FEAT: The Career Institute

IIT-JEE | NEET | Olympiads | CBSE - ICSE

PART TESTS
NEET – 2024
WEEKLY TEST-1
TEST DATE: 23-04-2023
Time Allotted: 2.5 Hours Maximum Marks: 260

General Instructions:

• Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.

• For every wrong response. 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered /
Unattempted questions will be given no marks. The maximum marks are 260.

Name of the Candidate: _________________________

Physics
Q1. One metallic sphere A is given positive charge whereas another identical metallic sphere B of exactly
same mass as of A is given equal amount of negative charge. Then,
(a) mass of A and mass of B still remain equal
(b) mass of A increases
(c) mass of B decreases
(d) mass of B increases
Q2. When1014 electrons are removed from a neutral metal sphere, then the charge on the sphere becomes
(a) 16 μC (b) −16 μC (c) 32μC (d) −32μC
Q3. Which of the following is correct regarding electric charge?
(i) If a body is having positive charge, then there is shortage of electrons.
(ii) If a body is having negative charge, then there is excess of electrons.
(iii) Minimum possible charge = ± 1.6 × 10-19C.
(iv) Charge is quantised, i.e. Q = ± ne, where n = 1, 2, 3, 4,…
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) (d) All of these
Q4. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, it
(a) gains electrons from silk (b) gives electrons to silk
(c) gains protons from silk (d) gives protons to silk
Q5. Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the sphere. The net
charge on the sphere is
(a) negative and distributed uniformly over the surface of the sphere
(b) negative and appears only at the point on the sphere closest to the point charge
(c) negative and distributed non-uniformly over the entire surface of the sphere
(d) zero
Q6. Two charges each equal to 2μC are 0.5 m apart. If both of them exist inside vacuum, then the force
between them is
(a) 1.89 N (b) 2.44 N (c) 0.144 N (d) 3.144 N
Q7. Two charges of equal magnitudes and at a distance r exert a force F on each other. If the charges are
halved and distance between them is doubled, then the new force acting on each charge is
(a) F/8 (c) F /4 (c) 4F (d) F/16
Q8. Two point charges placed at a certain distance r in air exert a force F on each other. Then, the distance
r’ at which these charges will exert the same force in a medium of dielectric constant K is given by

(a) r (b) r/K (c) 𝑟/√𝐾 (d) 𝑟√𝐾

Q9. Two particles of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not experience
𝑞
any force. The value of 𝑚 is

𝜋𝜀0 𝐺
(a) 𝑙 (b) √ (c) √4𝜋𝜀 (d) √4𝜋𝜀0 𝐺
𝐺 0

Q10. Electric charges of 1μC, −1μC and 2μC are placed in air at the corners A, B and C respectively of an
equilateral triangle ABC having length of each side 10 cm. The resultant force on the charge at C is
(a) 0.9 N (b) 1.8 N (c) 2.7 N (d) 3.6 N
Q11. Two charges +5 μC and +10 μC are placed 20 cm apart. The net electric field at the mid-point between
the two charges is
(a) 4.5 × 106 NC−1 directed towards +5μC
(b) 4.5 × 106 NC−1 directed towards +10 μC
(c) 13.5 × 106 NC−1 directed towards +5μC
(d) 13.5 × 106 NC−1 directed towards +10 μC
Q12. Two point charges +8q and −2q are located at x = 0 and x = L, respectively. The location of a point on
the X-axis at which the net electric field due to these two point charges is zero, is
(a) 8L (b) 4L (c) 2L (d) L / 4
Q13. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in between two charged plates as shown. The lines of force
look like

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

Q14. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is ɸ1 and ɸ2 , then the
electric charge inside the surface will be
(a) (ɸ1 + ɸ1 )𝜀0 (b) (ɸ2 − ɸ1 )𝜀0 (c) (ɸ1 + ɸ2 )/𝜀0 (d) (ɸ2 − ɸ1 )/𝜀0
Q15. Charge of 2 C is placed at the centre of a cube. What is the electric flux passing through one face?
1 1 2 3
(a) 3𝜀 (b) (4) 𝜀0 (c) 𝜀 (d) 𝜀
0 0 0

Q16. If the flux of the electric field through a closed surface is zero, then
(i) the electric field must be zero everywhere on the surface
(ii) the electric field may be zero everywhere on the surface
(iii) the charge inside the surface must be zero
(iv) the charge in the vicinity of the surfaces must be zero
(a) (i), (ii) (b) (ii), (iii) (c) (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (iii)
Q17. An infinite line charge produces a field of18 × 104 N/C at 0.02 m. The linear charge density is
(a) 2 × 10−7 C/m (b) 10−8 C/m (c) 107 C/m (d) 10−4 C/m

Q18. A charge of 17.7 × 10−4 C is distributed uniformly over a large sheet of area 200 m2. The electric
field intensity at a distance 20 cm from it in air will be
(a) 5 × 105 N/C (b) 6 × 105 N/C (c) 7 × 105 N/C (d) 8 × 105 N/C

Q19. Consider the charge configuration and spherical Gaussian surface as shown in the figure. When
calculating the flux of the electric field over the spherical surface, the electric field will be due to

(a) q2 (b) only the positive charges

(c) all the charges (d) + q1 and − q1
Q20. q1, q2, q3 and q4 are point charges located at points as shown in the figure and S is a spherical
Gaussian surface of radius
R. Which of the following is true according to the Gauss’s law?
Chemistry
Q1. H2S, a toxic gas with rotten egg like smell, is used for the quantitative analysis. If the solubility of H2S in water at
STP is 0.2 m, then Henry’s law constant for H2S in water at 273 K is
(a) 3.6 × 108 Pa (b) 5.0 × 108 Pa
(c) 5.0 × 105 Pa (d) 2.78 × 107 Pa
Q2. The boiling points of C6H6, CH3OH, C6H5NH2 and C6H5NO2 are 80°C, 65°C, 184°C and 212°C, respectively.
Which of
the following will have the highest vapour pressure at room temperature?
(a) C6H6 (b) CH3OH (c) C6H5NH2 (d) C6H5NO2
Q3. Each of the following pair shows a positive deviation from the Raoult’s law except
(a) (C2H5)O + HCl (b) CCl4 + CH3OH (c) CHCl3 + C2H5OH (d) C2H5OH + H2O
Q4. Heptane and octane form ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour pressures of the pure liquids are 106 kPa and 46
kPa, respectively. What will be the vapour pressure, in bar, of a mixture of 30.0 g of heptane and 34.2 g of
octane?
(a) 76 bar (b) 152 bar (c) 1.52 bar (d) 0.76 bar
Q5. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of water and ethanol,
separately. The mixture shows
(a) no deviation from Raoult’s law.
(b) positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
(c) negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(d) that the solution is unsaturated
Q6. An aqueous solution of sucrose is 0.5 molal. What is the vapour pressure of water above this solution?
The vapour pressure of pure water is 25.0 mm Hg at this temperature.
(a) 24.8 mm Hg (b) 0.45 mm Hg
(c) 2.22 mm Hg (d) 20.3 mm Hg
Q7. For an ideal solution containing two liquid components A and B, the Gibb’s free energy of mixing is minimum,
when the molar ratio of the liquids is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 10 (d) 1 : 1000
Q8. An ideal solution was obtained by mixing methanol and ethanol. If the partial vapour pressures of methanol and
ethanol are 2.8 and 4.2 kPa respectively, the mole fraction of methanol in the vapour at equilibrium is
(a) 0.67 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.33
Q9. After removing the hard shell of an egg by dissolving in dilute HCl, a semipermeable membrane can be visible.
If such an egg is kept in a saturated solution of common salt, the size of egg will
(a) shrink
 (b) grow
(c) remain unchanged.
(d) first shrink, then grow
Q10. If 0.1 molar solution of glucose is separated from 0.1 molar solution of cane sugar by a semipermeable
membrane, then which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Water will flow from glucose solution into cane sugar solution.
(b) Cane sugar will flow across the membrane into glucose solution.
(c) Glucose will flow across the membrane into cane sugar solution.
(d) There will be no net movement across the semipermeable membrane.
Q11. A solution having 54 g of glucose per litre has an osmotic pressure of 4.56 bar. If the osmotic pressure of a urea
solution is 1.52 bar at the same temperature, then what would be its concentration?
(a) 1.0 M (b) 0.5 M (c) 0.3 M (d) 0.1 M
Q12. The molal boiling point elevation constant of water is 0.513°C kg mol−1. When 0.1 mole of sugar is dissolved in
200 g of water, the solution boils under a pressure of 1 atm at
(a) 100.513°C (b) 102.565°C (c) 100.256°C (d) 101.025°C
Q13. An aqueous solution of a non-volatile and nonelectrolyte solute (molecular mass = 150) boils at 373.26 K.
The composition of solution, in terms of mass percent of the solute, is (Kb of water = 0.52)
(a) 50% (b) 7.5% (c) 6.98% (d) 75%
Q14. It is more convenient to obtain the molecular mass of an unknown solute by measuring the freezing point
depression than by measuring the boiling point elevation because
(a) freezing point depression is a colligative property, whereas boiling point elevation is not.
(b) freezing point depressions are larger than boiling point elevations for the same solution.
(c) freezing point depressions are smaller than boiling point elevations for the same solution.
(d) freezing point depressions depends more on the amount of solute than boiling point elevation.
Q15. g of urea is dissolved in one kg of water. Up to what temperature, the solution may be cooled before ice starts
crystallizing out? (Kf of water = 1.86)
(a) −0.310°C (b) −0.240°C (c) −0.195°C (d) −0.155°C
Q16. The van’t Hofactor for a dilute solution of K3[Fe(CN)6] is
(a) 4.0 (b) 0.25 (c) 5.0 (d) 3.0 78.
Q17. At the same temperature, each of the following solution has the same osmotic pressure except
(a) 0.140 M-sucrose (b) 0.07 M-KCl (c) 0.070 M-Ca(NO2)2 (d) 0.140 M-urea
Q18. Which of the following aqueous solution will have the lowest freezing point?
(a) 0.10 m-sucrose (b) 0.10 m-NiCl2 (c) 0.10 m-CuSO4 (d) 0.10 m-NH4NO3
Q19. The elevation in boiling point, when 13. 44 g of freshly prepared CuCl2 is added to one kg of water, is
(Some useful data: Kb of water = 0.52 K − kg/mol and molecular weight of CuCl2 = 134.4)
(a) 0.052 (b) 0.104 (c) 0.156 (d) 0.208
Q20. Maximum osmotic pressure will be shown by which of the following solution (all 90% ionized)?
(a) 0.1 M-AlCl3 (b) 0.1 M-BaCl2 (c) 0.1 M-NaCl (d) 0.1 M-sugar
Biology
1. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a. In banana, potato, and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem.
b. Offspring produced by asexual reproduction is called a clone
c. Water hyacinth can deplete oxygen and cause the death of fishes
d. All of the above
2. A piece of potato tuber will form a new plant if it has _____
a. Stored Food
b. Roots
c. Branches
d. Eyes
3. Clones are
a. Genetically similar
b. Morphologically similar
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
4. Name an organism where cell division is itself a mode of reproduction?
a. Euglena
b. E. coli
c. Amoeba
d. All of these
5. Vegetative propagules of Agave is
a. Runner
b. Tuber
c. Bulbil
d. Rhizome
6. Plants, animals or fungi differ in all of these aspects except
a. Pattern of sexual mode of reproduction
b. Internal structure
c. External morphology
d. Physiology
7. Which of the following flowers only once in their lifetime?
a. Neem
b. Mango
c. Bamboo
d. All of these
8. Oestrous cycle occurs in
a. Rats
b. Cows
c. Deer
d. All of the above
9. Which part of the plant bryophyllum performs vegetative reproduction?
a. Stem
b. Floral buds
c. Underground roots
d. Buds on life margin
10. Non-flagellate spores are called conidia. In which organism are they seen?
a. Penicillium
b. Hydra
c. Amoeba
d. Chlamydomonas
11. Which of the following is not a natural method of vegetative reproduction?
a. Suckers
b. Cutting
c. Runners
d. Offsets
12. Which of the following group of animals show regeneration?
a. Planaria, Hydra, Starfish
b. Starfish, Amoeba, Plasmodium
c. Amoeba, Hydra, Paramoecium
d. Amoeba, Planaria, Starfish
13. The process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma is known as
a. Distribution of pollen grains
b. Transportation of pollen grains
c. Formation of pollen grains
d. Pollination
14. In Angiosperms, which parts of the flowers wither and fall off?
a. Sepals
b. Petals
c. Stamens
d. All the three
15. In which development of zygote takes place in female is called as…….. in animals.
a. Oviparous
b. Viviparous
c. Ovoviviparous
d. None
16. Choose the correct statement from amongst the following:
a. Monoecious (hermaphrodite) organisms are seen only in animals
b. Monoecious organisms are seen only in plants
c. Monoecious organisms are seen in both plants and animals
d. Monoecious organisms are seen only in vertebrates
17. There is no natural death in single celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because:
a. They cannot reproduce sexually
b. They reproduce by binary fission
c. Parental body is distributed among the offspring
d. They are microscopic
18. There are various types of reproduction. The type of reproduction adopted by an organism depends on:
a. The habitat and morphology of the organism
b. Morphology of the organism
c. Morphology and physiology of the organism
d. The organism’s habitat, physiology and genetic makeup
19. Which of the following is a post-fertilisation event in flowering plants?
a. Transfer of pollen grains
b. Embryo development
c. Formation of flower
d. Formation of pollen grains
20. The number of chromosomes in the shoot tip cells of a maize plant is 20. The number of chromosomes
in the microspore mother cells of the same plant shall be:
a. 20
b. 10
c. 40
d. 15
21. Syngamy means
a. fusion of gametes
b. fusion of cytoplasms
c. fusion of two similar spores
d. fusion of two dissimilar spores
22. In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through:
a. Offsets b. Bulbils
c. Runners d. Rhizome
23. Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases are seen in:
I. Annual plants
II. Biennial plants
III. Perennial plants
a. Only I
b. Only III
c. Only I and ii
d. I, II, III
24. In angiosperms after fertilisation:
I. The zygote develops into the embryo
II. The ovules develop into the seed.
III. The ovary develop into the fruit.
IV. A thick protective fruit wall called pericarp develops.
a. Only I, II and IV are correct
b. only II, III and IV are correct
c. Only I, II and III are correct.
d. I, II, III and IV are correct.
25. The male gametes of rice plant have 12 chromosomes in their nucleus. The chromosome number in the
female gamete, zygote and the cells of the seedling will be, respectively,
a. 12, 24, 12
b. 24, 12, 12
c. 12, 24, 24
d. 24, 12, 24.