SAMRAT SECURITY TRAINING SCHOOL

1. SPs must produce their security worker license only if requested by a police officer or a
representative of a regulatory agency?

A. True

B. False

2. What does the term "Public Security" refer to?

A. Contract security companies

B. In - house security operations

C. Police services provided by municipal, provincial, and federal government agencies

D. All the above

3. How should SPs begin every encounter with a subject?

A. By describing the course of action that the SP would like the other person to take

B. By correctly identifying themselves, including their functions and main concern

C. By showing the subject who's the boss

D. A and B

4. The term "static duties" means activities that an SPs performs within a building or
complex?

A. True

B. False

5. What regulatory agency is responsible for investigating public complaints against SP or

security business?

A. Justice institute

B. Work Safe BC

C. Security programs and Police Technology Division

D. None of the above

6. The security provided by companies who sell their services to clients are called.

A. Public security operations

B. In-house security operations

C. Environmental security operations

D. None of the above

7. Under what conditions may the police enter private property?

A. Executing a warrant to arrest

B. Executing a search warrant

C. Responding to a crime in progress

D. All the above

8. Human rights legislation can override other laws, including provincial and municipal
statues?

A. True

B. False

9. Section 7 of The Charter of Rights and Freedom states that everyone has the right to life,
liberty, and security of the person. This right also includes.

A. The right to resist arrest

B. The right not to be deprived of these rights

C. The right to speak to a judge

D. All the above

10. Trespassing becomes an assault by a trespasser when the trespasser actively resists being
removed from the property.

A. True

B. False
11. The SPs needs to complete what type of reports?

A. Administrative

B. Legal

C. Operational

D. A and C

12. If someone threatens to strike you in order to grab your wallet, what offence is that person
committing?

A. Assault

B. Theft

C. Robbery

D. Assault with a weapon

13. Most encounters that SPs face may be resolved through.

A. Presence

B. Physical control

C. Weaponless impact

D. Communication

14. During conversations with his or her lawyer, what does an arrested person have the right
to?

A. Two free telephone calls

B. Privacy

C. A court recorder

D. All the above

15. Which of the following are covered under the Security Service Act?

A. Security Guard Service

B. Locksmith

C. Alarm Service

D. All the above

16. Before using force, what must SPs ensure?

A. They are acting within their legal duty

B. They have good reasons for their actions

C. They use only reasonable force necessary to achieve their purpose

D. All the above

17. An arrest occurs when an SP deprives a person of his or her ______________ either
temporarily or permanently?

A. Identification documents

B. Belongings

C. Liberty

D. Rights

18. When an SP arrests someone they must?

A. Do riot as you do not have arrest powers

B. Do it quickly and efficiently

C. Read The Charter warning to the arrested person

D. B and C

19. An SP must document a use of force incident only if the subject was seriously injured?

A. True

B. False

20. What are the first steps in the incident response process in the correct order?

A. Assess, negotiate, act

B. Plan, assess, act

C. Assess, plan, act

D. Negotiate, assess, act

21. A person breaks a jewellery shop window goes in and steal something from the shop. This
is an example of?

A. Robbery

B. Break and enter

C. Causing a disturbance

D. Joy Riding

22. Ethical standards require that people act in a manner that is consistent with?

A. A complete understanding of their lawful authority and professional responsibilities

and a careful consideration of the facts of each situation

B. Their own interests

C. The team interests

D. All the above

23. Which of the following statement (s) is TRUE?

A. The Criminal Code prohibits the use of deadly force

B. The Criminal Code prohibits the use of excessive force

C. The Criminal Code imposes limits on the use of deadly force

D. B and C

24. SPs may continue to keep their security worker licence even if they stop working in the
field?

A. True

B. False

25. When an SP arrests a person, he is required to turn the arrested person over to the police?
A. Within two hours

B. Within 24 hours

C. Forthwith

D. If the offence committed was a dual offence

26. If a person is assaulting you, when you can use force?

A. If the offence committed was a dual offence

B. If the person is unlawfully assaulting, you

C. You do not intend to cause death or serious pain and use only necessary amount of force to
defend yourself

D. All the Above

27. A woman is confronted by her ex-husband in the lobby of a building, an argument arises
between two of them and the two begin cursing and yelling at each other. This is an example of?

A. Causing a disturbance

B. Mischief

C. Assault

D. None of the above

28. Section 8 of The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedom states that everyone has the right
to?

A. Speak their mind

B. Obstruct a police investigation

C. To form associations

D. Be secure against unreasonable search and seizure

29. If an SP observes unethical or illegal acts by a colleague, what must he or she do?

A. Talk with the employee

B. Call The Police

C. Inform the appropriate authority

D. Ignore his or her acts

30. The key elements of The Charter warning are?

A. Stating that you are placing the person under arrest

B. Stating the reason for the arrest

C. Stating that the person has the right to retain and instruct counsel without delay

D. All the above

31. What legislation enables the public to enjoy the equality rights guaranteed under The
Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedom?

A. Human Rights

B. Discrimination

C. Equality

D. Charter

32. Which of the following governs the protection of human rights in BC?

A. Good Samaritan Act

B. BC Human Rights Code

C. Canadian Human Rights Act

D. B and C

33. The People who have internalized inaccurate belief about other people are?

A. Diversity

B. Problem solving approach

C. Ethics

D. Stereotype

34. Which of the following governs the actions of aggressive panhandlers?

A. Good Samaritan Act

B. Safe Streets Act

C. Liability Act

D. Youth Criminal Justice Act

35. What is Summary Conviction offence?

A. An offence that is more serious than an indicatable offence

B. An offence that is less serious than an indicatable offence

C. A violation of provincial statues

D. A violation of municipal laws

36. A person is caught trying to pick the lock of a store. This is an example of break and enter?

A. True

B. False

37. SPs are not generally permitted to search people?

A. True

B. False

38. A one of your neighbours is angry with you for some reasons and he threatens you that he
will kill your cat with poison. This is an example of?

A. Assault

B. Causing a disturbance

C. Robbery

D. Uttering Threats

39. A person becomes a trespasser if his or her presence on a certain property has been?

A. Received

B. Denied
C. Unintentional

D. Documented

40. Which of the following statement (s) is TRUE?

A. The term 'loiter' means hanging around an area without a specific purpose

B. The offence known as trespassing at night involves loitering near a dwelling the property of
another person

C. A person who peers into the window of a ground floor apartment after midnight could be
charged with trespassing

D. All the above

41. SPs are prohibited from using firearms, but may use batons if necessary?

A. True

B. False

42. It is said that theft is complete when a person steals an object with intentions.

A. Moves the object

B. Causes the subject to be moved

C. Begins to cause the object to become movable

D. All the above

43. OHS regulations state that a person may refuse to do work if they consider unsafe.

A. True

B. False

44. Which of the following are qualifications required for a security worker licence?

A. Ability to speak English fluently enough to converse with the public while on duty

B. Successful completion of BST

C. Previous experience in the field

D. A and B

45. SPs are not expected to document their interaction with regulatory agency personnel?

A. True

B. False

46. Which of the following terms is SPs not allowed to use when describing their services.

A. Detective

B. Security Professional

C. Peace Officer

D. A and C

47. Under Criminal law, the cases usually involve persons or groups liable for something are
being ordered to pay a sum of money to another person or group as a form of restitution?

A. True

B. False

48. Which of the following statement (s) is TRUE?

A. Doodles on the margins of an SP's notebook are considered a permanent part of the record

B. Freedom of information rules do not apply to record stored in a home office

C. Freedom of information rules apply to email and voice mail

D. A and C

49. Joy riding is an indictable offence?

A. True

B. False

50. The security programs developed and operated exclusively for a company's own use are
called?

A. In-house security
B. Public security

C. Environmental security operations

D. A and C

51. What is a crime?

A. An act or omission contrary to municipal law

B. An act or omission contrary to provincial law

C. An act or omission contrary to federal law

D. An act or omission contrary to any type of law

52. When should an SP call the police after arrest?

A. Immediately

B. Within 24 hours

C. As soon as practicable

D. Only after the SP has gathered witness to the incident

53. What are peer pressure, rationalization, and frustration with organizational practices?

A. Stereotypes

B. Instances of discriminatory behaviour

C. Grounds for immediate dismissal

D. Challenges to a person's ethical standards

54. When interacting with the emergency services the SPs must document incident in his or her
notebook. What the information should be recorded?

A. Name, rank, and badge number

B. Incident and case file number

C. SP's assessment of service provided by the agency

D. A and B
55. Aside from the Criminal Code of Canada, what other constraints exists regarding the use of
force?

A. Employer policies

B. Municipal bylaws

C. Provincial laws

D. A and C

56. What should an SPs appearance, fitness level and physical stature help to establish?

A. Physical control

B. Presence

C. Tactical communication

D. Reasonable grounds

57. To whom does Public Security provide services?

A. Client with multiple sites patrolling

B. Specific client

C. All members of the public

D. All municipal agencies

58. The public perception of the SPs and their company is an element of?

A. Physical control

B. Communication

C. Presence

D. Weaponless impact

59. When protecting against hazards due to human actions an SP can assist police with
information during the investigation?

A. True
B. False

60. What is a Passive resistant subject?

A. A "yes" person

B. Does not physically interfere with the SPs attempts at control but does nothing to assist

C. Responds positively to the SP's direction

D. Attempts to seriously harm the SP

61. Recognizing one's moral duties and obligations are called?

A. Professionalism

B. Ethics

C. Standards

D. Discriminatory behaviour

62. Under the Safe Street Act Panhandling is absolutely prohibited?

A. True

B. False

63. Under the Trespass Act which of the following is an offence?

A. To ask a person for money while the person is in inceptive audience situation

B. Remain on private property after being asked to leave by the property owner/renter or
a representative of the owner

C. Aggressively follow people while asking them for money

D. All the above

64. Under the law an intoxicated person must not be allowed to remain in a public place such as
a night club or a bar?

A. True

B. False
65. What consequences could SPs face for acting improperly or illegally?

A. Being sued in a civil court

B. Getting suspended or fired

C. Being charged with a criminal offense

D. All the above

66. What is the objective of report writing?

A. Impress the reader

B. Entertain the reader

C. Document the facts

D. A and C

67. The way people conduct themselves is called?

A. Stereotype

B. Bias

C. Deportment

D. Professional

68. What are the two types of private security?

A. In-house and Out-house security

B. Contract and Public security

C. Contract and in-house security

D. Environmental and Public security

69. What information should you give the subject during the purpose phase of the initial
intervention?

A. Reason for your presence

B. Reason for contact

C. What is your professional role

D. All the above

70. What is the purpose of National use of force model?

A. Describes the process of continuous assessment

B. Applies only to police officers

C. Describes the range of force options that may be used in response to potentially violent
situations

D. A and C

71. The response option used by the SP is determined by the behavior of the subject?

A. True

B. False

72. Disengaging is not acceptable in security industry?

A. True

B. False

73. The effective management of physical danger, legal risk, planning and loss through
assessment and appropriate action is termed as?

A. Ethics

B. Operational policy

C. Safety

D. None of the above

74. Maintaining an appropriate reactionary gap means?

A. Using interview position

B. Keeping sufficient distance from the subject

C. Initial intervention
D. Defusing challenge

75. An SP must apply the safe interview stance only when getting information from a possible
suspect?

A. True

B. False

76. The safe interview position is outside range of the subject’s ability to kick the SP?

A. True

B. False

77. On arrest everyone has the right?

A. To be informed promptly of the reason therefore

B. To retain and instruct counsel without delay

C. A and B

D. None of the above

78. Tempering with a fire hose is a mischief?

A. True

B. False

79. Most of the commercial break ins are done through?

A. Doors and Lockers

B. Garage doors

C. Windows and doors

D. Adjoining Buildings

80. SPs can arrest a person if?

A. The person is breaking the municipal law

B. The person is committing an indictable offence

C. The person is committing a summary conviction offence

D. A and B

81. The "Teacher" technique in tactical communication involves?

A. Explain why the person needs to do as you ask

B. Allowing a passive resistant subject to save face

C. Describe the subject's behaviour that violates law, policy, or procedures

D. A and C

82. What is the regulatory agency responsible for issuing security worker licence?

A. Security Programs and Police Technology Division

B. Work Safe BC

C. Ministry of Security Services

D. Police department

83. Representatives of regulatory agencies may enter private property under certain conditions?

A. True

B. False

84. As soon as reasonably possible means?

A. Without waiting

B. Quickly

C. Without delay

D. Promptly

85. As part of the customer service orientation an SP must provide a media representative with
all the information they need regarding an incident at their location?

A. True

B. False
86. If an SP disengage from a situation this would be considered abandonment of duty?

A. True

B. False

87. SPs are not permitted to search people?

A. True

B. False

88. At an incident scene what should the SPs do?

A. Walk through the evidence

B. Ask the public to help for the evidence

C. Collect all the evidence before the police arrives to speed up the investigation

D. Avoid seizing or touching the evidence

89. In an emergency important first step that an SP should take to inform?

A. Supervisor

B. Local emergency response services

C. The client

D. All the above

90. An SP is providing a security in a building, one of the tenants goes to SP and accused
another tenant of breaking a mirror in the public washroom, the SP may?

A. Lawfully arrest the accused person only after SP state the Charter rights of the person

B. Lawfully arrest the accused person

C. Not lawfully arrest the accused person because he was not Witness the breaking of the
mirror

D. Lawfully arrest the accused person only after calling the police

91. In a safe interview stance an SPs hands must be clenched to show superior physical
strength?
 A. True

B. False

92. Which of the following are elements of customer service orientation?

A. Multiculturalism

B. Appearance

C. Demeanour

D. B and C

93. A Person commits an assault when he or she applies force to another person?

A. Intentionally

B. Aggressively

C. Progressively

D. Biasly

94. As an SP what will be your goal in security to handle all encounters using presence and
dialogue only?

A. 80%

B. 50%

C. 100%

D. 75%

95. The effective, organized, competent, and businesslike practitioner is called?

A. Stereotype

B. Professional

C. Bias

D. Deportment

96. The best position to gain control over the subject is position 2.5?
A. True

B. False

97. Which agencies provide emergency response services?

A. Police

B. Fire Department

C. BC Ambulance

D. All the above

98. When protecting against environmental hazards, the SPs main role is to keep the police
informed about the status of the location?

A. True

B. False

99. Position 1.5 is best used when communicating and interviewing a subject?

A. True

B. False

100. What does blocking involve?

A. Providing a counter argument for every argument that the subject raised

B. Physical barrier between the SP and the subject

C. Staying alert to encounter any physical attacks

D. None of the above

101. The SPs should start assessing a situation?

A. Upon arrival at the scene

B. During the first approach

C. While en-route to the scene

D. All the above

102. Why should SPs consider the factors of time and distance when assessing the situation?

A. These factors provide the clue to the subject's intentions

B. These factors provide Information about the subject's motives

C. These factors determine whether an SP must respond immediately or may employ a

delayed response

D. All the above

103. What must an SP ensure before disengaging from a situation?

A. Adequate control of the subject

B. The safety of the public

C. SPs own safety and that of the public

D. None of the above

104. An appropriate notebook for SPs is a three-ring binder or other style of book from which
page can be easily removed?

A. True

B. False

105. Which of the following data should SPs record in their notebooks of every shift?

A. Duration of assigned shift

B. Location assigned

C. Name of supervisor

D. A and B

106. In which order should be the SPs notebook entries?

A. Alphabetical

B. Numerical

C. Chronological
D. Random

107. Are SPs allowed to state their personal opinions about the case in their notebooks?

A. True

B. False

108. How should SPs correct errors in their notes?

A. Use of an erasing fluid and write the correction on a blank space

B. Blank out the error with a marking pen and write the correction on the next line

C. Draw one line through the error initial the error, and rewrite the correction on a
separate line

D. None of the above

109. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

A. All notebook entries should be written in ink

B. SPs should use only one notebook at a time

C. SPs should always have their notebook in their possession while they are on duty

D. None of the above

110. Which of the following may be given access to SPs notebook?

A. Defence counsel

B. Crown counsel

C. A witness who gave a written or oral statement that is recorded in the notebook

D. All the above

111. The best position that an SP can take to a subject is a face-to-face position?

A. True

B. False
112. When dealing with the media, the SPs prime responsibility is to protect the client's
interests?

A. True

B. False

113. What is effective communication?

A. Your message is listened by another person

B. You convey a message to another person

C. Your conveyed message received by another person

D. Your conveyed message interpreted to another person

114. A person who uses any piece of legitimate equipment in a threatening or aggressive manner
may be charged with possession of a weapon?

A. True

B. False

115. The SPs should constantly reassess the situation to which they must respond?

A. To Create an opportunity for the situation to resolve itself

B. To detect changing risks and potential problems

C. To postpone having to act

D. A and B

116. Deflecting is a way of defusing challenge by allowing the subject to release energy through
words?

A. True

B. False

117. What is the goal of tactical communication?

A. To ensure that all SPs on same shift use the same tactics when dealing with non-compliant
subjects
B. To gain voluntary compliance on the part of a subject by skillfully managing his or her
behaviour

C. To ensure that all SPs go through a decision-making process before deciding how to deal
with non-compliant subject

D. All the above

118. While testifying in Court an SP refer to his notebook if permitted by?

A. Court clerk

B. Defense lawyer

C. Another SP

D. None of the above

119. SPs must not use deadly force?

A. Unless they are sure they will prevail over their opponent

B. Unless they have a good reason to believe that it is necessary to save themselves from
death or grievous bodily harm

C. Unless the suspect is fleeting

D. All the above

120. While assessing a situation the SP should consider the number of subjects at the scene only
if he or she is unsure of his or her own physical capabilities?

A. True

B. False

121. Only the Police may keep records of the people who enter or exit an incident scene?

A. True

B. False

122. How should the SPs maintain a controlled environment for custody?

A. Make sure the room does not have items that could be used as weapons
B. Keep other people out of the room if possible

C. Keep the arrested person always standing

D. A and B

123. In order to resist stereotypes, the SPs should?

A. Be professional at all the times

B. Treat all individuals with respect

C. Recognize the challenges the stereotypes hold

D. All the above

124. What should an SP mention in body of the Operational occurrence report?

A. Only a summary of the incident

B. Sequence of events in Chronological order

C. Descriptive account that recreates the drama of the incident

D. B and C

125. What are the examples of environmental hazards?

A. Crime against property

B. Civil disobedience

C. Espionage

D. None of the above

126. Human rights protection in BC?

A. Youth Criminal justice act

B. Good Samaritan act

C. Mental Health act

D. None of the above

127. The term Venting is the release of energy through words?

A. True

B. False

128. SPs Notebook entries should be in blue ink?

A. True

B. False

129. What is the purpose of the introduction of an operational occurrence report?

A. To provide a list of reasons why the incident occurs

B. To summarize the SPs recommendation on how to prevent similar incidents from happening
in the future

C. To briefly describe the events that led up to the main incident

D. To describe each related event in chronological order

130. In every operational occurrence report what information should be included?

A. Dates and time of the incident and related events

B. Identifying information of witnesses, victims, and parties of the investigation

C. Description of the property

D. All the above

131. SPs must prepare reports with the knowledge that they are public documents?

A. True

B. False

132. What is a balanced and protected position from which SPs can launch a quick response?

A. Safe interview stance

B. Physical control position

C. Known risk position

D. Strike position

133. To control over a maximum violent situation an SP must stand as close to the subject as
possible?

A. True

B. False

134. The impairment of peripheral vision affects?

A. You can see far

B. You can not see far

C. You can not see closer

D. You can see closer

135. The three general strategies in tactical communication are?

A. Eye contact, Persuasion, Rapport

B. Initial intervention, Persuasion, defusing challenge

C. Persuasion, Resolution, Bonding

D. Negotiation, Persuasion, Purpose

136. The SPs should always position them for escape in a potential conflict situation?

A. True

B. False

137. If a subject protests for long an SP should acknowledge his comments in order to show
empathy?

A. True

B. False

138. In a safe interview stance an SPs legs must be tensed and ready for action?

A. True
B. False

139. From what two types of hazards an SPs protect their clients?

A. Public security operations

B. Environmental security operations

C. Threats to people and threats to property

D. Natural and man made

140. When should an SP call the 911?

A. When a crime has occurred

B. To ask directions

C. To help in civil matter

D. All the above

141. Which of the following statement(s) is false?

A. An SP can have access to reports made by fellow SP if he read and initialized the notes on
which the report was made

B. SPs have unlimited access to each other SPs reports

C. The witness that gave the written and oral statement which is recorded in a report

D. A and C

142. From which of the following situations an SPs is at high risk?

A. During the first approach

B. Multiple subjects are involved

C. In a safe interview stance

D.A and C

143. Which tactical communication technique involves turning aside the other persons comments
and not reacting to them?
A. Establishing rapport

B. Deflecting

C. Empathizing

D. Bonding

144. When a subject is Venting the SP should move closer to the subject to show that the SP is
sincerely listening to the subject’s complaints?

A. True

B. False

145. A set of facts is called reasonable grounds?

A. True

B. False

146. An SP see a person with disabilities, and he approaches him or her to offer his help, but the
person refuses the help, but the SP insisted him or her for help. Does the SPs allow to do this?

A. True

B. False

147. If two persons are arguing with each other and exchanging hot words (with no bad
gestures). Is this an example of assault?

A. True

B. False

148. When should the SPs notebooks be destroyed?

A. Annually

B. Every Sib Months

C. Three Months

D. Never

149. The "ear doctor" technique in tactical communication involves?

A. Repeating your request

B. Ignoring the verbal attacks by the subject

C. Re-assessing your professional presence

D. All the above

150. What does "escalate your response" means?

A. Intensifying your state of alert and readiness

B. Increasing the volume of your voice when giving directions or commands

C. Calling the Police or Supervisor

D. Heightening your state of alert and readiness

151. What is Law?

A. Law is a body of rules that regulate society

B. law is defined by federal statutes

C. Law sets out the rights, privileges and duties of individuals, organizations, and governments

D. A and C