natural sweetener extracted from date palm trees and has its
origin in the _________ district.
Page 18
6. Why ISRO’s Aditya spacecraft is at ‘L1’?
 Aditya-L1 was launched by ISRO on September 2, 2023, with the mission of observing and helping us
better understand the Sun. It arrives at its destination, L1 or the first Sun-Earth Lagrangian point.
But first, why study the Sun?
 The Sun produces energy through nuclear fusion in its interior, and emits it from its outer layers.
 The photosphere, a 6,000-degree Celsius layer, emits all visible and infrared light, crucial for life.
 Above is the chromosphere, and higher still is the million-degree Celsius hot corona.
 Interestingly, the corona is much hotter than the inner layers of the Sun — there must be some energy
source which provides this heat. However, the processes involved in this are not yet fully understood.
 Moreover, it also emits ultraviolet and X-ray radiation which would be lethal to life on Earth, without
the presence of the atmosphere which absorbs most harmful radiation.
 The Sun also continuously streams electrically charged particles — a stream known as the Solar wind.
 These charged particles produce the spectacular aurorae, known as the Northern and Southern Lights,
seen close to the north and south poles of the Earth.
 There are also sudden bursts and ejections of charged particles from the Sun into interplanetary space,
known as Solar flares and coronal mass ejections.
 These directly affect space weather, space-reliant technologies like satellite communication networks,
and can produce electric power blackouts in Earth’s higher latitudes. Notably, they can be extremely
difficult to predict.
What will Aditya-L1 do?
 Since Aditya-L1 is located outside the Earth’s atmosphere, its instruments can observe the ultraviolet
radiation from the corona, and in the process, better understand its workings.
 Moreover, we need to monitor the Solar atmosphere and the corona continuously to monitor eruptions
on the Sun, and study the properties of charged particles in the Solar wind.
 Crucially, this task has to be carried out from outside Earth’s atmosphere, and as close to the Sun as
possible.
 This will then help provide early warning of solar eruptions, and allow us to initiate actions to minimise
the disruption they may cause.
 Aditya-L1 has seven instruments for the observation of all the radiation and charged particles.
 Its location, 1.5 million km away from Earth towards the Sun (more on that next), allows uninterrupted
observations.
What is L1, the location of Aditya?
 L1 stands for the first Lagrangian point — there are five such points, L1 to L5, associated with the
motion of one astronomical body around another one, in Aditya’s case, Earth and the Sun. These points
were theoretically discovered by the Swiss mathematician Leonhard Euler and the Italian-French
mathematician Joseph-Louis Lagrange in the 19th century. We are particularly concerned here with
points L1 and L2 because of their relevance to space missions.
 When a spacecraft is in orbit around Earth, it is affected by the gravitational force exerted on it by the
planet. Yet it does not fall to Earth’s surface because effectively, Earth’s gravity is balanced by a
centrifugal force which arises due to the motion of the spacecraft around the Earth.
Page 19
 The Earth’s gravitational pull on a spacecraft gets ever so weaker the further it moves from the planet.
Eventually, there comes a point where Earth’s gravitational force becomes comparable that exerted by
the Sun. If a spacecraft moves any further, it will get pulled into orbit around the sun, or eventually crash
into it, depending on its speed.
 L1 is the sweet spot between Earth and the Sun, where the gravitational force exerted on a spacecraft by
the two celestial bodies, and the centrifugal force cancel each other. As a result, once placed exactly at
L1, Aditya would always continue to remain there without expending any energy.
Does this mean that Aditya is at a stationary point in space?
 L1 is on the line joining the Sun and the Earth.
 As Earth rotates around the Sun, L1 goes around the Sun too, while always remaining on the same line.
 Thus, rather than being at the same point in space, Aditya will remain at the same position, relative to
the Sun and Earth.
 In fact, the L1 point itself is fundamentally unstable — a tiny pull or push can send the spacecraft
hurtling away in some other direction. To avoid this, Aditya is placed in an orbit around L1.
 A complex orbit nearly perpendicular to the line joining the Sun and Earth, it will take the spacecraft
about 178 days to complete one full orbit.
Why L1?
 Putting Aditya in orbit around the Earth would have made the mission much simpler.
 However, this would also mean that Earth would cover Aditya’s view of the Sun for significant periods
of time.
 While the duration of such eclipses can be reduced by choosing the correct orbit, it cannot be fully
eliminated.
 Given that Aditya is meant to act as an early warning system for solar flares and coronal mass ejections,
is necessary to have an uninterrupted view of the Sun.
 When Aditya is at L1, the Earth is always on one side of it, and the Sun on the other side. Thus, the
spacecraft’s instruments can be pointed towards the Sun for a completely uninterrupted view. Even
though placing the spacecraft at an orbit around L1 is complex, the benefits of having an uninterrupted
view of the Sun at all times is well worth the effort, risk, and expense.
 A few space missions are already parked around the L1 point, including the LISA Pathfinder, and Solar
and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO), both collaborative missions of NASA and European Space
Agency.
And what about L2?
 While the L1 is the ideal point to observe the Sun, L2 is a very useful staging point for spacecraft to be
used for observing the distant Universe.
 L2 also is along the line joining the Sun and Earth, but it is on the opposite side of the Earth, at about 1.5
million kilometres.
 So, a spacecraft in a halo orbit around L2 can have all its instruments pointing away from the Earth, to
get an uninterrupted view of the deep space.
 The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST), Gaia and Euclid are some of the important astronomical
probes which are presently in orbit around L2.
 The Planck mission, which carried out path breaking observations of the cosmic microwave background
radiation was also located there.
Page 20
ISRO
 The Indian Space Research Organisation is the national space agency of India.
 It operates as the primary research and development arm of the Department of Space (DoS), which is
directly overseen by the Prime Minister of India while the Chairman of ISRO also acts as the executive
of DoS.
 ISRO is primarily responsible for performing tasks related to space-based operations, space exploration,
international space cooperation and the development of related technologies.
 ISRO is one of the six government space agencies in the world that possesses full launch capabilities,
can deploy cryogenic engines, can launch extraterrestrial missions and operate a large fleet of artificial
satellites.
 ISRO is one of the four government space agencies to have soft landing (uncrewed) capabilities.
 ISRO was previously known as the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), set up
under Jawaharlal Nehru on the suggestions of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai in 1962 recognising the need for
space research.
 INCOSPAR grew and became ISRO in 1969, within the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).
 In 1972, the government of India set up a Space Commission and the DoS, bringing ISRO under it.
 The establishment of ISRO thus institutionalised space research activities in India.
 It has since been managed by DoS, which also governs various other institutions in India in the domain
of astronomy and space technology.
 ISRO built India’s first satellite, Aryabhata, which was launched by the Soviet space agency
Interkosmos in 1975.
 In 1980, ISRO launched satellite RS-1 onboard SLV-3, making India the seventh country to be capable
of undertaking orbital launches.
 SLV-3 was followed by ASLV, which was subsequently succeeded by the development of many
medium-lift launch vehicles, rocket engines, satellite systems and networks enabling the agency to
launch hundreds of domestic and foreign satellites and various deep space missions for space
exploration.
 ISRO has the world’s largest constellation of remote-sensing satellites and operates the GAGAN and
IRNSS (NavIC) satellite navigation systems. It has sent three missions to the Moon and one to Mars.
 ISRO’s programmes have played a significant role in the socio-economic development of India and have
supported both civilian and military domains in various aspects including disaster management,
telemedicine and navigation and reconnaissance missions. ISRO’s spin-off technologies also have
founded many crucial innovations for India’s engineering and medical industries.
QUESTIONS
Fill in the Blank:
1. L1 stands for the first _________ point — there are five such points, L1 to L5.
2. L1 is on the line joining the _________ and the Earth.
3. Aditya-L1 was launched by _________.
4. The _________ is the national space agency of India.
5. _________ operates as the primary research and development arm of the _________.
6. ISRO has the world’s largest constellation of remote-sensing satellites and operates the __________
and IRNSS __________ satellite navigation systems.
Page 21
7. ISRO built India’s first satellite, __________, which was launched by the Soviet space agency
__________ in 1975.
8. ISRO is one of the __________ government space agencies in the world that possesses full launch
capabilities, can deploy cryogenic engines, can launch extraterrestrial missions and operate a large
fleet of artificial satellites.
9. ISRO was previously known as the __________, set up under Jawaharlal Nehru on the suggestions
of __________ in 1962.
10. INCOSPAR grew and became ISRO in __________, within the __________.
7. Gabriel Attal: Who is the new PM of

France, what changes with his
appointment
 France’s President Emmanuel Macron appointed a new Prime Minister Gabriel Attal, 34, the youngest
person to ever hold the post.
 Before Attal, the Socialist leader Laurent Fabius was the youngest French PM, appointed at the age of
37 by President François Mitterrand in 1984. Attal’s appointment comes after sitting PM Elisabeth
Borne resigned a day earlier, following a tumultuous term in office.
Why a new PM?
 The appointment of a fresh face as the PM seems to be part of Marcon’s attempts to infuse new life into
his government ahead of the European Union Parliament elections in June, where his ratings are trailing.
 Macron was re-elected as French President in 2022 and the going has not been great for him since — his
government lost parliamentary majority the same year, and 2023 saw massive backlash against his
pension plans at the beginning of the year and against immigration law changes at the end. Getting
policies through parliament has been a major challenge for his government, bedevilling Borne’s 20-
month tenure.
 The ruling coalition has been divided, most recently during the passing of the migration Bill, which the
Left-leaning of Macron’s allies criticised strongly.
 In the midst of all this, Attal is a popular face appreciated in Opposition circles too. He also happens to
be France’s first openly gay Prime Minister.
Who is Gabriel Attal?
 Attal held the education portfolio in Borne’s government. Suave and well-spoken, he has been polled the
most popular minister in the outgoing government, according to AP. In many ways, his rapid rise
mirrors that of Macron himself, who won his first term amid much adulation for his youth and
seemingly clear and articulate vision.
 In fact, Attal left the Socialist Party, which he had joined at the age of 17, in 2016 to back Macron’s
presidential bid.
 According to a Politico profile, “he was elected to parliament in 2017 and joined the government a year
later as secretary of state for the youth, becoming the youngest Cabinet member since the start of
Page 22
France’s Fifth Republic. He later served as government spokesperson, then budget minister, has been
minister of education since July.”
 As education minister, Attal was in the news for banning abayas (long, loose robes worn by Muslim
girls), for pushing a proposal for mandatory uniforms in schools, and for efforts to stamp out bullying,
something he says he has been a victim of.
 The young PM comes from an elite background, born to parents who worked in film production. His
father, Yves Attal, was also a lawyer. Attal attended a private school, the École alsacienne, and then the
Sciences Po university in Paris.
 His critics have pointed to his Parisian background and private school education to claim that he is out
of touch with the reality of France’s provinces. May have also questioned what exactly his ideology is
and what he stands for, apart from being young and charming.
What changes with Attal’s appointment?
 Not much. In France’s political system, the President is the one with the greater powers.
 The Prime Minister is appointed by the President and is in charge of implementing domestic policy.
 He is also supposed to ensure coordination among the various ministries. On this front too, many believe
Attal will have a tough time taking much senior cabinet colleagues along.
 Others point out that his personal popularity and energy can help the Macron government shake off the
last two years and forge a more constructive path ahead.
France
 France, is a country located primarily in Western Europe.
 It also includes overseas regions and territories in the Americas and the Atlantic, Pacific and Indian
oceans, giving it one of the largest discontiguous exclusive economic zones in the world.
 Metropolitan France shares borders with Belgium and Luxembourg to the north, Germany to the north
east, Switzerland to the east, Italy and Monaco to the south east, Andorra and Spain to the south, and a
maritime border with the United Kingdom to the North West.
 Its metropolitan area extends from the Rhine to the Atlantic Ocean and from the Mediterranean Sea to
the English Channel and the North Sea.
 Its overseas territories include French Guiana in South America, Saint Pierre and Miquelon in the North
Atlantic, the French West Indies, and many islands in Oceania and the Indian Ocean.
 Its eighteen integral regions (five of which are overseas) span a combined area of 643,801 km2 (248,573
sq mi) and have a total population of over 68 million as of January 2023.
 France is a unitary semi-presidential republic with its capital in Paris, the country’s largest city and main
cultural and commercial centre; other major urban areas include Marseille, Lyon, Toulouse, Lille,
Bordeaux, Strasbourg, Nantes and Nice.
 Metropolitan France was settled during the Iron Age by Celtic tribes known as Gauls before Rome
annexed the area in 51 BC, leading to a distinct Gallo-Roman culture. In the Early Middle Ages, the
Germanic Franks formed the Kingdom of Francia, which became the heartland of the Carolingian
Empire.
 The Treaty of Verdun of 843 partitioned the empire, with West Francia evolving into the Kingdom of
France.
 In the High Middle Ages, France was a powerful but decentralized feudal kingdom, but from the mid-
14th to the mid-15th centuries, France was plunged into a dynastic conflict with England known as the
Hundred Years’ War.
Page 23
 In the 16th century, the French Renaissance saw culture flourish and a French colonial empire rise.
 Internally, France was dominated by the conflict with the House of Habsburg and the French Wars of
Religion between Catholics and Huguenots. France was successful in the Thirty Years’ War and further
increased its influence during the reign of Louis XIV.
 The French Revolution of 1789 overthrew the Ancien Régime and produced the Declaration of the
Rights of Man, which expresses the nation’s ideals to this day.
 France reached its political and military zenith in the early 19th century under Napoleon Bonaparte,
subjugating part of continental Europe and establishing the First French Empire.
 The French Revolutionary and Napoleonic Wars significantly shaped the course of European history.
 The collapse of the empire initiated a period of relative decline, in which France endured a tumultuous
succession of governments until the founding of the French Third Republic during the Franco-Prussian
War in 1870.
 Subsequent decades saw a period of economic prosperity and cultural and scientific flourishing known
as the Belle Époque.
 France was one of the major participants of World War I, from which it emerged victorious at great
human and economic cost. It was among the Allied powers of World War II, but it surrendered and was
occupied by the Axis in 1940.
 Following its liberation in 1944, the short-lived Fourth Republic was established and later dissolved in
the course of the defeat in the Algerian War.
 The current Fifth Republic was formed in 1958 by Charles de Gaulle. Algeria and most French colonies
became independent in the 1960s, with the majority retaining close economic and military ties with
France.
 France retains its centuries-long status as a global centre of art, science, and philosophy.
 It hosts the third-largest number of UNESCO World Heritage Sites and is the world’s leading tourist
destination, receiving over 89 million foreign visitors in 2018.
 France is a developed country with a high nominal per capita income globally and its advanced economy
ranks among the largest in the world.
 It is a great power in global affairs, being one of the five permanent members of the United Nations
Security Council and an official nuclear-weapon state.
 France is a founding and leading member of the European Union and the eurozone, as well as a key
member of the Group of Seven, North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), Organisation for
Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), and Francophonie.
QUESTIONS
Fill in the Blank:
1. In France’s political system, the __________ is the one with the greater powers.
2. France was one of the major participants of World War I, from which it emerged victorious at great
human and economic cost. It was among the __________ powers of World War II.
3. France is a __________ country with a high nominal per capita income globally.
4. France, is a country located primarily in __________.
5. France metropolitan area extends from the Rhine to the Atlantic Ocean and from the __________
Sea to the English Channel and the North Sea.
6. France is a unitary semi-presidential republic with its capital in __________.
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7. The __________ of 843 partitioned the empire, with West Francia evolving into the Kingdom of
France.
8. The present President of France is __________.
9. The Present Prime Minister of France is __________.
10. France hosts the __________ largest number of UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
8. Politics and piracy: How Houthi attacks

in Red Sea are different from the earlier
Somali hijackings
 Since November last year, Yemen’s Houthi militia has been attacking merchant ships in the Red Sea, a
narrow body of water between Africa and Asia that links to the Mediterranean Sea and Europe through
the Suez Canal, and provides a crucial trade corridor that allows ships on east-west routes to avoid the
long voyage around the African continent.
 The attacks have raised concerns over potential disruptions to global supply chains, and shipping firms
have been reported to be weighing the difficult choice between paying significantly higher insurance
premiums on the risky Red Sea route and taking the longer and costlier way around the Cape of Good
Hope.
 A US-led force has been deployed in the Red Sea, and American warships have attacked and sunk
Houthi vessels, but the dangers to shipping have persisted. The Houthis have targeted their attacks on
certain kinds of ships such as automobile carriers, but have generally left oil tankers alone.
Why are the Houthis targeting merchant ships?
 Essentially in support of Hamas, the Palestinian group against which Israel has been carrying out a
punishing operation in the Gaza Strip.
 Since the start of the war, provoked by Hamas attacks in southern Israel, the Houthis have launched
more than 15 attacks on international vessels in the Red Sea, using drones and rockets fired from land.
 In November, the Houthis claimed they had captured an Israeli cargo vehicle.
 They have said that the attacks against interests aligned with Israel and the US would continue.
 The Houthis are a militant group backed and armed by Iran, who have been fighting a protracted civil
war in Yemen.
 The Houthis have links with Hamas, and are believed by some to have helped plan attacks.
 However, Hamas are Sunni, while the Houthis, like the regime in Tehran as well as Hezbollah, the
Iranian-backed militant group in Lebanon, are Shia.
 Between 2000 and 2016, merchant ships in the Gulf of Aden (into which the Red Sea opens in the south
through the Bab al-Mandab Strait), Guardafui Channel (at the tip of the Horn of Africa) and the Somali
Sea were under constant threat from Somali pirates.
 Unlike the attacks by the Houthis, the Somali pirate actions had no overt political agenda or goals, and
were essentially hijackings for ransom.
Page 25
 Gangs of young Somali men with light arms would try to board ships and commandeer them.
 If they managed to seize control, they would negotiate a ransom for the release of the vessel.
 They would generally not be violent with the ship’s crew, and would work through negotiators who
were often on land in or around Somalia.
 After 2016, there was a significant decline in piracy. Combined efforts by the international community
in terms of military cooperation and intelligence-sharing helped reduce the risks.
 The Indian Navy also sent some warships to the region.
 “From 2016 to 2022 there were no pirate attacks in the Gulf of Aden area, and from being an HRA
(High Risk Area) it had been designated an HSA (Heightened Security Area).
 While armed guards were still escorting merchant vessels, incidents and risks had come down to a
minimum, also due to NATO and the French Navy and Army destroying everything related to piracy
attacks in Somalia,”.
Houthi movement
 The Houthi movement is a Shia Islamist political and military organization that emerged from Yemen in
the 1990s.
 It is predominantly made up of Zaidi Shias, with their namesake leadership being drawn largely from the
Houthi tribe.
 Under the leadership of Zaidi religious leader Hussein al-Houthi, the Houthis emerged as an opposition
movement to Yemen President Ali Abdullah Saleh, who they accused of corruption and being backed by
Saudi Arabia and the United States.
 In 2003, influenced by the Lebanese Shia political and military organization Hezbollah, the Houthis
adopted their official slogan against the United States, Israel and the Jews.
 Al-Houthi was killed by the Yemeni military in Saada in 2004, sparking the Houthi insurgency, after
having resisted Saleh’s order for his arrest.
 Since then, the movement has been mostly led by his brother Abdul-Malik al-Houthi.
 The organization took part in the Yemeni Revolution of 2011 by participating in street protests and
coordinating with other Yemeni opposition groups.
 They joined Yemen’s National Dialogue Conference but later rejected the 2011 reconciliation deal.
 In late 2014 the Houthis repaired their relationship with Saleh, and with his help they took control of the
capital city.
 The takeover prompted a Saudi-led military intervention to restore the internationally recognized
government, leading to an ongoing civil war which included missile and drone attacks against Saudi
Arabia and its ally United Arab Emirates.
 Following the outbreak of the 2023 Israel–Hamas war, the Houthis began to fire missiles at Israel and
attack ships off Yemen’s coast in the Red Sea, which they say is in solidarity with the Palestinians and
aiming to facilitate entry of humanitarian aid into the Gaza Strip.
 The Houthi movement attracts followers in Yemen by portraying themselves as fighting for economic
development; the end of political marginalization of Zaidi Shias; and promoting regional political–
religious issues in its media.
 The Houthis have a complex relationship with Yemen’s Sunnis; the movement has discriminated against
Sunnis but has also allied with and recruited them.
 The Houthis aim to govern all of Yemen and support external movements against the United States,
Israel, and Saudi Arabia.
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 Because of the Houthis’ ideological background, the conflict in Yemen is widely seen as a front of the
Iran–Saudi Arabia proxy war.
Cape of Good Hope
 The Cape of Good Hope is a rocky headland on the Atlantic coast of the Cape Peninsula in South Africa.
 A common misconception is that the Cape of Good Hope is the southern tip of Africa, based on the
misbelief that the Cape was the dividing point between the Atlantic and Indian oceans.
 In fact, the southernmost point of Africa is Cape Agulhas about 150 kilometres (90 mi) to the east-
southeast.
 The currents of the two oceans meet at the point where the warm-water Agulhas current meets the cold-
water Benguela current and turns back on itself.
 That oceanic meeting point fluctuates between Cape Agulhas and Cape Point (about 1.2 kilometres (0.75
mi) east of the Cape of Good Hope).
 The Cape of Good Hope at the southern tip of the Cape Peninsula, approximately 50 km (31 mi) south
of Cape Town, South Africa. Cape Agulhas is the southernmost part of South Africa.
 When following the western side of the African coastline from the equator, however, the Cape of Good
Hope marks the point where a ship begins to travel more eastward than southward.
 Thus, the first modern rounding of the cape in 1487 by Portuguese explorer Bartolomeu Dias was a
milestone in the attempts by the Portuguese to establish direct trade relations with the Far East (although
Herodotus mentioned a claim that the Phoenicians had done so far earlier).
 As one of the great capes of the South Atlantic Ocean, it has long been of special significance to sailors,
many of whom refer to it simply as “the Cape”.
 It is a waypoint on the Cape Route and the clipper route followed by clipper ships to the Far East and
Australia, and still followed by several offshore yacht races.
Somalia
 Somalia is a country in the Horn of Africa.
 The country is bordered by Ethiopia to the west, Djibouti to the northwest, the Gulf of Aden to the north,
the Indian Ocean to the east, and Kenya to the southwest.
 Somalia has the longest coastline on Africa’s mainland.
 Its terrain consists mainly of plateaus, plains, and highlands.
 Hot conditions prevail year-round, with periodic monsoon winds and irregular rainfall.
 Somalia has an estimated population of around 17.1 million, of which over 2 million live in the capital
and largest city Mogadishu, and has been described as Africa’s most culturally homogeneous country.
 Around 85% of its residents are ethnic Somalis, who have historically inhabited the country’s north.
Ethnic minorities are largely concentrated in the south.
 The official languages of Somalia are Somali and Arabic.
 Most people in the country are Muslims, the majority of them Sunni.
 In antiquity, Somalia was an important commercial center.
 It is among the most probable locations of the ancient Land of Punt.
 During the Middle Ages, several powerful Somali empires dominated the regional trade, including the
Imamate of Awsame, Ajuran Sultanate, the Adal Sultanate, and the Sultanate of the Geledi.
Page 27
 In the late 19th century, Somali Sultanates like the Isaaq Sultanate, Habr Yunis Sultanate and the
Majeerteen Sultanate were colonized by both the Italian and British Empires.
 European colonists merged the tribal territories into two colonies, which were Italian Somaliland and the
British Somaliland Protectorate.
 Meanwhile, in the interior, the Dervishes led by Mohammed Abdullah Hassan engaged in a two-decade
confrontation against Abyssinia, Italian Somaliland, and British Somaliland and were finally defeated in
the 1920 Somaliland Campaign.
 Italy acquired full control of the northeastern, central, and southern parts of the area after successfully
waging the Campaign of the Sultanates against the ruling Majeerteen Sultanate and Sultanate of Hobyo.
 In 1960, the two territories united to form the independent Somali Republic under a civilian government.
 Siad Barre of the Supreme Revolutionary Council (SRC) seized power in 1969 and established the
Somali Democratic Republic, brutally attempting to squash the Somaliland War of Independence in the
north of the country.
 The SRC collapsed in 1991 with the onset of the Somali Civil War.
 Since the onset of the civil war, which involves various warring groups, most regions of Somalia have
returned to customary and religious law.
 In the early 2000s, a number of interim federal administrations were created.
 The Transitional National Government (TNG) was established in 2000, followed by the formation of the
Transitional Federal Government (TFG) in 2004, which reestablished the Somali Armed Forces.
 In 2006, with a US-backed Ethiopian intervention, the TFG assumed control of most of the nation’s
southern conflict zones from the newly formed Islamic Courts Union (ICU).
 The ICU subsequently splintered into more radical groups, including the jihadist group al-Shabaab,
which battled the TFG and its AMISOM allies for control of the region.
 By mid-2012, the insurgents had lost most of the territory they had seized, and a search for more
permanent democratic institutions began.
 Despite this, insurgents still control much of central and southern Somalia, and wield influence in
government-controlled areas, with the town of Jilib acting as the insurgents’ de facto capital.
 A new provisional constitution was passed in August 2012, reforming Somalia as a federation.
 The same month, the Federal Government of Somalia was formed and a period of reconstruction began
in Mogadishu, despite al-Shabaab frequently carrying out attacks there.
 Somalia’s GDP per capita is one of the world’s lowest, and it belongs to the least developed country
group.
 In 2019, Somalia had the lowest HDI in the world, and in the same year, 69% of Somalia’s population
was living below the poverty line.
 As of 2020, Somalia is placed the second highest in the Fragile States Index.
 It has maintained an informal economy mainly based on livestock, remittances from Somalis working
abroad, and telecommunications.
 It is a member of the United Nations, the Arab League, African Union, Non-Aligned Movement, East
African Community, and the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation.
QUESTIONS
Fill in the Blank:
1. The Houthi movement is a Shia Islamist political and military organization that emerged from
__________ in the 1990s.
2. The currents of the two oceans meet at the point where the warm-water __________ current meets
the cold-water __________ current and turns back on itself.
Page 28
3. The southernmost point of Africa is __________.
4. Somalia is a country in the __________.
5. Somalia has the longest coastline on __________ mainland.
6. As of 2020, Somalia is placed the __________ highest in the Fragile States Index.
7. The Transitional National Government (TNG) was established in __________, followed by the
formation of the Transitional Federal Government (TFG) in 2004, which reestablished the Somali
Armed Forces.
8. The official languages of Somalia are Somali and __________.
9. The Cape of Good Hope is a rocky headland on the __________ coast of the Cape Peninsula in
South Africa.
10. The capital and largest city of Somalia is __________.
9. Why has South Africa taken Israel to the

International Court of Justice?
 The International Court of Justice (ICJ) will hold a two-day hearing to decide whether it will order
“provisional measures” (the equivalent of seeking urgent interim relief in pending cases in Indian courts)
in a case that South Africa has filed against Israel for violating its obligations under the Genocide
Convention in relation to Palestinians in Gaza.
First, what is the International Court of Justice?
 The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations that settles legal disputes between States in
accordance with international law. It is not a criminal court, and it does not try individuals.
 That is the role of the International Criminal Court (ICC). Both courts are in The Hague, the
Netherlands.
 The ICJ cannot automatically decide all cases involving breaches of international law.
 It can only decide cases that are brought before it by States that consent to its jurisdiction.
 This consent can be expressed in different ways.
 In this case, the consent stems from an article in the Genocide Convention that states that disputes
between parties relating to the interpretation, application, or fulfillment of the Convention, including
disputes relating to the responsibility of a State for genocide, shall be submitted to the ICJ at the request
of any of the parties to the dispute.
 Both South Africa and Israel are parties to the Convention.
And what is the Genocide Convention?
 The Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide is an international human
rights treaty that codified the crime of genocide for the first time.
 The Genocide Convention was the first human rights treaty adopted by the UN General Assembly on
December 9, 1948, and has been in effect since January 12, 1951.
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 The Convention defines genocide as five acts — (i) killing members of a group; (ii) causing serious
bodily or mental harm; (iii) inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about their
physical destruction; (iv) imposing measures intended to prevent births within a group; and (v) forcibly
transferring children of the group to another group — committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in
part, a national, ethnic, racial, or religious group.
 There are, therefore, two elements: the physical acts; and the specific intent “to destroy, in whole or in
part” a specific group. Committing these acts, however widespread, is not enough to make a claim of
genocide. The specific intent to destroy (dolus specialisis) is what distinguishes genocide from war
crimes, ethnic cleansing, and crimes against humanity.
 Also, the commission of war crimes, ethnic cleansing, and crimes against humanity do not provide an
avenue for States to approach the ICJ because the court does not have automatic jurisdiction over those
crimes.
What is South Africa’s case against Israel?
 South Africa alleges that Israel has committed several of these acts, and that the evidence of Israeli State
officials’ specific intent (dolus specialis) to commit and persist in committing genocidal acts or to fail to
prevent them has been significant and overt since October 2023.
 This, when combined with the level of killing, maiming, displacement and destruction on the ground,
together with the siege “evidence an unfolding and continuing genocide”.
 South Africa has set out nine pages of statements by senior Israeli Officials, including its President,
Prime Minister, and Ministers, to show the existence of specific intent.
 Also, South Africa states, Israel has failed to prevent genocide and to prosecute the direct and public
incitement to genocide, and that it “has engaged in, is engaging in and risks further engaging in
genocidal acts against the Palestinian people in Gaza”.
So what is South Africa asking for?
 South Africa argues that urgent relief is necessary to protect against further, severe, and irreparable harm
to the rights of the Palestinian people which continue to be violated, and to prevent any aggravation or
extension of the dispute.
 Accordingly, it has asked the court to order Israel to immediately suspend all military operations in
Gaza; abide by its obligations under the Convention to prevent genocide; desist from expulsion and
forced displacement, the deprivation of access to adequate food and water, access to humanitarian
assistance, medical supplies and assistance, and the destruction of Palestinian life in Gaza.
 It has also asked the court to direct Israel to not commit any further acts, including engaging in direct
and public incitement to commit genocide, conspiracy, attempt to commit, or complicity in genocide,
and to prevent the destruction of evidence, including by not denying access to fact-finding missions.
 It wants Israel to report on the measures taken to implement the court’s order, and to refrain from acts
which might aggravate the dispute.
What will happen now?
 South Africa’s case appears to meet the threshold for the court to make a provisional measures order.
The Court must be satisfied it has prima facie jurisdiction; there is a “plausible” link between the rights
asserted by South Africa and the measures it requests; and a risk of irreparable harm and urgency.
 That order will come within weeks, and will have legal significance for all States that are parties to the
Genocide Convention because such an order is binding on all States, even though the court lacks
enforcement mechanisms.
Page 30
 Israel has called the case “baseless” and a “blood libel”, and called on the international community to
reject it. The United States, Hungary, and Guatemala have done so.
 Palestine has welcomed South Africa’s case, as have the 57 Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC)
countries, Malaysia, Turkey, Jordan, Bolivia, Venezuela, Mexico, Bangladesh, Namibia, Nicaragua, and
some others.
 France has stated that it will support the court’s decision. India has not issued a statement.
How often do such cases come before the ICJ?
 This is not the first case the court will hear under the Genocide Convention. In 2022, Ukraine filed a
case against Russia, and in 2019, the Gambia filed a case against Myanmar with respect to the
Rohingya.
 The Myanmar case was the first time that a State invoked the court’s jurisdiction to seek redress for
genocidal acts committed against the citizens of another state. The court agreed that the Gambia had
standing to bring the case.
 Like the Gambia, South Africa has based its jurisdiction under obligations erga omnes partes — that is,
as a party to the Convention, it can bring this case because of its community interest in preventing
genocide.
International Court of Justice
 The International Court of Justice also called the World Court is one of the six principal organs of the
United Nations (UN).
 It settles disputes between states in accordance with international law and gives advisory opinions on
international legal issues.
 The ICJ is the only international court that adjudicates general disputes between countries, with its
rulings and opinions serving as primary sources of international law (subject to Article 59 of the Statute
of the International Court of Justice).
 The ICJ is the successor of the Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ), which was established
in 1920 by the League of Nations. After the Second World War, the League and the PCIJ were replaced
by the United Nations and ICJ, respectively.
 The Statute of the ICJ, which sets forth its purpose and structure, draws heavily from that of its
predecessor, whose decisions remain valid.
 All member states of the UN are party to the ICJ Statute and may initiate contentious legal cases;
however, advisory proceedings may only be submitted by certain UN organs and agencies.
 The ICJ consists of a panel of 15 judges elected by the UN General Assembly and Security Council for
nine-year terms.
 No more than one judge of each nationality may be represented on court at the same time, and judges
collectively must reflect the principal civilizations and legal systems of the world.
 Seated in the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands, the ICJ is the only principal UN organ not
located in New York City.
 Its official working languages are English and French.
 Since the entry of its first case on 22 May 1947, the ICJ has entertained 191 cases through 13 November
2023.
 The first permanent institution established for the purpose of settling international disputes was the
Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA), which was created by the Hague Peace Conference of 1899.
Page 31
 Initiated by the Russian Tsar Nicholas II, the conference involved all the world’s major powers, as well
as several smaller states, and resulted in the first multilateral treaties concerned with the conduct of
warfare.
 Among these was the Convention for the Pacific Settlement of International Disputes, which set forth
the institutional and procedural framework for arbitral proceedings, which would take place in The
Hague, Netherlands.
 Although the proceedings would be supported by a permanent bureau—whose functions would be
equivalent to that of a secretariat or court registry—the arbitrators would be appointed by the disputing
states from a larger pool provided by each member of the convention.
 The PCA was established in 1900 and began proceedings in 1902.
 A second Hague Peace Conference in 1907, which involved most of the world’s sovereign states,
revised the convention and enhanced the rules governing arbitral proceedings before the PCA. During
this conference, the United States, Great Britain and Germany submitted a joint proposal for a
permanent court whose judges would serve full-time.
 As the delegates could not agree as to how the judges would be selected, the matter was temporarily
shelved pending an agreement to be adopted at a later convention.
 The Hague Peace Conferences, and the ideas that emerged therefrom, influenced the creation of the
Central American Court of Justice, which was established in 1908 as one of the earliest regional judicial
bodies.
 Various plans and proposals were made between 1911 and 1919 for the establishment of an international
judicial tribunal, which would not be realized in the formation of a new international system following
the First World War.
 The ICJ is composed of fifteen judges elected to nine-year terms by the UN General Assembly and the
UN Security Council from a list of people nominated by the national groups in the Permanent Court of
Arbitration.
 The election process is set out in Articles 4–19 of the ICJ Statute. Elections are staggered, with five
judges elected every three years to ensure continuity within the court.
 Should a judge die in office, the practice has generally been to elect a judge in a special election to
complete the term.
 Historically, deceased judges have been replaced by judges from the same region, though not —as often
wrongly asserted— necessarily from the same nationality.
 Article 3 states that no two judges may be nationals of the same country. According to Article 9, the
membership of the court is supposed to represent the “main forms of civilization and of the principal
legal systems of the world”.
 This has been interpreted to include of common law, civil law, socialist law, and Islamic law, while the
precise meaning of “main forms of civilization” is contested.
 There is an informal understanding that the seats will be distributed by geographic regions so that there
are five seats for Western countries, three for African states (including one judge of francophone civil
law, one of Anglophone common law and one Arab), two for Eastern European states, three for Asian
states and two for Latin American and Caribbean states.
 For most of the court’s history, the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council
(France, USSR, China, the United Kingdom, and the United States) have always had a judge serving,
thereby occupying three of the Western seats, one of the Asian seats and one of the Eastern European
seats.
Page 32
 Exceptions have been China not having a judge on the court from 1967 to 1985, during which time it did
not put forward a candidate, and British judge Sir Christopher Greenwood being withdrawn as a
candidate for election for a second nine-year term on the bench in 2017, leaving no judges from the
United Kingdom on the court.
 Greenwood had been supported by the UN Security Council but failed to get a majority in the UN
General Assembly.
 Indian judge Dalveer Bhandari took the seat instead.
 Article 6 of the Statute provides that all judges should be “elected regardless of their nationality among
persons of high moral character” who are either qualified for the highest judicial office in their home
states or known as lawyers with sufficient competence in international law.
 Judicial independence is dealt with specifically in Articles 16–18.
 Judges of the International Court of Justice are entitled to the style of His/Her Excellency. Judges are not
able to hold any other post or act as counsel.
 In practice, members of the court have their own interpretation of these rules and many have chosen to
remain involved in outside arbitration and hold professional posts as long as there is no conflict of
interest.
 Former judge Bruno Simma and current judge Georg Nolte have acknowledged that moonlighting
should be restricted.
 A judge can be dismissed only by a unanimous vote of the other members of the court.
 Despite these provisions, the independence of ICJ judges has been questioned. For example, during the
Nicaragua case, the United States issued a communiqué suggesting that it could not present sensitive
material to the court because of the presence of judges from the Soviet bloc.
 Judges may deliver joint judgments or give their own separate opinions. Decisions and advisory
opinions are by majority, and, in the event of an equal division, the president’s vote becomes decisive.
 Judges may also deliver separate dissenting opinions.
 In its 77 years of history, only five women have been elected to the Court, with former UN Special
Rapporteur Philip Alston calling for states to take seriously questions of representation in the bench.
 In 2023, judges elected to take office from 2024 did not include a Russian member, so for the first time,
from 2024 there will be no member from the Commonwealth of Independent States.
 This is also the first time that Russia would not have a judge on the ICJ, even going back to its
predecessor, the Soviet Union.
QUESTIONS
Fill in the Blank:
1. __________ has filed against Israel for violating its obligations under the Genocide Convention in
relation to Palestinians in Gaza.
2. In its 77 years of history, only __________ women have been elected to the Court.
3. For most of the court’s history, the __________ permanent members of the United Nations Security
Council have always had a judge serving.
4. The International Court of Justice also called the World Court is one of the __________ principal
organs of the United Nations (UN).
5. The ICJ is composed of __________ judges.
6. The First Indian Permanent Judge of the International Court of Justice was __________.
Page 33
7. At present __________ is one of the judges of the International Court of Justice. He is a former
judge of the Supreme Court of India.
8. The tenure of Judges at ICJ is __________.
9. In 2023, judges elected to take office from 2024 did not include a __________ member, so for the
first time, from 2024 there will be no member from the Commonwealth of Independent States.
10. This is not the first case the court will hear under the Genocide Convention. In 2022, Ukraine filed a
case against Russia, and in 2019, the __________ filed a case against Myanmar with respect to the
Rohingya.
10. Maharashtra Speaker gives verdict on

Shiv Sena split: what was the case
before him
 Maharashtra Speaker Rahul Narwekar ruled that the Eknath Shinde faction was the legitimate and “real
Shiv Sena”, having the support of the majority of the party’s MLAs.
 He was pronouncing his verdict on 34 petitions, filed by the two rival Shiv Sena factions against each
other, seeking the disqualification of 54 MLAs in total arising out of the party’s 2022 split.
The split
 The seeds of the conflict were planted when the Uddhav Thackrey-led (united) Shiv Sena joined the
Maha Vikas Aghadi government along with traditional rivals Congress and the Nationalist Congress
Party in 2019.
 While Uddhav became CM and Shiv Sena got a number of key ministries, many within the party felt
that ditching the BJP for the MVA diluted the party’s identity and ideological position.
 Things came to a head on June 21, 2022 when Eknath Shinde and a group of 34 Sena MLAs rebelled
against Uddhav.
 Within hours, Uddhav’s side passed a resolution removing Shinde as leader of the party in the
Maharashtra House, appointing Ajay Choudhari in his place.
 Sunil Prabhu was appointed as the party’s chief whip. At the same time, the Shinde group also passed a
resolution affirming Shinde’s leadership and appointing Bharatshet Gogawale as the chief whip.
 After being unable to placate Sena rebels, Uddhav resigned as Chief Minister on June 29 and his
government fell. Shinde took oath as Maharashtra CM a day later, allied with the BJP.
Disqualification pleas before the speaker
 The very first set of pleas were filed by the Uddhav faction two days after the Sena split, seeking the
disqualification of Shinde and 15 other MLAs who allegedly ignored whips issued by Prabhu.
 Eventually, petitions would be filed for the disqualification of a total of 40 Shinde Sena MLAs.
 However, the Shinde Sena claimed that its MLAs never received any such whip, and more importantly,
that the split was borne out of legitimate grievances held by Sena supporters against the direction that
the party took under Uddhav, and thus did not violate legislative rules inviting disqualification. It
responded in kind, seeking the disqualification of 14 MLAs of the Uddhav faction instead.
Page 34
The Supreme Court weighs in
 From June 2022, the Supreme Court began hearing a batch of petitions filed by leaders from the
Thackeray and Shinde factions.
 In its verdict on May 11, 2023, the Supreme Court held that the Governor’s earlier decision to order the
floor test for the MVA government as well as the Speaker’s decision to appoint Gogawale was incorrect.
 With regards to the disqualifications, the SC ruled that Narwekar must rely upon the party’s original
constitution.
 “The Speaker must consider the version of the party constitution which was submitted to the ECI with
the consent of both factions.
 This will obviate a situation where both factions attempt to amend the constitution to serve their own
ends,” the SC ruled.
 Notably, the court told Narwekar to not decide based on which faction possesses the majority in the
Assembly, and not as per the Election Commission of India’s interim order recognising the Shinde
faction as a political party.
 The Supreme Court also repeatedly pulled up Narwekar for not deciding on the petitions.
 It initially set a December 31 deadline, which was later extended to January 10.
Speaker backs Shinde, rejects both sets of disqualification petitions
 Narwekar held that the 1999 constitution was the last relevant constitution submitted to ECI. “I hold that
the Shinde faction was the real political party when the rival faction emerged on June 21, 2022,”
Maharashtra Assembly Speaker Rahul Narwekar ruled.
 “Shinde faction had an overwhelming majority of 37 of 55 MLAs when rival factions emerged,” he said.
 Consequently, he rejected the disqualification petitions filed by Uddhav’s faction against the Shinde
Sena. “There is a submission by the UBT faction that respondents from the Shinde faction deliberately
remained absent in a meeting dated June 21, 2022.
 It will not be correct to say that Sunil Prabhu had any authority to call the said meeting.
 Petitioners’ submission that respondents from Shinde faction are liable to be disqualified due to non
attendance is rejected,” Narwekar ruled.
 However, he also dismissed the disqualification petitions against Shiv Sena (UBT) MLAs on procedural
grounds.
 “Submissions by the Shinde faction that legislators from the UBT faction were liable to be disqualified
cannot be accepted on the grounds that it is mere allegation and assertion that they had voluntarily given
up membership of the party.
What this all means
 Effectively, this means that the Shinde Sena gets further legitimacy as a political party, after the Election
Commission also recognised it. While no MLA was eventually disqualified, Uddhav’s side is likely to
take up the matter in court.
 Politically, however, only time will tell how things will play out. While Shinde’s supporters are
celebrating the Speaker’s decision, for the Uddhav faction, things might not be all too glum either. The
decision only gives further ammunition to Uddhav and his supporters in their claims that the BJP is
trying to “destroy the Shiv Sena.”
Page 35
Anti-defection law (India)
 Defection by legislators occurs in many democracies.
 It can be argued that they can undermine the stability of the cabinet, which is dependent on the support
of elected legislators.
 The argument follows that such instability can amount to a betrayal of the people’s mandate, as voiced
at the most recent prior election.
 Before the introduction of the anti-defection law, the election of both the Prime Minister and Chief
Ministers of some of its states and territories had experienced instances of perceived uncertainty
resulting from legislators changing their political allegiance.
 It may be noted that the ‘Political Party’ was not a recognised word in the Constitution of India at that
time.
 By one estimate, almost 50 percent of the 4,000 legislators elected to central and federal parliaments in
the 1967 and 1971 general elections subsequently defected, leading to political turmoil in the country.
 The law was sought to limit such defections in India.
 In 1985, the Tenth Schedule of the 52 nd Amendment to the Constitution of India was passed by the
Parliament of India to achieve this, which resulted in the introduction of the new word ‘Political Party’
in the Constitution of India.
 Thus, political parties got recognition in the Constitution.
 Following recommendations from many constitutional bodies, Parliament in 2003 passed the Ninety-
first Amendment to the Constitution of India.
 This strengthened the act by adding provisions for the disqualification of defectors and banning them
from being appointed as ministers for a period of time.
The anti-defection law enshrined through the introduction of the Tenth Schedule in the Constitution of
India comprises 8 paragraphs. The following is a brief summary of the contents of the law:
 Paragraph-1: Interpretation. This section handles the definitions of distinct terms applied in laying out
the legislation.
 Paragraph-2: Disqualification on grounds of defection. This section deals with the crux of the
legislation, specifying factors on which a member could be disqualified from the Parliament or the State
assembly. Provisions in para 2.1(a) provide disqualification of a member if he or she “voluntarily gives
up the membership of such political party”, whereas paragraph 2.1(b) provisions, addresses a situation
when a member votes or abstains from any crucial voting contrary to the directive circulated by his/her
respective political party. Paragraph 2.2 states that any member, after being elected as a representative of
a certain political party, shall be disqualified if he/she joins any other political party after the election.
Paragraph 2.3 states that a nominated member shall be disqualified if he/she joins any political party
after six months from the date he/she takes his seat.
 Paragraph-3: Omitted after amending the schedule by the Ninety-first Amendment act – 2003, which
exempted disqualifications arising out of splits with one-third of the members defecting from a political
party.
 Paragraph-4: Disqualification on ground of defection not to apply in case of merger. This paragraph
excludes from disqualification in the case of mergers of political parties. Provided if the said merger is
with two-thirds of the members of the legislative party who have consented to merge with another
political party.
 Paragraph-5: Exemption. This paragraph provides exemptions to the Speaker, Chairman and Deputy-
Chairman of various legislative Houses.
Page 36
 Paragraph-6: Decision on questions as to disqualification on ground of defection. This provision
mandates the Chairman or the Speaker of the respective legislative house to be the ultimate decision-
making authority in case of any disqualification that arises.
 Paragraph-7: Bar of jurisdiction of courts. This provision bars any court jurisdiction in the case of
disqualification of a member under this schedule. This paragraph was declared unconstitutional by the
Supreme Court of India in Kihoto Hollohon vs Zacillu, 1992. The Court held that the decision of the
speaker or chairman is subject to judicial review under Article 32 and 226 of the Indian Constitution.
 Paragraph-8: Rules. This paragraph deals with framing the rules for disqualification. The schedule
allows the Chairman and the Speaker to frame rules concerning their respective legislative houses to
deal with the disqualification of members of their various houses of the legislature
Speaker’s role
 After enactment, some legislators and parties exploited loopholes in the law.
 There was evidence that the law did not fulfill the purpose of bringing a halt to political defection, and in
fact legitimised mass defection by exempting from its provisions acts that it termed splits.
 For example, in 1990, Chandra Shekhar and 61 other parliamentarians did not receive penalties when
they simultaneously changed allegiance.
 The Speaker of the Lok Sabha did not allow the defecting members of the breakaway faction of Janata
Dal to explain their point of view.
 Another aspect of the law which was criticised was the role of the Speaker in deciding the cases arising
out of political defections.
 The impartiality of the Speakers of various houses was questioned in regard to granting official
recognition to different factions of political parties. Questions were raised about the nonpartisan role of
the Speaker due to his/her political background with the party from which he/she was elected as the
Speaker.
 In 1991, Janata Dal (S) was accused of undermining the spirit of the anti-defection law by keeping
defecting members in ministerial posts.
 Later, all the opposition members of the house submitted an affidavit to the President of India, appealing
to him to dismiss the ministers.
 Finally, responding to pressure to save the fallen dignity of the Speaker and of the House, the Prime
Minister discharged the defecting members from their ministerial posts.
 Some legal luminaries of the time suggested that a legitimate remedy be made accessible to legislators to
seek protection from the Speaker’s decision.
 They further proposed that the Speaker’s decision pertaining to disqualification on grounds of defection
should not be final, and recommended that a process of judicial review be made available to the
members by empowering a judicial tribunal for dealing with such cases.
Amendment
 To make the existing law more effective in dealing with the frequent defections, an amendment was
proposed to the Tenth Schedule in 2003.
 A committee headed by Pranab Mukherjee proposed the Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Bill,
noting that the exception provided by allowing a split, granted in paragraph three of the Schedule, was
being grossly exploited, causing multiple divisions in various political parties.
 Further, the committee observed, the lure of personal gain played a significant aspect in defections and
resulted in political horse-trading.
Page 37
 The bill was passed in one day by the Lok Sabha on 16 December 2003, and similarly passed by the
Rajya Sabha on 18 December.
 Presidential consent was obtained on 1 January 2004 and the Constitution (Ninety-First Amendment)
Act – 2003 was notified in the Gazette of India on 2 January 2004.
 The amended act maintained that a member disqualified due to defection should not hold any ministerial
post or any other remunerative political post until the term of his office as a member expired.
 The 2003 amended act excluded the provisions from the Tenth Schedule for authorizing the defections
arising out of splits.
 The amended act also stipulated that the number of ministers in states and union territories should not
exceed fifteen percent of the total number of members in the respective house.
Recommended reforms
 Reforms suggested by various bodies—including the Law Commission, Election Commission, National
Constitution Review Commission, Dinesh Goswami Committee on electoral reforms, and Halim
Committee on anti-defection law—can be read under the following heads.
QUESTIONS
Fill in the Blank:
1. Maharashtra Speaker __________ ruled that the Eknath Shinde faction was the legitimate and “real
Shiv Sena”.
2. The present Governor of Maharashtra is __________.
3. It may be noted that the __________ was not a recognised word in the Constitution of India at that
time.
4. Decision on questions as to disqualification on ground of defection mandates the __________ or the
__________ of the respective legislative house to be the ultimate decision-making authority in case
of any disqualification that arises.
5. Provided if the said merger is with __________ of the members of the legislative party who have
consented to merge with another political party.
6. A committee headed by __________ proposed the Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Bill,
noting that the exception provided by allowing a split, granted in paragraph three of the Schedule.
7. Present Chief Minister of Maharashtra is __________.
8. In 1985, the __________ Schedule of the __________ Amendment to the Constitution of India was
passed by the Parliament of India to achieve Anti Defection.
9. Dinesh Goswami Committee is related with __________.
10. Halim Committee is related with __________.
Page 38

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