Professional Documents
Culture Documents
2 Air Law......................................19
2.1 Aerodromes, Air Rules & Procedures......20
3 Meteorology ................................27
3.1 Aviation Weather (Theory) ............... 28
3.2 Aviation Weather (Applications)..........34
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1rcraft
Operations
aircraft/ n. (pl. same)
a machine capable of flight, esp.
an airplane or helicopter.
operation/ n. 1 a the action or
process or method of working or
operating. b the state of being active
or functioning. c the scope or range
of effectiveness of a thing's activity.
2 an active process; a discharge of
a funtion. 3 a piece of work, esp.
one in a series.
Aircraft Operations: The Airplane
1 Aircraft Operations
1.1 The Airplane
1. Name the labelled parts on the drawing of the wing in the diagram below. (Ref: FGU 4)
(a): A:
(b): B:
(c): C:
(d): D:
(e): E:
(f): F:
2. Name the labelled parts on the drawing of the empennage in the diagram below. (Ref. FGU 5)
(a): A:
(b): B:
(c): C:
(d): D:
(e): E:
(f): F:
3. The operating principle of a simple oleo is to take up shock by compressing air in the upper cylinder. The lower cylinder is
filled with oil. There is a small orifice between the two cylinders. What is its purpose? (Ref' FGU 7)
4. Why should the park brake be left OFF if the aircraft is left unattended for a period of time? (Ref FGU B)
5. Most light airplanes have an adjustable trim tab on the elevator. What is the function of the trim tab? (Ref: FGU 9)
6. The load factor is the ratio of the actual load acting on the wings to the ,. , of the airplane. The load
factor of an airplane in straight and level flight is often expressed as lG. If you subject an airplane having a gross weight of
1,500 pounds to a 2G turn, what will be its weight while those 2Gs are being applied? (Ref FGU 12)
7. Most light airplanes have a positive load factor limitation of 4 to 4.5, which means that you may exert that much acceleration
without damaging the machine. If, at high speed, you were to move the control column rapidly through its full travel, it is
possible to exceed that limitation. Because light airplanes do not normally come. equipped with a G meter (accelerometer),
the manufacturer publishes a limiting speed above which abrupt control movement must not be applied. What is this speed
called and what is its abbreviation? (Ref: FGU 12)
8. List the four parts r;2f the Technical Log. (Ref FGU 13)
(a): Part 1:
(b): Part 2:
(c): Part 3:
(d): Part 4:
10. What aircraft logbook do you carry on board the aircraft if you plan to land away from your home base? /Ref FGU I 3J
ANSWERS
l. (a): Leading edge. (b): Wing tip. (c): Front spar. 7. Man□euvering speed or V,. .
(d) Rear spar (e)' Aileron. (f): Chord
8 Airframe. Engine. Propeller. Installation and Modifications
2 (a). Fin. (b): Stabilizer (c). Rudder. (d): Rudder
9. The Journey Log records the air and .flight time of the
tnm tab. (e): Elevator. (f): Elevator tnm tab.
"journeys" made by the airplane and keeps a daily
3. lt restricts the flow of oil from, and to, the lower running account of the serviceability status.
cylinder thus cushioning the landing shock preventing
10. Journey Log.
the airplane from rebounding (as would a spring).
11. Air Time begins when the airplane leaves the surface and
4. An increase in temperature could cause the trapped hydraulic
ends when it touches down at the next point of landing.
fluid to expand creating sufficient pressure to rupture the
seals. A decrease in temperature could release the brakes 12. Flight Time begins when the airplane first starts to
move and ends when it comes to rest at the end of
5. The trim tab relieves the pressure on the elevator control.
the flight. Therefore. it includes taxiing time.
6. All Up Weight (AUW). 3,000 pounds.
13. Journey Log.
3. How does your answer to question 2 above correlate with Newton's third law of motion� Newton's Third Law states: "To each
action there is an equal and opposite reaction". (Ref rcu 16)
4. At what angle of attack is maximum lift generated? (ReJ FGU 16. Fig -1, & FGU 18, Ft� 10)
5. There are two types of DRAG, parasite and induced. Parasite drag includes two componen�s.
• Form drag is the resistance
created by the form or shape of the airplane as it passes through the air and refers to the
tendency of the air to cling to the surface of a body over which it is flowing. What is induced drag? (Rt·/ FGL' l 7)
7. If wing tip vortices are reduced, is reduced. An example of an aerofoil with little induced drag is
the wing on a The opposite extreme is the Concord with its delta wing; its high angle of attack
and high wing loading (weight) on take off produce vortices capable of breaking up a light airplane. (Ref fGU 17)
8. The wing tip vortices produced by a Boeing 747 passenger-carrying aircraft are greater on take off than they are on landing.
Why is this so? (Ref FGU 17 & 282)
9. At Vancouver, you are approaching to land behind a Boeing 737 from Victoria. How should you plan and execute your
approach path and landing presuming you are obliged to use the same runway? (Ref FGU 282)
10. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation specified in the regulations for a light airplane behind a heavy airplane?
(Ref FGU :>82)
11. The ratio of LIFT and DRAG is important. If the wing is producing sufficient LIFT to maintain altitude and, at the same time,
the DRAG is reduced to a minimum, the wing will be operating at its most efficient angle of attack. This is known as the BEST
or MAXIMUM LIFT/DRAG RATIO. (Ref. FGU 18)
(a): At what angle of attack will a conventional wing attain its Maximum L/D ratio? Fig.10 (FGU page 18) indicates
a zero degree angle of attack for the Clark Y airfoil section. See the ANSWERS for further information.
13. As the aerofoil approaches its stalling angle: (Ref. FGU 16)
(a): What happens to the airflow over the top of the wing?
14. To reduce aileron drag, most light airplanes have both and
capacity in the design of their ailerons. (Ref' FGU 19)
15. Engine failure causes the nose to automatically drop. What forces form a couple to assist this movement? (Ref: FGU 20)
16. Describe the following: (Ref FGU 16, fig S & FGU 21, Fig 20)
17. Wash Out not only reduces the stalling angle at the wing tip thus retaining aileron control into the stall, it also does what?
(Ref. FGU 21)
18. A flap increases the camber of the wing, increasing the lift but also the drag. What are the advantages of using flaps on
approach and landing? (Ref: FGU 22)
19. What are the disadvantages of using flaps on approach and landing in a light airplane? (Ref. FGU 23)
20. An aft Center of Gravity will cause instability. (Ref FGU 25)
21. Methods by which lateral stability is achieved are dihedral, sweepback and (Ref. FGU 25)
22. An airplane with a 3 degree dihedral drops a wing due to turbulence. What must occur for that airplane to return to level
flight with no corrective action by the pilot? (Ref FGU 25)
23. If directional stability is to be achieved, the keel surface must be aft of the C of G than ahead of
it. (Ref FGU 26)
24. What two forces tend to yaw a propeller-driven single-engine airplane to the left in a climb? (Rej FGU 26)
27. When is an airplane NOT in a state of equilibrium? (Ref" FGU 1s. FGU 29. Fig. 36)
28. In a level turn at a constant airspeed, if the bank is increased, the load factor
the rate of turn , the radius of turn , and the stall speed (VJ
(Ref FGU 29)
29. The stall speed increases with the application of G or load factor. If V5 at 40 knots is 1 G, what will V5 become when in a 60
degree bank level turn? (Ref fGU 30)
30. Why does the use of anti-spin aileron (right aileron in a left spin) aggravate the spin? (Ref. FGU 32)
31. Lift acts through the . As the angle of attack increases, the C of P moves forward until the wing
reaches the stalling angle, then it moves . This movement tends to rotate the airplane and
the angle of attack. (Ref FGU 16, fig 4)
32. For a particular wing, what single item never varies at the stall? (Ref FGU 30)
33. What force makes the airplane turn when it is banked? (Ref FGU 29, Fig 36)
34. What is the "Clean Aircraft Concept"? (Ref. FGU 31 & 266)
35. How does frost on the top of the wing reduce lift and increase drag? {Ref rcu 30)
36. Besides reducing lift and increasing drag, what other factors may the pilot encounter if the airplane acquires a load of clear
ice during a flight? (Ref FGU 30, 31 & 266)
37. Who is responsible for ensuring that ALL surface contaminants are removed before take-off? (Ref FGU 266)
38. What is the method usually applied when the airplane cannot be stored inside and the ambient temperature and weather
conditions are conducive to the formation of heavy frost? (Ref FGU 267)
39. After landing, why does clear ice sometimes form on the upper surface of a wing outlining the fuel tanks? (Ref FGU 31)
40. What is the procedure for recovery from a spin? (Ref" FGU 32)
41. What is the procedure for recovery from a spiral dive? (Ref FGU 32)
42. Wheelbarrowing is a situation where the airplane runs down the runway on its nose wheel. (Ref. FGU 291)
(a): What could be the end result of wheelbarrowing?
43. The following questions deal with Ground Effect. (Ref: FGU 294)
(a): Why is Ground Effect less pronounced on a high wing than on a low wing airplane?
(b): With a low wing airplane, approximately by how much could you reduce the
induced drag if, on take off, you raised the nose well above normal?
(c): At what height is the majority (about 85%) of the ground effect no longer effective?
(d): In winter, if you do not remove the frost from the wing and you attempt
to take off, what problems might you encounter?
(e): In flight training, where is ground effect utilized to the pilot's advantage?
44. The laminar flow wing is nearly symmetrical with its thickest part near the center of the chord. It is thinner than a
conventional wing and is flush riveted. (Ref FGU 19 & 295)
(a): What is its primary advantage over a conventional aerofoil?
ANSWERS
1. Forces acting on an airplane: 13. As the aerofoil approaches its stalling angle:
3. The camber and angle of attack force the air behind the 17. Reduces wing tip vortices and, consequently, the induced drag.
wing down, the opposite reaction is to force the wing up. 18. The use of flaps results in a shorter landing roll. By
4. Maximum lift is generated just prior w the stall, with reducing the Vs and allowing a slower approach speed
a conventional wing. This is 16 to 18 degrees angle (with a safe margin above stall), the airplane lands at a
of attack. (Do not forget that lift is always at right slower touch down speed. Flaps allow a steeper approach,
angles to the relative air.flow, NOT to the chord.) with improved visibility because the nose is lower
5. Induced drag is skin friction. The drag produced 19. The increased lift makes the airplane more susceptible to
as a result of the wing producing lift. gusts. The lower speeds, and the blanking effect that the
flaps have on the rudder, reduce the crosswind capability.
6. Air .flowing inward over the top and outward from under
the bottom of the wing cause wing tip vortrces. At the tip, 20. Longitudinal.
the air rolls over the tip in an inward circular motion. 21. The pendulous effect of having the weight
7. Induced drag. Glider. slung below on high wing airplanes.
8. The strength of vortices is directly proportional to 22. A side slip must take place.
weight. On take off, the Boeing 747 is fully loaded. 23. Greater.
On landing, it has burned off most of its fuel.
24. Slipstream and asymmetric thrust tend to yaw a prope!ler
9. Approach at least 100 feet above the Boeing 737's glide path dnven single-engine airplane to the left in a climb.
and land farther down the runway beyond the point where
the nose wheel of the 737 was lowered to the ground. 25. The most gain in height for the least time
is known as the Best Rate of Climb.
10. 6 miles.
26. The most gain in height for the least distance
11. (a): +4 degrees. (b): MAX LID RATIO. is known as the Best Angle of Climb.
Note: Copies of the Lift/Drag curves talcen from the RAF AP 27. In a turn and airplane is not in equilibrium.
129 and the CF CFP 169 (1) which show the Max LID Ratio
28. Increases. Increases. Decreases. Increases.
at +4 degrees follow. Refer to them for your answer to (a).
29. 56 knots. (40 times the square root of 2G : 40 x 1.4 = 56).
. I
[L/0..:_"1\A)(
accentuating its stall condition, increasing its drag and
. �
\'
rs..
reducing its lift. The end result is that the spin tightens
up; the airplane rolls about the spin axis Jaster.
V "'-.:.:":,;--,..
32. The angle of attack.
0
AN3LE DF ATTA0<-0;:CiRl;.lleS
" .I - 33. The inward component of lift makes the
airplane turn when it is banlced.
12. The boundary layer is a thin layer of air over the surface 34. The CARs prohibit take off when frost, ice or snow
of the wing that moves at less than the free stream are adhering to any critical surface of the aircraft.
speed. Its flow is smooth and follows the curvature
of the wing. As it nears the trailing edge, it breaks
away and a small turbulent wake is formed.
35. The roughness spoils the smooth airflow and causes 42. Wheelbarrowing is a situation where the aeroplane
separation of the boundary layer. When that happens, runs down the runway on its nose wheel:
the low pressure on the top of the wings breaks down, (a): Any slight disturbance to directional control will cause the
reducing lift. Further. the rough surface amplifies the many
airplane to ground loop (pivot violently about the nose wheel).
little vortices on the trailing edge, increasing the drag.
(b): The pilot holds the control column hard
36. The stall speed increases, controllability is reduced, forward on take off so the main wheels become
the flight characteristics are altered. weight is mrborne, OR the pilot shoves the nose down when
increased, the C of G may substantially shift and the
attempting to land at too high an airspeed
stall warning system may no longer be accurate.
(c): Follow the recommended take off and
37 The pilot-in-command.
landing speeds and techniques
38. The best method is to spray the airplane with de-icing fluid, a
43. With respect to Ground Effect·
solution of heated water and Freezing Point Depressant (FPD).
(a): The wings of a high wing airplane are not so near
Note: The basis of FPD is ethylene glycol, the same the ground as those of a low wing airplane, consequently
product you put into the radiator of your car.
the reduction in the induced drag is not so pronounced.
39. During a flight at uery low temperatures, the fuel cools
(b): About 48�o-
to below freezing. The cold fuel in the tanks can so chill
the aluminum wing surface that moisture in humid (c): One half of the wing span.
air or rain will turn to clear ice ouer the fuel tank (cold (d): The frost causes the boundary layer to break up so
soaking). This ice is hard to see because it is frozen that lift 1s not being generated by the top of the wing. If
from perfectly clean water, the surface is even and the pilot raises the nose high enough, the airplane becomes
the ice layer is thm It does, however, have the same airborne because of the ground effect but has insufficient
deleterious effect as a substantial !ayer of frost. lift to sustain .flight when the ground effect disappears.
40. Close the throttle, apply full opposite rudder, control column (e): Soft Field Take Off
forward. When the spin breaks, centrnhze the rudder,
level the wings with aileron and ease out of the dive. 44 With respect to the laminar flow aerofoil:
41. Close the throttle, level the wings with aileron, keep (a): It has less drag.
straight with rudder and ease out of the dive (b): An abrupt change in angle of attack
can cause a violent stall.
Stattc Pon
P11ot Tube
(a): Altimeter:
(b): Vertical Speed Indicator:
(c): Airspeed Indicator:
2. When the sub scale is set to the Altimeter Setting for the location, the altimeter reads
Adjustment of the sub scale corrects for only. (Ref: FGU 35)
3. You park your airplane on Friday night. On Sunday, when you prepare to fly, you find that the altimeter has decreased 300
feet from 1,200 feet (the field height) to 900 feet. (Ref rcu 35)
(a): What is the barometric pressure change in inches of mercury?
(b): Assuming there is no FSS, what do you set on the altimeter7
(c): What is the weather likely to be?
4. Density Altitude is Pressure Altitude corrected for temperature and is used for calculating
and also for calculating performance. (Ref FGU 36 & 37)
5. True altitude is the exact height above mean sea level. On January 1, you are flying from Calgary to Vancouver at 12,000 feet
indicated, with an altimeter setting of 30.42 Hg from Calgary (which is 3,557 feet above sea level). The OAT is -40 degrees C.
What is your True Altitude? (Ref FGU 21,1;
6. How will a strong wind funnelled through a mountain valley affect your altimeter? Explain your answer. (Ref. FGU 36)
8. The Airspeed Indicator is colour coded. What do the following codes indicate? (Ref FGU 37 & 38)
(a): Upper end of white arc
(b): Lower end of green arc
(c): Red line
9. You have flight planned at 6,000 feet. The OAT (outside air temperature) is +4 degrees C and your TAS is 100 knots. What
should the !AS be? (Ref FGU 38 & 201)
10. FGU states that a frozen pitot pressure source may cause a complete loss of airspeed indication. This is not always the case.
It depends where, and on how fast, the ice forms. If, during a climb, the pitot pressure source does freeze solid, so as to trap
the pitot pressure, what will the airspeed indicator read as you continue to climb? (Ref FGU 38/
11. The Vertical Speed Indicator operates on the principle of a slow bleed off of static pressure between the aneroid and the case.
What will the VS! read if the static pressure source freezes over? (Ref FGU 39)
12. If the static pressure source freezes over and you have no alternate source of static pressure, what can you do to make the
instruments operate reasonably accurately? (Ref FGU 38)
13. What are the characteristics of a gyro that enable its use in modern gyro instruments? (Ref FGU 40)
15. You aligned the Heading Indicator with the Compass before take off but, after 15 minutes flying, you find it is in error by 5
degrees. What caused the HI to move off the correct heading? (Ref FGU 41)
16. At 100 knots, what bank is required to secure a rate one turn? (Ref see Answers)
17. On acceleration, there is a slight error in the Attitude Indicator. (Ref see Answers)
18. After completing a steep turn of 180 degrees, with the wings again level, the Al will show (Ref. see Answers)
19. In most light aircraft, what power source operates the following gyro instruments: (Ref: FGU 40)
(a): Turn Coordinator
(b): Heading Indicator
(c): Attitude Indicator
20. What two forces act on the ball in the Turn and Slip Indicator and the Turn Coordinator? (Ref FGU 43)
21. How does the Turn Coordinator, which is primarily a rate of turn instrument, indicate direction of bank when roll is applied?
(Ref FGU 43)
22. The primary directional control instrument is the (Ref FGU 181)
23. What causes northerly turning error in the Magnetic Compass? (Ref FGU 183)
24. On turns to the north, the compass and, on turns to the south, it (Ref. FGU 183)
25. There is no turning error on headings of east and west. There is, however, acceleration and deceleration error. If you lower the
nose or accelerate on an easterly heading, the apparent turn will be to the (Ref FGU 184/
ANSWERS
l. (a)· Static. (b): Static. (c): Static and Pitot 11 The VS! returns to zero and stays there. The bleed port allows
the pressure to equalize on each side of the diaphragm.
2. Indicated height above sea leueL Pressure.
12. Break the glass on the VSI. This will give you an alternate
3. (a): 0.3 Hg. (b): Field height (c): Good.
static source from inside the cockpit. However, entry to
4 Take Off Climb the static plumbing is through the calibrated orifice There
5. 10,400 feet. will be considerable lag in both altimeter and ASL
Step 1. Calculate the Pressure Altitude (30.42 • 29.92 = .5 = 13 Rigidity m Space (Gyroscopic Inertia) and Precession.
500 feet). Pressure Altitude is 12,000 • 500 or 11,500 feet. 14 When a force is applied to a spmning gyro, the movement
Step 2. Usmg the computer, apply the temperature correction will occur at 90 degrees to the direction of rotation.
to the column of cold air. (11,500 • 3,557 (height of altimeter 15. Precession caused by bearing friction, aggravated by rough
set source) = 8,000 feet). Corrected cold air column is flying, can cause the HI to move off the correct heading.
6,850. Add field height of 3,557. 'True altitude is 10,407.
16. 17 degrees. The formula is based on TAS rather than
Note: You must apply the temperature correction IAS. In a light aircraft at low leuel, the TAS and !AS
to the column of cold air between you and the are quite close together; therefore, use the JAS for
ground and NOT to the full Pressure Altitude. convenience. Formula: 10�� x TAS + 7 = Angle of Bank.
6. The altimeter will ouer read. The funnelling effect of the 17. Nose up. The acceleranon causes the pendulous vanes,
wind sweeping down the mountain valley produces a venturi which are abeam the direction of movement, one to
effect which lowers the pressure. Since the altimeter setting open and the other to close. This creates a lateral force
is not changed (because you did not know there was a which moves 90 degrees to the iong1tudina! position (see
pressure change), your actual altitude is lower than indicated. Question 14) and creates a nose up indication on the AI.
1,000 feet of error is not unusual 3,000 feet is possible.
18. A slight bank in the opposite direction to the turn and
7. Static. Pitot. a nose up indication. The forces applied on the gyro
8. The colour codes indicate: in the turn exceed the capacity of correcting forces of
the Al pendulous vanes. About 15 seconds of straight
(a). Maximum speed for j1ap extension (V,,) and levei flight will bring the Al back to leuel.
(b): Power off stall speed, clean (V. ). 19. (a). Electric. (b): Vacuum. (c): Vacuum.
(c): Neuer exceed speed (V,,,). 20 Grauity and Centrifugal Force.
9. 94 KJAS. 21. The gym is mounted at 35 degrees to the
Step 1. Calculate the CAS on the computer. vertical, giving it the properties of an Attitude
Jndicator in a secondary capacity
Step 2. Use the Airspeed Correction
Table to convert CAS to !AS. 22 Compass.
10. As you climb, the airspeed indicator will ouer read. If 23. Dip.
the pressure source is frozen and the pitot pressure 24. Lags. Leads.
is trapped, this pressure remains constant as you
climb. The static pressure continues to decrease with 25. North. The acronym ''.ANDS" stands for Acceleration
altitude. As a result, the airspeed indicator, measuring (apparent turn) North, Deceleration (apparent turn) South.
the difference, shows an increase in JAS.
2. What is the correct nomenclature for each stroke of a four-stroke cycle aircraft engine? (Ref FGU 49)
3. The timing is set so that the spark plugs fire before top dead centre. Why] (Ref FGU 52. F,g H)
4. Your airplane engine has a maximum oil capacity of 6 US quarts. When you check the level, it is only half full. Oil is available
from your fuel supplier in litres. (ReJ. see Answers)
(a): How many litres do you need to add to bring the level to full?
(b): What should be the minimum oil level for a local one hour flight?
5. Why does the power output of a normally aspirated engine decrease in a climb? (Ref see Answers)
6. In the gravity fuel system as shown in From the Ground Up on page 56, Figure 18? (Ref FGU 56)
(a): Why is only one tank vented to the atmosphere?
(b): Why should the primer be locked after use?
7. Why should the fuel tanks be kept full when the airplane is not in use? (Ref FGU ::64)
8. Light airplanes normally use three grades of fuel, 80, l00LL and 100. (Ref FGU 57)
(c): If you could not get fuel of the correct octane rating, would you use tractor gas, car gas, diesel fuel, aviation
fuel of the next higher octane rating or the next lower octane rating?
9. Detonation is not a problem if you operate the engine as recommended by the manufacturer. However, not everyone does.
(Ref FGU 58)
11. What is the approximate ratio of fuel to air by weight when the aircraft engine is leaned for its lowest rate of fuel consumption?
(Ref FGU 59)
12. What is the function of the venturi in the carburetor? (R,J FGU 53)
13. How do you lean the mixture to get the "lean mixture best power" setting? (R•J- FGU 60)
14. Under certain atmospheric conditions, ice may form in the carburetor at temperatures ranging anywhere from
to (Ref FGU 62)
15. When you set Carburetor Air to HOT, you have accomplished two functions. First, you have selected an alternate source of
air and, second, you have supplied the carburetor with hot rather than cold air. The significance of the first function is often
overlooked by the more dramatic effect of the second function (supplying hot air). (Ref FGU 64, ng. -::1 & An$we,s)
{a): What are the advantages of being able to select an alternate source of engine air?
(b): During run up, how do you check for carburetor ice?
16. Why is it advisable to apply carburetor heat before starting a descent at a low power setting? /11ef FGU 6-!l
17. Why do you enrich the mixture before descent? {Ref FGU 64)
18. When flying an airplane with a constant speed propeller and a manifold pressure system, what is the first indication that
carburetor ice is forming? (Ref FG U 6:1
19. Fuel injection engines do not use a carburetor to deliver fuel to the aircraft engine's cylinders. What are 5 advantages of the
fuel injection system for aircraft applications. (Ref FGU 65)
20. If you turn off the Master Switch in flight, what will happen to the engine? Why? (Ref FGU 69)
21. Why do aircraft engines have dual ignition systems? (Ref FGU 68)
22. Why is the battery in a light airplane only half as big as the one in your car? {Ref FGU 68)
23. What is the primary advantage of an alternator over a generator? (Ref FGU 69)
24. With the propeller set to fine pitch, it will develop the best performance during and
. In coarse pitch, its performance will be best in and at
(Ref. FGU 70)
25. With a fixed pitch propeller, why does engine RPM increase as you accelerate on take off? (Ref FGU 70, Fig. 35)
26. With a constant speed propeller, where do you set the RPM control for take off? (Ref' FGU 71)
27. On the Tachometer, what does the yellow colour code signify? (Rej FGU 7-l, Fig 4:)
28. How does water vapour (humidity) reduce the power output? (Ref FGU 76)
29. Why should you stop the engine if the oil pressure has not registered on the oil pressure gauge within 10 seconds of the engine
being started? (Ref' FGU 79)
30. On starting the engine, there is a loud bang (a backfire) and you see evidence of burning and smoke at the front of the engine.
(Ref' FGU 79 & 80)
(a): What happened?
(c): Suppose that the engine won't start. What do you do?
31. When you move both switches to OFF during an engine test, it is called the magneto check and
is more properly done at RPM just before shutdown. (Ref. FGU 80)
32. When you inspect the propeller, it is a good idea to run your hand along the leading edge. Why? (Ref. FGU 72)
33. Why do pilots turn the engine over several times by hand (that is, turn the prop by hand) prior to attempting a start in
extremely cold weather? (Ref FGU 81)
ANSWERS
1. (a) It is air cooled. (b): On the underside. It is an updraft 10. A RICH mixture is used in a climb because it is close to the
carburetor. (c): TuJo. (d): nuo, top and bottom of each cylinder. best power ratio (1.14), and it assists in engine cooling.
When a RICH mixture is selected, some of the cold fuel 1s not
2. Induction, compression, power and exhaust.
burned, therefore, it has a cooling effect on the cylinders
3. Timing is set before top dead centre in order to begin
11 1:18.
combustion a little before the piston starts on the
down stroke. When the piston is on the way down, 12. The carburetor's venturi speeds up the .flow of air creating a
maximum gaseous expansion (power) will occur. low pressure which draws fuel from the nozzle in a fine spray.
4. (a): Three. (b)· Four quarts. 13. Moue mixture control towards LEAN until RPM
peaks. Continue towards LEAN until the RPM
5. As you climb, the air becomes less dense. Efficient
just starts to drop. Ease the control back towards
engine operation requires about 15 pounds of air to
RICH until the RPM returns to its peaked position.
1 pound offuel. As aircraft powered by normal!y
This will giue you the correct fuel/air ratio.
aspirated engines (engines that are not supercharged or
turbocharged) climb to higher altitudes, the air becomes 14. -5 °C. 30'C.
less dense. The "charge'' has less burning capacity
Note: Carburetor icing may cause complete engine
and, as a result, the power stroke is weakened.
failure, if the ice builds up and substantially reduces
6. With reference to the grauity fuel system: the induction flow of air into the engine.
(a): The right tank is vented to the left tank. ln 15. With reference to carburetor icing and hot air selection·
most airplanes, the caps are also vented.
(a): If the intake filter has become plugged with foreign
(b): To ensure that air will not be drawn into material (rain, snow, sand, grasshoppers, etc.), the
the fuel system through the primer. engine would, of course. stop, due to air deprivation. An
alternate source of air would keep the engine running.
7. Fuel tanks should be kept full to prevent condensation
The alternate source is usually in a position where it
forming inside the tank and water contamination of the fuel.
will not be fouled, even though it may ingest some
8 With reference to aircraft fuels: foreign particles. Dirty mr is better than none.
(a): 80 - red, 100LL - blue, 100 - green (b): Set the RPM to run up power. Moue the carburetor air
(b): The number 80 represents the percentage of control to HOT. There will be a drop in RPM whether or
"octane" in the fuel, as compared to heptane (which not there is ice. Wait 15 seconds. Moue the carburetor air
would be 20%). Octane is a substance possessing control to COLD. If the RPM returns to its original setting,
minimum detonating qualities. Heptane 1s a substance there was no ice. If a higher RPM is attained, there was ice.
possessing maximum detonating qualities. Note: If there is substantial ice when the control is moued to
(c): Fuel of the next higher octane rating. Howeuer, in an HOT, there will be a considerable decrease in the engine RPM
emergency, the engine will run on automobile gas (MOGAS). and it will run rough. As the ice clears, the RPM will increase.
9. With reference to detonation: 16. The engine is more susceptible to ice at low power settings
when the engine is not producing as much heat. Even a small
(a) Explosive burning of the mixture. amount of ice could freeze the butter.fly (throttle) ualve closed
(b): Mixture too lean or use of a fuel preventing it from opening it when you need to add power.
that is of too low an octane. 17. As you descend, air becomes denser but the fuel input remains
(c): The power decreases There is uibration and/ the same if you do not enrich the mixture. Consequently, the
or high cylinder head temperature. fuel/atr mixture becomes much leaner. Detonation and even
engine failure are risks when you open the throttle to level off
(d): Reduce power, enrich the mixture. Use
fuel of a higher octane rating. 18. A drop in manifold pressure is the first
indication of carburetor ice forming.
19. Even distribution offuel to all cylinders. Better cooling. Fuel 27. Caution range (All yellow colour codes indicate CAUTION.)
saving. Increased power. Elimination of carburetor icing.
28. The water vapour displaces some of the air, thus
20. Nothing. It will continue to run as before. The master reducing the "charge" (the fuel/air mixture).
switch controls only the current from the battery to the
29. if oil pressure does not register, it means that oil is not
electrical system. The aero engine (unlike the engine of a
being dehuered in sufficient quantity to the bearings
car) derives the spark to the plugs from the magnetos or
Without sufficient oil, the bearings will quickly erode.
from solid state ignition packs which are powered by the
alternator. Both are separate from the electrical system. 30. With reference to a baclifire:
21 If one ignition system fails, the other will keep the engine (a). There was fuel in the intake which
running, but at a reduced power of about 15 °�. ignited back through the intake value.
:22. The load on the aircraft battery is much less as the (b): Continue cranking the engine When it starts, the
aircraft's ignition system (magnetos or solid state) fire will be sucked through and blown out the exhaust.
supplies the power (spark) to ignite the fuel/air mixture (c): Stop cranking. Moue the switches to OFF, the fuel to OFF,
in the cylinders. In a car, that power is supplied by the the mixture to OFF. Get out of the aircraft and put out the
battery which must, therefore, have greater capacity. fire with your fire extinguisher. Just slam the base of the
23. The alternator will produce maximum extinguisher through the filter and squirt in the intake.
current at low operating speeds. 31. Live. Idle
24. (Fine Pitch) Take Off Climb. (Coarse 32. Small nicks are not easily seen but they
Pitch) Cruise High Altitude. can be felt with the hand
25. When the throttle is fully open but the airplane is not 33. Aviation oils not only congeal when very cold but will also
moving, the engine is under maximum load and the form a seal between the mouing parts. In extreme cold, the
propeller has its maximum angle of attack. As the airplane drag from heavy oil on pistons prevents the crankshaft from
accelerates, some of the relative airj1ow comes from in turning freely. Rotating the propeller (turning the engine
front. This decreases the angle of attack, off loading over) by hand before start up helps break the seal.frees
the engine with a resultant increase in the RPM. moving parts and distributes oil (lubrication) to them. It
26. Fully forward (the full fine angle of attack position). also reduces the load on the battery and starter motor.
2 Air Law
2.1 Aerodromes, Air Rules & Procedures
1. In the Southern Domestic Airspace, runways are numbered to the nearest
bearing. In the Northern Domestic Airspace, which is north of a line running from
w , w , w
the runways are numbered to the nearest , bearing. (Ref. FGU 89 & 98)
2. You are to fly into an unfamiliar aerodrome. What publication should you consult to find the necessary aerodrome data? (Ref:
FGU 188)
3. You approach the uncontrolled aerodrome (Haphazard) reproduced in the diagram below from the southwest with the
intention of landing. (Ref" FGU 93)
(a): What frequency should you use to alert local traffic of your presence? (Ref" FGU 94)
(c): At what height should you cross the field to observe the windsock and runway? (Ref: FGU 94)
(d): What do the two crosses on the southeast end of runway 30 mean? (Ref: FGU 91)
(e): At what altitude do you fly the circuit? (Ref FGU 94)
(g): When you are joining the circuit at the airport, at what altitude and from where,
should you cross the runway from the upwind side? (Ref FGU 93)
5. The VASIS is set at 2.5 degrees to 3 degrees glide slope. Pencil in the red lights in the diagram below when you are on the glide
slope. (Ref FGU 92. Ftg 4)
08
6. You are on approach to a runway served by a PAPI installation. All 4 lights of the wing bar show red. What is your position
relative to the approach slope ] (Ref FGU 92)
7. What is the purpose of a "Mandatory Frequency"? In what publication will you find listed the radio frequency that is
prescribed for use in the specified area where a mandatory frequency is in place? (Ref. FGU 94 & 188)
8. What are the approximate dimensions of the Altimeter Setting Region? (Ref FGU 99, Fig 10)
(a): Horizontally
(b): Vertically
9. What do you set on the subscale of the altimeter when you are flying in the following? (Ref. FGU 99)
(a): Standard Pressure Region?
10. The Canadian Domestic Airspace is divided into seven classifications, each identified by a single letter of the alphabet. Class
A Airspace includes all controlled high level airspace between 18,000 feet ASL and FL 600 inclusive. Class B Airspace includes
all controlled low level airspace between 12,500 feet ASL and up to but not including 18,000 feet ASL. As a Private Pilot under
training, you will not use either of these two classes of airspace. Class F Airspace includes Restricted or Advisory Areas.
Describe the airspaces in which you will fly when under training under their respective letters: C, D, E & G. (Ref FGU 101 • 105)
Class C
Class D
Class E
Class G
11. , are low level airways that extend out from and into VHF Omnirange
stations. They are approximately , nautical miles wide. They are based at
, and extend up to the base of the . ATC control is
provided for , traffic. (R,f. FGll :ooJ
12. Near Vancouver, there is an area on the map that is marked CYA 125 (T). What do the letters and numbers mean and in what
airspace will this area now be included? (Ref FGV IN)
(b):
(c):
(d):
(e):
(f):
14. You plan a VFR trip from Victoria to Squamish to go skiing at Whistler. Must you file a flight plan? (Ref- FGU 1111
15. You find it impossible to file a flight plan from Rosetown to Shaunavon, Sask. What do the regulations require with regard to
this flight} (Ref FGU Ill)
16. Halfway to Shaunavon, you decide to divert to Moose Jaw to attend the band festival. You land at a friend's farm and head for
town, forgetting to call your responsible person at Rosetown. What should this person do? (Ref FGU 114)
17. You file from Edmonton to Port Angeles, Washington, and include ADCUS (advise customs) on your flight plan. When you
land, there are no Customs personnel waiting for you. Why not? (Ref FGU 114)
18. You plan to fly the Victor Airway from Regina to Saskatoon, Saskatchewan. You have no ADF equipment, but do have VOR.
(Ref FGU 102 & 105)
(a): What is the class of airspace you will use?
(b): What is the minimum altitude at which you should fly?
(c): What action must you take with regard to your flight plan at Saskatoon?
20. This question deals with Minimum VFR altitudes. (Ref FGU 117)
{a): What is the minimum altitude you must maintain over open water in the Gulf of Georgia in Class G airspace?
(b): What is the minimum altitude at which you may fly over a town?
(c): What is the minimum altitude at which you may overfly an aerodrome 1
(d): What is the minimum altitude at which you may overfly a penitentiary}
21. You are flying westbound on aVFR flight from Toronto to Thunder Bay, Ontario. What should be your cruising altitude? (Ref
FGU 115)
22. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate VFR weather minima. (Ref FGU 116)
Class C:
Visibility ; Cloud: Horizontally Vertically
Class D:
Visibility ; Cloud: Horizontally Vertically
Class G above 1,000 feet above the surface:
Visibility ; Cloud: Horizontally Vertically
23. What is the visibility limit for SpecialVFR? (Ref" FGU 115 & 116)
25. You depart Hornby Island (near Comox) forVictoria. As you nearVictoria, the weather deteriorates and the ceiling drops to
600 or 700 feet above the water level. There is some fracto stratus hanging below the general ceiling which you fly around.
The visibility is reduced to about 1 mile. (Ref FGU 116 & 1 J?)
(a): Are you legallyVFR?
(b): Will ATC clear you intoVictoria to land?
(c): Why?
(d): What course of action is open to you if you are prohibited from entering the control zone
because of conflicting IFR traffic?
26. To conduct a VFR Over the Top (VFR OTT) flight, your departure and climb, descent and arrival must be conducted in
; conditions, even though the cruise portion is conducted at least
over a cloud layer. (Ref FGU 117)
27. VFR flight may be conducted in Class B Airspace. What are the applicable conditions? (ReJ FGU 117)
(a):
(b):
28. In addition to the basic information that is required on aVFR Flight Plan, what additional information must be clearly defined
forVFR flight in Class B Airspace? (Ref. FGU 117)
29. No person shall operate an aircraft over land unless there is carried on board survival equipment, sufficient for the survival
on the ground of each person on board, given the geographical area, the season of the year and the anticipated climatic
variations, that provide a means for (Ref FGU 119)
(a):
(b):
(c):
(d):
30. You are inbound to Vancouver from Port Hardy, in the TCA, being vectored by ATC. It appears that your present heading and
altitude will take you straight into a mountain near Horseshoe Bay. Who is responsible for terrain clearance and what action
do you take? (Ref- see An�wers)
31. The Certificate of Airworthiness must be renewed annually. How is this done? (Ref. FGU 107)
32. What do each of the following light signals mean to an aircraft in flight? (Ref FGU 97)
34. Must you wear a parachute when flying aerobatics in Canada? (Ref FGU 109)
ANSWERS
1. Ten degrees magnetic. lnuvik, Yellowknife, 13. VFR position reports should include:
Churchill, Iqualuit. 10 degrees true.
(a): Identification; e.g. Cessna 172 Charlie Golf
2. The Canada Flight Supplement. Oscar Uniform Charlie (not "Old Uncle Charlie").
3. (a): Use the assigned MF or ATF. (b): Call before entering (b): Position; e.g. 10 east, OR Over
the specified area, downwind, on final and when clear Denby (not "Oh, pretty close").
of the runway. (c): Cross well above (at least 500 feet)
(c): Time; e.g. 1644 (not "a quarter to five").
circuit height (d): They indicate that the portion of the
runway, between the two crosses, is unsuitable for aircraft (d): Altitude; e.g. Four thousand five hundred (not "4.5").
use. (e): 1,350 feet. (f): Runway 30. (g): Cross about (e): VFR Flight Plan.
2/3 of the way down at circuit height. (h) • 1,000 feet.
(f): Destination. This is the place you intend
4. White. Blue. Green. Red. to land, not your next reporting point.
5. With reference to VAS!S. 14. You are required to file a Flight Plan or leave a
Flight Itinerary with a responsible person.
08
should notify someone in authority (ATC, RCC,
FSS, CF, RCMP) that you have not reported in.
8. (a). It is the same as the Southern Domestic 19. An authorization from ATC to proceed within controlled
Airspace. (b)· From the surface to 17,999 feet. airspace, under specific conditions and, once accepted,
must be complied with. A directive by ATC for air
9. (a): 29.92" Hg. (b): The altimeter setting
traffic control and must be complied with provided
of the nearest station en route.
the safety of the aircraft is not jeopardized.
10 Airspace descriptions:
20. (a): 500 feet. (b): 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within
C: Control Zones and some TCA's, with 2,000 feet of the aircraft. (c): 2,000 feet (d): All penitentiaries
positive control of all aircraft. are in restricted airspace. You may not fly over them.
D: Controlled airspace below B and outside of C. 21. Even thousands plus 500 feet.
This includes all the low level areas and airways up
22. C: 3 miles flight and ground visibility. Cloud - 1
to 12,500feet, the Control Zones not designated as
mile horizontally and 500 feet vertically.
C and most TCAs. The airspace above FL600.
D 3 miles f light visibility. Cloud - 1 mile
E: Essentially the same as Class D except not above
horizontally and 500 feet vertically.
FL600. No separation is provided for VFR aircraft.
G above 1,000 feet AGL: Visibility - 1 mile by day, 3 miles at
G: Uncontrolled airspace.
night. Cloud - 2,000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically.
11. Victor airways. 8.68. 2,200 feet AGL
Note: Flight Visibility must be 2 miles in certain
Overlying high level airspace. !FR.
mountainous regions. See AIM RAC 2.12.
12. Vancouver Advisory Area Number 125, wherein there
23 For Special VFR (SVFR): Flight and ground
is extensive flight training up to 2000 feet. Class F.
visibility of at ieast 1 mile.
24. (a).· You must be able to see the ground or 31. The aircraft must be maint�ined in accordance with CARS
water. (b): The pilot. (c): In Control Zor.es Part V. The owner must ensure that ADs and modifications
that are carried out are recorded in the Journey Log.
25. (a): No. (b): Yes, providing there is no !FR conflict.
(c): Because the weather is equal to Special VFR limits. Note: The C of A is intended to be a permanent document.
(d): Return to Hornby and next time It is kept in force and is ualid only by the entries of the
check the weather forecast. work above so entered and certified in the Journey Log.
26. VFR. 1,000 feet. 32. (a): Clear to !and. (b): Do not land. Continue in the
circuit. Give way to other aircraft. (c). Recall (d): The
27 (a): In Class B Airspace, VFR flight must be conducted
airport is unsafe. Do not land. (e): Do not land for the
in accordance with the procedures for !FR flight.
time being. (fJ: Cleared to taxi. (g). Cleared for take
(b): It must be conducted in VFR conditions.
off (h): Taxi clear of the landing area. (i): Stop.
28. VFR Altitude Route
33. "Night" is defined as that time when the centre of the
29. (a). Starting a fire. (b). Prouiding shelter. (c): Providing sun's disc is 6 degrees or more below the horizon. OR, One
or purifying water. (d). Visually signaling distress half hour after sunset to one half hour before sunrise.
30. You, as pilot-in-command, are responsible for 34 No.
terrain clearance. You must take the appropriate
action: turn away and tel! the Controller.
3 Meteorology
3.1 Aviation Weather (Theory)
1. The name given to the atmospheric layer in which aircraft fly is the
The top of this layer is called the (Ref FGU 123 & 124)
2. The !CAO standard atmosphere for sea level is? (Ref FGU 124)
(a): Pressure
(b): Temperature
(c): Lapse Rate
3. Clouds are broken into four major categories: high (above 20,000 feet), middle (6,500 to 20,000 feet), low (surface to 6,500 feet)
and clouds of vertical development. Name the different types oflow and vertical clouds. (Ref FGU 12s & 126)
LOW VERTICAL
(a):
(b):
(c):
4. What is the name given to the various types of sky condition. What is the extent of cloud? (Ref: rcu 126)
NAME ABBREVIATION CLOUD
(a):
{b):
(c):
(d):
(e):
5. In the diagram below, label the Low, High, Trough, Col and Ridge. (Ref FGU 128)
10,e-----
-------1020
7. On the accompanying diagram, show the direction of winds about a LOW and a HIGH. Use broken arrows to indicate the
direction of upper winds and solid arrows to show the direction of surface winds. (Ref: FGU 129)
8. At night or when there is a covering of snow, the sides of a mountain experience radiation cooling. The air in contact
with the surface cools and becomes denser and heavier and flows down the slope into the valley. This is called a(n)
wind. When the slopes are subject to radiation heating during the day, the wind blows up
from the valley, this is a(n) wind. (Ref FGU 131)
10. We know the wind backs from surface friction (Question 6 & Question 7). If there is a deep LOW just south of the Queen
Charlotte Islands and you are approaching Vancouver Airport to land on runway 26, how will the wind affect your approach?
(Ref. FGU 133)
11. The jet stream across Canada is often associated with the Maritime Arctic front and tucks in just below the T'.ropopause. It is
shaped like a ribbon, is 3,000 to 7,000 feet thick and 300 miles wide. Winds within the jet stream may be as great as 250 knots.
If you are flying a light jet into this wind, what would be your best option to escape it? (Ref: FGU 134)
13. What is the name given to the process whereby water vapour changes into water droplets? When this happens, does it give
off or absorb heat? (Ref: FGU 136)
15. The relative humidity is the ratio of the amount of a given volume of air can hold compared
to what it could hold if saturated. As temperature decreases, the relative humidity . Fog or low
clouds will usually form at a temperature just above the saturation point, which is called the
(Ref: FGU 137)
16. With reference to Question 15, it is apparent that temperature is an important factor in weather. Cooling and heating of the
lower atmosphere can produce or dissipate clouds or fog. How is this cooling and heating accomplished? (RcJ- FGU 137)
17. The ISA lapse rate of 1.98 degrees C per 1,000 feet is the figure used to calibrate the altimeter. If the lapse rate is less than
the !SA figure, the air mass is considered to be , if above it is
Unsaturated air has a lapse rate of . It is called the Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate {and is a favourite
examination question). The Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate is . (Ref- FGU 138-139)
18. If the temperature is +14 degrees C, the Dew Point +2 degrees C and there is some surface heating producing convective cloud,
what is the base of that cloud? (Ref FGU 139)
19. Air is considered to be stable when it is {warmer or cooler) than the air mass
surrounding it. Clouds formed in stable air will be of the type. (Ref FGU 139 & 140)
20. In the northern hemisphere, a frontal wave moves from west to east. Using the approved symbols, on the diagram below,
label the fronts, the low, relative temperatures and indicate the airflow. (Ref FGU 143)
21. At a warm front, moist and stable air {in Canada mP in winter and mT in summer) advances on the retreating cold air. This
warm air ascends over the cold air in a gentle slope of about 1:200 forming layer type clouds. Label the clouds, air masses,
warm frontal surface and precipitation in the diagram below. (Ref. FGU 144)
___
�
_._
--
•..•
11'1
22. At the cold front, the cold air pushes in under the warm air. Because it moves quickly, the frontal surface is steep causing an
abrupt lifting effect. As a result, the clouds are of the vertical development type. Label the clouds, air masses and cold frontal
surface and precipitation in the diagram at the top of the following page. (Re] FGU 14.J)
23. The clouds and weather at the warm front may extend over thousands of square miles. If the air is stable, the cloud coverage
will be layer type cloud with no turbulence. The degree of frontal lift, the moisture content and stability determine the
severity of the weather. Describe the weather conditions associated with a warm front as they relate to the headings listed
below: (Ref fGU H6 & 1•P)
(a): Wind
(b): Temperature
(c): Visibility
(d): Turbulence
(e): Precipitation
(f): Icing
24. When a body of air rises, it and . When this happens, its relative
humidity increases. When the relative humidity reaches 100% or the level, clouds form and the
water vapour into droplets. What other factor must be present in the atmosphere to enable the
vapor to condense? (Ref FGU 12')
25. List the lifting processes associated with cloud formation. (Ref FGU 126)
26. List the various types of precipitation with their symbols? (Ref FGU 165)
28. List the six types of fog. (Ref FGU 1--18 & H9)
29. Instability, moisture content and the lifting agent determine the intensity of thunderstorms. List seven dangers associated
with flying into thunderstorms. (Ref. FGU 15�)
30. Jfyou must fly through a thunderstorm, what technique do you use? (Ref FGU 153)
31. Large water droplets freeze when the temperature drops slightly below freezing; small droplets may not freeze but remain in
liquid form down to -40 degrees C. The accretion of rime ice formed by contact with small droplets is usually slow and not
dangerous. Give four reasons why the accretion of dear ice is dangerous. (Ref: FGU 156}
ANSWERS
3. LOW VERTICAL
(c): Scattered SCT 3/8 to 4/8 feet, you will pick up some right drift.
(e): Overcast ovc 8/8 12. Clear Air Turbulence is turbulence that occurs in
cloudless skies. lt is associated with wind shear near
5. See diagram below.
a jet stream, a sharp trough or a mountain wave.
20. See diagram below. 23. (a): Wind: Gradual veer with frontal passage.
(b): Temperature: Gradual rise. (c)· Visibility: Restricted in
precipitation and fog. (d): Turbulence: Usually smooth, some
light to moderate in embedded cumulus.
(e): Precipitation: Continuous from 50 to 100 miles ahead
of the front. (f)· Icing· ln winter, there can be freezing
rain in the cool sector below the frontal surface.
1. For each of the GFA charts, what is the local time in Toronto, which corresponds to the charts valid time?
3. Describe what, if any, icing conditions are forecast at 9,000 feet on the GFA for Ottawa at 18002.
4. What is the direction and speed of the warm front over Northwestern Ontario depicted on the 00002 GFA?
5. On the 06002 GFA, what is forecasted as the cause of the turbulence between the surface and 4,000 feet just north of Lake
Superior?
6. Based on the pressure gradient indicated by the isobars on the 18002 GFA, would you expect the surface winds over Kingston
to be light or strong?
7. What is the lowest forecast visibility for the London area at 18002. What is causing the reduction in visibility?
8. At 00002, what is the lowest cloud layer forecast in the GFA over the Muskoka area (Georgian Bay)? Could these forecasted
cloud conditions create a ceiling?
9. At 06002, what type of icing does the GFA indicate over Ottawa at 12,000 feet?
10. What !FR weather does the GFA Outlook forecast over Northwestern Ontario after 06002?
12. What do the letters AMD stand for at the beginning of the Muskoka TAF?
13. Is the TAF for Petawawa based on weather observations that are taken by a human or a machine?
14. Based on the TAF, what is the lowest visibility forecast for Trenton airport at 1200V
15. Using the blank space provided below, draw a cross section of the clouds and weather depicted by the GFA for the Toronto
area at 18002.
17. What are the forecast temperature, wind direction and wind speed for Ottawa at 9,000 feet at 18002?
18. Based on the forecast upper winds for Ottawa from 0600-17002, how would you describe the winds as you ascend from 3,000
feet to 18,000 feet?
METAR-TAF
LONDON
SPEC! CYXU 301430Z 18004KT 3SM BR BKN008 OVC110 RMK SF5AC2
METAR CYXU 3015002 21003KT 45M BR BKN010 OVC100 23/21 A3015 RMK SC6AC2 SLP206
SPEC! CYXU 3015352 19003KT 5SM HZ BKN014 OVClO0 RMK SC7AC1
METAR CYXU 3016002 26003KT 5SM HZ BKN016 OVC280 25/21 A3015 RMK SC7CI0 SLP206
METAR CYXU 3017002 29003KT SSM HZ OVC022 25/21 A3014 RMK sea SLP203
TAF CYXU 3017312 3018/3118 VRB03KT SSM HZ BKN020 TEMPO 3018/3118 P6SM NSW BKN025
FM302000 12004KT P6SM BKN025 TEMPO 3020/3103 6SM HZ SCT025
FM310300 12003KT 6SM BR SCT025 TEMPO 3103/3107 3SM BR BKN010
FM310700 16005KT SSM BR FEW150 TEMPO 3107/3114 15M BR BKN00S
RMK NXT FCST BY 002=
TORONTO PEARSON
METAR CYYZ 3015002 26008KT SSM HZ BKN016 OVC0S0 25/20 A3014 RMK SC7SC1 SLP204
METAR CYYZ 3016002 27005KT 65M HZ SCT022 BKN120 26/20 A3013 RMK SC3AC2 SLP202
METAR CYYZ 301700Z 31002KT 6SM HZ BKN024 OVC070 26/20 A3012 RMK SC7AC1 SLP199
TAF CYYZ 3017312 3018/3118 32005KT P6SM BKN025 TEMPO 3018/3020 SSM HZ BKN020 BECMG 3018/3020 18005KT
FM302000 14003KT P6SM BKN025 TEMPO 3020/3104 65M HZ
FM310400 12003KT P6SM SCT025 TEMPO 3104/3113 25M BR BKN015 BECMG 3107/3109 18004KT
RMK NXT FCST BY 212=
TRENTON
METAR CYTR 3015002 21009KT 6SM HZ BKN060 24/20 A3013 RMK SC4 SLP203
METAR CYTR 3016002 21008KT 6SM HZ BKN075 24/20 A3013 RMK AC4 SLP202
METAR CYTR 301700Z 21009KT 6SM HZ BKN075 24/20 A3013 RMK ACS SLP201
TAF CYTR 3017302 3018/3118 21010KT P6SM BKN080 TEMPO 3018/3022 5SM HZ
FM302200 VRB03KT P6SM FEW030 TEMPO 3022/3106 SSM HZ BKN020
FM310600 VRB02KT P6SM FEW030 TEMPO 3106/3113 2SM BR BKN030
FM311500 21008KT P6SM SCT030
RMK NXT FCST BY 00Z=
KINGSTON
METAR CYGK 301S00Z 19010KT 7SM FEW030 SCT100 BKN280 22/20 A3016 RMK CU1AC2 CJ2 SLP211
METAR CYGK 3016002 19011KT ?SM FEW025 SCT100 BKN280 23/20 A3015 RMK CU1AC2Cl2 SLP210
TAF AMO CYGK 301752Z 3017/3102 19010KT P6SM SCT0S0 BKN100 TEMPO 3017/3020 BKN030
FM302000 18005KT P6SM BKN025 TEMPO 3020/3102 4SM HZ BKN020
RMK NXT FCST BY 202=
OTTAWA
METAR CYOW 3015002 26010G15KT 35M HZ FEW020 BKN060 24/19 A3012 RMK HZ2CF1SC4 SLP199
METAR CYOW 301600Z 27008KT 3SM HZ SCT020 OVC0S0 23/19 A3014 RMK HZ2CF2SC4 SLP204
METAR CYOW 3017002 27007KT 3SM HZ FEW020 BKN057 24/19 A3012 RMK HZ2CF1SC4 SLP199
TAF CYOW 3017312 3018/3118 27005KT 35M HZ BKN020 TEMPO 3018/3021 6SM HZ BKN040
FM302100 22005KT P6SM BKN030 TEMPO 3021/3108 SCT025
FM310800 18005KT P6SM SCT025 TEMPO 3108/3114 SSM BR BKN02S
RMK NXT FCST BY 212=
MUSKOKA
SPEC! CYQA 3014162 28005KT 3SM BR BKN009 OVC030 RMK SF6SC2 CU ASOCTD VSBY VRBL 2-4
METAR CYQA 3015002 28004KT 3SM HZ BKN009 OVC025 21/19 A3014 RMK SF6SC2 CU ASOCTD VSBY VRBL 2-4 SLP205
SPEC! CYQA 3015232 28004KT 3SM HZ BKN012 OVC025 RMK SF6SC2 CU ASOCTD VSBY VRBL 2-4
METAR CYQA 301600Z 32003KT 3SM HZ BKN012 OVC025 21/19 A3014 RMK SF6SC2 CU ASOCTD VSBY VRBL 2-4
SLP206
SPEC! CYQA 3016332 28004KT 3SM HZ BKN016 OVC025 RMK SF5SC3 CU ASOCTD VSBY V RBL 2-4
METAR CYQA 3017002 26002KT 4SM HZ BKN016 OVC025 22/18 A3014 RMK SFSSC3 cu ASOCTD OCNL BRK IN ave SLP206
AMO TAF CYQA 3016042 3016/3102 32005KT P6SM BKN025 TEMPO 3016/3018 3SM HZ OVC020 BECMG 3018/3019 FEW030
RMK NXT FCST BY 202=
PETAWAWA
SPEC! CYWA 3014542 AUTO 12003KT 3SM BKN013 BKN093 22/20 A3010
METAR CYWA 3015002 AUTO 12003KT 3 1/2SM OVC013 OVC093 22/20 A3010 RMK SLP194
SPEC! CYWA 301546Z AUTO 11004KT 3 1/2SM BKN016 23/20 A3010
METAR CYWA 3016002 AUTO 12004KT 3 1/2SM BKN016 22/20 A3010 RMK PCPN O.SMM PAST HR SLP195
SPEC! CYWA 3016482 AUTO 09003KT 3 1/2SM BKN028 BKN056 22/20 A3010
METAR CYWA 3017002 AUTO 14003KT 3 1/2SM BKN028 BKNOS6 23/20 A3010 RMK SLP194
TAF CYWA 3013302 3014/3102 VRB03KT SSM BR FEW030 BKN240 TEMPO 3014/3015 lSM BR
FM301500 VRB03KT P6SM SCT030 TEMPO 3015/3018 4SM HZ BKN020
RMK FCST BASED ON AUTO OBS. NXT FCST BY 202=
SUDBURY
METAR CYSB 3015002 05009KT 15SM FEW250 18/11 A3018 RMK Cll SLP221
METAR CYSB 3016002 02010KT 15SM FEW036 FEW250 19/11 A3018 RMK C U1Cl1 CLOS TR SLP222
METAR CYSB 3017002 02006KT 15SM FEW036 FEW250 20/11 A3017 RMK CU1Cll CLOS TR SLP220
TAF CYSB 3013302 3014/3102 01010KT P6SM FEW040 BECMG 3015/3017 35005KT
RMK NXT FCST BY 20Z=
TAF CYAM 3013302 3014/3102 VRB01KT P6SM FEWlOO TEMPO 3014/3015 4SM BR BECMG 3019/3021 15008KT
RMK NXT FCST BY 202=
YOW
24000
2926-22
30000
293338
34000
283547
39000
273755
I 45000
283861
53000
292262
YYB 2830-21 283238 293347 293456 293761 292661
YYZ 2924·20 293836 294045 294055 293763 301963
YOW
24000
3024-21
30000
312939
I 34000
313448
I 39000 45000 I 53000
I 313857 303661 292361
YYB 3132-20 324337
I
325047 325457 304863 I 292962
YYZ 3322-20 333736 334246 334357 323963 I 312064
AIRMET WACN33
There are no AIRMET (S) in effect
ANSWERS
1. 18002 14:00 local. 00002 - 20:00 local. 06002 - 02:00 local 14. The lowest visibility at 12002 for Trenton is
forecast to be 2 statute miles in mist.
2. The !FR Outlook is always found on the last of the
three Clouds and Weather charts (12 hour forecast). 15. See drawing below:
, /:'?fgfp'
8. The lowest 00002 (and only) cloud layer for the Muskoka ,,, ,, , "
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2. The Meridians of Longitude are measured East and West from the Prime Meridian which runs
through . Where is it located? . The obverse of the Prime Meridian
is the . Where is it located? . (Ref" FGU 177)
3. Hourly time zones are degrees of longitude in width. The time zone for Vancouver, B.C., which
longitude is 123° West, is UTC hours. If UTC is 1700, Pacific Standard time is
hours and Pacific Daylight Saving time is hours. (Ref- FGU 178)
4. A straight line on the surface of the earth whose plane passes through the centre of the earth is
called a . It is the distance between two points on that line. (Ref. FGU 179)
6. Variation is the angle between True and north. When you draw a line on
a VFR Navigation Chart (VNC), it is measured m degrees . Because the wind is reported
in degrees , when you apply it to the measured track, the calculation produces the
heading to fly. Because the Compass does not read True Headings, you must therefore apply the
variation to get a magnetic heading. You then use the Compass Correction Card to determine the heading to steer. Near
Vancouver, the variation is 23 degrees East. Appreciable error would occur if it were not applied. An impossible error would
occur if it were applied backwards. A memory aid follows: (Ref: FGU 181)
7. If the measured Track is 014° T, the drift 3 degrees right and the variation 23° East, what is the Magnetic Heading to fly?
(Ref" FGU 180 & 181)
8. When the Compass is swung, the deviation is largely removed. The Compass Correction Card, shown in Fig. 14 on page 182 in FGU,
shows the deviation for that aircraft's compass. Using Fig. 14, determine the compass heading to steer for a magnetic heading
of 348 degrees. (Ref FGU 182)
10. A straight line drawn on a VNC is part of a great circle. This means that, although your track line looks straight, it is slightly
curved. For this reason, you should measure it near the to determine the average track. (Ref" FGU 186)
11. A World Aeronautical Chart (WAC), a Lambert Conformal Projection, has a much greater coverage on a single sheet
than a VNC. It has less detail and is normally used for high level flights. Its scale is or about
nautical miles to the inch. (Ref FGU 187)
12. A VFR Terminal Chart (VTA), a Transverse Mercator Projection, is designed to be used in
The scale is (4 miles to the inch) and it includes such data as reporting points, frequencies, etc., to
enable you to fly safely into major airports. (Ref. FGU 188)
13. Using the double track error method, list the steps to regain and hold track in the following situation: Heading - 248 degrees.
Time - 10 minutes. Track Error - 4 degrees left. (Ref: FGU 195)
(a):
(b):
(c):
14. In 9 minutes, you locate your position as 18 miles from the point at which you set heading. What is your ground speed and
your time to destination if you have 2B miles to go? (Ref' FGU 196)
15. How would you use drift lines for navigation purposes when more than half way along a leg? (Ref: FGU 195)
16. List the 6 variables in the Triangle of Velocities. (Ref FGU 198, Fig. 44)
17. There are a number of electronic calculators on the market that do the job of the E6B more quickly and more accurately.
Transport Canada accepts them in Heu of the manual E6B. The evolution in the triangle of velocities computation began with
plotting and progressed to the E6B to the electronic calculator. Complete the problem below using each method to see if you
get the same results: Given: Track of 045 °T; W/V 360°T at 20 KT; TAS 90 KT. (Ref: FGU 199)
Determine: Heading and Ground Speed
18. For practice, calculate the following Triangle of Velocity problems. (Ref. FGU 199)
TRACK TAS W/V G/S HDG
140 90 230/10
19. One side of the E6B Computer is a circular slide rule. For practice, complete the following problems. (Ref FGU 200)
TIME DIST G/S
10 40
32 90
260 100
20. Work the following fuel consumption problems. (Ref" FGU 201)
CONSUMPTION
TIME FUEL
(GPH)
4.3 3:45
2:40 48.6
6.8 4 0.0
21. FGU quotes a number of conversion factors. See page 269 for the conversion factor for litres to pounds (1:1.59). Presume your
fuel is at +15 degrees C and calculate the following problems. (Ref FGU W1)
FUEL QUANT[TY WEIGHT
86 litres
12.5 US gals
22. Pressure Altitude is required in order to calculate Density and True Altitude and Calibrated or True Airspeed. In flight, just
dial in 29.92 on the sub scale of the altimeter and read PALT directly from the altimeter. It may also be calculated using the
formula: 1" = 1,000 feet; 0.1'' = 100 feet; 0.01" = 10 feet. Calculate the PALT in the following situations. (Ref fGU WI)
I !ALT ALT SET (Vancouver) PALT TEMP ("C) TALT (See Q. 23)
8.000 30.32 ·10
7,000 29.92 +5
9,000 28.64 0
14,000 30.92
I -40
Note. IALT is lndirnt£d Altitude. PALT 1s Fressure Altitude TALT is Trne Alt1t,1de. Ttie ALT SET ,our« ;s sea icvd ,1t \',1t,couwr
23. When you are planning a flight into mountainous regions, it is important in your flight planning that you calculate your True
Altitude (actual height above sea level) or you could blunder into the top of a mountain. Calculate the True Altitude in the
table above using the Pressure Altitude and the Temperature. In this table, the Altimeter Setting source is Vancouver which is
at sea level, so you apply the temperature correction to the entire column of air. Look back to Question 5 in Section 1.3, Flight
Instruments. (Ref FGU :?01)
24. FGU describes the calculation to determine TAS from !AS whereas a more logical flight planning approach is to start with TAS
and calculate CAS and then !AS. Complete the table below using the data provided in the Airspeed Correction Table. (Ref FGU
201 & 202)
r PALT
- ·- TEMP TAS CAS !AS
8,000 +3 110
6,000 +8 140
12,000 -2 5 120
4,000 +6 91
1,000 +25 88
ANSWERS
20.
8,000
ALT SET
(Vancouver)
30.32
I PALT
7,600
TEMP
-10
TALT
7,300
between two meridians at the bottom of the VNC and 7,000 29.92 I 7,000 +5 7,100
the top of rt. You will find they converge at the top. 9,000 28.64 I 10,280 0 10,500
Therefore, a straight line on the VNC must cut the 14,000 30.92 I 13,000 -40 11,550
meridians at slightly different angles Thus, it cannot be Note: 14,000 foot example: 30.92 - 29.92 = 1.0 =
a rhumb line, but is closer to a great circle. Since you wrll 1,000 feet. PALT = 13,000 ft. Use TALT Computation
have only three degrees change in the width of a VNC, Window: 13,000 opposite -40. Read TALT on outer
the average track is dose enough for pilot navigation. scale opposite PALT on inner scale - 11,550 ft.
11. 1:1,000,000 16. 24
12. Terminal Areas, 1 ·250,000. PALT TEMP TAS I CAS I IAS
8,000 +3 110 i 97 98
13. a): Alter heading to 256 °. (b): fly 10 minutes on
6,000 +8 140 127 124
this heading. (c): Alter heading to 252 .
°
18.
TRACK TAS W/V G/S HOG
1. Complete the map work. Use the Flight Planning Form and the Flight Plan Log below. You plan a groundspeed
check for the first leg at the railway track south of Kinmount. The distance is nms and
time is minutes. There are nms to go which will
take minutes. Enter this data in the work space on the Flight Planning Log (below).
TOTAL
2. You decide to carry as much fuel as possible up to the Maximum Weight Allowable of 2,300 pounds. Complete the Fuel
Planning Log and Weight and Balance charts that follow.
4. List the communication, navigation and en route frequencies that you will use (or might use) on the Radio Facilities Log below.
Fill out the Flight Plan Form (on the next page) in preparation for filing with ATC.
5. All goes well with flight planning and you taxi out for runway 24. You receive take off clearance at 0935 local. You have
already set your clock to UTC. What does it read? . You get a right turn out and turn onto your planned
magnetic track (radial) to the station of342 in the climb. You have the VOR tuned to Campbellford and the OBS set to 342, but
the CDI (course deviation indicator) is showing two dots to the right. You enter the take-off time and ETA for YCF in the Flight
Log (use the Flight Log provided after Question 20) and track into the VOR. How do you track to the VOR (YCF)?
<<=FF -
I <<-
FILING TIME/ HEURE DE DEPOT
I -I I
ORIGINATOR/ EXPEDITEUR
I I I I I I I<<-
SPECIFIC IDENTIFICATION OF ADDRESSEE(S) ANO/OR ORIGINATOR/ IDENTIFICATION PRECISE DU(DES) DESTINATAIRE(S) ET/OU DE L'EXPEDITEUR
-□
TYPE DE MESSAGE IDENTIFICATION DE L'AERONEF REGLES DEVOL TYPE DEVOL
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DEPARTURE AERODROME/ AERODROME DE DEPART TIME/HEURE
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15
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16
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TOTAL ET/ DUREE TOT ALE ESTIMEE SAR
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ALTN AERODROME
AERODROME OE DEGAGEMENT
2ND.ALTN. AERODROME
2" AERODROME DE DEGAGEMENT
-I I I I I -I -1
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I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I <<=
18 OTHER INFORMATION/ RENSEIGNEMENTS DIVERS
-I
I)<<=
- i:t,@]
19 ENDURANCE/ AUTONOMIE EMERGENCY RADIO/ RADIO DE SECOURS
HA./H MIN./M PERSONS ON BOARD/ PERSONNES A BORD UHF VHF ELT ELT
- EI I I I I I - P/I I I I @ [] CJ
SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT/ EQUIPEMENT DE SURVIE JACKETS/ GILETS DE SAUVETAGE
POLAR DESERT MARITIME JUNGLE LIGHT FLUORES
POLAIRE DESERT MARITIME JUNGLE LAMPES FLUORES UHF VHF
I□ □ □ □
AIRCRAFT OOLOl/R AND MARKINGS I COULEUR ET MARQUES OE L'AERONEF AMPHIBIE
A /I
REMARKS I REMARQUE$
-�,I I<<-
AN ARRIVAL REPORT WILL BE FILED WITH· UN COMPTE RENDU D'ARRIVEE SERA NOTIFIE A :
I NAME AND PHONE NU MBER OR ADDRESS OF PERSON IS) OR COMPANY TO BE N o T FI lED IF SEAR CH AN D RESCUE ACTION INITIATED
I
NOM FT NllMERO DE Tr � L � iPHONE OU ADRESSE DE LA iOESI PERSONM<«1 Oil, ,. ,, ,. P, i f. NIE
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PILOT•IN-COMMANO/ PILOTE COMMANDANT DE BORD PILOT'S LICENCE No./ N° OE LICENCE OU PILOTE
C 'I I l)<<=
FILED BY/ DEPOSE PAR SPACE RE SERVED FOR ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS/ ESPACE RESERVE A DES FINS SUPPLEMENTAIRES
I
Aviation Publishers Co. Limited _,......,. www.aviationpublishers com
Navigation & Communications: Navigation (Cross-Country)
6. At 13502, you cross the Campbellford VOR headed for Muskoka. What is the magnetic heading and ETA? Enter this data in the
Flight Log.
(a): Heading
(b): ETA
7. At 14172, you establish your position over the village of Burnt River.
(a): What is your new magnetic heading to Muskoka?
(b): What is your revised groundspeed?
(c): What is your new ETA?
(d): When you make the log entry be sure to show your calculations. You could also get an
ETA by mental calculation. Explain how to do this and give your new ETA.
rMUSKOKA'
L _____ .J
925 [g 60 M 122.3
VDF
(c): L
{d): 60
(e): M 122.3
(f): VDF
(g): What does the symbol (V) mean in the VDF Block in the CFS listing for Muskoka?
9. When you cross the power line 15 miles south east of Muskoka, you call on the Mandatory Frequency. What do you say?
10. There is no reported traffic and the wind is light and variable. You decide to land on runway 18.
(a): Where do you join the circuit?
(b): At what altitude do you fly the circuit?
(c): ls it a left or right hand circuit?
11. You land at 14352 and disembark your passenger. You take off on runway 36 at 14452. You follow the road to Baysville and set
heading for Arnprior at 14552.
(a): Should you have completed a new weight and balance before take off?
(b): What is your magnetic heading and ETA for Arnprior? . Be sure to enter in
the Flight Log the landing, take-off and set heading.
12. It starts to get a bit bumpy so you cruise climb to 5,500 feet. Based on your observations, you estimate that you will cross Route
62 three miles south of Maynooth at 15272. You try to get a ground speed check by using the 360 degree radial from YCF, but
the CDI will not hold steady. You decide not to use it.
(a): What is a cruise climb?
(b): What precaution must you exercise when using a commercial broadcasting station for navigational purposes?
(c}: What navigation method do you use when you are over this position on the road?
(g); What magnetic heading do you steer when you get back on track?
13. You tune in the Ottawa VOR to help with the navigation.
(a}: Which radial of the Ottawa VOR passes through Arnprior?
(b); What do you put on the OBS to track in the above radial?
(c}: At 1535Z, you set up the VOR as described above. What will the CDI and Sense Indicator read?
14. Due to turbulence, your passenger is feeling quite ill so you decide to return to Trenton. At 15382, you turn right and find you
are directly over the spot height (1,675 feet), 17 miles east of your last pinpoint over the road. Use pilot navigation techniques
to answer the following questions. (Be sure to make the necessary log entries.)
(a}: What magnetic heading do you fly to return to Trenton?
(b}: What is the distance to go?
(c): What is the ETE and ETA?
15_ You climb to 6,500 feet where it is nice and smooth. As you level off, you find that you are a bit unsure of your position. By
using both VORs, you establish a fix on the YCF 020 degree radial and the YOW 257 degree radial at 15542.
(a): What is the name of the town you are over?
(b}: What is your groundspeed?
16. You decide to track into the Campbellford VOR on the 020 degree radial.
(a): What do you set on the OBS?
(c}: With the wind giving you 5 degrees left drift, what must you steer to maintain track?
17. You pass about 100 yards to the east of the VORTAC.
(a): What does the CDI do as you pass the VORTAC?
(b): What does the Sense Indicator do?
18. Over the Campbellford VOR, you get the ATIS and then call Trenton Tower on MHz.
What information will Trenton Tower give you?
19. You are cleared to left base for runway 13. What are some of the problems associated with this runway and how much runway
is there on which to land?
20. You join the circuit and land at 1624Z. After landing, what action must you take with regard to your flight plan?
Note· Use the fo'.Iowmg chart to iog data starting with Question 5
<<-FF -
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FILING TIME/ HEURE DE DEPOT
I -I I
ORIGINATOR/ EXPEDITEUR
I I , I<<=
SPECIFIC IDENTIFICATION OF ADDRE55EE(S) AND/OR ORIGINATOR/ IDENTIFICATION PRECISE OU(OES) OESTINATAIRE{S) ET/OU OE L'EXPl:OITEUR
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I <<=
AERODROME DE DESTINATION HRS.K MINS.M AEROtk��:i� iri�iMENT 2• AERODROME DE DEGAGEMENT
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OTHER INFORMATION I RENSEIGNEMENTS DIVERS
1 I I I , I -I I I I I -I , I I I <<-
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18
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KRJH
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MIN.IM PERSONS ON BOARD I PERSONNES A BORD
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SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT J EQUIPEMENT DE SUAl'IE
- EMERGENCY RADIO I RADIO OE SECOURS
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NUMBER CAPACITY COVER COLOUR
NOMBRE CAPACITI: COUVEATURE COULEUR
A / I W�l'"t"lc
REMARKS I REMARQUES
w/ �E"t> Trt.11).1\
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I .,.-..,_llt.,.'TO� C.51.0Uf'b -SY RA"b10
NAME AND PHONE NUMBER OR ADDRESS OF PERSON($) OR COMPANY TO BE NOTIFIED IF SEARCH AND RESCUE ACTION INITIATED
I
NOM ET N''M""" nE TELEPHONE OU ADRESSE I\� LA fDESl PERSONNE, ii, I nl' mMpAr.NI► A AVISER Sf DES R'" uencHES SONT ENTREPRIS►S
"'
C ,1
FILED BY/ DEPOSE PAR
u. it. S""-R�liii I p ,c.71-,2,
I><< =
SPACE RESERVED FOR ADDI TIONAL REQUIREMENTS/ ESPACE R ESERVE A OES FINS SUPPLEMENTAIRES
I
Note, The following charts are your complet£d Flight Log (Cls 1t shcul,l (1rrrur for tl:1s 1wv1qt1tion exercise), and performance charts Jor tht' Cessna
17'.' to help you complete the questions Jrom this section
CESSNA
MODEL 172M PERFORMANCE
CONDITIONS:
Flaps Up
Full Throttle
Standard Temperature
NOTES:
1. Add 1.1 gallon, of fuel for engine start, taxi and takeoff allowance.
2. To obtain maximum rate of climb as shown in this chart, lean to maximum RPM
during climb.
3. Increase time, fuel and distance by 10% fo, each 10°C above standard temperature.
4. Distances shown are based on zero wind.
CESSNA
MODEL 172M PERFORMANCE
RANGE PROFILE
<45 MINUTES RESERVE
38.0 GALLON$ U$ABlE fUEL
CONDITIONS:
2300 Pounds
Recommended Lean Mixture for Crui"Se
Standard Temperature
Zero Wind
NOTES:
1. Ttiis chart allows for the fuel used for engine start, taxi, takeoff and chmb, and thir
distaflce during climb H shown in figure 5-6.
2. RtHrve fu♦I i, based on 45 minules at 4S" BHS' and is 4.3 gallon$.
12.000
., 104 KTAS
!14 KTAS
i:m
10,000
f KTAS
,:!
120 KTAS
aooo
..
t;;
w
w
6000
0
::,
....
5
<( ll6 KTAS 109 KTAS
4000
a; a:
..
1
&? &? le
2000
� l8 ;
86 KTAS
112 KTAS 11J6 KTAS 97 KTAS
S.L.
400 420 440 460 480 500 520
RANGE - NAUTICAL MILES
Range Prome
CtSSNA
PERFORMANCE MODEL 172M
CRUISE PERFORMANCE
CONDITIONS,
Rtt0mmended Lean Mixture
2300 Pounds
" "
PRESSURE STANDARD TEMP TEMPERATURE STANOARO TEMP
ALTITUDE
RPM
"
..
KTAS GPH KTAS GPH KTAS GPH
BHP BHP BHP
2000 2550 BO 1l4 8.8 75 113 8.2 71 113 7.B
2500 76 111 8.3 11 111 7.B 67 111 7.5
>400 68 107 7.5 107 7.2 6l 106 6.9
2300 61 102 6.9 58 IOI 6.7 55 99 6.5
2200 55 96 6.4 52 95 6.2 49 9.l 6.1
4000 1600 80 116 8.8 75 118 8.3 71 116 7.l!
2500 11 111 7.9 68 111 7.5 64 110 7.2
2400 65 107 7.3 61 106 6.9 58 1()4 6.7
2300 58 101 6.7 55 100 6.5 53 98 6.3
2200 52 95 6.3 49 93 6.1 47 92 5.9
6000 2650 BO 118 8.8 )5 118 8.2 71 118 7.8
2600 76 116 8.3 71 116 7.9 68 115 7.5
2500 6'l 111 7.6 65 110 7.2 62 109 7.0
2400 62 106 7.0 59 104 6.7 56 103 6.5
2300 56 100 6.5 53 98 6.3 50 97 6.1
2200 50 94 6.1 47 92 5.9 45 91 5.8
0000 2700 80 120 8.8 75 120 8.3 1, 120 7.8
2600 72 116 8.0 68 115 7.5 65 114 7.3
2500 65 111 7.3 62 109 7.0 59 IDB 6.9
...
2400 59 105 6.8 56 103 66 53 101 6.3
2300 54 99 6.4 51 97 6.2 48 96 6.0
2200 93 6.0 45 91 5.8 43 90 5.7
10.000 2700 76 120 8.4 72 120 7.9 68 119 7.6
2600 69 115 7.6 65 l14 7.3 62 112 7.0
2500 BJ 110 7.1 59 108 6.8 56 106 6.6
...
2400 57 l04 6.6 54 102 6.4 51 100 6.2
2300 51 97 6.2 48 96 6.0 46 95 5.8
2200 92 5.8 43 90 5.7 41 89 5.5
12,000 2650 69 117 7.6 65 116 7.3 62 114 7.0
2600 66 114 7.4 62 113 7.0 59 111 6.8
2500 60 108 6.8 57 106 6.6 54 105 6.4
2400 54 102 6.4 51 100 6.2 49 99 6.0
2300 49 96 6.0 46 95 5.9 43 114 5.7
noo 44 91 5.7 41 89 5.5 38 88 5.3
Cruise Performance
ANSWERS
1. A completed Flight Plan Log and Flight Planning Form 5. 13352. Centre the CDI with the OBS which will give
follow. 46 nms. 30 minutes. 29 nms. 19 minutes. a reading of 346 TO. Track into the VORTAC on
�· ..
that track OR tum right 20 degrees to intercept the
...
FLIQKT PLAN LOG
........
...
over half-way, you are 2 mins early, you will be
., ,,.. _,. .,, "' ""· �
-
Tr'8nuin-YCF 75 330 �24 J38 14. 13
4 mins early at Muskoka (1439 - 4 = 1435).
... ...
- 100 300 2�� 292 llw J03 94 ?7 49 63
(a): Customs available. (b). Field height. (c): Lighting
Muskok& 46 98
8.
-
••
B.,,.vlllo 75 037 030 048 13 11 0 2.8
... •••
- Ampnor 96 100 082 2�!? 000 '"" 098 107 114
available. (d): Longest runway is 6,000 feet. (e): Mandatory
- 7a 147 1•• 167 8 4 2.0 frequency is 122.3 MHZ. (f)· very High Frequency Direction
- Trenton •• 97 100 217 220
10 217 !Ow
aag 90 84 Finding is available. (g): VDF available on 121 5 MHZ.
- I.andlnS&t.� """'"" 3.0
'"- 31:l 199 29 e 9. "Muskoka Radio this is Cessna 172 Golf Juliet
Whiskey Kilo (GJWK), 15 miles south east at 4,500
FUEL CALCULATION feet, VFR, landing Muskoka, request advisory."
Start Climb En Route Total
0.4 3.2
10. (a): Downwind. (b)· 1,925 feet (2,000). (c): Left.
1.1 • 1.7
1.1.. 1.3 0.3 2.8 11. (a): No. TuJo people in the front seats of a C172 is a
1.1H'I< 0.9 2.0
standard configuration. (b): 098 degrees M, 1558.52.
NOTES 12. (a): Climb at your en route !AS so as not to invalidate
Kinmount railway 47 nms/30 mins. 29 to go = 19 min. your ETA. (b). ldentify it. (c): Double Track Error. (d): 084
degrees M. (e): 32 minutes. (f): 15 nautical miles east of
360 ° rcidial YCF 47 nms/26 mins. 67 to go= 37.5 mins
Amprior. (g) • 091 degrees M (h): 93 knots, 16092.
2. A completed Fuel Planning Log and Weight & Balance follow.
13 (a): 278. (b): 098. (c): CD! - left, Sense Indicator• TO.
Fuel Planning Log Pouods
14. (a): 203 degrees M. (b): 64 nms. (c): 43 minutes, 16212.
Fh1ht Log
29.6 gallons X 6 lbs .. 1776
15. (a): Gilmour. (b): 88 knots. (c): 16222.
R�suv�
30min@�gph= 19.5 16. (a): 200. (b): TO. (c): 205 degrees M.
Tnt•I 1971
17. (a): lt deflects fully right, too fast to be drift,
then moues slowly back towards centre. (b): lt
WElGHT ANO BALANCE
changes from TO to OFF (or NAV) to FROM.
lTl:M WE1GHT ARM MOMENT
SAStC AIRC.RAFT 1t,2 39.3 57850 18. 128.7MHz The runway, altimeter setting, W/V if
FRONT SEATS 376 37 13912
greater than 15 knots and joining instructions.
REAR SEATS 120 73 8760
BAGGAGE 20 95 1900 19. The threshold is displaced 1,000 feet. 2,025 feet.
ZERO FUr!:L CONDIT JON 1988
FUEL LOADING 312 46 14352 20. Ask Ground Control to close your flight plan.
TOTALS 2300 42 .07 96774
OJVJDE TOTAL MCMENT BY TOTAL WEICHT TO 08TAlN
CENTER CF GlU,Vl'JY AS L0A060. -:}----J
=-
NAV AIDS • OIRCVIT HEIGHT$
ATIB 135.4B
Q,ound 121 g
T,_, 128.7
C&rc.tibollmrd YCP VOR 11:s e
=
1'nl"OU1'1 126 7
MU8kou-UF 122.3
!IDS 272
Arnpr1or ATP 122 8
Ot!4wa YOW VOR 114 6
CBQJ) 1400
4.3 Radio
1. Most people are familiar with the Medium and High Frequency bands because these are used in commercial broadcasting.
Some very old radios have a Low Frequency band, but today this band is mostly used for Non-Directional Beacons (NDBs). The
Low, Medium and High range of frequencies generate both a ground and a sky wave when transmitted. The sky wave often
enables reception thousands of miles from the transmitter. The ground wave, which hugs the curvature of the earth, will
travel for hundreds of miles depending on the power of the transmitter and atmospheric conditions. Label the ground and
sky waves and the skip distance in the following diagram. (Ref FGU 212, F,g 4)
2. In private pilot training, all communications and, most likely, all navigation will be done using Very High Frequency (VHF)
radio. You must, therefore, know the band well. (Ref FGU 212 & 213 & Answers)
(a}: What is the VHF frequency range?
(b): What is the navigation portion of the VHF frequency rangeJ
{c): What are the usual VOT frequencies?
(d}: What is the frequency range that is used for ILS?
(e): What is the VOR frequency range?
(f): What is the VHF communications frequency range?
(g): What is the VFR VHF en route frequency?
(h): What are the primary UNICOM frequencies?
(i): What is the emergency frequency?
3. In radio, the higher the frequency the shorter the wavelength. In addition, VHF waves have quite different characteristics
from Low, Medium and High frequency waves. (Ref FGU 212)
{a): Describe the properties of VHF radio waves.
(b): You are flying 7,000 feet higher than the transmitter, what is the maximum distance at which you could expect
reasonable reception?
6. Why are the avionics left OFF for starting and then turned ON only after the engine is running? (Ref rcu 214)
7. Why is the ATIS on a separate frequency from Ground Control and the Tower? (Ref FGU 215)
8. What is the order in which you should use the communications services available for a VFR departure from a controlled
airport? (Ref FGU 216)
9. What is the order in which you should use the communications services available for a VFR arrival at a controlled airport?
(Ref FGU 216)
10. Where do you find all the frequencies asked for in the previous two questions? (Ref FGU 215)
11. Major airports (Vancouver, Winnipeg, Montreal) are centred in areas of classified airspace (Terminal Control Areas). These
TCAs have assigned frequencies and dimensions depicted in the VTA charts and CFS. What are the vertical dimensions of
the Montreal Dorval TCA and the VHF communication frequency if approaching from Ottawa? (Ref FGU 21sJ
12. What do the letters, VHF DF, stand for? (Ref FC.U :?18)
13. To which controlling agency do you direct the initial request for a DF steer? (Ref FGU 218)
(b): What service does the FSS not provide? (Ref FGU 217 & 218)
15. What is DUATs? Can you use it? (Ref FGU 218 & 219)
16. In the last few years, the RADAR systems in Canada have been replaced and upgraded. One of the steps was to integrate
the Canadian Forces radar into the civilian network so that some remote areas could be serviced from the central air traffic
agency for that area. One of these areas was Williams Lake in central British Columbia. To whom is this service available?
(Ref FGU 216)
17. The most abused segment in general aviation is radio telephony (R/T) even though the need for clear, concise and complete
communication becomes more important everyday as traffic increases. You must learn the Phonetic Alphabet and, if you also
learn the Morse Code, it will serve you well in your flying career. Spell your name in phonetics and in Morse Code. (Ref' FGU 220
& 221)
18. Most publications on R/T tell you to repeat frequencies and to make an initial call before passing your message. Both of these
practices are obsolete. In fact, they encumber the efficient exchange of information. You do include the type of aircraft and
four letter call sign in the first call to a new controlling agency. Subsequently, you repeat your call sign as the controller gives
it back to you. Assume you are flying out of Winnipeg International. Your airplane is a Cessna 182, C-GXMY. You are parked on
Ramp 3 and have filed VFR to Regina, Saskatchewan, on 6 March. Answer the following questions: /Ref rcu 223 & CFS Wmnipcg)
(a): What is the ATIS frequency?
(b): What is the VOT frequency?
19. Winnipeg Ground Control dears you to runway 13 to taxi via C and B and asks if you will accept to take off from the Golf
intersection. Acceptance will give you 5,500 feet of runway. You agree, taxi to the "Hold" position and perform your engine
run up. When you are ready for take off, (Ref FGU 224 & 225 & CFS Wmmpeg)
(a): Whom do you call?
(b}: On what frequency?
(c): What do you say?
(d): Need you ask for a right turn out? Why or why not?
20. You depart Winnipeg TCA with no problems and pass north of the Portage Military Control Area by going direct to Delta. You
are over Delta at 1030 Central Daylight Saving Time maintaining 4,500 feet altitude. (Ref: FGU 225 & CFS Portage)
(a): What is the classification of the airspace in which you are flying?
(b): Can you pass a position report to Portage, a military aerodrome?
(c): What frequency do you use?
(d): Write out the wording of your position report.
21. About 20 minutes before your ETA, you look up Regina in the CFS to determine frequencies and other information for the
flight. (Ref: FGU 227 & CFS Regina)
(a): What is the ATJS frequency?
(b): What are the hours of operation (local time) of the tower?
(c): You will land on RWY 08. Is it a right or left hand circuit?
{d): Write out the wording of your position report to Regina for a position 10 miles east of the airport.
22, You are approaching North Battleford, Saskatchewan intending to land. (Ref FGU 227 &228 & CFS North Battleford)
23. What is the difference between a May Day call and a Pan-Pan call? (Ref FGU 229)
25. You are due west of a VOR and wish to track in on the 240 degree radial. (Ref: FGU 235)
(a): What do you set on the OBS?
{b): In your present position, what will the CDI read after you have set the OBS?
(c): What will the Sense Indicator read?
(d): What heading would you fly to ensure you intercept the 240° radial before reaching the VOR?
26. How does the aircraft heading affect the reading on the VOR head? (Ref: FGU 235, Fig. 9)
27. What is the major advantage of AOF over VOR? (Ref FGU 241)
28. What are the disadvantages of AOF? /Ref FGU 244 & 245)
29. When using AOF fixed card equipment, the formula to calculate the magnetic heading to a station is:
HOG M + Rel Brg = HOG TO. {Ref FGU 242)
{a): If you are steering 243 and the AOF reads 135; what heading do you fly in order to go directly to the stationJ
(c): If the ADF needle was superimposed on the HI, what would it read?
30. You wish to track inbound to an NOB on 180 degrees. After turning the airplane onto 180 degrees, the AOF reads 020 degrees
Relative. You decide to intercept track at a 45 degree angle. (Ref. FGU �43)
(a): What heading do you steer to intercept track?
(b): What will the AOF read when you are on track and maintaining the heading selected to intercept?
(c): Draw a schematic of the airplane in the space below showing the AOF needle at the two positions discussed above.
31. Your ADF may have a SET HDG knob at the bottom left corner. In Question 30, if while steering 180 degrees
you set that heading on the ADF dial, the head of the ADF needle would read
After turning to your intercept heading and setting that on the ADF dial, the needle would read
when you have intercepted track. (Ref. FGU 244)
32. On an RMI, the head of the ADF needle will always read the and the tail of the needle
the (Ref FGU 245)
33. RADAR operates in the Super High Frequency range, wherein a pulse from a directional antenna is reflected back from the
aircraft. Direction is measured by the position of the antenna and distance by the time lapse. The result (the aircraft) is shown
as a blip of light on a scope. (Ref FGU 253 & 254)
(a): Must you have special equipment aboard to reflect the pulse and thus show up on the scope?
(b): Why?
(c): What is this type of RADAR called?
35. What is the main advantage of SSR? Explain your answer. (Ref rcu 255 & 256J
36. What is the VFR Transponder code when flying below 12,500 ft.? (Ref FGU 256)
38. T he ELT has a three position switch, ON, OFF & ARMED. During flight, the switch should be in the
position. (Ref FGU 258)
39. When and for how long can you test the ELT without fear of activating a search and rescue operation? (Ref FGU 259)
Note The Gloria! Fosit1on11;g System (GFS) recr,1t•e d�ti.1 Jrom ::'5 satellite:, /1 ros1tio11 �n et1rtn is .it'termmd hv mcasuriniJ the: time (thus
distance) from sewrul si.itelhtes at once Timmy JS c, 1t1c,,I �Viler; you •ur11 on yrt1r GF'S, 1t Ullli giw the corrtet t1111c wlwh !t denurs from tr,c
satelltt£s Each model 1ece1t1er has a diffoent method nJ Jw,ctir-nmg ar;cl you will hc11>e to rrnd carefully the c1ss :iatcd Handh, 10k that wmc• with
your set Som,, ,if these Handbooks arc, re<3MJu1ly, not u,Pr Jnr11cilv (Rr/crrr.crs J,lr the f,1llow1t1'] j'cJ11r qt,cstwns Jc..1nd m FGfJ :::SO)
42. What is the capacity RAIM which is incorporated into some sets?
ANSWERS
2. Airport advisory.
3. Vehicle advisory.
4. Weather.
5. Pre-Flight Briefing.
2. (a): 30 to 300 MHZ. (b): 108.0 to 118.0 MHZ 6. VFR alerting.
(c): 114.8 & 115.7 MHZ. (d): 108.1 to 111.9 MHZ.
7 Weather observing.
(e): 112.1 to 117.95 MHZ. (J): 118.0 to 136.0 MHZ
(g): 126.7 MHZ. (h): 122.8 & 123.0 MHZ. (i): 121.5 MHZ 8 Navaids.
24. Magnetic.
25 (a): 060. (b): Fuil deflection right. (c): TO. (d) 150 degrees.
26. The aircraft heading does not affect 31 Track to the NDB. 180
the reading on the VOR head.
32. Track to the Statton Track from the station.
27. ADF has greater range in the lower levels
33. (a). No. (b): The skin of the aircraft serves as a
28. It is not as accurate as the VOR It is subject to a numl::er of reflector. (c) Primary Surveillance RADAR (PSRJ.
errors and may point to any large electromagnetic influence.
34. RADAR that triggers a Transponder in the
29. (a). 243 + 135 = 378 or 018 degrees. aircraft which returns the transmission.
(b): See diagram below. (c): 018.
35. SSR provides better definition of targets. Since the pulse is
:;·.r,.c:s returned by a Transponder, the size and shape of the aircraft
□,eO / does not determine the clarity of the blrp. Transponder blips
I
are the same but much clearer than skin reflected blips.
36. 1200.
38. ARMED.
39. The first 5 minutes of any hour. Not more than 2 seconds.
30. (a): 225 degrees. (b): 315 degrees R. (c): See diagram below
40. There is no surface disruption since the signals come
from space (about 11,000 miles out there).
5 General Airmanship
s.1 Weight & Balance
1. When must a privately owned airplane that is under 3,000 pounds be weighed and have its weight and balance calculated?
(Ref: see Answers)
2. When the aircraft is weighed, are the fuel and oil left in the tanks or are the tanks drained? (Ref: FGU 268)
(a): Fuel
(b): Oil
3. You plan a flight from Vancouver to Kelowna in a C172, C-GIUX. Calculate the weight and centre of gravity using the following
data. Plot the position on the C of G limits chart. (Ref FGU 270 & 271)
Note: The all up weight for this airplane 1s �.300 pounds
871 900 121 8!50 975 1000 1021 10&0 1075 1100 1121 11!i0 11711 1200
. .
1100
2400
CENTER OFGRAVITY
LIMITS
--
..
UTILITY NORMAL
1700 CATEGORY
I CATEGORY
71iD
.. . .
IIIOO
I ,- 700
II
1500
� � » � » » � � u � � ff � Q
4. You estimate you will use 15 US gallons on the flight to Kelowna. Calculate your landing centre of gravity. Has it moved
forward or aft? (Ref- FGU 272)
5. The centre of gravity can be found using the Loading Graph, FGU page 271 (Fig. 5) and the C of G Moment Envelope (Fig. 6).
!Ref FGU 271, Fig 5 & 6)
(a): Using Figure 5, calculate the Moment divided by 1,000 for an airplane with the following configuration:
(b): Locate the position calculated above on the chart in Figure 6. Is the centre of gravity within
limits? What flight characteristics can you expect with this centre of gravity and why?
6. List some of the effects an aft centre of gravity can have on flight characteristics. (Ref. FGU 268)
ANSWERS
1. An airplane must have its weight and balance 4. Weight 2,215 less 15 US gallons= 2,215
checked when it is first delivered from the factory. less 90 lbs= 2.125 lbs landing weight.
Note.· Further weighing is not required, except for aircraft Moment: 96494 less (fuel burned x 46)
over 12,500 pounds, which must be weighed every 5 years. = 96494 less (90 x 46) = 92354
(Reference: Airworthiness Manual 517.211, Appendix E.)
Landing C of G = 92354 divided by 2,125 = 435
2. (a): Drained. (b): Oil is weighed in by most manufacturers. The C of G has moved forward 0.1 of an inch.
3. 5. Calculating and locating the Moment
ITEM WEIGHT ARM MOMENT (a): Calculating the Moment:
Basic Airplane I 1,437.7 39.46 56732
Pilot I 160 37 5920
ITEM
Basic Airplane
WEIGHT
1557
MOMENT/1000
58.8
Co-Pilot & Cushion 105 34 3570
2 Pilots 372 13.6
2 Sons (rear Seat) 140 73 10220
1 Passenger 141 9.8
Baggage 60 95 5700
Baggage 120 11.4
TOTAL WEIGHT 1903
TOTAL WEIGHT 2190
Fuel (full) 312 46 14352
TOTAL 2215 I 96494
Fuel
TOTALS 2430
240 105.1
105,l
""' """
CENTER OF GRAVITY
LI TS
IIIJD
IITIUTY
CATIGOIIY
N(UIM-'\.
eATEGOltY
,
,
....
llDD
� � » n » • � � Q � � u � u
.. ,.,LAN(C.Q. LOCATION �tNCHH.AfTOf OATUU (STA, o.ot
2. This publication has selected the two airports above in order to emphasize the effect of density altitude and to show that
most publications printed in the USA are not too applicable to mid-Canada in the winter. Use the Koch Chart (FGU, page 273,
Fig. 9) to calculate the changes to the Take Off Roll and Rate of Climb and your Computer to calculate Density Altitude (DALT)
in the chart below? (Ref FGU 201 & 272)
AIRPORT TEMP PALT .,_ TAKE-Off ROLL .,_ RATE OF CLIMB DALT
Note USt' the TEMP and PALT quoted uboue to answer tl1efollowmg questions.
3. Use the Take-Off Data chart (FGU, page 274, Fig. 11) to calculate the Ground Run and Total Feet to clear a 50 foot obstacle at
Denver and at Saskatoon. Assume maximum weight. (Ref FGU 274)
(a): Denver
(b): Saskatoon
4. Using the Density Altitude Take Off Graph (FGU, page 275, Fig. 12), calculate the Ground Run and the Distance to clear a 50
foot Barrier at Denver and at Saskatoon. (Ref FGU 275)
(a): Denver
(b): Saskatoon
5. See if you can develop Rules of Thumb for take off ground run and distance to clear a 50 foot obstacle per 1,000 feet of DALT
from the answers to Questions 3 & 4. (Ref; see Answers)
(a): Ground Run
6. Using Figures 13 and 14 (FGU page 275), calculate the rate of climb at Denver, Colorado. Try to determine a Rule of Thumb for
rate of climb decrease with an increase in density altitude from your answers to this question and write it down in the space
provided. (Ref FGU 275 & Answers}
Figure 12
Figure 13
Rule of Thumb
7. What is the approximate percentage power that gives the best range in still, calm air for propeller driven light airplanes?
(Ref FGU '.'76, Frg 17 & 18)
8. When cruising for range into wind, do you increase or decrease the airspeed? Why? What is the Rule of Thumb for this
scenario? Ref �ee Answers)
9. You are flying from Lynn Lake to Edmonton in a Cessna 152 and have set up for range at 2,100 rpm. On your first ground
speed check, you discover that there is a 40 knot headwind component. You decide to increase the airspeed. You record the
following data: (Ref s,·e Answers)
RPM KIAS
2100 85
2200 93
2300 100
2400 103
2500 105
(a): What is the best power setting for the headwind condition?
(c): Does your answer correlate with the Rule of Thumb in Question 8? Why?
10. Does density altitude affect landing distance? Explain your answer. (Ref' FGU �78)
11. What is the formula to calculate the round out (flare) speed for a short field landing? Explain how you would use that formula.
(Rc_f FGU 277, F19 19)
12. You are preparing to land on Runway 27 at Victoria (actual heading 265). The ATIS broadcast reports the wind at 220/20.
(RcJ FGU -19)
(c): If you were flying an airplane with a demonstrated crosswind capability of 12 knots, what would you do?
13. Explain how to mentally calculate the crosswind component when you have been given the W/V and the runway.
(Two methods other than estimating it). (Ref oce Answers)
14. What is "manoeuvering speed, (VS'? RL} FGU 12, 33 & WO)
ANSWERS
1. Engine power is reduced because the air is less dense. The 7. The best range in still air is at SS�o power, which is a
propeller is less efficient and the wings develop less lift compromise between best range and desirable TAS In
most light airplanes, 40% to 45�� gives the greatest
2.
range, but the TAS is too slaw to be acceptable.
%TAKE- %RATE
AIRPORT I TEMP PALT DALT 8. Increase the mrspeed This decreases the time in the air
OFF ROLL OF CLIMB
Denver +30 ° ( 6000 +185'1, -71'1, 9,000 during which the headwind component can affect you. The
Saskatoon I -20'( 1653 -JO'I, +25'¥v* -2,000 Rule of Thumb 1s 1/3 to 1/2 of the headwmd component.
• interpolated 9. (a)· 2,300 RPM and 100 KIAS. (b): With each 100
3. Calculating Ground Run and distance to clear and obstacle: RPM increase, the rAS increased 7 to 8 knots up to
2,400 RPM where the increase was only 3 knots. This
(a): Denver: Ground Run - 1,800 feet. is not a correspondingly equal increase in speed for
SO Foot Obstacle - 3,620 feet. consumption, so you should go back to the last figure that
(b): Saskatoon: Ground Run - 805 feet. gave a large increase m airspeed. (c): Yes. The increase
50 Foat Obstacle - 1,480 feet. was just over a third of the headwind component.
4. Calculating Ground Run and distance ta clear and obstacle: 10. Yes, density altitude increases. The IAS for approach
1s constant regardless of density altitude However,
(a): Denver: Ground Run - 1,300 feet
with an increase in DALT, there is an increase in TAS
50 Foot Obstacle - 3,050 feet.
and, therefore, Ground Speed. Therefore, if DALT
(b): Saskatoon: Ground Run - 680 feet. increases, you will be landing faster and roll farther.
SO Foot Obstacle - 1,675 feet
11. 1.3 x V (l.3 x Stall Speed m the landing configuration).
5. Rules of Thumb for Ground Run and For example: If V , is 33 KCAS, the approach speed
distance to clear and obstacle: should be 33 x 13 which equals 44 KCAS which you
must convert to JAS to get the correct speed
(a): Rule of Thumb for Ground Run: Add
11�� for each 1,000 feet of DALT. 12. (a): Magnetic. Knots. (b): Crosswind 14 knots,
headwind 14 knots. (c). Land on Runway 20
(b): Rule of Thumb for Clearing a 50 Foot Obstacle:
Add 13�� for each 1,000 feet of DALT 13 Method One: The sine of a 6° angle is O 1. In that the
wind was 45° crosswind to the runway, divide 45 by 6
Note: To calculate the percentage increase per 1,000 feet of
which is 7. The sine of a 45 ° angle is therefore O 7 (0.1
DALT, compare the figures at sea level on a standard day
x 7). Sine times wind speed (0.7 x 20) equals 14.
(DALT is O feet) with Denver at 30'C (DALT is 9,000 feet).
Method Tum: Imagine the chart below. The wind is at 45 °
Take Off: Standard - 890; Denver - 1,800;
Thus, the effective crosswind speed is '2/3 x 20 = 13.3.
Difference - 910; Percentage - 102%
2. What are the symptoms of Hypoxia? Try to list them progressively. (Ref FGU 309)
3. What are some of the factors that affect your susceptibility to lack of oxygen? (Ref FGU 309)
4. On average, at what altitude does lack of oxygen begin to show? (Ref FGU 309)
5. CARs 605. 31 is the pertinent regulation dealing with the use of oxygen. It requires the use of oxygen: (Ref. FGU 310)
(a): After minutes between 10,000 and 13,000 feet.
(b): above 13,000 feet.
6. It is recommended that at night you use oxygen above 5,000 feet. Why so low? /Ref FGU 310)
7. Why is Carbon Monoxide (CO) poisoning so dangerous? (List at least 3 reasons). (Ref FGU 310)
8. Progressive symptoms of CO poisoning are headache, ringing in the ears and dizziness, all uncomfortable and easily
recognized. The early symptoms are not unpleasant. Consequently, they are often ignored; however, they must be recognized
for your own safety. What are the early symptoms? (Ref FGU 310 & 311)
9. If you smoke during a flight, what effect will it have on you and the people in the cabin with you if ventilation is not adequate?
(F J FGU 311)
10. Everybody knows that the "bends" (decompression sickness) occur when divers surface too quickly from a deep, sustained
underwater dive. Not everybody knows that pil ots can get the same effect by climbing quickly to 30,000 feet in an
unpressurized airplane. In your own words, describe decompression sickness. (Ref FGU 311)
11. What is the remedy for decompression sickness? (Ref. FGU 311)
12. Give an example of a sensory illusion related to vision. (Ref. FGU 315)
13. You are flying a sustained rate one turn to the left. What does your inner ear tell your brain? (Ref FGU 316)
14. What is spatial disorientation and how do you get rid of it? (Ref FGU 315 & 316)
15. Everyone is somewhat familiar with the effects of alcohol, if not on themselves, certainly on others. Perhaps, the most
dangerous effect on the pilot is the lessening of a sense of responsibility, closely followed by impaired judgment. Answer the
following questions regarding alcohol: (Ref FGU 316 & 317)
(a): How long does it take for the effects of one ounce of alcohol to wear off?
{b): How are the effects of alcohol changed at 10,000 feet?
(c): How long do the CARs (602.03) require from bottle to throttle?
16. FGU goes into detail about flying and drug use. The Canadian Aviation Regulations prohibit flying for 48 hours after their
use. Obviously, this is a general rule: 2 aspirins are drugs, but they should not prevent you from flying for 48 hours unless
the problem that required the aspirin in the first place is still affecting you. Unfortunately, the problems associated with
marijuana, hashish, cocaine, LSD, mescaline, crack, amphetamines (Speed) and everything else currently popular, are not
addressed in current Transport Canada publications. It is recommended that you read Flying is Safe, Are You? by Bryce
Hansen. It covers just about everything in the aeromedical world that is pertinent to you as a pilot. Use your imagination and
see if you can come up with some of the effects for the following: (Ref rcu 317 & Answers)
(a): Marijuana and Hashish
(c): Amphetamines
17. You are on your way through a shopping mall minding your own business when your friend's persuasion and a surge of
emotion convince you to give a blood donation. How long should you wait before flying? (Ref. FGU 317)
18. You are to fly the slot in a formation flypast in a low level airshow. At breakfast, you have an argument with your spouse. You
are annoyed. In fact, you blow sky high and storm out of the house. How will this affect the airshow? (Ref. FGU 318 & 319)
19. All too often the charter pilot's lunch is a chocolate bar and a coke. What is wrong with this lunch and what does it do to him
as the day progresses? (see Flying is Safe, Are You?). (Ref FGU 318/
ANSWERS
1. Hypoxia is a lack of oxygen in the cells and tissues. (2) 1f the horizon is not visible, the eye may
select a tilted cloud bank as level.
2. Euphoria. Poor vision. Blue discolouration of
the nails. Confusion, lassitude and indifference. (3) Turning downwind at low leuel gives the illusion of
Poor concentration and disorientation. Poor slipping; turning into wind grves the illusion of skidding.
judgment. Slow re.flexes. Unconsciousness.
13. Your inner ear tells your brain that you are flying
3. Fitness. Age. Drinking Habits. Smoking. straight and level, (bemuse of the otolith centres).
Drugs. A Cold or the Flu.
14. Spatial disorientation is a loss of bearings or confusion
4. At 10,000 feet during daylight hours. concerning one's position or movement in relation to the earth.
It can also be a Jee!mg of rotation or movement that is not
5. (a): 30. (b): Continuously.
there. Force yourself to believe the instruments and consider it
6 One of the first sensory losses resulting from NOT there. In a short time (from seconds to 2 to 3 minutes,
hypoxia is night vision. Therefore, to be safe, you depending on the individual), the feeling will go away.
should prevent hypoxia from happening.
15. (a): Three hours. ( b): Approximately tripled. (c): 8 hours.
7. The dangers of Carbon Monoxide poisoning:
Note· There are several conflicting times quoted in
(1) lt is colourless, odourless and tasteless, various publications. Nonetheless, CARS 602.03
so you do not lmow it is there. specifically states 8 hours and that is the answer
(2) The haemoglobin, which trunsports oxygen in expected on Transport Canada examinations.
the blood, would prefer to carry carbon monoxide, 16. Effects of certain drugs:
so it does so at the expense of carrying oxygen.
(a): Marijuana and Hashish: Upsets the performance of simple
(3) CO poisoning is not immediately relieved by tasks, inter feres withmemory and recall. produces a dreamy
the subsequent use ofoxygen. Therefore, after state, disconnected ideas, poor time estimation, impulsive
recognizing the problem and going on oxygen, behaviour. With high doses. there are extreme mood changes
it takes some time to get back to normal.
(b). Ha!lucinogemcs: Severe and rapid mood changes, distorted
8. Relaxed lethargy and warmness. picture of reality, jumbled thinking,wild imaginations.
9. The carbon monoxide in the smoke is absorbed by (c): Amphetamines: As a stimulant, they
the haemoglobin, thus reducing its capacity to carry produce ouerconfidence. As they wear off
oxygen. As a result, if you and your passengers they leaue fatigue and depression.
are not
to suffer some degree of hypoxia, you need
17. 48 hours. If you are a pilot, don't give blood. PLH Vol. 3
oxygen from sea level. It is recommended that
Medical states that it may take several weeksfor circulation
smoking be banned in the cockpit of your airplane.
to return to normal after a blood donation. You must be
10. As pressure decreases, nitrogen in the blood comes out of cleared by your aeromedical physician before flying.
solution and forms bubbles in the joints. The bubbles should
18. Jt should be interesting because with the turmoil
not be there and there is not room for them. They create
you have just experienced (and carried away with
intolerable pain in the joints. This can precipitate shock,
you). you have a good chance of killing yourse!j
unconsciousness and even permanent injury or death.
and everybody else in the formation.
11. Recompression (descend and land).
19. lt gives a huge surge of sugar imbalance to the blood/sugar
12. Here are three that are referenced in the Private Pilot Course. ratio. This is followed by a steady drop in the ratio, which
(1) If you areflying downwind at !ow !eue!, you is Jaster than normal because of the surge, until the ratio
will get the illusion of excessive speed. is too low. The result is inordinate fatigue in a few hours.
- -
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