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DAV MODEL SCHOOL,KSTP, ASANSOL

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER


SESSION 2023-24
CLASS:Xl MAXIMUM
MARKS:80
Subject: ENGLISH TIME:3hrs
Q.No. Question Marks
SECTION A 10

I. Read the following passage carefully and answer the following


questions:
A dance which is created or choreographed and performed according
to the tenets of the Natya Shastra is called a classical dance. The two
broad aspects of classical dancing are the Tandava and the lasya.
Power and force are typical of the Tandava, grace and delicacy , of the
lasya . Tandava is associated with Shiva and lasya with Parvati. Dance
which is pure movement is called nritta , and dance which is
interpretative is called nritya. The four main schools of classical
dancing in India Bharat Natyam Kathakali, Manipuri and Kathak .

Bharata Natyam is the oldest and the most popular dance form of India
. Earlier it was known by various names. Some called it Bharatam
some Natyam some desi Attam and some Sadir. The district of Tanjore
and Kanchipuram in Tamil Nadu where the focal points in the
development of Bharata Natyam. It was danced as a solo performance
by devadasis on all auspicious occasions. Later kings and rich people
lent their patronage to it and it started shedding it's purely sacred
character.
The dancer is directed by the natuvanar who is a musician and
invariably a teacher . Another musician plays the cymbals. The music
for Bharatanatyam is from the Carnatic schools of music. The
mridangam played on both sides with the hands, provides the rhythm.
The home of Kathakali is Kerala . Kathakali means “story play”. It
combines music, dance, poetry, drama and mime. Its present form has
evolved out of older form such as Ramanattan and Krishnattam.
Kathakali dance dramas last from dusk to dawn . The artistes use
elaborate costumes; mask like makeup and towering head dresses.
The dancers are all males. Female roles are played usually by boys .
There is no stage a few mats are spread on the ground for the
audience to sit on . The only “stage lighting” is a brass lamp fed with
coconut oil.
Two singers provide the vocal music. The chenda , a large drum ,
which is beated on one side way with two slender curved sticks, is an
integral part of the Kathakali performance . A metal gong , a pair of
cymbals and another drum complete the orchestra . Besides providing
the beat, they are also the means by which all the sound effects are
created.

On the basis of reading the passage answer the questions:

1
1 A. 1. What are the differences between the Tandava and lasya ?
2. What were the various names by which Bharat Natyam was earlier
known as?
3. What are the components of Kathakali?
4. What instruments provide the music for Kathakali as mentioned in
the passage?
5. Which word in paragraph 5 means the same as “people watching a 1X5 = 5
presentation”?

CHOOSE THE CORRECT OPTION:


1. What is the Natya Shastra?
1B. a) A scientific study of classical dance
b) The science of dances
c) Shiva’s sacred thread
d) None of these
2. When did Bharat Natyam start shedding its purely sacred
character ?
a) When the devadasis stopped dancing
b) When it was danced as a solo performance
c) When the kings and the rich patronised it
d) When they used Carnatic music
3. Which two schools of classical dance are described in the
passage?
a) Bharat Natyam and kathak 1X5=5
b) Kathak and kathakali
c) Bharat Natyam and kathakali
d) Manipuri and kathak
4. In which drama form all the dancers are male ?
a) lasya
b) Manipuri
c) Kathakali
d) Bharat Natyam
5. ------------is the home of kathakali
a) Kerala
b) Gujrat
c) Manipur
d) None of these

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The Chipko (literally ‘to cling’ in Hindi) movement or Chipko andolan
2. is a social-ecological movement that practises the Gandhian methods of
satyagraha and non-violent resistance through the act of hugging trees to
protect them from being cut.

The Chipko movement started in the early 1970s in Garhwal with


growing resentment towards rapid deforestation. The landmark event in
this struggle took place on 26th March, 1974, when a group of peasant
women in Reni village, Uttarakhand, acted to prevent the cutting of
trees and reclaimed their traditional forest rights that were threatened by
the contractor system of the state Forest Department. Their actions
inspired hundreds of such actions throughout the region. By the

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1980s the movement led to the formulation of people-sensitive forest
policies, which put a stop to the cutting of trees in regions as far
reaching as the Vindhyas and the Western Ghats. 8
The first recorded event of Chipko however, took place in village
Khejrali, Jodhpur, in 1731, when 363 Bishnois led by Amrita Devi
sacrificed their lives while protecting Khejri trees, considered sacred by
the community, by hugging them, and braved the axes of loggers sent
by the local ruler. Today, it is seen as an inspiration and an originator
for Garhwal’s Chipko movement.

Though primarily a livelihood movement rather than a forest


conservation movement, it went on to become a rallying point for many
future movements all over the world and created a model for non-
violent protest. It occurred at a time when there was hardly any
environmental movement in the developing world, and its success
meant that the world immediately took notice. It inspired many eco-
groups by helping to slow down rapid deforestation, increase ecological
awareness and demonstrate the possibility of people power. Above all, it
stirred up the existing civil society in India, which began to address the
issues of tribal and marginalised people. So much so that, a quarter of a
century later, ‘India Today’ mentioned the people behind the ‘forest
satyagraha of the Chipko movement as amongst the hundred people
who shaped India.

Today, it is also being seen increasingly as an eco-feminism movement.


Women were its backbone and core because they were the ones most
affected by the rampant deforestation, which led to a lack of firewood
and fodder as well as drinking and irrigation water. In 1987, the Chipko
movement was awarded the Right Livelihood Award.

Answer the following questions :


2. A.
I) What was the landmark event in Garhwal’s Chipko
movement?
II) What did the Chipko movement ultimately lead to?
III) What event in history was an inspiration for
Garhwal’s Chipko movement?
IV) Why was the Chipko movement awarded the
Right Livelihood Award

v) Which word in paragraph 4 means the same as ‘attend to’?

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :


2.B.
i)Practitioners of the Chipko movement 1X4=4
(a) are fond of Gandhiji
(b) live in cities
(c) cut trees to prevent hugging
(d) hug trees to prevent their cutting
ii) They are counted amongst the hundred people that shaped
India because they tribals and marginalised people.

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(a) hid
(b) highlighted
(c) trivialised
(d) didn’t believe in
(iii) They followed the ideals of
(a) violence and boycott
(b) boycott and strikes 1X4=4
(c) non-violence and satyagraha
(d) armed protest
iv) Today it is seen as an eco-feminism movement because
(a) women were its backbone and core
(b) women want their voting rights
(c) women wanted firewood
(d) it was eco-friendly
(v) A synonym of ‘endangered’ used in paragraph 2 is
(a) resentment
(b) struggled
(c) risked
(d) threatened

Read the following passage very carefully.


3 It is hard to think of an Indian snack that is not fried. However, we
need to be aware of what happens to oil when it is heated. When oil
begins to smoke, it is a good indication that it has been heated too
much. At this temperature chemical changes begin to take place which
have many health risks . Of course this is tricky. If the oil is not hot
enough, then mode of it is absorb and the resultant product is quite
soggy and unfit to eat. Further , prolonged heating of oil at high
temperature that is at its smoking point or higher, leads to its
degradation. A substance called acrolein is formed which can irritate
the stomach lining . Oil that has decomposed to acrolein will be dark
and viscous. Normally this does not happen when food is fried at home
but as oil is expensive, we are not willing to throw it down the drain
after having used it only once. The common tendency is to set aside
any oil that is leftover, to be used another time. And repeated use of
the same oil guarantees the formation of acrolein with all its
undesirable effects.
In fact, some experts suggest that oil should not be held at its smoking
temperature for more than 15 minutes at a time. This time span, as
everyone knows, is hardy sufficient to prepare the required number
of puris for even a small family of four. Sadly, olive and corn oils are
not widely available in our markets. Both these oils can be heated to a
high temperature before they start smoking. Even heart-friendly oils
like those made from sunflower are not spared from these effects.
Harmful chemical changes will take place if oil is heated to high
temperature for a long time or if it is used over and over again. Still ,
vegetable fats are recommended for frying over animal fats like butter
and ghee because they are less likely to cause heart diseases. Another
problem arises when the used oil is stored under less than satisfactory
conditions. If the oil is not stored in an airtight container which does

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not allow like to pass through, then it will deteriorate further
because of the effect of Oxygen and light on the oil. By and large,
these undesirable effects result when food is deep - fried so eat deep-
fried food occasionally. This does not mean that we can no longer
enjoy the flavour and palatability of fried foods . Some foods like tikkis
lend themselves to both deep and shallow frying. Oil from shallow
frying is rarely leftover, so that takes away the worry of decomposed
oil. And every batch of frying will require fresh oil. Oil that has not
been used before.
The practice of heating small amount of mustard , black gram , dal,
curry leaves , chilies and the like in a little oil before they are added to
curries and vegetables and meat dishes, is called tempering.
Tempering is not meant only to lend a fine flavour to the food it has a
nutritional benefit as well. Certain vitamin A, D, E AND K are soluble
only in fat, and in order that they are absorbed in the human gut ,
some fat has to be present in same meal , preferable in the same dish.
To get the benefit of carotene in carrots, for example, temper them
with the little oil, mustard and curry leaves.

ON THE BASIS OF READING THE PASSAGE, ANSWER THE FOLLOWING


QUESTIONS :
1) On the basis of your reading on the given passage make notes
on its using heading and sub headings. Use recognizable
abbreviations whatever necessary. (Minimum four ). Supply an
appropriate title to it .
2) Write a summary on the given passage in 80 to 100 words.

SECTION B 1X4=4
GRAMMAR AND CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS
Grammar
4. Ganesh: Doctor my wife is unwell. May I know what will be the total
expenses for her treatment?
Dr. Gautam: Well, you will have to pay only six lakh for her treatment.
Ganesh: Is there any concession?
Dr. Gautam: No, not a penny. I want the complete amount together.
Ganesh told Dr. Gautam that his wife was unwell and asked if
(i)__________ for her treatment. The doctor replied that
(ii)__________ for her treatment. Ganesh asked (iii)__________ The
doctor refused to give any concession and further stated that (iv)
________.
i)Ganesh told doctor Gautam that his wife was unwell and asked if (i)---
--- for her treatment .
a. he might know what the total expenses would be
b. he might know what the total expenses will be
c. he might know if the total expenses would be
d. he may know what the total expenses would be
ii) The doctor replied that (ii)__________ for her treatment.
a. he would had to pay only six lakh
b. he might have to pay only six lakh
c. he will have to pay only six lakh
d. he would have to pay only six lakh
iii) Ganesh asked (iii)__________ The doctor refused to give any
concession
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a. if there was any concession.
b. if there have been any concession.
c. if there will be any concession.
d. if there is any concession.
iv) and further stated that (iv) ________.
a. he wanted the complete amount together
b. he wants the amount completely together
c. he would take the complete amount together
d. he wants the complete amount together
1X3=3
Transform the following sentences as per the instructions given below:
a) She hadn’t thought about that. (change into indefinite past
5 tense)
b) My sister said to me, “please wait here till I return.” (change
into reported speech)
c) She was looking into the matter. (change the voice )

CREATIVE WRITING SKILLS 3

On the occasion of world heritage day, design a poster


highlighting the need to preserve the monuments of our country .
You are Amit/ Amita the president of social science club.
6 3
OR

After reading an article on the world wildlife week programme at


Dudhwa and Philibhit tiger reserved in Uttar Pradesh between 2nd
– 8th oct 2022, you were alarmed to know about the critically
endangered aquatic wildlife species like dolphins , turtles,
crocodiles etc. the article suggested steps like reducing sound
pollution , minimizing operation of steamers and mechanized
boats, discouraging fishing/ hunting , reducing mechanized
mining of sand from rivers , etc. for conservation of the aquatic
wildlife. Taking cues from the suggested steps, design a poster for
the conservation and rescue of aquatic wildlife species in 50 3
words imagining yourself as a conservationist working with an
NGO.

Racism is bad. Anyone and everyone can be exposed to racism.


Write a speech in 120 to 150 words on the topic “racism” to be
delivered in the morning assembly. 3

7 OR

6
In an inter-school declamation contest you have to speak on the
topic “ Modern Gadgets have made us their slaves”. Using your
own ideas write a speech in 120 to 150 words.

As per the recent survey conducted by The Times of India on the


8 topic “can technology improve learning experience”?
56 % people said “yes”. While 44 % said “no” . Based on the
verbal inputs of the people given below , Write a debate either in
favour or against the motion. (world limit 120 to 150 words ).

YES – techno gadgets, apps, online visuals and classes ,


worksheets , assessment tools, quizzes, audio/ video clips –
wide horizon of learning / teaching , learning techniques
updated as per global challenges.
NO – curtails imagination , creativity, innovative instincts of
learners/ hampers ability to picturize , calculate in mind / 5
dependence on gadgets causes stress, anxiety lack of
confidence in their absence / rising cases of physical , mental
health issues .

Or
You want to purchase a flat . Draft an advertisement in about 50
words for a newspaper providing necessary details and offer a
reward to the informer.

SECTION C (Literature) (31)


REFERENCE TO THE CONTEXT : MARKS

READ THE EXTRACT GIVEN BELOW CAREFULLY AND 1X3=3


9. ANSWER ANY ONEOF THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOWS:

The Laburnum Top is silent, quite still. In the afternoon yellow


September sunlight , A few leaves yellowing, all its seeds fallen.
i. Identify the correct combination of the (given) poem and the poet. 1
a. Ted Hughes : The Voice of the Rain
b) Walt Whitman : The Laburnum Top
c) Ted Hughes : The Laburnum Top
d) Shirley Toulson : Childhood
1
ii. Mary said: Close your cluttered closet. Identify the similar figure of
speech in the above extract used by Mary.

a. Repetition
b. Metaphor
c. Alliteration 1
d. Onomatopoeia

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iii. Which of the following is not a part of the dominant ‘yellow’ colour
in the poem?
a. Goldfinch’s face
b. The tree and its leaves 1
c. The bird's feathers
d. The sunlight
OR
Where did my childhood go? It went to some forgotten place, That’s
hidden in an infant's face, That’s all I know
i. Where does the poet think childhood can be found?
a. Infant's face 1
b. Mother's lap
c. Childhood alleys
d. Forgotten place
ii. Through the given lines of the poem, the poet wants to convey that
________
a. Growing up involves maturity and logical thinking
1
b. Imaginary places do not actually exist in the world
c. Double-faced behaviour of the people in society
d. Innocence of childhood disappears as one grows up

iii. The tone of the poet in the given poem is


a. Contented
b. Remorseful
c. Jovial
d. Happy

READ THE EXTRACT GIVEN BELOW CAREFULLY


AND ANSWER

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Our only hope was to reach this pinpricks in the vast ocean. But unless
the wind and seas abated so we could hoist sail, our chances would be
slim indeed. The great wave have put our auxiliary engine out of
1
action. On January 4th , after 36 hours of continuous pumping, we
reach the last few centimeters of water. Now , we had only to keep
i) pace with the water still coming in. We could not set any sail on the
main mast.
i)The meaning of “our chances would be slim” is
a.Impossible
1
b.A small possibility
C.Great possibility
D.Maximum possibility

ii) Statement A : It was difficult for the captain to hoist the sale on the
main mast .
Statement R: The intensity of the wind and the sea was high
a) both A and R true and R is the correct reason of A
b) both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of
A
1
c) both A and R false
d) A is false but R is true

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iii) Choose the option that displays the same meaning as “pinpricks in
the vast Ocean”
a) Two peas in a pod
b) A feather in one’s cap
c) A needle in a haystack
d) Shooting fish in a barrel.
Or
My headache soon cleared as we careered down the other side of the
pass. It was two o’clock by the time we stopped for lunch. We ate hot
noodles inside a long canvas tent, part of a workcamp erected beside a
ii) dry salt lake. The plateau is pockmarked with salt flats and brackish
lakes , vestiges of Tethys ocean which bordered Tibet before the
continental collision that lifted it skyward. This one was a hive of 1
activity, men with pickaxes and shovels trudging back and forth in their
long sheepskin coats and salt -encrusted boots.
i) Identify the figure of speech on “this one was a hive of
activity”
a) Personification
b) Hyperbole 1
c) Metaphor
d) Simile
ii) Statement A : Tethys ocean no longer bordered Tibet lie
bygone times
Statement R : The great continental collision was a major factor
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
1
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
c) Both A and R are false
d) A is false but R is true
4X1=4
iii) Select the option which does not mean the same as
“careered”
a) Rocketed
b) Barrelled
c) Hurtled
d) dawdled

Read the given extract and answer following questions: 1

11 At the corner of the road I looked up at the name plate Marconi Street
, it said, I had been at number 46. The address was correct, but now I
didn't want to remember it anymore. I wouldn't go back there because
the object that are linked in your memory with the familiar life of
former times instantly lose their value when, severed from them , you 1
see them again in strange surroundings.
1) where was the name plate of marketing sent Street put up question
up question mark number
a) at the far end of the road access
b) at the end of the road
c) at the front of the house
d) at the corner of the road
2) How did author convince herself that she had come at the right 1
address number?
a) she looked at the name of the street

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b) she had looked at the number of the house
c) she had looked at the number of the house and name of the street
number 1
d) she had looked at the corner of the house

3) Why did she not want to remember the address ?


a) Number of the house was already displayed number
b) She did not want to go there again
c) Name of the street was already displayed
d) She had a poor memory
4 ) why did author not want to go back there again?
a) she noticed her own thing there
b) Her own things had lost their importance for her
c) Her former life was still in her memory
d) The surrounding was unfamiliar

OR

CYRIL: [moving to the table; annoyed] Why not?

MRS. PEARSON: [coolly] I couldn’t bother.

CYRIL: Feeling off- colour or something?

Mrs. PEARSON: Never felt better in my life.


1
CYRIL: [aggressively] What’s the idea then?

MRS. PEARSON: Just a change.

CYRIL: [briskly] Well, snap out of it, Ma-and get cracking. Haven’t too
much time.

i. What can you say about Cyril from the given lines?
1
a. He is dumb and acts superior in front of his mother

b. He takes his mother for granted

c. He is arrogant and egoistic

d. He always disrespect his mother

ii. The phrase feeling off colour means


1
a. feeling sleepy

b. feeling tired

c. feeling ill
1
d. feeling lazy

iii. Why does Cyril act aggressive?


a. Because he was getting late

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b. Because his mother had not made tea for him 3X2=6
c. Because his mother was behaving strangely
d. Because his mother insulted him

iv. The change referred to Cyril is a change in the way she is treated by
the neighbour.
a. True
b. False

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS IN ABOUT 40


TO 50 WORDS:
12 In 1922 , king Tut’s tomb was discovered . Much of the treasure
buried in the tomb had been already stolen. Materialistic attitude
a) of man does not allow even the dead to sleep in peace. Will there 3X2=6
be any end of this attitude?

OR

“ You don’t need words to mourn a loss.” Illustrate with 3X1=3


b) reference to the sparrows strange behaviour near grandmother’s
corpse .

Justify the title of the article by Nani Palkhivala .


13 OR
How was a melon made the king of the Melon city?

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS IN ABOUT 40


TO 50 WORDS: 1X6=6
Behind the apparent simplicity, the poet hides the deep meaning.
What exactly does the poem convey to the reader? (the voice of
the rain)
OR
How can you say that the photograph was taking on a windy day?
14 (the photograph)

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTION IN ABOUT 120


TO 150 WORDS:
The horrendous experience at Azad Maidan changes professor
Gaitonde’s decision about delivering his thousandth presidential 1X6=6
address. Illuminate by narrating the sequence of events that led to
this transformation.

OR

How can you infer that the father wishes his son to remain at
15 home with him. (father to son)

11
ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTION IN ABOUT 120
TO 150 WORDS:

The wisest man said that “ the arch must be hanged” . then how
did the arch escape the punishment? Answer in the context of “the
16. tale of the Melon city”

OR

What was the outcome of the interview between Ms Dorling and


the narrator ? Answer in the context of “THE ADDRESS”

12
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DAV MODEL SCHOOL, KSTP, ASANSOL
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
SESSION 2023-2024
Class: XI Maximum Marks: 80
Subject: MATHEMATICS Time: 3 Hrs
General Instructions:
1. The question 𝑝𝑎𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑖𝑛 38 questions.
2. The question paper contains five sections 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶, 𝐷 and E.
3. Section A has 20 MCQ questions of 1 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠 each.
4. Section B has 5 very short 𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑡𝑦𝑝𝑒 𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 of 2 marks each.
5. Section C has 6 short 𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑡𝑦𝑝𝑒 𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 of 3 marks each.
6. Section D has 4long answer type question of 5 marks each.
Section E has 3 case based questions of 4 marks each with sub-parts
𝑸. 𝑵𝒐 Question Marks
SECTION A
Which of the following is an even function?
1. (a) f(x) = √x ( b) f(x) = 1/x (c) f(x) = |x| (d) (x – 2) 1
Let A= {x: x is a letter in the word FOLLOW}, B= {y: y is a letter in the word
2. WOLF}
1. A & B are disjoint
2. A=B 1
3. A B
4. None of these

If sin x+sin2x=1,then the value of cos2x+cos4x is equal to


3. (a)1 (b)2 (c)1.5 (d)none of these 1
If tan θ=1/2 and 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜑 = 1/3,then the value of 𝜃 + 𝜑 is
4. 𝜋
(a)π/6 (b)π (c)0 (d) 4 1
Maximum value of 𝑎 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 𝑏 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜃 is
5.
(a)𝑎 + 𝑏 (b)a-b (c)|a|+|b| (d) √𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 1
The value of cos 55 ଴ + cos 65଴ +cos175 is equal to
6.
(a)0 (b)1/2 (c)√3 (d)-1 1
Argument of a complex number -1-i is
7. (a) 450 (b) 1350 (b) 1350 ( c ) – 450 ( d ) none. 1
If nC12 =nC8, then n is equal to
8. (a) 20 (b) 12 (c) 6 (d) 30 1
The number of possible outcomes when a coin is tossed 6 times is
9. (a) 36 (b) 64 (c) 12 (d) 32 1
The equation of X – axis is
10. A) x = 0 B) y = 0 C) x + y = 0 D) x – y = 0 1
The distance between the lines 4x + 3y = 11 and 8x +6y = 15 is
11. A) 7/2 B) 4 C) 7/10 D)none of these 1

1
12. Which of the following is not a conic section?
a) Apex b) Hyperbola c) Ellipse d) Parabola 1

13. The distance of point P(3, 4, 5) from the 𝑦𝑧-plane is


(A) 3 units (B) 4 units (C) 5 units (D) 550 1

14. The point (-2, -3, -4) lies in the


1
(A) First octant (B) Seventh octant
15. Slope of a line which cuts off intercepts of equal lengths on the axes is
1
(A) – 1 (B) – 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
16. Let A= { 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐} and B= { 1,2} then the number of relations from A into B are
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 32 (4) 64 1

17 A card is drawn from a deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting a king
or a heart or a red card.
1
(a) 7/13 ( b) 14/13 (c)51/102 (d) 7/52

18 If the probability for A to fail in an examination is 0.2 and that for B is 0.3,
then probability that either A or B fails is.....
1
(a) 0.38 (b) 0.44 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.94

19 If a, b, c are in A.P., b − a, c − b and a are in G.P., then a: b: c is


a) 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 3 b) 1 ∶ 3 ∶ 5 c) 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 4 d) 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 4 1

20 If x, 2x + 2,3x + 3, ... are in GP, then the fourth term is


a) 27.5 b) 4x + 5 c) -13.5 d) 4x + 4 1

SECTION B
21 If 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦 = √3(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑦 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥) then show that Sin3x + Sin3y = 0. 2
22 Determine whether the following are even, odd, or neither.
2
1. f(x) = 𝑥 4 + 4 (2) g(x) = 9x5 – X3
23 If the angle between two lines is π /4 and the slope of one of the
2
𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑠 1⁄2 . Find the slope of the other line
24 Find 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑡 of the following complex number:
𝑖) 3 + 4𝑖 (𝑖𝑖) 12 − 5𝑖 2

25 Determine the equation of the circle with radius 4 and Centre (-2, 3). 2
SECTION C
26 If the 4th, 10th and 16th terms of a G.P are x, y, z respectively. Prove that x, y,
3
z are in G.P?
27 If f is a function satisfying f(x + y) = f(x). f(y)for all x, y ∈ N such that f(1) =3
3
and ∑𝑛
𝑥=1 𝑓(𝑥) = 120 .Find the value of n?
28 1
If 0 < 𝑥 < 𝜋 and 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 = 2 then find the value of tanx 3

2
𝑑𝑦
29 Find 𝑑𝑥 if 𝑦 = 4𝑥96 + 7𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑥 − 6𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 3
30 If A and B are mutually exclusive events, P(A) =35 and P(B) = 0.45, find
3
(a) P(A’) (b) P(B’) (c) P(A∪ B)
31 A bag contains 8 red and 5 white balls. Three balls are drawn at random. Find
the Probability
that
3
(a) All the three balls are white
(b) All the three balls are red
(c) One ball is red and two balls are white

SECTION D

32 𝑇𝑎𝑛 (𝐴+𝐵) 𝑥+1


If sin2A = xsin2B, then show that = 5
𝑇𝑎𝑛(𝐴−𝐵) 𝑥−1
33 Find the equation of the Circle which passes through the points
(1, 3), (2, 3) and whose centre lies on the line 2x + 3y – 1 = 0. 5

34 If A and B are the points and respectively, then find the locus of
P such that 3|PA| = 2|PB|. 5

35 If the letters of the word ALGORITHM are arranged at random in a row what
is the probability the letters GOR must remain together as a unit?
SECTION E
(CASE BASED QUESTION)
36 Read the Case study given below and attempt any 4 subparts:
A state cricket authority has to choose a team of 11 members, to do it so the
authority asks 2 coaches of a government academy to select the team members
that have experience as well as the best performers in last 15 matches.
They can make up a team of 11 cricketers amongst 15 possible candidates. In
how many ways can the final eleven be selected from 15 cricket players if:

4
1. there is no restriction
1. 1365
2. 2365
3. 1465
4. 1375
2. one of then must be included
1. 1002
2. 1003
3. 1001
4. 1004
3
3. one of them, who is in bad form, must always be excluded
1. 480
2. 364
3. 1365
4. 640
4. Two of them being leg spinners, one and only one leg spinner must be
included?
1. 2C1×13C10
2. 2C1×10C13
3. 1C2×13C10
4. 2C10×13C10
5. If there are 6 bowlers, 3 wicket-keepers, and 11 batsmen in all. The
number of ways in which a
A team of 4 bowlers, 2 wicket-keepers, and 5 batsmen can be chosen.
1. 6C2×3C4 ×11C5
2. 6C2×3C4 ×11C5
3. 6C2×3C5×11C4
4. 6C2 × 3C1 ×11C5

37 Read the Case study given below and attempt any 4 sub parts:
Father of Ashok is a builder, He planned a 12 story building in Gurgaon sector
5. For this, he bought a plot of 500 square yards at the rate of Rs
1000/yard². The builder planned ground floor of 5 m height, first floor of 4.75
m and so on each floor is 0.25 m less than its previous floor.

Now Answer the following questions: 4


1. What is the height of the last floor?
1. 2.5 m
2. 2.75 m
3. 2.25 m
4. 3 m
2. Which floor no is of 3 m height?
1. 5
2. 7
3. 10
4. 9
3. What is the total height of the building?
1. 40 m
2. 43.5
3. 40.5 m

4
4. 44 m
4. Up to which floor the height is 33 m?
1. 8
2. 7
3. 10
4. 9
5. Which floor no. is half in height of ground floor?
1. 10
2. 9
3. 12
4. 11

38 . Read the Case study given below and attempt any 4 sub parts:
villages of Sohan and Arup’s are 50km apart and are situated on Delhi Agra
highway as shown in the following picture. Another highway YY’ crosses
Agra Delhi highway at O(0,0). A small local road PQ crosses both the
highways at pints A and B such that OA=10 km and OB =12 km. Also, the
villages of Barun and Jeetu are on the smaller high way YY’. Barun’s village
B is 12km from O and that of Jeetu is 15 km from O.

Now answer the following questions:


1. What are the coordinates of A?
1. (10, 0)
2. (10, 12)
3. (0,10)
4. (0,15)
2. What is the equation of line AB?
1. 5x + 6y = 60
2. 6x + 5y = 60
3. x = 10
4. y = 12
3. What is the distance of AB from O(0, 0)?
1. 60 km
2. 60/√61 km
3. √61 km
4. 60 km
4. What is the slope of line AB?
5
1. 6/5
2. 5/6
3. -6/5
4. 10/12
5. What is the length of line AB?
1. √61 km
2. 12 km
3. 10 km
4. 2√ 61 km

6
DAV MODEL SCHOOL, KSTP, ASANSOL
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
SESSION 2023-2024
Class: XI Maximum Marks: 70
Subject: PHYSICS Time: 3 Hrs

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
1. There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C ,
Section D and Section E . All the sections are compulsory.
3. Section A contains eighteen MCQ of one mark each, Section B contains
seven questions of two marks each, Section C contains five questions of
three marks each , Section D contains three questions of five marks each ,
Section E contains two case study based questions of four marks each .
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided
in section B, C, D and E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in
such questions.
5. Use of calculator is not allowed.
6. 15 minute time has been allotted to read the question paper.

Q. Question Mark
No s
.
SECTION - A
1 Dimension [ML -1T-1] is associated with which one of the following physical 1
quantity ?
a ) Work b ) Torque c ) Energy d ) Coefficient of viscosity

2 2. The physical quantities not having the same dimensions are 1


a ) Torque and work. b ) momentum and plank's constant
c ) stress and Young's modulus. d ) speed and 1/√(µ0ϵ0)

3 The position- time (x-t) graph for positive acceleration is 1

4 One body of mass 8 kg and another of mass of 2 kg are moving with equal 1
kinetic energy. The ratio of their respective moments will be
a) 1:1 b) 2:1. c) 1:4 d ) 4:1
1
5 As per the given figure, two blocks each of mass 250 g are connected to a 1
spring of spring constant 2N/m . If both are given velocity v in opposite
directions, then maximum elongation of the spring is

𝑣 𝑣 𝑣 𝑣
a) b). 2 c). d)
2√2 4 √2

6 If M is the mass of the earth and R it's radius, the ratio of the gravitational 1
acceleration and the gravitational constant is
𝑀 𝑅2 𝑅 2𝑀
a) b) c) 2𝑀 d)𝑅2
𝑅2 𝑀

7 The length of a wire is made double and radius is halved of the respective 1
values. Then , the Young's modulus of the material of the wire will
a) remain same
b) become 8 times it's initial value
c) become 1/4 th of its initial value
d) become 4 times it's initial value
8 An ideal fluid flows ( laminar flow ) through a pipe of non - uniform 1
diameter. The maximum and minimum diameters of the pipes are 6.4 cm
and 4.8 cm , respectively. The ratio of the minimum and the maximum
velocity of the fluid in this pipe is
a) 9/16. b) √3/2. c) 3/4. d) 81/256
9 Temperature of two stars are in ratio 3:2 . If wavelength of maximum 1
intensity of first body is 4000 A, what is the corresponding wavelength of
second body ?
a) 9000 A. b) 6000 A. c) 2000 A. d) 8000 A
10 Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands from volume 1
V1 to V2 in three difference ways. The work done by the gas is W1 if the
process is purely isothermal. W2 , if the process is purely adiabatic and W3 if
the process is purely isobaric. Then choose the correct option
a) W1<W2< W3
b) W2<W3<W1
c) W3<W1<W2
d) W2<W1<W3
11 If the RMS speed of oxygen molecules at 0 oC is 160 m/s , find the RMS 1
speed of the hydrogen molecules at 0 OC.
a) 40 m/s
b) 80 m/s
c) 640 m/s
d) 332 m/s
12 If a particle is oscillating on the same horizontal plane on the ground, 1
a) it has only kinetic energy but no potential energy
b) it has only potential energy but no kinetic energy
c) it has both kinetic energy and potential energy
d) none of the above
13 With propagation of longitudinal waves through a medium , between two 1
2
points farther apart , which of the following is transmitted ?
a) energy only
b) momentum only
c) energy and momentum
d) matter and momentum
14 Which of the following graphs represent the correct variation of speed (v) 1
of sound with the pressure (P) in a gas at a constant temperature ?

15 The value of Young's modulus for a perfectly rigid body is 1


a) zero
b) positive
c) negative
d) infinite
Read the instruction given below for Q. No. 16 to Q. No. 18
Two statements are given- one labelled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).
Read
the statements carefully and choose the option that correctly describes statements A
and R.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.


b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true

16 Assertion: Energy can be added to pressure. 1


Reason: The dimensions of energy and pressure are same .

17 Assertion: Work done in moving a body over a closed loop is zero for every 1
force in nature .
Reason : Work done does not depend on nature of force.

18 Assertion: Stress is the internal force per unit area of a body . 1


Reason: Rubber is more elastic than steel.
SECTION – B
19 Points P and Q are in a vertical line such that PQ= QR . A ball at P is allowed 2
to fall freely . What is the ratio of the times of descent through PQ and QR ?

20 6. If lA+Bl = lAl + lBl, then what is the angle between A and B . 2

3
21 A block of mass 1 kg lies on a horizontal surface in a truck. The coefficient of 2
static friction between the block and the surface is 0.6 . If the acceleration
of the truck is 5 m/s2, calculate the frictional force acting on the block.

22 From a uniform disc of radius R , a circular hole of radius R/2 is cut out . The 2
centre of the hole is at R/2 from the centre of the original disc . Locate the
centre of gravity of the resulting flat body .
23 The terminal velocity of a copper ball of radius 2.0 mm falling through a 2
tank of oil at 20oC is 6.5 m/s. Calculate the viscosity of the oil at 20 oC . Take
density of the oil 1.5 × 103 kg/m3and density of the copper is 8.9× 103 kg/m3
.
24 A spring of force constant 1200 N/m is mounted horizontally on a horizontal 2
table. A mass of 3.0 kg is attached to the free end of the spring pulled
sideways to a distance of 2.0 cm and released. i) What is the frequency of
oscillation of the mass ? ii) What is the maximum acceleration of the mass ?
25 A wave is travelling along a string is described by y(x,t) = 0.005 sin (80.0x - 2
3.0 t ) in which all numerical constants are in SI unit calculate
i) the wavelength
iii) frequency of the wave
SECTION – C
26 Read the statement below carefully and state , with reason, if it is true or 3
false:
a) The net acceleration of a particle in uniform circular motion is always
along the tangent to the path of the particle at that point.
b ) The velocity vector of a particle at a point is always along the radius of
the circle towards the centre.
c ) The acceleration vector of particle in a uniform circular motion averaged
over one cycle is a null vector.
OR
a ) Why do we give banking to curved road?
b ) A cyclist speeding at 18 km/h on a level road take a sharp circular turn of
radius 3 m without reducing the speed. The coefficient of static friction
between the tyres and the road is 0.1 . Will the cyclist slip while taking the
turn? Explain.
27 Three bodies A,B and C , each of mass m are hanging on a string over a fixed 3
pulley , as shown in figure. What are the tension in the strings connecting
bodies A to B and B to C ?

28 With the help of a block diagram, explain the working of a heat engine. Why 3
its efficiency can't be 100% ?
29 A pipe 30.0 cm long is open at both ends . Which harmonic mode of the 3
pipe is resonantly excited by a1.1 kHz source? Will resonance with the same
4
source be observed if one end of the pipe is closed? Take the speed of
sound in air as 330 m/s.
30 The rate of flow( V ) of a liquid flowing through a horizontal pipe is found to 3
depends on the pressure gradient ( P ) , radius of the pipe ( r ) and
coefficient of viscosity ( η) of the given liquid . According to Poiseulli, the
expression is V= πPr4/ 8ηl. Check whether the above expression is correct or
not correct on the basis of dimensional analysis .
SECTION – D
31 a) state and prove the principle of conservation of angular momentum. 5
Explain it with a suitable example . 3
b) How moment of inertia of a circular disc around its axis will be affected
by
i) increasing its angular speed of rotation?
ii) increasing its mass without changing its radius ?
Justify your answers . (1+1)
OR
a) Define centre of mass . Derive an expression for the centre of mass of a
two particle system. Show that the centre of mass of two particle system of
equal masses lies at the centre of the line joining them.

b) Define radius of gyration and mention two factors on which radius of


gyration of a body depends. (3+2)
32 i)Derive an expression for the work done during the isothermal expansion 5
of n moles of an ideal gas . 2
ii) A steam engine delivers 5.4×10 J of work per minute and services 3.6*109
8

J of heat per minute from its boiler . What is the efficiency of the engine?
How much heat is wasted per minute? 3
OR
i)Draw energy distribution curves, for a black body at two different
temperatures T1and T2 where ( T2>T1) . State two important features of
these curve. 3
ii) State Wein's displacement law. Write any one application of Wein's
displacement law. 2
33 A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a rope which can be stand a maximum 5
tension of 600 N . In which of the following cases will the rope break : the
monkey
i) climbs up with an acceleration of 6 m/s 2
ii) climbs down with an acceleration of 4 m/s 2
iii) climbs up with uniform speed of 5 m/s 2
iv) falls down the rope nearly freely under gravity?
Take g= 10 m/s 2 . Ignore the mass of the rope .

5
OR
i)A batsman deflects a ball by an angle of 45owithout changing its initial
speed which is equal to 45 km/h . What is the impulse imparted to the ball ?
Mass of the ball is 0.15 kg .
ii) A bullet of mass 'm' is fired from a gun of mass 'M' with a horizontal
velocity 'V' . Calculate the recoil velocity 'v' of the gun . (3+2)

SECTION – E
34 Rohan, a student of class XI, got a chance to visit a remote village. He 4
observed that the people were using only the rope and a bucket to pull out
water from the well . He explained and demonstrated to them , how by
using a wheel as a simple pulley ,they can do the same work more
conveniently and in a shorter time. The two figures A and B are given below
on the basis of above explanation.

a) Name the physical quantity that increased in value as a result of the use
of the simple pulley.

b) Write the relation between this physical quantity, ( named in the above
question) and the force acting with the velocity of the object.

c) Write expressions for the action on the floor by the person having weight
W in the two figures above.

OR

c) Which mode should the man adopted to lift the bucket without the floor
yielding? Give reason.

35 Heat and work are two modes of energy transfer to a system. Heat is the 4
energy transfer arising due to temperature difference between the system
and the surroundings . Work is energy transfer brought about by other
means, such as moving the piston of a cylinder containing the gas , by
raising or lowering some weight connected to it . The first law of
thermodynamics is the general law of conservation energy applied to any
system in which energy transfer from a system to the surroundings occurs
through heat and work. According to the first law of thermodynamics, if
some heat is supplied to system which is capable of doing work, then the
quantity of heat ΔQ absorbed by the system will be equal to the sum of the
increase in its internal energy ΔU and the external work Δ W done by the
system on the surroundings.
6
i) In a cyclic process, work done by the system is
a) zero
b) more than the heat given to the system
C) equal to the heat given to the system
d) independent of heat given to the system
ii) The increase in internal energy of a system is equal to the work done on
the work done on the system. Which process does the system unde rgo ?
a) isochoric
b) adiabatic
C) isobaric
d) isothermal
iii) A thermodynamic process is carried out from an original state D to an
intermediate state D to an intermediate state E by the linear process shown
in the figure.

The work done by the gas from D to F is


a) 100 J
b) 800J
c) 300 J
d) 250J
OR
iii) An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A to B , B to C , C to A , as shown
in the figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas in cycle is 5 J, the work done
by the gas in the process A to B is

a) 2J
b) 3J
c) 4J
d) infinite
iv) When 20 J of work was done on gas , 40 J of heat energy was released. If
7
the initial internal energy of the gas was 70 J , what is the final internal
energy?

8
DAV MODEL SCHOOL, KSTP, ASANSOL
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
SESSION 2023-2024
Class: XI Maximum Marks: 70
Subject: Chemistry Time: 3 Hrs
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY.
• There are 35 questions in the question paper with internal choice.
• Section A consists of 18 multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
• Section B consist of 7 very short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
• Section C consist of 5 short answer type questions carrying 3 marks each.
• Section D consist of 2 case study based question carrying 4 marks each.
• Section E consist of 3 long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each.
• All questions are compulsory, however there is some internal choices in some
questions.
• Use of calculator and log table are not allowed.

Section A
Q.No. Questions Marks
1. The pair of ions having same electronic configuration is; [1]
a) Cr3+ , Fe3+
b) Fe3+ , Mn2+
c) Fe3+ , Co3+
d) Sc3+ , Cr3+
2. Identify the pairs which are not of isotopes? [1]

a) 6 X1 2 , 6 Y13
b) 17X 35, 1 7 X 37
c) 6X14, 7Y14
d) 8X4 , 8X5
3. Which of the following order of energies of molecular orbitals of N2 [1]
is correct?
a) (π2py) < σ2pz < (π∗2px≃π∗2py)
b) (π2py) > σ2pz > (π∗2px≃π∗2py)
c) (π2py) < σ2pz > (π∗2px≃π∗2py)
d) (π2py) > σ2pz < (π∗2px≃π∗2py)
4. The volume of gas is reduced to half from its original volume. The [1]
specific heat will be;
a) Reduce to half
b) Be double
c) Remain constant
d) Increase four times
5. Bohr atomic model can explain [1]
a) the spectrum of hydrogen atom only
b) spectrum of an atom or ion containing one electron only
c) the spectrum of hydrogen molecule
d) the solar spectrum
6. Boron is a non-metal and is placed under group 13 and period. [1]

1
How can boron form bonds with other elements?
a) By sharing 5 electrons
b) By sharing 3 electrons
c) By sharing 2 electrons
d) By sharing 1 electron
7. For the reaction C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) [1]
a) △H >△U
b) △H < △U
c) △H = △U
d) None of these
8. Stable form of C may be represented by the formula: [1]
a) C
b) C2
c) C3
d) C4
9. What is the order of the metallic character down the group? [1]
a) It decreases as new shells are added to the element
b) It increases as electrons move away from the nucleus
c) It increases as new atoms are added to the same shell
d) It decreases as the effective nuclear charge on the electron
increases
10. The IUPAC name for the compound given below is: [1]

a) 1-chloro-2-nitro-4-methyl benzene
b) 1-chloro-4-methyl-2-nitro benzene
c) 2-chloro-1-nitro-5 methyl benzene
d) m-nitro-p-chloro toluene
11. In which of the following pairs, the ions are iso- electronic? [1]
a) Na+, Mg 2+
b) Al 3+, O –
c) Na+, O 2–
d) N3-, Cl-
12. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is solid [1]
with a high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group
of the Periodic Table as:
a) Na
b) Al
c) Mg
d) Si
13. Which of the following statements concerning the quantum numbers [1]
2
are correct?

a) Angular quantum number determines the three


dimensional shape of the orbital.
b) The principal quantum number determines the orientation
and energy of the orbital.
c) Magnetic quantum number determines the size of the orbital.
d) Spin quantum number of an electron determines the orientation of
the spin ofelectron relative to the chosen axis.
15. (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. [1]
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of
A.
(C) Both A and R are not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.

Assertion (A): Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative


as we go down a group.
Reason (R): Size of the atom increases on going down the group and
the added electron would be farther from the nucleus.

16. (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. [1]
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of
A.
(C) Both A and R are not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.

Assertion (A): Among the two O-H bonds in H₂O molecule, the
energy required to
break the first O-H bond and the other O-H bond is the same.

Reason (R): This is because the electronic environment around


oxygen is the same even after breakage of one O-H bond.
17. (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. [1]
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of
A.
(C) Both A and R are not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
Assertion (A): Combustion of all organic compounds is an
exothermic reaction.
Reason (R): The enthalpies of all elements in their standard state are
zero.

18. (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. [1]
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of
A.
(C) Both A and R are not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
Assertion (A): Nitration of benzene with nitric acid
requires the use of concentrated sulphuric acid.
Reason (R): The mixture of concentrated sulphuric acid and
concentrated nitric acid produces the electrophile, NO2
3
SECTION –B
19. i. State Heisenberg uncertainty principle. [2]
ii. De -Broglie concept cannot be applied to a moving cricket ball.
Why?
20. Show that for an ideal gas Cp- Cv = R [2]

OR
With the help of first law of thermodynamics and H = U + PV, [2]
prove ∆H = qp

21. For the general reaction: [2]


aA +bB cC + dD
Derive the relationship between Kp & Kc

OR
Find out the value of Kc for each of the following equilibria [2]
from the value of Kp 2NOCl (g) 2NO (g) + Cl2 (g) Kp = 1.8
-2
x 10 at 500K

22. Consider the following species: [2]


N3- , O2- , F- , Na+ , Mg2+, and Al3+
a) What is common in them?
b) Arrange them in the order of increasing ionic radii.
23. Distinguish between Sigma(σ) and pi(π) bond. [2]

24. Explain with example ozonolysis. [2]

25. On the basis of type of hybridization predict the shape of the [2]
following molecules:
(i) H₂C = CH2 (ii) CH3F

SECTION –C
26. Calculate the wavelength, frequency, and wavenumber of light wave [3]
whose period is 2.0 × 10-10 s.
27. a) Use molecular orbital theory to explain why Be2 [2+1=3]
molecule does not exist?
b) Define the term hydrogen bond
OR
a) State any two limitations of Octet rule. [2+1=3]
b) Discuss the shape of PCl5 and BCl3 using the VSEPR
theory.
28. a) State Le chatelier’s principle. [1+2=3]
b) Calculate the pH of the solution 0.002M HBr.
29. Explain why? [3]
a) Ionization enthalpy of nitrogen is more than that of oxygen.
b) Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less than that of chlorine.
c) Anionic radius is more than the cationic radii.
OR
Give reason for following: [2+1=3]
4
a) Halogens act as good oxidising agents.
b) A cation is always smaller than its parent atom.
c) Na and Mg+ have same number of electrons
but removalof electron from Mg+ requires
more energy.
30. a) Define hyperconjugation. [1+2=3]
b) Hyperconjugation is called as no bond resonance. Explain with
example.
SECTION-D
31. Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:

The rotation of carbon-carbon single bond (s-bond), due to


cylindrical symmetry of molecular orbitals long internuclear axis, in
alkanes results into different spatial arrangements of atoms in
space, that are interconvertible. These arrangements are called
conformations. However, weak repulsive interaction are present
between the adjacent bonds in alkanes so the rotation of C—C
single bond is not completely free and is hindered by a small energy
barriers of 1-20 kJ mol-1. The repulsive interaction between the
adjacent bond is due to electron cloud. The two types of
conformations are very common, i.e., staggered and eclipsed. The
conformation in which the hydrogen atoms attached to the two
carbon atoms are as far apart as possible is called the staggered
conformation. The conformations in which the hydrogen atoms
attached to the two carbon atoms are as closed as possible is called
eclipsed conformation. Any intermediate conformation between the
above two is called skew or gauche conformation. Alkanes As
already mentioned, alkanes are saturated open chain hydrocarbons
containing carbon – carbon single bonds.
Methane (CH4) is the first member of this family. Methane is a gas
found in coal mines and marshy places. If replace one hydrogen atom
of methane by carbon and join the required number of hydrogens to
satisfy the tetravalency of the other carbon atom, it get C2H6 . This
hydrocarbon with molecular formula C2H6 is known as ethane. Thus
it can consider C2H6 as derived from CH4 by replacing one hydrogen
atom by -CH3 group. Go on constructing alkanes by doing this
theoretical exercise i.e., replacing hydrogen atom by –CH3 group.
The next molecules will be C3H8, C4H10
1. Draw the confirmation of ethane using sawhorse formula. [1]

2. Arrange the following in the increasing order of boiling point: [1]


a) Pentane b) 2-methyl butane c) 2,2- dimethyl propane

3. What happens when alkyl halide is treated with sodium in [1]


presence of dry ether.

4.Give one example of functional isomerism [1]

32. Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
5
Branched chain hydrocarbons: In a branched chain compound small
chains of carbon atoms are attached at one or more carbon atoms of
the parent chain. The small carbon chains (branches) are called alkyl
groups. For example:

In order to name such compounds, the names of alkyl groups are


prefixed to the name of parent alkane. An alkyl group is derived
from a saturated hydrocarbon by removing a hydrogen atom from
carbon. Thus, CH4 becomes – CH3 and is called methyl group. An
alkyl group is named by substituting ‘yl’ for ‘ane’ in the
corresponding alkane. A reagent that brings an electron pair to the
reactive site is called a nucleophile (Nu:) i.e., nucleus seeking and
the reaction is then called nucleophilic. A reagent that takes away
an electron pair from reactive site is called electrophile (E+) i.e.,
electron seeking and the reaction is called electrophilic.
Electron Displacement Effects in Covalent Bonds The electron
displacement in an organic molecule may take place either in the
ground state under the influence ofan atom or a substituent group or
in the presence of an appropriate attacking reagent. The electron
displacements due to the influence of an atom or a substituent group
present in the molecule cause permanent polarisation of the bond.
Inductive effect and resonance effects are examples of this type of
electrondisplacements. Temporary electron displacement effects are
seen in a molecule when a reagent approaches to attack it. This type
of electron displacement is called polarisability effect.
1. Define the term electrometric effect . [1]
2. Give one example of +I and -I [1]

3. Draw the resonating structures of aniline. [2]


SECTION –E
33. a) The enthalpy of formation of methane at constant pressure and [3+2=5]
300 K is – 78.84 kJ. What will be the enthalpy of formation at
constant volume?

b) State and explain Hess’s law of constant heat summation.


OR
b) The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 2. What will be the
value of ∆G°?

State and explain First law of thermodynamics. (Give mathematical


expression)
34. a) Calculate the maximum work obtained when 0.75 mol of an [2+3=5]
ideal gas expands isothermally and reversible at 27°C from a
volume of 15 L to 25 L.
b). i. Why standard entropy of an elementary substance is not zero
where as standard enthalpy of formation is taken as zero?

6
ii. Under what conditions will the reaction occur, if
(i) both ∆H and ∆S are positive
(ii) both ∆H and ∆S are negative
OR
a) In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed by a system and 394 J [2+3=5]
of work is done bythe system. What is the change in internal
energy for the process?

b) Give reason for the following:


(i)Neither q nor w is a state function but q + w is
a state function. (ii)A real crystal has more
entropy than an ideal crystal.
(iii) Mention the conditions for a reaction to be
spontaneous at constant temperature and pressure.

35. An alkyl halide C5H11Br (A) reacts to ethanolic KOH and produce [5]
an alkene ‘B’, which then reacts with Br2 to produce a compound
‘C’, which goes through dehydrobromination and gives an alkyne
with ‘D’. On treating with sodium metalin the presence of liquid
ammonia, one mole of ‘D’ produces one mole of the
sodium salt of ‘D’ and half a mole of hydrogen gas. Complete
process of hydrogenation of ‘D’ produces a straight-chain alkane.

Identify A, B, C and D from the given and also mention about the
reactions involved.
OR
What happens when benzene is treated with [5]
i) Br2 in presence of anhydrous AlCl3
ii) Conc. H2SO4 at 330K
iii)Mixture of cone. H2SO4 and com. HNO3 at 330 K
iv) methyl chloride presence of anhydrous AlCl3
v) Ethanoyl Chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl3

7
DAV MODEL SCHOOL, KSTP, ASANSOL
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
SESSION 2023-2024
Class: XI Maximum Marks: 70
Subject: BIOLOGY Time: 3 Hrs

General instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper consists of four sections A, B, C and D.
3. Internal choice is given in all the sections. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in
such questions.
4. Section A contains 5 questions of 1 mark each.
5. Section B has 7 questions of 2 marks each.
6. Section C is of 12 questions of 3 marks each.
7. Section D has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
8. Wherever necessary, the diagrams drawn should be neat and properly labeled.
Q.No. Question Marks
SECTION A
1. What is metagenesis? Mention an example which exhibits 1
this phenomenon. (1)

2. In which organism reproduction is synonymous with growth? 1

3. What is polypetalous corolla? 1


4. What is referred to as satellitic chromosome? 1
OR,

What does the H-zone of a sarcomere in a myofibril contain?

5. Name the molecule which is terminal acceptor of electron. 1


SECTION B

6. Old people have weak immune system. What could be the 2


reason?
7. What is the difference between electrical transmission and 2
chemical transmission?
8. Describe the role of calcium ion in muscle contraction. 2
OR,
What are fatty acids? Give two examples indicating the
number of carbon atoms present in each.

9. Draw a labelled diagram of a standard electrocardiograph 2


10. The functional group in amino acids are weak bases and acids 2
chemically, the ionization is affected by the pH of the solution.
The activity for several enzymes is affected by the ambient pH

1
and is depicted in the curve below, explain in brief.

OR,
Why does the colour of a leaf kept in dark frequently
become yellow or pale green ? Which pigment do you (1+1)
think is more stable?

11. Mention two steps of glycol sis in which ATP is utilised. 2


12. In what kind of plants do you come across ‘ Kranz’ anatomy? (1+1)
To which conditions are those plants better adapted?
SECTION C
13. a) What are nuclear pores? Mention their function. (1+1+1)
b)What is interkinesis?

14. A cyclic process occurs in C3 plants which is light dependent (1+1+1)


and needs O 2 . This process does not produce energy but rather
consumes energy.
15. What are plasmids? Describe their role in bacteria? (1+2)

OR,

Comment on the cartwheel structure of centriole.

16. a) What is the difference between the two body forms polyp and 1
medusa exhibited by cnidarians?
b) How are pneumatic bones and air sacs important in aves? 2
17. Name the stage of the cell cycle at which one of the
following events occur: (1+1+1)
a) Chromosomes are moved to the spindle equator. 3
b) Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
c) Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place.

18. Why is the parathyroid hormone (PTH) considered a 3


hypercalcaemic hormone?

OR,

2
State the name of the plant growth regulator which you will
use in the following cases: (1+1+1)
a) To promote flowering in pineapples.
b) To stimulate early seed production in conifers.
c) To spout potato tubers.

19. Explain the formation of phosphodiester bond.

OR, 3

Polysacharides are also called glycans. They are polymers


of more than 10 monosaccharides interlinked by
glycosidic bonds formed by dehydration synthesis. How
polysaccharidesare useful in anticoagulantion and as a
reserve food?

20. Angiosperms and gymnosperms are seed producing plants.


Although what we eat from Pinus plants (Chilgoza) are called
dry fruits, they are fruits.
a) Why are fruits not formed in gymnosperms? (1+1+1)
b) What are the two types of seeds found in Angiosperms
with reference to the number of cotyledons? Give one
example of each.
c) What value do we learn from these differences?

21. What is glycolysis? Name the two monosaccharides which


readily enter the glycolytic pathway. 3

22. a) What is a reflex arc?


b) Name the components of the reflex pathway.
c) Draw a diagram to show the knee-jerk reflex (1+1+1)

OR,
Name the parts of Human forebrain indicating their respective
3
functions.

23. What is the role played by Lutenising hormones in males


and females respectively? 3

24. Describe the role of Renin – Angiostenin in the


management of Kidney function. 3
SECTION D

25. What is the significance of hepato – pancreatic complex in


digesting protein , carbohydrates and fat components of
food? 5
OR,
Describe the process of digestion of protein in stomach.
26. How does the slipped disc affect the lower back and overall 5
3
health?
OR,
With the help of a neat diagram, describe the structure of
pectoral girdle.

27. Illustrate the differences between mechanism of action of a


protein and a steroid hormone.

OR, 5

Milkman was very upset one moning as his cow refused to


give any milk. The milkman’s wife got the call from shed.
On fondling by the call , the cow gave sufficient milk.
Describe the role of endocrine gland and pathway
associated with this response.

4
DAV MODEL SCHOOL, KSTP, ASANSOL
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
SESSION 2023-2024

Subject: Computer Science


Max Time:3 Hours Maximum Marks:70
General Instructions:
1. This question paper contains five sections, Sections A to E.
2. All questions of a particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
3. SECTION A has 18 Objective Type Questions of 1 mark each.
4. SECTION B has 07 Very Short Answer Type Questions carrying 02 marks each.
5. SECTION C has 05 Short Answer Type Questions carrying 03 marks each.
6. SECTION D has 02 Questions carrying 04 marks each.
7. SECTION E has 03 Questions carrying 05 marks each.
8. All programming questions are to be answered using Python Language only

Section A
1. Which of the following is not a valid relationl operator? 1
a. +=
b. >=
c. ==
d. !=

2. Which of the following is an invalid identifier in Python? 1


e. if
f. sum
g. Davmodelasansol
h. Dav_model_asansol

3. Which of the following memory types can store the data or information 1
permanently?
a. ROM
b. Flash Memory
c. RAM
d. Hard Disc

4. To append an element at the end of the tuple T=(10,5,15). 1


a. T=T + (40,)
b. T,append(4)
c. Not Possible
d. None of these
5. Identify the following Boolean logic gate. 1

a. AND
b. OR
c. XOR
d. NAND
6. Python programs stored with file extension 1
a. ,odt
b. .py
c. .pty
d. .obj

7. Select the correct output of the code: 1


tuple1=(11,22,33,44,55,66)
list1=list(tuple1)
new_list=[]
for i in list1:
if i%2==0:
new_list.append(i)
new_tuple=tuple(new_list)
print(new_tuple)
a. [22,44,66]
b. (22,44,66)
c. (11,33,55,66)
d. [11,33,55]
8. Which of the following symbol is not an operator? 1
a. %
b. #
c. *
d. //

9. Which is the right way to use the function pow? 1

a. import math
print(pow.math(12,4))
b. import maths
print(maths.pow(12,4))
c. import math
print(math.pow(12,4))
d. from math import pow
print(math.pow(12,4))
10. Evaluate the following expression and identify the correct answer: 1
4 * 5 + 3**2 %7//2-3
a. 18
b. -3
c. 44
d. 25
11. Which of the following will delete the key :value pair for key = "input" in 1
dictionary?
D1={"output": "monitor", "input":"keyword", "hardware": "mouse","software" :
"VLC"}
a. del D1["input"]
b. D1["tiger"].delete()
c. Delete(D1["input"])
d. del(D1.[ "input"])
12. Pick up the system utility software from the following: 1
a. MS Paint
b. LOGO
c. Ubuntu
d. Anti virus

13. What is hexadecimal equivalent of (467)8 1


a. (D7)16
b. (137)16
c. (101110010)16
d. None of the above
14. Select the correct output of the following string operations 1
myString= "pynative"
stringList=["abc", "pynative", "xyz"]
print(stringList[1]==myString)
print(stringList[1] is myString)
a. True
False
b. True
True
c. False
True
d. False
False
15. What will be the output of the following code? 1
a,b=2,3
b,a=b**3,a**2
print(a,”#”,b)
a. 8#9
b. 9#8
c. 27#4
d. 4#27

16. How can individuals contribute to proper e-waste management? 1


a. To generate more revenue from electronic devices
b. To reduce the number of electronic devices in use
c. To prevent environmental pollution and health hazards
d. To promote the use of traditional waste disposal methods.
Q17 and 18 are ASSERTION AND REASONING based questions. Make the correct
choice as
a. Both A and R are True and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. Both A and R are True and R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is True but R is False.
d. A is False but R is True.
17. Assertion(A): It is possible to have duplicate keys in a Python dictionary. 1
Reasoning (R): If you attempt to add a new key-value pair with a key that already
exists in the dictionary, the value associated with the existing key will be
overwritten with the new value.

18. Assertion(A): Slicing a list in python creates a new list containing the sliced 1
elements.
Reasoning(R): When you slice a list in Python, it returns a new list containing the
specified elements, while the original list remains unchanged.
Section B
19. Write down the differences between Compiler and Interpreter. 2

OR
Consider the following string mySchool
mySchool=”Dav Model School”

What will be the output of

a. Print(mySchool[:3]).
b. Print(mySchool[-5:-1])
20. Rewrite the following Python program after removing any/all logical and syntax 2
error(s), underline each correction done in the code:

A = int(input("Enter First Number: "))


B = int(input("Enter Second Number: "))
Op = int(input("Enter Operator")
if Op = "+":
C=A+B
elseif Op == "-":
C=A-B
else
C = "Invalid operator entered"
print("Result = ",C)

21. Evaluate the expressions: 2


a.7+5*10**3//5
b.not(10<5) and (13>9) or(5==7)
OR

Add a pair of parentheses to each of the following expression so that it evaluates


to True.
a. 0 ==2==3
b. 3+4==4+5==9
22. (a) Arrange the following memory units in descending order: KB, GB, PB, TB 2

(b)Shweta found a crumpled paper under her desk. She picked it up and opened
it. It contained some text which was struck off thrice. But she could still figure
out easily that the struck off text was the email ID and password of Himanshu,
her classmate. What is ethically correct for Shweta to do?

(i) Inform Himanshu so that he may change his password.


(ii) Give the password of Himanshu’s email ID to all other classmates.
(iii) Use Himanshu’s password to access his account.

23. Do the following conversion: 2


a. (76F)16 =>(?)10
b. (101110010.1011)2 => (?)8

OR
Draw the logic gate of the following expression:
Y=(NOT A OR B) AND ( A OR NOT B )

24. Define the De Morgan’s Laws and prove it by using truth table. 2
OR
Give the output of the following when num1=4,num2=3 and num3=2
NOTE: Consider the initial value of num1 to be 4 for each of the following parts.

a. num1+=num2+num3
print(num1)

b. num1=num1**(num2+num3)
print(num1)
c. num1=2+9*((3*12)-8)/10
print(num1)

d. num1=24//4//2
print(num1)

25. Write the Boolean expression for the following logic circuit shown below: 2

SECTION C
26. Write a Python program that accepts a string from user and display the reverse of 3
the string.(Ex: if Input is “Hello” then Ouput is “olleH”)
OR

Write a Python program that accepts a string from user and display list containing
indices of capital letters of the string.

For Example, If the String is:


'Dav Model School'
Then the output should be:
[0,4,10]

27. Draw a flowchart to check whether a given number in Palindrome or not? 3

28. What will be the output of the Python code given below: 3
T1= "IND-23"
T2= ""
I=0
while I<len(T1):
if T1[I] >= "0" and T1[I]<= "9":
Val=int(T1[I])
Val=Val+1
T2=T2+ str(Val)
elif T1[I]>= "A" and T1[I]<= "Z":
T2=T2+T1[I+1]
else:
T2=T2+ "*"
I+=1
print(T2)
29. a. Write a programe to print the pattern,. 3
1
21
321
4321
54321

b. What are the potential consequences of oversharing personal information on


social media?
30 Write a Python code to input electricity unit charges and calculate total electricity 3
bill according to given condition:
For units between 0-49, charge is Rs 0.50/unit.
For units between 50-99, charge is Rs 0.75/unit.
For units between 100-199, charge is Rs 1.20/unit.
For 200 and above units, charge is Rs 1.50/unit.
An additional surcharge of 20% is added to the bill in each case.

Section D
31. a. How many times the values of i and j will be displayed after executing the 2+2
following python code?
i,j=5,6
while i<20:
i=i+j
j=j-1
print(i,j)

b. Rewrite the following for loop into its equivalent while loop
for i in "Programming ":
print(i)

32. a. A real value can be converted to nearest integer value with the help of 2+2
two built-in functions: int() and round().
In this context differentiate the above built-in functions with suitable
examples.
b. Write a program that will take a string as input and convert all the
vowels in the string to upper case and rest in lower case.

Section E
33. a. Find the output of the following python code: 1+2+2
(i) a,b,c,d=(1,2,3,4)
myt=(a,b,c,d)*2 +(5**2,)
print(len(myt)+2)
(ii) Mystring= "programming is Fun"
print(Mystring[-50:10:1].endswith('in'))
print(Mystring.partition('m'))
b. Write a program to count the number of lower case characters and upper case
characters in a given strings.
Example: I love My School
34. Create a dictionary named dict_1 and perform the following: 1*5=5
a. dict_1 should have first five primary numbers as key and their number
names as value
b. A code to return the keys in the dictionary.
c. To check if 7 is present or not.
d. To retrieve the value corresponding to 5
e. Differentiate between pop and popitem.

OR

Consider the following dictionary stateCapital:

stateCapital = {"Karnataka": "Bangalore", "Haryana":"Chandigarh",


"Sikkim": "Gangtok", "Bihar":"Patna"}

Find the output of the following statements:


a. print(stateCapital.get("Bihar"))
b. print(stateCapital.keys())
c. print(stateCapital.items())
d. print(len(stateCapital))
e. print("Maharashtra" in stateCapital)

a. Define Escape Sequence and give example of any two. 1


b. Define comment and give an example to present multiline 1
35. comment.
c. What is the difference between python list and dictonary. 2
1
d. Give a example of string Slicing
DAV MODEL SCHOOL, KSTP, ASANSOL
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
SESSION 2023-2024
Class: XI Maximum Marks: 80
Subject: BUSINESS STUDIES Time: 3 Hrs

Q.No. Question Marks


1. "Business is undertaken with the object of earning money” Which 1
characteristic of business is highlighted in this statement?
2. What is the liability of members of joint Hindu Family Business? 1
3. Who defines the power & functions, role & regulations for a 1
statutory corporation?

4. When should insurable interest be present in fire insurance? 1

5. What do you mean by GDRs? 1

6. Name the institution which provides an integrated administrative 1


framework for small scale industries at distric level.
7. Enumerate any two market information prod by the wholesalers to 1
the manufacturers.
8. What do you understand by statutory corporation? Give any two 3
example of statutory corporations in India.
9. Aditya gets his house insured against fire of Rs.10 lakh with insurer 3
A and for Rs. 5 lakh with insurer B. A loss of Rs.3 lakh occured. How
much compensation can be claimed from A and B? Why?
10. Write a short note on Knowledge Process Outsourcing (KOP). 3

11. What three measures has government taken to solve the problem of 3
finance and marketing in the small-scale sector.

12. Explain the procedure for carrying on mail order business. 3

13. An enterpreneur wants to start his business in backward area 4


because govt. gives many incentives & rebate in taxes, which results
in low cost and he will be able to sell the product at low prices.
There he will be able to get large area by deforestation.
(a) Which values are being affected here?
(b) Differentiate Business from employment.
14. What motivates a host country to give entry to multinational 4
companies? Mention any four reasons.

15. What do you mean by: 4


(a) B2B commerce (b) B2C commerce
(c) Intra-B commerce (d) C2C commerce
16. Explain the following: 4
(i) Indian Depository Reciepts
(ii) Inter Corporate Deposites
17. Discuss the procedure related to excise clearance of goods. 4

1
18. Name the following: 5
(i) A person who lends his name and goodwill for the benefits of a
partenership firm.
(ii) A person who contributes capital but does not take part in the
business of the firm.
(iii) A document containing terms and conditions of partnership.
(iv) A partnership set up for a specific project.
(v) A person who contribute capital, participate in the business but
whose identity is not disclosed to outsider.
19. What is business ethics? Explain the various types of business ethics. 5
OR
What do you mean by principle derived from social values which
guide and govern the conduct of businessman?
Explain the factor governing these principles and values.
20. You are the finance manager of Indian Motor Ltd. a car 5
manufacturing company.You have decided to raise long-term
finance from a financial institution. Explain any four reasons to
support your choice of sources of finance.
21. A large-sized company manufacturing shoes for Indian market has 5
to determine whether it should use wholesaler set up or its own
chain for distributing its products.What alternative would you
suggest? Give reason in support of your answer.
22. State any three merits and three limitations of co-operative society 6
form of business organisation.
23. Write a detail note on various facilities offerred by Indian Postal 6
Department.
24. What is the fundamental reason for international business. 6

________________________________________________________________________

2
D.A.V MODEL SCHOOL, KSTP, ASANSOL
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
SESSION : 2023 -2024
CLASS:XI MAXIMUM MARKS: 80
SUBJECT: ECONOMICS TIME: 3 HOURS
PART (A) STATISTICS FOR ECONOMICS

Q.No Question Marks


1. When data is classified on the basis of time, it is known as ?
1
(a) Conditional classification (b) Geographical classification
(c) Chronological classification (d) None of the above

2. Consider the following distributions:


Marks : Less than 20 20-80 More than 60 1
No. of students: 80 65 42
Which measure of dispersion will be suitable for the above distribution.
(a) Range
(b)Standard deviation
(c)Mean deviation
(d)Quartile deviation
3. A graph which is based on time period is .
(a) Frequency graph 1
(b) Bar graph
(c) Time series graph
(d) Histogram
4. Which of the following is/are demerits of primary data?
(a) Expensive or non – economical 1
(b)Time consuming
(c) Not accurate
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Or,

If an investigator records 13 instead of 31 while conducting an


investigation, this is an example of .
(a) sampling bias
(b) non-response error
(c) error in data acquisition
(d) sampling error
5. What will be the value of mode for the given series?
X : 15 25 25 30 1
F : 10 20 20 12
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) Both (a) and (b)
P.T.O
6. Find the value of arithmetic mean from the following continuous series.
Marks: 0-10 10-20 1
No. of students : 8 2

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8.5 (d) 9


7. Movement of points from left to right, in an upward direction indicates.
(a) negative correlation 1
(b) positive correlation
(c) no correlation
(d) None of the above
8. Read the following statements: Assertion (A) and Reason . Choose one of
the correct alternatives: 1
Assertion (A) : Line Frequency Graph is used to depict continuous series.
Reason (R) : While constructing line frequency graph, values of variables are
measured on the X-axis and the corresponding frequency on the Y-axis;
Alternatives :
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is True but Reason (R) is False.
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is True.
9. Read the following statement carefully and choose the correct alternative
from the following: 1
Statement1: Median is a positional average which divides the distribution
into two equal parts.
Statement 2: Positional average like median are affected by the extreme
items of the series.
(a) Both the Statement are true.
(b) Both the Statement are false.
(c) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2is false
(d) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false
10. In the following question a statement of Assertions is followed by a
statement of Reason. Choose the alternative among those given below. 1
Assertion (A): Graphic location of median is done through cumulative
frequency curve or ogive.
Reason (R) : The point of intersection of less than ogive and more than
ogive gives us the value of mode.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion(A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is True but Reason (R) is False.
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R) is True.

P.T.O
11. Show that the sum of deviations of the value of variables from their 3
arithmetic mean is equal to zero.

Or,

Mean marks obtained by 150 students are estimated to be 50. Later on it is 3


found that one value was read 75 instead of 55. Find out correct mean.
12. Do you think that there is a high correlation between wars and sufferings of
people engaged in war? Explain with example. Which value is violated in
the given situation?
13. Define classification of data. Mention any three advantages of classification 4
of data.

Or,

How many class intervals should we choose? How does one decide about 4
the size of class intervals?
14. Calculate range and its coefficient from the following data. 4
Marks: 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
No.of students: 12 32 62 105 165 205 230 238 244 245

15. Calculate weighted aggregative price index from the following data using. 4
(i) Laspeyre’s method (ii) Paasche’s method
Commodity Base Year Current Year
Price Quantity Price Quantity
A 2 10 4 5
B 5 12 6 10
C 4 20 5 15
D 2 15 3 10

16. Explain briefly , why a sample survey is usually preferred over to census 6
survey.

Or,
Prepare a frequency distribution by inclusive method taking class interval of 6
7 from the following data.
28,17,15,22,29,21,23,27,18,12,7,2,9,4,6,1,8,3,10,5,20,16,12,8,4,33,27,21,15,
9,3,36,27,18,9,2,4,6,32,31,29,18,14,13,19,15,11,9,7,1,5,37,32,28,26,20,20,19
,25,20
17. Calculate the correlation coefficient between the heights of fathers in inch 6
(X) and their sons (Y).
X 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
Y 67 68 66 69 72 72 69

P.T.O
PART (B) MICRO ECONOMICS
18. 1
In free market economy, the allocation of resources is determined by
(a) votes by consumer
(b) central planning authority
(c) consumer preference
(d) motive of profit maximisation

Or,
1
Which of these economy faces central economic problems?
(a) Market economy
(b) Mixed economy
(c) Socialist economy
(d) All of the above
19. The Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojna aims to create model villages by improving 1
on the rural infrastructure and providingbetter livelihood opportunities in
the rural areas. Because of this scheme , the Production Possibility Curve
(a) will shift rightwards
(b) will shift inwards
(c) will rotate on X-axis
20. Which cost curve is parallel to x-axis? 1
(a) AFC
(b) TVC
(c) TFC
(d) TC
21. ____________refers to the bundle of two goods which cost exactly equal to 1
the consumer’s income.
(a) Budget set
(b) Budget line
(c) Indifference curve
(d) Production possibility curve

Or,
Indifference curve is straight line when marginal rate of substitution is
(a) constant
(b) increasing
(c) decreasing
(d) None of these
22. Which of the following is / arodre the part of microeconomics? 1
(a) Aggregate supply
(b) Individual demand
(c) Producer equilibrium
(d) Consumer equilibrium

P.T.O
23. The utility derived from consumption of an additional unit of a commodity 1
relates to?
(a) average utility
(b) total utility
(c) marginal utility
(d) additional utility
24. If increase in production of a commodity causes a substantial increase in 1
cost of production then supply will be
(a) less elastic
(b) more elastic
(c) unit elastic
(d) perfectly inelastic

25. The average cost of 4 units of output is Rs.40. The total fixed cost at 5 units 1
of output is Rs.50. Which will be the total variable cost:
(a) 210
(b) 110
(c) 90
(d) 160
26. When average Product is maximum then ? 1
(a) MP>AP
(b) MP=AP
(c) MP<AP
(d) MP is also maximum
27. Which of the following is the necessary condition of producer’s equilibrium: 1
(a) MR=MC
(b) After equilibrium MR<MC
(c) MR>MC
(d) Both (a) and (b)
28. Complete the following table. 3
Output Price(Rs.) MR (Rs.) TR (Rs.)
1 10
2 4
3 15
4 (-)3
29. Draw average cost , average variable cost and average fixed costcurves on a 3
single diagram and explain their relation.

30. Explain how technology advancement brings a positive impact in the supply 3
of a given product .
Or,

Why there is an inverse relationship between price and demand. 3


31. What is the likely behaviour of total product/marginal product when only 4
one input is increased for increasing production? Use Diagram/Schedule.
P.T.O
32. What is producer’s equilibrium? Explain the conditions of producer’s 4
equilibrium through the ‘marginal cost and marginal revenue’ approach.Use
Diagram/Schedule.

Or,
Complete the following table:- 4
Output(Units) Total cost Average Marginal Average
variable Cost Cost fixed Cost
0 30 30
1 50 20
2 68 18
3 84 18 90
4 102 7.5
5 125 23 6

33. Quantity demanded of a commodity rises by 6 units, when its price falls by 6
(a) Rs.1 per unit. Its price elasticity on demand is (-) 1. If the price before the
change was Rs.20 per unit, calculate quantity demanded at this price.
33. On the basis of the following schedule, calculate Price Elasticity of demand 6
(b) by percentage method.

Price per unit (Rs.) Total expenditure (Rs.)


10 180
9 162

34. Explain the law of variable proportion.Use appropriate schedule & diagram. 6

---------------------x------------------------x----------------------------
D.A.V MODEL SCHOOL, KSTP, ASANSOL
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
SESSION : 2023 -2024
CLASS:XI MAXIMUM MARKS:70
SUBJECT: ENTREPRENEURSHIP TIME: 3 HOURS
PART (A)

Q.No Question Marks


1. These functions are aimed at making the venture a success and to increase its
profit earning capacity : 1
(a) Managerial
(b) Commercial
(c) Promotional
(d) Entrepreneurial
2. New entrepreneurs believe in several myths related to entrepreneurship :
(a) Starting a new business is very easy 1
(b) It takes a lot of money to finance a new business
(c) Banks don’t lend money to start-up
(d) All of the above
3. Physical factors are the factors which result in loss or damage to the property of
the firm. True/False? 1

4. General format of business plan include:


(a) Business venture 1
(b) Customer scenario
(c) Problem identification
(d) feasibility study
5. Who invented penicillin?
(a) Louis Pasteur 1
(b) Edward Jenner
(c) Alexander Fleming
(d) Alfred Nobel
6. The entrepreneur is the ____________ and entrepreneurship is the ____________
1

7. Entrepreneurs are gifted with the ability of identifying problems and providing
their solutions in a common way. True/False? 1

8. Name any two social entrepreneurs.


1

9. What do you understand by the term ethics? 1

P.T.O
10. Technical entrepreneurs are not concerned with the technique of production but
they concentrate on marketing. True/False? 1

11. Who is a social entrepreneur? 1

12. Name the most important core value which is found in majority of entrepreneurs. 1
13. There are two approaches to generate ideas. Name them.? 1

14. Give the full form of SIDBI AND MSME. 1

15. Name any two institution involved in Entrepreneurship Development Programme. 1

16. Pankaj wants to start his own business after completing his studies. State any two 1
barriers that he can be expected to face?

17. Entrepreneurship is the need for a country, justify with the help of any two points? 1

PART (B)

18. Give an example describing the role of technology in making the complex process 2
easier?
OR
Mention the features of problem solvers?
19. What is the importance of Entrepreneur in an organisation? 2

20. Write a note on business incubation. 2

21. Why are imitative entrepreneurs are revolutionary and also important? 2

22. Explain the concept of entrepreneurs with the help of a diagram? 2

23. How do systematic planning and persistence help entrepreneurs become effective 2
leaders?

24. How do systematic planning and persistence help entrepreneurs become effective 2
leaders?

P.T.O
25. How an enterprise gives benefit to society, country and an entrepreneur? 3

26. ‘Entrepreneurs cannot survive and grow without fulfilling the ethical responsibility 3
of society’. Explain ?

27. Explain any three elements require for a successful business plan ? 3

Or,

Discuss the following elements of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory:


(i) Self actualization needs
(ii) Ego and esteem needs
(iii) Social and belongingness and love needs

28. What are the three conditions to make a successful business idea? 3

29. Explain any three internal factors which lead to business risk ? 3

30. Explain the features of feasibility study ? 4

31. Why are entrepreneurs called agents of progress for a nation? What role do they 4
play in the Nation’s development?

32. What do you mean by the term ‘entrepreneur’? Explain the types of entrepreneurs 4
given by C. Danhoff ? (any three).

Or,

Explain any six(6) essential attitudes of an entrepreneur ?


33. Gautam, is a young underemployed youth belonging to the backward village of 6
Rampur. His friends advise him to start a business saying that there are many
government schemes launched for the development of entrepreneurs in the
country. Is the assertion of Gautam’s friend correct? State by giving reasons. And
explain any three schemes which is offered by government to enterprises.

34. Mehak wants to start a textile unit near Gurgaon. Discuss the entrepreneurial 6
functions which she will require to plan and prepare for the same ?

Or,
(i) “To everything in life, there are advantages and disadvantages;
entrepreneurship is an exception”. As a matter of fact, entrepreneurship involves
a lot of risk taking”. Explain any three disavantages of entrepreneurship.
(ii) Describe the process of entrepreneurship after ‘raising start-up capital’. P.T.O
---------------------x------------------------x----------------------------
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